TEST BANK HDEV 6th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus. ISBN 9780357040843, 0357040848.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. According to Freud’s psychosexual theory, children develop strong sexual attachments to the same‐sex parent during the phallic stage. a. True b. False 2. Punishments such as spanking are considered less effective than types of discipline that provide alternative, acceptable behaviors. a. True b. False 3. Bandura’s social cognitive theory argues that children learn by observing models. a. True b. False 4. Strong arguments or reference to authority figures are commonly used as scientific evidence. a. True b. False 5. In the context of experiments, experimental outcomes reflect the chance factors and not treatment. a. True b. False 6. Stage theories consider development as a continuous process. a. True b. False 7. Fixed action patterns are learned behaviors. a. True b. False 8. John Locke believed that children should be treated as property and servants. a. True b. False 9. Extinction results from repeated performance of operant behavior without punishment. a. True b. False 10. Jean‐Jacques Rousseau believed that children were born inherently good. a. True b. False

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Chap 01__HDEV6 11. Dependent variables are manipulated by experimenters. a. True b. False 12. The nervous systems of most, and perhaps all, animals are “prewired” to respond to most situations in general ways. a. True b. False 13. During prenatal development, neurotransmitters are responsible for the physical development of female and male sex organs. a. True b. False 14. Case study involves detailing an account of the behavior of multiple subjects. a. True b. False 15. John Locke said that children begin life bearing ancestral knowledge. a. True b. False 16. The ecological systems theory of development states that only genetic factors are worth studying. a. True b. False 17. During the Middle Ages, children were nurtured until they were 7‐years‐old, which was considered the “age of reason.” a. True b. False 18. Cross‐sequential research combines the longitudinal and cross‐sectional research methods. a. True b. False 19. Piaget’s cognitive‐developmental theory suggests that children actively learn about and take charge of their environments. a. True b. False 20. The nature–nurture controversy debates whether development is continuous or a series of stages. a. True b. False

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Chap 01__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. According to Freud, which aspect of our personality is present at birth? a. The superego b. The id c. The ego d. The archetype 22. The type of research study in which the same people are observed repeatedly over time, and changes in development, such as gains in height or changes in mental abilities, are recorded is known as _______________. a. longitudinal research b. cross‐sectional research c. adaptive clinical research d. correlational research 23. The process of restoring cognitive harmony when something that does not fit existing schemes is known as ___________. a. a fixed action pattern. b. scaffolding. c. zoning in on proximal development. d. equilibration.

24. A two‐year‐old child starts screaming and crying every time their parent makes them drink a glass of milk.

The child continues to behave this way until the parent takes the glass away and tells the child they do not need to drink it. According to Freud, which part of the child’s personality is responsible for this behavior? a. The ego b. The superego c. The id d. The superid 25. Which of the following circumstances would make a researcher use other animals instead of human participants? a. When the use of human participants would be considered unethical b. When the use of human participants would require deception on the part of the researcher c. When the researcher would be forced to keep a human participant’s identity confidential d. When the use of other animals would be cheaper than human participants

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Chap 01__HDEV6 26. Issues such as the prevention of child abuse, substance use disorders, and unlawful acts by juveniles may benefit from broader strategies due to the _______. a. empirical approach b. cognitive approach c. ecological approach d. equilibration approach 27. An advantage of Erikson’s psychosocial theory is it a. reinforces the importance of unconscious forces in human development. b. emphasizes the importance of human consciousness and choice. c. explains to what extent human behavior is a product of evolutionary change. d. suggests that childhood experiences could easily be overcome as we develop in our lives.

28. In the context of human development, which of the following is true of the macrosystem? a. It involves interactions in the school and the larger community. b. It involves interactions based on the cultural settings of the individual. c. It involves interactions with environmental changes that occur over the life course. d. It involves interactions based on caregiving with parents and others.

29. Cross‐cultural studies examine children’s interactions with their __________. a. mesosystem b. exosystem c. macrosystem d. microsystem 30. Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory suggests that: a. a child’s interactions with adults organize the child’s learning experiences. b. children learn only through a complex interaction of rewards and punishments. c. children are like miniature adults and need to be rigidly instructed to obtain cognitive skills. d. a child’s development is unaffected by ethnicity and gender.

31. The most accurate statement about the use of reinforcement is it a. increases the frequency of a behavior. b. creates feelings of anger and resentment. c. is considered a negative punishment. d. is considered an ineffective method of child‐rearing.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 32. The purpose of the first standardized intelligence test was to a. measure IQ scores to determine genius‐level abilities in children. b. identify children who were at risk of falling behind in school. c. create separate classrooms for children that are gifted and children that are intellectually disordered. d. compare people of different cultural backgrounds.

33. Dr. Lau carries out a study with a hypothesis that caffeine enhances performance in sports. He lets the experimental group consume 100 mg of caffeine and does not give any caffeine to the control group. He then makes the participants sprint for two minutes. In this experiment, which of the following is the independent variable? a. The time between when the caffeine was consumed and the start of the sprint b. The consumption of caffeine c. The performance on the sprint d. The duration of the sprint 34. In the context of the nature‐nurture controversy, nature refers to the influence of _____. a. heredity b. nutrition c. culture d. environment 35. Harold often argues with his father and refuses to let him or anyone else get close to his mother.

According to Freud, Harold is most likely stuck in the stage of development known as the ________. a. anal stage b. oral stage c. phallic stage d. latency stage 36. Which of the following is true of children in the 20th century? a. Children received greater legal protection than they did prior to then. b. Children were married at a younger age than those in previous centuries. c. Children were considered to be the property of their parents. d. Children experienced less emphasis on education than during previous centuries.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 37. Differentiate between John Locke’s writing and Jean‐Jacques Rousseau’s writings. a. While Locke argued that children are inherently good, Rousseau argued that children were innately evil. b. While Locke focused on the role of the environment, Rousseau focused on the expression of natural impulses. c. While Locke believed that children should be treated as property and servants, Rousseau believed that children should be treated with respect and care. d. While Locke believed in the traditional views of developmental psychology, Rousseau believed in the modern views of developmental psychology.

38. In which form of learning do children come to engage in a behavior because of its effects? a. Classical conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Active learning d. Passive learning 39. The term referring to a number ranging from +1.00 to -1.00 that expresses the direction (positive or negative) and strength of the relationship between two variables is known as the ______________. a. covariance coefficient b. correlation coefficient c. maximum‐likelihood coefficient d. reciprocal correlation 40. In the context of theories of development, a cognitive theorist is most likely to study how a. children confront and resolve developmental crises in their lives. b. the id, ego, and superego work together to form a healthy personality. c. patterns of reinforcement and punishment promote learning. d. children perceive and mentally represent the world.

41. Peter believes that the best way to raise his son is by prompting and reprimanding him whenever he does something wrong and rewarding him whenever he does something that Peter thinks is right. Peter believes that he has to be involved in shaping the child’s behavior. Peter’s ideas agree best with the philosopher _____. a. Jean Piaget b. Jean‐Jacques Rousseau c. Konrad Lorenz d. John Locke

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Chap 01__HDEV6 42. The field of ethology a. deals with the ways in which children encode information. b. examines how children learn to act by observing models. c. observes children going through stages of psychosexual development. d. involves the study of behaviors that are specific to a species.

43. An experimental group a. consists of subjects who receive treatment in an experiment. b. is involved in the frequent manipulation of all conditions in an experiment. c. consists of those subjects who do not receive treatment in an experiment. d. is involved in only correlational research in an experiment.

44. A six‐year‐old goes to school and every day at lunch break finds a treat in the lunch bag. The child never misses school and looks forward to lunch every day. In this scenario, which of the following theories can be attributed to the child’s good attendance at school and enjoying lunch break? a. Psychodynamic theory b. Cognitive theory c. Psychosocial theory d. Learning theory 45. According to Freud, our biological drives are represented by the _______. a. superego b. id c. ego d. subconscious 46. The psychosexual theory of development is similar to the psychosocial theory of development in that both theories a. assert that human development is a continuous, lifelong process with little or no gaps. b. suggest that a child’s experiences during early stages affect the child’s emotional and social life at the time and later on. c. believe that a child or adult’s behavior is learned. d. suggest that adaptation and natural selection are connected with behavior.

47. Sakari believes that her four‐year‐old son should always be allowed to do as he pleases. Sakari believes that her son, like all children, is incapable of doing anything wrong, and allowing her son to do whatever he wants is the best way to raise him. Sakari’s ideas agree best with the philosopher _____. a. Jean Piaget b. Jean‐Jacques Rousseau c. Konrad Lorenz d. John Locke

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Chap 01__HDEV6 48. A piano player often bites their nails whenever they are nervous before a performance, prompting looks from strangers and co‐musicians. According to Freud, the piano player is most likely stuck in the stage of development known as the ________. a. anal stage b. oral stage c. phallic stage d. genital stage 49. The purpose of having random assignment in an experiment is that it a. prevents subjects from knowing of which experimental group they are a member. b. provides ethical reasons for being in an experiment. c. makes sure that the results are caused by the treatment. d. determines how the subjects will behave in the experiment.

50. A scheme can be changed by a. the process of assimilation. b. comparing old information with new schemes. c. getting more complex as children age according to their genotype. d. the process of accommodation.

51. Which of the following is true of family life during the Industrial Revolution? a. Family life was legally defined to include three generations of relatives. b. Family life grew to include extended family members, like cousins, aunts, and uncles. c. Family life was defined in terms of the nuclear unit of mother, father, and children. d. Family life shrank to include only one child raised by a single parent.

52. Sarah gives her four‐year‐old son Lee an apple each day and tells Lee that apples are fruits. However, one day, Sarah gives Lee an orange. Sarah tells Lee that oranges are also fruits. Which of the following is most likely to occur to Lee’s scheme of fruits? a. Lee creates a new scheme for oranges. b. Lee ignores the new information about oranges. c. Lee incorporates the information so that his scheme now includes apples and oranges. d. Lee eliminates the concept of apple, and now his scheme of fruits only contains oranges.

53. The idea of childhood as a special time of life a. was concurrent with a time of ease for children during the Industrial Revolution. b. became evident during the Industrial Revolution, as children became more visible. c. lasted through the Middle Ages; however, it slowed down during the Industrial Revolution. d. corresponded to the Middle Ages and the importance of children in the family during this time.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 54. An outcome of the use of punishment with children is that it a. works even when its delivery is not guaranteed. b. encourages children to respect authority. c. may cause feelings of anger and hostility. d. may provide clear alternatives to unacceptable behavior.

55. Which of the following is true of Freud’s legacy for future thinkers? a. His focus on the scientific method has led to stronger ways of studying human development. b. His emphasis on evolutionary changes has led to further research on behavioral changes in each generation. c. His focus on the importance of genetics has led to modern researchers understanding how genetics and environment intersect. d. His emphasis on the emotional needs of children has influenced how educators understand children’s misbehaviors.

56. Cross‐sequential research combines the longitudinal and cross‐sectional methods so that a. the study can last for the participants’ entire lifetime. b. it can produce the desired cohort effects. c. many of their individual drawbacks are overcome. d. it eliminates ethical problems and can be considered an effective research method.

57. In the context of human development, which of the following is true of the microsystem? a. It involves interactions between the school and the larger community. b. It involves interactions based on the cultural settings of the individual. c. It involves interactions with environmental changes that occur over the life course. d. It initially involves interactions based on caregiving mostly with parents and others.

58. Dr. Fitzsimmons is an evolutionary psychologist. He studies the ways in which adaptation and natural selection are connected with mental processes and behavior. Given Dr. Fitzsimmons background, which of the following statements is the doctor most likely expected to make? a. Patterns of behavior are transmitted genetically from one generation to another. b. Prenatal exposure to hormones has little effect on gender behaviors. c. The same level of influence of biology affects humans as it does other animals. d. Instincts have little effect on the behavior of an individual.

59. Which of the following perspectives of human development is Arnold Gesell credited with? a. Biological maturation of children b. The inherent goodness of children c. The inherently flawed nature of children d. Environment influences of children

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Chap 01__HDEV6 60. What is the name of one of the methods combined in cross‐sequential research that involves taking measures of participants of the same age group at different times? a. The cohort effect b. A time lag c. A standardized test d. The correlational coefficient 61. A similarity between Piaget’s cognitive developmental theory and Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory is that they both a. emphasize the joint contributions of nature and nurture to one’s development. b. suggest that one’s genetic endowment determines one’s ideas, preferences, and skills. c. suggest that experience determines one’s ideas, preferences, and skills. d. see the child’s functioning as adaptive.

62. The most obvious applications of information processing occur in the field of ________. a. medicine b. teaching c. engineering d. manufacturing 63. The ecological systems theory of development holds that interactions of the various settings within the microsystem occur in the ________. a. mesosystem b. endosystem c. chronosystem d. exosystem 64. The concept emphasized by the sociocultural perspective is ________________. a. reinforcement b. structural accommodation c. ethnicity d. life crisis 65. A four‐year‐old child is wetting the bed at night when sleeping. A special pad is placed under the child while they are asleep. If the pad becomes wet, a bell rings. After several repetitions, the child learns to wake up before wetting the pad and eventually stops wetting the bed altogether. In this scenario, which of the following theories has been applied to treat the child’s bed‐wetting? a. Psychodynamic theory b. Cognitive theory c. Psychosocial theory d. Learning theory

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Chap 01__HDEV6 66. The major limitation of correlational information is that it: a. can only be used with nonhuman (animal) participants. b. may not always yield correct results. c. cannot be used to determine cause‐and‐effect relationships between variables. d. gives the researcher so much control over the variables that the results can be easily manipulated.

67. A major controversy in psychology involves sorting out the influences of heredity and environment. This controversy is known as the _______. a. active‐passive controversy b. continuity‐discontinuity controversy c. nature‐nurture controversy d. physiological‐psychological controversy 68. Erikson argued that individuals frequently experience a period of inner conflict that causes them to examine their values and the roles they play in life. He referred to this period as _______. a. identity crisis b. operant conditioning c. latency stage d. genital stage 69. Earl is a nutritionist and he is writing a paper on what 13‐year‐olds eat today compared with what they used to eat as 4‐year‐olds. Earl monitors the food intake every day of a 4‐year‐old child by asking relatives and teachers for information about the child’s diet. Earl compiles data over nine years. Which method of gathering information does Earl use? a. A survey b. A naturalistic c. A case study d. An experiment 70. The final stage in Sigmund Freud’s theory of psychosexual development is the _____. a. latency stage b. anal stage c. genital stage d. oral stage 71. Children were most often viewed as innately evil during _______. a. prehistory. b. the Middle Ages. c. the Industrial Revolution. d. the 20th century.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 72. The most important reason for having ethical guidelines about how research must be conducted is that a. following such guidelines guarantees publication of one’s results. b. these guidelines protect the welfare of the research participants. c. following these guidelines guarantee researchers grants and other sources of external funding. d. these guidelines eliminate hurdles and shorten the process of research.

73. Which of the following measures is taken up by teachers who follow Piaget’s views? a. They look at a child’s ability to suppress their aggressive tendencies. b. They gear instructions to advance the child’s developmental level. c. They assist children in completing problems in workbooks. d. They suggest that children of all ages process information similarly.

74. According to Freud,a fixation in the oral stage occurs because of a. being toilet trained too strictly. b. being weaned too early or breastfed for too long. c. concentrating on school work for too long. d. playing with older children too often.

75. A young child throws tantrums as soon as they are asked to take a bath. The parent has now started giving the child candy every bath time, and the child has slowly started to look forward to taking baths instead of throwing tantrums. In this scenario, the candy acts as a _____. a. scaffold b. negative reinforcer c. scheme d. positive reinforcer 76. A college student is studying a perspective on human development that emphasizes the relationships between living organisms and their environment. The college student is most likely studying the _______. a. evolutionary perspective b. cognitive perspective c. ecological perspective d. ethological perspective 77. Which process directed at influencing the behavior patterns of young children involves the use of operant conditioning? a. Fixation b. Socialization c. Transition d. Maturation

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Chap 01__HDEV6 78. Which of the following methods of study is advocated by Urie Bronfenbrenner? a. Studying the changes that a person undergoes throughout life b. Studying two‐way interactions between a child and their parents c. Focusing on the unconscious conflicts and urges that primarily influence human development d. Focusing solely on maturational forces that influence human development 79. According to Freud, a fixation occurs during the anal stage of development because of a. strict toilet training. b. excessive breastfeeding. c. excess work load in school. d. interaction with older children.

80. Whose theory of psychosocial development places the greatest emphasis on the ego? a. Erik Erikson b. Sigmund Freud c. Abraham Maslow d. Jean Piaget 81. Jean‐Jacques Rousseau is most likely to agree with the fact that a. children are born innately good. b. children are born innately evil. c. children are influenced by their experiences. d. children are indifferent to their surroundings.

82. John Locke suggested that a child came into the world as ___________. a. innately good b. a tabula rasa c. innately evil d. a genetic product 83. Which of the following is an example of observational learning? a. A person fishing at a lake jumps when they hear loud thunder. b. A child is not given any dessert because they did not eat their vegetables at dinner. c. A grandchild watches a grandparent make cookie dough, and the grandchild mimics the grandparent’s behavior. d. A 10‐year‐old stops having temper tantrums in public when the parent begins ignoring them.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 84. The nature–nurture debate is concerned with the a. question of why genes are more influential in development than environment. b. question of why the environment is more important in development than evolution. c. relationship between heredity and environmental influences on human development. d. relationship between heredity and how genes are expressed through maturation.

85. From his research on intelligence tests, Piaget concluded that children’s incorrect answers a. followed consistent cognitive processes. b. demonstrated their logical mental processes. c. resulted from inconsistent cognitive processing. d. resulted from unstructured mental processing.

86. Robinette is four‐year‐old and goes to a play school when his mother goes to work. Robinette spends weekdays in this school, and gets to play with other children who are his age and also listens to rhymes and stories from his teacher. Which of the following systems is represented by Robinette’s play school? a. The mesosystem b. The exosystem c. The microsystem d. The macrosystem 87. According to Freud, the ego a. is biologically based and present at birth. b. is driven by the quest for pleasure. c. forces us to follow rules and acts as a moral base. d. makes plans that are socially appropriate.

88. A “releasing stimulus” evokes stereotyped patterns of behavior, also known as ________. a. learned behavioral tendencies b. fixed action patterns c. mnemonics d. survival mechanisms 89. The theorist that is most closely associated with the sociocultural perspective is ______________. a. Jean Piaget b. Urie Bronfenbrenner c. Lev Vygotsky d. Erik Erikson

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Chap 01__HDEV6 90. Jazz is 12‐years‐old and his parents divorced. His parents agreed to maintain joint custody of him. During Jazz’s weekly stays with one of his parent’s, Jazz was caught shoplifting twice over the course of six months and let go with two warnings. Now, two years later, Jazz is volunteering in the community and earning good grades in school. In the context of the ecological perspective, Jazz’s current bounce back from a period of unlawful behavior is due to the influence of his _____. a. mesosystem b. exosystem c. chronosystem d. macrosystem 91. A similarity between Freud’s and Erikson’s psychoanalytic theories is that they both are a. types of stage theories. b. exclusively nature theories. c. exclusively nurture theories. d. quantitative theories.

92. A convenience store manager has a tendency to chew gum or candy throughout the day. When they cannot find something to chew on, they occasionally chew on the inside of their cheek. According to Freud, the convenience store manager is most likely stuck in the stage of development known as the ________. a. anal stage b. oral stage c. phallic stage d. genital stage 93. Which of the following is true of the superego? a. It represents biological drives and demands instant gratification. b. It curbs biological drives, instincts, and reflexive actions and makes plans that are in keeping with social conventions. c. It brings inward the wishes and morals of a young person’s caregivers and other members of the community. d. It develops when children learn to obtain gratification consciously.

94. A similarity between John Watson’s school of behaviorism and John Locke’s concept of tabula rasa is that they both a. emphasize the joint contributions of nature and nurture to one’s development. b. suggest that one’s genetic endowment determines one’s ideas, preferences, and skills. c. suggest that experience determines one’s ideas, preferences, and skills. d. emphasize the importance of maturational processes.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 95. In the context of human development, the system that considers the influence of environmental changes that occur over time is the ________________. a. microsystem b. mesosystem c. chronosystem d. macrosystem 96. According to Erikson, which of the following is true of early experiences? a. They are more challenging than later experiences. b. They continue to affect future development. c. They exert very little influence on who we become. d. They only predict future development once we reach six to eight years of age.

97. Joel is the mother of a 10‐year‐old daughter and works on an assembly line at a large manufacturing plant.

Joel’s work requires long hours in order to have enough money to pay the household bills every month. As a result, Joel is unable to make it to her daughter’s soccer games. Which of the following systems is represented by Joel’s workplace? a. The mesosystem b. The exosystem c. The microsystem d. The macrosystem 98. The perspective that addresses the effects of human diversity on people is the ____________. a. biological perspective b. ecological perspective c. genetic perspective d. sociocultural perspective 99. Dr. Manquero forms a hypothesis that ingesting chocolate prior to an exam will improve exam performance. She gives the experimental group chocolate and does not give the control group anything.

She then gives the participants an exam. In this experiment, which of the following is the dependent variable? a. The time the chocolate is consumed b. The time the exam is taken c. The performance on the exam d. The amount of chocolate consumed 100. Piaget’s believed that children a. came into the world as a tabula rasa or a “blank tablet.” b. have an inborn predisposition toward good or evil. c. actively intend to learn about and take intellectual charge of their worlds. d. intend to develop into generous and moral individuals.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 101. Describe two solutions that use operant conditioning for improving a child’s grades in school.

102. Define the longitudinal research method. Explain the major drawbacks of the longitudinal research method.

103. Describe the naturalistic‐observation studies method for studying development.

104. Describe the three controversies in human development.

105. Discuss the benefits of cross‐sequential research.

106. Discuss the importance of studying human diversity to students.

107. Discuss the limitations of Correlational information?

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Chap 01__HDEV6 108. Discuss the importance of evolutionary psychology in studying human development.

109. Describe the case‐study method for studying development.

110. Discuss the influence of heredity and environment on human behavior.

111. Describe the three parts of personality as theorized by Freud.

112. Discuss the ethical considerations that researchers must consider while carrying out research on human development.

113. Describe the key concepts in Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory.

114. Discuss Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 115. Discuss the challenge presented to cross‐sectional research by the cohort effect.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. a 26. c

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Chap 01__HDEV6 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. a 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. c 52. c 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 55. d 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. c 70. c 71. b 72. b 73. b 74. b 75. d 76. c 77. b 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 83. c 84. c 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. a 92. b 93. c 94. c 95. c 96. b 97. b 98. d 99. c 100. c 101. Answers will vary. In this scenario, operant conditioning can be applied using either reinforcement or punishment. For example, a child who earns good grades in school may have their behavior reinforced by receiving extra privileges, such as extended television time or a trip to an amusement park. These situations most closely reflect instances of positive reinforcement, in that the child receives a desired stimulus in order to facilitate better performance in school. A child who performs poorly in school, by contrast, may experience punishment in the form of reduced television time. This would be an example of negative punishment, since in this case, a desired stimulus is removed in order to reduce the incidence of poor academic performance.

102. Answers will vary. In longitudinal research, the same people are observed repeatedly over time, and changes in development, such as gains in height or changes in mental abilities, are recorded. Longitudinal studies have drawbacks. For example, it can be difficult to enlist volunteers to participate in a study that will last a lifetime.

Many subjects fall out of touch as the years pass; others die. The researchers must be patient or arrange to enlist future generations of researchers.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Naturalistic‐observation studies are conducted in “the field,” that is, in the natural, or real‐ life, settings in which they happen. In field studies, investigators observe the natural behavior of children in settings such as homes, playgrounds, and classrooms and try not to interfere with it. Researchers may try to “blend into the woodwork” by sitting quietly in the back of a classroom or by observing the class through a one‐way mirror.

104. Answers will vary. The following are the main controversies: (1) nature versus nurture, (2) continuity versus discontinuity, and (3) active versus passive. The nature versus nurture controversy is not as much a controversy as it is a debate. The issue is to delineate how much and what aspects of development are due to genetic influences and which are due to environmental influences. The issue of continuity or discontinuity concerns the orderliness and linearity of human development. Continuity theories assume that development is steady, gradual, stage‐like, and sequential. Discontinuity theories stress individual differences in development and that development involves both gains and losses. The active versus passive controversy focuses on how big a role the child plays in their own development. Theorists, such as Freud, seemed to think that development was something that happened to children (passive), while Piaget stressed the active role children take in their own cognitive development.

105. Answers will vary. Cross‐sequential research combines the longitudinal and cross‐sectional methods so that many of their individual drawbacks are overcome. In the cross‐sequential study, the full span of the ideal longitudinal study is broken up into convenient segments. Cross‐sequential research combines three methods: cross‐sectional, longitudinal, and time lag.

106. Answers will vary. Studying diversity is also important so that students have appropriate educational experiences. To teach students and guide their learning, educators need to understand children’s family values and cultural expectations. Issues that affect people from various ethnic groups include bilingualism, ethnic differences in intelligence test scores, the prevalence of suicide among members of different backgrounds, and patterns of child‐rearing among parents of various groups.

107. Answers will vary. Correlational information can reveal relationships between variables, but it does not show cause and effect. It may seem logical to assume that exposure to violent media makes people more aggressive, but it may also be that more aggressive people choose violent media. This research bias is termed a selection factor. Similarly, studies report that children (especially boys) in divorced families tend to show more behavioral problems than children in intact families. These studies, however, do not show that divorce causes these adjustment problems.

108. Answers will vary. The field of evolutionary psychology studies the ways in which adaptation and natural selection are connected with mental processes and behavior. One of the concepts of evolutionary psychology is that not only physical traits but also patterns of behavior, including social behavior, evolve and are transmitted genetically from generation to generation. In other words, behavior patterns that help an organism to survive and reproduce are likely to be transmitted to the next generation. Such behaviors are believed to include aggression, strategies of mate selection, even altruism—that is, self‐sacrifice of the individual to help perpetuate the family group.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. The case study is a carefully drawn account of the behavior of an individual. Parents who keep diaries of their children’s activities are involved in informal case studies. Case studies themselves often use a number of different kinds of information. In addition to direct observation, case studies may include questionnaires, standardized tests, and interviews. Information gleaned from public records may be included.

Scientists who use the case‐study method try to record all relevant factors in a person’s behavior, and they are cautious in drawing conclusions about what leads to what.

110. Answers will vary. Today, though, nearly all researchers agree that nature (heredity) and nurture (environment) play important roles in nearly every area of development. Language is based in structures found in certain areas of the brain. Thus, biology (nature) plays a vital role. Children also come to speak the languages spoken by their caretakers. Parent–child similarities in accent and vocabulary provide additional evidence for the role of learning (nurture) in language development.

111. Answers will vary. Freud theorized three parts of the personality: the id, ego, and superego. The id is present at birth and is unconscious. It represents biological drives and demands instant gratification, as suggested by a baby’s wailing. The ego, or the conscious sense of self, begins to develop when children learn to obtain gratification consciously, without screaming or crying. The ego curbs the appetites of the id and makes plans that are in keeping with social conventions so that a person can find gratification but avoid social disapproval.

The superego develops throughout infancy and early childhood. It brings inward the wishes and morals of the child’s caregivers and other members of the community.

112. Answers will vary. Researchers adhere to ethical standards that are intended to promote the dignity of the individual, foster human welfare, and maintain scientific integrity. These standards also ensure that they do not use methods or treatments that harm subjects: • Researchers are not to use methods that may do physical or psychological harm.

• Participants (and parents, if participants are minors) must be informed of the purposes of the research and about the research methods.

• Participants must provide voluntary consent to participate in the study.

• Participants may withdraw from the study at any time, for any reason.

• Participants should be offered information about the results of the study.

• The identities of the participants are to remain confidential.

• Researchers should present their research plans to a committee of their colleagues and gain the committee’s approval before proceeding.

These guidelines present researchers with a number of hurdles to overcome before proceeding with and while conducting research, but because they protect the welfare of participants, the guidelines are valuable.

113. Answers will vary. The key concepts in Vygotsky’s theory include the zone of proximal development and scaffolding. The zone of proximal development (ZPD) refers to a range of tasks that a child can carry out with the help of someone who is more skilled, as in an apprenticeship. In Vygotsky’s theory, teachers and parents provide children with problem‐solving methods that serve as cognitive scaffolding while the child gains the ability to function independently.

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Chap 01__HDEV6 114. Answers will vary. Erik Erikson (1902–1994) modified Freud’s theory and extended it through the adult years.

Erikson’s theory, like Freud’s, focuses on the development of the emotional life and psychological traits, but Erikson focuses on social relationships rather than sexual or aggressive instincts. Therefore, Erikson speaks of psychosocial development rather than of psychosexual development. Furthermore, Erikson places greater emphasis on the ego, or the sense of self. Erikson (1963) extended Freud’s five stages to eight to include the concerns of adulthood. Rather than label his stages after parts of the body, Erikson labeled them after the life crisis that people might encounter during that stage.

115. Answers will vary. A major challenge to cross‐sectional research is the cohort effect. A cohort is a group of people born at about the same time. As a result, they experience cultural and other events unique to their age group. In other words, children and adults of different ages are not likely to have shared similar cultural backgrounds.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Amniocentesis is usually performed four to six weeks after conception. a. True b. False 2. A blastocyst gains mass only when it receives nourishment from outside. a. True b. False 3. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are more likely to share psychological disorders such as autism than Dizygotic (DZ) twins. a. True b. False 4. Mitosis is responsible for the production of sperm and ova. a. True b. False 5. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a sex‐linked abnormality. a. True b. False 6. Dizygotic (DZ) twins are known as fraternal twins. a. True b. False 7. The probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with the age of the parents. a. True b. False 8. Most individuals with an abnormal number of sex chromosomes are infertile. a. True b. False 9. As women reach the end of their childbearing years, ovulation becomes less regular. a. True b. False 10. A fetus begins to turn and respond to external stimulation at about the second or third week. a. True b. False 11. The actual sets of traits that people exhibit are called their phenotypes. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 12. Sperm are much larger than ova. a. True b. False 13. A pregnant woman usually feels the first fetal movements during the last two months of pregnancy. a. True b. False 14. Neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha‐fetoprotein (AFP) level in a pregnant woman’s blood. a. True b. False 15. Sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms rather than wings, hair rather than scales, and lungs rather than gills. a. True b. False 16. Genetic factors may contribute to infertility in human males. a. True b. False 17. Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh‐positive woman is carrying an Rh‐negative fetus. a. True b. False 18. Typical human cells contain 50 chromosomes organized into 25 pairs. a. True b. False 19. Infants born with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) are often larger than normal, and so are their brains. a. True b. False 20. Genotypes reflect both genetic and environmental influences. a. True b. False

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Chap 02__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Bai is female, shorter than average, and has problems with visual–spatial skills. Bai was unable to conceive a child after marriage, and was prescribed estrogen replacement therapy by a doctor. Bai would most likely be diagnosed with a. phenylketonuria (PKU). b. cystic fibrosis. c. Turner syndrome. d. Huntington’s disease (HD).

22. The pair of bases present in the rungs of the ladder‐like structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a. cytosine with guanine. b. rhodamine with biotin. c. diaminopurine with ribozyme. d. serine with tyrosine.

23. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a(n) a. sex‐linked abnormality. b. abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes. c. recessive gene. d. single segment found only on the Y chromosome.

24. A life‐threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester is known as __________. a. rubella b. syphilis c. preeclampsia d. phenylketonuria 25. In the genetic disorder known as hemophilia, blood ______. a. thickens in the arteries b. fails to clot properly c. thickens in the veins d. fails to reach the brain 26. The process that happens during mitosis is that a. strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart. b. adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine. c. mitochondria are exchanged between cells. d. 23 chromosomes are created.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 27. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for: a. insomnia and nausea. b. infertility and impotency. c. Down’s syndrome. d. Turner Syndrome.

28. Which of the following statements is true of a sperm cell? a. A sperm cell is significantly larger than an egg cell. b. A sperm cell contains two Y chromosomes. c. A sperm cell travels randomly inside a female’s reproductive tract. d. A sperm cell is one of the smallest types of cells in the body.

29. Pairs of chromosomes that look alike and possess genetic information concerning the same set of traits are termed _____. a. alleles b. autosomes c. zygotes d. nodes 30. The purpose of menstruation from the perspective of conception is to discharge a. the placenta. b. unfertilized eggs. c. the uterus. d. the amniotic sac.

31. Problems that stem from the interaction of heredity and environmental factors are described as ________. a. multifactorial problems b. cognitive problems c. horizon problems d. coronal problems 32. Musoke is a 36‐year‐old male, has limbs that sometimes move on their own, and has also started having trouble remembering things and doing simple calculations. Musoke’s father and grandfather were also known to have similar problems during their adulthood. Musoke would most likely be diagnosed with a. phenylketonuria (PKU). b. cystic fibrosis. c. Turner syndrome. d. Huntington’s disease (HD).

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Chap 02__HDEV6 33. Individuals with Down’s syndrome a. are unlikely to die from cardiovascular problems by middle age. b. are likely to have a long narrow nose. c. show deficits in cognitive development. d. are likely to have only 46 chromosomes.

34. The hollow organ within females in which the embryo and fetus develop is called the __________. a. placenta b. ovum c. uterus d. amniotic sac 35. Fertility drugs a. enhance the chances of multiple births. b. stop ova from ripening. c. reduce the chances of multiple births. d. suppress hormone secretions that prevent ovulation.

36. Rico is male, has enlarged breasts, has mild intellectually disability, has difficulty learning languages, and produces less of the male sex hormone testosterone than normal males. Rico would most likely be diagnosed with a. Klinefelter syndrome. b. Tay‐Sachs disease. c. Turner syndrome. d. Down’s syndrome.

37. Humans begin life as a single cell that divides repeatedly. This cell is known as a(n) ______. a. zygote b. cytosine c. embryo d. chromosome 38. Which of the following genetic abnormalities is considered a multifactorial problem? a. Cystic fibrosis b. Down’s syndrome c. Diabetes mellitus d. XYY syndrome

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Chap 02__HDEV6 39. Which of the following explanations describes the cause of Tay‐Sachs disease? a. A recessive gene b. An extra sex‐linked chromosome c. A cardiovascular defect d. A missing sex‐linked chromosome 40. The drug marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women that caused birth defects such as missing or stunted limbs in infants is ___________. a. progestin b. estrogen c. thalidomide d. oxytocin 41. Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called _______. a. monozygotic (MZ) twins b. nonidentical twins c. fraternal twins d. dizygotic (DZ) twins 42. Females with Turner syndrome have a(n) a. XXY chromosomal pattern. b. XYY chromosomal pattern. c. single X chromosome. d. XY chromosomal pattern.

43. Dizygotic (DZ) twins share what percent of their genes? a. 100 b. 75 c. 50 d. 25 44. Which of the following statements is true of Down’s syndrome? a. Down’s syndrome is usually caused by a defect in the sex chromosomes of an individual. b. The symptoms of Down’s syndrome are similar to those of sickle cell. c. Down’s syndrome is caused by a sexually transmitted infection (STI) during conception. d. The probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with the age of the parents.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 45. After meiosis, a sperm cell: a. contains 23 chromosomes. b. contains two X chromosomes. c. is significantly larger than an egg cell. d. contains both an X and a Y chromosome.

46. How do differences in genetics contribute to variations among individuals? a. Differences in genetics are responsible for the presence and expression of different traits. b. Differences in genetics cause variations in how bacteria influence the immune system. c. Differences in genetics change how ghrelin influences development. d. Differences in genetics raise or lower how fast electrical impulses travel throughout the body.

47. Who among the following share 50% of their genes? a. First‐cousins b. Half‐siblings c. Dizygotic (DZ) twins d. Monozygotic (MZ) twins 48. From which layer of the embryo do the lungs and digestive system develop? a. Outer b. Middle c. Inner d. Mesoderm 49. The determination of a human’s sex depends on the a. presence of teratogens at the time of conception. b. sex chromosome received from the ova. c. presence of teratogens at the time of ovulation. d. sex chromosome received from the sperm.

50. A type of estrogen, prescribed in the 1940s and 1950s to pregnant women, that is said to have caused testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer in some offspring is known as ___________. a. androsterone b. adiponectin c. progestin d. diethylstilbestrol

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Chap 02__HDEV6 51. Chromosomes contain thousands of segments called __________. a. nuclei b. nodes c. capillaries d. genes 52. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____. a. androgens b. endoderms c. blastocysts d. teratogens 53. The critical period that occurs in the third through fifth weeks of a pregnancy results in the development of a. the lungs. b. the heart. c. arms and legs. d. the stomach.

54. Each new cell contains 23 chromosomes after a process known as ______. a. autolysis b. mitosis c. meiosis d. catalysis 55. Which of the following statements describes a symptom often encountered by males that have an extra Y chromosome? a. They experience mildly delayed language development. b. Their facial hair growth is minimal when compared to normal males. c. They have gynecomastia. d. They are typically shorter than average in height.

56. Which of the following statements is true of sickle cell? a. It is typically treated with testosterone replacement therapy. b. Children with this problem cannot metabolize an amino acid called phenylalanine. c. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen supply. d. Females with this problem are shorter than average and infertile.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 57. If an individual gets a dominant gene for eye color from one parent, and a recessive gene from another, the a. gender of the child will determine if that trait is shown. b. recessive trait will develop in the child. c. recessive trait will develop 50% of the time. d. recessive trait will be suppressed, and the dominant trait will be expressed.

58. A recessive gene is the main cause of a. Huntington’s disease. b. Turner syndrome. c. Sickle cell. d. Down’s syndrome.

59. People who are transgendered are a. infertile and cannot father or bear offspring. b. lesbian in their sexual orientation. c. quiet and unspoken in public. d. often taller than average females.

60. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an a. XY chromosomal pattern. b. XXY chromosomal pattern. c. XYY chromosomal pattern. d. YY chromosomal pattern.

61. Which of the following statements is true of mutations? a. Mutations can only occur by chance. b. Mutations produce sperm and ova cells. c. Mutations can occur by chance, through radiation, and through other environmental influences. d. Mutations help adenine combine with guanine to form the single spiral structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

62. The process in which each pair of chromosomes splits so that one member of each pair moves to the new cell is termed __________. a. amniocentesis b. mitosis c. meiosis d. mutation

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Chap 02__HDEV6 63. Kajal is male, has unusually narrow shoulders, has low muscle mass, and has no facial or body hair. Kajal’s doctor recently prescribed testosterone replacement therapy. Kajal would most likely be diagnosed with a. phenylketonuria (PKU). b. cystic fibrosis. c. Klinefelter syndrome. d. Huntington’s disease (HD).

64. At the time of their birth, females have a. close to 100,000 ova. b. around 300,000 to 400,000 ova. c. around 100 to 200 ova. d. only 500 ova.

65. Excessive production of thick mucus that clogs the pancreas and lungs is a central feature of which genetic abnormality? a. Huntington’s disease b. Cystic fibrosis c. Sickle cell d. Tay‐Sach’s disease 66. The chances that a pregnant woman will bear twins rises if a. their siblings have twins. b. they are under the age of 27. c. they are a twin. d. they have a large number of siblings.

67. Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true? a. Rh incompatibility occurs most commonly during a female’s first pregnancy. b. Rh incompatibility is an untreatable condition that leaves a female infertile for the rest of their life. c. Rh incompatibility is an abnormality that is transmitted from generation to generation and carried by a sex chromosome. d. Rh incompatibility occurs due to antibodies transmitted to a fetus during subsequent deliveries causing brain damage or death.

68. Polygenic traits are those that are a. developed during adolescence. b. transmitted only by females. c. uncommon in humans. d. determined by several pairs of genes.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 69. A symptom of cystic fibrosis in children is they a. have a genetic disorder that decreases the blood’s capacity to carry oxygen. b. experience excessive production of thick mucus that clogs the pancreas and lungs. c. experience a loss of intellectual functioning and personality change. d. produce less of the male sex hormone testosterone than normal children.

70. Jamie bears the genetic code for lactose intolerance, but she has never developed the illness. Jamie would be considered a. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes lactose intolerance. b. susceptible to lactose intolerance after adolescence. c. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes lactose intolerance. d. susceptible to lactose intolerance at late adulthood.

71. The chances of a couple having twins a. increase when a female conceives before age 21. b. increase with parental age. c. decrease with the number of times couples have sex before conception. d. decrease with the use of fertility drugs.

72. What kind of structure do chromosomes have? a. Rod‐shaped b. Circular c. Cone‐shaped d. Octagonal 73. Environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus are known as _____________. a. mutations b. autosomes c. teratogens d. androgens 74. Who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia? a. A person who has Down’s syndrome b. A male who is diagnosed with an XYY chromosome c. A male who has Klinefelter syndrome d. A female who is diagnosed with Turner syndrome

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Chap 02__HDEV6 75. Which of the following statements is true about Tay‐Sachs disease? a. It is most commonly found among children in Jewish families of Eastern European background. b. Children who have this disease experience excessive production of mucus in the lungs and pancreas. c. It is most commonly found among children in Asian American families. d. Children who have this disease do not experience intellectual losses.

76. The term “double‐helix” best describes the fundamental structure of _________. a. RNA b. DNA c. chromosomes d. mitochondria 77. Individuals who have an extra chromosome on the 21st chromosomal pair usually develop signs of ____________. a. Huntington’s disease b. Klinefelter syndrome c. Down’s syndrome d. Tay‐Sachs disease 78. Regarding cells, motility is another term for _______. a. division b. reproduction c. self‐propulsion d. regeneration 79. Sickle cell is most likely to develop in a. people of European origin. b. people indigenous to North America. c. people of West African origin. d. people of Southeast Asian origin.

80. A procedure used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities is known as ____________. a. artificial insemination b. amniocentesis c. endometriosis d. alpha‐fetoprotein (AFP) assay

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Chap 02__HDEV6 81. A fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age is known as _____________. a. Tay‐Sachs disease b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy c. hemophilia d. Huntington’s disease 82. When children who are reared by adoptive parents are nonetheless more similar to their biological parents in a trait, it can be concluded that a. the genetic characteristics of the children change over time. b. heredity is solely responsible for how a child grows. c. the environment is solely responsible in the development of those characteristics. d. genetics play a role in the development of those characteristics.

83. The synthetic hormone used to prevent miscarriages that can cause masculinization of the fetus is known as ______. a. testosterone b. estrogen c. progestin d. oxytocin 84. Which of the following statements about the progression of sperm from the male’s ejaculate to the female’s ovum is true? a. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 150 million. b. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix. c. Only 1 in 10,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum. d. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.

85. Genetic and environmental influences are reflected in an individual’s _______. a. phenotype b. chromosome c. allele d. genotype 86. The typical sex chromosome pattern for females is _____. a. XX b. XYY c. XY d. XXY

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Chap 02__HDEV6 87. When both alleles for a trait are different, the person is said to be _____. a. monozygotic b. dizygotic c. heterozygous d. homozygous 88. The imaging technique which uses sound waves that are too high in frequency to be heard by the human ear to obtain information about a fetus is known as _________. a. dialysis b. ultrasound c. computer tomography d. magnetic resonance imaging 89. In the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), the base that combines with guanine is _________________. a. cytosine b. adenine c. thymine d. serine 90. Shannon is a 20‐year‐old male, is extremely tall, and has very thick facial hair. Most of Shannon’s male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than males of the same age. In this scenario, Shannon is most likely a. an XYY male. b. to be diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. c. an XXY male. d. to be diagnosed with Down’s syndrome.

91. A sexually transmitted infection that, in advanced stages, can attack major organ systems is known as _________. a. rubella b. syphilis c. cystic fibrosis d. phenylketonuria 92. Genetics is a field of biology that studies ___________. a. illnesses b. neurons c. heredity d. growth

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Chap 02__HDEV6 93. How many pairs of autosomes does a human zygote contain? a. 46 b. 44 c. 23 d. 22 94. When the effects of both alleles are shown, there is said to be ______. a. codominance b. preponderance c. ascendance d. concurrence 95. The central layer of the embryo from which the bones and muscles develop is known as the _________. a. neural tube b. mesoderm c. ectoderm d. umbilical cord 96. After mitosis, the genetic code is identical in new cells unless radiation or other environmental influences cause _________ . a. reductions b. expulsions c. conceptions d. mutations 97. The typical sex chromosome pattern for males is _____. a. XX b. XYY c. XY d. XXY 98. Females stand at least a 20% chance of bearing children with birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, heart disease, or eye problems, including blindness, if they are infected during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy with _____. a. rubella b. syphilis c. cystic fibrosis d. phenylketonuria

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Chap 02__HDEV6 99. Most people that have which hereditary abnormality die of respiratory infections in their 20s? a. Tay‐Sachs disease b. Cystic fibrosis c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome 100. Monozygotic (MZ) twins share what percent of their genes? a. 100 b. 75 c. 50 d. 25 101. Describe the symptoms and conditions of a child with Down’s syndrome.

102. How does one draw conclusions from the results of twin studies?

103. Discuss the types of teratogens.

104. Discuss the effects of Rh incompatibility on a fetus.

105. Distinguish between Klinefelter syndrome and Turner syndrome.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 106. Discuss the cause and symptoms of Huntington’s disease (HD).

107. Discuss the role played by a parent’s age in relation to prenatal development.

108. Discuss the cause of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD).

109. How does endometriosis result in infertility?

110. How does the amniotic sac protect the embryo and fetus?

111. Why is amniocentesis carried out on pregnant women?

112. Discuss the cause and effects of preeclampsia.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 113. Discuss some of the causes of infertility in men.

114. Discuss the effects of thalidomide on pregnant women.

115. Distinguish between monozygotic (MZ) twins and dizygotic (DZ) twins.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. a

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Chap 02__HDEV6 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. c 49. d 50. d 51. d 52. a 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. c 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. c 75. a 76. b 77. c 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. d 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. a 91. b 92. c 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. a 99. b 100. a 101. Answers will vary. Down’s syndrome is usually caused by an extra chromosome on the 21st pair, resulting in 47 chromosomes. The probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with the age of the parents.

People with Down’s syndrome have characteristic features that include a rounded face, a protruding tongue, a broad, flat nose, and a sloping fold of skin over the inner corners of the eyes. They show deficits in cognitive development and motor development and usually die from cardiovascular problems by middle age, although modern medicine has extended life appreciably.

102. Answers will vary. Twin studies seek to identify contributions of genetics and environment to presence of traits.

Given that monozygotic (MZ) twins share 100% of their genes and dizygotic (DZ) twins share 50% of their genes, one can conclude that cases in which MZ twins both express a trait at higher rates than DZ twins represent a stronger influence of genetics compared to environment. By contrast, cases in which DZ twins both express a trait at higher rates than MZ twins represent a stronger influence of environment, as the lower rates of similarity between MZ twins must be accounted for by something other than genetics.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Teratogens are environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus. They include drugs taken by the mother, such as marijuana and alcohol, and substances that the mother’s body produces, such as Rh‐positive antibodies. Another class of teratogens is the heavy metals, such as lead and mercury, which are toxic to the embryo. Hormones are healthful in countless ways—for example, they help maintain pregnancy— but excessive quantities are harmful to the embryo. Exposure to radiation can also harm the embryo. Finally, disease‐causing organisms—also called pathogens—such as bacteria and viruses are also teratogens.

104. Answers will vary. Rh incompatibility does not affect a first child because women will not have formed Rh antibodies. The chances of an exchange of blood are greatest during childbirth. If an exchange occurs, the mother produces Rh‐positive antibodies to the baby’s Rh‐positive blood. These antibodies can enter the fetal bloodstream during subsequent deliveries, causing, mental deficiency, or death.

105. Answers will vary. Approximately 1 male in 500 has Klinefelter syndrome, which is caused by an extra X sex chromosome (an XXY sex chromosomal pattern). XXY males produce less of the male sex hormone testosterone than normal males. As a result, male primary and secondary sex characteristics—such as the testes, deepening of the voice, musculature, and the male pattern of body hair—do not develop properly. XXY males usually have enlarged breasts (gynecomastia) and are usually mildly intellectually disabled, particularly in language skills. XXY males are typically treated with testosterone replacement therapy, which can foster growth of sex characteristics and elevate the mood, but they remain infertile.

Approximately 1 girl in 2,500 has a single X sex chromosome and, as a result, develops Turner syndrome. The external genitals of such females are normal, but their ovaries are poorly developed, and they produce little estrogen. Females with this problem are shorter than average and infertile. Researchers have connected a specific pattern of cognitive deficits with low estrogen levels: problems in visual–spatial skills, mathematics, and nonverbal memory.

106. Answers will vary. Huntington’s disease (HD) is a fatal, progressive degenerative disorder and a dominant trait, affecting approximately 1 American in 18,000. Physical symptoms include uncontrollable muscle movements.

Psychological symptoms include loss of intellectual functioning and personality change (van Dujin et al., 2014).

Because the onset of HD is delayed until middle adulthood, many individuals with the defect have borne children only to discover years later that they and possibly half their offspring will inevitably develop it.

Medicines can help deal with some symptoms.

107. Answers will vary. Older fathers are more likely to produce abnormal sperm. The mother’s age also matters.

From a biological vantage point, the 20s may be the ideal age for women to bear children. Teenage mothers have a higher incidence of infant mortality and children with low birth weight. Females who become pregnant in their early teens may place a burden on bodies that may not have adequately matured to facilitate pregnancy and childbirth. Women’s fertility declines gradually until the mid‐30s, after which it declines more rapidly. Women possess all their ova in immature form at birth. Older fathers are more likely to produce abnormal sperm, leading to fertility problems.

108. Answers will vary. Alcohol passes through the placenta, and drinking by a pregnant woman poses risks for the embryo and fetus. Heavy drinking can be lethal and is also connected with deficiencies and deformities in growth. Some children of heavy drinkers develop fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) (Connor et al., 2006; see Figure 2.12 Figure 2.12). Babies with FASD are often smaller than normal, and so are their brains. They have distinct facial features: widely spaced eyes, an underdeveloped upper jaw, and a flattened nose. Psychological characteristics appear to reflect dysfunction of the brain.

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Chap 02__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. Endometriosis is the inflammation of endometrial tissue sloughed off into the abdominal cavity rather than out of the body during menstruation; the condition is characterized by abdominal pain and sometimes infertility. Endometriosis can obstruct the fallopian tubes, where conception normally takes place.

Endometriosis has become fairly common among women who delay childbearing. Each month, tissue develops to line the uterus in case the woman conceives. This tissue—the endometrium—is then sloughed off during menstruation. But some of it backs up into the abdomen through the fallopian tubes. It then collects in the abdomen, where it can cause abdominal pain and lessen the chances of conception. Physicians may treat endometriosis with hormones that temporarily prevent menstruation or through surgery.

110. Answers will vary. The embryo and fetus develop within a protective amniotic sac in the uterus. This sac is surrounded by a clear membrane and contains amniotic fluid. The fluid serves as a kind of natural air bag or shock absorber, allowing the embryo and fetus to move around without injury. It also helps maintain an even temperature.

111. Answers will vary. Amniocentesis is usually performed on the mother at 14–16 weeks after conception, although many physicians now perform the procedure earlier (“early amniocentesis”). In this fetal‐screening method, the health professional uses a syringe (needle) to withdraw fluid from the amniotic sac. The fluid contains cells that are sloughed off by the fetus. The cells are separated from the amniotic fluid, grown in a culture, and then examined microscopically for genetic and chromosomal abnormalities.

112. Answers will vary. Preeclampsia (also called toxemia) is a life‐threatening disease characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester. Women with toxemia often have premature or undersized babies. Toxemia also causes some 15% to 20% of pregnancy‐related maternal deaths. Preeclampsia appears to be linked to malnutrition, but the causes are unclear. Women who do not receive prenatal care are much more likely to die from preeclampsia than those who do receive prenatal care.

113. Answers will vary. A low sperm count—or lack of sperm—is the most common infertility problem in men. Men’s fertility problems have a variety of causes: genetic factors, environmental poisons, diabetes, sexually transmitted infections (STIs), overheating of the testes (which happens now and then among athletes, such as long‐distance runners), pressure (as from using narrow bicycle seats), aging, certain prescription and illicit drugs, and obesity (American Fertility Association, 2014). Sometimes the sperm count is adequate, but other factors such as prostate or hormonal problems deform sperm or deprive them of their motility. Motility can also be impaired by the scar tissue from infections, such as STIs. 114. Answers will vary. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for insomnia and nausea and provides a dramatic example of critical periods of vulnerability to teratogens. A fetus’s extremities undergo rapid development during the second month of pregnancy. Thalidomide taken during this period almost invariably causes birth defects, such as missing or stunted limbs. The drug is no longer prescribed for pregnant women.

115. Answers will vary. Now and then, a zygote divides into two cells that separate so that each develops into an individual with the same genetic makeup. These individuals are identical twins, or monozygotic (MZ) twins. If the woman produces two ova in the same month and they are each fertilized by different sperm cells, they develop into fraternal twins, or dizygotic (DZ) twins. DZ twins run in families. If a woman is a twin, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins, the chances rise that she will bear twins.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. With an epidural block, the external genitals are numbed by local injection during vaginal deliveries. a. True b. False 2. Major depression with perinatal onset, a serious maternal depression following delivery, is characterized by sadness, apathy, and feelings of worthlessness. a. True b. False 3. A woman using the Lamaze method often reports less pain and asks for less medication. a. True b. False 4. Adults experience the Babinski reflex. a. True b. False 5. Preterm infants fail to respond to early stimulation. a. True b. False 6. Injecting pregnant women at risk for delivering preterm infants with corticosteroids increases the infants’ chances of survival. a. True b. False 7. Infants between 9 and 12 months old are more likely to die from SIDS than infants between 2 and 5 months old. a. True b. False 8. An infant that is low in birth weight weighs less than about 5.5 pounds or 2,500 grams. a. True b. False 9. During childbirth, general anesthesia increases the frequency of uterine contractions and increases the responsiveness of the neonate shortly after birth. a. True b. False 10. Transition occurs toward the end of the first stage of labor. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 11. Prostaglandins excite the muscles of the uterus to engage in labor contractions. a. True b. False 12. The Apgar scale is a measure used to assess the health of a mother after giving birth. a. True b. False 13. Sudden infant death syndrome refers to the death, while sleeping, of apparently healthy infants who suffocate. a. True b. False 14. The strongest predictor of whether a practitioner will choose to use episiotomy during the second stage of childbirth is the condition of the mother and baby. a. True b. False 15. The second stage of childbirth ends with the birth of an infant. a. True b. False 16. Women who experience major depression with perinatal onset can benefit from social support and counseling. a. True b. False 17. It is not necessary that parents have extended early contact with their newborn children for adequate bonding to occur. a. True b. False 18. Newborns spend the majority of their sleep time in rapid‐eye‐movement sleep during the first 15 days. a. True b. False 19. Prolonged cutoff of an infant’s oxygen supply during delivery is associated with problems such as early‐ onset schizophrenia. a. True b. False 20. Preterm infants have overdeveloped muscles, so their sucking and breathing reflexes are extremely strong. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Which of the following statements is true of bonding between parents and their newborn children? a. Serious maternal depression can delay bonding with newborns. b. An extended early contact between parents and infants is necessary for the development of parent–infant bonding. c. Parents of adopted children fail to develop a deep bond with them. d. Parent–infant bonding is a simple process which is limited to the desire to have a child.

22. Who among the following infants is most at risk of dying from sudden infant death syndrome? a. An infant who is always put to sleep on the stomach b. An infant who sleeps in the same room as the parents c. An infant with a slightly above average birth weight d. An infant who is breastfed regularly 23. In the Apgar scale, the criteria of activity level evaluates newborns’ ________. a. muscle tone b. reflex irritability c. heart beat d. color 24. Which of the following observations on parent–infant bonding was made in the controversial research led

by Klaus and Kennell? a. Extended parent–infant contact is required during the first hours postpartum in order to foster parent–infant bonding. b. Parent–infant bonding is a simple process involving just the desire to have a child. c. Serious depression can delay bonding with newborns. d. A history of rejection by parents can adversely affect the female parent’s bonding with their own children during the first few years.

25. The term that refers to the absence of oxygen is _________. a. hypoxia b. anorexia c. toxemia d. anoxia 26. In the context of soothing infants, _______________. a. sucking on a pacifier increases agitated movement in hungry neonates. b. babies need to learn the soothing function of sucking through experience. c. parents can soothe infants by speaking to them in low voices or by offering a pacifier. d. soothing requirements are the same for every infant.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 27. Which of the following statements is true of women who experience major depression with perinatal onset? a. They profit from social support and counseling. b. They have a high libido. c. They want to end their pregnancy before full term is reached. d. They experience bipolar disorder episodes.

28. A measure of a newborn’s overall level of health that assesses appearance, pulse, grimace, activity level, and respiratory effort is the _______. a. Binet–Simon scale b. Apgar scale c. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment scale d. Wechsler scale 29. Which of the following is a similarity between an epidural block and a spinal block employed during childbirth? a. Both temporarily numb the body below the waist. b. Both produce depressing effects on infants that last for a long time. c. Both are forms of general anesthetics. d. Both reduce the chances of infection during delivery.

30. Whenever someone tickles a 3‐month‐old infant’s cheeks or chin, the infant moves their head toward that person’s fingers and puts them in their mouth. This is most likely due to the _____. a. rooting reflex b. Moro reflex c. tonic‐neck reflex d. Babinski reflex 31. In the context of the relationship between parents and preterm infants, which of the following statements is true? a. The demands of preterm babies are lesser than those of full‐term babies. b. Most women who gave birth to preterm babies report feeling closer and attached to their babies. c. Fear of hurting preterm babies discourages parents from handling them. d. Parents typically treat preterm babies better than they treat full‐term babies.

32. Prolonged cutoff of a baby’s oxygen supply during delivery can cause ________. a. Turner syndrome b. rosacea c. Down syndrome d. cerebral palsy

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Chap 03__HDEV6 33. The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale is used to assess _______________. a. adaptive behavior b. bowel movement c. muscle tone d. respiratory effort 34. Which of the following statements is true of infants’ cries? a. Crying among infants is not universal. b. Adults perceive low‐pitched crying to be more urgent, distressing, and sick sounding than high‐ pitched crying. c. Their pitch and duration are uniform across infants. d. They are mainly related to the experience of pain.

35. Prolactin is a hormone that is most responsible for ________. a. regulating paternal behavior in lower mammals b. increasing fight‐or‐flight responses in humans c. regulating maternal behavior in lower mammals d. reducing stress reactions in humans 36. Which of the following is a symptom of postpartum psychosis in women? a. Delusional thoughts about their babies b. Reduced heart rate and blood pressure c. An increase in sexual arousal d. Oversleeping 37. During the first stage of childbirth, _____. a. fetal monitoring may be used b. crowning begins c. the baby moves into the birth canal d. the placenta separates from the uterine wall and is expelled through the birth canal 38. The prolonged constriction of the umbilical cord may most likely occur ________. a. during a C‐section b. during an ultrasound c. during a breech presentation d. when the placenta is passed

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Chap 03__HDEV6 39. Which of the following brain structures is responsible for regulating breathing when a person requires oxygen? a. The cerebellum b. The hypothalamus c. The thalamus d. The medulla 40. Research has discovered that sensitivity to which of the following chemicals is often compromised among infants who die of sudden infant death syndrome? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. GABA d. Cortisol 41. Zdena notices that whenever she picks up her four‐month‐old baby from the crib, the baby moves his arms and legs as if he is trying to hug Zdena. The baby moves in this manner due to the _____. a. rooting reflex b. Moro reflex c. grasping reflex d. Babinski reflex 42. The period of the weeks following delivery with no specific time limit is known as the _______. a. preterm b. postpartum period c. term d. critical period 43. The pituitary gland releases which of the following chemicals responsible for stimulating contractions powerful enough to expel a baby from the uterus during childbirth? a. Cortisol b. Oxytocin c. Vasopressin d. GABA 44. A form of local anesthetic in which anesthesia is injected into the spinal canal or spinal cord is called a(n) _______. a. epidural block b. pudendal block c. full block d. rear block

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Chap 03__HDEV6 45. Neonates’ involuntary responses conditioned to new stimuli are learned through ___________. a. classical conditioning b. social learning c. observational learning d. operant conditioning 46. The hormone secreted by the pituitary gland and is responsible for increasing paternal behavior patterns in certain mammals is _____________. a. vasopressin b. testosterone c. prolactin d. epinephrine 47. A three‐week‐old baby is resting quietly in their crib. Their eyes are open, and the baby is breathing regularly. The baby is also looking around but shows little body movement. In this scenario, the baby is in the state of _____. a. quiet sleep b. alert inactivity c. alert activity d. active sleep 48. During labor, “crowning” refers to the period when the ________. a. baby’s posterior end exits the birth canal b. baby’s head is completely free of the birth canal c. baby’s head begins to emerge from the birth canal d. umbilical cord is cut 49. A heated, protective container for premature infants is known as a ___________. a. crib b. creche c. incubator d. ventilator 50. Postpartum psychosis is most commonly associated with the development of which psychological symptom? a. Severe depression b. Command hallucinations c. Erotomanic delusions d. Panic attacks

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Chap 03__HDEV6 51. Neonates are ________. a. more likely to respond to low‐pitched sounds than high‐pitched sounds b. attracted to sour tastes more than sweet tastes c. most likely to respond to high‐pitched sounds than low‐pitched sounds d. likely more farsighted than nearsighted 52. Maya is in labor and the obstetrician decides to use a local anesthetic to help her cope with the pain. The obstetrician injects a local anesthetic and Maya’s external genitals become numb. The obstetrician has most likely used a(n) _____. a. epidural block b. pudendal block c. spinal block d. femoral nerve block 53. Which of the following scenarios describes a mother who is experiencing a major depression with perinatal onset? a. Kate, who is in the fifth month of pregnancy, and is experiencing insomnia b. Rebecca, who is feeling hopeless and insignificant after delivering twins c. Meera, who is giving birth to a premature infant d. Ashanti, who is in the third month of a pregnancy, and is fearing that the pregnancy is not going well.

54. Mason, four‐week‐old infant, is in his crib. Mason is not displaying any movement and has his eyes closed.

However, he is breathing regularly. In this scenario, Mason is in the state of _____. a. quiet sleep b. alert inactivity c. drowsiness d. active sleep 55. Which of the following solutions have a calming effect on neonates? a. Sweet b. Bitter c. Salty d. Sour 56. According to research, what is the name of the brain structure that plays the most prominent role in the development of sudden infant death syndrome? a. The medulla b. The thalamus c. The amygdala d. The hippocampus

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Chap 03__HDEV6 57. Which of the following is a similarity between the sucking reflex and the grasping reflex observed in infants? a. Both can be elicited by loud noises, bumping an infant’s crib, or jerking an infant’s blanket. b. Both are replaced by corresponding voluntary actions as an infant grows up. c. Both facilitate a nursing infant in finding the breast’s nipple in preparation for sucking. d. Both require infants to use only four fingers to respond to stimuli.

58. In which of the following reflexes does an infant arch the back, fling out the arms and legs, and draw them back to the chest in response to a sudden noise or change in position? a. The rooting reflex b. The Moro reflex c. The grasping reflex d. The Babinski reflex 59. Depression with perinatal onset is caused by ________. a. a sudden drop in estrogen levels b. a decrease in metabolism levels c. an increase in dopamine levels d. the use of anesthetics during delivery 60. Janice was infected with the AIDS virus after becoming pregnant. Janice had several complications during the pregnancy. Now Janice is giving birth and the attending obstetrician is not sure if the infant will survive the delivery. In this situation, it is ideal for the physician to ________. a. avoid the use of anesthesia. b. reduce the use of medication during labor. c. perform a cesarean section during delivery. d. use the method of hypnosis.

61. The threshold for an infant to be considered low birth weight is ________. a. 5.5 b. 6.5 c. 7.5 d. 8.5 62. Sudden infant death syndrome is more common among infants aged _____. a. 6 to 8 months b. 2 to 5 months c. 9 to 12 months d. 8 to 9 months

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Chap 03__HDEV6 63. The term “neonate” specifically refers to the period of an infant’s development from birth through the ________. a. first day of life b. first week of life c. first four weeks of life d. first year of life 64. A newborn baby is given a vitamin K injection to ________. a. prevent bacterial infections b. regulate its heart rate and pulse c. help its blood clot properly if it bleeds d. prevent any involuntary bowel movement 65. Who among the following is in the first stage of labor during childbirth? a. The mother in delivery room A whose baby is in the breech position. b. The mother in delivery room B, whose uterine contractions occur every 15 minutes. c. The mother in delivery room C, whose baby has appeared at the opening of the vagina. d. The mother in delivery room D, whose placenta is being expelled through the birth canal.

66. In the palmar reflex, a child ________. a. turns the mouth and head toward a stimulus that stokes the cheek or the corner of the baby’s mouth b. fans the toes when the soles of the feet are stroked c. grasps objects that are kept on their palms d. holds objects kept on their palms with all four fingers and the thumb 67. The number one country on the Mothers’ Index is ___________. a. the United States b. Canada c. Norway d. Cuba 68. Akira developed complications during childbirth. The doctor was forced to cut through Akira’s abdomen and uterus and physically remove the baby. Akira was asleep during the entire procedure. The doctor _____. a. used an epidural block b. performed a cesarean section to deliver the baby c. used a spinal block d. used the Lamaze method to deliver the baby

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Chap 03__HDEV6 69. According to the American Psychiatric Association, which of the following refers to the periods of tearfulness, sadness, and irritability experienced by some mothers following delivery? a. Baby blues b. Postpartum psychosis c. Generalized anxiety d. Anorexia 70. The term that refers to buttocks‐first childbirth is __________. a. premature birth b. breech presentation c. prepared childbirth d. normal delivery 71. Which of the following structures secrete prostaglandins during labor to stimulate contractions? a. The amniotic sac and fallopian tubes b. The ovaries c. The umbilical cord d. The placenta and uterus 72. During the second stage of labor, the _________________. a. uterine contractions stretch the skin surrounding the birth canal and propel the baby along. b. placenta and uterus secrete prostaglandins that stimulate uterine contractions. c. placenta separates from the uterine wall and is expelled through the birth canal. d. blood vessels in the birth canal rupture leading to the appearance of blood in vaginal secretions.

73. Which of the following is a disadvantage of performing an episiotomy? a. It reduces the responsiveness of the newborn shortly after birth. b. The incision made during an episiotomy may cause itching and discomfort as it heals. c. It leads to the transmission of viruses that cause genital herpes and AIDS. d. The incision made during an episiotomy often leads to the random tearing of vaginal muscles.

74. Vasopressin is most responsible for _______. a. regulating maternal behavior patterns in lower mammals b. inhibiting urine production when fluid levels are low c. regulating stress responses in lower mammals d. stimulating the production of milk during and after childbirth

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Chap 03__HDEV6 75. According to the American Psychiatric Association, postpartum psychosis affects ________. a. all women after delivery b. about 1 in 1,000 women c. about 2 in 5 women d. around 4 in 5 women 76. Which of the following statements is true of small‐for‐gestational‐age babies? a. They are taller than their age‐mates. b. They are more attentive when compared with their age‐mates. c. They show slight delays in learning when compared with their age‐mates. d. They tend to be heavier than their age‐mates.

77. Preterm babies are ________. a. less likely to die than full‐term babies b. round and robust in appearance c. less sociable than full‐term infants d. heavier than full‐term babies 78. One of the reasons for performing a cesarean section during childbirth is to _______. a. avoid the use of anesthesia b. reduce the use of medication during labor c. control the time of the delivery d. prevent any involuntary bowel movement 79. The term that refers to the weak and irregular breathing that is typical of preterm babies is _____________. a. respiratory distress syndrome b. down syndrome c. sclerosis d. carcinoma of the respiratory tract 80. Kangaroo care given to preterm infants ____________________________. a. stimulates infants and improves their physical and mental health b. requires infants to be provided with a steady supply of oxygen c. intensifies mothers’ feelings of incompetence and guilt d. involves placing infants in a temperature‐controlled environment

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Chap 03__HDEV6 81. Alley is in labor and says that the pain is unbearable. The obstetrician thinks that the pain might be caused by some complications in the delivery. The obstetrician informs Alley that a cesarean section will be performed to be safe. Alley is injected with something that puts her to sleep. In this scenario, which of the following was likely to be used by Alley’s obstetrician to put her to sleep? a. A rapid‐acting insulin b. A pudendal block c. A short‐acting insulin d. A general anesthesia 82. Spitting, gagging, and sticking out the tongue in infants are a response to tasting__________. a. sweet b. bitter c. salty d. sour 83. Which birthing technique is most effective in preventing mixing of the circulatory systems of a woman giving birth and the baby being born? a. The biofeedback method b. A cesarean section c. The Lamaze method d. Natural childbirth 84. The palmar reflex observed in infants __________. a. is replaced by voluntary grasping within five to six months of age b. facilitates finding the mother’s nipple in preparation for sucking to nurse c. begins three months after the birth of the infant d. can be elicited by loud noises and sudden movements 85. Among infants, a sudden, loud, insistent cry associated with flexing and kicking of the legs may indicate the presence of ___________. a. colic b. aphasia c. anoxia d. hypoxia 86. During birth, mucus is suctioned from the newborn’s mouth when the head emerges from the birth canal in order to _______. a. resuscitate the infant back to consciousness b. increase the infant’s heartbeat c. prevent any infection that might affect the infant d. clear the passageway for breathing from obstructions

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Chap 03__HDEV6 87. Which of the following is a similarity between major depression with perinatal onset and postpartum anxiety? a. Both produce delusional thoughts about an infant. b. Women experiencing major depression with perinatal onset as well as women experiencing postpartum anxiety have command hallucinations that are dangerous to them as well as to their babies. c. Both are caused by high levels of estrogen in the body after giving birth. d. Women experiencing major depression with perinatal onset as well as women experiencing postpartum anxiety may show obsessive concern for the well‐being of their babies.

88. The production of milk is stimulated in women by _________________. a. prolactin b. oxytocin c. norepinephrine d. cortisol 89. The term that refers to an unlearned, stereotypical response to a stimulus is __________. a. instinct b. arousal c. intuition d. reflex 90. Braxton‐Hicks contractions ______________. a. may be experienced as early as the sixth month of pregnancy b. decrease in frequency as the pregnancy progresses c. are always painful d. dilate the cervix to allow the baby to pass during delivery 91. Which of the following statements is true of sleep patterns in infants? a. The typical infant has about 10 cycles of waking and sleeping in a 24‐hour period. b. The longest nap in infants typically approaches eight and a half hours. c. They are uniform in infants across the world. d. They are inconsistent and change as a child ages.

92. Which of the following is true of visual accommodation? a. The ability to see as through a fixed‐focus camera is referred to as visual accommodation. b. The degree to which neonates perceive color is referred to as visual accommodation. c. Neonates show little or no visual accommodation. d. Neonates are farsighted because the lens in their eyes can adjust to focus on objects.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 93. In the context of postpartum psychological problems faced by females who gave birth, postpartum psychosis is characterized by _________. a. severe depression that keeps them from properly caring for the infant b. disordered sleeping patterns that fail to model proper sleep for an infant c. delusional thoughts about the infant that place the infant at risk of injury or death d. intense anxiety that prevents them from emotionally engaging with an infant 94. Sudden infant death syndrome affects approximately how many infants in the United States each year? a. About 250 b. About 2,500 c. About 3,500 d. About 13,000 95. Neonate’s reflexes _____________. a. provide information about a neonate’s neural functioning b. disappear within hours after birth c. are produced by a neonate’s complex thought processes and are conscious d. are replaced by corresponding involuntary actions 96. The rooting reflex is illustrated by an infant______________. a. curling their fingers around their favorite toy b. moving their feet forward, one foot at a time c. turning their head to the left when their left cheek is touched d. flinging their arms and drawing them back when they are startled 97. The beginning of childbirth is signaled by the ____________. a. emergence of a baby from the birth canal b. beginning of the Braxton‐Hicks contractions c. secretion of dopamine d. occurrence of regular uterine contractions 98. In the last month of pregnancy, the ______________. a. head of the fetus settles in the pelvis b. amniotic sac bursts c. hormone oxytocin is secreted by the pituitary gland d. placenta is discharged through the birth canal

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Chap 03__HDEV6 99. Identify a true statement about the Lamaze method of childbirth. a. In the Lamaze method, there is reduced responsiveness of the infant shortly after birth. b. It is preferred only when a normal delivery may threaten human life during childbirth. c. In the Lamaze method, women engage in breathing and relaxation exercises. d. Women who give birth according to the Lamaze method do not experience pain.

100. Biofeedback is best described as the method that provides the woman in labor with________. a. a reduction in the amount of pain experienced during the course of childbirth b. nutrients necessary to carry through with the process of childbirth c. deep psychological understanding d. continuous information as to what is happening with various bodily functions 101. Discuss the nasal preferences of neonates.

102. In the context of learning in neonates, discuss classical conditioning.

103. Briefly describe some options for treatment of preterm babies.

104. Briefly describe how vision and hearing function at birth.

105. Discuss the effects of oxygen deprivation on infants.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 106. Explain the possible psychological problems that may affect a mother following delivery.

107. Explain the role of oxytocin and vasopressin.

108. Explain some of the risks faced by low‐birth‐weight babies.

109. Discuss the sleeping patterns of infants.

110. Describe the four different methods of childbirth.

111. Discuss the sensitivity of neonates to different tastes.

112. Discuss the importance of the sense of touch in neonates.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 113. Do infants’ cries mean different things? Explain briefly.

114. Briefly describe the three stages of childbirth.

115. Discuss the uses of general anesthesia in childbirth.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. True 20. False 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. d 26. c

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Chap 03__HDEV6 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. b 51. c 52. b 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. c 79. a 80. a 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 83. b 84. a 85. a 86. d 87. d 88. a 89. d 90. a 91. d 92. c 93. c 94. c 95. a 96. c 97. d 98. a 99. c 100. d 101. Answers will vary. Neonates can discriminate distinct odors, such as those of onions and licorice. They show more rapid breathing patterns and increased bodily movement in response to powerful odors. They also turn away from unpleasant odors, such as ammonia and vinegar, as early as the first day after birth. The nasal preferences of neonates are similar to those of older children and adults.

102. Answers will vary. In classical conditioning of neonates, involuntary responses are conditioned to new stimuli.

In a typical study, neonates were taught to blink in response to a tone. Blinking (the unconditioned response) was elicited by a puff of air directed toward the infant’s eye (the unconditioned stimulus). A tone was sounded (the conditioned stimulus) as the puff of air was delivered. After repeated pairings, sounding the tone caused the neonate to blink (the conditioned response).

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Chap 03__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Preterm babies usually remain in the hospital and are placed in incubators, which maintain a temperature‐controlled environment and afford some protection from disease. The babies may be given oxygen, although excessive oxygen can cause permanent eye injury. Preterm infants may also profit from early stimulation just like full‐term babies. Being cuddled, rocked, talked to, and sung to; being exposed to recordings of their mothers’ voices; having mobiles in view; and having live and recorded music in their environment are all beneficial forms of stimulation and communication. Other forms of stimulation include massage and “kangaroo care,” in which the baby spends time each day lying skin to skin and chest to chest with a parent. By and large, stimulated preterm infants tend to gain weight more rapidly, show fewer respiratory problems, and make greater advances in motor, intellectual, and neurological development than preterm infants that are not stimulated.

104. Answers will vary. Neonates can see, but they are nearsighted. They can best see objects that are about seven to nine inches from their eyes. They show little or no visual accommodation and lack the ability to converge their eyes on an object that is close to them. The degree to which neonates perceive color remains an open question. By four months, however, infants can see most of, if not all, the colors of the visible spectrum.

Fetuses respond to sound months before they are born. Normal neonates hear well unless their middle ears are clogged with amniotic fluid. They have the capacity to respond to sounds of different amplitude and pitch.

105. Answers will vary. Anoxia derives from roots meaning “without oxygen.” Hypoxia derives from roots meaning “under” and “oxygen,” the point again being that the baby does not receive enough oxygen in utero to develop properly. Prenatal oxygen deprivation can impair the development of the fetus’s central nervous system, leading to cognitive problems, especially in memory and spatial relations; motor problems; and psychological disorders. Prolonged cutoff of the baby’s oxygen supply during delivery can also cause psychological and physical health problems, such as early‐onset schizophrenia and cerebral palsy.

106. Answers will vary. About one woman in seven or eight experiences depression or anxiety postpartum. Major depression with perinatal onset (previously termed postpartum depression or PPD) is a serious mood disorder that begins about a month after delivery and may linger for weeks or months. Major depression with perinatal onset is characterized by serious sadness, feelings of hopelessness, helplessness, and worthlessness, difficulty concentrating, mood swings, and major changes in appetite (usually loss of appetite) and sleep patterns (frequently insomnia). Some women show obsessive concern with the well‐being of their babies, which is also a sign of postpartum anxiety.

107. Answers will vary. Oxytocin and vasopressin are secreted by the pituitary gland, which secretes many hormones that are involved in reproduction and the nurturing of young. For example, prolactin regulates maternal behavior in lower mammals and stimulates the production of milk in women. Oxytocin stimulates labor but is also involved in social recognition and bonding. Vasopressin enables the body to conserve water by inhibiting urine production when fluid levels are low; however, it is also connected with paternal behavior patterns in some mammals. For example, male prairie voles form pair‐bonds with female prairie voles after mating with them.

108. Answers will vary. A baby is considered to have a low birth weight when it weighs less than 5.5 pounds (about 2,500 grams). Neonates weighing between 3.25 and 5.5 pounds are seven times more likely to die than infants of normal birth weight, whereas those weighing less than 3.3 pounds are nearly 100 times as likely to die. By and large, the lower a child’s birth weight, the more poorly they fare on measures of neurological development and cognitive functioning throughout the school years. There are also risks for motor development.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. As adults, we spend about one‐third of our time sleeping. Neonates greatly outdo us, spending two‐thirds of their time, or about 16 hours per day, in sleep. And, in one of life’s basic challenges to parents, neonates do not sleep their 16 hours consecutively. The typical infant has about six cycles of waking and sleeping in a 24‐hour period. The longest nap typically approaches four and a half hours, and the neonate is usually awake for a little more than one hour during each cycle. After a month or so, the infant has fewer but longer sleep periods and will usually take longer naps during the night. By the ages of about six months to one year, many infants begin to sleep through the night. Some infants start sleeping through the night earlier. A number of infants begin to sleep through the night for a week or so and then revert to their wakeful ways again for a while.

110. Answers will vary. The different methods of childbirth are: a. Childbirth using anesthesia: Two types of anesthetics are used to lessen the pain associated with childbirth.

General anesthesia achieves its anesthetic effect by putting the woman to sleep by means of an injected barbiturate. Regional or local anesthetics deaden pain without putting the mother to sleep. b. Hypnosis and Biofeedback: Hypnosis has been used with some success as an alternative to anesthesia during childbirth. Biofeedback is a method that provides the woman in labor with continuous information as to what is happening with various bodily functions. Muscle tension and blood pressure are among the functions that can be targeted. c. Prepared childbirth: In the Lamaze method, or prepared childbirth, women engage in breathing and relaxation exercises that lessen fear and pain and distract them from discomfort. The mother‐to‐be attends Lamaze classes with a “coach”—most often, her partner—who will aid her in the delivery room by doing things such as massaging her, timing the contractions, offering social support, and coaching her in patterns of breathing and relaxation. d. Cesarean sections: In a cesarean section (C‐section), the physician delivers the baby by surgery. The physician cuts through the mother’s abdomen and uterus and physically removes the baby. Physicians prefer C‐sections to vaginal delivery when they believe that normal delivery may threaten the mother or child or may be more difficult than desired.

111. Answers will vary. Neonates are sensitive to different tastes, and their preferences, as suggested by their facial expressions in response to various fluids, are like those of adults. Neonates swallow without showing any facial expression suggestive of a positive or negative response when distilled water is placed on their tongues.

Sweet solutions are met with smiles, licking, and eager sucking. Sour fluids elicit pursing of the lips, nose wrinkling, and eye blinking. Bitter solutions stimulate spitting, gagging, and sticking out the tongue.

112. Answers will vary. The sense of touch is an extremely important avenue of learning and communication for babies. Not only do the skin senses provide information about the external world, but the sensations of skin against skin also appear to provide feelings of comfort and security that may be major factors in the formation of bonds of attachment between infants and their caregivers.

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Chap 03__HDEV6 113. Answers will vary. Infants’ cries mean many things. They may signal hunger, pain, anger, and the like. The pitch of an infant’s cries appears to provide information. Adults perceive high‐pitched crying to be more urgent, distressing, and sick sounding than low‐pitched crying. A sudden, loud, insistent cry associated with flexing and kicking of the legs may indicate colic, that is, pain resulting from gas or other sources of distress in the digestive tract. Certain high‐pitched cries, when prolonged, may signify health problems. The cries of chronically distressed infants differ from those of nondistressed infants in both rhythm and pitch. Patterns of crying may be indicative of chromosomal abnormalities, infections, fetal malnutrition, and exposure to narcotics.

114. Answers will vary. The first stage of childbirth is the longest stage. During this stage, uterine contractions efface and dilate the cervix, which needs to widen to about four inches (ten centimeters) to allow the baby to pass.

The first contractions are usually not all that painful and are spaced 10 to 20 minutes apart. As the process continues, the contractions become powerful, frequent, and regular. When the cervix is nearly fully dilated, the head of the fetus begins to move into the vagina, in a process called transition.

The second stage of childbirth begins when the baby appears at the opening of the vagina. The baby’s head is said to have crowned when it begins to emerge from the birth canal. Once crowning has occurred, the baby normally emerges completely within minutes.

The third stage of labor, also called the placental stage, lasts from minutes to an hour or more. During this stage, the placenta separates from the uterine wall and is expelled through the birth canal.

115. Answers will vary. Two types of anesthetics are used to lessen the pain associated with childbirth. General anesthesia achieves its anesthetic effect by putting the woman to sleep by means of an injected barbiturate.

Tranquilizers and narcotics can be used to reduce anxiety and the perception of pain without causing sleep.

General anesthesia reduces the responsiveness of the baby shortly after birth, but there is mixed evidence as to whether there are long‐term negative effects.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Neonates have highly developed peripheral vision. a. True b. False 2. Axons receive impulses from other neurons. a. True b. False 3. The head develops more rapidly than the rest of the body during the embryonic stage. a. True b. False 4. As they age, children become more passive in response to their environments. a. True b. False 5. Infants usually double their birth weight in about five months and triple it by the first birthday. a. True b. False 6. In general, a 30-month-old child has fewer connections among neurons than a 30‐year‐old adult does. a. True b. False 7. Myelin allows electrical messages to be conducted efficiently in the nervous system. a. True b. False 8. The most dramatic gains in height and weight occur during the first few months of life. a. True b. False 9. Generally speaking, breast milk is considered to be superior to infant formulas by most health professionals. a. True b. False 10. The cerebral cortex is only one‐eighth of an inch thick. a. True b. False

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Chap 04__HDEV6 11. When neonates are given the opportunity to look at human faces, they tend to pay most attention to the eyes. a. True b. False 12. Infants with failure to thrive (FTT) are more likely to be described as voracious eaters. a. True b. False 13. Infants and young children from families whose incomes are below the federal poverty threshold are more likely than other children to display signs of poor nutrition, such as anemia.. a. True b. False 14. Cephalocaudal development proceeds from the head to the feet. a. True b. False 15. Unlike physical development, motor development does not follow cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns. a. True b. False 16. It is important to completely restrict infants’ intake of fat and cholesterol. a. True b. False 17. A child’s growth can return to its genetically predetermined course after exposure to environmental influences. This phenomenon is referred to as canalization. a. True b. False 18. The cerebrum is the part of the brain involved in coordination and balance. a. True b. False 19. The medulla refers to an area in the front part of the brain and is responsible for higher‐level thinking and memory. a. True b. False 20. The first major growth spurt of the brain occurs during the fourth and fifth months after birth. a. True b. False

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Chap 04__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. The introduction of whole cow’s milk to an infant_________. a. should be delayed until the infant is 9 to 12 months old b. should be delayed until the infant is 2 to 3 years old c. is recommended from the time of birth of the infant d. is recommended by about 4 to 6 months of age 22. An example of shape constancy is a. recognizing that a door is a rectangle whether closed or ajar. b. perceiving a ruler to be 12 inches long whether it is two feet or six feet away. c. being able to see someone by means of peripheral vision. d. scanning a human face from the edges inward.

23. Elsa is a one‐year‐old infant. Her mother notices that while playing in the garden, Elsa often picks flowers by making a tight fist and pulling on the stem. A few months before, she had only been able to pat the flowers and not pick them as the stems were so thin. This is an example of _____. a. a pincer grasp b. canalization c. an ulnar grasp d. habituation 24. Which of the following is true of an infant’s brain? a. At birth, an infant’s brain is fully developed. b. An infant’s brain reaches nearly 70% of its adult weight by the age of one year. c. An infant’s brain is not myelinated at birth. d. Infants have lesser connections among neurons than adults do.

25. Which of the following statements most accurately describes cephalocaudal development? a. Infants can sit up before they can crawl and walk. b. The cerebellum develops more rapidly than the brainstem. c. Extremities such as fingers develop before limbs such as arms and legs. d. Infants gain control over their torso before gaining control over their hips and arms.

26. Which of the following is true of myelination? a. It is complete at birth. b. Myelination of the brain’s prefrontal matter is completed during neonatal development. c. The breakdown of myelin generally occurs in the first decade of life. d. It is part of the maturation process that leads to the abilities to crawl and walk during the first year after birth.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 27. Messages are released from axon terminals in the form of chemicals called _____. a. enzymes b. neurotransmitters c. amines d. hormones 28. An individual develops intellectual disability because of a disorder called phenylketonuria. Which of the following occurrences is a cause of the intellectual disability in the individual? a. The replacement of myelin by hard, fibrous tissue in the individual’s neurons b. The inhibition of normal myelin formation in the individual’s brain c. Insulation of the neurons by myelin d. Myelination of the prefrontal matter of the individual’s brain 29. Which of the following is true of infants’ ability to differentiate sounds? a. Infants are born with the ability to ignore small, meaningless variations in the sounds of their native language. b. Infants can discriminate the sounds of their parent’s voices by 3½ months of age. c. By the age of one week, infants perceive differences between speech sounds that are highly similar. d. By the age of one month, infants reliably discriminate three‐syllable words.

30. People often get accustomed to a loud or irritating noise after being exposed to it for a considerable amount of time. This best exemplifies _____. a. habituation b. canalization c. assimilation d. generalization 31. Native American Hopi children are traditionally strapped to a cradle board for the first year of life; however, the _________. a. practice is being ended because it limits the children’s potential gains in height b. Hopi are ending this tradition because the practice slows the pace at which walking begins for the children c. children begin to walk rapidly when they are unstrapped d. children learn to talk much earlier and develop sharp vision as a result of the experience 32. Which of the following is true of neurons? a. A neonate has lesser neurons than an adult. b. A neonate’s spinal cord contains more neurons than the brain. c. As a child matures, axons in neurons shorten. d. Infants are born with about 100 billion neurons, most of which are in the brain.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 33. Most infants can remain in a standing position by holding on to something by the age of _________. a. one or two months b. eight or nine months c. two or three months d. three or four months 34. Axons are responsible for _________. a. protecting neurons from harmful substances b. transmitting impulses to other neurons c. providing a source of energy to neurons d. receiving impulses from other neurons 35. As a group, taller‐than‐average infants tend to experience ________. a. an increase in their rate of growth during their second year b. a reduction in their rate of growth during their second year c. a plateauing of their rate of growth during their second year d. inconsistencies in their rate of growth during their second year 36. Rachit, a two‐year‐old boy, suffered from jaundice for three months. During this period, he lost five pounds and his physical growth was not normal. After he recovered from his illness, he gained eight pounds and grew by two inches. Rachit’s growth after his recovery from jaundice can be described as _____. a. canalization b. myelination c. differentiation d. habituation 37. In the context of feeding infants, infant formula is widely considered _______. a. superior to cow’s milk b. inferior to iron‐fortified cereal c. inferior to solid foods d. superior to breast milk 38. One downside to breastfeeding is the a. increased risk of early breast cancer and ovarian cancer in mothers. b. increased risk of transmission of HIV to infants by infected mothers. c. increased risk of childhood lymphoma in infants. d. likelihood of infants developing serious cases of diarrhea.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 39. Jason had placed a Bluetooth speaker next to his seven‐month‐old son’s crib and he played a lullaby off his smartphone as soon as he heard his son cry. The lullaby had a calming effect on the infant and put him back to sleep. As time passed, the lullaby failed to put the baby to sleep. The scenario is an example of _____. a. habituation b. canalization c. assimilation d. generalization 40. Samantha, a three‐year‐old girl, showed stunted growth. She weighed only 22 pounds and was much shorter than most of her peers six months ago. She was treated for failure to thrive. She is now returning to her normal growth rate, and her weight is showing an increase. Which of the following phenomena does this scenario represent? a. Canalization b. Myelination c. Differentiation d. Habituation 41. In the context of the ability of neonates to lift and hold their torsos and heads, which of the following is true? a. They generally manage to hold their heads quite well; hence, supporting the head is not necessary. b. They cannot move their heads on their own. c. They can move their heads slightly to the side. d. They can lift their heads and torsos for short periods of time when on their stomachs.

42. Compared to infants’ brains, adults’ brains ______. a. have fewer connections among neurons b. comprise a significantly larger percentage of the body size c. completely comprise nonmyelinated neurons d. have around 10 billion neurons 43. Regarding neuronal functioning, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with a a. shortening of axons. b. breakdown of myelin. c. lengthening of axons. d. reduction in the number of dendrites.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 44. Shyla is a five‐month‐old girl. She has not gained any weight in the last month. She feeds and sleeps irregularly. She also cries frequently and becomes irritable whenever her mother picks her up. Shyla is most likely to be diagnosed with _____. a. multiple sclerosis b. Alzheimer’s disease c. failure to thrive syndrome d. Down syndrome 45. Max is a seven‐month‐old baby who was abandoned at an orphanage. He does not get enough nutrition and has not put on any weight in the last few months. A medical worker examines Max and suspects that his condition is the result of inadequate care. Max is most likely to be diagnosed with _____. a. multiple sclerosis b. Alzheimer’s disease c. failure to thrive syndrome d. Down syndrome 46. In the context of the development of hearing, which of the following is true? a. Neonates can crudely orient their heads in the direction of a sound. b. By nine months of age, the accuracy of the sound‐localizing ability of infants approaches that of adults. c. Till the age of three months, babies are unable to distinguish between speech sounds that are highly similar. d. Infants can discriminate the sounds of their parent’s voices by one month of age.

47. An adult’s arms are nearly_______. a. three times the length of the head b. five times the length of the head c. four times the length of the head d. six times the length of the head 48. The most dramatic gains in visual acuity are made_______. a. between the teenage years and adulthood b. during puberty c. between birth and six months of age d. in the fetal stage 49. The medulla_______. a. is part of an area called the brain stem b. lies above the cerebellum c. is primarily responsible for controlling emotional arousal in humans d. is primarily responsible for managing higher‐level thinking in humans

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Chap 04__HDEV6 50. Which of the following is true of growth in infancy? a. Infants grow in spurts. b. Infants grow constantly during the first year of life. c. Growth during prenatal development is less dramatic than growth during infancy. d. The growth rates of taller‐than‐average infants, as a group, always tend to speed up after the second year of life.

51. Which of the following is true of growth patterns in infants? a. An infant’s length increases by one‐fifth of an inch to a full inch in less than 24 hours. b. An infant grows constantly during the first year of life. c. Growth during prenatal development is less dramatic than growth during infancy. d. An infant’s length increases by one centimeter to one‐and‐a‐half centimeters in the first month of birth.

52. If a neonate’s finger is pricked or burned, they may withdraw the finger and also thrash about, cry, and show general signs of distress. If a toddler’s finger is pricked or burned, they show distress and withdraw the finger, but are less likely to thrash about wildly. This scenario best exemplifies _____. a. the Babinski reflex b. an instance of regression c. the Moro reflex d. an instance of differentiation 53. Regarding the growth patterns in boys, boys reach about a. half their adult height by two years of age. b. one‐third their adult height by five years of age. c. one‐fourth their adult height by four years of age. d. one‐fifth their adult height by three years of age.

54. An infant is holding a toy clumsily, using only the fingers and the palm. This is an example of _____. a. a pincer grasp b. canalization c. an ulnar grasp d. habituation 55. As children mature, their behaviors become less loose and global, and more specific and distinct, a tendency called _________. a. integration b. differentiation c. habituation d. canalization

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Chap 04__HDEV6 56. Which of the following is true of the growth spurts of the brain? a. The first major growth spurt of the brain occurs during the fourth and fifth months of prenatal development. b. The first major growth spurt of the brain occurs between the 25th week of prenatal development and the end of the second year after birth. c. The first growth spurt of the brain is due primarily to the proliferation of dendrites and axon terminals. d. The second growth spurt of the brain is due to the formation of neurons.

57. Until at least the latter part of the first year, infants should not be given ______________. a. infant formula b. finger foods c. breast milk d. solid foods 58. A four‐year‐old child has trouble walking and running, sleeps through most of the day, and recently was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. The child’s condition is the result of _____. a. the abnormal lengths of the axons b. a disruption in the myelin sheaths c. the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 d. a disruption in rapid eye movement sleep 59. In the context of infant nutrition, infants _____. a. need significantly less iron, pound for pound, than adults do b. do not need iron content in their diet c. need significantly more iron, pound for pound, than adults do d. need iron depending on their gender, similar to adults 60. Raymond, a one‐year‐old infant, loves breakfast cereal. He picks pieces of the breakfast cereal up between his thumb and forefinger and puts them in his mouth. This is an example of _____. a. a pincer grasp b. canalization c. an ulnar grasp d. habituation 61. Biological factors are most closely involved in _______. a. nonorganic failure to thrive b. organic failure to thrive c. inorganic failure to thrive d. hyperorganic failure to thrive

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Chap 04__HDEV6 62. Infants can hold objects in each hand and inspect them in turn by the age of _____. a. 2 months b. 11 months c. 4 days d. 3 weeks 63. The basic units of the nervous system are cells called _____. a. ova b. neurons c. lymphocytes d. neutrophils 64. Compared to adults, the arms of neonates tend to be ___________. a. of similar proportions to the legs b. longer in proportion to the legs c. shorter in proportion to the legs d. of irregular proportion to the legs 65. A similarity between sensory changes and motor changes in infants is that both a. are fully developed at the time of birth. b. are passive modes of development. c. are linked to the maturation of the nervous system. d. can be achieved without sensory stimulation.

66. An action that requires visual–motor coordination is _____________________. a. voluntary reaching and grasping b. abstract reasoning c. habituation d. perceptual constancy 67. Which of the following principles relates to the fact that growth in infants proceeds from the trunk outward, from the body’s central axis toward the periphery? a. Anteriorbital b. Instantiation c. Autocephalozation d. Proximodistal

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Chap 04__HDEV6 68. The tendency of growth rates to return to normal after undergoing environmentally induced change is known as ______. a. cephelation b. instantiation c. resumption d. canalization 69. Regarding locomotive development in infants: a. most infants begin to crawl at about six months. b. crawling appears a month or so after creeping. c. by about seven months, infants usually begin to sit up by themselves. d. most infants can remain in a standing position by holding on to something at the age of five months.

70. Prenatal babies________. a. grow faster than neonates b. grow slower than neonates c. grow slowly at first d. rarely experience growth spurts 71. The cerebellum a. is located behind the medulla. b. becomes increasingly wrinkled as a child develops. c. controls basic functions, such as heartbeat and respiration. d. is only one‐eighth of a centimeter in length.

72. Feeding problems are a central feature of ________. a. extra sex‐linked chromosomes b. excessive sleep during infancy c. failure to thrive d. a lack of communication between infants and parents 73. Most infants can walk by themselves by the age of _________. a. 5 to 7 months b. 8 to 9 months c. 12 to 15 months d. 4 to 6 months

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Chap 04__HDEV6 74. People are born with about 100 billion neurons, most of which are in the _________. a. spinal cord b. torso c. heart d. brain 75. In the context of neurons, which of the following is a function of the myelin sheath? a. It facilitates the entry of electrically charged atoms in the fluids that encase the nervous system into the neurons. b. It prevents electrical messages from traveling down an axon. c. It facilitates the creation of neurotransmitters. d. It minimizes leakage of the electric current being carried along an axon.

76. In the context of introducing solid foods to an infant, which of the following is recommended? a. Solid foods should not be introduced until about 12 to 15 months of age. b. Solid foods should be introduced only when an infant is 2 to 3 years of age. c. Solid foods should be given to an infant from birth. d. Solid foods should not be introduced until about 4 to 6 months of age.

77. Regarding the growth patterns in girls, girls reach about a. half their adult height by the age of 10 months. b. half their adult height by the age of 18 months. c. one‐fourth their adult height by three years of age. d. one‐fifth their adult height by three years of age.

78. Which of the following statements is true of dendrites? a. They extend trunk‐like from the cell body in a neuron. b. They are short fibers that extend from the cell body in a neuron. c. They account for much of the difference in length in neurons. d. They become shorter as a child develops.

79. Dennise is four months old. She holds her toys between her fingers and palm when she plays with them.

She does not use her thumb even after her mother shows her how. This is an example of _____. a. an ulnar grasp b. canalization c. a pincer grasp d. habituation

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Chap 04__HDEV6 80. According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture, why is it important to introduce new foods to infants one at a time? a. Infant digestive systems cannot handle combinations of different foods. b. Introducing foods one at a time helps to isolate possible food allergies. c. Infants may develop an aversion to foods that are combined with other foods. d. Infants may develop an unhealthy appetite for combined foods.

81. Infants should be allowed to eat plenty of ____________________. a. high‐sugar foods b. high‐fiber foods c. high‐iron foods d. fat and cholesterol 82. Samson is a seven‐year‐old boy. Though he works hard, his grades always fall below average in school. His language teacher notes that he often speaks in an incoherent manner. If Samson’s condition is caused by brain damage, which part of the brain is his physician most likely to check first? a. The cerebellum b. The medulla c. The cerebrum d. The auditory cortex 83. In a classic study on depth perception, Gibson and Walk placed infants of various ages on a fabric‐covered runway that ran across the center of a clever device called a visual cliff. In the study, _____. a. girls refused to cross the visual cliff but boys crossed it b. boys crossed the visual cliff faster than girls c. infants crossed the cliff when their mothers encouraged them to do so d. eight out of ten crawling infants refused to cross the seemingly unsupported surface of the visual cliff 84. The factor most closely associated with the development of more distinct, specific behaviors among children is ___________. a. cephalocaudal development b. proximodistal development c. mobility d. maturity 85. A disorder in which hard fibrous tissue replaces myelin, impeding neural transmission is called _______. a. Parkinson’s disease b. multiple sclerosis c. Alzheimer’s disease d. phenylketonuria

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Chap 04__HDEV6 86. Which of the following statements supports the role of nature in perceptual development? a. Neonates are born with a variety of sensory preferences. b. Neonates are born with visual–motor coordination skills. c. Four‐month‐olds cannot distinguish between their mother’s and father’s voices. d. Sensory changes, unlike motor changes, appear to be linked to maturation of the nervous system.

87. Stereotyped reflexes among neonates are primarily due to ________. a. demyelination of motor pathways b. increased connections to the medulla c. increased cerebellum growth d. myelination of motor pathways 88. Hormones are used by the brain to ________. a. regulate breathing and heartbeat b. communicate information about pleasure and pain c. regulate growth and development of the body d. assist the lungs in providing the body with oxygen 89. Julian, a three‐year‐old, fell from his bed and ever since has had poor limb, and eye control. He also finds it difficult to hold his toys. Which part of Julian’s brain is most likely to be damaged? a. The medulla b. The cerebellum c. The cerebrum d. The hypothalamus 90. The high fat content of a myelin sheath insulates a neuron from which components of the fluids that encase the nervous system? a. Electrically charged atoms b. Dangerous free radicals c. Toxic cellular wastes d. Excessive salt molecules 91. Regarding the growth patterns of infants, it seems to be the case that infants a. remain the same size for the first year of life. b. remain the same size for 2 to 63 days. c. grow more slowly than neonates. d. often do not grow much until the middle of their second year.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 92. Bonita is eight months old. The motor activity she is most likely to be involved in is ___________. a. walking b. crawling c. standing up without support d. running 93. How long is the maximum length that an axon can achieve? a. Less than an inch b. A few inches to a foot c. No more than two feet d. Up to several feet 94. Infants can transfer objects back and forth between hands by the age of _____. a. one to two months b. four to six months c. three to four days d. two to three weeks 95. Physical development is similar to motor development in that the latter _______. a. follows cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns and differentiation b. begins after the neonatal stage c. occurs independent of other factors such as environment or nutrition d. follows the same patterns as sensory and perceptual development 96. Marla was injured in a fall and now Marla’s brain cannot control her heartbeat and respiration. Which part of her brain is most likely damaged? a. The medulla b. The cerebellum c. The cerebrum d. The hypothalamus 97. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, infants should be fed breast milk _________. a. only for the first two weeks b. only for the first six months c. for at least four years d. for at least one year

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Chap 04__HDEV6 98. In an experiment conducted by Robert Fantz, which stimulus did infants fixate significantly longer on compared to certain other stimuli that were presented? a. A bull’s eye b. A passage from a book c. Human faces d. Rotating blue and red circles 99. Breastfeeding is considered impractical for many women in the United States because of _______. a. the demands of their jobs b. the pain caused by an infant’s suckling c. inconsistencies in the amount of breast milk produced d. the widespread availability of superior alternatives to breast milk 100. Toddlers begin to run with their legs in a bowlegged fashion and fall frequently because a. they lack the Babinski reflex. b. this action requires visual–motor coordination, which is absent in toddlers. c. they are top‐heavy and inexperienced. d. the principle of cephalocaudal development prevents them from running.

101. Discuss the changes that take place when an infant becomes a toddler.

102. Discuss the development of hearing in neonates.

103. Discuss failure to thrive syndrome in infants.

104. Briefly explain the sequence of motor development in infancy.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 105. Describe the function of axons.

106. Describe the benefits and problems associated with breastfeeding.

107. Discuss the visual preferences of neonates.

108. Briefly explain the structures of the brain.

109. Define perceptual constancy. Briefly explain size constancy and shape constancy in infants.

110. Discuss the process of differentiation.

111. Briefly explain cephalocaudal development in neonates.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 112. In the context of development, discuss the adaptability of the human brain.

113. In the context of Eleanor Gibson’s findings, discuss the changes that occur in the perceptual processes of children.

114. Briefly describe myelination.

115. Briefly explain proximodistal development in infants.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. d

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Chap 04__HDEV6 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. d 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. c 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. d 69. c 70. a 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. d 75. d 76. d 77. b 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. a 87. d 88. c 89. b 90. a 91. b 92. b 93. d 94. b 95. a 96. a 97. d 98. c 99. a 100. c 101. Answers will vary. Toddlers run about, supporting their relatively heavy heads and torsos by spreading their legs in a bowlegged fashion. Because they are top‐heavy and inexperienced, they fall frequently. Many toddlers are skillful at navigating slopes. They walk down shallow slopes but prudently choose to slide or crawl down steep ones. Walking lends children new freedom. It allows them to get about rapidly and to grasp objects that were formerly out of reach. Give toddlers a large ball to toss and run after; it is an inexpensive and most enjoyable toy. As children mature, their muscle strength, bone density, and balance and coordination improve.

By the age of two years, they can climb steps one at a time, placing both feet on each step. They can run well, walk backward, kick a large ball, and jump several inches.

102. Answers will vary. Neonates can crudely orient their heads in the direction of a sound. By 18 months of age, the accuracy of sound‐localizing ability approaches that of adults. Sensitivity to sounds increases in the first few months of life. As infants mature, the range of the pitch of the sounds they can sense gradually expands to include the adult’s range of 20 to 20,000 cycles per second. The ability to detect differences in the pitch and loudness of sounds improves considerably throughout the preschool years. Auditory acuity also improves gradually over the first several years, although infants’ hearing can be so acute that many parents complain their napping infants will awaken at the slightest sound.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Failure to thrive (FTT) syndrome is a serious disorder that impairs growth in infancy and early childhood. Yet FTT is sometimes a fuzzy diagnosis. Historically, researchers have spoken of biologically based (or “organic”) FTT versus nonbiologically based (“nonorganic”) FTT. The idea is that in organic FTT, an underlying health problem accounts for FTT. Nonorganic FTT (NOFTT) apparently has psychological roots, social roots, or both. In either case, the infant does not make normal gains in weight and size.

104. Answers will vary. Locomotion is movement from one place to another. Children gain the capacity to move their bodies through a sequence of activities that includes rolling over, sitting up, crawling, creeping, walking, and running. There is much variation in the ages at which infants first engage in these activities. Although the sequence mostly remains the same, some children will skip a step.

Most infants can roll over, from back to stomach and from stomach to back, by about the age of six months. By about seven months, infants usually begin to sit up by themselves. At about eight to nine months, most infants begin to crawl, a motor activity in which they lie on their bellies and use their arms to pull themselves along.

Creeping, in which infants move themselves along on their hands and knees, usually appears a month or so after crawling.

Standing overlaps with crawling and creeping. Most infants can remain in a standing position by holding on to something at the age of eight or nine months. At this age, they may also be able to walk a bit with support.

About two months later, they can pull themselves to a standing position by holding on to the sides of their cribs or other objects and can stand briefly without holding on. By 12 to 15 months or so, they walk by themselves, earning them the name toddler.

105. Answers will vary. Axons are a major factor in the communication between neurons. Axons, which account for much of the difference in lengths between neurons, carry messages to succeeding neurons through the use of chemicals known as neurotransmitters. These messages are received by the dendrites of the next neuron. In order to facilitate more rapid transmission of messages, some axons are sheathed in a fatty substance called myelin, which speeds nerve impulses along the length of an axon much faster than unmyelinated neurons.

106. Answers will vary. Breastfeeding has many benefits for both the infant and the mother. As the infant matures, the composition of breast milk changes to help meet the infant’s changing needs. The antibodies in breast milk help the infant ward off a variety of health problems ranging from ear infections, pneumonia, wheezing, bronchiolitis, and tetanus to chicken pox, bacterial meningitis, and typhoid fever. Breast milk also helps protect against childhood lymphoma and decreases the likelihood of developing serious cases of diarrhea.

Infants who are nourished by breast milk are less likely to develop allergic responses and constipation and also obesity later in life.

Breastfeeding mothers have a reduced risk of early breast cancer and ovarian cancer. Breastfeeding women also tend to have stronger bones than those who did not breastfeed, leading to reduced rates of hip fracture and osteoporosis. Breastfeeding helps shrink the uterus after childbirth.

There are downsides to breastfeeding. For example, breast milk is one of the bodily fluids that transmit HIV. As many as one‐third of infants born to mothers who are infected with HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, become infected during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. Alcohol, many drugs, and environmental hazards such as polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) can also be transmitted through breast milk. Moreover, for breast milk to contain the necessary nutrients, mothers must be adequately nourished themselves. The mother also encounters the physical demands of producing and expelling milk, a tendency for soreness in the breasts, and the inconvenience of being continually available to meet the infant’s feeding needs.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 107. Answers will vary. Neonates look at stripes longer than at blobs. This finding has been used in much of the research on visual acuity. Classic research found that by the age of 8 to 12 weeks, most infants also show distinct preferences for curved lines over straight ones. A study of 34 neonates found that the longer fixations on face‐like stimuli resulted from a larger number of brief fixations (looks) rather than from a few prolonged fixations. The infants’ gaze, then, was sort of bouncing around from feature to feature rather than “staring” at the face in general.

108. Answers will vary. Many nerves that connect the spinal cord to higher levels of the brain pass through the medulla. The medulla, part of an area called the brain stem, is vital in the control of basic functions, such as heartbeat and respiration. Above the medulla lies the cerebellum. The cerebellum helps a child maintain balance, control motor behavior, and coordinate eye movements with bodily sensations. The cerebrum is the crowning glory of the brain. It makes possible the breadth and depth of human learning, thought, memory, and language. The surface of the cerebrum consists of two hemispheres that become increasingly wrinkled as the child develops, coming to show ridges and valleys called fissures. This surface is the cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex is only one‐eighth of an inch thick, yet it is the seat of thought and reason. It is here that we receive sensory information from the world outside and command muscles to move.

109. Answers will vary. Perceptual constancy is the tendency to perceive an object to be the same, even though the sensations produced by the object may differ under various conditions.

Size constancy is the tendency to perceive the same objects as being of the same size even though their retinal sizes vary as a function of their distance. From six feet away, a 36‐inch yardstick casts an image equal in retinal size to the 12‐inch ruler at two feet, but—if recognized as a yardstick—it is perceived as longer, again because of size constancy.

Shape constancy is the tendency to perceive an object as having the same shape even though, when perceived from another angle, the shape projected onto the retina may change dramatically. When the top of a cup or a glass is seen from above, the visual sensations are in the shape of a circle. When seen from a slight angle, the sensations are elliptical. However, because of our familiarity with the object, we still perceive the rim of the cup or glass as being a circle.

110. Answers will vary. As children mature, their behaviors become less loose and global, and more specific and distinct, a tendency called differentiation. If a neonate’s finger is pricked or burned, they may withdraw the finger but also thrash about, cry, and show general signs of distress. Toddlers may also cry, show distress, and withdraw the finger, but they are less likely to thrash about wildly. Thus, the response to pain has become more specific. An older child or adult is also likely to withdraw the finger, but less likely to wail (sometimes) and show general distress.

111. Answers will vary. Neonates can move their heads slightly to the side. They can thus avoid suffocation if they are lying face down and their noses or mouths are obstructed by bedding. At about one month, infants can raise their heads. By about two months, they can also lift their chests while lying on their stomachs.

112. Answers will vary. The great adaptability of the brain appears to be a double‐edged sword. Adaptability allows us to develop different patterns of neural connections to meet the demands of different environments, but lack of stimulation—especially during critical early periods of development—can impair adaptability. The brain is also affected by experience. Infants actually have more connections among neurons than adults do.

Connections that are activated by experience survive; others do not.

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Chap 04__HDEV6 113. Answers will vary. Developmental psychologist Eleanor Gibson noted a number of changes that occur in the perceptual processes of children: 1. Intentional action replaces “capture” (automatic responses to stimulation). Purposeful scanning and exploration of the environment take the place of mechanical movements and passive responses to stimulation.

2. Systematic search replaces unsystematic search.

3. Attention becomes selective. Older children become capable of selecting the information they need from the welter of confusion in the environment.

4. Irrelevant information becomes ignored. That might mean shutting out the noise of cars in the street or radios in the neighborhood so as to focus on a book. In short, children develop from passive, mechanical reactors to the world about them into active, purposeful seekers and organizers of sensory information.

114. Answers will vary. The term myelination refers to the process by which axons are coated with myelin.

Myelination is not complete at birth, but rather is part of the maturation process that leads to the abilities to crawl and walk during the first year after birth. Myelination of the brain’s prefrontal matter continues into the second decade of life and is connected with advances in working memory and language ability.

115. Answers will vary. The development of hand skills is an example of proximodistal development. Infants will track slowly moving objects with their eyes shortly after birth, but they will not reach for them. Voluntary reaching and grasping require visual–motor coordination. By about three months, infants will make clumsy swipes at objects. Between four and six months, infants become more successful at grasping objects. Grasping is reflexive at first. Voluntary holding replaces reflexive grasping by three to four months.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The angular gyrus “translates” visual information, such as spoken words, into visual information. a. True b. False 2. In the context of infant development, extinction is the decrease in frequency of a response due to absence of reinforcement. a. True b. False 3. Mirror neurons are connected with gender differences in behavior, primarily. a. True b. False 4. Semantics refers to the rules in a language for placing words in order to form sentences. a. True b. False 5. Primary circular reactions focus on an infant’s own body rather than on the external environment. a. True b. False 6. The Bayley scales is one of a number of tests that have been developed to screen infants for sensory or neurological problems. a. True b. False 7. Memory improves dramatically between five to ten years of age and then again by the age of 18. a. True b. False 8. In secondary circular reactions, the focus shifts to objects and environmental events. a. True b. False 9. Mirror neurons are found only in humans. a. True b. False 10. Screening infants do not help detect early signs of sensory or neurological problems. a. True b. False

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Chap 05__HDEV6 11. Infant memory can be improved if infants receive a reminder after their memory is tested. a. True b. False 12. Children learn many vocabulary words, especially nouns and verbs, by imitation. a. True b. False 13. By about eight months of age, cooing decreases markedly. a. True b. False 14. Infants’ first sentences are typically one‐word utterances. a. True b. False 15. Cognitive development proceeds in different ways across infants. a. True b. False 16. Cooing decreases when parents fail to respond positively to cooing. a. True b. False 17. Mirror neurons in humans are not connected with emotions. a. True b. False 18. The standard deviation of utterance is the average number of morphemes that communicators use in their sentences. a. True b. False 19. Piaget’s sensorimotor stage refers to the first two years of cognitive development in children. a. True b. False 20. True words are symbols of morality and emotions. a. True b. False

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Chap 05__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Which of the following is an accurate statement about neonates? a. They continuously lose weight for almost one month. b. They do not show a tendency to respond to objects that are not within their immediate sensory grasp. c. They are capable of searching for hidden objects. d. They cannot move their heads to the side but are capable of tracking things with their eyes.

22. Infants coo when they are feeling _____. a. hungry b. tired c. hurt d. pleasure 23. In which of the following substages of the sensorimotor stage does an infant begin to show intentional, goal‐directed behavior? a. The first substage b. The second substage c. The third substage d. The fourth substage 24. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development comprises both mental‐scale and motor‐scale items and also includes a _________. a. sensory rating scale b. emotional rating scale c. behavior rating scale d. linguistic rating scale 25. Which of the following is an accurate statement on the evaluation of Piaget’s theory on cognitive development? a. Piaget emphasized the role of maturation, almost to the point of excluding adult and peer influences on cognitive development. b. Piaget believed that deferred imitation in infants appears as early as nine months. c. The pattern and sequence of events described in Piaget’s theory were restricted only to American infants. d. Piaget’s theory overestimated infants’ competence.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 26. During a study, researchers tied one end of a ribbon to a brightly colored mobile and the other end to an infant’s ankle. This study was designed to measure ________________. a. object permanence b. habituation c. memory in infants d. primary circular reactions in infants 27. Damage to Broca’s area in the brain is likely to cause a condition called _____. a. anoxia b. aphasia c. anterograde amnesia d. echolalia 28. In a continuing effort to find aspects of intelligence and cognition that might remain consistent from infancy through later childhood, a number of researchers have recently focused on _____. a. visual recognition memory b. genetic behavioral patterns c. canalization d. deferred imitation 29. Idris is a two‐month‐old infant who accidentally discovers her thumbs. She waves them around for a while and then sticks one of them in her mouth. She repeats this for a few times. Idris’s behavior is an example of________. a. a primary circular reaction b. a secondary circular reaction c. a tertiary circular reaction d. echolalia quaternary circular reaction 30. A criticism of Piaget’s theory on cognitive development includes that it a. did not focus on adult and peer influences on cognitive development. b. focused almost exclusively on learning processes. c. did not explain the cognitive development of infants aged 12 months and above. d. did not estimate the abilities of infants.

31. Symptoms of Broca’s aphasia include a. laborious and patterned speech. b. short stature and infertility. c. a rounded face and a protruding tongue. d. an inability to understand speech.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 32. The Bayley scales primarily measure _______. a. mental and motor abilities of infants b. environmental influences on intelligence c. genetic influences on intelligence d. the development of a fetus 33. Which of the following is an example of a simple reflex? a. Reaching for an object b. Crawling toward a bright object c. Searching for an object behind an obstacle d. Turning toward the source of a noise 34. A difference between the surface structure and the deep structure of language is that a. surface structure includes prelinguistic vocalizations like cooing and babbling, whereas deep structure includes holophrases and telegraphic speech. b. surface structure is the superficial grammatical construction of a sentence, whereas deep structure is the underlying meaning of a sentence. c. surface structure is the number of words one understands, whereas deep structure is the number of words one can use in a sentence. d. surface structure is the automatic repetition of sounds or words, whereas deep structure is the use of pitches of varying levels to help communicate meaning.

35. Which of the following represents the A‐not‐B error that infants make? a. Some infants do not search for hidden objects unless given an incentive. b. Infants often randomly search for hidden objects but quickly become frustrated and give up. c. Infants often search for a hidden object in a familiar hiding place even after seeing the object being hidden in a new place. d. Some infants do not search for a hidden object for more than five to ten seconds and quickly become distracted by other, more interesting objects.

36. A researcher who contradicts Piaget’s theory on cognitive development is most likely to state that_______. a. infants show deferred imitation as early as nine months of age b. deferred imitation appears at about 18 months after birth c. the sensorimotor stage is the first stage of cognitive development d. the second substage of the sensorimotor stage lasts from about one to four months of age 37. Over time, overextensions _______. a. gradually become even more exaggerated than their references b. gradually pull back to their proper references c. stabilize after a short period d. stabilize after a long period

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Chap 05__HDEV6 38. In the context of Piaget’s theories of cognitive development, which of the following statements is true of the pattern and sequence of events related to the cognitive development of a child? a. Most researchers now agree that cognitive development is tied to discrete stages as Piaget suggested. b. Piaget believed that deferred imitation in infants appears as early as nine months. c. The pattern and sequence of events Piaget described were noticed more clearly in boys than girls. d. The pattern and sequence of events Piaget described have been observed in children cross‐ culturally.

39. The development of object permanence is tied into the development of infants’ _____. a. locomotive ability b. reflex action c. reasoning ability d. motor ability 40. Which of the following is an accurate statement about object permanence? a. It is the recognition that an object or a person continues to exist even when out of sight. b. It is the absorption of new events into existing schemes. c. It is the modification of existing schemes to accommodate novel objects. d. It is the imitation of people and events that occurred in the past.

41. Higher visual recognition scores in infancy are related to ______. a. attention deficit disorder in later childhood b. less than average memory skills in later childhood c. higher emotional quotient scores in later childhood d. higher IQ scores in later childhood 42. Latifa knows that kittens are animals. Her day care teacher tells her that puppies are also animals. Latifa then modifies her existing scheme of animals to include puppies. This is an example of _____. a. assimilation b. conditioning c. differentiation d. accommodation 43. Suppose an infant is familiar with a ball but not with a bat. When the infant is given a bat for the first time, they are able to distinguish between the two objects. This ability to discriminate between the two objects is referred to as _________. a. visual recognition memory b. canalization c. cognitive assimilation d. deferred imitation

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Chap 05__HDEV6 44. Research has found that neonates adjusted their rate of sucking to hear a recording of their mother reading a story; she had read aloud during the last weeks of pregnancy. This provides evidence that________. a. neonates demonstrate memory for stimuli to which they have been exposed previously b. a neonate’s mind is a blank slate c. neonates develop object permanence long before they are born d. a neonate’s cognitive development is tied to discrete stages 45. Which of the following sentences is true about receptive vocabulary and expressive vocabulary? a. Children’s receptive vocabulary development outpaces their expressive vocabulary development. b. Children’s receptive vocabulary develops only after their expressive vocabulary is completely developed. c. Children’s receptive vocabulary is equal to their expressive vocabulary at any given time. d. Children’s receptive vocabulary is lost if proper reinforcement is not provided, whereas expressive vocabulary is permanent.

46. In the context of the human brain, Broca’s area is located near the section of the motor cortex that controls the muscles of the _____. a. tongue and throat b. eyes and ears c. hands and fingers d. heart and lungs 47. Erica is a two‐year‐old girl touring the local zoo with her parents. She sees an owl for the first time and asks a zoo attendant what it is, and the attendant replies that “it is an owl.” Now, every time Erica sees a bird she calls it an “ool.” This process is called _____. a. deferred imitation b. overextension c. habituation d. canalization 48. Piaget suggested that, between 12 to 18 months of age, infants engage in tertiary circular reactions, or _________. a. reasoning through abstract concepts b. accidental adaptations of established schemes to specific situations c. purposeful adaptations of established schemes to specific situations d. moral evaluations of behavior

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Chap 05__HDEV6 49. Around the sixth month, an infant searches for an object that has rolled out of sight. In the context of Piaget’s stages of development, this is evidence of _________. a. canalization b. habituation c. object permanence d. object representation 50. The presence of deferred imitation suggests that children have _________. a. mentally represented behavior patterns b. cognitive understandings of abstract concepts c. emotional reactions to moral dilemmas d. cognitive appreciation of speech and language 51. A six‐month‐old infant has a toy that makes a sound when pressed. They repeatedly press the toy to hear the sound. This is an example of _____. a. the Moro reflex b. a secondary circular reaction c. a primary circular reaction d. the Babinski reflex 52. Desmond is playing with his seven‐month‐old son. He places a large bowl in front of his son and hides his cell phone under the bowl. His son manages to retrieve the cell phone and laughs in delight. He repeats this over a few days. One day, he keeps the bowl in front of his son but holds the cell phone behind his back. Although his son sees him hide the phone behind his back, he still lifts up the bowl to look for the cell phone. Desmond’s son is displaying _____. a. a lack of mental representation b. a primary circular reaction c. the A‐not‐B error d. deferred imitation 53. Laneenya tells her daughter, “Wear your shoes when you go outside to play.” Laneenya’s daughter cannot produce a sentence like this, but she completely understands her mom and goes to put her shoes on before going outside to play. The fact that Laneenya’s daughter understands this statement suggests that the words in the sentence fall into her _____. a. receptive vocabulary b. expressive vocabulary c. advanced vocabulary d. active vocabulary

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Chap 05__HDEV6 54. A similarity between cooing and babbling is that both a. do not represent objects or actions. b. sound like human speech. c. are related to experiences of pain. d. are used to express meaning.

55. Infants use their tongues and are more articulated when they _______. a. coo b. squeal c. cry d. gurgle 56. A 12‐month‐old infant often starts making sounds like “ha‐ba‐ba‐ba‐ba‐ha.” This is an example of _____. a. intonation b. echolalia c. deferred imitation d. cooing 57. Infants who receive reminders before their memory is tested ________. a. experience improvements in their memory b. experience deficits in their memory c. fail to react to novel stimuli d. overreact to novel stimuli 58. The motor scale in the Bayley Scales of Infant Development assesses _____. a. attention span b. goal directedness c. standing skills d. emotional development 59. A child is shown two objects for 20 seconds. After this, one of the objects is replaced and the infant spends more time looking at the new object. Which of the following processes does this represent? a. Visual recognition memory b. Canalization c. Centration d. Deferred imitation

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Chap 05__HDEV6 60. Chen, an infant, sticks his tongue out when he sees a sibling do the same. While doing this, which of the following is most likely to have occurred? a. Cheng’s mirror neurons have been activated. b. Cheng’s body must have stopped the production of dopamine for a while. c. Cheng must have engaged in prelinguistic vocalizations. d. Cheng must have engaged in deferred imitation.

61. Chanel is a six‐month‐old infant. An older sibling shows her a teddy bear and she giggles. However, when her sibling hides the teddy bear behind her back, Chanel makes no attempt to search for it. From the given information, it can be concluded that Chanel has not yet developed_____. a. deferred imitation b. object permanence c. the rooting reflex d. a simple reflex 62. Symptoms of Wernicke’s aphasia include a. laborious and patterned speech. b. short stature and infertility. c. trouble understanding speech. d. an inability to walk.

63. A primary circular reaction is represented by a two‐month‐old infant a. accidentally touching their nose with their thumb and then repeating it. b. turning toward the sound of a parent’s voice. c. flinching when a sibling pinches them. d. reaching out for a teddy bear.

64. Infants begin cooing _______. a. at birth b. during the second month c. at one week of age d. during the fourth month 65. Which of the following questions is the primary focus of cognitive development? a. How children perceive and mentally represent the world? b. How children enter puberty and undergo physical changes? c. How children deal with infectious diseases? d. How children with developmental disorders behave?

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Chap 05__HDEV6 66. When infants babble, they tend to produce _________. a. incomplete sentences b. only vowel sounds c. complete sentences of five to six words d. combinations of consonants and vowels 67. According to Piaget, children’s cognitive processes a. develop only after the second year. b. develop in an orderly sequence of stages. c. develop only after the first year. d. begin from the preoperational stage.

68. At how many months of age did Piaget believe that deferred imitation tends to appear? a. 8 b. 14 c. 18 d. 12 69. Cooing and babbling do not represent objects or actions, but are rather ______. a. primitive language b. postverbal cues c. prelinguistic vocalizations d. abstract vocalizations 70. Which of the following rating scales in the Bayley Scales of Infant Development assesses attention span? a. The behavior rating scale b. The mental scale c. The motor scale d. The emotion scale 71. During the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development, an observer of an infant will witness ______________. a. tertiary circular reactions b. concrete identifications of objects c. naming conventions d. abstract information development

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Chap 05__HDEV6 72. A difference between primary and secondary circular reactions is that a. primary circular reactions involve only reflexes, while secondary circular reactions involve only thoughts. b. primary circular reactions involve complex actions, while secondary circular reactions involve simple actions. c. primary circular reactions focus on an infant’s own body, while secondary circular reactions focus on the environment. d. primary circular reactions involve voluntary actions, while secondary circular reactions involve involuntary actions.

73. A seven‐month‐old infant repeatedly shakes a rattle because they like the noise it makes. This is an example of a _____. a. simple reflex b. secondary circular reaction c. primary circular reaction d. tertiary circular reaction 74. Which of the following is true of infant memory? a. Infants demonstrate memory of experiences they had while still in the womb. b. Infants demonstrate memory for stimuli to which they have been exposed previously only after four months of age. c. Memory does not improve much between two and six months of age. d. Memory improves dramatically between two and six months of age and the development slows down at 12 months of age.

75. The substage of the sensorimotor stage that lasts from 12 to 18 months of age is the ______________. a. second substage b. third substage c. fourth substage d. fifth substage 76. According to the first substage of the sensorimotor stage, reflexes at birth tend to be _____. a. stereotypical b. premeditated c. changeable d. nuanced

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Chap 05__HDEV6 77. Infants tend to repeat stimulating actions that first occurred by chance. In the context of Piaget’s stages of development, this is an example of a primary circular reaction that focuses on __________. a. an infant’s own body rather than on the external environment b. the external environment to the exclusion of other things c. external faces and internal representations of emotions d. the development of complex reflexes 78. Problems in the angular gyrus area of the brain can cause problems in _____. a. breathing b. sleeping c. reading d. walking 79. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary circular reaction? a. Kala accidentally touches her nose with her thumb and feels ticklish. She then repeats the action. b. Jose turns toward the phone when it starts ringing. He also turns and looks at his parents when they speak. c. Lorenzo’s care giver shakes an object to make it rattle and then gives the object to Lorenzo. He immediately shakes the object in a similar manner. d. After many tries, Megan turns her toy sideways so she can pull it into her crib. Now, whenever she wants the toy, she turns it sideways to pull it through.

80. Paul is a six‐month‐old infant who loves playing with his teddy bear. Every time he picks his teddy bear up, he says “ooh,” and every time he drops it back on the floor he says “aah.” In this scenario, Paul is ________. a. cooing b. babbling c. murmuring d. humming 81. Damage to Wernicke’s area in the brain is likely to cause a condition called _____. a. aggression b. aphasia c. prelinguistic cooing d. differed imitation 82. The term that refers to the imitation of an action that may have occurred hours, days, or even weeks earlier is ______. a. priming b. proximal imitation c. mirroring d. deferred imitation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 83. The substages of the sensorimotor stage that serves as a transition between sensorimotor development and the development of symbolic thought is the _______________. a. fifth substage b. fourth substage c. sixth substage d. second substage 84. It has been demonstrated that, from age to age, individual differences in capacity for visual recognition memory _______. a. are stable b. increase dramatically c. increase gradually d. decrease dramatically 85. Research suggests that mirror neurons are connected with the _________. a. ability to learn spontaneously b. ability to make ethical judgments c. built‐in human capacity to acquire language d. ability to reason through problems 86. Mirror neurons are ___________________________________________________________. a. activated when people experience biological cycles, such as hunger b. connected with human sleep‐wake rhythms and heartbeat c. activated when people perform a motor act d. present in all mammals except primates 87. Hilaria is talking to her ten‐month‐old son. She wants her son to call her “mommy,” and she keeps repeating the word “mommy” to her son. She is delighted when her son responds with “mama.” In this scenario, Hilaria’s son is ________. a. cooing b. babbling c. humming d. murmuring 88. According to Piaget, the first stage of cognitive development is called the _________. a. preoperational stage b. formal operational stage c. sensorimotor stage d. concrete operational stage

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Chap 05__HDEV6 89. In the context of language acquisition, the critical period is also known as the _________. a. sensitive period b. primary period c. vocalization period d. linguistic period 90. Apart from being activated when an individual performs a motor act or observes another individual engaging in the same act, mirror neurons in humans are also connected with _____. a. hunger pangs that one experiences while on a diet b. physical growth c. problem solving d. emotions such as disgust 91. Juan was working on his laptop one day and his 18‐month‐old daughter was sitting on his lap. A week later, when he was working on his laptop again, his daughter reached out from his lap and started pressing the keys of the laptop. In this scenario, Juan’s daughter is displaying________. a. echolalia b. deferred imitation c. a primary circular reaction d. object permanence 92. Infant memory improves dramatically between _____. a. one and two months of age b. two and six months of age c. one and eight months of age d. six and eight months of age 93. The average number of morphemes that communicators use in their sentences is called the ________. a. mean length of language b. standard deviation of language c. standard deviation of utterance d. mean length of utterance 94. Which of the following infants is illustrating the presence of visual recognition memory? a. Nasim laughs loudly when tickled. b. Percy wriggles his toes when he wants someone to pick him up and often cries if he is not picked. c. Pierce spends more time looking at the picture of a new person rather than the familiar picture of his mother. d. Teshi stacks blocks on top of each other to make a tower.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 95. Lorena learns what a fish looks like from a book. Her parents buy her a goldfish, which she keeps in a fishbowl. She then learns that fish swims in water. Lorena tries to incorporate this new event into her scheme of fish. This is an example of _____. a. divergence b. assimilation c. differentiation d. conditioning 96. Patterns of rising and falling vocalizations that infants use to resemble the sounds of adult speech are known as _________. a. intonation b. telegraphic speech c. semantics d. echolalia 97. Which substage of the sensorimotor stage lasts from 8 to 12 months of age? a. The first substage b. The second substage c. The third substage d. The fourth substage 98. An infant makes babbling sounds but cannot say actual words. This is an example of _________. a. prelinguistic vocalization b. paralinguistic vocalization c. deferred imitation d. habituation 99. One‐month‐old infants, as parents are well aware, have an unlearned but highly effective form of verbal expression that is _____. a. crying b. babbling c. cooing d. humming 100. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development use a a. scale measuring the environmental influences on an infant. b. behavior rating scale. c. scale measuring the cultural influences on an infant. d. maternal behavior scale.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 101. Explain how Jean Piaget noted an interesting error known as the A‐not‐B error. Do infants show the A‐not‐ B error under all circumstances?

102. What do Jean Piaget’s schemes mean? How are assimilation and accommodation related to schemes?

103. Explain the nativist view of language development.

104. Discuss some of the ways in which language growth in young children can be enhanced by adults.

105. Explain the psycholinguistic theory of language acquisition.

106. Discuss the Bayley scales.

107. Why are infants tested? Name a few scales used for testing infants.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 108. Discuss the critical period for language acquisition in children.

109. Briefly describe each of the six substages of the sensorimotor stage.

110. Discuss the various structures of the brain that are involved in language development.

111. Discuss the importance of observation and imitation in an infant’s development.

112. Discuss prelinguistic vocalization.

113. What are mirror neurons? Explain mirror neurons in humans.

114. In the context of infants, briefly explain overextension.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 115. Discuss the role of reinforcement in prelinguistic vocalization.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. True 20. False 21. b 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. a 26. c

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Chap 05__HDEV6 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. b 52. c 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. a 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. d 80. a 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 83. c 84. a 85. c 86. c 87. b 88. c 89. a 90. d 91. b 92. b 93. d 94. c 95. b 96. a 97. d 98. a 99. a 100. b 101. Answers will vary. Piaget noted an interesting error known as the A‐not‐B error. He repeatedly hid a toy behind a screen (A), and each time, his infant removed the screen and retrieved the toy. Then, as the infant watched, Piaget hid the toy behind another screen (B) in a different place. Still, the infant tried to recover the toy by pushing aside the first screen (A). It is as though the child had learned that a certain motor activity would reinstate the missing toy. The child’s concept of the object did not, at this age, extend to recognition that objects usually remain in the place where they have been most recently mentally represented.

Under certain conditions, nine‐ to ten‐month‐old infants do not show the A‐not‐B error. They apparently need a certain degree of maturation of the front lobes of the cerebral cortex, which fosters the development of working memory and attention. Also, if infants are allowed to search for the object immediately after seeing it hidden, the error often does not occur.

102. Answers will vary. Cognitive development focuses on the development of children’s ways of perceiving and mentally representing the world. Piaget labeled children’s concepts of the world schemes. He hypothesized that children try to use assimilation to absorb new events into existing schemes. When assimilation does not allow the child to make sense of novel events, children try to modify existing schemes through accommodation.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. The nativist view of language development holds that inborn factors cause children to attend to and acquire language in certain ways. From this perspective, children bring an inborn tendency in the form of neurological “prewiring” to language learning. According to Steven Pinker, the structures that enable humans to perceive and produce language evolved in bits and pieces. Those individuals who possessed these “bits” and “pieces” were more likely to reach maturity and transmit their genes from generation to generation because communication ability increased their chances of survival.

104. Answers will vary. Studies show that language growth in young children is enhanced when adults: • Use “Motherese” (technically termed infant‐directed speech).

• Use questions that engage the child in conversation.

• Respond to the child’s expressive language efforts in a way that is “attuned”; for example, adults relate their speech to the child’s utterance by saying “Yes, your doll is pretty” in response to the child’s statement “My doll.”

• Join the child in paying attention to a particular activity or toy.

• Gesture to help the child understand what they are saying.

• Describe aspects of the environment occupying the infant’s current focus of attention.

• Read to the child.

• Talk to the child a great deal.

105. Answers will vary. According to psycholinguistic theory, language acquisition involves an interaction between environmental influences—such as exposure to parental speech and reinforcement—and an inborn tendency to acquire language. Noam Chomsky labeled this innate tendency a language acquisition device. Evidence for an inborn tendency is found in the universality of human language abilities; in the regularity of the early production of sounds, even among deaf children; and in the invariant sequences of language development among all languages.

106. Answers will vary. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development was constructed in 1933 by psychologist Nancy Bayley. The Bayley test consists of mental‐scale items and motor‐scale items. The mental scale assesses verbal communication, perceptual skills, learning and memory, and problem‐solving skills. The motor scale assesses gross motor skills, such as standing, walking, and climbing, and fine motor skills, as shown by the ability to manipulate the hands and fingers. A behavior rating scale based on examiner observation of the child during the test is also used. The behavior rating scale assesses attention span, goal directedness, persistence, and aspects of social and emotional development.

107. Answers will vary. It is no easy matter to test an infant. The items must be administered on a one‐to‐one basis by a patient tester, and it can be difficult to judge whether the infant is showing the targeted response. One reason for testing infants is to screen infants for handicaps. A tester may be able to detect early signs of sensory or neurological problems, as suggested by development of visual–motor coordination. In addition to the Bayley scales, a number of tests have been developed to screen infants for such difficulties, including the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale and the Denver Developmental Screening Test.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 108. Answers will vary. Language learning is most efficient during the critical period, when children are most sensitive to language. The critical or sensitive period begins at about 18 to 24 months and lasts until puberty.

During this period, neural development provides plasticity of the brain. Evidence for a critical period is found in recovery from brain injuries in some people. Injuries to the hemisphere that controls language (usually the left hemisphere) can impair or destroy the ability to speak. But before puberty, children suffering left‐ hemisphere injuries frequently recover a good deal of speaking ability. In young children, left‐hemisphere damage may encourage the development of language functions in the right hemisphere. But adaptation ability wanes in adolescence, when brain tissue has reached adult levels of differentiation.

109. Answers will vary. The sensorimotor stage contains six substages. Briefly, these are: The first substage: The first substage covers the first month after birth. It is dominated by the assimilation of sources of stimulation into inborn reflexes such as grasping or visual tracking. At birth, reflexes seem stereotypical and inflexible, but quickly begin to develop according to experience.

The second substage: The second substage, primary circular reactions, lasts from about one to four months of age and is characterized by the beginnings of the ability to coordinate various sensorimotor schemes. During this substage, infants tend to repeat stimulating actions that first occurred by chance.

The third substage: The third substage lasts from about four to eight months and is characterized by secondary circular reactions, in which patterns of activity are repeated because of their effect on the environment. In the second substage (primary circular reactions), infants are focused on their own bodies; in the third substage (secondary circular reactions), the focus shifts to objects and environmental events.

The fourth substage: In the fourth substage, which lasts from about 8 to 12 months of age, infants no longer act simply to prolong interesting occurrences. Now they can coordinate schemes to attain specific goals. Infants begin to show intentional, goal‐directed behavior in which they differentiate between the means of achieving a goal and the goal or end itself.

The fifth substage: In the fifth substage, which lasts from about 12 to 18 months of age, infants now engage in tertiary circular reactions, or purposeful adaptations of established schemes to specific situations. Behavior takes on a new experimental quality, and infants may vary their actions dozens of times in a deliberate trial‐and‐error fashion to learn how things work.

The sixth substage: The sixth substage lasts from about 18 to 24 months of age. It serves as a transition between sensorimotor development and the development of symbolic thought. External exploration is replaced by mental exploration. At about 18 months, children may also use imitation to symbolize or stand for a plan of action.

110. Answers will vary. Many parts of the brain are involved in language development; however, some of the key biological structures that may provide the basis for the functions of the language acquisition device are based in the left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex for nearly all right‐handed people and for two out of three left‐ handed people. In the left hemisphere, the two areas most involved in speech are Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area. Broca’s area is located near the section of the motor cortex that controls the muscles of the tongue and throat and other areas of the face that are used in speech. Wernicke’s area lies near the auditory cortex and is connected to Broca’s area by nerves. A part of the brain called the angular gyrus lies between the visual cortex and Wernicke’s area. The angular gyrus “translates” visual information, such as written words, into auditory information (sounds) and sends it on to Wernicke’s area.

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Chap 05__HDEV6 111. Answers will vary. Children learn language, at least in part, by observation and imitation. Many vocabulary words, especially nouns and verbs, are learned by imitation. But imitative learning does not explain why children spontaneously utter phrases and sentences that they have not observed. Parents, for example, are unlikely to model utterances such as “Bye bye sock” and “All gone Daddy” but children say them.

112. Answers will vary. B. F. Skinner stated that prelinguistic vocalizations such as cooing and babbling may be inborn. But parents reinforce children for babbling that approximates the form of real words, such as da, which, in English, resembles dog or daddy. Children, in fact, do increase their babbling when it results in adults smiling at them, stroking them, and talking back to them. As the first year progresses, children babble the sounds of their native tongues with increasing frequency; foreign sounds tend to drop out.

113. Answers will vary. Mirror neurons, found in humans, are activated when an individual performs a motor act or observes another individual engaging in the same act. Mirror neurons in humans are also connected with emotions. Certain regions of the brain—particularly in the frontal lobe—are active when people experience emotions such as disgust, happiness, pain, and also when they observe another person experiencing an emotion. It thus appears that there is a neural basis for empathy—that is, the identification or vicarious experiencing of feelings in others based on the observation of visual and other cues. It has also been suggested that mirror neurons are connected with the built‐in human capacity to acquire language. Mirror neurons are also apparently connected with gender differences in empathy (females show more of it) and the instinctive human ability to acquire language.

114. Answers will vary. Young children try to talk about more objects than they have words for. To accomplish their linguistic feats, children often extend the meaning of one word to refer to things and actions for which they do not have words. This process is called overextension. Eve Clark studied diaries of infants’ language development and found that overextensions are generally based on perceived similarities in function or form between the original object or action and the new one. She provides the example of the word mooi, which one child originally used to designate the moon. The child then overextended mooi to designate all round objects, including the letter o and cookies and cakes. Overextensions gradually pull back to their proper references as the child’s vocabulary and ability to classify objects develop.

115. Answers will vary. B. F. Skinner stated that prelinguistic vocalizations such as cooing and babbling may be inborn. But parents reinforce children for babbling that approximates the form of real words, such as da, which, in English, resembles dog or daddy. Children, in fact, do increase their babbling when it results in adults smiling at them, stroking them, and talking back to them. As the first year progresses, children babble the sounds of their native tongues with increasing frequency; foreign sounds tend to drop out.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Infants who display disorganized–disoriented attachment may show consistent behaviors, such as moving toward their mother while looking toward her. a. True b. False 2. Infants are capable of displaying certain behaviors to control unpleasant emotional states. a. True b. False 3. Scientific evidence suggests that vaccinations are the leading cause of autism. a. True b. False 4. Difficult children in general are at lower risk for developing psychological disorders and adjustment problems later in life. a. True b. False 5. Infants are quite capable of recovering from social deprivation. a. True b. False 6. A mother’s social response to her infant’s face can reliably produce infant smiling by eight months of age. a. True b. False 7. According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, emotional abuse involves the failure to provide adequate nurturance and emotional support. a. True b. False 8. Parents, especially fathers, are more likely to encourage rough-and-tumble play in sons than daughters. a. True b. False 9. Physiologically, when emotions are strong, our hearts tend to beat less rapidly. a. True b. False

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Chap 06__HDEV6 10. In Kochanska’s study on emotional development, resistant children were found to be least fearful and they frequently responded with happiness in episodes designed to evoke joy. a. True b. False 11. Autistic infants are known to babble excessively by one year of age. a. True b. False 12. In the context of the mirror technique designed to assess the development of self-concept among infants, nose touching suggests that children recognize others and that they perceive that the dot of rouge is consistent with their own features. a. True b. False 13. Children from high-quality day-care centers are more likely to be disruptive than children cared for in homes. a. True b. False 14. Autism is a disorder characterized by extreme aloneness, communication problems, preservation of sameness, and ritualistic behavior. a. True b. False 15. Children with stranger anxiety are more fearful when they are in familiar surroundings, such as their homes, rather than in the laboratory. a. True b. False 16. According to the classification by Thomas and Chess, an easy child has irregular sleep and feeding schedules. a. True b. False 17. Abused children show a high incidence of personal and social problems. a. True b. False 18. Contact comfort is the pleasure derived from emotional contact with another. a. True b. False

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Chap 06__HDEV6 19. According to Kochanska’s study on emotional development, at 33 months of age, securely attached children were more likely to show fear and anger when they were exposed to situations designed to elicit these emotions. a. True b. False 20. Adults, especially fathers, show more positive reactions when girls play with boys’ toys and boys play with girls’ toys. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Research indicates that children in day care ________. a. are less independent, self-confident, and outgoing than children who do not attend day care. b. show better academic performance in elementary school than children who do not attend day care. c. are less aggressive than children who do not attend day care. d. physically grow slower than children not placed in day care.

22. Mary Ainsworth develops the Strange Situation method to measure the development of _______. a. temperament in infants b. attachment in adolescents c. attachment in infants d. temperament in adolescents 23. In the context of infants, which of the following best characterizes insecure attachment? a. Pursuing caregivers, low clinging, or consistency b. Avoiding caregivers, excessive clinging, or inconsistency c. Avoiding caregivers, little clinging, or consistency d. Pursuing caregivers, excessive clinging, or consistency 24. Which of the following is true of infant girls and infant boys? a. Infant boys tend to advance more rapidly than infant girls in their motor development. b. Infant boys tend to sit, crawl, and walk earlier than infant girls. c. Infant girls and infant boys differ in their dependency on adults. d. Infant girls and infant boys are similar in their social behaviors.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 25. Dembe, a two-month-old infant, is not afraid when strangers pick her up and play with her. She is also equally comfortable when familiar people pick her up. Dembe is showing _____. a. insecure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. indiscriminate attachment d. clear-cut attachment 26. Simon, a one-year-old, keeps his parents awake at night due to his irregular sleep hours. He also feeds fitfully and is always irritable. In this scenario, Simon has a(n) _____. a. difficult temperament b. introvert temperament c. extrovert temperament d. easy temperament 27. According to Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues, the clear-cut-attachment phase is characterized by ________. a. intensified dependence on the primary caregiver, usually the father b. intensified dependence on the primary caregiver, usually the mother c. relative independence from the primary caregiver, usually the mother d. relative independence from the primary caregiver, usually the father 28. Attachment patterns a. are not influenced by a deterioration in home life. b. become unstable when an insecure infant suddenly becomes securely attached over a sixmonth period. c. remain unstable for infants receiving fine care. d. tend to persist when caregiving conditions remain constant.

29. A(n) emotion is best described as a state of feeling with ______. a. physiological, situational, and cognitive components b. affective, environmental, and temporal components c. physiological, sociological, and psychological components d. genetic, environmental, and chronological components 30. A two-year-old was developing like a normal child until recently. Now the child has lost their ability to crawl and many other previously acquired skills. The two-year-old is most likely to be diagnosed with _________. a. separation anxiety disorder b. Asperger’s disorder c. childhood disintegrative disorder d. Down syndrome

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Chap 06__HDEV6 31. The behavioral view of the development of attachment suggested that attachment is ______. a. created by emotional expression b. developed through insight c. inherent in genes d. learned through conditioning 32. The ambivalent/resistant attachment type is characterized by ______. a. disinterested behavior around attachment figures and ignoring reunions b. mild distress at leave-takings and quick consolation at reunions c. severe distress at leave-takings and contradictory behavior at reunions d. disorganized behavior around attachment figures 33. According to the ethological view of attachment, attachment is _______. a. an inborn or instinctive response to a specific stimulus b. a learned reaction to environmental factors c. a socially constructed hypothesis that requires further testing d. an empirical question that can be studied in a laboratory setting 34. Who among the following is a person that is being sexually exploited? a. A child whose parents do not hospitalize when they sustain a severe injury b. A child, who is hit by a parent with a spatula for not doing their dishes c. A child, whose parents neglect and refuse to admit to a school d. A child, whose primary caregiver streams nude images of on the internet 35. A difference between secure attachment and insecure attachment is that a. secure attachment is characterized by severe distress at leave-takings by the primary caregiver and ambivalent behavior at reunions, whereas insecure attachment is characterized by the display of attachment behaviors toward any person. b. secure attachment is characterized by avoiding one’s caregiver, excessive clinging, or inconsistency, whereas insecure attachment is characterized by mild distress when one’s caregiver leaves. c. infants and toddlers who are secure are less happy, less sociable, and less cooperative than infants and toddlers who are insecure. d. at ages five and six, secure children get along better with peers and are better adjusted in school than insecure children.

36. Which of the following children would be the least distressed by the departure of their mother from the room in which they are playing? a. Moira, who displays disorganized–disoriented attachment b. Charles, who displays ambivalent/resistant attachment c. Talika, who displays avoidant attachment d. Lily, who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 37. According to Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, an infant’s attachment to their mother in the first year is primarily a result of ________. a. the fulfillment of oral needs b. genetic similarities c. the reinforcement and shaping of the infant’s behavior by the mother d. the achievement of object permanence on the part of the mother 38. According to Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues, which of the following phases of attachment is characterized by indiscriminate attachment? a. The attachment-in-the-making phase b. The clear-cut-attachment phase c. The initial-preattachment phase d. The avoidant-attachment phase 39. A one-year-old infant observes a parent behaving comfortably in the presence of a stranger. Seeing this, the infant also stops being afraid of the stranger. This is an example of ________. a. insecure attachment b. secure attachment c. social referencing d. deferred imitation 40. A difference between children with day-care experience and home-reared children is that a. children placed in day care are always less aggressive toward peers and adults than homereared children. b. children with day-care experience are more peer oriented and play at higher developmental levels than home-reared children. c. children in high-quality day care are less likely to share their toys than home-reared children. d. children from high-quality day-care centers are less likely to be disruptive than home-reared children.

41. A characteristic of Rett’s disorder is a a. loss of previously acquired skills, such as the ability to walk and to communicate after three years of apparently normal development. b. lack of interest in social interaction and avoidance of eye contact from birth. c. loss of hearing at birth. d. range of physical, behavioral, motor, and cognitive abnormalities that begin after a few months of normal development.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 42. Johnson is socially awkward, talks to everyone in the same monotonous way, and has difficulty understanding emotions. On being examined it was found that Johnson did not have the significant cognitive or language delays associated with autism. In this scenario, Johnson will most likely be a person diagnosed with _____. a. Asperger’s syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Rett’s disorder d. Tay-Sachs disease 43. Male children are a. discouraged from participating in rough-and-tumble play by their parents. b. likely to be decked out in pink or yellow attire embellished with ruffles and lace. c. encouraged to engage in more physical activity than girls. d. most likely to play with dolls, doll furniture, dishes, and toy animals.

44. Anna is a seven-month-old infant. Both her parents are diagnosed with substance use disorder and they often leave Anna unattended for several hours whenever they are under the influence of drugs. Anna is a person being subjected to _____. a. emotional abuse b. emotional neglect c. educational neglect d. sexual abuse 45. Jules, an 11-month-old, is a fairly cheerful infant, usually eats and sleeps at the same time every day, and is friendly with strangers. In this scenario, Jules has a(n) _____. a. difficult temperament b. phlegmatic temperament c. slow-to-warm-up temperament d. easy temperament 46. A child is being spanked by a parent. According to the textbook, the child is being _____. a. physically abused b. educationally neglected c. physically neglected d. sexually abused 47. Home-reared children are ________. a. more helpful and cooperative with peers and adults than children placed in day care. b. more independent, self-confident, outgoing, and affectionate than children placed in day care. c. less likely to bully other children in school than children placed in day care are. d. less peer oriented and play at higher developmental levels than children placed in day care.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 48. Infants who show avoidant attachment ________. a. are most distressed by their mothers’ departure b. play without fuss when alone and ignore their mothers upon reunion after a separation c. alternately cling to their mothers and push them away upon reunion after a separation d. seem dazed, confused, or disoriented in the presence of an attachment figure 49. Which of the following is true of emotional regulation? a. Infants displaying emotional regulation look toward a disturbing event. b. Children of secure mothers are less likely to regulate their own emotions in a positive manner. c. Infants learn to regulate their emotions with help from their caregivers. d. Insecure infants show greater emotional regulation during adolescence than secure infants.

50. If caregivers are to be missed when absent, infants must perceive that they continue to exist. This statement reflects the concept of _____. a. object permanence b. classical conditioning c. primary circular reaction d. secondary circular reaction 51. Who among the following examples is being subjected to educational neglect? a. Amin, who regularly skips school four days a week and his parents are fine with it b. Logan, who gets bullied by her classmates every day and her teachers are fine with it c. Kale, who is regularly punished by her teacher d. Jesse, who consistently scores low grades in mathematics 52. Asperger’s disorder is characterized by ________. a. a range of physical, behavioral, motor, and cognitive abnormalities b. abnormal functioning and the loss of previously acquired skills c. significant cognitive or language delays associated with autism d. social deficits without the significant cognitive or language delays associated with autism 53. In the context of gender differences among children, which of the following is true? a. Mothers are more likely to encourage rough-and-tumble play in daughters than sons. b. Parents talk more to infant daughters than infant sons. c. Parents react favorably when daughters play with “boys’ toys.” d. Parents smile more at sons and are more emotionally expressive toward them.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 54. A person who shows no interest in peer play, avoids eye contact, does not express emotion, and lags in the development of speech is most likely ______. a. poorly acculturated b. selectively mute c. autistic d. dyslexic 55. A refusal to speak often witnessed among autistic children is known as ______. a. mutism b. echolalia c. glossolalia d. involuntary silence 56. According to Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues, the attachment-in-the-making phase is characterized by _______. a. a preference for familiar figures b. no preference for familiar figures and primary caregivers c. a preference for unfamiliar figures without any special preference for a primary caregiver d. no preference for unfamiliar figures and primary caregivers 57. Cliff, a five-year-old boy, sits on a see-saw for the first time and does not know what to do. He sees another boy sitting on the opposite end of the see-saw laughing and smiling. After a while, Cliff starts laughing and smiling just like the other boy. Cliff’s behavior illustrates _____. a. social referencing b. indiscriminate attachment c. contact comfort d. stranger anxiety 58. Kai developed normally until the age of two-years-old. After the age of two-years-old, he began to lose the skills that he had previously acquired. Kai may be a person diagnosed with ________. a. childhood disintegrative disorder b. dyslexia c. multiple sclerosis d. vaccine induced autism 59. Skylar is slow to accept new people and situations, takes a long time to adjust to new routines, and responds to frustrations with tantrums and crying. Skylar is a(n) _____. a. difficult child b. extroverted child c. disorganized child d. introverted child

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Chap 06__HDEV6 60. The individual difference in style of reaction that is present early in life is known as _______. a. temperament b. inherent responding c. implicit bias d. natural reflex 61. The initial-preattachment phase of attachment lasts from birth to about ______. a. one month b. two months c. three months d. four months 62. A person that is diagnosed with alcohol-use disorder hits their child every night after getting drunk. In this scenario, the child is being _____. a. sexually assaulted b. sexually molested c. physically neglected d. physically abused 63. Secure attachment is a type of attachment characterized by________. a. inconsistent responses to the absence of caregivers b. inconsolable distress at leave-takings and difficulty in soothing c. mild distress at leave-takings and being readily soothed by reunion d. excessive emotional reactions to the absence of caregivers 64. Insecure infants a. mildly protest a caregiver’s departure. b. tend to experience psychological disorders during adolescence. c. seek interaction upon reunion with their caregivers after a period of separation and are readily comforted by them. d. are happier, more sociable, and more cooperative with caregivers than secure infants.

65. Osmund, a 12-year-old, refuses to speak to anyone, pushes his mother away when she tries to hug him, and avoids all forms of social contact. Osmund is most likely to be diagnosed with _____. a. phenylketonuria b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder c. autism d. Huntington’s disease

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Chap 06__HDEV6 66. Jeremy, an infant, starts wailing as soon as his mother puts him in his crib. He often shows signs of anger when she returns and refuses to come to her. Sometimes, he clings to his mother and does not let her work. In the context of attachment styles in infants, Jeremy is displaying _____. a. secure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. ambivalent/resistant attachment d. fearful-avoidant attachment 67. Darsha, an infant, starts moving toward her mother when she calls her after being away for a while.

However, Darsha moves toward her looking in the opposite direction and bumps into things on her way. In the context of attachment styles in infants, Darsha is displaying _____. a. secure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. fearful-avoidant attachment d. disorganized–disoriented attachment 68. According to Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues, the clear-cut-attachment phase occurs at about ______. a. 4 or 5 months b. 6 or 7 months c. 8 or 9 months d. 11 or 12 months 69. In the context of infants, a difference between avoidant attachment and ambivalent/resistant attachment styles is that infants who a. show avoidant attachment are least distressed by their mother’s departure, while infants who display ambivalent/resistant attachment are severely distressed when they are separated from their mothers. b. show avoidant attachment cling to their mothers upon reunion after being separated, while infants who display ambivalent/resistant attachment ignore their mothers upon reunion after being separated. c. show avoidant attachment are more emotional than infants who display ambivalent/resistant attachment. d. show avoidant attachment display contradictory behavior toward an attachment figure unlike infants who show ambivalent/resistant attachment.

70. Aaron’s parents refuse to send him to school. They say, “Schools do not have anything good to teach children nowadays.” In this scenario, Aaron is a person being subjected to _____. a. physical abuse b. emotional neglect c. educational neglect d. sexual abuse Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 71. At the age of 14 months, resistant children ________. a. are unlikely to be emotional b. frequently respond with distress even in episodes designed to evoke joy c. are characterized by an indifferent attitude toward caregivers d. are less likely to show fear and anger 72. In a classic study, René A. Spitz found that institutionalized children who receive little or no social stimulation from caregivers ________. a. appear depressed and withdrawn b. show great interest in adults when given more stimulation c. are responsive to strangers d. can speak by ten months of age 73. Unlike parents of insecure infants, parents of secure infants ________. a. spend less time tending to their children b. are more likely to engage in inconsistent, harsh discipline c. are more affectionate, cooperative, and predictable d. are less likely to allow the child to express their emotions in a healthy manner 74. The Harlows and their colleagues conducted studies of rhesus monkeys that were “reared by” wiremesh and terry-cloth surrogate mothers. According to this study, rhesus infants reared in solitary confinement ________. a. fended off attacks by other monkeys b. later avoided other monkeys c. only extended their social contacts to older monkeys d. were overprotective of their offspring 75. According to the psychoanalytic view of attachment in infants, who usually becomes not just a “reinforcer” but also a love object who forms the basis for all later attachments? a. Other infants who the infant has early contact with b. Close family members, such as siblings c. The caregiver, usually the father d. The caregiver, usually the mother 76. Children who are abused by others _______________________________________________________. a. have low self-esteem and perform poorly in school b. are more intimate with peers c. are unlikely to participate in risky sexual behavior later in life d. are unlikely to act aggressively toward their intimate partners when they reach adulthood

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Chap 06__HDEV6 77. Which of the following is true of stranger anxiety in children? a. It peaks at 9 to 12 months of age. b. It appears at about 3 months of age. c. It declines at 6 months of age. d. It ends after 1 year of age.

78. A three-year-old is severely malnourished, constantly falls ill, and has to wear unwashed clothes for weeks. In this scenario, the child is experiencing _____. a. physical abuse b. educational neglect c. physical neglect d. emotional abuse 79. Self-awareness ________________________________________________________________. a. forces an infant to seek out another person’s perception of a new situation before giving a reaction b. facilitates the development of emotions such as embarrassment and envy c. prohibits a child from developing notions of sharing and cooperation d. has no effect on an infant’s social and emotional development 80. Attachment is defined as an affectional bond characterized by __________________. a. seeking closeness with another b. pursuing deep, long-lasting relationships with multiple others c. emotional expression in both healthy and unhealthy ways d. pursuing others independent of deep connections 81. The behavioral view of attachment most likely supports the idea that a. infants associate their caregivers with gratification and learn to approach them to meet their needs. b. a caregiver becomes not just a reinforcer but also a love object who forms the basis for all later attachments. c. infants become emotionally attached to their mothers during the first year because they share genetic similarities. d. if caregivers are to be missed when absent, infants must perceive that they continue to exist.

82. Which of the following children would be the most emotional and severely distressed by the departure of a parent from the room in which they are playing? a. Scott, who shows ambivalent/resistant attachment b. Kabir, who shows disorganized–disoriented attachment c. Erik, who shows avoidant attachment d. Romini, who shows secure attachment

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Chap 06__HDEV6 83. Female children are a. likely to have different bedroom decorations than boys. b. encouraged to engage in more physical activity than boys. c. known to prefer transportation toys, tools, and sports equipment as early as 9 to 18 months of age. d. encouraged to participate in rough-and-tumble play.

84. Research indicates that the use of vaccines is _______. a. in no way connected to the development of autism b. closely linked to the development of autism c. tentatively correlated to the development of autism d. one among many causal factors in the development of autism 85. Infants who seem dazed, confused, and show contradictory behaviors, such as moving toward the mother while looking away from her are most likely displaying ________. a. secure attachment b. ambivalent/resistant attachment c. disorganized–disoriented attachment d. fear-avoidant attachment 86. The Strange Situation method assesses ________. a. how an infant responds when their mother leaves and when she comes back b. how a child recovers after being abused by an unknown adult c. problem-solving skills in infants d. a neonate’s physical health 87. Betty gets upset when her younger sister snatches her toy. As explained to her by her babysitter, Betty knows that her sister is just an infant, and she should not get angry with her. She picks up a different toy and starts playing with it. Betty’s action illustrates _____. a. insecure attachment b. emotional regulation c. indiscriminate attachment d. social referencing 88. Infant girls and boys ________. a. are unlikely to smile at people’s faces b. do not show the Babinski reflex c. do not differ in their dependency on adults d. differ in their social behaviors

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Chap 06__HDEV6 89. Infants who display social referencing ________. a. form their own view of a situation or person b. always look away from a disturbing event or suck their thumbs c. use caregivers’ facial expressions or tone of voice as clues on how to respond d. are indifferent to new situations or persons as long as their caregivers are present 90. Teneca has regular sleep and feeding schedules, approaches new situations with enthusiasm and adapts to them easily, and is generally cheerful. In terms of temperament, Teneca is a(n) _____ a. insecure child b. slow-to-warm-up child c. difficult child d. easy child 91. One difference between an easy child and a difficult child is that a. an easy child has regular sleep and feeding schedules, while a difficult child has irregular sleep and feeding schedules. b. an easy child is slow to accept new people and situations, while a difficult child approaches new situations with enthusiasm. c. an easy child responds to frustrations with tantrums and crying, while a difficult child is generally cheerful. d. an easy child displays negative withdrawal in response to new stimuli, while a difficult child responds positively to new stimuli.

92. Who among the following is being physically neglected? a. A middle school aged child who regularly skips school four days a week with parental consent b. A homeschooled child that is severely underweight because of a failure to meet the child’s nutritional needs c. A youth football player who is regularly routinely forced by a coach to do pushups d. A 12-year-old with the same substance use problem that their parents have 93. Children who are at greater risk for developing psychological disorders and adjustment problems later in life most likely have a ______. a. easy temperament b. difficult temperament c. slow-to-warm-up temperament d. suspicious temperament

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Chap 06__HDEV6 94. Infants participating in the Strange Situation method of assessing attachment who seek interaction upon reunion with their mothers and are readily comforted by her are mostly likely ______. a. insecure b. ambivalent/resistant c. avoidant d. secure 95. Mathias responds to a question such as, “How did you sleep?” by repeating what is said instead of answering the question. He responds in a similar manner to other questions as well. This form of language disturbance is called ________. a. pronoun reversal. b. echolalia. c. mutism. d. deferred mirroring.

96. Who among the following is being subjected to emotional abuse? a. A fourth-grader, who regularly skips school four days a week and the parents are fine with it b. A two-month-old, who is severely malnourished and underweight and neglected c. A student, who is regularly punished by a teacher d. A 12-year-old, who does not interact much with people as their parents often criticize them and call them a “good-for-nothing” 97. Children with fear of strangers a. show more anxiety when their mothers are present. b. are less fearful in a laboratory setting. c. show distress by crying, whimpering, gazing fearfully, and crawling away. d. develop the fear around one to three months of age.

98. Who among the following is a person that is being physically abused? a. A child whose parents do not hospitalize them when they sustain a burn injury. b. A child whose parent beats them with a belt to inflict pain for disobeying instructions. c. A child whose parents do not admit them into a school despite their protests. d. A child whose parents do not stop them when they smoke cigarettes.

99. Which of the following researchers was an ethologist? a. B.F. Skinner b. Abraham Maslow c. Ivan Pavlov d. Konrad Lorenz

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Chap 06__HDEV6 100. According to Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues, which attachment phase lasts from birth to about three months? a. The clear-cut-attachment phase b. The selective attachment phase c. The deep attachment phase d. The initial-preattachment phase 101. Discuss the treatments for autism.

102. What are some of the techniques used to prevent child abuse?

103. Differentiate between the behavior of infant girls and boys.

104. According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, what are the several types of maltreatment of children?

105. What are the different forms of autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)?

106. Discuss some of the adverse effects of child abuse.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 107. Briefly describe the three types of temperament identified by Thomas and Chess.

108. What are the different causes of autism?

109. Are attachment patterns in infants influenced by the quality of infant care?

110. Briefly discuss a method to assess the development of the self-concept among infants.

111. What is social referencing?

112. What are the three phases of attachment in infants identified by Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues?

113. Discuss the causes of child abuse.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 114. Why is it important for children to have a stable temperament?

115. What is secure attachment? What are the benefits of a secure attachment style for infants and caregivers?

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Chap 06__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. d 25. c 26. a

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Chap 06__HDEV6 27. b 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. d 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. d 68. b 69. a 70. c 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. d 76. a 77. a 78. c 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. a 87. b 88. c 89. c 90. d 91. a 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. b 99. d 100. d 101. Answers will vary. Because children with autism show behavioral deficits, behavior modification is used to help them develop new behavior. It has been used to increase the child’s ability to attend to others, to play with other children, and to discourage self-mutilation. Brief bursts of physically painful but supposedly nondamaging electric shock rapidly eliminate self-mutilation. The use of electric shock raises serious moral, ethical, and legal concerns, but O. Ivar Lovaas countered that failure to eliminate self-injurious behavior places the child at yet greater risk.

102. Answers will vary. A number of techniques have been developed to help prevent child abuse. One approach focuses on strengthening parenting skills among the general population. Another approach targets groups at high risk for abuse, such as poor, single, teen mothers. In some programs, home visitors help new parents develop skills in caregiving and home management.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Girls tend to advance more rapidly in their motor development in infancy: They sit, crawl, and walk earlier than boys. Although a few studies have found that infant boys are more active and irritable than girls, others have not. Girls and boys are similar in their social behaviors. Girls and boys do begin to differ early in their preference for certain toys and play activities. By 12 to 18 months of age, girls prefer to play with dolls, doll furniture, dishes, and toy animals; boys prefer transportation toys (trucks, cars, airplanes, and the like), tools, and sports equipment as early as 9 to 18 months of age.

104. Answers will vary. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services recognizes several types of maltreatment of children: • Physical abuse: actions causing pain and physical injury • Sexual abuse: sexual molestation, exploitation, and intercourse • Emotional abuse: actions that impair the child’s emotional, social, or intellectual functioning • Physical neglect: failure to provide adequate food, shelter, clothing, or medical care • Emotional neglect: failure to provide adequate nurturance and emotional support • Educational neglect: for example, permitting or forcing the child to be truant 105. Answers will vary. There are several variations of ASDs, but autism is the major type. Other forms of ASDs include: • Asperger’s disorder, which is characterized by social deficits and stereotyped behavior but without the significant cognitive or language delays associated with autism.

• Rett’s disorder, which is characterized by a range of physical, behavioral, motor, and cognitive abnormalities that begin after a few months of normal development.

• Childhood disintegrative disorder, which is characterized by abnormal functioning and loss of previously acquired skills that begins after about two years of apparently normal development.

106. Answers will vary. Abused children show a high incidence of personal and social problems and psychological disorders. In general, abused children are less securely attached to their parents. They are less intimate with peers and more aggressive, angry, and noncompliant than other children. They have lower self-esteem and perform more poorly in school. Later on, abused children are at greater risk for delinquency, risky sexual behavior, substance abuse, and abusing their own children.

107. Answers will vary. The three types of temperament are: easy, difficult, and slow to warm up. The easy child has regular sleep and feeding schedules, approaches new situations (such as a new food or a new school) with enthusiasm and adapts to them easily, and is generally cheerful. The difficult child, on the other hand, has irregular sleep and feeding schedules, is slow to accept new people and situations, takes a long time to adjust to new routines, and responds to frustrations with tantrums and crying. The slow-towarm-up child falls between the other two. This child has somewhat irregular biological schedules, responds to new stimuli with negative withdrawal, adapts slowly to new situations, has a mild intensity of reaction, and their quality of mood is initially negative and gradually becomes more positive over time.

108. Answers will vary. Contrary to what some theorists say or some of the public believe, scientific evidence shows that there is no connection between the development of autism and use of vaccines or deficiencies in child rearing. Various lines of evidence suggest a key role for biological factors in autism. Possible prenatal factors include exposure to lead, alcohol, mercury, misoprostol, and maternal rubella. Very low birth weight and advanced maternal age may heighten the risk of autism. Biological factors focus on neurological involvement. Many children with autism have abnormal brain wave patterns or seizures.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. Attachment is related to the quality of infant care. The parents of secure infants are more affectionate, cooperative, and predictable than parents of insecure infants. They respond more sensitively to their infants’ smiles and cries. Researchers have found evidence for the “intergenerational transmission of attachment.” The children of secure mothers show the most secure patterns of attachment themselves. Siblings may form quite different attachment relationships with their mother. Siblings of the same gender are more likely than girl-boy pairs to form similar attachment relationships with their mother.

110. Answers will vary. Psychologists have devised ingenious methods to assess the development of the selfconcept among infants. One of these is the mirror technique, which involves the use of a mirror and a dot of rouge. Before the experiment begins, the researcher observes the infant for baseline data on how frequently the infant touches their nose. Then the mother places rouge on the infant’s nose, and the infant is placed before a mirror. Not until about the age of 18 months do infants begin to touch their own noses upon looking in the mirror.

111. Answers will vary. Social referencing is the seeking out of another person’s perception of a situation to help us form our own view of it. Leslie Carver and Brenda Vaccaro suggest that social referencing requires three components: (1) looking at another, usually older individual in a novel, ambiguous situation; (2) associating that individual’s emotional response with the unfamiliar situation; and (3) regulating their own emotional response in accord with the response of the older individual.

112. Answers will vary. Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues identified the following three phases of attachment: 1. The initial-preattachment phase lasts from birth to about three months and is characterized by indiscriminate attachment.

2. The attachment-in-the-making phase occurs at about three or four months and is characterized by preference for familiar figures.

3. The clear-cut-attachment phase occurs at about six or seven months and is characterized by intensified dependence on the primary caregiver, usually the mother.

113. Answers will vary. Various factors contribute to child abuse, including stress, a history of child abuse in at least one parent’s family of origin, lack of adequate coping and child-rearing skills, unrealistic expectations of children, and substance abuse. Stress has many sources, including divorce, loss of a job, moving, and birth of a new family member.

114. Answers will vary. An infant who is highly active and cries in novel situations often becomes a fearful toddler. Difficult children in general are at greater risk for developing psychological disorders and adjustment problems later in life. A longitudinal study tracked the progress of infants with a difficult temperament from 1½ through 12 years of age. A difficult temperament correlated with parental reports of behavioral problems from ages 3 to 12, and teachers’ reports of problems with attention span and aggression.

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Chap 06__HDEV6 115. Answers will vary. Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues identified various patterns of attachment. Broadly, infants show secure attachment or insecure attachment. Infants who display secure attachment experience mild distress at leave-takings and being readily soothed by reunion. While infants who show avoidant attachment are least distressed by their mothers’ departure, infants who show secure attachment are the most readily consoled by her return.

Secure infants and toddlers are happier, more sociable, and more cooperative with caregivers. At ages five and six, they get along better with peers and are better adjusted in school than insecure children.

Attachment is also related to the quality of infant care. The parents of secure infants are more affectionate, cooperative, and predictable than parents of insecure infants. They respond more sensitively to their infants’ smile and cries. It is also the case that the children of secure mothers show the most secure patterns of attachment themselves.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Egocentrism is characterized by multi-dimensional thinking. a. True b. False 2. American children between the ages of one and three-years-old average two to four minor illnesses a year. a. True b. False 3. Sleep terrors usually occur during deep sleep. a. True b. False 4. The zone of proximal development refers to the area in which children develop physical skills. a. True b. False 5. At two years of age, the brain already has attained 95% of its adult weight. a. True b. False 6. A commonsense understanding of how the mind works is known as the appearance–reality distinction. a. True b. False 7. American children spend less time watching television than they do in school. a. True b. False 8. Environmental enrichment enhances the cognitive development of economically disadvantaged children. a. True b. False 9. Young children are able to use retrieval cues provided to them by adults to remember things. a. True b. False 10. Fast mapping allows children to quickly attach a new word to its appropriate concept. a. True b. False

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Chap 07__HDEV6 11. Sprouting refers to the development of new memories. a. True b. False 12. Four-year-old children think dreams are real because of artificialism. a. True b. False 13. Encopresis is more likely to happen during the day than at night. a. True b. False 14. In developing countries, measles is considered a minor illness. a. True b. False 15. Children reared in homes that are below the federal poverty threshold in incomes are at a greater risk for school failure than children of higher socioeconomic status. a. True b. False 16. Automobile accidents are the leading cause of death in early childhood. a. True b. False 17. All TV programs fail to promote intellectual growth. a. True b. False 18. Boys significantly outgrow girls in height during the preschool years. a. True b. False 19. Skipping is a fine motor skill and develops after all gross motor skills. a. True b. False 20. Children understand passive sentences before active ones. a. True b. False 21. Bed-wetting tends to occur during the deepest stage of sleep. a. True b. False

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Chap 07__HDEV6 22. Parental responsiveness is a minor factor in children’s cognitive development. a. True b. False 23. Between the ages of two to three-years-old, children need 1,600–2,000 calories of food per day. a. True b. False 24. Pragmatics is easier when children are egocentric. a. True b. False 25. It is an open question whether handedness is associated with cognitive advantages and disadvantages. a. True b. False 26. Language and cognitive development are exclusive of each other. a. True b. False 27. Children of higher socioeconomic statuses generally perform better on standardized intelligence tests than children reared in homes that are below the federal poverty threshold in incomes. a. True b. False 28. Infants and young toddlers find it easier to recover from brain damage than adults because their brain’s plasticity is already at its greatest. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

29. Children moving from infancy into their second and third years need a. to consume more carbohydrates. b. a significantly less intake of vitamin. c. a significantly high intake of fat. d. fewer calories.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 30. Brendan is a one-year-old boy and recently experienced an injury to the part of the brain that controls language. On examining him, the neurologist says that other areas of the brain will assume functions of the damaged part and he will not lose the ability to speak or understand a language. The neurologist bases this diagnosis on Brendan’s brain’s ________. a. plasticity b. homogeneity c. elasticity d. heterogeneity 31. A preoperational child fails to show conservation because _______. a. of the irreversibility of a process b. of the lack of egocentrism c. conservation requires the ability to focus on just one aspect of a situation at once d. a preoperational child focuses on more than one dimension at a time 32. Knowing the distinction between actual and mental events and between how things appear and how they really are indicates that a person has a _________. a. theory of consistency b. theory of mind c. theory of reality d. theory of presence 33. The corpus callosum refers to ______. a. the center of emotional processing located near the front of the brain b. the thick bundle of nerve fibers that connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain c. the area responsible for regulating balance located near the rear of the brain d. the brain structure that controls heartbeat and respiration in the center of the brain 34. Conservation is the understanding that _______. a. parents are aware of everything happening to their children, even when they are not present b. properties of objects remain the same, even if you change their superficial characteristics c. one’s perspective is the same as other people’s perspective, irrespective of the situation d. environmental features, such as mountains and thunder, have been designed and created by people 35. The ability to pretend involves _______. a. the use and recollection of symbols b. the ability to use language c. concrete operational thought d. mental representation of things that children have never heard of

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Chap 07__HDEV6 36. Myelination of neural pathways linking the cerebellum and the cerebral cortex ______. a. accounts for the decrease in memory abilities of a child b. accounts for the increase in fine motor skills, balance, and coordination of a child c. is linked to poor verbal skills in a developing child d. is linked to dramatic increase in a child’s ability to imagine and be creative 37. Unlike the left hemisphere of the brain, the right hemisphere is relatively more involved in ______. a. intellectual undertakings in right-handed individuals b. aesthetic and emotional responses in right-handed individuals c. problem-solving and computation in left-handed individuals d. processing logical analysis in left-handed individuals 38. Physical play, such as grasping, banging, and mouthing objects, is more common among ______. a. toddlers b. early primary schoolers c. younger preschoolers d. older preschoolers 39. Which of the following statements is true of inner speech? a. Inner speech is proof that cognitive development precedes language development. b. Inner speech is proof that language development precedes cognitive development. c. Inner speech is the ultimate binding of language and thought. d. Inner speech is the conversation that a child has with their imaginary playmate.

40. Which of the following is true of sleep terrors? a. They are outgrown by early adolescence. b. They wane as children develop. c. They occur during lighter rapid-eye-movement sleep. d. They are less severe than nightmares.

41. A difference between scripts and episodic memory is that a. scripts are accounts of specific events, while episodic memories are accounts of repeated events. b. scripts are rarely recollected in adulthood, while episodic memories are recollected in adulthood. c. scripts are orderly accounts of information, while episodic memories are abstract accounts of information. d. scripts are coherent in nature, while episodic memories are generalized accounts of information.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 42. Two 5-year-old children are chasing each other around the park and wrestling in the grass. Which of the following forms of play are the children involved in? a. Sociodramatic play b. Cooperative play c. Creative play d. Rough-and-tumble play 43. Skills that are used in locomotion that involve large muscle groups are known as ______. a. fine motor skills b. gross motor skills c. motivated motor skills d. complex motor skills 44. Which of the following is true of motor activity in early childhood? a. Motor activity begins to decline after two or three years of age. b. High motor activity ensures a high intelligence quotient. c. Boys show an increase in motor activity compared to that of girls. d. Children become more restless with a decrease in motor activity level.

45. Increase in brain weight during the preschool years is due to the ______. a. increase in thickness of the skull b. continuing myelination of nerve fibers c. increase in size of the spinal cord d. continuing of growth of the medulla 46. In right-handed individuals, the right hemisphere of the brain is usually superior in _____. a. logical analysis b. visual–spatial functions c. computation d. problem-solving functions 47. A similarity between enuresis and encopresis is that both a. are elimination disorders. b. are sleep disorders. c. usually become more frequent with age. d. usually occur during the day.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 48. Which of the following statements is true of sleep terrors? a. They usually occur during rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep. b. They usually occur during deep sleep. c. They occur more often among boys than girls. d. They occur more often among girls than boys.

49. The use of symbols to represent objects and relationships among them best characterizes _______. a. deductive thought b. inductive thought c. preoperational thought d. postoperational thought 50. An example of a minor illness in the United States is _________________. a. tuberculosis b. measles c. pneumonia d. diarrhea 51. Temaru is three years old. She can tell her friend that, before going to bed, she puts her pajamas on, brushes her teeth, and listens to a story. Temaru’s account of this repeated event is called _____. a. a scaffold b. rehearsal c. fast mapping d. a script 52. Preschoolers who engage in violent pretend play demonstrate _______. a. higher levels of paranoia than other children b. less antisocial behavior in later childhood c. more helping behavior toward other children d. lower levels of empathy than other children 53. Which of the following statements is true of the development of motor skills in early childhood? a. Girls are significantly better at tasks requiring gross motor skills than boys. b. Boys are significantly better at tasks requiring precise movements than girls. c. Motor skills of boys develop at a slower rate than that of girls. d. Motor skills are very similar in boys and girls.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 54. Which of the following is true of somnambulism? a. It usually occurs more commonly in adults than children. b. It usually occurs during light rapid-eye-movement sleep. c. It causes violent agitation in children if awakened during an episode. d. It tends to occur during deep sleep.

55. Harsh punishment in response to encopresis _______. a. may cause the child to tense up on the toilet b. causes the problem to stop immediately c. appears to work for boys but not for girls d. teaches self-control 56. The left hemisphere of the brain is relatively more involved in problem-solving functions among ______. a. right-handed individuals b. left-handed individuals c. ambidextrous individuals d. all individuals 57. Children having imaginary friends a. is a sign of serious cognitive problems. b. is an indication of the child having problems with real relationships. c. is found in 95% of preschoolers. d. is most commonly found among firstborn and only children.

58. The integration of logical and emotional functioning is primarily due to ________. a. the development of the cerebellum b. processes of brain plasticity c. increased activity among structures in the limbic system d. the myelination of the corpus callosum 59. Egocentrism refers to the act of ______. a. putting oneself at the center of things b. thinking about oneself in relation to others c. thinking about the implications of others’ actions d. emphasizing connections between oneself and the world around you

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Chap 07__HDEV6 60. Gross motor skills in preschoolers are acquired a. by imitating other children. b. most commonly through adult instruction. c. faster by girls than by boys. d. by the virtue of gender differences.

61. In preschoolers, plasticity enables other areas of the brain to ______. a. respond to brain trauma in the same way as the area that was damaged b. speed the recovery of the damaged area of the brain c. recover more rapidly from injuries d. compensate for injuries to particular areas of the brain 62. A parent who demonstrates to a child how to tie their shoes and then gradually turns over the responsibility of the task to the child is exhibiting _________. a. cognitive conservation b. behavioral scaffolding c. cognitive scaffolding d. behavioral conservation 63. Childhood immunizations a. are used to eliminate diseases like arthritis and diabetes. b. are still unavailable for diseases like rubella and diphtheria. c. have greatly reduced the incidence of serious childhood illnesses. d. have completely eliminated major childhood illnesses.

64. The belief that environmental features were made by people is known as _______. a. animism b. symbolism c. inclinism d. artificialism 65. Immaturity of the nervous system is a major factor in _______. a. sleepwalking b. nightmares c. dreaming d. sleep terrors

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Chap 07__HDEV6 66. Unlike children who do not have imaginary companions, children with imaginary companions _______. a. are more aggressive b. are less cooperative c. show higher levels of creativity d. show more advancement in language development 67. An example of a gross motor skill is a. a four-year-old solving simple mathematical calculations. b. a two-year-old, walking up the stairs, two feet to a step. c. a three-year-old, drawing vertical and horizontal lines. d. a five-year-old tying shoelaces without help.

68. Focusing on only one dimension at a time, a characteristic of preoperational thought identified by Piaget’s cognitive developmental theory, is known as _________. a. conservation b. reduction c. induction d. centration 69. Which of the following statements is true of accidents? a. Girls are more likely than boys to incur accidental injuries. b. Children from economically disadvantaged homes are less likely to die from fires than other children. c. Children from economically disadvantaged homes are more likely to die in motor vehicle accidents than other children. d. Accidents cause less deaths than any other causes of deaths.

70. Class inclusion tasks are difficult for a preoperational child because _______. a. it requires the child to have the ability of seriation b. the child unnecessarily compares various subclasses of information c. it requires the child to focus on two aspects of a situation at once d. the child focuses on assigning one item to a category at a time 71. A similarity between sleep terrors and somnambulism is that incidences of both a. take place during lighter rapid-eye-movement sleep. b. involve violent agitation when awakened during an episode. c. intensify as children develop. d. drop as children develop.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 72. During a recent parent–teacher meeting, the teacher explained to the parents of three-year-old Cameron that their child is in the design stage of artistic development. According to the teacher, Cameron should be able to draw _____. a. basic geometric shapes b. artistic pictures of landscapes c. combinations of the basic shapes d. recognizable objects like houses and airplanes 73. Many children learn to verbalize information silently to themselves by counting mentally, for example, rather than aloud, by about age ______. a. two b. four c. five d. seven 74. Four-year-old Jason says that he has to go out and play in the garden since there is bright light outside, while the light is actually because of a glowing bulb and not because of the sun. Jason is displaying _____. a. fast mapping b. transductive reasoning c. animism d. artificialism 75. Transductive reasoning involves reasoning by a. going from one isolated event to another. b. looking into multiple events together. c. going to only the most complicated event among a group of events. d. looking into similar, related events.

76. Pragmatics refers to the tendency to______. a. seek out the path of least resistance in a negotiation b. behave in the most efficient manner possible c. adjust one’s speech to fit a particular social situation d. accept reality as it is 77. An example of a major childhood illness in underprivileged countries is _______________. a. cold b. vomiting c. tetanus d. nausea

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Chap 07__HDEV6 78. Which of the following statements is true of two-year-olds? a. They typically have a more erratic appetite. b. They need about 2,300 calories per day. c. They need more calories per day than an infant. d. They typically have an increased appetite for salty foods.

79. A contrast assumption is the assumption that a. novel terms must refer to something that you already know. b. novel terms must refer to unfamiliar objects. c. words refer to whole objects and not characteristics of objects. d. similar objects must belong to the same category.

80. A two-year-old child claims that they play peekaboo with the moon, and it often hides behind the clouds. In this scenario, the child is displaying _____. a. animism b. artificialism c. latency d. class inclusion 81. In a 24-hour period, a common pattern of a preschoolers’ sleep is a. 15 to 16 hours at night and two hours during the day. b. three to four hours at night and take two naps of three hours each. c. nine to ten hours at night and take a nap of one to two hours. d. 11 to 12 hours at night and four hours during the day.

82. A child’s brain has reached 90% of its adult weight by the time the child is ______. a. two-years-old b. three-years-old c. four-years-old d. five-years-old 83. Children’s artistic development is linked to the development of _____. a. social and sensory skills b. conservative and redundant skills c. emotional and behavioral skills d. motor and cognitive skills

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Chap 07__HDEV6 84. Enuresis may be caused by ______. a. hyperactivity of the prefrontal cortex b. an immature motor cortex c. lack of specific neurotransmitters needed to achieve physical control d. harsh punishment of toileting accidents 85. Somnambulism is also known as _____. a. bed-wetting b. sleepwalking c. soiling d. sleep apnea 86. In the context of height and weight gains during early childhood, as compared with infancy, _____. a. boys and girls gain some more “baby fat” b. boys and girls become more slender c. girls as a group become heavier and taller than boys d. girls as a group outgrow boys significantly 87. Overregularization refers to the application of ______. a. irregular semantic rules for forming inflections to regular verbs and nouns b. regular semantic rules for forming inflections to irregular verbs and nouns c. irregular grammatical rules for forming inflections to regular verbs and nouns d. regular grammatical rules for forming inflections to irregular verbs and nouns 88. Caitlin thinks that all people love birds because she loves birds. Caitlin is displaying _____. a. egocentrism b. sociocentrism c. symbolic thinking d. cognitive flexibility 89. The growth of new dendrites and redundancy of neural connections are neurological factors that enable ______. a. elasticity b. plasticity c. responsivity d. cursivity

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Chap 07__HDEV6 90. An example of an activity that involves fine motor skills is a. walking upstairs, two feet to a step. b. kicking a large ball. c. hopping on one foot. d. putting coins in a gumball machine.

91. Plasticity of the brain is greatest at about _____. a. four to five years of age b. one to two years of age c. six to seven years of age d. eight to nine years of age 92. Sleep terrors differ from nightmares in that ______. a. nightmares are more frightening b. sleep terrors occur during rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep c. nightmares are usually outgrown d. sleep terrors occur during a deeper sleep stage 93. A factor that influences cognitive development in early childhood is_______________________. a. ethnicity b. preschool education c. psychological conditioning d. philosophical reasoning 94. A difference between growth during preschool years and growth during infancy is that a. growth during preschool years is significantly slower than growth during infancy. b. growth during preschool years develops only motor skills, whereas growth during infancy develops only cognitive skills. c. growth during preschool years is significantly faster than growth during infancy. d. growth during preschool years develops only cognitive skills, whereas growth during infancy only develops motor skills.

95. An example of showing fine motor skills is a child a. throwing a ball forcefully. b. pushing and pulling large toys. c. riding a tricycle very well. d. building a tower with nine cubes.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 96. Which of the following is true of handedness? a. Some infants show no hand preference during infancy. b. It is not influenced by genetics. c. Identical twins have identical hand preference. d. It is exclusively associated with emotional development.

97. The zone of proximal development refers to an area in which children develop a. new cognitive skills as a function of working with more skilled people. b. new cognitive skills through self-talking. c. new cognitive skills through self-learning. d. their drawing skills on their own with the passage of time.

98. Skills that involve the small muscles used in manipulation and coordination are called ______. a. micro motor skills b. gross motor skills c. simple motor skills d. fine motor skills 99. According to Piaget, the preoperational stage of cognitive development _______. a. lasts from approximately age eight to age eleven b. involves the use of abstract reasoning c. lasts from approximately age two to age seven d. involves a growing mastery of formal logic 100. An example of an activity that involves gross motor skills is a. painting a picture using a paintbrush. b. stringing four beads using a large needle. c. riding a bicycle with training wheels. d. building a tower with six cubes.

101. Which of the following is true of bed-wetting? a. Bed-wetting is a sign of poor parenting. b. Bed-wetting increases in occurrence with age. c. Bed-wetting is more common among girls than boys. d. Bed-wetting occurs more often during deep sleep.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 102. Janet is learning how to ride a tricycle. For the most part, she is able do it by herself. When she finds pedaling too difficult, her parents push the tricycle for her. Which of the following cognitive development techniques is used by Janet’s parents? a. Fast mapping b. Scaffolding c. Contrast assumption d. Rehearsal 103. Fast mapping refers to a process of _______. a. quickly determining a word’s meaning b. understanding locations in space c. connecting broad concepts to narrow ones d. building on preexisting knowledge of certain themes 104. Motor vehicle accidents are the _______. a. most common cause of early childhood death b. most common cause of death among male children c. least common cause of death among female children d. least common cause of early childhood death 105. Which of the following is true of the corpus callosum? a. It starts developing only after the age of five-years-old. b. Its use is limited to processing visual information. c. It connects the brain stem to the frontal regions of the brain. d. Its myelination is largely complete by the age of eight-years-old.

106. A limitation to assessing memory in preschool children is that a. the underdevelopment of their brains makes it impossible for them to create long-term memories. b. using verbal reports appears to underestimate preschool children’s memory. c. the slower speed of neurons in their brains makes the memories formed weaker and shorter lasting. d. researchers lack a method to make a measurement of their memories.

107. During preschool years, _____. a. girls as a group outgrow boys significantly b. boys as a group become more intelligent than girls c. boys as a group become slightly taller and heavier than girls d. girls as a group are better than boys in physical challenges

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Chap 07__HDEV6 108. Appearance–reality distinction is the understanding that _____. a. there is a difference between real events and mental events b. novel words refer to unfamiliar objects and events c. more than one aspect of a real situation can be focused on at a time d. the world can be perceived from another person’s point of view 109. Provide a brief account of encopresis.

110. Describe the development of vocabulary in preschoolers.

111. Describe accidents as a cause of death in early childhood.

112. Discuss a memory strategy that helps adults and children remember things.

113. Explain an indication of preschoolers’ understanding that mental states affect behavior.

114. Write a note on a theory of mind.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 115. Describe egocentrism in early childhood.

116. In the context of cognitive development of children, write a note on Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development (ZPD).

117. In the context of a theory of mind, describe the origins of knowledge.

118. Discuss the development of memory in early childhood. Explain the various factors that influence memory in early childhood.

119. Describe the cognitive abilities and limitations of preoperational children.

120. Briefly describe the effects of early childhood education.

121. Briefly describe the nutritional needs of preschool children.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 122. Explain how language and cognitive development are interwoven.

123. Briefly describe the influence of genetic factors on handedness of a child.

124. Describe the development of handedness in early childhood.

125. Explain the minor illnesses that occur in early childhood.

126. Explain Vygotsky’s concept of inner speech.

127. Explain the major illnesses that occur in early childhood.

128. Explain the concept of conservation and centration in the context of cognitive development of a preoperational child.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 129. Briefly describe rough-and-tumble play.

130. Provide a brief account of enuresis.

131. Explain the influence of television on development of preoperational children.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. False 20. False 21. True 22. False 23. False 24. False 25. True 26. False

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Chap 07__HDEV6 27. True 28. True 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. d 52. d 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. c 64. d 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. c 70. c 71. d 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 83. d 84. b 85. b 86. b 87. d 88. a 89. b 90. d 91. b 92. d 93. b 94. a 95. d 96. a 97. a 98. d 99. c 100. c 101. d 102. b 103. a 104. a 105. d 106. b 107. c 108. a

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Chap 07__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. Soiling, or encopresis, is lack of control over the bowels. Soiling, like enuresis, is more common among boys. About 1% to 2% of children at the ages of seven and eight have continuing problems controlling their bowels. Soiling, in contrast to enuresis, is more likely to occur during the day.

Thus, it can be embarrassing to the child, especially in school.

110. Answers will vary. The development of vocabulary proceeds at an extraordinary pace. Preschoolers learn an average of nine new words per day.

Word learning, in fact, does not occur gradually but is better characterized as a fast-mapping process in which the child quickly attaches a new word to its appropriate concept. Children apparently have early cognitive biases or constraints that lead them to prefer certain meanings over others. Children also assume that words refer to whole objects and not to their component parts or their characteristics, such as color, size, or texture. This bias is called the whole-object assumption. Children also seem to assume that objects have only one label. Therefore, novel terms must refer to unfamiliar objects and not to familiar objects that already have labels. This concept is the contrast assumption, which is also known as the mutual exclusivity assumption.

111. Answers will vary. Accidents cause more deaths in early childhood than the next six most frequent causes combined. The single most common cause of death in early childhood is motor vehicle accidents. Boys are more likely than girls to incur accidental injuries at all ages and in all socioeconomic groups. Poor children are five times as likely to die from fires and more than twice as likely to die in motor vehicle accidents than other children. The high accident rate of low-income children may result partly from living in dangerous housing and neighborhoods.

112. Answers will vary. Adults and older children use strategies to help them remember things. One strategy is mental repetition, or rehearsal. If you are trying to remember a new friend’s phone number, for example, you might repeat it several times. Another strategy is to organize things to be remembered into categories. Most preschoolers do not engage in spontaneous rehearsal until about five years of age. They also rarely group objects into related categories to help them remember. By about age five, many children have learned to verbalize information silently to themselves by counting mentally, for example, rather than aloud.

113. Answers will vary. One indication of preschoolers’ understanding that mental states affect behavior is the ability to understand false beliefs. This concept involves children’s ability to separate their beliefs from those of another person who has false knowledge of a situation.

114. Answers will vary. Adults appear to have a commonsense understanding of how the mind works—that is, a theory of mind. We understand that we can gain knowledge through our senses or through hearsay. We know the distinction between actual and mental events and between how things appear and how they really are. We can infer the perceptions, thoughts, and feelings of others. We understand that mental states affect behavior.

115. Answers will vary. Egocentrism, in Piaget’s use of the term, means that preoperational children do not understand that other people may have different perspectives on the world. Two-year-olds may, in fact, assume that their parents are aware of everything that is happening to them, even when their parents are not present. Piaget used the “three-mountains test” to show that egocentrism prevents young children from taking the viewpoints of others.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 116. Answers will vary. Vygotsky’s ZPD is related to scaffolding. Cognitive scaffolding refers to temporary support provided by a parent or teacher to learning children. ZPD refers to the area in which children develop new cognitive skills as a function of working with more skilled people. Adults or older children can best guide children through this zone by gearing their assistance to children’s capabilities. Researchers assert that the key forms of children’s cognitive activities develop through interaction with older, more experienced individuals who teach and guide them.

117. Answers will vary. Another aspect of theory of mind is how we acquire knowledge. By age three, most children begin to realize that people gain knowledge about something by looking at it. By age four, children understand that particular senses provide information about only certain qualities of an object; for example, we come to know an object’s color through our eyes, but we learn about its weight by feeling it.

In a study by Daniela O’Neill and Alison Gopnik, three-, four-, and five-year-olds learned about the contents of a toy tunnel in three different ways: They saw the contents, were told about them, or felt them. The children were then asked to state what was in the tunnel and how they knew. Although four- and five-yearolds had no trouble identifying the sources of their knowledge, the three-year-olds did. For example, after feeling but not seeing a ball in the tunnel, a number of three-year-olds told the experimenter that they could tell it was a blue ball. The children did not realize they could not learn the ball’s color by feeling it.

118. Answers will vary. Children, like adults, often remember what they want to remember. By the age of four, children can remember events that occurred at least one and a half years earlier. Young children seem to form scripts, which are abstract, generalized accounts of repeated events. Even though children as young as one and two years of age can remember events, these memories seldom last into adulthood. This memory of specific events—known as autobiographical memory or episodic memory—is facilitated by children talking about the memories with others.

Factors that affect memory include what the child is asked to remember, the interest level of the child, the availability of retrieval cues or reminders, and what memory measure we are using.

Children find it easier to remember events that follow a fixed and logical order than events that do not.

Although young children can remember a great deal, they depend more than older children do on cues provided by others to help them retrieve their memories. Children’s memory can often be measured or assessed by asking them to say what they remember.

119. Answers will vary. Although preoperational children show confusion between symbols and the objects they represent, they begin to understand how their minds work. In addition, they begin to use symbols to represent objects. This, of course, is necessary for the development of language. Children of this age also begin to engage in symbolic or pretend play, which demonstrates advancements in the ability to imagine.

Preoperational children are highly egocentric, assuming that others think the same things they do. They are unable to understand conservation tasks because they still show one-dimensional thinking and irreversibility. Additionally, they are likely to display animism (attributing thoughts and feelings to inanimate objects) and artificialism (believing that people created environmental features such as thunder and rain).

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Chap 07__HDEV6 120. Answers will vary. Children reared in poverty generally perform less well on standardized intelligence tests than children of higher socioeconomic status, and they are at greater risk for school failure. As a result, preschool programs were begun in the 1960s to enhance their cognitive development and readiness for elementary school. Children in these programs typically are exposed to letters and words, numbers, books, exercises in drawing, pegs and pegboards, puzzles, and toy animals and dolls—materials and activities that middle-class children usually take for granted. Studies of Head Start and other intervention programs show that environmental enrichment can enhance the cognitive development of economically disadvantaged children. In the Milwaukee Project, poor children of low-IQ mothers were provided with enriched day care from the age of six months. By the late preschool years, the children’s IQ scores averaged about 121, compared with an average of 95 for peers who did not receive day care.

121. Answers will vary. Two-to-three-year-olds need 1000–1,400 calories of food per day, and four-to-eight-yearolds require some 1,200–2,000 calories a day, depending on growth and activity level. This is a very wide range, so an absolute prescription for a given child is not advisable. The Mayo Clinic advises eating a balanced diet of protein sources (for example, seafood, lean meats, and nuts), fruits, vegetables, grains, and dairy products. During the second and third years, a child’s appetite typically becomes erratic, but because the child is growing more slowly than in infancy, they need fewer calories. Children who eat little at one meal may compensate by eating more at another. Infants seem to be born liking the taste of sugar, although they are fairly indifferent to salt. But preference for sweet and salty foods increases if children are repeatedly exposed to them. Parents and television advertising also influence the development of food preferences.

122. Answers will vary. Language and cognitive development are interwoven. For example, the child gradually gains the capacity to discriminate between animals on the basis of distinct features, such as size, patterns of movement, and the sounds they make. At the same time, the child also is acquiring words that represent broader categories, such as mammal and animal.

123. Answers will vary. Handedness seems to have a genetic component, as a child with two right-handed parents will have a 92% chance of being right-handed, while a child with two left-handed parents may have only a 50% chance of being left-handed. The exact ramifications for cognitive or emotional connections to handedness are also still under investigation.

124. Answers will vary. Handedness emerges during infancy, usually by two to three months of age. This can be tested by placing a rattle or another toy in the infant’s hand. If the toy is placed in the infant’s right hand, they will generally hold the rattle longer than if it is placed in the left hand. This right-hand preference usually emerges by two or three months of age. By four months, a clear right-hand preference is prominent. Right- or left-handed, children demonstrate a preference for a one-handed grasp between 6 and 14 months. The exact rates of right- and left-handed individuals are unclear.

125. Answers will vary. Minor illnesses refer to respiratory infections, such as colds, and to gastrointestinal upsets, such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. These diseases are normal in that most children come down with them. They typically last a few days or less and are not life threatening. Although diarrheal illness in the United States is usually mild, it is a leading killer of children in developing countries.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 126. Answers will vary. Vygotsky believed that during most of the first year, vocalizations and thought are separate. But during the second year, thought and speech combine forces. Children discover that objects have labels. Learning labels becomes more self-directed. Children ask what new words mean. Learning new words fosters creation of new categories, and new categories become filled with labels for new things. Vygotsky’s concept of inner speech is a key feature of his position. At first, children’s thoughts are spoken aloud. You can hear the three-year-old instructing herself, as she plays with toys. At this age, her vocalizations serve to regulate her behavior, but they gradually become internalized. What was spoken aloud at four and five becomes an internal dialogue by six or seven. Inner speech is the ultimate binding of language and thought. It is involved in the development of planning and self-regulation and facilitates learning.

127. ​ Answers will vary. Advances in immunization along with the development of antibiotics and other medications have dramatically reduced the incidence and effects of serious childhood diseases. Because most preschoolers and school children have been inoculated against major childhood illnesses such as rubella (German measles), measles, tetanus, mumps, whooping cough, diphtheria, and polio, these diseases no longer pose the threat they once did. Although many major childhood diseases have been largely eradicated in the United States and other industrialized nations, they remain fearsome killers of children in developing countries. Around the world, eight to nine million children die each year of just six diseases: pneumonia, diarrhea, measles, tetanus, whooping cough, and tuberculosis. Air pollution from the combustion of fossil fuels for heating and cooking causes many respiratory infections, which are responsible for nearly one death in five among children who are younger than five years of age. Diarrhea kills nearly two million children under the age of five each year. Diarrheal diseases are mostly related to unsafe drinking water and poor sanitation and hygiene.

128. Answers will vary. The law of conservation holds that properties of substances such as volume, mass, and number remain the same—or are conserved—even if you change their shape or arrangement.

Conservation requires the ability to focus on two aspects of a situation at once, such as height and width.

A preoperational child focuses or centers on only one dimension at a time, a characteristic of thought that Piaget called centration.

129. Answers will vary. Rough-and-tumble play consists of running, chasing, fleeing, wrestling, hitting with an open hand, laughing, and making faces. Rough-and-tumble play, which is more common among boys than among girls, is not the same as aggressive behavior, which involves hitting, pushing, taking, grabbing, and angry looks. Rough-and-tumble play helps develop physical and social skills.

130. Answers will vary. Enuresis is failure to control the bladder (urination) once the “normal” age for achieving bladder control has been reached. The American Psychiatric Association places the cutoff age at five years and does not consider “accidents” to represent enuresis unless they occur at least twice a month for five- and six-year-olds. It is believed that enuresis might have organic causes, most often immaturity of the motor cortex of the brain. Just as children outgrow sleep terrors and sleepwalking, they tend to outgrow bed-wetting.

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Chap 07__HDEV6 131. Answers will vary. American children spend more time watching television than they do in school. By the time they turn three, the average child already watches two to three hours of television a day. Television has great potential for teaching a variety of cognitive skills, social behaviors, and attitudes. Sesame Street is the most successful children’s educational TV program. The goal of Sesame Street is to promote the intellectual growth of preschoolers, particularly those of lower socioeconomic status. Large-scale evaluations of the effects of the program have concluded that regular viewing increases children’s learning of numbers, letters, and cognitive skills such as sorting and classification.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Children from permissive–indulgent homes, unlike those from neglectful homes, are fairly high in social competence and self-confidence. a. True b. False 2. Children of authoritative parents lack motivation to achieve and perform poorly in school. a. True b. False 3. Children who believe in the legitimacy of aggression are more likely to behave aggressively when they are presented with social provocations. a. True b. False 4. Older siblings tend to be less caring and less dominating than younger siblings. a. True b. False 5. Children who are physically punished are more likely to be aggressive themselves than children who are not physically punished. a. True b. False 6. Preoperational children tend to struggle to see things from the vantage point of others. a. True b. False 7. In middle childhood, girls spend more time than boys in play groups of five or more children and in competitive play. a. True b. False 8. The sense of self emerges during infancy. a. True b. False 9. According to a study by Liben in 2017, children become increasingly traditional in their stereotyping of activities, jobs, and personality traits between the ages of three and nine or ten. a. True b. False 10. Fear of social disapproval is the most common fear among preschoolers. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 11. First-born children, as a group, are somewhat less highly motivated to achieve than later-born children. a. True b. False 12. Preschoolers are most likely to fear animals, imaginary creatures, the dark, and personal danger. a. True b. False 13. Preschool boys tend to show less empathy and to report fewer fears than girls. a. True b. False 14. Parents of prosocial children are less likely to expect mature behavior from their children. a. True b. False 15. Friendship is characterized by shared adversity and feelings of attachment. a. True b. False 16. First-born and only children show somewhat higher anxiety levels than later-born children. a. True b. False 17. Permissive–indulgent parents are low in their attempts to control their children and rarely demand mature behavior. a. True b. False 18. According to Erik Erikson, children in the stage of initiative versus guilt focus on compliance with the rules of others. a. True b. False 19. Children with high self-esteem are more likely to be securely attached and have parents who are attentive to their needs. a. True b. False 20. According to gender schema theory, once children come to see themselves as female or male, they begin to seek information concerning gender-typed traits and try to live up to them. a. True b. False

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Chap 08__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Cold parents are ______. a. likely to complain about their children’s behavior, saying they are naughty b. caring, supportive, and affectionate toward their children c. less likely than warm parents to use physical discipline d. likely to communicate their enjoyment in being with their children 22. Parents prefer power assertion to induction for imposing restrictions on children when _______. a. they believe that children understand the rules they have violated and are capable of acting appropriately b. they seek to help their children understand moral behavior and foster prosocial behavior such as helping and sharing c. they deal with less aggressive children d. they have to explain why one kind of behavior is good and another is not 23. A difference between preschool boys and preschool girls is that preschool boys a. engage in less rough-and-tumble play than girls. b. show somewhat greater verbal ability than girls. c. show somewhat greater visual–spatial ability than girls. d. tend to show more empathy and to report more fears than girls.

24. The type of play that involves children interacting and sharing toys is ________________. a. onlooker play b. solitary play c. associative play d. unoccupied play 25. Permissive–indulgent parents are ______. a. easygoing and unconventional b. low in showing warmth to their children c. high in their attempts to control their children d. generally cold and rejecting 26. Gender schema theory proposes that a. gender differences were fashioned by natural selection in response to problems in adaptation that were repeatedly encountered by humans over thousands of generations. b. children start forming gender concepts only during the later stages of childhood. c. children use gender as one way of organizing their perceptions of the world. d. once children come to see themselves as female or male, they stop seeking information concerning gender-typed traits.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 27. Stephanie sees her six-year-old boy, Max, misbehaving with a guest. Stephanie warns Max that if he continues misbehaving with guests, she will stop talking to him. In this scenario, Stephanie enforced the restriction on Max using the method of _____. a. withdrawal of love b. forced insistence c. privilege removal d. reprimand constancy 28. A difference between warm and cold parents is that warm parents are ______. a. more likely to have children who behave aggressively throughout the school years b. less likely to tolerate aggressiveness in their children c. more likely to complain about their children’s behavior d. less likely to use physical discipline 29. Which of the following is an example of inductive techniques employed by parents to enforce restrictions on their children? a. A parent explained to a four-year-old child that they should not pull hair as it is not appropriate behavior. b. A parent spanked their nine-year-old child because they got poor grades at school. c. A parent ignored their eight-year-old child for a week because they were misbehaving in school. d. A parent complained about their five-year-old child to their spouse because the child was not listening to instructions.

30. Preschool girls a. engage in more rough-and-tumble play and are more aggressive than boys. b. tend to show more empathy and report more fears than boys. c. show somewhat lesser verbal ability than boys. d. show somewhat greater visual–spatial ability than boys.

31. Parents who supervise their children to a certain extent but also allow their children to do what is “natural,” such as make noise, treat toys carelessly, and experiment with their bodies can best be described as ______. a. intolerant b. restrictive c. authoritarian d. permissive 32. First-born children ______. a. are more highly motivated to achieve than later-born children b. show lesser anxiety levels than later-born children c. act more aggressively compared to younger siblings d. tend to be somewhat more rebellious and liberal than later-born children Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 33. Jay, a ten-year-old-boy, is watching other children play hopscotch and calling out suggestions to his friends who are playing the game. In this scenario, Jay is engaged in _____. a. onlooker play b. solitary play c. parallel play d. associative play 34. According to Erik Erikson, the preschool period is marked by a decline in the fear of _____. a. social disapproval b. punishment c. animals and imaginary creatures d. loud noises 35. The type of play that involves children interacting with each other to achieve common, group goals is __________. a. onlooker play b. solitary play c. associative play d. cooperative play 36. Miley asks her father for money to buy tickets to the final of a world cup tournament. Her father asks her why she plans to attend the world cup final in the stadium when she can watch it on television.

Miley replies that the adrenalin rush she gets with the 100,000 live audience in the stadium cannot be replicated if she watches it on television. Her father laughs and gives her the money, telling her to have a great time. In this scenario, Miley’s father displays what kind of parenting style? a. Authoritarian b. Power-assertive c. Rejecting–neglecting d. Permissive–indulgent 37. Parents who do not enjoy their children and have few feelings of affection for them are best described as _____. a. hot b. cold c. authoritative d. indulgent 38. The sensorimotor stage often includes the development of what kind of play? a. Formal play b. Functional play c. Physical play d. Cognitive play Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 39. Onlooker play involves children _____. a. observing other children who are at play b. mimicking the play of other children c. building on the rules established by other children d. monitoring other children for rule violations 40. Laika is in the beginning of the sensorimotor stage of development. Laika often runs in circles while giggling and is most likely engaged in _____. a. functional play b. symbolic play c. constructive play d. formal games 41. Jacob and his friends form a group to play “Treasure Hunt.” The game comprises eight groups that have to find a hidden object using the clues given to them in the form of puzzles. Each group member is required to interact with the rest of the group to solve the puzzles and ultimately find the hidden object. It is evident that Jacob is engaged in _____. a. onlooker play b. cooperative play c. associative play d. parallel play 42. Children who are involved in cooperative play a. play with toys by themselves, independently of the children around them. b. do not appear to be playing. c. only observe other children playing. d. interact to achieve common, group goals.

43. Robin, an infant, is given a rattle. He shakes his rattle and giggles. He repeats this action a couple of times. It is evident that Robin is engaged in _____. a. functional play b. symbolic play c. constructive play d. formal play 44. Permissive parents ______. a. are most likely to use power-assertive techniques when dealing with aggressive behavior. b. have strict guidelines for right and wrong and demand that their children accept them without question. c. tend to impose rules and to watch their children closely. d. allow their children to show some aggression, intervening only when another child is in danger.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 45. Mathew tells his son to stop practicing his piano lessons and to water the plants in the garden. When his son says that he will water the plants after he finishes practicing his lessons, Mathew reacts aggressively by saying, “You better go to the garden now, or you will not receive your monthly allowance.” In this scenario, what parenting style does Mathew use? a. Authoritarian b. Permissive–indulgent c. Rejecting–neglecting d. Authoritative 46. The parenting style that produces children who are the least competent in school is ________________. a. neglectful b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. permissive 47. A three-year-old is playing alone in their room with small plastic blocks. It is evident that this child is engaged in _____. a. cooperative play b. solitary play c. parallel play d. associative play 48. According to the cognitive-developmental view of gender typing proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg, children ______. a. use gender as one way of organizing their perceptions of the world b. form concepts about gender and then fit their behavior to the concepts c. can distinguish whether they are boys or girls at the age of one year d. can discriminate anatomic gender differences at the age of 18 months 49. A child’s sensitivity to the feelings of others is called _____. a. self-reliance b. empathy c. ethnocentrism d. egotism 50. Solitary play is an example of _____. a. cooperative play b. nonsocial play c. symbolic play d. associative play

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Chap 08__HDEV6 51. At about 2 to 2½ years of age, children ______. a. perceive their own gender in a somewhat better light b. generally agree that boys play with cars and trucks c. display knowledge of gender stereotypes for toys, clothing, work, and activities d. can identify pictures of girls and boys 52. John, a seven-year-old boy, is a student of the third grade. Whenever he gets poor grades, his parents deny him privileges. In this scenario, John’s parents enforced restrictions on him using the method of _____. a. forced insistence b. power assertion c. withdrawal of love d. induction 53. During middle childhood, children ______. a. start fearing strangers b. become more fearful of failure in school and social relationships c. grow less fearful of failure and criticism in school d. become more fearful of imaginary creatures 54. A child playing hopscotch with a friend is engaged in _____. a. formal games b. symbolic play c. functional play d. board games 55. Which of the following is true of preoperational children? a. They tend to be able to see things from the vantage points of others. b. They tend to be egocentric. c. They interact with other children to achieve common, group goals. d. They tend to exhibit empathy.

56. The kind of children’s play that is characterized by the use of objects or materials to draw something or make something, such as a tower of blocks is ________________. a. functional play b. symbolic play c. constructive play d. formal games

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Chap 08__HDEV6 57. A difference between later-born children and first-born children is that a. later-born children are more highly motivated to achieve than first-born children. b. later-born children perform better academically and are more cooperative than first-born children. c. later-born children show somewhat greater anxiety levels than first-born children. d. later-born children tend to be more rebellious and likely to be disciplined in school than first-born children.

58. According to Erik Erikson, the preschool period of children is marked by ______. a. an increase in fear of strangers b. a decline in fear of sudden movement c. an increase in fear of loud noises d. a decline in fear of social disapproval 59. Methods designed to enforce restrictions on children including physical punishment and denial of privileges are best termed ______. a. permission-compliant b. permissive–indulgent c. power-assertive d. authority-insistent 60. In symbolic play, children ______. a. engage in mindless repetitive motor activity b. play alone with their toys and do not share them c. engage in games with rules, such as board games d. create settings, characters, and scripts 61. According to Erikson, which of the following occurs during the stage of initiative versus guilt? a. Children learn that not all their plans, dreams, and fantasies can be realized. b. Children remain ignorant of adult rules. c. Children lack the urge to achieve independence from their parents. d. Children are afraid to try new things.

62. Aggressive children appear to be ______. a. more empathic than their peers b. more accurate in interpreting the intentions of others c. lacking in the ability to see things from the perspective of others d. less egocentric than their peers

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Chap 08__HDEV6 63. A parent notices that a five-year-old child is sitting very close to the screen and watching television.

The parent says to the child, “Please do not watch television from such a short distance. It may damage your eyes.” In this scenario, the parent enforced restrictions on the child using the method known as _____. a. deduction b. induction c. authority insistence d. application of discipline 64. A difference between permissive parents and restrictive parents is that permissive parents are _______. a. less likely to let their children do what is “natural” b. more likely to use power-assertive techniques when dealing with aggressive behavior c. likely to supervise their children less closely than restrictive parents d. more likely to use physical discipline than restrictive parents 65. A child makes different figures such as a tower, a building, and even a toy slide with a Lego kit. It is evident that the child is engaged in _____. a. functional play b. symbolic play c. constructive play d. onlooker play 66. A technique of enforcing restrictions on children that includes isolating or ignoring misbehaving children is the method of ____________________. a. power assertion b. withdrawal of love c. deduction d. induction 67. Two students in kindergarten play “hospital” at the kindergarten, wherein one student assumes the role of a doctor and the other student assumes the role of a nurse. It is evident that the kindergarteners are engaged in _____. a. onlooker play b. dramatic play c. nonsocial play d. solitary play

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Chap 08__HDEV6 68. Two children have created a game in which they race their bicycles through an obstacle course, and they have rules for how many points you lose if you deviate from the course or knock something over.

According to Piaget, the children are involved in _____. a. functional play b. formal games c. symbolic play d. destructive games 69. Akiva sees a group of three boys playing next to him in class. He does not attempt to join them but simply watches them. According to Mildred Parten, Akiva is involved in _____. a. onlooker play b. solitary play c. formal play d. associative play 70. According to Kohlberg, at around age four or five, most children develop the _____. a. concept of gender fluidity b. concept of gender interchangeability c. concept of gender constancy d. concept of gender stability 71. A positive outcome of permissive–indulgent parenting that children of permissive–indulgent parenting a. tend to be fairly high in self-confidence. b. are less likely to engage in substance abuse. c. show high levels of activity and exploratory behavior. d. are highly motivated to achieve and do well in school.

72. Rejecting–neglecting parents are _______. a. high in their attempts to control their children b. low in support and responsiveness c. high in their demands for mature behavior d. communicative and warm 73. Children of authoritative parents tend to show ______. a. self-reliance and independence b. low self-esteem c. low levels of activity and exploratory behavior d. social dominance

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Chap 08__HDEV6 74. April, Katy, and John are in the third grade. They regularly play a game they call “Vacation,” wherein April assumes the role of an airplane pilot, Katy assumes the role of April’s co-pilot, and John acts as a passenger. Although they do not follow any rules, they have a script, and they play according to it. It is evident that April, Katy, and John are engaged in _____. a. functional play b. symbolic play c. constructive play d. formal games 75. Older siblings ______. a. are more aggressive than younger siblings b. are more self-reliant than younger siblings c. tend to imitate younger siblings and accept their direction d. tend to be more caring but also more dominating than younger siblings 76. Parents who are restrictive _______. a. allow their children to do what is “natural” b. tend to impose rules and to watch their children closely. c. allow their children to show some aggression, intervening only when another child is in danger. d. always communicate their enjoyment in being with their children.

77. Which of the following restrictive techniques used by parents involves explaining why one kind of behavior is good and another is not? a. The method of power assertion b. The method of withdrawal of love c. The method of ignoring d. The method of induction 78. Warm parents ______. a. are likely to impose unreasonable rules and to watch their children closely b. are more likely than cold parents to complain about their children’s behavior c. tend to hug and kiss their children and smile at them frequently d. enjoy being with their children but do not communicate their feelings to them 79. Cindy, a six-year-old girl, is playing with plastic cubes like the rest of the children in her class. In the class, everyone has their individual set of cubes and individual figures to construct. Cindy, however, interacts with her friend to understand how to stack the plastic cubes so that she can construct her own model. In this scenario, Cindy is engaged in _____. a. onlooker play b. solitary play c. associative play d. unoccupied play Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 80. Parents who have strict guidelines for right and wrong and demand that their children accept them without question are known as ______. a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive–indulgent d. rejecting–neglecting 81. The understanding that a woman who cuts her hair short remains a woman and does not automatically turn into a man is referred to as _____. a. gender constancy b. gender stereotyping c. object permanence d. ethnocentrism 82. A parent tells their child to finish a school assignment before going to bed. However, the child wants to sleep right away. The parent says, “I know you are very tired, but the assignment is really important.

How about I help you with the assignment so that you can finish it early?” In this scenario, what parenting style does the parent use? a. Authoritative b. Permissive–indulgent c. Authoritarian d. Rejecting–neglecting 83. Preschool boys a. show somewhat lesser visual–spatial ability than girls. b. show somewhat greater verbal ability than girls. c. tend to show more empathy and to report more fears than girls. d. engage in more rough-and-tumble play and are more aggressive than girls.

84. Riepe and his colleagues wonder whether different patterns of brain activities might contribute to _____. a. women using the left hippocampus and left hemisphere of the brain more when navigating b. gender preferences for using landmarks or maps when navigating c. men using the right hippocampus more when navigating d. women using both hemispheres of the brain when they are navigating 85. A technique of enforcing restrictions on children that includes physical punishment and denial of privileges is the method of ________________________. a. withdrawal of love b. power assertion c. ignoring d. induction Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 86. A child playing a board game is engaged in _____. a. functional play b. constructive play c. prosocial behaviors d. formal games 87. Parents who are low in their attempts to control their children and in their demands for mature behavior are best described as ______. a. authoritative b. authoritarian c. rejecting–neglectful d. permissive–indulgent 88. A return to behavior characteristic of earlier stages of development is called ______. a. regression b. reduction c. nostalgia d. melancholia 89. In formal games, children sometimes ______. a. do not use their motor skills b. invent or enhance game’s rules c. indulge exclusively in solitary play d. observe other children who play games 90. According to Erik Erikson, children in the stage of initiative versus guilt ______. a. are curious, try new things, and test themselves b. tend to be extremely unwilling to learn new skills c. believe that all their plans, dreams, and fantasies can be realized d. are completely dependent on their parents 91. Play in which children enact social roles is called ______. a. dramatic play b. functional play c. onlooker play d. formal play

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Chap 08__HDEV6 92. Parents who are affectionate toward their children can be described as ______. a. indulgent b. authoritarian c. warm d. permissive 93. Two kindergarten students play “house” in school and pretend to be husband and wife. This scenario is an example of _____. a. onlooker play b. solitary play c. nonsocial play d. dramatic play 94. A child asks a parent if they can go out to play with a friend. The parent says, “Do whatever you want.

I have work to finish. Do not bother me.” In this scenario, the parent uses what kind of parenting style? a. Authoritarian b. Authoritative c. Rejecting–neglecting d. Permissive–indulgent 95. The term that most broadly refers to behavior intended to hurt or injure another person is ____________. a. aggression b. intimidation c. coercion d. castigation 96. Children with high self-esteem are ______. a. more likely to be desensitized to violence b. more likely to have parents who are attentive to their needs c. less likely to show prosocial behavior d. less likely to be securely attached 97. Russell’s mother recently gave birth to a second child. Since then, Russell has become excessively clingy toward his mother. He cries whenever she attends to the second child and sometimes even wets his pants. In this scenario, Russell displays _____. a. habituation to the enlarged family b. regression to infant-like behaviors c. prosocial behaviors d. maturity in light of his newly born brother

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Chap 08__HDEV6 98. A two-year-old child reaches over and pulls their parent’s hair. The parent responds by saying, “Please do not do that. It hurts!” Which of the following restrictive techniques employed by parents is shown in the given scenario? a. The method of induction b. The method of ignoring c. The method of power assertion d. The method of withdrawal of love 99. Which of the following is a form of social play? a. Solitary play b. Onlooker play c. Unoccupied play d. Associative play 100. Which of the following best describes prosocial behavior? a. It refers to the participation in illegal behavior by minors. b. It is behavior that is intended to hurt or injure another person. c. It is behavior that is intended to benefit other people without expectation of reward. d. It is behavior that is intended to inhibit aggressive thoughts and behavior amongst other people.

101. Compare the effects of the authoritarian and authoritative parenting styles.

102. Discuss gender typing.

103. Briefly explain the self-concept.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 104. In the context of children’s psychological development, briefly explain the stage of initiative versus guilt.

105. Briefly explain the gender differences in play.

106. What are the four types of play identified by Jean Piaget? Give examples of each.

107. Explain how peer interactions foster social skills.

108. What is gender schema theory?

109. How are later-born children different from first-born children?

110. Discuss the influence of siblings in early childhood.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 111. Describe prosocial behavior.

112. Compare the rejecting–neglecting parenting style with the permissive–indulgent parenting style.

113. Describe the authoritarian parenting style.

114. Describe the authoritative parenting style.

115. How do the evolutionary and social cognitive theories differ in how they explain gender-role development?

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Chap 08__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. True 20. True 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. c

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Chap 08__HDEV6 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. d 52. b 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. b 75. d 76. b 77. d 78. c 79. c 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 83. d 84. b 85. b 86. d 87. d 88. a 89. b 90. a 91. a 92. c 93. d 94. c 95. a 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. d 100. c 101. Answers will vary. Compared with other children, the children of authoritative parents tend to show selfreliance and independence, high self-esteem, high levels of activity and exploratory behavior, and social competence. They are highly motivated to achieve and do well in school. This contrasts with children of authoritarian parents, who are less competent socially and academically than those of authoritative parents. They are anxious, irritable, and restrained in their social interactions. As adolescents, they may be conforming and obedient but have low self-reliance and self-esteem.

102. Answers will vary. According to Kohlberg, gender typing involves the emergence of three concepts: gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy. The first step in gender typing is attaining gender identity. Gender identity is the knowledge that one is male or female. At two years, most children can say whether they are boys or girls. By the age of three, many children can discriminate anatomic gender differences.

At around age four or five, most children develop the concept of gender stability, according to Kohlberg. They recognize that people retain their gender for a lifetime.

By the age of five to seven years, Kohlberg believes that most children develop the more sophisticated concept of gender constancy and recognize that people’s gender does not change, even if they change their dress or behavior.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. The sense of self, or the self-concept, emerges gradually during infancy. Infants and toddlers visually begin to recognize themselves and differentiate themselves from other individuals such as their parents.

In the preschool years, children continue to develop their sense of self. Almost as soon as they begin to speak, they describe themselves in terms of certain categories, such as age groupings (baby, child, adult) and gender (girl, boy). Self-definitions that refer to concrete external traits have been called the categorical self.

104. Answers will vary. As preschoolers continue to develop a separate sense of themselves, they increasingly move out into the world and take the initiative in learning new skills. Erik Erikson refers to these early childhood years as the stage of initiative versus guilt.

Children in this stage strive to achieve independence from their parents and master adult behaviors. They are curious, try new things, and test themselves. Children learn that not all their plans, dreams, and fantasies can be realized.

105. Answers will vary. Research shows that infants show visual preferences for gender-stereotyped toys as early as three to eight months of age. Although preferences for gender-typed toys are well developed by the ages of 15 to 36 months, girls are more likely to stray from the stereotypes. Girls ask for and play with “boys’ toys” such as cars and trucks more often than boys choose dolls and other “girls’ toys.”

Girls and boys differ not only in toy preferences but also in their choice of play environments and activities.

During the preschool and early elementary school years, boys prefer vigorous physical outdoor activities such as climbing, playing with large vehicles, and rough-and-tumble play. In middle childhood, boys spend more time than girls in play groups of five or more children and in competitive play. Girls are more likely than boys to engage in arts and crafts and domestic play. Girls’ activities are more closely directed and structured by adults.

106. Answers will vary. Play contributes to and expresses milestones in cognitive development. Jean Piaget identified kinds of play, each characterized by increasing cognitive complexity: Functional play: The first kind of play involves repetitive motor activity, such as rolling a ball or running and laughing.

Symbolic play: In symbolic play, children create settings, characters, and scripts.

Constructive play: Children use objects or materials to draw something or make something, such as a tower of blocks.

Formal games: Games with rules include board games and games involving motor skills, such as marbles and hopscotch.

107. Answers will vary. Peer interactions foster social skills—sharing, helping, taking turns, and dealing with conflict.

Groups teach children how to lead and how to follow. Physical and cognitive skills develop through peer interactions.

Peers also provide emotional support.

By about two years of age, children imitate one another’s play and engage in social games such as follow the leader. Also by this age, children show preferences for particular playmates—an early sign of friendship. Friendship is characterized by shared positive experiences and feelings of attachment. Even early friendships can be fairly stable.

108. Answers will vary. Gender schema theory proposes that children use gender as one way of organizing their perceptions of the world. A gender schema is a cluster of concepts about male and female physical traits, personality traits, and behaviors. According to gender schema theory, once children come to see themselves as female or male, they begin to seek information concerning gender-typed traits and try to live up to them.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. Differences in personality and achievement have been linked to birth order. Later-born children may learn to act aggressively to compete for the attention of their parents and older siblings. Their self-concepts tend to be lower than those of first-born or only children, but the social skills later-born children acquire from dealing with their family position seem to translate into greater popularity with peers.

They also tend to be somewhat more rebellious and liberal than first-born children.

110. Answers will vary. Siblings serve many functions, including giving physical care, providing emotional support and nurturance, offering advice, serving as role models, providing social interaction that helps develop social skills, making demands, and imposing restrictions.

In early childhood, siblings’ interactions have positive aspects (cooperation, teaching, nurturance) and negative aspects (conflict, control, competition). Older siblings tend to be more caring but also more dominating than younger siblings. Younger siblings are more likely to imitate older siblings and accept their direction.

111. Answers will vary. Prosocial behavior, also known as altruism, is intended to benefit another without expectation of reward. Prosocial behavior includes sharing, cooperating, and helping and comforting others in distress. It is shown by the preschool and early school years and is linked to the development of empathy and perspective taking.

Empathy is sensitivity to the feelings of others and is connected with sharing and cooperation. Infants frequently begin to cry when they hear other children crying, although this early agitated response may be largely reflexive.

Empathy promotes prosocial behavior and decreases aggressive behavior, and these links are evident by the second year.

According to Piaget, preoperational children tend to be egocentric. They tend not to be able to see things from the vantage points of others. It turns out that various cognitive abilities, such as being able to take another person’s perspective, are related to knowing when someone is in need or distress. Perspectivetaking skills improve with age, and so do prosocial skills. Among children of the same age, those with better developed perspective-taking ability also show more prosocial behavior and less aggressive behavior.

112. Answers will vary. Like permissive–indulgent parents, rejecting–neglecting parents are also low in their demands for mature behavior and attempts to control their children. Unlike indulgent parents, they are low in support and responsiveness. The children of neglectful parents are the least competent, responsible, and mature. The children of permissive–indulgent parents, like those of neglectful parents, are less competent in school and show more misconduct and substance abuse than children of more restrictive, controlling parents. But children from permissive–indulgent homes, unlike those from neglectful homes, are fairly high in social competence and self-confidence.

113. Answers will vary. Authoritarian parents value obedience for its own sake. They have strict guidelines for right and wrong and demand that their children accept them without question. Like authoritative parents, they are controlling. But unlike authoritative parents, their enforcement methods rely on force. Moreover, authoritarian parents do not communicate well with their children or respect their children’s viewpoints.

Most researchers find them to be generally cold and rejecting.

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Chap 08__HDEV6 114. Answers will vary. The parents of the most capable children are highly restrictive and make strong demands for maturity. However, they also reason with their children and show strong support and feelings of love. Researchers apply the label authoritative to these parents; they know what they want their children to do but also respect their children and are warm toward them. Compared with other children, the children of authoritative parents tend to show self-reliance and independence, high self-esteem, high levels of activity and exploratory behavior, and social competence. They are highly motivated to achieve and do well in school.

115. Answers will vary. According to evolutionary psychologists, gender differences were fashioned by natural selection in response to problems in adaptation that were repeatedly encountered by humans over thousands of generations.

Men, who have generally been the hunters, breadwinners, and warriors, are more likely to be seen as adventurous, aggressive, and assertive. Women, who have more often been the homemakers and caretakers, are more likely to be seen as affectionate, agreeable, and emotional.

Social cognitive theorists consider both the roles of rewards and punishments (reinforcement) in gender typing and the ways in which children learn from observing others and decide which behaviors are appropriate for them.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Children in the middle adulthood years have less trouble understanding passive sentences than preschoolers. a. True b. False 2. Aptitude is that which is attained by one’s efforts and presumed to be made possible by one’s abilities. a. True b. False 3. In the phonetic method, children learn to associate written letters and letter combinations (such as “ph” or “sh”) with the sounds they indicate. a. True b. False 4. Children’s knowledge and control of their cognitive abilities is termed metacognition. a. True b. False 5. Cultural relativity refers to the factor hypothesized to be present in intelligence tests that provides an advantage for test takers from certain cultural backgrounds. a. True b. False 6. According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, children in the stage of objective reality believe in the principle of immanent justice. a. True b. False 7. Younger children are more likely than older children to use rote rehearsal, or repetition, to try to remember information. a. True b. False 8. Overweight children are usually less able than non-overweight children at sports and are less likely to be considered attractive in adolescence. a. True b. False 9. In middle childhood, girls show less forearm strength than boys. a. True b. False

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Chap 09__HDEV6 10. Reaction time tends to increase through middle childhood and adolescence. a. True b. False 11. The ability to focus one’s attention and screen out distractions declines through middle childhood. a. True b. False 12. Children in the preoperational period of development can focus on more than one dimension of a problem at a time. a. True b. False 13. Preoperational children engaged in problem solving tend to focus on only one element of the problem at a time. a. True b. False 14. Decentration refers to the principle that if A > B and B > C, then A > C. a. True b. False 15. About 80% of children with dyslexia have parents with dyslexia. a. True b. False 16. Growth spurt is the period during which growth advances at a dramatically rapid rate compared with other periods. a. True b. False 17. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, children in the conventional level base their moral judgments on conformity to conventional standards of right and wrong. a. True b. False 18. Activities like climbing, hopping, and jumping require the use of gross motor skills. a. True b. False 19. Bilingual children have less cognitive flexibility than monolingual children. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 20. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is a disorder characterized by excessive inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. What term refers to the intellectual level at which a child is functioning, based on the typical performance of a child of a certain age? a. Emotional quotient b. Intelligence quotient c. Chronological age d. Mental age 22. The substandard intellectual performance stemming from the lack of opportunity to acquire knowledge and skills is a ____________________. a. learning disability b. cognitive disability c. cultural–familial disability d. physical disability 23. Which of the following is a difference between judgments made at the preconventional level and judgments made at the postconventional level of reasoning? a. Unlike judgments made at the preconventional level, judgments made at the postconventional level are based on the consequences of behavior. b. Unlike judgments made at the preconventional level, judgments made at the postconventional level are found in adolescents and adults. c. Unlike judgments made at the postconventional level, judgments made at the preconventional level are based on a person’s own moral standards. d. Unlike judgments made at the postconventional level, judgments made at the preconventional level are mostly found in children above 10 years of age.

24. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, which of the following is the period during which moral judgments largely reflect social rules and conventions? a. The conventional level b. The preoperational stage c. The concrete-operational stage d. The preconventional level

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Chap 09__HDEV6 25. Which of the following statements suggests that dyslexia has a genetic component to it? a. Dyslexia affects anywhere from 5% to 17.5% of American children. b. Dyslexic children understand sounds more acutely than other children do. c. Most studies show that dyslexia is much more common in boys than in girls. d. About 25% to 65% of children who have one dyslexic parent are dyslexic themselves.

26. The part of the brain called the angular gyrus is responsible for ______. a. regulating heartbeat b. translating visual information into auditory information. c. processing emotions d. executive functioning and planning 27. Which of the following statements is true regarding the grammatical abilities of children? a. By seven to nine years of age, most children realize that words can have different meanings. b. By ten years of age, children find it extremely difficult to interpret passive sentences. c. By eight years of age, children make dramatic advances in articulation and in the capacity to use complex grammar. d. By the age of six, children lack the ability to form indirect object–direct object constructions.

28. Which of the following drugs is a stimulant used in the treatment for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder? a. Melanin b. Ritalin c. Rhodopsin d. Epinephrine 29. Using a paintbrush to paint pictures requires the use of _______. a. fine motor skills b. macro motor skills c. micro motor skills d. gross motor skills 30. Concrete-operational children a. are more egocentric than preoperational children. b. have the decentration capacity to allow them to seriate in two dimensions. c. fail to understand the principles of conservation and class inclusion. d. focus on intangible ideas instead of tangible objects.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 31. A term that refers to the strategy of repeating sounds mentally is ____________. a. seriation b. rehearsal c. decentration d. mainstreaming 32. Children who are obese are ____________________________________________. a. more likely to have low blood pressure and low cholesterol b. less likely to have diabetes c. more likely to have breathing problems and asthma d. less likely to be rejected by peers 33. The following children understand one concept each. In this context, who among the following children understands the principle of transitivity? a. Miri understands that the symbols used in a language are arbitrary. b. Berry understands that if George is taller than Tina and Tina is taller than Gia, then George is taller than Gia. c. Winny understands that the quantity of water does not change even when it is filled in containers of different shapes. d. Sam understands that tulips belong to the category of flowers.

34. Bilingual children a. use rote learning to enhance their lingual process. b. have more cognitive flexibility than monolingual children. c. are more adept at using word-recognition than phonetic learning. d. encounter more academic problems than monolingual children.

35. The elaborative strategy a. is a more effective method than rote rehearsal to remember information. b. operates on a limited level and is ineffective for younger children. c. is useful for retaining stimuli in sensory memory. d. focuses on arriving at a single solution to a problem.

36. According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, children in the stage of objective morality perceive morality as _____. a. existing outside the cognitive functioning of people b. being determined by the rules created by societies c. a relative construct subject to change d. exclusively associated with processes of reward and punishment

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Chap 09__HDEV6 37. A physiological change that occurs during the middle childhood years is ______________________. a. reaction time increases b. muscles grow weaker c. neural pathways become less myelinated d. experience refines sensorimotor abilities 38. Which of the following is true of concrete-operational children? a. They do not engage in decentration. b. They are less egocentric than preoperational children. c. They focus on abstract ideas rather than tangible objects. d. They do not recognize that people may have different perspectives.

39. Which of the following is a factor hypothesized to be present in intelligence tests that provides an advantage for test takers from certain cultural backgrounds? a. Cultural bias b. Cultural heritability c. Cultural hypocrisy d. Cultural transitivity 40. A six-year-old cannot discriminate between the sounds of b’s, d’s, and p’s. This becomes a problem in class as it creates confusion and impairs reading ability. In this scenario, the child has problems with _____. a. analytical reasoning b. phonological processing c. deductive reasoning d. numerical cognition 41. Maddie, an 11-year-old girl, got into a fight with a classmate and bruised her arm. She thinks about lying to her parents about the bruise, as she is afraid that they will scold her. However, she feels that good people should not lie and decides to tell them the truth. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, which of the following stages of development does Maddie display? a. Autonomous morality b. Conventional level c. Objective morality d. Preconventional level

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Chap 09__HDEV6 42. Sarah, an eight-year-old, is playing with her crayons. She notices that they are of different lengths.

After coloring, she arranges them from left to right on a rack in increasing order of length. Which of the following processes does this scenario illustrate? a. Encoding b. Mainstreaming c. Seriation d. Rehearsing 43. Which of the following statements is true of children with mild intellectual disability? a. Their intelligence quotient scores are 130 or above. b. Their biological growth is normal but they do not develop age-appropriate behavior at the normal pace. c. They do not acquire speech and self-help skills and remain dependent on others for survival. d. They are the most capable among students with special needs of adjusting to the demands of educational institutions.

44. Down’s syndrome is caused due to _______. a. racial and ethnic differences b. impoverished home environments c. neonatal brain damage d. chromosomal abnormalities 45. Stimulants used for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) ______. a. increase children’s attention span b. degrade children’s academic performance c. do not promote the activity of dopamine d. do not promote the activity of noradrenaline 46. Logan, a seven-year-old, is diagnosed with dyslexia. He goes to a regular school which offers special provisions to help him in his studies. His teacher gives him extra attention to help him understand different letters and sounds associated with them. Logan is given extra time to finish his classwork.

This scenario illustrates the process of _____. a. bonding b. mainstreaming c. encoding d. seriation 47. According to Sternberg’s theory of intelligence, academic ability belongs to the domain of _________. a. analytical intelligence b. practical intelligence c. creative intelligence d. interpersonal intelligence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 48. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, who among the following children is in the preconventional stage? a. Emerson believes that school rules are instituted for the students’ wellbeing. b. Genadi believes that good children will obey their parents. c. Rene believes that right and wrong are subjective and change with the situation. d. Morgan believes that everyone should always speak the truth so that they do not get punished.

49. A person’s mental age is 15 and their chronological age is 10. Which of the following values will be their intelligence quotient (IQ)? a. 140 b. 150 c. 155 d. 135 50. Which of the following statements accurately describes the impact of gender differences on physical growth during the middle childhood years? a. Girls are heavier and taller than boys through the age of nine or ten. b. Boys surpass girls in height and weight until about the age of 13 or 14. c. Beginning at about age 11, boys develop relatively more muscle, and girls develop relatively more fat. d. Boys experience a steady weight gain through middle adulthood, whereas girls experience an overall weight loss.

51. A child understands that if an elephant is bigger than a bear and a bear is bigger than a cat, then an elephant is bigger than a cat. This demonstrates the child’s understanding of _________. a. conservation b. transitivity c. class inclusion d. decentration 52. An eight-year-old has trouble in reading exercises at school and finds it difficult to associate letters with the appropriate sounds. In this scenario, the child most likely has problems with the _____. a. angular gyrus b. cerebellum c. limbic system d. hypothalamus 53. A useful strategy for promoting memory is _________. a. seriation b. mainstreaming c. encoding d. decentration Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 54. A test in which cultural biases have been removed can be termed ______. a. culture-free b. culture-biased c. culture-relative d. culture-consistent 55. Long-term memory most specifically refers to the memory structure capable of _______. a. relatively permanent storage of information b. storing only a limited amount of information. c. relatively brief storage of information d. storage of discrete bits of information 56. Creativity refers to the ability to ______. a. handle social conflict b. do things that are novel and useful c. respond effectively to familiar situations d. apply knowledge to a specific area 57. Which of the following statements best describes the word-recognition method? a. It is a method for learning to read in which children come to recognize words through extensive repetition. b. It is a method by which disabled students are placed in classrooms with nondisabled children in order to accommodate them into mainstream education. c. It is a method by which objects are placed in an order or series according to a property or trait. d. It is a method for learning to read in which children decode the sounds of words based on their knowledge of the sounds of letters and letter combinations.

58. Which of the following statements is true of the phonetic method of teaching reading? a. It provides children with a basic sight vocabulary. b. It uses rote learning to enhance the learning process. c. It provides skills children can use to sound out new words. d. It helps most children and adults read familiar words.

59. Which of the following terms is of the view that retribution for wrongdoing is a direct consequence of the wrongdoing? a. Moral realism b. Convergent thinking c. Immanent justice d. Divergent thinking

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Chap 09__HDEV6 60. An example of an accommodation strategy for children with learning disabilities is __________________. a. conservation b. seriation c. assimilating d. mainstreaming 61. A drug that increases the activity of the nervous system is known as a ______. a. depressant b. stimulant c. tranquillant d. hallucinogen 62. A process that is used to assess whether a child understands the principle of transitivity is __________. a. seriation b. mainstreaming c. encoding d. rehearsal 63. Which of the following refers to the principle that if A exceeds B in some property and B exceeds C, then A must also exceed C? a. Transitivity b. Decentration c. Conservation d. Extension 64. The free and fluent association to the elements of a problem is known as _______. a. divergent thinking b. convergent thinking c. relativistic thinking d. conventional thinking 65. Which of the following statements describes metacognition? a. It is the faculty which is attained by one’s efforts and presumed to be made possible by one’s abilities. b. It is the ability to react to a stimuli in a short amount of time. c. It is the awareness of and control of one’s cognitive abilities. d. It is the perception of morality as existing outside the cognitive functioning of people.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 66. John and Gene are taking notes in class. John can write faster than Gene when the teacher lectures during the lesson. This is because John responds faster to auditory stimuli than Gene does. This illustrates the difference in John’s and Gene’s ______. a. gross motor skills b. reaction time c. objective morality d. moral reasoning abilities 67. Concrete-operational children _______. a. focus on tangible objects b. focus on abstract ideas c. do not engage in decentration d. do not exhibit transitivity 68. An activity that requires the use of gross motor skills is _____________. a. jumping up and down b. writing a letter c. tying shoelaces d. using a knife and fork 69. Which of the following statements is true of the information-processing capabilities of children in the middle years? a. Memory function in middle childhood is undeveloped and shows qualitative improvement only during early adolescence. b. As children’s knowledge of concepts advances, the storehouse of their long-term memory becomes less organized according to categories. c. Concrete-operational children use rote learning only when someone forces them to do so. d. Concrete-operational children can attend to multiple aspects of a problem at once, permitting them to conserve number and volume.

70. Which of the following statements is true of creative children? a. They solve problems to which there are no preexisting solutions. b. They adhere to social norms and accept ideas at their face value. c. They employ convergent thinking rather than divergent thinking. d. They refuse to take chances and accept their limitations.

71. The term that refers to a person’s actual age is ____________________. a. mental age b. critical age c. chronological age d. intellectual age

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Chap 09__HDEV6 72. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, which of the following statements is true of the postconventional level? a. It is the period during which reasoning is based on the person’s own moral standards. b. It is characterized by a respect for authority and duty. c. It is the period during which rules are perceived as the ultimate reality. d. It is characterized by an orientation toward obedience and punishment.

73. Andrew and Jasmine are playing catch. While throwing the ball toward Jasmine, Andrew slipped and the ball accidently hits Jasmine on the head. Though Jasmine gets angry, she realizes that she was not in much pain and moreover, it was not intentional. She considers the situation and decides that Andrew’s action was not wrong. According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, Jason shows _____. a. autonomous morality b. seriation c. objective morality d. transitivity 74. Which of the following is a crucial determinant of a person’s intellectual development? a. Giftedness b. Creativity c. Heredity d. Plasticity 75. A characteristic of children that is most likely to decrease during the middle childhood years is ________. a. weight b. weight c. reaction time d. muscle strength 76. Which of the following statements is accurate of growth patterns in the middle childhood years? a. In middle childhood, the average child’s body weight doubles. b. Girls are heavier and taller than boys through the age of nine or ten. c. From the age of 11, boys develop relatively more body fat than girls do. d. Children in middle childhood experience an even, slow growth rate.

77. Which of the following requires the performance of fine motor skills? a. Running a mile b. Kicking a soccer ball c. Writing a letter d. Pedaling a bicycle Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 78. Which of the following statements is true of the Stanford–Binet Intelligence Scale? a. It groups test questions into subtests that measure different motor skills. b. It suggests children’s strengths and weaknesses as well as provides overall measures of cognitive functioning. c. It yields a score called the intelligence quotient and can be used with children from the age of two up to adults. d. It is a culture-free intelligence test and can be used for anyone irrespective of their cultural background.

79. Sensory memory a. has unlimited capacity to store information. b. is used exclusively for visual stimuli. c. shows qualitative improvement through early adolescence. d. retains the trace of a stimuli for a fraction of a second.

80. The term that refers to the degree to which the variations in a trait from one person to another can be attributed to genetic factors is __________. a. hypersensitivity b. transitivity c. heritability d. plasticity 81. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, during which level do children base their moral judgments on rules that maintain the social order? a. preconventional level b. conventional level c. concrete-operational level d. preoperational level 82. Intelligence quotient is the _______. a. intellectual level at which a child functions, based on the typical performance of a child of a certain age b. ratio obtained by dividing a child’s mental age on an intelligence test by their chronological age c. factor hypothesized to be present in intelligence tests that provides an advantage for test takers from certain cultural backgrounds d. descriptive result of an intelligence test in which cultural biases have been removed 83. Piaget’s theory of education can be applied in classrooms by ______. a. promoting activities that encourage active discovery b. designing a uniform mode of instruction for children across age groups c. upholding and endorsing a single perspective on topics under consideration d. focusing on learning through rote repetition Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 84. A sport that is considered less apt to promote fitness than the other sports listed below is _______________. a. swimming b. bicycling c. football d. running 85. Jennifer pushes her infant brother and lies to her parents about doing it. Later, she falls on the sidewalk and scrapes her knee. She relates the two events and believes that her injury was the punishment for lying. According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, which of the following stages of moral development does Jennifer fall under? a. Autonomous morality b. The postconventional level c. The conventional level d. Objective morality 86. Learning disabilities are disorders characterized by ______. a. inadequate development of specific academic, language, and speech skills. b. social deficits and stereotyped behavior. c. abnormal functioning and loss of previously acquired skills. d. excessive inattention, impulsiveness, and hyperactivity.

87. Children in the middle years a. fail to develop the ability to use connectives. b. learn to form indirect object–direct object constructions. c. have difficulty in understanding passive sentences. d. attain the maximum level of vocabulary development.

88. Seven-year-old George, who possesses average academic ability, is a problematic student. He continuously disrupts the classroom decorum and talks to other children while they are working. He shows no interest in activities that require his attention for a length of time and usually acts on his impulses. In this scenario, George is most likely diagnosed with ____. a. autism b. dyslexia c. Asperger’s disorder d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

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Chap 09__HDEV6 89. According to Jean Piaget, which of the following stages is less egocentric than the preoperational stage? a. Objective morality b. Moral realism c. Concrete operations d. Conventional morality 90. Which of the following statements is true of children in the middle years regarding their metacognitive abilities? a. They show more knowledge of strategies that can be used to facilitate memory than younger children. b. They are less likely than younger children to accurately assess their knowledge. c. They use rote learning only when someone compels them to do so. d. They are less likely than younger children to use selective rehearsal to remember important information.

91. Which of the following statements is true of the impact of gender difference on growth through middle childhood? a. Girls are better at swinging a bat than boys. b. Boys show greater limb coordination than girls. c. Girls are better at throwing a ball than boys. d. Boys show greater forearm strength than girls.

92. Tying shoelaces is an example of a task that requires ______. a. fine motor skills b. gross motor skills c. micro motor skills d. macro motor skills 93. Concrete-operational children a. do not exhibit transitivity. b. exclusively focus on abstract ideas. c. do not focus on multiple parts of a problem at once. d. engage in decentration.

94. The chemical that promotes the brain’s “executive center” to control more primitive areas of the brain is _____________. a. serotonin b. melatonin c. dopamine d. GABA

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Chap 09__HDEV6 95. Which of the following statements is true of dyslexia? a. It is caused by overexposure to food preservatives. b. It is characterized by letter reversal, mirror reading, and reduced comprehension. c. It is more common in girls than in boys. d. It reflects the lack of executive control of the brain over motor and more primitive functions.

96. Which of the following is true of preschoolers? a. They learn to form indirect object–direct object constructions. b. They attain the maximum level of vocabulary development. c. They have difficulty in understanding passive sentences. d. They develop the ability to use connectives.

97. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder a. is caused by overexposure to food preservatives. b. occurs by age seven and is many times more common in boys than girls. c. is characterized by letter reversal, mirror reading, and reduced comprehension. d. is most widely treated by using suppressants.

98. Howard Gardner believes that intelligence refers to ______. a. more than academic ability b. the single ability to find free and fluent association to the elements of a problem c. a trait characterized by flexibility, ingenuity, and originality d. a thought process that attempts to focus on the single best solution to a problem 99. The stimulants used for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) a. reduce children’s attention spans. b. improve children’s academic performance. c. reduce the activity of the brain chemical noradrenaline. d. impair children’s ability to function in school.

100. Long-term memory a. is the first type of memory produced by sensory input. b. has an unlimited capacity to store information. c. retains stimuli up to 30 seconds after the trace decays. d. retains auditory stimuli but cannot retain visual stimuli.

101. Write a brief note about creativity.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 102. In the context of cognitive development of children, explain the principle of transitivity.

103. Explain the word-recognition method of teaching reading.

104. Explain the phonetic method of teaching.

105. Cognitive Development

106. How do sensory memory, working memory, and long-term memory differ?

107. Briefly explain grammar and vocabulary development in children.

108. Explain how attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) can be treated.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 109. Write a brief note about attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

110. Discuss the patterns of motor development in the middle childhood years. Do gender differences influence the development of motor skills during these years?

111. Write a brief note on the origins of dyslexia.

112. According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, how do children’s moral reasoning differ in the stages of objective morality and autonomous morality?

113. In the context of educating children with disabilities, explain mainstreaming.

114. Briefly describe strategies that parents and guardians can use to prevent obesity.

115. Provide a brief account on the development of metacognition in children.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. b

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Chap 09__HDEV6 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. b 52. a 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. b 67. a 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. a 74. c 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. c 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 83. a 84. c 85. d 86. a 87. b 88. d 89. c 90. a 91. d 92. a 93. d 94. c 95. b 96. c 97. b 98. a 99. b 100. b 101. Answers will vary. Creativity is the ability to do things that are novel and useful. Creative children and adults can solve problems to which there are no preexisting solutions, no tried and tested formulas. Creative children take chances. They refuse to accept limitations. They appreciate art and music. They challenge social norms. They examine ideas that other people accept at face value.

102. Answers will vary. If your parents are older than you are and you are older than your children, are your parents older than your children? The answer, of course, is yes. But how did you arrive at this answer? If you said yes simply on the basis of knowing that your parents are older than your children (e.g., 58 and 56 compared with 5 and 3), your answer did not require concrete-operational thought. One aspect of such thought is the principle of transitivity: If A exceeds B in some property (say, age or height) and if B exceeds C, then A must also exceed C. Researchers can assess whether children understand the principle of transitivity by asking them to place objects in a series, or order, according to some property, such as lining up one’s family members according to age, height, or weight. Placing objects in a series is termed seriation.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Children read by integrating visual and auditory information (they associate what they see with sounds), whether they use the word-recognition method or the phonetic method.

The word-recognition method associates visual stimuli with the sound combinations that produce the spoken words. This capacity is usually acquired by rote learning, or extensive repetition.

104. Answers will vary. Children read by integrating visual and auditory information (they associate what they see with sounds), whether they use the word-recognition method or the phonetic method.

In the phonetic method, children learn to associate written letters and letter combinations (such as “ph” or “sh”) with the sounds they indicate. Then they sound out words. The phonetic method provides skills children can use to decode new words.

105. Answers will vary. According to Jean Piaget, the typical child enters the stage of concrete operations by the age of seven. In this stage, which lasts until about 12, children show the beginnings of adult logic but generally focus on tangible objects rather than abstract ideas. Concrete-operational thought is reversible and flexible. Concrete-operational children are less egocentric than preoperational children, engage in decentration, and understand conservation, transitivity, and class inclusion.

106. Answers will vary. When one looks at an object and then blinks one’s eyes, the visual impression of the object lasts for a fraction of a second in what is called sensory memory, or the sensory register. Then the “trace” of the stimulus decays. The concept of sensory memory applies to all the senses.

When children focus on a stimulus in the sensory register, it tends to be retained in working memory (also called short-term memory) for up to 30 seconds after the trace of the stimulus decays. The ability to maintain information in short-term memory depends on cognitive strategies and on the capacity to continue to perceive a vanished stimulus.

Long-term memory is the memory structure capable of relatively permanent storage of information. There is no known limit to the amount of information that can be stored in long-term memory.

107. Answers will vary. By the age of six, the child’s vocabulary has expanded to nearly 10,000 words. By seven to nine years of age, most children realize that words can have different meanings, and they become entertained by riddles and jokes that require semantic sophistication. By the age of eight or nine, children are able to form “tag questions,” in which the question is tagged on to the end of a declarative sentence, such as “You want more ice cream, don’t you?” and “You’re sick, aren’t you?”.

Children make subtle advances in articulation and in the capacity to use complex grammar. Preschoolers have difficulty understanding passive sentences such as “The truck was hit by the car,” but children in the middle years have less difficulty interpreting them.

During these years, children develop the ability to use connectives, as illustrated by the sentence “I’ll eat my spinach, but I don’t want to.” They also learn to form indirect object–direct object constructions (e.g., “She showed her sister the toy.”).

108. ​ Answers will vary. Stimulants such as Ritalin are the most widespread treatment for ADHD, promoting the activity of the brain chemicals dopamine and noradrenaline, which stimulate the “executive center” of the brain to control more primitive areas of the brain. Stimulants increase children’s attention spans and improve their academic performance. Most children with ADHD continue to have problems in attention, conduct, or learning in adolescence and adulthood.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. In ADHD, the child shows excessive inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity. The degree of hyperactive behavior is crucial because many normal children are overactive and fidgety from time to time.

ADHD typically occurs by age seven. The hyperactivity and restlessness impair children’s ability to function in school. They cannot sit still. They have difficulty getting along with others. ADHD is diagnosed in about 1% to 5% of school-age children and is many times more common in boys than girls.

ADHD is sometimes “overdiagnosed”. Some children who misbehave in school are diagnosed with ADHD and medicated to encourage more acceptable behavior.

110. Answers will vary. Throughout middle childhood, children show steady improvement in their ability to perform gross motor skills. During these years, muscles grow stronger, and neural pathways that connect the cerebellum to the cortex become more myelinated. Experience refines sensorimotor abilities, but there are also inborn differences.

By the age of six to seven, children can usually tie their shoelaces and hold pencils as adults do. Their abilities to fasten buttons, zip zippers, brush their teeth, wash themselves, coordinate a knife and fork, and use chopsticks all develop during the early school years and improve during childhood.

Throughout middle childhood, boys and girls perform similarly in most motor activities. Boys show slightly greater strength, especially more forearm strength, which aids them in swinging a bat or throwing a ball. Girls show somewhat greater limb coordination and overall flexibility, which is valuable in dancing, balancing, and gymnastics.

At puberty, gender differences favoring boys increase. The differences in physical abilities are also influenced by the social conventions which stereotype physical activities as either masculine or feminine.

111. Answers will vary. Theories of dyslexia focus on the ways in which sensory and neurological problems may contribute to the reading problems we find in dyslexic individuals. Genetic factors appear to be involved; from 25% to 65% of children who have one dyslexic parent are dyslexic themselves. About 40% of the siblings of children with dyslexia are dyslexic.

Genetic factors may give rise to neurological problems or circulation problems in the left hemisphere of the brain.

The circulation problems would result in oxygen deficiency. The part of the brain called the angular gyrus “translates” visual information, such as written words, into auditory information (sounds). Problems in the angular gyrus may give rise to reading problems by making it difficult for the reader to associate letters with sounds.

Most researchers also focus on phonological processing. That is, dyslexic children may not discriminate sounds as accurately as other children do. As a result, b’s and d’s and p’s may be hard to tell apart, creating confusion that impairs reading ability.

112. Answers will vary. In the stage of objective morality, children consider behavior correct when it conforms to authority or to the rules of the game. They believe in the principle of immanent justice and judge the wrongness of an act only in terms of the amount of damage done, not in terms of the intentions of the wrongdoer.

In the stage of autonomous morality, children’s moral judgments tend to become more self-governed, as children come to view social rules as social agreements that can be changed. They show a greater capacity to take the point of view of others and weigh the intentions of the wrongdoer more heavily than the amount of damage done.

113. Answers will vary. In childhood, treatment of dyslexia focuses on remediation. Children are given highly structured exercises to help them become aware of how to blend sounds to form words, such as identifying word pairs that rhyme and do not rhyme. Later in life, the focus tends to be on accommodation rather than on remediation. For example, college students with dyslexia may be given extra time to do the reading involved in taking tests.

Evidence is mixed on whether placing disabled children in separate classes can also stigmatize them and segregate them from other children. In mainstreaming, disabled children are placed in regular classrooms that have been adapted to their needs. Most students with mild learning disabilities spend most of the school day in regular classrooms.

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Chap 09__HDEV6 114. Answers will vary. Parents can’t give their children new genes, but they can take measures including the following: 1. Follow the advice of the American Academy of Pediatrics and limit media time for kids to no more than one to two hours of playing handheld video games or watching television per day whether at home, school, or child care.

2. Visit child-care centers to see if they serve healthy foods and drinks, and limit TV and video time.

3. Work with schools to limit foods and drinks with added sugar, fat, and salt that can be purchased outside the school lunch program.

4. Provide plenty of fruits and vegetables; limit foods high in fat and sugar, and prepare healthy foods at family meals.

5. Serve your family water rather than sugar drinks.

6. Make sure your child gets physical activity for at least 60 minutes every day. Fast walking is excellent. Jumprope and sit-ups and push-ups, with pauses in-between, are all good. Or simply encourage being on the playground for an hour a day. If an hour a day is unrealistic for you, try a half hour. Some is better than none.

115. Answers will vary. Children’s knowledge and control of their cognitive abilities is termed metacognition. The development of metacognition is shown by the ability to formulate problems, awareness of the processes required to solve a problem, activation of cognitive strategies, maintaining focus on the problem, and checking answers.

As a sixth-grader decides which homework assignments to do first, memorizes the state capitals for tomorrow’s test, and then tests herself to see which she needs to study more, she is displaying metacognition.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Children between ages 8 and 11 are able to recognize the importance of friends meeting each other’s needs. a. True b. False 2. In middle childhood, children depend less on external rewards and punishments and increasingly regulate their own behavior. a. True b. False 3. The development of children’s understanding of the relationship between the self and others is called social cognition. a. True b. False 4. When children share troubling ideas and experiences with peers, they realize they are normal and not alone. a. True b. False 5. Children with high self-esteem are more likely to have authoritative parents. a. True b. False 6. Students do not perform well when teachers rely heavily on criticism, ridicule, threats, or punishment. a. True b. False 7. Children and parents spend less time together in middle childhood than in the preschool years. a. True b. False 8. Conflicts among friends in middle childhood tend to be less intense and get resolved in positive ways. a. True b. False 9. Most children live with their fathers after a divorce. a. True b. False 10. The children of divorce are more likely to have conduct disorders, to abuse drugs, and to have low grades in school. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 11. Children of working mothers tend to be flexible in their gender role stereotypes. a. True b. False 12. Researchers have found that even when girls perform as well as boys in math and science, they have less confidence in their ability. a. True b. False 13. Lesbians and gay men are as likely to sustain positive family relationships as heterosexual men. a. True b. False 14. Children with conduct disorders have a low tolerance for frustration. a. True b. False 15. Separation anxiety disorder usually becomes a significant problem in early childhood because that is when children are expected to adjust to school. a. True b. False 16. Separation anxiety disorder is characterized by anxiety about separating from parents and may be expressed as school phobia. a. True b. False 17. Teachers, like parents, set limits, make demands, communicate values, and foster development. a. True b. False 18. As children undergo the cognitive developments of middle childhood, their self-concepts focus exclusively on concrete external traits, such as appearance, activities, and living situations. a. True b. False 19. According to Freud, children in the middle years are in the latency stage. a. True b. False 20. Certain attributional styles can contribute to helplessness and hopelessness and hence to depression. a. True b. False

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Chap 10__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. In which of the following perspective-taking levels described by Robert Selman does a child begin to value the perspectives of the larger social group? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4 22. In the context of child development, a similarity between teachers and parents is that both ______. a. refrain from setting limits on behavior b. act as important confidants c. communicate values and foster development d. discourage empowerment of students at a young age 23. Compared to boys, in middle childhood, girls tend to have more positive self-concept regarding _____. a. physical appearance b. social skills c. physical abilities d. general academics 24. Jenna is six years old. She is hesitant to go to school every morning because she does not like staying away from her parents. She often complains of stomachaches to avoid school and stop her parents from going to work. This scenario illustrates that Jenna is experiencing _____. a. conduct disorder b. attention-deficit disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. separation anxiety disorder 25. In the context of child development, a similarity between schools and parents is that both _______. a. make demands for mature behavior b. act as important confidants c. discourage empowerment of students at a young age d. refrain from setting limits on behavior

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Chap 10__HDEV6 26. Ali is in the first grade but he always finds reasons to miss school. Every morning, he complains of severe headaches and throws up his breakfast. He pleads with his parents not to send him to school, away from them. He fears that someone might harm his parents when he is not with them. This scenario illustrates that Ali is experiencing _____. a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. anorexia nervosa c. bulimia nervosa d. separation anxiety disorder 27. A way that teachers can help motivate all students to do their best is a. making the classroom and the lesson interesting and inviting. b. minimizing social interactions in the classroom. c. treating all students similarly and ignoring their backgrounds. d. helping students to focus on long-term goals instead of short-term goals.

28. When children are exposed to adult or marital conflict, they display a biological “alarm reaction,” their ______. a. heart rate rises sharply b. blood pressure decreases drastically c. bodies stop producing dopamine d. bodies stop producing norepinephrine 29. According to _________, children in the middle years are in the latency stage of development. a. social cognitive theory b. psychoanalytic theory c. coregulation theory d. cognitive-developmental theory 30. In middle childhood, perceived low levels of competence are linked to _____. a. high self-esteem b. depression c. extraversion d. egocentrism 31. Children who voice concerns about death and dying and insist that someone stay with them at bedtime are most likely struggling with ______. a. narcissistic personality disorder b. conduct disorder c. separation anxiety disorder d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

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Chap 10__HDEV6 32. Irrational, excessive fears that interfere with one’s functioning are known as ______. a. mania b. phobias c. hallucinations d. dysphoria 33. Roger was born a boy, but he feels trapped in the male body and longs to be a girl. He likes and engages in activities like dressing up and applying makeup. He is considering undergoing sex reassignment surgery and plastic surgery to become a girl. Roger belongs to the category of _____. a. asexual people b. transgendered people c. heterosexual people d. bisexual people 34. An example that illustrates an external attribution style is a person who a. gives up efforts to lose excess weight after repeated setbacks in their diet and exercise plan. b. realizes that they lack the talent to become a successful guitar player and discontinues their guitar lessons. c. collects rare and exotic animal figurines and shows them off to friends and family. d. loses the inter-school swimming competition and agrees that they lost because the competition was challenging and resolves to work harder.

35. Children with low self-esteem are likely to have _____. a. permissive–indulgent parents b. authoritarian parents c. involved parents d. authoritative parents 36. Isabel is an 11-year-old girl. Her parents are loving and nurturing, and they encourage her to study as well as pursue her hobbies. They also allow her to ask questions and try their best to answer them.

However, Isabel is expected to follow certain rules set by her parents. Isabel is most likely to have _____. a. a low intelligence quotient b. high self-esteem c. childhood depression d. a critical self-appraisal

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Chap 10__HDEV6 37. Children with separation anxiety disorder tend to _______. a. explore their environment and become progressively independent when they are separated from their caregivers b. display a sense of security when they are separated from parents c. plead with their parents to leave the house d. cling to their parents and follow them around the house 38. Children with conduct disorders _______. a. do not have temper flare-ups b. have a high tolerance for frustration c. tend to blame other people for their scrapes d. avoid indulging in sexual activity before puberty 39. What kind of techniques involve parent training and hold promise for the treatment of conduct disorders? a. Gestalt b. Psychoanalytical c. Cognitive behavioral d. Humanistic 40. Jacob is in middle school. He tells his friends that he is worried that he would fail his biology test because the biology project reviewer deliberately asked him tough questions that he could not answer. This scenario illustrates the _____. a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. external attribution style c. Pygmalion effect d. boomerang effect 41. A difference between children in middle childhood and children in their preschool years is that _______. a. children and parents spend less time together in middle childhood than in the preschool years b. children evaluate their parents less harshly in middle childhood than they did in preschool years c. parents provide more direct feedback in middle childhood than they did in the preschool years d. parents do more monitoring of children’s activities in middle childhood than they did in the preschool years 42. The children of divorce are ______. a. more likely to have good grades in school b. more likely to have conduct disorders c. less likely to abuse drugs d. unlikely to rebound even after many years

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Chap 10__HDEV6 43. Rashida, an 11-year-old girl, has not completed her math homework. She anticipates a reprimand from the teacher but believes that if she told the teacher that she was busy playing with her new toy and forgot all about her homework, the teacher would understand and forgive her. According to Robert Selman, this scenario illustrates _____. a. level 0 of perspective-taking skills in childhood b. the phallic stage c. the latency stage d. level 1 of perspective-taking skills in childhood 44. Samuel is a nine-year-old boy with a favorable self-image and has confidence in his abilities. He believes that hard work is the key to success. Samuel’s parents are most likely to be _______. a. authoritarian, dominating, and strict b. lenient, ignorant, and negligent c. negligent, rejecting, and rigid d. restrictive, involved, and loving 45. Juan, a nine-year-old boy, wanders away from his parents during a visit to the supermarket. After being found 30 minutes later, he tells his parents that he wanted to look at the Halloween decorations a little longer. Although he expects his parents to be angry with him, he believes that his parents would stop being upset if they saw the decorations were attractive. He fails to consider that his parents might feel differently. According to Robert Selman, this scenario illustrates _____. a. level 1 of perspective-taking skills in childhood b. the phallic stage c. the latency stage d. level 0 of perspective-taking skills in childhood 46. Kallik is 10 years old. When he was younger, his parents provided healthy food for him at home and chose healthy meals at restaurants as well. Kallik now picks healthy meals and snacks as taught by his parents. In this scenario, Kallik is involved in _______. a. social stratification b. coregulation c. learned helplessness d. resocialization 47. In the context of socialization influences during childhood, peers, _____. a. like parents, set limits, make demands, communicate values, and foster development b. like parents, help children learn what types of impulses they can express safely c. unlike parents, do not reject children who are aggressive d. unlike parents, can be important influences in matters related to one’s career

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Chap 10__HDEV6 48. On a neurological level, evidence suggests that depressed people “underutilize” the neurotransmitter _____. a. serotonin b. dopamine c. adenosine d. epinephrine 49. According to Piaget, which stage most closely coincides with middle childhood? a. Latency b. Sensorimotor c. Preconventional d. Concrete operations 50. A six-year-old has frequent nightmares about their parents abandoning them and wakes up with chills.

The child throws tantrums to avoid school as well. This child’s behavior best illustrates _____. a. postpartum depression b. seasonal affective disorder c. transient tic disorder d. separation anxiety disorder 51. Which of the following statements is true of teachers’ influences on student performance? a. Students learn more in classes when they work on their own than when they are supervised by teachers. b. Achievement is enhanced when teachers expect students to master the curriculum. c. Students do well when teachers rely heavily on criticism and punishment. d. Teachers’ effectiveness increases when they give common feedback to all students.

52. Children of working mothers tend to be ______. a. less prosocial and more anxious b. strongly delinquent in their behavior c. less achievement oriented d. flexible in their gender role stereotypes 53. According to the five levels of perspective-taking skills in childhood as described by Robert Selman, children who are the most egocentric belong to level ______. a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

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Chap 10__HDEV6 54. Compared to girls, in middle childhood, boys tend to have more positive self-concept regarding _____. a. empathy b. reading c. physical appearance d. general academics 55. Most professionals agree that the first rule in the treatment of most cases of school phobia is to _______. a. get the child back into school b. give the child antidepressant medication c. keep the child at home for a few days d. use corporal punishments 56. Children with conduct disorders _________. a. are often involved in substance abuse b. have authoritative parents c. are able to manage their anger effectively d. have exceptionally high self-esteem 57. Which of the following is true of middle childhood? a. Parent interactions with school-age children continue to revolve exclusively around recreation. b. Parent–child interactions focus on assignment of chores and peer activities. c. Parents provide more direct feedback than they did in the preschool years. d. Children evaluate their parents less harshly than they did in early childhood.

58. Green found that most children who were being reared or had been reared by lesbians or transgendered parents _________. a. were asexual in orientation b. reported preferences for toys that were typical for their gender c. were bisexual in orientation d. reported preferences for toys that were typical for a different gender 59. Emily is an 11-year-old girl with an inferiority complex. She believes herself to be a good-for-nothing and views the world as cold and unfair. Emily’s parents are most likely to be _______. a. nurturing b. authoritarian c. protective d. warm

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Chap 10__HDEV6 60. Which of the following statements is true of a child’s school phobia? a. Understanding the reason behind a child’s school phobia need not always precede insistence that the child return to school. b. Knowledge of the reasons for refusal cannot help parents and educators devise strategies for assisting the child. c. Most professionals agree that the first rule in the treatment of most cases of school phobia is the use of antidepressant medication. d. Antidepressant medication teaches a child how to cope with school phobia.

61. Children with depression may ______. a. show a wealth of energy b. experience insomnia c. develop a keen interest in people of the same age d. exhibit traits associated with extraversion 62. Which of the following is true of parent–child relationships in middle childhood? a. Children spend more time with their mothers than with their fathers. b. Children and parents spend more time together in middle childhood than in the preschool years. c. Parents provide more direct feedback than they did in the preschool years. d. Parents monitor their children’s activities most closely during middle childhood.

63. According to social cognitive theory, in middle childhood, children _______. a. concentrate on external traits and not on abstract internal traits b. are exposed to an increasing variety of models c. fail to regulate their own behavior d. depend more on external rewards and punishments 64. Ameena is a 14-year-old girl with many friends in school and in the neighborhood. She easily strikes up conversations with peers and is known to be very helpful. Her friends admire and emulate her.

Which of the following descriptions best suits Ameena? a. Coy b. Emotional c. Popular d. Introvert 65. Robert Selman described five stages in children’s changing concepts of friendship. In which stage do children remain egoistic, with a concept of friendship limited to one who likes to play with the same things and lives nearby? a. Momentary physical interaction b. Autonomous interdependence c. Intimate and mutual sharing d. Fair-weather cooperation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 66. According to the five levels of perspective-taking skills in childhood as described by Robert Selman, children in level 0 _______. a. realize that mutual perspective taking does not always lead to agreement b. understand that people may think or feel differently because they have different values or ideas c. are egocentric and do not realize that other people have perspectives different from their own d. understand that people in different situations may have different perspectives 67. Children who believe that success is based on ability more than effort are most likely to experience _______. a. consistent success b. learned helplessness c. approval from parents and teachers d. flexibility in their behavior 68. Which of the following examples illustrates an internal attribution style? a. Kim quits rock climbing lessons as she feels clumsy and thinks she will never be able to master it. b. Rupert is confused and cannot decide whether to take up soccer, swimming, or skating. c. Daamin decides to try the latest recreational drug popular on the school campus. d. Ania resolves to study harder after receiving less than average grades at school.

69. Daughters of employed women _______. a. exhibit strong delinquent behavior b. have more rigid views of gender role stereotypes c. have higher achievement goals for themselves d. tend to be less prosocial and more anxious 70. Children with a favorable self-image tend to have parents who are _____. a. authoritative b. cold c. negligent d. authoritarian 71. Ginny’s parents accompanied her to parks and playgrounds when she was younger. Now that Ginny is 11 years old, her parents allow her to go out alone. Ginny remembers to follow safety rules taught by her parents. In this scenario, Ginny is involved in _____. a. learned helplessness b. resocialization c. coregulation d. social stratification

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Chap 10__HDEV6 72. According to Piaget, middle childhood is partly characterized by ______. a. a decline in egocentrism b. failure to acknowledge others’ perspectives c. suppression of sexual feelings d. anxiety about separation from parents 73. According to Robert Selman, which of the following stages in children’s concepts of friendship focuses on the relationship rather than on individuals separately? a. One-way assistance b. Momentary physical interaction c. Fair-weather cooperation d. Intimate and mutual sharing 74. Which of the following statements is true of peer relationships? a. Acceptance or rejection by peers is unlikely to be important in childhood. b. As children move into middle childhood, peers become less influential. c. Peers afford practice in cooperating, relating to leaders, and coping with aggressive impulses. d. Peers exert the most powerful influence on a child during their first few years.

75. Which of the following statements is true of depressed children? a. Evidence suggests that depressed children underutilize testosterone. b. Evidence suggests that depressed children underutilize serotonin. c. Evidence suggests that depressed children underutilize progesterone. d. Evidence suggests that depressed children underutilize dopamine.

76. Ross is 14 years old and plays great soccer. He likes to practice with his team and loves to coach younger boys. He is known to help out around the neighborhood, especially senior citizens. He is always surrounded by friends. Which of the following descriptions best suits Ross? a. Egocentric b. Introvert c. Sentimental d. Popular 77. Robert Selman described five stages in children’s changing concepts of friendship. In the second stage, children are less egocentric but view a friend as someone who does what they want. This stage is known as ______. a. fair-weather cooperation b. one-way assistance c. momentary physical interaction d. autonomous interdependence

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Chap 10__HDEV6 78. Andrew is a 10-year-old boy. His parents often scold and humiliate him. They also expect Andrew to obey strict rules without asking questions. In this scenario, Andrew is most likely to have _____. a. no emotional quotient b. confidence in his abilities c. low self-esteem d. positive self-concepts 79. Children who quit following failure tend to have low _______. a. emotion regulation skills b. empathy skills c. academic self-esteem d. social self-esteem 80. Which of the following statements is true of depression in children? a. Perfectionist children are not depressed. b. Helplessness triggers depression. c. High self-esteem is linked to depression. d. Depressed children typically attribute the causes of their failures to external factors.

81. Because of their developing cognitive ability, 10- to 12-year-olds _______. a. are more receptive to direct feedback from parents than they did in the preschool years b. rate their peers as their best source of emotional support c. evaluate their parents more harshly than they did in early childhood d. seek to spend more time with their fathers than with their mothers 82. Robert Selman described five stages in children’s changing concepts of friendship. In which stage do children view friends as doing things for one another, but the focus remains on self-interest? a. Autonomous interdependence b. Momentary physical interaction c. One-way assistance d. Fair-weather cooperation 83. Five-year-old Timothy is preoccupied with death since a close grandparent passed away a year ago.

He frequently asks his parents about death and dying. He clings to his parents and insists that they stay with him at all times, day and night. Timothy is a person most likely experiencing _______. a. body dysmorphic disorder b. narcissistic personality disorder c. separation anxiety disorder d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

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Chap 10__HDEV6 84. According to Robert Selman, in which of the following stages in children’s concepts of friendship do children (adolescents, and adults) understand that friendships grow and change as people change and that they may need different friends to satisfy different needs? a. Autonomous interdependence b. Momentary physical interaction c. Fair-weather cooperation d. Intimate and mutual sharing 85. Social cognition most broadly refers to the development of children’s understanding of the relationship between the self and ______. a. parents b. peers c. environment d. others 86. Rahul is five years old. He wants to be with his parents at all times and follows them from room to room. He refuses to go out and play with other children of his age. He even clings to his parents in the playground. Rahul is a person showing symptoms of _____. a. dissociative identity disorder b. separation anxiety disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. attention-deficit disorder 87. Socially speaking, popular children _______. a. have low self-esteem b. are nurturant, cooperative, and helpful c. are more likely to be rejected by their peers d. remain on the fringes of peer groups 88. Jack, a seven-year-old, did not eat his lunch at school. He knew that his parents would be angry if he did not explain why he did not eat his lunch. However, Jack believed that his parents would understand if he told them that the food was stale. According to Robert Selman, this scenario illustrates _____. a. level 0 of perspective-taking skills in childhood b. level 1 of perspective-taking skills in childhood c. the latency stage d. the oral stage

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Chap 10__HDEV6 89. According to the five levels of perspective-taking skills in childhood as described by Robert Selman, children in level 1 _______. a. realize that mutual perspective taking does not always lead to agreement b. understand that more than one perspective can be correct c. are egocentric and do not realize that other people have perspectives different from their own d. understand that people in different situations may have different perspectives 90. The gradual transfer of control from parent to child during middle childhood is known as _____. a. regression b. social cognition c. coregulation d. learned helplessness 91. According to the five levels of perspective-taking skills in childhood as described by Robert Selman, children in level 2 _______. a. realize that mutual perspective taking does not always lead to agreement b. understand that people may think or feel differently because they have different values or ideas c. are egocentric and do not realize that other people have perspectives different from their own d. do not understand that people in different situations may have different perspectives 92. Identify a true statement about school phobia. a. Except for extreme cases, it is usually not better for children with school phobia to remain at home until the origins of the problem are uncovered and resolved. b. Most professionals agree that the first rule in the treatment of most cases of school phobia is to allow the child to remain and home to reduce school stresses. c. Antidepressant medication has been used with school phobia with no success. d. Antidepressant medication is most effective in treating school phobia.

93. Which of the following statements is true of middle childhood? a. Children and parents spend more time together during middle childhood than in the preschool years. b. Parents provide more direct feedback than they did in the preschool years during middle childhood. c. Parents monitor their children’s activities most closely during middle childhood. d. Most children in developed nations come through middle childhood quite well.

94. The theory that focuses on the importance of rewards and modeling in middle childhood is _________. a. gender schema theory b. psychoanalytic theory c. cognitive-dissonance theory d. social cognitive theory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 95. According to Robert Selman, children who still assume that only one perspective is “right” belong to level ______. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 96. Charlene was born a girl, but she feels that she should have been a boy as she prefers to engage in activities for boys. She is considering undergoing sex reassignment surgery and plastic surgery.

Charlene belongs to the category of _____. a. asexual people b. transgendered people c. heterosexual people d. bisexual people 97. Identify a true statement about children in middle childhood. a. By middle childhood, children can compare themselves with other children and, unlike preschoolers, can arrive at a more honest and critical self-appraisal. b. Children’s self-esteem rises throughout middle childhood, reaching a peak at 12 or 13. c. Children with low self-esteem tend to have parents who are restrictive, while children with a favorable self-image are more likely to have authoritarian parents. d. During middle childhood, girls tend to have more positive self-concepts in math and physical appearance than boys.

98. A child with conduct disorder is most likely to exhibit ___________________. a. empathy b. low reading skills c. cruelty to animals d. goal persistence 99. Bembe is a middle school teacher who believes that Aaron, a fifth grader, is a bright student even though his performance so far has been average. Bembe pays more attention to Aaron, mentors him, and helps him with his lab experiments. As a result, Aaron gets better grades toward the end of the year. This scenario exemplifies _____. a. the Pygmalion effect b. learned helplessness c. classical conditioning d. the boomerang effect

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Chap 10__HDEV6 100. The way in which one is disposed toward interpreting outcomes (successes or failures), as in tending to place blame or responsibility on oneself or on external factors, is best described as a person’s ______. a. empathy capacity b. perceptive set c. cognitive aptitude d. attributional style 101. Discuss the origins and treatment of conduct disorders.

102. What are some of the ways that teachers can help motivate all students to do their best?

103. What is school readiness and what are the factors critical to a child’s readiness for school?

104. What are the characteristics of an effective school?

105. Discuss the importance of peers and peer acceptance during middle childhood.

106. What factors are responsible for the self-esteem changes that occur during middle childhood?

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Chap 10__HDEV6 107. Discuss conduct disorders that are noticed in middle childhood.

108. In the context of education, discuss the Pygmalion effect.

109. Discuss the treatment of depression in middle childhood.

110. In the context of middle childhood, discuss the advantages and disadvantages of maternal employment.

111. Discuss sexism is schools.

112. Describe the influences of schools on child development in middle childhood.

113. In the context of middle childhood, explain Freud’s psychoanalytic theory of personality. Do Erikson’s views on middle childhood contradict those of Freud?

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Chap 10__HDEV6 114. Discuss parent–child relationships during middle childhood.

115. Discuss the dilemma of marital conflict. Should a couple remain married for the sake of their children?

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Chap 10__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. True 20. True 21. d 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. d

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Chap 10__HDEV6 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. d 51. b 52. d 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. b 76. d 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. b 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 83. c 84. a 85. d 86. b 87. b 88. b 89. d 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. d 94. d 95. a 96. b 97. a 98. c 99. a 100. d 101. Answers will vary. Conduct disorders may have a genetic component. Other contributors include antisocial family members, deviant peers, inconsistent discipline, and parental insensitivity to the child’s behavior, physical punishment, and family stress.

The treatment of conduct disorders is challenging, but it seems that cognitive-behavioral techniques involving parent training hold promise. Children profit from interventions in which there are consequences (such as time-outs) for unacceptable behavior and positive social behavior is rewarded. One method teaches children social skills and problem solving skills to manage interpersonal conflicts. Social skills include asking other children to stop annoying behavior rather than hitting them. Children are also taught to “stop and think” before engaging in aggressive behavior.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 102. Answers will vary. Teachers can help motivate all students to do their best in various ways. Here are some suggestions: Make the classroom and the lesson interesting and inviting.

Ensure that students can profit from social interaction.

Make the classroom a safe and pleasant place.

Recognize that students’ backgrounds can give rise to diverse patterns of needs.

Help students take appropriate responsibility for their successes and failures.

Encourage students to perceive the links between their own efforts and their achievements.

Help students set attainable short-term goals.

103. Answers will vary. Children must master many new tasks when they start school—new academic challenges, new school and teacher expectations, fitting into a new peer group, coping with extended separation from parents, and developing increased self-control and self-help skills. School readiness involves at least three critical factors: the diversity and inequity of children’s early life experiences, individual differences in young children’s development and learning, and the degree to which schools establish reasonable and appropriate expectations of children’s capabilities when they enter school.

104. Answers will vary. Research summaries indicate that an effective school has the following characteristics: An active, energetic principal An orderly but not oppressive atmosphere Empowerment of teachers; that is, teachers participating in decision making Teachers with high expectations that children will learn A curriculum that emphasizes academics Frequent assessment of student performance Empowerment of students; that is, students participating in setting goals, making decisions, and engaging in cooperative learning activities Certain aspects of the school environment are important as well. One key factor is class size. Smaller classes permit students to receive more individual attention and are particularly useful in teaching the “basics”—reading, writing, and arithmetic—to students at risk for academic failure.

105. Answers will vary. Parents can provide children only with experience relating to adults. Children profit from experience with peers because peers have interests and skills that reflect the child’s generation. Peers afford practice in cooperating, relating to leaders, and coping with aggressive impulses, including their own. Peers can be important confidants. Peers, like parents, help children learn what types of impulses— affectionate, aggressive, and so on—they can safely express. Children who are at odds with their parents can turn to peers as sounding boards. They can compare feelings and experiences. When children share troubling ideas and experiences with peers, they realize they are normal and not alone. Acceptance or rejection by peers is important in childhood because problems with peers affect adjustment later on.

Children who are aggressive and disrupt group activities are sometimes rejected by peers. However, some aggressive children are popular; there is apparently no general rule.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 106. Answers will vary. As children enter middle childhood, they evaluate their self-worth in many different areas.

Children’s self-esteem declines throughout middle childhood, reaching a low ebb at 12 or 13. Then it increases during adolescence. Because preschoolers are egocentric, their self-concepts may be unrealistic. By middle childhood, children can compare themselves with other children and arrive at a more honest and critical self-appraisal. Authoritative parenting apparently contributes to children’s selfesteem. Children with a favorable self-image tend to have parents who are restrictive, involved, and loving.

Children with low self-esteem are more likely to have authoritarian or rejecting–neglecting parents. Social acceptance by peers is related to self-perceived competence in academic, social, and athletic domains.

Parents and classmates have an equally strong effect on children’s self-esteem in middle childhood.

Friends and teachers have relatively less influence but also matter.

107. Answers will vary. Children with conduct disorders persistently break rules or violate the rights of others.

They exhibit behaviors such as lying, stealing, fire setting, truancy, cruelty to animals, and fighting.

Conduct disorders typically emerge by eight years of age and are much more common in boys than girls.

Children with conduct disorders are often involved in sexual activity before puberty and smoke, drink, and abuse other substances. They have a low tolerance for frustration and may have temper flare-ups. They tend to blame other people for their scrapes. Academic achievement is usually below grade level, but intelligence is usually at least average. Many children with conduct disorders also are diagnosed with ADHD. 108. Answers will vary. There is a saying that “You find what you’re looking for.” Consider the so-called Pygmalion effect in education. In Greek mythology, the amorous sculptor Pygmalion breathed life into a beautiful statue he had carved.

Teachers also try to bring out positive traits they believe dwell within their students. A classic experiment by Robert Rosenthal and Lenore Jacobson suggested that teacher expectations can become self-fulfilling prophecies. Rosenthal and Jacobson first gave students a battery of psychological tests. Then they informed teachers that a handful of the students, although average in performance to date, were about to blossom forth intellectually in the current school year. In fact, the tests indicated nothing about the chosen children. These children had been selected at random. The purpose of the experiment was to determine whether enhancing teacher expectations could affect student performance. It did; the identified children made significant gains in IQ scores.

In subsequent research, however, results have been mixed. Some studies have found support for the Pygmalion effect. Others have not. But these findings have serious implications for children from ethnic minority and low-income families because there is some indication that teachers expect less from children in these groups. Teachers who expect less may spend less time encouraging and working with children.

109. Answers will vary. Parents and teachers can do a good deal to alleviate relatively mild feelings of depression among children—involve them in enjoyable activities, encourage them to develop skills, praise them when appropriate, and point out when they are being too hard on themselves. But if feelings of depression persist, treatment is called for. Psychotherapy for depression tends to be cognitive-behavioral today. Children (and adolescents) are encouraged to do enjoyable things and build social skills. They are made aware of their tendencies to minimize their accomplishments, exaggerate their problems, and overly blame themselves for shortcomings. As depressed children may underutilize serotonin, drugs that increase the action of serotonin in the brain (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, or SSRIs, such as Luvox, Prozac, and Zoloft) are sometimes used to treat childhood depression. Although SSRIs are often effective, the Food and Drug Administration has warned that there may be a link between their use and suicidal thinking in children.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 110. Answers will vary. Many commentators have been concerned about the effects of maternal employment on children. In part, this has been based on more traditional values that argue that the mother ought to remain in the home. Research results are mixed, with some studies suggesting that maternal employment can have negative effects on children and other studies suggesting that employed mothers actually provide greater learning opportunities for their children. One common belief is that Mom’s being in the workforce rather than in the home leads to delinquency. Researchers using data on 707 adolescents, ages 12 to 14, from the National Longitudinal Survey of Youth examined whether the occupational status of a mother was connected with delinquent behavior. They found that maternal employment per se made no difference, but delinquency was connected with lack of supervision. Similar results have been found in the European Union. There are benefits for maternal employment. Daughters of employed women are more achievement oriented and set higher career goals for themselves than daughters of nonworking women.

Children of working mothers tend to be more prosocial, less anxious, and flexible in their gender role stereotypes.

111. Answers will vary. According to a classic review of more than 1,000 research publications about girls and education, girls are treated unequally by their teachers, their male peers, and the school curriculum. The reviewers concluded: Many teachers pay less attention to girls than boys, especially in math, science, and technology classes.

Many girls are subjected to sexual harassment—unwelcome verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature—from male classmates, and many teachers ignore it.

Some textbooks still stereotype or ignore women, portraying males as the movers and shakers in the world. In a widely cited study, Myra Sadker and David Sadker observed students in fourth-, sixth-, and eighth-grade classes in four states and in the District of Columbia. Teachers and students were European American and African American, urban, suburban, and rural. In almost all cases, the findings were depressingly similar. Boys generally dominated classroom communication, whether the subject was math (a traditionally “masculine” area) or language arts (a traditionally “feminine” area). Despite the stereotype that girls are more likely to talk or even chatter, boys were eight times more likely than girls to call out answers without raising their hands. So far, it could be said, we have evidence of a gender difference, but not of sexism. However, teachers were less than impartial in responding to boys and girls when they called out. Teachers, male and female, were more likely to accept calling out from boys. Girls were more likely to be reminded that they should raise their hands and wait to be called on. Boys, it appears, are expected to be impetuous, but girls are reprimanded for “unladylike behavior.” Until they saw videotapes of themselves, the teachers were largely unaware they were treating girls and boys differently.

112. Answers will vary. Schools exert a powerful influence on many aspects of a child’s development. Schools, like parents, set limits on behavior, make demands for mature behavior, attempt to communicate, and are oriented toward nurturing positive physical, social, and cognitive development. Schools influence children’s IQ scores, achievement motivation, and career aspirations. Schools also influence social and moral development. Schools are also competitive environments, and children who do too well—as well as students who do not do well enough—may incur the resentment or ridicule of others.

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Chap 10__HDEV6 113. Answers will vary. According to Freud, children in the middle years are in the latency stage. Freud believed that sexual feelings remain repressed (unconscious) during this period. Children use this period to focus on developing intellectual, social, and other culturally valued skills. Erik Erikson, like Freud, saw the major developmental task of middle childhood as the acquisition of cognitive and social skills. Erikson labeled this stage industry versus inferiority. Children who are able to master the challenges of the middle years develop a sense of industry or competence. Children who have difficulties in school or with peer relationships may develop a sense of inferiority.

114. Answers will vary. Parent–child interactions focus on some new concerns during middle childhood. They include school-related matters, assignment of chores, and peer activities. Parents do less monitoring of children’s activities and provide less direct feedback than they did in the preschool years. Control is gradually transferred from parent to child in a process known as coregulation. Children begin to internalize the standards of their parents. Children and parents spend less time together in middle childhood than in the preschool years. Children spend more time with their mothers than with their fathers. Mothers’ interactions with school-age children continue to revolve around caregiving; fathers are relatively more involved in recreation. Because of their developing cognitive ability, 10- to 12-year-olds evaluate their parents more harshly than they did in early childhood. But throughout middle childhood, children rate their parents as their best source of emotional support.

115. Answers will vary. Many people believe—for moral reasons—that marriage and family life must be permanent, no matter what. People must consider the moral aspects of divorce in the light of their own value systems. But—from a purely psychological perspective—what should bickering parents do? The answer seems to depend largely on how they behave in front of the children. Research shows that severe parental bickering is linked to the same kinds of problems that children experience when their parents get separated or divorced. When children are exposed to adult or marital conflict, they display a biological “alarm reaction”: their heart rate, blood pressure, and sweating rise sharply. Therefore, a number of researchers acknowledge that some children tend to fare better after continually fighting parents get divorced.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Menarche comes later to girls who have a lower percentage of body fat, such as those with eating disorders or athletes. a. True b. False 2. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by recurrent cycles of binge eating and purging. a. True b. False 3. The primary sex characteristics are the structures that make reproduction possible. a. True b. False 4. In middle childhood, conventional thought tends to emerge, and children usually begin to judge right and wrong in terms of social conventions, rules, and laws. a. True b. False 5. According to research, boys in the United States are more likely than girls to have reading problems. a. True b. False 6. Visual–spatial ability refers to the ability to visualize objects or shapes and to mentally manipulate and rotate them. a. True b. False 7. Bulimia nervosa is connected with irregular menstrual cycles. a. True b. False 8. Students from households with incomes below the Federal poverty threshold and large urban areas are at greater risk of dropping out of school. a. True b. False 9. Legs reach their peak growth after the shoulders and chest. a. True b. False 10. Substance abuse is the leading cause of death in the United States for adolescents. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 11. Death rates are low in adolescence, but they are nearly twice as great for female adolescents as male adolescents. a. True b. False 12. Firearms account for 50% of adolescent suicides in the United States. a. True b. False 13. Testosterone typically brakes the male growth spurt some years before estrogen brakes that of females. a. True b. False 14. Late-maturing boys are more poised, relaxed, and good-natured than early-maturing boys. a. True b. False 15. Puberty is a stage of development characterized by reaching sexual maturity and the ability to reproduce. a. True b. False 16. Most American adolescents are healthy. a. True b. False 17. The transition from elementary school appears to be more difficult for boys than girls. a. True b. False 18. During the adolescent growth spurt, girls develop relatively broader hips compared with their shoulders, whereas the opposite is true for boys. a. True b. False 19. The transition to the new school setting is often accompanied by a decline in grades and participation in school activities. a. True b. False 20. The personal fable is connected with behaviors such as being reserved and avoiding risks. a. True b. False

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Chap 11__HDEV6 21. Abstinence syndrome is a characteristic cluster of symptoms that results from a sudden decrease in the level of usage of a substance. a. True b. False 22. Economically marginalized adolescent female Black Americans are more likely to graduate from high school and avoid coercive romantic relationships. a. True b. False 23. In the postconventional level, moral reasoning is based on the person’s own moral standards. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

24. In the context of adolescent egocentrism, which of the following is true of the concept of the imaginary audience? a. It involves the belief that one’s thoughts are unique and special. b. It involves risky behavior where adolescents form online relationships with strangers. c. It involves the assumption that other people are concerned with one’s appearance more so than they really are. d. It involves an intense desire to be in the public eye and a disregard for personal appearance.

25. In comparison with their late-maturing peers, early-maturing boys are ______. a. likely to be more dependent and insecure b. more likely to bullied and dominated c. less aggressive and less delinquent d. more poised, relaxed, and good-natured 26. Which of the following statements is true about gender differences in cognitive abilities? a. Boys begin to outperform girls on many types of visual–spatial tasks starting at age eight or nine. b. Males acquire language faster than females and surpass them in verbal ability throughout their lives. c. Historically, it has been believed that female adolescents generally outperform males in mathematics. d. Girls in the United States are more likely than boys to have problems understanding abstract concepts.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 27. Gynecomastia __________________________________. a. prevents the long bones from making further gains in length b. is commonly experienced by adolescent girls c. usually progresses over time and is present throughout the lifetime of an individual d. stems from the small amount of female sex hormones secreted in males by the testes 28. In middle childhood, conventional thought tends to emerge, and children usually begin to judge right and wrong in terms of _______. a. social conventions, rules, and laws b. punishment, reward, and praise c. acceptance, rejection, and friendship d. personal morals, principles, and objective truths 29. Which of the following statements is true of menarche among adolescent girls? a. Girls usually begin to ovulate five to six months after menarche. b. Body height of adolescent girls plays a crucial role in the onset of menarche. c. The onset of menarche can be determined by average height. d. Menarche comes later to girls who have a lower percentage of body fat.

30. Which of the following examples illustrates a personal fable? a. Lena believes that a magical world of dragons and wizards exists and daydreams about it during classes. b. Rupal is experimenting with various karate forms. She is keen on becoming an expert in the one karate form that she enjoys best. c. Monica is experimenting with the drugs available on campus. She thinks she can never get addicted to any of it because she is young and healthy. d. Nora is scared that she will die of alcohol poisoning because she took a sip of beer with friends.

31. Amanda is giving a speech at a meeting of the school’s honor society. She is dressed in a dark blazer and slacks and perfect accessories. In spite of that, she feels awkward and self-conscious. She thinks each person in the meeting is watching and judging her appearance critically. Amanda’s example illustrates the concept of _____. a. learned helplessness b. imaginary audience c. personal fable d. social cognition 32. Visual–spatial ability refers to the ability to a. compare and contrast objects that are held in one’s hands. b. remain focused on an object in the distance. c. coordinate the movements of one’s limbs. d. mentally manipulate and rotate shapes or objects.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 33. Which type of drugs include alcohol, narcotics derived from the opium poppy (such as heroin, morphine, and codeine), and sedatives (such as barbiturates and methaqualone)? a. Stimulants b. Hallucinogenics c. Depressants d. Amphetamines 34. At puberty, the pituitary gland stimulates the testes to increase their output of ______. a. oxytocin b. lymph c. estrogen d. testosterone 35. A difference between primary sex characteristics and secondary sex characteristics is that a. primary sex characteristics are physical indicators of sexual maturation, while the secondary sex characteristics trigger the development of sex hormones. b. primary sex characteristics are structures that make reproduction possible, while the secondary sex characteristics are not directly involved in reproduction. c. primary sex characteristics include breast development, while the secondary sex characteristics include the ovaries and testes. d. primary sex characteristics respond to pituitary hormones, while the secondary sex characteristics do not respond to pituitary hormones.

36. Which of the following is a maladaptive response that some females experience to lose weight after gains from menarche? a. Binge eating b. Anorexia nervosa c. Gynecomastia d. Bulimia nervosa 37. The transition to middle, junior high, or high school generally involves a shift from a smaller neighborhood elementary school to a school that _______. a. prioritizes sports over academics b. has different teachers for different classes c. focuses on increased autonomy for students d. has a more personal setting with fewer students 38. Which of the following is true of the adolescent growth spurt? a. Adolescents tend to eat enormous quantities of food to fuel their growth spurts. b. Boys start to spurt in height sooner than girls, at an average age of a little more than ten. c. Girls gain twice as much muscle tissue as boys while going through growth spurts. d. Adolescents begin to spurt in height about half a year after they begin to spurt in weight.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 39. Which of the following statements is true of estrogen? a. It promotes the growth of the fatty and supporting tissue in the hips and buttocks. b. It accelerates the female growth spurt some years after testosterone accelerates that of males. c. It prevents the long bones from making further gains in length in females. d. It brings about the cessation of menarche in women.

40. Which of the following statements is true of marijuana? a. It helps users relax and elevates their mood. b. It enhances short-term memory of users. c. It helps users in better perceptual–motor coordination. d. It decreases sensory awareness of users.

41. A difference between early-maturing girls and girls who mature later on is that early-maturing girls a. are at lower risk for psychological problems than girls who mature later on. b. find that shorter boys are less reluctant to approach them than girls who mature later on. c. are at greater risk for substance abuse than girls who mature later on. d. obtain higher grades in school than girls who mature later on.

42. Which of the following statements is true of alcohol? a. It increases inhibitions. b. It improves concentration. c. It improves coordination. d. It distorts perceptions.

43. In the context of adolescent employment, which of the following scenarios is true about adolescents who work for more than 11 to 13 hours a week? a. Serena, a Black American student, finds that her self-esteem is boosted due to her time spent working at a job she is good at. b. Lucy, a European American student, finds that working helps her overcome her issues with social anxiety. c. Rajat, an Asian American student, notices a fall in his grade point average since he has started working. d. Shu, an Asian American student, notices that he wastes a lot of his earnings on frivolous gadgets and gifts.

44. In which stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, is it recognized that laws stem from agreed-on procedures and that many rights have great value and should not be violated? a. Stage 2 b. Stage 3 c. Stage 4 d. Stage 5

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Chap 11__HDEV6 45. Physical indicators of sexual maturation that are not directly involved in reproduction are known as _____. a. primary sex characteristics b. secondary sex characteristics c. tertiary sex characteristics d. quaternary sex characteristics 46. In the context of adolescent development, which of the following statements is true of junior high school? a. Teachers in junior high typically allow less student input and exert more control than teachers in elementary school. b. The transition to junior high typically involves a shift from a larger elementary school setting to a smaller, more personal setting. c. The transition to junior high typically involves a new school with less students and one teacher for all subjects. d. The transition from elementary school typically appears to be more difficult for boys than girls.

47. In the context of puberty, which of the following statements is true of the pituitary gland? a. It causes the testes to decrease their output of testosterone. b. It releases hormones that control physical growth and the gonads. c. It stimulates the thalamus, perpetuating the feedback loop. d. It prevents the nose from making further gains in length.

48. Unlike early-maturing boys, late-maturing boys are a. less likely to get involved in substance abuse than early-maturing boys. b. more dependent and insecure than early-maturing boys. c. more aggressive and delinquent than early-maturing boys. d. more poised, relaxed, and good-natured than early-maturing boys.

49. Olivia is attending a birthday party with her friends. She is wearing a new fitness tracker that she recently bought online. She is quite self-conscious about how stylish ’her fitness tracker looks on her wrist and is assuming that her friends are also scrutinizing the new accessory. This scenario illustrates the concept of _____. a. learned helplessness b. imaginary audience c. personal fable d. social cognition

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Chap 11__HDEV6 50. Which hormone causes the labia, vagina, and uterus to develop during puberty? a. Ghrelin b. Leptin c. Androgen d. Estrogen 51. For adolescents, the transition to the new school setting is often accompanied by _______. a. an increased participation in school activities b. a decline in grades c. an increase in self-esteem d. a decrease in stress 52. Which of the following statements is true of intervention efforts to prevent school dropouts? a. Involvement of families or community organizations has proved ineffective in interventions to prevent students from dropping out of school. b. Most successful intervention programs involve teaching students in classes of large sizes. c. Identification and monitoring of high-risk students has proved to be ineffective in interventions to prevent students from dropping out of school. d. Most intervention efforts are usually not introduced until students are on the verge of dropping out.

53. Victor, a boy in high school, has matured earlier than his other male friends. He plays on many of the sports teams with his seniors. In this scenario, Victor is _______. a. more likely to be dependent and insecure b. more likely to be bullied and dominated c. less likely to be aggressive and involved in delinquent behavior d. more likely to be poised, relaxed, and good-natured 54. Which of the following statements is true of nutrition during adolescent years? a. Most teenagers do not consume enough fat. b. Most teenagers do not consume enough sodium. c. Most teenagers do not consume enough calcium. d. Most teenagers do not consume enough sugar.

55. Which of the following statements is true of adolescents in school? a. Girls are more likely to be undergoing puberty and to earn the attention of boys in higher grades. b. The transition to junior high involves a shift from a larger elementary school to a smaller, more personal setting. c. Boys tend to find the transition from elementary school more difficult than girls. d. The transition to junior high involves a new school with less students and one teacher for all subjects.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 56. An example of the personal fable is a. Darria, a 15-year-old, who chain-smokes and feels she is invulnerable to the harmful effects of nicotine. b. Jack, a 14-year-old, who believes in magic, mythical creatures, and the supernatural. c. Haggai, a 14-year-old, who is worried that he will die because he smoked a pack of cigarette. d. Dache, a 13-year-old, who believes that others are constantly watching and paying attention to her.

57. A persistent pattern of drug use characterized by frequent intoxication; impairment of physical, social, or emotional well-being; and possible physical addiction is called ______. a. a substance use disorder b. the female athlete triad c. tolerance d. withdrawal 58. The top level in Jean Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory is the stage of _____. a. social cognition b. focal cognition c. post-concrete operations d. formal operations 59. In middle childhood, conventional thought tends to emerge, and children usually begin to judge right and wrong in terms of ______. a. rules and laws b. rewards and punishments c. ethical principles d. cognitive abilities 60. The stage of development that is characterized by reaching sexual maturity and the ability to reproduce is _________. a. latency b. puberty c. formal operations d. concrete operations 61. In the context of puberty, which of the following statements is true of the gonads? a. They stimulate the testes to increase their output of testosterone, leading to the development of genitals. b. They trigger abnormalities in the endocrine system. c. They stimulate the hypothalamus, perpetuating the feedback loop. d. They respond to pituitary hormones by increasing their production of sex hormones.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 62. In adolescent girls, the vaginal lining varies in thickness according to the amount of _____. a. testosterone b. estrogen c. oxytocin d. somatostatin 63. Which of the following statements is true of people who dropout of high school? a. Adolescents who adopt adult roles early, such as becoming a parent at a young age, are not likely to drop out of high school. b. People who dropout of high school are more likely to be employed and have high-income, stable jobs in future. c. People who dropout of high school are more likely to develop delinquency, criminal behavior, and substance abuse. d. Adolescents from high-income households are at high risk of being a person who dropouts of high school.

64. Which of the following is an eating disorder characterized by recurrent cycles of binge eating and purging? a. Gynecomastia b. Osteoporosis c. Bulimia nervosa d. Anorexia nervosa 65. The development of acne during adolescence is triggered by ____________. a. progesterone b. estrogen c. testosterone d. serotonin 66. Puberty is controlled by a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, the gonads—the ovaries in females and the testes in males—and _______. a. neurotransmitters b. hormones c. nutrients d. nodes 67. Bulimia nervosa, like anorexia nervosa, _____. a. is connected with irregular menstrual cycles b. involves following a good diet to maintain a healthful weight c. afflicts males more than females during adolescence d. is related to severe weight gain

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Chap 11__HDEV6 68. Marijuana, Ecstasy, LSD, and PCP are examples of _________. a. stimulants b. hallucinogenics c. depressants d. barbiturates 69. An example of a hallucinogenic drug is __________________________. a. codeine b. barbiturate c. ecstasy d. amphetamine 70. An example of a stimulant is ______________________. a. alcohol b. heroin c. amphetamine d. barbiturate 71. The female growth spurt during adolescence brakes because of ______________. a. testosterone b. menarche c. estrogen d. oxytocin 72. Puberty most often coincides with which developmental period? a. Adolescence b. Young adulthood c. Infirmity d. Childhood 73. An example of a sex hormone is ______________. a. androgen b. insulin c. renin d. secretin 74. Osteoporosis is a condition involving ______. a. progressive loss of bone tissue b. the end of menstruation c. reduction in the size of a woman’s breasts d. the beginning of menstruation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 75. In the context of Kohlberg’s postconventional level of moral development, which of the following statements is true of Stage 5? a. It relies on universal ethical principles, such as individual dignity, justice, and reciprocity. b. If a law is seen as unjust or contradicts the right of the individual, it is wrong to obey it. c. Moral judgments are derived from effective rewards and punishments, not from personal values. d. It is recognized that many rights have great value and should not be violated.

76. The female athlete triad describes women who have menstrual problems, lessened bone density, and ______. a. low availability of energy b. highly developed reflexes c. high availability of energy d. limited spatial awareness 77. Ahmed and Marla are social activists. They organized demonstrations and other forms of civil disobedience in protests against fur dealers because they firmly believe that it is wrong to kill animals for their fur. According to Kohlberg, Ahmed and Marla are in which stage of postconventional level of moral development? a. Stage 3 b. Stage 4 c. Stage 5 d. Stage 6 78. In the context of moral development, in adolescence, many—not all—individuals’ ______. a. become capable of formal-operational thinking b. judge right and wrong in terms of social conventions, rules, and laws c. tend to view right and wrong in terms of rewards and punishments d. tend to make preconventional judgments 79. In girls, the pituitary gland ______. a. prevents growth spurts in height and weight b. prevents testosterone production. c. signals the ovaries to boost estrogen production at puberty d. prevents the long bones from making further gains in length 80. Postconventional thought, when found, first occurs during adolescence, apparently because what form of thinking is a prerequisite for it? a. Formal-operational b. Concrete operational c. Preoperational d. Conventional Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 81. A potential benefit of adolescent employment is that a. adolescents learn to appreciate the value of money and education. b. adolescents’ ’delinquent behavior is limited due to the availability of time. c. adolescents experience low levels of psychological problems. d. adolescents are too occupied to use illicit substances and alcohol.

82. Which of the following is a characteristic of programs designed to prevent people from dropping out of school? a. Large class size with a focus on strict controls and checks b. Generic instructions that explain complex concepts c. Highly advanced and distant educational programs d. Involvement of families or community organizations 83. Which of the following is a depressant? a. Barbiturate b. LSD c. Cocaine d. Amphetamine 84. Which group of people among the following is at greater risk of dropping out of school? a. Adolescents who adopt adult roles very late b. Students from households that have an income below the federal poverty threshold c. Students from small urban areas d. Adolescents who are young for their grade level 85. In the context of gender differences in cognitive ability, which of the following improves visual–spatial performance? a. Solving complex mathematics problems b. Engaging in word games during leisure c. Playing with toys such as blocks, Legos, and construction sets d. Actively participating in community-supporting events 86. Which of the following statements is true of gender differences in cognitive abilities? a. Girls usually outperform boys on many types of visual–spatial tasks. b. Historically, it has been believed that female adolescents generally outperform males in mathematics. c. Girls in the United States are more likely than boys to have reading problems. d. As a group, females surpass males in verbal ability throughout their lives.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 87. Firearms account for 80% of homicides and approximately what percentage of suicides? a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60% 88. According to Kohlberg, the postconventional level is a period during which moral judgments are derived from moral principles and people set moral standards according to ______. a. themselves b. their family c. their friends d. their society 89. In the context of Kohlberg’s postconventional level of moral development, which of the following statements is true of Stage 6? a. It recognizes that laws stem from agreed-on procedures and that many rights have great value and should not be violated. b. It relies on supposed universal ethical principles, such as those of human life, individual dignity, justice, and reciprocity. c. It contends that right and wrong should be judged in terms of social conventions, rules, and laws. d. It holds that adolescents derive conclusions about what they should do in various situations by estimating the rewards of punishments that might be experienced as a result.

90. A students who work more than 11 to 13 hours per week a. show a disregard for the value of money and education. b. have higher rates of drug and alcohol use. c. have lowered chances of psychological problems. d. show increased indiscipline and irresponsible behavior.

91. Children in early childhood tend to view right and wrong in terms of rewards and punishments.

Lawrence Kohlberg referred to such judgments as _____. a. postconventional b. conventional c. preconventional d. transcendental

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Chap 11__HDEV6 92. Which of the following statements is true of adolescent employment? a. Most adolescents are illegally employed. b. It enhances occupational aspirations in adolescents. c. Adolescent boys work lesser hours than adolescent girls at school night jobs. d. Adolescents from homes with incomes below the Federal poverty threshold work the shortest hours compared to higher-income adolescents.

93. A predictor of a person dropping out of school is a. excessive school absence. b. reading above grade level. c. being young for one’s grade level. d. being increasingly involved in sports.

94. The process known as epiphyseal closure is most directly responsible for _______. a. nocturnal emissions b. growth cessation c. osteoporosis d. testicular enlargement 95. Which of the following best describes the personal fable? a. The personal fable is the belief that moral judgments are derived from moral principles and people should look to themselves to set moral standards. b. The personal fable is the belief that a person’s feelings and ideas are special and unique and that they are invulnerable. c. The personal fable is the belief in magic, mythical creatures, and the supernatural during adolescence. d. The personal fable is the belief that others around a person are as concerned with their thoughts and behaviors as they are.

96. Piaget describes the accomplishments of the stage of formal operations in terms of an individual’s increased ability to classify objects and ideas, engage in logical thought, and _______. a. conclude b. assume c. plan d. hypothesize 97. Sex hormones a. stimulate the hypothalamus, perpetuating the feedback loop in puberty. b. respond to pituitary hormones by increasing their production of alleles. c. control the production of antibodies by the immune system. d. signal the pituitary gland, which, in turn, constrains hormones.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 98. Which of the following statements is true of cocaine? a. It dilates the arteries of the heart. b. It spikes the blood pressure. c. It decreases the heart rate. d. It thins the blood.

99. The structure that is responsible for the deepening of the voice among adolescent boys is the _______. a. larynx b. lungs c. esophagus d. trachea 100. The first noticeable sign of puberty in boys is the ___________________. a. development of pubic hair b. development of acne c. deepening of the voice d. accelerated growth of the testes 101. A characteristic associated with anorexia nervosa is _______________________. a. binge eating b. a distorted body image c. an increase in bone density d. a dramatic weight gain 102. Nicotine, cocaine, and amphetamines are the most common _____. a. carcinogens b. stimulants c. mutants d. teratogens 103. The structures that make reproduction possible are referred to as ______. a. personal fables b. primary sex characteristics c. secondary sex characteristics d. epiphyseal closures

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Chap 11__HDEV6 104. Which of the following statements is true regarding adolescent changes? a. Boys start to spurt in height sooner than girls. b. Most adolescents acquire a plump and rounded body structure during adolescence. c. Boys gain twice as much fatty tissue as girls. d. Many adolescents are relatively slender compared with their preadolescent stature.

105. Calcium intake is particularly important for females to ______. a. avoid early puberty b. avoid abnormalities in the endocrine system c. prevent early menopause d. prevent osteoporosis later in life 106. Janee received a sport-utility vehicle as a present from her parents for her 17th birthday. As a result, she has become quite popular among her schoolmates. She often brags about her new vehicle and takes her friends on long rides, usually driving over the speed limit. She believes that driving at high speeds is a thrilling experience. She considers herself too smart to be caught by cops for violating the traffic rules. This scenario illustrates the concept of _____. a. anorexia nervosa b. learned helplessness c. personal fable d. bulimia nervosa 107. Discuss the use of depressant drugs among adolescents.

108. Evaluate Kohlberg’s theory of moral development.

109. Discuss the factors contributing to eating disorders in American adolescents.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 110. Discuss some common characteristics of programs designed to prevent dropping out of school.

111. Discuss the use of symbols among adolescents.

112. Discuss the use of stimulant drugs among adolescents.

113. Discuss the gender differences in mathematical ability among adolescents.

114. Discuss the gender differences in verbal ability among adolescents.

115. Discuss the use of hallucinogenic drugs among adolescents.

116. Explain the personal fable in reference to adolescent egocentrism.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 117. Describe bulimia nervosa.

118. Discuss the pros and cons of adolescent employment.

119. Discuss the gender differences in visual–spatial ability.

120. Explain imaginary audience in reference to adolescent egocentrism.

121. Explain the concepts of asynchronous growth and the secular trend.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. c 25. d 26. a

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Chap 11__HDEV6 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. c 44. d 45. b 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. b 50. d 51. b 52. d 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. a 68. b 69. c 70. c 71. c 72. a 73. a 74. a 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. a 79. c 80. a 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. a 89. b 90. b 91. c 92. b 93. a 94. b 95. b 96. d 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. d 101. b 102. b 103. b 104. d 105. d 106. c

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Chap 11__HDEV6 107. Answers will vary. Depressants slow the activity of the nervous system. Depressants include alcohol, narcotics derived from the opium poppy (such as heroin, morphine, and codeine), and sedatives (such as barbiturates and methaqualone). Alcohol lessens inhibitions so that drinkers may do things when drinking that they might otherwise resist. Alcohol is also an intoxicant: It distorts perceptions, impairs concentration, hinders coordination, and slurs the speech. Alcohol use is most prevalent among 21- to 34year-olds. More than one million students between the ages of 18 and 24 are accidentally injured each year while under the influence, assaulted by other students who have been drinking, or raped by college men who have been drinking. The major medical use of heroin, morphine, and other opioids is relief from pain. But they also can provide a euphoric “rush.” Heroin is addictive, and regular users develop tolerance.

Barbiturates are depressants with various legitimate medical uses, such as relief from pain, anxiety, and tension, but people can become rapidly dependent on them.

108. Answers will vary. Evidence supports Kohlberg’s view that the moral judgments of children develop in an upward sequence, even though most children do not reach postconventional thought. Postconventional thought, when found, first occurs during adolescence, apparently because formal-operational thinking is a prerequisite for it. Kohlberg believed that the stages of moral development follow the unfolding of innate sequences and are therefore universal. But he may have underestimated the influence of social, cultural, and educational institutions. Postconventional thinking is all but absent in developing societies. Perhaps postconventional reasoning reflects Kohlberg’s personal ideals and not a natural, universal stage of development. In his later years, Kohlberg dropped Stage 6 reasoning from his theory in recognition of this possibility.

109. Answers will vary. The American ideal has slimmed down to where most American females of normal weight are dissatisfied with the size and shape of their bodies. In the section on cognitive development, we will see that adolescents also tend to think that others are paying a great deal of attention to their appearance. Because of cultural emphasis on slimness and the psychology of the adolescent, they are highly vulnerable to eating disorders, which are characterized by gross disturbances in patterns of eating.

A particularly disturbing risk factor for eating disorders in adolescent females is a history of child abuse, particularly sexual abuse, although the numbers of eating disorders that are reported as attributable to abuse and neglect are variable. Certainly young women have a very slender social ideal set before them in women such as runway models. As the cultural ideal slenderizes, women with normal body weight, according to health charts, feel fat, and heavy women feel huge. Eating disorders tend to run in families, which raises the possibility of genetic involvement. Genetic factors would not directly cause eating disorders, but might involve obsessionistic and perfectionistic personality traits.

110. Answers will vary. Many programs have been developed to prevent dropping out of school. Successful programs have some common characteristics: early preschool interventions; identification and monitoring of high-risk students; small class size, individualized instruction, and counseling; vocational components that link learning and community work experiences; involvement of families or community organizations; and clear and reasonable educational goals. Unfortunately, most intervention efforts are usually not introduced until students are on the verge of dropping out—when it is usually too late.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 111. Answers will vary. Consider x, the primary algebraic symbol for variables. Children up to the age of 11 or 12 or so usually cannot fully understand the symbolic meaning of this concept, even if they can be taught the mechanics of solving for x in simple equations. But formal-operational children can grasp intuitively what is meant by x. Formal-operational children, or adolescents, can perform mental operations with symbols that stand for nothing in their own experience. These symbols include those used in geometry.

Adolescents work with points that have no dimensions, lines that have no width and are infinite in length, and circles that are perfectly round, even though such things are not found in nature. The ability to manipulate these symbols will permit them to work in theoretical physics or math or to obtain jobs in engineering or architecture.

112. Answers will vary. Stimulants speed up the heartbeat and other bodily functions. Nicotine, cocaine, and amphetamines are the most common stimulants. Nicotine is the addictive chemical in tobacco. Nearly 450,000 Americans die from smoking-related problems each year. Cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide, which causes shortness of breath, and hydrocarbons (“tars”). Smoking is responsible for most respiratory diseases and lung cancer. E-cigarettes contain nicotine, but not the hydrocarbons. Cocaine accelerates the heart rate, spikes the blood pressure, constricts the arteries of the heart, and thickens the blood, a combination that can cause cardiovascular and respiratory collapse. Overdoses can cause restlessness, insomnia, tremors, and even death. Amphetamines can keep users awake for long periods and reduce their appetites. Tolerance for amphetamines develops rapidly. The powerful amphetamine called methamphetamine is apparently physically addictive. Methamphetamine abuse can cause brain damage, leading to problems in learning and memory.

113. Answers will vary. For half a century or more, it has been believed that male adolescents generally outperform females in mathematics, and research has tended to support that belief. But a study by Hyde and her colleagues of some seven million second- through 11th-graders found no mean gender differences for performance in mathematics on standardized tests, although boys were somewhat more represented at the extremes—extreme high and low scores. The complexity of the test items apparently made no difference. Although girls may be generally as capable as boys in math, most Americans have different expectations for them, and these expectations may still discourage girls from entering “STEM fields” (i.e., fields in science, technology, engineering, and math).

114. Answers will vary. Verbal abilities include reading, spelling, grammar, oral comprehension, and word fluency. As a group, females surpass males in verbal ability throughout their lives. These differences show up early. Girls seem to acquire language faster than boys. They make more prelinguistic vocalizations, utter their first word sooner, and develop larger vocabularies. Boys in the United States are more likely than girls to have reading problems. Why do females excel in verbal abilities? Biological factors such as the organization of the brain may play a role, but do not discount cultural factors—whether a culture stamps a skill as gender-neutral, masculine, or feminine. In Nigeria and England, reading is looked on as a masculine activity, and boys traditionally surpass girls in reading ability. But in the United States and Canada, reading tends to be stereotyped as feminine, and girls tend to excel.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 115. Answers will vary. Hallucinogenics give rise to perceptual distortions called hallucinations, which sometimes can be so strong as to be confused with reality. Marijuana, Ecstasy, LSD, and PCP are hallucinogenic drugs. Marijuana, which is typically smoked, help users relax, elevates their mood, increases sensory awareness, and can induce visual hallucinations, for example, time seeming to slow down. Marijuana carries health risks such as impairing the perceptual–motor coordination and short-term memory. Regular users may experience withdrawal, which is a sign of addiction. Ecstasy, a popular “party” drug, provides the boost of a stimulant and mild hallucinogenic effects. The combination appears to free users from inhibitions and awareness of the consequences of risky behavior, such as unprotected sex. Ecstasy can also impair working memory, increase anxiety, and lead to depression. LSD is the acronym for lysergic acid diethylamide, another hallucinogenic drug. High doses of hallucinogenics can impair coordination and judgment (driving while using hallucinogenic drugs poses grave risks), change the mood, and cause paranoid delusions.

116. Answers will vary. In the personal fable, one believes that one’s thoughts and emotions are special and unique. It also refers to the common adolescent belief that one is invulnerable. The personal fable is connected with such behaviors as showing off and risk taking. Many adolescents form risky online relationships with strangers. Many adolescents assume that they can smoke with impunity. Cancer? “It can’t happen to me,” or, “I’ve got years and years to think about that.” They may drive recklessly. They often engage in spontaneous, unprotected sexual activity, allowing the biological drive to rule them and possibly assuming that sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and unwanted pregnancies happen to other people, not to them. Many adolescents believe that their parents and other adults—even their peers— could never feel what they are feeling or know the depth of their passions.

117. Answers will vary. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent cycles of binge eating and purging. Binge eating often follows on the heels of dieting. There are various methods of purging. Vomiting is common. Other avenues include strict dieting or fasting, laxatives, and demanding exercise regimes. Individuals with eating disorders will not settle for less than their idealized body shape and weight. Bulimia, like anorexia, is connected with irregular menstrual cycles and tends to afflict females during adolescence and young adulthood. Eating disorders are upsetting and dangerous in themselves but are also connected with other forms of psychopathology, such as depression.

118. Answers will vary. The potential benefits of adolescent employment include developing a sense of responsibility, self-reliance, and discipline; learning to appreciate the value of money and education; acquiring positive work habits and values; and enhancing occupational aspirations. Disadvantaged adolescent female African Americans are more likely to graduate from high school and avoid coercive romantic relationships, yet they are more likely to use illicit substances and alcohol. Working apparently provides more of an opportunity to access various substances. Other researchers note that students who work lengthy hours—more than 11 to 13 hours per week-report lower grades, higher rates of drug and alcohol use, more delinquent behavior, lower self-esteem, and higher levels of psychological problems than students who do not work or who work only a few hours. Ironically, adolescents whose grade point averages are most negatively affected by school-year employment are European Americans and Asian Americans with the most highly educated parents. Parents and educators apparently need to consider the number of hours adolescents should be working during the school year.

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Chap 11__HDEV6 119. Answers will vary. Visual–spatial ability refers to the ability to visualize objects or shapes and to mentally manipulate and rotate them. This ability is important in such fields as art, architecture, and engineering.

Boys begin to outperform girls on many types of visual–spatial tasks starting at age eight or nine, and the difference persists into adulthood. The gender difference is particularly notable on tasks that require imagining how objects will look if they are rotated in space. Some researchers link visual–spatial performance to evolutionary theory and sex hormones. It may be related to a genetic tendency to create and defend a territory. An environmental theory is that gender stereotypes influence the spatial experiences of children. Gender-stereotyped boys’ toys, such as blocks, Legos, and Erector sets, provide more practice with spatial skills than gender-stereotyped girls’ toys. Boys are also more likely to engage in sports, which involve moving balls and other objects through space.

120. Answers will vary. Many adolescents fantasize about becoming rock stars or movie stars adored by millions. The concept of the imaginary audience achieves part of that fantasy, in a way. It places the adolescent on stage but surrounded by critics more than by admirers. Adolescents assume that other people are concerned with their appearance and behavior, more so than they really are. The selfperception of adolescents as being on stage may account for their intense desire for privacy and their preoccupation with their appearance.

121. Answers will vary. Adolescents may be awkward and gawky due to asynchronous growth; different parts of the body grow at different rates. The hands and feet mature before the arms and legs do. As a consequence, adolescent girls and boys may complain of big hands or feet. Legs reach their peak growth before the shoulders and chest. Boys stop growing out of their pants about a year before they stop growing out of their jackets.

During the 20th century, children in the Western world grew dramatically more rapidly and wound up taller than children from earlier times. This historical trend toward increasing adult height was also accompanied by an earlier onset of puberty, and is known as the secular trend. At the age of 15, boys were more than six inches taller and girls were more than three inches taller, on average, than their counterparts from the previous century. The occurrence of a secular trend in height and weight has been documented in nearly all European countries and the United States. However, children from middle- and upper-class families in developed nations, including the United States, no longer grow taller, whereas their poorer counterparts continue to gain in height from generation to generation. Improved nutrition would appear to play a key role.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Adolescents have fewer friends than younger children do. a. True b. False 2. A low sense of identity is associated with high self-esteem in adolescents. a. True b. False 3. Teens who initiate sexual activity earlier are less likely to use contraception. a. True b. False 4. In early adolescence, most teenagers tend to be either in exploration or moratorium statuses. a. True b. False 5. Erik Erikson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development, associated with adolescence, is called ego identity versus role diffusion. a. True b. False 6. Dating relationships tend to be more stable and committed in early adolescence, whereas in late adolescence, relationships tend to become casual and short-lived. a. True b. False 7. Teenagers have more conflicts with their mothers, yet they view their mothers as being more supportive and knowing them better. a. True b. False 8. During adolescence, individuals become less aware of the disparity between their ideal selves and their real selves. a. True b. False 9. Boys are much more likely than girls to engage in delinquent behavior. a. True b. False 10. In the context of identity statuses theorized by James Marcia, identity diffusion does not include either exploration or commitment. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 11. Erik Erikson believed that there were gender differences in the development of identity. a. True b. False 12. Adolescent females that become pregnant are more likely to experience medical complications during the months of pregnancy and their labor is likely to be prolonged. a. True b. False 13. Extensive body piercing is rarely considered a warning sign of suicide among adolescents. a. True b. False 14. It is possible that an individual’s sex organs can develop in one direction while the biological factors that may underlie one’s sexual orientation develop in another direction. a. True b. False 15. People’s sexual orientation does not always correspond to their sexual identity. a. True b. False 16. Parents and adolescents are usually quite different in their values and beliefs concerning social and economic issues. a. True b. False 17. The development of self-identity is less complicated for adolescents who belong to historically marginalized ethnic groups. a. True b. False 18. Friendship reduces psychological adjustment in adolescents. a. True b. False 19. Unexamined ethnic identity is similar to James Marcia’s foreclosure status. a. True b. False 20. Males who are non-heterosexual are referred to as straight males. a. True b. False

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Chap 12__HDEV6 21. During adolescence, girls tend to have one or two close friends, whereas boys tend to congregate in larger, less intimate groups. a. True b. False 22. Most suicides among adolescents and adults are linked to feelings of euphoria and mania. a. True b. False 23. The moratorium stage of identity development characterizes commitment to specific ideals or career choices. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

24. Running away from home is an example of a(n) _______. a. status offense b. felony c. white-collar crime d. act of embezzlement 25. An example of a status offense is a a. teenager attempting to kill their friend. b. first year high school student running away from home. c. 30-year-old, exhibiting sexually promiscuous behavior. d. 20-year-old often being fined for breaking traffic rules.

26. Ava is a young woman who is sexually attracted to other women. She has been aware of her sexual preference since her teenage years. In this scenario, Ava is a person that has a _____. a. lesbian orientation b. heterosexual orientation c. asexual orientation d. bisexual orientation 27. Which of the following scenarios is an example of a status offense? a. Amanda, a teenager, attempts to commit suicide by taking an overdose of sleeping pills. b. Tina, a primary school student, is often rebuked for truancy. c. Ted, a young adult, is sexually intimate with his friend Bob. d. Alex, a 20-year-old, is often fined for breaking the speed limit.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 28. Younger adolescents and older adolescents who drift through life or become alienated and rebellious are described as being in the identity status of ______________________. a. moratorium b. generativity c. identity diffusion d. ego integrity 29. Which of the following statements is true of adolescent suicide? a. About seven in ten adolescents have attempted suicide at least once. b. Adolescents who are highly achieving and rigid perfectionists never have suicidal tendencies. c. Adolescent suicide attempts are more common after stressful life events. d. Suicidal tendencies decrease from the age of 11 to 21.

30. Alexis has always been keen on photography from a young age. As her parents and grandparents are doctors, they expect her to choose medicine as her career. However, she declares that she wants to be a travel photographer after considering the other career options available to her. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, Alexis is most likely in the _____. a. identity realization stage b. identity actualization stage c. identity diffusion stage d. identity achievement stage 31. Peer pressure tends to be highest during _________. a. early adolescence b. mid-adolescence c. mid-childhood d. early adulthood 32. Leo is a 14-year-old boy whose parents are ardent skydiving fans and want Leo to become a skydiver as well. Leo is influenced by his ’parent’s opinions and decides to train and become a professional skydiver without considering other career options. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, Leo’s decision illustrates _____. a. moratorium b. foreclosure c. identity diffusion d. identity achievement

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Chap 12__HDEV6 33. Which of the following statements is true of criminal behaviors by adolescents? a. Running away from home is a serious act of juvenile delinquency and not a status offense. b. Robbery is categorized as a status offense by the laws governing juvenile delinquency. c. Girls are much more likely than boys to engage in delinquent behavior such as robbery. d. Criminal behaviors show a dramatic increase in many societies during adolescence and then taper off during adulthood.

34. Identify a true statement about adolescent suicides in the United States. a. About seven in ten adolescents have attempted suicide at least once. b. Since 1960, the suicide rate has decreased for young people aged 15 to 24. c. About one to two U.S. adolescents in 10,000 commit suicide each year. d. Suicide is the leading cause of death among adolescents in the United States.

35. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, active questioning and searching among alternatives to establish goals, values, or beliefs are involved in ______. a. identity achievement b. foreclosure c. exploration d. identity diffusion 36. Which of the following statements is true of parental and peer influence during adolescence? a. Parents and peers seem to exert influence on different domains. b. Parental influence is lesser on girls than on boys. c. Peer influence decreases drastically, whereas parent influence increases during adolescence. d. Parents and peers are usually competing influences.

37. A person who has sex with males or females is described as having a(n) _________. a. gay orientation b. asexual orientation c. heterosexual orientation d. bisexual orientation 38. In the context of sexual orientation, a lesbian ______. a. desires sexual intimacy with men b. is sexually attracted to both men and women c. feels like a male trapped in a female body d. desires sexual intimacy with women

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Chap 12__HDEV6 39. Peers exhibit higher influence on adolescents than parents in matters pertaining to _____. a. speech patterns b. educational goals c. moral values d. religious beliefs 40. According to James Marcia, which of the following is the least advanced status of psychological development associated with adolescence? a. Moratorium b. Foreclosure c. Ego integrity d. Identity diffusion 41. In the context of adolescent suicide, which of the following statements is true? a. Genetic factors have no influence on suicidal tendencies. b. Women are more likely than men to complete a suicide. c. Highly achieving teenagers are unlikely to consider suicide. d. Drug abuse is a warning sign of suicidal tendencies.

42. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, a stable investment in one’s goals, values, or beliefs are involved in ______. a. foreclosure b. diffusion c. commitment d. exploration 43. While adolescents are likely to be accused of being involved in illegal matters when participating in it, adults are unlikely to be held guilty of any crime for participating in a. marital rape. b. sexual promiscuity. c. robbery. d. kidnapping.

44. According to Ritch Savin-Williams, _____. a. the development of sexual orientation in gay males and lesbians involves several steps b. human beings are genetically programmed to have a gay orientation c. human beings are genetically programmed to have a bisexual orientation d. gay males and lesbians feel more comfortable in disclosing their sexual orientations to their parents than to their friends

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Chap 12__HDEV6 45. The stage in which an adolescent embarks on an ethnic identity search is similar to Marcia’s _________. a. exposure b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. reinforcement 46. Who among the following is most likely straight? a. Perry, a woman in her forties who has been dating Sarah, a young woman, for two years b. Helen, a young woman who enjoys sexual intimacy with both men and women c. Kate, a woman who is sexually attracted to her female colleague Veronica d. Trevon, a man in his fifties who is sexually attracted only to young women 47. Ryan is a young man who he has had multiple intimate relationships with other men over the years. At present, he is in a stable relationship with Jerry and wants to marry him. In this scenario, Ryan is a person that has a _____. a. heterosexual orientation b. bisexual orientation c. asexual orientation d. gay orientation 48. Which of the following statements is true of the development of sexual identity? a. Sexual differentiation of sex organs and brain occur at different times. b. Individuals are genetically programmed to have a bisexual orientation. c. Adolescents are unlikely to be aware of their sexual orientation. d. Sexual differentiation of the brain in individuals is established before birth.

49. In the context of parenting styles, which of the following statements is true? a. Adolescents from authoritative homes have low self-esteem. b. Adolescents whose parents use the authoritarian parenting style are the most competent. c. Adolescents whose parents use the permissive parenting style are the most competent. d. Adolescents from authoritative homes show the most competent behavior.

50. A clique is best described as a a. large group of people who are identified by the activities of the group. b. group of people belonging to the same age group who are involved in illegal activities. c. small group of individuals who hang around together and share common interests. d. group of people who temporarily come together for a specific purpose, the completion of which ends their interaction.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 51. In comparison with adolescents who do not communicate well with their parents, those who do are _______. a. more likely to have adjustment issues b. less likely to be self-reliant or independent c. more likely to use birth control d. more likely to have low self-esteem 52. Which of the following statements is true of adolescents? a. During adolescence, parents are viewed as providing more support than same-gender friends. b. Most adolescents feel that they are close to and get along with their parents. c. Adolescents respond best to the authoritarian style of parenting. d. Adolescents tend to develop an idealized view of their parents.

53. In comparison to friendships of childhood, friendships in adolescence are _______. a. unlikely to illustrate gender differences b. less likely to stress the importance of acceptance c. unlikely to be influenced by age d. more likely to stress the importance of intimate self-disclosure 54. Who among the following individuals is most likely straight? a. Elijah, a man in his thirties who has been dating Sam, a young man, for two years b. Arnold, a young man who enjoys sexual intimacy with both men and women c. Edward, a man who is sexually attracted to his older male colleague Jose d. Jada, a woman in her twenties who is sexually attracted only to younger men 55. Which of the following best exemplifies a gay orientation? a. Mike, a young male who is in a sexual relationship with a boy b. Alana, a young female who has sexual relationships with both males and females c. Pablo, a boy who feels that he should have been a girl d. Alicia, a girl who is in love with a married man 56. Sexual self-stimulation a. causes a decline in one’s sex drive if practiced frequently. b. is the most common sexual outlet in adolescence. c. is widely practiced by women and not men. d. is an indication of a bisexual orientation.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 57. Identify a true statement about juvenile delinquency. a. Girls are much more likely than boys to engage in delinquent behavior. b. Robbery is an example of a status offense. c. Crimes committed by adolescents from historically marginalized groups are considered status offenses. d. Girls are more likely than boys to commit offenses such as running away.

58. A characteristic of adolescents in the stage of identity diffusion is that they a. tend to be alienated and rebellious. b. tend to exhibit suicidal tendencies. c. have established personal goals. d. set high standards for themselves.

59. Adolescent girls are a. less likely than boys to expect loyalty and companionship from their friends. b. more likely than boys to have a smaller, exclusive network of friends. c. less likely than boys to disclose personal or intimate details to friends. d. more likely than boys to engage in organized group activities.

60. Conflicts between adolescents and parents typically center on issues such as _______. a. political views b. curfews c. economic status d. health problems 61. Identify a true statement about antisocial and criminal behaviors by adolescents. a. Many juvenile delinquency cases may be disposed of informally, as by referral to a mental health agency. b. About eight in ten serious crimes in the United States are committed by individuals under the age of 21. c. About seven in ten serious crimes in the United States are committed by individuals under the age of 18. d. Girls are much more likely than boys to engage in delinquent behavior such as robbery.

62. ’Kama’s teachers are of the opinion that she can become a successful lawyer and encourage her to achieve that goal. Inspired by their encouragement, she plans to study business law in college.

However, she takes this decision without considering other career options. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, this scenario exemplifies the stage of _____. a. moratorium. b. identity diffusion. c. foreclosure. d. identity achievement.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 63. In the context of the identity statuses theorized by James Marcia, the stage of identity achievement is characterized by individuals who ______. a. have high self-esteem and self-acceptance. b. have made unsuitable career commitments without exploring any alternatives. c. have no firm commitments. d. are rebellious.

64. A hormone that is associated with sexual behavior in adolescent boys is ______________. a. dopamine b. testosterone c. estrogen d. progesterone 65. A crowd is best described as a a. large, loosely organized group of people who are identified by the activities of the group. b. small group of individuals who hang around together and who share confidences. c. group of people who are involved in different fields of work but who interact regularly. d. group of people who come together as a result of shared ideologies or religious principles.

66. An example of a status offense is ____________. a. marital rape b. underage drinking c. robbery d. kidnapping 67. Which of the following statements is true of self-esteem? a. High self-esteem is a characteristic of individuals who are depressed or suicidal. b. Individuals who feel close to their parents tend to have low self-esteem and self-reliance. c. Self-esteem tends to decline after middle childhood and improves after the age of 12 or 13. d. Individuals in the stage of identity diffusion are likely to have high self-esteem and selfacceptance.

68. In the context of the identity statuses theorized by James Marcia, the moratorium status is associated with a. active exploration of alternatives. b. submission to imposed duties. c. commitment to identified priorities. d. conformation to standards set by peers.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 69. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, active exploration of potential career options without actively committing to one of them is associated with _________. a. exposure b. moratorium c. foreclosure d. reinforcement 70. Who among the following individuals is most likely a bisexual? a. Monika, a woman who is not sexually aroused by men but fantasizes about being sexually intimate with her friend Jenna b. Hannah, a young woman who has enjoyed sexual intimacy with several men in her life and is about to marry one of them c. Kelly, a girl who is confused about her sexual identity and feels that she might be a man trapped in a woman’s body d. Lillian, a young woman who is sexually intimate with her boyfriend Justin as well as with her colleague Judy, an older female 71. Which of the following individuals has a bisexual orientation? a. Laura, a girl who has never been out on a date with the boy she likes b. Alex, a boy who likes girls but is scared to ask one out c. Michael, a young male who has been dating another male for three years d. Barbara, a young female who has sexual relationships with both males and females 72. Ego identity is best described as a(n) ______. a. sense of what one stands for b. identity of self that is adopted from one’s parents c. inflated sense of one’s abilities d. distorted perception of one’s worth 73. Adolescents from authoritative homes tend to _________. a. be less competent b. be more competent c. engage in rebellious behaviors d. break rules more often 74. Which of the following statements is true of dating in adolescence? a. Members of adolescent peer groups belong to one particular gender which reduces instances of dating. b. Dating restricts adolescents from having fun. c. Romantic relationships do not begin until late adolescence. d. Dating prepares adolescents for adult courtship.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 75. Tamara is about to graduate from high school. She is confused about options for college. She enjoys studying both languages and life sciences. She has taken an appointment with the high school career counselor to explore her options. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, Tamara is most likely in the _____. a. foreclosure stage b. moratorium stage c. exposure stage d. reinforcement stage 76. Males who are gay in their sexual orientation have an erotic orientation toward______. a. members of the opposite gender b. members of their own gender c. members of all genders d. members of other genders 77. Which of the following statements is true of sexual behavior? a. Sex hormones predispose lower animals to stereotypical masculine or feminine mating patterns. b. Genetic factors are unlikely to determine the sexual orientation of individuals. c. Sexual differentiation of sex organs and brain begin at the same time. d. Individuals are genetically programmed to have a non-heterosexual orientation.

78. Which of the following statements is true of petting? a. It is used by adolescents to express affection. b. It is limited to sexual self-stimulation. c. It causes teenage pregnancy. d. It causes decreased libido in men.

79. A 15-year-old’s performance at school is low, has no hobbies or interests, has no goals for the future and is content to spend life one day at a time. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, this teenager is most likely in the _____. a. identity actualization stage b. identity diffusion stage c. identity realization stage d. identity achievement stage 80. Identify a true statement about adolescents’ relationship with their parents. a. As adolescents grow older, parents are more likely to use punishment. b. There is little evidence of a generation gap between parents and adolescents. c. As adolescents grow older, parents are less likely to relax controls. d. Adolescents spend more time with their parents than they did in childhood.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 81. Identify a true statement about friendships in adolescence. a. Adolescents and their friends tend to have opposing views about drug use and sexual activity. b. Friendships in adolescence are less likely to stress mutual understanding as compared to friendships of childhood. c. Adolescents and their friends typically belong to the same age, race, and gender. d. Friendships in adolescence are less likely to stress intimate self-disclosure as compared to friendships of childhood.

82. Which of the following statements is true of masturbation? a. It causes a decline in one’s sex drive if practiced frequently. b. It is a sexual outlet that does not require a partner. c. It is widely practiced by women and not men. d. It is an indication of a non-heterosexual orientation.

83. Regarding relationships with their parents, adolescents ___________________________________. a. interact more with their mothers than their fathers. b. who are close to their parents tend to be less self-reliant. c. spend more time with their parents than they did in childhood. d. tend to have fewer conflicts with their mothers than with their fathers.

84. Who among the following is most likely a bisexual? a. Matt, a man who is not sexually aroused by women but fantasizes about being sexually intimate with his male colleague, John b. Dave, a commitment-phobic young man who has been sexually intimate with several women in his life c. Jacob, a man who is confused about his sexual identity and feels that he might be a woman trapped in a man’s body d. James, a young man who is sexually intimate with his girlfriend Elaine as well as with his neighbor Mark, an older male 85. Antonio is a studious high school student. In his search for a college, he is taking into account the opinions of his parents’, who are teachers, the opinions of other teachers,’ and the opinions of the school’s career counselor. Antonio decides to take teaching prep classes his last year of high school and plans to enroll in a college with a good teacher development program. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, Antonio is most likely in the _____. a. exposure stage b. moratorium stage c. reinforcement stage d. foreclosure stage

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Chap 12__HDEV6 86. In Erik Erikson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development, the primary task for adolescents is to develop ______. a. ego identity b. ego differentiation c. ego transcendence d. ego integrity 87. Juvenile delinquency refers to a. children or adolescents experiencing a severe depression. b. adolescents engaging in sexual activities. c. children or adolescents engaging in illegal behavior or activities. d. adolescents experiencing low self-esteem and self-reliance.

88. Which of the following statements is true of juvenile delinquency? a. Girls are much more likely than boys to engage in delinquent behavior such as robbery. b. Similar patterns of delinquency are observed among teenagers belonging to different ethnic groups. c. Crimes committed by adolescents from a stable economic background are considered status offenses. d. Girls are more likely than boys to commit offenses such as truancy.

89. In the context of the development of identity in humans, which of the following is an assumption made

by Erik Erikson? a. Erik Erikson assumed that women who were members of a historically marginalized culture were more likely than men from the same culture to reject the historically marginalized culture for the dominant culture. b. Erik Erikson assumed that a woman’s relationships with her peers did not play a role in her identity development. c. Erik Erikson assumed that relationships were more important to women’s development of identity than occupational matters. d. Erik Erikson assumed that men, unlike women, were less concerned with ideological matters during adolescence.

90. Unlike boys, adolescent girls who make friends are less likely to stress the importance of _________. a. loyalty b. status c. self-disclosure d. companionship

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Chap 12__HDEV6 91. In comparison to adolescent girls, adolescent boys are ______. a. more likely to share personal feelings with friends b. less likely to interact with those of similar status c. more likely to engage in organized group activities d. less likely to have large friendship networks 92. Examples of status offenses are _______. a. truancy or running away. b. white-collar crimes. c. crimes that occur within law enforcement agencies. d. nonviolent crimes such as property crimes.

93. Rob is a teenager who often skips school to go to the movies. He has no interest in studies and gets angry when his parents try to speak to him about his attitude. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, Rob is most likely in the _____. a. identity actualization stage b. identity realization stage c. identity achievement stage d. identity diffusion stage 94. DeShawn is a 15-year-old boy. His parents believe that DeShawn has all the qualities required to become a scientist and encourage him to plan his future accordingly. Influenced by his parents’ encouragement, DeShawn decides to take up research in the field of science. He selects his career solely on the basis of his parents’ views. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, Jonah’s decision illustrates _____. a. identity achievement b. moratorium c. identity diffusion d. foreclosure 95. A situation that is least likely to cause a teenager to initiate sexual activity at an early age is a. having close relationships with their parents. b. having trouble communicating with their parents. c. having sexually active peers. d. experiencing precocious puberty and have older friends.

96. Identify a true statement about adolescents. a. Adolescents spend more time with their parents than they did in childhood. b. During adolescence, individuals may develop a less idealized view of their parents. c. Early adolescence is characterized by decreased bickering and an increase in shared activities with parents. d. Adolescents who feel close to their parents are likely to have low self-esteem.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 97. In which status do individuals make commitments without considering alternatives? a. Moratorium b. Foreclosure c. Identity achievement d. Identity diffusion 98. An example of juvenile delinquency is a a. 15-year-old, committing homicide during a fight in the high school campus. b. 12-year-old, running away from home after an argument with parents. c. 16-year-old, exploring their sexuality with multiple partners. d. 13-year-old with a non-heterosexual orientation, falling in love with a student of the same sex in their class.

99. Ethan likes to sing and play the guitar and wants to pursue a career in music. However, his parents advise him to take up a traditional career option. Finally, after considering other career options, he decides to pursue his passion. In the context of James Marcia’s identity statuses, Ethan is most likely in the _____. a. identity diffusion stage b. identity realization stage c. identity achievement stage d. identity actualization stage 100. Adolescents undergo an identity crisis in which they examine their values and make decisions about their life roles during _____. a. the stage of identity diffusion b. a psychological moratorium c. the stage of foreclosure d. ego transcendence 101. Erik Erikson used the term psychological moratorium to refer to the aspect of psychological development that involves experimentation with ______. a. different roles, values, beliefs, and relationships b. similar roles, values, beliefs, and relationships c. different learning styles, experiences, objects, and locations d. similar people, experiences, objects, and locations 102. Unlike childhood peer groups, adolescent peer groups _______. a. disregard the importance of shared activities b. are less likely to be influenced by a similarity in attitudes c. may include more members of the opposite gender d. are controlled by parents

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Chap 12__HDEV6 103. What term refers to acts of sexual self-stimulation? a. Sexting b. Masturbation c. Oral sex d. Fondling 104. Discuss the consequences of sexting.

105. Describe friendships in adolescence.

106. Discuss dating and romantic relationships among adolescents.

107. Discuss self-esteem among adolescents.

108. What are the common factors that cause teenage pregnancy? Do teenage girls use contraception effectively?

109. How do parents and peers influence sexual activity during adolescence?

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Chap 12__HDEV6 110. Describe the development of sexual orientation.

111. Describe peer groups during adolescence.

112. Discuss the consequences of teenage pregnancy.

113. Discuss status offenses with examples.

114. Discuss adolescents’ relationship with their parents.

115. Describe Erik Erikson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development.

116. Describe James Marcia’s identity statuses based on the dimensions of exploration and commitment.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 117. Discuss gender and adolescent identity development.

118. Is masturbation harmful?

119. Discuss masturbation among adolescents.

120. List at least five warning signs of suicide among adolescents.

121. In the context of adolescence, discuss sexual orientation and sexual identity.

122. Describe the influence of ethnicity and gender on adolescent suicides.

123. Discuss the development of self-concept among adolescents.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 124. Discuss the risk factors in suicide among adolescents.

125. According to Ritch Savin-Williams, what are the steps involved in the development of sexual orientation in homosexual individuals?

126. What is sexting?

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Chap 12__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. True 20. False 21. True 22. False 23. False 24. a 25. b 26. a

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Chap 12__HDEV6 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. b 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. c 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. b 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. b 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. b 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. b 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 83. a 84. d 85. d 86. a 87. c 88. d 89. c 90. b 91. c 92. a 93. d 94. d 95. a 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. a 102. c 103. b 104. Answers will vary. Some of the consequences of sexting are as follows: Whatever you sext may never go away. Potential employers, college recruiters, teachers and coaches, parents, friends, and total strangers may be able to access your posts, even if you delete them.

Consider the recipient’s reaction before you press send. A girl may send sexually suggestive content for a “joke,” but guys may think that the girl will hook up in real life.

Nothing you post or send will necessarily remain anonymous. People you meet online can often track you down on the basis of your screen name and other information you have provided.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 105. Answers will vary. Friendships in adolescence differ from the friendships of childhood. Adolescents are more likely to stress acceptance, intimate self-disclosure, and mutual understanding. There are some gender differences.

Adolescent girls are more likely to stress the importance of loyalty, intimacy, and companionship, but status—having friends on one’s level of social dominance—was more important for males. One eighth-grade girl described her best friend this way: “I can tell her things and she helps me talk. And she doesn’t laugh at me if I do something weird— she accepts me for who I am”. Adolescents and their friends are similar in many respects. They typically are the same age and race. They almost always are the same gender. Even though romantic attachments increase during the teen years, most adolescents still choose members of their own gender as best friends. Friends are often alike in school attitudes, educational aspirations, and grades. Friends also tend to have similar attitudes about drinking, drug use, and sexual activity.

Friendship contributes to psychological adjustment. Adolescents who have a close friend have higher self-esteem than adolescents who do not. Intimacy and closeness appear to be more central to the friendships of girls than of boys. Adolescent and adult females also are generally more likely than males to disclose secrets, personal problems, thoughts, and feelings to their friends.

Friendship networks among girls are smaller and more exclusive than networks among boys. Girls tend to have one or two close friends, whereas boys tend to congregate in larger, less intimate groups. The activities of girls’ and boys’ friendship networks differ as well. Girls are more likely to engage in unstructured activities such as talking and listening to music. Boys are more likely to engage in organized group activities, games, and sports.

106. Answers will vary. Romantic relationships usually begin during early and middle adolescence, and most adolescents start dating or going out by the time they graduate from high school. For heterosexuals, the development of dating typically takes the following sequence: putting oneself in situations where peers of the other gender probably will be present (e.g., hanging out at the mall), group activities including peers of the other gender (e.g., school dances or parties), group dating (e.g., joining a mixed-gender group at the movies), and then traditional two-person dating.

Dating serves a number of functions. First and foremost, people date to have fun. Dating, especially in early adolescence, also serves to enhance prestige with peers. Dating gives adolescents additional experiences in learning to relate to people. Finally, dating prepares adolescents for adult courtship. Dating relationships tend to be casual and short-lived in early adolescence. In late adolescence, relationships tend to become more stable and committed. Eighteen-year-olds are more likely than 15-year-olds to mention love, trust, and commitment when describing romantic relationships.

107. Answers will vary. Self-esteem tends to decline as the child progresses from middle childhood to about the age of 12 or 13. The growing cognitive maturity of young adolescents makes them increasingly aware of the disparity between their ideal selves and their real selves, especially in terms of physical appearance. Boys might fantasize they would like to have the physiques of the warriors they see in video games or in the media. Most American girls want to be thin.

After hitting a low point at about age 12 or 13, self-esteem gradually improves. Perhaps adolescents adjust their ideal selves to better reflect reality. Also, as adolescents develop academic, physical, and social skills, they may grow less self-critical. For most adolescents, low self-esteem produces temporary discomfort. For others, low self-esteem has serious consequences. For example, low self-esteem is often found in teenagers and adults who are depressed or suicidal.

Emotional support from parents and peers is important in self-esteem. Adolescents who feel highly regarded by family and friends are more likely to feel positive about themselves.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 108. Answers will vary. Adolescent girls typically get little advice in school or at home about how to deal with boys’ sexual advances. Another reason is failure to use contraception. Many adolescent girls, especially younger adolescents, do not have access to contraceptive devices. Among those who do, fewer than half use them reliably. Some teenage girls purposefully get pregnant to try to force their partners to make a commitment to them. Some are rebelling against their parents or the moral standards of their communities. However, most girls are impregnated because they and their partners miscalculate the odds of getting pregnant.

109. Answers will vary. Teenagers who have close relationships with their parents are less likely to initiate sexual activity at an early age. Adolescents who communicate well with their parents also delay the onset of sexual activity. If these youngsters do have sexual intercourse, they are more likely to use birth control and have fewer partners.

A good predictor of sexual activity for adolescents is the sexual activity of their best friends. When teenagers are asked why they do not wait to have sex until they are older, the main reason reported is usually peer pressure. Peers, especially those of the same gender, also serve as a key source of sex education for adolescents. Adolescents report that they are somewhat more likely to receive information about sex from friends and media sources—TV shows, films, magazines, and the Internet—than from sex education classes or their parents.

110. Answers will vary. Theories of the origins of sexual orientation look both at nature and nurture—the biological makeup of the individual and environmental factors. Some theories bridge the two. Social cognitive theorists look for the roles of factors such as reinforcement and observational learning. From this perspective, reinforcement of sexual behavior with members of one’s own gender—as in reaching orgasm with them when members of the other gender are unavailable—might affect one’s sexual orientation. Similarly, childhood sexual abuse by someone of the same gender could lead to a pattern of sexual activity with people of one’s own gender and affect sexual orientation. Observation of others engaged in enjoyable male–male or female–female sexual encounters could also affect the development of sexual orientation. But critics point out that most individuals become aware of their sexual orientation before they experience sexual contacts with other people of either gender. Moreover, in a society where many still frown upon the LGBT community, young people are unlikely to believe that an other-than-heterosexual orientation or identity will have positive effects for them. There is evidence for genetic factors in sexual orientation or identity. About 52% of identical (MZ) twin pairs are concordant (in agreement) for a gay male sexual orientation compared with 22% for fraternal (DZ) twins and 11% for adoptive brothers. Monozygotic (MZ) twins fully share their genetic heritage, whereas dizygotic (DZ) twins, like other pairs of siblings, overlap 50%.

It has been demonstrated repeatedly that sex hormones predispose lower animals toward stereotypical masculine or feminine mating patterns. But can sex hormones influence the developing human embryo and fetus? Swedish neuroscientists Ivanka Savic and her colleagues report evidence that one’s gender identity as being male or being female and one’s sexual orientation (heterosexual, homosexual, bisexual, or transgender) can develop during the intrauterine period. They point out that sexual differentiation of the sex organs occurs during the first two months of pregnancy, whereas sexual differentiation of the brain begins later, during the second half of pregnancy. Sexual differentiation of the genitals and the brain both depend on surges of testosterone, but because they happen at different times, they can occur independently. Therefore, it is possible that an individual’s sex organs can develop in one direction while the biological factors that may underlie one’s sexual orientation develop in another direction.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 111. Answers will vary. Most adolescents belong to one or more peer groups: cliques and crowds. Cliques consist of five to ten individuals who hang around together, sharing activities and confidences. Crowds are larger groups who may or may not spend much time together and are identified by their activities or attitudes. Crowds are usually given labels by other adolescents—”jocks,” “brains,” “druggies,” or “nerds.” The most negatively labeled groups (“druggies,” “rejects”) show higher levels of alcohol and drug abuse, delinquency, and depression.

Adolescent peer groups function with less adult guidance or control than childhood peer groups.

Adolescent peer groups may include members of the other gender, sharply contrasting with the gender segregation of childhood peer groups. Such associations may lead to dating and romantic relationships.

112. Answers will vary. The outcome of teenage pregnancies for young women who want their babies and have the resources to nurture them are generally good. Females tend to be healthy in late adolescence.

However, the medical, social, and economic costs of unplanned or unwanted pregnancies among adolescents are enormous both to the mothers and to the children. Adolescent mothers are more likely to experience medical complications during the months of pregnancy and their labor is likely to be prolonged.

The babies are at greater risk of being premature and of low birth weight. These medical problems are not necessarily because of the age of the mother, but rather because single teenage mothers—especially poor single teenage mothers—are less likely to have access to prenatal care or to obtain adequate nutrition. The teenage mother is less likely than her peers to graduate from high school or move on to postsecondary education. Therefore, she will earn less and be in greater need of public assistance. Few teenage mothers obtain assistance from the fathers. The fathers typically cannot support themselves, less a family.

113. Answers will vary. At the most extreme end, juvenile delinquency includes serious behaviors such as homicide, rape, and robbery. Less serious offenses, such as truancy, underage drinking, running away from home, and sexual promiscuity, are considered illegal only when performed by minors. Hence, these activities are termed status offenses.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 114. Answers will vary. Although most adolescents get along well with their parents, they spend less time with their parents than they did in childhood. Adolescents continue to interact more with their mothers than their fathers.

Teenagers have more conflicts with their mothers, but they also view their mothers as being more supportive and knowing them better. Adverse relationships with fathers are often associated with depression in adolescents, but good relations with fathers contribute to psychological well-being.

The decrease in time spent with family may reflect the adolescents’ striving for independence. A certain degree of distancing from parents may be adaptive as adolescents form relationships outside the family. However, adolescents continue to maintain love, loyalty, and respect for their parents. And adolescents who feel close to their parents have more self-reliance and self-esteem, better school performance, and fewer adjustment problems.

The relationship between parents and teens is not always rosy, of course. Early adolescence, in particular, is characterized by increased bickering and a decrease in shared activities and expressions of affection. Conflicts typically center on the everyday details of family life, such as chores, homework, curfews, personal appearance, finances, and dating—often because adolescents believe that they should manage matters that were previously controlled by parents. But parents, especially mothers, continue to believe that they should retain control in most areas, for example, encouraging adolescents to do their homework and clean their rooms. As adolescents get older, they and their parents are more likely to compromise. On the other hand, parents and adolescents are usually quite similar in their values and beliefs regarding social, political, religious, and economic issues. Even though the notion of a generation gap between adolescents and their parents may persist as a stereotype, there is little evidence of one.

As adolescents grow older, parents are more likely to relax controls and less likely to use punishment.

Although parent–child relationships change, most adolescents feel that they are close to and get along with their parents, even though they may develop a less idealized view of them.

115. Answers will vary. Erik Erikson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development is called ego identity versus role diffusion.

The primary task is for adolescents to develop ego identity: a sense of who they are and what they stand for. They are faced with choices about their future occupations, political and religious beliefs, gender roles, and more. Because of formal-operational thinking, adolescents can weigh options they have not experienced.

One aspect of identity development is a psychological moratorium during which adolescents experiment with different roles, values, beliefs, and relationships. During this time, adolescents undergo an identity crisis in which they examine their values and make decisions about their life roles. Should they attend college? What career should they pursue? Should they become sexually active? With whom?

In their search for identity, many—not all—adolescents join “in” groups, slavishly imitating their peers’ clothing, speech, hairstyles, and ideals. Those who successfully resolve their identity crises develop a strong sense of who they are and what they stand for. Those who do not may be intolerant of people who are different and blindly follow people who adhere to convention.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 116. Answers will vary. Building on Erik Erikson’s approach, James Marcia theorized four identity statuses that represent the four possible combinations of the dimensions of exploration and commitment that Erikson believed were critical to the development of identity. Exploration involves active questioning and searching among alternatives to establish goals, values, or beliefs. Commitment is a stable investment in one’s goals, values, or beliefs. Identity diffusion is the least advanced status and includes adolescents who neither have commitments nor are trying to form them. This stage is characteristic of younger adolescents and of older adolescents who drift through life or become alienated and rebellious. In the foreclosure status, individuals make commitments without considering alternatives. These commitments are usually established early in life and are often based on identification with parents, teachers, or religious leaders who have made a strong impression. The moratorium status refers to a person who is actively exploring alternatives in an attempt to make choices. Such individuals are often anxious and intense.

Identity achievement refers to those who have explored alternatives and developed relatively firm commitments. They generally have high self-esteem and self-acceptance.

117. Answers will vary. Erik Erikson believed that there were gender differences in the development of identity, and his views reflected the times in which he wrote. Identity development relates to relationships and occupational choice, among other matters. Erikson assumed that relationships were more important to women’s development of identity, while occupational and ideological matters were relatively more important to men’s. He believed that a young woman’s identity was intimately bound up with her roles as wife and mother. Studies today show that both adolescent females and males are concerned about occupational choices, even though females are more likely to expect that they will have to balance the demands of a career and a family. Despite cultural lip service to gender equality, this gender difference has persisted because females continue to assume primary responsibility for child rearing, even though most women are employed outside the home.

118. Answers will vary. Although it has not been shown to be physically harmful, beliefs that masturbation is harmful and guilt about masturbating lessen the incidence of masturbation.

119. Answers will vary. Masturbation, or sexual self-stimulation, is the most common sexual outlet in adolescence. Surveys indicate that most adolescents masturbate at some time and most educated adolescents and early adults see masturbation as beneficial. Although it has not been shown to be physically harmful, beliefs that masturbation is harmful and guilt about masturbating lessen the incidence of masturbation. About three-quarters of adolescent males and half of adolescent females masturbate.

Males who masturbate do so more often than females who masturbate. It is unclear whether this gender difference reflects a stronger sex drive in males, greater social constraints on females, or both, but young women are more likely than young men to struggle in coming to terms with the contradiction between social stigma and pleasure.

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Chap 12__HDEV6 120. Answers will vary. Researchers have found the following warning signs of suicide among adolescents: Belief that it is acceptable to kill oneself Drug abuse and other kinds of delinquency Victimization by bullyingExtensive body piercing Stress Hostility Depression and other psychological disorders Heavy smoking Low self-esteem Increasing age from 11 to 21 121. Answers will vary. Most people, including a majority of adolescents, have a heterosexual sexual orientation.

They are sexually attracted to and interested in forming romantic relationships with people of the other gender. However, some people have a homosexual orientation. They are attracted to and interested in forming romantic relationships with people of their own gender. Males with a homosexual orientation are referred to as gay males. Females with a homosexual orientation are referred to as lesbians. However, males and females with a homosexual orientation are sometimes categorized together as “gay people,” or “gays.” Bisexual people are attracted to both females and males. Transgender individuals feel that they are actually members of the other gender, “trapped” in the body of the wrong gender. Collectively, lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender individuals are frequently referred to as LGBT people. A person’s sexual identity is the label that they adopt to inform others as to who they are as a sexual being, especially concerning sexual orientation.

122. Answers will vary. Rates of suicide and suicide attempts vary among different ethnic groups. Native American and Latin American teenagers have the highest suicide rates, in part because of the stresses to which they are exposed, in part because of their lack of access to health care. European Americans are next. African American teens are least likely to attempt suicide or to think about it. About three times as many adolescent females as males attempt suicide, but about four times as many males complete a suicide.

123. Answers will vary. Before adolescence, children describe themselves primarily in terms of their physical characteristics and their actions. As they approach adolescence, children begin to incorporate psychological characteristics and social relationships into their self-descriptions. Adolescents’ selfperceptions become more complex than those of younger children. According to Susan Harter’s SelfPerception Profile of academically talented adolescents, many factors come into play. Adolescents may describe themselves as anxious or sarcastic with parents but as talkative and cheerful with friends. Such contradictions and conflicts in self-description reach their peak at about age 14 and then decline. The advanced formal-operational skills of older adolescents allow them to integrate contradictory aspects of the self. The older adolescent might say: “I’m very adaptable. When I’m around my friends, who think that what I say is important, I’m very talkative; but around my family, I’m quiet because they’re not interested enough to really listen to me.”

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Chap 12__HDEV6 124. Answers will vary. Most suicides among adolescents and adults are linked to feelings of depression and hopelessness.

Suicidal adolescents experience four areas of psychological problems: (1) confusion about the self, (2) impulsiveness, (3) emotional instability, and (4) interpersonal problems. Some suicidal teenagers are highly achieving, rigid perfectionists who have set impossibly high expectations for themselves. Many teenagers throw themselves into feelings of depression and hopelessness by comparing themselves negatively with others, even when the comparisons are inappropriate. (“Yes, you didn’t get into Harvard, but you did get into the University of California at Irvine, and it’s a great school.”)

Adolescent suicide attempts are more common after stressful life events, especially events that entail loss of social support, as in the death of a parent or friend, breaking up with a boyfriend or girlfriend, or a family member’s leaving home. Other contributors to suicidal behavior include concerns over sexuality, school grades, problems at home, and substance abuse. It is not always a stressful event itself that precipitates suicide, but the adolescent’s anxiety or fear of being “found out” for something, such as failing a course or getting arrested. Suicide tends to run in families.

125. Answers will vary. According to Ritch Savin-Williams, the development of sexual orientation in gay males and lesbians involves several steps: attraction to members of the same gender, self-labeling as gay or lesbian, sexual contact with members of the same gender, and eventual disclosure of one’s sexual orientation to other people. There is generally a gap of about ten years between initial attraction to members of the same gender, which tends to occur at about the age of eight or nine, and disclosure of one’s orientation to other people, which usually occurs at about age 18. But some gay males and lesbians never disclose their sexual orientations to anyone or to certain people, such as their parents.

126. Answers will vary. Sexting is short for sex texting, and refers to sending or receiving text messages with sexual content. Sexting can be used to titillate the recipient, to highlight the intimacy of one’s relationship, to humiliate someone—or to ask or arrange for a sexual encounter.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Crystallized intelligence increases with age. a. True b. False 2. Emerging adulthood is sandwiched between the stages of young adulthood and middle adulthood. a. True b. False 3. Adaptive thermogenesis causes the body to produce more energy when someone goes on a diet. a. True b. False 4. Emerging adulthood is a distinct period of development that is found in societies that allow young people an extended opportunity to explore their roles in life. a. True b. False 5. People in college are often at the tentative choice stage of career development. a. True b. False 6. A vaccine is available that prevents most young women from being infected with genital warts and is best administered after they become sexually active. a. True b. False 7. According to the data accumulated by the National Center for Health Statistics, the leading cause of death for late teenagers and early adults in the United States was clearly cancer. a. True b. False 8. The changes of aging in the cardiovascular system begin in adolescence. a. True b. False 9. Fertility in both genders increases as early adulthood progresses. a. True b. False 10. As people mature, Labouvie-Vief found that they tend to develop a cognitive-affective complexity that enables them to harbor only positive feelings about their career choices. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 11. Sensory sharpness declines dramatically in early adulthood. a. True b. False 12. A person with a high fat-to-muscle ratio metabolizes food more quickly than a person of the same weight with more muscle. a. True b. False 13. Emerging adults typically feel that the world lies open before them. a. True b. False 14. Toward the end of early adulthood, and almost certainly in middle adulthood, the skin begins to loosen, grow less elastic, and wrinkle, more so in women than in men. a. True b. False 15. An intrinsic reward for working is receiving a raise. a. True b. False 16. Most young adults are careful about their health during early adulthood. a. True b. False 17. The primary mode of HIV transmission worldwide is male–female intercourse. a. True b. False 18. An acquaintance rape is less likely to be reported to the police than a stranger rape. a. True b. False 19. People in the retirement stage are in the last stage of career development. a. True b. False 20. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, adults 18 and older need at least 90 minutes of vigorous physical activity seven days a week. a. True b. False

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Chap 13__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. The work ethic is an intrinsic reason to work, which involves the view that ______. a. we are morally obligated to avoid idleness b. we often express our personal needs and interests through our work c. we need to maintain our self-esteem d. the workplace extends our social contacts 22. Which of the following is true of physical development during early adulthood? a. Fertility in both genders declines as early adulthood progresses. b. Females are normally stronger than males during early adulthood. c. The immune system is weakened by extreme stress during early adulthood. d. The skin begins to tighten in early adulthood.

23. Liza’s boss, Thomas, often asks her to sleep with him and once when she refused, he tried to hit her.

These occurrences have made the workplace a hostile setting for Liza. This scenario illustrates a common example of _____. a. the glass ceiling effect b. racial discrimination c. nepotism d. sexual harassment 24. Adaptive thermogenesis a. explains why all obese people are overweight. b. sabotages weight loss attempts by causing the body to burn fewer calories when someone goes on a diet. c. explains why obese people are always at a risk of developing cardiovascular diseases and certain forms of cancer. d. causes thin people to become obese during adulthood.

25. A change that occurs toward the end of early adulthood is that a. gains in skin elasticity and wrinkles are noticed. b. fertility in women declines, but fertility in men increases. c. loss of skin elasticity and wrinkles are noticed. d. most men are completely infertile.

26. Emerging adulthood _______. a. is sandwiched between the stages of adolescence and young adulthood b. precedes adolescence c. is the stage that appears after middle age and before old age d. roughly spans the ages of 55 to 65

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Chap 13__HDEV6 27. After what age is it recommended that pregnant women have their fetuses checked for Down’s syndrome and other chromosomal abnormalities? a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35 28. The theory that involves thought processes directed at considering how young adults arrive at their beliefs, facts, and ideas is known as ______. a. egoistic thinking b. epistemic cognition c. formal metacognition d. conventional rumination 29. Which of the following is true of fentanyl? a. Fentanyl is less powerful than heroin. b. A street name for fentanyl is Sleep Fever. c. Fentanyl is responsible for most overdose deaths. d. Fentanyl is a nonaddictive from of heroin.

30. Which of the following is true of the causes of death during early adulthood? a. Homicide and suicide are the most common causes of death during this time. b. AIDS is a much more prominent cause of death among 15- to 24-year-olds as compared to 25to 44-year-olds. c. Heart disease and cancer are the most common causes of death during this time. d. Accidents are the leading cause of death during this time.

31. In the context of Donald Super’s theory of career development, which of the following is true of the realistic choice stage? a. It is the stage that involves a person’s erroneous conception of self-potential and of the world of work. b. In this stage, an individual severs bonds with the workplace. c. It is the stage, the fit between an occupation and the abilities required to obtain it are completely disregarded. d. In this stage, people may direct their educational plans to ensure they obtain the knowledge and skills they need to enter their intended occupations.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 32. A woman feels the following symptoms during the week before her period and ending within a few days after the period begins: irritability and anger, difficulty concentrating, fatigue, changes in appetite, sleeping too little, feeling overwhelmed, and physical discomfort. The woman is most likely experiencing ______. a. amenorrhea b. chlamydia c. premenstrual dysphoric disorder d. nongonococcal urethritis 33. As early adulthood progresses, fertility ______. a. increases for both men and women b. declines for women, but not for men c. declines gradually for both men and women d. remains stable for men and increases for women 34. According to research, which of the following is true of HIV/AIDS? a. The primary mode of transmission is male–female intercourse. b. Older women are at a greater risk than younger men or women. c. The disease cannot be prevented. d. More children are infected by HIV/AIDS than adults.

35. Paula is 60 years old. She is currently positioned as a senior manager in her workplace. Which of the following actions is she most likely to take at the retirement stage of her career? a. Paula is likely to choose a job in acting solely because of the glamour quotient. b. Paula is likely to change positions within the company by moving from the marketing to the management team. c. Paula is likely to sever bonds with her workplace and undertake a second career. d. Paula is likely to weigh the job requirements and rewards against her interests, abilities, and values.

36. What is a known cause of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome? a. The human immunodeficiency virus b. Treponema pallidum c. Gonococcus bacterium d. The human papilloma virus 37. Lia, a U.S. citizen, is 20 years old. Her parents are affluent enough to support her through college.

She is engaging in self-exploration and is trying to establish an identity. Lia is in the stage of _____. a. preadolescence b. emerging adulthood c. teenage years d. middle age Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 38. The appearance of a hard, painless chancre at the site of infection within 2–4 weeks most likely indicates the presence of ______. a. gonorrhea b. chlamydia c. syphilis d. genital warts 39. Menstrual problems _____. a. are unlikely to affect women in their young adulthood b. mostly involve life-threatening symptoms c. include amenorrhea d. are primarily caused by psychological problems 40. In the context of the adulthood phase, which of the following is a true statement about women? a. After the age of 35, women are usually advised to have their fetuses checked for Down’s syndrome. b. In women, the quality and quantity of ova (egg cells) starts to deteriorate dramatically after the age of 20. c. It is highly unusual for women to have healthy children, including their firstborn, after the age of 25. d. Women experience lesser skin and hair related issues as compared to men by the end of early adulthood.

41. When asked whether they think they have become an adult, a 20-year-old young man replies “In some respects yes and in other respects no.” They are not completely dependent on parents, but not yet fully self-supporting either. In the context of the characteristics of emerging adulthood theorized by Jeffrey Arnett, this 20-year-old young man is _____. a. illustrating egocentrism b. illustrating narcissism c. experiencing the feature of feeling in-between d. experiencing the feature of stability 42. A characteristic of the fantasy stage of Donald Super’s career development theory is when a. a person takes stock of the trajectory of their career after many years. b. people show little regard for the fit between their career choices and their abilities. c. the expectations of one’s family are the primary consideration in selecting a career. d. interest and values are considered the most critical reasons to choose a career.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 43. Women in their late 30s and early 40s a. decline in the quality and quantity of their ova. b. rarely have fertility problems. c. cannot have healthy children, including their first children. d. have a low risk of developing chromosomal abnormalities during pregnancy.

44. A sexually transmitted infection that can be transmitted by touching an infectious chancre is __________. a. chlamydia b. gonorrhea c. genital herpes d. syphilis 45. Jayden is the HR manager at a software firm. She is good at her work and is appreciated by her employers. This recognition and respect for her work that she receives inspires her to perform better.

Which of the following is the primary intrinsic motive that inspires Jayden to perform better at work? a. Socialization b. Public roles c. The work ethic d. Self-worth 46. In the context of weight management: a. it is widely accepted that heredity plays a role in overweight in humans. b. efforts by overweight people to maintain a slender profile is complemented by the mechanism of adaptive thermogenesis. c. obesity is related to psychological factors but not to biological factors. d. obesity is related to biological factors but not to psychological factors.

47. Sandy is concerned as she has not menstruated for a really long time. She tested negative for a pregnancy test. She is only in her mid-20s and is far too young for menopause. Sandy is experiencing _____. a. amenorrhea b. premenstrual syndrome c. premenstrual dysphoric disorder d. dysmenorrhea

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Chap 13__HDEV6 48. Identify a true statement about cognitive development. a. Crystallized intelligence is the ability to process information, such as solving a math problem rapidly. b. Fluid intelligence represents one’s lifetime of intellectual attainments, as shown, for example, by vocabulary and accumulated knowledge. c. Crystallized intelligence declines with age. d. Fluid intelligence is more susceptible to the effects of aging than crystalline intelligence.

49. John does not particularly love his job. However, his major motive to go to work every day is the fact that he gets to meet his friends. He and his friends spend a lot of time together during the weekend and share the same interests. Which of the following is the primary intrinsic motive that inspires John to go to work? a. Socialization b. Public roles c. Self-identity d. The work ethic 50. Cancer and heart disease ______. a. are the most common causes of death in young adults more than any other cause b. kill a smaller percentage of people aged 25 to 44 than aged 15 to 24 c. take fourth and fifth place in the list of leading causes of death for teenagers and early adults d. are more frequently diagnosed in early adulthood than in middle adulthood 51. Shelley is 24 years old. Being an emerging adult, which of the following actions taken by her indicates a “revolving door” existence? a. Shelley has changed three jobs in the last three months. b. Shelley decides to move in with her boyfriend to get to know him better. c. Shelley keeps returning to her parents’ home when she is unable to pay the rent for her apartment. d. Shelley decides to change her educational direction and pursue a career in acting instead of literature.

52. Which kind of cell loses its ability to resist diseases as people age, along with overall reductions in the amount produced by the immune system? a. Bone cells b. Red blood cells c. White blood cells d. Platelets

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Chap 13__HDEV6 53. Labouvie-Vief’s theory of pragmatic thought suggests that ______. a. adults are not mature in their thinking unless they go to college b. the cognitive processes of adolescents are in many ways more advanced than that of young adults c. the thinking of adolescents tends to be less egocentric than that of young adults d. adults function best when they accept reality but choose goals that allow them to experience positive feelings 54. Early adulthood ______. a. involves establishing careers or pathways in life b. occurs at the same time for all people c. occurs after emerging adulthood is completed and does not overlap d. occurs later for women than for men 55. The first stage in Donald Super’s theory of career development is the _____. a. fantasy stage b. maintenance stage c. tentative choice stage d. realistic choice stage 56. Marissa, a 21-year-old young woman, is working as an intern at a software company. She has recently graduated from college. She is contemplating moving in with her partner, yet, she likes the security and convenience of her parents’ home. Marissa feels that she has overcome adolescence but is not yet an adult. In the context of the characteristics of emerging adulthood theorized by Jeffrey Arnett, Marissa is _____. a. experiencing the feature of feeling in-between b. illustrating egocentrism c. experiencing the feature of stability d. illustrating narcissism 57. Painful, reddish bumps around the genitals, thighs, or buttocks are most commonly found among cases of ______. a. genital warts b. genital herpes c. gonorrhea d. nongonococcal urethritis

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Chap 13__HDEV6 58. A 19-year-old female feels severely painful pelvic cramps each month during menstruation and is most likely experiencing ______. a. amenorrhea b. chlamydia c. gonorrhea d. dysmenorrhea 59. In a multicultural society or on a college campus, students may realize that judgments of good or bad are often made from a certain belief system, such as a religion or a cultural background, so that such judgments actually represent _____. a. dualistic thinking b. a lopsided view c. relativistic thinking d. egocentrism 60. “J’s” manager “K” behaves in an inappropriate manner and often cracks unwelcome adult jokes. “K” also leers at “J’s” body and passes suggestive comments. “J” is experiencing _____. a. sexual harassment b. sexual assault c. racial discrimination d. the glass ceiling effect 61. A major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease, which can lead to infertility, is ______. a. pubic lice b. gonorrhea c. syphilis d. chlamydia 62. Dualistic thinking ______. a. involves dividing the cognitive world into opposites, such as good and bad b. reflects the type of thought processes adults develop after college c. reflects the most mature type of thought process in adults d. occurs during Piaget’s fifth stage of cognitive development

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Chap 13__HDEV6 63. Eric has just completed high school and is doing his internship. He is living at home and attends graduate school. He makes decent money but cannot afford his own apartment. He has a girlfriend but is not yet ready to commit to marriage. He feels that he has overcome adolescence but is not fully an adult yet. In the context of the characteristics of emerging adulthood theorized by Jeffrey Arnett, Eric is _____. a. illustrating egocentrism b. illustrating narcissism c. experiencing the feature of feeling in-between d. experiencing the feature of possibilities 64. Raj is 29 years old. In the context of the changes that occur during early adulthood, which of the following is likely to be true? a. Raj is likely to completely lose his ability to hear tones that are high in pitch. b. Raj’s visual acuity is likely to decline dramatically. c. Raj’s ability to hear tones that are high in pitch is likely to enhance. d. Raj’s hearing ability is likely to start declining.

65. An example of an extrinsic motive for working is a. engaging in stimulating activities. b. extending one’s social contacts. c. avoiding a sense of aimlessness. d. earing money.

66. According to Donald Super, from about 11 through high school, children base their choices on their interests, abilities, and limitations, as well as glamour during the ______. a. fantasy stage b. tentative choice stage c. realistic choice stage d. maintenance stage 67. Which of the following statements is true of aging? a. As people age, the heart muscles grow more elastic, increasing the maximum heart rate. b. Regular exercise decreases cardiovascular and respiratory capacity from what it was in early adolescence. c. As people age, the immune system produces fewer white blood cells. d. Fertility in both genders increases as early adulthood progresses.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 68. Edie is 22 years old. Being an emerging adult, which of the following actions taken by her indicates a “revolving door” existence? a. Edie has changed three jobs in the last eight months. b. Edie decides to share an apartment with her college friends. c. Edie keeps returning to her parents’ home when she is between jobs. d. Edie stays with her boyfriend.

69. The transmission of what sexually transmitted infection occurs by infusion of contaminated blood by needle sharing or from mother to infant during childbirth or breastfeeding? a. HIV/AIDS b. Syphilis c. Chlamydia d. Genital herpes 70. Which of the following is true of fertility in men and women? a. Fertility in both genders declines as early adulthood progresses. b. After age 25, women are usually advised to have their fetuses checked for Down’s syndrome. c. It is only a woman’s age that contributes to chromosomal abnormalities in offspring. d. Age is unrelated to chromosomal problems in offspring for both men and women.

71. Which of the following is true of cognitive development? a. As with physical development, people are at the height of their cognitive powers during late adulthood. b. People typically retain their verbal skills and may even show improvement in vocabulary and general knowledge as they age. c. Performance on tasks that require reasoning or problem-solving speeds up, and visual–spatial skills tend to decline in early adulthood. d. Crystallized intelligence is more susceptible to age than fluid intelligence.

72. A teacher intern is overweight and has decided to shed some pounds to get healthier. The teacher intern wants to implement a cognitive behavioral method to achieve their goal. Which of the following are they most likely to implement to make a weight loss program successful? a. Intentionally subject themself to temptations so they can learn how to resist them b. Eat an entire meal without a break so that their body can learn how much food they need c. Reward themself for meeting calorie goals, as long as that reward is not food d. Binge on occasions, such as an office party, and refrain from resuming dieting the very next day

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Chap 13__HDEV6 73. Kelly’s boss talks to her more often than she would like and jokes about the two of them going out after work. Even though Kelly knows he is not serious, it makes her uncomfortable. She does not even want to go to work anymore because she knows her boss will pass unnecessary comments.

Kelly is experiencing _____. a. sexual harassment b. acquaintance rape c. red-tapeism d. the glass ceiling effect 74. Which of the following is true of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)? a. HIV/AIDS is the most widely spread STI among young adults. b. Chlamydia is the second most commonly occurring STI in young adults, and it results in sterility. c. There is no prevention for the human papilloma virus. d. Herpes is a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease, which can lead to infertility that cannot be cured.

75. Obese people ______. a. gain weight because of the mechanism of adaptive thermogenesis b. are less likely to indulge in binge eating c. have a low fat-to-muscle ratio d. metabolize food more slowly than those who are not obese 76. In the context of rapes, identify a true statement. a. Penile–vaginal penetration is always necessary to fit the definition of rape. b. Most states in the United States do not permit the prosecution of husbands who rape their wives. c. Only about 10% of people who are raped are female, and their assailants are generally female. d. Acquaintance rapes are less likely than stranger rapes to be reported to the police.

77. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about rape? a. Penile–vaginal penetration is always necessary to fit the definition of rape. b. Most states in the United States permit the prosecution of husbands who rape their wives. c. Only about 10% of people who are raped are female, and their assailants are generally male. d. Women aged 30 to 44 are two to three times more likely to be raped than younger women.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 78. Linda tells her doctor that she experiences major mood swings a week before she menstruates. She has a loss of appetite and feels anxiety during those days. Which of the following actions is her doctor likely to take to treat Linda? a. Her doctor is likely to prescribe medication that inhibits the production of dopamine. b. Her doctor is likely to prescribe antiviral drugs. c. Her doctor is likely to prescribe medication to increase the activity of serotonin in the nervous system. d. Her doctor is likely to prescribe topical drugs containing pyrethrins or piperonal butoxide.

79. An example of a sexually transmitted disease is __________________. a. tuberculosis b. tetanus c. gonorrhea d. amenorrhea 80. Intrinsic reasons that inspire people to pursue careers and employment include the view that ______. a. fringe benefits are an inseparable part of a job b. a job ensures future security c. money offered by a job helps us to take care of our families d. roles at the workplace help define our functions in the community 81. Nia has just completed college and has joined as a trainee at a design firm. She lives with her parents and is trying to save money. She feels that she has overcome adolescence but has not yet fully attained adulthood. In the context of the characteristics of emerging adulthood theorized by Jeffrey Arnett, Nia is _____. a. experiencing the feature of possibilities b. experiencing the feature of feeling in-between c. illustrating egocentrism d. illustrating narcissism 82. According to Jeffrey Arnett, a feature that distinguishes the stage of emerging adulthood is _______. a. social withdrawal b. lack of possibilities c. self-focus d. resolution of problems 83. The symptoms of chlamydia include _______. a. frequent and painful urination and a discharge b. swollen lymph nodes, fever, weight loss, and fatigue c. intense itching in pubic area and other hairy regions d. painful, reddish bumps around the genitals, thighs, or buttocks

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Chap 13__HDEV6 84. According to Donald Super, during the maintenance stage of career development, _____. a. most people focus on glamour professions b. most people select jobs that their parents wanted them to take c. a person settles into a chosen career d. a person gets ready for retirement 85. Sexual activity _______. a. occurs less often in early adulthood than in late adulthood b. is more commonly reported by men than by women c. with a partner usually peaks in the 20s d. with a partner usually peaks in middle adulthood 86. Karl is 21 years old. As an emerging adult, which of the following actions taken by him indicates a “revolving door” existence? a. Karl was learning to play the guitar but has now decided to learn the saxophone instead. b. Karl is unable to decide who he likes better, Mindy or Vanessa as his girlfriend. c. Karl visits his grandparents every Christmas. d. Karl returns to his parents’ house each time he runs out of money.

87. A bacterial infection of the vagina or urinary tract that can result in sterility is called _______. a. syphilis b. chlamydia c. dysmenorrhea d. gonorrhea 88. A person takes up two jobs because they think that working makes a person less idle. In which of the following intrinsic motives of career development do they believe? a. Socialization b. Public roles c. The importance of self-identity d. The work ethic 89. For legal purposes, deliberate or repeated unwanted comments, gestures, or physical contact in the workplace is known as _______. a. sexual assault b. red-tapism c. sexual harassment d. the glass ceiling effect

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Chap 13__HDEV6 90. Premenstrual symptoms are _______. a. always severe b. reported by all women c. sometimes severe enough to impair the social, academic, or occupational functioning of women d. unrelated to changing levels of hormones or imbalances in neurotransmitters 91. Emerging adulthood a. occurs after the end of puberty. b. occurs roughly between the ages of 18 and 25. c. occurs sooner for those who go to college than for those who do not. d. is also referred to as young adulthood.

92. Premenstrual syndrome a. is more severe than premenstrual dysphoric disorder. b. cannot be treated or prevented. c. refers to the absence of menstruation. d. may be linked to hormonal fluctuations.

93. Which stage of Donald Super’s theory of career development involves “settling” into and improving skills at a job? a. Maintenance b. Retirement c. Tentative choice d. Fantasy 94. Genital warts are caused by _____. a. pubic lice b. human papilloma virus c. herpes simplex virus-type 2 d. Chlamydia trachomatis bacterium 95. Which of the following is a true statement regarding sexuality during early adulthood? a. People in this stage still experience the flood of sex hormones that affected them as adolescents. b. Sexual activity is less common than the adolescence stage. c. Sexual opportunities are less common than the adolescence stage. d. The chances of contracting a sexually transmitted infection are at their lowest.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 96. Which of the following is true of skin changes that occur toward the end of early adulthood? a. The skin becomes more elastic. b. Signs of skin deterioration are more common in women than in men. c. Skin tightening, a sign of skin deterioration, occurs toward the end of early adulthood. d. The skin begins to become less sensitive to touch.

97. An example of an intrinsic motive for working is ________________. a. insurance b. praise c. financial security d. talent development 98. During early adulthood, _____. a. cardiovascular capacity can be increased with regular exercise b. the heart muscles become more flexible, increasing the maximum heart rate c. the cardiovascular system does not undergo any change d. the cardiovascular system is at the highest risk of developing congenital heart diseases 99. Which of the following is true of sensory abilities during early adulthood? a. Hearing tends to decline in the late 20s and early 30s, particularly for tones that are high in pitch. b. Visual acuity declines sharply in the early 20s. c. Most people in early adulthood are nearsighted and need reading glasses. d. Sensory sharpness begins to decline in the early 20s.

100. Which of the following is true of sexual harassment? a. For legal purposes, sexual harassment in the workplace always requires physical contact. b. Only 10% of working women are subjected to sexual harassment. c. Unwelcome sexual jokes do not amount to sexual harassment. d. Charges of sexual harassment are often ignored or trivialized by coworkers and employers.

101. Explain similarities and differences in cognition across age groups and gender.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 102. Describe substance use and abuse in early adulthood.

103. Explain Labouvie-Vief’s theory of pragmatic thought.

104. Discuss sexual harassment.

105. Discuss obesity and its causes in emerging adulthood.

106. Discuss the motives that inspire people to pursue careers and employment.

107. Explain the five features described by Jeffrey Arnett that distinguish the stage of emerging adulthood.

108. Describe the various menstrual problems that women experience in adulthood. Explain their symptoms and methods of treatment.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 109. Discuss the factors that encourage rape.

110. Discuss the necessity of exercise among young adults.

111. Discuss the effects of stress and on the health of young adults.

112. Discuss sexually transmitted infections among young adults.

113. Discuss health and fitness during the emerging adulthood period.

114. Briefly describe the stages in Donald Super’s theory of career development.

115. Describe physical development during early adulthood.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. c 26. a

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Chap 13__HDEV6 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. d 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. c 51. c 52. c 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. d 59. c 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. d 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. a 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. d 76. d 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 83. a 84. c 85. c 86. d 87. b 88. d 89. c 90. c 91. b 92. d 93. a 94. b 95. a 96. b 97. d 98. a 99. a 100. d 101. Answers will vary. K. Walter Schaie sought to separate the effects of age-related changes within the individual from cohort effects (similarities among peers due to group members being about the same age). To do so, he introduced a developmental model that elevated the study of age-related changes above simple longitudinal and cross-sectional studies. He used successive repeated and independent sampling of age cohorts across the decades of a longitudinal study. The resulting data permitted many comparisons within and across age groups and birth cohorts. Using his method, Schaie found that late adolescents are likely to have the broadest general knowledge of the sciences, but young adults become more focused in their use of scientific expertise than adolescents are. Many adolescents acquire general scientific knowledge in biology, chemistry, and physics during high school. And now, more than ever, girls remain with boys and keep pace with them in these classes. The same is generally true in algebra, geometry, precalculus, and calculus.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 102. Answers will vary. According to the Monitoring the Future study, Americans in early adulthood (ages 19–28) are most likely to use alcohol. More than 80% of young adults have “ever used” alcohol, as compared with 68% of 12th graders. The percentages increase for at least two reasons: One is that young adults are more likely to be emancipated from parental and school rules than high-school students. Second, young adults have simply had several years of greater opportunity to experiment with and use drugs. The perils of cigarette smoking have been so broadly publicized that eight to nine of ten young adults say that smoking one or more packs a day is a great risk, which is a major reason that only two to three college students and young adults out of ten smoke. The great majority of college students and young adults also believe that trying cocaine and heroin are great risks, largely because they suspect that trying these substances may well lead to regular use. Interestingly, only about one young adult in 20 sees great risk in trying a drink or two, and perhaps one in five or six sees harm in having a drink or two a day, which is presumably why so many use it. Having tried or experimented with a drug is very different from continuing or regular use of the drug. The Monitoring the Future group found that about four out of five young adults have used alcohol in the last year, but 68.4 have used it in the past 30 days. Only 1.3% have used it recently (in the past 30 days). About one in five young adults has smoked marijuana in the last 30 days.

Over the past 20 years use of alcohol has remained stable, use of cigarettes has declined, and use of marijuana has increased. Recreational use of marijuana was illegal throughout the 50 states of the United States when young adults were surveyed in 2012, but is now legal in Colorado and a number of states.

103. Answers will vary. Gisella Labouvie-Vief’s theory of pragmatic thought notes that adults must typically narrow possibilities into choices, whether these are choices about careers or graduate school or life partners. The “cognitively healthy” adult is more willing than the egocentric adolescent to compromise and cope within the world as it is, not the world as they would like it to be. In order to deal with the real world, adults need to be able to accept living with mixed feelings about their goals. As people mature, LabouvieVief found that they tend to develop a cognitive–affective complexity that enables them to harbor both positive and negative feelings about their career choices (“I may never get rich, but when I wake up in the morning, I’ll look forward to what I’m doing that day”) and their partners (“Okay, he may not be a hunk, but he’s stable and kind”). Adults function best when they accept reality but choose goals that allow them to experience positive feelings.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 104. Answers will vary. Sexual harassment occurs everywhere: in colleges, in the workplace, in the military, and online. It victimizes 40% to 60% of working women and similar percentages of female students in colleges and universities. For legal purposes, sexual harassment in the workplace is usually defined as deliberate or repeated unwanted comments, gestures, or physical contact. Sexual harassment makes the workplace or other setting a hostile place. Examples range from unwelcome sexual jokes, suggestive comments, verbal abuse, leering at or ogling a person’s body, unwelcome physical contact, outright sexual assault, or demands for sex accompanied by threats concerning one’s job or student status.

Charges of sexual harassment are often ignored or trivialized by coworkers and employers. The victim may hear, “Why make a big deal out of it? It’s not like you were attacked in the street.” Yet evidence shows that people who are sexually harassed suffer from it. Some become physically ill. Some suffer posttraumatic stress disorder. Some find harassment on the job so unbearable that they resign. College women have dropped courses and switched majors, and medical residents have even left their programs to avoid it. One reason that sexual harassment is so stressful is that blame tends to fall on the victim.

Some harassers argue that charges of harassment were exaggerated. In our society, women are often demonized if they assert themselves, but they remain victimized if they don’t. Sexual harassment sometimes has more to do with the abuse of power than sexual desire. This is especially so in work settings that are traditional male preserves, such as the firehouse, the construction site, or the military academy. The U.S. Supreme Court recognized sexual harassment as a form of sex discrimination and holds that employers are accountable if harassment creates a hostile or abusive work environment.

105. Answers will vary. The “good news” in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) survey is that the 40% of 18- to 24-year-olds reported as being overweight or obese is lower than the more than two in three adults reported in the general adult population. Overweight and obese young women are more likely than young men to report dieting. The gender difference in dieting is found among the entire adult population. Why are so many young adults overweight and obese? Many biological and psychological factors are involved. Being overweight runs in families, and it is widely accepted that heredity plays a role in overweight in humans. Efforts by overweight and obese people to maintain a slender profile may be sabotaged by a mechanism that would help preserve life in times of famine—adaptive thermogenesis.

This mechanism causes the body to produce less energy (burn fewer calories) when someone goes on a diet. This does not mean that overweight people will not lose weight by dieting; it means that it may take longer than expected. Fatty tissue in the body also metabolizes (burns) food more slowly than muscle.

For this reason, a person with a high fat-to-muscle ratio metabolizes food more slowly than a person of the same weight with more muscle. Family celebrations, watching television, arguments, and tension at work can all lead to overeating or going off a diet. Efforts to diet may also be impeded by negative emotions such as depression and anxiety, which can lead to binge eating.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 106. Answers will vary. Work is a major part of life, and early adulthood is the time when most of us become established in our careers. Let’s ask, “What motivates people to work in the first place?” careers and employment. These external benefits of working are called extrinsic motives; however, extrinsic motives alone do not explain why people work.

Work can also satisfy many internal or intrinsic motives, including the opportunities to engage in stimulating and satisfying activities and to develop one’s talents. Many million-dollar lottery winners who quit their jobs encounter feelings of aimlessness and dissatisfaction afterward. Moreover, within a year of cashing their checks, lottery winners generally report happiness (or unhappiness) levels corresponding to their pre-winning levels. Despite folk wisdom, money does not always buy happiness; many people seek more in life than extrinsic rewards such as a paycheck and financial security. They also want the intrinsic rewards gained through engaging in challenging activities, broadening their social contacts, and filling their days with meaningful activity. Intrinsic reasons for working include: The work ethic. The view that we are morally obligated to avoid idleness.

Self-identity. Our occupational identity can become intertwined with our self-identity.

Self-fulfillment. We often express our personal needs and interests through our work.

Self-worth. Recognition and respect for a job well done contribute to self-esteem.

Socialization. The workplace extends our social contacts.

Public roles. Work roles help define our functions in the community.

107. Answers will vary. The age of identity exploration—Many people age 18 or 20 to about 25 or 30 are on the path to making vital choices in terms of their love lives and their career lives. They are experimenting with romantic partners and career possibilities.

The age of instability—Arnett notes, Americans have on average about seven different jobs during the years between 20 and 29. Over this period they frequently change their romantic partners—sometimes by choice, sometimes because the partner decided to move on. They frequently switch their living arrangements, often moving from place to place with little if any furniture, and change educational directions—finding what they like, finding what they can actually do, and finding what is available to them.

The age of self-focus----people are exceptionally self-focused during emerging adulthood. This does not mean that they are egocentric as in childhood or adolescence, or selfish. It means, simply, that they are freer to make decisions than they were as children or adolescents.

The age of feeling in-between—Whereas adolescents may feel that they exist somewhere between childhood and adulthood, emerging adults are likely to think that they are swimming between adolescence and “real” adulthood.

They are likely to be out of school—that is, high school or undergraduate college—but obtaining further training or education. They are beyond the sometimes silly flirtations of adolescence but not yet in a long-term, or at least permanent, relationship. They may not be completely dependent on caregivers, but they are just as unlikely to be self-supporting.

The age of possibilities—In this age of possibilities, emerging adults have the feeling that they have the opportunity to make dramatic changes in their lives. Unlike children and adolescents, they are, to a large degree, independent of their parents. Many of them leave home for good; others return home for financial reasons. Some have a “revolving door” existence: leaving home and then coming back, according to the ebb and flow of financial and emotional resources.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 108. Answers will vary. Fifty to seventy-five percent of women experience at least some discomfort prior to or during menstruation, including dysmenorrhea, menstrual migraines, amenorrhea, premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) symptom. Dysmenorrhea is the most common menstrual problem, and pelvic cramps are the most common symptom. Cramps are most often brought about by high amounts of hormones called prostaglandins that cause muscles in the uterine wall to contract, as during labor.

Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation and a sign of infertility. PMS describes the combination of biological and psychological symptoms that may affect women during the four- to six-day interval that precedes their menses each month.

PMDD is more severe than PMS. The diagnosis of PMDD requires that several of the following symptoms be present most of the time during the week before the period and ending within a few days after the period begins: tension, mood changes, irritability and anger, difficulty concentrating, fatigue, changes in appetite, sleeping too much or too little, feeling overwhelmed, and physical discomfort.

The most common premenstrual symptoms are minor psychological discomfort, muscular tension, and aches or pains, but only a small minority of women report symptoms severe enough to impair their social, academic, or occupational functioning. The causes of PMS may involve the body’s responses to changing levels of sex hormones. PMS also appears to be linked with imbalances in neurotransmitters such as serotonin and GABA, which are connected with the appetite, anxiety, and mood changes.

There are many treatment options for PMS: exercise, dietary control, hormone treatments, and medications that reduce anxiety or increase the activity of serotonin in the nervous system.

109. Answers will vary. According to a poll conducted by the Washington Post, 20% of female respondents aged 17–26 reported they had been sexually assaulted in college. So did 5% of the men. The women told the interviewers things like “We were kind of wrestling around. Things turned more sexual. I told him to stop. He thought I was joking. I froze.” “There was no question about consent. I said ‘no’ and he didn’t care.”

Rape has its sexual aspects, but it is also the subjugation of women by men. The definition of rape varies from state to state, but is usually defined as sex with a nonconsenting person by the use of force or the threat of force. Penilevaginal penetration is usually not necessary to fit the definition. Most states permit the prosecution of husbands who rape their wives. About 10% of rape victims are men, and their assailants are also generally men. But about twothirds of victims do not report rapes because of concern that they will be humiliated by the criminal justice system, or else they fear reprisal from their families or the rapist.

Types of rape: According to the U.S. Department of Justice, more than 90% of rapes are committed by acquaintances of the victim, including classmates, coworkers, dates, or family friends. Acquaintance rapes are less likely than stranger rapes to be reported to the police, because rape survivors may not perceive sexual assaults by acquaintances as rapes. Even when acquaintance rapes are reported to police, they may be treated as “misunderstandings” or lovers’ quarrels rather than crimes. Date rape is a form of acquaintance rape. Date rape is more likely to occur when the couple has too much to drink and then parks in the man’s car or goes to his residence.

Social attitudes, myths, and cultural factors that encourage rape: Many people believe a number of myths about rape, such as “Women say no when they mean yes” and “The way women dress, they are just asking to be raped”. Yet another myth is that deep down inside, women want to be overpowered and forced into sex by men. These myths have the effect of justifying rape in assailants’ and the public’s minds. Males are also often reinforced from childhood for aggressive and competitive behavior, as in sports. Gender typing may lead men to reject “feminine” traits such as tenderness and empathy that might restrain aggression.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 110. Answers will vary. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), adults 18 and older need at least 30 minutes of vigorous physical activity five days a week. Significant benefits can be reaped from a moderate amount of activity, such as 30 minutes of brisk walking or raking leaves, 15 minutes of running, or 45 minutes of volleyball. You can break 30 to 60 minutes of physical activity into smaller segments of 10 or 15 minutes through the day. This amount of activity can substantially reduce the risk of developing or dying from cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers, such as colon cancer. Exercise also benefits the brain and cognitive performance. Exercise may even help with psychological disorders such as anxiety and depression. The “trick” for most young adults is to integrate exercise into their daily routines, perhaps by means of moderately vigorous activities for 15 minutes two times a day or for 10 minutes three times a day.

111. Answers will vary. According to a national poll taken by the American Psychological Association, one-third of Americans report that they are living with “extreme stress.” Stress has a negative impact on people’s psychological and physical health, with 46% of 18- to 32-year-olds reporting that they have lain awake at night because of stress, 38% saying that they overate or ate unhealthful foods due to stress, and 31% reporting that they missed a meal due to stress. Significant percentages of 18- to 32-year-olds reported experiencing the following sources of stress: money 80%, work 72%, housing costs 49%, the economy 54%, and relationships 63%. Overall, 18- to 32-year-olds were the age group most likely (52%) to report that the amount of stress they experience increased over the past five years. They were also least likely to say that their stress had decreased (19%).

112. Answers will vary. Each year millions of young American adults contract a sexually transmitted infection (STI), including about six million new infections caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV), which causes genital warts and is associated with cervical cancer. At least 50% of sexually active women and men contract HPV at some time in their lives. A vaccine is available that prevents most young women from being infected with HPV and is best administered before they become sexually active. Chlamydia, a bacterial infection of the vagina or urinary tract that can result in sterility, is the next most commonly occurring STI in young adults, followed by gonorrhea, HPV/genital warts, genital herpes, syphilis, and HIV/AIDS. Because of its lethality, HIV/AIDS tends to capture most of the headlines. However, other STIs are more widespread, and some of them can also be deadly. Nearly 2.8 million new chlamydia infections occur each year. The incidence of chlamydia is especially high among college students. Chlamydia is a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which can lead to infertility. HIV/AIDS is the most devastating STI. If left untreated, it is lethal, and the long-term prospects of those who do receive treatment remain unknown. HIV—the virus that causes AIDS—has spread rapidly around the world and some 37 million people are living with HIV/AIDS, of which 2.5 million are children under the age of 15. More than 1.1 million Americans are living with HIV/AIDS, and about one in six people are unaware of it. The primary mode of HIV transmission worldwide is male–female intercourse, but anal intercourse is the primary mode of HIV transmission in the United States. Injecting drugs is another way in which HIV is spread because sharing needles with infected individuals can transmit HIV. Other major risk factors include having sex with multiple partners, failing to use condoms, and abusing drugs and alcohol.

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Chap 13__HDEV6 113. Answers will vary. As a group, young adults tend to be healthy. Their immune systems are generally functioning well. The leading cause of death for late teenagers and early adults in the United States was clearly accidents. Because 15- to 24-year-olds tend to be healthy, the next two leading causes of death were also by violence—self-inflicted (suicide) and by others (homicide). Homicide does not disappear as one of the top 10 leading causes of death until middle age (which is bounded by the ages of 40–45 at the lower end and 60–65 at the upper end). Cancer and heart disease take fourth and fifth place. HIV/AIDS becomes a much more prominent cause of death among 25- to 44-year-olds because it takes many years for the condition to overwhelm the body’s immune system, even if the infection occurred during the teenage years or early 20s. Given that so many young adults are in excellent or good health, it is ironic that many are careless about their health or put it on the “back burner.” Many are concerned about their careers or college or their social lives and think of health issues—diet, smoking, sedentary lives, excessive drinking—as something they can get to later on. Consider the results of a poll by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) that reported on the health-related behavior patterns of a nationally representative sample of more than 18,000 young adults aged 18–24. Forty-three percent reported either no or insufficient physical activity. More than one in four (29%) were smokers, and 30% reported binge drinking—having five drinks in a row on single occasions. About one respondent in four (26%) was overweight (having a body mass index [BMI] of 25.0–29.9), and another 14% were obese (having a BMI of 30.0 or above). Other CDC polls show that only 13% of Americans eat the recommended amounts of fruit, and only 9% eat the recommended amount of vegetables.

114. Answers will vary. The first or fantasy stage involves the child’s unrealistic conception of self-potential and of the world of work, which dominates from early childhood until about age 11. Young children focus on glamour professions, such as acting, medicine, sports, and law enforcement. They show little regard for the fit between these occupations and their abilities.

During the second or tentative choice stage, from about 11 through high school, children base their choices on their interests, abilities, and limitations, as well as glamour.

Beyond age 17 or so, in the realistic choice stage, choices become narrowed as students weigh job requirements and rewards against their interests, abilities, and values. They may direct their educational plans to ensure they obtain the knowledge and skills they need to enter their intended occupations.

During the maintenance stage, we begin “settling” into our career roles, which often happens in the second half of our thirties. Although we may change positions within a company or within a career, as in moving from marketing to management, there is often a sense of our careers continuing to develop, a feeling of forward motion.

The final stage in Super’s scheme is the retirement stage, during which the individual severs bonds with the workplace.

115. Answers will vary. Physical development peaks in early adulthood. Most people are at their heights of sensory sharpness, strength, reaction time, and cardiovascular fitness. Young adults are at their tallest, and height remains stable through middle adulthood, declining somewhat in late adulthood. A higher percentage of men’s body mass is made of muscle, and men are normally stronger than women. Physical strength in both men and women peaks in the 20s and early 30s, then slowly declines.

Sensory sharpness also peaks in the early 20s. Visual acuity remains stable until middle adulthood.

The changes of aging in the cardiovascular, respiratory, and immune systems begin in early adulthood, but they are gradual.

Fertility in both genders declines as early adulthood progresses and, after age 35, women are usually advised to have their fetuses checked for Down’s syndrome and other chromosomal abnormalities. Older men may also contribute to chromosomal abnormalities. Both genders may find their hair thinning and graying by the end of early adulthood.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. When young men’s views differ from those of their parents, they are more likely to engage in an active struggle or a fight for independence. a. True b. False 2. Loneliness decreases from childhood to adolescence. a. True b. False 3. Lonely people are cynical about human nature. a. True b. False 4. Today, single people are less likely to be perceived as socially inadequate or as failures. a. True b. False 5. Reciprocity is the tendency to respond in kind when we feel admired and complimented. a. True b. False 6. A person’s religion, race, and socioeconomic status influence his or her life structure and life satisfaction. a. True b. False 7. Cohabitors tend to be less traditional and less religious than noncohabitors. a. True b. False 8. In fatuous love, intimacy and commitment are strong, but passion is lacking. a. True b. False 9. Willingness to cohabit is related to traditional views of marriage and gender roles. a. True b. False 10. According to Erik Erikson, an absent or fluctuating ego identity is connected with a high divorce rate in teenage marriages. a. True b. False

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Chap 14__HDEV6 11. In polygamy, a person has more than one spouse and is permitted sexual access to each of them. a. True b. False 12. Marriage restricts sexual relations so that a man can be assured—or assume—that his wife’s children are his. a. True b. False 13. According to European and American studies, dual-earner women with flexible work schedules encounter more stress than women with fixed schedules. a. True b. False 14. Mothers report significantly higher degrees of separation anxiety than fathers when their children leave home for college. a. True b. False 15. According to Erik Erikson, the central conflict or life crisis of early adulthood in which a person develops an intimate relationship with a significant other or risks heading down a path toward social isolation is called intimacy versus isolation. a. True b. False 16. Children of divorce benefit when their parents are open about expressing their negative feelings toward each other in the children’s presence. a. True b. False 17. Lonely people tend to withhold personal information to potential friends. a. True b. False 18. According to Sternberg, liking someone is associated with intimacy alone, without passion or longterm commitment. a. True b. False 19. Married people appear to be less able to cope with the stresses and strains of life due to the inherent pressures of married life. a. True b. False

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Chap 14__HDEV6 20. A daughter’s leaving for college (departure from home) tends to be more stressful to parents than that of a son’s departure. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Romantic love may burn brightly and then flicker out. Or it may develop into a more complete love called _________. a. consummate love b. reciprocal love c. empty love d. fatuous love 22. George and Lucy are married, and they are committed to each other. Their marriage best illustrates _____. a. polyandry b. monogamy c. polygamy d. bigamy 23. In the context of fertility, how many children does the average American woman need to have for a couple to be at “replacement level”? a. 2.01 b. 2.11 c. 3.01 d. 3.65 24. A form of love that involves commitment alone, without intimacy of passion is termed _____________. a. empty love b. companionate love c. fatuous love d. consummate love 25. Myra and Richard have been married for a decade. The passion they shared as newlyweds has faded, but they remain best friends and still share every thought with each other. According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, Myra and Richard’s relationship can best be termed as _______. a. companionate love b. empty love c. fatuous love d. romantic love Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 26. In the context of Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, which component involves intense romantic or sexual desire? a. Passion b. Intimacy c. Attraction d. Reciprocity 27. Today, single people a. are happy as they receive more benefits from the government. b. have the same sexual interests and lifestyles as those who are not single. c. encounter more social stigma as compared to the past. d. are less likely to be perceived as socially inadequate.

28. Lack of social skills, lack of interest in other people, and lack of empathy are characteristics of _________. a. guilt b. an extrovert c. an introvert d. loneliness 29. When young men’s views differ from those of their parents, they are a. more likely to engage in an active struggle or a fight for independence. b. more likely to succumb to societal pressures. c. less likely to follow their own ambitions. d. more likely to return home to live for financial reasons even after graduating college.

30. Which of the following is true of romantic love? a. It involves a strong sense of intimacy and commitment but lacks passion. b. It typifies long-term relationships in which passion has ebbed, but a deep and abiding friendship remains. c. It is characterized by a deep commitment to remain together. d. It may burn brightly and then flicker out.

31. Angeline and Miguel have been dating for almost a year. Six months ago, Miguel moved in with Angeline as they wished to test their compatibility before deciding to get married. This scenario exemplifies _______. a. polygamy b. serial monogamy c. empty love d. cohabitation

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Chap 14__HDEV6 32. Which of the following is a difference between monogamy and polygamy? a. In monogamy, a person is granted sexual access to more than one person, whereas in polygamy, a person is granted sexual access to only one person. b. In monogamy, a person is involved in a series of platonic relationships, whereas in polygamy, a person is involved in a series of exclusive romantic relationships. c. In monogamy, people get married to people who are similar to them, whereas in polygamy, people get married to people who are not similar to them. d. In monogamy, one person is married to one other person, whereas in polygamy, a person has more than one spouse.

33. A form of love fueled by passion and feelings of intimacy but lacking in commitment is _________. a. romantic love b. companionate love c. empty love d. consummate love 34. Which of the following statements is true of physical attractiveness? a. Research shows that physical attractiveness is not a major determinant of interpersonal attraction. b. Research shows that physical attractiveness is a major determinant of sexual attraction. c. Women appear to be more responsive to the physical appeal of the opposite gender than men. d. Women appear to be less attractive to men when they are in the fertile phase of their ovulatory cycle.

35. According to Levison, what term refers to the tendency of many young adults to adopt the drive to become someone, to leave one’s mark on history—which serves as a tentative blueprint for life? a. Egoism b. The self-fulfilling prophecy c. The dream d. The fantastical narrative 36. According to Erikson, the key crisis a person is likely to face in the stage of early adulthood involves the_______. a. separation from siblings b. establishment of intimate relationships c. development of a sense of identity d. achievement of social responsibility

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Chap 14__HDEV6 37. Serial monogamy refers to _______. a. a series of exclusive sexual relationships b. a series of multiple sexual relationships that occur at the same time c. any single exclusive sexual relationship d. a single instance of multiple sexual relationships that occur at the same time 38. Keisha is a graduate and works at a diner. She is saving up for further studies. She is also wondering if she wants to get married and have a family someday. In the context of Levinson’s theory on seasons that a person goes through, all of these underlying factors contribute to Keisha’s _____. a. life structure b. social cognition c. separation anxiety d. self-concept 39. Marriages between people from similar backgrounds tend to be more stable. This practice of people getting married to people who are similar to them is referred to as _____. a. homogamy b. polygamy c. polyandry d. serial monogamy 40. Which of the following is true of arranged marriages? a. They are strongly associated with increased family tension and high divorce rates as opposed to other forms of marriages. b. One of the purposes of arranged marriage is to ensure that the bride and the groom share similar backgrounds so that they will carry on family traditions. c. Couples who opt for arranged marriages are less traditional than couples who opt for other forms of marriages. d. One of the purposes of arranged marriage is to ensure that the bride and the groom get to know each other better before committing to a long-term relationship.

41. The average American woman is having about two children today, down from between a. 3 and 4 children 50-years-ago. b. 4 and 5 children 50-years-ago. c. 5 and 6 children 50-years-ago. d. 6 and 7 children 50-years-ago.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 42. According to Robert Sternberg, which of the following refers to the decision to devote oneself to a cause or another person? a. Reciprocity b. Passion c. Infatuation d. Commitment 43. Chris and Amber were instantly attracted to each other the first time they met. They enjoyed a whirlwind romance for some months before they realized that they were not well matched for a longterm commitment. According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, Chris and Amber’s relationship can best be termed as _______. a. empty love b. fatuous love c. companionate love d. consummate love 44. Which of the following emotional experiences are young adults likely to encounter as a result of life changes? a. Boredom b. Anxiety c. Loneliness d. Love 45. Jodie and Alex are in love with each other. They have been together for four years and share passionate intimacy. They are committed to each other and plan to marry soon. According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, Jodie and Alex’s relationship can best be termed as ______. a. romantic love b. infatuation c. companionate love d. consummate love 46. Sumeet has had four intimate partners at different stages of life, and had an exclusive sexual relationship with each of them. However, none of the relationships resulted in marriage. Sumeet’s pattern of relationships can be termed _____. a. polyandry b. celibacy c. serial monogamy d. serial polygamy

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Chap 14__HDEV6 47. Identify a true statement about parenthood in developed countries. a. Most couples report that they choose to have children to improve the odds of reincarnation. b. Most couples report that they choose to have children for personal happiness or well-being. c. Most couples report that they choose to have children to enhance their social status. d. Most couples report that they choose to have children to have additional farmhands for labor.

48. Which of the following emotional experiences involves feelings of mistrust? a. Anger b. Resentment c. Jealousy d. Frustration 49. Rahul and Amulya are attracted to each other but rarely find time to go out on dates because of different work schedules. Amulya suggests that she move in with Rahul so that they can further explore their relationship. Rahul agrees and Amulya moves into his apartment. This scenario exemplifies _______. a. polygamy b. serial monogamy c. empty love d. cohabitation 50. Jenue and Selas have been seeing each other for about four months. They enjoy passionate intimacy and share their innermost thoughts with each other. However, Jenue and Selas do not wish to commit to a long-term relationship. In the context of Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, Jenue and Selas’s relationship can best be termed _______. a. romantic love b. liking c. companionate love d. consummate love 51. Which of the following is true of companionate love? a. It typically occurs in whirlwind relationships that begin passionately but eventually burn out quickly. b. It is low in commitment but high in passion. c. It is high in commitment and passion but low in intimacy. d. It occurs in long-term relationships in which passion has ebbed but a strong friendship is evident.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 52. An experience that is most likely to prompt feelings of failure as a spouse and parent is a. the death of a spouse. b. the death of a child. c. divorce. d. supporting a child into adulthood.

53. Individuation entails integrating one’s own values and beliefs with those of one’s _____. a. friends and peers b. parents and society c. teachers and mentors d. superiors and subordinates 54. In Levinson’s theory, what term refers to the underlying pattern of a person’s life at a given stage, as defined by relationships, career, race, religion, economic status, and the like? a. Life structure b. Life stance c. Life identity d. Life image 55. Fatuous love is most closely associated with _________. a. long-term intimate relationships b. close friendships c. companionate relationships d. whirlwind courtships 56. Jesse and Justin have been dating for a year. They share a passionate relationship. However, their relationship lacks the warmth that arises from feelings of closeness and connectedness. Although they are passionate about each other, they feel that they are not compatible. According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, Jesse and Justin’s relationship can best be termed as _______. a. consummate love b. empty love c. fatuous love d. companionate love 57. According to Daniel Levinson, adults _______. a. in their later 30s are unlikely to think of settling down b. who had not achieved ego identity—a firm sense of who they are and what they stand for—are ready to commit themselves to others c. go through certain periods of life in which their progress and psychological well-being are shaped by common social and physical demands and crises d. who choose to remain celibate or single develop normally

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Chap 14__HDEV6 58. Age homogamy a. is best described as a series of exclusive sexual relationships a person has with people of different age groups. b. is best described as the marriage between individuals of the same sex. c. reflects the tendency to marry late or remarry from different age groups. d. reflects the concept of “like marrying like.”

59. Michael recently graduated from college and is working currently to pay back his college loans. He lives in an apartment. He has a partner whom he wants to marry, and he is also wondering if he wants to have a family someday. In the context of Levinson’s theory on seasons a person goes through, all of these underlying factors contribute to Michael’s _____. a. life structure b. social cognition c. separation anxiety d. self-concept 60. Jack and Gina met in a hip-hop concert. They are physically and emotionally attracted to each other.

However, they do not believe their relationship has any future. This scenario exemplifies _______. a. consummate love b. romantic love c. companionate love d. empty love 61. Feelings of connectedness to parents a. disappear completely after one begins attending college. b. increase dramatically after employment or financial independence. c. are related to the amount of financial and emotional support students receive from parents. d. are related to the values and interests traditionally associated with the institution of marriage.

62. A characteristic of lonely people is they a. consider their problems to be less important than those of their peers. b. are cynical about human nature. c. have good social skills. d. disclose personal information to potential friends.

63. Which of the following is true of cohabitation? a. It is related to traditional views of gender roles. b. It is seen as an alternative to living alone. c. It is limited to gay couples. d. It is related to traditional views of marriage.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 64. A middle-aged couple have been married for 20 years and the passion and intimacy in their relationship has faded. Yet, they remain committed to be with each other for the rest of their lives.

According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, this couple’s relationship can best be termed as _______. a. empty love b. fatuous love c. consummate love d. companionate love 65. The quality of a marital relationship is positively correlated with _____. a. shared familial backgrounds b. general life satisfaction c. satisfaction with children d. satisfaction with the career of one’s spouse 66. Which of the following statements is true of parenthood? a. Bearing children in developed nations is generally seen as something that ideally occurs in middle adulthood. b. It is unlikely that having a child will save a marriage. c. Most couples in developed nations report that they choose to have children to have additional farmhands for labor. d. The father is always the primary caregiver.

67. A difference between love and friendship is: a. love is related to states of decreasing sexual arousal, whereas friendship is related to states of increasing sexual arousal. b. love can lead to a loss of self-esteem, whereas friendship can lead to an increase in selfesteem. c. love is limited to feelings of affection, whereas friendship includes much more than affection. d. love can refer to states of passion or infatuation, whereas friendship is based on shared interests, liking, and respect.

68. A form of love that is considered complete love, with passion, commitment, and intimacy in full measure is called ______. a. consummate love b. romantic love c. fatuous love d. companionate love

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Chap 14__HDEV6 69. Which kind of love involves high levels of commitment and passion, but low levels of intimacy? a. Romantic love b. Fatuous love c. Consummate love d. Companionate love 70. Erikson’s clinical experience led him to believe that young adults who _______. a. had difficulties in school or with peer relationships rarely develop a sense of inferiority b. were traditional are more likely to have strained relationships with their parents c. departed from home for college or work will develop a strained relationship with their parents d. had not achieved ego identity may not be ready to commit themselves to others 71. In the context of studies conducted by Erik Erikson on the stages of life, in the stage of early adulthood the core conflict a person is likely to face is _____. a. intimacy versus isolation b. superiority versus inferiority c. autonomy versus dependence d. attempt versus abstinence 72. An office worker compliments a friend on their leadership skills. Their friend feels admired and in turn compliments them on their ability to think outside the box. This scenario illustrates an instance of _____. a. reciprocity b. ethnocentrism c. fatuous love d. individuation 73. POSSLQ stands for People of Opposite Sex Sharing Living Quarters and applies to unmarried heterosexual and gay couples who live together. It is also referred to as _____. a. cohabitation b. polyandry c. homogamy d. polygamy 74. A difference between cohabiters and noncohabitors is that cohabiters tend to a. have higher self-esteem and feelings of empathy. b. be more committed to the values associated with the institution of marriage. c. be more religious. d. be less traditional.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 75. Which of the following options involves passionate, obsessive love at first sight without intimacy or commitment? a. Friendship b. Empty love c. Infatuation d. Consummate love 76. Clive and Joey have been romantic partners for two years. Six months ago, Clive proposed but Joey declined. However, Joey agreed to move in with Clive. This scenario exemplifies _______. a. cohabitation b. reciprocity c. serial monogamy d. empty love 77. Which kind of love typifies long-term relationships and marriages in which passion has ebbed but a deep and abiding friendship remains? a. Consummate love b. Companionate love c. Foolish love d. Fatuous love 78. Celibacy refers to ______. a. maintaining multiple sexual relationships at a time b. maintaining only one sexual relationship at a time c. abstention from sexual activity, whether from choice or lack of opportunity d. the practice of safe sexual practices in all relationships 79. The scenario of a husband with four wives and is permitted sexual access to each of them best illustrates _____. a. polygamy b. monogamy c. serial monogamy d. homogamy 80. Farrah and Michael have been in a relationship for five years and have found that their love for each other, remains based solely on passionate love, and has not flowered into a strong relationship to include commitment and intimacy along with passion. In this scenario, their relationship can be considered _______. a. companionate love b. consummate love c. foolish love d. infatuation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 81. Which of the following best describes the boomerang generation? a. It refers to young adults who were born right after the Second World War. b. It refers to young adults who reject the traditional norms and values of their parents in order to establish a new social order. c. It refers to young adults who return home to live with parents for financial reasons even after graduating college. d. It refers to young adults who venture out on their own after graduating college.

82. Why do some couples prefer cohabitation? a. It allows them to avail various government schemes. b. It tests the compatibility and endurance of a relationship prior to tying the knot. c. It allows cohabiters to be more traditional and more religious. d. It allows cohabiters to practice celibacy.

83. Why do some singles remain celibate? a. They are extroverts. b. They cannot remain committed to one person. c. They lack opportunities. d. They endure sexually transmitted infections as a result of having sex with multiple partners.

84. Steve and Roshna have been together for 40 years. They feel intimate and committed toward each other. However, they do not feel the same level of passion they felt at the beginning of the relationship.

This scenario exemplifies _______. a. consummate love b. romantic love c. companionate love d. foolish love 85. Words associated with the dating app Tinder include desirability, validation, hookup, and _______. a. trendiness b. celibacy c. monogamy d. homogamy 86. Which of the following statements is true about parenthood in developed nations? a. More and more couples are getting married earlier and hastening the parenthood decision. b. Couples think of parenthood as the most necessary part of marriage or a relationship. c. More and more couples are deciding to have three or more children. d. The decision not to have children or to have only one child is becoming more common.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 87. Jake compliments his colleague Max on his organization skills. Max feels admired and, in turn, compliments Jake on his leadership qualities. This scenario illustrates an instance of _________. a. consummate love b. flirting c. reciprocity d. deindividuation 88. Erikson, like Havighurst, has been criticized for suggesting that young adults ________. a. may not be able to gauge the extent to which their developing values may conflict with those of a potential intimate partner b. who have established a firm sense of identity during adolescence are unprepared for fusing their identity with those of other people through marriage and friendships c. who choose to remain celibate or single are not developing normally d. who had not achieved ego identity may not be ready to commit themselves to others 89. What emotional experience can lead to loss of feelings of affection, feelings of insecurity and rejection, anxiety, loss of self-esteem, and feelings of mistrust? a. Jealousy b. Anger c. Frustration d. Guilt 90. Which of the following is a difference between romantic love and consummate love? a. Romantic love is usually based on shared interests, liking, and respect, whereas consummate love refers to a state of passion or infatuation. b. Romantic love typifies long-term relationships, whereas consummate love typifies short-term relationships. c. Romantic love has both passion and intimacy but lacks commitment, whereas consummate love is a more complete form of love in which all three components flower. d. Romantic love always burns brightly, whereas consummate love may burn brightly and then flicker out.

91. Bobbie and Daniel are close friends and share their innermost thoughts and secrets with each other.

They both experience warmth toward each other that arises from feelings of closeness and connectedness. Bobbie and Daniel’s relationship, however, lacks passion and long-term commitment. In the context of Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, Bobbie and Daniel’s relationship can best be termed _______. a. romantic love b. liking c. companionate love d. infatuation

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Chap 14__HDEV6 92. Persons who marry late or who remarry tend not to select partners close in age because they are _______. a. out in the world rather than in school or fresh out of school b. more concerned about their status than younger couples c. allowed to have more than one spouse d. have sexual access to multiple partners 93. Those who cohabit a. have less traditional views of marriage than others. b. are more likely to be highly religious than those who do not. c. lose their rights to get married traditionally. d. are unlikely to ever consider getting married in the traditional sense.

94. Which of the following is true of the attraction–similarity hypothesis? a. It holds that people are more likely to develop romantic relationships with people who are approved by their parents or are similar to their parents. b. It argues that young adults who do not reach out to develop intimate relationships risk retreating into isolation and loneliness. c. It argues that certain preferred traits provide reproductive advantages. d. It holds that people tend to develop romantic relationships with people who are similar to themselves in attractiveness and other traits 95. Diane was living with Jeffrey and had an exclusive sexual relationship with him for two years. As Jeffrey wanted to have children and Diane did not, they broke up. Diane then met Jeremy, and they moved in together. When Jeremy moved away to California, Diane was unwilling to relocate with him and the relationship ended. Now, Diane is in an exclusive sexual relationship with Ron. Diane’s pattern of relationships illustrates _______. a. serial monogamy b. polyandry c. empty love d. consummate love 96. Ella is a young woman with a lucrative job and a large circle of friends. She has chosen to remain single as she finds the idea of having sex unappealing. Ella is practicing _____. a. monogamy b. polyandry c. celibacy d. homogamy

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Chap 14__HDEV6 97. Which of the following best describes gay marriage? a. It is the marriage in which a person has more than one spouse. b. It is the marriage between two people of the same gender. c. It is the marriage in which two people live together for a certain period of time before tying the knot. d. It is the marriage between two persons, but they also have sexual access to other people.

98. Shane and Dev’s relationship is primarily based on friendship and lacks passion. This is an example of _________. a. attraction b. liking c. infatuation d. reciprocity 99. The forms of love that occurs within a cultural context in which the concept is idealized is _________. a. fatuous love b. consummate love c. romantic love d. empty love 100. Which of the following best describes age homogamy? a. It reflects the tendency of people who marry late or remarry to select partners well outside their age range. b. It reflects the tendency of people to have multiple sexual experiences with people in their own age range. c. It reflects the tendency of people to have exclusive sexual relationships with people in the same age range. d. It reflects the tendency of people to select partners who fall in their own age range.

101. Discuss the benefits of cohabitation.

102. Explain the attraction–similarity hypothesis.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 103. Discuss the characteristics of lonely people.

104. Why are Daniel Levinson’s views on development related to human life considered archaic?

105. Discuss the challenges of the single life among young adults.

106. Explain the seasons of life described by psychologist Daniel Levinson.

107. Discuss the types of marriage among young couples.

108. Discuss the cost of divorce.

109. Discuss cohabitation among young adults.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 110. Describe the single life of young adults.

111. Discuss the emotional force called attraction with reference to young adults.

112. Explain the concept of reciprocity.

113. Briefly describe Sternberg’s triangular theory of love.

114. Describe the processes of separation and individuation.

115. Explain why young adults in the United States get married.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap 14__HDEV6 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. d 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. d 52. c 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 55. d 56. c 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. a 72. a 73. a 74. d 75. c 76. a 77. b 78. c 79. a 80. d 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 83. c 84. c 85. a 86. d 87. c 88. c 89. a 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. a 94. d 95. a 96. c 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. d 101. Answers will vary. Young adults cohabit for many reasons. Cohabitation, like marriage, is an alternative to living alone. Romantic partners may have deep feelings for each other but are not ready to get married.

Some couples prefer cohabitation because it provides an abiding relationship without the legal entanglements of marriage. The couple may also be testing the compatibility and endurance of the relationship prior to tying the knot.

102. Answers will vary. The attraction–similarity hypothesis holds that people tend to develop romantic relationships with people who are similar to themselves in attractiveness and other traits. Researchers have found that people who are involved in committed relationships are most likely to be similar to their partners in their attitudes and cultural attributes. Our partners tend to be like us in race and ethnicity, age, level of education, and religion.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Lonely people tend to have several of the following characteristics: lack of social skills, lack of interest in other people, and lack of empathy. The fear of rejection is often connected with selfcriticism of social skills and expectations of failure in relating to others. Lonely people also fail to disclose personal information to potential friends, are cynical about human nature (e.g., seeing people as only out for themselves), and demand too much too soon.

104. Answers will vary. Daniel Levinson found that it may take women longer to leave home, and there may be more pressure on them to go from one home (their parents’) to another (their husbands’). Today, Levinson’s views sound rather archaic, at least when they are applied to young women. It has become more acceptable and widespread for women to lead independent, single lives, for as long as they wish.

And, truth be told, the great majority of career women in sizeable American cities simply would not care what anyone thinks about their marital status or living arrangements. Given the mobility young adults have in the United States today, many will choose not to live in places where people would frown upon their styles of life.

105. Answers will vary. The three main reasons people reported for remaining single in a 2014 Pew Research Center survey is that they have not met the right person (30%), they do not have sufficient financial stability (27%), and that they are not ready to settle down (22%) (Wang & Parker, 2014). Being single is not without its problems. Many single people are lonely. Some singles would like to have a steady, meaningful relationship. Others, usually women, worry about their physical safety. Some young adults who are living alone find it difficult to satisfy their needs for intimacy, companionship, and sex. Despite these concerns, most singles are well adjusted.

106. Answers will vary. Psychologist Daniel Levinson, who had worked with Erik Erikson at Harvard University, and his colleagues published an influential book on development called Seasons of a Man’s Life. Levinson followed it with Seasons of a Woman’s Life. These books explained Levinson’s view, compatible with Erikson’s, that adults go through certain periods of life, which Levinson dubbed seasons, in which their progress and psychological well-being are shaped by common social and physical demands and crises—the development of relationships, rearing children, establishing and developing a career, and coming to terms with successes and failures. At any given moment, the underlying pattern of a person’s life is his or her life structure. One’s religion, race, and socioeconomic status also influence his or her life structure and life satisfaction. Many young adults also adopt what Levinson calls “the dream”—the drive to become someone, to leave one’s mark on history—which serves as a tentative blueprint for life. Levinson found that women undergo somewhat similar developments, but experience more social constraints, both from their families of origin and society in general. Thus it may take women longer to leave home, and there may be more pressure on them to go from one home (their parents’) to another (their husbands’).

Levinson labeled the ages of 28 to 33 the age-30 transition. For men and women, he found that the late 20s and early 30s are commonly characterized by reassessment: “Where is my life going?” “Why am I doing this?” Levinson and his colleagues also found that the later 30s are often characterized by settling down or planting roots. At this time, many people feel a need to make a financial and emotional investment in their homes. Their concerns become focused on promotion or tenure, career advancement, mortgages, and, in many or most cases, raising their own families.

107. Answers will vary. Among male and female couples, we have two types of marriage: monogamy and polygamy. In monogamy, one person is married to one other person. In polygamy, a person has more than one spouse and is permitted sexual access to each of them. Traditional societies such as those of India and Pakistan frequently use arranged marriages, in which the families of the bride and groom more or less arrange for the union. Marriage between two males or two females is termed gay marriage.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 108. Answers will vary. Divorce is usually connected with financial and emotional problems. When a household splits, the resources often cannot maintain the earlier standard of living for each partner. Divorce hits women in the pocketbook harder than men. Women who have not pursued a career may have to struggle to compete with younger, more experienced workers. Divorced mothers often face the combined stress of the sole responsibility for child-rearing and the need to increase their incomes. Divorced fathers may find it difficult to pay alimony and child support while establishing a new lifestyle. Divorce can also prompt feelings of failure as a spouse and parent, loneliness and uncertainty about the future, and depression.

Married people appear to be better able to cope with the stresses and strains of life, perhaps because they can lend each other emotional support. Divorced and separated people have the highest rates of physical and mental illness. They also have high rates of suicide. Children are often the biggest losers when parents get a divorce, yet chronic marital conflict is also connected with psychological distress in children. Researchers attribute children’s problems following divorce not only to the divorce itself but also to a consequent decline in the quality of parenting. Children’s adjustment is enhanced when both parents maintain parenting responsibilities and set aside their differences long enough to agree on child-rearing practices. Children of divorce also benefit when their parents avoid saying negative things about each other in the children’s presence. Despite the difficulties in adjustment, most divorced people eventually bounce back. Most remarry. Indeed, divorce may permit personal growth and renewal and the opportunity to take stock of oneself and establish a new, more rewarding life.

109. Answers will vary. Cohabitation has become largely accepted as a mainstream style of life. We rarely hear cohabitation referred to as “living in sin” as we once did. People today are more likely to refer to cohabitation with value-free expressions such as “living together.” Twenty-four percent of never-married adults aged 25 to 29 are currently cohabiting. The numbers of households consisting of cohabiting male–female couples in the United States has increased more than tenfold since 1960, from fewer than half a million couples to around 7.5 to 8 million couples today. More than half a million additional households consist of cohabiting same-sex couples. More than half of today’s marriages are preceded by the couple living together. There is a 58% probability that a cohabiting American woman will marry her partner if the couple cohabit for three years. Some social scientists see cohabitation as a new stage of courtship. More than half of today’s high-school seniors believe that it is a good idea for couples to live together before getting married to test their compatibility.

Young adults cohabit for many reasons. Cohabitation, like marriage, is an alternative to living alone. Romantic partners may have deep feelings for each other but are not ready to get married. Some couples prefer cohabitation because it provides an abiding relationship without the legal entanglements of marriage. The couple may also be testing the compatibility and endurance of the relationship prior to Tying the Knot. Willingness to cohabit is related to less traditional views of marriage and gender roles. For example, divorced people are more likely than people who have never been married to cohabit. Perhaps the experience of divorce leaves some people more willing to share their lives than their bank accounts. Cohabitants are also less likely than noncohabitants to say that religion is very important to them. Tradition aside, many cohabitants are simply less committed to their relationships than married people are. It is more often the man who is unwilling to make a commitment, because men are typically more interested in sexual variety, at least in the short term. In the long term, however, both men and women may seek to invest in a relationship, feelings of love, companionship, and a sharing of resources.

Economic factors also come into play. Young adults may decide to cohabit because of the economic advantages of sharing household expenses. Cohabiting individuals who receive public assistance risk losing support if they get married. College students may cohabit secretly to maintain parental support that they might lose if they were to reveal their living arrangements.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 110. Answers will vary. Being single, not married, is the most common lifestyle of people in their early 20s. The percentage of men and women aged 25 and above has more than doubled in the past two generations.

The three main reasons people reported for remaining single in a 2014 Pew Research Center survey is that they have not met the right person (30%), they do not have sufficient financial stability (27%), and that they are not ready to settle down (22%). Couples now are more likely to enter into sexual activity or sexual relationships without being married, and, often, without having a meaningful relationship. More young adults are postponing marriage to pursue educational and career goals. Single people encounter less social stigma today. They are less likely today to be perceived as socially inadequate or as failures. On the other hand, many young adults do not choose to be single. Some have not yet found Mr. or Ms. Right. But many young adults see being single as an alternative, open-ended way of life—not a temporary stage that precedes marriage. As career options for women have expanded, they are not as financially dependent on men as their mothers and grandmothers were. There is no single “singles scene.” Single people differ in their sexual interests and lifestyles. Many achieve emotional and psychological security through a network of intimate relationships with friends. Many are sexually active and practice serial monogamy. Others have a primary sexual relationship with one steady partner but occasional flings. A few pursue casual sexual encounters. By contrast, some singles remain celibate, either by choice or lack of opportunity. Some choose celibacy for religious reasons, to focus on work or another cause, because they find sex unalluring, or because of fear of sexually transmitted infections.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 111. Answers will vary. Research for many decades has shown—and keeps on showing—that physical attractiveness is a major determinant of interpersonal and sexual attraction. The power of Tinder—in which people express interest in others on the basis of their photo alone—also testifies to the importance of physical appearance in consideration of partners for dates, sex, and long-term relationships.

Men appear to be more responsive to visual stimuli than women, although women are also clearly attuned to appealing eyefuls. Evolutionary psychologists note that it would make sense for males and females to be more attracted to one another when the woman is ovulating: that is, capable of conceiving a child. It would be likely that women might act somewhat differently or that men would pick up on certain cues—perhaps unconsciously—that would communicate a woman’s phase of the menstrual cycle. Interestingly, women tend to dress and ornament themselves in more appealing ways when they are in the fertile phase of their ovulatory cycle.

Although physical appeal is important in sexual attraction, other factors matter and may even challenge the equation that good looks = sexual attractiveness. For example, there is the issue of whether or not it seems that an individual would be able to provide a high-quality relationship. And because men are somewhat more attuned to the visual than women, we would expect women to be somewhat more flexible in mate choice in that they may be more willing to trade (some) good looks for a good relationship. Evolutionary theory proposes that women on some level recognize that they are more likely than men to be reproductively successful if they can rear their children in high-quality relationships.

Generally speaking, taller men are considered to be more attractive by women. Height plays a key role in choice of a mate because it suggests social dominance, status, access to resources, protection, and a positive heritable trait.

Undergraduate women prefer their dates to be about 6 inches taller than they are. Undergraduate men, on the average, prefer women who are about 4 to 5 inches shorter. Consistent with stereotypical gender roles, tall women are not viewed so positively as tall men are.

“Thin is in” today. Both females and males find slenderness (though not anorexic thinness) attractive. In a survey of 22,815 U.S. adults, it was found that men and women both said that it is desirable or essential for potential partners to be good-looking (92% of men and 84% of women) and slender (80% of men and 58% of women). Women were relatively more likely to desire men who had a steady income (74% versus 97%) and made a lot of money (47% versus 69%). These findings are all consistent with evolutionary theory: women are relatively more concerned with a partner’s ability to help provide an environment conducive to successful child-rearing.

The dominant culture also prefers the hourglass figure. Studies find that women of average weight with a waist-tohip ratio of 0.7 to 0.8 are rated as most attractive and desirable for relationships. Neither gaunt nor obese women are found to be as attractive.

112. Answers will vary. When we feel admired and complimented, we tend to return these feelings and behaviors. This is called reciprocity. Although reciprocity can contribute to feelings of attraction, some research also suggests that women are sometimes more attracted to men whose feelings toward them are uncertain. Yet the power of reciprocity has apparently enabled many couples to become happy with one another and reasonably well adjusted. When someone confesses his or her feelings of attraction, the recipient of the feelings is certainly likely to pay more attention to the other person.

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Chap 14__HDEV6 113. Answers will vary. Robert Sternberg’s “triangular theory” of love includes three building blocks, or components, of loving experiences: intimacy, passion, and commitment. Intimacy is the experience of warmth toward another person that arises from feelings of closeness and connectedness, and the desire to share one’s inmost thoughts. Passion is an intense romantic or sexual desire, accompanied by physiological arousal. Commitment is the devotion to maintain the relationship through good times and bad.

Sternberg’s model is triangular in that various kinds of love can be conceptualized in terms of a triangle in which each vertex represents one of the building blocks. In Sternberg’s model, couples are well matched if they possess corresponding levels of passion, intimacy, and commitment. According to the model, various combinations of the building blocks of love characterize different types of love relationships. For example, infatuation (passionate love) is typified by sexual desire but not by intimacy and commitment.

114. Answers will vary. Whether or not young adults leave the nest, it is time for them to separate from their parents psychologically. Psychologists and educators refer to the relevant processes as separation and individuation—that is, becoming an individual by means of integrating one’s own values and beliefs with those of one’s parents and one’s society.

Most men in our society consider separation and individuation to be key goals of personality development in early adulthood. But many psychologists argue that things are somewhat different for women—that for women, the establishment and maintenance of social relationships are also of primary importance. Nevertheless, many young women work on becoming their own persons in the sense of separating their values and patterns of behavior from those of their mothers. When young men’s views differ from those of their parents, they are more likely to engage in an active struggle or a fight for independence. The transition to college or to the workplace can play a role in separation and individuation. Employment and financial independence can lessen feelings of connectedness with parents, whereas college or university can maintain these feelings. Feelings of connectedness are related to the amount of financial and emotional support students receive from parents.

115. Answers will vary. Marriage meets many personal and cultural needs. For traditionalists, marriage legitimizes sexual relations. Marriage provides an institution in which children can be supported and socialized. Marriage (theoretically) restricts sexual relations so that a man can be assured—or assume— that his wife’s children are his. Unless one has signed a prenuptial agreement to the contrary, marriage permits the orderly transmission of wealth from one family to another and one generation to another.

Today, because more people believe that premarital sex is acceptable between two people who feel affectionate toward each other, the desire for sex is less likely to motivate marriage. But marriage provides a sense of security and opportunities to share feelings, experiences, and ideas with someone with whom one forms a special attachment. Most young adults agree that marriage is important for people who plan to spend the rest of their lives together. Broadly speaking, many people in the United States today want to get married because they believe that they will be happier. The National Marriage Project suggests that most of them are correct, even if the percentages of those reporting that their marriages are “very happy” have declined since the 1970s.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The climacteric refers to gradual increases in the reproductive capacity of the ovaries. a. True b. False 2. Cancer is a chronic, noncommunicable disease characterized by uncontrolled growth of cells. a. True b. False 3. With aging, the tissues in our body become more capable of taking up glucose from the bloodstream. a. True b. False 4. Leukocytes engulf and kill pathogens, such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses, and worn-out and cancerous body cells. a. True b. False 5. The stress hormones connected with euphoria can constrict the blood vessels to the heart, leading to a heart attack in people who are vulnerable. a. True b. False 6. The majority of women aged 50 and above are sexually active and most of them report being sexually satisfied. a. True b. False 7. Heart disease most commonly results from arteriosclerosis or hardening of the arteries. a. True b. False 8. The resting metabolic rate—also called the basal metabolic rate—increases during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 9. Erectile problems can arise when dilated arteries leading to the penis overwhelm the penis with blood and oxygen. a. True b. False 10. Prolonged stress suppresses the functioning of the immune system. a. True b. False

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Chap 15__HDEV6 11. Middle adulthood does not offer people opportunities for exercising creativity, expanding knowledge, and gaining intellectual experience. a. True b. False 12. Mature learners are often unsure as to whether or not they should share their thoughts or perspectives with their class. a. True b. False 13. Benign tumors do not spread and rarely pose a threat to life, whereas malignant cancer tumors invade and destroy surrounding tissue. a. True b. False 14. Most people are more likely to retain or expand their general knowledge in middle adulthood. a. True b. False 15. Sexual dysfunctions are acute or nonrecurrent problems in becoming sexually aroused or reaching orgasm. a. True b. False 16. Crystallized intelligence tends to increase during adulthood, while fluid intelligence tends to decrease. a. True b. False 17. Reaction time is the amount of time it takes to respond to a stimulus. a. True b. False 18. Homicide and suicide are among the leading causes of death in early adulthood. a. True b. False 19. Cataracts, glaucoma, and hearing loss are usually problems of late adulthood. a. True b. False 20. Mature learners are less likely than younger learners to find a subject matter interesting for its own sake. a. True b. False

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Chap 15__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Antigens are best defined as ______. a. foreign substances that enter the body b. specialized antibodies that help fight viruses c. specialized antibodies that help fight bacteria d. a secondary system of white blood cells 22. Which of the following statements is true of hormone replacement therapy? a. It uses synthetic estrogen and progesterone to treat perimenopausal sensations. b. It increases the risks of osteoporosis and colon cancer. c. It increases the hot flushes and other symptoms brought about by estrogen deficiencies. d. It significantly decreases the risks of strokes and blood clots.

23. Linda, a 50-year-old, goes back to college after being an electrician for several years. Through her college years, she studies diverse subjects that enrich her knowledge. This scenario illustrates an increase in her level of _______. a. fluid intelligence b. existential intelligence c. interpersonal intelligence d. crystallized intelligence 24. A true statement about the health of middle-aged people in the United States is that a. the majority of middle-aged Americans have not been vaccinated for preventable diseases. b. there are racial, ethnic, and gender differences in the incidence and treatment of various diseases. c. women, more so than men, resist seeking health care when symptoms of diseases arise. d. there is little awareness among middle-aged people about preventive health care.

25. Which of the following statements is true of perimenopause? a. It is an abnormal state and requires medical assistance. b. It is characterized by 3 to 11 months of amenorrhea. c. It signals an end to women’s sexual appetite. d. It occurs because of the lack of testosterone in the body.

26. One cause of osteoporosis is long-term _________. a. estrogen deficiency b. testosterone deficiency c. androgen deficiency d. oxytocin deficiency

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Chap 15__HDEV6 27. The immune system retains the capacity to battle antigens by _______. a. maintaining their antibodies in the bloodstream b. increasing the amount of glucose absorbed by cells c. increasing the production of red blood cells d. regulating body temperature near the area of an injury 28. Reuben, an obese 55-year-old man, experiences chest pain. He is rushed to an emergency room in a hospital where he describes his pain as a feeling of heavy pressure or tightness in the chest along with shortness of breath. Reuben is most likely experiencing a(n) _____. a. epileptic attack b. heart attack c. bout of depression d. nervous breakdown 29. Heart disease most commonly results from arteriosclerosis or hardening of the arteries, which impairs circulation and increases the risk of _____. a. malignant tumors b. benign tumors c. an ulcer d. a thrombus 30. The definition of vasomotor instability is a. a persistent or recurrent problem in becoming sexually aroused or reaching orgasm. b. the occurrence of multiple orgasms. c. the disruptions in the body mechanisms that dilate or constrict the blood vessels to maintain an even body temperature. d. a disorder characterized by the abnormal functioning and loss of previously acquired skills.

31. The gradual decline in the reproductive capacity of the ovaries is known as the ______. a. menarche b. menopause c. amenorrhea d. climacteric 32. A sign of a heart attack is a. a decline in bone density. b. diminished lung capacity. c. prolonged chest pain. d. a decrease in body fat.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 33. A cognitive faculty that is more related to crystallized intelligence than fluid intelligence is ______________. a. inductive reasoning b. spatial orientation c. numeric ability d. perceptual speed 34. K. Warner Schaie’s longitudinal data says what about the trajectory of spatial orientation and numeric ability from early adulthood to late adulthood? a. They rise gradually. b. They rise dramatically. c. They decline gradually. d. They decline dramatically.

35. Unpleasant perimenopausal sensations, such as night sweats, hot flushes, and hot flashes, are caused by the deficit of ______. a. testosterone b. epinephrine c. estrogen d. adrenaline 36. The basic fuel and energy source for cells is ______________. a. vitamin C b. vitamin D c. glucose d. calcium 37. Which of the following statements is true of sexual activities in middle adulthood? a. The frequency of sexual activities declines dramatically in middle adulthood. b. The most common sexual problem among men is erectile dysfunction. c. In the later part of middle adulthood, a majority of women are sexually inactive. d. Women in middle adulthood enjoy more sexual activities than men in middle adulthood.

38. Jackie, an architect, recalls most of her architectural training and has even improved upon it over the years.

However, she cannot remember the Mandarin that she learned as a sophomore in college. In the context of cognitive development, the differences in Jackie’s abilities illustrate the principle of ______. a. interindividual variability b. plasticity c. multidirectionality d. transitivity

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Chap 15__HDEV6 39. A kind of motor memory of how to do things is best described as _____________. a. episodic memory b. semantic memory c. sensory memory d. procedural memory 40. The amount of time it takes to respond to a stimulus increases with age mainly because of a. an increase in the production of keratinocytes. b. changes in the nervous system. c. changes in dietary habits. d. an increase in blood flow.

41. The immune system is the body’s defense against ______. a. genetic abnormalities b. aging c. infections d. external traumas 42. A test used to screen women for breast cancer is called a(an) ___________________. a. electrocardiogram b. mammogram c. electroencephalogram d. lymphogram 43. Maureen is going through perimenopause and experiences hot flushes and night sweats. She also experiences dizziness, headaches, and tingling in the hands or feet. Which of the following treatments will help Maureen cope with these symptoms? a. Hormone replacement therapy b. Chemotherapy c. Enzyme replacement therapy d. Radiation therapy 44. Spatial orientation is primarily associated with _____. a. existential intelligence b. fluid intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. interpersonal intelligence

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Chap 15__HDEV6 45. External agents that cause cancer are called carcinogens and include _________. a. toxic working conditions, emotional labor, and socioeconomic vulnerability b. prokaryotes, eukaryotes, and lymphocytes c. social norms, media influences, and peer pressures d. viruses, chemical compounds in tobacco, and ultraviolet solar radiation 46. What term refers to the research finding that IQ scores increased some 18 points in the United States between the years of 1947 and 2002? a. The Flynn effect b. The Sharma effect c. The Cohort effect d. The Feynman effect 47. Which of the following statements is true of cognitive development in middle adulthood? a. Intellectual development in adulthood shows multidirectionality and interindividual variability. b. Intellectual abilities are established in early adulthood and cannot be modified in middle adulthood. c. Cognitive development in middle adulthood is characterized by an increase in fluid intelligence. d. Cognitive development in middle adulthood is characterized by a decrease in crystallized intelligence.

48. Janya, an experienced doctor, discovers that she recalls most of her medical training. However, she fails to remember the Italian that she learned when she was a student abroad. In the context of cognitive development, the differences in Janya’s abilities illustrate the principle of ______. a. multidirectionality b. transitivity c. interindividual variability d. plasticity 49. Mark is 50 years old, and he enjoys his work as a jewelry crafter. Lately, he has been finding it difficult to focus his eyes on the intricate details in the jewelry he is working on. Mark is most likely experiencing _______. a. presbyopia b. aphakia c. amblyopia d. diplopia 50. Which of the following scenarios illustrates the functioning of procedural memory? a. Jay looks at his old school pictures and recollects the names of his friends. b. Winnie memorizes the names of famous scientists and their discoveries. c. Miriam finds her old piano and realizes that she still remembers how to play it. d. Jaytham recollects his childhood memories and records it in his memoirs.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 51. Laura is 60 years old and was diagnosed with hypertension. One afternoon, she experienced a sudden, sharp pain extending beyond her chest to her left shoulder, arm, and back. She was rushed to the emergency room of a hospital where she also reported nausea. Laura most likely had a(n) _____. a. migraine attack b. episode of indigestion c. epileptic fit d. heart attack 52. A similarity between benign tumors and malignant tumors is that both a. are cancerous and pose a threat to life. b. invade and destroy surrounding tissues. c. release cells that form metastases. d. are formed by uncontrollable growth of cells.

53. The pancreas secretes a hormone known as ______________. a. insulin b. cortisol c. estrogen d. testosterone 54. Which of the following scenarios illustrates the functioning of procedural memory? a. Kimberly memorizes the names of all the Nobel Prize winners of 2020. b. Nisha, who is in her 50s, flips through old family photo albums and feels nostalgic about her childhood. c. Jessie loves collecting international stamps and browses through her collection once every week. d. Jameson, who is in his 60s, learned to use a manual typewriter as a child. He finds that he can easily type on an ergonomically designed computer keyboard.

55. During middle adulthood the skin is likely to lose its _____________. a. brittleness b. elasticity c. dryness d. porosity 56. K. Warner Schaie’s longitudinal research found that one of the intellectual factors that showed improvement through most of the years of middle adulthood and stability from 53 to 60 is ______. a. emotion b. memory c. spatial awareness d. empathy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 57. A stress hormone that is connected with anger is ______________. a. thyroxin b. epinephrine c. prolactin d. luteotropin 58. Numeric ability is primarily associated with _____. a. existential intelligence b. fluid intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. interpersonal intelligence 59. A 50-year-old woman has enjoyed excellent vision throughout her life. Lately, she has found it difficult to read. She has also found it hard to differentiate between the small increments on her tape measure. Wearing reading glasses has helped to a great extent. In this scenario, she is most likely experiencing _____. a. diplopia b. aphakia c. presbyopia d. amblyopia 60. Mature learners are more likely to _______. a. share their thoughts and perspectives with the class b. find a subject matter disinteresting and worthless c. think that they are up to date on their ideas and views d. resent their subordinate status in a teacher–student relationship 61. Who among the following middle-aged individuals is most likely diagnosed with atherosclerosis? a. Rebecca, who experiences night sweats and hot flushes. b. Jae, whose doctor tells her that there is a buildup of plaque in the lining of her arteries. c. Yasmine, whose doctor tells her that she is vulnerable to fractures because of her declining bone density. d. Lisa, who feels feverish after she accidentally cuts her finger with a knife.

62. Julia is a perimenopausal woman who is experiencing night sweats and hot flashes. She is also enduring severe joint pain and heart palpitations. Julia’s gynecologist has suggested hormone replacement therapy as a cure. In this scenario, Julia has _____. a. spatial disorientation b. diabetic retinopathy c. autoimmune thyroiditis d. estrogen deficiency

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Chap 15__HDEV6 63. Middle adulthood is the stage of adulthood that spans the ages of _____. a. 40–65 b. 25–40 c. 60–75 d. 35–45 64. Abilene is a 52-year-old who strongly believes in the power of education. She has joined community classes for French and Spanish languages and reads books in those languages. She believes enriching her wisdom and world knowledge will help her become a better person. Abilene’s knowledge of French and Spanish illustrates her _____. a. emotional intelligence b. existential intelligence c. interpersonal intelligence d. crystallized intelligence 65. Arthur’s physician has warned him of a possible heart attack in the near future. There is a buildup of plaque in the lining of Arthur’s arteries, resulting in the heart receiving insufficient blood. In this scenario, Arthur is diagnosed with _____. a. atherosclerosis b. amyloidosis c. leukemia d. presbyopia 66. Which of the following is true of sexual dysfunction? a. Women report a higher prevalence of sexual dysfunctions than men do. b. The prevalence of every sexual dysfunction except premature ejaculation decreases with age. c. Men are always ready to engage in sexual activity and do not have sexual dysfunctions. d. The least prevalent sexual problems in women are low sexual desire and difficulty in reaching orgasm.

67. Which of the following is a biological risk factor in heart disease? a. High serum cholesterol levels b. Low insulin levels c. High glucose levels d. Low serum cholesterol levels

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Chap 15__HDEV6 68. Rochelle is a perimenopausal woman who experiences hot flashes and flushes and night sweats. Her skin has become very dry and she experiences decreased vaginal lubrication during sexual arousal. Rochelle’s gynecologist has suggested hormone replacement therapy as a cure. In this scenario, Rochelle has _____. a. spatial disorientation b. estrogen deficiency c. autoimmune thyroiditis d. diabetic retinopathy 69. In the context of intelligence, which of the following statements is true? a. Researchers theorize a strong role for neurological factors in fluid intelligence. b. Crystallized intelligence is influenced exclusively by neurological factors. c. Fluid intelligence is influenced exclusively by environmental factors. d. Studies show that crystallized intelligence tends to decrease with age through middle adulthood.

70. Heart disease most commonly results from arteriosclerosis which is a term that most accurately refers to _______. a. hardening of the veins b. hardening of the heart muscles c. hardening of the arteries d. hardening of the capillaries 71. A deficiency of estrogen is known to contribute to _______. a. osteoporosis b. cancer c. arteriosclerosis d. erectile dysfunction 72. The wrinkling associated with aging is actually caused by ______. a. changes in the nervous system b. a decline in the basal metabolic rate c. the loss of bone density d. exposure to ultraviolet rays 73. During middle adulthood, aerobic capacity declines as ______. a. lung tissue stiffens with age b. sensitivity to insulin is lost by the muscle tissues c. lean-body mass, which includes fat, is replaced by muscle d. large amounts of calcium are lost by the bones, making them porous and brittle

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Chap 15__HDEV6 74. Which of the following statements is true of the anticancer drug and radiation methods of treating cancer? a. They use only surgery to remove cancerous tissues. b. They strengthen the immune system. c. They have side effects such as nausea and loss of appetite. d. They destroy only malignant cancerous tissues.

75. In the context of cognitive development, plasticity refers to the fact that _______. a. creativity gradually declines in middle-aged people b. intellectual abilities are not absolutely fixed but can be modified c. people do not age in the same way or at the same rate d. some aspects of intellectual functioning may improve, while others remain stable or decline 76. The body responds to the presence of antigens by ______. a. producing more insulin through the pancreas b. burning fewer calories than usual c. coordinating appropriate muscular responses d. generating specialized proteins, or antibodies 77. Which of the following statements is true of inflammation? a. It is the primary function of the cardiovascular system. b. It is characterized by unpleasant sensations, such as hot flashes and night sweats. c. It leads to an increase in the brittleness and porosity of bones. d. It increases the supply of white blood cells that combat antigens at the points of damage.

78. Presbyopia is a common vision problem that makes it difficult for a person to _______. a. focus on far away objects b. focus on nearby objects or fine print c. recognize human faces and features d. tolerate glares and high levels of light 79. The most common form of treatment for erectile disorders is __________________. a. oral medications b. local injections c. penile surgery d. neuronal stimulation

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Chap 15__HDEV6 80. One of the three leading causes of death in early adulthood is ________. a. suicide b. heart disease c. cancer d. AIDS 81. A change that occurs during middle adulthood is a. aerobic capacity increases. b. the amount of muscle decreases. c. bone density increases. d. the amount of fat decreases.

82. During middle adulthood a. bone density increases. b. body mass index increases. c. blood sugar tolerance increases. d. the basal metabolic rate increases.

83. A measure of the health of the heart is a a. baseline electrocardiogram. b. high-energy radiation exam. c. mammogram. d. baseline electroencephalogram.

84. Which of the following statements is accurate about physical development during middle adulthood? a. During middle adulthood, reaction time decreases, whereas bone density increases. b. During middle adulthood, the basal metabolic rate increases, whereas lean-body mass increases. c. During middle adulthood, lung capacity decreases, whereas body mass index increases. d. During middle adulthood, lung capacity increases, whereas reaction time decreases.

85. The decline in the resting metabolic rate in middle adulthood is largely attributable to the loss of muscle tissue and the corresponding increase in ______. a. neuronal connections b. fatty tissue c. free radicals d. bone porosity

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Chap 15__HDEV6 86. The definition of amenorrhea is the a. lack of menstruation. b. recurring problem in reaching an orgasm. c. lack of sexual desire in women. d. onset of menstruation.

87. In the United States, which of the following communities has the lowest survival rate from cancer? a. Latin Americans b. Black Americans c. American Indians d. European Americans 88. During middle adulthood, cognitive development is characterized by a(n) _______. a. dramatic decline in procedural memory b. increase in processing speed c. increase in reaction time d. increase in crystallized intelligence 89. Which of the following statements is true of a heart attack? a. It can be fatal if the person experiencing the heart attack is not attended to within the first two hours. b. It is caused by a deficiency of estrogen in the body. c. It is caused by the uncontrollable division of cells. d. It is treated by methods such as radiation and chemotherapy.

90. Researchers theorize a stronger role for which of the following influences on fluid intelligence as compared to crystallized intelligence? a. Lifestyle habits b. Environmental factors c. Neurological factors d. Cultural factors 91. The integumentary system refers to the _______. a. body’s system of skin, hair, and nails b. body’s defenses against infections and foreign agents c. body’s system of hormones and glands d. body’s system of veins, arteries, and capillaries

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Chap 15__HDEV6 92. Which of the following statements is true of osteoporosis? a. It occurs because of long-term testosterone deficiency. b. It reflects vasomotor instability. c. It increases the risk of serious fractures, especially of the hip. d. It is known to improve cognitive functioning.

93. Edward is a 50-year-old who has three grandchildren. He encourages his grandchildren to play outdoors every day and eat healthy food. He also teaches them to be polite. He believes these are essential habits. The information passed on by Edward to his grandchildren illustrates his _____. a. reaction time b. crystallized intelligence c. interindividual variability d. existential intelligence 94. Rajeev, a photographer, discovers that he remembers most of the techniques he learned during his photography training. However, he cannot remember the computer programming skills that he learned in college. In the context of cognitive development, the differences in Rajeev’s abilities illustrate the principle of _____. a. multidirectionality b. transitivity c. interindividual variability d. plasticity 95. Christine is going through the phase of perimenopause and is troubled by hot flushes and night sweats. Which of the following treatments will help Christine cope with these symptoms? a. Enzyme replacement therapy b. Radiation therapy c. Hormone replacement therapy d. Chemotherapy 96. The fatty deposits that develop in the lining of arteries are known as _____________. a. a tumor b. plaque c. a clot d. a lipoma 97. Crystallized intelligence a. decreases through middle adulthood. b. is influenced by environmental factors. c. is associated exclusively with numeric ability. d. is the intellectual factor of perceptual speed

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Chap 15__HDEV6 98. Hair usually begins to gray in middle adulthood because of ______. a. a decrease in the production of melanin b. the replacement of muscle tissues by fat tissues c. an increase in the production of insulin d. a decrease in the production of prolactin 99. Philosopher and researcher John Flynn found that IQ scores increased in the United States between the years of 1947 and 2002 by how many points? a. 15 b. 18 c. 20 d. 25 100. Which of the following scenarios illustrates the functioning of procedural memory? a. Will looks through his high-school yearbook and could recollect the names of a few people. b. Taylor flips through old family photo albums and feels nostalgic about her childhood. c. Carla enters a swimming pool after decades and realizes she still remembers how to swim. d. Collin memorizes the names of the countries his brother Noah has travelled to.

101. Describe estrogen deficiency among menopausal women and hormone replacement therapy as its cure.

102. How does blood sugar tolerance change during middle adulthood?

103. Discuss the rate of cancer in middle adulthood.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 104. Compare crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence.

105. Does stress influence immunity levels in human beings?

106. Discuss changes in speed of information processing and memory that occur during middle adulthood.

107. Discuss creativity among middle adults with examples.

108. Do racial and gender differences influence the incidence and treatment of diseases?

109. Define menopause, perimenopause, and the climacteric.

110. Describe the human immune system.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 111. Discuss the signs and symptoms of heart disease in middle adulthood.

112. Discuss the leading causes of death in middle adulthood.

113. Describe the sexual dysfunctions among men and women in middle adulthood.

114. Discuss the physical changes in middle adulthood.

115. Describe learning among people of middle adult age.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. b 26. a

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Chap 15__HDEV6 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. d 52. d 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. d 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 83. a 84. c 85. b 86. a 87. c 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. a 92. c 93. b 94. a 95. c 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. b 100. c

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Chap 15__HDEV6 101. Answers will vary. Menopause, or the “change of life,” is the cessation of menstruation. Menopause is a normal process that most commonly occurs between the ages of 46 and 50 and lasts for about two years. Menopause is a specific event in a longer-term process known as the climacteric (“critical period”), which is the gradual decline in the reproductive capacity of the ovaries due to a decline in production of estrogen. The estrogen deficit may lead to unpleasant perimenopausal sensations, such as night sweats and hot flashes (suddenly feeling hot) and hot flushes (suddenly reddened skin). Hot flashes and flushes may alternate with cold sweats, in which a woman feels suddenly cold and clammy. All of these sensations reflect vasomotor instability, disruptions in the body mechanisms that dilate or constrict the blood vessels to maintain an even body temperature. Additional signs of estrogen deficiency include dizziness, headaches, joint pain, tingling in the hands or feet, burning or itchy skin, and heart palpitations.

The skin usually becomes drier. There is some loss of breast tissue and decreased vaginal lubrication during sexual arousal. However, menopause does not signal an end to women’s sexual appetite. Longterm estrogen deficiency has been linked to brittleness and porosity of the bones—osteoporosis.

Osteoporosis can be handicapping, even life-threatening. The brittleness of the bones increases the risk of serious fractures, especially of the hip, and many older women never recover from them. Estrogen deficiency also can impair cognitive functioning and feelings of psychological well-being. Some women with severe physical symptoms have been helped by hormone replacement therapy (HRT), which typically consists of synthetic estrogen and progesterone. HRT may reduce the hot flushes and other symptoms brought about by hormonal deficiencies. Estrogen replacement also lowers the risks of osteoporosis and colon cancer. Yet HRT is controversial. The Women’s Health Initiative study of some 16,600 postmenopausal women aged 50 to 79 found that exposure to a combination of estrogen and progestin appears to significantly increase the risk of breast cancer, strokes, and blood clots. Because of the Chlebowski study and studies with similar findings, the number of women using HRT has dropped significantly over the past few years, and many women are considering alternatives. Progestin alone—that is, the use of progestin without estrogen—prevents or lessens hot flashes in many women. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may also be of help.

102. Answers will vary. Blood sugar, or glucose, is the basic fuel and energy source for cells. The energy from glucose supports cell activities and maintains body temperature. Glucose circulates in the bloodstream and enters cells with the help of insulin, a hormone secreted by the pancreas. As we age, the tissues in our body become less capable of taking up glucose from the bloodstream. Body tissues lose their sensitivity to insulin; the pancreas must thus produce more of it to achieve the same effect. Therefore, blood sugar levels rise, increasing the risk of adult-onset diabetes.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Although heart disease becomes the nation’s number-one cause of death among people aged 65 and above (women have a sharply increased incidence of death due to heart disease following menopause), cancer is the overall leading cause of death in middle adulthood. Cancer eventually causes nearly one of every four deaths in the United States. Yet, in many cases, cancer can be controlled or cured, especially when detected early. Cancer is a chronic, noncommunicable disease characterized by uncontrolled growth of cells, forming masses of excess tissue called tumors. Tumors can be benign (noncancerous) or malignant (cancerous). Benign tumors do not spread and rarely pose a threat to life.

Malignant tumors invade and destroy surrounding tissue. Cancerous cells in malignant tumors may also break away from the primary tumor and travel through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to form new tumors, called metastases, elsewhere in the body. Metastases damage vital body organs and systems and in many cases lead to death. Cancer begins when a cell’s DNA, its genetic material, changes such that the cell divides indefinitely. The change is triggered by mutations in the DNA, which can be caused by internal or external factors. Internal factors include heredity, problems in the immune system, and hormonal factors. External agents are called carcinogens and include some viruses, chemical compounds in tobacco and elsewhere, and ultraviolet (UV) solar radiation. About one man in two and one woman in three in the United States will eventually develop cancer if they live long enough. The incidence of death from cancer almost triples in the decade of ages 55–64 as compared with the decade of ages 45–54. Although cancer cuts across all racial and ethnic groups, African Americans have higher than average colorectal cancer incidence and death rates from that disease (American Cancer Society, 2016a). African Americans have twice the average death rate from prostate cancer. The incidence of cervical cancer in Latin American women is higher than that of other demographic groups. Only about half of American Indian and Alaska Native women aged 40 years and over have had a recent mammogram.

American Indian and Alaska Natives have the poorest survival rate from cancer. Much of the difference in mortality rates can be attributed to lack of early detection and treatment. One reason for late diagnosis is that many minority groups lack health insurance or access to health care facilities. Many members of minority groups also avoid screening by the health care system, which they see as impersonal, insensitive, and racist. Though there are many causes of cancer and risk factors vary among population groups, two out of three cancer deaths in the United States are the result of two controllable factors: smoking and diet. Cigarette smoking causes 87% of lung cancer deaths in the United States and is responsible for most cancers of the mouth, larynx, pharynx, esophagus, and bladder. Secondhand smoking also accounts for several thousand cancer deaths per year. Diet may account for about 30% of all cancers in Western cultures. However, many cases of cancer also involve family history, or heredity.

Traditional methods for treating cancer are surgery (surgical removal of cancerous tissue), radiation (highdose x-rays or other sources of high-energy radiation to kill cancerous cells and shrink tumors), chemotherapy (drugs that kill cancer cells or shrink tumors), and hormonal therapy (hormones that stop tumor growth). These methods have their limitations. Anticancer drugs and radiation kill healthy tissue as well as malignant tissue. They also have side effects such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, loss of hair, and weakening of the immune system.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 104. Answers will vary. Crystallized intelligence is defined as a cluster of knowledge and skills that depends on accumulated information and experience, awareness of social conventions, and the capacity to make good decisions and judgments. Studies show that crystallized intelligence tends to increase with age through middle adulthood. Verbal ability and inductive reasoning are related to crystallized intelligence, and these show gains through middle adulthood and hold up in late adulthood. Fluid intelligence involves a person’s skills at processing information. It tends to decline through middle adulthood. Perceptual speed, spatial orientation, and numeric ability, all related to fluid intelligence, decline dramatically in late adulthood.

Whereas researchers suggest a powerful role for environmental factors in the genesis of crystallized intelligence, they theorize a relatively stronger role for neurological factors in fluid intelligence.

105. Answers will vary. Short-term stress may boost the functioning of the immune system, but prolonged stress suppresses the functioning of the immune system, as measured by substances in the blood that make up the immune system. Stress thus leaves people more vulnerable to infections such as the common cold. The stress hormones connected with anger can constrict the blood vessels to the heart, leading to a heart attack in people who are vulnerable. The stress of chronic hostility and anger is connected with higher cholesterol levels and a greater risk of heart disease.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 106. Answers will vary. There are several ways to measure the speed of information processing. One is simply physical: reaction time. That is the amount of time it takes to respond to a stimulus. If you touch a hot stove, how long does it take you to pull your hand away? In one assessment of reaction time, people push a button when a light is flashed. People in middle adulthood respond to the light more slowly—their reaction time is greater—than young adults do. The difference in reaction time is only a fraction of a second, but it is enough to keep the typical middle-aged adult out of the firing line in the military and on the sidelines of professional sports. It can also make a difference when trying to avoid getting into a collision on the freeway. Reaction time is only one aspect of processing speed. There is also the broad cognitive aspect of perceptual speed, which is intertwined with fluid intelligence. As with reaction time, the changes in middle adulthood are not that dramatic, but they are measurable. Because of continuous experience with reading and writing, an educated person in middle adulthood may be better than ever at doing crossword puzzles (largely dependent on crystallized intelligence), but she might find it somewhat more difficult to navigate new cities than she did in early adulthood (largely dependent on fluid intelligence). Most researchers believe that the decline in processing speed reflects changes in the integrity of the nervous system. Having said that, hypotheses run rampant, from the death of neurons in the brain to changes in specific parts of the brain and changes in the secretion of neurotransmitters. K. Warner Schaie’s longitudinal research found that memory is one of the intellectual factors that showed improvement through most of the years of middle adulthood and stability from 53 to 60. Not all researchers agree.

Researchers use several kinds of memory tasks, and they do not necessarily find the same results with all of them. By and large, despite Schaie’s results, most researchers conclude that people in middle adulthood and late adulthood perform less well than young adults at memorizing lists of words, numbers, or passages of prose. The main strategies for memorization are rote rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal.

Once we are in the latter part of middle adulthood, we are somewhat less likely than we were to be able to learn new information by rote repetition. We are also apparently less capable of screening out distractions. Elaborative rehearsal—that is, the relating of new information to things we already know— may suffer somewhat since we are also apparently somewhat less capable of rapid classification or categorization. We have been speaking of working or short-term memory. Let’s look at storage or longterm memory. It is not true that all types of memory functions decline in middle adulthood. By and large, we are more likely to retain or expand our general knowledge in middle adulthood, for instance, by learning more about something of which we have little knowledge or experience.

107. Answers will vary. Middle adulthood offers numerous opportunities for exercising creativity, expanding knowledge, and gaining intellectual experience. People in middle adulthood can be creative and, in fact, many middle adults are at the height of their creativity. Artist Pablo Picasso painted Guernica, which protested the Spanish civil war and is one of the best-known images in art, at the age of 56. Author Toni Morrison wrote the Pulitzer-Prize-winning novel Beloved at the age of 57. Inventor Thomas Edison built the kinetoscope, an early peephole method for watching films, at the age of 44. Yet researchers have found some differences in creativity among young adults and middle-aged people. Aspects of creativity that are relatively more likely to be found among young adults include creativity in music, mathematics, and physics. Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart, considered by many critics to be the greatest composer in history, died at the age of 35. Albert Einstein published his general theory of relativity at the age of 36. Writers and visual artists often continue to improve into middle adulthood, although their most emotional and fervent works may be produced at younger ages. The most emotionally charged works of poets tend to be penned in early adulthood.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 108. Answers will vary. There are racial, ethnic, and gender differences in the incidence and treatment of various diseases. People from certain groups appear to be more likely to develop certain chronic conditions such as hypertension and specific types of cancer. The statement that people in the United States profit from having the best health care in the world is too broad to be considered true. The “best” health care has not reached everyone. Some racial and ethnic minority groups lack access to health care, and men, more so than women, often resist seeking health care when symptoms arise.

109. Answers will vary. Menopause, or the “change of life,” is the cessation of menstruation. Menopause is a normal process that most commonly occurs between the ages of 46 and 50 and lasts for about 2 years.

Perimenopause refers to the beginning of menopause and is usually characterized by 3 to 11 months of amenorrhea (lack of menstruation) or irregular periods. Menopause is a specific event in a longer-term process known as the climacteric (“critical period”), which is the gradual decline in the reproductive capacity of the ovaries due to a decline in production of estrogen. The climacteric generally lasts about 15 years, from about 45 to 60.

110. Answers will vary. The immune system is the body’s defense against infections and some other sources of disease. It combats disease in several ways. One is the production of white blood cells, which engulf and kill pathogens, such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses, and worn-out and cancerous body cells. The technical term for white blood cells is leukocytes. Leukocytes recognize foreign substances by their shapes. The foreign substances are termed antigens because the body reacts to them by generating specialized proteins, or antibodies. Antibodies attach themselves to the foreign substances, deactivating them and marking them for destruction. The immune system “remembers” how to battle antigens by maintaining their antibodies in the bloodstream, often for years. Inflammation is another function of the immune system. When injury occurs, blood vessels in the area first contract (to stem bleeding) and then dilate.

Dilation increases the flow of blood, cells, and natural chemicals to the damaged area, causing redness, swelling, and warmth. The increased blood supply floods the region with white blood cells to combat invading microscopic life forms such as bacteria, which otherwise might use the local damage as a port of entry into the body.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 111. Answers will vary. The leading causes of death of males and females of all ages are heart disease and cancer. In heart disease, the flow of blood to the heart is insufficient to supply the heart with the oxygen it needs. Heart disease most commonly results from arteriosclerosis or hardening of the arteries, which impairs circulation and increases the risk of a blood clot (thrombus). The most common form of arteriosclerosis is atherosclerosis—the buildup of fatty deposits called plaque in the lining of arteries. Plaque results in the heart receiving insufficient blood and can cause a heart attack. Several of them are beyond the control of the individual (such as age and race/ethnicity), but people can have some control over other risk factors (smoking, exercise, diet, and getting medical checkups). Heart attacks are medical emergencies that require immediate attention. The first minutes and hours are critical to survival, as most people who die of heart attacks succumb within two hours. Yet many people minimize their symptoms or attribute them to more benign causes, like indigestion or heartburn. Whether or not one survives a heart attack depends on the extent of damage to heart tissue and to the electrical system that controls the heart rhythm. Death rates from heart disease have declined steadily during the past 50 years, in part because fewer people are smoking (smoking is a major risk factor) and because of improvements in treatment. Becoming aware of the signs of a heart attack can save a life, perhaps your own. Though not all of the following symptoms need be present, the signs of a heart attack may include: Intense, prolonged chest pain, described as crushing, not sharp, which may be experienced as a feeling of heavy pressure or tightness in the chest. Some describe a squeezing sensation in the chest, or a sensation like a giant fist enclosing the heart. Yet some people have heart attacks without chest pain.

Pain extending beyond the chest to the left shoulder and arm, the back, even into the jaws and gums.

Prolonged pain in the upper abdomen.

Shortness of breath.

Fainting or weakness.

Heavy perspiration, nausea, or vomiting.

Anxiety and fear.

112. Answers will vary. In early adulthood, the three leading causes of death screamed out their preventability: accidents, homicide, and suicide. In middle adulthood, diseases come to the fore. Cancer and heart disease are numbers one and two, and accidents now show up in third place. Cancer and heart disease are also preventable to some degree, of course. According to the National Cancer Institute, men should begin being screened for prostate cancer at about the age of 50. African Americans are at greater risk of developing prostate cancer and are advised to begin screening at 40 or 45. Most men should obtain digital rectal exams in which the doctor feels the prostate gland with a gloved finger. The value of blood tests for prostate specific antigen (PSA) has come under question for most men, and readers should check with their physicians. Women are advised to begin screening for breast cancer with mammograms at age 40.

Baseline electrocardiograms (EKGs) are typically used to measure heart health at age 50 and then repeated every two to three years.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 113. Answers will vary. Sexual dysfunctions are persistent or recurrent problems in becoming sexually aroused or reaching orgasm. Many of us have sexual problems on occasion, but sexual dysfunctions are chronic and cause significant distress. We do not have precise figures on the occurrence of sexual dysfunctions. The most accurate information may be based on the report by Ronald Lewis and his colleagues, which summarizes data from surveys around the world. Although there is wide variation in the figures gleaned from the surveys, we can make some generalizations: Women report a higher prevalence of sexual dysfunctions than men do.

The prevalence of every sexual dysfunction except premature ejaculation increases with age.

The most prevalent sexual problems in women are low sexual desire and difficulty reaching orgasm.

Despite the stereotype that men are “always ready” to engage in sexual activity, many men report having low sexual desire.

Repeated erectile problems, characterized by persistent difficulty in achieving or maintaining an erection during the course of sexual activity, may make men anxious when sexual opportunities arise because they expect failure rather than pleasure. As a result, they may avoid sex. Their partners may also avoid sexual contact because of their own frustration. The reduction in testosterone levels that occurs in middle and later adulthood may in part explain a gradual loss of sexual desire in men—along with some loss of muscle mass and strength. But women’s sexual desire may also decline with age because of physical and psychological changes. Some medications, especially those used to control anxiety, depression, or hypertension, may also reduce desire. Fatigue may lead to erectile disorder in men, and to inadequate lubrication and, consequently, painful sex in women. But these will be isolated incidents unless the person attaches too much meaning to them and becomes concerned about future performances. Painful sex, however, can also reflect underlying infections or medical conditions. Biological causes of erectile disorder affect the flow of blood to and through the penis, a problem that becomes more common as men age or experience damage to nerves involved in erection. Erectile problems can arise when clogged or narrow arteries leading to the penis deprive the penis of blood and oxygen. Similarly, aging can affect the sexual response of women. Perimenopausal and postmenopausal women usually produce less vaginal lubrication than younger women and the vaginal walls thin, which can render sex painful and create anxiety about engaging in sexual activity. Artificial lubrication can supplement the woman’s own production, and estrogen replacement may halt or reverse some of the sexual changes of aging. But partners also need to have realistic expectations and consider what kinds of sexual activities they can engage in without discomfort or high demands. Middle-aged and older men might try weight control and regular exercise, measures which may ward off erectile dysfunction. Exercise seems to lessen clogging of arteries, keeping them clear for the flow of blood into the penis. Oral medications—Viagra, Levitra, and Cialis—are commonly used to treat erectile disorder.

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Chap 15__HDEV6 114. Answers will vary. Beginning at age 20, we lose nearly seven pounds of lean-body mass with each decade.

The rate of loss accelerates after the age of 45. Fat replaces lean-body mass, which includes muscle.

Consequently, the average person’s body mass index (BMI) rises. Loss of muscle lessens strength.

However, the change is gradual, and in middle adulthood, exercise can readily compensate by increasing the size of remaining muscle cells. Exercise will not reachieve the prowess of the athlete in early adulthood, but it will contribute to vigor, health, and a desirable body shape. Metabolism is the rate at which the body processes or “burns” food to produce energy. The resting metabolic rate—also called the basal metabolic rate (BMR)—declines as we age. Fatty tissue burns fewer calories than muscle, and the decline in BMR is largely attributable to the loss of muscle tissue and the corresponding increase in fatty tissue. Since we require fewer calories to maintain our weight as we age, middle-aged people (and older adults) are likely to gain weight if they eat as much as they did as young adults. Bone, which consists largely of calcium, begins to lose density and strength at around the age of 40. As bones lose density, they become more brittle and prone to fracture. Bones in the spine, hip, thigh (femur), and forearm lose the most density as we age.

115. Answers will vary. For most adults, learning is a perpetual process. But when psychologists and educators use the term “adult learning,” they are usually speaking of learning as it occurs within some formal educational setting. Research on mature learners suggests that they are likely to have some things in common: They are apt to be highly motivated, and they are more likely than younger learners to find the subject matter interesting for its own sake. Women make up more than three of every five postsecondary students aged 35 and above in the United States. Among those with families, you might assume that those who returned to college would be the ones with the least exacting combinations of family and work demands. Actually, it’s the other way around. Women with the greatest demands on them from family and work are the ones most likely to return to school. But once they’re back, their major source of stress is time constraints; those who receive the emotional support of their families and employers experience the least stress and do best. The percentage of returning students in postsecondary institutions has increased markedly since 1970, from about 10% to 17% of the student population. When returning students come to campus, they often feel a bit on the periphery of things because rules, regulations, and activities are generally designed for younger students. They are often not sure as to whether or not they should share their thoughts or perspectives with the class; perhaps, they may think, their ideas will be out of date. Then again, some returning students achieved commanding positions at work or in social roles and it may be difficult for them to accept their subordinate status in the teacher–student relationship.

However, all in all, research suggests that both younger and returning students, and instructors, benefit from the mix of views in a classroom that includes returning students.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. According to Daniel Levinson and his colleagues, the years from 40 to 45 comprise a midlife transition. a. True b. False 2. The term “sandwich generation” refers to middle-aged people who need to meet the demands of their own children and of aging parents. a. True b. False 3. Generativity reduces one’s self-esteem. a. True b. False 4. Culture has no appreciable effect on the expression of personality traits of people. a. True b. False 5. Erikson believed that the major psychological challenge of the middle years is ego versus isolation. a. True b. False 6. In a study of more than 2,000 university employees, white-collar workers reported greater levels of job satisfaction compared to others in the study. a. True b. False 7. The growing job satisfaction throughout middle age can be linked to factors such as interesting work and some autonomy. a. True b. False 8. Most career changes in midlife involve shifts into related fields. a. True b. False 9. Conscientiousness declines dramatically from early adulthood and hits a bottom during middle adulthood, followed by a gradual increase during late adulthood. a. True b. False

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Chap 16_HDEV6 10. In the context of adult sibling relationships, sisters tend to have more intimate relationships than brothers. a. True b. False 11. In middle adulthood, the number of friends tends to increase, and couples and individuals tend to place less value on the friends they keep. a. True b. False 12. After adult children are “launched” from the family home the children, in many cases, remain at least partly financially dependent on parents, sometimes for several years. a. True b. False 13. When grandparents live with couples and their grandchildren, they are less likely to contribute to the adjustment of the family. a. True b. False 14. Most women and blue-collar workers report more satisfaction on the job throughout middle age. a. True b. False 15. Neuroticism—emotional instability—increases slightly and gradually during middle adulthood, but then levels off and declines somewhat in later adulthood. a. True b. False 16. There is room in Havighurst’s vision of normalcy for people who choose the single life. a. True b. False 17. People who score high on the neuroticism scale of the five-factor model of personality tend to be insensitive to negative stimuli. a. True b. False 18. Most aging American parents move to Sunbelt locations such as Florida and Arizona after their children marry and have children of their own. a. True b. False

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Chap 16_HDEV6 19. The gender of the grandchild has little impact on the amount of involvement of grandparents in their life. a. True b. False 20. Men are more likely than women not to have friends or other close social relationships during midlife. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Levinson suggested that the midlife crisis _______. a. is a psychological shift into late adulthood that is theorized to occur between the ages of 50 and 55 b. helps people experience tranquility and contentment in later years c. is a problem only for men d. is triggered by marker events such as menopause or the death of a friend 22. According to Robert Havighurst, keeping our performance at work at a satisfactory level is considered a developmental task during _____. a. early adulthood b. emerging adulthood c. young adulthood d. middle adulthood 23. Linghao, a 50-year-old artist, is imaginative and creative in the use of paints in art class. Linghao is likely to score high in which factor of the five-factor personality model? a. Extraversion b. Openness to experience c. Neuroticism d. Conscientiousness 24. A difference between friendships in men and friendships in women is that a. male friends are likely to be more competitive in friendships while female friends are less likely to be competitive. b. male friends are more likely to be intimate in friendships while female friends are less likely to be intimate in friendships. c. men who have greater physical strength have fewer friends while women who have lesser physical strength have many friends. d. men who have fewer friends are less likely to be depressed while women who have more friends are more likely to be depressed.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 25. According to Van Hiel and colleagues, which of the following is an outcome of the research on personality characteristics in middle adulthood? a. People who were generative were emotionally unstable. b. People who were stagnated were more conscientious. c. People who were stagnated were more likely to score high on neuroticism. d. People who were generative were less extroverted than those who were not.

26. In terms of friends, researchers Toni Antonucci and Kira Burditt found that a. women without close social ties are significantly more depressed than men. b. for women, social isolation is connected with mortality. c. women are more likely than men not to have friends. d. for men, social isolation is connected with weaker physical and psychological health.

27. In the context of work in middle adulthood, which age range includes women who were the most likely to accept jobs low in pay, as long as they liked the work? a. 28–37 b. 37–42 c. 43–49 d. 50–62 28. Which of the following is true of people during middle adulthood? a. Middle-aged adults, especially professionals, are often earning more money than young adults. b. Middle-aged people are focused on tragedy, loss, or doom, and do not feel they are entering the “prime of life.” c. Most people in middle adulthood experience a major loss of physical prowess. d. There is great loss of fluid intelligence during middle adulthood.

29. According to Daniel Levinson and his colleagues, the midlife transition is a period a. in which people are at the peak of generativity. b. in which people fear they have more to look back upon than forward to. c. of development that occurs around the age of 30–35 years. d. where people engage in procreation.

30. Van Hiel and colleagues found that those research participants who scored significantly higher in the personality variable of conscientiousness had the highest level of what Erikson would call _________. a. optimism b. generativity c. punctuality d. insight

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Chap 16_HDEV6 31. An example of an event that is most likely to trigger the midlife crisis is a. the wedding of a child. b. the birth of a grandchild. c. a child leaving “the nest.” d. relocation due to work.

32. Which approach to middle age focuses on the particular challenges and changes that people are likely to face at this time of life rather than phases or stages of life? a. Psychosocial b. Life-events c. Behavioral d. Psychodynamic 33. Which of the following is a reason for grandparents to be able to relate to grandchildren in a more relaxed way than parents? a. They have a greater fund of child-rearing experience than the parents. b. They only have to spend time with the kids for short amounts of time, and so they rarely see the children misbehaving. c. They are not really respected by the grandchildren as an authority figure, and so they do not have to care as much as the parents do. d. They know that their child-rearing skills are better than the parents’, so they can act without worrying about being wrong.

34. In the context of scales used by Alyssa Zucker and her colleagues to assess the development of personality in college-educated women from young adulthood through late adulthood, which of the following themes assesses the feeling that “I am my own person”? a. Identity certainty b. Confident power c. Generativity d. Concern with aging 35. Which of the following is true of the findings of a study of 200 adults by Van Hiel and colleagues? a. Havighurst’s developmental tasks did not apply to middle adulthood. b. Stagnation and generativity were direct opposites of each other. c. Erikson’s developmental crises were highly correlated with Freud’s psychosexual stages of development. d. The more generative group scored significantly higher on conscientiousness.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 36. According to Erik Erikson, which of the following factors can lead to stagnation among middle-aged adults? a. Rejection or suppression of the natural instinct to achieve job satisfaction b. Rejection or suppression of the natural drive toward procreativity c. Rejection or suppression of the natural drive to travel and explore d. Rejection or suppression of the natural drive toward sexually diverse behavior 37. Involuntary unemployment a. affects those with more social support more than those with less social support. b. is harder on young adults than middle-aged adults. c. affects all individuals in the same way. d. harms the physical and psychological well-being of many individuals.

38. When young adults are “launched” from their home, _____. a. they are usually depressed for a while b. they are usually completely financially independent of their parents c. parents are usually dissatisfied with their children living apart even if they call or e-mail regularly d. parents still may have some influence over their children’s choices 39. In the United States, the task of caring for aging parents usually falls to the _____. a. middle-aged daughter b. youngest son c. first-born son d. teenage daughter 40. Kenton, a 45-year-old man is warm and kind to everyone. He inspires trust in almost everyone around him. According to the “big five” model of personality factors, Kenton displays _____. a. conscientiousness b. extraversion c. agreeableness d. neuroticism 41. Erikson saw psychosocial generativity as based in _______. a. a learned behavior, causing people to behave in socially acceptable ways b. an instinctual drive toward procreativity c. a cognitive process whereby people can think hypothetically about their futures d. the need of the older adults for approval from their peers

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Chap 16_HDEV6 42. A career change in middle adulthood a. often involves shifting into related areas. b. occurs more often in middle adulthood than in early adulthood. c. is rarely voluntary. d. is always associated with negative changes in one’s mental health.

43. Jamie is extremely sensitive in nature, is prone to moodiness, and also gets very nervous on occasions. According to the “big five” model of personality factors, Jamie displays _____. a. neuroticism b. extraversion c. conscientiousness d. openness to experience 44. Which of the following is true of the role of live-in grandparents in two-parent households? a. They fill “holes” left in the family. b. They contribute the most to the adjustment of the family. c. They become a source of discord between their son or daughter and their son- or daughter-inlaw. d. They usually have more influence when they live with couples and their grandchildren.

45. Eddie nursed his wife through a long illness and was by her side when she passed away. A few days later, Eddie’s best friend of 40 years moved to another country. Eddie feels lonely but is hopeful of finding meaningful company soon. Meanwhile, he spends quality time with his grandchildren and siblings. In this scenario, which of the following options is most likely to happen to Eddie? a. He is likely to become severely ill, which will only heighten the severity of the painful life events. b. He is likely to manage his stress better than someone who believes the situation is out of their control. c. He is likely to experience severe anxiety symptoms that will lead to thoughts of suicide. d. He is likely to be depressed and unable to cope as a result of his way of thinking about life events.

46. Lesbian and bisexual women, as grandparents, a. are not concerned about disclosing their sexual orientations to their grandchildren. b. report that their children only hindered (discouraged) their relationships with their grandchildren. c. find that their experiences with grandchildren and their own children are completely different to those of heterosexual people. d. believe that they are important sources of emotion support for their grandchildren.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 47. One developmental task of middle adulthood identified by Havighurst is a. establishing a deeper relationship with one’s life partner. b. keeping one’s performance at work at above satisfactory levels. c. providing monetary support to children in their late adulthood. d. preparing for retired life by saving money.

48. According to Levinson, upon reaching middle adulthood a. people are likely to experience a midlife crisis. b. people have more to look forward to than look back upon. c. people experience happiness due to the knowledge that they are approaching the end of their work years. d. menopause is seen as a positive event by women.

49. Failure to launch refers to a syndrome wherein some children fail to leave home by age _____. a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 40 50. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory, which of the following is true of stagnation in middle adulthood? a. At this stage, adults who do not engage in generative behavior risk stagnating. b. At this stage, adults lose the drive to work. c. At this stage, adults experience a sudden shift in personality. d. At this stage, adults lose the drive to live.

51. Careful monitoring of the fetus is usually recommended for women who become pregnant at what age? a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35 52. In a study administered by Alyssa Zucker and her colleagues to college-educated women, it was found that despite increasing concern with aging, personal distress was lower among ______. a. teenaged women b. younger women c. middle-aged women d. older women

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Chap 16_HDEV6 53. In the context of scales used by Alyssa Zucker and her colleagues to assess the development of personality in college-educated women from young adulthood through late adulthood, which of the following themes assesses the sense of internal strength? a. Identity certainty b. Confident power c. Generativity d. Concern with aging 54. A moderating effect on stressful life events occurs by a. having a greater number of life events experienced at one time. b. having understanding and supportive family members. c. having few resources to tackle the challenges posed by the life events. d. using alcohol to help relax.

55. The seventh stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development is called ______. a. ego versus socialization b. generativity versus stagnation c. acceptance versus isolation d. production versus reduction 56. Identify an event that is likely to trigger a midlife crisis among middle-aged adults. a. The acquisition of a new home b. The birth of nephews and nieces c. The death of a parent or a friend d. The wedding of a grandchild 57. Kimberly is keenly observant of things around her and uses the events she witnesses to craft imaginative stories. Her writings showcase her creativity with language. According to the “big five” model of personality factors, Kimberly displays _____. a. openness to experience b. introversion c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism 58. Stressful life events a. have little effect on physical health. b. have little effect on psychological health. c. are offset by an increased sense of control. d. are important to keep people mentally alert.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 59. A factor that is a part of the five-factor personality trait theory is __________________. a. identity certainty b. generativity c. extraversion d. personal distress 60. A factor that is the most closely related to the “big five” model of personality traits is __________________. a. parenting styles b. nutritional differences c. cultural factors d. inborn temperament 61. Which of the following is true of corporate downsizing? a. It helps companies identify the most loyal workers. b. It initiates a midlife crisis on many of those who are laid off. c. It is a tactic used by companies to increase the generativity of their workers. d. It mostly affects people who are flexible about their career choices.

62. Darryl is a 43-year-old man with a large circle of friends. He loves to spend time at gatherings and parties and likes to talk about a variety of topics. He is self-assured and commanding during discussions and debates. According to the “big five” model of personality factors, Darryl displays _____. a. conscientiousness b. extraversion c. agreeableness d. neuroticism 63. Maureen is a 45-year-old woman who radiates warmth and kindness. She gets along well with everyone in the family and also has a lot of friends who trust her completely. According to the “big five” model of personality factors, Maureen displays _____. a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. neuroticism 64. Nikita is reliable, organized, and thorough with her work at the office. Based on the five-factor model of personality, she is likely to score high in _____. a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extraversion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 65. In the context of middle adulthood, generativity is defined as the ability to _____. a. reflect b. apply c. learn d. produce 66. In the context of scales used by Alyssa Zucker and her colleagues to assess development of personality in college-educated women from young adulthood through late adulthood, which of the following themes assesses the feelings of incompetence and loneliness? a. Identity certainty b. Confident power c. Personal distress d. Concern with aging 67. The empty nest syndrome a. affects middle-aged adults who separate from their spouses. b. no longer exists during middle adulthood. c. affects mothers much more than fathers. d. usually affects individuals in their late teens.

68. Van Hiel and colleagues found that those research participants who scored significantly higher in the personality variable of neuroticism had the highest level of what Erikson would call _________. a. stagnation b. awareness c. regression d. shame 69. A difference between parents and grandparents is that a. grandparents spend relatively less time in recreational activities than parents. b. grandparents spend a lower proportion of their time taking care of children while parents spend a higher proportion of their time taking care of children. c. grandparents usually bear the primary responsibility of taking care of children while parents bear the secondary responsibility of taking care of children. d. grandparents are limited socially with the arrival of grandchildren while parents have more time with the arrival of children.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 70. In the context of scales used by Alyssa Zucker and her colleagues to assess development of personality in college-educated women from young adulthood through late adulthood, which of the following themes assesses the sense of being well positioned to benefit others in their life paths? a. Identity certainty b. Confident power c. Generativity d. Concern with aging 71. Which of the following is true of people who experience a midlife crisis according to Levinson? a. People experience enhanced self-confidence and self-esteem in middle adulthood. b. People remain unaffected by marker events such as menopause or the death of a parent or a friend. c. People engage in age-denying behaviors, such as shifting careers. d. People take on additional duties such as civic responsibilities to enhance their sense of being generative.

72. According to Levinson, a 45-year-old person that got divorced, moved across town, and started dating a 20-year-old is most likely experiencing _____. a. a midlife crisis b. high generativity c. low stagnation d. the glass ceiling effect 73. Which of the following is true of the findings of cross-cultural research on grandparenting? a. Grandchildren spend more time with grandfathers than grandmothers. b. Grandchildren tend to be more involved with their mother’s parents. c. Children state they value their grandfathers less than their grandmothers. d. The sex of the grandchildren typically influences which grandparent children gravitate to.

74. The growing job satisfaction throughout middle age can be linked to factors such as ______. a. literacy and performance b. interesting work and increased autonomy c. education and moral instruction d. working hours and demands 75. A 50-year-old secretary is careless with how they prepare reports for work, frequently misfiles documents, and is often late for meetings. A secretary with these traits would most likely score low on which scale of the five-factor model of personality? a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Conscientiousness d. Neuroticism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 76. Corinne is going through a hostile divorce, and her youngest child is leaving home to start her own life. She is also facing the stressful threat of downsizing at her workplace. She blames herself for all her sorrows and sees the future as bleak and hopeless. Corinne is most likely to _______. a. experience a spike in fluid intelligence b. recover quickly from the empty nest syndrome c. learn new skills more easily than in the past d. face a host of harmful health problems 77. Which of the following is true of the “sandwich generation”? a. Sons always assume the major responsibility for caring for their parents than daughters. b. They do not help out with grandchildren. c. It consists of middle-aged children having the burden of caring for young children and aging parents. d. It occurs when parents have to care for their children and their grandchildren at the same time.

78. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development, people who are unable to have children a. have high self-esteem. b. have no alternative but to experience stagnation. c. need to find substitutes to satisfy their need for generativity. d. are better off psychologically than those who have more than two children.

79. The life-events approach to middle adulthood focuses on _______. a. various stages of life b. the particular challenges and changes that people face in this time c. the mental changes that occur due to the midlife crisis defined by Levinson d. the outcome of the glass ceiling effect on middle-aged women 80. Paulo is 45 years old and is often nervous, moody, and doesn’t take negative feedback very well. His coworkers tend to avoid him due to his behavior. Based on the five-factor model of personality, Paulo is likely to score high in _____. a. extraversion b. openness to experience c. neuroticism d. agreeableness 81. Which of the following is true of the research on the stability of the five personality factors as proposed by Costa and McCrae? a. Extraverted adults tend to become far more introverted as they get older. b. Agreeableness increases during later years. c. Neuroticism declines during middle adulthood. d. Conscientiousness tends to decrease in early and middle adulthood.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 82. Most people who change their careers do so in _________. a. adolescence b. young adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood 83. Which of the following is true of theories of development during middle adulthood? a. They debate whether or not middle adulthood is a distinct stage of life. b. They all include the concept of a midlife crisis. c. They agree that middle adulthood begins at age 35. d. They suggest that one’s age is the primary determinant of when middle adulthood begins.

84. Tyson, a 45-year-old man, is known among his colleagues for his timely and accurate work. His bosses trust him for his thoroughness and reliability. According to the “big five” model of personality factors, Tyson displays _____. a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extraversion 85. In the context of unemployment a study conducted on married women found older women were a. more likely than younger women to take a job that they did not like as long as the pay was reasonable. b. more likely to accept jobs that interfered with their home life. c. least likely to experience declines in their well-being due to unemployment than younger women. d. least likely to experience a financial strain following the loss of employment.

86. In sibling relationships during middle adulthood: a. a majority of sibling relationships get cut off in middle adulthood in the United States. b. most adult sibling relationships tend to reflect the nature of the sibling relationships in childhood. c. very few people in middle adulthood have at least one living brother or sister in the United States. d. brothers tend to have more intimate relationships than sisters.

87. Which of the following is most likely to occur after a child is “launched” into the outside world? a. Parents must prevent the last child from leaving home. b. Parents need to find a balance between staying in touch and interfering. c. Parents rarely see or talk with their children. d. Parents need to cut off financial assistance so their children become independent quickly.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 88. Cassandra got divorced, lost her job, and had to sell her home and then moved into an apartment.

She believes that these setbacks are temporary as she has the support of her family members and friends. Which of the following is most likely to occur to her? a. She is likely to be severely depressed and unable to cope as a result of her way of thinking about her life events. b. She is likely to become severely ill, which will only heighten the severity of these life events. c. She is likely to experience anxiety symptoms that will lead to thoughts of suicide. d. She is likely to manage her stress better than someone who believes this situation is out of her control.

89. Thirty-five is the age at which women who become pregnant are advised to check for chromosomal abnormalities in their _____. a. fetuses b. children c. sexual partners d. parents 90. Rachel was laid off from her job as a financial consultant. Knowing that she is 25 and married, what can be predicted about the effects of the layoff? a. She is more likely to have her sense of well-being disrupted than if she were older. b. She is less likely to have financial strain than if she were older. c. She is more likely to reject a job that interferes with her home life than if she were younger. d. She is more likely to go back to school to earn a second degree than if she were younger.

91. In the context of scales used by Alyssa Zucker and her colleagues to assess development of personality in college-educated women from young adulthood through late adulthood, which of the following themes assesses preoccupation with death? a. Identity certainty b. Confident power c. Generativity d. Concern with aging 92. Middle adulthood has been a source of stress for Mario who recently lost his parents and was fired from his job of 20 years. He rarely gets to see his children after his divorce. He believes that he has bad luck and that everything he does seems to end in a mess. Mario is most likely to ______. a. face health problems b. recover from the empty nest syndrome c. learn new skills more easily than in the past d. experience an increase in fluid and crystalline intelligences

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Chap 16_HDEV6 93. Extraversion is a factor in the “big five” model of personality that contrasts silence, passivity, and reserve with ______. a. patience, acceptance, and forgiveness b. openness, excitement, and thrill-seeking c. boredom, frustration, and stagnation d. talkativeness, assertiveness, and activity 94. Most middle-aged workers ______. a. have lesser income than during their younger years b. have more satisfaction on the job than during their younger years c. are less realistic about their careers than when they were younger d. are less happy since they realize they have not attained their lifelong dreams 95. Agreeableness is a factor in the “big five” model of personality that contrasts hostility, selfishness, and distrust with ______. a. openness, trust, and thrill-seeking b. kindness, trust, and warmth c. forgiveness, trust, and tolerance d. frustration, trust, and irritability 96. According to a study of more than 2,000 university employees, job satisfaction increased steadily throughout ______. a. emerging adulthood b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood 97. Parents are usually satisfied with their children living apart if _______. a. their children pay them daily visits b. there are frequent attempts by their children to garner financial assistance from them c. they are asked to dinner by their children on a weekly basis d. there are regular phone calls and e-mails from the children 98. A 40-year-old recently quit their job and became involved in an extramarital relationship with a much younger person. According to Levinson, they are most likely experiencing _____. a. a midlife crisis b. high generativity c. low stagnation d. the glass ceiling effect

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Chap 16_HDEV6 99. Which of the following is true of the midlife crisis according to Levinson and his colleagues? a. It is a period when the personality variable of neuroticism is at its highest in adults. b. It is a period when stagnation is at its prime. c. It is a period when many people view the future years as a second adulthood. d. It is a period when generativity is at its prime.

100. The term “boomerang generation” describes adult children who _____. a. return to their parents’ home for prolonged periods b. fail to complete higher education c. fail to find a job after high school d. enforce the same social values with their children as their parents 101. Which of the following is true of present day middle-aged women in high per capita income nations? a. They experience the empty nest syndrome as a time of great depression. b. They tire of their husbands and yearn for new, more exciting relationships. c. They see their last child moving out of the home as the end of their lives. d. They are in the workforce and find life satisfaction outside the home.

102. In a study administered by Alyssa Zucker and her colleagues to college-educated women, it was found that generativity was higher among those aged in their ______. a. 40s compared to 20s b. 20s compared to 40s c. 30s compared to 40s d. 40s compared to 30s 103. According to the Conference Board survey, what percentage of American workers are satisfied with their jobs? a. 30% b. 35% c. 45% d. 50% 104. Elise is a 42-year-old woman with lots of friends. She loves to share her thoughts and opinions with her friends.

She also enjoys a host of hobbies and activities. According to the “big five” model of personality factors, Elise displays _____. a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. neuroticism

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Chap 16_HDEV6 105. There is no room in Havighurst’s vision of normalcy for people who _______. a. are nonheterosexuals b. have children c. choose marriage d. undertake meaningful social and civic responsibilities 106. Describe career change in middle adulthood.

107. Briefly describe Daniel Levinson’s seasons.

108. Discuss how parent–child relationships evolve during middle adulthood.

109. Discuss job satisfaction among middle-aged adults.

110. Discuss sibling relationships among middle-aged adults.

111. Describe the five-factor model of personality.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 112. Discuss friendships during middle adulthood.

113. In the context of middle adulthood, discuss personality themes among college-educated women.

114. Describe the life-events approach to middle age.

115. Discuss whether middle adulthood is a crisis, a turning point, or the prime of life.

116. Give examples of cultural differences in the relationships that middle-aged children share with aging parents.

117. Discuss the shifts in personality during middle adulthood.

118. Discuss grandparenting challenges faced by middle-aged adults.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 119. Discuss how unemployment affects middle-aged adults.

120. Explain Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development with regard to middle adulthood.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. True 20. True 21. d 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. d

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Chap 16_HDEV6 27. d 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. d 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. d 52. d 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. d 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. d 77. c 78. c 79. b 80. c 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 83. a 84. a 85. d 86. b 87. b 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. d 92. a 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. d 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. d 102. a 103. c 104. c 105. a

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Chap 16_HDEV6 106. Answers will vary. People change careers for many reasons, such as more money, more job security, greater prestige, and more stimulation. Most people who change their careers do so in young adulthood. People tend to have greater responsibilities in middle adulthood and to have become more “entrenched” in their pursuits. They may also question whether they still have the time and ability to start over.

For reasons such as these, most career changes in midlife involve shifts into related fields. When middle-aged people switch jobs voluntarily and obtain better working conditions or benefits, there tend to be corresponding positive changes in their mental health. But some middle-aged people change careers following a personal crisis such as a divorce, conflict with coworkers, or being fired. In such cases, middle-aged people may pick up whatever work they can to sustain themselves—and pay a price in psychological well-being.

107. Answers will vary. According to Daniel Levinson and his colleagues, the years from 40 to 45 comprise a midlife transition a psychological shift into middle adulthood that is often accompanied by a crisis during which people fear they have more to look back upon than forward to. He termed this crisis the midlife crisis, and it is defined as a time of anxiety and self-doubt during which people sense the passing of youth and become preoccupied with their mortality. Once beset by the crisis, there may be attempts to deny aging, such as an extramarital affair to prove that we remain attractive, buying a sports car (red, of course), or shifting careers. Yet many people view the years from age 45 onward as a second adulthood, filled with opportunities for new directions and fulfillment.

108. Answers will vary. Once their children become emerging adults or young adults, most parents in the United States are content to “launch” their children to live on their own or with roommates. In many cases, the children remain at least partly financially dependent, sometimes for several years. If they have been close to their parents, they may also remain somewhat emotionally dependent once they are out on their own as well—or at the very least, it may hurt when their parents disapprove of their personal choices. Parents are usually satisfied with their children living apart if they call or e-mail regularly and drop by (or allow the parents to drop by) with some sort of reasonable frequency. Parents often try to find a balance between staying in touch and “interfering,” especially once their children have partners or children of their own.

When the children of middle-aged adults take partners or get married, new challenges can emerge. First of all, it may seem that nobody can be “good enough” for their child, but, sometimes their child does apparently make a poor choice—or at least a poor match. The parents must then deal with the issues of whether, and how, they express their feelings about it. Regardless of the partner or spouse chosen by their child, there are also in-laws and the extended family of the in-laws. Sometimes there is a good match between the families of both partners, but more often the families would not have chosen each other as friends. Still, for the sake of the children, the parents may try to act friendly when they get together. But the new relationships can be another source of stress.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. A Conference Board survey of some 5,000 households found that only 45% of American workers are satisfied with their jobs. Some 10% were unemployed, but others were unhappy with their pay, recognition, or health or retirement benefits. Job satisfaction is also associated with such factors as interesting work and the availability of child-care facilities. A study of more than 2,000 university employees found that job satisfaction increased steadily throughout middle adulthood. The gains were greatest for men, and especially for men who were white-collar workers, for example, professors. Some workers—particularly blue-collar workers—reported feelings of alienation and dissatisfaction. Some complained that supervisors treated them with disrespect and failed to ask them how to improve working conditions and productivity. These feelings are particularly painful for middle-aged workers when their supervisors are younger than they are. Women are often balancing the demands of the workplace and a family, and they may still experience a “glass ceiling” on the job. They may be sought out in the hiring process but find it difficult advance. Still, most women and blue-collar workers also reported more satisfaction on the job throughout middle age—just not as much as white-collar men. The growing job satisfaction throughout middle age can be linked to factors such as increased expertise and income. Workers in middle adulthood may also have more realistic perceptions of their career goals. But as compared to younger workers, middle-aged workers tend to see work as more central in their lives and have a stronger work ethic.

110. Answers will vary. Sibling relationships continue into late adulthood for most adults in the United States. The majority of people in middle adulthood have at least one living brother or sister. Most adult sibling relationships are close, but they tend to reflect the nature of sibling relationships in childhood. Then, too, sisters tend to have more intimate relationships than brothers. Yet, now and then sibling relationships that were antagonistic or competitive in childhood or adolescence grow closer in middle adulthood if the siblings cooperate in caring for a disabled parent. Conversely, a sibling relationship that had been close can grow distant if one sibling allows another to do all the work in caring for a parent.

111. Answers will vary. It’s easy enough to measure changes in height or in weight, but how would one measure whether people change in personality or whether they remain the same? A number of researchers have been answering this question by assessing differences over the decades in paper-and-pencil tests of five basic factors of personality— dubbed the “big five” personality traits—isolated by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa Jr. and their colleagues. These factors include extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism (emotional instability), and openness to experience (see Table 16.1). A study of more than 5,000 German, British, Spanish, Czech, and Turkish people suggests that the factors are related to people’s basic temperaments, which are considered to be largely inborn. The researchers interpret the results to suggest that our personalities tend to mature rather than be shaped by environmental conditions, although the expression of personality traits is certainly affected by culture. (For example, a person who is “basically” open to new experience is likely to behave less openly in a traditional, fundamentalist society than in an open society.) The following are five traits of the five-factor model of personality: Extraversion: Contrasts talkativeness, assertiveness, and activity with silence, passivity, and reserve.

Agreeableness: Contrasts kindness, trust, and warmth with hostility, selfishness, and distrust.

Conscientiousness: Contrasts organization, thoroughness, and reliability with carelessness, negligence, and unreliability.

Neuroticism: Contrasts nervousness, moodiness, and sensitivity to negative stimuli with coping ability.

Openness to experience: Contrasts imagination, curiosity, and creativity with shallowness and lack of perceptiveness.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 112. Answers will vary. Adolescents are often parts of cliques and crowds, and young adults often have large numbers of friends. In middle adulthood, the number of friends tends to dwindle, and couples and individuals tend to place more value on the friends they keep. In midlife, people become less willing to spend their time with “just anybody”; therefore, their remaining friends are more likely to be “close matches” in terms of interests, activities, and, often, years of mutual experience. For this reason, the loss of a friend is felt more deeply. But, as in earlier years, there are gender differences. Male friends are more likely to be competitive and less likely to be intimate than female friends. Toni Antonucci and Kira Burditt report that men are more likely than women not to have friends or other close social relationships, and that social isolation is connected with poorer physical and psychological health and with mortality. In a survey of 1,421 Detroit men ranging in age from 20 to 93, they found that men without close social ties were significantly more depressed than men with relationships.

113. Answers will vary. Abigail Stewart, Joan Ostrove, and Ravenna Helson developed scales to assess a number of personality themes among women. Alyssa Zucker and her colleagues administered these scales to three cohorts of college-educated women: women in their 20s, 40s, and 60s. Scores on three of the scales were higher for women in their 40s than women in their 20s, and then higher again for women in their 60s: identity certainty, confident power, and concern about aging. Generativity was higher in the 40s than in the 20s, but the generativity of the cohort in their 60s was much the same as for those in their 40s. Despite increasing concern with aging, personal distress was lower among older women, suggesting, perhaps, that older women are more settled. Remember, however, that these samples are of college-educated women, so they are less likely than the general population to incur certain financial and health problems in late adulthood.

114. Answers will vary. The life-events approach to middle age focuses on the particular challenges and changes that people are likely to face at this time rather than on phases or stages of life. The most stressful life events of middle adulthood include the death of a spouse or a child; the death of a parent or a sibling; marital divorce or separation, or separation from a cohabitant; hospitalization or change in the health status of oneself, one’s child, one’s parent, or sibling; the need to care for one’s parents; a change in the relationship with one’s children; financial difficulties; concern about one’s appearance, weight, or aging; moving; change or loss of employment; a change in a relationship with an important friend; or a change in responsibilities at work. One common change in middle adulthood takes place when the last child leaves home. It was once assumed that women without children in the home would experience a painful “empty nest syndrome,” but this transition is often a positive event. Today, many middle-aged women in developed nations can keep themselves “as young as they feel.” Most of them are in the workforce and find life satisfaction in activities other than child rearing and homemaking. Moreover, some children fail to leave home by 18 or 21, or—in a syndrome that has been referred to as failure to launch— even by age 30. Other adult children, because of financial problems or just for convenience, are in and out of their parents’ home in what has been dubbed the revolving door syndrome. Or, as part of the boomerang generation, they return home for prolonged periods. As sources of stress, negative life events, including physical illness and depression, have been shown to be harmful to people’s health in middle adulthood. Some stressed people resort to a host of medicines, both prescribed and over-the-counter.

Middle-aged people’s situations—such as having understanding and helpful family members or friends— and attitudes can have moderating effects on stressors. A sense of control has been shown to mitigate the effects of stress and foster feelings of well-being among midlife adults.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 115. Answers will vary. Theorists have made much of turning 35 or 40, or of entering midlife. At this age, women have also traditionally become more aware that their “biological clocks” are ticking. Today, of course, we could say that 40 or 45 is the new 30 or 35, and that most women at 35 can still safely use birth control pills. And many women do become pregnant in their late 30s and early 40s. However, careful monitoring of the fetus is usually recommended for women who become pregnant at 35 or later. With people now more likely to live into their late 70s and 80s, 40 has become a much more realistic halfway point, or turning point, than 35. It turns out, for example, that the sperm count and “swimming ability” of sperm begin to decline markedly at age 40. Daniel Levinson and his colleagues considered the transition to midlife at about the age of 40 a crisis, a midlife crisis, characterized by recognition that one has fallen short of one’s Dream or dreams. Evidence is actually mixed as to whether adults experience such losses and low points at midlife. While some theorists present portraits of middle-aged people suddenly focusing on tragedy, loss, or doom, others find people to be in or entering the “prime of life.” People can develop certain illnesses at almost any time of life, but most people in middle adulthood suffer little loss of physical prowess. Only professionals who rely on peak performance, such as athletes and dancers, will find the loss compelling enough to shuttle them in new life directions. Intellectually, moreover, there is little if any loss in fluid intelligence, and crystallized intelligence is growing—especially among professionals who are still developing skills in their fields. Middle-aged adults, especially professionals, are also often earning more money than young adults. They are more likely to be settled geographically and vocationally, although midlife career changes and relocation are certainly possibilities. By now one may have built systems of social support, be involved in enduring romantic and social relationships, and have children.

The flip side of all this may be overwhelming responsibility, such as caring for children, a spouse, aging parents, and remaining in the workplace all at once—quite a juggling act! But many in middle adulthood are at the height of their productivity and resilience, despite the challenges.

116. Answers will vary. If the aging parents require assistance, in the United States and Canada the task usually falls to a middle-aged daughter, who then becomes what has been dubbed part of the sandwich generation. She is “sandwiched” between several generations, caring for or contributing to the support of her own children at the same time she is caring for one or two parents. She may also be helping out with grandchildren. If she is fortunate, there is a sibling living in the vicinity to share the task. Given that she is also likely to be in the workforce, her role overload is multiplied.

In other societies, such as that of Hong Kong in China, however, where aging parents usually live with a son’s family, it is more often than not the son who assumes the major responsibility for caring for his parents, emotionally and financially. In this patriarchal society, the son’s priorities often run like this: first, his own children; second, his parents; third, his wife.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 117. Answers will vary. The notions of crises or turning points in emotional development also suggest that people undergo rather sudden changes or shifts in personality. As pointed out by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa Jr., it has also been widely assumed that adult life events such as getting married, working one’s way up in a vocation, and having and rearing children would deeply affect people’s personality. However, at least by middle adulthood, and during middle adulthood, research finds that the “big five” personality traits remain reasonably stable. Extraversion shows a mild gradual decline across the years of adulthood.

Agreeableness tends to increase during the later years. Conscientiousness increases dramatically from early adulthood and peaks during middle adulthood, followed by a decline during late adulthood.

Neuroticism—emotional instability—increases slightly and gradually during middle adulthood, but then levels off and declines somewhat in later adulthood. The most dramatic changes appear to be in openness to experience, which would appear to be in the province of the young. It declines strongly from young adulthood but then, like other traits, remains reasonably stable through middle adulthood until it falls off precipitously during the later years. Regardless of whether or not middle adulthood is the “prime of life,” it may well be the most stable period of life.

118. Answers will vary. One of the most challenging jobs of the newly minted grandparent is to navigate carefully between the treacherous rocks of reckless interference and painful neglect. Having and relating to grandchildren, like having and relating to one’s children, has its pluses and its minuses. But research generally finds that the balance is more positive in the case of having grandchildren. Parents spend a higher proportion of their time taking care of their children, whereas grandparents spend relatively more time in recreational and educational activities. We are speaking, of course, of situations in which the grandparents do not live in the same household with the grandchildren. Cross-cultural studies also find gender differences in grandchildren’s relationships with their grandparents that tend to parallel their relationships with their parents. Studies in the United States, Poland, Greece, Germany, and China all find that grandchildren through adolescence spend more time in activities with their grandmothers than their grandfathers. Grandchildren are also relatively more involved with their mother’s parents than their father’s. The gender of the grandchild has little effect on these overall findings. Even male grandchildren, who would toss the football back and forth with the grandfather and not the grandmother, tend to generally gravitate more toward contacts with grandmothers than with grandfathers. Despite the greater involvement with grandmothers, grandchildren say they value their grandfathers just as highly.

119. Answers will vary. Research shows that people who are involuntarily unemployed have lower physical and psychological well-being than employed subjects, and unemployed middle-aged subjects have lower wellbeing than unemployed young adults. Within the samples of unemployed middle-aged adults, those for whom work was more important, who had fewer financial resources and less social support, and who tended to blame themselves for losing their jobs fare worst. Those who had emotional and financial resources and social support, who could structure their time, and who had realistic strategies for job hunting or finding substitutes for jobs fare best.

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Chap 16_HDEV6 120. Answers will vary. Erikson believed that the major psychological challenge of the middle years is generativity versus stagnation. Generativity is the ability to generate or produce. Erikson saw psychosocial generativity as based in an instinctual drive toward procreativity—that is, bearing and rearing children. To him, the negative counterpart of generativity meant rejection or suppression of this natural drive and would lead to stagnation. He did recognize that some people could not have children of their own or that social or interpersonal conditions made it difficult for some people to bear children. Under such circumstances, substitutes might work for the individual. For example, a person or couple without children (or even with children) might contribute to the teaching or welfare of other people’s children, or might make things of lasting value such as objects of art, or might contribute to charity or to civic works.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Programmed theories see aging as a result of genetic instructions. a. True b. False 2. The three major causes of death of Americans age 65 and older are heart disease, cancer, and respiratory diseases. a. True b. False 3. People whose diets are rich in antioxidants may be less likely to develop heart disease. a. True b. False 4. Prospective memory helps us retrieve information from the past. a. True b. False 5. In normal aging, physiological processes decline slowly with age and the person is able to enjoy many years of health and vitality into late adulthood. a. True b. False 6. Aging has a more detrimental effect on associative memory than on memory for single items. a. True b. False 7. Chronic alcoholism has no impact on the development of dementia. a. True b. False 8. Even if fluid intelligence remained intact, retrospective memory might decline. a. True b. False 9. Men with enlarged prostate glands are more likely to have uninterrupted sleep at night. a. True b. False 10. Immunological theory is a cellular damage theory of aging. a. True b. False

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Chap_17__HDEV6 11. An older male may enjoy orgasm as thoroughly as he did at a younger age. a. True b. False 12. Today, older people are at a higher risk of dying from chronic diseases than from infectious diseases. a. True b. False 13. The frontal regions of the brain constitute the executive center of the brain. a. True b. False 14. Osteoarthritis is a painful, degenerative disease characterized by wear and tear on joints. a. True b. False 15. Free radicals are unstable molecules that cause damage to cells. a. True b. False 16. Following the decline in bone density in late adulthood, men stand about twice the risk of hip fractures and about eight times the risk of spine fractures that women do. a. True b. False 17. Ageism refers to prejudices held against people because of their age. a. True b. False 18. One’s life expectancy refers to the length of time a person in a given population group can expect to live. a. True b. False 19. Medicines greatly improve memory functions in people with Alzheimer’s disease, and their effects are far-reaching. a. True b. False 20. Rampant diseases such as German measles, smallpox, polio, and diphtheria contribute to low lifeexpectancy rates today. a. True b. False

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Chap_17__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. The risk of osteoporosis in men is lower because of ________________________. a. larger bone mass b. sedentary lifestyles c. high levels of testosterone d. tough connective tissues 22. Blaine, an overweight 70-year-old male, has painful joints. The bones of his knees and hips grind together, causing pain. He takes over-the-counter anti-inflammatory drugs prescribed by his physician to relieve the discomfort. Blaine is most likely experiencing _____. a. osteoarthritis b. tuberculosis c. diabetes mellitus d. chronic bronchitis 23. Following menopause, women also produce ______. a. more estrogen every month b. more vaginal lubrication c. less vaginal lubrication d. less estrogen every month 24. Brain infections such as meningitis, HIV, and encephalitis; chronic alcoholism, strokes, and tumors are some of the causes of _____. a. diabetes b. tuberculosis c. dementia d. diphtheria 25. Which of the following statements is true of rheumatoid arthritis? a. It affects the entire body. b. It does not affect the bones and cartilage. c. It is characterized by wear and tear on joints. d. It is a hereditary congenital disorder.

26. Age-related degenerative changes in the ear are a major cause of ______. a. glaucoma b. presbycusis c. ear infections d. radial swelling

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Chap_17__HDEV6 27. Each time human cells divide, telomeres _____. a. shrink b. lengthen c. broaden d. halve 28. Immunological theories of aging argue that the immune system is______. a. preset to decline by an internal biological clock b. preset to grow by an internal biological clock c. capable of refreshing itself as a result of positive lifestyle changes d. capable of responding to infections independent of a person’s age 29. Medicaid is a federal program that _______. a. regulates health-care costs for all uninsured tourists visiting the United States b. fully covers health-care costs of terminally ill cancer patients among older adults in the United States c. funds reproductive health care for female citizens of all ages in the United States d. covers a portion of the health-care costs of people of all ages who are unable to afford coverage 30. Muira, a 70-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a progressive brain disease that makes it difficult for her to manage daily tasks such as selecting clothes, recalling names and addresses, and driving. She becomes confused and gets lost in streets and stores. She also has paranoid delusions.

Muira is most likely diagnosed with _____. a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Crohn’s disease c. German measles d. Asperger’s syndrome 31. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of ______. a. dementia b. schizophrenia c. autism d. cerebral palsy

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Chap_17__HDEV6 32. Who among the following is most likely to be experiencing sleep apnea? a. Nia, who occasionally wakes up from sleep gasping for breath due to a temporary suspension of breathing b. Sam, who sometimes walks around while still asleep without being consciously aware of doing so c. Beth, who has difficulty falling asleep, wakes up quite often during the night, and has trouble going back to sleep d. Zene, who consistently feels drowsy all day and tends to sleep a lot 33. One of the reasons that there is a gap of about five years between the life expectancies of men and women is that a. men are reluctant to have regular physical checkups or talk to doctors. b. women are more likely to indulge in drinking, smoking, and risky sex. c. estrogen and progesterone make women vulnerable to heart disease. d. men are less likely to die from accidents and reckless behavior.

34. Cataracts are most often characterized by______. a. near-sightedness b. clouding of the lens of the eye c. sensitivity to light d. fluid pressure inside the eye 35. Osteoporosis is characterized by ______. a. toughening of tissues b. inflammation of joints c. infection of bone marrow d. brittleness of bones 36. A factor that may compensate for reduced physical responses during sexual activity among older people is a. paler and thinner vaginas b. unreasonable expectations c. guilt about sexual urges d. years of sexual experience 37. Cataracts are often caused by _____. a. reduced sensitivity in the ocular nerves b. chemical changes related to aging c. wear in the muscles of the eyes d. the breakdown of the immune system

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Chap_17__HDEV6 38. Dementia is a condition characterized by _______. a. temporary suspension of breathing while sleeping b. pain and stiffness of the joints c. sudden loss of vision and hearing ability d. dramatic deterioration of mental abilities 39. In the context of age-related changes in men and women, it is true that a. hearing ability tends to decline more quickly in women than in men. b. men are more likely than women to die from liver cirrhosis and strokes. c. heart disease typically develops later in life in men than in women. d. arthritis is more common in men than women among Black Americans.

40. The prejudices that people experience because of their age is called _______. a. age validation b. age discrimination c. age toxicity d. ageism 41. Which of the following statements about arthritis is true? a. Arthritis is less common in Black Americans than European Americans. b. Arthritis is more common in females than males. c. Children are unlikely to be affected by arthritis. d. The risk of arthritis tends to be highest in adolescence.

42. A form of memory that is likely to be helpful in developing sight vocabulary is a. sensory memory. b. associative memory. c. prospective memory. d. echoic memory.

43. Identify a correct statement about glaucoma. a. Glaucoma shortens one’s stature by inches. b. Glaucoma rarely occurs before age 40. c. Glaucoma cannot be treated either by surgery or medication. d. Glaucoma causes curvature of the spine.

44. Sleep problems in late adulthood _______. a. occur in just a small percentage of individuals b. are unlikely to be linked to chronic illnesses c. may symptomize psychological disorders d. do not involve physical changes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 45. A 78-year-old person’s eyesight has reduced due to the clouding of the lens of the eyes. In this scenario, which of the following disorders has this person developed? a. Glaucoma b. Cataracts c. Myopia d. Nystagmus 46. Diabetes tends to increase the risk of developing ______. a. astigmatism b. cataracts c. glaucoma d. myopia 47. A result of the stiffening of collagen is a. brittle bones b. coarse and dry skin c. an increase in vaginal lubrication d. memory loss 48. Which of the following statements is true of long-term memory? a. It has no known limits. b. It is not subject to distortion. c. It is not subject to bias. d. It is not subject to decay.

49. What is Medicare? a. It is a federal program that regulates health-care costs for all uninsured Americans. b. It is a federal program that fully covers health-care costs of terminally ill older adults in America. c. It is a federal program that partially funds health care for older Americans and people that are experiencing a disability. d. It is a federal program that covers a portion of the health-care costs of people of all ages who are otherwise unable to afford coverage.

50. Mark has severe pain in his knees due to an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the joints.

He finds it extremely painful to walk. If Mark’s condition is due to his tissues being attacked by his body’s immune system, he is experiencing______. a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoarthritis c. septic arthritis d. psoriatic arthritis

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Chap_17__HDEV6 51. Antioxidants delay aging by _______. a. disarming free radicals b. enabling cross-linking of cell proteins c. lengthening telomeres d. regulating hormone levels in the body 52. Genetic programming plays a major role in determining a species’ _____. a. life expectancy b. mortality c. life span d. resilience 53. To prepare the students for an examination, a teacher made them recite the names of all the continents thrice before beginning her lessons every day. At the end of three weeks of this exercise, every student could recollect the names of continents. This example demonstrates the concept of _______. a. explicit memory b. implicit memory c. episodic memory d. haptic memory 54. A 75-year-old person repeatedly wakes up during the night gasping for breath. This happens because they stop breathing while they’re asleep. This person is most likely experiencing _______. a. sleep apnea b. astigmatism c. sleepwalking d. lung collapse 55. A physical change in late adulthood that affects the sexual behavior of older individuals is that a. the vaginal opening in females tends to expand. b. older males ejaculate more easily as they age. c. erections tend to become less firm for older males. d. nocturnal erections disappear altogether for older males.

56. Programmed theories of aging tend to see aging as a result of _____. a. social learning b. dietary factors c. cellular damage d. genetic instructions

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Chap_17__HDEV6 57. Today, the average American newborn female can expect to live about _____. a. 71 years b. 77 years c. 82 years d. 88 years 58. In the context of the effects of aging on men and women, which of the following statements is true? a. The risk of developing heart disease early is higher in women than in men. b. Age-related changes tend to occur more gradually in women than in men. c. Arthritis is more common in men than in women. d. Osteoporosis poses a greater threat to women than to men.

59. To be a “superager,” it is recommended that older people _____. a. exercise regularly to thing the cerebral cortex b. invest themselves in physical activities c. reduce cognitive effort to improve the functioning of associative neurons d. do not “push through” when feeling fatigued or stymied 60. An 80-year-old person’s acuteness of hearing has dramatically decreased over the last decade. This indicates that the person has most likely developed _______. a. presbyopia b. retinitis c. glaucoma d. presbycusis 61. Nocturnal erections in late adulthood _______. a. increase in frequency b. indicate an abnormal enlargement of the prostate gland c. disappear as part of the normal aging process d. diminish in intensity and duration 62. Which of the following statements is true in the context of cognitive development in older adults? a. Aging is unlikely to affect the processing speed of individuals. b. Aging has little effect on the retrospective memory of individuals. c. Aging tends to affect explicit memory more than implicit memory. d. Aging has a more detrimental effect on memory for single items than on associative memory.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 63. Implicit memory is associated with the ability to _______. a. visually associate people with their names b. automatically recall things learned by repetition c. remember past incidents and general knowledge d. recollect our plans for the future 64. Regarding bone fractures, is true that they a. pose a greater threat to men than to women due to the poor bone density of men. b. are characteristics of the normal aging process. c. are more common among women after menopause than among young women. d. pose a greater threat to those who engage in walking as a regular exercise than those who do not.

65. In the context of long-term memory, it’s true that it is a. inherently limited. b. subject to distortion. c. not subject to bias. d. unaffected by aging.

66. Joint inflammation that results from conditions affecting the structures inside and surrounding the joints is called ______. a. dermatitis b. osteoporosis c. atrophy d. arthritis 67. In the context of cognitive development in older adults, which of the following statements is true? a. Age-related declines in fluid intelligence have important effects on retrospective memory. b. The processing speed of older adults has no effect on retrospective memory. c. The working memories of older adults hold more information simultaneously than the working memories of young adults. d. Older adults tend to do nearly as well as young adults in tasks that assess explicit memory.

68. In the context of aging, it is true that a. elevated levels of stress hormones make the body vulnerable to chronic diseases. b. the stretching of telomeres with each cell division limits the number of times a cell can divide. c. the stiffening of body tissues retards the process of aging. d. elevated levels of free radicals in the body lower the risk of developing heart disease.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 69. The frontal regions of the brain are involved in _______. a. performing reflex actions b. binding elements to form memory traces c. directing one’s attention d. recovering information in response to the use of proper memory cues 70. A commonly used treatment for rheumatoid arthritis is a. anti-inflammatory drugs. b. insulin. c. tranquilizers. d. hormone therapy.

71. The medial temporal lobe is responsible for ________. a. organizing information and strategic processes b. directing one’s attention c. binding elements to form memory traces d. managing automatic functions, such as reflexes like breathing 72. Elinor is a 78-year-old woman experiencing difficulty in hearing voices and sounds. Her hearing abilities were fine until her fifties, and have been steadily declining since then. Elinor is most likely experiencing _____. a. presbyopia b. retinitis c. presbycusis d. glaucoma 73. Studies showing that longevity tends to run in families validate _______. a. maintenance theories of aging b. error theories of aging c. programmed theories of aging d. cellular damage theories of aging 74. A result of the cross-linking of cell proteins is a. a stiffening of collagen b. the production of antioxidants c. soft and supple skin d. the loss of bone calcium

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Chap_17__HDEV6 75. Many of the physical changes in older women that are characteristic of normal aging can be attributed to a decline in _____. a. estrogen production b. cortisol production c. androgen production d. testosterone production 76. The joints most commonly affected by osteoarthritis are in the ______. a. elbows b. knees c. hands d. upper back 77. Which of the following theories is a cellular damage theory of aging? a. The telomere theory b. The endocrine theory c. The wear-and-tear theory d. The immunological theory 78. A leading cause of death among adults over the age of 85 in America is a. cirrhosis of the liver. b. HIV/AIDS. c. stroke. d. heart disease.

79. Age-related decline in reading comprehension is related to ________. a. a distortion or decay of long-term memory b. a decrease in the scope of working memory c. an increase in the associative ability and associative memory d. an increase in the processing speed 80. The ability to recall the order in which events have occurred can be attributed to _______. a. temporal memory b. sensory memory c. prospective memory d. implicit memory

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Chap_17__HDEV6 81. In the context of the physical changes in older females, which of the following statements is true? a. There tends to be an increase in vaginal lubrication. b. There tends to be an increase in the production of estrogen. c. The vagina and the vaginal opening tend to shrink in size. d. The labia majora tend to thicken due to increased fatty deposits.

82. Identify a reason there is a difference in the life expectancy of men and women. a. Men are less likely to die from accidents, cirrhosis of the liver, strokes, homicide, HIV/AIDS, and cancer. b. Heart disease typically develops later in men as compared to women due to the presence of estrogen. c. Men indulge in unhealthful habits that are more typical of them, such as drinking, reckless behavior, and smoking. d. Women tend to avoid medical attention until preventable or treatable problems become lifethreatening.

83. In the context of handling interpersonal conflicts, older adults are more likely than young adults to _______. a. solve the problem b. express their frustration c. seek support from others d. remain unperturbed 84. Which of the following statements is true of life expectancy? a. Environmental factors do not affect the life expectancy of an individual. b. Life expectancy tends to be the same for both male and female members of a given population. c. Differences in geographic location are unlikely to affect the life expectancy of members of a species. d. Life expectancy tends to differ according to health-related behavior patterns.

85. According to a study, age-related decline in prospective memory is greatest when ________. a. attention paid to the impending task is high b. distractibility is low c. the cues are conspicuous d. the task to be completed is not crucial 86. Older adults are more likely to be intoxicated by alcohol consumption compared to younger adults due to ______. a. the slowdown in the metabolic rate of older adults b. the low level of free radical content in the body of older adults c. the increase in the processing speed of older adults d. the increase in antibodies secreted by the endocrine system of older adults Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 87. Autobiographical memory is a type of _______. a. explicit memory b. implicit memory c. prospective memory d. procedural memory 88. A 75-year-old person has developed a brain condition that makes it difficult for them to manage daily tasks. They fail to speak in full sentences and do not recognize friends. They also experiences hallucinations. This person is most likely experiencing _____. a. Crohn’s disease b. Alzheimer’s disease c. German measles d. Asperger’s syndrome 89. In the context of programmed theories of aging, which of the following is likely to determine the number of times a cell can divide and survive? a. The free radical content in the body b. The length of telomeres for a species c. The extent of cross-linking d. The extent of wear-and-tear of the body through use 90. In the context of cognitive development in older adults, it is true that a. age-related declines in the working memory of older adults do not affect their retrospective memory. b. older adults tend to do nearly as well as young adults in tasks that assess explicit memory. c. even if fluid intelligence remained intact, prospective memory of older adults might decline. d. age-related decline in prospective memory is greatest when the task to be completed is crucial.

91. Today, the average American newborn male can expect to live about _____. a. 71 years b. 77 years c. 82 years d. 88 years 92. It is true that free radicals a. are produced during metabolism by oxidation. b. elongate telomeres. c. loosen body proteins and tissues. d. accelerate the secretion of enzymes by the endocrine system.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 93. Cross-linking theory attributes the effects of aging to the _______. a. influence of social factors b. stiffening of body proteins c. breakdown of immune functioning d. reduction in nerve sensitivity and responsiveness 94. The buildup of fluid pressure inside the eyeball is the main feature of ______. a. cataracts b. myopia c. glaucoma d. blindness 95. Research studies have shown the existence of age-related cognitive changes in late adulthood.

Which of the following statements supports this claim? a. Although older adults usually do not fare as well as younger adults in tasks that measure implicit memory, they tend to do nearly as well as young adults in tasks that assess explicit memory. b. If fluid intelligence remains intact, prospective memory of older adults does not decline. c. Older adults show a gradual decline in their expressive vocabularies despite retaining their receptive vocabularies. d. When older adults encounter interpersonal conflicts, they are relatively more likely than young adults to express frustration and to seek support from other people.

96. Which of the following factors might help older women reduce the risk of hip fractures? a. A no-dairy diet intake b. High-intensity cardio workouts c. A high-protein diet intake d. Walking as regular exercise 97. A condition that is most likely to cause tunnel vision is ___________. a. hypermetropia b. cataracts c. glaucoma d. astigmatism 98. Males with enlarged prostate glands commonly need to _____. a. take estrogen replacement hormones b. urinate during the night c. urinate before eating d. avoid all sexual activity

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Chap_17__HDEV6 99. A factor that renders the aging human body less able to fight off infections is a decline in a. prospective memory b. the production of antibodies c. the production of fertile ova d. associative memory 100. It is the length of time one can live under the best of circumstances best describes _____. a. life span b. life expectancy c. mortality d. resilience 101. Discuss the perception of wisdom in older adults.

102. Discuss abstract problem-solving ability among people in the late adulthood phase of life.

103. How does psychologist Lynn Hasher associate the distractibility of older adults with their wisdom?

104. What are the common changes observed in people who suffer from Alzheimer’s disease (AD)?

105. In the context of late adulthood, discuss gender differences in life expectancy.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 106. Is substance abuse by adults a major problem in America?

107. Discuss changes in prospective memory in the late adulthood phase of life.

108. Discuss changes in sensory functioning in the late adulthood phase of life.

109. Discuss changes in bone density in the late adulthood phase of life.

110. Discuss the occurrence and reasons of arthritis among late adults.

111. Discuss the incidents and reasons behind accidents among late adults.

112. Discuss changes in associative memory in the late adulthood phase of life.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 113. Discuss changes in language development in the late adulthood phase of life.

114. In the context of late adulthood, discuss life expectancy in the United States.

115. Discuss long-term memory in late adulthood. Do adults recall all their life events with the same intensity?

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Chap_17__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. False 20. False 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. b

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Chap_17__HDEV6 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 55. c 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. b 60. d 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. a 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. c 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. a 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 83. d 84. d 85. d 86. a 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. c 96. d 97. c 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. Answers will vary. We associate age with wisdom. Among the numerous cognitive hazards of aging, older people tend to be more distractible than young adults. Developmental psychologist Lynn Hasher suggests that distractibility can enable older adults to take a broader view of various situations: Shifting one’s attention from item to item “may enable older adults to ultimately know more about a situation and…what’s going on than their younger peers. [This] characteristic may play a significant role in why we think of older people as wiser.” Kunzmann and Baltes note that wise people approach life’s problems in a way that addresses the meaning of life. They consider not only the present, but also the past and the future, as well as the contexts in which the problems arise. They tend to be tolerant of other people’s value systems and to acknowledge that there are uncertainties in life and that one can only attempt to find workable solutions in an imperfect world. Ardelt adds emotional and philosophical dimensions to the definition of wisdom. She suggests that wise people tend to possess an unselfish love for others and tend to be less afraid of death.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 102. Answers will vary. Research suggests that for the vast majority of older adults, abstract problem-solving ability, as in complex math problems, is not related to their quality of life. “Real-world” or everyday problem-solving skills are usually of greater concern. Moreover, when older adults encounter interpersonal conflicts, they tend to regulate their emotional responses differently from young and middle-aged adults.

Whereas the younger groups are relatively more likely to express feelings of anger or frustration, to seek support from other people, or to solve interpersonal problems, the older adults are more likely to focus on remaining calm and unperturbed. The difference appears to be partially due to older adults’ decreased tendency to express anger and increased priority on regulating emotion.

103. Answers will vary. Developmental psychologist Lynn Hasher suggests that distractibility can enable older adults to take a broader view of various situations. He suggests that shifting one’s attention from item to item may enable older adults to ultimately know more about a situation and what’s going on than their younger peers, and that this characteristic may play a significant role in why we think of older people as wiser.

104. Answers will vary. Alzheimer’s disease (AD) progresses in several stages. At first there are subtle cognitive and personality changes in which people with AD have trouble managing finances and recalling recent events. As AD progresses, people find it harder to manage daily tasks, select clothes, recall names and addresses, and drive. Later, they have trouble using the bathroom and maintaining hygiene.

They no longer recognize family and friends or speak in full sentences. They may become restless, agitated, confused, and aggressive. They may get lost in stores, parking lots, even their own homes. They may experience hallucinations or paranoid delusions, believing that others are attempting to harm them.

People with AD may eventually become unable to walk or communicate and become completely dependent on others.

105. Answers will vary. Although the longevity gap between men and women is narrowing, life expectancy among men trails that among women by about five years. Why the gap? For one thing, heart disease typically develops later in life in women than in men, as estrogen provides women some protection against heart disease. Also, men are more likely to die from accidents, cirrhosis of the liver, strokes, suicide, homicide, HIV/AIDS, and some forms of cancer. Many of these causes of death reflect unhealthful habits that are more typical of men, such as drinking, reckless behavior, and smoking. Many men are also reluctant to have regular physical examinations or to talk over health problems with their doctors. Many men avoid medical attention until problems that could have been easily prevented or treated become serious or life threatening. For example, women are more likely to examine themselves for signs of breast cancer than men are to examine their testicles for unusual lumps.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 106. Answers will vary. It is not true that substance abuse is rare in late adulthood, but the motives for use among older adults differ from those we find among teenagers and early adults. Abuse or misuse of medication (prescription and over-the-counter drugs), much of which is unintentional, poses a serious health threat to older Americans. Forty percent of prescription drugs in the United States are taken by people aged 60 and older, and more than half of them take two to five medications daily. Among the most commonly used drugs are blood pressure medication, tranquilizers, sleeping pills, and antidepressants. Taken correctly, prescription drugs can be of help. If used incorrectly, they can be harmful.

Millions of older adults are addicted to, or risk becoming addicted to, prescription drugs, especially tranquilizers.

About a quarter of a million older adults are hospitalized each year because of adverse drug reactions. Reasons include the following: 1. The dosage of drugs is too high. Because bodily functions slow with age (such as the ability of the liver and kidneys to clear drugs out of the body), the same amount of drug can have stronger effects and last longer in older people.

2. Some people may misunderstand directions or be unable to keep track of their usage.

3. Many older persons have more than one doctor, and treatment plans may not be coordinated.

107. Answers will vary. Prospective memory aids us in remembering things we have planned to do in the future, despite the passage of time and despite the occurrence of interfering events. A Swiss study examined the relationships between processing speed, working memory (the amount of information a person can keep in mind at once), prospective memory, and retrospective memory among 361 people between the ages of 65 and 80. It was found that age-related declines in processing speed and working memory—aspects of fluid intelligence—had important effects on retrospective memory. However, there were age-related declines in prospective memory that appeared to be independent of processing speed and working memory. In other words, even if fluid intelligence remained intact, prospective memory might decline, suggestive of powerful roles for attention and distractibility. Another study found that the age-related decline in prospective memory is greatest when the task to be completed is not crucial and the cues used to jog the memory are not very prominent. When the task is important and older adults use conspicuous cues to remind them, age-related declines in prospective memory tend to disappear. However, the adults have to be cognitively intact enough to plan the strategy.

108. Answers will vary. Beginning in middle age, the lenses of the eyes become stiffer, leading to presbyopia, as discussed in Chapter 15. Chemical changes of aging can lead to vision disorders such as cataracts and glaucoma. Cataracts cloud the lenses of the eyes, reducing vision. Today, outpatient surgery for correcting cataracts is routine. If performed before the condition progresses too far, the outcome for regained sight is excellent. Glaucoma is a buildup of fluid pressure inside the eyeball. Glaucoma can lead to tunnel vision (lack of peripheral vision) or blindness. Glaucoma rarely occurs before age 40, and affects about 1 in 250 people over the age of 40, and 1 in 25 people over 80. Rates are higher among African Americans than European Americans, and among diabetics than nondiabetics. Glaucoma is treated with medication or surgery. The sense of hearing, especially the ability to hear higher frequencies, also declines with age. Presbycusis is age-related hearing loss that affects about 1 person in 3 over the age of 65. Hearing ability tends to decline more quickly in men than in women. Hearing aids magnify sound and can compensate for hearing loss. Taste and smell become less acute as we age. Our sense of smell decreases almost ninefold from youth to advanced late adulthood. We also lose taste buds in the tongue with aging. As a result, foods must be more strongly spiced to yield the same flavor.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. Bones begin to lose density in middle adulthood, becoming more brittle and vulnerable to fracture.

Bones in the spine, hip, thigh, and forearm lose the most density as we age. Osteoporosis is a disorder in which bones lose so much calcium that they become dangerously prone to breakage. Osteoporosis results in more than one million bone fractures a year in the United States, the most serious of which are hip fractures (that is, breaks in the thigh bone, just below the hip joint). Hip fractures often result in hospitalization, loss of mobility, and, in people in advanced late adulthood, even death from complications.

Osteoporosis can shorten one’s stature by inches and deform one’s posture, causing the curvature in the spine known as “dowager’s hump.” Both men and women are at risk of osteoporosis, but it poses a greater threat to women. Men typically have a larger bone mass, which provides them with more protection against the disorder.

Following the decline in bone density that women experience after menopause, women stand about twice the risk of hip fractures and about eight times the risk of spine fractures that men do. But older women who engage in walking as a form of regular exercise are less likely than their sedentary counterparts to suffer hip fractures.

110. Answers will vary. Arthritis is joint inflammation that results from conditions affecting the structures inside and surrounding the joints. Symptoms progress from swelling, pain, and stiffness to loss of function.

Children can also be affected by arthritis, but it is more common with advancing age. Arthritis is more common in women than men and in African Americans than European Americans. Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are the two most common forms of arthritis. Osteoarthritis is a painful, degenerative disease characterized by wear and tear on joints. By the age of 60, more than half of Americans show some signs of the disease. Among people over the age of 65, two of three have the disease. The joints most commonly affected are in the knees, hips, fingers, neck, and lower back. Osteoarthritis is caused by erosion of cartilage, the pads of fibrous tissue that cushion the ends of bones. As cartilage wears down, bones grind together, causing pain. Osteoarthritis is more common among obese people because excess weight adds to the load on the hip and knee joints. Health professionals use over-the-counter antiinflammatory drugs (aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen, naproxen) and prescription anti-inflammatory drugs to help relieve pain and discomfort. In severe cases, joint replacement surgery may be needed.

Specific exercises are also sometimes prescribed. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by chronic inflammation of the membranes that line the joints because the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues. The condition affects the entire body. It can produce unrelenting pain and eventually lead to severe disability. Bones and cartilage may also be affected. Onset of the disease usually occurs between the ages of 40 and 60. Anti-inflammatory drugs are used to treat it.

111. Answers will vary. Though accidents can occur at any age, older people face greater risks of unintentional injuries from falls, motor vehicle accidents, residential fires, and nonfatal poisoning. Accidents are the ninth leading cause of death among older Americans. Falls are especially dangerous for older adults with osteoporosis because of the increased risks of fractures. Many accidents involving older adults could be prevented by equipping the home with safety features such as railings and nonskid floors. Wearing proper glasses and using hearing aids can reduce the risk of accidents resulting from vision or hearing problems, including many motor vehicle accidents. Adherence to safe driving speeds is especially important among older drivers because they have slower reaction times than do younger drivers.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 112. Answers will vary. We use associative learning, and associative memory, to remember that the written letter A has the sound of an A. We also use associative memory to develop a sight vocabulary; that is, we associate the written word “the” with the sound of the word; we do not decode it as we read. In these cases, we usually learn by rote rehearsal, or repetition. But we also often use elaborative rehearsal, which is a more complex strategy that makes learning meaningful, to retrieve the associated spellings for spoken words. It turns out that aging has a more detrimental effect on associative memory than on memory for single items. For example, older adults have greater difficulty discriminating between new and already experienced combinations of items on an associative recognition task—that is, recognizing pairs of words that have been presented before—than between new and already experienced single items on an item recognition task. Various possibilities have been hypothesized to explain the age-related deficit in associative memory. One is an impairment in the initial binding or learning phase of individual pieces of information when the individual is attempting to encode them. According to the binding hypothesis, older adults are impaired primarily in associating items with one another, but not in remembering individual items. A second hypothesis states that the specific impairment is in recollection when the individual attempts to retrieve the information, which may reflect poor binding during encoding, poor use of strategic processes during retrieval, or both. Research by Melanie Cohn and her colleagues suggests that impairments in associative memory among older adults represent problems in binding information, recollection, and use of effective strategies for retrieval (such as creating sentences that use both members of a pair of words as they are presented). For example, if one member of a pair is “man” and another is “cigarette,” an elaborative strategy for recollecting the pair could be to rapidly construct the sentence, “The man refuses to smoke a cigarette.” Cohn and her colleagues believe that these cognitive developments “are consistent with neurobiological models” of memory that focus on the frontal and medial temporal lobes of the brain. The frontal regions—the executive center of the brain—are involved in directing one’s attention and organizing information and strategic processes. The medial temporal lobe binds elements to form memory traces, recovers information in response to use of proper memory cues, and is therefore a key to recollection. Neurological research shows that deterioration is evident in aging in the frontal lobes and to a lesser degree in the medial temporal lobe, thus logically impairing binding, recollection, and the use of effective strategies for the retrieval of information.

113. Answers will vary. People aged 75 and above tend to show a decline in reading comprehension that is related to a decrease in the scope of working memory. Because of the decline in working memory and because of impairments in hearing, many older adults find it more difficult to understand the spoken language. However, when the speaker slows down and articulates more clearly, comprehension increases. Older adults may also show deficiencies in language production. Although they may retain their receptive vocabularies, they often show a gradual decline in their expressive vocabularies—that is, the number of words they produce. It appears that declines in associative memory and working memory decrease the likelihood that words will ’be there” when older people try to summon up ideas. Similarly, older people are more likely to experience the frustrating “tip-of-the-tongue” phenomenon, in which they are certain that they know a word but temporarily cannot produce it.

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Chap_17__HDEV6 114. Answers will vary. Today, the average American newborn female can expect to live about 82 years, and the average American newborn male can expect to live about 77 years. However, there are important differences in life expectancy according to gender, race, geographic location, and health-related behavior patterns. For example, the life expectancy for an Asian American woman living in an upscale county is in the upper 80s. The life expectancy for a male living in an urban environment with a high risk of homicide is in the 60s. In the case of groups that run a high risk of homicide, the ages at death of those who die in their teens and 20s are averaged in with those who live into their 70s, 80s, or 90s, bringing down the overall average for the group. As possibly expected, Americans who have greater access to health care live longer. Lower life expectancies are also commonly due to chronic illnesses such as diabetes and lung cancer for women, and HIV/AIDS for men. The behaviors associated with these deaths are smoking, overeating, injecting illicit drugs, and risky sex.

115. Answers will vary. Long-term memory has no known inherent limits. Memories may reside there for a lifetime, to be recalled with the proper cues. But long-term memories are also subject to distortion, bias, and even decay. Research indicates that older adults tend to recall events from the second and third decades of life in greatest detail and with the most emotional intensity. These include early romances (or their absence), high school days, music groups and public figures, sports heroes, “life dreams,” and early disappointments. Many psychologists look to psychological explanations for these findings, and, considering “coming of age” and the development of “identity” are common characteristics of the second and third decades of life. It needs to be noted that sex hormones also have their strongest effects in adolescence and early adulthood, and the secretion of these hormones is connected with the release of neurotransmitters that are involved in memory formation.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The pessimistic attitude of successful agers may be derived from transcendence of the ego. a. True b. False 2. Ego integrity derives from the acceptance of one’s life span being limited and occurring at a certain point in the sweep of history. a. True b. False 3. Self-esteem in late adulthood is tied into independence and dependence. a. True b. False 4. Selective optimization with compensation causes older people to minimize their gains while maximizing their losses. a. True b. False 5. Research shows that physical activity is associated with a higher mortality rate in late adulthood. a. True b. False 6. Older people’s perceived limitation on future time reduces their appreciation for life. a. True b. False 7. Successful aging focuses on maximizing one’s life experiences at any age. a. True b. False 8. It is normal for older people to be depressed when their friends and partners are dying. a. True b. False 9. Most retirees report that their well-being has increased a year after they have retired. a. True b. False 10. Older males are less accepting of the shortcomings of their bodies than younger males. a. True b. False

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Chap_18__HDEV6 11. Gay men and lesbians in long-term partnerships tend to enjoy higher self-esteem, less depression, fewer suicidal urges, and less alcohol and drug abuse. a. True b. False 12. The basic challenge in the crisis of ego integrity versus despair is to cultivate positive social relationships. a. True b. False 13. Similarity in personality may work against married couples during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 14. The physical aspects of aging can force changes in the choice of activities after retirement and improve the level of satisfaction gotten from them. a. True b. False 15. Among older couples, if each partner has a distinct area of expertise, there is a reduced likelihood of clashes. a. True b. False 16. Phobic disorders are characterized by recurrent experiencing of attacks of extreme anxiety in the absence of external stimuli that usually evoke anxiety. a. True b. False 17. Depression may be overlooked because its symptoms are masked by emotional complaints. a. True b. False 18. According to Butler (2002), drugs are over-relied upon in easing the discomforts of older adults. a. True b. False 19. People aged 80 and older are significantly less likely to be aggressed against with violence than people in other age groups. a. True b. False 20. Similar to professional activities, leisure activities contribute much to the self-acceptance of retirees. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Religion involves beliefs and practices centered on claims about the nature of reality and _____. a. self-reflection b. consumerism c. social dominance d. moral behavior 22. Active religious involvement in late adulthood ______. a. reduces opportunities for social interactions b. ensures longevity c. is linked to life satisfaction d. is unlikely to help achieve ego integrity 23. Identify a concern for older adults living in urban areas. a. Cultural traditions and myths b. Changes in family composition c. Increased public education costs d. Exposure to crimes of violence 24. Of Robert Peck’s developmental tasks, body transcendence versus body preoccupation lays emphasis on coming to terms with inevitable physical decline by placing more value on ______. a. cognitive activities and social relationships b. behaviors and self-reflection c. ego identification and social norms d. somatic representation and emotional content 25. Helena, a 70-year-old woman, is going through gradual age-related physical decline. She has accepted these changes as unavoidable. To make up for the losses in physical capabilities, Helena focuses on honing her mental skills. She is reviving her hobbies of fishing and dog training. Helena’s scenario illustrates _____. a. an incoherent and self-contradictory life review b. ego preoccupation and body preoccupation c. body transcendence versus body preoccupation d. withdrawal from society by the aging individual 26. What term is used to describe people who retire continue to work for the same employer with a reduced workload or obtain new employment, possibly part-time? a. Employment stability b. Continuing employment c. Bridge employment d. Employment recidivism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 27. Which of the following allows older adults to reshape their lives to maximize their gains while minimizing their losses? a. Ego transcendence b. Ego identity achievement c. Identity diffusion d. Selective optimization with compensation 28. Which of the following takes place when couples reach their 60s? a. They show less affectionate behavior when they discuss conflicts. b. They disagree frequently over household chores. c. They get to spend more time together. d. They find that they have no concerns about companionship.

29. Which of the following statements is best supported by activity theory? a. Individuals place little emphasis on emotional experience as they age. b. Older adults are better adjusted when they withdraw from society in late adulthood. c. Informal social activities fail to contribute to life satisfaction among retired people. d. Physical activity is associated with a lower mortality rate in late adulthood.

30. The theory that claims that older people and society mutually withdraw from one another as older people approach death is known as ______. a. socioemotional selectivity theory b. disengagement theory c. activity theory d. psychosocial theory 31. A true statement regarding retirement is a. the adjustment of older retirees tends to be affected by their pre-retirement work identities. b. the key to successful retirement is doing as little as possible. c. an individual’s adjustment to retirement begins with retirement. d. men in same-gender couples are less likely than women in same-gender couples to do retirement planning.

32. Data from Dutch and American retirees found that a lengthy attachment to work tends to impede______. a. social interactions b. adjustment to retirement c. relationship goals d. individual self-esteem

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Chap_18__HDEV6 33. What term refers to the fear of open, crowded places? a. Acarophobia b. Agoraphobia c. Acerophobia d. Agraphobia 34. Socioemotional selectivity theory addresses the development of older adults’ ______. a. spiritual beliefs b. social networks c. cognitive abilities d. emotional insight 35. Research has consistently shown that older adults who are best adjusted to retirement are those who _______. a. minimize their familial and social interactions b. are less likely to be married c. are highly involved in a variety of activities d. find it difficult to participate in leisure and other non-work-related activities 36. Who among the following is experiencing a phobic disorder? a. Beth, who has difficulty falling asleep and wakes up quite often at night b. Nia, who has a persistent fear of pointed objects for no particular reason c. Ripp, who has trouble reading despite exhibiting normal traits of intelligence d. Patch, whose cognitive abilities have dramatically declined from when he was a child 37. A research by Kohncke and colleagues found that, in a sample of people over the age of 80, leisure activities were associated with a. superior perceptual speed. b. a preoccupation with television. c. a lack of monetary resources. d. increased speed of decline in white matter microstructure.

38. Many older adults may be reluctant to relocate to nursing homes because _______. a. they can afford and prefer live-in nursing staff b. close family members usually live near nursing homes c. nursing homes signify the loss of independence d. they fear exposure to crimes of violence

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Chap_18__HDEV6 39. A 70-year-old female, after retirement, volunteers at a homeless shelter. She divides her time between various charities and her friends and family. These activities keep her occupied and happy.

Josephine’s scenario illustrates _____. a. ego differentiation versus work-role preoccupation b. mutual withdrawal between society and aging individual c. denial of current decline and the approach of death d. ego preoccupation versus body preoccupation 40. The average retirement age for individuals _______. a. is consistently increasing b. is fixed at 60 c. is determined by the government d. has remained the same for several decades 41. Which of the following statements is true of activity theory? a. It suggests that physical and social activities in late adulthood are likely to hasten physical and cognitive impairment of older adults. b. It suggests withdrawal from society as an effective means to handle the challenges of successful aging. c. It is based on the belief that physical activity is associated with a higher mortality rate in late adulthood. d. It places many of the barriers to physical and social activities of older adults in social attitudes and in structural matters.

42. A 68-year-old male quit his medical practice two years ago when he realized his work schedule was taking a toll on his health. He now occasionally lectures in colleges and spends most of his time volunteering at the local church. This example illustrates the concept of _____. a. mutual withdrawal b. ego differentiation versus work-role preoccupation c. ego preoccupation versus body preoccupation d. disengagement 43. One difference between late adulthood and the phases that come before it is that a. unlike the previous phases of life, late adulthood focuses on major improvements in memory and cognition. b. previous phases of life focus on growth and gains, whereas in late adulthood, people must cope with decline and death. c. previous phases of life focus on involuntary relocations, whereas in late adulthood, people must cope with physical growth. d. unlike the previous phases of life, late adulthood focuses on major improvements in fitness and strength.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 44. Looking back on the events of one’s past in late adulthood, often in an effort to construct a meaningful narrative, is called ______. a. life retrospect b. life relate c. life review d. life relive 45. The developmental task of body transcendence versus body preoccupation is best described as ______. a. transcending death by lending financial support to people b. placing more value on cognitive activities and social relationships than on physical decline c. preparing to go beyond the physical limitations of one’s life d. redefining one’s identity outside the workplace 46. After retirement, leisure activities are likely to _______. a. increase the risk of cognitive impairment b. have an impact on the self-acceptance of retirees c. remain the same irrespective of the physical aspects of aging d. reduce retirees’ chances of successful aging 47. A 70-year-old adult has developed an irrational fear of open, crowded places and avoids leaving home. This fear began after they lost their spouse. In this scenario, they are experiencing _____. a. ergophobia b. chionophobia c. agoraphobia d. algophobia 48. According to socioemotional selectivity theory, older adults do not want to involve themselves in______. a. explicit emotional expressions b. painful social interactions c. aversive cognitive distortions d. deep reflective ruminations 49. Identify a reason for older adults to need to consider residing somewhere other than their homes. a. Plentiful financial resources b. Increases in property taxes c. Grown-up children residing nearby d. Strong ties with the community

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Chap_18__HDEV6 50. Men who are widowed are more likely than women to form new relationships with people of the other gender because ______. a. women, more so than men, make use of the web of kinship relations b. men usually tend to outlive women c. men may be more adept than women at various aspects of self-care d. women tend to become less social than men as they age 51. According to researchers Margaret Baltes and Laura Carstensen, successful aging involves _______. a. letting go and accepting one’s place in the sweep of history b. emotionally detaching oneself from people and situations c. reshaping one’s life to seek emotional fulfillment d. doing as little as possible 52. Inability to bounce back from a state of sadness is a symptom of _____. a. dementia b. Crohn’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. depression 53. In the context of relationships between family members, research suggests that both grandparents and adult grandchildren _______. a. achieve body transcendence but not ego transcendence b. view each other in a negative light owing to their varied perspectives c. are unlikely to seek each other for emotional support d. tend to see their ties as deep and meaningful 54. Widowhood in late adulthood is associated with _______. a. increased levels of stress hormones. b. a lowered risk of suicide. c. a higher chance of obtaining ego integrity. d. decreased mortality.

55. Which of the following statements is true of depression in late adulthood? a. It is indicated and characterized solely by sadness or bereavement. b. It is more common among older adults than among younger adults. c. It can be connected with possible structural changes in the brain. d. It cannot be linked to genetic factors.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 56. The basic challenge in the crisis of ego integrity versus despair is to ______. a. achieve stagnation rather than generativity in middle adulthood b. maintain the belief that life is meaningful despite physical decline and the inevitability of death c. look back on the events of one’s life and construct a meaningful narrative of one’s past d. hold on to the things and relationships one has accumulated over the years 57. An accurate statement about depression in older adults is that a. suicide due to untreated depression is more frequent among older adults than among younger adults. b. more older adults experience depression compared to younger adults. c. older women who lose their partners are most likely to commit suicide as a result of depression. d. depression in older people cannot usually be treated successfully with the same means that work in younger people.

58. The socioemotional selectivity theory states that _______. a. disengagement from society is the most effective way to meet the challenges of aging b. women are less likely than men to accept the inevitability of physical decline and death c. older adults tend to increase their social interactions in late adulthood d. people place increasing emphasis on emotional experience as they age 59. One reason that older adults limit their social networks to a few family members and friends is that a. they like dealing with difficult social interactions. b. older adults are antisocial. c. they have plenty of time to while away with friends. d. they do not like to take risks with friendships.

60. Kashvi, a 75-year-old, is preparing to go beyond the physical limitations of a lifespan, spends time praying at a place of worship, and helps fellow worshipers in any way needed. This scenario illustrates _____. a. past-life regression b. ego transcendence c. body preoccupation d. ego regression 61. Among older Black Americans, how does regular church attendance help contribute to their relative longevity? a. It imparts a sense of hopefulness and social support. b. It allows them to avoid the process of selective optimization with compensation. c. It helps them gradually withdraw from society. d. It helps them achieve body transcendence rather than ego transcendence.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 62. An anxiety disorder faced by older adults that is rare is ___________-. a. schizophrenia b. generalized anxiety disorder c. panic disorder d. bipolar disorder 63. The term that refers to pride in the appearance and functioning of people’s bodies is _____________. a. body dysmorphia b. body self-esteem c. body mania d. body preoccupation 64. A common complaint by both members of older adult couples is a. their partner is a workaholic. b. they spend too much time together. c. they disagree over matters relating to finances. d. they disagree over their views on childrearing.

65. Who among the following is most likely to show the least adjustment to retirement? a. A doctor b. A firefighter c. A professor d. A lawyer 66. Which of the following statements is true of the social contexts of aging? a. People aged 80 and older are more likely to be harmed by crime than people in any other age group. b. Affluent individuals with large amounts of equity in their homes prefer moving to nursing homes rather than remaining in their homes. c. Older adults are relatively less willing to relocate from their homes when they perceive themselves to be facing health needs. d. Older Americans report that they prefer staying in their homes as long as their physical and mental conditions allow them to do so.

67. Data from research found that a lack of self-confidence in older retirees is likely to _______. a. impede adjustment to retirement b. result in ego transcendence c. minimize the risk of depression d. enable selective optimization with compensation

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Chap_18__HDEV6 68. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory, the stage of ego integrity versus despair is associated with______. a. late adulthood b. middle adulthood c. young adulthood d. emerging adulthood 69. Which of the following statements is true of the influence of religion on older adults? a. Religious involvement is usually associated with less depression. b. Older adults who are actively involved in religious activities have less chances of achieving ego transcendence. c. Active religious involvement reduces the opportunities for social networking. d. Older Black Americans who are regular churchgoers have the same longevity as those who do not attend church.

70. Elder abuse refers to the neglect of, or harsh behavior toward older adults. One setting that older adults may be at particular risk for experiencing elder abuse is in _____. a. nursing homes b. upper-income communities c. their children’s homes d. low-income communities 71. In contrast to the disengagement theory, which theory states that older adults are better adjusted when they are more active and involved in physical and social activities? a. Socioemotional selectivity theory b. Ego integrity theory c. Activity theory d. Psychosocial theory 72. Which of the following statements is true of anxiety disorders? a. Generalized anxiety disorder tends to be rare in late adulthood. b. Panic disorder is the most common anxiety disorder observed among older adults. c. Anxiety disorders can be harmful to older people’s physical health. d. Anxiety disorders do not coexist with depression.

73. A true statement of relationships in late adulthood is that older adults a. are more likely than younger adults to seek divorce. b. show less affectionate behavior than younger adults when they discuss conflicts. c. are unlikely to have concerns about emotional intimacy and companionship. d. who cohabit are less likely to marry their partners than younger adults who cohabit.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 74. A correct statement about life reviews of healthy older adults is that they are a. devoid of comedy, nuances, and complexity. b. typically simple and straightforward. c. sometimes incoherent and self-contradictory. d. characteristically meaningless and ironical.

75. Identify a benefit of regular church attendance among older adults. a. Availability of communal dining facilities b. Propagation of cultural myths c. Emotional and physical intimacy with spouse d. Avoidance of negative coping methods 76. Which of the following statements is true of retirement planning? a. In married couples, control of retirement plans is unrelated to a partner’s workload and income level. b. Women in same-gender couples who do retirement planning are less likely to do it collaboratively as compared to men in same-gender couples. c. Men in same-gender couples are more likely than women in same-gender couples to do retirement planning. d. In married couples, wives more often than husbands tend to be in control of retirement plans.

77. Which of the following scenarios is best explained by the developmental task of body transcendence versus body preoccupation? a. Reggie, a 51-year-old man, is obsessed with his looks. b. Suni, a depressed widow, fails to take care of herself since she lost her partner. c. James, a robust and active 50-year-old man, is a fitness coach and is quite agile for his age. d. Jayla, a retired court judge, spends more time with her friends since she was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.

78. When older adults relocate to residences for assistance in their day-to-day care, they tend to _______. a. maintain their existing social networks b. be open to expanding their social networks c. be selective in forming new relationships d. experience an increase in self-esteem 79. An accurate statement about similarity in personality of married couples is that it a. provides a sense of equity in contributing to their relationships. b. leads to an increase in the chances of religious involvement among couples. c. leads to a decrease in the chances of marital satisfaction. d. heightens the risk of conflicts and disagreements.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 80. A true statement of psychological problems in late adulthood is a. older women who lose their social networks are more likely to commit suicide due to depression than older men. b. depression in older people cannot usually be treated successfully with the same means that work in younger people. c. older women are approximately twice as likely to be affected by anxiety disorders as older men. d. anxiety disorders are unlikely to coexist with depression.

81. Mild tranquilizers are commonly used to quell what kinds of experiences among older adults? a. Anxiety b. Depression c. Psychosis d. Psychopathy 82. According to contemporary researchers, reminiscence in old age _______. a. is a normal aspect of aging b. is a sign of dementia c. results in stagnation rather than generativity d. hinders the achievement of ego integrity 83. Contributing to civic activities after retirement _______. a. has little or no psychological benefits for retirees b. lowers the self-esteem of retirees c. is unlikely to help achieve ego differentiation d. fosters feelings of self-efficacy 84. Among Robert Peck’s three developmental tasks, ego transcendence means preparing in some way to move beyond the physical limitations of one’s own_____. a. cognitive assumptions b. muscular capacities c. social abilities d. life span 85. In the context of psychosocial theory, Erik Erikson believed that ______. a. it is difficult and sometimes unlikely for older adults who engage in life reviews to find ego integrity in late adulthood b. older adults who achieved ego transcendence are unlikely to find ego integrity c. men are more likely than women to obtain ego integrity d. people who achieved generativity in middle adulthood are more likely to obtain ego integrity in late adulthood

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Chap_18__HDEV6 86. It seems that well-being among older adults generally increases when they pursue goals rather than withdraw from society. This statement refutes the accuracy of the ______. a. disengagement theory b. socioemotional selectivity theory c. activity theory d. psychosocial theory 87. According to research conducted by Monika Ardelt and Michel Ferrari, ego transcendence is characterized by ______. a. a denial of the physical limitations of one’s life span b. a concern for the well-being of humankind in general c. a limited value placed on social relationships d. an excess of time spent on cognitive activities 88. Which of the following is the most likely reason for divorce among older adults? a. Sharing of power and household tasks in the relationship b. One partner taking up a relationship with an outsider c. Lack of novelty and adventure in retired life d. Increased bickering over financial matters 89. When older adults with anxiety disorders are subjected to stress, their levels of cortisol rise and it takes a good deal of time for them to subside. This in turn suppress the functioning of ______. a. the immune system b. neurons c. sexual stimulation d. social cognition 90. Elliott is a 68-year-old grandparent of three young boys. Due to aging, he can no longer play athletic games in the yard with them as before. To make up for the losses in physical capabilities, he focuses on helping with their studies. He helps them with math homework and ideas with them for science projects. Elliott’s scenario illustrates _____. a. ego preoccupation and body preoccupation b. mutual withdrawal between society and aging individual c. reminiscence as a symptom of dementia in the aging person d. body transcendence versus body preoccupation 91. Research has shown that engaging in leisure activities after retirement ______. a. accelerates the physical decline of older adults b. makes little or no difference to retirees’ adjustment to retirement c. is essential for the physical and psychological well-being of retirees d. is likely to result in stagnation rather than generativity

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Chap_18__HDEV6 92. By middle adulthood, similarity in personality may ______. a. cause a marriage to dissolve b. improve a couple’s communication c. work against a couple d. bring a couple closer together 93. One symptom of depression involves the inability to bounce back after a period of ______. a. irritation b. bereavement c. frustration d. mania 94. Based on research conducted by Shiota and Levenson, middle-aged married couples with differences in conscientiousness and extraversion ______. a. are unlikely to handle individual and shared responsibilities well b. are likely to be satisfied in their marriages c. tend to have more conflicts over division of labor d. tend to achieve body transcendence rather than ego transcendence 95. A 75-year-old female has had a legal will prepared. She has bequeathed her life’s savings to the charity of her choice. Her physical assets, such as her two homes, will be shared by her two children.

This scenario illustrates _____. a. ego transcendence versus ego preoccupation b. denial of current decline and the approach of death c. ego preoccupation and body preoccupation d. an incoherent and self-contradictory life review 96. Which of the following statements is true of generalized anxiety disorder? a. It may arise from the perception that one lacks control over one’s life. b. It is more common in childhood than in late adulthood. c. It is characterized by an irrational, exaggerated fear of a specific object or situation. d. It may be used synonymously with the term panic disorder.

97. Narayan, a 70-year-old, understands that physical decline and death are inevitable, has embraced personal spirituality, and works with a social welfare group to spread awareness about issues such as global warming. Narayan’s scenario illustrates _____. a. geriatric depression b. body preoccupation c. a reminiscent life review d. ego transcendence

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Chap_18__HDEV6 98. Older gay men and lesbians in long-term relationships tend to ______. a. be less depressed b. have lower self-esteem c. engage in more alcohol and drug abuse d. be less likely to cohabit 99. A 70-year-old philanthropist uses his savings to educate 20 children from his neighborhood. He feels he can make a difference by directing his wealth toward this noble cause. This scenario demonstrates _____. a. body preoccupation b. ego transcendence c. body transcendence d. ego identity 100. Research on the life-span development of self-esteem suggests that _______. a. older men are less accepting of the shortcomings of their bodies than young men are b. older women express less body esteem than older men do c. the self-esteem of males tends to be higher than that of females d. an inflated self-esteem is most often seen in adolescents 101. Are older adults willing to relocate to residences for the elderly? Why or why not?

102. Discuss the three phases of retirement decision making and adjustment to retirement.

103. Discuss leisure activities after retirement among late adults.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 104. Discuss life reviews and their significance among the elderly.

105. Discuss the incidence and causes of depression among people in the late adulthood stage of life.

106. Discuss divorce, cohabitation, and remarriage among people in the late adulthood stage of life.

107. Discuss changes in self-esteem among late adults.

108. Discuss retirement planning as explained by psychologists Gary Adams and Barbara Rau, and Daniel Feldman and Terry Beehr.

109. Discuss the importance of religion in the late adulthood stage of life.

110. In the context of late adulthood, discuss the validity of disengagement theory.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 111. "Self-esteem of older adults is tied into independence and dependence.” Discuss.

112. Discuss the occurrence of anxiety disorders among older adults.

113. Discuss activity theory.

114. What is selective optimization with compensation?

115. How do Robert Peck’s three developmental tasks associated with late adulthood amplify Erikson’s stage of ego integrity versus despair?

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Chap_18__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. d 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. c

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Chap_18__HDEV6 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. d 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 55. c 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. d 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. d 78. c 79. a 80. c 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 83. d 84. d 85. d 86. a 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. d 91. c 92. c 93. b 94. b 95. a 96. a 97. d 98. a 99. b 100. c 101. Answers will vary. When older people can no longer manage living on their own, they may consider utilizing the services of home health aides and visiting nurses to help them remain in the home. More affluent older people can afford to hire live-in help. Others may move in with adult children. Still others may move into assisted living residences, in which they have their own apartments, community dining rooms, 24-hour nursing aid, and on-call physician care. Older adults may be reluctant to relocate to nursing homes because nursing homes signify the loss of independence. Surveys indicate that older adults are relatively more willing to enter nursing homes when they perceive themselves to be in poor health and when one or more close family members live near the nursing home.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 102. Answers will vary. The three phases of retirement decision making are: • Imagining the possibility of retirement • Deciding when to let go of one’s job • Deciding how and when to put concrete retirement plans into action Research has consistently shown that older adults who are best adjusted to retirement are highly involved in a variety of activities, such as community activities and organizations. In the case of community activities, the experience and devotion of retirees renders their participation an important asset for the community, and the activities promote the adjustment of older adults into retirement. Pinquart and Schindler found in a retirement study that retirees could be broken down into three groups, according to their satisfaction with retirement and various other factors. The group that was most satisfied with retirement maintained leisure and other non-work-related activities as sources of life satisfaction, or replaced work with more satisfying activities. They retired at a typical retirement age and had a wealth of resources to compensate for the loss of work: They were married, in good health, and of high socioeconomic status. The majority of the second group retired at a later age and tended to be female; the majority of the third group retired at a younger age and tended to be male. The second and third groups were not as satisfied with retirement. They were in poorer health, less likely to be married, and lower in socioeconomic status than the first group. The third group had a spotty employment record.

Another way to look at this data is to suggest that retirement per se didn’t change these people’s lives in major ways. A two-year longitudinal study found that the adjustment of older retirees was affected by their pre-retirement work identities. For example, upscale professional workers continued to be well adjusted and had high self-esteem. They weren’t simply “retirees”; they were retired professors or retired doctors or retired lawyers and the like. On the other hand, hourly wage earners and other blue collar workers had somewhat lower self-esteem and were more likely to think of themselves as simply “retirees.” Data from Dutch and American retirees found that the following factors impeded adjustment to retirement: a lengthy attachment to work, lack of control over the transition to retirement (e.g., forced retirement at age 65), worrying prior to retirement about what retirement would bring, and lack of self-confidence. Nevertheless, a wide range of feelings about giving up work surface just before retirement. Some people are relieved; others are worried—about finances, about surrendering their work roles, or both. Even so, most retirees report that their well-being has increased a year after they have retired, and that much of the stress they felt before retiring has diminished.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 103. Answers will vary. Once people retire, they have the opportunity to fill most of their days with leisure activities. Research has shown that engaging in leisure activities is essential for retirees’ physical and psychological health. A recent Japanese study found that older men’s failure to engage in leisure activities with neighbors, social organizations, and friends was strongly associated with feelings of depression.

Similarly, older women appeared to need to engage in leisure activities with social groups, children, and grandchildren in order to avoid depression. Shared leisure activities also contribute to the satisfaction of marital and other intimate partners and to family well-being. They reduce stress and help retirees avert boredom. Contributing to civic activities or volunteering at hospitals and the like also enhances retirees’ self-esteem and fosters feelings of self-efficacy. Kleiber and Kelly proposed a model of leisure development in which the final period includes retirement and aging. Leisure takes on special importance after retirement and may become central to the retiree’s identity and self-acceptance. If the retiree’s health remains robust, leisure activities tend to carry over from working days and may ease the transition to retirement. On the other hand, the physical aspects of aging and the death of companions can force changes in the choice of activities and diminish the level of satisfaction gotten from them. A British study of adults with an average age of 72 reported that nearly three in four (73%) engaged in leisure activities; of these, 23% engaged in “active leisure” (sailing, walking); 18%, “passive leisure” (listening to music, watching television); 24%, social activities; 20%, hobbies; and 15%, other activities. The key motives for leisure activity were pleasure and relaxation. Jo-Ida Hansen and her colleagues administered a questionnaire about leisure activities to 194 retirees, also with an average age of 72, who had been employed at a Midwestern university. They mathematically correlated the respondents’ self-reported leisure activities and found that they fell into three clusters or factors. Factor I included athletic, competitive, and outdoor activities. Factor II involved artistic, cultural, and self-expressive activities.

Partying was the sole activity that defined Factor III. 104. Answers will vary. Daniel Levinson theorized that one aspect of the “midlife crisis” was that people realized they had more to look back on than forward to. In fact, one of the complaints younger people sometimes level at older relatives is that they too often engage in reminiscence—that is, relating stories from the distant past. At times, it may seem that some older people live in the past, possibly in denial of current decline and the approach of death. Reminiscence was once considered a symptom of dementia, but contemporary researchers consider it to be a normal aspect of aging. In working with healthy older volunteers as individuals and in groups, Robert Butler found that life reviews can be complex and nuanced, incoherent and self-contradictory, or even replete with irony, tragedy, and comedy. Butler believes that older people engage in life reviews to attempt to make life meaningful, to move on with new relationships as contemporaries pass on, and to help them find ego integrity and accept the end of life.

Butler also argues that health-care professionals rely far too much on drugs to ease the discomforts of older adults. Pilot programs suggest that therapists may be able to relieve depression and other psychological problems in older adults by helping them reminisce about their lives.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 105. Answers will vary. Problems in coping with aging are associated with psychological problems, including depression and anxiety. Depression affects some 10% of people ages 65–80, and affects some 20% of the population aged 81 and above. Depression in older people can be a continuation of depression from earlier periods of life, or it can be a new development. Depression can be connected with the personality factor of neuroticism, possible structural changes in the brain, and a possible genetic predisposition to imbalances of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine. Researchers are also investigating links between depression and physical illnesses such as Alzheimer’s disease, heart disease, stroke, Parkinson’s disease, and cancer. Depression is also connected with the loss of friends and loved ones, but depression is a mental disorder that goes beyond sadness or bereavement. The loss of companions and friends will cause profound sadness, but mentally healthy people bounce back within approximately a year and find new sources of pleasure and support. Inability to bounce back is a symptom of depression.

Depression goes undetected and untreated in older people much of the time. Depression may be overlooked because its symptoms are masked by physical complaints such as low energy, loss of appetite, and insomnia, and because health-care providers tend to focus more on older people’s physical health than their mental health. Many older people are reluctant to admit to depression because psychological problems carried more of a stigma when they were young. Depression is also connected with memory lapses and other cognitive impairment, such as difficulty concentrating, so some cases of depression are attributed simply to the effects of aging or are misdiagnosed as dementia or Alzheimer’s disease. Depression in older people can usually be treated successfully with the same means that work in younger people, such as antidepressant drugs and cognitive-behavioral psychotherapy. Then again, feelings of depression sometimes pass on their own. Untreated depression can lead to suicide, which is most common among older people. The highest rates of suicide are found among older men who have lost their wives or partners, lost their social networks, or fear the consequences of physical illnesses and loss of freedom. Though fewer older adults suffer from depression than younger adults, suicide is more frequent among older adults, especially European American men.

106. Answers will vary. Having worked out most of the problems in their relationships and having learned to live with those that remain, older adults are less likely than younger adults to seek divorce. The ideal of lifelong marriage retains its strength. Because of fear of loss of assets, family disruption, and relocation, older adults do not undertake divorce lightly. When they do, it is often because one of the partners has taken up a relationship with an outsider. Older people are increasingly likely to cohabit today, making up about 4% of the unmarried population. Nearly 90% of older people who cohabit have been married, and they are less likely than younger people to wish to remarry. Although they are less likely than younger cohabiters to marry their partners, older cohabiters report being in more intimate, stable relationships. Whereas younger cohabiters often see their lifestyle as a prelude to marriage, older cohabiters are more likely to see their relationship as an alternate lifestyle. They cite reasons for avoiding remarriage such as concern about ramifications for pensions and disapproval of adult children, who may be concerned about their inheritance. Yet when older partners do remarry, as when they decide to cohabit, they usually make a strong commitment to one another and form a stable relationship.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 107. Answers will vary. To study the life-span development of self-esteem, Richard Robins and his colleagues recruited more than 300,000 individuals to complete an online questionnaire that provided demographic information (age, gender, ethnic background, and so forth) and measures of self-esteem. Two-thirds of the respondents were from the United States, and 57% were female. Generally, the self-esteem of males was higher than that of females. Self-esteem was high in childhood (likely an inflated estimate) and dipped precipitously with entry into adolescence, a finding that is consistent with studies. Self-esteem then rose gradually throughout middle adulthood and declined in late adulthood, with most of the decline occurring between the ages of 70 and 85. However, this is all relative. Even for people in their 80s, self-esteem levels were above the mid-point of the questionnaire. Researchers suggest a couple of possible reasons for the drop in self-esteem they found among people in their 70s and 80s. The first is that life changes such as retirement, loss of a spouse or partner, lessened social support, declining health, and downward movement in socioeconomic status account for the drop in self-esteem. The other hypothesis is more optimistic, namely that older people are wiser and more content. Erikson and other theorists suggest the possibility that ego transcendence occurs in this stage of life, meaning that people come to accept themselves as they are, “warts and all,” and no longer need to inflate their self-esteem. As the years wear on in late adulthood, people express progressively less “body esteem”—that is, pride in the appearance and functioning of their bodies. There is also a gender difference, with older men expressing less body esteem than older women do.

108. Answers will vary. According to psychologists Gary Adams and Barbara Rau, and Daniel Feldman and Terry Beehr, retirement planning involves dealing with some questions: • What will I do? A majority of people retiring these days plan some sort of “bridge employment,” in which they continue to work for the same employer with a reduced workload or obtain new employment, possibly part-time.

About half plan to do volunteer work. Most expect to devote more time to hobbies or special interests. Most people in one way or another maintain—or strive to maintain—their identities and self-concepts.

• How will I afford it? Adequate finances are strongly related to satisfaction with retirement.

• Where will I live? The great majority of retirees stay put. They don’t sell their homes or hop to the Sunbelt.

However, as time goes on and they become less physically independent, many live in assisted facilities or with children.

• With whom will I share my retirement years? If life partners are not in agreement about retirement activities and residences, the stresses of an unwanted living situation can provide a continuous source of stress.

• How will I decide? There are many phases of retirement decision making: imagining the possibility of retirement, deciding whether and when it is time to let go of a long-held job, and when and how to put concrete plans to retire into action.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 109. Answers will vary. Religion and religious activities provide older adults a vast arena for social networking.

Religion also has a special allure as people approach the end of life. As people undergo physical decline, religion asks them to focus, instead, on moral conduct and spiritual “substance” such as the soul. People who experience physical suffering in this world are advised to look forward to relief in the next. Therefore, it is not surprising that studies find that religious involvement in late adulthood is usually associated with less depression and more life satisfaction. Frequent churchgoing has also been shown to be associated with fewer problems in the activities of daily living among older people. Here, of course, we can assume that there are benefits for social networking as well as for church attendance per se. Consider some of the benefits related to regular church attendance found in studies of older African Americans. Older African Americans who attend services more than once a week live 13.7 years longer, on average, than their counterparts who never attend church. In-depth interviews with the churchgoers found several reasons for their relative longevity, including avoidance of negative coping methods such as aggressive behavior and drinking alcohol, success in evading victimization by violence, a sense of hopefulness, and social support.

110. Answers will vary. According to disengagement theory, older people and society mutually withdraw from one another as older people approach death. People in late adulthood focus more on their inner lives, preparing for the inevitable. Because of retirement, government or industry now supports them through pensions or charity rather than vice versa. Family members expect less from older people. How accurate is this theory? Probably not very. It seems that well-being among older adults generally increases when they pursue goals rather than withdraw from society. Goals might have to be adjusted so that they are consistent with the person’s physical and cognitive abilities, but disengagement does not appear to be the path to adjustment. Moreover, relationships between children and parents change as parents travel the years of late adulthood, but children—who are now middle-aged—often maintain close, supportive ties with aging parents, and despite some diminished capacities, aging parents may become founts of wisdom.

111. Answers will vary. Being able to care for oneself would appear to be a core condition of successful aging.

Older people who are independent tend to think of themselves as leading a “normal life,” whereas those who are dependent on others, even if they are only slightly dependent, tend to worry more about aging and encountering physical disabilities and stress. Dependence on others to carry out the activities of daily living increases with age. A particularly sensitive independence issue is toileting. Interviews found that independence in toileting is especially important in enabling older people to avoid slippage in self-esteem.

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Chap_18__HDEV6 112. Answers will vary. Anxiety disorders affect at least 3% of people aged 65 and older, but coexist with depression in about 8% to 9% of older adults. Older women are approximately twice as likely to be affected as older men. The most common anxiety disorders among older adults are generalized anxiety disorder and phobic disorders. Panic disorder is rare. Most cases of agoraphobia affecting older adults tend to be of recent origin and may involve the loss of social support systems due to the death of a spouse or close friends. Then again, some older individuals who are frail may have realistic fears of falling on the street and may be misdiagnosed as agoraphobic if they refuse to leave the house alone.

Generalized anxiety disorder may arise from the perception that one lacks control over one’s life. Anxiety disorders can be harmful to older people’s physical health. When older adults with anxiety disorders are subjected to stress, their levels of cortisol (a stress hormone) rise, and it takes a good deal of time for them to subside. Cortisol suppresses the functioning of the immune system, making people more vulnerable to illness. Mild tranquilizers (Valium is one) are commonly used to quell anxiety in older adults.

Psychological interventions, such as cognitive-behavior therapy, have proven beneficial and do not carry the risk of side effects or potential dependence.

113. Answers will vary. Activity theory states, in contrast to disengagement theory, that older adults are better adjusted when they are more active and involved in physical and social activities. Activity theory places many of the barriers to such activity in social attitudes such as beliefs that older people should “take it easy,” and in structural matters such as forced retirement, without regard to the desires of the individual.

Research shows that physical activity is associated with a lower mortality rate in late adulthood. Leisure and informal social activities contribute to life satisfaction among retired people. An Israeli study found particular benefits for life satisfaction in activities involving the next generation, the visual and performing arts, and spiritual and religious matters. However, there was also value in independent activities in the home.

114. Answers will vary. Selective optimization with compensation is the reshaping of one’s life to concentrate on what one finds to be important and meaningful in the face of physical decline and possible cognitive impairment. From this point of view, older people manage to maximize their gains while minimizing their losses.

115. Answers will vary. Robert Peck amplified Erikson’s stage of ego integrity versus despair by outlining three developmental tasks that people face in late adulthood: • Ego differentiation versus work-role preoccupation: After retirement, people need to find new ways of defining their self-worth outside of their achievements in the workplace, perhaps in terms of roles in the community, activities with friends and family, or spiritual undertakings.

• Body transcendence versus body preoccupation: At some point in late adulthood, people face inevitable physical decline, and it is in their best interests to come to terms with it by placing more value on cognitive activities and social relationships. Some people, of course, run into chronic illnesses or disabilities years earlier and must face the need to transcend body preoccupation prior to late adulthood.

• Ego transcendence versus ego preoccupation: Ego transcendence means preparing in some way to go beyond the physical limitations of one’s own life span. As death comes nearer, some prepare to transcend death by helping secure the futures of their children or grandchildren. Others work more broadly to benefit a church, synagogue, or mosque, or to leave planet Earth in “better shape” than they found it.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Most hospice care is provided in a hospital setting. a. True b. False 2. Today, only a small minority of Americans die in their own homes. a. True b. False 3. The concept of surviving death renders death less frightening to many children. a. True b. False 4. Experiences such as attending funerals often fail to challenge an adolescent’s sense of immortality that is connected with the personal fable. a. True b. False 5. Voluntary active euthanasia is illegal throughout most of the United States. a. True b. False 6. A person’s philosophy of life and prior experiences with crises do not strongly affect their adjustment to the end stage of life. a. True b. False 7. The withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment is a form of passive euthanasia. a. True b. False 8. Few people ever assume, or are encouraged to assume, a form of spiritual reversibility in their thinking about death. a. True b. False 9. Research shows that individuals behave in dying in importantly different ways compared to how they behaved during earlier periods when they experienced stress, failure, and threat. a. True b. False 10. Death is the irreversible cessation of vital life functions. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 11. Similar to hospitals, hospices provide the patient and family with very little control over decision making. a. True b. False 12. In active euthanasia, a lethal treatment is administered to cause a quick and painless death. a. True b. False 13. The primary function of hospitals is to help treat diseases. a. True b. False 14. To support people who are dying, it is a good practice to minimize the dying person’s emotional pain by changing the subject. a. True b. False 15. Involuntary active euthanasia is the intentional administration of lethal drugs or other means of producing a painless death with the person’s informed consent. a. True b. False 16. The stage theory of grief has become generally accepted when applied to various kinds of losses, including hospital staffs’ responses to the death of an inpatient. a. True b. False 17. Funerals are frequently unattached to religious custom and cultural tradition. a. True b. False 18. Adolescents’ recognition that the concept of death applies to them results in a steep decrease in risktaking behaviors. a. True b. False 19. The final acceptance stage of dying as described by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is characterized by denial, depression, and anger. a. True b. False 20. There is not a fixed period of time for which grief should last. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. In the context of helping a child copes with the loss of a loved person, which of the following statements is true? a. The bereaved child should attend the funeral under every circumstance. b. Visiting the grave site at another time will not help the bereaved child come to terms with the loss. c. Professionals suggest the use of euphemisms that deny the reality of death the children face. d. An alternate form of service may be more appropriate for them than attending a funeral.

22. A living will is a legal document that people usually draft before their terminal illness. It instructs physicians ______. a. to not carry out either involuntary active euthanasia or passive euthanasia if they are disabled or incapacitated b. to administer a drug and assist in the patient’s suicide c. to resort to passive euthanasia if they become permanently incapacitated and cannot communicate their wishes d. to not withhold life-supporting treatment if they are in a vegetative state 23. Palliative care focuses on ______. a. relief of pain b. curing a disease c. addressing symptoms d. prevention of a disease 24. The brain stem is responsible for certain automatic functions, such as reflexes like _____. a. eating b. breathing c. seeing d. hearing 25. A practice that helps one cope with the loss of a loved one is a. covering up feelings or trying to erase them. b. avoiding pleasurable experiences or interactions. c. setting a timeline for grief to run its course. d. allowing oneself to take time and feel the loss.

26. A leading cause of death in early adulthood is _____________. a. lung cancer b. suicide c. heart disease d. sexually-transmitted infections Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 27. After their homes, automobiles, and children’s educations, which of the following is likely to be American families’ next largest expense? a. Funerals b. Picnics c. Graduation ceremonies d. Sport outings 28. An example of a person who has achieved ego transcendence is a. a divorcee, who is an alcoholic and does not care about their health. b. a terminal cancer patient, who is in denial of their impending death. c. a philanthropist, who volunteers for the cause of organ donation. d. a management graduate, who is busy with their corporate ambitions.

29. A true statement regarding involuntary active euthanasia is that it a. is carried out with the consent of a patient. b. is the unintentional administration of drugs that results in the hastening of death. c. is carried out in response to the directions given in a patient’s living will. d. may be considered homicide in the eyes of law.

30. The process of embalming refers to a. treating a dead body with chemicals in order to preserve it. b. expressing grief through customary rites and rituals. c. reducing a dead body to ashes, by burning, usually as a funeral rite. d. overcoming bereavement with the help of various rituals.

31. A doctor who fails to resuscitate a terminally ill patient who stops breathing, thereby following the wishes expressed in the patient’s living will is initiating _____. a. passive euthanasia b. terminal sedation c. involuntary active euthanasia d. voluntary active euthanasia 32. What term literally means “good death”? a. Alexithymia b. Eudaimonia c. Thanatos d. Euthanasia

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Chap_19__HDEV6 33. Vincent is a person who is in the final stage of lung cancer and is in a great deal of pain. He requests his physicians to put an end to his suffering by allowing him to die. After completing the required legal formalities, Vincent’s wife administers a drug to end his life. This scenario illustrates _____. a. temporary sedation b. voluntary active euthanasia c. passive euthanasia d. physician-assisted suicide 34. Identify a statement which best reflects adolescents’ perspectives on death. a. They are beyond constructing magical, spiritual, or pseudoscientific theories as to how some form of life or thought might survive. b. They are least likely to attend funerals, including funerals with open caskets. c. They speak of death in terms of cartoon characters that die and come back to life again. d. They continue to engage in riskier behavior than adults do even after recognizing that the concept of death applies to them.

35. While testing Jacobs’ stage theory of grief, Paul Maciejewski and his colleagues observed that ______. a. acceptance of the loss of a loved one waned gradually over time b. disbelief over a loss continually peaked after a period of time c. in the face of a loss, yearning, anger, and depression rise suddenly in the predicted order d. following a loss, anger was experienced for the longest period of time when compared with yearning and depression 36. A leading cause of death in late adulthood is _______________. a. homicide b. heart disease c. Parkinson’s disease d. suicide 37. An alternative to euthanasia that is supposedly not intended to hasten the death of terminally ill patients in distress is known as _____________________. a. involuntary active euthanasia b. physician-assisted suicide c. passive euthanasia d. terminal sedation 38. When a person dies, a doctor needs to be called in to ______. a. issue the death certificate b. perform an autopsy c. remove the body from the place of death d. make funeral arrangements Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 39. According to Kübler-Ross’s stages of dying, which stage usually comes just before the stage of anger? a. Acceptance b. Depression c. Denial d. Bargaining 40. The term euthanasia refers to the purposeful taking of a person’s life in order to______. a. prevent the spread of disease b. receive extrinsic rewards c. relieve pain or suffering d. reduce medical costs 41. A contribution of John Bowlby in the context of human development is that he a. proposed the stages of dying commonly experienced by terminally ill patients. b. modified Jacobs’ theory of grief based on personal anecdotes. c. proposed a stage theory of grief for coping with bereavement. d. suggested three developmental tasks in late adulthood based on Erikson’s psychosocial theory.

42. The second-to-last stage of dying as hypothesized by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is ____________. a. separation distress b. bargaining c. depression d. anger 43. Mercy killing is an alternative term for _______. a. Palliative care b. Euthanasia c. Suicide d. Sedation 44. In the study conducted by Paul Maciejewski and his colleagues to test Jacobs’ stage theory of grief, it was found that _____. a. yearning was nonexistent for six months after the death of a loved one b. bargaining was low just after the loss and peaked over the course of five years c. acceptance was at its peak right after the death of a loved one and waned thereafter d. disbelief was highest just after the loss and waned over the course of two years

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Chap_19__HDEV6 45. Which of the following statements is true regarding grief? a. It can bring on a heightened awareness of one’s own mortality. b. Grief is a singular emotion, characterized by numbness. c. It sends the immune systems of the bereaved people into overdrive. d. It leaves the mourning people immune to certain types of disease.

46. How did Jacobs’ research contribute to theories related to coping with death? a. He proposed the disengagement theory. b. He included four more stages to John Bowlby’s stage theory of grief. c. He modified Erikson’s psychosocial theory to include the stage of ego integrity versus despair. d. He described the five-stage reaction of terminally ill patients to knowledge of their own impending death.

47. Which of the following statements is true of passive euthanasia? a. It is illegal throughout the United States. b. It is legal if performed in accordance with the wishes of patients. c. It is not carried out to hasten the death of patients. d. It is the sedation of terminally ill patients to reduce pain.

48. A form of spiritual reversibility assumes that when a person dies _____. a. they cease to exist entirely b. they can be revived with the appropriate medical tools c. they exist after death in heaven or reincarnation d. they will reappear in their old body at a later time 49. Passive euthanasia often involves the withdrawal of _____. a. life-sustaining treatment b. familial support c. food d. water and oxygen 50. A terminally ill patient stays at home rather than in a hospital. Their treatment focuses on the reduction of pain and suffering since any medical treatment would be of little help. This scenario demonstrates _____. a. terminal sedation b. physician-assisted suicide c. palliative care d. active euthanasia

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Chap_19__HDEV6 51. A true statement regarding terminal sedation is that a. it is carried out by means of withholding potentially life-saving treatments from patients. b. it is the equivalent of passive euthanasia. c. it is carried out to relieve the distress of critically ill patients in their last days. d. it is considered homicide in the eyes of the law.

52. One of the additional stages that was introduced by Jacobs to John Bowlby’s stage theory of grief is _____. a. depression-mourning b. shock-numbness c. disorganization-despair d. yearning-searching 53. Medical and legal professionals generally use what as the standard for determining that a person has died? a. Brain death b. Suspension of breathing c. Stoppage of the heart d. Loss of responsivity 54. In the context of funerals, a true statement is that a. funerals provide an organized way of responding to death. b. funeral arrangements in the United States are typically inexpensive. c. caskets are often a minor burial expense among funeral arrangements. d. funerals signify the end of bereavement of the deceased’s family.

55. Which of the following defines passive euthanasia? a. It is the purposeful taking of a person’s life through gentle or painless means to relieve pain or suffering. b. It is a form of treatment focused on the cure of diseases rather than the alleviation of pain and suffering. c. It is the withholding or withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment to hasten death. d. It is the unintentional administering of lethal drugs that results in the death of terminally ill patients.

56. Which of the following is likely to help individuals depart their lives with dignity and integrity? a. Choosing work-role preoccupation rather than ego differentiation b. Gradually disengaging from society after middle adulthood c. Stagnation rather than generativity in middle adulthood d. Meeting squarely the challenges of their adult lives

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Chap_19__HDEV6 57. Which of the following is most likely to help individuals cope better when dealing with the death of a loved one? a. Temporarily withdrawing from life to avoid guilt b. Joining a bereavement support group c. Deciding on a fixed timetable for grief to run its course d. Avoiding discussions on the deceased 58. A statement that best reflects adolescents’ perspectives on death is that they a. are beyond creating unrealistic theories as to how some form of life might survive after death. b. are less likely than young children to attend funerals, including funerals with open caskets. c. speak of death in terms of concepts such as light and darkness. d. fail to associate the concept of death with themselves.

59. When trying to help a bereaved friend cope with the loss of a loved one, it is recommended to a. wait for the bereaved friend to call before reaching out. b. try and minimize their loss. c. avoid forcing the bereaved friend to talk about their feelings. d. avoid speaking about the deceased in their presence.

60. An organization that treats dying patients by focusing on palliative care rather than curative treatment is known as a ______. a. hospital b. hospice c. rehabilitation facility d. geriatric support facility 61. A reaction by a person diagnosed with a terminal illness that exemplifies the stage of anger as hypothesized by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is a. "It can’t be me!” b. "The diagnosis must be wrong.” c. "This is so unfair, why me!” d. "Life is hopeless.”

62. A true statement regarding living wills is that a. living wills only take effect if people are unable to speak for themselves. b. there is no legal basis in the United States for carrying out any form of euthanasia based on living wills. c. physicians are more likely to follow general guidelines than specific instructions in living wills. d. living wills need not be drafted in accordance with state laws.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 63. In the case of older, retired adults, continuing with physical, leisure, and informal social activities are all associated with ______. a. greater life satisfaction b. lower ego differentiation c. an acceleration in the effects of aging d. a low self-esteem 64. According to Kübler-Ross’s stages of dying, which of the following stages is most likely characterized by a person attempting to negotiate their condition? a. Bargaining b. Denial c. Depression d. Acceptance 65. A true statement with respect to grief is that a. there is usually a fixed period of time for which grief should last. b. grief usually tends to increase over time. c. young children and adolescents are unlikely to experience grief. d. different cultures prescribe different rituals for expressing grief.

66. Ria is a patient diagnosed with an advanced stage of leukemia. If she is in the first stage of dying as suggested by Kübler-Ross, which of the following is likely to be Ria’s reaction to her diagnosis? a. She is likely to blame her doctor for not doing enough to cure her. b. She is likely to dismiss her diagnosis as a mistake. c. She is likely to be in a state of depression. d. She is likely to have come to terms with her diagnosis.

67. The person required to examine a dead body and determine the cause of death that is not readily established is a ______________. a. funeral director b. coroner c. mortician d. family doctor 68. Unlike hospitals, hospices ______. a. consider the entire family to be the unit of care b. focus on curative treatment rather than palliative care c. tend to be highly expensive d. function to save lives of patients

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Chap_19__HDEV6 69. According to the stages of dying as hypothesized by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the stage that is characterized by the feelings of grief, loss, and hopelessness is ________________-. a. anger b. bargaining c. denial d. depression 70. An accurate definition of mourning is the a. culturally prescribed ways of displaying grief. b. inability to bounce back after bereavement. c. acceptance of one’s mortality. d. denial of a loss of a loved one.

71. Which of the following statements is true with respect to young children’s perspectives on death? a. Most young children have the cognitive ability to understand the permanent nature of death. b. Children, by nature, are quick to adapt to the absence of loved ones and tend to move on with their lives after the loss of a parent. c. When children learn about death, it is considered abnormal for them to fear it. d. Children’s understanding of death is increased as they learn how various organs of the body contribute to the processes of life.

72. The process of cremation involves a. treating a dead body with chemicals in order to preserve it. b. expressing grief through community meetings and gatherings. c. reducing a dead body to ashes, by burning, as a funeral rite. d. burying a dead body in the ground at a prearranged spot.

73. Which of the following statements is true in the context of hospices? a. Hospices focus on treating diseases and disabilities of patients. b. Hospice care tends to be less expensive than hospital treatment. c. Hospices offer little control to patients and their families with respect to decision making. d. Hospice care emphasizes length rather than quality of patients’ life.

74. A reaction by a person diagnosed with a terminal illness that exemplifies the stage of denial as hypothesized by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is a. "It can’t be me.” b. "This is so unfair, why me?” c. "They could have treated it had they caught it earlier.” d. "It’s hopeless.”

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Chap_19__HDEV6 75. A leading cause of death in middle adulthood is __________. a. accident b. suicide c. cancer d. homicide 76. In the study conducted by Paul Maciejewski and his colleagues to test Jacobs’ stage theory, which of the following stages of grief was nonexistent at the outset? a. Acceptance b. Disbelief c. Sorrow d. Shocked numbness 77. In the context of a person’s death, an autopsy may be performed ______. a. if the death resulted from a genetic disorder b. in case the person died of a chronic disease c. if foul play is involved or suspected d. for the issue of the death certificate 78. People diagnosed with terminal illnesses are the primary population that ______. a. benefit from hospital treatment b. Kübler-Ross’s stages are limited to c. receive surgical interventions d. Bowlby’s stages do not apply to 79. An accurate definition of the term whole brain death is a. an absence of activity of the cerebral cortex alone. b. the cessation of activity of the cerebral cortex and brain stem. c. the end stage of life in which bodily processes decline, leading to death. d. an irreversible cessation of vital life functions.

80. Bereavement most accurately refers to a state of _______. a. euphoria b. mania c. deprivation d. denial

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Chap_19__HDEV6 81. A person who is declared brain dead ______. a. is unlikely to exhibit any vital life functions b. can continue to breathe c. can show normal activity in the cerebral cortex d. must have experienced the death of the brain stem 82. John Bowlby’s ‘stage theory of grief a. includes the possible reactions of adults when dealing with diagnoses of terminal illnesses. b. suggests tasks for older adults to help them achieve ego integrity. c. includes four stages that explain how individuals cope with bereavement. d. suggests ways to successfully adapt oneself to age-related physical and cognitive changes.

83. Identify a true statement about grief. a. Adolescents do not experience grief over the loss of a loved one. b. Grief can compromise the immune system. c. Grief can realistically last only for six months. d. Grief is a disenfranchised emotion for most people.

84. What term refers to the stage of life in which bodily processes decline, leading to death? a. Paralysis b. Brain death c. Dying d. Somatic death 85. Absence of activity in the cerebral cortex is used to establish _____. a. brain death b. somatic death c. sensory deprivation d. circulatory death 86. If there is no activity in the cerebral cortex of an individual, it is likely that a. the psychological functioning of the individual would remain intact. b. there would be little possibility of the individual being brain dead. c. the individual’s sense of self would remain unaffected. d. the consciousness of the individual would cease.

87. In which kind of setting do patients often face death alone, cut off from their usual supports? a. Retirement communities b. Hospitals c. Low-income neighborhoods d. High-income neighborhoods Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 88. An example of a person who has achieved ego transcendence is a. a couch potato, who spends their days surfing television channels. b. a retiree, who volunteers at orphanages and shelters for the homeless. c. an avid photographer, who travels the world in search of scenic locations. d. a young chef, who is saving up to open their own delicatessen.

89. The stage theory of grief is a. generally acceptable when applied to adults’ responses to marital separation. b. applicable only in the case of loss experienced by survivors due to a loved one’s terminal illnesses. c. typically inapplicable to children’s responses to parental separation. d. only applicable when used with the reaction of terminally ill patients.

90. According to the stages of dying as hypothesized by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the stage that is characterized by a person negotiating with God to postpone death is __________________. a. anger b. bargaining c. denial d. final acceptance 91. While making funeral arrangements for a departed loved one, one should make decisions based on ______. a. fashion and style b. reason and good sense c. the latest trends in funerals d. emotions and guilt 92. Identify a critique of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’s hypothesis of the five stages of dying. a. Kübler-Ross’s stages are limited to cases in which people receive a diagnosis of a terminal illness. b. Her hypothesis did not hold true for people who died of illnesses such as cancer, AIDS, or renal failure. c. Kübler-Ross’s stages are limited to cases in which people die because of advanced years and no specific illness. d. Her hypotheses did not hold true for people who died under the long-term care of hospice workers.

93. In active euthanasia, a family member usually administers ______. a. the possessions of the dying b. the accounts of the dying c. a lethal treatment d. religious rituals Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 94. According to the stages of dying as hypothesized by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the stage that is characterized by a sense of peace and dignity is _____________. a. brain death b. bargaining c. denial d. final acceptance 95. According to theorists of social and emotional development in late adulthood, ego transcendence is likely to help some older adults begin to face ______. a. the failures of life b. death with an inner calm c. the successes of life d. the consequences of death 96. Which of the following is the purpose of Death with Dignity Acts enacted in specific states of the United States? a. They enable terminally ill patients to ask physicians to prescribe lethal doses of medication. b. They make the practice of euthanasia illegal in case of terminal illnesses. c. They regulate the practice of passive euthanasia. d. They prohibit the practice of terminal sedation.

97. Beth is a person who is dying from 3rd degree burns and has only a few days to live. She is in a constant state of stupor induced by a tranquilizer. With Beth’s consent, she is intravenously administered with the continuous infusion of a tranquilizer that relieves her from suffering in her last days. This scenario best demonstrates the practice of _____. a. passive euthanasia b. terminal sedation c. mercy killing d. involuntary active euthanasia 98. Amit’s family is from a culture where it is a custom for the surviving member of marriage to wear white for the rest of their lives as an expression of grief and as a mark of loyalty to their deceased spouse. Which of the following does this scenario demonstrate? a. Mourning b. Body transcendence c. Denial d. Ego transcendence

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Chap_19__HDEV6 99. The second stage in John Bowlby’s stage theory of grief is ______. a. shock-numbness b. disorganization-despair c. yearning-searching d. reorganization 100. Edward has just been diagnosed with an advanced stage of cancer. If Edward is in the first stage of dying as suggested by Kübler-Ross, which of the following is likely to be his reaction to his diagnosis? a. He is likely to be in a state of depression. b. He is likely to have come to terms with his diagnosis. c. He is likely to blame his physician for not doing enough to cure him. d. He is likely to dismiss his diagnosis as a mistake.

101. What are the differences between voluntary active euthanasia and involuntary active euthanasia?

102. Explain the different stages of dying as suggested by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross.

103. Discuss ways of helping a child cope with grief.

104. List the characteristics of hospice care.

105. Discuss the stage theory of grief.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 106. Discuss critics’ exceptions to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’s hypothesis of the five stages of dying.

107. Discuss the leading causes of death during the early, young, and middle adulthood phases of life.

108. Discuss the prevalence and benefits of hospice care in the United States.

109. How does a living will support a person who may be unable to communicate their wishes in the event of permanent incapacitation?

110. Describe adults’ understanding of death and their reaction to it.

111. Discuss the emotional state of grief.

112. Discuss the boundaries between life and death.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 113. What advice is given to a person coping with the loss of a loved one?

114. What advice should be given to an individual to help them support a person who is dying?

115. Discuss the ways of keeping funeral costs within a specific budget.

116. How do funerals allow people to respond to death?

117. Discuss physician-assisted suicide as a form of active voluntary euthanasia.

118. Discuss attitudes toward physician-assisted suicide as a form of active voluntary euthanasia.

119. Describe the first steps to be taken after a person’s death.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 120. Discuss children’s understanding and reaction to death.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. b

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Chap_19__HDEV6 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. c 49. a 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 55. c 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. c 60. b 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. d 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. c 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 83. b 84. c 85. a 86. d 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. b 91. b 92. a 93. c 94. d 95. b 96. a 97. b 98. a 99. b 100. d 101. Answers will vary. When euthanasia is carried out with a patient’s consent, it is called voluntary active euthanasia.

Voluntary active euthanasia remains illegal throughout most of the United States, although legal challenges to state laws are working their way through the courts. It is not illegal in some other countries, such as the Netherlands.

Involuntary active euthanasia stands on shakier moral, ethical, and legal ground than voluntary euthanasia.

In involuntary active euthanasia, a person causes the death of another person without that person’s informed consent. Cases of involuntary euthanasia usually involve patients who are comatose or otherwise incapacitated and whose guardians believe they would have wanted to die if they had retained the capacity to make the decision. Still, in the eyes of the law, it is considered homicide.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 102. Answers will vary. From her observations of terminally ill patients, Kübler-Ross found some common responses to news of impending death. She hypothesized that there are five stages of dying through which many dying patients pass. She has suggested that older people who suspect that death may be near may undergo similar responses: 1. Denial. In this stage, people think, “It can’t be me. The diagnosis must be wrong.” Denial can be flat and absolute, or it can fluctuate so that one minute the patient accepts the medical verdict, and the next, the patient starts chatting animatedly about distant plans.

2. Anger. Denial usually gives way to anger and resentment toward the young and healthy, and, sometimes, toward the medical establishment: “It’s unfair. Why me?” or “They didn’t catch it in time.”

3. Bargaining. People may bargain with God to postpone death, promising, for example, to do good deeds if they are given another six months, or another year.

4. Depression. With depression come feelings of grief, loss, and hopelessness—grief at the prospect of leaving loved ones and life itself.

5. Final acceptance. Ultimately, inner peace may come as a quiet acceptance of the inevitable. This “peace” is not contentment; it is nearly devoid of feeling. The patient may still fear death, but comes to accept it with a sense of peace and dignity.

103. Answers will vary. First of all, a frightened child should not be forced to attend a funeral. Another kind of service or observance may be more appropriate for them, such as lighting a candle, saying a prayer, or visiting a grave site at another time. Many helping professionals suggest avoiding the use of euphemisms that deny the reality the children face—euphemisms such as “Aunt Jane is sleeping comfortably now”. They also suggest responding to children’s questions and worries as honestly and openly as possible, but in a way that reassures them that you are available to help them cope with their loss. But here, of course, we again run into the issue of what the reality of death is; the person who believes in an afterlife, the agnostic, and the atheist all have different versions.

It is generally advised to let children know that they can express their feelings openly and freely without fear of criticism. Spend time with them, providing emotional support and reassurance. Also, be aware of danger signals—such as loss of sleep or appetite, depressed mood for several weeks, the development of excessive fears (such as fear of being alone), withdrawal from friends, a sharp decline in school performance, or refusal to attend school—that indicate the child may need professional help. There has been debate as to whether it is best to encourage children to let go of their ties to the person who has died, reach some sort of “closure,” and “move on” with their own lives. Research suggests that it is possible for children to maintain their bond with the deceased person even while they continue to grieve, invest in other relationships and new activities, and learn to live under the changed circumstances.

104. Answers will vary. Hospice care has the following characteristics: • Hospices offer palliative care, rather than curative treatment. They control pain and symptoms to enable the patient to live as fully and comfortably as possible.

• Hospices treat the person, not the disease. The hospice team addresses the medical, emotional, psychological, and spiritual needs of patients, family, and friends.

• Hospices emphasize quality, rather than length, of life, neither hastening nor postponing death.

• The hospice considers the entire family, not just the patient, to be the unit of care.

• Bereavement counseling is provided after the death.

• Help and support is available to the patient and family around the clock.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 105. Answers will vary. John Bowlby, the attachment theorist, was the first to propose a stage theory of grief for coping with bereavement. It included four stages: shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganizationdespair, and reorganization. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross adapted Bowlby’s stage theory to describe her fivestage reaction of terminally ill patients to knowledge of their own impending death: denial-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The stage theory of grief has become generally accepted when applied to various kinds of losses, including children’s responses to parental separation, adults’ responses to marital separation, and hospital staffs’ responses to the death of an inpatient. There is currently heavy reliance in medical education on the Kübler-Ross model of grief. Jacobs modified the stage theory of grief to include the following stages: numbness-disbelief, separation distress (yearning-anger-anxiety), depression-mourning, and recovery. Jacobs’ stage theory, like those that have come before, is largely based on anecdotes and case studies. In order to test Jacobs’ theory, Paul Maciejewski and his colleagues administered five items measuring disbelief, yearning, anger, depression, and acceptance of death to 233 bereaved individuals from 1 to 24 months following their losses. A number of findings are clear. Disbelief was highest just after the loss and gradually waned over the course of two years.

Acceptance of the loss shows the opposite course, being nonexistent at the outset, growing gradually, and peaking two years later. Yearning, anger, and depression rise suddenly in the predicted order and then each wanes gradually.

106. Answers will vary. Much current “death education” suggests that hospital staff and family members can support dying people by understanding the stages they are going through, by not imposing their own expectations on patients, and by helping patients achieve final acceptance when patients are ready to do so. But critics note that staff may be imposing Kübler-Ross’s expectations on dying patients. At the worst, some medical students and physicians attempt to have terminally ill patients experience a “good death” by breaking through denial of what is happening to them. Denial of impending death, to these professionals, seems to be a disease-like thing that they need to diagnose and treat. There are other critiques of the views of Kübler-Ross. For example, Kübler-Ross’s stages are limited to cases in which people receive a diagnosis of a terminal illness. Retsinas points out that most people die because of advanced years with no specific terminal diagnosis, and Kübler-Ross’s approach may not be of much use in helping us understand reactions under circumstances other than terminal illness. Edwin Shneidman acknowledges the presence of feelings such as those described by Kübler-Ross in dying people, but his research shows that individuals behave in dying more or less as they behaved during earlier periods when they experienced stress, failure, and threat. A gamut of emotional responses and psychological defenses emerges, especially denial; they can be observed in every death. However, the process of dying does not necessarily follow any progression of stages, as suggested by Kübler-Ross.

107. Answers will vary. The leading causes of death in early adulthood are accidents, suicide, and homicide.

Except for those living in high-risk environments such as war zones, some inner cities, or, in the case of women, places where there are high rates of maternal death during pregnancy and childbirth, young adults do not often die. Heart disease, cancer, HIV/AIDS, and, for women, complications of pregnancy, remain less common causes of death in the United States. In middle adulthood, heart disease and cancer have become the leading causes of death. People are advised to become proactive by screening for cardiovascular problems and several kinds of cancer. There are some gender differences with kinds of cancer, but educated women and men become aware that age is a risk factor for both heart disease and cancer, and they are likely to become aware of middle-aged people who died “untimely” deaths from these diseases.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 108. Answers will vary. Increasing numbers of dying people and their families are turning to hospice care to help make their final days as meaningful and pain-free as possible. More than one and one half million Americans receive hospice care each year, and the number has been growing. More than one-third of hospice patients are dying of cancer, and the next largest group of patients is suffering from heart disease. The word “hospice” derives from the Latin hospitium, meaning “hospitality,” the same root of the words hospital and hospitable. The derivation is fitting, as hospice centers provide a homelike atmosphere to help terminally ill patients approach death with a maximum of dignity and a minimum of pain and discomfort. When necessary, hospice services can provide care in inpatient settings such as hospitals, nursing facilities, or hospice centers, but most hospice care is provided in the patient’s home. Hospice workers typically work in teams that include physicians, nurses, social workers, mental health or pastoral counselors, and home health aides. Team members provide physical, medical, spiritual, and emotional support to the entire family, not just the patient. Bereavement specialists assist the family to prepare for the loss and help them through grieving after the death. In contrast to hospitals, hospices provide the patient and family with as much control over decision making as possible. The patient’s wishes not to be resuscitated or kept alive on life-support equipment are honored. Patients are given ample amounts of pain-killing narcotics to alleviate suffering. Hospices not only provide a more supportive environment for the patient and family, but they are less costly than hospital treatment, especially home-based care.

Though the patient may be required to pay some of the costs, most of the costs are borne by insurance plans.

109. Answers will vary. A living will is a legal document that people usually draft before their terminal illness that directs health-care workers not to use aggressive medical procedures or life-support equipment to prolong vegetative functioning in the event they became permanently incapacitated and unable to communicate their wishes. Terminally ill patients can insist, for example, that “Do not resuscitate” orders be included in their charts, directing doctors not to use CPR in the event they suffer cardiac arrest.

Living wills must be drafted in accordance with state laws. The living will only takes effect if people are unable to speak for themselves. For this reason, living wills usually identify a proxy such as the next of kin to make decisions in the event that the signer cannot communicate.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 110. Answers will vary. Most young adults in developed nations need not spend much time thinking about the possibility of their deaths. The leading causes of death in early adulthood are accidents, suicide, and homicide. Except for those living in high-risk environments such as war zones, some inner cities, or, in the case of women, places where there are high rates of maternal death during pregnancy and childbirth, young adults do not often die. Heart disease, cancer, HIV/AIDS, and, for women, complications of pregnancy, remain less common causes of death in the United States.

In middle adulthood, heart disease and cancer have become the leading causes of death. People are advised to become proactive by screening for cardiovascular problems and several kinds of cancer. There are some gender differences with kinds of cancer, but educated women and men become aware that age is a risk factor for both heart disease and cancer, and they are likely to become aware of middle-aged people who died “untimely” deaths from these diseases.

Heart disease and cancer remain the leading causes of death in late adulthood. As people move into advanced old age, many should no longer be driving due to loss of sensory acuity and slowed reaction time. They are also more prone to falls. Alzheimer’s disease and other dementias increase greatly. Some older people come to fear disability and discomfort nearly as much as death.

Theorists of social and emotional development in late adulthood suggest that ego transcendence, or concern for the well-being of humankind in general, enables some people to begin to face death with an inner calm. On the other hand, continuing with physical, leisure, and informal social activities are all associated with greater life satisfaction among older, retired people. There is no single formula for coping with physical decline and the approach of death.

111. Answers will vary. The death of a close friend or family member can be a traumatic experience. It typically leads to a state of bereavement, an emotional state of longing and deprivation that is characterized by feelings of grief and a deep sense of loss. Mourning not only is synonymous with grief over the death of a person but also describes culturally prescribed ways of displaying grief. There is neither one right way to grieve nor a fixed period of time for which grief should last. In some cases, especially for parents who have lost a child, grief never ends, although it does tend to lessen over time. People grieve in different ways. Some grieve more publicly, while others reveal their feelings only in private. You may not always know when someone is grieving. Grief usually involves a combination of emotions, especially depression, loneliness, feelings of emptiness, disbelief and numbness, apprehension about the future (“What will I do now?”), guilt (“I could have done something”), even anger (“They could have handled this better”). Grief may also be punctuated by relief that the deceased person is no longer suffering intense pain and by a heightened awareness of one’s own mortality. Grief may also compromise the immune system, leaving the person more vulnerable to disease. Researchers also find that the death of a loved one puts one at greater risk of committing suicide, especially during the first week following the loss.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 112. Answers will vary. Death is commonly defined as the cessation of life. Many people think of death as a part of life, but death is the termination of life and not a part of life. Dying, though, is a part of life. It is the end stage of life in which bodily processes decline, leading to death. Medical and legal professionals generally use brain death as the standard for determining that a person has died. The most widely used criteria for establishing brain death include absence of activity of the cerebral cortex, as shown by a flat EEG recording. When there is no activity in the cortex, consciousness—the sense of self and all psychological functioning—has ceased. The broader concept of whole brain death includes death of the brain stem, which is responsible for certain automatic functions, such as reflexes like breathing. Thus, a person who is “brain dead” can continue to breathe. On the other hand, in some cases people have been kept “alive,” even though they were whole-brain dead, by life-support equipment that took over their breathing and circulation. Death is also a legal matter. Most states rely on some combination of these criteria in establishing the legal standard of death. In most states, a person is considered legally dead if there is an irreversible cessation of breathing and circulation or if there is an irreversible cessation of brain activity, including activity in the brain stem, which controls breathing.

113. Answers will vary. The author gives the following advice to cope with the death of a loved one: First, take care of yourself. People who are grieving can become so absorbed with their loss that they fail to attend to their own personal needs. They may not eat or bathe. They may feel guilty doing things for themselves and avoid any pleasurable experiences. One can grieve without withdrawing from life. Allow yourself to feel your loss. Some people prefer to bottle up their feelings, but covering up feelings or trying to erase them with tranquilizers may prolong grieving. When you feel the time is right, turning to a trusted friend or a counselor may help you get in touch with your feelings. Don’t reject offers of help from friends and family. If they don’t know how they can help, tell them what you need. Don’t command yourself to get over it. Give yourself time. There is no fixed timetable for grief to run its course. Don’t let other people push you into moving on “to the next stage” unless you are prepared to do so. Join a bereavement support group. You will find that you are not alone in your suffering. Sharing experiences can help you cope better and work through your grief in a supportive environment.

114. Answers will vary. First of all, one must be there for the person who is dying. It is helpful to be available to listen, to talk, and to share experiences. It also helps to give the person the opportunity to talk about death and to grieve and also to talk about the ongoing lives of mutual acquaintances. People who are dying often need to focus on things other than impending death, and some enjoy humorous events. It is important to be aware of the person’s emotional state on any given day. Trying to minimize the person’s emotional pain or need to grieve by changing the subject or refusing to acknowledge it is not a good idea.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 115. Answers will vary. After their homes, automobiles, and children’s educations, funerals may be American families’ next largest expense. The guidelines below are helpful in arranging a funeral that meets the family’s needs and remains within a budget.

1. Have a good friend go with you to arrange the funeral. Bring someone who will be able to make decisions based on reason and good sense, rather than emotions or guilt.

2. If a funeral home has not yet been selected, shop around; you can and should ask about services and costs.

3. Be aware that some cemeteries offer the plot for free but then make their profits from charging exorbitant maintenance fees, opening and closing fees, charges for monuments, and other fees.

4. Veterans are entitled to a free burial plot in a national cemetery, but the family will incur the costs of transporting the body.

5. Caskets are often the major burial expense and can range from $500 to $50,000 or more! Recognize that the type of casket you choose makes no difference to the deceased person, and tell the funeral director to show you models that fall within the price range that you are comfortable paying.

116. Answers will vary. Funerals provide an organized way of responding to death that is tied to religious custom and cultural tradition. They offer family and community a ritual that allows them to grieve publicly and say farewell to the person who died. Funerals grant a kind of closure that can help observers begin to move on with their lives.

Family members of the deceased decide how simple or elaborate they prefer the funeral to be, whether they want embalming, and whether the deceased’s body should be buried or cremated. Sometimes these matters are spelled out by religious or family custom. Sometimes family members fight over them.

117. Answers will vary. In some cases of active voluntary euthanasia, physicians have assisted patients with terminal or incapacitating illnesses who wished to die by providing them with lethal doses of drugs or sometimes by administering the drugs when the patients were too ill to administer them themselves. The best-known cases of such physician-assisted suicides have involved Dr. Jack Kevorkian, a retired pathologist dubbed “Dr. Death” by the press for having assisted in more than 35 patient suicides.

Following an assisted suicide that was aired on 60 Minutes in 1998, Kevorkian was convicted of seconddegree homicide in Michigan and served eight years in prison. Unlike Kevorkian, an activist for the legalization of euthanasia who sought publicity to promote his cause, most physicians who assist in patient suicides avoid public scrutiny for fear of legal prosecution and sanctions by medical societies, which remain ethically opposed to the practice.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 118. Answers will vary. The issue of physician-assisted suicide continues to be debated among physicians and in the lay community, even though the American Medical Association and a majority of physicians oppose it. Physicians themselves are split on the question of whether this form of active euthanasia is ever justified. Physicians opposing assisted suicides often cite the belief that it goes against thousands of years of medical tradition of treating patients. Euthanasia is legal in the Netherlands, but that does not mean that it is undertaken lightly. For example, when a patient or a patient’s family requests euthanasia to relieve a terminally ill patient’s suffering, about half of the physicians try to avoid the issue because their values oppose it or it is emotionally burdensome. Many of these physicians suggest that it is often possible to lessen patients’ suffering without hastening their death. Physicians who were open to euthanasia explained that patients’ suffering sometimes could not be lessened with medicine. A nationally representative survey of American physicians found that 69% object to physician-assisted suicide, 18% object to terminal sedation, but only 5% object to withdrawal of artificial life support. Religion played a role in the physicians’ attitudes: 84% of highly religious physicians objected to physician-assisted suicide, as compared with 55% of physicians who were not particularly religious; 25% of highly religious physicians objected to terminal sedation, as compared with 12% of less religious physicians. A survey of 988 terminally ill patients found that 60.2% said they supported euthanasia or physician-assisted suicide in general, but only 10.6% reported seriously considering it for themselves. Patients who were 65 and older and who felt more appreciated by others were less likely to consider euthanasia and suicide. Not surprisingly, depression, pain, and substantial caregiving needs all contributed to consideration of suicide.

Euthanasia, defined as performance of the death-inducing act by another person (such as a physician), is illegal nearly everywhere in the United States. Oregon and Washington enacted Death with Dignity Acts (in 1997 and 2008, respectively). Death with Dignity Act isbeing signed into law elsewhere as well. These acts in Oregon and Washington enable terminally ill patients to ask physicians to prescribe lethal doses of medication. The medication is then administered by patients themselves.

119. Answers will vary. If one is present at someone’s death, call the family doctor, the police, or 911. A doctor is needed to complete the death certificate and indicate the cause of death. If the cause of death cannot be readily determined, a coroner or medical examiner may become involved to determine the cause of death.

Once the person’s body has been examined by the doctor and the death certificate has been completed, a funeral director may be contacted to remove the body from the home or the hospital, and arrangements may be made for burial, cremation, or placement in a mausoleum. If death occurs unexpectedly or foul play is involved or suspected, an autopsy may be performed to determine the cause and circumstances of death. Sometimes an autopsy is performed, with the family’s consent, if the knowledge gained from the procedure could benefit medical science.

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Chap_19__HDEV6 120. Answers will vary. Children, for example, seem to follow something of a Piagetian route in their cognitive development although reversibility is reversed—in other words, they begin by thinking of death as reversible and, by about the time they enter school, they see it as irreversible. Many young children lack the cognitive ability to understand the permanent nature of death. Preschoolers may think that death is reversible or temporary, a belief reinforced by cartoon characters that die and come back to life again.

Nevertheless, their thinking becomes increasingly realistic as they progress through the ages of four through seven. It appears that children’s understanding of death is increased as they learn about the biology of the human body and how various organs contribute to the processes of life. Loss is often most difficult to bear for children, especially when it involves the loss of a parent. Death of a loved one strikes at the core of a child’s sense of security and well-being. Older children may feel guilty because of the mistaken belief that they brought about the death by once wishing for the person to die. The loss of security may lead to anger, which may be directed toward surviving family or expressed in aggressive play. They also may show regressive or infantile behaviors, such as talking “baby talk” or becoming more demanding of food or attention. Some children may persist for several weeks in maintaining the belief that the deceased person is still alive. Though child psychiatrists believe this is normal, prolonged denial can be a harbinger of the development of more severe problems. When children learn about death, it is normal for them to fear it. But children in various cultures are also taught that it is possible to survive death, either through reincarnation, as in some Eastern religions, or as in the transcendence of the soul, as in Christianity. Children in the United States are sometimes told things like “Your father is now in heaven and you will see him there again. Meanwhile, he is watching over you.” The concept of surviving death renders death less permanent and less frightening to many children—and adults.

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