TEST BANK for Introduction to Psychology: Gateways to Mind and Behavior 16th Edition. by Dennis Coon

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Chap 01_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Ochanya is convinced that her purple hair clips are lucky. Every time she wears them, her soccer team wins the game. Last week, Ochanya could not find the purple hair clips and wore her black ones. This time her team lost the game. She believes that the team lost due to her hair clips. What is this an example of? a. phrenology b. awareness bias c. superstition d. critical acceptance 2. A researcher would like to study the effects of coffee on memory retention. In order to make an objective assessment of memory retention, she will first need to establish a(n) a. operational definition for memory retention. b. theory for how coffee will affect memory retention. c. set of variables to use in the study. d. comprehensive report on previous studies related to memory retention and aging.

3. A human resource manager at a large organization is looking to enhance his hiring skills by taking additional psychology courses at a local college. Which area of psychology would be most beneficial for him? a. developmental psychology b. industrial-organizational psychology c. sensation and perception psychology d. evolutionary psychology 4. Which pseudoscience refers to the bumps on one's head relating to personality traits and abilities? a. phrenology b. extrasensory perception c. psychoanalysis d. subliminal persuasion 5. The evening news reporter spoke of a story where they said drinking red wine was beneficial to overall health, but they only gave the journal where the information was published. Upon review of this original research, Robert realizes there was no control group. Should Robert consider the research to be valid? a. Maybe—If there was justification for no control group, the research may still be valid. b. No—Since there was no control group, the research should not have been published. c. No—Since there was no control group, the research needs to be replicated. d. Maybe—If he can validate the finding with additional research on the same topic.

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Chap 01_16e 6. Researchers are interested in seeing how many drivers are on their cell phones while leaving the parking lot.

The parking lot has one exit, so the two researchers each write down driver gender, car color, and whether the driver was on the phone or not. Data gathered would then be analyzed for significance. What process did the researchers use to gather data? a. scientific observation b. natural selection c. pseudoscience d. phrenology 7. What are psychology’s goals? a. to predict, describe, understand, and control behavior b. to predict, research, manipulate, and fix behavior c. to analyze, describe, diagnose, and medicate d. to analyze, judge, prescribe, and control behavior 8. An operational definition defines a scientific concept by stating a. the specific actions or procedures used to measure it. b. the general idea of what they want to collect data on. c. which population data is being collected on. d. the vague, nonspecific actions or procedures used to measure it.

9. Aki has been researching the impact of the plastics on ocean wildlife for his environmental science class. Aki has found a variety of different websites related to this topic that all say the same thing. Which of the following should Aki consider when reviewing the information found on the websites to determine if it is valid? a. Is the information easy to understand? b. What are the sources the websites use to support their information? c. What famous people support the views of those websites? d. Is there support for the information on social media?

10. Your roommate is researching if consuming a low carbohydrate diet will result in increased weight loss for their health class. In the study, one group of participants follows a low-carb diet for three weeks and a second group follows a high-carb diet containing the same number of calories for three weeks. The average number of pounds lost for each group is then compared. What is the dependent variable? a. The number of pounds lost. b. The length of time on the diet. c. The amount of carbs in each diet. d. The number of calories in each diet.

11. When an investigator manipulates at least one variable while measuring another, they are conducting a(n) a. experiment. b. survey. c. research study. d. biased sample.

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Chap 01_16e 12. In scientific research, the process of naming and classifying is defined as a. description. b. evaluation. c. analysis. d. critical thinking.

13. Paul has been feeling depressed lately and his counselor has suggested that he may need medication to help alleviate these feelings. Who can Paul go to for a prescription, and should he do anything else to manage his depression? a. Paul can get a prescription from his counselor. He should not seek any additional help to manage his depression. b. Paul can get a prescription from a pharmacist. He should talk to his friends and ask them for tips on managing his depression. c. Paul can a prescription from a psychiatrist. He should continue to see his counselor to talk about his feelings. d. Paul can get a prescription from a psychologist. He should continue to see his counselor to talk about his feelings.

14. Kwaku is a researcher who wants to know whether drinking caffeine makes people nervous. Some participants are given two glasses of a caffeinated beverage and some are given water to drink. An hour later all of the participants are tested to determine their level of nervousness. Which of the following is the independent variable in this experiment? a. the amount of time it takes the participants to drink their beverage b. the level of nervousness c. the caffeinated beverage d. the water 15. Which of these is a form of critical thinking based on careful measurement, controlled observation, and repeatable results? a. scientific method b. hypothesis c. falsification d. self-actualization 16. Who is an advisor who helps solve problems with marriage, career, school, or work? a. psychoanalyst b. counselor c. psychologist d. psychiatrist

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Chap 01_16e 17. Which of the following refers to the part of the mind in which we are subjectively unaware and not open to introspection? a. cognitive unconscious b. preconscious mind c. cognitive conscious d. subconscious mind 18. Which of the following is an advantage of the experimental method of conducting research? a. It can address questions not answered by other research approaches. b. It allows investigation of rare or unusual problems or events. c. It demonstrates the existence of relationships and allows prediction. d. It allows powerful controlled observations to be staged.

19. Farhad finds a wallet on the ground in front of a coffee shop. He takes it into the coffee shop to turn it in. Celia asks Farhad why he turned it in, when she knows he could use the money from in the wallet. Farhad said he would like to think that if he lost his wallet, someone would turn it in without taking anything. Farhad’s behavior is in accordance with which psychological perspective? a. behaviorism b. psychoanalytic c. humanistic d. determinism 20. What factor prevents a researcher from conducting a true experimental study on the effects of traumatic brain injuries on various age groups? a. With various age groups, the experimental study will require a fixed control group. b. With a true experimental study, there needs to be an additional variable other than age. c. With age as a variable, the participants are unable to be randomly selected. d. With traumatic brain injuries, the study could only be qualified as quasi-experimental.

21. Which of the following attempts to explain behavior in terms of brain processes, genetics, and adaptive aspects? a. biological perspective b. psychodynamic perspective c. humanistic perspective d. cognitive perspective 22. For every "A" that Linsey earns on her report card, she is rewarded with a trip to the movies. Linsey really loves going to the movie theatre, so she begins studying harder to get better grades, and more "As" on her report card. Which perspective applies to what Linsey is experiencing? a. cognitive b. evolutionary c. humanistic d. behavioral

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Chap 01_16e 23. In psychology, which is the ability to alter conditions that influence behavior? a. control b. prediction c. critical thinking d. research 24. Like behaviorism, which of these relies primarily upon objective observation rather than subjective introspection? a. cognitive psychology b. experimental psychology c. Gestalt psychology d. humanistic psychology 25. River wants to conduct research on distracted driving behaviors. River's psychology professor wants to know exactly what distracted driving includes. What does River need to do to solve this problem? a. River needs to collect more published research articles about distracted driving. b. River needs to operationally define what distracted driving behaviors the study will focus on. c. River needs to randomize the participants to various distracted driving conditions. d. River needs to survey fellow classmates to determine what distracted driving means to them.

26. Which of the following fields analyzes sensations and personal experience as basic elements? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviorism d. biopsychosocial 27. Which of these describes random assignment? a. The use of chance to place subjects in experimental and control groups. b. The assignment of intelligence levels of members into various groups. c. The process of assigning all participants to one condition and not another. d. The process of assigning the behavior of members in control groups.

28. April has a headache and takes the experimental drug that was given to her as part of the study. She does not know whether it is the real drug, but the researchers do. What is this an example of? a. single-blind study b. double-blind study c. researcher bias d. participant bias

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Chap 01_16e 29. Which statement is a clear illustration of confirmation bias? a. “If it was good enough for my grandmother, then it’s good enough for me.” b. “I keep hearing all about it on the news, so there must be some truth to it.” c. “My barber told me to try using baking soda to get out tough carpet stains.” d. “I believe everyone who drives a red car is a rude driver, even though blue cars cut me off just as frequently.”

30. Which of the following refers to a research method based on careful recording of behavior in normal settings? a. survey method b. case study c. naturalistic observation d. artificial observation 31. Michelle was helping to conduct a research study and did not lock up the surveys at the end of the day. The next day, all the participant information was shared on social media. Which guideline for conducting research did Michelle violate? a. voluntary participation b. anonymous participation c. maintenance of confidentiality d. treating participants with respect 32. How is behaviorism defined? a. A school of thought in psychology that considers behaviors in terms of active adaptations. b. The view that any muscular action, glandular activity, or other identifiable aspect of behavior must be considered. c. The school of thought in psychology that emphasizes study of observable actions over study of the mind. d. Darwin’s theory that evolution favors those plants and animals best suited to their living conditions.

33. Karen has been studying the psychology of bonobo apes. She is particularly interested in the relationship between newborn bonobos and their mothers. Karen plans to use her study results to gain further insight into the relationship between human mothers and their babies. Which perspective applies to what Karen has been studying? a. ethical b. evolutionary c. biopsychosocial d. humanistic 34. Which of the following psychologists would study the physical brain and body structures that underlie behavior and mental processes? a. biopsychologist b. clinical psychologist c. developmental psychologist d. pathologist

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Chap 01_16e 35. Which is a nonexperimental study that quantifies the degree to which events, measures, or variables are associated? a. correlational research b. naturalistic observation c. case study d. survey 36. Which type of research allows researchers to combine the data from numerous previously published studies? a. meta-analysis b. experiment c. factor analysis d. correlation 37. An interdisciplinary approach acknowledging that biological, psychological, and social factors interact to influence human behavior and mental processes is called a. biopsychosocial model. b. cognitive psychology. c. positive psychology. d. cultural relativity.

38. Logan is conducting a research survey to determine which social media platforms college students use. What is one way for Logan to avoid a gender bias in the research? a. Logan can select participants from the people in the research methods class. b. Logan can randomly survey the people that live in the same dorm. c. Logan can randomly select participants for the survey and not worry about the participants' gender. d. Logan can select an equal number of men and women to complete the survey.

39. Megan is a researcher interested in how many parents with children walk by the toy store in the mall without stopping in. She creates a quick table with check boxes to include whether the parent is a man or a woman, the child is a boy or a girl, how many children are together, and what day of the week and time of day it is. The families walking by, take notice of Megan taking notes, and come into the store. Which of the following is this an example of? a. observer bias b. observer effect c. participant effect d. researcher bias 40. Research where neither the observer nor the participants know which treatment was received is called a a. double-blind study. b. biased sample. c. survey method. d. single-blind study.

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Chap 01_16e 41. The predicted outcome of an experiment or an educated guess about the relationship between variables is known as a(n) a. hypothesis. b. theory. c. analysis. d. falsification.

42. Jim and Carol have been married for nearly ten years, but since the last year, they have been fighting more than usual. It has been suggested to them to see a professional to help get their marriage back on track. Who of the following would be the best to help them? a. counselor b. psychiatrist c. psychoanalyst d. clinician 43. Sharib is conducting a series of tests on graphology, or the study of handwriting. His data has conclusively indicated that this particular form of psychological analysis does not have any validity in determining personality.

Belief that handwriting is an indicator of personality is an example of a. confirmation bias. b. pseudoscience. c. critical acceptance. d. uncritical acceptance.

44. Which of the following refers to the process of fully developing personal potentials? a. self-actualization b. self-realization c. neuroticism d. narcissism 45. A psychologist begins to research a hypothesis to prove why she thinks that her colleague’s recent findings are not true. What process in psychology is this person attempting to achieve in this investigation? a. falsification b. critical thinking c. replication d. prediction 46. Your college wants to survey the students and community members about the various community services that are offered on campus and how often they are being used. To do this, the college used the current school roster and local mailing addresses to select participants from. The college then used a computer program that selected every 6th name on the list to participate in their survey. What is this an example of? a. natural selection b. control group c. experimental group d. random selection Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_16e 47. Raphael has been learning in class that societal norms and value impact one’s decision-making behaviors. It is most likely that Raphael has been learning about which psychological perspective? a. behavioral perspective b. social perspective c. biological perspective d. humanistic perspective 48. Which of the following doctrines argued that search for building blocks of experience was useless since the brain and mind are constantly changing? a. functionalism b. determinism c. structuralism d. fundamentalism 49. Which of the following is a definition of a psychiatrist? a. A mental health professional who specializes in helping people with problems related to their marriage, career, work, and/or school. b. A medical professional with additional training in psychoanalysis. c. A medical doctor with additional training in the diagnosis and treatment of mental and emotional disorders. d. A psychologist who specializes in the research and treatment of psychological and behavior disturbances.

50. Which of the following does a researcher want to prevent from affecting the outcome of the experiment? a. independent variable b. extraneous variable c. dependent variable d. experimental variable 51. Which of the following is a disadvantage of naturalistic observation as a method of conducting research? a. Some natural behavior is not easily studied in the laboratory. b. Observations may be biased, and causes cannot be conclusively identified. c. Relationships may be coincidental, and cause-and-effect relationships cannot be confirmed. d. Subjective interpretation is often necessary, and a single case may be misleading or unrepresentative.

52. What is the study of sensations and personal experience characterized as basic elements? a. functionalism b. psychoanalysis c. behaviorism d. structuralism

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Chap 01_16e 53. Which of the following refer(s) to the rules that define acceptable and expected behavior for members of a group? a. social norms b. cultural relativity c. gender bias d. social bias 54. Which of the following is an example of a positive correlation? a. average income and shoe size b. average income and heart disease c. school grades and amount of time spent daily playing video games d. height and weight 55. Which of the following is defined as the study of thinking, learning, and perception in whole units, not by analysis into parts? a. Gestalt psychology b. functionalism c. consumer psychology d. structuralism 56. Personal observation of one's own thoughts, feelings, or behavior is called a. introspection. b. cognitive unconscious. c. imageless thought. d. critical thinking.

57. In research, an animal whose behavior is studied to derive principles that may apply to human behavior is called a/an a. animal model. b. behavioral model. c. social model. d. anthropomorphic model.

58. A behaviorist approach that rejects both introspection and any study of mental events, such as thinking, as inappropriate topics for scientific psychology is called a. radical behaviorism. b. determinism. c. Neo-Freudian. d. psychoanalysis.

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Chap 01_16e 59. Anton is told he is bad at math. The more he is told this, the more he believes it. His math grade goes down as his test and homework performance decreases. This is an example of a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. a confirmation prophecy. c. researcher bias. d. participant bias.

60. A study where only the participants remain unaware of whether they are in the experimental group or the control group is called a a. meta-analysis study. b. single-blind study. c. field research study. d. double-blind study.

61. Carl, a new driver, attempted to text his girlfriend while driving. When the car in front of him stopped at a red light, Carl, distracted, rear-ended the car. Which of the following is the extraneous variable in this situation? a. Carl is a new driver. b. The car stopped at the red light. c. Carl hit the car in front of him. d. Carl was texting while driving.

62. Which of the following refers to participants in an experimental study who do not receive the treatment under investigation? a. experimental group b. dependent variable c. extraneous variable d. control group 63. Which is the study of people as inherently good and motivated to learn and improve? a. humanistic psychology b. biopsychology c. Freudian psychology d. psychodynamic theory 64. Which of the following statements relates to the term Gestalt psychology? a. study of dreams and their meaning b. study of thinking and perception in whole units c. study of one's attachment to significant others d. study of cognitive dissonance

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Chap 01_16e 65. A marketing firm is looking to revamp packaging so that it will be more eye catching for shoppers, in an effort to increase sales. Which psychologist applies his research to this field? a. clinical psychologist b. comparative psychologist c. cultural psychologist d. consumer psychologist 66. A professor gives her English class a survey at the start of the semester. After reviewing the data, she wants to know if her English class is a representative sample of the overall school population. She should compare her class’s results to the results of a. the entire university system. b. the university’s math classes. c. a different university in town. d. all the English classes at the school.

67. Jeffrey is watching television and a commercial comes on for diet pills. Someone in a lab coat similar to the one his family doctor wears guarantees that these pills will cause weight loss. Jeffrey orders the pills since he trusts the person wearing the lab coat, like he trusts his family doctor. Which of these is this an example of? a. phrenology b. pseudoscience c. awareness bias d. uncritical acceptance 68. Which of the following is the school of psychology that considers behaviors in terms of active adaptations? a. functionalism b. Gestalt psychology c. non-functionalism d. structuralism 69. A yoga class was being offered with a new meditative technique focusing on each individual sense and how each piece of information was interpreted by each person. This relaxation and training technique worked for each person in the class because a. everyone had the same thoughts from this training technique, since they all learned it at the same time. b. each individual experienced sensations and perceptions differently than anyone else in the room due to retrospection. c. everyone had the same experience from this training technique, since they all learned it at the same time. d. each individual experienced sensations and perceptions differently than anyone else in the room due to introspection.

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Chap 01_16e 70. While on vacation with his family, Hector meet a few people from California that only eat organic food. Later he read an article about a town in California where residents grow their own food and do not carry nonorganic foods in their grocery store. Hector concludes that Californians are very particular about their food choices.

What type of error in critical thinking does this illustrate? a. falsification b. disconfirming evidence c. an error between correlation and causation d. oversimplification 71. The people or animals whose behavior is under investigation in an experiment are called what? a. subjects b. conditions c. variables d. placebo 72. Which of these describes a double-blind study? a. Research where neither the observer nor the participants know which treatment was received. b. Research where both the observer and the participants know which treatment was received. c. Research where the observer knows, but the participants do not know which treatment was received. d. Research where the observer does not know but the participants know which treatment was received.

73. What is a superstition? a. The tendency to remember or notice information that fits one’s expectations. b. An unfounded belief held without evidence or in spite of falsifying evidence. c. The tendency to believe claims because they seem true or because it would be nice if they were true. d. Someone with a dominant personality that can strongly influence other people.

74. Which of the following statements accurately describes an example of controlling researcher bias? a. June reads the script through a voice modulator, so that participants cannot recognize the sound of her voice. b. June wears the same lab coat and reads the same script every time she interacts with participants. c. June reads from a script to familiarize participants with the sound of her voice. d. June wears the same lab coat and reads a different script every time she interacts with participants.

75. Which of these is a condition or factor that may change and is excluded from influencing the outcome of an experiment? a. extraneous variable b. dependent variable c. control group d. random assignment

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Chap 01_16e 76. Which of these is an experimental outcome that would rarely occur by chance alone? a. statistically significant results b. practical applications c. research participant bias d. anthropomorphic error 77. Which of the following describes a field of study that only focuses on whole units of thinking, learning, and perception? a. Gestalt psychology b. structural psychology c. evolutionary psychology d. phrenology 78. What is the broader field within the biological perspective that specializes in the study of the brain and nervous system? a. psychoanalysis b. neuroscience c. evolution d. phrenology 79. Gail has just finished reading a research paper and was intrigued by some of the source material listed in the paper. She begins to look up all of the websites listed in the reference material. What should Gail remember when confirming the accuracy of web-based information? a. Extensions such as .gov (a government website) are typically less reliable than information coming from sites with extensions such as .com. b. Sites with extensions such as .gov, .edu, and .k12 can be purchased by companies and individuals with their own special interests. c. Academic websites are often unreliable because they are only associated with that particular university’s special interests. d. Websites that claim to be scientific and that quote studies can sometimes be unreliable in their assessment of source material.

80. Which of the following is a disadvantage of correlational research? a. Obtaining a representative sample is critical and can be difficult to do. b. It does not provide a control group for comparison. c. Cause-and-effect relationships cannot be confirmed. d. Observed behavior may be altered by the presence of the observer.

81. Which of the following is an unfounded belief held without evidence or in spite of falsifying evidence? a. superstition b. introspection c. confirmation bias d. uncritical acceptance

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Chap 01_16e 82. One of the advantages of the experimental method is that it allows for a(n) a. clear cause-and-effect relationship to be identified. b. behavior to be observed in a natural setting without interference. c. investigation of rare or unusual problems or events. d. large amount of information about a large group of people to be gathered.

83. In the context of the scientific method, a theory is a(n) a. prediction of the relationship between the variables b. deliberate attempt to uncover how a commonsense belief might be false. c. process to determine whether results are accurate. d. organized systems of assumptions and principles to explain a specific set of interrelationships.

84. Which is a problem in which experimenters see what they expect to see or record only selected details? a. observer bias b. anthropomorphic error c. observer effect d. participant bias 85. One afternoon, Connor, and Pradeep decided to ride the escalator backwards at the mall. They got lots of weird looks, some people pointed, and even heard a group of people laughing at them. What behavior did they display? a. a biological norm violation b. acculturative stress c. a social norm violation d. cultural relativity 86. Which of the following is an advantage of the survey method of conducting research? a. It allows information about large numbers of people to be gathered. b. It allows investigation of rare or unusual problems or events. c. It allows prediction and can be used in a lab, clinic, or natural setting. d. It allows the formulation of hypotheses and questions for additional research.

87. Who accepted the basic features of Freud’s theory, but revised it to include cultural and social factors? a. Neo-Freudians b. Non-Freudians c. Anti-Freudian psychologists d. Psycholinguists 88. Researchers are analyzing various traffic accidents in an effort to reduce the number of traffic accidents across the United States. What statement best reflects their prediction for this research? a. If we can understand what happened, we can describe the situation. b. If we can describe the nature of these accidents, we can predict when or how they might occur. c. We could only understand these situations if we were there when they happened. d. We will never be able to describe or control these conditions out in the real world.

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Chap 01_16e 89. Which of these is the idea that behavior must be judged in relation to the values of the society in which it occurs? a. cultural relativity b. positive psychology c. evolutionary psychology d. social relativity 90. Acacia reviewed her correlational data and obtained a coefficient of 0.12 for the association between the amount of sleep someone obtains each night and their overall happiness. Which statement accurately represents what this information means? a. There is a moderate negative relationship between amount of sleep obtained and happiness. b. There is a weak negative relationship between amount of sleep obtained and happiness. c. There is a moderate positive relationship between amount of sleep obtained and happiness. d. There is a weak positive relationship between amount of sleep obtained and happiness.

91. A large university is interested in finding out what majors make up their enrollment for this academic year, so they know what classes to offer in the upcoming semesters. What research option would be best used to obtain this information? a. correlational research b. survey method c. naturalistic observation d. case study (clinical method) 92. The Federal Drug Administration is testing a new drug for high blood pressure. They have recruited patients to try their new drug and fill out a survey based on their use of their new pill and any side effects. The participants do not know if they have the real or fake drug, but both groups report side effects. What is this an example of? a. researcher effect b. blind effect c. pseudo effect d. placebo effect 93. In which circumstance would a researcher be only able to run a quasi-experiment? a. researching the effects of a multi-vitamin on energy levels b. researching how sunlight affects sleep patterns c. researching how calcium absorption changes with aging d. researching the effects of daily exercise on glucose levels 94. What is the first step of the scientific method? a. Examine information from previously published studies. b. Propose a hypothesis. c. Build a theory. d. Define the problem.

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Chap 01_16e 95. Which of the following refers to a psychologist who specializes in the treatment of milder emotional and behavioral disturbances? a. counseling psychologist b. clinical psychologist c. psychoanalyst d. counselor 96. In the United States, which of the following professionals must have a doctoral degree in psychology? a. clinical psychologists b. psychoanalysts c. psychiatrists d. psychotherapists 97. Jim was studying the basic component parts of each of the paintings that hung in the gallery prior to standing back and viewing the picture as a whole. Each element in the painting evoked a different response from Jim. The way Jim viewed the paintings is an example of a. structuralism. b. functionalism. c. humanism. d. behaviorism.

98. Janice was starting a new yoga class which had a meditation component to it. She learned how to focus on her breathing and inner emotional state while in class. She was able to use her new skills as she encountered new experiences the following week. Janice learned what skill in her class? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. introspection d. retrospection 99. The Freudian approach to psychotherapy, emphasizing the exploration of unconscious using free association, dream interpretation, resistances, and transference to uncover unconscious conflicts is called a. psychoanalysis. b. Freudian theory. c. psychodynamic theory. d. Neo-Freudianism.

100. What is confirmation bias? a. The tendency to believe claims because they seem true, or because it would be nice if they were true. b. The tendency to remember information that fits one’s expectations while ignoring discrepancies. c. Unfounded belief held without evidence or in spite of falsifying evidence. d. Personal observation of your own thoughts, feelings, and behavior.

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Chap 01_16e 101. The study of sensations and personal experience analyzed as basic elements is called a. structuralism. b. Gestalt psychology. c. scientific observation. d. functionalism.

102. Biopsychology is the study of a. the brain, nervous system, and other physical origins of behavior. b. human thinking and information processing abilities. c. community-wide mental health through research, prevention, education, and consultation. d. internal motives, conflicts, and unconscious motives.

103. Biopsychologists and others who study the brain and nervous system, such as biologists and biochemists, comprise the broader field of a. neuroscience. b. evolution. c. pseudoscience. d. psychoanalysis.

104. Which of the following is the only difference between experimental and control groups and the only possible cause of a change in the dependent variable? a. random assignment b. comparative differences c. independent variable d. extraneous variable 105. Kevin performed a research study and obtained statistically significant results. Jason asked him for the step-bystep process he used to complete his research study, so that Jason could do the same study at his university.

Which of the following is Jason attempting to do? a. Jason is attempting to replicate Kevin’s study to increase reliability of the research. b. Jason is attempting to validate Kevin’s study to increase reliability of the research. c. Jason is attempting to invalidate Kevin’s study to decrease reliability of the research. d. Jason is attempting to replicate Kevin’s study to decrease reliability of the research.

106. Jennifer viewed a set of paintings in a gallery. She tried to view each element separately, but could only focus on whole paintings instead of component parts. Jennifer focused on what concept? a. functionalism b. structuralism c. Gestalt psychology d. commonsense psychology

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Chap 01_16e 107. A researcher studies why highly successful employees left their careers to become stay-at-home parents. The researcher's goal is to understand the events and personality traits that led to the person becoming a stay-athome parent. Which type of research method might this researcher use? a. case study b. correlational study c. quasi-experimental study d. observational study 108. April’s son has been acting violently toward other children in school. She decides to take her son to a child psychologist, who takes a sample of April’s son’s blood to test his testosterone levels. With this, the psychologist can confirm that they are in balance with his age and maturity level. Which psychological perspective applies to April’s situation? a. biological b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. biopsychosocial 109. What is functionalism? a. School of psychology that considers behaviors in terms of active adaptations. b. Study of thinking, learning, and perception in whole units only, not parts. c. School of psychology that studies individual sensations and personal experiences. d. School of psychology that emphasizes study of observable actions over study of the mind.

110. In which circumstance would a researcher need to first establish an operational definition in order to objectively assess its variable? a. researching the effects of coffee on energy levels b. researching the effects of water on the metabolic rate c. researching the effects of salt on systolic blood pressure d. researching the effects of magnesium on the average number of hours of slept at night 111. Holly is conducting a study to see if eating three servings of vegetables every day increases weight loss. Which of the following is this an example of? a. theoretical explanation b. hypothesis statement c. operational definition d. empirical definition 112. Which of the following is an advantage of case studies? a. They allow for the investigation of rare or unusual problems or events. b. They allow information about large numbers of people to be gathered quickly. c. The information gained from case studies can be easily generalized to other individuals. d. Case studies are less susceptible to researcher bias.

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Chap 01_16e 113. Which of the following is a basic principle of critical thinking? a. Religious beliefs and personal values should be evaluated by applying the rules of logic, evidence, and the scientific method. b. If an authority is sincere or convincing, you can safely believe his/her ideas to be true. c. Judging the quality of the evidence is crucial. d. Critical thinking requires open-mindedness to the point of being gullible.

114. Which of the following statements highlights the differences between experimental and control groups? a. Control groups receive the intervention, while experimental groups do not receive the intervention. b. Both control groups and experimental groups receive intervention. c. Control groups do not receive the intervention. Experimental groups receive the intervention. d. Neither control groups nor experimental groups receive intervention.

115. Akira is attempting to test a hypothesis through an experiment. He has just finished creating a concrete set of operational definitions. What would be the next step in his study? a. Akira needs to develop a theory that interrelates concepts to summarize existing data. b. Akira needs to create an outline of his research report that details his methods. c. Akira needs to confirm that his methods adhere to the basic ethical guidelines of psychologists. d. Akira needs to gather evidence to test the hypothesis he has proposed.

116. The study of people as inherently good and motivated to learn and improve is called a. evolutionary psychology. b. psychoanalysis. c. determinism. d. humanistic psychology.

117. A failure to evaluate claims with sufficient logical rigor is called a. uncritical acceptance. b. confirmation bias. c. common sense psychology. d. unconsciousness.

118. Which of these refers to the inability to become subjectively aware of some mental processes? a. imageless thought b. natural selection c. functionalism d. structuralism

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Chap 01_16e 119. Carrie wants to study digestion in dogs, similar to Pavlov's research. She decides to use all the dogs in her apartment complex for her research study, but not inform their owners. Which of the following statements best describes how Carrie violated research guidelines? a. Carrie used the neighborhood dogs without their owners’ permission. b. Carrie violated the replication research guidelines. c. Carrie used animals, which is inhumane. d. Carrie did not violate any research guidelines.

120. Which of the following refers to the idea that all behavior has prior causes that would completely explain one’s choices and actions if all such causes were known? a. determinism b. psychological evolution c. psychoanalysis d. humanistic psychology 121. Which of the following refers to someone who specializes in the treatment of psychological and behavioral disturbances or who does research on such disturbances? a. clinical psychologist b. consumer psychologist c. psychoanalyst d. psychotherapist 122. Study of any directly observable action or response—eating, hanging out, sleeping, talking, or sneezing—is referred to as a. behaviorism. b. determinism. c. evolution. d. humanism.

123. Which of the following statements accurately contrasts Gestalt psychology and structuralism? a. Gestalt psychology focuses on learning the entire picture; structuralism focuses on the component parts of the picture. b. Structuralism focuses on learning the entire picture; Gestalt psychology focuses on the component parts of the picture. c. Gestalt psychology uses personal observation of your own perceptions of the basic parts; structuralism uses personal experiences to analyze the whole picture. d. Gestalt psychology uses personal experiences of your own perceptions of the basic parts; structuralism uses personal observations to analyze the whole picture.

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Chap 01_16e 124. Jim was doing research on the impact of drinking milk on health. He found a website that contained information that said milk was bad for your health. While Jim was reviewing the website, he noticed that the information was posted on a blog. What should Jim do with this information about milk? a. Jim should not use this research as scholarly since it is a blog page and not peer reviewed. b. Jim should contact the writer of this blog page and confirm the validity of the writer’s research. c. Jim should contact the writer of this blog page and find out if it was peer reviewed. d. Jim should feel comfortable using this research since it is a blog page and a scholarly work.

125. Which school of psychology considers behaviors in terms of active adaptations? a. Gestalt psychology b. behaviorism c. functionalism d. structuralism 126. Megan is a researcher interested in how many parents with children visit the toy store in the mall. She creates a quick table with check boxes to include the parents' gender, the child's gender, how many children, and the age range of the children. Which type of research is Megan most likely conducting? a. quasi-experimental research b. case study (clinical method) c. naturalistic observation d. correlational research 127. Michelle has been diagnosed with an extremely rare illness. Which research option would best be used to investigate this type of illness? a. survey method b. correlational research c. naturalistic observation d. case study (clinical method) 128. Mental processes are strongly influenced by a combination of a. biological, psychological, and social factors. b. environmental and evolutionary factors. c. humanistic and biological factors. d. evolutionary and social factors.

129. Which is a mental health professional who specializes in helping people with problems that do not involve serious mental disorders? a. counselor b. psychologist c. psychoanalyst d. consultant

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Chap 01_16e 130. Which of the following ranges from −1.00 to +1.00 and indicates the direction and strength of association? a. correlation index b. coefficient of correlation c. causation coefficient d. case study index 131. Before gathering data, Margaret wrote that she believed more men than women would drive trucks to school.

What is this an example of? a. hypothesis b. theory c. operational definition d. scientific method 132. Arjun conducts research on whether the amount of screen-time students have weekly decreases test scores.

While analyzing his data, he notes that the correlation coefficient is −0.78. Which statement accurately represents what this information means? a. There is a negative relationship between screen-time and test scores. b. There is no relationship between screen-time and test scores. c. There is a positive relationship between screen-time and test scores. d. There is a causal relationship between screen-time and test scores.

133. The tendency to believe claims because they seem true or because it would be nice if they were true is called a. uncritical acceptance. b. confirmation bias. c. critical acceptance. d. awareness bias.

134. Which of the following refers to the deliberate attempt to uncover how a commonsense belief or scientific theory might not be true? a. falsification b. critical thinking c. critical analysis d. hypothesis 135. Which of the following is a prediction that prompts people to act in ways that make the prediction come true? a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. self-indulgent prophecy c. placebo effect d. researcher bias

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Chap 01_16e 136. Which of these refers to correlational research? a. descriptive study that quantifies the degree to which events, measures, or variables are associated b. in-depth analysis of the behavior of one person or small number of people c. research method based on careful recording of behavior in normal settings d. descriptive study where researchers compare groups of people, but cannot randomize them 137. Describing a scientific concept by stating the specific actions or procedures used to measure it is called which of the following? a. operational definition b. observer effect c. researcher bias d. correlation coefficient 138. Which is a type of reflection involving the support of beliefs through scientific explanation and observation? a. critical thinking b. critical analysis c. falsification d. hypothesis 139. Which of these describes a way to avoid researcher bias? a. use a single-blind study format b. use a double-blind study format c. avoid introducing yourself to study participants d. withhold some details from study participants 140. Researchers are interested in seeing how many drivers are on their cell phones while leaving the parking lot.

The parking lot has one exit, so the two researchers each write down driver gender, car color, and whether the driver was on the phone or not. Data gathered would then be analyzed for significance. Since both researchers collected the same data, what scientific approach is this considered? a. interobjective b. intraobjective c. intersubjective d. intrasubjective 141. Which of the following points toward the traditional view that behavior is shaped by mental processes at the individual level? a. the nature–nurture issue b. the psychological perspective c. the issue of determinism versus free will d. the issue of how we should classify types of mental disorder

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Chap 01_16e 142. Information literacy refers to a. a skill that involves thinking critically about the data that we are exposed to every day. b. information that comes from participants’ physiological processes (including measures of the brain and heart, muscles, and the production of hormones). c. data that is provided by participants about their own thoughts, emotions, or behaviors, typically on a questionnaire or during an interview. d. a skill that comes from watching participants and recording their behavior.

143. Which of the following best describes cultural relativity? a. The idea that behavior must never be judged relative to the values of the culture in which it occurs. b. The idea that behavior must be judged relative to the values of the culture in which it occurs. c. The idea that behavior must be assimilated to the values of the culture in which it occurs. d. The idea that behavior must be judged in contrast to the values of the culture in which it occurs.

144. In Freudian theory, the parts of the mind that are beyond awareness, especially conflicts, impulses, and desires not directly known to a person, are referred to as a. dynamic unconscious. b. dynamic conscious. c. psychoanalysis. d. random behavior.

145. Kyle wanted to do a research study, but writing everything out for daily observation was kind of a hassle, so he recorded data only on the days he was feeling up to it. Which of these statements best describes what happened in this study? a. Kyle amended the parameters of his study by adjusting the time of his data recording. b. Kyle invalidated his study by not recording data every day. c. Kyle did not follow the scientific method using systematic data collection. d. Kyle did follow the scientific method, but revised his observation technique.

146. A medical doctor who prescribes drugs and treats serious mental disorders is known as a a. psychiatrist. b. psychologist. c. psychoanalyst. d. clinical psychologist.

147. Evolutionary psychologists would focus on which of the following? a. genetically influenced behavior that is inherited and adaptive b. sensations and personal experiences analyzed as parts of the whole units c. bodily events and their effects on feelings and thoughts d. psychological features of people working in groups

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Chap 01_16e 148. Kelly was leaving work and noticed someone by her car. Her heart started beating fast and she started to sweat since she was so scared. She called security to walk her to her car. Which perspective would likely be used to research her reaction in this situation? a. humanistic b. cognitive c. biopsychological d. psychodynamic

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Chap 01_16e Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. b 26. a

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Chap 01_16e 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_16e 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. d 63. a 64. b 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. a 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. a 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. c 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_16e 83. d 84. a 85. c 86. a 87. a 88. b 89. a 90. d 91. b 92. d 93. c 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. c 99. a 100. b 101. a 102. a 103. a 104. c 105. a 106. c 107. a 108. d 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_16e 111. b 112. a 113. c 114. c 115. d 116. d 117. a 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. a 122. a 123. a 124. a 125. c 126. c 127. d 128. a 129. a 130. b 131. a 132. a 133. a 134. a 135. a 136. a 137. a

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Chap 01_16e 138. a 139. b 140. c 141. b 142. a 143. b 144. a 145. c 146. a 147. a 148. c

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Chap 02_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Where is the cerebellum located in the brain? a. near the brainstem at the base of the brain b. inside Broca's area c. adjacent to the corpus callosum d. just above the forebrain in between the thalamus and the hypothalamus 2. A thin, wrinkled outer covering of the brain in which high-level processes take place is called the a. cerebral cortex. b. limbic system. c. external cerebellum. d. distal meninx.

3. Which situation would likely result in a positive charge on the outside of Jimmy's neurons? a. Jimmy lands after jumping. b. Jimmy is weeping. c. Jimmy is being chased by a dog. d. Jimmy is kissing his boyfriend.

4. Which of the following is primarily a function of the right hemisphere of the brain? a. recognizing patterns b. understanding spoken language c. heartbeat and respiratory effort d. processing emotions such as anger and happiness 5. Which of the following best describes cranial nerves? a. major nerves that leave the brain without passing through the spinal cord b. nerves that pass through a bundle of neuron axons c. nerves that link the brain with the spinal cord d. a column of nerves that transmits information between the brain and the peripheral nervous 6. What is the function of axon terminals? a. They allow information to pass from neuron to neuron. b. They provide energy to the cell bodies of neurons. c. They carry information toward the cell bodies of their neurons. d. They release sugar into the bloodstream.

7. What activity demonstrates the type of mixed dominance related to ambidextrousness the most clearly? a. playing the piano b. signing a contract c. shooting a basketball d. doing jumping jacks Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 8. What part of the brain makes your heartbeat steadily? a. pons b. cerebellum c. medulla d. cerebral cortex 9. What is an example of facial agnosia? a. Harry cannot remember what the word for nose is. b. George can recognize his mother's face, but not her voice or smell. c. Mary is shown a picture and does not recognize her husband. d. Jerry's eyebrows are frozen in a raised position.

10. Damage to which brain region causes motor aphasia, a great difficulty in speaking or writing? a. Broca's area b. auditory association cortex c. basal ganglia d. substantia nigra 11. What are endocrine glands that arouse the body, adjust the body to stress, and affect sexual functioning? a. adrenal glands b. pituitary glands c. thyroid glands d. pineal glands 12. Hedy is teaching a public speaking course to a hundred students. What is likely true of their brain activity during their final presentations to the class? a. Almost all of her right-handed students will be experiencing increased activity in their right brains. b. Half of her students will be experiencing increased activity in their right brains. c. Almost all of her left-handed students will be experiencing increased activity in their right brains. d. Almost all of her right-handed students will be experiencing increased activity in their left brains.

13. Which of the following statements is true of the hippocampus? a. It is a part of the limbic system associated with the rapid processing of emotions; especially fear. b. It is a part of the limbic system associated with storing memories. c. It is the master gland of the endocrine system that controls the action of all other glands. d. It is the structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres.

14. What gland regulates sleep rhythms? a. thyroid gland b. pineal gland c. adrenal gland d. pituitary gland

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Chap 02_16e 15. What is a hormone released by the pineal gland in response to daily cycles of light and dark called? a. melatonin b. oxytocin c. norepinephrine d. epinephrine 16. Which of the following is a part of the autonomic nervous system? a. endocrine system b. the spinal cord c. sympathetic nervous system d. the brain 17. What area of neurology is currently the least understood in the scientific community? a. CT technology b. neurogenesis c. neurological soft signs d. ablation 18. In neurons, the point at which a nerve impulse is triggered for firing is called the a. threshold. b. synaptic transmission. c. resting potential. d. action potential.

19. Deafness, blindness, or loss of any other sense except smell can be caused by damage to even small areas of the a. thalamus. b. hypothalamus. c. cerebellum. d. pons.

20. If you are left-handed, which of the following is most accurate? a. You produce speech from your brain's left hemisphere. b. You use both sides of the brain for language processing. c. Your left hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere. d. You do not have lateralization.

21. What does research about the limbic system reveal about the nature of addiction? a. The pleasure you get from beneficial activities is located in a different region of the brain than addictionoriented pleasure. b. Addiction to chemicals is different than addiction to gambling. c. Addiction is a disorder related to emotion. d. Addiction is suppressed by the amygdala.

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Chap 02_16e 22. The part of the nervous system responsible for the “fight or flight” response is the a. sympathetic nervous system. b. somatic nervous system. c. parasympathetic nervous system. d. corpus callosum.

23. An inability to identify seen objects is called a. visual agnosia. b. Broca’s aphasia. c. secondary visual neglect. d. Wernicke’s aphasia.

24. What is the structure in the hindbrain involved in controlling coordination and balance called? a. cerebellum b. pons c. reticular formation d. medulla 25. Which one of the following is the name for a type of cell in the nervous system that transmits information? a. neuron b. synapse c. myelin segment d. terminal knob 26. You may have heard the expression, “You’re getting on my last nerve!” In this case, if the use of that term were use the formal definition, to what would the term “nerve” refer? a. a bundle of axons b. the brain and spinal cord c. a cell that links the spinal cord with the body and sense organs d. a fiber that carries information away from the cell body of a neuron 27. What is neurogenesis? a. the production of new brain cells b. the capacity of the brain to change in response to experience c. the production of neurons that transmit commands from the brain to the muscles d. the transmission of information from the sense organs to the central nervous system 28. Erica is 18 years old, and for her entire life, she has been 12 inches shorter than her classmates, which is likely due to her a. pituitary gland. b. pineal gland. c. adrenal glands. d. thyroid gland.

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Chap 02_16e 29. How does the right hemisphere of the brain process information? a. holistically b. in parallel sequence c. convergently d. divergently 30. Which of the following is one of the functions of the hypothalamus? a. controls hunger and thirst b. acts as a bridge between the medulla and the cerebellum c. relays sensory information to the cortex d. controls breathing reflexes 31. Which of the following best defines a resting potential? a. the electrical charge of an inactive neuron b. a brief change in a neuron's electrical charge c. the total electrical charge in a neural network d. the point at which a nerve impulse is triggered 32. What part of the brain has the most to do with heart rate and breathing? a. forebrain b. midbrain c. cerebral cortex d. medulla 33. Which of the following refers to the division of the autonomic nervous system that coordinates arousal? a. sympathetic nervous system b. central nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system 34. Which of the following best defines an axon? a. a fiber that carries information away from the cell body of a neuron b. a cell in the nervous system that transmits information c. a neuron fiber that receives incoming messages d. the part of the neuron or other cell that contains the nucleus of the cell 35. Neuron fibers that receive incoming messages are called a. dendrites. b. somas. c. terminal buttons. d. synaptic vesicles.

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Chap 02_16e 36. What test might be able to tell if the person taking it is lying? a. MRI b. fMRI c. CT scan d. EEG 37. Split-brain operation involves damage to a. the left hemisphere. b. the right hemisphere. c. the corpus callosum. d. the dominant hemisphere.

38. What is largely controlled by the somatic nervous system (SNS)? a. the heart "skipping a beat" b. breathing during sleep c. wiping a tear away d. feeling sad 39. What is a sign Jackie has suffered damage to his prefrontal cortex? a. His eyesight is blurry. b. He is asked what 2 plus 2 is and keeps answering 5. c. He has difficulty speaking. d. He does not understand the meaning of words.

40. Which of the following best describes Broca's area? a. an area in the frontal lobe related to grammar and pronunciation b. a brain area associated with the control of movement c. all areas of the cerebral cortex that are not primarily sensory or motor in function d. areas of the cortex associated with movement, the sense of self, and higher mental functions 41. What happens when ion channels pop open during an action potential? a. Electrical activity sweeps down the axon and fires it. b. Mechanical gates open and close in the axon, causing it to fire. c. Electrical activity flows through positively charged fluid around the axon, firing it. d. The action potential flows to the synaptic gap, unless it is blocked by negative charges.

42. Which of the following best defines spinal nerves? a. structures that carry sensory and motor messages in and out of the spinal cord b. structures that transmit information between the brain and the peripheral nervous system c. bundles of neuron axons that make up the peripheral nervous system d. sensory nerves that alert the brain to any pain originating in the spinal column

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Chap 02_16e 43. What part of women's brains is generally understood to be stronger than men's brains? a. front-to-back connection b. the left hemisphere c. the right hemisphere d. the corpus callosum 44. What kind of nerves carry sensory and motor messages in and out of the column that transmits information between the brain and the peripheral nervous system? a. spinal nerves b. peripheral nerves c. marrow nerves d. cranial nerves 45. Ion channels play an important role in a. neural function. b. lateralization. c. corticalization. d. spatial neglect.

46. Which component of a neuron is responsible for increasing the rate at which action potentials travel down an axon? a. myelin sheath b. synaptic vesicle c. postsynaptic dendrite d. saltatory sheath 47. In which of the following situations is the right hemisphere most useful? a. empathizing with others b. talking to others c. judging time and rhythm d. writing a letter 48. If Sam is worried about a bear coming into his camping tent, which of the following neurotransmitters is most likely to get released? a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. dopamine d. GABA

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Chap 02_16e 49. A structure that connects the hindbrain with the forebrain is called the a. midbrain. b. primary motor cortex. c. subcortex. d. primary somatosensory cortex.

50. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter in the brain that tends to arouse the body and is linked with anger? a. norepinephrine b. melatonin c. oxytocin d. epinephrine 51. Which of these options is responsible for sending messages between two neurons and, in some cases, between neurons and muscle cells or other types of tissue? a. neurotransmitter b. myelin molecules c. hormone d. synaptic vesicles 52. Which of the following best defines the term aphasia? a. a speech disturbance resulting from brain damage b. an inability to regulate executive functions c. an inability to distinguish between reality and fantasy d. an inability to accurately perceive one’s own body shape and size 53. Any device used to stimulate or destroy nerve tissue electrically or to record its activity is called a(n) a. electrode. b. ablation stimulant. c. deep lesion graph. d. electroencephalograph.

54. What is the main function of the thalamus? a. relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex b. regulates emotional behaviors and basic biological needs c. plays an important role in regulating emotion and memory d. acts as a bridge between the medulla and other structures 55. Hans narrowly escaped a building collapse in his childhood, and is still terrified of enclosed spaces 40 years later. The process of this fear occurs in the a. amygdala. b. hippocampus. c. hypothalamus. d. thalamus.

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Chap 02_16e 56. Which of the following statements describes a difference in the brain structure of women and men? a. The two hemispheres are more connected in women than in men. b. The occipital lobe of women is much bigger than the occipital lobe of men. c. The Broca's area of women is much smaller than that of men. d. The temporal lobe of women is more wrinkled than the temporal lobe of men.

57. Which of the following is both a brain neurotransmitter and an adrenal hormone that tends to arouse the body? a. norepinephrine b. melatonin c. oxytocin d. epinephrine 58. Which of the following accurately characterizes the executive functions of the brain? a. processes that allow us to regulate and coordinate our own thought processes b. processes associated with movement, the sense of self, and higher mental functions c. processes responsible for controlling movement d. processes that contribute to specific higher mental abilities, such as language 59. If you are feeling sleepy, which of the following neurotransmitters is likely to be released? a. serotonin b. acetylcholine c. dopamine d. norepinephrine 60. Which of the following refers to the chemical process that carries information from one neuron to another? a. synaptic transmission b. neurotransmission c. saltatory conduction d. myelin transmission 61. The left and right sides of the cerebral cortex are connected by what structure? a. corpus callosum b. central sulcus c. bed nucleus of the stria terminalis d. parietal lobes 62. Olufemi can speak a language, while her dog cannot. This is related to the fact that Olufemi's a. brain is smaller. b. brain is heavier. c. cortex is smoother. d. cortex is more wrinkled.

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Chap 02_16e 63. Which of the following is the best definition of the limbic system? a. a set of brain structures that play important roles in regulating emotion and memory b. all brain structures below the cerebral cortex c. the structures that connect the brain with the spinal cord and control vital life functions d. the structures that act as a bridge between the medulla and other structures 64. What is a likely outcome for someone who doesn't have enough growth hormone released during childhood? a. gigantism b. dwarfism c. acromegaly d. hypothyroidism 65. What is the primary function of the prefrontal cortex? a. executive functions and sense of self b. control of movement c. grammar and pronunciation d. receiving input from the eyes 66. Which of the following statements accurately reflects a difference between female and male human brains? a. Female brains have more left-to-right connections between hemispheres. b. Males have less front-to-back connections in each hemisphere. c. Females have a much bigger cerebral cortex. d. Males have a much bigger Broca's area.

67. Cory has been diagnosed with a brain dysfunction that causes him to hear songs when there is no music playing.

Which lobe is the source of the problem? a. occipital b. temporal c. frontal d. parietal 68. What color does myelin appear under a microscope? a. white b. gray c. yellow d. red 69. Which of the following correctly ranks the order of body parts from largest to smallest relative amounts of cortex devoted to their control by the primary motor area? a. tongue, face, elbow b. face, tongue, elbow c. tongue, elbow, face d. elbow, face, tongue Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 70. A patient who is unable to pay attention to one side of a visual area is most likely experiencing the problem known as a. spatial neglect. b. corticalization. c. lateralization. d. deep lesioning.

71. Which technique allows structures below the surface of the brain to be removed? a. deep lesioning b. electrical stimulation of the brain c. positron emission tomography d. functional MRI 72. What is the function of acetylcholine in the brain? a. It participates in movement, autonomic function, learning, and memory. b. It participates in motivation, reward, and planning of behavior. c. It has a major inhibitory effect in the CNS and participates in moods. d. It has a major excitatory effect in the CNS and participates in learning and memory.

73. Which one of the following areas of the brain regulates emotional behaviors and basic biological needs? a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. medulla d. reticular formation 74. Which neurotransmitter participates in mood, appetite, and sleep? a. serotonin b. norepinephrine c. glutamate d. acetylcholine 75. Which of the following detects weak brain wave signals and records them on a moving sheet of paper or a computer screen? a. electroencephalograph (EEG) b. positron emission tomography (PET) scan c. computed tomographic (CT) scan d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

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Chap 02_16e 76. Which of the following methods allows the surface of the brain to be "turned on" by touching target areas with a thin insulated wire? a. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB) b. electroencephalography (EEG) c. positron emission tomography (PET) d. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) 77. Which of the following is activated during processing of bodily sensations? a. parietal lobes b. temporal lobes c. occipital lobes d. frontal lobes 78. Which of the following most accurately describes the term ambidextrous? a. an equal preference for both hands b. a preference for the right or left hand in most activities c. a difference in the abilities of the brain hemispheres d. a preference for the right hand in some tasks and the left hand in other tasks 79. A therapist who wanted to know which parts of the brain were most active during certain types of activities, such as meditating, would want to see the results of a a. positron emission tomography (PET) scan. b. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. c. computed tomographic (CT) scan. d. split-brain test.

80. A primitive part of the brain that comprises the medulla, pons, and cerebellum is known as the a. hindbrain. b. brainstem. c. basal root ganglia. d. peripheral nervous system.

81. What is an example of the sympathetic nervous system at work? a. Marco's mouth waters when he comes home and smells his grandmother's meatballs cooking. b. Fred cries when he cuts an onion while listening to very sad music. c. Monique starts to sweat before she goes on stage. d. Drake's eyes adjust to the bright sunlight after leaving a dark recording studio.

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Chap 02_16e 82. Deficiency of which of the following neurotransmitters may lead to Parkinson's disease and reduced feelings of pleasure? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. GABA d. glutamate 83. A collection of cells and fibers in the medulla and pons involved in arousal and attention is called the a. reticular formation. b. pons formation. c. cerebellum formation. d. subcortex formation.

84. Mirror neurons get their name because they become active when a person a. does a motor action or watches someone else do the same action. b. perceives a face and recognizes it as a person familiar to him or her. c. experiences two bodily sensations, such as heat and touch, simultaneously. d. sees an action or image on a reflected surface such as water or glass.

85. What is a receptor site in the nervous system? a. an area on the surface of neurons and other cells that is sensitive to neurotransmitters or hormones b. a microscopic space over which messages pass between two neurons c. an area where the chemical process that carries information from one neuron to another takes place d. a space over which chemicals take information from one nervous system cell to another 86. The drop in electrical charge below the axon's resting potential after a neuron fires is called the a. negative after-potential. b. negative static potential. c. presynaptic potential. d. synaptic potential.

87. In human anatomy, the brain and spinal cord form the a. central nervous system. b. peripheral nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. autonomic nervous system.

88. Which of the following may play a role in autism spectrum disorder? a. mirror neurons b. sensory neurons c. motor neurons d. corpus callosum

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Chap 02_16e 89. Which of the following clearly defines localization of function in the brain? a. the linking of psychological or behavioral capacities to specific brain structures b. the direct electrical stimulation and activation of brain tissue c. the surgical removal of tissue from the surface of the brain d. the removal of tissue within the brain by the use of an electrode 90. Which of the following is the best definition of oxytocin? a. a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland that promotes body growth b. a hormone released by the pituitary gland that plays a broad role in social bonding c. a hormone released by the pineal gland in response to daily cycles of light and dark d. a hormone that tends to arouse the body and is associated with fear 91. The cumulative length of the axons in the nervous system number in the a. hundreds. b. thousands. c. millions. d. billions.

92. What is the microscopic gap that separates individual neurons? a. synapse b. ion channel c. action potential d. neurotransmitter 93. Which of the following are cortical areas that play a role in visual processing? a. occipital lobes b. temporal lobes c. parietal lobes d. prefrontal cortex 94. Which of the following best describes the function of the autonomic nervous system? a. carries information to and from internal organs and glands b. links the spinal cord with the body and sense organs c. quiets the body and conserves energy d. determines our sleep/wake patterns 95. What part of the neuron is the longest? a. soma b. dendrite c. axon d. axon terminal

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Chap 02_16e 96. Which of the following is likely true for a right-handed person? a. The dominant hemisphere is most likely the left hemisphere. b. The dominant hemisphere is most likely the right hemisphere. c. Neither hemisphere is likely dominant. d. The prefrontal cortex is likely larger.

97. Which of the following is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the corpus callosum? a. split-brain operation b. neuroplasticity c. deep lesioning d. ablation 98. A major concern related to the use of anabolic steroids by athletes is that users may experience episodes of a. uncontrollable rage. b. sexual aggression. c. insomnia. d. flat emotional affect.

99. As messages flow into the brain, the reticular formation influences attention by a. giving priority to some messages, while turning others aside. b. halting outgoing commands to the body. c. redirecting pain messages from the midbrain to the cortex. d. releasing a hormone that adjusts the sleep/wake cycle.

100. Which of the following is a network linking the spinal cord with the body and sense organs? a. somatic nervous system b. endocrine system c. enteric nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system 101. Touch, temperature, pressure, and other bodily sensations flow into a. the primary somatosensory area. b. Wernicke's area. c. Broca's area. d. the primary auditory area.

102. If a person with a fear of heights is standing on the edge of a mountain, which body system would be activated? a. sympathetic nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system

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Chap 02_16e 103. What is the surgical removal of tissue from the surface of the brain called? a. ablation b. electrical stimulation c. deep lesioning d. electroencephalography 104. Which of the following refers to our ability to consciously exert self-control? a. self-regulation b. cognitive reappraisal c. cool cognition d. hot cognition 105. The capacity of the brain to change in response to experience is called a. neuroplasticity. b. neurogenesis. c. neurosensation. d. synapsis.

106. Hormones released by the adrenal glands play a role in helping the body a. adjust to stress. b. regulate blood sugar balance. c. promote maternal behavior. d. minimize jet lag.

107. Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. the division of the autonomic nervous system that quiets the body and conserves energy b. the division of the autonomic nervous system that coordinates arousal c. a part of the nervous system that transmits information between the brain and the peripheral nervous system d. the parts of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord 108. A brain injury that caused a young man to no longer recognize his fraternal twin would likely be diagnosed as a case of a. facial agnosia. b. receptive aphasia. c. primary visual defect. d. occipital disorder.

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Chap 02_16e 109. In addition to creating chemical signals that direct the activity of other endocrine glands, the pituitary gland secretes a hormone that is important in helping to regulate a. social bonding. b. sleep cycles. c. bodily metabolism. d. response to fear.

110. Which of the following best explains the function of the thyroid gland? a. It helps regulate the rate of metabolism. b. It arouses the body and is associated with fear. c. It helps regulate body rhythms and sleep cycles. d. It plays a broad role in regulating pregnancy, parenthood, and sexual activity.

111. Which of the following refers to the electrical charge of an inactive neuron? a. resting potential b. action potential c. threshold d. negative after-potential 112. A technique that records activity levels in various areas of the brain is called a. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) scan. b. computed tomographic (CT) scan. c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. d. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB).

113. Neurotransmitters and neuropeptides are similar in that they both a. affect various types of brain activity. b. are stimulated by somatic nervous system activation. c. increase the likelihood of a neuron firing an action potential. d. operate only in negative electrical situations.

114. Using which of the following methods will we get an image of brain structures without any clues as to which parts of the brain were more or less active? a. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) c. electroencephalograph (EEG) d. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB) 115. What gland has the most profound effect on personality? a. pituitary gland b. adrenal gland c. pineal gland d. thyroid gland Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 116. Which of the following most precisely defines the term subcortex? a. all brain structures below the cerebral cortex b. an area of the hindbrain that acts as a bridge between the medulla and other structures c. the structure that connects the brain with the spinal cord and controls vital life functions d. a set of brain structures that play important roles in regulating emotion and memory 117. One advantage of a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan compared to a computed tomographic (CT) scan is that an MRI scan a. does not have the CT scan's potential adverse health effects of radioactivity. b. can image hard structures, whereas a CT scan images only soft tissue. c. does not require processing by a computer, whereas a CT scan does. d. shows which areas of the brain are using more energy, whereas CT scans don't.

118. What is an example of a memory that would be stored by the cerebellum? a. how to ride a bike b. who invented the bike c. what tools would be needed to build a bike d. the last time you rode a bike 119. Which of the following refers to a network of glands that release hormones into the bloodstream? a. endocrine system b. hormonal system c. exocrine system d. nervous system 120. The areas of the brain in which body sensations register are called the a. parietal lobes. b. frontal lobes. c. occipital lobes. d. temporal lobes.

121. Which of the following best describes the forebrain? a. a brain structure, including the limbic system, thalamus, hypothalamus, and cortex, that governs higherorder mental processes b. a primitive part of the brain that comprises the medulla, pons, and cerebellum c. the structure that connects the brain with the spinal cord and controls vital life functions d. a brain structure that relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex 122. Which of the following best defines neurogenesis? a. the production of new brain cells b. the destruction of old brain cells c. the capacity of the brain to change in response to experience d. the transmission of a stimulus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 123. Computer technology can most directly help with the problem of a. addiction to gambling. b. locked-in syndrome. c. mapping the function of glial cells. d. spinocerebellar degeneration.

124. Gerard frequently gets into fist fights. What area of his brain is likely not functioning at its highest level? a. the frontal lobes b. the mirror neurons of the motor cortex c. the parietal lobes d. the temporal lobes 125. Excess of which of the following transmitters may lead to neuron death and autism? a. glutamate b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. GABA 126. What activity does corticalization provide for humans and not animals? a. traveling somewhere and being able to return home b. the ability to speak a complex language c. the ability to both swim in water and walk on dry land d. the ability to distinguish smells 127. What is the specialization in the abilities of the brain hemispheres called? a. lateralization b. handedness c. neurogenesis d. split-brain function 128. Which of the following become active when a motor action is carried out and when another organism is observed performing the same action? a. mirror neurons b. afferent neurons c. efferent neurons d. interneurons 129. Why is it misleading to claim that a creative person, like an artist for example, is "a right-brained person?" a. Most actions involve both sides of the brain at the same time. b. The difference between the male and female brain accounts for greater disparities than do the brain's two hemispheres. c. Creativity requires language to be understood, so it is primarily a left-brain function. d. Creativity is more determined by density of front-to-back, not left-to-right, neural connections in the brain.

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Chap 02_16e 130. Which of the following are major nerves that leave the brain without passing through the spinal cord? a. cranial nerves b. peripheral nerves c. somatic nerves d. spinal nerves 131. Children who do “better” in the “marshmallow test” are most likely a. from wealthy families. b. intelligent. c. have a high degree of self-regulation. d. have good cognitive reappraisal ability.

132. Which of the following refers to the removal of tissue within the brain by the use of an electrode? a. deep lesioning b. cerebral mutation c. electromyographic intensification d. cortical disenfranchisement 133. How does the left hemisphere process information? a. sequentially b. holistically c. simultaneously d. globally 134. Which condition would most likely be related to a disorder of the hypothalamus? a. Mary, who is addicted to cocaine. b. Bruce, who cannot control his rage. c. Danielle, who has locked-in syndrome. d. Freddy, who cannot remember when his birthday is.

135. Which of the following is a cell in the nervous system that transmits information? a. neuron b. nerve c. myelin sheath d. axon 136. Tiny openings through the axon membrane are called a. ion channels. b. myelin sheaths. c. neurotransmitters. d. action potentials.

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Chap 02_16e 137. The two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex are divided into smaller areas known as a. lobes. b. cortices. c. corpus callosum. d. lateralizations.

138. Which of the following best defines medulla? a. the structure that connects the brain with the spinal cord and controls vital life functions b. an area of the hindbrain that acts as a bridge between the corpus callosum and other structures c. a small area of the brain that regulates emotional behaviors and basic biological needs d. the structure in the hindbrain involved in controlling coordination and balance 139. Where is Wernicke's area and what role does it play? a. It's in the temporal lobe and plays a role in language comprehension. b. It's in the occipital lobe and plays a role in visual processing. c. It's in the cortex and plays a role in hearing. d. It's in the parietal lobe and plays a role in body sensations.

140. A chemical that moves information from one nervous-system cell to another is called a a. neurotransmitter. b. saltatory conductor. c. neuropeptide. d. synaptic transmitter.

141. What is an electroencephalograph (EEG)? a. a device that records electrical activity in the brain b. a high-resolution imaging technique that captures brain activity by attaching radioactive particles to glucose molecules c. a magnetic imagery technique that records activity levels in various areas of the brain d. a computer-enhanced X-ray imaging technique that captures the brain or body 142. A gland in the brain that helps regulate body rhythms and sleep cycles is the a. pineal. b. thyroid. c. adrenal. d. pituitary.

143. A column of nerves that transmits information between the brain and the peripheral nervous system is called the a. spinal cord. b. axon. c. neuron. d. soma.

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Chap 02_16e 144. What best describes the primary function of the RF (reticular formation)? a. It determines the relative value of neurological messages. b. It regulates heartbeat and breathing. c. It assists in short-term memory. d. It is a pleasure center.

145. Where would a group of people who are demonstrating they have a cool cognitive system likely be found? a. at a gym b. at the opera c. at an upscale boutique d. at a trendy club 146. What is the main function of the temporal lobes? a. hearing b. taste c. smell d. emotional regulation 147. What experience is likely connected to the release of both enkephalins and endorphins? a. opening a birthday present b. eating extremely spicy chili c. petting a puppy d. laughing at a joke 148. If the right hemisphere person is damaged, they may not be able to a. understand jokes. b. speak. c. respond to emails. d. play the guitar.

149. Neurological research related to music processing suggests that a. the left hemisphere is more active. b. the right hemisphere is more active. c. women are better at music. d. both hemispheres of the brain work equally.

150. Nearly all communication between the cerebral cortex and the rest of the body passes through the a. brainstem. b. corpus callosum. c. forebrain. d. midbrain.

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Chap 02_16e 151. Deficiency of which of the following may play a role in Alzheimer's disease? a. acetylcholine b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. dopamine 152. Mary and Martha are identical twins. In puberty, Martha began to gain weight, get depressed, and slow down, while her sister became very active and seemed to worry about everything. What is responsible for their growing differences? a. their pituitary glands b. their adrenal glands c. their thyroid glands d. their pineal glands 153. Which of the following is also known as adrenaline? a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. endorphins d. enkephalins 154. A high-resolution imaging technique that captures brain activity by attaching radioactive particles to glucose molecules is called a. positron emission tomography (PET). b. electroencephalograph (EEG). c. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB). d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

155. Which of the following is the prefrontal cortex responsible for? a. sense of self, executive functions, and planning b. sensations of touch, temperature, and pressure c. language, especially grammar and pronunciation d. posture, coordination, and muscle tone 156. Which part of the neuron receives incoming messages? a. dendrites b. axon c. cell body d. axon terminals

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Chap 02_16e 157. Approximately how fast does a nerve's action potential move down the axon? a. 20 miles per hour b. 200 miles per hour c. 2,000 miles per hour d. 20,000 miles per hour 158. Carlotta was injured in a car accident and has been told by her doctor that she sustained damage to the left hemisphere of her brain. Which of the following problems will she most likely face? a. She will not be able to speak properly. b. She will not be able to hear. c. She will not be able to put together a puzzle. d. She will not be able to express emotions.

159. Which of the following brain areas is a receiving area for body sensations? a. primary somatosensory area b. primary auditory area c. primary motor area d. primary visual area 160. Human brains are special because they a. have the most corticalization. b. are the biggest in absolute size. c. are the biggest in relative size. d. are lateralized.

161. Which of the following is most closely related to sexual functioning? a. the adrenal gland b. serotonin c. norepinephrine d. the pituitary gland 162. What common expression is closest to the concept of cognitive reappraisal? a. "Always look for the silver lining." b. "Don't count your chickens before they hatch." c. "Haste makes waste." d. "You only live once."

163. Which of the following has a major excitatory effect in the CNS and participates in learning and memory? a. glutamate b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. serotonin

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Chap 02_16e 164. Which of the following refers to a large bundle of axons? a. nerves b. neurons c. dendrites d. terminals 165. If Jordan experiences an increase in motivation, which neurotransmitter was likely released in their brain? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. GABA d. glutamate 166. The increase in twisting, folding, and size over millions of years in the humans’ largest brain structure is termed a. corticalization. b. differentiation. c. plasticity. d. neuromalleability.

167. Which of the following is a lifetime disorder whose primary features are impaired communication and social interaction? a. autism spectrum disorder b. Alzheimer's disease c. Parkinson's disease d. anxiety 168. Which of the following refers to the part of the neuron or other cells that contains the nucleus of the cell? a. cell body b. axon c. axon terminal d. dendrite 169. An area of the hindbrain that acts as a bridge between the medulla and other structures is called the a. pons. b. cerebellum. c. subcortex. d. thalamus.

170. Which of the following brain areas is responsible for movement, sense of self, and higher mental functions? a. frontal lobes b. parietal lobes c. temporal lobes d. occipital lobes

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Chap 02_16e 171. What are axon terminals? a. bulb-shaped structures that release neurotransmitters into synaptic gaps b. fibers that carry information away from the cell body of a neuron c. structures that carry sensory and motor messages in and out of the spinal cord d. neuron fibers that receive incoming messages 172. Sarah has a powerful craving for salty foods like popcorn, peanuts, and French fries that cannot be satiated. She might have an issue with her a. pineal gland. b. adrenal glands. c. thyroid gland. d. pituitary gland.

173. What is the clearest example of an action potential? a. Kevin's heart beats. b. Yolanda leaps out of a plane. c. Alex holds his breath. d. Louis stands very still.

174. One morning on a run, Barbara sees a poodle and has a strong memory of the fear she felt after a neighbor's poodle bit her the previous summer. What part of her brain was involved in this experience of Barbara's? a. the amygdala b. the hippocampus c. the pons d. the hypothalamus 175. Which of the following refers to the parts of the nervous system outside of the brain and spinal cord? a. peripheral nervous system b. central nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system 176. Which part of the limbic system is important for storing memories? a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. thalamus d. hypothalamus 177. What type of brain damage will have the least likely effect on speech? a. right hemisphere damage in left-handed people b. right hemisphere damage in right-handed people c. left brain damage in right-handed people d. left brain damage in left-handed people Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 178. What technique measures the activity in different parts of the brain? a. fMRI b. MRI c. CT d. ablation 179. Which of the following accurately describes a neural network? a. an interlinked collection of neurons that processes information in the brain b. a network of cells that transmits information from the sense organs to the central nervous system c. a network of new brain cells d. a collection of neurons that cause change in response to experience 180. Kristy's cerebellum stores information related to her memory of a. how to put on her makeup. b. her Social Security number. c. intense emotional experiences. d. state capitals.

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Chap 02_16e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. b 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap 02_16e 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. d 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. a 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. b 91. c 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. c 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. a 101. a 102. a 103. a 104. a 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. d 116. a 117. a 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. a 122. a 123. b 124. a 125. a 126. b 127. a 128. a 129. a 130. a 131. a 132. a 133. a 134. b 135. a 136. a 137. a

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Chap 02_16e 138. a 139. a 140. a 141. a 142. a 143. a 144. a 145. a 146. a 147. b 148. a 149. d 150. a 151. a 152. c 153. a 154. a 155. a 156. a 157. b 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. a 162. a 163. a 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_16e 166. a 167. a 168. a 169. a 170. a 171. a 172. b 173. a 174. a 175. a 176. a 177. b 178. b 179. a 180. a

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Chap 03_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. According to Erikson, which of the following activities during middle adulthood involves reworking old identities, achieving valued goals, finding one's own truths, and preparing for old age? a. generativity b. separation anxiety c. maturation d. midlife transition 2. Sebastian is two years older than his sister, Maria. Sebastian has reached puberty early for his age, and as a result, he is very self-assured and has become quite popular in school. Maria is also reaching puberty early for her age. How might the effects of her early maturation differ from her brother's? a. Maria may be even more popular and have a stronger self-image than her brother. b. Maria may be less popular and have a poorer self-image than her brother. c. Maria may be less popular, but will likely have significantly stronger self-image than her brother. d. Maria may be even more popular than her brother, but will have a poorer self-image than her brother.

3. Which of the following reflexes will a baby display when an object is pressed in its palm? a. the rooting reflex b. the sucking reflex c. the Moro reflex d. the grasping reflex 4. Dr. Schmitt is a psychologist interested in the changes people experience throughout their lifetimes, including thoughts, physical abilities, and social connections. Which of the following most accurately describes Dr. Schmitt's field of interest? a. developmental b. behavioral c. consumer d. environmental 5. Which of the following refers to abilities involving already learned knowledge and skills, such as vocabulary and stored-up facts? a. crystallized intelligence b. assimilation c. accommodation d. fluid intelligence 6. According to Piaget, which of the following is a characteristic of infants in the sensorimotor stage? a. They recognize the existence of physical objects even when not visible. b. They cannot create internal representations such as mental images. c. Their development is largely intellectual and verbal. d. Their conceptions are becoming less stable.

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Chap 03_16e 7. Emotional needs for care, love, and positive relationships with others are known as a baby's a. complex needs. b. temperament. c. readiness. d. affectional needs.

8. Jimmy is a good student who also loves singing and working on cars. He is finishing high school next year, and everyone keeps asking him what he is doing after this achievement. He has no idea what he wants to do and keeps telling everyone he will figure it out closer to that time. Which of the following is Jimmy likely experiencing? a. stagnation b. role confusion c. shame and doubt d. inferiority 9. Aaliyah recorded events in the lives of her sons Liam and Lucas such as their first words, first steps, first lost tooth, and events of puberty in a record book. These events are examples of the process of a. environmental influences. b. maturation. c. genetic characteristics. d. transformational level.

10. Which of the following reflexes is observed when an infant's position is changed abruptly? a. the Moro reflex b. the sucking reflex c. the grasping reflex d. the rooting reflex 11. Which one of the following is a distinct characteristic of the pattern of speaking to infants called "parentese?" a. Parentese has a distinct "musical" quality. b. Parentese involves long, complicated sentences. c. Parentese entails the use of infrequent gestures. d. Parentese uses understated voice inflections.

12. Which one of the following statements most accurately represents the role of day care in the quality of attachment? a. High-quality day care may adversely affect attachment to parents. b. High-quality day care tends to increase the level of attachment to parents. c. Low-quality day care tends to increase the level of attachment to parents. d. Low-quality day care may adversely affect attachment to parents.

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Chap 03_16e 13. The study of how and why human beings experience transformations in behavior that occur during every stage of life from conception to death is known as a. epigenetics. b. moral development. c. psychosocial development. d. developmental psychology.

14. Which of the following is a mental process wherein existing schemas are modified to fit new objects or problems? a. accommodation b. assimilation c. scaffolding d. attachment 15. Jose glanced at Cecilia's exam in class and copied a few of her answers. Cecilia saw him do this, but she failed to say anything in class, even though she wanted to turn him in. According to the ideas suggested by Mary Gentile, what is the best way Cecilia could have dealt with this moral dilemma? a. Cecilia should have considered a dilemma like this could arise during an exam and prepared a response to deal with it. b. Cecilia should not have said anything to the teacher about the incident, but should have confronted Jose after class. c. Cecilia should have immediately told the teacher that Jose was trying to copy her answers. d. Cecilia should have anticipated Jose cheating and willingly shared her answers with him during the exam.

16. According to Erikson, which of the following is a psychosocial dilemma faced by children aged 3–5 years? a. industry versus inferiority b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt d. trust versus mistrust 17. Which of the following is a characteristic dilemma faced by people in late adulthood (65 years and older) according to Erikson? a. generativity versus stagnation b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. integrity versus despair d. initiative versus guilt 18. Which one of the following is a characteristic of early-maturing girls? a. In elementary school, they are more popular and have better body images. b. In elementary school, they tend to be more independent and smaller than their classmates. c. In junior high, they have more peer prestige and positive body images. d. In junior high, they have lesser peer prestige and poorer body images.

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Chap 03_16e 19. How are children, and the ways in which they think, characterized within the context of Piaget's theory of cognitive development? a. Children's thinking is, generally speaking, more abstract than that of adults. b. Children tend to base their understanding on particular objects that they can see. c. Children use more generalizations, categories, and principles than adults. d. Children’s thinking develops through a distinct series of stages.

20. There is a point in the mental development of a child where they realize that the amount of water in a bathtub does not increase just because the water level rises when they enter the tub. According to Piaget, what skill has this child developed? a. The child has developed the skill of conservation. b. The child has developed the skill of transformation. c. The child has developed the skill of constancy. d. The child has developed the skill of assimilation.

21. Erik is a sixty-year old manager at his company. He has recently taken on the task of mentoring some of the younger interns there. Which of the following is he likely trying to overcome? a. generativity versus stagnation b. integrity versus despair c. identity versus role confusion d. autonomy versus shame and doubt 22. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate representation of Mary Gentile's ideas about ethical behavior? a. Moral issues rarely come up in everyday life. b. Challenges to one's integrity will only arise if one is working in very senior positions. c. Learning how to behave ethically involves changing one's values. d. Behaving ethically is a skill that can be taught.

23. Which of the following refers to the presumed hereditary readiness of humans to learn certain skills, such as how to use language or a readiness to behave in particular ways? a. a temperament b. a signal c. a biological predisposition d. an assimilation 24. Of the following statements, which accurately describes chromosomes? a. Sperm cells and ova only contain 23 chromosomes each in normal cases. b. Chromosomes are structures in the nucleus that contain genes. c. DNA is organized into 23 chromosomes. d. Chromosomes are long, ladderlike chains of molecular pairs.

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Chap 03_16e 25. Which of the following statements best describes the genome? a. It refers to the translation of the genetic blueprint step-by-step within cells. b. It refers to the study of normal changes in behavior that occur across the life span from conception to death. c. It refers to mainly the transmission of genes from parents to offspring at conception. d. It refers to the genetic heritage that will determine so many of our physical and psychological characteristics.

26. According to Piaget's theory, the process of modifying existing cognitive structures in response to a new experience and information is called a. operations. b. accommodation. c. conservation.assimilation. d. assimilation.

27. You are trying to get your seven-month-old baby to say the word "ball," but all he can say is "ba-ba-ba" while you point to the ball. Which of the following best describes what he is doing? a. cooing b. babbling c. motherese d. telegraphing 28. Which one of the following statements best describes how a child experiences the sensitive period? a. It is the time when children are commonly more susceptible to particular types of environmental influences. b. It is the time when maturation has advanced enough to allow the rapid acquisition of a particular skill. c. It is the time when general pattern of attention, arousal, and mood has become cemented as the child's personality. d. It is the time when an individual's state of physical, emotional, and intellectual development is at its peak.

29. Which one of the following behaviors is the most definitive example of cognitive development in babies? a. Babies imitate adult facial gestures while they can see them. b. Three- to eight-week-old babies do not understand that a person's voice and body are connected. c. Mimicry prevents rapid learning in infancy. d. Nine-month-old infants are unable to remember actions a day after seeing them.

30. Ava touches the cheek of her two-month-old daughter, Sky. In response, Sky turns her head toward the touch in search of something to suck. Sky is demonstrating the a. sucking reflex. b. Moro reflex. c. rooting reflex. d. adaptive reflex.

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Chap 03_16e 31. The process of development that moves from a baby's head to their toes is referred to as a. cephalocaudal. b. proximodistal. c. epigenetics. d. enrichment.

32. Which one of the following statements best describes what makes up genes? a. They are coded instructions of heredity located on a strand of DNA. b. They are rodlike structures in the nucleus of sperm cells and ova. c. They are long, ladderlike chains of molecular pairs of chemicals. d. They are the hereditary result of transmitted characteristics from parents to offspring.

33. Abby has just given birth to her son, Jackson. She has already begun to develop a strong attachment to her new baby. How does Abby's attachment compare to the attachment Jackson will develop toward her now that he is born? a. Jackson will experience a decrease in emotional attachment from the levels he experienced in the prenatal stages of development. b. Jackson will be at his height of attachment immediately after being born. c. Jackson will be attached to his mother after he is one year old. d. Jackson will be attached to his mother by around seven months.

34. Ashton likes to carry his fuzzy blanket around the house with him. His sister prefers to carry her tiny little green flannel pillow. What are these items serving as for these children? a. They are imprinting with these items. b. These items are contact comfort for the children. c. These items are initial signs of secure attachment. d. They are using these as surrogate mothers.

35. Jaime and Jeff's children all have red curly hair, are short, and have a great sense of humor. One of their children plays basketball, another plays baseball, and their youngest child likes swimming. These characteristics can all be referred to as a. phenomes. b. genomes. c. polygenic characteristics. d. heredity.

36. Sally, who is 4 years old, is playing and talking to her baby sister in the car. Sally's sister has turned her head to face Sally, but she can only see about a foot away. So, Sally would appear blurry to her sister. How old would you say Sally's sister is? a. 1-2 years old b. around the same age a Sally c. less than 1 year old d. 2 years old

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Chap 03_16e 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of children with separation anxiety disorder? a. They enjoy going to school and socializing with friends. b. They are happy even when separated from their parents. c. They are confident of finding their way back home even if they get lost. d. They fear they will never see their parents again if they become separated.

38. Izzy is 15 months old and is playing with two of his cousins who are around the same age. When Izzy is playing with two toys, one of his cousins comes and takes them both from Izzy. He becomes upset at the fact that he no longer has toys with which to play. What aspect of moral reasoning, according to Haidt, is being displayed in this interaction? a. Fundamental moral intuitions about the rightness of fairness are solely learned from the interactions infants have. b. Fundamental moral intuitions about the rightness of fairness may be, in part, biologically innate. c. Fundamental moral intuitions about the rightness of fairness cannot be learned through socialization. d. Fundamental moral intuitions about the rightness of fairness are fully innate and not influenced by socialization.

39. Abe is working on his math homework from school, but he is struggling to understand the math concepts that they are working on in class. He is close to possessing the necessary skills to do this work independently, but he isn't there yet. Which of the following does this best describe? a. zone of proximal development b. practical intelligence c. mental accommodation d. scaffolding 40. In early language development, behaviors such as touching, vocalizing, gazing, or smiling, that allow nonverbal interaction and turn-taking between parent and child are known as a. signals. b. cues. c. schemas. d. agent-actions.

41. Perry likes to be able to dress and feed himself unassisted, although he is sometimes messy. His parents laugh it off and simply clean up his messes. Which of the following stages is Perry likely operating in? a. Perry is in the trust versus mistrust stage. b. Perry is in the industry versus inferiority stage. c. Perry is in the autonomy versus shame and doubt stage. d. Perry is in the initiative versus guilt stage.

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Chap 03_16e 42. Katherine has normal hearing, but both of her parents are deaf and communicate with sign language. Which of the following is the best reason for them to enroll Katherine in a day care during the first year of her life? a. The first year is a critical period for language development. b. The first year is a critical period to make friends for communication purposes. c. Language development is mostly influenced by social and peer interaction. d. Children should hear speaking all the time, even in deaf households.

43. Cecil is in the fifth grade at his elementary school. Which of the following major conflicts is he likely to experience at this stage? a. industry versus role confusion b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. industry versus inferiority d. identity versus role confusion 44. Gentile suggested that in order to best face ethical challenges, a person should a. actively imagine possible ethical scenarios in detail. b. consider the negative outcomes to decipher the best positive result. c. recall the morals of their parents to resolve issues in accordance with their ethical upbringing. d. think about ethical situations in advance, but no need to rehearse how they would react.

45. Aubrey was left at a babysitter's house while her mother went grocery shopping. When her mother returned, Aubrey ignored her. Which of the following is Aubrey displaying? a. securely attached behavior b. insecure avoidant behavior c. insecure ambivalent behavior d. securely distracted behavior 46. Hormonal changes promote both physical growth spurt and reproductive maturity during a biological event known as a. puberty. b. adolescence. c. infancy. d. adulthood.

47. Chandra's parents do not listen to what she wants or even her side of the story any time there is an issue. She's been told on a number of occasions that it is "their way or the highway." Which of the following most accurately describes their parenting style? a. authoritative b. permissive indifferent c. authoritarian d. overly permissive

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Chap 03_16e 48. Which of the following is a way in which one can minimize the unethical behavior of others? a. Highlight ambiguities or gray areas in challenging situations. b. Separate values and morals from ethically questionable behavior. c. Ensure that people's behavior remains anonymous. d. Provide cues that restrict feelings of namelessness.

49. A collection of conditions occurring in children whose mothers consumed alcohol during pregnancy is known as a. fetal alcoholism. b. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. c. fetal alcohol intoxication. d. fetal alcohol dependence.

50. Masha is pregnant with her first child and is very cautious about the medications she is taking. Her doctor has changed some of her medications due to a potential side effect of those medications on the developing baby.

What could be a possible side effect of some medications? a. deprivation b. teratogens c. FASD d. congenital problems 51. Bodhi is an easygoing baby who seems happy and frequently explores this environment when he is with his parents. His parents interact frequently with him: new toys and environments for him to explore. This is an example of which of the following? a. deprivation b. enrichment c. sensitive period d. teratogens 52. Peyton is in 3rd grade and working on a simple science experiment with the teacher. Peyton is able to understand the role of conservation, reversal, and cause-effect that are related to the science experiment.

Based on this information, Peyton is likely in what developmental stage? a. concrete operations b. formal operations c. sensorimotor d. preoperational 53. According to Erikson, the emotional balance in middle adulthood that is expressed by caring about oneself, one's children, and future grandchildren is known as a. isolation. b. stagnation. c. generativity. d. intimacy.

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Chap 03_16e 54. Which of the following refers to the general pattern of attention, arousal, and mood that is evident from birth? a. temperament b. epigenetics c. maturation d. polygenic 55. How does the grasping reflex aid in the survival of an infant child? a. The grasping reflex helps the infant hold onto the mother's breast in order to feed. b. The grasping reflex helps the infant touch their mother's face to recognize her as the caregiver. c. The grasping reflex helps infant reach for their parent to solidify the parental connection. d. The grasping reflex helps the infant hold onto objects to avoid falling down.

56. Which of the following is Piaget's fourth stage of cognitive development, characterized by the ability to engage in thinking that includes abstract, theoretical, and hypothetical ideas? a. the formal operational stage b. the sensorimotor stage c. the concrete operational stage d. the preoperational stage 57. Crystal was under immense stress at work while pregnant. As a result of this, Crystal's baby may a. be bigger and stronger. b. have increased risk of autism spectrum disorder. c. be prone to stress as an infant d. be smaller and weaker.

58. Which of the following refers to close emotional bonds that infants form with their primary caregivers? a. attachments b. separation anxieties c. social smiles d. adaptive reflexes 59. Physical punishment or a show of force, such as taking away toys or privileges, is known as a. power assertion. b. generativity. c. separation anxiety. d. withdrawal of love.

60. Jesse is a 25-year-old college graduate living at home with his parents. He is not married, has no children, and has no stable career. Which of the following is most likely for Jesse? a. Jesse is exhibiting generativity by giving back to younger generations and society. b. Jesse is in the social status known as emerging adulthood where he is exploring possibilities. c. Jesse is experiencing premature identity formation and is struggling with changing his identity. d. Jesse is taking time to form a positive subjective well-being.

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Chap 03_16e 61. Cadence is about to face her first psychosocial dilemma as a newborn. Which of the following is she likely to encounter? a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt d. integrity versus despair 62. Which one of the following characterizes the vision of infants immediately following their birth? a. Newborn babies are unable to decipher their surroundings for several days after birth. b. Newborn vision is as sharp as that of an adult. c. Newborn babies prefer seeing their mother's face rather than a stranger's. d. Newborn babies will pay more attention to people's faces than to any other stimuli.

63. Brianne has been a dedicated accountant for a mid-level financial firm for over 15 years. One day, her coworker, Emile, comes to Brianne with a proposition. Emile has found old marketing data that the company is getting rid of, and he knows of someone at a competing firm who will pay them both well to be given access to that data. All Brianne has to do is give Emile access to those files. What aspect of morality is Brianne most strongly confronted with in this scenario? a. Brianne would make a decision based on her desire to not harm her coworkers. b. Brianne would make a decision based on her desire to be fair to her coworkers. c. Brianne would make a decision based on her own perception of power within the company. d. Brianne would make a decision based on her desire to display loyalty to her job.

64. Mental operations used to manipulate images or ideas in the mind are known as a. transformations. b. maturations. c. cues. d. schemas.

65. Four-year-old Tommy has been told that he asks too many questions by his parents. His parents always tell him what to play and which activities to do. Which of the following is Tommy likely to develop? a. He will develop role confusion since he is not allowed to make any decisions for himself. b. He will develop guilt since his initiative is being hindered by his parents. c. He will develop trust of his parents since they seem to have his best interests at heart. d. He will develop an inferiority complex since his parents limit anything he does, including talking.

66. Which one of the following is a characteristic of boys who mature early? a. They have an advantage socially and athletically. b. They have a poor self-image. c. They tend to be less popular and less self-assured. d. They tend to avoid antisocial behavior, drugs, alcohol, and sex.

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Chap 03_16e 67. What is the primary difference between the genome and the phenome? a. The genome is the physical expression of a trait, while the phenome is the encoded genetics of that trait. b. The genome is the expression of a trait after birth, while the phenome is the dormant state of the trait during the prenatal phase. c. The genome is the encoded genetics of a trait, while the phenome is the physical expression of that trait. d. The genome is the dormant state of a trait during the prenatal phase, while the phenome is the expression of the trait after birth.

68. Jaffa is approached by his friend, Corey, who says that he has just taken a pop-quiz in history and can give Jaffa the answers. Jaffa is worried that he will get caught and be considered a cheater by everyone in his class, so he tells Corey he will take his chances on the pop-quiz. Which type of reasoning is being displayed in this situation? a. postcoventional b. conventional c. preconventional d. preoperational 69. Crying and signs of fear when left alone or with a stranger is known as a. contact comfort. b. separation anxiety. c. attachment. d. affectional need.

70. Jennifer is helping her three-year-old daughter paint a picture of herself. Jennifer helps by making the circle that will become her daughter's face in the portrait. By helping her daughter make this connection, Jennifer is engaged in what form of support for her daughter? a. accommodation b. scaffolding c. reticular formation d. proximal development 71. Which of the following defines the role of biology in moral intuitions? a. Moral intuitions develop independent of biological influences. b. Fundamental moral intuitions may be, in part, biologically innate. c. Basic moral intuitions are guided solely by biological components. d. Moral intuitions are significantly triggered by biological factors.

72. Rakeish was kept locked in a basement for most of his childhood. During this time, he almost never heard other people talking. He was finally rescued from this abusive situation at the age of nine years old. It is likely that Rakeish will a. very quickly acquire the ability to speak normally. b. may learn to speak normally after many years of working with a speech therapist. c. eventually understand speech, but will never be able to talk. d. never learn to understand speech or speak normally.

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Chap 03_16e 73. What is an advantage that newborn brains have over adult brains? a. Newborn brains contain more dendrites. b. Newborn brains have fewer dendrites, but more synapses. c. Newborn brains are larger. d. Newborn brains are highly plastic and moldable.

74. Two-year-old Missy's mother hands her the brown stuffed bear, and Missy says, "Not doll," meaning this is not what she wanted. Which of the following best describes this pattern of speech? a. negation b. command c. possession d. identification 75. You are trying to get your two-month-old baby to say the word "ball," but all he can say is "ah" while you point to the ball. Which of the following best describes what he is doing? a. cooing b. babbling c. holophrase d. motherese 76. Amy and Gregory are a young married couple in their early thirties who currently don't have children. Which of the following statements most likely applies to them? a. Each has developed a meaningful relationship achieving intimacy. b. Each may be suffering from role confusion since they have no children. c. Each may be experiencing isolation since there are no children in their family. d. Each has developed an inferiority complex as a result of being married so young.

77. Which of the following refers to the sum of all external conditions that affect a person, especially a person's learning? a. environment b. epigenetic processes c. assimilation d. accommodation 78. Massey is going to steal medication that he can't afford to help save his son. According to conventional moral reasoning, which of the following would best apply to this situation? a. He would be thought of as dishonest and a thief, even if it were for a good cause. b. He should balance the benefits of stealing the medication with the risks involved. c. His son may be very sick, but stealing is wrong, and he will likely get caught and put in jail. d. He should steal the drug since there is a high degree of moral complexity.

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Chap 03_16e 79. Which of the following is a complex emotion displayed by infants? a. fear b. surprise c. embarrassment d. anger 80. Tyrone takes care of his newborn whenever he hears her cry or show discomfort. He is quite attentive to her needs, which will lead his baby to a. develop trust of him due to his consistent care. b. develop mistrust of him due to overstimulation. c. become spoiled since he is so in tune to her needs. d. become overstimulated as a result of the care and not like him.

81. Keisha has a history of conflicts with her parents and teachers. Now, she is in sixth grade and is the first girl in her class to reach sexual maturity. When compared to later-maturing girls, Keisha is more likely to a. develop positive communication patterns with other adults. b. have a positive body image. c. drop out of school and have emotional problems. d. be socially unpopular with her classmates.

82. An organized learned body of knowledge or skills about a particular topic is known as a a. cue. b. signal. c. schema. d. scaffold.

83. Abilities requiring speed or rapid learning are known as a. the zone of proximal development. b. crystallized intelligence. c. fluid intelligence. d. scaffolding.

84. According to Kohlberg, in the conventional moral reasoning level, a. moral thinking is based on a desire to please others or to follow accepted authority, rules, and values. b. moral thinking is guided by the consequences of actions (punishment, reward, or an exchange of favors). c. moralistic behavior is not developed until the onset of early adulthood. d. people place a high value on justice, dignity, and equality.

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Chap 03_16e 85. Which statement most definitively describes the improvement of intellectual development during adulthood? a. During the onset of early adulthood, intellectual ability is at its peak level of development. b. After late adolescence, adults commonly experience a surge of intellectual development. c. Once early adulthood begins, improvements in intellect become much more difficult to achieve than in earlier stages of development. d. After late adolescence, improvements in intellect are based on gaining specific knowledge, experience, and wisdom.

86. Why don't infants begin to be able to experience embarrassment until about 18 months? a. Infants do not require the emotional capacity to feel embarrassment until 18 months. b. Embarrassment requires self-awareness, which is not developed until around 18 months. c. Infants cannot fully comprehend human interactions until 18 months, which is a capacity they need to feel embarrassment. d. Embarrassment is the last simple emotion that is developed in children after about 18 months of cognitive development.

87. Mark is almost eighteen months old and has starting to play with his reflection in a mirror. This indicates that Mark is starting to develop self-awareness. Which complex emotion is Mark likely to be capable of expressing now? a. fear b. sadness c. anger d. embarrassment 88. Which example most definitively depicts modern learning theory in contrast to Piaget's theory? a. Children continuously gain specific knowledge; they do not undergo stage-like leaps in general mental ability as Piaget suggested. b. The growth in connections between brain cells occurs in waves, similar to Piaget's stages. c. Children develop cognitive skills somewhat later than Piaget originally thought. d. Babies create internal representations to better understand new information, which is a theory Piaget denied.

89. Which of the following is an accurate representation of Harry Harlow's experiment with baby rhesus monkeys? a. When frightened, the infant monkeys ran to the wire surrogate mother for comfort. b. The infant monkeys clung to the wire surrogate mother when it held a bottle and served as source of food. c. The infant monkeys slept next to the cloth surrogate mother, but otherwise did not spend much time with it. d. The attachment the infant monkeys showed toward the cloth surrogate mothers was identical to that shown toward natural mothers.

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Chap 03_16e 90. Albinism, hemophilia, muscular dystrophy, sickle cell anemia, and cystic fibrosis are examples of a. genetic disorders. b. maturational issues. c. teratogens. d. epigenetic processes.

91. Franky wants to hang out with his friends at the mall, but his parents told him no. When he asked why, they said, "Because we said so, and it's our house and our rules. So drop it." What is likely to happen to Franky as a result of this parenting style? a. He will likely be a troublemaker and aimlessly wonder through life without goals. b. He will likely be withdrawn, emotionally stiff, lack curiosity, and become apprehensive. c. He will be independent, self-controlled, assertive, and inquisitive about a number of topics. d. He will be dependent, immature, and misbehave in all social settings and toward all people.

92. Harry Harlow used surrogate mothers in his experiment with baby rhesus monkeys to test what aspect of the mother-son relationship? a. surrogate mother replacement theory b. the impact of teratogens on infants c. contact comfort in attachment d. the duration of the sensitive period 93. When environmental hazards affect the developing fetus, babies are born with a. polygenic characteristics. b. teratogens. c. genetic disorders. d. congenital problems.

94. If a child's knowledge develops primarily through accommodation, which of the following is the best example of parents applying Piaget's ideas to challenging their children? a. Parents give their child math lessons that are well above their child's age of comprehension. b. Parents review science topics for several weeks to ensure retention in their child's developing mind. c. Parents create creative instructional videos on music to stimulate their child's interest. d. Parents allow their child to read a book one level above their child's age reading level.

95. What is an example of an environmental influence during the prenatal stage? a. Direct intermixing of blood takes place between a mother and her unborn child. b. If the mother experiences excess stress during pregnancy, her baby may be smaller at birth. c. The developing child, before birth, is free from the effect of environmental conditions. d. The prenatal stage is independent of the influence of the environment.

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Chap 03_16e 96. A term referring to the range of tasks that a child cannot yet master alone, but that she or he can accomplish with the guidance of a more capable partner is called a. the zone of proximal development. b. conservation. c. Piagetian transformation. d. theory of mind.

97. According to Erikson, identity versus role confusion is a challenge where we must decide who we are, what we are going to do, and what we hope to make of our lives. This challenge occurs in a. adolescence. b. young adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. late adulthood.

98. Keisha, who is six years old and becoming less egocentric, now knows that her older sister Kendra sometimes lies to her. What has Keisha developed? a. theory of mind b. egocentric thought c. conservation d. object permanence 99. The process of adjusting instruction so that it is responsive to a beginner's behavior and supports the beginner's efforts to understand a problem or gain a mental skill is known as a. scaffolding. b. conservation. c. assimilation. d. accommodation.

100. Celso's parents live below the poverty line and are unable to provide an enriched environment with proper nutrition and stimuli for their son. According to deprivation theory, what affect will Celso's environments have on his development? a. Celso's environment may result in increased social development. b. Celso's environment will force him to develop at an increased rate. c. Celso's environments will not have any effect on his progress of development. d. Celso's environment may result in an increased risk for illnesses, cognitive delays, and problems at school.

101. Ralph is starting in a new day care center and has begun to cry and scream as his mother started to leave.

Which of the following is Ralph experiencing? a. separation anxiety b. moral anxiety c. social referencing d. contact comfort

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Chap 03_16e 102. Nate is working with his father to build a soapbox derby car. They are working together going step-by-step to build the car. Nate's dad mostly provides hints and guidance, letting Nate do much of the work himself as they assemble all the pieces for the car. Which of the following is occurring? a. Nate is likely experiencing the "one-step-ahead" strategy with regard to the new skills he is learning. b. Nate is using adaptive processes of assimilation and accommodation in order to build his car. c. Nate's dad is likely using scaffolding to allow Nate to be successful at building the car. d. Nate's dad is likely teaching a new method for formal operational thinking.

103. When infants have a stable and positive emotional bond and are upset by the mother's (or caregiver's) absence, and seek to be near her when she returns, they are said to develop a. secure attachment. b. insecure-ambivalent attachment. c. insecure-avoidant attachment. d. contact comfort.

104. According to Kohlberg, people at the postconventional moral reasoning level a. are usually adults. b. place a high value on justice, dignity, and equality. c. are usually young children and delinquents. d. want to please others or to follow accepted authority, rules, and values.

105. Harmful substances, such as lead, mercury, or drugs like cocaine, that can cause congenital problems in newborns are also called a. teratogens. b. deoxyribonucleic acids. c. phenomes. d. genomes.

106. According to Piaget, which of the following concepts refers to a child's belief that everyone thinks as he or she does? a. egocentrism b. assimilation c. accommodation (learning) d. Piagetian transformation 107. Most human characteristics are controlled by many genes working in combination. These characteristics can be defined as a. epigenetic characteristics. b. phenome characteristics. c. recessive characteristics. d. polygenic characteristics.

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Chap 03_16e 108. Which of the following types of intelligence best describes your knowledge of the months of the year, numbers, letters, and math concepts? a. experiential b. practical c. fluid d. crystallized 109. Dr. Walters is conducting a research study on the DNA of identical and fraternal twins and its relationship to developmental changes through the twins' lifespan. Dr. Walters is field of study is most likely a. teratogens. b. deprivation. c. epigenetics. d. maturation.

110. Which one of the following situations is most likely to cause people to speak up about the ethics related to the situation? a. An ethically challenging situation at work where they have support from their co-workers. b. An ethically challenging situation at work where their boss is not interested in the opinions of the employees. c. An ethically challenging situation at work where the organization does not value its employees. d. An ethically challenging situation at work where the organization does not encourage open communication.

111. Shontel is two years old and sitting with her father in the yard. She tells him, "See doggy," and "My dolly." Which of the following best describes what is occurring? a. Shontel is using identification and possession patterns of speech, respectively. b. Shontel is commanding her father with agent-action patterns of speech. c. Shontel is employing identification patterns of speech in both instances. d. Shontel is using negation and possession patterns of speech, respectively.

112. Which statement describes the cause of genetic disorders? a. They are caused by interruptions to postnatal development in the womb. b. They are caused by recessive genes pairing to overtake dominant genes. c. They are caused by the influence of teratogens on the genes. d. They are caused by defects in the genes or by inherited characteristics.

113. Joe found a wallet on the ground in the department store parking lot. He turned the wallet in only after noticing that a fellow shopper had seen him pick it up. Which statement best describes what happened? a. Joe exhibited ethical behavior, based on his desire to retain his social status. b. Joe exhibited ethical behavior to preserve his self-image of him being an ethical person. c. Joe exhibited ethical behavior, based on his desire to display loyalty to a group. d. Joe exhibited ethical behavior, based on his desire to display sanctity for his environment.

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Chap 03_16e 114. Which of the following factors is among the greatest risk factors facing unborn children in the United States? a. alcohol and drugs b. Zika virus c. lead and mercury d. measles 115. Tony is fourteen years old and his body has started to change, indicating that he is now capable of reproduction.

Which term applies to this time period in his life? a. andropause b. menopause c. adulthood d. puberty 116. Wilma has a recessive gene for blue eyes and a dominant gene for brown eyes. Which of the following most accurately describes Wilma's potential eye color? a. hazel b. brown c. green d. blue 117. Craig avoids speeding because he doesn't want to get a speeding ticket that could cost him his license and cause his car insurance to be cancelled. Which type of moral reasoning is Craig using? a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. postformal 118. Which of the following refers to the pleasant, reassuring feeling that infants get from touching something soft and warm, especially their mother? a. attachment b. contact comfort c. affectional needs d. separation anxiety 119. According to Piaget, which of the following statements could be said about children in the preoperational stage of development? a. These children lack the cognitive abilities necessary for understanding abstract principles. b. These children understand another person's point of view. c. These children can follow the principle of conservation. d. These children do not yet demonstrate object permanence.

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Chap 03_16e 120. Melissa enrolled her daughter in a day care where there is an excellent adult-to-child ratio, a small group of children overall, and a well-trained staff. What effect is this day care likely to have on Melissa's daughter? a. Her daughter will become less stimulated at home as a result of the superior day care. b. Her daughter will experience an increase in cognitive and social skills in this facility. c. Her daughter will develop new attachments to the skilled teachers and forget about her. d. Her daughter will develop a secure attachment to the children at the day care center.

121. Which is the primary difference between Kohlberg's and Gilligan's view of moral development? a. Kohlberg maintains that caring is the most vital element of moral development, while Gilligan believes fairness is most vital. b. Kohlberg maintains that fairness is the most vital element of moral development, while Gilligan believes justice is most vital. c. Kohlberg maintains that fairness is the most vital element of moral development, while Gilligan believes caring is most vital. d. Kohlberg maintains that caring is the most vital element of moral development, while Gilligan believes sincerity is most vital.

122. Which of the following is an event that takes place during the prenatal stage of human development? a. The hereditary influence has already had its impact on the phonemic level. b. The level of readiness of the infant child is set by the first skills learned. c. The patterns of attention and mood that make up one's temperament are defined. d. The genetic information for physical and psychological traits is coded into the DNA. 123. Aki wife recently have birth to their daughter Chiyo. Aki was hoping that their daughter would have blue eyes like his wife's, but Chiyo has brown eyes like Aki. How would you explain what occurred to Aki? a. The gene for blue eyes is dominant, and since Aki's wife's eyes are blue, there was a very good chance their daughter would inherit blue eyes. b. The gene for brown eyes is dominant, and since Aki's eyes are brown, there was a very good chance their daughter would inherit brown eyes. c. There is a 50% chance that Chiyo would have brown eyes since eye color is by chance, as all the genes are recessive. d. Parents ‘eye color has very little to do with their children's eye color.

124. Which of the following refers to the physical growth and development of the body, brain, and nervous system? a. transformation b. readiness c. maturation d. epigenetics

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Chap 03_16e 125. Mae was diagnosed with terminal cancer and has received an update from her physician that she does not have much time left. She refuses to tell her family about the update of her condition and carries on as if she has not heard from her physician. What stage of the five basic emotional reactions to death is Mae likely experiencing? a. anger b. bargaining c. denial and isolation d. depression 126. Gloria progressed from sitting to standing to walking and skipped the crawling phase. What effect might skipping the crawling phase have on Gloria's development? a. There is no effect. Gloria's development is still considered orderly. b. There is a significant effect, and Gloria has abnormal proximodistal development. c. There is a significant effect, and Gloria has abnormal cephalocaudal development. d. There might be an intense delayed effect since Gloria's milestones are out of sequence.

127. What role does epigenetics play in the physical growth and development of the body, brain, and nervous system? a. The epigenetic processes help bond chromosomes together to make the DNA chain. b. The epigenetic processes within cells erase the genetic blueprint encoded in the genome. c. The epigenetic processes decipher the dominance of certain genes over others. d. The epigenetic processes translate the "genetic blueprint" encoded in the genome into an actual organism.

128. Which of the following is a mental process that refers to the application of an established schema to new objects or problems? a. assimilation b. accommodation c. signaling d. scaffolding 129. Kyrisha first lifts her head, then crawls and walks as her development progresses from her head to her feet.

Which of the following best describes this progression? a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. sagittal d. coronal 130. Maurice's parents fight all the time about money. Some days, he doesn't know whether there will be food, water, or electricity in their home. He has never been to the doctor or dentist. Which of the following, according to research, is likely for Maurice? a. He will have short-term effects that will not lead to a cycle of poverty. b. His long-term emotional development will be unaffected. c. His overall cognitive development will be unaffected. d. He will be sick more often since his physical health will be affected.

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Chap 03_16e 131. What is deoxyribonucleic acid? a. a harmful substance that can cause birth defects b. nerve cell branches present in the brain of humans c. the chain of molecules that holds the code of genetic information d. a chemical compound used to treat fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) 132. Andrew is a later-maturing boy when compared to his friends, who have already matured. Which of the following likely applies to Andrew as a result? a. He will have social and athletic advantages. b. He will prematurely form his identity. c. He will be more relaxed, self-assured, and poised. d. He will be less likely to get into trouble with drugs.

133. Shawn sees a butterfly and calls it a bird. His mother says, "No, that's a butterfly. See how thin and small the wings are?" Which of the following best illustrates which concept was presented? a. accommodation b. assimilation c. transformation d. conditioning 134. The teacher has made suggestions to the students to help them with their homework, but has not given them the answer. Which type of guidance does this best illustrate? a. scaffolding b. conservation c. vicarious learning d. transformation 135. According to Erikson, during middle adulthood (35-64 years), which characteristic dilemma are people facing? a. intimacy versus isolation b. generativity versus stagnation c. integrity versus despair d. identity versus role confusion 136. Which one of the following statements best describes Vygotsky's beliefs about mental development? a. Vygotsky believed maturation was essential in a child's cognitive development. b. Vygotsky believed that culture only has a slight impact on mental development of children. c. Vygotsky believed that children's thinking develops through dialogue with more capable persons. d. Vygotsky believed that the learning environment did not play a significant role in mental development.

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Chap 03_16e 137. According to Kohlberg, in the preconventional moral reasoning level, a. people place a high value on justice, dignity, and equality. b. moral behavior is directed by self-chosen ethical principles that tend to be general, comprehensive, or universal. c. moral thinking is guided by the consequences of actions (punishment, reward, or an exchange of favors). d. moral thinking is based on a desire to please others or to follow accepted authority, rules, and values.

138. The unfolding of a natural sequence of physical changes and behavior patterns describes a. one's perception of the events in their life. b. environmental influences. c. assimilation. d. maturation.

139. Moral development for ethical behavior in personal and professional life becomes more established during which developmental stage? a. middle adulthood b. adolescence c. preschool d. late childhood 140. Yao-Yen is finishing high school and starting college. Which of the following is he likely to experience during this time period? a. He will experience an increase in animism and egocentrism. b. He will experience an increase in intuition, insight, and generativity. c. He will experience an increase in initiative and industriousness. d. He will experience an increase in abstract thinking and reflection.

141. Rachel has finished college as a 22-year-old, but still lives with her parents since she only has a part-time job and cannot afford to live on her own. She has been applying for full-time jobs, but without much success. Which of the following descriptions applies to Rachel? a. She is exhibiting isolation by not being married. b. She is trying to give back to society. c. She is in the emerging adulthood phase. d. She has a superiority complex and struggles with this.

142. Which of the following terms refers to the understanding that people have mental states, such as thoughts, beliefs, and intentions, and that other people's mental states can be different from one's own? a. theory of mind b. a one-step-ahead strategy c. conservation d. Piagetian transformation

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Chap 03_16e 143. Which of the following children is exhibiting behavior characteristic of the preoperational stage? a. Rachel is six years old and cannot think symbolically or intuitively. b. Kevin is eight years old and lacks object permanence. c. Quisha is four years old and cannot easily transform mental images. d. Quetzel is five years old and cannot create internal representations.

144. Under what conditions will a dominant gene be displayed? a. A dominant gene must be paired with a recessive gene before its effect will be expressed. b. A dominant gene must be paired with a second, identical dominant gene before its effect will be expressed. c. When a dominant gene controls a feature, that feature will appear every time the gene is present. d. When a dominant gene controls a feature, that feature will appear 50 percent of the time the gene is present.

145. Which of the following best illustrates the differences seen between a child's thinking and an adult's thinking? a. Adults have more abstract thinking, so they use fewer generalizations than children. b. Adults have more abstract thinking, so they use more generalizations than children. c. Children have more abstract thinking, so they use more principles, but fewer generalizations than adults. d. Children have more abstract thinking, so they base the world on specific examples more than adults do.

146. Which of the following attachment styles is characterized by an anxious emotional bond between the child and the mother? a. secure attachment b. insecure-avoidant attachment c. ambivalent attachment d. emotional attachment 147. Simple two-word sentences spoken by children between 18 months and 2 years is known as a. cooing. b. telegraphic speech. c. babbling. d. vocal turn-taking.

148. What is one of the characteristics of DNA? a. DNA are molecules involved in protein synthesis. b. DNA are the 23 rodlike structures that contain a person's genes. c. DNA molecules are usually single-stranded. d. DNA are the molecules that contain the genetic code for each individual.

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Chap 03_16e 149. Piaget's third stage of cognitive development, characterized by logical thought, is called the a. sensorimotor stage. b. preoperational stage. c. concrete operational stage. d. formal operational stage.

150. Which one of the following statements best describes the children of authoritative parents? a. The children tend to be emotionally stiff, withdrawn, apprehensive, and lacking in curiosity. b. The children are often spoiled, self-indulgent, and lack self-control. c. The children have unrealistically high levels of self-esteem and a sense of entitlement. d. The children are resilient and develop the strength they need to thrive even in difficult circumstances.

151. Which one of the following is the most accurate representation of the dynamic relationship of a mother and her child? a. Good parenting can make a shy child progressively shyer. b. Difficult children may elicit more negative parenting. c. Negative parenting can turn a moderately shy child into a less shy child. d. A child's behavior is independent of good parenting.

152. Which of the following developmental stages spans from birth to one year? a. fetal b. infancy c. germinal d. embryonic 153. According to Erikson, if children aged 6–12 years are praised for productive activities, like building, painting, cooking, reading, and studying, they learn a sense of a. superiority. b. industry. c. mistrust. d. initiative.

154. The acquisition of specific values that, along with appropriate emotions and cognitions, guide responsible behavior is known as a. moral development. b. moral reasoning. c. subjective well-being. d. accommodation.

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Chap 03_16e 155. Piaget's second stage of cognitive development, characterized by the use of symbols and illogical thought, is called the a. sensorimotor stage b. preoperational stage c. concrete operational stage d. formal operational stage 156. If Lauralynn develops measles early in her pregnancy, her child could have a number of defects. However, if she develops it later in pregnancy, the likelihood of any defect drops significantly. Which of the following best illustrates this concept? a. sociological development stage b. sensitive period c. maturational milestone d. biopsychosocial crisis 157. According to Erikson, which of the following is a characteristic dilemma of people in young adulthood (20-34 years)? a. identity versus isolation b. intimacy versus isolation c. integrity versus despair d. industry versus guilt 158. Maryann finds $5 on the floor in the toy aisle and offers to turn it in because she considers herself a good citizen. Which of the following best describes this situation? a. By returning the money, Maryann is reinforcing the self-image she has of herself as a moral person. b. By returning the money, Maryann primarily wished to avoid the negative consequences of illegal behavior. c. By returning the money, Maryann was displaying concern about social status and power. d. By returning the money, Maryann was exhibiting that her core beliefs are shaped by loyalty.

159. Toni loves to play with both of her parents, but they play with her differently. In which manner is her father most likely to play with her? a. combing her hair b. engaging in conversation c. imitating her d. peekaboo 160. Which of the following challenges Piaget's theory of cognitive development? a. Cognitive abilities develop in discrete steps or stages. b. Cognitive development around the world is more consistent than Piaget believed. c. Children develop cognitive skills later than Piaget believed. d. Children develop cognitive skills earlier than Piaget believed.

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Chap 03_16e 161. Which of the following outcomes is associated with maternal smoking during pregnancy? a. An increased likelihood of miscarriage, prematurity, and low birth weight. b. Defects in the eyes, ears, and heart. c. An increased risk for disabilities, blindness, and other physical disorders. d. A smaller head, facial malformation, and other disabilities.

162. According to Erikson, which of the following is a characteristic psychosocial dilemma faced by children between 6 years and 12 years? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. trust versus mistrust c. industry versus inferiority d. initiative versus guilt 163. According to Erikson, which of the following is a psychosocial dilemma faced by infants from birth to one year of age? a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt d. industry versus inferiority 164. Which one of the following best describes physical development during infancy? a. Three-day-old babies prefer their mothers to strangers. b. By one year of age, babies' development has been working toward walking independently. c. By two-month-old babies are able to sit unsupported. d. By one year of age, babies can see as well as their parents.

165. Heath first holds a ball by pulling it toward his body using his arms. As he gets older, he holds the ball solidly with his hands and finally his fingertips. Which of the following patterns of development does this activity most accurately qualify as? a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. sagittal d. coronal 166. According to Baumrind, which one of the following is a characteristic of the parenting style of authoritarian parents? a. The parents do not enforce rules and the child usually gets their own way. b. The parents tend to discipline their children through power assertion. c. The parents control their children's behavior through management techniques. d. The parents are firm and consistent, not harsh or rigid.

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Chap 03_16e 167. Bob is in his eighties and enjoys talking to his children and grandchildren about his life experiences. He admits there are a few regrets, but overall he has been happy with how his life has turned out. Which of the following is he likely experiencing? a. isolation b. industry c. integrity d. generativity 168. Anaya cries every time her mother tries to leave her in the day care center. When her mother returns to pick her up at the end of the day, Anaya wants to sit in her mother's lap and hug her. Which of the following is Anaya displaying with this behavior? a. secure attachment b. insecure attachment c. secure avoidant d. insecure ambivalent 169. The passage of physical and psychological traits through genes from parents to offspring at conception is called a. accommodation. b. heredity. c. maturation. d. assimilation.

170. What is the defining characteristic of late adulthood that leads individuals to experience either integrity or despair? a. the ability to reflect on one's emotional and physical progress of development b. the ability to reflect on one's financial successes and overall well-being c. the ability to reflect on one's life and determine the value and quality of experience lived d. the ability to reflect on one's history of moral choices throughout all stages of development 171. Lewis is struggling trying to assemble his jigsaw puzzle. His mother gives him a hint to put together the frame first and work inward. Which of the following best describes what type of help this was? a. scaffolding b. vicarious learning c. forced teaching d. transformation 172. Which of the following language patterns is typically used by children when first using multiword sentences? a. babbling b. telegraphic speech c. possession d. reflex

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Chap 03_16e 173. Which facet of language acquisition do many psychologists feel is overstated by Chomsky's biological predisposition theory? a. the fact that children around the world use a limited number of patterns in their first sentences b. the inborn aspects of infant humans to develop language patterns c. the importance of learning and the social contexts that shape language development d. the influence of a particular culture on an infant's language development 174. Many adolescents develop new feelings and attitudes as they develop. They may have conflicting experiences as students, athletes, friends, children, and so on. What stage are they likely to be in at this point in their lives? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. identity versus role confusion c. industry versus inferiority d. initiative versus guilt 175. According to Erikson, an ability to care about others and to share experiences with them is known as a. intimacy. b. integrity. c. isolation. d. stagnation.

176. Which of the following is a basic emotion expressed by six-month-old babies? a. disgust b. embarrassment c. integrity d. loyalty 177. After greeting their relatives at the restaurant, Raphael's parents leave him with his grandmother while they go to the restroom to wash their hands. Eight-month-old Raphael becomes fearful of this grandmother and begins to cry. This distress would an example of a. insecure attachment. b. avoidant attachment. c. separation anxiety. d. stranger anxiety.

178. At around what age is an infant's eyesight comparable to that of their parents? a. two to five days old b. six months c. nine months d. one year

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Chap 03_16e 179. According to Erikson, which of the following is a psychosocial dilemma faced by children between one year and three years of age? a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt d. industry versus inferiority 180. When considering affectionate needs and physical needs of children, what should parents remember? a. No matter what their affectionate needs are, children will naturally develop warm, loving relationships. b. It is of the utmost importance that the child is only allowed to bond with the favorite parent of the two. c. The physical needs should be the top priority when compared to affectionate needs of the child. d. The affection needs are, at least, just as important as the physical needs of the child.

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Chap 03_16e Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. d 26. d

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Chap 03_16e 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. c 31. a 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. d 51. b 52. a 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_16e 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. a 78. a 79. c 80. a 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_16e 83. c 84. a 85. d 86. b 87. d 88. a 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. c 93. d 94. d 95. b 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. d 101. a 102. c 103. a 104. b 105. a 106. a 107. d 108. d 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_16e 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. a 115. d 116. b 117. a 118. b 119. a 120. b 121. c 122. d 123. b 124. c 125. c 126. a 127. d 128. a 129. b 130. d 131. c 132. d 133. a 134. a 135. b 136. c 137. c

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Chap 03_16e 138. d 139. b 140. d 141. c 142. a 143. c 144. c 145. b 146. b 147. b 148. d 149. c 150. d 151. b 152. b 153. b 154. a 155. b 156. b 157. b 158. a 159. c 160. d 161. a 162. c 163. a 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_16e 166. b 167. c 168. a 169. b 170. c 171. a 172. b 173. c 174. b 175. a 176. a 177. c 178. d 179. b 180. d

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Chap 04_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. While exercising on a treadmill, which of the following is most likely to be dangerous if performed at the same time? a. talking to a friend while running your fastest b. talking to a friend while changing your speed c. looking at your friend while wiping your sweat d. looking at your friend while talking on the phone 2. Mind wandering is typically a. intentional. b. present-oriented. c. past-oriented. d. future-oriented.

3. Which of the following is an example of inattentional blindness? a. Nia eventually gets used to the smell of kerosene in the garage. b. Jose forgets to set his alarm to get up and go to work. c. Sheila yells at her children to get their attention. d. Frank doesn’t notice a car coming because he is engrossed in conversation.

4. John has color weakness. As a result, he is most likely to have trouble with differentiating between which of the following? a. red and green traffic lights b. red and yellow traffic lights c. ripe red tomatoes and unripened green tomatoes d. yellow and blue crayons 5. An athlete is trying to become more mindful about their sport. Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to help? a. put their socks on both feet at the same time b. warm up before practice by running 800 meters c. develop a secret handshake with their teammates d. imagine their opponent as a dangerous wild animal 6. Brightness constancy is evident when the relative brightness of objects appears to stay the same while which of the following changes? a. lighting conditions b. perceived shape c. level of camouflage d. depth perception

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Chap 04_16e 7. What is the consequence of the presence of a weapon in the context of eyewitness perception? a. It impairs an eyewitness's ability to identify the culprit's face and other personal details. b. It causes the eyewitness to refuse to testify due to fear of the criminal. c. It greatly increases convictions by providing identifying details of the weapon. d. It leads eyewitnesses to identify as a culprit someone whom they have seen in another situation or context.

8. Which of the following refers to an area in the retina where the optic nerve exits that contains no photoreceptor cells? a. blind spot b. sclera c. fovea d. incus 9. A monocular depth cue is a perceptual feature that imparts information a. about distance and three-dimensional space that requires two eyes. b. about the difference between the images projected onto each eye. c. about the relative constancy of objects' size, shape, and brightness. d. about distance and three-dimensional space that requires just one eye.

10. A narrowing in the information channel that links the senses to perception is known as a a. bottleneck. b. blind spot. c. threshold. d. sensory conflict.

11. Which of the following refers to a structure in the cochlea containing hair cells that convert sound waves into action potentials? a. basilar membrane b. olfactory bulb c. tympanic membrane d. pinna 12. Which of the following involves finding meaningful patterns in complex stimuli? a. somesthetic perception b. kinesthetic perception c. visual perception d. vestibular perception

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Chap 04_16e 13. Which of the following describes the Müller-Lyer illusion? a. two parallel lines appear to meet at the horizon b. two equal-length lines tipped with inward or outward pointing "V" shapes appear to be of different lengths c. some circles tend to overlap in a series of concentric circles d. objects that are placed higher in a drawing tend to be perceived as more distant 14. Which of the following is the minimum amount of physical energy that can be detected 50 percent of the time? a. absolute threshold b. threshold c. difference threshold d. sensory threshold 15. You show two friends a picture of a brown stick insect sitting on a pile of brown sticks. Shari only sees a picture of sticks, but Roberto immediately sees the stick insect. Of the following, the best explanation is that a. Roberto uses more bottom-up processing. b. Shari has color weakness. c. Roberto has experience seeing stick insects. d. Shari is using the figure–ground principle.

16. The retina is most analogous in function to which of the following? a. the layer of light sensitive pixels in a camera b. the course adjustment knob of a microscope c. a DVD player d. a telescope 17. Consider a patient wearing an eye patch. You show him or her a picture with triangle A on the bottom of the page and triangle B on top of the page. Triangle A is white and has a base of 4 inches. Triangle B is gray and has a base of 2 inches. In the context of depth perception, how will the patient MOST likely describe the picture? a. The picture shows a small pyramid hovering over a large pyramid. b. The picture shows the roofs of a two-story house. c. The picture shows a nearby mountain and a faraway mountain. d. The picture shows arrows pointing into the sky.

18. The optic nerve at the back of the eye is a structure that a. focuses light rays. b. conveys visual information away from the retina to the brain. c. is on the retina, but contains no photoreceptor cells. d. is sensitive to color.

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Chap 04_16e 19. Length, position, motion, curvature, or direction is misjudged consistently in a/an a. figure–ground perception. b. illusions. c. perceptual feature. d. perceptual construction.

20. According to Tannen, which of the following describes how characteristics of speech influence people's perceptions of one another and the work that they do? a. People interested in promoting relationships are more likely to speak in terms of themselves rather than the group. b. People who apologize frequently can be viewed as stronger and more confident than others. c. Requests that are presented in a direct way rather than indirectly may be viewed as being more collegial. d. People focused more on promoting relationships will begin a feedback session with praise, followed by areas for improvement.

21. Ari has suffered from damage to a part of his ear, and now sound waves are blocked from reaching the other parts of his ear. Which part of his ear has likely been damaged? a. incus b. tympanic membrane c. stapes d. cochlear canal 22. Abe wanted to question his teacher about his final grade, so he wrote a letter with the question. Which of the following techniques would MOST likely help Abe deliver a well-received message? a. Have another student review the letter and comment on if it is respectful enough. b. Have another teacher or parent review the letter and comment on if it is respectful enough. c. Have another student review the letter and comment on if it is clearly written. d. Have another teacher or parent review the letter and comment on if it is relationship focused.

23. Which of the following is a theory of hearing that proposes that higher and lower tones excite specific areas of the cochlea? a. the place theory b. the frequency theory c. the lock-and-key theory d. the telephone theory 24. What are perceptual features? a. basic patterns of a stimulus b. basic attributes of a receptor c. sensory inputs to the brain d. responses from sensory nerves of the brain

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Chap 04_16e 25. Suppose you draw a cobbled sidewalk in the fog. You are mostly closely using which of the following two pictorial depth cues? a. texture gradients and aerial perspective b. relative size and overlap c. light and shadow and linear perspective d. relative size and height in the plane 26. The proposition that pitch is decoded from the rate at which hair cells of the basilar membrane are firing is known as the a. resonance theory of hearing. b. frequency theory of hearing. c. volley theory of hearing. d. place theory of hearing.

27. Suppose Amy's job requires her to walk back and forth between a darkened movie theater and a bright lobby.

To minimize the necessary visual adaptation, the low-intensity lights that illuminate the walkway in the theater should be which of the following colors? a. red b. green c. yellow d. blue 28. The Olympic symbol is five partial rings of different colors, which overlap each other. They appear as interlocking rings. Which of the following best explains this perceptual trick? a. principle of continuity b. principle of similarity c. principle of nearness d. principle of figure–ground 29. What are pictorial depth cues in the context of sensory perception? a. features found in paintings, drawings, and photographs that impart information about space, depth, and distance b. cues related to the ability to see three-dimensional (3D) space and to judge distances accurately c. features of the environment and messages from the body that supply information about distance and space d. perceptual features that impart information about distance and three-dimensional (3D) space with two eyes 30. Psychophysics is the study of how the mind interprets the physical properties of a. the subconscious. b. altered states. c. stimuli. d. transducers.

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Chap 04_16e 31. Photoreceptors for dim light that produce only black and white sensations are called a. corneas. b. lenses. c. rods. d. cones.

32. Which of the following scenarios would be MOST challenging for someone wearing an eye patch? a. jumping on one foot b. peeling potatoes c. writing calligraphy d. shooting a bow and arrow 33. Consider an experiment in which an adult person spent a year with a blindfold on. At the end of the year, the person removes the blindfold and is presented with her favorite book written in her native language. Which of the following is the MOST likely reaction upon seeing the book? a. She would quickly regain her sight, but take much longer to reconstruct her perception of the letters. b. She would quickly regain her sight and be able to perceive the letters in the book. c. She would slowly regain her sight, but be able to perceive the letters as her sight returned. d. She would slowly regain her sight and take much longer to reconstruct her perception of the letters.

34. At large stadiums, thousands of people hold up a colored paper. From far away, thousands of colored papers appear as a giant image, an image that none of the individual people can see from their own colored papers.

This event is most similar to which of the following psychological processes? a. bottom-up processing b. top-down processing c. principle of grouping d. principle of continuity 35. The perception of space and depth as a result of each eye receiving different images is a. binocular depth perception. b. retinal disparity. c. stereoscopic vision. d. convergence.

36. Consider an experiment that stimulates a participant's single olfactory receptor of one shape, then a different single receptor of a different shape. Which of the choices below is the most likely experience of the participant? a. The participant smells a strong flower smell and then a strong musky smell. b. The participant first smells a sweet flower smell and then a musky smell. c. The participant first smells a sweet flower smell and then a strong flower smell. d. The participant first smells a musky smell and then a strong flowery musky smell.

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Chap 04_16e 37. What are cones in the human visual system? a. photoreceptors that are sensitive to light b. photoreceptors that are sensitive to color c. structures at the front of the eye that reflect light rays d. muscles that alter the shape of the lens 38. Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a person to overpay for a taxi? a. seeing a news story on the rising employment rate b. seeing a news story on life in cities c. driving by a street sign with pictures of money signs d. driving by a street sign that shows a person hailing a taxi 39. In China, it is common to negotiate over the price of goods. In the United States, it is not common. Which of the following is the MOST likely result of a tourist from the United States buying a pancake in a Chinese market? a. The Chinese salesperson will likely offer a discount to attract more tourists. b. The tourist will likely underpay because when they negotiate, the salesperson will be surprised. c. The Chinese salesperson will likely refer the tourist to another shop with United States salespeople. d. The tourist will likely overpay because they will not attempt to negotiate the price.

40. Which of the following sounds is most likely to lead to immediate hearing loss? a. the blast from a nearby stick of dynamite b. using a hairdryer c. a loud stadium crowd d. a plane taking off about a mile away 41. Amy spoke with her doctor about symptoms she was having. The doctor recorded her symptoms, administered tests, and told Amy she was healthy. When Amy left, she felt that the doctor did not really care about her.

Which of the following could the doctor have done that MOST likely would have made Amy feel better? a. Repeat Amy's concerns, for example, "So you are feeling low on energy." b. At the end of the visit, say "We are all healthy." c. Apologize for the result, for example, "Sorry, you are healthy." d. Take a longer time to administer the tests, so as not to appear rushed.

42. Which of the following systems uses small nerve fibers to tell the brain that the body has been injured? a. warning system b. vestibular system c. data selection system d. reminding system

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Chap 04_16e 43. Which of the following is a theory of color vision based on three cone types: red, green, and blue? a. opponent-process theory b. peripheral (side) vision theory c. lock-and-key theory d. trichromatic theory 44. Which of the following situations best demonstrates a conflict of speaking styles? a. A military commander shouts at their new soldiers. b. A police officer shouts at bystanders to evacuate the area. c. A waiter says they are sorry, but they are out of the food you ordered. d. A person apologizes after aggressively cutting in line at the movies.

45. In popular singing and music competitions, the judges will first listen to the musicians without seeing them. What is the most likely reason for this? a. to increase the dramatic effect of the competition b. to increase bottom-up processing c. to decrease top-down processing d. to decrease sensory conflict 46. In which of the following is prior knowledge or expectations used to guide the perception of meaningful wholes? a. top-down processing b. bottom-up processing c. perceptual constancy d. perceptual organization 47. Suppose Carlos is hallucinating. Which of the following is the best example of this? a. Carlos misunderstands their roommate's compliment. b. Carlos fails to notice their spouse's new haircut. c. Carlos sees an imaginary elephant walking outside. d. Carlos forgets that he has a psychology exam tomorrow.

48. What is the term for the various colors of light, such as red, orange, and blue? a. hue b. saturation c. brightness d. pitch 49. Which of the following refers to giving priority to a particular incoming sensory message? a. selective attention b. perceptual detector c. hyperopia d. myopia

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Chap 04_16e 50. Which of the following is found within the cochlea and works to transduce vibrations into nerve impulses? a. hair cells b. basilar membrane c. stapes d. eardrum 51. Imagine you are designing a kind of explosion that can be used to find things over a large area at night. You can choose what color fireworks will be used. Based on your knowledge of seeing in the dark, which of the following fireworks colors would you use? a. red fireworks b. blue fireworks c. white fireworks d. green fireworks 52. Consider a boss who says "Show me what went wrong" when an employee encounters a challenge. Which of the following phrases could the boss have said that would MOST likely improve the relationship of the boss and employee? a. "Show us what went wrong." b. "Let's take a look." c. "Sorry you made this mistake." d. "Tell me how to help you."

53. Which of the following systems uses large nerve fibers to alert that body damage may be occurring? a. vestibular system b. warning system c. central biasing system d. reminding system 54. Weapon focus is a form of inattentional blindness whereby a witness a. fails to notice details of the attacker because scrutiny is fixed on the knife or gun used. b. provides an exceptionally detailed and accurate description of any person holding a weapon. c. becomes paralyzed in fear when a criminal brandishes a weapon. d. instinctively looks away from a weapon being held by a criminal.

55. Consider interviewing for a job. Which of the following would NOT help to show the interviewer that you are listening? a. adjusting your tie b. looking toward the eyes of the interviewer c. moving your head up and down gradually d. speaking up as soon as you think of something

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Chap 04_16e 56. In the sensory system, what does the term kinesthesis refer to? a. balance and gravity b. body position and movement c. the body's warning system d. body image 57. Which of the following refers to poor transfer of sounds from the eardrum to the inner ear? a. conductive hearing loss b. noise-induced hearing loss c. sensorineural hearing loss d. gate control hearing loss 58. Which of the following scenarios relies on the assumption that a viewer's eyes are approximately a couple of inches apart? a. Tightrope walkers fixating on a point at the end of their tightrope. b. Mapmakers fusing two flat images from different perspectives. c. Mountain climber guides advising their followers not to look down. d. Airplane cockpit designers placing knobs and dials in certain positions.

59. A teacher wants to become a more perceptive observer of their students. Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to help? a. Eat a reliable and healthy breakfast every morning. b. Share stories about student mishaps with other faculty. c. Take the students on a field trip to the zoo. d. Repeat the motto to themselves that they are the teacher.

60. Which of the following cues is based on the apparent convergence of parallel markings fading into the distance? a. overlap b. texture gradient c. relative size d. linear perspective 61. If two objects make images of the same size on the retina, the fact that the more distant object must be larger is called a. relative size. b. size constancy. c. size-distance invariance. d. the Ponzo illusion.

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Chap 04_16e 62. Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a person to panic at a knock on the door? a. seeing a television show about home construction b. seeing a news story about home invasions c. taking a course on constructing hardwood furniture making d. taking a course on emergency evacuation procedures 63. Which of the following is a hallucination? a. hearing someone’s voice who is not there b. imagining the sound of someone’s voice who is not there c. hearing a sound when you see a specific color d. hearing “yanny” instead of “laurel” 64. Judging distance based on your knowledge of how big a distant object is would be an example of a. convergence. b. overlap. c. size constancy. d. accommodation.

65. Which of the following describes what the vestibular senses are responsible for? a. perception of balance, gravity, and acceleration b. perception of pain c. perception of bodily movement and positioning d. perception of bodily damage 66. Which of the following most accurately describes the gate control theory? a. a theory explaining motion sickness as the result of a mismatch among information from vision, the vestibular system, and kinesthesis b. a theory of sleep–wake disorders explaining problems like sleep apnea and daytime sleepiness c. a theory proposing that pain messages pass through neural portals in the spinal cord d. a theory of sensory conflict proposing that many poisons disturb the vestibular system, vision, and the body 67. Which of the following visual depth cues require two eyes to experience? a. accommodation b. relative motion (motion parallax) c. overlap d. convergence 68. The surface at the back of the eye onto which the lens focuses light rays is the a. cornea. b. retina. c. fovea. d. iris.

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Chap 04_16e 69. What are binocular depth cues? a. cues based on the apparent convergence of parallel lines b. perceptual features that impart information about distance and three-dimensional (3D) space that require just one eye c. cues based on the apparent motion of objects viewed during travel d. perceptual features that impart information about distance and three-dimensional (3D) space that require two eyes 70. Covering the center of the tongue with wax will result in which of the following? a. loss of sense of sweet and salty b. loss of sense of sour and bitter c. loss of sense of spicy d. tongue will feel awkward 71. Defects in the cornea, lens, or eye resulting in some areas of vision being out of focus causes the problem of a. myopia. b. color blindness. c. presbyopia. d. astigmatism.

72. Which of the following contains conflicting information that prevents construction of a stable perception? a. necker cube b. open door c. "three-pronged widget" d. parallel lines 73. Suppose Pau is mugged while walking to his car, and the attacker has a gun. During the mugging, what would Pau likely focus his attention on? a. attacker's gun b. attacker's face c. Pau’s car d. Pau’s wallet 74. What is the eardrum in the human auditory system? a. a membrane that vibrates in response to sound waves and transmits them inward b. a snail-shaped organ in the inner ear that contains sensory receptors for hearing c. a receptor cell within the cochlea that transduces vibrations into nerve impulses d. a structure in the cochlea containing hair cells that convert sound waves into action potentials

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Chap 04_16e 75. Which of the following refers to a perceptual phenomenon in which stimulation of one sensory system creates perceptual experiences in another sensory system? a. hallucination b. synesthesia c. illusion d. perceptual construction 76. What is the term for loss of hearing caused by damage to the inner ear hair cells or auditory nerve? a. conductive hearing loss b. stereocilia hearing loss c. sensorineural hearing loss d. frequency hearing loss 77. How do the area behind the knee and the area at the tip of the nose compare regarding the number of pain points per square centimeter? a. Behind the knee has more. b. The pad of the thumb has more. c. They have the same amount. d. There are no pain points for either.

78. Mental models of external events that are actively created by your brain are known as a. perceptual constructions. b. illusions. c. hallucinations. d. perceptual hypotheses.

79. Which of the following scenarios best represents a situation in which the perceived brightness of an object remains stable even though it reflects a different intensity of light energy? a. a city viewed from an observation deck of a tall building b. street signs at night c. a large monument on top of a hill d. a door in the open position 80. WHY [capitalization] do the contrasts [italics] in this sentence draw attention [bold]? a. They are unexpected. b. They are intense. c. They form a bottleneck. d. They are overwhelming.

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Chap 04_16e 81. What is color weakness in humans? a. inability to see some colors b. inability to distinguish between light and dark c. increased light sensitivity of the eye under low-light conditions d. inability to perceive colors 82. What is farsightedness caused by aging called? a. presbyopia b. myopia c. anosmia d. hyperopia 83. Which of the following sequence of events best describes what would happen after looking at a bright flash of lightning in the night sky? a. You would first see the lightning, then a red afterimage would appear; your eyes already would be dark adapted because the red afterimage would not disrupt your dark adaptation. b. You would first see the lightning, then a dark afterimage would appear; your eyes then would begin adapting to the dark because the lightning would have disrupted your dark adaptation. c. You would first see the lightning, then a red afterimage would appear; your eyes then would begin adapting to the dark because the red afterimage would have caused your pupils to shrink. d. You would first see the lightning, then no afterimage would appear because your pupils would have shrunk; once your eyes began adapting to the dark, a white colored afterimage would appear.

84. Which of the following BEST characterizes the relationship between a person's accuracy of perception and the confidence of accuracy? a. Confidence in the accuracy has a small negative relationship with accuracy. b. Confidence in the accuracy has a strong negative relationship with accuracy. c. Confidence in the accuracy has a small positive relationship with accuracy. d. Confidence in the accuracy has a strong positive relationship with accuracy.

85. In depth perception, accommodation is a a. binocular depth cue. b. monocular depth cue. c. pictorial depth cue. d. retinal disparity.

86. Which of the following is the term for the depth cue that occurs when an observer is traveling in a vehicle and looks out the window at near and far objects? a. retinal disparity b. linear perspective c. overlap d. motion parallax

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Chap 04_16e 87. In a study by Drew, Vo, & Wolfe (2013), what percentage of radiologists noticed a picture of a gorilla in an image of a pair of lungs? a. 0% b. 17% c. 53% d. 70% 88. Which of the following scenarios would MOST challenge a viewer's depth perception while practicing on a punching bag? a. illuminating the practice area in purely green light while wearing sunglasses b. illuminating the practice area in purely red light while wearing sunglasses c. blocking the nerves sending position information from the eye muscle to the brain d. blocking the nerves sending color information from the photoreceptors to the brain 89. What is the sense of taste called? a. olfaction b. gestalt c. gustation d. anosmia 90. Perceptions are a. constructions of reality. b. an increase in response to a repeated stimulus. c. a communication method that focuses on providing information. d. a tendency to ignore stimuli.

91. Which of the following refers to two equal-length lines tipped with inward or outward "V" shapes appearing to be of different lengths? a. the Muller-Lyer illusion b. the Stroop Interference task c. afterimages d. perceptual habits 92. What is olfaction in the human sensory system? a. sense of smell b. sense of taste c. sense of hearing d. sense of touch

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Chap 04_16e 93. Which of the following refers to difficulty focusing on distant objects? a. astigmatism b. myopia c. peripheral vision d. farsightedness 94. An investigator is trying to find threats to the accuracy of an eyewitness testimony. Which of the following situations would be the LEAST important on which the investigator should focus? a. the color of lighting in the witnessed area b. whether or not the witness was having a bad day c. the distance of the witness from a pub or bar d. whether or not the witness was well dressed 95. Why might someone squint in order to see something in the distance? a. to try to stay awake b. to focus attention c. to change the curvature of their lens so they can see the object better d. to filter out distractions 96. In terms of the psychology of hearing, loudness is described by which of the following terms? a. amplitude b. pitch c. frequency d. tune 97. Which of the following refers to the amplitude of a sound wave? a. the intensity of sound b. the "physical height" of a sound wave c. the number of waves occurring per second d. the higher or lower tone of a sound 98. When asked to describe colors, Jaxson says they “taste salty.” This is an example of which of the following? a. synesthesia b. convergence c. taste constancy d. bottom-up processing

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Chap 04_16e 99. Consider an fMRI experiment in which participants are provided with two dishes of edible mushrooms. Group A is told that the mushrooms are expensive luxury mushrooms; group B is told that the mushrooms are cheap wild mushrooms. After tasting the mushrooms, which of the following is the MOST likely result? a. Group A will report a delicious experience, and the fMRI will indicate activation of the brain's pleasure centers. b. Group B will report a delicious experience, and the fMRI will indicate activation of the brain's pleasure centers. c. Group B will report a delicious experience, but the fMRI will indicate activation of the brain's denial centers. d. Group A will report a delicious experience, but the fMRI will indicate activation of the brain's denial centers.

100. How might you save money on ink when you need to indicate an area of print should be grouped together? a. Use a background shaded area behind the print. b. Use a wavy line to underline the area of print. c. Use a new color for the selected area of print. d. Use dashed lines around the area of print.

101. According to Aamodt, you should do which of the following when listening to someone? a. Make direct eye contact. b. Maintain strong opinions. c. Focus on the speaker's mannerisms. d. Reflect on upcoming obligations.

102. Which of the following refers to a cell, or collection of cells, in the cerebral cortex that responds to a specific attribute of an object? a. sensory detector b. feature detector c. perceptual detector d. abstract detector 103. Consider a picture of a one-inch tree in the middle of a dark background. Which of the following techniques would BEST indicate that the tree is very far away? a. Draw a darkly shaded one-inch tree near the bottom of the picture. b. Draw a white circle behind the tree, so that the tree partially covers it. c. Draw a line of one-inch trees horizontally in line with the tree. d. Draw a five-inch tree in the bottom right corner of the picture.

104. If you look in the sky and see many stars, then someone tells you to use bottom-up processing, which of the following is the BEST example of how you could respond? a. Look at the stars upside down. b. Stare at the ground then gaze upward. c. Name each of the stars. d. Describe a constellation.

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Chap 04_16e 105. Having difficulty visually focusing on nearby objects is called a. hyperopia. b. astigmatism. c. myopia. d. presbyopia.

106. Suppose you want to see a dim star. Of the following, which is the best way to proceed? a. look next to it b. look directly at it without blinking c. look for nearby patterns d. look directly at it while blinking rapidly 107. Which term refers to the senses of body movement and positioning? a. somesthetic senses b. kinesthetic senses c. vestibular senses d. skin senses 108. Consider an experimental procedure in which new free nerve endings could be added to an area of skin on a patient's ankle. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of this procedure? a. The patient experiences more sensitivity to light touch, pressure, and pain, and the same sensitivity to cold and warmth in their ankle. b. The patient experiences more sensitivity to cold, warmth, and pain, and the same sensitivity to light touch and pressure in their ankle. c. The patient experiences more sensitivity to light touch, pressure, and pain, and more sensitivity to cold and warmth in their ankle. d. The patient experiences more sensitivity to pain, and the same sensitivity to light touch, pressure, and cold and warmth in their ankle.

109. When train tracks disappear into the distance, they appear to converge and form a triangle. What allows us to perceive them as parallel? a. size constancy b. brightness constancy c. retinal disparity d. shape constancy 110. Which of the following images is MOST likely to narrow perceptual focus? a. a baby crying due to diaper rash b. a baby smiling when looking at its mother c. a person washing their hair in the shower d. a person applying lotion to shiny legs

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Chap 04_16e 111. Richard just walked from a dark movie theatre into the bright sun. Which part of the eye will help them quickly adapt? a. cornea b. retina c. iris d. pupil 112. What is bottom-up processing in the context of sensory perception? a. perception guided by prior knowledge or expectations b. organizing perceptions by beginning with low-level features c. organizing perceptions to have a consistent overall form d. guessing how to organize or perceive a stimulus pattern 113. Consider an experiment in which a person born blind had their vision restored. The person is presented with a picture of an airplane nearby and an airplane far away. Which of the following is the MOST likely reaction upon seeing the picture? a. The person will say that the nearby airplane is nearby and the far away airplane is far away. b. The person will say that the nearby airplane is large and the far away airplane is small. c. The person will say that the nearby airplane is a large unknown object and the far away airplane is a small unknown object. d. The person will say that the nearby airplane is a large airplane and the far away airplane is difficult to detect.

114. Consider a military veteran who has lost their leg in battle. The veteran participates in an fMRI study; what would you expect to see in the fMRI results? a. Sensory areas and motor areas of the brain associated with the lost leg will show activity when the veteran feels the lost leg. b. Sensory areas and motor areas of the brain associated with the remaining leg will show doubled activity and the lost leg will not be felt. c. Sensory areas of the brain associated with the lost leg will show activity and motor areas of the brain associated with the lost leg will not show activity. d. Motor areas of the brain associated with the remaining leg will show doubled activity and will stimulate sensory activity in areas associated with the lost leg.

115. Which of the following refers to the difference between the images projected onto each eye? a. retinal disparity b. monocular depth cue c. visual disparity d. stereoscopic vision

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Chap 04_16e 116. Mark is intoxicated and is convinced he hears someone in his empty house. Mark's perception can be best described as which of the following? a. myopia b. presbyopia c. hallucination d. Muller-Lyer illusion 117. Which of the following is most accurately explained by sensory conflict? a. motion sickness as the result of a mismatch among information from vision, the vestibular system, and kinesthesis b. phantom limb sensations c. pain messages pass through neural gates in the spinal cord d. how the components of the eye interpret different visual stimuli 118. Brightness constancy occurs because under different lighting conditions, objects receive a. the same amount of light as the rest of the objects in the scene. b. less light than objects in the rest of the scene. c. more light than objects in the rest of the scene. d. the same proportion of light as objects in the rest of the scene.

119. Which of the following is a type of photoreceptor? a. rods b. papillae c. lenses d. malleus 120. Which of the following best characterizes mind wandering? a. It is always intentional. b. It is always unintentional. c. It is never useful. d. It can be intentional or unintentional.

121. Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a person to scream at a sudden buzzing sound? a. learning about electric saws at work b. watching movies about propeller airplanes c. watching movies about lawn-mowing machines d. learning about killer bees in school

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Chap 04_16e 122. Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates an engaged listener? a. During a political debate, one of the debaters accurately answers a question before the moderator finishes asking it. b. During a sporting event, one of the coaches enthusiastically speaks with an official and the official stands like a statue. c. During a political debate, one of the debaters repeats the question of the moderator in their own words. d. During a sporting event, a player points at another player from the other team while shouting commands and looking left and right.

123. Decreasing the amplitude and increasing the wavelength of a sound wave would result in hearing a. a softer sound with a lower pitch. b. a duller sound that sounds like a radio out of tune. c. a softer sound with a higher pitch. d. a duller sound that sounds like rain drops.

124. What is top-down processing in the context of sensory perception? a. guessing how to organize (perceive) a stimulus pattern b. organizing perceptions by beginning with low-level features c. perception guided by prior knowledge or expectations d. organizing perceptions so that stimuli that are near each other are grouped together 125. A popular candy company has characters that look like their candy, but with eyes, arms, and legs, and the characters can talk. Recently, the company introduced a new character that was a woman-like character that was attractive and popular to the other characters. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this character was introduced? a. Consumers would be motivated by positive emotions, focus their perception, and select only the popular candy. b. Consumers would be motivated by positive emotions, broaden their perception, and seek more candy varieties. c. Consumers would be motivated by sexual competition, narrow their perception, and seek only the new candy variety. d. Consumers would be motivated by sexual competition, focus on their body image, and select only the popular candy.

126. Which of the following statements will be most effective in promoting a relationship? a. We are interested in your work. b. How can I help you? c. I have not lived up to expectations. d. How would you like to help?

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Chap 04_16e 127. What is the opponent-process theory of color vision in humans? a. a proposition that color vision is based on coding things as red or green, yellow or blue, or black or white b. a theory of color vision based on three cone types: red, green, and blue c. a theory that rods and cones serve as control gates for colored light d. a proposition that associates the sharpness of visual perception with three cone types 128. The ability to see three-dimensional (3-D) space and to judge distances accurately is called a. depth perception. b. interposition. c. aerial perspective. d. convergence.

129. Which of the following is a reasonable method for better remembering the face of someone from a different culture than you? a. View their picture under different lighting conditions. b. View their picture with more mindful attention. c. View their picture quickly before biases begin to appear. d. View their picture and then study new cultures.

130. The fact that some people experience the Müller-Lyer illusion differently than others can be attributed to a. perceptual differences due to experience. b. perceptual differences due to transduction. c. perceptual differences due to age-related declines. d. perceptual differences due to flaws in the genetic code.

131. Which of the following is LEAST likely to exhibit the Muller-Lyer illusion? a. ocean waves b. skyscrapers c. mountain cliffs d. cereal boxes 132. Which of the following scenarios best represents a situation in which the perceived size of an object remains stable even though its retinal image changes? a. a bridal gown in cloud cover b. a car's headlights in the parking garage c. the sun on the horizon d. a three-pronged widget 133. Which of the following are clusters of flavor-receptor cells on the top edges of the tongue? a. papillae b. basal cells c. taste buds d. cilia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_16e 134. Which of the following is a pictorial depth cue that occurs when one object partially blocks another object? a. overlap b. texture gradient c. linear perspective d. aerial perspective 135. Consider a patient who is blind in one eye. What is their MOST likely description of a series of pictures in which a round object gets larger and brighter as the pictures progress? a. The pictures show that an egg is growing. b. The pictures show that a ball is coming toward him or her. c. The pictures show that a balloon is flying away. d. The pictures show that a hole is expanding.

136. Which of the following colors induces a high firing rate of the blue and red cones, yet a low firing rate of the green cones? a. purple b. yellow c. orange d. white 137. The body’s “reminding system” does which of the following? a. reminds the brain that the body has been injured b. reminds the body that the brain has been injured c. reminds the brain to turn off the stove d. reminds the body not to touch a hot stove 138. Which of the following is a pictorial depth cue involving one object partially blocking another? a. motion parallax b. overlap c. relative motion d. aerial perspective 139. What is the damage caused by exposing the hair cells to excessively loud sounds called? a. pitch hearing loss b. noise-induced hearing loss c. perceptual hearing loss d. conductive hearing loss 140. According to Aamodt, who among the following is the most effective listener? a. John interjects by saying, "I know exactly what you are about to say." b. Li confirms what is being said by fact-checking using her cellphone. c. Pauline says, "You have made your point; no clarification needed." d. Hua tries to understand the speaker's perspective.

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Chap 04_16e 141. Hwang sits in a room that is only dimly lit by a weak purple light. Their eyes are now adjusted to the light levels.

This process is known as which of the following? a. dark adaptation b. color weakness c. color blindness d. inattentional blindness 142. When parents feed their young children, the parents may try the technique of pretending the spoonful of food is an airplane. Which of the following is the best explanation of why this technique is effective for feeding the child? a. When the parent moves the food like an airplane, the feature detectors for movement are activated. b. When the parent makes the sound of the airplane, the auditory difference threshold is crossed. c. When the parent moves the food closer to the child, the visual difference threshold is crossed. d. When the parent moves the food closer to the child, the feature detectors for smell are activated.

143. Due to motion parallax, when you are moving, objects that are closer to you appear to be a. stationary. b. moving at the same rate as objects that are farther away. c. moving slower than objects that are farther away. d. moving faster than objects that are farther away.

144. According to Aamodt, which of the following should one be aware of when listening to others? a. Avoid asking questions because you may be viewed as arrogant or disrespectful. b. Avoid making eye contact so as not to distract the speaker. c. Form judgments and arrive at conclusions while listening. d. Do not be distracted by the speaker's mannerisms, hair, or accent.

145. Can a person with one eye perceive depth? a. No, not at all. b. Yes, perfectly. c. Yes, but not nearly as well as a person with two eyes. d. Yes, but only by using a rapid series of blinks.

146. Most focusing is done by which part(s) of the eye? a. cornea b. lens c. rods d. cones

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Chap 04_16e 147. Madeline is developing computer software that picks up on cues to perceive how far away and large an object is, based on the perspective of someone who has only one eye. The computer software is picking up on which of the following? a. monocular depth cues b. convergence cues c. binocular depth cues d. retinal disparity cues 148. Which of the following refers to the conversion of energy from the environment into a pattern of response by the nervous system? a. habituation b. sensation c. threshold d. adaptation 149. What is the most likely result of destruction of an olfactory nerve fiber? a. The person will retain 80 percent of smelling abilities. b. The person will lose the ability to smell a specific scent. c. The person will retain normal smelling abilities. d. The person will lose the ability to combine complex scents.

150. Which of the following refers to organizing a perception so that part of a stimulus appears to stand out against less prominent surroundings? a. overlap b. figure–ground organization c. motion parallax d. perceptual ambiguity 151. Massage therapists use empathy for their clients to effectively reduce client pain through touch. Which of the following types of people is LEAST likely to make a career as a massage therapist? a. a person with a phantom limb pain b. a person with a hyperactive reminding system c. a person with a lower than average number of large nerve fibers d. a person with a congenital pain insensitivity 152. When designing a new state flag with a yellow sun on it, which of the following is the MOST reasonable recommendation to ensure that the most people possibly can perceive the sun design? a. a yellow sun on a background with blue and yellow stars b. a yellow sun on a solid blue background c. a yellow sun on top of a large yellow "x" d. a yellow sun with a blue triangle inside

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Chap 04_16e 153. Imagine the police department is considering installing an Ames room in their jail in order to test inmate perceptions and determine their sobriety levels. They asked for your evaluation; what is the BEST prediction you could offer? a. Using this technique will not be a good diagnostic tool because the hallucination affects people with mental disorders regardless of sobriety levels. b. Using this technique will not be a good diagnostic tool because sober inmates will actually underperform intoxicated inmates due to experience. c. Using this technique will not be a good diagnostic tool because inmates with mental disorders will perform better than sober inmates. d. Using this technique will not be a good diagnostic tool because the illusion affects everybody regardless of sobriety levels.

154. People perceive objects or events that have no external reality in a/an a. gestalt. b. perceptual construction. c. illusion. d. hallucination.

155. In the context of the "visual cliff," which of the following types of child would be at MOST danger near an empty swimming pool? [NOTE: All children should be supervised around a swimming pool.] a. infants who are active crawlers b. infants who are three weeks old c. infants who are new walkers d. infants who are blind in one eye 156. Ibrahim is a pharmacist and can read doctors’ bad handwriting quickly and easy because of all of their experience; their clients often marvel at how they can’t make out any letters, much less words. In this context, what is Ibrahim using? a. shape constancy b. convergence c. top-down processing d. bottom-up processing 157. The degree to which the eyes “turn in” to focus on a close object is called a. binocular vision. b. stereoscopic vision. c. convergence. d. retinal disparity.

158. Which of the following is the best example of selective attention? a. Paying attention in a lecture despite your phone vibrating. b. Ignoring your homework and going to a party instead. c. Pretending that you are not tired. d. Remembering what you went to the grocery store to buy after you left.

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Chap 04_16e 159. A mental model of external events is called a(n) a. perceptual construction. b. illusion. c. sensory perception. d. Gestalt.

160. What is the fovea of the eye? a. a tiny spot in the center of the retina, containing only cones, where visual acuity is greatest b. a curved area in the retina that bends light inward c. the clear structure behind the pupil that bends light toward the retina d. a structure in the retina that changes when muscles attached to the lens alter their shape 161. The process by which the brain combines information coming from multiple systems is referred to by which of the following terms? a. synesthesia b. gate control c. opponent-process d. multimodal integration 162. Which of the following are features of the environment and messages from the body that supply information about distance and space? a. depth cues b. binocular depth cues c. monocular depth cues d. PSD cues 163. Which of the following sounds has the highest amplitude and wavelength? a. a loud amplifier right next to you b. a cat scratching a scratching post in the room you’re currently in c. a distant roll of thunder d. a dog barking outside 164. Which of the following senses are produced by the skin, muscles, joints, viscera, and organs of balance? a. kinesthetic senses b. somesthetic senses c. vestibular senses d. warning system senses 165. What is a perceptual habit in the context of perceptual learning? a. an ingrained pattern of organization and attention that affects our daily experience b. a readiness to perceive in a certain manner c. a change in perception attributed to prior experience d. an increase in perceptual response to a repeated stimulus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_16e 166. Suppose a culture is familiar with straight lines and sharp angles. Using psychological terminology, this best characterizes which of the following? a. perceptual b. habituated c. geometric d. carpentered 167. What occurs if two different images are fused into one overall image? a. retinal disparity b. convergence c. stereoscopic vision d. linear perspective 168. If you find yourself on a ship at sea in the moonlit night, and you begin to feel motion sickness, which of the following is the MOST likely to help ease your symptoms? a. Stare at the deck of the ship. b. Stare at the moon in the sky. c. Stare at a wave nearest to you. d. Stare at a mirror.

169. The proposition that color vision is based on coding things as red or green, yellow or blue, or black or white is known as a. color weakness. b. the opponent-process theory of color vision. c. the lock-and-key theory. d. the trichromatic theory of color vision.

170. The sharpness of perception when seeing something is called a. imagination. b. peripheral vision. c. visual acuity. d. visual cue.

171. Which of the following are features in artwork that impart information about space, depth, and distance? a. retinal disparities b. binocular depth cues c. convergences d. pictorial depth cues

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Chap 04_16e 172. What is the minimum separation in physical energy between two stimuli that can be detected 50 percent of the time called? a. difference threshold b. absolute threshold c. sensation threshold d. perception threshold 173. Which of the following advertisement techniques is MOST likely to widen perceptual focus? a. a tough cowboy driving a truck through fire b. a tank of sharks circling a life raft c. a happy family enjoying a dinner together d. a shining pool in the middle of a desert 174. According to researchers, around what percentage of people will fail to notice a gorilla in a video clip when they are focused on another task? a. 10% b. 0% c. 33% d. 50% 175. When judging depth in an image, we usually assume that light comes from a. below. b. above. c. the left. d. the right.

176. What color of light helps people stay dark-adapted? a. no color of light helps people stay dark-adapted b. red c. white d. green 177. Which of the following refers to the degree to which the eyes turn in to focus on a close object? a. convergence b. stereoscopic degree c. monocular depth d. myopia

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Chap 04_16e 178. Which of the following refers to a theory of hearing which states that pitch is decoded from the rate at which hair cells of the basilar membrane are firing? a. gate control theory b. place theory c. frequency theory d. lock-and-key theory 179. A hearing aid is best suited for which of the following people? a. Janine, who was born without an auditory nerve fiber. b. Jordan, who plays the drums in a band. c. Jackson, who has lost hair cells as they have aged. d. Jerome, who had a disease that attacked their ear bones involved in transmitting vibrations.

180. Which of the following is an example of a transducer? a. sensory adaptor b. cornea c. sensory receptor d. pupil

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Chap 04_16e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. b

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Chap 04_16e 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. c 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_16e 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. c 62. b 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. d 68. b 69. d 70. d 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. b 76. c 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_16e 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. a 97. b 98. a 99. a 100. d 101. a 102. b 103. b 104. d 105. a 106. a 107. b 108. c 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_16e 111. d 112. b 113. c 114. a 115. a 116. c 117. a 118. d 119. a 120. d 121. a 122. a 123. a 124. c 125. b 126. a 127. a 128. a 129. b 130. a 131. a 132. c 133. c 134. a 135. b 136. a 137. a

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Chap 04_16e 138. b 139. b 140. d 141. a 142. a 143. d 144. d 145. c 146. a 147. a 148. b 149. c 150. b 151. d 152. b 153. d 154. d 155. c 156. c 157. c 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. d 162. a 163. a 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_16e 166. d 167. c 168. b 169. b 170. c 171. d 172. a 173. c 174. d 175. b 176. b 177. a 178. c 179. d 180. c

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Chap 05_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A condition of atypical awareness such as a coma or persistent vegetative state is referred to as a(n) a. disorder of consciousness. b. altered state of consciousness. c. narcolepsy. d. disorder of arousal.

2. Jennifer started out with drinking one beer each night to relax her. Now, she drinks six beers each night to obtain the same effect. Which of these statements best describes what has happened? a. Jennifer's tolerance for alcohol has increased. b. Jennifer have developed a psychological tolerance for alcohol. c. Jennifer has developed a psychological dependence on alcohol. d. Jennifer is experiencing withdrawal symptoms from each beer she drinks.

3. Scott suffers from narcolepsy. He suddenly collapses in sleep at random moments, but his daughter, Tricia, is always there to help him. How might Scott's narcolepsy affect Tricia? a. Narcolepsy is thought to be hereditary, so Tricia has the potential to suffer from narcolepsy as well. b. Narcolepsy is thought to be a learned behavior, so Tricia may learn narcolepsy from her father. c. Narcolepsy is thought to be contagious through a particular pathogen, so Tricia might be exposed to that same pathogen and become narcoleptic. d. Narcolepsy will in no way affect Tricia, other than the help she will need to provide for her father.

4. Lucia is experiencing headaches, sweating, irritability, and insomnia after she quit smoking. She begins to strongly crave having just one cigarette. What is the mostly likely the outcome of Lucia's attempt to quit smoking? a. Lucia will be able to quit smoking three to five days after she stops. b. Lucia will likely relapse and begin smoking within one week of quitting. c. Lucia will likely move onto another more intense stimulant to replace the nicotine in her system. d. Lucia will never be able to quit smoking because she is addicted to nicotine.

5. Carol says she is having a hard time turning off her thoughts at night to go to sleep. Her sister tells her that she has no problem going to sleep since she has learned a new deep breathing technique. Which of the following has Carol’s sister suggested to her? a. mindfulness meditation b. metacognitive meditation c. concentrative meditation d. consciousness meditation

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Chap 05_16e 6. Which of the following statements reflects the relationship of the total amount of sleep that one receives related to their age? a. As we age, we tend to get less sleep. b. We require more sleep as we age. c. The amount of sleep a person receives is not related to age but more to personality. d. We require more sleep at the beginning and end of our lives than we do in the middle.

7. Which of the following theories on dreaming is the most prevalent among the psychological community? a. Dreaming is neurocognitive and has strong continuity between the dream itself and waking thought. b. Lucid dreaming is a neurocognitive skill that can be learned by anyone. c. Insomnia is a sleep disorder that can increase the depth of meaning in a person's dreams. d. Dreaming follows the activation-synthesis hypothesis, which focuses on random content from the brain's lower centers.

8. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the characteristics of non-rapid eye movement sleep? a. It is deepest early in the night during the first four stages of sleep. b. It is dream free only about 10 percent of the time. c. It increases overall brain activation levels. d. It completes the consolidation of memories.

9. How does cocaine differ from amphetamines? a. Cocaine does not harm the nervous system. b. Amphetamine do not harm the nervous system. c. Cocaine effects last longer than amphetamines. d. Amphetamines' effects last longer than cocaine.

10. Cora does not consider herself addicted to caffeine. She only has one cup of coffee in the morning and one cup in the middle of the day. How might even such modest amounts of caffeine affect Cora's behavior? a. The amount of caffeine Cora ingests will cause her to suffer intense panic attacks. b. The amount of caffeine Cora ingests may cause her to experience headaches and fatigue. c. The amount of caffeine Cora ingests will cause her blood pressure to spike to unhealthy levels. d. The amount of caffeine that Cora ingests will not have any effect on her.

11. What is the term used to define the distinctive bursts of brain-wave activity that indicates a person is asleep? a. sleep spindles b. theta waves c. hypnic jerks d. alpha waves

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Chap 05_16e 12. Which of the following people would be the best candidate for hypnosis? a. Carl is a forensic scientist who has served as an expert witness in many court cases. b. Anna is a doctor who volunteers in third-world countries. c. Rebecca is an animator who creates digital fantasy wonderlands for short movies. d. Franco is a postal worker who spends his free time reading historical autobiographies.

13. According to research, what might be one way to increase one's creative thinking, enhances sports and music performance skills, and make it easier to quit smoking? a. mild sensory deprivation b. deep sensory deprivation c. REM sleep d. concentrative meditation 14. As Dan was getting ready to fall asleep, he felt his body jump in a hypnic jerk. How does the hypnic jerk differentiate from the sleep spindles Dan will experience in the next stage of sleep? a. The sleep spindles mark the beginning of the hypnic jerk that occurs when Dan's brain activity settles down into sleep. b. The sleep spindles are shivers that occur in the body after hypnic jerk of Dan's muscles. c. The sleep spindles produce short bursts of brain waves that mark true sleep, whereas the hypnic jerk produces small, irregular waves d. The sleep spindles occur at the end of sleep right before Dan is about to wake up, and hypnic jerk occurs when Dan's brain activity settles down into sleep.

15. Gerardo has cancer and is undergoing chemotherapy treatments, which leave him nauseated and unable to eat much. What might Gerardo's doctor prescribe to help relieve the nausea and increase his appetite? a. amphetamines b. tranquilizers c. cannabis d. barbiturates 16. Juana is required to fly from New York to California for work, but she is scared to fly. Her doctor gave her a prescription to help alleviate her fear of flying. Which of the following did he likely give her? a. tranquilizer b. codeine c. opioid d. amphetamine 17. Lulu is leading an important presentation for her company and wants to start the meeting out with a joke. Her assistant thinks a joke would be inappropriate for this type of meeting, but Lulu does it anyway. Which tool of thinking should Lulu employ to correct this situation? a. metacognitive monitoring b. metacognitive control c. metacognitive awareness d. metacognitive linking Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_16e 18. After having a fight with her brother, Alicia dreams about having an intense verbal dispute with a pharmacist at the checkout counter. Which of the following is this an example of? a. The manifest content of Alicia’s dream is the ongoing fight with her brother. b. The lucid content of Alicia’s dream is the ongoing fight with her brother c. According to psychodynamic theory, it’s the conscious recollection of daily conflict. d. According to activation-synthesis hypothesis, it’s the unconscious recollection of memories.

19. What is the neurocognitive dream theory? a. the proposal that dreams reflect everyday waking thoughts and emotions b. a theory of behavior that emphasizes internal conflicts, motives, and unconscious forces c. a dream in which the dreamer feels awake and capable of normal thought and action d. the hidden or symbolic meaning of a dream, as revealed by dream interpretation and analysis 20. Why does cocaine withdrawal cause depression? a. Prolonged use of cocaine causes a chemical imbalance in the brain that leads to anhedonia, which is the inability to feel pleasure. b. Prolonged use of cocaine causes an increase in body temperature that can lead to intense fatigue and feelings of anxiety. c. Prolonged use of cocaine causes an increase in blood pressure that diminishes the amount of oxygen getting to a person's brain. d. Prolonged use of cocaine can have a terrible effect on one's financial well-being, since the product is so expensive.

21. Which of the following is a Freudian belief that many dreams express unconscious desires? a. wish fulfillment b. lucid dream c. dream symbol d. activation-synthesis hypothesis 22. Issa says she felt no pain when they changed her burn bandages, because she had been trained in a special consciousness level. She said she felt like she was watching the situation from afar. Which of the following best describes her situation? a. Issa meditated and felt nothing during the bandage change. b. Issa was hypnotized, and she experienced the bandage change in a dissociative state. c. Issa entered an altered state of consciousness; therefore, the bandage change was not painful. d. Issa was asleep during the procedure, and she experienced the bandage change in a dream. state.

23. Which of the following refers to information conveyed during thought processes? a. metacognitive knowledge b. metacognitive thinking c. metacognitive monitoring d. metacognitive development

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Chap 05_16e 24. It is finals week, and Alisha has a class in which the instructor has decided to surprise the students with either an essay exam or a true-false questions exam. When Alisha begins to study, she realizes that even though there is a chance the exam could be all true-false questions, she will need to study as if it is going to be an essay exam. Which of the following applies to Alisha’s behavior in this situation? a. Alisha used her metacognitive knowledge skills to help guide her behavior. b. Alisha used her metacognitive monitoring skills to help guide her behavior. c. Alisha used her unconscious monitoring skills to help guide her behavior. d. Alisha used her unconscious knowledge skills to help guide her behavior.

25. Megan is sitting in her room staring at the wall while repeating the mantra “Mu” over and over. Her roommate wants to know if this is why Megan seems so relaxed all the time. Which of the following best describes what Megan is doing? a. Megan is practicing a meditative technique that helps her stay focused to achieve her goals. b. Megan is practicing a meditative technique that helps her lose focus to live in the moment. c. Megan is practicing hypnosis to tune out her thoughts and become more in tune with her goals. d. Megan is locked in a dream state that connects the unconscious to the waking conscious as a form of relaxation.

26. Which of the following is an effect of hypnosis? a. It frequently increases the number of false memories. b. It can have an increased effect on physical strength than mere instructions to make one’s best effort. c. It can modify behaviors more effectively than changing subjective experiences. d. It can effectively enhance memories of witnesses in police investigations.

27. The state theory and the dissociative state of hypnosis was proposed by a. Franz Mesmer. b. Ernest Hilgard. c. James Braid. d. Herbert Benson.

28. Which of the following is an example of an altered state of consciousness? a. falling asleep while riding in the car. b. experiencing sensory overload at a concert. c. acting in a play. d. creating a painting.

29. Delmisha takes a moderate dose of a Xanax before getting on her flight to New York. She is likely to experience a. wakefulness, alternes, and faster reaction times. b. euphoria and pain relief. c. reduced anxiety, tension, and sedation. d. exhilaration and hallucinations.

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Chap 05_16e 30. In which of the following theories, is it believed that during REM sleep several lower brain centers are randomly “turned on”? a. activation-synthesis hypothesis b. neurocognitive dream c. psychodynamic theory d. neurocognitive dream theory 31. Renata was able to remember experiencing what it felt like when she broke her leg after falling down the stairs.

Which of the following statements best describes what Renata experienced? a. Renata was in an unconscious state recalling the pain she felt after breaking her leg. b. Renata was in a waking conscious state recalling the pain she felt after breaking her leg. c. Renata was in a vegetative state (coma) recalling the pain she felt after breaking her leg. d. Renata was in a disorder of consciousness state recalling the pain she felt after breaking her leg.

32. Which of the following statements best describes the impact of using metacognition in one’s daily life? a. Metacognition is critical to helping people achieve goals and develop positive relationships. b. Metacognition is an important practice helping one unlock latent and forgotten memories. c. Metacognition is an essential tool to help a person learn more about his or her own mind. d. Metacognition is vital to unlocking one’s true potential for financial success.

33. What are small, fast brain waves associated with being awake and alert called? a. theta waves b. beta waves c. delta waves d. alpha waves 34. When Alex woke up this morning, he claimed that he felt like he was floating out of his body above his bed.

Which of the following was he likely experiencing? a. hypersomnolence b. night terror c. sleepwalking d. hypnopompic hallucination 35. Which of the following statements most accurately describes amphetamines? a. They are synthetic. b. They are depressants. c. They cause hallucinations. d. They decrease mental performance.

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Chap 05_16e 36. Tiffany has a headache and decides to take ibuprofen to ease the pain. Which of the following is this an example of? a. compulsive use b. experimental use c. instrumental use d. recreational use 37. Kiera is terrified of getting shots from the doctor. She is so terrified that her doctor elected to hire a hypnotist to hypnotize Kiera to feel no pain during the shot. The hypnotism worked, and Kiera said she felt no pain while being hypnotized. Which of the following theories is this an example of? a. autosuggestion effect b. suggestion effect c. non-state theory d. state theory 38. Which of the following drug types is also technically a stimulant but differs in its effect on the user by stimulating changes in perception? a. tranquilizers b. barbiturates c. hallucinogen d. alcohol 39. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of cannabis? a. The two main psychoactive chemicals of cannabis are THC and CBD. b. Cannabis can have psychological effects such as increased heart rate and intense hallucinations. c. Cannabis intoxication is considered more dangerous than intoxication from drugs such as LSD or alcohol. d. Cannabis causes hundreds of overdose deaths every year.

40. Which of the following has the capacity for allowing people to become more aware of what they are thinking and feeling? a. meditation b. concentrative medication c. mindfulness meditation d. hypnosis 41. What is the hidden or symbolic meaning of a dream as revealed by dream interpretation? a. manifest content b. latent content c. lucid dream d. dream symbols

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Chap 05_16e 42. Meth is a more potent variation of a. amphetamine. b. cocaine. c. alcohol. d. caffeine.

43. Kendall has a dream that he is eating a large sandwich and that his teeth fall out when is about to bite. Kendall's therapist asks him if he has been stressed out recently, since she believes that Kendall’s teeth falling out might be related to stress. Which of the following schools of dream theory does Kendall's therapist likely prescribe to? a. activation-synthesis hypothesis b. psychodynamic dream theory c. lucid dream theory d. neurocognitive dream theory 44. Ian took the drugs that Lenny brought to the party. Before Lenny could explain anything about the drugs, Ian started to talk to animals and people who only he could see. Which of the following best describes what Ian was experiencing? a. Ian was hallucinating from the effects of the phencyclidine that he took. b. Ian was hallucinating from the effects of the cannabis that he took. c. Ian was hallucinating from the effects of the amphetamine that he took. d. Ian was hallucinating from the effects of the tranquilizers that he took.

45. What is the state of awareness of external events in the environment and mental processes, including one's thoughts, memories, and feelings about his or her experiences and the self? a. waking consciousness b. altered state of consciousness c. consciousness d. metacognition 46. Jordan has been suffering from chronic back pain and does not want to take an opioid for the pain. Jordan's doctor has suggested that he might want to try hypnosis. Based on what you know about hypnosis, which of the following might you tell Jordan? a. The research on hypnosis indicates that it is not effective for treating pain. b. The research on hypnosis indicates that it is an effective treatment for pain in combination with the use of medications. c. There is no research on the effectiveness of hypnosis to treat pain. d. The research on hypnosis indicates that it is an effective treatment for pain without the use of medications.

47. Which of the following are characteristics of a person who is in Stage 1 (light) sleep? a. bursts of small, irregular brain waves and some alpha waves b. distinctive bursts of brain-wave activity c. swift eye movements d. large, slow brain waves Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_16e 48. Randy has been up studying for two straight days and seems to be extremely tired at this point. He really wants to go to sleep but also wants to do well on his exam. Which of the following best describes what Randy is experiencing without sleep? a. Randy is likely to be unfocused and experiencing microsleeps as a result of being sleep deprived. b. Randy is likely to be focused and experiencing microsleeps as a result of being sleep deprived c. Randy is likely to be unfocused and will experience sleep-deprivation psychosis as a result of being sleep deprived. d. Randy is likely to be focused and will experience sleep-deprivation psychosis as a result of being sleep deprived.

49. In an attempt to confirm consciousness of patients in persistent vegetative states, modern medical doctors have used PET and fMRIs to scan brain activity and prove that conscious experiences can be defined by a. any brain activity. b. activity in the brain’s frontal lobe. c. physical awareness. d. the brain’s reception of pain.

50. Withdrawal symptoms can be dangerous and present in violent flu-like symptoms, like vomiting, sweating, and cramps, which highlight the impact that the particular drug has on the user's body and the user’s a. physical dependence. b. psychological dependence. c. drug inhibition. d. drug interaction.

51. Excessive daytime sleepiness, caused by depression, insomnia, drug abuse, and many other sources, is also known as a. hypersomnolence disorder. b. circadian rhythm sleep–wake disorder. c. breathing-related sleep disorder. d. disorders of arousal.

52. Allison and Daniela sat together in class. Allison paid close attention to the lecture and was inspired by some of the points discussed. Daniela was very tired and fell asleep. The girls seemed to have had different experiences in class. Which psychological concept supports their different experiences? a. unconsciousness b. mindfulness c. consciousness d. metacognition

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Chap 05_16e 53. Lorenzo has previously had an alcohol problem and was invited to a party this weekend. He wants to see his friends, but he doesn’t want to drink. Which of the following is the best option for Lorenzo to take? a. Lorenzo will go to the party and simply figure out how to avoid drinking alcohol in the moment. b. Lorenzo should practice how he will politely refuse drinks and will bring an alternative option for himself. c. Lorenzo should practice how he will politely accept drinks and will not bring an alternative option for himself. d. Lorenzo will sacrifice seeing his friends to avoid the temptation to drink in social situations.

54. Clara witnessed a crime and was brought to court to testify. She elected to be hypnotized to improve her memory of the crime. Why might the course dismiss Clara's testimony? a. Federal law prohibits all forms of hypnotic suggestion from legal proceedings. b. Hypnotic suggestion is far too influential on its subject for court cases to believe the truth of the case. c. While evidence shows that hypnosis can enhance memory, it often only works for painful or traumatic memories. d. While evidence shows that hypnosis can enhance memory, it frequently increases the number of false memories.

55. Your friend Kevin is telling you about the dream he had last night. He tells you that he had a dream that he was riding a horse in a boat and fighting someone with a gun that shoots spaghetti. You tell him not to worry, as it was just random brain activation while he was sleeping that likely caused the dream. Which of the following theories are you using to support this? a. the activation-synthesis hypothesis b. the psychodynamic dream theory c. the neurocognitive dream theory d. the restorative theory 56. Paulo has a fear of boats, but he recently won a cruise. He went to his doctor to ask her to write him a prescription to relieve his fear while on the boat. Why would prescribing a tranquilizer help Paulo? a. Tranquilizers help patients to sleep, which will help Paulo rest on her trip. b. Tranquilizers lower anxiety and reduce tension, which will help Paulo on her trip. c. Tranquilizers inhibit pain receptors helping Paulo with the freedom to enjoy her trip. d. Tranquilizers increase heart rate that will make Paulo feel excited on her trip.

57. Which of the following sleep disorders is suspected as one cause of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), or “crib death”? a. sleep apnea b. recurring nightmare c. narcolepsy d. insomnia

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Chap 05_16e 58. Which of the following causes excessive daytime sleepiness? a. hypersomnolence disorder b. circadian rhythm sleep–wake disorder c. nightmare disorder d. REM sleep behavior disorder 59. Two of the most common hallucinogens are a. cannabis and caffeine. b. MDMA and Meth. c. LSD and PCP. d. GHB and MDMA. 60. During which state do changes occur in the quality and pattern of mental activity? a. altered state of consciousness b. waking consciousness c. consciousness d. standing consciousness 61. The drug MDMA, methylenedioxymethamphetamine, is more commonly known as a. ecstasy. b. euphoria. c. nicotine. d. cocaine.

62. Jill has been up studying for two straight days and seems to be extremely tired at this point. She really wants to go to sleep but also wants to do well on her exam. Which of the following best describes what Jill is experiencing without sleep? a. Jill is likely to experience hyposomnia and microsleeps. b. Jill is likely to experience hypersomnia and microsleeps. c. Jill is likely to experience hypersomnia and macrosleeps. d. Jill is likely to experience hyposomnia and macrosleeps.

63. Todd alternates between snoring and gasping for air every few minutes while trying to sleep. Which of the following is Todd experiencing? a. sleep apnea b. nightmare c. night terror d. sleep walking

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Chap 05_16e 64. A person diagnosed with sleep apnea, can stop breathing hundreds of times a night for periods up to a. 15 seconds. b. 30 seconds. c. 2 minutes. d. 5 minutes.

65. Physical illness and discomfort after an addict stops taking a drug is known as a. withdrawal symptom. b. drug interaction. c. depressant. d. addiction.

66. Research has shown that somnambulism occurs during non-REM stages 3 and 4. Which of the following best describes what is occurring during this disorder? a. sleep walking and talking without memory for the behavior b. falling asleep uncontrollably while at work during the day c. stopping breathing multiple times per minute each night d. not being able to fall asleep for multiple hours each night 67. Shiro was conducting a sleep study and noticed that all of her subjects' eyes began to flutter back and forth after about an hour and a half of being asleep. Which of the following did she observe? a. Shiro witnessed her subjects moving from the non-REM to the REM sleep stage. b. Shiro witnessed her subjects' sleep spindles occur at the same time. c. Shiro witnessed her subjects moving from the REM to the non-REM sleep stage. d. Shiro witnessed her subjects moving from beta brain waves to alpha brain waves.

68. The deeper stages of non-REM sleep are characterized by a. large, slow brain waves called delta waves. b. small, fast brain waves called beta waves. c. slow, rolling eye movements. d. muscle paralysis.

69. Insomnia, night terrors, narcolepsy, and sleep apnea can all be classified under which type of sleep disorder? a. sleep–wake disorder b. hypersomnolence disorders c. nightmare disorders d. REM sleep behavior disorders 70. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of the psychoactive drug MDMA? a. It is chemically similar to amphetamine. b. It suppresses dopamine production. c. It diminishes the impact of music. d. It is less addictive than caffeine.

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Chap 05_16e 71. Which is the condition of being prevented from obtaining desired or needed amounts of sleep? a. sleep deprivation b. microsleep c. macrosleep d. hypersomnia 72. Christopher is in medical school, and his residency requirement calls for him to work 28 hours straight before having time off. When he gets done with this shift, he finds it difficult to go right to sleep. He keeps up this schedule for nearly a year, when he realizes he no longer has a problem falling asleep. Which of the following is this an example of? a. Christopher has adjusted to a longer than normal day cycle with regard to work and sleep. b. Christopher has adjusted to a shorter than normal day cycle with regard to work and sleep. c. Christopher is no longer affected by his long work hours because he spends more time in REM sleep. d. Christopher is no longer affected by his long work hours because he spends more time in non-REM sleep.

73. What is alcohol myopia? a. a substance that alters or distorts sensory impressions b. consuming five or more drinks in a short time (four for women) c. depressive and antisocial behaviors that result from the onset of alcohol dependency d. shortsighted thinking and perception that occur during alcohol intoxication 74. Which of the elements of metacognition is referred by the statement, “When your metacognitive monitoring suggests that you’re not on track to meet your goals, change course by altering your thought processes or your behavior”? a. Develop your metacognitive knowledge. b. Develop your self-respect. c. Develop metacognitive control strategies. d. Develop your metacognitive monitoring processes.

75. Which of the following accurately explains dream symbols? a. images in dreams that serve as visible signs of hidden ideas, desires, impulses, emotions, and relationships b. dreams in which the dreamer feels awake and capable of normal thought and action c. a proposal that dreams reflect everyday waking thoughts and emotions d. the Freudian belief that many dreams express unconscious desires 76. What is the term for what researcher Herbert Benson thought of as an innate physiological pattern that opposes the human body’s natural fight-or-flight mechanisms? a. biological rhythm b. altered consciousness c. mindfulness d. relaxation response

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Chap 05_16e 77. Repeated meth use can have a severe impact on an individual's brain to the point where the user suffers paranoid delusions, becomes violent, or even becomes suicidal. This condition is called a. amphetamine psychosis. b. amphetamine schizophrenia. c. somnambulist. d. hypopnea syndrome.

78. According to research on PTSD treatment methods, which of the following might be a potential solution for helping these individuals? a. using alcohol to inhibit feelings of anxiety b. using medical cannabis combined with existing therapies. c. using antidepressant drugs to reduce stress. d. forcing re-engagement in common social activities 79. Which of the following is a stage of sleep associated with frequent eye movements, high-frequency brain waves, and dreaming? a. REM sleep b. non-REM sleep c. spindle sleep d. light sleep 80. Which of the following substances produces psychological effects, including a sense of euphoria or well-being, relaxation, altered time sense, and perceptual distortions? a. cannabis b. depressant c. alcohol d. stimulant 81. Which of the following terms means that a drug is being used for its intended purpose? a. instrumental use b. compulsive use c. experimental use d. recreational use 82. Gwen found her mother’s prescription bottle in the bathroom and decided to take a few of the pills. She likes how the drugs makes everything around her feel slower and gives her a sense of euphoria. Which form of drug use does this behavior display? a. recreational use b. instrumental use c. experimental use d. compulsive use

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Chap 05_16e 83. How is consciousness defined in the field of psychology? a. the awareness of one’s internal thoughts and external surroundings b. a physical state of clear, organized alertness c. a condition of awareness distinctly different in quality or pattern from waking consciousness d. the external study of observable behaviors 84. Which of the following sleep disorders is characterized by the difficulty of falling or staying asleep due to excessive mental activity, which can create a cycle of anxiety that causes a continued lack of sleep? a. insomnia b. sleep terror c. circadian rhythm disorder d. somnambulists 85. Aika has been under a lot of stress lately at work and wants to relax. When she left work today there was a flier for a new float therapy spa that just opened down the street. What type of therapy do float tanks provide? a. mild sensory deprivation b. deep sensory deprivation c. mindfulness meditation d. hypnosis 86. Sylvia walked through the department store and noted all of the signs for the different clothing departments. She saw the escalator down to the women’s clothing section and the sign for the restroom just next to the exit. What mental state was Sylvia in? a. unconsciousness b. subconsciousness c. waking consciousness d. metacognition 87. Which of the following terms refers to progressive decrease in a person’s responsiveness to a drug? a. psychological dependence b. withdrawal symptoms c. drug interaction d. drug tolerance 88. Which of the following is defined as a state of consciousness characterized by focused attention, reduced peripheral awareness, and heightened suggestibility? a. hypnosis b. disorder of consciousness c. hidden observer d. physical ability

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Chap 05_16e 89. Severe sleep loss can cause a temporary sleep-deprivation psychosis. Which of the following is a symptom of this psychosis? a. increased heart rate b. delusions c. amnesia d. nausea 90. The Stanford Susceptibility Scale is a typical test that provides a series of suggestions and counts the number of times a person responds to determine that person's a. hypnotizability. b. amnesia. c. basic suggestion effect. d. sensory changes.

91. An amphetamine is sometimes used in the medical field to treat which of the following? a. childhood hyperactivity b. anhedonia c. insomnia d. stomach cramps and irritability 92. Natalie walks to the kitchen every night, completely asleep, makes a sandwich, and then returns to bed. She has no recollection of the event, but this time her roommate recorded her as proof of her behavior. What can be said of the dreams that Natalie is having during her sleepwalking? a. Natalie is having lucid dreams that she is controlling through sleepwalking. b. Natalie is experiencing restless leg syndrome, which explains her walking around at night. c. Natalie is having a night terror that has forced her to unconsciously begin sleepwalking. d. Natalie is not having any dreams since sleepwalking occurs during NREM stages 3 and 4, when dream do not occur.

93. Which drug is chemically similar to an amphetamine? a. MDMA b. PTSD c. GHB d. ADHD 94. Brandon likes to have a beer when he gets home from work each night. Which of the following best describes what happens because of this behavior? a. Brandon gets tired and wants to sleep due to the depressive properties in alcohol. b. Brandon gets tired and wants to sleep due to the stimulant properties in alcohol. c. Brandon gets anxiety and wants to run due to the psychoactive properties in alcohol. d. Brandon gets anxiety and wants to run due to the stimulant properties in alcohol.

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Chap 05_16e 95. Your roommate apologizes for waking up but you tell them you weren't asleep and was just watching TV. Your roommate asks if you were sure, since your eyes were closed and you looked like you were sleeping. You were most likely in which stage of sleep? a. Stage 1 (NREM 1) b. Stage 2 (NREM 2) c. Stage 3 (NREM 3) d. Stage 4 (NREM 4) 96. A progressive decrease in a person's responsiveness to a medication is referred to as a. drug interactions. b. dependency. c. drug tolerance. d. withdrawal symptoms.

97. Dawn seemed to only be happy when she used a specific drug. When she did not use that drug, she was cranky and mean. She believes that she needs this drug to function. Which of the following has happened to Dawn? a. She has become psychologically independent of the drug. b. She has experienced a drug interaction from using the drug. c. She has experienced a drug interaction from not using the drug. d. She has become psychologically dependent on the drug.

98. Christina has a mean expression on her face when working on her computer in her office; therefore, most of her coworkers stay away from her. Which of the following can Christina do to change this situation? a. Christina needs to increase her metacognitive knowledge when she is working on her computer in her office. b. Christina needs to decrease her metacognitive knowledge when she is working on her computer in her office. c. Christina needs to decrease her metacognitive control when she is working on her computer in her office. d. Christina needs to increase her metacognitive control when she is working on her computer in her office.

99. Which of the following refers to the state of clear, organized alertness? a. disorder of consciousness b. being comatose c. sleeping consciousness d. waking consciousness 100. What is the term used for the cancer-causing substances that are found in cigarettes? a. carcinogen b. opioid c. narcotics d. barbiturates

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Chap 05_16e 101. Both prescription and over-the-counter sleeping aids can sometimes prove to be ineffective due to their impact on certain stages of sleep and lead to drug dependency because of a. rebound insomnia. b. circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder. c. somnambulism. d. paradoxical sleep.

102. What kind of meditation is characterized by limited or monotonous stimulation where people sometimes have bizarre sensations, lapses in attention, or even distorted perceptions? a. mindfulness meditation b. relaxation response c. concentrative meditation d. sensory deprivation 103. While drugs all tend to have a detrimental effect on the body and mind, the most effective way to regain function of these capacities is through a process known as a. metacognition. b. tolerance. c. harm reduction. d. detoxification.

104. What is the most definitive characteristic of a psychoactive drug? a. any substance that can alter a person’s state of sleeping b. any substance that can alter a person’s state of consciousness c. any substance that can alter a person’s state of understanding d. any substance that can alter a person’s state of growth 105. Teenagers that partied at a club and chronically used MDMA can expect which of the following effects? a. Heavy users have hearing and sight issues and potentially some brain damage. b. Heavy users have hearing and sight issues and potentially some liver damage. c. Heavy users have learning and memory issues and potentially some liver damage. d. Heavy users have learning and memory issues and potentially some brain damage.

106. Which of the following describes a person with a psychological drug dependency? a. A person who compulsively uses a drug to maintain the feeling of comfort and well-being. b. A person who compulsively uses a drug that affects his or her body physically. c. A person who compulsively uses a drug to maintain bodily comfort. d. A person who compulsively uses a drug to avoid physical illness and discomfort.

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Chap 05_16e 107. Someone diagnosed with anhedonia is experiencing what symptoms? a. the inability to feel temperature b. a heightened sense of pleasure c. the inability to feel pleasure d. the inability to feel pain 108. Which of the following most accurately describes hypersomnia? a. excessive daytime sleepiness, even after a few hours of sleep loss b. excessive insomnia from only a few hours of sleep c. brief shifts in brain activity to normal patterns of sleep d. sleep loss easily reversed by a single night’s rest 109. Which of the following is a health risk of consuming caffeine? a. growth of breast cysts in women b. decreased heart rate c. anhedonia, or loss of pleasure d. boredom and fatigue 110. Which of the following most accurately defines the experimental use of a drug? a. daily use with elements of dependence b. intense use with extreme dependence c. occasional social use for pleasure d. short-term use based on curiosity 111. Which of the following skills has important consequences for personal relationships? a. poor metacognitive skills b. good metacognitive skills c. self-reflective skills d. positive mental skills 112. Which of the following is a characteristic of people who are more susceptible to hypnosis? a. being skeptical of hypnosis b. having an above-average intelligence c. being able to calm one's mind and rid oneself of stress d. having a strong imagination and being prone to fantasy 113. Which theory proposes that dreams are how brains process the random electrical discharges of REM sleep? a. activation-synthesis hypothesis b. neurocognitive dream theory c. psychodynamic dream theory d. dream symbols

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Chap 05_16e 114. Jeff was watching his husband sleep and noticed that his breathing was irregular and he suddenly jumped.

Which of the following did he experience? a. He entered Stage 1 sleep and experienced a hypnic jerk. b. He entered Stage 4 sleep and experienced a hypnic jerk. c. He entered REM rebound sleep and experience a sleep spindle. d. He entered REM sleep and experienced a sleep spindle.

115. Martina was fighting with her daughter before going to sleep. While asleep, she continued this fight as part of a dream, and when she awoke, she remembered the dream. Which of the following is this an example of? a. activation-synthesis hypothesis b. neurocognitive dream theory c. psychodynamic dream theory d. lucid dream theory 116. Hypnotic suggestion can have the most profound impact on a person’s sensory perception, such as their sense of smell or taste. Which of the following statements most accurately describes why this is possible? a. Hypnotic suggestion is most impactful at altering subjective experience than personal behavior. b. Hypnotic suggestion is most impactful at altering objective reality than personal behavior. c. Hypnotic suggestion is most impactful at altering personal behavior than subjective experience. d. Hypnotic suggestion is most impactful at altering objective reality than subjective experience.

117. Carolyn’s newborn baby slept in the same room as her, but she awoke with every noise the baby made. After a few days, Carolyn was exhausted, despite getting some sleep each night. When the nanny stayed the night, Carolyn did not have the baby in her room and awoke remembering lots of different dreams. Which of the following best describes what Carolyn experienced? a. Carolyn likely experienced hypnic jerks, when she finally slept through the night. b. Carolyn likely experienced hypnopompic hallucinations, when she finally slept through the night. c. Carolyn likely experienced REM rebound, when she finally slept through the night. d. Carolyn likely experienced REM behavior disorder, when she finally slept through the night.

118. A brief shift in brain-wave patterns to those of sleep is called a. microsleep. b. macrosleep. c. sleep-deprivation psychosis. d. non-REM sleep.

119. In which exercise does one attend to a single focal point, such as an object, a thought, or one's breathing? a. concentrative meditation b. mindfulness meditation c. sensory deprivation d. relaxation response

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Chap 05_16e 120. Wilma only uses her drug of choice occasionally. But this drug can cause convulsions, heart attacks, or even strokes even in casual users. Which of the following best describes her drug of choice? a. cocaine b. MDMA c. LSD d. amphetamines 121. An infant is born with weak arousal reflexes, and at one month old the child has come down with a slight cough.

Which of the following sleep disorders is the infant at the highest risk of experiencing? a. sleep apnea b. narcolepsy c. SIDS d. insomnia 122. Which of the following are the three elements of metacognition? a. knowledge, monitoring, and control b. knowledge, emotions, and self-respect c. knowledge, self-respect, and control d. knowledge, memory, and relief 123. Which of the following is a state of awareness that opposes concentrative meditation due to its widening the user’s attention span and openness to all of his or her surrounding environment? a. mantra meditation b. mindfulness meditation c. restrictive meditation d. Zen meditation 124. Dale had his wisdom teeth removed. The dentist gave him some medication to take for pain. Dale really liked how it made him feel, so he lied and said he still had pain to get more pills. Which of the following best describes what Dale experienced? a. Dale was likely prescribed tranquilizers for pain and became addicted to the relaxed feelings they gave him. b. Dale was likely prescribed oxycodone for pain and became addicted to the anxious feelings they gave him. c. Dale was likely prescribed oxycodone for pain and became addicted to the euphoric feelings they gave him. d. Dale was likely prescribed tranquilizers for pain and became addicted to the euphoric feelings they gave him.

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Chap 05_16e 125. Levi has been studying day and night for so many weeks that he is sleep deprived. Which of the following symptoms is Levi at a high risk of developing? a. loss of mental flexibility, attention, and creativity b. anxiety and depression c. increase in creativity d. sleep apnea 126. Carolina uses a drug to help her glaucoma, but recently she has memory loss and attention and concentration issues as a result of this drug. Which of the following drugs is Carolina using? a. mescaline b. cannabis c. psilocybin d. valium 127. Jake has been using cocaine for the past several years. He claims it helps him stay up at night to paint. Jake has recently stopped using cocaine to stay awake, but he has found that he no longer feels pleasure when painting.

Which of these is Jake suffering from? a. dopamine b. anhedonia c. anxiety d. depression 128. Which of the following forms of drug abuse is popular among college students but still quite dangerous in its ability to inhibit brain development in young adults? a. alcohol myopia b. anhedonia c. detoxification d. binge drinking 129. MDMA has several effects on the human body; one of the most prominent is a. it causes brain cells to produce more dopamine. b. it increases appetite for food. c. it decreases sexual pleasure. d. it decreases heart rate.

130. When practicing meditation, the body undergoes certain physiological changes that the researcher Herbert Benson calls the a. concentration response. b. stimulation response. c. relaxation response. d. mindfulness response.

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Chap 05_16e 131. Which of the following refers to the idea of tracking thought processes and behaviors when they unfold and evaluate if the goals are met? a. metacognitive monitoring b. metacognitive control c. metacognitive knowledge d. metacognitive learning 132. Once a person enters into the stages of sleep, what would be the primary difference between his or her behavior in Stage 4 and his or her behavior in Stage 1? a. In Stage 4, the sleeper's brain waves are almost pure slow-wave delta, meaning they are in a state of oblivion. b. In Stage 4, the sleeper's brain waves begin to produce very large and slow delta waves to signal a deeper loss of consciousness. c. In Stage 4, sleep spindles begin to spike in the sleeper's brain waves, and the body temperature drops. d. In Stage 4, the sleeper's heart rate slows down, breathing becomes more irregular, and the muscles of the body begin to relax.

133. Darrell is a defense attorney with a very important case. The stress of the month-long trial is causing Darrell to lose sleep. He keeps running through the details of the trial in his head and cannot get to bed. What condition would Darrell be diagnosed with? a. temporary insomnia b. chronic insomnia c. drug-dependency insomnia d. rebound insomnia 134. Josh keeps falling asleep at his desk. His coworker saw him sleeping standing up in the elevator. Which of the following is Josh afflicted with? a. insomnia b. narcolepsy c. sleep apnea d. night terror 135. Which one of the following sleep disorders is characterized by short silences during sleep followed by loud gasps of breath or snorts? a. sleep apnea b. narcolepsy c. nightmare d. sleep terror

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Chap 05_16e 136. Christopher took a very high dose of concentrated cannabis. Which of the following side effects is the most accurate portrayal of what he might experience? a. delusions, hallucinations, and extreme relaxation b. psychosis, amnesia, and potentially death from overdose c. elevated heart rate, psychotic break, and euphoria d. deterioration of brain cells, kidney failure, and respiratory problems 137. Based on each individual’s psychological background, which of the following persons is most vulnerable to the development of a cannabis use disorder? a. an army veteran with PTSD b. a student with ADHD c. a patient with pain after surgery d. a patient with REM behavior disorder 138. Walter suffered a serious injury and was disoriented when he fell off his roof while cleaning the gutters.

Walter's doctor has order which of the following test to help diagnose his disorder of consciousness more accurately? a. PET b. EEG c. EKG d. ASC 139. Which of the following drugs is classified as an opioid? a. heroin b. cocaine c. caffeine d. alcohol 140. Mia came home from a party on campus and had a hard time focusing and concentrating on everything in her room. Which of the following conditions is she currently experiencing? a. caffeine hyperopia b. caffeine myopia c. alcohol myopia d. alcohol hyperopia 141. In recent news, many college students have reported using a classification of drugs to enhance academic performance. Which of the following type of drug applies to this situation? a. amphetamines b. hallucinogens c. barbiturates d. alcohol

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Chap 05_16e 142. Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB) is classified as a a. tranquilizer b. depressant c. opioid d. stimulant 143. A part of the mind of a person under hypnosis that watches but does not participate is called the a. hidden observer. b. suggestion effect. c. disorder of consciousness. d. locked-in.

144. Sleep researchers are monitoring the sleep of an adult participant. The participant is hooked up to an EEG. What brain waves would they observe as the participant becomes drowsy and then falls asleep? a. Beta waves that are replaced by alpha waves. b. Alpha waves that are replaced by delta waves. c. Delta waves that are replaced by alpha waves. d. Delta waves that are replaced by beta waves.

145. What is any repeating cycle of biological activity, such as sleep and waking cycles or changes in body temperature, called? a. electroencephalograph b. alpha waves c. REM sleep d. biological rhythm 146. Amina was practicing her monologue to audition for the school play. She thought she was doing well but failed to get a part in the play. Which statement best describes how Amina could have used metacognition to increase her chances of getting the role? a. Amina should have reviewed the monologues that others were using for their auditions. b. Amina should have monitored her own performance standard against others who were auditioning. c. Amina should have increased her overall knowledge of the school play, setting, and characters. d. Amina should have practiced her monologue less than others to ensure it sounded fresh and unrehearsed.

147. Natalia has a hard time sleeping, so she takes a couple of pills before bedtime to help her relax and go to sleep quickly. Unfortunately, one of the side effects of these pills is forgetfulness, and she takes additional doses that depresses her heartbeat and breathing. Which of these is this an example of? a. cocaine b. nicotine c. barbiturates d. opioids

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Chap 05_16e 148. What is the effect that explains why those who misuse alcohol have horrible nightmares after they quit drinking? a. REM rebound b. NREM rebound c. narcolepsy d. insomnia 149. Which of the following best defines compulsive use of a drug? a. daily use with elements of dependence b. short-term use based on curiosity c. intense use with extreme dependence d. occasional social use for pleasure 150. Which of the following is an accurate description of the effects of caffeine? a. Caffeine stimulates the brain by blocking chemicals that normally inhibit pain receptors. b. Caffeine used over a long period of time can help decrease high blood pressure. c. Caffeine stimulates the brain by blocking chemicals that normally inhibit or slow nerve activity. d. Caffeine use over a long period of time can cause various types of respiratory diseases.

151. Madison and her mother are going on a long road trip from New York to Louisiana. Madison has been driving for 7 hours straight and just realized that she has just zoned out for an uncertain amount of time. Her mother said that she was under "highway hypnosis." Which of the following statements most accurately describes Madison’s state of consciousness? a. Madison had entered into an altered state of consciousness while driving. b. Madison was in a state of full waking consciousness while driving. c. Madison had fallen asleep and was technically unconsciousness while driving. d. Madison was in a state of metaconsciousness while driving.

152. Marion has intense feelings of pleasure when she uses amphetamines. Which of the following is occurring during this time? a. Her brain is releasing amphetamines that causes her to stop the behavior. b. Her brain is releasing dopamine that causes her to stop the behavior. c. Her brain is releasing amphetamines that causes her to repeat the behavior. d. Her brain is releasing dopamine that causes her to repeat the behavior.

153. Which theory of dreaming, popularized by Freud, emphasizes internal conflicts, motives, and unconscious forces? a. psychodynamic dream theory b. neurocognitive dream theory c. lucid dreaming d. activation-synthesis theory

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Chap 05_16e 154. Which of the following is an example of the effects of meditation? a. Meditation can help people recover from brain injuries. b. Meditation can improve mental well-being, insomnia, and creativity. c. Meditation can improve memory, increase physical strength, and relieve physical pain. d. Meditation can allow people to control their hormone levels and manipulate their sensory perceptions.

155. The ability to think about the tactics and approaches you use in your everyday life in an effort to improve upon those strategies is considered metacognitive a. knowledge. b. control. c. monitoring. d. self-respect.

156. Heather was thrashing around while sleeping last night, and her husband was concerned. Heather has no memory of this behavior. Which of the following best describes what Heather likely experienced while sleeping? a. Heather likely had too much muscle paralysis during non-REM sleep. b. Heather likely had too much muscle paralysis during REM sleep. c. Heather likely had a lack of muscle paralysis during REM sleep. d. Heather likely had a lack of muscle paralysis during non-REM sleep.

157. Teenagers at a party experimented with a drug that caused their body temperatures to elevate rapidly and resulted in kidney failure. Which of the following best describes which drug and actions they should have taken? a. They used MDMA and should have drank more water to offset the drug effects. b. They used cocaine and should have drank more water to offset the drug effects c. They used MDMA and should have drank alcohol to offset the drug effects. d. They used cocaine and should have drank alcohol to offset the drug effects.

158. Which of the following is a behavioral remedy for insomnia? a. strenuous exercise during the day b. avoiding starchy foods c. going to bed early in the night following a poor night’s sleep d. getting extra hours of sleep on the weekends 159. What is the term used to describe a brief shift in the pattern of brain waves to sleep from awake? a. microsleep b. macrosleep c. REM rebound d. restorative sleep

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Chap 05_16e 160. The practice of training one's mind to alter its state of consciousness is referred to as a. meditation. b. waking consciousness. c. hypnotizability. d. relaxation response.

161. Chemically related drugs such as heroin (big H, dope, horse), morphine, codeine, oxycodone, and fentanyl are called a. antidepressants. b. hallucinogens. c. opioids. d. nicotine.

162. Taj used THC and drove home. What effects of using THC and then driving might he expect to experience? a. Taj should expect long-term memory loss and faster reaction times while driving. b. Taj should expect long-term memory loss and slower reaction times while driving. c. Taj should expect short-term memory loss and slower reaction times while driving. d. Taj should expect short-term memory loss and faster reaction times while driving.

163. Which of the following is a mild stimulant that has the main effect to stimulate perceptions at odds with reality? a. alcohol b. depressant c. caffeine d. hallucinogen 164. Jia combined GHB and alcohol together a few times without incident. She did experience a negative side effect when she took twice as much as she normally had. Which of the following statements best describes what she might have experienced? a. Jia might have experienced an overdose, which could cause a coma or breathing failure. b. Jia might have experienced an intense euphoric feeling that could cause paranoia. c. Jia might have experienced a drastically elevated heart rate, which could lead to cardiac arrest. d. Jia might have experienced overheating from a spike in blood pressure and faint as a result.

165. Which of the these sleep states is associated with increased and vivid dreaming? a. REM sleep b. deep sleep c. REM rebound d. light sleep

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Chap 05_16e 166. Which of the following is a treatment approach to drug addiction that seeks to reduce the negative consequences of addiction without necessarily requiring drug abstinence? a. scheduled gradual reduction b. harm-reduction strategy c. harm-induction strategy d. bupropion 167. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of a stimulant? a. A stimulant increases activity in the body and nervous system. b. A stimulant decreases activity in the body and nervous system. c. A stimulant causes physical illness and discomfort after an addict stops taking a drug. d. A stimulant causes progressive decrease in a person’s responsiveness to a drug.

168. Which of the following refers to an irresistible urge to move one's limbs to relieve sensations of creeping, tingling, prickling, aching, or tension? a. substance-induced sleep disorder b. restless legs syndrome c. disorders of arousal d. hypersomnolence disorder 169. Which device can record changes in electrical activity in the brain and sleep patterns? a. EEG b. ECG c. EKG d. GHB 170. Joel recently returned from a work retreat that taught employees how to be less judgmental and to live in the moment. He learned how to tune into his thoughts and emotions without reacting to them. What skill did Joel recently learn? a. hypnosis b. relaxation c. metacognition d. mindfulness 171. What is the name of the drug that can produce hallucinations, mystical-type experiences, and psychotic-like disturbances in thinking and perception? a. PCP b. LSD c. PTSD d. GHB

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Chap 05_16e 172. Doug has been smoking cigarettes for more than 20 years. He says it makes him feel good and lowers his anxiety level. How would the nicotine in the cigarettes Doug smokes be categorized in this situation? a. The nicotine becomes an antidepressant since Doug has been smoking for so long. b. The nicotine is a psychoactive drug since it directly stimulates brain cells by mimicking neurotransmitters. c. The nicotine is a hallucinogenic drug since it directly stimulates brain cells by mimicking neurotransmitters. d. The nicotine becomes a depressant since Doug has been smoking for so long.

173. What are large, slow brain waves associated with relaxation and falling asleep? a. delta waves b. sleep spindles c. beta waves d. alpha waves 174. Kenny sees his employee Dwayne coming in to work late and begins to yell at him for being late again. He stops midsentence and instead says calmly to Dwayne, “Can we talk about your tardiness in my office?” Which of the following applies to Kenny’s sudden change in behavior? a. He used a metacognitive technique of monitoring and control to change his reaction to the situation. b. He used a metacognitive technique of decision-making to change his reaction to the situation. c. He used a metacognitive technique of unconsciousness to change his reaction to the situation. d. He used a metacognitive technique of consciousness to change his reaction to the situation.

175. Gabriel woke up and jumped out of bed screaming, soaked in sweat with his heart racing. He told his mom about the incident, and she told him he was only having a bad nightmare. How is a nightmare different from what Gabriel experienced? a. Nightmares occur in the non-REM stage when the body is completely immobilized, while night terrors occur in REM sleep when the body is not immobilized. b. Nightmares occur in the REM stage when the body is completely immobilized, while night terrors occur in non-REM sleep when the body is not immobilized. c. Nightmares frequently cause memory loss of the dream, while night terrors are often remembered by those who experience them. d. Nightmares are basically small panic attacks that occur during dreams, while night terrors only occur when a person is sleepwalking.

176. What might occur if a person was unable to sleep for more than 30 minutes at a time, is sleep deprived, and then gets a good night’s sleep? a. substance-induced sleep disorder b. macrosleep c. REM rebound d. narcolepsy

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Chap 05_16e 177. What is the ability to think about thinking called? a. control b. monitoring c. metacognition d. knowledge 178. Patricio remembers getting in his car to drive to school, but he does not remember how he got there. He only remembers getting in the car, pulling down the driveway, and the first few minutes of his drive. But he does remember listening to his favorite morning radio show on the drive and what they talked about. In which mental state was Patricio during these occurrences? a. hypnosis b. consciousness c. unconsciousness d. metacognition 179. Kyle likes to drink alcohol and takes his wife’s pain pills each night. Which statement best describes what is likely to occur? a. Kyle is likely to have a drug interaction by mixing the alcohol and pain pills. b. Kyle is likely to experience insomnia by mixing the alcohol and pain pills. c. Kyle is likely to have a drug withdrawal by mixing the alcohol and pain pills. d. Kyle is likely to experience a physical dependence by mixing the alcohol and pain pills.

180. Which of the following is a key element in hypnosis that refers to the tendency of hypnotized persons to carry out suggested actions as if they were involuntary? a. basic suggestion effect b. hidden observer c. determinism d. sensory changes

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Chap 05_16e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap 05_16e 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_16e 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. a 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. d 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_16e 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. b 90. a 91. a 92. d 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. c 97. d 98. d 99. d 100. d 101. a 102. d 103. d 104. b 105. d 106. a 107. c 108. a 109. a 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_16e 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. a 115. b 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. c 122. a 123. b 124. c 125. a 126. b 127. b 128. d 129. a 130. c 131. a 132. a 133. b 134. b 135. a 136. a 137. a

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Chap 05_16e 138. a 139. a 140. c 141. a 142. b 143. a 144. a 145. d 146. b 147. c 148. a 149. c 150. c 151. a 152. d 153. a 154. b 155. a 156. c 157. a 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. c 162. c 163. d 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_16e 166. b 167. a 168. b 169. a 170. d 171. b 172. b 173. d 174. a 175. b 176. c 177. c 178. b 179. a 180. a

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Chap 06_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following definitions applies to the term extinction in conditioning? a. strengthening a behavior by removing something unpleasant from the environment b. decreasing the likelihood of a response with an aversive consequence c. weakening of a learned response by repeatedly presenting the CS without the US d. removing a positive reinforcer after the desired response is achieved 2. . Laney's cat keeps jumping on the table. The next couple of weeks, she squirts it with a water mister every time it jumps up there, and the cat stopped jumping on the table. But then the mister broke, and Laney stopped squirting the cat. Soon the cat was back to jumping on the table. Which of the following has happened? a. The cat's fear of the water mister had been extinguished. b. The cat's fear of the water mister had been discriminated. c. The cat's fear of the water mister had been negatively reinforced. d. The cat's fear of the water mister had been vicariously conditioned.

3. Chris is having difficulty with his employee Daniela because she never does her share and other employees end up doing most of her work. What would be the best approach for Chris to solve this problem? a. Chris needs to use a positive reinforcement technique like praise to encourage Daniela to work harder. b. Chris needs to use a positive punishment technique like docking Daniela's pay to encourage her to work harder. c. Chris needs to use a negative punishment technique like putting Daniela on cleanup duty to encourage her to work harder. d. Chris needs to use a negative reinforcement technique like performance bonuses to encourage Daniela to work harder.

4. The sound of a bell after conditioning is an example of a. neutral stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. conditioned stimulus.

5. Aimee wants to finish her law degree so she can be more actively involved in protecting consumers against fraudulent activity. Which of the following will increase the likelihood of Aimee achieving this goal? a. creating a behavioral contract that outlines rewards and consequences b. taking actions one step at a time and not considering the possibility of failure c. rewarding herself for every achievement regardless of size and ignoring failures d. imagining herself working in a prestigious law firm after meeting her current goals 6. Which researcher defined the law of effect? a. Tolman b. Bandura c. Skinner d. Thorndike Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_16e 7. In a classical conditioning experiment, which of the following would most likely serve as a neutral stimulus? a. hearing a sharp noise b. being shown a bright light c. getting tickled by a feather d. looking at a color card 8. Reflexive salivation to the unconditioned stimulus (US) is an example of a. neutral stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

9. Which of the following would be an example of a token reinforcer? a. poker chip b. toy c. candy d. hugs 10. The reappearance of the response, called spontaneous recovery, explains why a. completely eliminating a conditioned response usually takes more than one session. b. classical conditioning occurs in mammals, but not in other species. c. learning always occurs when an unconditioned stimulus is paired with a neutral stimulus. d. imitation is an effective way to change behavior.

11. What are the two types of associative learning? a. classical and operant conditioning b. observation and cognitive c. shaping and imitation d. operant and observational 12. Which of the following is demonstrated by a novice runner training for a marathon who rewards herself each day she runs an additional mile? a. shaping b. response chain c. superstitious behavior d. modeling

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Chap 06_16e 13. Rico is having problems with deer eating his vegetables. In an attempt to solve the problem, he sprays all the plants in his vegetable garden with hot sauce. Rico hopes they will learn to not eat from his garden. Rico is attempting to apply the principle of a. conditioned taste aversion. b. systematic aversion. c. negative reinforcement. d. punishment.

14. A person who is subjected to a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement would experience which of the following? a. reinforcement based on the number of responses b. reinforcement based on the amount of time between responses c. reinforcement based on the amount of time between correct responses d. reinforcement based on the number of correct responses 15. Pairing a stimulus that does not produce a reflexive response with a stimulus that does elicit a reflexive response will likely cause which of the following to occur? a. classical conditioning b. higher-order conditioning c. latent learning d. secondary reinforcement 16. Heavy exposure to media violence may lead to reduced emotional reactions to actual violence due to the effects of which process? a. desensitization b. disinhibition c. discrimination d. generalization 17. What is the basis for a variable interval schedule of reinforcement? a. amount of time b. number of responses c. accuracy of responses d. type of stimulus 18. River's mom keeps a chart on the refrigerator and adds a gold star for each day that River's chores are completed. River's mom is using a. token economy. b. primary reinforcement. c. partial reinforcement. d. schedule of reinforcement.

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Chap 06_16e 19. Hannah's parents told her that for each passing grade she earned on her report card she would get $5.

However, the parents never paid Hannah after she came home with six passing grades. The next term, Hannah's grades declined. Which of these best describes what happened? a. The reinforcement was not response contingent. b. The reinforcement was superstitious behavior. c. The reinforcement did not support a response chain. d. The reinforcement had been offered as a token.

20. In operant conditioning, the probability of making a response is altered by which of the following factors? a. generalizability b. intensity of the reinforcement c. learned expectancy d. timing of learning 21. Lynn wants to include more vegetables in her diet so she can live a long life. Which of the following should be the first step in this process? a. Lynn should log everything she eats now to see what her vegetable intake is. b. Lynn should become a vegetarian and discard all meat products in her home. c. Lynn should create a list of vegetables and recipes she wants to share with family. d. Lynn should call her friends and ask them to join her in eating more vegetables.

22. Every Friday the employees at the manufacturing plant line up to collect their paychecks, which they then cash at the bank and use at the grocery store to buy food. Which of the following describes the employees' experience? a. They are lining up for secondary reinforcement that they will exchange for primary reinforcement. b. They are lining up for token reinforcement that they will exchange for secondary reinforcement. c. They are lining up for primary reinforcement that they will exchange for secondary reinforcement. d. They are lining up for continuous reinforcement that they will exchange for partial reinforcement.

23. An employee who received theater tickets when her manager noticed her working hard now makes sure she "looks busy" when any member of the management team approaches her cubicle. Which term describes the employee's perception of the managers? a. discrimination b. generalization c. desensitization d. memorization 24. Whenever Frank goes to his daughter Chloe's house, she lets him sit at the head of the table, where he sneaks food to the dog. The dog always waits there expectantly for food whenever Frank visits. When Frank isn't there, Chloe sits at the head of the table, and the dog does not wait for food. This is an example of a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. extinction. d. punishment.

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Chap 06_16e 25. Trent spent six weeks in England, and when he returned home to Minnesota, his family said he had a funny accent. What is the most likely explanation for the change in Trent's manner of speaking? a. Through observational learning, Trent was able to imitate and learn to speak with a British accent. b. Through classical conditioning, Trent was able to learn how to speak with a British accent. c. Through operant conditioning, Trent was able to imitate and learn what he heard while on vacation. d. Through discovery learning, Trent was able to learn how to speak with a British accent.

26. Many psychologists believe that people's phobias are the result of a. conditioning. b. desensitization. c. punishment. d. disinhibition.

27. In the old war movie, the enemy prisoner was unwilling to provide his captors with the information they wanted.

So, they kept the prisoner in a cell for three days with no food or water. When they brought him back for interrogation, a pitcher of water and plate of food was set on the table. The captors told the prisoner the meal was his if he gave them the information—which the prisoner promptly did. This storyline demonstrates the power of a. primary reinforcers. b. token reinforcers. c. partial reinforcement. d. social reinforcement.

28. When positive reinforcement is being applied, what is the consequence of making a desired response? a. The unpleasant experience ends. b. The unpleasant experience begins. c. The pleasant experience begins. d. The pleasant experience ends.

29. Jeff wants to stop biting his nails, but every time he is stressed, he bites his nails without even thinking about it.

What strategy would you recommend to Jeff to stop this habit? a. Find an alternative behavior such as meditation or yoga to do when stressed. b. Put a dollar in a jar every time he bites his nails as punishment. c. Lower the amount of stress in his life so he isn't driven to bite his nails. d. Think about the negative consequences, such as social stigma, of nail biting.

30. A subject will receive reinforcement only after giving a specific number of correct responses in a a. fixed ratio schedule. b. fixed interval schedule. c. variable interval schedule. d. variable ratio schedule.

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Chap 06_16e 31. To be effective in helping a person to achieve specified goals, a behavioral contract should a. specify potential consequences. b. record time spent on target behaviors. c. promote stimulus generalization. d. outline cognitive map strategies.

32. Which of the following refers to the probability of a response being altered by the effect that it has had? a. law of effect b. law of reinforcement c. law of conditioning d. law of generalization 33. The salivating of the dogs to the CS is an example of a(n) a. unconditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus.

34. Ava is punished for spilling her dinner. Her parents give her a spanking and send her to her room. Later, her puppy makes a mess on the floor. Ava kicks the puppy and puts it outside. Which of the following best describes Ava's behavior toward the puppy? a. Ava is correctly applying classical conditioning principles to teach the puppy. b. Ava is using negative punishment on the puppy to change its behavior. c. Ava is modeling the aggressive behavior that her parents demonstrated. d. Ava is developing an aversion to the puppy.

35. Prab is conducting research that conditions parakeets to press a lever for a food reward. During day five of the study, a bird receives food after an average of 30 lever pushes. Which schedule of reinforcement is Prab using with the birds? a. variable interval b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. fixed ratio 36. Common drawbacks to using punishment reflect the fact that a. it is an aversive experience for the person receiving the punishment. b. it requires elevated emotion from the person applying the punishment. c. it causes confusion when paired with alternate suggested behaviors. d. it leads to emotional desensitization of the person receiving punishment.

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Chap 06_16e 37. What must be paired together for classical conditioning to occur? a. A neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. b. A neutral stimulus and a conditioned stimulus. c. A conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned response. d. An unconditioned stimulus and an unconditioned response.

38. Mikayla is trying to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her. According to observational learning, to be effective what must occur? a. Her son must be motivated to learn how to do the laundry. b. Her son must always model the behavior immediately after she does. c. Her son must also do the laundry at the same time Mikayla does. d. Her son must take notes as she is showing him how to do the laundry.

39. Which of the following uses aversive imagery to reduce the occurrence of an undesired behavior? a. inhibition b. sensitization c. covert sensitization d. covert reinforcement 40. Unlike the paragraphs they wrote in elementary school that came back with letter grades, the essays that students write for Mr. Bruno's seventh-grade English class come back with comments, cross-outs, and suggestions—all written in red pencil. And the worst part is he expects the students to write the essays again, and better! What is Mr. Bruno using to teach his students? a. feedback b. discovery c. self-recording d. punishment 41. Which of the following is most likely to be a person whose behavior is imitated through observational learning? a. You will imitate anyone; it does not matter who they are. b. Someone that is different than you. c. Someone that you dislike. d. Someone whom you admire.

42. In Pavlov's experiment, which of the following serves as an unconditioned stimulus? a. meat powder b. bell sound c. salivation d. puff of air

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Chap 06_16e 43. After Kristin completed her presentation to the potential client, her boss commended her on doing a fantastic job that clearly made a favorable impression. Kristin will likely continue to work hard for her boss after receiving this a. positive reinforcement. b. nonreinforcement. c. token reinforcement. d. tangible reinforcement.

44. Which of the following best describes cognitive learning? a. demonstrating a relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience b. higher-level learning involving thinking, knowing, understanding, and anticipation c. responding to a particular stimulus without any prior experience d. formation of simple associations between various stimuli and responses 45. Akbar's cat keeps jumping on the kitchen table. For the next couple of weeks, he squirts the cat with a water mister every time it jumps on the table. Now when the cat sees the mister, it runs away from the table. The cat now also leaves the room when it hears running water in the sink. Which of the following has happened? a. The cat developed a stimulus generalization of fear from all water sources. b. The cat developed a stimulus extinction of fear from all water sources. c. The cat developed spontaneous recovery of fear from all water sources. d. The cat developed higher-order conditioning of fear from all water sources.

46. Whose behavior is more likely to be impacted by watching violent and aggressive television programming? a. young children b. adolescence c. women d. men 47. Darcy's cat keeps jumping on the kitchen table. For the next couple of weeks, she squirts the cat with a water mister every time it jumps on the table. Now when the cat sees the mister, it runs away from the table. Which of the following is considered the conditioned response? a. jumping on the table b. getting squirted with water c. running from the mister d. being a wet cat 48. Huan often stays late at work to make sure every task is completed on time and is the highest quality. The department manager recently gave Huan a significant raise for this behavior. Which of the following best describes this situation? a. positive reinforcement b. token economy c. primary reinforcement d. law of effect

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Chap 06_16e 49. The term response contingent can best be described as a. reinforcement of approximations of the desired response. b. a repeated behavior producing reinforcement. c. reinforcement that occurs only after a response. d. a series of actions that eventually lead to reinforcement.

50. According to Bloom's taxonomy, what is the sixth cognitive process dimension? a. creating b. analyzing c. evaluating d. conceptual 51. A person who is subjected to a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement would experience which of the following? a. reinforcement based on the number of responses b. reinforcement based on the amount of time between responses c. reinforcement based on the amount of time between correct responses d. reinforcement based on the number of correct responses 52. Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning? a. Jumping when there is a loud noise. b. Kicking your leg when you are hit on the knee. c. Getting sick after eating scrambled eggs and then later avoiding scrambled eggs since just looking at them makes you feel sick. d. Completing extra credit in class to get a better grade.

53. In conditioning, the reinforcement of increasingly close approximations of the desired response is called the principle of a. contingency. b. discrimination. c. shaping. d. association.

54. Which term best describes reinforcement that is provided only after the subject has an appropriate reaction to the stimulus? a. response-contingent b. fixed interval c. programmed instruction d. latent reinforcement

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Chap 06_16e 55. When is feedback most effective in facilitating learning? a. when it is detailed b. when it is summarized c. when it is minimized d. when it is unstructured 56. A basketball team that watches videos of their previous games to enhance their performance are watching the videos for a. feedback. b. reflective practice. c. behavioral contracts. d. rote learning.

57. Larissa's colleague Trevor is known for wearing too much cologne, and she's thankful that he works on a different floor. Every day for a week, Trevor sneaks up to Larissa's cubicle wearing a strange mask and pops his head over the wall, eliciting a scream of fear from Larissa. The next day at her desk, Larissa suddenly smells Trevor's cologne and screams. Which of the following is this an example of? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. cognitive learning d. stimulus discrimination 58. After playing a violent video game at home all afternoon, Peter and some friends snuck into a movie that was rated R for graphic violence. The first scene was a loud, bloody shootout in which many people died, yet Peter and his friends snickered and giggled during it. What explains their reaction to the movie? a. They had become desensitized to violence from the video games. b. They observed other audience members laughing during the scene. c. The video games had made them feel disinhibited in showing emotion. d. The video games had classically conditioned them to laugh at violence.

59. Which of the following can be considered the key factor in learning from models? a. imitation b. observance c. repetition d. disinhibition 60. Hamza is conditioning rats to press a lever for a food reward. No matter how many times a rat presses the lever, it receives a food pellet on average every four minutes. Which type of reinforcement schedule is Hamza using in his research? a. fixed ratio b. fixed interval c. variable ratio d. variable interval

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Chap 06_16e 61. Allen's young daughter Krista heard him use a curse word when he was driving her to preschool. When Allen picked her up at the end of the day, the teacher told him that Krista had used the word several times when arguing with other students over toys. The teacher warned Allen to be more aware of the impacts of a. observational learning. b. operant conditioning. c. latent learning. d. response chains.

62. In operant conditioning, response cost is another term for a. positive reinforcement. b. negative punishment. c. positive punishment. d. negative reinforcement.

63. Cybill is practicing her letters, numbers, shapes, and colors with her dad to get ready for kindergarten. This relates to which of the following? a. operant conditioning b. cognitive learning c. classical conditioning d. associative learning 64. Many companies ask celebrities to promote their products. The terms of classical conditioning when a celebrity endorses a product that celebrity is the a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. neutral stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

65. Seventh-grade student Oliver plays violent video games a couple of hours every day after school and several hours a day on weekends. One day, another student bumps into Oliver in the hallway at school, knocking his books out of his hands and making other students laugh. Which of the following will occur? a. Oliver might hit the student because of his exposure to video game violence. b. Oliver will physically attack the student to imitate scenes from his video games. c. Oliver will avoid engaging the student because video games have disinhibited him. d. Oliver will laugh with the other students due to his desensitization from video games.

66. When a conditioned response is extinguished, but reappears later, the reappearance of the conditioned response is called a. spontaneous recovery. b. higher-order conditioning. c. stimulus generalization. d. operant conditioning.

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Chap 06_16e 67. Once a week, Ms. Leung divides her sixth-grade students into several groups and hands each group a packet.

The packet contains several complex challenges that they must work together on to solve, drawing upon recent knowledge in math, science, social studies, and other subjects. Which approach is Ms. Leung using with her students? a. discovery learning b. latent learning c. programmed instruction d. cognitive maps 68. Which of the following best describes stimulus discrimination? a. responding when rewarding stimuli are present and not responding when they are not present b. responding to tangible secondary reinforcers such as money, gold stars, or poker chips c. responding to stimuli that precede both rewarded and non-rewarded responses d. responding to non-learned reinforcers, usually those that satisfy physiological needs 69. Lydia's colleague Tanya is known for wearing too much perfume, and she's thankful that Tanya works on a different floor. Every day for a week, Tanya sneaks up to Lydia's cubicle wearing a scary mask and pops her head over the wall, eliciting a gasp of surprise from Lydia. The next Monday at her desk, Lydia suddenly smells Tanya's cologne and gasps. Which statement best describes what occurred on the first day Tanya played her prank on Lydia? a. Tanya sees the mask (US) and gasps in surprise (UR). b. Tanya smells the cologne (CS) and gasps in surprise (CR). c. Doug hears the ding noise (US) and is given a mint (CR). d. Tanya smells the cologne (US) and gasps in surprise (UR).

70. In observational learning, the first step required to learn from a model is focused on a. attention. b. memory. c. imitation. d. discovery.

71. The sound of a bell before conditioning is an example of a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. neutral stimulus. d. conditioned stimulus.

72. Jennifer snuck out of the house last night to hang out with her friends. When they caught her sneaking back in through her bedroom window after midnight, her parents gave her extra chores to complete for a month. What strategy are Jennifer's parents demonstrating? a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. negative reinforcement d. positive reinforcement Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_16e 73. In Pavlov's experiment, reflex salivation to the unconditioned stimulus (US) serves as the example of a. unconditioned response. b. neutral stimulus. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned stimulus.

74. Miguel's colleague Nancy is known for wearing too much cologne, but luckily she works on a different floor.

Every day for a week, Nancy sneaks up to Miguel's cubicle wearing a strange mask and pops her head over the wall, eliciting a gasp of surprise from Miguel. The next day at his desk, Miguel suddenly smells Nancy's cologne and he gasps. Which of the following is the conditioned stimulus? a. the cologne b. the mask c. sitting at the desk d. gasping in fear 75. Research has shown that if a model is reinforced for their behavior, their behavior is a. more likely to be imitated. b. less likely to be imitated. c. has no effect on if the behavior will be imitated or not. d. less likely to be paid attention to.

76. Using covert sensitization and covert reinforcement to change behavior are examples of a. self-management. b. stimulus discrimination. c. operant conditioning. d. vicarious learning.

77. Young Jesse was bitten by a dog several months ago. Now whenever he hears a dog bark, he gets scared.

Which of the following is this an example of? a. conditioned emotional response b. extinction response c. systematic desensitization d. stimulus discrimination 78. Which of the following is one of the four factors that affect cognitive learning? a. learning environment b. types of knowledge c. metacognition d. creativity

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Chap 06_16e 79. Fourth-grade students at the Greenwood School spend 30 minutes each morning reading small passages on their tablets. After they finish a passage, they take a short vocabulary and comprehension quiz. If they get a low score, they are asked to read the story again. If they get a high score, they go on to the next passage. Which of the following describes the type of knowledge that is being tested? a. factual knowledge b. conceptual knowledge c. procedural knowledge d. metacognitive knowledge 80. A pattern in which a reinforcer follows every correct response would be described as a. continuous. b. fixed ratio. c. fixed interval. d. generalized.

81. Manuela's parents told her that each time she broke curfew, they would take away her phone for three days.

What approach are Manuela's parents using in an effort to modify her behavior? a. positive reinforcement b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement d. negative punishment 82. Your partner wants to train your hamster to play basketball, like the rats you saw when you visited the science center. Using shaping, which of the following should your partner do? a. Wait until the hamster picks up the ball to give it a food treat. b. Use negative punishment until the hamster puts the ball into the basket. c. Begin by reinforcing when the hamster goes near the ball. d. Use positive reinforcement until the hamster puts the ball into the basket.

83. What are discriminative stimuli in operant stimulus discrimination? a. stimuli that precede rewarded and non-rewarded responses in operant conditioning b. tangible secondary reinforcers c. non-learned reinforcers, usually those that satisfy physiological needs d. learned reinforcers, often those that gain reinforcing properties by association with primary reinforcers 84. Whose research on how children were much more aggressive in their play after watching a video of people behaving aggressively toward toys led the way on observational learning? a. J. Watson b. A. Bandura c. B.F. Skinner d. E. Thorndike

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Chap 06_16e 85. Keisha programmed distinct ringtones for different people in her phone so when someone calls, she knows exactly who is calling without having to reach for the phone. Which of the following best describes Keisha's action? a. Keisha used stimulus generalization to differentiate between the callers on her phone. b. Keisha used discriminative stimuli to differentiate between the callers on her phone. c. Keisha used response contingencies to differentiate between the callers on her phone. d. Keisha used programmed instruction to differentiate between the callers on her phone.

86. Which of the following has occurred when someone forms a simple association between various stimuli and/or behaviors, without much effort? a. associative learning b. observational learning c. cognitive learning d. memorization 87. A toddler who smiles at the sound of a parent's voice, but gets anxious at the sound of a stranger's voice, is demonstrating a. stimulus discrimination. b. extinction. c. spontaneous recovery. d. law of effect.

88. Which of the following is a factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment? a. type b. sensitization c. consistency d. discrimination 89. An employee who earns a set amount of money for every 10 widgets he or she paints is undergoing a. partial reinforcement. b. vicarious conditioning. c. classical conditioning. d. latent learning.

90. Discovery instruction generally provides learners with a. presentation or lectures about information. b. rote learning strategies. c. the ability for passive learning through exploration d. the ability for active learning through exploration.

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Chap 06_16e 91. Developing a fear of heights simply by hearing friends talk about their fear of heights is an example of which type of learning? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. cognitive learning 92. In operant conditioning, the fact that the response is emitted indicates that the role of the learner is a. active. b. passive. c. consistent. d. variable.

93. Ayanna has a serious fear of heights, but she really wants to go on the hiking trip to the Swiss Alps with her friends. Which of the following could help Ayanna reduce her fear and enjoy the hike? a. desensitization b. programmed instruction c. stimulus discrimination d. cognitive mapping 94. Why are variable ratio (VR) schedules of reinforcement able to produce greater resistance to extinction than fixed ratio (FR) schedules of reinforcement? a. VR schedules are less predictable than FR schedules. b. VR schedules use positive reinforcement, whereas FR schedules use negative reinforcement. c. VR schedules provide reinforcement for any type of response, where FR schedules only reinforce correct responses. d. VR schedules provide larger rewards than FR schedules.

95. Every time she visits her son, Eliza has been feeding his dog food from her seat at the dining room table. Now the dog awaits food from whoever is sitting in the same spot at the table. Which of these is this an example of? a. control b. extinction c. discrimination d. generalization 96. What are two key characteristics of discovery learning? a. memorization and feedback b. insight and understanding c. observation and repetition d. practice and refinement

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Chap 06_16e 97. According to Skinner, teaching a child to tie their shoes using successive approximations is a form of a. shaping. b. discrimination. c. latent learning. d. generalization.

98. Bandura's Bobo doll experiment demonstrated the role of observational learning in a. physical aggression. b. problem-solving. c. spatial mapping. d. video games.

99. Every night, Tuan's dog waits in the kitchen for a dinner of premium canned food. However, the dog only gets canned food twice a week. This occurs on whatever nights that Tuan works late because he feels guilty leaving the dog for so long. Which of these best describes the feeding schedule? a. The dog is fed canned food on a partial reinforcement, fixed interval schedule. b. The dog is fed canned food on a partial reinforcement, variable interval schedule. c. The dog is fed canned food on a continuous reinforcement, variable interval schedule. d. The dog is fed canned food on a continuous reinforcement, fixed interval schedule.

100. Every time June finishes her homework, her father Zack gives her a gold star for her task chart posted on the kitchen wall. Each time she gets ten stars, Zack takes June to do something fun, like a movie or the water park.

Which term describes what Zack is using to encourage his daughter to do homework? a. token economy b. programmed instruction c. partial reinforcement d. behavioral contract 101. Creating a list of different activity centers and gyms in your neighborhood that you will visit monthly to get into better physical health might be part of a person's a. behavior contract. b. latent learning. c. self-recoding. d. response chain.

102. Which of the following states that anything an individual likes to do can be a rewarding reinforcement? a. conditioning principle b. learning principle c. operant principle d. Premack principle

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Chap 06_16e 103. Extinction of a learned response can result from a. terminating reinforcement. b. using vicarious stimuli. c. rewarding the model. d. applying secondary reinforcers.

104. Phllip's colleague Krista is known for wearing too much cologne, and he's grateful that she works on a different floor. Every day for a week, Krista sneaks up to Phillip's cubicle wearing a strange mask and pops her head over the wall, eliciting a scream of fear Phillip. The next day at his desk, Phillip suddenly smells Krista's cologne and screams. What was the neutral stimulus when Krista started her pranks? a. the cologne b. the mask c. the cubicle d. Krista 105. Through which process will a dog learn to differentiate between antecedent stimuli that signal reward and nonreward? a. response contingency b. stimulus control c. operant stimulus discrimination d. secondary discrimination 106. Young Nathan has a loud temper tantrum in the toy aisle at the store. Despite disapproving looks from other customers, Nathan's parents ignore his outburst and continue shopping. What are the parents hoping to achieve through their approach to the situation? a. extinction b. disinhibition c. desensitization d. punishment 107. In the context of learning and conditioning, punishment is considered a(n) a. consequence. b. stimulus. c. response. d. antecedent.

108. The pairing of a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus will most likely result in which of the following? a. observational learning b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. latent learning

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Chap 06_16e 109. Fatima is small for her age and fairly shy, so she is quiet in school and doesn't respond when her middle school classmates tease her. But Fatima is a different person online. She tracks other people who seem smaller and more vulnerable than her and posts nasty comments on their social media accounts and "likes" mean comments posted by others. Which term describes Fatima's actions outside of school? a. electronic aggression b. response chain c. negative reinforcement d. escape learning 110. Jennifer's toddler Maya heard her shout a curse word while they were in the car. Now Maya says the word all the time, and as loud as she can. Which of the following best explains how learning occurred in this situation? a. Jennifer served as an observational learning model for Maya. b. Maya used discovery learning to copy what she heard Jennifer doing. c. Maya used rote learning to repeat what Jennifer had said without understanding it. d. Jennifer caused Maya's latent learning of the word because it was unintentional.

111. Violet says she was born for the theater. When the curtain rises after a performance and she hears the audience applauding for her, Violet says it is like fresh air that she inhales in big gulps. What does Violet obtain from this experience? a. reinforcement b. nonreinforcement c. token reinforcement d. primary reinforcement 112. What is one of the four strategies for changing a bad habit? a. breaking response chains b. types of knowledge c. punishment d. chore expansion 113. Which of the following six processes require higher-level processing and are complex? a. evaluating and creating b. remembering and understanding c. understanding and applying d. conceptual and procedural 114. A key factor distinguishing secondary reinforcers from primary reinforcers is that secondary reinforcers are a. learned. b. biological. c. natural. d. unethical.

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Chap 06_16e 115. Rhondella is conducting research that conditions parakeets to press a lever for a food reward. During day three of the study, a bird receives food after every fourth press on the lever. What type of reinforcement schedule is Rhondella using in her research? a. variable interval b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. fixed ratio 116. Emma keeps getting in trouble at school. Every time this occurs, the school notifies her parents, and she is punished when she gets home. But Emma's parents have high-stress jobs and little time, so sometimes they forget about the problem and Emma manages to escape punishment. What is the likely reason why Emma's bad behavior at school is still occurring? a. The punishment she receives is inconsistent. b. The punishment is out of scale for her behavior. c. The parents use counterconditioning as punishment. d. The parents are modeling their own poor behaviors.

117. In operant conditioning, removing something unpleasant following the learner's desired response is called a. positive reinforcement. b. negative punishment. c. negative reinforcement. d. positive punishment.

118. A student who moved from a small town starts attending a big new urban school with three floors on two wings with a central atrium. He feels overwhelmed, knowing he'll never find his way around. From a cognitive learning perspective, what is the best way to address this issue? a. The student can note landmarks and room numbers as he walks around and create a map in his mind. b. The student can ask whomever he encounters where things are as he moves from class to class each day. c. The student can ask the principal to assign a buddy who will guide him through school between periods. d. The student can walk around the halls and discover correct locations through trial and error.

119. Rosa's colleague Nico is known for wearing strong cologne, and she's thankful that he works on a different floor. Every day for a week, Nico sneaks up to Rosa's cubicle wearing a scary mask and pops his head over the wall, eliciting a scream of fear from Rosa. The next Monday at her desk, Rosa suddenly smells Nico's cologne and screams. Which of these statements best describes what occurred on Monday? a. Rosa smells the cologne (CS) and lets out a scream (CR). b. Rosa smells the cologne (CS) and lets out a scream (UR). c. Rosa smells the cologne (US) and lets out a scream (CR). d. Rosa smells the cologne (US) and lets out a scream (UR).

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Chap 06_16e 120. Hating a particular group of people after hearing constant negative news stories about them—despite having never met anyone from this group—is an example of a. observational learning. b. latent learning. c. classical conditioning. d. operant conditioning.

121. Developing a strong fear of being in any small space after getting stuck in an elevator for five hours demonstrates which of the following? a. superstitious behavior b. vicarious classical conditioning c. conditioned emotional response d. latent learning 122. Pradeep's parents have taken away his driving privileges for a month. Which of the following likely explains the situation? a. The parents are using negative punishment to decrease a bad behavior. b. The parents are using positive punishment to decrease a bad behavior. c. The parents are using negative punishment to increase a good behavior. d. The parents are using positive punishment to increase a good behavior.

123. Which of the following accurately reflects the nature of feedback in learning? a. It is often used to indicate progress toward a goal. b. It requires the use of cognitive maps to become effective. c. It is most effective when given at variable intervals. d. It distracts from learning if presented on a frequent basis.

124. Aisha has started a new job. At work, she is given a mentor to help her learn what to do at work. Which type of learning method will Aisha learn about her job? a. classical conditioning b. observational learning c. operant conditioning d. shaping 125. Which of the following would be most effective in encouraging good behavior from children? a. Provide positive reinforcement immediately when they display good behavior. b. Provide positive punishment several hours after they display bad behavior. c. Provide negative punishment immediately when they display bad behavior. d. Provide negative reinforcement several hours after they display good behavior.

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Chap 06_16e 126. Rosa learns that whenever her brother shares his cookie with her, their mother gives him a piece of candy. Rosa starts sharing her treats with her friends when they come over in the hopes of getting a similar reward. Rosa's learning to share is an example of a. observational learning b. cognitive learning c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning 127. When training a puppy to sit by offering food and praise for each correct behavior, the praise becomes a secondary reinforcer because a. it is associated with a food reward. b. the puppy prefers food over praise. c. it activates the brain's pleasure center. d. the desire for praise is a natural response.

128. Every Saturday Jose buys a $2 scratch-off lottery ticket at the gas station. He usually doesn't win anything, but sometimes he wins $5 or $10. Once he won $100! So, Jose keeps buying the $2 ticket in hopes of winning the $100,000 jackpot. What has conditioned Jose to keep buying tickets? a. variable ratio reinforcement b. variable interval reinforcement c. fixed interval reinforcement d. fixed ratio reinforcement 129. Ellen's 16-year-old son Leo has been struggling in his geometry class. Ellen tells her son that he should spend some time creating a list of the things from class that he understands and a list of things that he is confused about. Which learning strategy is Ellen suggesting her son use? a. being reflective b. spacing out your learning c. testing yourself d. metacognitive strategies 130. Generally, how does the application of mild punishment affect the targeted behavior? a. It suppresses the behavior. b. It emboldens the recipient. c. It extinguishes the behavior. d. It weakens the deliverer.

131. Jerry is obese and trying to lose weight, but there are many sweet treats in his house for his kids. So, Jerry takes a variety of actions to address this challenge. Which of them best meets the criteria for covert sensitization? a. Jerry imagines dying from a heart attack because he ate sweets and did not lose any weight. b. Jerry throws away all sweets so nobody in the house will tempt him to eat them. c. Jerry pictures himself slim and riding a bike next summer for ice cream with his kids. d. Jerry asks his kids to hide the sweets somewhere and only eat them when he is not home.

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Chap 06_16e 132. Yasmin works as a server at a restaurant and is late for her shift more often than she's on time. What would be the most effective approach for Yasmin to use to improve her punctuality? a. Yasmin should create a behavior contract for her punctuality and reward herself every time she is on time to work. b. Yasmin should use self-recording to keep track of when she is on time and late for work. c. Yasmin should use convert sensitization to visualize getting to work on time. d. Yasmin should ask to be assigned the slowest section all next week as punishment for arriving to work late.

133. Research conducted to date has shown that exposing children to high amounts of media violence a. decreases the chance that they will act violently. b. causes them to demonstrate violent behavior. c. has little to no impact on their behavior. d. indicates that this is more complicated than originally thought.

134. Six-year-old Luis hates taking baths. Whenever he hears the water turned on in the tub, he runs and hides under his bed. Which of the following is this an example of? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. negative reinforcement d. positive reinforcement 135. On a VI-20 schedule, reinforcement is provided after an interval that a. averages 20 seconds. b. includes 20 responses. c. is less than 20 seconds. d. exceeds 20 responses.

136. Which of the following is the best way to alter your own behavior? a. self-reinforcement b. primary reinforcer c. behavioral contract d. covert sensitization 137. Operant conditioning occurs when a voluntary action is followed by a a. stimulus. b. reinforcer c. token. d. expectancy.

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Chap 06_16e 138. Every night, Raulena's cat sits in the kitchen awaiting her dinner of premium canned food. However, Raulena only gives the cat canned food on Mondays and Thursdays. Which of these best describes the feeding schedule? a. The cat is fed canned food on a partial reinforcement, fixed interval schedule. b. The cat is fed canned food on a partial reinforcement, variable interval schedule. c. The cat is fed canned food on a continuous reinforcement, variable interval schedule. d. The cat is fed canned food on a continuous reinforcement, fixed interval schedule.

139. Demarco's psychology professor gave the class a lab assignment to condition rats to press a lever to obtain food pellets. Demarco's lab group was designated to use a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. When should the group's rat receive a food pellet? a. after 8 presses of the lever b. after 3 to 12 presses of the lever c. after 4 minutes of pressing the lever d. after 2 to 6 minutes of pressing the lever 140. The type of reinforcement that is the use of imagining yourself completing a desired targeted behavior is called a. covert reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. negative reinforcement. d. covert sensitization.

141. Which of the following terms best describes a stimulus that does not produce a response in classical conditioning? a. learned stimulus b. generalize stimulus c. neutral stimulus d. operant stimulus 142. During operant conditioning, shaping is applied to a. responses. b. stimuli. c. consequences. d. expectancies.

143. Which of the following provides "proof" that observational learning has occurred? a. reproduction b. attention c. remembrance d. reward

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Chap 06_16e 144. A person who wants to lose weight and gets feedback on their efforts by keeping a daily chart of calories consumed and pounds gained or lost is engaged in a. observational learning. b. vicarious reinforcement. c. cue reduction. d. self-recording.

145. What is occurring in research that employs a Skinner box? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. escape learning d. cognitive mapping 146. To obtain the highest rate of correct responses from a subject, a researcher should use a a. fixed ratio schedule. b. variable ratio schedule. c. fixed interval schedule. d. variable interval schedule.

147. Primary reinforcers of behavior are commonly grounded in a. biology. b. socialization. c. exchange. d. emotion.

148. Dacy's kitten keeps jumping on the table. The next couple of weeks, she squirts it with a water mister every time it jumps on the table. Now when the kitten sees the squirt bottle, it runs away from the table. Which of these statements best describes what is occurring now? a. Kitten sees the squirt bottle (CS) and runs away (CR). b. Kitten sees the squirt bottle (US) and runs away (CR). c. Kitten sees the squirt bottle (CS) and runs away (UR). d. Kitten sees the squirt bottle (US) and runs away (UR).

149. A model serves as the critical factor in all types of a. observational learning. b. latent learning. c. discovery learning. d. guided learning.

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Chap 06_16e 150. Despite being told by his parents not to swim in the old quarry, Kendrick joined his buddies there to cool off on a hot day. His parents saw photos of him on his social media account and used negative punishment to get Kendrick to modify his behavior. What did his parents likely do? a. Take away his cell phone for a week. b. Make him clean out the cluttered garage. c. Have him read past news of quarry drownings. d. Sign him up for a water safety course on weekends.

151. Which of the following terms best describes the comments and suggestions a teacher writes in the margin of students' writing assignments? a. feedback b. programmed instruction c. direct instruction d. reflective practice 152. Acting out behavior that normally would be restrained is often the result of a. disinhibition. b. desensitization. c. punishment. d. extinction.

153. Two months ago, Manuela cried and trembled as she watched her neighbor's house burn to the ground. Now every time she sees or hears a fire truck, Manuela's heart starts to race. What is the conditioned stimulus in this example? a. the firetruck b. the fire c. Manuela's heart racing d. Manuela's fear 154. Primary reinforcers tend to be effective in conditioning because they activate neural pathways related to a. pleasure. b. relaxation. c. memory. d. satiety.

155. At every one-mile interval along the marathon route, a team of people gives the runners orange slices, bottles of water, and shouts of encouragement. What are the race organizers demonstrating? a. fixed ratio reinforcement b. continuous reinforcement c. variable interval reinforcement d. fixed interval reinforcement

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Chap 06_16e 156. When is punishment most effective? a. when it is applied as the undesirable behavior occurs b. when it is applied with the maximum degree of intensity c. when it is accompanied by a clear expression of anger d. when it is applied without warning to promote vigilance 157. Devonte's parents told him that for each passing grade he earned on his report card, he would get $5. For each grade of B or higher, he would get $10. What are Devonte's parents using to help improve his academic performance? a. positive reinforcement b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement d. negative punishment 158. In general, the neutral stimulus when paired with an unconditioned stimulus, becomes a a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. unconditioned response. d. conditioned response.

159. Every morning before math, Ms. Lessner leads her third-grade students through a singing version of a multiplication table, they then complete math worksheets, and play on a computer math game. Which type of instruction is Ms. Lessner using? a. guided discovery instruction b. programmed instruction c. discovery learning d. direct instruction 160. Jade doesn't really enjoy her job. But she gets a big paycheck every week, so she continues to get up each morning and go to work. Which of the following is this an example of? a. positive reinforcement b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement d. negative punishment 161. Manny's cat keeps jumping on the dining room table. For the next couple of weeks, he squirts the cat with a water mister every time it jumps on the table. Now when the cat sees the mister, it runs away from the table.

Which of the following is considered the conditioned stimulus? a. getting squirted with water b. running from the mister c. jumping on the table d. being a wet cat

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Chap 06_16e 162. When practicing behavioral self-management, which of the following enables you to measure progress toward your goal? a. mapping schedules of reinforcement b. applying covert sensitization c. recording a baseline of the behavior d. reducing antecedents and cues 163. Every time Mohammed hears his phone make a "whoosh" sound, he knows his mom is calling and he immediately answers it. It relates to which of the following? a. higher-order conditioning b. negative reinforcement c. classical conditioning d. unconditioned stimulus 164. The students in Dr. Sanchez's psychology class studied last night for the chapter exam. They expected to take a true/false and multiple choice exam, but Dr. Sanchez surprised them with an oral exam, in which each student was asked three complex questions to be answered in front of the others. The students' performance on the exam was awful. What is the best rationale for their poor performance? a. The students had focused on rote learning the previous night. b. The students had used programmed instruction the previous night. c. The students had engaged in discovery learning the previous night. d. The students focused on latent learning the previous night.

165. As a teenager, Carla watched her grandmother cook a traditional Caribbean stew, a family favorite. When she moved into a house with other college roommates, Carla made the stew and they all enjoyed it on a cold snowy night. According to Bandura, what was key to Carla's decision to demonstrate her learning and make the stew? a. Her family responding positively to the grandmother's stew. b. Deciding to pay attention to grandmother cooking the stew. c. The roommates wanting warm comfort food on a cold night. d. Being conditioned by grandmother to cook for a household.

166. Which of the following best describes positive reinforcement? a. removing a negative consequence following a desired response b. presenting a desirable consequence prior to a response c. responding to a stimulus in the absence of a consequence d. presenting a pleasant consequence following a desired response

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Chap 06_16e 167. Sanjay's colleague Marc is known for wearing too much cologne, and he's grateful that Marc works on a different floor. Every day for a week, Marc sneaks up to Sanjay's cubicle wearing a strange mask and pops his head over the wall, eliciting a surprised shout from Sanjay. The next day at his desk, Sanjay suddenly smells Marc's cologne and lets out a shout. Which of the following is the conditioned response? a. popping over the cubicle b. seeing the mask c. shouting d. smelling the cologne 168. There has been pressure on the U.S. entertainment industry to reduce or eliminate depictions of film and television characters who smoke to help reduce the potential negative impact of a. observational learning. b. cognitive learning. c. associative learning. d. discovery learning.

169. Which of the following best defines the term stimulus generalization? a. the learned ability to respond differently to similar stimuli b. the tendency to respond to stimuli similar to a conditioned stimulus c. a method of reducing fear by gradually exposing people to the object of their fear d. the reappearance of a learned response after its apparent extinction 170. Glenn shouldn't have watched the online documentary about the huge plane crash in South America. Seeing the footage of the survivors in shock, hearing their distress, and learning about their trauma has made Glenn terrified to fly. Which of the following could help Glenn to reduce the fear of flying? a. desensitization b. stimulus generalization c. vicarious conditioning d. negative reinforcement 171. Ling's cat keeps jumping on the table. The next couple of weeks, she squirts it with a water mister every time it jumps on the table, and in time the cat stopped jumping on the table. Which of the following is the conditioned response? a. squirting the cat b. the water mister c. staying off the table d. jumping on the table 172. Which of the following is a benefit of using variable interval schedules of reinforcement? a. They produce steady response rates and high resistance to extinction. b. They produce weak resistance to extinction. c. They produce a more predictable response rate. d. They produce the highest response rates.

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Chap 06_16e 173. Jennifer snuck out of the house, and her parents would like there to be consequences so this behavior does not happen again. Which of the following offers the best solution? a. The parents should make Jennifer do extra chores as positive punishment. b. The parents should make Jennifer do extra chores as positive reinforcement. c. The parents should take away Jennifer's phone privileges as positive punishment. d. The parents should take away Jennifer's phone privileges as negative reinforcement.

174. Frank is training his puppy to heel, or walk right next to him on a leash. Holding the leash with little slack, Frank says, "Heel," walks two steps with the puppy, then stops and gives her a treat. He repeats this several times.

The next day he does the same, but walks five steps before stopping and offering the treat. The next day he walks ten steps. After two weeks, the puppy heels as it walks with Frank around the block. Which of the following best describes this process? a. shaping b. vicarious conditioning c. programmed instruction d. modeling 175. Javier throws a temper tantrum in the toy aisle at the store. In your judgment, which of these should his parents do if they hope to stop this behavior? a. Ignore Javier's bad behavior to extinguish it. b. Punish Javier's bad behavior to encourage good behavior. c. Ignore Javier's bad behavior to encourage good behavior. d. Reward Javier's good behavior to extinguish bad behavior.

176. On her way home from cheerleading practice, Ashley was pulled over for driving 47 mph in a school zone and got a $300 ticket from the police officer. Which of the following best describes what will result from Ashley's experience? a. Ashley's fine is negative punishment, which will cause her to drive slower. b. Ashley's fine is an positive punishment, which will not likely affect her driving. c. Ashley's fine is a discriminative stimulus, which will cause her to drive slower. d. Ashley's fine is a discriminative stimulus, which will not likely affect her driving.

177. Token economies are effective in modifying behavior through the application of a. secondary reinforcers. b. primary reinforcers. c. social reinforcers. d. partial reinforcers.

178. Young children commonly learn behaviors from watching their older siblings. In this context, which term describes an older sibling? a. model b. guide c. confederate d. reinforcer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_16e 179. Any relatively permanent change in behavior that can be attributed to experience is known as a. learning. b. reinforcement. c. conditioning. d. association.

180. Which of the following would be classified as a conditioned emotional response? a. trembling at the sight of a dog b. salivating at the smell of apple pie c. pulling back from a hot surface d. blinking at a flash of bright light

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Chap 06_16e Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap 06_16e 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. d 52. c 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_16e 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. a 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_16e 83. a 84. b 85. b 86. a 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. d 96. b 97. a 98. a 99. b 100. a 101. a 102. d 103. a 104. a 105. c 106. a 107. a 108. b 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_16e 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. d 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. c 122. a 123. a 124. b 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. a 129. a 130. a 131. a 132. a 133. d 134. a 135. a 136. a 137. b

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Chap 06_16e 138. a 139. a 140. a 141. c 142. a 143. a 144. d 145. a 146. a 147. a 148. a 149. a 150. a 151. a 152. a 153. a 154. a 155. a 156. a 157. a 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. a 162. c 163. c 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_16e 166. d 167. c 168. a 169. b 170. a 171. c 172. a 173. a 174. a 175. a 176. a 177. a 178. a 179. a 180. a

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Chap 07_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Without practicing maintenance rehearsal of a string of words recently presented, this information will a. fade to a trace. b. undergo redintegration. c. become implicit. d. quickly decay.

2. Which of the following is something that contributes to an encoding failure? a. Memory information stored lacks depth of meaning. b. The memory of the information cannot be accessed c. Information from different experiences is confused. d. There was not enough repeated exposure to the information.

3. The network model conceptualizes memory as which of the following? a. an organized system of linked information b. cabinets of words, images, and experiences c. bits of information stored in separate drawers d. a massive stack of unrelated data points 4. Which of the following commonly plays a key role in our use of working memory? a. positive transfer b. negative transfer c. eidetic imagery d. mental imagery 5. Which of the following would likely require a person to use working memory? a. frying an egg b. tying shoes c. riding a bicycle d. giving directions 6. Jared is on a date with his fiancé Margot. During dinner, Jared calls his fiancé Claudia, which was the name of his last girlfriend. Margot is not amused! Jared has likely experienced a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. state-dependent learning. d. retrieval failure.

7. Ahmad's declarative memory is working overtime right now. What is Ahmad doing? a. seeing a cat in a window b. reading a history textbook c. taking a helicopter tour d. learning to ride a snowboard Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_16e 8. Which term best describes stored information that a person does not know exists and is retrieved unconsciously? a. implicit memory b. explicit memory c. procedural memory d. sensory memory 9. Mallory created a slide presentation to the city council on why they need to increase funding for crossing guards at all of the local elementary schools. She narrowed her presentation's content down to one main point with one image per slide and placed her slides in order from the most critical to the least critical point. Mallory gave the presentation by carefully reading the slides to the city council and the council voted to keep funding at the status quo. Which of the following characteristics of memorable presentations did Mallory miss? a. select b. organize c. integrate d. potentiate 10. Semantic memory can be described as a. a part of declarative memory that records impersonal knowledge about the world. b. a part of procedural memory that records impersonal knowledge about the world. c. a part of procedural memory that records specific factual information that is collected. d. a part of declarative memory that records specific factual information that is collected.

11. When you're making meaningful connections between new information and what you already know, you are using a. chunking. b. maintenance rehearsal. c. elaborative encoding. d. rote learning.

12. In which of the following would a bit of information last longest? a. sensory memory b. iconic memory c. semantic memory d. echoic memory 13. Which of the following is a way to remember information better that involves rehearsing by looking for connections to existing knowledge? a. elaborative rehearsal b. chunking c. part learning d. overlearning

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Chap 07_16e 14. Students who use the sentence "Every good boy deserves fudge" to help them remember the notes that sit on the lines of a musical staff are using a. maintenance rehearsal. b. mnemonic devices. c. serial positions. d. eidetic imagery.

15. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of flashbulb memories? a. the tendency for people to suppress them b. the person's confidence in their accuracy c. the focus on distressing or traumatic content d. the effect they have on creating future memories 16. The information that forms a flashbulb memory becomes intensely consolidated by triggering the a. limbic system. b. endocrine system. c. sympathetic nervous system. d. parasympathetic nervous system.

17. Unconsciously burying and forgetting the experience of witnessing a plane crash is an example of a. repression. b. suppression. c. potentiation. d. interference.

18. Which of the following terms describes a chain of memories resulting from a single cue? a. redintegration b. network modeling c. massed practice d. positive transfer 19. Which of the following refers to a biological aspect of memory? a. loci b. bit c. trace d. state 20. Where does maintenance rehearsal occur? a. short-term memory b. sensory memory c. procedural memory d. long-term memory

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Chap 07_16e 21. Gil entered a competition with his friends that requires him to recite the winner of each of the 1230 games played in the National Basketball Association by the end of the current season. As the season progressed, Gil divided the list of winning teams by months, weeks, and days that the games were played. Gil's encoding strategy reflects which strategy? a. chunking b. mental imagery c. retrieval cues d. elaborative processing 22. In psychology class today, the professor shows the students images of pennies and asks the class to identify the correct image of a penny. Most of the class has difficulty actually recognizing the correct image of the penny.

The most likely cause of this is a. disuse. b. proactive interference. c. trace decay. d. encoding failure.

23. Juana is studying her biology notes and making connections between the different species of colorful fish and the different colors of objects in her bedroom. By making these connections, Juana is using a. elaborative processing. b. chunking. c. displacement. d. maintenance rehearsal.

24. Dina is able to remember her Social Security number by breaking the number into three parts. Dina is using the process of a. chunking. b. recall. c. recognition. d. redintegration.

25. Which investigation officer is using the best method regarding memory recall for a police line-up? a. Barney selects all tall line-up members to join the much shorter suspect in the line-up. b. Luisa selects members of the line-up that look similar to the suspect and tells them to hold their hands together in front of themselves during the line-up. c. Ving selects members of the line-up that look similar to the suspect and tells the witness that the suspect may not be present in the line-up. d. Juanita uses a picture of the suspect along with pictures of others in the line-up and places them all in front of the witness at the same time.

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Chap 07_16e 26. Repeating the seven items you need to buy while driving to the grocery store is an example of a. maintenance rehearsal. b. positive transfer. c. elaborative processing. d. massed practice.

27. The neurons that store a memory of a fun day at the beach would be located in the a. cortex. b. basal ganglia. c. cerebellum. d. amygdala.

28. Luisa learned how to ride a bike when she was 5-years-old. It has been 8 years since she last rode a bike, but she is still able to ride a bike without any problems. Which type of memory is allowing Luisa to ride a bike after 8 years? a. episodic memory b. declarative memory c. implicit memory d. procedural memory 29. George Miller's identification of the "magic number" for short-term memory capacity provides a rationale for the use of a. chunking. b. potentiation. c. massed practice. d. positive transfer.

30. Louis is putting away the dishes and notices the silverware drawer is unorganized. He removes the contents of the drawer, places the spoons in the left compartment of the drawer, the forks in the middle, and the knives in the right compartment. Later, during an evening meal, his mother asks him where he put the spoons, and he tells her to look in the left compartment of the silverware drawer. To answer his mother's question Louis is using a. explicit memory. b. procedural memory. c. implicit memory. d. semantic memory.

31. In the context of memory, which of the following describes consolidation? a. the linkage of physical state and retrieval ability b. the triggering of implicit memories through cues c. the addition of deeper meaning to sensory information d. the process of forming relatively permanent memories

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Chap 07_16e 32. Which of the following figures is taking appropriate precautions regarding the serial-position effect on memory? a. Adam listens to his mom tell him a list of 10 items to pick up at the grocery store, picks up his car keys, and heads to the store while singing along to the radio. b. Rashida writes her list of supplies for a home improvement project down, repeats the entire list to herself twice, and leaves for the building supply store while talking to her friend on her cell phone c. Tuan writes down a barbecue sauce recipe from his friend, reads it carefully while paying close attention to the ingredients in the middle of list, and repeats the list several times. d. Celia makes a list of items in Italian to remember for her trip to Italy.

33. In the context of recalling memories, which of the following types of information would likely be impacted by the serial position effect? a. the ingredients for a recipe b. seat assignments at an event c. the lyrics to an old song d. a random string of numbers 34. Taylor was introduced to his roommates at band camp and, while he was glad to meet them, he had to quickly go to the registration table to sign up for his trombone sectionals. When he returned he was unable to remember his roommates' names. Taylor's quick loss of memory can most likely be attributed to a. potentiation. b. decay. c. disuse. d. interference.

35. Which of the following is an example of recognition? a. completing a word-search puzzle b. filling out a job application c. taking an essay question exam d. answering a fill-in-the-blank question 36. Addison is working on creating a slide presentation for class. While creating the slides for the presentation, what is something that Addison should remember? a. Include titles on every slide. b. Have as much information on each slide as possible. c. Eliminate distractions on the slide designs. d. Include lots of images and patterns on the slides 37. According to the Ebbinghaus curve, how much information will be forgotten two days after initial exposure to it? a. about 25 percent b. nearly 50 percent c. over 70 percent d. almost 85 percent

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Chap 07_16e 38. At her book signing event, Marisol shook hands with 100 guests and made a point to ask each person their name. According to Ebbinghaus, about how many of these names will Marisol remember two days later? a. 14 b. 32 c. 56 d. 73 39. After playing the saxophone for years, Collin wanted to focus on a different sound, so he bought a clarinet.

Which statement describes Collin's likely experience in making this change? a. Collin learned to play the clarinet slowly due to positive transfer. b. Collin learned to play the clarinet quickly due to negative transfer. c. Collin learned to play the clarinet slowly due to negative transfer. d. Collin learned to play the clarinet quickly due to positive transfer.

40. Which of the following enhances memories based on grouping information based on its similarity? a. maintenance rehearsal b. elaborative processing c. information bits d. chunking 41. According to Ebbinghaus, after you meet a new person at a networking event, you are most likely to forget the person's name a. after several days. b. the following day. c. after about one hour of meeting them. d. within a minute of meeting them.

42. Which of the following is most active when you are trying to figure out what the time and date will be when you plan a flight across 10 time zones? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. procedural memory d. semantic memory 43. Which of the following statements best describes the network model of memory? a. Memories are organized into a row of baskets, and you must look into each basket in order to find the information you are remembering. b. Memories are a pool of lingering thoughts that can be searched for the information being remembered. c. Memories are distinct and held in the brain as whole entities. d. Memories are disassembled and the pieces are distributed to areas containing similar information and reassembled when the memory is called upon.

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Chap 07_16e 44. Why is rote learning an ineffective approach to forming stable memories? a. The information that is stored lacks meaning. b. The retrieval of information is state dependent. c. The process tends to create implicit memories. d. The method is dependent on negative transfer.

45. Which of the following states that people process words and mental images together better than they do words alone? a. the network model b. the state-dependent effect c. the multimedia principle d. the method of loci 46. Manjit is jogging along her favorite pathway in her local park and reviewing the presentation she is giving to her sales team tomorrow morning at work. As she jogs along, she assigns a main point in her presentation to a landmark she passes on the path. The next day Manjit makes her presentation and thinks about the landmark to help her remember all the points she wants to make to her sales team. Manjit is using a. an acrostic. b. the method of loci. c. a keyword method. d. mental imagery.

47. Alison is creating a set of slides to present at her class reunion. She carefully selects images from her class's senior yearbook to accompany the main points on each slide. To help her audience remember the main points of her presentation, Alison is using a. the keyword method. b. the multimedia principle. c. the method of loci. d. chaining.

48. Phillip remembers every detail of the tsunami that hit the island where has was vacationing for the December holidays. Luckily his hotel was on high ground, so he watched the destruction from above, but he knows he will never forget this a. flashbulb memory. b. iconic memory. c. eidetic memory. d. implicit memory.

49. Detailed memory networks and more extensive retrieval cues are the product of a. elaborative encoding. b. method of loci. c. the serial position effect. d. the tip-of-the-tongue effect.

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Chap 07_16e 50. Episodic memories can be considered richer than other types of memory because a. they enable us to reexperience an event. b. they are processed by the limbic system. c. the content helps us function in the world. d. the information holds many facts and symbols.

51. A ticket stub that triggers an episodic memory of being at a wild rock concert is considered a a. mnemonic device. b. eidetic image. c. retrieval cue. d. memory trace.

52. Which of the following students is making the best choice when scheduling their study time? a. Alannah spaces out her study time. b. Kendrick studies 30 minutes before an exam. c. Joan doesn't study because she knows she is going to forget everything in 9 hours. d. Ramiro studies 90 minutes before a test.

53. Rodrigo studied for the bar exam with no air conditioning during the summer heatwave. On the day of the exam, the proctor apologizes that the building's air-conditioning system was broken. When he got his score weeks later, Rodrigo found out that he had passed the bar with his highest score that day. What likely accounts for Rodrigo's success on the bar exam? a. overlearning b. elaborative encoding c. state-dependent learning d. mental images 54. The lack of appropriate cues can lead to forgetting as a result of a. encoding failure. b. retrieval failure. c. inattention. d. storage failure.

55. Which term defines the visual depiction that is used in thinking and memory? a. mental images b. elaborative processing c. mnemonics d. iconic memory

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Chap 07_16e 56. A person "remembers" going to a concert with John years ago. In reality, the person went to the concert with Ronnie, but lived on the same dorm floor as John. This is an example of a. implicit memory. b. source confusion. c. encoding failure. d. redintegration.

57. Compared to iconic memory, echoic memory lasts a. about three to five seconds longer. b. about the same amount of time. c. about two to four seconds shorter. d. about two to four seconds longer.

58. What can be considered the first filter of the memory process? a. maintenance b. potentiation c. encoding d. attention 59. Thirty-year-old Lorenzo often tells friends about the clown that juggled bowling pins at his sixth birthday party.

But Lorenzo's mother recently told him that she never hired anyone to entertain at his birthday parties and that maybe the clown was at a party he attended. Which term best describes Lorenzo's memory? a. false memory b. implicit memory c. episodic memory d. retrograde memory 60. In which type of memory does information have the briefest life span? a. sensory memory b. short-term memory c. working memory d. semantic memory 61. In the context of storage failure, which of the following is accurate regarding disuse? a. Memories that are not retrieved become more stable with time. b. Disuse accounts for our ability to recover seemingly forgotten memories through redintegration. c. Disuse explains why some unused memories fade, whereas others are carried for life. d. Disuse offers a partial explanation of long-term forgetting.

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Chap 07_16e 62. Franklin is preparing to take his driver's permit exam. Franklin studies for an hour, takes a break, and goes to his next class, and then he begins studying for another hour and takes a break. Franklin's approach to studying for the exam is best described as a. massed practice. b. spaced practice. c. overlearning. d. state-dependent learning.

63. What is the active process that one receives information from one's senses, stores that information, organizes the stored information, and then retrieves the information from storage? a. state-dependent learning b. recall c. memory d. priming 64. What criterion does relearning use to measure memory? a. time b. traces c. source d. culture 65. According to research by Herman Ebbinghaus, which of the following causes the curve of forgetting to stretch? a. serial position b. meaningful information c. trusted sources d. eyewitness experience 66. The contemporary view of short-term memory is to think of it as working memory because: a. we are likely to use short-term memory more at work than long-term memory. b. we process information from multiple sources at the same time in short-term memory. c. we are unable to intake sensory information long enough to process it. d. many memories remain in short-term memory for up to several weeks to be reworked when solving problems.

67. Which of the following teachers offers the most effective strategy to help students prepare for an upcoming vocabulary exam? a. Mr. Gomez has his students repeat the definitions to terms several times. b. Ms. Chou has her students write down definitions to the words. c. Ms. Dhillon has her students create paraphrased definitions with pictures for each word. d. Mr. Sandler has his students study quietly while reading their vocabulary definitions backwards.

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Chap 07_16e 68. Which term best describes the inability to retrieve memories of events that occurred before an injury or trauma? a. retrograde amnesia b. suppression c. anterograde amnesia d. repression 69. Camille is working on memorizing the names of the 50 students in her mechanical engineering class at the beginning of a new semester. The names are in alphabetical order, and she is paying closer attention to the names in the middle of the alphabetical list. Camille is showing that she is aware of a. negative transfer. b. the serial position effect. c. proactive interference. d. state-dependent learning.

70. George, a student from Iowa, is talking with Liko, an exchange student from Laos, about learning to ride a bike as a child. George tells Liko how much his knee was injured when he fell while learning to ride. Liko tells George about how excited she was when she was able to help her family by bringing groceries home from the local market in a basket on her bicycle. That George focuses on his individual experience and Liko focuses on contributing to the well-being of others is an example of how a. using chunking affects memories. b. maintenance rehearsal involves using emotions to shape memories. c. memory retrieval is influenced by gender. d. culture affects the encoding of long-term memories.

71. Which of the following candidates is using an encoding strategy? a. Amor links the main ideas for his speech in order to the names of the first five U.S. presidents. b. Ronald links the main ideas of his speech to the note cards that he is reading from. c. Wendy uses rote rehearsal to memorize the main ideas of her speech. d. Tillaria mentally returns to her office while giving her speech and thinks of objects that she linked to her main points.

72. According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory, what is the order that information passes through before it can be stored in long-term memory? a. short-term memory, sensory memory, and long-term memory b. sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory c. sensory memory, procedural memory, working memory, and long-term memory d. short-term memory, procedural memory, and long-term memory 73. Eleanor is preparing to become a lawyer by taking the state bar exam. Just before the exam, Eleanor studies nonstop for 12 hours. Eleanor's approach to studying is best described as a. massed practice. b. spaced practice. c. overlearning. d. chunking.

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Chap 07_16e 74. Kyle is in fourth grade and is studying his list of spelling words. The word establishment is on the list, and he is having a difficult time remembering how to spell it. After a few minutes, he divides the letters into small groups (es-tab-lish-ment) and quickly masters the ability to spell it correctly. To help learn the spelling of a lengthy word, Kyle is using a. elaborative processing. b. sensory memory. c. the multimedia principle. d. chunking.

75. Consciously "forgetting" the past experience of dropping your lunch tray in the cafeteria on the first day of high school is an example of a. repression. b. interference. c. suppression. d. mnemonics.

76. You are going to an amusement park with your roommate and riding the double-helix rocket rollercoaster would be stored as a a. procedural memory. b. episodic memory. c. flashbulb memory. d. working memory.

77. Which of the following describes cognitive interviewing? a. the use of various cues and strategies to improve the memory of eyewitnesses b. the practice of mentally "walking" the path of stored memories in a certain order c. the act of adding meaning to information to enhance storage and recall d. the process by which memories are reconstructed or expanded 78. Which of the following processes is most dependent on the network model of memory? a. consolidation b. redintegration c. encoding d. potentiation 79. Mallory has been selected to give a 10-minute TED talk on the groundbreaking work performed by her genetics team. What approach should Mallory use to remember her presentation and not "blank out" in the middle of it? a. mnemonic devices b. elaborative rehearsal c. spaced practice d. progressive-part method

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Chap 07_16e 80. In the context of the network model, the concept of memory structure emphasizes patterns of a. associations. b. cues. c. symbols. d. procedures.

81. Which aspect of memory is substantially impacted by a person's culture? a. access b. encoding c. storage d. accuracy 82. The abbreviations for the chemical elements on the periodic table would be stored as a. semantic memories. b. episodic memories. c. procedural memories. d. iconic memories.

83. Rowan and his best friend are planning a trip to Germany for Octoberfest. They have decided to try to learn some helpful phrases in German before leaving for their trip. What is one method that might be helpful when trying to learn from an English word to a German word? a. mental images b. cognitive interview c. keyword method d. acrostic method 84. Using mnemonic devices is most effective for a. short memory tasks. b. procedural information. c. complex associations. d. witness testimony.

85. Collin practiced a saxophone piece and played it flawlessly at the high school concert. When Collin started college, he was busy and packed his saxophone away. During semester break, Collin unpacked his saxophone and struggled with playing his recital piece. Collin's difficulties can best be explained by a. long-term potentiation. b. cue-dependent forgetting. c. encoding failure. d. memory trace decay.

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Chap 07_16e 86. Which student is making the best choices while studying for a semester final exam? a. Neil makes a list of key terms from the semester's content and memorizes them. b. Farouk wakes up early the day of the exam and reviews his notes for three hours. c. Erin reads her textbook the night before the test then gets a good night sleep. d. Raulena sketches a map of key terms with definitions and lines showing how different topics are related.

87. Which of the following best conveys the current perspective on using eyewitness testimony in the legal system? a. Eyewitness testimony is a fail-safe prosecutorial tool when the witness passes a polygraph test. b. People who witness crimes form flashbulb memories that are invalid due to the high degree of emotional content they contain. c. Witness testimony is not vulnerable to statements that are affected by source confusion because questions are asked in specific ways in the courtroom. d. Eyewitness testimony must be verified or corroborated by other sources before it can be used to make decisions in a court of law.

88. Which of the following comprises a déjà vu experience? a. a false memory b. a partial memory c. a recovered memory d. an implicit memory 89. Ling couldn't understand why the doors on her blue sedan in the parking lot would not unlock. Then she laughed and realized she no longer owned a sedan. She bought an SUV last week and was trying to unlock someone else's sedan! What is Ling experiencing? a. interference b. repression c. redintegration d. suppression 90. Daria lost a child to cancer two years ago and is still heavily grieving. In order for her to get through her daily tasks, she has to push thoughts about losing her child out of her mind and not think about them. Daria's avoidance of memories about the loss of her child is an example of a. memory suppression. b. memory repression. c. negative transfer. d. cue-dependent forgetting.

91. Which of the following best describes explicit memory? a. stored information that cannot be forgotten b. stored information about an intense experience c. stored information focused on specific skills d. stored information that is consciously retrieved

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Chap 07_16e 92. Since receiving a head injury in a car accident, Anton has been unable to remember what he ate for lunch an hour after he is finished. What is Anton experiencing? a. retrograde amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. memory repression d. memory suppression 93. Hassan has one of the lead role in "The Wiz." He has been working on memorizing his lines. Which method is he most likely to use to learn his lines? a. elaborative rehearsal b. spaced practice c. progressive-part method d. whole learning 94. Which of the following describes the process of linking two or more familiar words together to enhance remembering a single piece of information? a. transfer b. mnemonic method c. keyword method d. multimedia principle 95. Why is implicit memory so difficult to study? a. There are no good tests to measure implicit memory. b. People with extraordinary memories are often the focus of research. c. It was previously thought to be working memory. d. It does not operate on a conscious level.

96. Reaching into the fridge to grab an orange and inadvertently grabbing an apple is analogous to which falsememory concept? a. serial position effect b. positive interference c. negative interference d. source confusion 97. Which term defines the feeling that a memory is available but not quite retrievable? a. retroactive interference b. tip of the tongue state c. negative transfer d. false memory

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Chap 07_16e 98. In third grade, DeShaun memorized and recited a poem for the spring festival. Twenty years later, he tried to recite it again and was only able to remember the first line. What likely caused DeShaun to forget the poem? a. memory suppression b. law of disuse c. state-dependence d. proactive interference 99. Carl is getting ready for a trip to Mexico and is practicing his Spanish. In order to remember the Spanish word cerveza for beer, he creates a connection between the words by thinking about a large glass of beer on a "serving" tray with a slice of "pizza" beside it. Carl's method of remembering the words he is learning is best described as a. using an acrostic. b. the method of loci. c. using mental imagery. d. using recitation.

100. A multiple-choice question, like the one you are reading, requires a. recognition. b. recall. c. relearning. d. priming.

101. The idea that people process words and mental images together better than they do words alone is known as a. the multimedia principle. b. the encoding principle. c. the eidetic principle. d. the rote learning principle.

102. What part of declarative memory stores an "autobiographical" record of personal experiences? a. episodic memory b. sensory memory c. procedural memory d. semantic memory 103. Automatically taking the highway exit for your old house after moving to a house near a different highway exit is an example of a. state-dependent forgetting. b. cue-dependent forgetting. c. retroactive interference. d. proactive interference.

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Chap 07_16e 104. Remembering the name of a person you met last year at a film festival is considered which type of memory? a. implicit memory b. sensory memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory 105. On her first day of work at the bakery complex, Naloni's boss introduced her to nine new coworkers, each of whom wore food safety masks. At lunch, Naloni sees the first coworker she met in the break room and can't remember his name. The best explanation for why Naloni can't remember the correct name involves the concept of a. encoding failure. b. serial position effect. c. mnemonic device failure. d. disuse.

106. Ryan is filling out a form to renew his driver's license. He looks quickly at his old license for his license number, reads it to himself, and, after a few seconds of searching for the correct blank, enters it into the blank on the license-renewal form. Ryan is using his a. long-term memory. b. sensory memory. c. short-term memory. d. declarative memory.

107. According to the serial position effect, why are the first few digits in a long string of numbers more likely to be remembered? a. They are rehearsed more. b. They lack interference. c. They receive positive transfer. d. They are already primed.

108. As a child, Kirima listened to old songs about her family's cultural traditions. Now she is working on a presentation for her sociology class. Kirima finds that she can memorize the lyrics to the old family songs that she'd forgotten faster than she can memorize the lyrics to a contemporary song from her native country.

Kirima's experience supports the concept of a. recognition. b. relearning. c. recall. d. priming.

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Chap 07_16e 109. The next time you're struggling to give information to someone and say, "But it's right on the tip of my tongue!" you'll know that the problem is caused by a. the inability to access a stored memory. b. confusion about the memory's source. c. poor encoding of the sensory memory. d. decay of the memory's storage neurons.

110. When you brush your teeth in the morning you are using which of the following types of memory? a. implicit memory b. declarative memory c. semantic memory d. episodic memory 111. Which of the following lies at the core of flashbulb memories? a. emotion b. experience c. imagery d. culture 112. Mahina is asked by her high school physics teacher to define gravity and share an experience from her past that illustrates its effects. Mahina successfully defines gravity and shares an experience about how she once dropped her books in the hall while on her way to class. To answer the teacher's question, Mahina accessed her a. procedural and semantic memory. b. semantic and episodic memory. c. procedural and episodic memory. d. sensory and episodic memory.

113. At lunch with her old high school crew, Dayna's friends all laughed about the time Mr. Bruno's hairpiece fell off in the middle of a lecture. They said it was probably the funniest thing that happened in all of high school. Dayna doesn't remember it, and she's worried that maybe something is wrong with her. Which of the following is likely the reason for Dayna not remembering this big event in her high school experience? a. suppression b. repression c. negative transfer d. encoding failure 114. The concept of disuse is closely associated with which aspect of memory? a. relearning b. retrieval c. encoding d. attention

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Chap 07_16e 115. Which of the following is a way of transferring information from short-term memory into long-term memory by making that information more meaningful? a. elaborative rehearsal b. maintenance rehearsal c. rote rehearsal d. chunking 116. Asher is studying for a geometry exam. He is quickly repeating the formulas over and over in an attempt to memorize them. To help prepare for the exam by moving the formulas from short-term memory into long-term memory, Asher is using a. rote rehearsal. b. elaborative processing. c. chunking. d. maintenance rehearsal.

117. Episodic memory is grounded in which of the following? a. experience b. skill c. knowledge d. emotion 118. False memories can be caused by hypnosis through which of the following? a. suggestion b. redintegration c. interference d. repression 119. Which technique is used by police and attorneys to help improve the memory of witnesses? a. implicit priming b. method of loci c. massed practice d. cognitive interviewing 120. In the context of memory, which term best describes the task you perform when answering an essay question on an exam? a. redintegration b. recognition c. method of loci d. recall

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Chap 07_16e 121. Aki's first car was a manual transmission with a clutch, but his current car is an automatic transmission.

Sometimes when he is driving the new car, he finds himself pushing on the floor where the clutch would be.

This is an example of a. decay b. memory trace c. retroactive interference d. proactive interference 122. Which of the following best describes repression? a. forgetting incidents occurring after a trauma b. forgetting incidents occurring before a trauma c. consciously keeping memories from awareness d. unconsciously burying unpleasant memories 123. Lonnie is trying to sign into her old email account but keeps typing in the password to her new email account.

After three trials, she is locked out of the old account. What caused the door to close on Lonnie's old email account? a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. negative transfer d. positive transfer 124. Arjun is working on his ancient history homework and composing a reply to an essay question on ancient Egypt.

He sees a mental image of the pyramids in his thoughts while he recalls the name of the pharaoh associated with them and the ideas surrounding the purpose of their construction. Arjun is using his a. working memory. b. sensory memory. c. procedural memory. d. episodic memory.

125. Darnell is staring out at a landscape that he is preparing to paint and then turns his eyes to the blank canvas to begin painting. For a brief moment, he sees a mental image of the landscape that quickly fades. Darnell has experienced using his a. echoic memory. b. iconic memory. c. episodic memory. d. working memory.

126. Mayim fell on an icy sidewalk and sustained a head injury. She now has difficulty remembering how to play her flute, entering a text on her cell phone, and tying her shoelaces. Mayim's injury has caused a. dementia. b. decay. c. retrograde amnesia. d. anterograde amnesia.

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Chap 07_16e 127. The process of cognitive interviewing is grounded in which of the following? a. triggering retrieval cues b. promoting eidetic imagery c. deepening memory traces d. activating flashbulb memories 128. In the context of memory, what distinguishes recall from recognition? a. source of memory b. depth of attention c. number of cues d. type of encoding 129. The decay theory of forgetting is grounded in which of the following? a. changes in brain activity b. encoding failure c. interference with previously stored memories d. failure to access memories 130. A Google search, with its series of links from one source of information to another, is a good analogy for the organization of a. episodic memory. b. working memory. c. short-term memory. d. long-term memory.

131. Knowing that you have been learning about memory in your psychology class, your roommate asks you for some advice on where they should study for their biology exam. You tell your roommate, "The best place to study would be their biology classroom." Which of the following supports your suggestion? a. mental images b. state-dependent learning c. elaborative rehearsal d. reconstruction 132. Haruki was treated for depression with electroconvulsive shock therapy. After the treatment, he was unable to remember events from the two days preceding the treatment. The reason Haruki is unable to remember this information is because the ECS treatment disrupted a. his memory consolidation. b. his existing memory traces. c. his retrieval of old memories. d. his semantic memory.

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Chap 07_16e 133. Considering the influence of culture on memory, which statement will most likely be used by a European American to describe a particular past experience? a. I remember how hot and sweaty I felt at the picnic. b. I remember that we all looked for shade at the picnic c. I remember buying cold drinks for everyone at the picnic. d. I remember discussing the heat wave with Joe at the picnic.

134. Although Skylar knows all the formulas for the upcoming statistics exam, Skylar continues studying the information during her 20-minute ride on the bus to and from work each day until the day of the exam. What is Skylar's behavior demonstrating? a. spaced practice b. overlearning c. mass practice d. chunking 135. Telling a friend about the time you went hang gliding in the Alps would be classified as a(n) a. episodic memory. b. flashbulb memory. c. implicit memory. d. eidetic memory.

136. Calvin has always loved looking at the stars and couldn't wait to do the astronomy unit in science class. To help the students learn the order of the planets, the teacher taught them, "My Very Educated Mother Just Served Us Nachos." What did Calvin's teacher provide to enhance the students' memory? a. an acrostic b. a memory trace c. an interference d. an eidetic image 137. According to the multimedia principle, hearing a person introduce himself or herself while noticing the tattoo on their neck will a. help you remember their name. b. establish a flashbulb memory. c. shift your focus toward imagery. d. accelerate the forgetting curve.

138. Which term describes the brief form of auditory memory? a. echoic b. iconic c. flashbulb d. episodic

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Chap 07_16e 139. Which of the following is a concern regarding the concept of flashbulb memories? a. We tend to be overconfident in the accuracy of content in flashbulb memories. b. Flashbulb memories are memories that are extremely accurate. c. Flashbulb memories are rarely memories that we are often reminded of by similar events in the news. d. Flashbulb memories are often sparked by emotional events that engage the limbic system, which leads to inaccurate encoding.

140. Bonifacio is trying to memorize the lyrics to a new song he is rehearsing for a performance. According to the serial position effect, he will remember the lyrics at the a. middle of the song but struggle with remembering the lyrics at the beginning and the end. b. beginning and middle of the song but struggle with remembering the lyrics at the end. c. middle and end of the song but struggle with the lyrics at the beginning. d. beginning and end of the song but struggle with the lyrics in the middle.

141. Which of the following best describes the process of encoding? a. paying attention to information that is presented b. transforming information for retention in memory c. breaking long information strings into smaller bits d. accessing information that is stored in memory 142. Which of the following best describes retroactive interference? a. The tendency for new learning to inhibit retrieval of old learning. b. The inability to retrieve memories due to decay of neuron traces. c. The problem of similar memories jamming during the retrieval process. d. The failure to retrieve memories encoded while in a different bodily condition.

143. What enables information to move from sensory memory into short-term memory? a. consolidation b. attention c. maintenance rehearsal d. elaborative rehearsal 144. Which of the following best reflects state-dependent learning? a. The environmental and emotional conditions that exist when obtaining information can be a strong cue for later retrieval. b. Information learned while drinking caffeine is best remembered while drinking water. c. Only environmental conditions that exist when obtaining information can be a strong cue for later retrieval. d. Retrieval is compromised when existing memories limit accurate encoding of new information.

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Chap 07_16e 145. Kunal's teacher asks him to answer two questions and times his response to each. He answers the question "What is your father's name?" more quickly than he answers the question "What is the name of a famous dog from a television program?" The fact that Kunal required more time to access information for the second question supports which concept? a. redintegration b. false memories c. source confusion d. network model 146. Which of the following best describes suppression? a. forgetting incidents occurring after a trauma b. forgetting incidents occurring before a trauma c. consciously keeping memories from awareness d. unconsciously burying unpleasant memories 147. Regularly putting socks in the top drawer of your bureau and t-shirts in the second drawer is an example of a. implicit memory. b. explicit memory. c. declarative memory. d. iconic memory.

148. The process of priming triggers which type of memories? a. explicit b. sensory c. iconic d. implicit 149. Robbie and Jorge are at dinner on a first date and are sharing stories from their college days. They were surprised to learn that they both went to the same rock concert at the football stadium. To share their stories, Robbie and Jorge were both accessing a. procedural memories. b. semantic memories. c. episodic memories. d. implicit memories.

150. Brendan's fourth-grade teacher asked him what year Americans elected their first Black president. Brendan was able to quickly reply "2008" by accessing his a. procedural memory. b. rote memory. c. episodic memory. d. declarative memory.

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Chap 07_16e 151. Where would the memory of how to ride a bike be stored? a. working memory b. sensory memory c. implicit memory d. episodic memory 152. From a neurological perspective, storage of information in long-term memory creates a. eidetic memories. b. mnemonic links. c. memory traces. d. echoic memories.

153. Wiley is working on a crossword puzzle and trying to think of a five-letter word for the clue "feeling good." He quickly remembers the word happy and enters it into the puzzle. By remembering the correct word to answer the clue, Wiley successfully accessed his a. semantic memory. b. procedural memory. c. rote memory. d. sensory memory.

154. Anterograde amnesia is to retrograde amnesia as a. learning new is to remembering old. b. remembering old is to learning new. c. mild is to severe. d. severe is to mild.

155. When you perform a frequent action without thinking, as if on "autopilot," the memory associated with that action is described as a. implicit. b. partial. c. proactive. d. suppressed.

156. Grey and Jordan enjoy playing Trivial Pursuit and watching Jeopardy!, which require them to answer questions based on their ability to recall facts. These types of games test a. flashbulb memory. b. implicit memory. c. explicit memory. d. sensory memory.

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Chap 07_16e 157. A woman witnesses a child abduction at a public park. Two days later, the woman returns to the park with the police, who encourage her to recall details of the abduction using sights and sounds of the park as retrieval cues.

What memory improvement technique are the investigators using? a. method of loci b. relearning c. acrostics d. cognitive interviewing 158. Lakeisha participated in the celebration when her math league team won the state competition. During the celebration, a team member bumped a table, knocking over a glass but not breaking it. Later that day, the team advisor asked Lakeisha who "shattered" the glass. Lakeisha replied that she wasn't sure, but she remembers that somebody quickly cleaned up the broken glass. Which of the following best describes Lakeisha's response to the advisor? a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. false memory d. flashbulb memory 159. Shaina is looking through the pictures on her phone and sees a photo of a friend from back in high school. This triggers a memory about Shaina's friend going through a difficult time with her parents' divorce. The photo triggering a related memory is an example of a. source confusion. b. elaborative processing. c. retrieval cues. d. procedural memory.

160. Which of the following defines the retrieval of information with a minimum of external cues? a. recall b. priming c. consolidation d. recognition 161. Hearing an old song that triggers a memory, which in turn triggers further associated memories, is an example of a. redintegration. b. positive transfer. c. priming. d. chunking.

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Chap 07_16e 162. Jon remembers the first and last digits of his social security number but can't remember the middle. Jon is experiencing the a. serial position effect. b. middle position effect. c. relearning effect. d. false position effect.

163. What term refers to the origins of a memory being misremembered? a. source confusion b. false memory development c. maintenance non-rehearsal d. short-term memory interference 164. Which of the following plays a key role in transferring information from short-term memory to long-term memory? a. the frontal lobe b. the hippocampus c. the cerebellum d. the pons 165. Which of the following serves as the basis for priming implicit memories? a. cues b. emotions c. symbols d. traces 166. Lana crashed hard into the boards during hockey practice and sustained a head injury. She can remember events before the incident but is having difficulty remembering things that follow the injury. Lana is suffering from a. retrograde amnesia. b. proactive interference. c. disuse of long-term memories. d. anterograde amnesia.

167. Which of the following type of memory is an active mental process that controls the retrieval of information from long-term memory and is used for problem solving? a. working memory b. iconic memory c. episodic memory d. declarative memory

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Chap 07_16e 168. During the softball tournament, Jenna was hit in the head with a line drive and was knocked unconscious. When she came to, Jenna was unable to remember her name, her last meal, and where she was last weekend. Jenna is suffering from a. retroactive interference. b. positive transference. c. retrograde amnesia. d. anterograde amnesia.

169. Anaya, a chemistry student, hears the trivia question "What is the atomic weight of hydrogen?" on the radio and calls in with the correct answer. To access the correct answer from her memory, Anaya directly retrieved the information using a. recognition. b. recall. c. priming. d. relearning.

170. While reading her psychology textbook, Ursula stops at the end of each section to write a summary of that section. She then reads the next section and again writes a summary. Ursula continues this pattern until she has finished reading that chapter. Which method is Ursula using? a. rote learning b. whole learning c. part learning d. overlearning 171. Frank is introduced to Dorothy at a party for the first time and makes a connection in his memory to an image of ruby slippers. Later, Frank uses her name when he says goodbye to Dorothy at the end of the party. Being able to hold Dorothy's name and the image in his short-term memory without interference is an example of a. using sensory memory. b. the multimedia principle. c. chunking. d. rote rehearsal.

172. The tip-of-the-tongue state is primarily a problem of a. access. b. encoding. c. storage. d. decay.

173. Which of the following is best supported by Ebbinghaus' research on forgetting? a. It shows that more than 30 percent of what is learned is remembered after two days. b. It explains why forgetting from long-term memory occurs. c. It suggests that you should cram before a test because a short delay minimizes forgetting. d. It shows that forgetting is rapid at first and is followed by a slow decline.

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Chap 07_16e 174. Which of the following investigators is using the cognitive interview method most effectively? a. Maxwell is returning the witness to the scene of the crime and asking questions about the sights and sounds he or she was hearing when the crime took place. b. Tomas hired a hypnotist to probe deeply into the witness's subconscious mind for information about the crime he or she witnessed. c. Farrah has isolated the witness and is waiting for the truth serum the witness ingested to become activated before questioning. d. Nyla joined with Jaclyn to apply a good-cop/bad-cop interrogation method to the witness.

175. Darlene is trying to remember the name of the haunted house ride she went on during the senior class trip to River Glen Fun Park. Where will Darlene find this information? a. procedural memory b. episodic memory c. declarative memory d. semantic memory 176. Yanni is asked by a passing stranger on the sidewalk for directions to the closest fast-food restaurant. She begins giving directions and suddenly realizes she can't remember the name of the street the restaurant is on, even though she's been there many times. Yanni is likely experiencing a. memory repression. b. tip-of-the-tongue state. c. cue-dependent forgetting. d. the serial position effect.

177. Jamie is reading a text message from his father reminding him to stop at the grocery store after school. While he is reading the text, Jamie remembers the items he needs to buy and also remembers going to the grocery store as a little boy with his father and getting a special treat at the checkout. This is an example of a. redintegration. b. declarative memory. c. tip-of-the-tongue state. d. serial position effect.

178. Research conducted by Herman Ebbinghaus examined how the passage of time impacts memory. Which of the following likely plays a key role in forgetting under this perspective? a. decay b. source confusion c. encoding failure d. interference

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Chap 07_16e 179. Which of the following best describes current understanding of the recovery of repressed memories? a. Recovered memories are accurate and reliable. b. Recovered memories are best accessed through hypnosis. c. Recovered memories are the product of an unconscious event and are only accessible through truth drugs like Amytal. d. The reliability of recovered memories is questionable because methods of accessing them can elicit fantasies that are mistaken for real memories.

180. Which of the following encoding strategies to improve memory is grounded in time and effort? a. spaced practice b. chunking c. long-term potentiation d. overlearning

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Chap 07_16e Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. c 26. a

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Chap 07_16e 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. d 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_16e 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. d 75. c 76. b 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. a 81. b 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_16e 83. c 84. a 85. d 86. d 87. d 88. b 89. a 90. a 91. d 92. b 93. c 94. c 95. d 96. d 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. a 101. a 102. a 103. d 104. d 105. a 106. c 107. a 108. b 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_16e 111. a 112. b 113. d 114. b 115. a 116. a 117. a 118. a 119. d 120. d 121. d 122. d 123. a 124. a 125. b 126. c 127. a 128. c 129. a 130. d 131. b 132. a 133. a 134. a 135. a 136. a 137. a

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Chap 07_16e 138. a 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. b 144. a 145. d 146. c 147. a 148. d 149. c 150. d 151. c 152. c 153. a 154. a 155. a 156. c 157. d 158. c 159. c 160. a 161. a 162. a 163. a 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_16e 166. d 167. a 168. c 169. b 170. d 171. b 172. a 173. d 174. a 175. c 176. b 177. a 178. a 179. d 180. a

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Chap 08_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is a term for basic speech sounds? a. phonemes b. morphemes c. syntax d. heuristics 2. Jeremy is thinking about a car he wants to buy. He can see in his “mind’s eye” the look of the car from different views. Jeremy is using a. mental imagery. b. spatial grammar. c. selective encoding. d. linguistic relativity.

3. Which of the following leads us to see a problem in preconceived terms that hinder our problem-solving efforts? a. mental imagery b. all-or-nothing thinking c. mental set d. illogical thought 4. Brelande is an avid reader. He is scanning books at the bookstore and spends less than three seconds each looking at the front and back covers of the books. After scanning less than five books, he picks up the second title he considered and buys it. Brelande’s method for selecting a book is best described as a. framing. b. representativeness. c. thin-slicing. d. choice overload.

5. Jordan and her spouse like to grocery shop and then quickly guess how much the total price will be at checkout, before they see the total. This quick, intuitive judgment is called a. reflective processing. b. experiential processing. c. synesthesia. d. concept formation.

6. Which of the following terms reflects thinking that is driven by emotions and tends to affect good judgment? a. hot cognition b. functional fixedness c. concept formation d. choice overload

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Chap 08_16e 7. Which of the following accurately describes the approach of experts and novices to problem solving? a. Experts are more likely than novices to have heuristics available for solving problems. b. Experts tend to define problems more rigidly based on similar past experiences. c. Novices spend less time exploring unproductive pathways as compared to experts. d. Novices often use automatic processing, which lowers performance relative to experts.

8. Changing a sentence from "the child throws the toy" to "the child threw the toy" is an example of applying a. transformation rules. b. disjunctive concepts. c. synesthesia. d. reverse vision.

9. Widening your perspective of the world is an advantage of a. convergent thinking. b. functional fixedness. c. brainstorming. d. networking.

10. Kai believes his pet dog is a collie. He searches on the Internet and discovers that a collie has a long, pointed nose, long hair, and a distinctive white pattern over its shoulders. Kai looks at his pet dog and sees a pointed nose, but short hair and no distinctive white pattern over its shoulders. Simon concludes that his pet dog is not a collie. Simon is using a. deductive thought. b. inductive thought. c. heuristics. d. an algorithmic solution.

11. Miranda is a high voltage line utilities worker and is called into an emergency response team's meeting that involves a car accident and a power line. The team has tried every traditional solution they can think of to free the trapped driver of the car. The emergency response team needs Miranda's expertise to develop a creative plan to rescue the driver without anyone getting injured. Miranda drives to the accident site, surveys the damage, and asks the emergency response team members what methods they have already applied in their rescue efforts. Which of the following stages of creative thought is best characterized by Miranda's assessment of the accident site? a. orientation b. preparation c. illumination d. verification

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Chap 08_16e 12. Lance is trying to change his cell phone’s battery, but he can’t locate the small, thin tool used to remove his phone case. Lance looks in his wallet for the small tool and sees a credit card, a guitar pick, and a dime. Lance does not see the tool he has misplaced in his wallet and is still unable to change the phone’s battery. Lance's inability to see the other objects in his wallet as potential substitutes for the phone case tool can be attributed to a. Lance using a random search strategy. b. Lance using an algorithmic solution instead of a heuristic. c. Lance experiencing functional fixedness. d. Lance using inductive instead of deductive thought.

13. Which one of the following best describes the concept of logical thought? a. Using given information and explicit rules to reach new conclusions b. Combining possible ideas originating from a single starting point in new ways c. Applying a shortcut or "rule of thumb" to determine a problem solution d. Applying possible problem solutions in a somewhat random approach 14. Which of the following describes inductive thought? a. drawing conclusions by proceeding from specific information to general principles b. achieving a problem solution by following a series of step-by-step rules c. reducing the number of alternatives that thinkers of a problem must consider d. applying potential solutions in a generally random, trial-and-error approach 15. Ward is three years old and practicing shape recognition with his babysitter. His babysitter shows him a foursided shape and Ward calls it a square. His babysitter shows him a three-sided shape and Ward calls it a square. Ward's babysitter then tells him that squares have four sides and "triangles" have three sides. The babysitter shows Ward the three-sided shape again and he calls it a triangle. By calling the three-sided shape a triangle instead of a square, Ward is showing that he experienced a. the formation of a new concept. b. kinesthetic imagery. c. linguistic relativity. d. spatial grammar.

16. Evan knows that the chance that a flipped coin lands as heads or tails is 50-50. After watching a coin flipped three times result in heads every time, Evan is asked to estimate the chance that it will result in heads the next flip. Evan estimates the chance it will be heads for the fourth flip in a row to be 20 percent. In making his estimation, Evan is a. using convergent thinking. b. ignoring base rates. c. applying automatic processing. d. showing functional fixedness.

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Chap 08_16e 17. In the context of problem solving, what is functional fixedness? a. viewing an item only in terms of its most common use b. failing to identify important elements of a problem c. gaining a practical understanding of the nature of the problem d. mentally reorganizing a problem to make the solution obvious 18. Which of the following terms defines a mental shortcut used to judge if something belongs in a given class based on similarity to other members of the class? a. representativeness heuristic b. base rate c. mental set d. conjunctive concept 19. In the context of insight, what is selective comparison? a. examining new problems in the context of old information or problems already solved b. bringing together seemingly unrelated bits of useful information c. choosing information that is relevant to a problem while ignoring distractions d. gaining a deeper understanding of the nature of a problem 20. Which of the following is the best example of spatial semantics? a. Making the American Sign Language sign for "big" and moving both hands relatively farther apart to show "larger." b. Using the word immense instead of large to accurately convey size. c. Describing an object as "over here" when it is close and "over there" when it is farther away. d. Describing the distance between two places in increments, such as kilometers.

21. Nell is working on developing a thesis for her PhD in environmental science. She is interested in bird migration and reads everything she can find on the subject. The stage of creative thought that her behavior characterizes is most likely a. the orientation stage. b. the preparation stage. c. the incubation stage. d. the illumination stage.

22. Which component of memory focuses on the manipulation of mental images? a. visuospatial sketch pad b. implicit memory c. phonological loop d. central executive

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Chap 08_16e 23. When looking up the definition of a word, you are seeking the word's a. denotative meaning. b. connotative meaning. c. convergent meaning. d. divergent meaning.

24. What is the primary function of a concept? a. to help people recognize significant aspects of the world b. to encode the world into symbols that are easy to manipulate c. to help people understand the meaning of a word or a group of words d. to reduce the likelihood of miscommunication across cultures 25. Which of the following describes a concept? a. a mental category for classifying things based on common features or properties b. an ideal model used as a prime example of a particular category c. a mental picture or visual depiction used in memory and thinking d. a process of thinking, gaining knowledge, and dealing with knowledge 26. Which of the following is a type of mental set? a. choice overload b. functional fixedness c. illogical thinking d. brainstorming 27. Ravi is sitting in class and is considering raising his hand to offer a solution to an insight problem posed to the class by the teacher. However, while Ravi believes he knows the correct answer, he is shy and afraid he will be laughed at by other students if his solution isn't correct. The type of barrier to reasoning that Ravi is experiencing is a. emotional. b. cultural. c. learned. d. perceptual.

28. Which of the following is the best example of kinesthetic imagery? a. Ken moves his hands when he is playing his trumpet. b. Len mentally visualizes his hand and finger placement on a difficult piano piece while his hands and fingers move to imitate the positioning. c. Ben prepares to make his pole-vaulting attempt, closes his eyes momentarily, and wishes himself good luck. d. Wren imagines how afraid she would be standing at the top of the watch tower near the end of the pier.

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Chap 08_16e 29. Mental images are most likely to engage which component of working memory? a. the visuospatial sketch pad b. the phonological loop c. the episodic buffer d. the central executive 30. Which one of the following is a cultural barrier that hinders problem solving? a. values that hold that feelings, intuitions, and pleasure are bad b. freedom of thought and lack of criticism c. promoting unconventional ideas about uses, meanings, and possibilities d. developing habits that lead to a failure to identify important elements of a problem 31. Which of the following is a characteristic of subtractive bilingualism? a. Children speak the majority language at school, but not at home. b. Children speak the majority language at home, but not at school. c. Children do not speak the majority language at home or at school. d. Children speak the majority language both at home and at school.

32. Subconscious problem solving happens in which stage of creative thought? a. incubation b. illumination c. preparation d. orientation 33. Bear is in a hiking competition and sees that all the lead hikers are taking a difficult path down a mountain beside a fast-flowing stream. Bear jumps into the stream and lets the water's current carry him to the leading position in the hike and finishes first. Bear's approach to the taking first place in the hiking competition involved a. divergent thinking. b. convergent thinking. c. automatic processing. d. pattern recognition.

34. Logan is meeting his new boss for the first time. When his boss enters the room, he is tall, appears to be physically fit, has a stern look on his face, and wears his hair cut very short. After meeting his new boss, Logan starts a conversation and asks a co-worker if his boss had any military experience. It is most likely that Logan's question was prompted by a. divergent thought. b. the representativeness heuristic. c. decision framing. d. choice overload.

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Chap 08_16e 35. Fergie is three years old and walking in the park with her grandfather. Just as they start walking, she sees a robin and says, "Robin!" A few moments later, Fergie sees a cardinal and says, "Robin!" Fergie's grandfather corrects Fergie and says, "No, Fergie, that bird is a cardinal because it is red." A little farther down the park pathway, Fergie sees a scarlet tanager and says, "Cardinal!" Fergie's grandfather again corrects Fergie and says, "No, Fergie, that bird is a scarlet tanager because it is red and has black wings." Fergie's understanding of birds is growing because she is learning a. conceptual rules for different species of birds. b. how relational concepts apply to birds. c. how disjunctive concepts apply to birds. d. how to use reflective processing to identify birds.

36. Which of the following is the best example of an algorithmic solution? a. Colleen looks around the house for her keys. b. Colleen looks for her winter coat by searching through every item of clothing hanging in her closet starting from the left and progressing to the right. c. Colleen determines the number of quarts of oil needed to change the oil in her car by reading the owner's manual. d. Colleen estimates that a "serving size" of grape juice is about one measured cup.

37. Children who speak a different language at home than the one they are taught at school tend to fall behind educationally. This phenomenon is called a. subtractive bilingualism. b. choice overload. c. linguistic relativity. d. functional fixedness.

38. A good example of divergent thinking would be a. selecting a flavor of ice cream. b. solving a math problem. c. shopping for a new car. d. thinking of all of the ways “happiness” could be studied.

39. Javier is missing his keys. He starts looking for them in one room of his house, and then looks in every room in order. Javier is applying a. a heuristic approach to find his keys. b. an algorithmic solution to find his keys. c. a random search strategy to find his keys. d. inductive thought to find his keys.

40. Which of the following describes semantics? a. the study of meaning in words and language b. the idea that words reflect our thoughts and behaviors c. the accepted sequence of steps to solve a problem d. the rules for combining sounds and words to create meaning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_16e 41. Mel is talking to her mother on her cell phone and describing to her how she just flipped a pancake into the air and caught it with her frying pan. While Mel is describing the event from an image of the process in her mind's eye, her right hand is moving just as it did during the flip. The process Mel sees in her mind's eye is an example of a. fluency. b. the cross-stimulation effect. c. a kinesthetic image. d. denotative meaning.

42. What are conceptual rules? a. a checklist used to determine whether something is a member of a concept class b. ordered steps by which the solution to a particular problem may be achieved c. rules by which a simple declarative sentence may be changed to other voices or forms d. a set of principles for combining language units into meaningful speech or writing 43. Which of the following refers to the ability to link ideas, questions, or concepts that seem to be completely unrelated initially? a. associating b. brainstorming c. framing d. networking 44. Thinking that is more or less unconscious, automatic, and effortless is called a. experiential processing. b. framing. c. concept formation. d. all-or-nothing thinking.

45. Which of the following sentences uses correct syntax? a. We have two dogs brown in our house. b. Running fast was Angie. c. Damon is happy yesterday. d. The boy the tree fall from.

46. Dalila is watching a football game on television and at half time goes to the refrigerator for a snack. After standing and looking into the well-stocked refrigerator for a few minutes, Dalila decides to get a bottle of water instead. Dalila's decision to drink a bottle of water instead of eating a snack from the refrigerator illustrates the effect of a. framing. b. choice overload. c. base rates. d. representativeness.

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Chap 08_16e 47. Which of the following best defines speech sounds that are collected into meaningful units? a. morphemes b. phonemes c. symbols d. words 48. Which of the following measures divergent thinking by identifying as many applications as possible for an object? a. the unusual uses test b. the consequences test c. the anagrams test d. the Stroop interference test 49. Alphonse is looking for a street in a large city. He drives around the city reading street signs. He eventually sees a sign for the street he is looking for and turns onto the street. Alphonse is using a. a random search strategy. b. a heuristic approach. c. an algorithmic solution. d. inductive thought.

50. Lev’s boss wanted reports turned in by “the end of the day on Friday.” Lev thought “the end of the day” meant 11:59 p.m., while his boss thought it meant 5 p.m. This conflict of interpretation relates to a. semantics. b. prototypes. c. grammatical. d. heuristics.

51. Which of the following examples best characterizes the use of a heuristic to solve a problem? a. Selecting answer "B" on a multiple-choice question because it is the longest in length, and the longest choice is often the correct choice. b. Selecting answer "B" on a multiple-choice question because the other choices have been eliminated after giving them ample consideration time. c. Selecting answer "B" on a multiple-choice question because it hasn't been used in a while. d. Selecting answer "B" on a multiple-choice question because it is the correct answer.

52. Leroy is screening applicants for a position at his music studio. He is looking for a highly creative employee.

Which of the following characteristics would Leroy desire to see less in his applicants? a. fluency b. originality c. flexibility d. fixedness

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Chap 08_16e 53. Which one of the following characterizes expertise? a. a chess player who avoids automatic processing and opts for higher-level problem solving b. a chess player who is rapid, fluid, and insightful c. a chess player who tends to follow rules and plans rigidly d. a chess player who relies on intuition to boost performance 54. Which of the following is the best example of a perceptual barrier blocking insight? a. Fatima believes that eating lunch at noon is a waste of time. b. Every flashlight Fatima has ever used has a push button near the front end of the flashlight to turn it on.

She couldn’t turn on a flashlight she found in a drawer because she didn't realize the push button was located in the back cover of the flashlight. c. Fatima is working on her calculus homework and forgot to make note if the class was assigned the odd numbered problems in the chapter review or the even numbered problems in the chapter review. d. Fatima is driving to school late and can't pass a vehicle that is moving slowly on the route she usually takes.

55. The idea that the words people use both reflect and influence their thoughts is called the a. linguistic relativity hypothesis. b. social constructionism theory. c. representativeness heuristic. d. cross-stimulation effect.

56. Thalia is interviewing a guest and asks the guest, "Do you like sparkly wine?" Her guest replies, "No, I don't like champagne." Thalia quickly adds, "Sorry, I meant sparkly as it has a nice lively color." For the word "sparkly," Thalia and her guest have different a. denotative meanings. b. connotative meanings. c. grammatical structures. d. kinesthetic images.

57. The students in Ms. Jay's biology class are asked to close their eyes and construct in their minds a representation of a frog sitting in the palm of their hand. Next, Ms. Jay asks the students to turn the frog over and "look" to see if the frog has spots on its underbelly. The students in Ms. Jay's class are most likely using a. mental imagery. b. relational concepts. c. a random search strategy. d. automatic processing.

58. The process of working new information into existing concepts is called a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning.

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Chap 08_16e 59. The process of planning how to study for a test involves deliberate concentration and engagement in a. reflective processing. b. rote memorization. c. massed practice. d. intuitive insight.

60. Alvin is looking for a quarter. He reaches into a cloth bag of coins and pulls out a penny. He reaches again into the cloth bag and pulls out another penny. Alvin concludes that the bag is full of pennies. Alvin is using a. deductive thought. b. inductive thought. c. illogical thought. d. a heuristic.

61. Which of the following examples best represents the influence of choice overload? a. Aaron looks for a new car on an Internet website and filters the available cars down to three vehicles he is interested in. b. Erin is shopping and sees a selection of 25 different types of pizzas, and decides to buy frozen lasagna instead. c. Arun sees two different bicycles at the sporting goods store and buys the second one. d. Aaran is at the pet store and chooses one of the five puppies he sees through the window.

62. Which of the following defines a set of rules for making sounds into words and words into sentences? a. grammar b. algorithm c. transformation d. syntax 63. Sometimes when making a decision, we give a choice greater weight if it seems similar to other members of a known class. This is called a. representativeness heuristic. b. framing. c. thin-slicing. d. the base rate.

64. Quickly deciding that you don’t like a new classmate based on your initial meeting is an example of a. thin-slicing. b. convergent thinking. c. framing. d. brainstorming.

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Chap 08_16e 65. In group problem solving, the tendency of one person’s ideas to trigger ideas from others is called a. choice overload. b. functional fixedness. c. brainstorming. d. a cross-stimulation effect.

66. Luka’s English paper is returned, and on the second page of his paper, the sentence "An important part of my life have been all the books I read in college." is circled in red with the note "verb agreement" written in the margin because he should correct the sentence and use the word “has” instead of the word “have.” The error in the sentence is based on a. grammar rules. b. syntax rules. c. transformation rules. d. context rules.

67. Which of the following describes a heuristic? a. a shortcut for finding a solution to a problem b. a trial-and-error approach to problem solving c. an ideal model of a particular concept d. a rule for combining sounds to create meaning 68. Experiencing a rapid series of insights reflects which stage of creative thought? a. preparation b. orientation c. illumination d. incubation 69. Mario is stuck in the snow on a side road on his way home from the grocery store. He tried everything he could think of to get his car out from being stuck and is ready to give up. Suddenly, he remembers that he purchased a bag of cat litter at the store, opens the bag, and throws cat litter under the car's tires. Now the car is able to move forward in the snow and Mario is able to continue on his way. Mario's problem was solved when he experienced a. insight. b. an algorithmic solution. c. deductive thought. d. inductive thought.

70. To determine the number of items in your grocery cart, you likely have to deliberately concentrate and engage in a. reflective processing. b. experiential processing. c. concept formation. d. mental imagery.

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Chap 08_16e 71. In the context of creative thinking, which of the following is showing fluency? a. Georgia can think of 89 ways to use a paper clip. b. Caroline thinks of a new way to filter water. c. Juneau is receptive to others’ ideas. d. London is good at recognizing bad ideas.

72. A problem solution that follows a series of step-by-step rules would best be described as a. algorithmic. b. convergent. c. functional. d. insightful.

73. Which term best describes the connotative meaning of a word or concept? a. personal b. logical c. fixated d. automatic 74. Which of the following terms best describes a functional solution? a. practical b. intuitive c. deductive d. fixated 75. The fact that we can "zoom in" and "rotate" mental images demonstrates that they are primarily a. visual. b. conceptual. c. kinesthetic. d. experiential.

76. Based on the text, an intuitive, associative, or personal thought process would be classified as a. functional. b. random. c. convergent. d. illogical.

77. Which of the following concepts is key when gaining insight while working on a problem? a. selectivity when processing information b. brainstorming ideas c. identifying cultural barriers d. debating semantics

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Chap 08_16e 78. As a person becomes bilingual, he/she is likely to experience a. increased problem-solving abilities. b. less mental flexibility in their native language. c. lower general language skills in both languages. d. limited control of attention.

79. The process of creating new concepts when information does not fit within existing concepts is called a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning.

80. Aspen is known for her ability to combine mental elements in new and useful ways. In other words, she’s known for her a. fluency. b. intuition. c. creativity. d. brainstorming.

81. The experience of "hot cognition" is primarily driven by which of the following? a. emotion b. choices c. fluency d. divergence 82. Euell is test driving a new car. When he sits in the driver’s seat, he looks for an ignition switch with a key to turn and start the car. After looking for the ignition switch for several minutes, Euell steps out of the car to speak to a salesperson. The salesperson explains to Euell that the car uses a keyless ignition and starts the vehicle for Euell. Because Euell, based on his experience, could only think of looking for an ignition switch that used a key, he was unable to start the car. He was experiencing a. a perceptual barrier. b. a cultural barrier. c. a learned barrier. d. an emotional barrier.

83. An image formulated from sensory input from the muscles is defined as being a. kinesthetic. b. experiential. c. visuospatial. d. conjunctive.

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Chap 08_16e 84. Which of the following measures divergent thinking by making as many new words as possible through rearranging the letters of a word? a. the unusual uses test b. the consequences test c. the anagrams test d. the Stroop interference test 85. Which of the following is an accurate example of the influence of linguistic relativity? a. The speakers of Kuuk Thaayorre arrange temporal sequences from east to west. b. The speakers of English typical place adjectives before nouns in a sentence. c. The speakers of Spanish typically place adjectives after nouns in a sentence. d. The speakers of Russian typically use a Cyrillic alphabet instead of a Roman alphabet.

86. Yentl is resting with his eyes closed and is thinking about his best friend. While thinking about his friend's face, Yentl's visual cortex is activated and an image is constructed in his "mind's eye." The face that Yentl sees in his “mind’s eye” is best described as a. a reverse image. b. a mental image. c. a concept. d. a prototype.

87. Which of the following is most characteristic of a concept prototype? a. A golf cart is a vehicle. b. A tomato is a fruit. c. A couch is a piece of furniture. d. An ostrich is a bird.

88. Which of the following is an example of a perceptual barrier that hinders problem solving? a. A beginning composer concentrates on using harmonious notes in a melody without seeing that dissonant notes can also be a part of a music piece. b. A house painter doesn’t have any clean paint trays and fails to see that a baking dish could be used as a paint tray. c. A boss at a produce farm wants to improve employee hand washing, but becomes confused when employees offer unrealistic solutions as they goof around while brainstorming. d. A fashion designer doesn’t try an “outside the box” design due to fearing that other fashion designers will think it is silly.

89. Which of the following is an example of ignoring the base rate of an event’s possibilities? a. Reagan skis without a ski helmet because he feels he is an expert skier. b. Laura wears her seatbelt when she drives three blocks to the grocery store. c. Nancy always secures her children in car seats when she drives them to day care. d. Amy prefers flying home from college over driving the 850 miles to her parent’s house.

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Chap 08_16e 90. In the context of problem solving, understanding a. refers to a deeper comprehension of the problem. b. defines the requirements for the problem solution. c. triggers a sudden mental reorganization of a problem. d. produces a rule of thumb for solving the problem.

91. Which of the following people is using intuitive thinking when solving a problem? a. Kendal reduces the number of choices on a multiple-choice question and chooses the remaining option as his answer. b. Jenna estimates the number of people attending her daughter’s birthday party being held at a fast food restaurant and prepares for the costs accordingly. c. Melanie looks at examples of cars and chooses to purchase the car that gets the best gas mileage. d. Scott is confused at the grocery store when looking at 25 brands of strawberry jam and decides to purchase peanut butter for his lunches next week instead.

92. Creative people tend to a. be open to a wide variety of experiences. b. be more intelligent. c. have a limited range of interests. d. avoid complex tasks.

93. The connotation of a word can vary based on a. the situation in which it is used, more commonly known as the context. b. the location in the sentence in which it is used, more commonly known as the frame. c. the grammatical rules applied when it is used, more commonly known as heuristics. d. the difficulty in using the word, more commonly known as the mental set.

94. An aspect of creative thinking that involves a spirit of discovery and choice is called a. problem finding. b. daydreaming. c. brainstorming. d. fixating.

95. The connotative meaning of a word is a. what a word means to an individual based on their experience. b. the definition of the word in a dictionary. c. the universal meaning of a word. d. the unspoken meaning of a word.

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Chap 08_16e 96. Which of the following defines semantic differential as it applies to the meaning of words? a. a technique by which the connotative meaning of a word can be measured b. a method by which the production and evaluation of ideas is kept separate c. a method by which one person's ideas stimulate creation of ideas from others d. a tendency to perceive a problem such that it blinds us to possible solutions 97. Tamika makes 75 percent of her free throws in basketball games and is standing on the free throw line to make a championship game-winning free throw shot. Which of the following is the best example of ignoring base rates while waiting for Tamika to make her attempt at the free throw? a. A fan supporting the other team is in the stands at the game and bets his friend that Tamika misses the free throw. b. Tamika's teammates are on the sidelines and starting to put on their "We are the champions!" T-shirts. c. Tamika's coach is calling the local newspaper to get a sports reporter on the phone and share the story about the team's championship victory. d. Tamika's mother is chanting "We believe in you!" with other parents in the stands.

98. Although modern life may increase our freedom, our choices may be expanding beyond our capacity to cope.

This best reflects the concept of which of the following? a. incubation b. mental set c. thin-slicing d. choice overload 99. A mental category for classifying things based on common features or properties is a a. concept. b. morpheme. c. heuristic. d. prototype.

100. Kaden is anxious about preparing for a piano recital, and wants to find ways to practice even when there’s no piano around. He closes his eyes and imagines himself playing the piano with his fingers moving across the keys. He is using a. kinesthetic imagery. b. reverse vision. c. synesthesia. d. automatic processing.

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Chap 08_16e 101. Arie is shopping for a vinyl record at a used record store. As she is flipping through the records in the rack, she spends less than three seconds looking at each album cover. After looking at less than seven albums, she selects a record and buys it without looking further at it. The method that Arie is using in her record shopping is best described as a. framing. b. choice overload. c. thin-slicing. d. considering base rates.

102. Which of the following would measure as the most creative person? a. Dillon knows 18 ways to fix a flat bicycle tire, writes original song lyrics in the morning, fixes lawn mower engines in the afternoon, and is hired by the city to create a mural out of scrap iron that shows the importance of recycling. b. Dillon is being awarded the Nobel Prize for chemistry, is interested in discovering new elements, and runs a chemistry lab for Dow Chemicals. c. Dillon enjoys watching television, playing his video games at a competitive level, spending time in the kitchen cooking meals, and wants to graduate from college after saving up the money needed for school. d. Dillon daydreams in class about being a professional athlete and works out every day to keep physically fit.

103. Both speech and sign language a. use spatial grammar. b. follow universal language patterns. c. are non-kinesthetic. d. are based on the idea that the use of gestures followed the use of speech.

104. Three balls were seen while driving in the park. The correct “surface” interpretation of this sentence is a. the sentence is grammatically correct. b. the sentence confuses the reader with unclear content. c. the sentence is grammatically incorrect. d. the sentence uses incorrect word order.

105. Which of the following is a consequence of bilingualism? a. Bilingualism expands employment opportunities. b. Bilingualism improves general cognitive ability. c. Bilingualism negatively impacts both languages. d. Bilingualism is associated with better executive function.

106. Which of the following is most beneficial for language learners? a. remaining monolinguistic b. subtractive bilingualism c. additive bilingualism d. majority language-only classrooms

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Chap 08_16e 107. Which of the following best describes the concept of language? a. words or symbols and the rules for combining them b. movements used to communicate c. thinking converted into verbal sound d. verbal sounds combined with body movements 108. In the context of problem solving, which of the following best describes fixation? a. repeating wrong solutions by not considering alternatives b. gaining a deeper understanding of the problem through insight c. viewing the problem from a variety of past successful solutions d. using a "rule of thumb" to determine the solution quickly 109. Which of the following is the best example of functional fixedness? a. Gunner walks into the house from the garage to get a scissor and cut a piece of fishing string when he has a fingernail clipper in his pocket. b. Gunner uses a dime to turn a large screw back into his locker. c. Gunner walks home after chess club instead of taking the bus. d. Gunner realizes he forgot his lunch when he arrives at school and stops at the office to purchase a lunch ticket.

110. Zhang moved to Canada from China at age 8. Though she was previously taught in Chinese, at her new school, she was taught in English, and her parents encouraged her to speak English with them at home, too. When she returned to China two years later, she found that her Chinese skills had declined. Zhang’s experience characterizes a. two-way bilingual education. b. subtractive bilingualism. c. reflective processing. d. additive-monolingualism.

111. Raven is a painter and is by a river working on a painting of a sailboat catching the wind. Later that afternoon at a coffee shop, Raven meets an aeroscience engineer who is working on the design of a long-distance spacecraft that needs an innovative propulsion system. Later that evening, an idea struck Raven, and he begins developing a space sail that propels spacecraft forward by catching light. The strategy for innovation applied by Raven was a. making associations. b. breaking mental set. c. seeking varied input. d. cross stimulation.

112. Being instructed in English exclusively and then learning a second language is known as a. additive bilingualism. b. selective combination. c. subtractive bilingualism. d. cross-stimulation.

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Chap 08_16e 113. Pau is looking for his keys. He knows that keys are often placed on flat surfaces. He looks on the kitchen counter, scans the bathroom vanity, and continues checking flat surfaces around his house until he finds his keys on the end table next to the couch. Pau is using a. a heuristic to find his keys. b. an algorithmic solution to find his keys. c. a random search strategy to find his keys. d. inductive thought to find his keys.

114. Which of the following best reflects a random search strategy to solving a problem? a. trial-and-error b. step-by-step rules c. rules-of-thumb d. fluency and flexibility 115. Which of the following best characterizes the creative personality? a. Darwin paints pictures of turtles by copying other paintings of turtles. b. Charles is deeply interested in aerodynamics and reads everything he can find about airplanes. c. Robert is never found in the same section of the library and checks out several books a week on different topics. d. Emma is highly intelligent and has tested into a higher grade of elementary school.

116. A problem related to stereotypes is a. all-or-none thinking. b. reflective thought. c. mental set. d. framing.

117. Janay is participating in a speed dating session and meets a dating candidate that looks intelligent, is well manicured, and is humming the melody to Mozart’s Concerto No. 5 when she sits down. Despite knowing that concert-level musicians are quite rare, Janay blurts out, “I bet you are a concert pianist.” Janay’s guess of the dating candidate’s profession was likely influenced by a. ignoring base rates. b. decision framing. c. mental set. d. choice overload.

118. The Arabic language reads from right to left. Ahmad is a native Arabic speaker and always organizes his baseball cards alphabetically from right to left. Ahmad’s preference in how he organizes his baseball cards is an example of a. linguistic relativity. b. bilingualism. c. applying transformation rules. d. using spatial grammar.

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Chap 08_16e 119. A fashion designer doesn’t try an “outside the box” design due to fearing that other fashion designers will think it is silly. Which type of barrier to problem solving does this demonstrate? a. emotional b. cultural c. learned d. perceptual 120. According to Malcolm Gladwell, rapidly making sense of brief slivers of experience is called a. prototyping. b. brainstorming. c. framing. d. thin-slicing.

121. A softball pitcher uses two fingers to signal a specific type of pitch to the catcher. This is an example of a. using gestural language. b. using American Sign Language. c. using phonemes. d. using spatial grammar.

122. Rowan has been working on her physics take-home final for hours and is frustrated that she is not arriving at a solution, no matter what approach to the problem she takes. Rowan decides to take a break and walks around her college campus for two hours. Along her walking path she sees a friend and stops to talk about their plans for the break between semesters. After her walk, Rowan returns to her work on the physics final and suddenly realizes what she was doing wrong in her previous attempts. Very quickly, Rowan successfully finds the correct solution. Which of the following stages of creative thought is best characterized by Rowan's walk around campus? a. orientation b. preparation c. incubation d. verification 123. Which of the following refers to a tendency to view a question in a way that blinds us to possible answers? a. kinesthesia b. framing c. mental set d. choice overload 124. Which of the following describes deductive thought? a. drawing conclusions by proceeding from general principles to specific situations b. producing as many ideas as possible before applying evaluation criteria c. arriving at a problem solution by applying a series of step-by-step rules d. using a shortcut or "rule of thumb" for finding a solution to a problem

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Chap 08_16e 125. When developing concepts, a prototype serves as which of the following? a. a prime example b. a stereotype c. a barrier d. a cognition 126. Having a large amount of specific information reflects which stage of creative thought? a. preparation b. orientation c. illumination d. incubation 127. Dr. Hannah's patient is not responding to treatment and the patient's condition is declining. Dr. Hannah takes a short break to settle her thoughts and suddenly realizes that she overlooked something. After returning to the patient's room, Dr. Hannah orders an alternative treatment, and the patient quickly recovers. Which of the following stages of creative thought is best characterized by Dr. Hannah's experience during her break? a. orientation b. illumination c. verification d. preparation 128. Which of the following is most closely associated with the representativeness heuristic? a. similarity b. culture c. creativity d. logic 129. Danna’s research team loves her because she is able to make a lot of suggestions and generate a large number of ideas. This aspect of creativity is called a. originality. b. flexibility. c. fluency. d. selectivity.

130. Which of the following terms defines the rules that govern the order of words to create meaning? a. syntax b. heuristics c. algorithm d. phonics

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Chap 08_16e 131. Donna is trying to reorganize the furniture in her house in order to make moving through the house more fluid.

Donna asks a number of her friends for their ideas and blends them together to come up with a strategy. The strategy for innovation used by Donna is a. making associations. b. breaking mental set. c. seeking varied input. d. observation.

132. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding mental imagery? a. Mental images are flat like photographs. b. Rotating mental images involves increased activity in the cerebellum. c. Mental images cannot be "zoomed in" on to view more detail. d. We can mentally "pick up" objects and turn them around.

133. Caesar's first language is Spanish. Typically, in the Spanish language, a noun precedes an adjective. In his English language class, he is asked to describe an image of a mountain covered with a lush, green forest.

Caesar states in English with confidence, "That is a picture of a mountain green." Caesar's English language teacher replies, “Caesar, in English, an adjective typically precedes a noun. An improved way to say it would be ‘a picture of a green mountain.’" The teacher's correction is based on a. syntax rules. b. transformational rules. c. denotative meaning of the word mountain. d. denotative meaning of the word green.

134. Dev daydreams often, shares ideas that defy logic, and can name numerous ways to use recycled water bottles.

Dev's characteristics suggest that he is a. highly creative. b. a convergent thinker. c. functionally fixed in his thinking. d. experiencing cultural barriers to thought.

135. Kai is trying to explain to his five-year-old daughter what the word “animal” means. When thinking of an example to use for his explanation, the image that first comes to Kai’s mind is a dog. By using the example of the word “dog” to explain what the word “animal” means, Kai is using a. a conjunctive concept. b. a prototype. c. the connotative meaning of the word. d. inductive reasoning.

136. A social stereotype refers to a. describing groups or types of people in simplistic terms. b. a culturally based approach to framing problems. c. a learned barrier to solving problems. d. a set of rules for a using a specific language.

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Chap 08_16e 137. Kel is trying to select a breakfast cereal, but is overwhelmed by the wide variety of cereals available at the store. This is an example of which of the following? a. choice overload. b. thin-slicing. c. hot cognition. d. cold cognition.

138. Which of the following terms is most closely related to semantics? a. meaning b. sound c. gesture d. emotion 139. Which of the following is characteristic of basic cognition? a. Processing an internal mental representation of a situation or a problem b. The terms in which a problem is stated or the way that it is structured c. The process of classifying information into meaningful categories d. The practice of following rules to derive new conclusions from given information 140. Max is in their studio painting a picture of a landscape that they remember seeing 20 years ago and have not seen again. When the painting is finished, Max finds an image of the same landscape on the Internet and compares it to their painting. They find that the two landscapes are nearly identical, indicating that Max has very good imaging abilities. It is likely that Max will a. score higher on tests of creativity. b. score higher on tests of perseverance. c. score higher on concept tests. d. score higher on inductive reasoning tests.

141. Which of the following is an example of a learned barrier that hinders problem solving? a. A house painter doesn’t have any clean paint trays and fails to see that a baking dish could be used as a paint tray. b. A boss at a produce farm wants to improve employee hand washing, but becomes confused when employees offer unrealistic solutions as they goof around while brainstorming. c. A fashion designer doesn’t try an “outside the box” design due to fearing that other fashion designers will think it is silly. d. A beginning composer concentrates on using harmonious notes in a melody without seeing that dissonant notes can also be a part of a music piece.

142. In the context of problem solving, what do we call a solution that correctly states the requirements for success, but not in enough detail for further action? a. functional solution b. general solution c. understanding d. a heuristic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_16e 143. While shopping for shoes, Ira puts on a pair of expensive shoes that he loves, but are priced out of his budget.

Despite not having enough money, Jeremy buys the shoes on a credit card. Ira’s purchase of the expensive shoes suggests that his decision was influenced by a. framing. b. choice overload. c. emotion. d. base rates.

144. Which of the following accurately represents the relationship between problem solving and culture? a. Every culture prepares its members to solve some problems more easily than others. b. Our ability to use selective comparison develops uniformly irrespective of our culture. c. Being exposed to a similar problem in the past does not necessarily help one to solve a problem easily. d. Learning about other cultures can make our thinking less flexible and resourceful.

145. Which of the following best characterizes the incubation stage of creative thought? a. Cheryl is worrying about her children getting an evening meal, but she stays late to figure out how to fix the metal press she operates at work. b. Cheryl is struggling with an essay assignment in her philosophy class, closes her books, and goes for a long walk. c. Cheryl is in a tanning booth waiting for the timer to stop and thinks about how she is going to get all of her new outfits in one suitcase for her vacation. d. Cheryl started college and finished her first year successfully and now is out of money for tuition. After thinking about it, she decided to stop taking classes until she catches up on her bills by working full-time at her job.

146. Nima is visiting Tokyo, Japan. During a ride on the subway, Nima is sniffling and needs to blow her nose.

However, it is considered inappropriate to blow your nose in public in Japan. The type of barrier to problem solving that Nima is experiencing is a. emotional. b. cultural. c. perceptual. d. learned.

147. Which of the following accurately describes concept formation? a. the process of classifying information into meaningful categories b. the process of thinking, gaining knowledge, and dealing with knowledge c. the process of experiencing one sense in terms normally associated with another sense d. the process of setting rules for combining language units into meaningful speech or writing

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Chap 08_16e 148. Which of the following statements is most characteristic of how thought can be influenced by linguistic relativity? a. Indigenous Canadians can think of more words for snow than people who speak English can. b. Kanzi uses 250 lexigrams to communicate, including symbols for abstract concepts like "bad" or "good." c. American Sign Language can be used to convey abstract concepts. d. Speakers of Kuuk Thaayorre make references to absolute directions (i.e., north and south), rather than left or right when describing the location of objects.

149. In the context of insight, what is selective encoding? a. choosing information that is relevant to a problem while ignoring distractions b. bringing together seemingly unrelated bits of useful information c. comparing new problems with old information or with problems already solved d. identifying how the current situation differs from the desired goal 150. In the context of insight, what is selective combination? a. bringing together seemingly unrelated bits of useful information b. comparing new problems with old information or prior solutions c. identifying how the current situation differs from the desired state d. choosing information that is relevant to a problem while ignoring distractions 151. Alex was working on a new way to ignite the fuel in the engine of a car to create power. Alex tried changing fuel types and different levels of fuel compression. The strategy for innovation used by Alex was a. experiential processing. b. reflective processing. c. thin-slicing. d. kinesthetic imagery.

152. When is Tyler most likely to be engaged in kinesthetic imagery? a. When she is trying to remember where her keys are. b. When she is rock climbing and trying to plan her next few moves. c. When she is reciting a poem from memory. d. When she is picturing the ingredients for the dinner she wants to make.

153. Kennedy was recently hired as CEO of a company that was restructuring. In order to become familiar with the employees and learn what ideas they might have, Kennedy dressed in a uniform and went out on the floor of the factory to work as a member of the maintenance crew. The strategy for innovation used by Kennedy was a. brainstorming. b. making associations. c. observation. d. thin-slicing.

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Chap 08_16e 154. A person who relies on insight to solve a problem would a. reorganize the problem to see it in new ways. b. generate a possible solution and test it. c. ignore alternatives and produce a faulty solution. d. work backward from the desired goal to the current state.

155. Which of the following people is experiencing additive bilingualism? a. Luna is a native English speaker receiving instruction in English and taking a Spanish language class. b. Martin is a native Spanish speaker receiving instruction in English. c. June is a native Spanish speaker receiving instruction in English in the morning and Spanish in the afternoon. d. Sage is a native English speaker receiving instruction in English in the morning and Spanish in the afternoon.

156. The best creative solution to a problem is a. relevant. b. unique. c. intuitive. d. convergent.

157. Which of the following defines framing? a. the terms in which a problem is stated or the way that it is structured b. creating a mental category for classifying things based on common properties c. creating mental pictures or visual depictions used in memory and thinking d. the phenomenon of experiencing one sense in terms normally associated with another sense 158. Which of the following is being most creative when making associations? a. Howard is making a connection between gasoline and diesel engines in his efforts to develop a new combustible fuel source. b. Hugh is making a connection between the way birds fly and the way camels walk through the desert in his efforts to develop a new dishwasher design. c. Amelia is making a connection between light chocolate and dark chocolate in her efforts to develop new toppings for ice cream sundaes. d. Earia is making a connection between the rubber used to make tires and playground safety equipment bumpers in her efforts to improve helmet designs for athletes.

159. Which of the following is most accurate regarding making associations to things that appear unconnected at first glance? a. Unusual connections are easier to make when one has had diverse experiences. b. Working with people who have diverse experiences lowers your ability to make unusual associations. c. Making unusual associations is more difficult when one has had diverse experiences. d. Past experience is not correlated with one’s ability to make unusual associations.

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Chap 08_16e 160. Addison was working on a new way to ignite the fuel in the engine of a car to create power. Addison tried changing fuel types and different levels of fuel compression. The strategy for innovation used by Addison was a. experimentation. b. making associations. c. seeking varied input. d. breaking mental set.

161. When selecting a meal at a fast-food restaurant, Julie reads on the menu that the burgers are 15 percent fat and leaves the restaurant. At the next restaurant, Julie reads on the menu that the burgers are 85 percent beef, and she orders a burger. Julie's choice for a meal appears to be influenced by a. framing. b. choice overload. c. the representativeness heuristic. d. emotion.

162. Which of the following statements best reflects the application of a transformation rule? a. Tense is used to reference time. b. Sentences need a subject and a verb. c. Changing an adjective influences the noun when they are paired together. d. Adding a suffix to the end of a verb changes the tense of the verb.

163. Which of the following describes mental images? a. picture-like internal representations of thoughts b. words or symbols and rules for combining them c. categories for classifying things based on common features d. idealized models of a diverse group of objects or concepts 164. An algorithmic approach to solving a problem would best be described as a. logical. b. divergent. c. fixated. d. intuitive.

165. Sinead is able to quickly spot a flaw in computer code because of her experience she has as a programmer.

This quick and relatively effortless thinking based on experience with similar problems is called a. automatic processing. b. convergent thinking. c. intuitive thought. d. brainstorming.

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Chap 08_16e 166. In the context of divergent thinking, you would list the results of making a basic change in the world in the a. consequences test. b. anagrams test. c. unusual uses test. d. reverse vision test.

167. Which of the following is an effective way to break a mental set? a. Promote the use of "hot cognition" strategies. b. Derive insight from past successful solutions. c. Relate the problem to words in the dictionary. d. Use broad framing for the problem being considered.

168. Jung is visualizing himself on vacation at a beach, staring at the ocean. Which of the following is likely happening in Jung’s visual cortex? a. The beach is represented by activity in his visual cortex as though he is looking at an actual beach. b. Nothing, because he is not actually looking at anything. c. It is communicating with other parts of his brain to relax. d. It is showing similar patterns to sleep.

169. Lillian, a world champion poker player, is teaching her 17-year-old granddaughter Anjelica how to play a popular poker game known as Texas Hold'em. When the first two cards are dealt out to begin the game, Lillian looks at her cards and immediately knows whether she wants to opt out of the game or continue to play for a win; however, her granddaughter takes several minutes to make the same decision. The speed of Lillian's decisionmaking during the game is an example of a. automatic processing. b. convergent thinking. c. functional fixedness. d. inductive thought.

170. In brainstorming, production of ideas is a. separated from evaluation. b. less important as evaluation. c. discouraged. d. equally important to evaluation.

171. Which of the following is an example of a categorical prototype? a. A car is an example of “vehicle.” b. An ostrich is an example of “bird.” c. A large mixing bowl is an example of “sink.” d. A large cardboard box is an example of “toy.”

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Chap 08_16e 172. Which one of the following is a characteristic of kinesthetic images? a. They are primarily processed by the visuospatial sketchpad. b. They can help us process ideas when we are thinking or talking. c. They represent an idealized version of a particular concept. d. They reflect a relatively rare crossover of sensory experiences.

173. Ida brought a group of community members together to discuss what could be done to help the elderly in the community make better use of the city bus service. Ida invited business owners, members of the fire and police departments, day care workers, staff members at the local hospital, and elderly community members to the discussion. The strategy for innovation used by Ida was a. seeking varied input. b. making associations. c. cross-stimulation. d. observation.

174. Gabby sat her sales team down and asked for ideas to consider for the company's next sales plan. The sales team was instructed that all ideas were welcome, and no criticism of ideas was allowed. The strategy for innovation used by Gabby was a. brainstorming. b. making associations. c. thin-slicing. d. observation.

175. Which of the following is a finding of Daniel Kahneman and Amos Tversky with respect to intuitive thought? a. Intuitive thinkers overemphasize the probability of an event. b. When faced with uncertainty, human judgment tends to be flawed. c. Intuitive thinking benefits from an abundance of alternative choices. d. People usually make decisions logically because it is more efficient.

176. When you look at a selfie of a person on your phone and determine if he or she is surprised or fearful, you engage in a. experiential processing. b. reflective processing. c. concept formation. d. convergent thinking.

177. A boss at a produce farm wants to improve employee hand washing, but becomes confused when employees offer unrealistic solutions as they goof around while brainstorming. Which barrier to problem solving does this demonstrate? a. cultural b. perceptual c. emotional d. learned

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Chap 08_16e 178. The active discovery of problems to be solved is called a. thin-slicing. b. brainstorming. c. divergent thinking. d. problem finding.

179. Defining the problem and identifying its important dimensions is a characteristic of which stage of creative thought? a. orientation b. preparation c. incubation d. illumination 180. According to the Innovator's DNA project, which of the following is a key "discovery skill" demonstrated by innovative people? a. promoting choice overload b. avoiding unusual or wild ideas c. limiting cross-stimulation d. observing and experimenting

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Chap 08_16e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. b

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Chap 08_16e 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. d 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_16e 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. a 67. a 68. c 69. a 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. d 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. c 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_16e 83. a 84. c 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. a 90. a 91. b 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. c 98. d 99. a 100. a 101. c 102. a 103. b 104. a 105. a 106. c 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_16e 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. c 116. a 117. a 118. a 119. a 120. d 121. a 122. c 123. c 124. a 125. a 126. a 127. b 128. a 129. c 130. a 131. c 132. d 133. a 134. a 135. b 136. a 137. a

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Chap 08_16e 138. a 139. a 140. a 141. a 142. b 143. c 144. a 145. b 146. b 147. a 148. d 149. a 150. a 151. a 152. b 153. c 154. a 155. a 156. a 157. a 158. b 159. a 160. a 161. a 162. d 163. a 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_16e 166. a 167. d 168. a 169. a 170. a 171. a 172. b 173. a 174. a 175. b 176. a 177. a 178. d 179. a 180. d

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Chap 09_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Who conducted one of the first longitudinal studies on giftedness and social success? a. Lewis Terman b. Howard Gardner c. Alfred Binet d. Robert Sternberg 2. Which of the following is one of the controversies surrounding the use of intelligence tests? a. The scores from IQ tests do not have a normal distribution. b. Intelligence tests do not show a difference between genders. c. The tests are not designed to be used for predicting achievement. d. The results of these assignments have been misused regarding differences based on a person's race.

3. Which one of the following is a sign of a gifted child? a. a tendency to seek out pets and other animals b. an aversion to social situations c. talking in complete sentences as early as two to three years of age d. low fluid intelligence and high-crystallized intelligence 4. Lia took an IQ test that showed she has a 112 on verbal comprehension, an 88 on perceptual reasoning, and a 100 on general intelligence. Which test did she take? a. the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scales-Fourth Edition b. the Scholastic Aptitude Test c. the Stanford Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition d. the American College Test 5. An ability to become aware of one’s own thinking habits is called a. experiential intelligence. b. neural intelligence. c. artificial intelligence. d. reflective intelligence.

6. An ability to manage one’s own thinking and problem-solving efforts is called a. metacognitive skill. b. artificial intelligence. c. framing. d. prototyping.

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Chap 09_16e 7. Which one of the following is a disorder caused by the development of the brain in a limited spaced due to the extremely small size of the skull? a. cretinism b. microcephaly c. hydrocephaly d. phenylketonuria 8. The average cognitive ability displayed by a person refers to his/her a. mental age. b. psychological age. c. biological age. d. social age.

9. Which group of medical diagnoses causes intellectual disability by affecting energy production and use in the body? a. metabolic disorders b. genetic abnormalities c. birth injuries d. fetal deviations 10. Which one of the following statements best describes emotional intelligence? a. the ability to perceive, use, and understand feelings in ourselves and others b. speed and efficiency of the nervous system c. specialized knowledge and skills acquired over time d. the ability to become aware of one’s own thinking habits 11. Carli is a four-year-old European American child who has an IQ score of 120. What is Carli’s best chance for academic success? a. Carli should be exposed to enriching educational and environmental experiences. b. Carli should transfer to a charter school. c. Carli should work on improving her practical intelligence. d. Carli should attend a Head Start program.

12. Which one of the following is a description of the type of questions asked to assess the knowledge factor in the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition? a. Answer the question—Suppose that you are going east, then turn right, then turn right again, then turn left. In what direction are you facing now? b. Answer the question—What is silly or impossible about this picture? (For example, a bicycle has square wheels.) c. Solve the problem—If a shirt is being sold for 50 percent of the normal price, and the price tag is $60, what is the cost of the shirt? d. Answer the question—How are an apple, a plum, and a banana different from a beet?

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Chap 09_16e 13. A person's ability to reason and solve problems that is not directly to related to their education is a. g-factor. b. linguistic intelligence. c. crystallized intelligence. d. fluid intelligence.

14. Which one of the following is a description of the type of questions asked in the working memory part of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition? a. Answer the question—Why is yeast added to bread dough? b. Solve the problem—Given the numbers 3, 6, 9, 12, what number would come next? c. Choose pictures that show how a piece of paper would look if it were folded or cut. d. After hearing several sentences, name the last word from each sentence.

15. Which one of the following is used to identify the relative impact of heredity and environment on the development of intelligence? a. early childhood education programs b. psychometric tests c. twin studies d. culture-fair tests 16. Metacognitive skills are developed by applying a. reflective intelligence. b. neural intelligence. c. artificial intelligence. d. experiential learning.

17. Justin is a high school student who is discussing different career options with his guidance counselor. Justin has been taking classes at the vocational school and working as an electrician apprentice on the weekends. Justin's guidance counselor believes that Justin is gaining in which of the following? a. neural intelligence b. reflective intelligence c. metacognitive intelligence d. experiential intelligence 18. If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which pair should show the highest correlation between IQ scores? a. brothers and sisters b. parents and children c. identical twins d. fraternal twins

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Chap 09_16e 19. In the field of artificial intelligence, machine learning refers to a. predictions made by computers. b. computers choosing between a variety of sources for answers to questions. c. computers preforming impressive feats through programming. d. computers mimicking the human brain.

20. A person's ability to use specific knowledge acquired over a lifetime that is highly related to their education is a. g-factor. b. linguistic intelligence. c. crystallized intelligence. d. fluid intelligence.

21. How do emotionally intelligent people typically use their emotions? a. They practice acting confident until they actually feel it. b. They internalize their feelings when interacting with others. c. They keep their good fortunes to themselves to help others feel comfortable. d. They use their feelings to enhance decision making.

22. A rapid rise in IQ scores in Western, industrialized nations over the last 50 or so years is called the a. Flynn effect. b. Tryon effect. c. Terman effect. d. Binet effect.

23. Imagine you are both wise and intelligent. Which statement would best describe you? a. You have an IQ score of at least 140 and good genes. b. You make friends easily and have a large support network. c. You are virtuous and have high mechanical and artistic aptitudes. d. You are creative, reasonable, and approach life with tolerance.

24. The speed and efficiency of the nervous system is called a. neural intelligence. b. reflective intelligence. c. neural network. d. glial network.

25. Computers that are able to follow clearly stated rules about complex skills are called a. neural networks. b. learning machines. c. intelligence indexes. d. expert systems.

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Chap 09_16e 26. Which one of the following statements most accurately represents the findings of twin studies? a. Identical twins who grow up in the same family have poorly correlated IQs. b. When identical twins are reared apart, their IQs are found to be highly correlated. c. Differences in adult intelligence are roughly 50 percent hereditary. d. Identical twins who are reared together differ by as much as 50 IQ points.

27. Which individual has a brain that is consistent with a high IQ score? a. Stella, who has a large frontal lobe b. Stephanie, who has an active cortex and few cell body clumps c. Stefan, who has a lot of nuclei in his brain d. Sven, who has a large, interconnected cortex 28. The research on identical twins would most likely agree that separated twins often have similar IQ scores because they a. share 50% of their genes. b. grow in the same womb before birth. c. have identical genes. d. tend to have similar personality traits.

29. An IQ derived statistically from a person’s relative standing in his or her age category is called a/an a. quotient IQ. b. full-scale IQ. c. median IQ. d. deviation IQ. 30. Mia is 14 years old. She has a mental age of 18. Which of the following can we conclude about Mia’s IQ? a. Her IQ score is 100. b. She has high verbal ability and high fluid intelligence. c. Her IQ score is above average. d. She has a below-average IQ and special mental abilities.

31. Which disorder results in intellectual disability when fluid builds in the brain? a. cretinism b. microcephaly c. phenylketonuria d. hydrocephaly

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Chap 09_16e 32. Your friend Leah is the mother of three children ranging in age from three to nine. Leah is considering enrolling her youngest in Head Start, but she wants to ensure the program will be beneficial for her child. Which of the following would you tell Leah? a. Her child will be prepared for the school system but will have difficulty making friends once he or she starts school. b. Her child will make academic gains that may not persist, but the program still offers social, developmental, and cultural advantages. c. The program probably won’t adequately prepare her child for school but may raise his or her IQ. d. The program has not been adequately studied but may still help her child with his or her academic performance.

33. Solving new problems that involve perceptual speed or quick insight involves specific mental abilities called a. fluid intelligence. b. aptitude. c. reliability. d. validity.

34. The best predictor of a child’s intelligence is their a. motivation. b. genetics. c. IQ score. d. socioeconomic status.

35. Jake is 80 years old. He knows a lot of words but doesn’t think as quickly as his 21-year-old granddaughter, Talia. Jake will probably score higher than Talia on a test of a. fluid intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence. c. interpersonal intelligence. d. musical intelligence.

36. Zara's mental age is higher than her chronological age. Which of the following can we correctly assume about her IQ score? a. Her IQ score will be lower than the average. b. Her IQ score will be over 100. c. Her IQ score will be classified as superior. d. Her IQ score will have a decimal in it.

37. The higher-level mental processes that allow us to regulate and coordinate our own thought processes are called a. cognitive functions. b. primary functions. c. neural functions. d. executive functions.

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Chap 09_16e 38. Any IQ score from 90 to 109 is defined as a. bright normal intelligence. b. dull normal intelligence. c. average intelligence. d. borderline intelligence.

39. Cliff is an adult who lives with his parents and has difficulty with adaptive behaviors. Cliff has an IQ of 50 and can replicate any piece of music on his piano after only hearing it once. Which statement best describes Cliff? a. Cliff and his parents are intellectually disabled. b. Cliff has fetal alcohol syndrome. c. Cliff is classified as profoundly disabled. d. Cliff has savant syndrome.

40. Which one of the following statements refers to metacognitive skills? a. an ability to manage one’s own thinking and problem-solving efforts b. the speed and efficiency of the nervous system c. specialized knowledge and skills acquired over time d. an ability to become aware of one’s own thinking habits 41. Dr. Lee studies how AI can mimic human learning and thinking. Dr. Lee is most likely working in a. metacognition. b. expert systems. c. artificial systems. d. machine learning.

42. An average score made by a large group of people like those for whom the test was designed is called the a. norm. b. objective. c. standard. d. g-factor.

43. Which one of the following is a type of intellectual disability that appears in infancy and is caused by an insufficient supply of a specific type of hormone? a. Savant syndrome b. microcephaly c. fragile X syndrome d. congenital hypothyroidism 44. The two questions, “Is it reliable?” and “Is it valid?” are fundamental to a. fluid reasoning. b. one’s aptitude. c. artificial intelligence. d. psychometric testing.

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Chap 09_16e 45. Ms. Franklin is a first-grade teacher at the school where you work. Ms. Franklin notices that her student, Amari, seems restless in class, frequently challenges her teachers' lessons, and spends her lunch talking to the adult lunch monitors. Which of the following would you recommend to Ms. Franklin? a. Encourage Ms. Franklin to have Amari evaluated for giftedness. b. Explain to Ms. Franklin that her lessons are not challenging enough for first grade. c. Reassure Ms. Franklin that Amari will make friends her own age and succeed at her own pace. d. Suggest that Ms. Franklin talk with Amari's family about having her evaluated for an intellectual disability.

46. Which one of the following statements best describes giftedness? a. It refers to the possession of a high IQ or of special talents or aptitudes. b. It refers to mental age divided by chronological age times 100. c. It refers to the average cognitive ability displayed by people of a given age. d. It refers to an average score for a designated group of people.

47. Since the 1990s, the World Health Organization has recommended that people around the world use iodized salt to prevent disorders caused by iodine deficiency. Based on an understanding of how iodine affects intellectual development, you can infer that this initiative has substantially reduced the incidence of a. congenital hypothyroidism. b. phenylketonuria. c. fragile X syndrome. d. microcephaly.

48. Every May, Pinehaven Health, Inc. administers the Counseling Psychology Exam for those interested in working as counseling psychologists at Pinehaven Health. Test-takers are divided into groups of 20 and are given three hours to complete the exam. Each year, all test administrators read the same instructions to their groups. Results are then compared to the average score of a group of counseling psychologists. This is an example of test a. scoring. b. validity. c. standardization. d. reliability.

49. What can we conclude from the finding that children with high IQs tend to do better in school than children with lower IQs? a. Those with a higher IQ are typically more successful than individuals with lower IQs. b. High IQ reveals potential and does not guarantee success. c. In order to be successful, those with a high IQ must be well-educated and have a high socioeconomic status. d. Those with a high IQ are naturally persistent and motivated to learn throughout life.

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Chap 09_16e 50. Which individual is engaging in an activity that is controlled by a part of the brain important to intelligence? a. Bill is birdwatching in the park. b. Shea is working on a Rubik's cube. c. Rosa is finishing her spelling test. d. Pete is learning to speak German.

51. Sky and Maddie are both 15 years old and have been best friends since kindergarten. Sky attended an ECE program in preschool, but Maddie did not. According to the research on ECE programs, who is more likely to graduate from high school? a. Maddie is more likely to graduate from high school. b. Sky is more likely to graduate from high school. c. Sky and Maddie are equally likely to graduate from high school as there are no long-term effects of ECE programs. d. Sky will graduate high school with honors since ECE programs increase IQ score, but Maddie will also graduate from high school.

52. Nic is a 16-year-old with poor emotion regulation skills. Which of the following statements represents the most likely outcome if Nic does not manage emotions appropriately? a. Nic will lack empathy for others. b. Nic will eventually have difficulty reading facial expressions in others. c. Nic will show lower scores on standardized IQ tests. d. Nic will probably develop health complications.

53. Which one of the following is a characteristic of children with familial intellectual disability? a. Affected children often live in poor neighborhoods with families below the poverty line and it can be prevented with better nutrition and education. b. Affected children are usually placed on a diet low in phenylalanine, the substance that the body can't handle. c. Affected children are only mildly intellectually disabled during early childhood but are often severely intellectually disabled as adults. d. Affected children are treated with hormone replacement therapy during infancy before permanent damage occurs.

54. Intelligence assessed by solving puzzles, assembling objects, completing pictures, and other nonverbal tasks is called a. multiple intelligence. b. general intelligence. c. performance intelligence. d. special intelligence.

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Chap 09_16e 55. Samantha has received poor test scores her entire life. She repeated the fifth grade and struggled academically throughout high school. Samantha eventually earned her associate degree in culinary arts, became a certified working chef, and now owns her own thriving restaurant. Samantha enjoys a full life with a large support network and ample financial resources. Which of the following is the best explanation for Samantha's success? a. Samantha was able to achieve her goals with community support despite her borderline intelligence. b. Samantha has savant syndrome and has a special aptitude for cooking. c. Samantha's family did not value intellect, which prevented her from reaching her full potential at a young age. d. Samantha's intelligence is not measured by standardized tests.

56. When chronological age exceeds mental age, one’s IQ score will be a. less than 100. b. at least two standard deviations below the mean. c. at least one standard deviation above the mean. d. more than 100.

57. The 2 percent of individuals who score above 130 on IQ tests are usually described as a. profound. b. borderline. c. savant. d. gifted.

58. Jack and Jake are fraternal twins who both have IQs of 110 and were raised in the same environment. Which of the following can we assume about them? a. They were adopted at birth. b. Their parents probably treated them more alike than ordinary siblings. c. They have the same genes. d. They came from the same egg that was fertilized at the same time.

59. According to Gardner, the different kinds of intelligences can be thought of as a. aptitudes. b. social skills. c. genetic abilities. d. physical boundaries.

60. Brain imaging studies have shown that people with higher IQ have a. larger limbic systems. b. larger frontal cortexes. c. no differences in the size of the cortex. d. larger left hemispheres.

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Chap 09_16e 61. According to a popular theory, the core of intelligence is an overall mental ability called the a. g-factor. b. digit span. c. norm. d. quotient.

62. Which one of the following statements is an accurate representation of the association between IQ and age? a. The IQ scores of young children become less reliable as they grow older. b. After middle childhood, IQ scores usually change very little from year to year. c. Knowing a child's IQ at age three tells us a great deal about what her IQ will be in adulthood. d. Knowing a child's IQ at age 11 is a poor predictor of his IQ later in life.

63. Which of the following will most likely occur if one improves their metacognitive skills? a. One’s nervous system will become more efficient. b. One will acquire more specialized skills. c. One’s problem-solving ability will improve. d. One will have enhanced reaction time.

64. Ayana hopes to be a pilot. She is taking a test that measures her capability with the skills necessary to fly a plane. The test is an example of a/an a. special aptitude test. b. intelligence test. c. multiple aptitude test. d. crystallized intelligence test.

65. Your sister has a baby, Marley, who was born with an intellectual disability. Your sister was unprepared for the diagnosis and is unsure what the future holds for Marley. Which of the following would you tell her? a. Reassure her that Marley's disability can be effectively treated with adequate medical care. b. Explain that now there are many wonderful institutional settings that will provide excellent care for Marley. c. Encourage her to consider not having more children, as most intellectual disabilities are hereditary. d. Remind her that regardless of her diagnosis, Marley will benefit from support and a place in the community.

66. What percent of the population scores above 130 on IQ tests? a. 2.2 b. 1.0 c. 3.5 d. More than 5.0

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Chap 09_16e 67. According to David Perkins, which one of the following statements refers to reflective intelligence? a. an ability to manage one’s own thinking and problem-solving efforts b. the speed and efficiency of the nervous system c. an ability to become aware of one’s own thinking habits d. specialized knowledge and skills acquired over time 68. Which one of the following types of computers can predict the weather, analyze geological formations, and perform many other tasks better than humans? a. neural intelligence b. artificial algorithms c. expert systems d. neural networks 69. The ability to perceive, use, and understand feelings in ourselves and others, as well as the ability to manage those feelings effectively, is called a. emotional intelligence. b. neural intelligence. c. reflective intelligence. d. experiential intelligence.

70. Emotionally intelligent people often understand that their emotions often contain a. feelings of shame. b. useful information. c. a feeling of helplessness. d. a feeling of excitement.

71. Selma recently took an IQ test. She received a score of 112 on verbal comprehension and an 88 in perceptual reasoning. Which test did she take? a. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scales b. Stanford-Binet c. Crystallized Intelligence Test d. Mechanical Aptitude Test 72. Which psychologist argued that an important part of intelligence is the ability to demonstrate skills that are practical to the environment in which one lives? a. Howard Gardener b. Robert Sternberg c. Patricia Greenfield d. Lewis Terman

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Chap 09_16e 73. Chen lives life with vitality. He has a positive attitude and a large social network. Every Saturday morning, Chen volunteers at the local senior center because it makes him feel good to help others. Chen gets angry when he believes he has been lied to. He is aware of his anger and can feel his face redden. Nonetheless, he responds to this emotion by throwing objects and yelling. Which emotional intelligence skill is Chen lacking? a. perceiving emotions b. managing emotions c. using emotions d. understanding emotions 74. Kiran is determined to become more intelligent. Which approach would you recommend to her? a. enhance her reaction time b. improve her metacognitive skills c. study machine learning d. practice geometry 75. Diego is eight years old. His mental age is eight. What is Diego's IQ? a. 64 b. 80 c. 100 d. 124 76. The involuntary sterilization of individuals with intellectual disabilities until the mid-1900s was an example of a. the Flynn effect. b. cultural testing. c. eugenics. d. maze-learning.

77. Which type of intelligence is related to a person's ability to identify their own and others' feelings accurately, express their feelings clearly and manage their moods? a. emotional intelligence b. contextual intelligence c. metacognitive intelligence d. reflective intelligence 78. If research shows that police officers' scores on subscales of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) correlate with many of the skills necessary for effective police work, which statement would accurately describe the MMPI? a. The MMPI has criterion validity. b. The MMPI has test standardization. c. The MMPI has split-half validity. d. The MMPI has psychometric standardization.

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Chap 09_16e 79. Paige has had a string of failed relationships over the past few years. Her current partner tends to tell the same story as her previous partners, that Paige often cannot tell when they are mad at her, and she does not express her own feelings. If her partner's complaints are accurate, Paige would likely score a. high on tacit. b. low on general intelligence. c. high on emotional intelligence. d. low on emotional intelligence.

80. Any measurement of a person's mental functions is called a a. psychometric test. b. special aptitude test. c. multiple aptitude test. d. general intelligence test.

81. Which one of the following statements best describes children with Down's syndrome? a. They are typically institutionalized. b. They have a peculiar tendency to avoid eye contact with others. c. They can do most of the things that other children can, only slower. d. They suffer from hyperactivity and attention disorders.

82. Which one of the following is a disorder caused by a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid within brain cavities? a. cretinism b. microcephaly c. hydrocephaly d. fragile X syndrome 83. Which one of the following statements accurately describes Tryon's study of genetic factors in learning? a. The study showed that behavioral characteristics can be influenced by heredity but was inconclusive about intelligence. b. The study showed that "bright" rats could not outperform dull rats even after several generations of breeding. c. The study demonstrated that animal studies can tell with certainty how heredity affects intelligence. d. The study demonstrated that "dull" rats were more motivated by food and less easily distracted during testing.

84. Which one of the following tasks would test visual-spatial processing? a. Repeat a series of digits after hearing them once. b. Reproduce patterns of blocks. c. Solve the problem—If I have six marbles and you give me another one, how many marbles will I have? d. Answer the question—What does cryptic mean?

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Chap 09_16e 85. Who among the following was the first to contribute to what is now called the modern intelligence test? a. Lewis Terman b. Alfred Binet c. Wechsler d. Stephen Hawking 86. Which two individuals are the most likely to have similar IQ scores? a. Sondra and Sasha, who came from the same egg. b. Brian and Brianna, who came from two separate eggs fertilized at the same time. c. Greta and Hiram, who came from two separate eggs fertilized at different times. d. Lu and Liz, who are siblings and not biologically related.

87. According to the genetic perspective, which type of twin would have the most highly correlated IQ, assuming the twins were raised in the same family? a. microzygotic twins b. identical twins c. confounded twins d. fraternal twins 88. Ada and Gregg developed a culture-fair IQ test called Smartycat. Smartycat has clear instructions and a specified time frame for the administration and completion of the test. It also gives the same score when corrected by different people. Given the information above, is Smartycat a standardized test? a. No, because Ada and Gregg did not include questions that assess fluid intelligence. b. No, because Ada and Gregg have not found the norm. c. Yes, because Ada and Gregg focused on aptitude rather than general intelligence. d. Yes, because Ada and Gregg focused on cultural factors when developing questions.

89. Dr. Raj's research focuses on hereditary influences on IQ. Which statement supports Dr. Raj's research? a. Identical twins who grow up in the same family have a higher correlation between IQ scores, compared to fraternal twins who grow up in the same family. b. Identical twins who have different IQ scores also have environmental and educational differences. c. Children reared by the same mother resemble her in IQ to the same degree. d. Children who grew up in the mid-1900s relied on abstract reasoning skills more than children today.

90. Which field of artificial intelligence attempts to overcome the limitation that most computers cannot learn on their own? a. computer simulation b. speed of processing c. machine learning d. expert systems

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Chap 09_16e 91. Which type of test would assess a wide range of intellectual abilities? a. aptitude intelligence tests b. verbal intelligence tests c. mental intelligence tests d. scholastic intelligence tests 92. A desire to know, to excel, and to persevere is called a. giftedness. b. intellectual determination. c. lateralization. d. crystallized intelligence.

93. Specialized knowledge and skills acquired over time is called a. neural intelligence. b. experiential intelligence. c. reflective intelligence. d. artificial intelligence.

94. Gains in intellectual functioning from programs such as Head Start programs may not continue once children transition into regular classrooms because these programs a. only provide stimulation for a few hours per day. b. don’t offer any social or developmental advantages. c. focus entirely on math and reading skills. d. don’t adequately prepare children for the regular school system.

95. Which person is demonstrating emotional intelligence? a. Walter who has empathy from his sister's feeling b. Rose who is feeling shame c. Jose who feels helplessness at solving his problems d. River that has a feeling that something is wrong 96. IQ is best described as a. a genetic predisposition. b. the equivalent to intelligence. c. an index of intelligence. d. the determinant of one’s potential.

97. Due to some cultural problems with validity in intelligence assessments, which test is often useful when testing children in the United States? a. culture-fair test b. objective test c. special aptitude test d. culture-identical tests Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_16e 98. When a psychometric test gives consistent and highly correlated scores, it is said to be a. reliable. b. valid. c. fluid. d. crystallized.

99. What can we conclude from the finding that children with high IQs tend to do better in school than children with lower IQs? a. Those with a high IQ are naturally persistent and motivated to learn throughout life. b. High IQ reveals potential and does not guarantee success. c. High IQs are primarily found in well-educated families with a high socioeconomic status. d. Those with a high IQ have different success compared to those with an average IQ. 100. Which number completes the pattern: 37, 34, 31, 28? This item is testing a. fluid intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence. c. reaction time. d. response time.

101. Josh received a low score on many of the working memory questions of Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scales, Fourth Edition. Which task would he probably have difficulty with? a. repeating a series of digits backward b. copying designs with blocks c. explaining the similarities between a hammer and a nail d. selecting an item that completes a matrix 102. Which factor is the most important when evaluating intellectual disability? a. general intelligence b. metacognitive skills c. adaptive behaviors d. special aptitudes 103. Ethan is a 16-year-old male who was born with an extra chromosome. He lives with his biological parents, both of whom are in their early 60s. Ethan attends school and has a sunny, warm disposition. Which of the following can we accurately infer about Ethan? a. Ethan’s mother was malnourished. b. Ethan has Down syndrome. c. Ethan has a close family member with an intellectual disability. d. Ethan will not marry or work in the community.

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Chap 09_16e 104. Which question is related to neural intelligence? a. How quickly can you press the button? b. What did you learn about yourself as you completed the assignment? c. How would you solve this problem? d. Which concepts apply to the case study?

105. Solving problems using knowledge that one has already gained involves specific mental abilities called a. crystallized intelligence. b. reliability. c. aptitude. d. validity.

106. A study that investigates the relationship between the speed of processing and intelligence scores is probably measuring a. metacognition. b. aptitude. c. brain efficiency. d. machine learning.

107. You and your friend Cody are debating the relationship between IQ and race. Which answer choice best reflects an argument that would be accepted by most psychologists? a. Compared to other races, African Americans have lower IQ scores because they are genetically incapable of climbing out of poverty. b. IQ predicts school performance for Japanese-American children but not European-American children. c. There is ample research to suggest that group differences in average IQ are based on genetics. d. Heredity, culture, and environmental diversity may explain group differences in IQ scores, but external markers do not.

108. The distribution (or scattering) of IQ scores that approximates a bell-shaped curve is also called a/an a. normal distribution. b. parabola. c. asymptote. d. intelligence deviation.

109. Which of the following is a common genetic intellectual disability that is hereditary and usually affects boys more than girls? a. Down syndrome b. fragile X syndrome c. cretinism d. phenylketonuria

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Chap 09_16e 110. Your ability to learn from your experiences, acquire knowledge, and use resources effectively when faced with a problem is referred to as a. intelligence. b. creative thinking. c. the g-factor. d. aptitude.

111. An IQ above 130 or special talents or aptitudes is referred to as a. bright normality. b. giftedness. c. dull normality. d. savant syndrome.

112. Which of the following represents a similarity between congenital hypothyroidism and phenylketonuria? a. They both involve abnormal skull development. b. They are both caused by bloodborne infections. c. They both affect boys more than girls. d. They are both caused by a deficiency in an essential element.

113. According to the DSM-5, an individual with an IQ below 70 would be given a diagnosis of a. intellectual disability disorder. b. profound intellectual disability. c. dependent intellectual disability. d. limited intellectual disability.

114. A genetic disorder caused by an extra 21st chromosome that causes moderate to severe intellectual disability and a shortened life expectancy of around 49 years is called a. phenylketonuria. b. Down syndrome. c. fragile X syndrome. d. cretinism.

115. Analise is a newborn who was born with hydrocephaly. Which of the following will most likely minimize her chance of having an intellectual disability? a. She will need a surgically implanted tube. b. She will require a special diet. c. She will need to be taught basic adaptive behaviors. d. She will require thyroid hormone replacement.

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Chap 09_16e 116. How does microcephaly cause intellectual disability? a. It forces the brain to develop in a limited space. b. It causes a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid within brain cavities. c. It results in stunted growth and intellectual disability caused by an insufficient supply of thyroid hormone. d. It allows phenylpyruvic acid to accumulate in the body.

117. Which of the following is the most widely accepted definition of intelligence? a. the ability to solve problems using perceptual speed or rapid insight b. a directly observed ability to live up to one’s potential c. the overall capacity to think rationally, act purposefully, and to adapt to one’s surroundings d. the capacity to acquire, understand, and apply academic knowledge 118. Intelligence assessed by answering questions involving vocabulary, general information, arithmetic, and other language- or symbol-oriented tasks is called a. special intelligence. b. general intelligence. c. performance intelligence. d. verbal intelligence.

119. Twelve 3-year-old children live at Bailey Square public housing and just began the Head Start program. Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Half of the children will drop out of the program and half of the children will finish the program. b. All 12 children will show an increase in IQ scores that cannot be explained. c. The children will struggle with the program at first but then show dramatic improvement in academic performance once they enter school. d. The children will improve while in the program but will plateau once they enter school.

120. According to the multiple intelligences theory, a marine scientist who has dedicated her career to studying sea turtles is likely high in a. linguistic intelligence. b. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence. c. existential intelligence. d. naturalist intelligence.

121. Which student would most likely be identified as gifted by teachers and school administration? a. Demarco is an African American male who excels at art and paints inventive and imaginative flowers. b. Shane is a Caucasian male who excels at math and reading. c. Javier is a Latino male who has perfect pitch and expresses his emotions through music. d. Ian is a Caucasian male who uses a wheelchair for mobility and has memorized the periodic table.

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Chap 09_16e 122. Rashmi is measuring the construct of extraversion by giving 15 participants a test with 100 questions. She gives the same group the same test two weeks later to determine if the participants received the same score. What is Rashmi testing? a. objectivity b. validity c. standardization d. reliability 123. Which person is demonstrating an ability to perceive emotions? a. Charley establishes measurable goals and objectives for his nine life domains. b. Colby surrounds himself with enthusiastic people and has no tolerance for low-energy friends. c. Lin focuses on her feelings of joy and disregards her negative feelings. d. Lois notices socially awkward individuals at gatherings and tries to make them comfortable.

124. A limited general intelligence accompanied by exceptional mental ability in one or more narrow areas, such as mental arithmetic, calendar calculation, art, or music, is called a. savant syndrome. b. profound disability. c. Down syndrome. d. cretinism.

125. Which one of the following statements accurately represents the association between IQ and achievement? a. Academic performance depends more on intelligence than it does on motivation. b. IQ is a good predictor of success in art, music, dramatics, leadership, science, and writing. c. When IQs are extreme, their link to an individual's potential for success becomes unmistakable. d. The correlation between IQ and school grades is not as important as the student’s visual-spatial intelligence.

126. Since the need to measure the IQ scores of people varies by age, newer IQ test base their evaluations of IQ on a. mental age only. b. deviation scores from the mean of the normal distribution. c. variance IQ scores. d. processing time.

127. Maggie has been a social worker for 20 years. She is in tune with her clients’ emotions and is supportive of their goals. She empathizes with her clients' struggles and remains calm under stressful situations. Maggie appears to a. have a high level of emotional intelligence. b. have a low level of emotional intelligence. c. have a high level of experiential intelligence. d. have a low level of neural intelligence.

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Chap 09_16e 128. Which one of the following is a description of the type of questions asked to measure fluid reasoning in the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition? a. Correctly remember the order of colored beads on a stick. b. Solve the problem—If I have six marbles and you give me another one, how many marbles will I have? c. Answer the question—What does cryptic mean? d. Answer the question—An apprentice is to a master as a novice is to (an) ________.

129. Which of the following would include a person's musical talents as a form of intelligence? a. the g-factor b. the multiple intelligences theory c. generalized intelligence tests d. mental abilities 130. Jordan is 22 years old. For work psychology class, Jordan is taking an intelligence test. Which would be the mostly test that will be administered? a. WAIS-IV b. WISC-IV c. WPPSI-IV d. DSM-5 131. Which of the following assessments is an example of a multiple aptitude test? a. WPPS-IV b. WAIS-IV c. ACT d. Stanford-Binet 132. Which one of the following types of tests is defined as a test that measures two or more types of ability? a. multiple aptitude tests b. psychometric tests c. reasoning tests d. special aptitude tests 133. Which statement best represents a difference between the Wechsler and the Stanford-Binet tests? a. The Stanford-Binet tests for one's special aptitudes whereas the Wechsler does not. b. The Stanford-Binet is a reliable psychometric test whereas the Wechsler is not. c. The Wechsler provides a score for nonverbal ability whereas the Stanford-Binet does not. d. The Wechsler assesses fluid reasoning whereas the Stanford-Binet does not.

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Chap 09_16e 134. Sofia has taken an online personality test three times. Every time, her score shows that she is high in extraversion and low in conscientiousness. Which term best applies to the test? a. valid b. fluid c. standardized d. reliable 135. Taylor is 10 years old. He has a significantly long thin face, has large ears, is hyperactive, and avoids eye contact with others. Taylor has an intellectual disability that will get worse as he becomes an adult. What can we assume about Taylor? a. Taylor cannot drink diet beverages. b. Taylor lives in an institutional setting. c. Taylor has superior language skills. d. Taylor’s genetic disability is hereditary.

136. Which of the following is an environmental factor that has been linked to organic intellectual disabilities? a. defective genes b. exposure to lead c. metabolic disorders d. extra genes 137. Your friend’s two-and-a-half-year-old daughter, Poppy Rose, took an IQ test at preschool. Your friend is concerned because Poppy Rose scored slightly below average on the test. Which of the following would you tell your friend? a. Poppy Rose's IQ score at age two-and-a-half is probably not reliable. b. Poppy Rose will excel at vocabulary and rote learning but will struggle with math skills throughout life. c. Poppy Rose will not be motivated to succeed in school. d. Poppy Rose's fluid intelligence will continue to decrease until her teen years.

138. Which one of the following statements best describes congenital hypothyroidism? a. A disorder in which a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid within brain cavities causes intellectual disability b. A disorder in which an insufficient supply of a specific hormone results in stunted growth and intellectual disability c. A disorder in which the brain is forced to develop in a limited space, causing severe intellectual disability d. A disorder in which prenatal exposure to a destructive chemical causes severe intellectual disability 139. Which person is demonstrating an existential intelligence? a. Brett travels the globe offering dance lessons to software executives. b. Ella travels the globe performing expressive one-person plays. c. Shari travels the globe giving lectures on the propulsion mechanics of squid. d. Jaden travels the globe teaching others how to find joy in everyday life.

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Chap 09_16e 140. Which one of the following is an example of an early childhood education program in the United States? a. Army Alpha b. Scholastic Aptitude c. GATE d. Head Start 141. Howard Gardner’s theory that there are many specialized categories of intellectual ability is called a. multiple intelligences. b. emotional intelligence. c. neural intelligence. d. experiential intelligence.

142. According to Perkins, which one of the following statements refers to experiential intelligence? a. specialized knowledge and skills acquired through learning and experience b. an ability to become aware of one’s own thinking habits c. the speed and efficiency of the nervous system d. an ability to manage one’s own thinking and problem-solving efforts 143. Validity is to trustworthiness as reliability is to a. consistency. b. understanding. c. knowledge. d. reasoning.

144. Which statement most accurately represents the relationship between IQ and grades? a. IQ is a good predictor of success in writing, science, and art. b. If your IQ is higher than average, you are likely to do well in school even if you do not care about your grades. c. Academic performance depends more on intelligence than it does on motivation. d. The correlation between IQ and school grades is at about 0.50.

145. Which statement best reflects an overall lesson of the Flynn effect? a. The definition and measurement of intelligence is intertwined with social and cultural factors. b. Older adults typically have lower general intelligence than young adults. c. Rapid increases in IQ scores over the last 50 years can largely be explained by genetics. d. Young adults depend less on abstract reasoning than do older adults.

146. Which one of the following is a correct research finding that supports the association between culture and intelligence? a. The Kpelle people sort objects into neat categories preferred by Westerners. b. Individuals from the Kpelle people in Liberia group objects together by function. c. Among the Cree of Northern Canada, "smart" people are those who have oceangoing navigation skills. d. In the South Pacific, the Puluwat people define intelligence as the ability to find food on the tundra.

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Chap 09_16e 147. Which one of the following is a widely used intelligence test primarily made up of age-ranked questions and is appropriate for people aged 2 to 85+ years? a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition b. Otis-Lennon School Ability Test c. Differential Ability Scales d. Woodcock-Johnson Tests of Cognitive Abilities 148. Early intelligence tests yielded an intelligence quotient by comparing one’s mental age to one’s a. social age. b. chronological age. c. emotional age. d. psychological age.

149. Mr. Brown gives his fourth-grade class a final math exam at the end of the year. Overall, the boys as a group scored higher than the girls. Which statement best explains these results? a. Girls are better at crystallized intelligence, whereas boys are better at fluid intelligence. b. Girls have more difficulty with motivation than boys. c. Boys are genetically better at skills that require spatial visualization and math. d. Boys were encouraged more than the girls to learn math skills.

150. Every time Chung-Hee gets in his car, he presses the brake pedal, starts the ignition, and puts the car in gear.

He turns the steering wheel, understands the road signs, and maintains an appropriate speed as he’s driving down the road. Chung-Hee’s driving ability is an example of a. neural intelligence. b. experiential intelligence. c. reflective intelligence. d. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence.

151. Jon gets into an argument with some of his classmates about the impact of heredity on IQ scores. Jon is upset about the argument and is looking forward to going home and enjoying his leftover pizza. Jon gets home and finds that his roommate has eaten all of the leftover pizza out of the fridge. If Jon has high emotional intelligence, how will he respond? a. Jon will allow himself to release his feelings by shouting at his roommate. b. Jon will recognize that his negative feelings are bad and unnecessary. c. Jon will continue the IQ discussion with his roommate. d. Jon will tell himself that his roommate isn’t responsible for his bad day.

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Chap 09_16e 152. Which couple has the highest risk of having a child with Down syndrome? a. Michael and Elaine are both 46 years old and are expecting their first child. Both of Elaine's parents are gifted musicians and Michael's father was an orthopedic surgeon. b. Casey and Jessie are both in their late 40s. They are looking forward to traveling to China to adopt their first child. c. Hunter and Justice are both 28 years old. They just learned they are having triplet girls. d. Sara is 30 years old and three months pregnant. She and her spouse just returned from Nigeria, where the Zika virus is prevalent.

153. Which one of the following statements best describes the association between types of intelligence and age? a. Age-related losses in the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition, are small for most healthy, well-educated individuals. b. Intellectual skills involved in fluid intelligence improve after middle age. c. Crystallized intelligence declines rapidly after middle age. d. Younger people are typically slower learners but have high-crystallized intelligence.

154. Which one of the following statements accurately describes how IQ varies with gender? a. Test items are selected to be equally difficult for women and men, so IQ scores cannot differentiate between them. b. Males and females appear to be different in overall intelligence. c. It was previously found that women, as a group, were best at items that required spatial visualization and math. d. It was previously found that men, as a group, performed best on items that required verbal ability and vocabulary.

155. Which one of the following is a characteristic of children affected by phenylketonuria? a. Affected children have stunted physical and intellectual growth that cannot be reversed. b. Affected children often score below average on mental tests; however, severe intellectual disability usually can be prevented with surgery. c. Affected children may be placed on a special diet that minimizes the degree of intellectual disability. d. Affected children are usually larger than average during childhood, but smaller than average after adolescence.

156. When a test measures what it claims to measure, it is said to have the characteristic of a. validity. b. reliability. c. fluidity. d. crystallization.

157. Kofi scores 100 on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition. What does this score mean? a. Kofi has an average IQ compared to others. b. Kofi has an above-average IQ compared to others. c. Kofi is below the normal range of intelligence. d. Kofi has a high verbal comprehension index.

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Chap 09_16e 158. How does reaction time pertain to intelligence? a. Reaction time indicates a person’s metacognitive skill, which is the surest avenue to becoming more intelligent. b. Reaction time indicates a person’s speed of processing, which is related to intelligence. c. Reaction time indicates specialized knowledge and skills, which is related to intelligence. d. Reaction time indicates an ability to become aware of one’s own thinking habits, which is essential to becoming more intelligent.

159. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition, quantitative reasoning test items are intended to measure a. a person's ability to solve problems involving numbers. b. a person's knowledge about a wide range of topics. c. a person's capability to reason in unfamiliar situations. d. a person's ability at putting picture puzzles together.

160. Jian presses the space bar on his keyboard every time he sees a light on the computer screen. Which aspect of intelligence is being tested? a. reaction time b. reflex time c. artificial intelligence d. crystallized intelligence 161. Mr. Hoffman wants to help his students develop metacognitive skills to improve learning. Which of the following approaches would you recommend? a. Mr. Hoffman could have students practice catching a ball. b. Mr. Hoffman could have students brainstorm strategies to earn an A in the course. c. Mr. Hoffman could have students write an essay about their life outside of school. d. Hoffman could have students practice their reaction times.

162. Which one of the following types of tests predicts whether you will succeed in a single area, such as clerical work or computer programming? a. special aptitude tests b. multiple aptitude tests c. psychometric tests d. general intelligence tests 163. Which one of the following intellectual development disorders occurs mostly in very poor households, where nutrition, intellectual stimulation, medical care, and emotional support may be inadequate? a. borderline disability b. savant syndrome c. Down syndrome d. familial intellectual disability

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Chap 09_16e 164. Which of the following had a large increase in prevalence due to the Zika virus in recent years? a. Microcephaly b. Hydrocephaly c. Fragile X syndrome d. Down syndrome 165. Which statement most accurately summarizes what research on savant syndrome has told us? a. Most ordinary people can become savants with intense practice. b. Intellectual determination can increase one's IQ an average of three standard deviations above the mean. c. Damage to the left hemisphere can surprisingly increase one's general intelligence. d. Exceptional mental ability can exist apart from general intelligence.

166. Jessie is a 5-year-old African American child who has an IQ of 120. She lives in a family with limited financial resources. Which of the following options is Jessie's best chance for academic success? a. Jessie should work on improving her analytic intelligence. b. Jessie should be exposed to enriching educational and environmental experiences. c. Jessie should transfer to a private school with a culturally diverse student body. d. Jessie should attend a Head Start program.

167. With respect to understanding emotions, which one of the following is often indicated by embarrassment? a. a feeling of excitement b. a feeling of guilt c. a feeling of shame d. a feeling of helplessness 168. Which example best shows a test with high validity? a. You receive high scores on a legal exam and high grades in law school. b. Standard procedures are used in giving you a legal exam. c. Your legal exam receives the same grade when graded by different people. d. You receive the same score on a legal exam each time you take the exam.

169. Ruth has an IQ of 50. She lives in a supportive apartment, dresses herself, and holds a job working at a mail center. Which statement most accurately describes Ruth? a. She is a fraternal twin. b. She is under 30 years old. c. She has a metabolic disorder or genetic abnormality. d. She has a mild to moderate intellectual disability.

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Chap 09_16e 170. Which one of the following statements accurately represents the research on IQ and ethnicity? a. Historically, minority cultures score below average in IQ because they are genetically incapable of climbing out of poverty. b. IQ predicts success in life for most minority cultures but not for European Americans. c. IQ differences are still evident when minority children are given the same environmental experiences available to European American children. d. Most psychologists have concluded there is no scientific evidence that group differences in average IQ are based on genetics.

171. If a psychometric test gives approximately the same score each time a person takes it, it is called a. reliable. b. valid. c. fluid. d. crystallized.

172. Dr. Kane is a clinical psychologist who sees several patients a day in her private practice. Why is it important for Dr. Kane to have emotional intelligence? a. Most people who seek counseling have difficulty reading emotions in others. b. Most people who seek counseling lack emotional intelligence. c. Managing one’s own emotions is important in delivering effective therapy. d. Helping others avoid their negative emotions is essential to helping others change.

173. Anna and Hanna are identical twins who took the Stanford-Binet in 1930 when they were 10 years old. Anna received a score of 100, and Hanna received a score of 120. Which of the following may explain the difference between the two scores? a. Hanna and Anna took the test before the Stanford-Binet was standardized. b. Hanna and Anna were both victims of the Flynn effect. c. Anna and Hanna were dramatically influenced by hereditary factors. d. Anna and Hanna were raised in different homes.

174. Research suggests that, in some African communities, social concepts such as respect and responsibility are central to intelligence. This is an example of a. analytic intelligence. b. the different cultural definitions of intelligence. c. genetic differences in intelligence. d. the importance of formal education on intelligence.

175. Kari and Bobbie have developed an expert system called Kabob that provides diagnoses at a quicker rate than mental health professionals. Which answer represents one limitation of Kabob? a. The system cannot measure one’s speed of processing. b. The system mimics the human brain and is prone to human error. c. The system can easily become overloaded with synaptic connections. d. The system is programmed and can’t learn on its own.

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Chap 09_16e 176. Kayla score on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test indicates an IQ of 113. Kayla's IQ score would be classified as a. average. b. bright normal. c. superior. d. very superior.

177. Danita is a pregnant 23-year-old who lives in a low-income neighborhood and has no health insurance. Danita wants to give her baby the best possible start in life. Which of the following would help Danita meet her goal? a. Danita and her baby should be tested for trisomy 21. b. Danita should practice taking IQ tests. c. Danita and her baby should get adequate nutrition. d. Danita should consider working at her brother's group home.

178. Which statement best reflects the difficulty in defining intelligence? a. Successful careers often depend on a good match between special aptitude and job-related skills. b. Many people who obtain above-average IQ scores struggle with other mental abilities. c. Modern IQ tests are becoming increasingly more reliable and valid. d. People low in crystallized intelligence are often high in fluid intelligence.

179. A capacity for learning certain abilities is called a. aptitude. b. reliability. c. validity. d. crystallization.

180. Which of the following is a result of Terman’s study that is also supported by other research? a. Children who are capable of achievement will be successful. b. Personality characteristics are more important to success than high IQ scores. c. Children with higher IQs grow to be adults with greater socioeconomic success and advanced educational achievements. d. Low IQ score often results in greater intellectual determination and a higher motivation to learn throughout adulthood.

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Chap 09_16e Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. d 26. c

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Chap 09_16e 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_16e 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. d 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. a 70. b 71. a 72. b 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. c 77. a 78. a 79. d 80. a 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_16e 83. a 84. b 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. c 91. c 92. b 93. b 94. a 95. a 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. b 100. b 101. a 102. c 103. b 104. a 105. a 106. c 107. d 108. a 109. b 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_16e 111. b 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. a 116. a 117. c 118. d 119. d 120. d 121. b 122. d 123. d 124. a 125. c 126. b 127. a 128. d 129. b 130. a 131. c 132. a 133. c 134. d 135. d 136. b 137. a

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Chap 09_16e 138. b 139. d 140. d 141. a 142. a 143. a 144. d 145. a 146. b 147. a 148. b 149. d 150. b 151. d 152. a 153. a 154. a 155. c 156. a 157. a 158. b 159. a 160. a 161. b 162. a 163. d 164. a 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_16e 166. b 167. c 168. a 169. d 170. d 171. a 172. c 173. d 174. b 175. d 176. b 177. c 178. b 179. a 180. c

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Chap 10_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Basic emotions theories suggest that a. emotions decreases in sympathetic activity. b. there are no changes in subjective feelings across cultures. c. bodily arousal leads to emotions. d. emotions are brief in duration.

2. Which of the following is true regarding stimulus motives? a. They help us survive. b. They don't include mere entertainment. c. They are not linked to survival. d. They include the need for control over others 3. Which of the following statements describes how a drive differs from an incentive? a. Drive is the state of tension that arises from an unmet need, while incentive is a specific reward that motivates behavior. b. Drive is the expectation of a specific reward that motivates behavior, while incentive is the tension that arises from an unmet need. c. Drive is the target of a motivated behavior, while incentive is a specific reward that motivates that behavior. d. Drive is focused on fulfilling a need, while incentive is focused on fulfilling a goal.

4. Basic needs that are activated by a lack of food, water, security, love, esteem, or other basic needs are a. safety motives. b. personal motives. c. growth motives. d. deficiency motives.

5. Danielle has been making herself vomit after eating on a regular basis and recently she has also been experiencing a sore throat, hair loss, muscle spasms, dehydration, dental issues, and swollen salivary glands.

What problem may she be experiencing that could explain these symptoms? a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa c. bait aversion d. behavioral dieting 6. Which of the following would be consistent with the James-Lange theory of emotion? a. Fear cannot be experienced unless physiological arousal is experienced first. b. The thalamus activates fear and physiological arousal at the same time. c. A feeling of fear cannot occur until a person applies a label to the feeling such as "I am afraid" in combination with physiological arousal. d. Arousal is the emotional component that always occurs last.

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Chap 10_16e 7. If you really want to lose weight, keep it off, and be healthy, which of the following would NOT be a good idea? a. yo-yo dieting b. incorporating daily exercise into your routine c. writing down your meals in a diary d. learning to weaken your personal eating cues 8. Why is it better to manage emotions than to suppress them? a. Suppressing emotions can impair thinking and memory as you devote energy to self-control. b. Suppressing emotions can decrease activity in the sympathetic nervous system. c. Suppressing emotions can increase activity in the parasympathetic system. d. Suppressing emotions can cause innately programmed changes in facial expression.

9. When body temperature is at its peak, your mood is likely to be a. high in intensity. b. negative. c. positive. d. low in intensity.

10. Linda has been having some trouble with her sleep and energy levels since the start of winter. What is something she could try that may help her reset her circadian rhythm? a. taking melatonin first thing in the morning upon wakening b. one 15-minute period of exposure to moderate light in the evening just before bed c. a few intermittent five-minute periods of exposure to bright light early in the morning d. avoiding exposure to bright lights during the day 11. Which of the following tactics would be most effective to someone attempting to improve their achievement motivation? a. increasing one's self-confidence b. visualizing goals c. keeping on task regardless of outcome d. being open to support from friends 12. An eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and maintenance of unusually low body weight is called a. behavioral dieting. b. binge-eating disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa.

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Chap 10_16e 13. Which of the following terms indicates a reduction in the volume of fluids found between body cells? a. intracellular thirst b. anterior cellular thirst c. extracellular thirst d. estrus cellular thirst 14. Which of the following statements correctly portrays the similarity between the concepts of taste aversion and biological preparedness? a. Taste aversion and biological preparedness both result from a negative experience with a particular food. b. Taste aversion and biological preparedness both result from a feeding disorder. c. Taste aversion and biological preparedness both result from an imbalance in the hypothalamus. d. Taste aversion and biological preparedness both can be overcome with behavioral dieting.

15. What is positive psychology? a. the study of human strengths, virtues, and effective functioning b. the study of human behavior, ambition, and virtue c. the study of the permanence of the human behavior d. the study of the pervasiveness of the human behavior 16. What type of motivation is the desire to engage in a behavior based on internal rewards? a. intrinsic b. extrinsic c. biological motive d. autonomy 17. Which facial expressions do we have an ability to rapidly detect, which probably helped our ancestors survive? a. the angry and happy faces b. the angry and scheming faces c. the happy and scheming faces d. the neutral and scheming faces 18. A device for recording heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, and galvanic skin response, commonly called a “lie detector,” is known as a/an a. hunger thermostat. b. fMRI. c. heart monitor. d. polygraph.

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Chap 10_16e 19. Mitch is driven to move up in his company so he can make lots of money and he enjoys having expensive cars, a huge home, and many luxuries. Which need is Mitch most likely driven by? a. the need for achievement b. the need for power c. the opponent-process needs d. the meta needs 20. Self-determination theory proposes that we are all motivated by which of the following innate motive(s)? a. basic needs, growth needs, and meta needs b. biological drives c. self-actualization d. competence, autonomy, and relatedness 21. A facial expression showing an upward-curved mouth, rising cheeks, and downturned outer eyebrows represents what emotion? a. anger b. fear c. sadness d. happiness 22. Which type of individuals are more likely to engage in high-risk behaviors such as substance abuse and casual unprotected sex? a. high sensation seekers b. low sensation seekers c. moderate sensation seekers d. steady-state sensation seekers 23. Antabuse treats alcoholism by causing alcohol to make people sick when they consume it. What is this an example of? a. biological motives b. taste aversion conditioning c. biological preparedness d. intrinsic motivation 24. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, what brain region causes emotions and bodily arousal to occur simultaneously? a. hypothalamus b. fornix c. thalamus d. amygdala

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Chap 10_16e 25. There is an Olympic competition known as a biathlon, which starts with cross-country skiing and ends with rifle shooting. From the perspective of arousal theory and peak performance, why might this competition be particularly challenging? a. Physiological arousal will increase during the skiing so it will be difficult to lower arousal to a more moderate level needed to perform well enough to shoot a precise target. b. It is difficult to be able to do two very different tasks in one competition. c. Parasympathetic activity will increase during the skiing so it will be difficult to lower parasympathetic activity to a more moderate level needed to perform well enough to shoot a precise target. d. Skiing will activate the amygdala which will cause bad aim during shooting.

26. What type of person is more likely to see negative events stemming from something unchangeable about his or her personality? a. pessimist b. opportunist c. alarmist d. optimist 27. Which of the following theories stated that motivation is related to our three innate motives? a. self-determination theory b. biological drives theory c. stimulus motives theory d. Cannon-Bard theory 28. If Lynn is low in sensation seeking, which of these behaviors would she be more likely to engage in? a. eating spicy food b. traveling to exotic places she's never been c. skydiving d. a beach vacation with close friends 29. What appraisals are experiential and can occur quickly or be reflective? a. emotional b. physiological c. behavioral d. cognitive 30. When Deborah has test anxiety, when the test is over, she usually feels a sense of relief and calm. What theory best explains this pattern? a. cognitive appraisal theory b. arousal theory c. Yerkes-Dodson law d. opponent-process theory

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Chap 10_16e 31. Bonnie doesn't really enjoy her job, but it brings in a good income and she is motivated to work hard to earn end of the year bonuses to support her family. What is likely driving her behavior? a. intrinsic motivation b. extrinsic motivation c. self-actualization d. biological need 32. Changes in the sexual drives of animals that create a desire for mating, particularly used to refer to females in heat, are called a. estrus. b. estrogen. c. episodic. d. androgen.

33. In which situation might it be most useful to have relatively high levels of parasympathetic activity and low levels of sympathetic activity? a. when focusing on calculus homework b. when running from a bear c. when giving a dance performance d. when running a marathon 34. Sky was confronted by a very large dog while taking a walk in the park. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, Sky experienced a. fear and bodily reactions at the same time. b. only bodily reactions. c. bodily reactions first followed by the emotion of fear. d. fear first followed by bodily reactions.

35. Arousal refers to the activation of a. the body and nervous system. b. motivation and inspiration. c. the Coolidge effect. d. feelings of hunger, thirst, pain, and sexual desire.

36. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding lie detector tests (polygraphs)? a. Lie detector tests are always accurate. b. Other methods like fMRI may provide a more direct measure of brain activity rather than just relying on emotional arousal. c. Lower GSR and heart rate indicates that the person is likely lying. d. Fear or anxiety can't result in false positives on a lie detector test.

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Chap 10_16e 37. According to Schachter’s cognitive theory, what is labeled in order to determine what emotions we feel? a. the cause b. physiological arousal c. psychological arousal d. attribution 38. As the cells “shrink,” intracellular thirst is triggered. Thirst of this type is best quenched by a. salty water. b. plain water. c. mineral water. d. alcohol.

39. Which branch of the ANS reduces emotional arousal, calming, and relaxing the body? a. circulatory b. parasympathetic c. sympathetic d. peripheral 40. Which of the following brain regions is not considered part of the limbic system? a. mammillary body b. thalamus c. fornix d. prefrontal cortex 41. The Yerkes-Dodson law is the relationship between a. arousal, task complexity, and performance. b. arousal and environment. c. arousal, worry, and task performance. d. worry and task completion.

42. While not absolutely necessary for survival, the innate needs for activity, exploration, and information can definitely aid in one's survival, and these needs are defined as a. stimulus motives. b. biological motives. c. learning motives. d. social motives.

43. Don has difficulty with expressing or identifying his emotions, which causes problems in his interpersonal relationships. What condition might Don be experiencing? a. alexithymia b. depression c. anxiety d. pessimism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_16e 44. What is a feeling state that has physiological, behavioral, and cognitive components? a. emotion b. mood c. appraisal d. mimicry 45. Which of these statements represents a possible example of a cultural difference in expressing emotion? a. Americans tend to openly express relatively more positive emotions and Germans more negative emotions. b. Women tend to be more emotionally expressive than men. c. Children tend to be more emotionally expressive than adults. d. Depressed individuals may be blunted in their emotional expressions.

46. Which mode of common expressions is fairly well recognized around the world? a. facial b. social c. informal d. natural 47. Which of these is the most accurate description of contemporary models of emotion? a. ANS arousal gives rise to cognitive labeling, behavior, facial expressions, and subjective feelings. b. ANS arousal causes subjective feelings of emotion. c. A label is applied to ANS arousal which leads to specific subjective feelings. d. ANS arousal causes an emotional stimulus.

48. What is the term for the study of communication through body movement, posture, gestures, and facial expressions? a. kinesics b. homeostasis c. positive psychology d. physiology 49. Which of the following mental disorder has the highest mortality rate? a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa c. depression d. anxiety 50. The optimal level of arousal depends on a. the duration of a task. b. the motivation to complete a task. c. biological motives. d. the complexity of a task.

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Chap 10_16e 51. Zara is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. Every day she eats a gallon of ice cream and bag of potato chips and then makes herself vomit. Zara is most likely diagnosed with which of the following? a. bulimia nervosa b. anorexia nervosa c. binge eating disorder d. taste aversion 52. Joe is taking a polygraph test while he is questioned about a crime other evidence suggests he didn't commit.

The tests reveal increased heart rate, respiration, and GSR response when asked questions regarding his involvement in the crime. What is a possible explanation for this? a. Joe was experiencing anxiety about the test and worried about his responses, but he did not commit the crime. b. These reactions mean Joe must be guilty of the crime without a doubt. c. These reactions suggest Joe must be innocent, otherwise he would have shown the opposite responses. d. Joe must be experiencing high parasympathetic activity.

53. Which of the following is likely to be a contributing factor to eating disorders like anorexia or bulimia nervosa? a. external eating cues b. leptin levels c. cultural norms regarding body image d. behavioral dieting 54. The cognitive theory of emotion in short states that a. individuals interpret their physiological arousal as specific emotions such as excitement or fear. b. physiological arousal leads to subjective feelings. c. thalamus activity causes emotions and bodily arousal to occur simultaneously. d. emotions occur when physical arousal is labeled or interpreted on the basis of experience and situational cues.

55. Margaret is a young girl in a foster home. She is provided adequate food, clothing, and shelter and feels safe in her home. However, she is shown no affection or love and doesn't have anyone she can really talk to. What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is not being met? a. love and belonging b. safety and security c. physiological needs d. self-actualization 56. Laura is starting to get full after finishing a big meal. What bodily changes are occurring at this point that cause her to feel full and stop eating? a. Her stomach is starting to produce ghrelin that activates her lateral hypothalamus. b. GLP-1 is released into her intestines and travels to the hypothalamus. c. Her blood sugar drops and nerve impulses are sent to the brain. d. Activity is reduced in the ventromedial cortex.

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Chap 10_16e 57. The pursuit of an activity for its own sake is referred to as a. the need for power. b. intrinsic motivation. c. biological drive. d. performance goal.

58. Which of the following behavioral techniques is not conducive to healthy behavioral dieting? a. Light snacking in-between meals encourages the body to burn more calories. b. Learn to weaken personal eating cues by avoiding situations that cause overeating. c. Record your weight and the number of calories eaten to chart your weight loss progress. d. Develop techniques to control how and what you eat in a given day.

59. Self-determination theory stresses the importance of a. meta needs. b. incentive value. c. extrinsic needs. d. freedom of choice.

60. When people alter their facial expressions to match environmental cues but those expressions do not accurately reflect their emotions, the person is using a. cognitive reappraisal. b. emotional regulation. c. emotional appraisals. d. informal learning.

61. Joey is a musician who has recently become homeless and does not have enough money for food. Lately, he hasn't had much interest in working on his music. How might this be explained from the perspective of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. Joey's love and belonging needs are not being met so he is unable to focus on his self-actualization needs. b. Joey's safety and security needs are not being met so he is able to work on his needs for love and belonging. c. Joey's self-actualization needs are not being met so he is unable to meet his basic physiological needs. d. Joey's basic needs are not being met so he is unable to focus on his self-actualization needs.

62. Which of the following experiments would be a test of basic emotion theories (BETs)? a. Ask individuals to rate cross-cultural pictures of facial expressions. b. Ask individuals to rate their emotional reactions to a stranger after two conditions, one in which they exercised vigorously and one in which they sat in a chair and relaxed. c. Give individuals a shock and measure their physiological responses. d. Ask individuals for their interpretations of ambiguous situations.

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Chap 10_16e 63. Diana is on a fad grapefruit diet where all she eats is grapefruit and she has already lost 40 pounds in a month.

Why might this be a problem? a. Her metabolism may be increased. b. Her body's set point for fat may be decreased. c. This will likely lead to yo-yo dieting as it is not sustainable and she will gain the weight back and slow her body's metabolism. d. This is not a problem. It is a healthy way to lose weight.

64. Which of the following happened during Cannon and Washburn's experiments on hunger? a. Cannon trained himself to swallow a rubber tube, which could be inflated through an attached pump. b. Washburn recorded the volume of air pumped into the rubber tube in Cannon's stomach. c. Cannon felt hungry when the rubber tube was fully inflated. d. Cannon and Washburn determined that hunger is caused by contractions of the stomach.

65. What are two major cognitive influences on the experience of emotion? a. alexithymia and appraisal b. attribution and appraisal c. attribution and memory d. arousal and appraisal 66. Which of the following describes the influence of one's behavior on a goal? a. A goal is the target or object of motivated behavior. b. A goal is an internal deficiency that may energize behavior. c. A goal motivates behavior based on learned needs and drives. d. A goal is any action, glandular activity, or other identifiable behavior.

67. When you are preparing to take a test, what does arousal theory tell you about how to achieve peak performance? a. Your arousal level should be high. b. Your arousal level should be as low as possible. c. Your arousal level should be moderate. d. Your parasympathetic activity should be higher than your sympathetic activity.

68. Alterations in heart rate, blood pressure, perspiration, and other involuntary responses are known as a. adaptive changes. b. physiological changes. c. behavioral changes. d. motivational changes.

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Chap 10_16e 69. Thirst triggered when fluid is drawn out of cells due to an increased concentration of salts and minerals outside the cells is called a. extracellular thirst. b. intracellular thirst. c. dehydration. d. nonhomeostasis.

70. Brian just ate a very salty pizza. What biological process may occur as a result? a. Water will be lost from the fluids surrounding the cells of the body, causing extracellular thirst. b. Excess salt will cause fluid to be drawn out of the cells, causing intracellular thirst as cells shrink. c. The amygdala will be activated. d. The stomach will produce ghrelin.

71. Julie gorges on large amounts of food then forces herself to vomit within an hour or so after these binge-eating episodes. What is the likely reason for the vomiting? a. She is doing it to compensate for the binge eating in order to avoid gaining weight. b. She has a poor self-image. c. She gains pleasure from vomiting. d. She has damage to her lateral hypothalamus.

72. In the United States, we are likely to have positive emotions such as pride, happiness, and superiority, which emphasizes our role as a. a team. b. a community. c. a family. d. individuals.

73. Robert is struggling with obesity. Which of the following is one possible contributing factor? a. weakening of his personal eating cues b. behavioral dieting c. external eating cues d. biological preparedness 74. What is a primary limitation of a polygraph test? a. It cannot distinguish between calm and aroused mental states. b. It is very difficult to administer. c. It cannot distinguish lying from fear. d. It cannot assess heart rate.

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Chap 10_16e 75. Which of the following is true regarding gender differences in emotional expression? a. Girls are more emotionally expressive than boys throughout their lifespan. b. Boys and girls are equally emotionally expressive. c. Boys are more emotionally expressive as infants, but by early childhood girls are more emotionally expressive. d. Boys are more emotionally expressive than girls throughout their lifespan.

76. Which of these statements identifies the primary difference between the James-Lange theory and the CannonBard theory? a. According to the James-Lange theory, subjective feelings follow physiological arousal, while in the Cannon-Bard theory, emotional feelings and physical arousal occur at the same time. b. According to the James-Lange theory, subjective feelings follow physiological arousal, while in the Cannon-Bard theory, emotional feelings occur when a particular label is applied to a general physiological arousal. c. According to the James-Lange theory, emotional feelings and physical arousal occur at the same time, while in the Cannon-Bard theory, subjective feelings follow physiological arousal. d. According to the James-Lange theory, emotional feelings occur when a particular label is applied to a general physiological arousal, while in the Cannon-Bard theory, subjective feelings follow physiological arousal.

77. Which of the following would be associated with test anxiety? a. decreased happiness b. increased parasympathetic activity c. increase in arousal and worry d. increased arousal and relaxation 78. If our bodies didn't have a strong homeostatic drive, what would be a potential consequence? a. We would be much more sensitive to changing temperatures and would need more artificial means to adapt. b. Automatic reactions would restore equilibrium after any deviations in normal values. c. Our blood pressure would be steadier. d. We would be better able to adapt to famine.

79. Which of the following statements describes the main difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems? a. The parasympathetic branch controls the functions of glands within the body, while the sympathetic branch controls the function of organs in the body. b. The parasympathetic branch arouses the body and prepares it for emergency action, while the sympathetic branch calms and quiets the body. c. The parasympathetic branch calms and quiets the body, while the sympathetic branch arouses the body and prepares it for emergency action. d. The parasympathetic branch controls the functions of organs in the body, while the sympathetic branch controls the function of glands within the body.

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Chap 10_16e 80. Which theory states the proposition that bodily arousal leads to subjective feelings? a. Cannon-Bard theory b. emotion schema theory c. appraisal theory d. James-Lange theory 81. Which of these examples illustrates the Yerkes-Dodson law? a. Sandra performs her math homework best when her arousal level is high. b. Bobby can complete his easier history homework better at moderate levels of arousal where he is mostly memorizing facts, but his more difficult calculus homework he does better at lower levels of arousal. c. Julia performs her Spanish homework best when her arousal level is lowest. d. Robert plays his best football game at low levels of arousal.

82. Which female hormone is released into the blood stream that causes heat or estrus? a. progesterone b. estrogen c. androgen d. testosterone 83. Your textbook describes an experiment where male college students looked at photos of nude females while they heard a recording of what they thought was their heartbeat beating louder and stronger for specific photos.

For the photos paired with a pounding heart, males rated these as more attractive. What is this an example of? a. misattributions b. attribution c. appraisals d. behaviors 84. In an experiment, individuals are asked to respond on a keyboard to emotional faces as fast as they can as soon as they can detect the emotion. Because of an innate sensitivity that likely helped our ancestors survive, what types of faces do you think the average person will be faster at responding to? a. sad b. angry c. anxious d. happy 85. Deborah had a close call while driving and almost got into a wreck. After she was safely out of the situation, what biological process likely began to occur in her body? a. Her parasympathetic system became more active. b. Her sympathetic system became more active. c. Her parasympathetic system became less active. d. Her fight-or-flight response was activated.

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Chap 10_16e 86. Which level(s) are classified as basic needs in Maslow’s classification? a. all five levels of Maslow’s hierarchy b. the first four levels of Maslow’s hierarchy c. the first two levels of Maslow’s hierarchy d. only the first level of Maslow’s hierarchy 87. Which of the following terms refers to a reward or other stimulus that motivates behavior? a. incentive b. premium c. honor d. need 88. Which of the following focuses on changing thinking patterns and beliefs about weight and body shape that perpetuate eating disorders? a. biological preparedness b. cognitive-behavioral therapy c. taste aversion d. behavioral dieting 89. According to Solomon, which of the following happens when a stimulus, such as skydiving, is repeated? a. The emotional aftereffects get stronger with repetition. b. Emotional aftereffects get weaker with repetition. c. The initial cost (i.e., pain and fear) gets stronger with repetition. d. Hazardous pursuits become reinforcing as the pleasurable aftereffect becomes stronger.

90. Which of the following statements highlights the impact that homeostasis can have on the body's circadian rhythm? a. The body's unstable state at homeostasis prevents the body from achieving optimal circadian rhythm and equilibrium. b. The body's stable state at homeostasis allows the body to predict levels of shift in equilibrium and develop a proper circadian rhythm accordingly. c. The body's unstable state at homeostasis allows the body to predict levels of shift in equilibrium and develop a proper circadian rhythm accordingly. d. The body's stable state at homeostasis prevents the body from achieving an optimal circadian rhythm.

91. Evaluating the personal meaning of a stimulus or situation is called a. physiological arousal. b. a basic emotion. c. an emotional appraisal. d. cognitive labeling.

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Chap 10_16e 92. Which of the following statements describes the influence of the hypothalamus on an individual's level of hunger? a. The hypothalamus receives messages from contracting muscles of the stomach to regulate hunger. b. The hypothalamus reads the level of sugar in the blood and neural messages from the digestive system to regulate hunger. c. The hypothalamus regulates the level of food in the digestive system to influence the brain into monitoring hunger. d. The hypothalamus regulates hormone levels that are influenced by food intake to help manage hunger.

93. Learned motives acquired as part of growing up in a particular society or culture are known as a. stimulus motives. b. social motives. c. extrinsic motives. d. intrinsic motives.

94. The psychology of motivation can be best summarized as the study of a. why we do what we do. b. biological drives. c. how we make decisions. d. achievement goals.

95. A cat had a brain tumor removed and ever since the surgery the cat has been eating excessively and has gained a dramatic amount of weight. What brain region was likely damaged by the tumor and operation? a. the ventromedial hypothalamus b. the lateral hypothalamus c. the dorsal hypothalamus d. the anterior hypothalamus 96. To a degree, some people are more temperamentally disposed to be upbeat and hopeful, a characteristic that researchers refer to as a. dispositional optimism. b. positional optimism. c. stable optimism. d. unstable optimism.

97. Which of the following is a characteristic of people high in the need for achievement? a. They strive to do well any time they are evaluated. b. They tend to leave difficult tasks unfinished. c. They tend to struggle in their occupations and earn poorer grades in school. d. They are less likely to renew their efforts when they perform poorly.

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Chap 10_16e 98. Prosidy is important to the communication of emotions as it is related to a. the tone and rhythm of speech. b. body movements and gestures. c. facial expression. d. posture and eye gaze.

99. Which of the following would be considered a social motive? a. a need for safety and security b. a need for self-actualization c. a need for power d. a need for belonging 100. Which types of mask are meant to show happiness and are strikingly similar around the world? a. one that has an open, upward-curved mouth and rising cheeks, with downturned outer eyebrows b. one that has a closed mouth and slanting cheeks, with downward outer eyebrows c. one that shows the full opened mouth along with exclamatory eyes and eyebrows d. one that has a closed mouth with risen eyebrows and big opened eyes 101. What is a key difference between the sex drive of human females and other mammals? a. Sex drive in human females is strongly related to their fertility cycles. b. Sex drive in other mammals is less strongly related to their fertility cycles. c. Females of other mammal species only desire sex when they are in a stage of estrus. d. Female sex drive in humans is not at all related to hormones.

102. Binge-eating disorder is characterized by frequent and recurrent binge-eating episodes with associated negative psychological and social problems but a. without subsequent purging episodes. b. without weight gain. c. without weight loss and purging. d. with subsequent purging.

103. Which of the following parts of the brain regulates emotional behaviors and basic biological needs, including hunger, thirst, and the sex drive? a. hypothalamus b. corpus callosum c. cerebellum d. brain stem

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Chap 10_16e 104. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation? a. Mary is motivated to work hard because she can earn bonuses at her job for good performance. b. Bob really enjoys painting in his spare time and tries to find as much time as possible to work on his art, but he does not sell any of his pieces. c. Amy wants to go to medical school so it is really important to her to get good grades in all of her classes. d. Jim earns points from his mother for doing his chores that he can use to earn rewards like video game time.

105. Which of the following is an expression made by a slumped posture and downward gaze? a. nervousness b. anxiety c. shame d. anger 106. A drive that is relatively independent of physical deprivation cycles or body need states is called a a. physiological drive. b. stimulation drive. c. nonhomeostatic drive. d. biological drive.

107. David is getting ready to compete in a game and his heart is starting to beat faster, more sugar is released in his bloodstream, his digestion is temporarily slowed, and blood flow in the skin is more restricted. What bodily process does this reflect? a. The sympathetic branch of the ANS is activating. b. The parasympathetic branch of the ANS is activating. c. The sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS are both activating. d. The lateral branch of the ANS is activating.

108. A polygraph procedure involving testing people with facts that only a non-innocent person could know is known as a. guilty knowledge test. b. personality test. c. crime investigation test. d. crime test.

109. Which of the following is assessed during a polygraph? a. Galvanic skin response b. general stimuli response c. general static response d. Galvanic steady response

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Chap 10_16e 110. Behavioral dieting strategies for weight reduction involve which of the following? a. temporary self-starvation b. changing exercise and eating habits c. only changing exercising d. changing one's thoughts about eating 111. According to Paul Ekman, which of the following is considered one of the six basic emotion? a. jealousy b. guilt c. disgust d. anxiety 112. Improving your self-confidence is one way to do what? a. Improve your need for achievement. b. Improve your need for power. c. Reduce your need for power. d. Attain better balance in your needs for power and achievement.

113. If Julio enjoys playing the piano for fun after school and on weekends, what might decrease his intrinsic motivation to play? a. if Julio's mother offers him a large reward for each time he plays b. if Julio plays a little each day c. if Julio adds challenges for himself to learn to play a new song each week d. if Julio plays for an audience 114. Which of the following statements highlights the main difference between stimulus motives and learned motives? a. Stimulus motives stem from the body's need for motivation and incentive, while learned motives stem from feelings of discovery and the need for power or achievement. b. Stimulus motives stem from the body's need for motivation and incentive, while learned motives stem from the body's need to survive. c. Stimulus motives stem from feelings of discovery and the need for power or achievement, while learned motives stem from the body's need for motivation and incentive. d. Stimulus motives stem from what the body needs to survive, while learned motives are acquired as part of growing up in a particular society or culture.

115. Robert is preparing for a chess match. According to arousal theory, in what physiological state is he most likely to be at peak performance? a. His arousal level should be high. b. His arousal level should be as low as possible. c. His arousal level should be moderate. d. His parasympathetic activity should be higher than your sympathetic activity.

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Chap 10_16e 116. What is an example of unrealistic optimism? a. Susan tells a friend who is dying "Don't worry, you'll get better soon!" b. Jim is hopeful things will turn out OK after setbacks at work, which drive him to continue working. c. Barbara helps a friend see the positive side of a stressful situation. d. Stanley is optimistic about working out his disagreements with his wife, but he still makes an effort to communicate and problem solve around their issues.

117. Pradeep was in a horrible accident that has damaged his amygdala. It is most likely that he a. has lost the ability to experience joy. b. has problems experiencing fear and recognizing fear in others. c. feels excessively depressed. d. has low levels of arousal and happiness.

118. The term nonhomeostatic means a. relatively independent of body need states. b. aroused at virtually any time by almost anything. c. maintaining a comfortable level of arousal or balance. d. the process of activation of the body.

119. According to Solomon, if a stimulus causes a strong emotion, such as fear or pleasure, the relief of that emotion tends to occur when the stimulus ends. This is known as the a. differential emotions theory. b. opponent-process theory. c. James-Lange theory. d. Cannon-Bard theory.

120. Heart pounding, rapid breathing, flushed face, and sweating are examples of what component of emotion? a. behavioral b. physiological c. cognitive d. experimental 121. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, emotional arousal, behavior, and experience are caused simultaneously by the a. cortex. b. hypothalamus. c. hippocampus. d. amygdala.

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Chap 10_16e 122. What do optimistic people tend to find in disappointments? a. anxiety b. strength c. humor d. attitude 123. Maslow’s classification of human motivations by order of importance from basic biological function to selfactualization is known as a. hierarchy of needs. b. hierarchy of motivation. c. pyramid of needs. d. hierarchy of body equilibrium.

124. Which of the following statements describes the primary cause of the body feeling hunger? a. The nerve carrying information between the stomach and brain is what determines hunger. b. The brain receives many signals from parts of the digestive system to control hunger in the body. c. The hypothalamus in the brain is what determines the feeling of hunger in the body. d. A chemical called glucagon-like peptide is the determining factor behind feelings of hunger.

125. If you are preparing to take a test and feel anxious and tell yourself that "I've prepared well for this and have done well on prior exams in this class even when I felt anxious," this is an example of what coping strategy? a. restructuring thoughts b. rehearsal c. relaxation d. preparation 126. What type of disorder is anorexia? a. nervous b. weight c. feeding and eating d. menstrual 127. Which needs are present at the base of Maslow’s pyramid? a. meta needs b. physiological needs c. safety and security needs d. growth needs

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Chap 10_16e 128. Amy is speaking to a friend and is gesturing, leaning forward, and smiling. What is the study of communication through these behaviors called? a. kinesics b. psychology c. behaviorism d. emotionology 129. What did Chartrand find regarding body language? a. If another person copies your gestures and physical postures to some extent, you are more inclined to like him or her. b. If another person copies your gestures and physical postures to some extent, you are less inclined to like him or her. c. If another person copies your gestures and physical postures to some extent, the interaction is more likely to be negative. d. Alexithymics are more likely to copy the gestures and physical postures of others during social interactions.

130. Robert has recently traveled across many time zones from the US back home to Europe, and he is having trouble sleeping and has had stomach issues. What is the most likely cause of Robert's issues? a. Robert must have caught an illness on his long flight. b. Robert has a disturbance in his circadian rhythms due to the extended travel from west to east. c. Robert is experiencing excessive physiological arousal. d. Robert's body's homeostasis is not functioning correctly.

131. An unwillingness or hesitation to eat a particular food due to a conditioned response can be explained by a. biological preparedness. b. extrinsic motivation. c. preadaptation. d. an external eating cue.

132. Many of the physiological changes associated with emotions are caused by which chemicals? a. serotonin, dopamine b. GABA, cortisol c. adrenaline, noradrenaline d. oxytocin, serotonin 133. Which of the following is supported by the research relating to one's fat set point? a. Your body's set point can be changed through diet and exercise. b. Your body's set point is determined by the amygdala. c. When your body weight goes above its set point, you will feel hungry most of the time. d. Fat cells release a substance called leptin when the body weight goes below its set point.

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Chap 10_16e 134. A low-intensity, long-lasting emotional state is called a a. mood. b. disappointment. c. behavior. d. emotional reaction.

135. Which branch of the ANS responds much more slowly than others? a. the sympathetic system b. the parasympathetic system c. the anterior system d. the posterior system 136. Which of these brain regions is part of the limbic system associated with the rapid processing of emotions, such as fear? a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. cerebellum d. amygdala 137. Seeing a large snake and then simultaneously running away from it and becoming frightened is the sequence of events for which theory? a. Schachter’s cognitive theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. James-Lange theory d. arousal theory 138. Which of the following would be an example of extrinsically motivated behavior? a. Spending the afternoon sitting on the beach. b. Buying your partner their favorite ice-cream at the grocery store because it makes you feel good. c. Reading a book by your favorite author. d. Working to earn a paycheck every two weeks.

139. Which of the following can actually increase activity in the sympathetic nervous system? a. paying attention to the emotion b. suppressing or restraining the emotion c. managing the emotion d. letting go of the emotion 140. What factor is most important in how people experience positive and negative events? a. explanatory style b. how often negative events occur c. physiological arousal d. biological motives Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_16e 141. Professor Kwaku notices that one of the students he advises seems to frame her participation and success in her classes in terms of being judged favorably by her classmates and professors and avoiding criticism. This student is motivated by a a. need for security. b. need for arousal. c. need for achievement. d. need for power.

142. Which of the following reflects the need for information, exploration, manipulation, and sensory input beyond simple entertainment? a. Coolidge effect b. nonhomeostatic quality c. arousal theory d. stimulus motives 143. What is demonstrated about the relationship between arousal and performance forming an inverted U function? a. Peak performance generally occurs at a moderate level of arousal around the middle of the curve. b. As arousal goes up, performance goes down. c. As arousal goes down, performance goes up. d. Peak performance occurs at the tail ends of the U-shaped curve.

144. Why is the accuracy of “lie detector” tests doubtful? a. Because of the parasympathetic branch that reverses emotional arousal, calming and relaxing the body.

After a period of high emotion, the heart is slowed, the pupils return to normal size, and blood pressure bodily changes that accompany emotion. b. Because of the sympathetic branch that activates the body for emergency action—for “fighting or fleeing.” It does this by arousing some body systems and inhibiting others. c. Because of the effect that comprises sugar that is released into the bloodstream for quick energy, the heart beats faster to supply blood to the muscles, digestion is temporarily slowed, blood flow in the skin is restricted to reduce bleeding, and so forth. d. Because of the changes in heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, and the galvanic skin response (GSR) is mismatched by a set point of value.

145. Which term refers to the act of assigning causes to behavior? a. subjective experience b. attribution c. cognitive labeling d. adaptive behaviors 146. What of the following is information that is collected by a lie detector machine (polygraph)? a. facial expressions b. pupil dilation c. blood pressure d. cortisol levels Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_16e 147. Which of these refers to the body's preference to maintain ideal or comfortable levels of arousal? a. homeostasis b. motivational theory c. biological motives d. arousal theory 148. A dog's lateral hypothalamus was damaged after a brain injury. What behavioral changes might you expect in the dog's eating habits? a. The dog will only want to eat unhealthy food rich in fat. b. The dog's appetite will be unaffected, but it will gain a significant amount of weight. c. The dog will eat excessively and gain a large amount of weight. d. The dog will be less likely to feel hungry and will eat significantly less and may have trouble initiating eating at all.

149. If someone sneaks up behind you on a dark street and says, “Boo!” your body might react with a pounding heart, sweating palms, and hyperventilation. These reactions are commonly known as a. emotional feelings. b. physiological arousal. c. parasympathetic activity. d. behavioral changes.

150. What factors affect work quality in an employment setting? a. safety motives b. intrinsic factors c. information factors d. esteem factors 151. Sex drive in men is related to the amount of what chemical produced by the testes? a. androgens b. estrogen c. adrenaline d. serotonin 152. Joey tends to suppress his emotions since he wants to always appear calm and collected. What might be a consequence of this? a. His thinking and memory may be more impaired. b. His sympathetic activity will decrease. c. He may be better able to cope with life. d. His parasympathetic activity will increase.

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Chap 10_16e 153. You are walking across campus and see a friend that you have not seen all summer. According to the JamesLange theory of emotions, what might happen? a. You feel happiness followed by physiological changes. b. You experience physiological changes followed by feelings of happiness. c. You experience feelings of happiness and physiological changes at the same time. d. You experience cognitive appraisal followed by feelings of happiness and physiological 154. In different countries, the “thumbs up” expression can have very different meanings, some positive and others very negative or offensive. What is this an example of? a. This is an example of social motives. b. Evidence against the idea of basic emotions. c. Cultural differences and importance of context in understanding emotional expressions. d. This is a type of sign language.

155. Which of the following feeding and eating disorders has the highest mortality rate of all mental illnesses due to its intense level of self-evaluation and fear? a. behavioral dieting b. anorexia nervosa c. bulimia nervosa d. binge-eating disorder 156. Which branch of the ANS activates the body for emergency action, such as fight-or-flight responses? a. the parasympathetic branch b. the anterior anxiety branch c. the sympathetic branch d. the posterior anxiety branch 157. What type of people prefer high levels of stimulation? a. sensation seeking b. arousal seeking c. extraverts d. stimulus seeking 158. Which of the following statements describes behavioral mimicry? a. Behavioral mimicry is the unconscious imitation of vocal patterns of others. b. Behavioral mimicry is the unconscious imitation of mannerisms and facial expression of others. c. Behavioral mimicry is the conscious imitation of vocal patterns of others. d. Behavioral mimicry is the conscious imitation of mannerisms and facial expression of others.

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Chap 10_16e 159. Which of the following best describes the Schachter and Singer's theory of emotion? a. attribution and kinesics b. arousal and behavior c. nature and nurture d. arousal and context 160. People who are bold, independent, and who value change are more likely to a. be low in sensation seeking. b. be high in sensation seeking. c. not take risks. d. be extraverted.

161. A disorder marked by excessive eating followed by inappropriate methods of preventing weight gain is called a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. behavioral dieting. d. binge eating disorder.

162. In an animal experiment, a researcher wants to see if they can get a rat to develop a taste aversion to sugar water. Which of the following would be likely to cause a taste aversion in this experiment? a. The researcher puts a tasteless chemical into the sugar water that causes nausea. b. The researcher gives the animal sugar water each day for seven days. c. The researcher gives the animal a bowl of sugar water and three days later administers a chemical to cause nausea. d. The researcher gives the animal sugar water and sometimes randomly shocks the animal when it drinks it.

163. Linda takes good care of herself and makes efforts to stay healthy because she believes her efforts are likely to be successful. What type of person is she likely to be? a. optimist b. pessimist c. extravert d. neurotic 164. Which of the following is a key symptom of the eating disorder known as anorexia nervosa? a. refusal to maintain a normal body weight b. recurring binge eating c. purging behavior following binge eating d. excessive self-evaluation

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Chap 10_16e 165. In Western cultures, expressing what emotion is widely viewed as a natural reaction to feeling that you have been treated unfairly? a. shame b. anxious c. sadness d. anger 166. According to contemporary emotion theories, what emotion component gives sudden rise to cognitive labeling, behavior, facial/postural expressions, and emotional feelings? a. appraisal b. ANS arousal c. emotional stimulus d. cognitive labeling 167. Eating of insects is rare in the United States, even though insects are nutritious and eating them is actually quite common in other parts of the world. What is this an example of in regard to eating behavior? a. emotional factors b. cultural factors c. biological factors d. taste aversion 168. Which type of motivation comes from outside of a person? a. intrinsic b. extrinsic c. meta needs d. biological motives 169. Aki is overweight and his doctor thinks there might be an issue with the functioning of which of the following that can lead to overeating and obesity? a. leptin b. adrenalin c. stomach acid d. dopamine 170. What is an example of moods being shaped by weekly schedules? a. Karla works Monday through Friday and she has a relatively lower mood on these days compared to weekend days. b. Martin tends to have a lower mood in the morning, which improves over the course of the day. c. Lance's average mood doesn't noticeably change from day to day. d. Joyce's mood seems to randomly go up or down each day.

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Chap 10_16e 171. In Maslow’s hierarchy, the higher-level needs associated with self-actualization are called a. safety needs. b. basic needs. c. physiological needs. d. growth needs.

172. If you get sick while eating a food, you may develop an active dislike for that particular food due to association with nausea or sickness. This condition is commonly known as a. bait shyness. b. behavioral dieting. c. taste aversion. d. homeostasis.

173. While walking in the woods you suddenly encounter a rattlesnake. What part of your brain automatically activates a fear response? a. the hypothalamus b. the amygdala c. the thalamus d. the hippocampus 174. A cat enjoys playing with a toy mouse even though it can't actually consume it. What is this an example of? a. biological preparedness b. basic needs c. feeding and eating disorder d. stimulus motive 175. If Jackie is in an irritable mood, she is more likely to get angry with her coworkers. This is an example of what? a. A depressed mood can predispose a person to having negative emotions such as anger. b. Moods and emotions such as irritability and anger are related and tend to occur together. c. Moods tend to occur in cycles, so feelings of anger are inevitable to a full mood cycle. d. Moods are associated with weekly schedules, so the feelings of anger will be depending on the events that are scheduled.

176. The proportion of body fat that tends to be maintained by changes in hunger and eating is known as the a. external eating cue. b. set point. c. base rate. d. feedback loop.

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Chap 10_16e 177. The desire to have a social impact and control over others is called a. social anxiety. b. need for achievement. c. need for power. d. need for arousal.

178. From an evolutionary perspective, why would animals have developed estrus? a. to make males more fertile b. to increase the number of times a female mates with a male c. so the female knows that she is fertile d. to increase the number of offspring produced 179. According to arousal theory, who are we most likely to love? a. those who get us stirred up emotionally b. those who make us feel calm c. those who are most like us d. those who match our emotional expressions the best 180. If Joe normally goes to bed at 12 AM and wakes at 8 AM each morning, at what time is likely Joe's lowest body temperature, as an indicator of his circadian rhythm? a. 5–6 AM b. 7–8 AM c. 12–1 AM d. 2–3 AM

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Chap 10_16e Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. b 20. d 21. d 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. a

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Chap 10_16e 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. a 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_16e 55. a 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. b 71. a 72. d 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. a 77. b 78. a 79. c 80. d 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_16e 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. b 87. a 88. b 89. a 90. b 91. c 92. b 93. b 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. a 101. c 102. a 103. a 104. b 105. c 106. c 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_16e 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. a 119. b 120. b 121. a 122. c 123. a 124. b 125. a 126. c 127. b 128. a 129. a 130. b 131. a 132. c 133. d 134. a 135. b 136. d 137. b

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Chap 10_16e 138. d 139. b 140. a 141. c 142. d 143. a 144. c 145. b 146. c 147. a 148. d 149. b 150. b 151. a 152. a 153. b 154. c 155. b 156. c 157. a 158. b 159. d 160. b 161. a 162. a 163. a 164. a 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_16e 166. a 167. b 168. b 169. a 170. a 171. d 172. c 173. b 174. d 175. a 176. b 177. c 178. d 179. a 180. a

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Chap 11_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. According to sex therapist Barry McCarthy, which one of the following is an element necessary for continuing a healthy sexual relationship? a. sexual anticipation b. sexual abstinence c. celibacy d. supernormal stimulus 2. According to the American Psychological Association (2010), unhealthy sexualization occurs when a. a person is led to narrowly equate sexual attractiveness with being “sexy.” b. a person is seldom valued based on sexual appearance or behavior. c. couples express their emotions in an unfiltered way, even if they are harsh or mean. d. a person values their partner’s sexuality above their own to increase intimacy.

3. What is the best explanation for why a victim of child molestation is likely to suffer greater trauma when abused by a close relative rather than a stranger? a. Serious harm is likely to occur if the abuser is someone the child deeply trusts. b. The victim will create an association between their family and the abuser. c. It will be easier for the victim to avoid reminders of the abuse. d. The victim will feel less sure that the family will understand the level of trauma.

4. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the impact of HIV infections and its precedence to other diseases? a. HIV infections can lead to the development of AIDS within two months or it could take up to 10 years. b. HIV infections are spread by a single form of sexual intercourse—oral, and it has affected homosexuals exclusively. c. HIV infections strengthen the immune system but weaken the functioning of the circulatory system. d. HIV infections can be prevented and cured through the regular use of antibiotics.

5. Janine has genitals suggestive of both male and female sexes. Based on this, Janine would be considered which of the following? a. intersex b. androgynous c. gender strained d. gender dysphoric 6. Which one of the following is a sign that a child has been subject to molestation? a. unusual avoidance of, or interest in, sexual matters b. excessive sleep and general inactivity c. increase in self-esteem or self-worth d. increase in concentration at studies

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Chap 11_16e 7. Compared to 50 years ago, which of the following is true regarding changes in sexual behavior? a. It is true that sexual behavior has generally increased in both men and women over the past 50 years. b. It is true that with the increase in sexual behavior over the past 50 years, today's traditional sexual behavior has become less responsible and more casual. c. It is not true that sexual behavior has increased over the past 50 years; we are just more open about discussing it today. d. It is not true that sexual behavior has increased over the past 50 years; previous studies just reported incorrect statistics.

8. Which one of the following terms refers to the release of sperm and seminal fluid at the time of orgasm? a. ejaculation b. resolution c. castration d. insemination 9. When developing a gender identity, which form of behavior describes actions directed toward the achievement of a goal? a. instrumental b. explicit c. expressive d. psychogenic 10. Vaccination is a good prevention method for which of the following STDs? a. chlamydia b. syphilis c. HPV d. gonorrhea 11. The strength of one’s motivation to engage in sexual behavior is called a. sex drive. b. sex segregation. c. sexual dimorphism. d. sexual mimicry.

12. What constitutes a behavioral risk factor for STDs? a. having two or more sex partners b. using a condom while having vaginal, oral, or anal sex with an infected partner c. sex with someone familiar and who has had only one partner till date d. sex with someone familiar who has never taken drugs or had sex without a condom

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Chap 11_16e 13. A condition in which muscle spasms prevent a person with a vagina from having intercourse is called a. vaginismus. b. menarche. c. vaginitis. d. menopause.

14. Sage was born with only one X chromosome and no Y chromosome. She has fully developed female sex organs and her ovaries are fully functioning, but she has a slight predominance of androgen over estrogen. Sage is female according to which biological dimension of sex? a. genital sex and gonadal sex b. genital sex and hormonal sex c. genetic sex and hormonal sex d. genetic sex and gonadal sex 15. Kiri is a 40-year-old woman who lives with her husband of 12 years. Jerry is a 31-year-old man who lives with his new wife. What is the strongest commonality that Kiri and Jerry have in their individual sex lives? a. Both Kiri and Jerry are likely to frequently engage in sexual intercourse with two different partners b. Both Kiri and Jerry are very strongly likely to engage in frequent vaginal intercourse. c. Both Kiri and Jerry are strongly likely to engage in anal sex with a member of the opposite sex. d. Both Kiri and Jerry are strongly likely to engage in sexual contact with a member of the same sex.

16. An argument against a transgender person having sex reassignment surgery as a child focuses on the ability of the individuals to choose for themselves whether or not to have surgery. What is the strongest benefit of having sex reassignment surgery as a child? a. The ability to spend your developmental years and into maturation as an adult in the body with which you are comfortable. b. The surgery will be far more emotionally simple on a child than it would be on a fully grown adult. c. If the secondary sex characteristics that develop during puberty are fully formed, the sex reassignment surgery becomes far more difficult. d. If the child changes his or her mind about his or her new sexual assignment, it is a simpler procedure to reverse if you are younger.

17. The phase of climax and release of sexual excitement is called a. orgasm. b. resolution. c. foreplay. d. flashing.

18. In the context of the phases of human sexual responses, which of the following describes resolution? a. the return to lower levels of sexual tension and arousal b. the climax and release of sexual excitement c. the intensification of physical arousal d. the initiation of sexual arousal

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Chap 11_16e 19. Which one of the following is an accurate characteristic of the mental health of gay and lesbian people? a. They are more likely to be mentally ill than heterosexuals. b. They are more likely to suffer from anxiety and depression. c. They are less likely to be mentally ill than heterosexuals. d. They are less likely to suffer from anxiety and depression.

20. Which one of the following terms refers to a pattern of behaviors regarded as “male” or “female” within a culture? a. gender role b. gender narcissism c. gender symbol d. gender reveal 21. Once a sexually abusive relationship has been established, an abuser of children will often utilize which tactic to ensure the continued compliance of their victim? a. threatening their victim with force and anger b. withholding the approval that the victim may desire of an adult c. intimidating the victim by introducing other abusers into the relationship d. appealing to the victim’s wish to be seen as mature 22. In which circumstance would a lack of sexual desire be considered a sexual dysfunction? a. A patient has experienced a lack of sexual desire for a significant period of time and is greatly concerned b. A patient feels a sudden lack of sexual desire and considers it to be a serious problem. c. A patient is showing signs of reduced sexual interest but does not appear concerned. d. A patient is suffering from a physical illness and has a reduced level of sexual desire as a result.

23. Which of the following groups remain at the greatest risk of HIV infection in North America? a. men who have sex with other men b. women who have sex with other women c. women who have sex with one man d. men who have sex with one woman 24. Stanley and Kwan have been in a monogamous relationship for four months. Stanley was in a serious relationship before being with Kwan, while Kwan only casually dated around before being with Stanley. Both got tested for STDs, and both tests came back negative. What is the level of risk of either Stanley or Kwan contracting any STDs? a. Both Stanley and Kwan are completely safe from contracting any STDs. b. Kwan has more of a risk of contracting an STD due to his sexual history. c. Stanley has more of a risk of contracting an STD due to his sexual history. d. Both Stanley and Kwan are both at equal risk of contracting STDs.

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Chap 11_16e 25. What is the term that refers to problems with sexual desire, arousal, or response? a. sexual masochism disorder b. sexual sadism disorder c. sexual dysfunction d. hypersexuality 26. "Flashing” or displaying the genitals to unwilling viewers is termed a. exhibitionistic disorder. b. voyeuristic disorder. c. frotteuristic disorder d. pedophilic disorder 27. Which one of the following terms refers to sex as indicated by the presence of ovaries or testes? a. gonadal sex b. genetic sex c. hormonal sex d. genital sex 28. Walter and Jorge have been married for five years. They have both been very busy traveling for their high-level jobs and have not seen each other in six weeks. Jorge and Walter decide to set aside time to have sex when they are back home together. Which of Barry McCarthy's four elements of a healthy relationship is Jorge experiencing? a. sexual anticipation b. valuing one's sexuality c. believing that you deserve sexual pleasure d. valuing intimacy 29. Which one of the following when consumed in larger doses is said to impair sexual responses? a. alcohol b. chocolate c. oysters d. milk 30. Which of the following is the most effective solution for resolving issues of secondary erectile disorder? a. Immediately see a physician for a prescribed drug. b. Attempt the technique called sensate focus to build communication skills. c. Let the issue resolve itself, as it should diminish after 4–6 weeks. d. Seek the assistance of supernormal stimuli to counteract the effects.

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Chap 11_16e 31. Which of the following can be considered an advantage of having casual sex? a. The challenge of romantic attachment and finding a lifelong partner is absent. b. Since intercourse is more commonly replaced with oral sex, the danger of STDs is removed. c. Since both partners follow the casual script, no psychological distress is involved. d. Partners can apply double standards and not worry about the consequences.

32. Areas of the body that produce pleasure, provoke erotic desire, or both are called a. erogenous zones. b. neural networks. c. cognitive maps. d. plateau phases.

33. People who are romantically and erotically attracted to men and women are referred to as a. bisexual. b. asexual. c. homosexual. d. heterosexual 34. If a woman is romantically and erotically attracted to only women, what would she be categorized as? a. homosexual b. heterosexual c. bisexual d. asexual 35. Distress that may occur when gender identity does not match a person’s biological sex assigned at birth is termed a. gender dysphoria. b. gendercide. c. gender narcissism. d. gender polarization 36. When a person derives sexual pleasure from inflicting pain and humiliation, this is also known as a. sexual sadism disorder. b. exhibitionistic disorder. c. transvestic disorder. d. fetishistic disorder.

37. According to the American Psychological Association (2010), when does unhealthy sexualization occur? a. when a person is objectified sexually (treated as an object for the gratification of other people) b. when a person is valued solely based on the characteristics they possess and not on the sexual appearance or behavior c. when a person is led to equate sexual attractiveness with being “loving and affectionate” d. when a person is valued by his or her partner for their sexuality Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_16e 38. What is one way that masturbation can help sexual development? a. Masturbation provides a healthy substitute for sexual involvement at a time when adolescents are maturing emotionally. b. Masturbation can help adolescents practice safe sex in a safe environment. c. Masturbation can decrease sex drive and greatly reduce chances of getting a sexually transmitted disease. d. Masturbation provides a healthy outlet for sexual aggression and built up testosterone.

39. Which one of the following terms refers to culturally constructed distinctions between male and female characteristics? a. gender b. self c. personality d. ego 40. Jada is trying to explain to her partner, Tom, how the male and female sexual response cycles differ. Which of the following should she tell him? a. The excitement phase is more commonly much shorter for males than it is for females. b. The female arousal levels commonly rebound for multiple orgasms, while this occurrence is rare for males. c. There is much more variation in the order of the stages of sexual arousal for females than there is for males. d. After the peak of the orgasm phase, most females return to the plateau phase, while males commonly move to the resolution phase.

41. Androgen insensitivity syndrome results in which of the following? a. an extra X chromosome b. male development c. female development d. high sensitivity to testosterone 42. Which parameter is NOT likely to affect the extent of the emotional trauma suffered by a victim of child molestation? a. the location of the abuse b. whether genital sexual acts are involved c. how long the abuse lasts d. the victim's relationship to the abuser

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Chap 11_16e 43. Poppy and Omar have been experiencing some difficulty in their sexual relationship. They have each gone to their friends for advice on how to deal with their issues. Which of the following would be the most helpful advice for them to follow? a. Partners should be responsive to each other’s needs at an emotional level and recognize that all sexual problems are mutual. b. Partners are urged to be responsive to each other’s needs at a physical level and all of their emotional issues will then resolve themselves. c. Partners should be responsive to each other’s needs at an emotional level and recognize that all sexual problems can be traced to the source of one partner. d. Partners should be waiting for their significant other to express their emotional needs in order to come to the root of the sexual problem.

44. Following the guidelines for a healthy relationship can help foster intimacy and communication. Why is being open with your feelings the most important of these guidelines? a. Being open with your emotions helps create a sense of connectivity and intimacy between partners which strengthens the relationship. b. Expressing your feelings with your partner will increase the level of your physical intimacy with each other. c. Being open with your feelings prevents gunnysacking, or saving up feelings and complaints to use as ammunition in a fight. d. Expressing your feelings with your partner help you unleash all of the negative feelings and feel better about your role in the relationship.

45. Which one of the following is a symptom of genital herpes in people with penises? a. water blisters or open sores b. milky discharge from urethra c. swollen lymph nodes d. fever lasting more than 10 days 46. In the context of sexual freedom, which one of the following best describes a double standard? a. applying different criteria for judging the appropriateness of male and female sexual behavior b. a condition in which a person’s biological sex does not match his or her preferred gender c. conflict that arises between personal identity and society's standards and expectations associated with a gender role d. the presence of both “masculine” and “feminine” traits in a single person 47. Sexual freedom, at its core, is a positive notion. Which of the following is one of the most definitive ways in which sexual freedom can be used in a negative fashion? a. when sexual freedom is claimed by females to explain their sexual behavior b. when sexual freedom is harnessed by male to explain their sexual behavior c. when sexual freedom is claimed by someone who does not have the appropriate emotional development d. when sexual freedom is used to defend the objectification of a person

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Chap 11_16e 48. Which one of the following is believed to be an aphrodisiac? a. oyster b. ecstasy c. alcohol d. cocaine 49. Which one of the following is a feature of androgynous individuals? a. They typically experience less gender role strain. b. They are typically unaffected by gender roles. c. They are severely hindered by images of “feminine” behavior. d. They typically experience more constraint from gender role strain.

50. Which of the following STDs is only symptomatic in people with a vagina, and causes intense pain in the lower back, abdomen, or both, along with fever? a. HPV b. hepatitis b c. chlamydia d. pelvic inflammatory disease 51. What is a common reason many people dismiss the impact of STDs on a person’s health? a. Many of the common STDs are treatable and asymptomatic. b. The risk of contracting serious STDs is low among sexually active adults. c. STDs can be treated by medical professionals. d. STDs primarily affect the homosexual community.

52. For which sexual disorder would the squeeze technique be a useful form of treatment? a. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder b. premature ejaculation c. female orgasmic disorder d. hypoactive sexual desire 53. The study of how genes are expressed during development is called a. epigenetics. b. menarche. c. endocrinology. d. behavioral genetics.

54. Which one of the following is a primary symptom of HIV/AIDS? a. easy bruising or unexplained bleeding b. warty growths on genitals c. milky discharge from urethra d. water blisters or open sores

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Chap 11_16e 55. Which of the following is a valid explanation for the difficulty of fighting the spread of AIDs? a. The long incubation period makes it difficult to detect HIV infection, which increases the likelihood of transmission. b. The HIV virus is incredibly resilient and can survive outside of the human body for days or weeks. c. The HIV virus is easily spread through food preparation or casual contact. d. There are no available treatments that are proven to affect the HIV transmission rate.

56. Amida and Elias are looking to spice up their sex life, so they agree to watch pornography together to stimulate their sexual excitement. What is one potential drawback for Amida and Elias in using pornography in their sex life? a. Porn is so addicting that viewers will likely not be able to function sexually without after using it once. b. Porn incites such a fantastical view of sex that a couple’s attempts to recreate the acts themselves can be dangerous to their health. c. Porn can be so exciting that normal sex seems to pale by comparison, and eventually desensitization can occur resulting in a lack of intimacy. d. Porn websites often use clickbait to lure its users into pay schemes that can cost users large amounts of money if involved.

57. Which of the following is recommended for busy couples who want to build a healthy sexual relationship? a. Busy couples should set aside time to spend together. b. Busy couples should experiment with new partners to increase their own sexual desires. c. Busy couples should opt for supernormal stimulus more often. d. Hook-up scripts should be frequently used by busy couples.

58. Which STD causes vaginal discharge and inflammation, and painful urination in females? a. gonorrhea b. HIV/AIDS c. hepatitis B d. syphilis 59. Which term describes actions that communicate emotion or personal feelings? a. expressive b. instrumental c. proactive d. psychogenic 60. If a man is romantically and erotically attracted only to women, what would he be classified as? a. heterosexual b. homosexual c. bisexual d. asexual

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Chap 11_16e 61. Who is categorized as asexual? a. A person who is romantically and erotically attracted to same-sex persons b. A person who is not romantically or erotically attracted to either men or women c. A person who is romantically and erotically attracted to both men and women d. A person who is romantically and erotically attracted to members of the opposite sex 62. What is the term that best represents an individual who has genitals suggestive of both sexes? a. intersex b. bipolar c. hyposexual d. hypersexual 63. Which one of the following is viewed as a supernormal stimulus? a. porn b. casual sex c. traditional focus on intercourse d. hook-up 64. Saving up feelings and complaints to use as ammunition in a fight is termed a. gunnysacking. b. flirting. c. courting. d. bullying.

65. Which one of the following defines paraphilic disorders? a. deviations in sexual behavior such as pedophilia, exhibitionism, fetishism, or voyeurism b. disorders that include lack of sexual motivation or desire c. a condition where the person desires sexual activity but does not become sexually aroused d. a condition where the person does not have orgasms or experiences orgasm too soon or too late 66. Which of the following is a common method of contracting HIV? a. direct contact with body fluids b. the ingestion of contaminated food and water c. social kissing, hugging, and touching d. bites from a mosquito that has already bitten an infected person 67. "Gender dysphoria" is a condition in which a. a person experiences extreme distress from their gender variance. b. a person is unable to decide their personal gender identity. c. a person with male and female reproductive organs decides not to select a gender identity. d. a person experiences no sexual desire or motivation due to their gender variance.

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Chap 11_16e 68. Which hormone, when present during the prenatal period of development, is primarily responsible for determining the child’s external genitalia? a. testosterone b. progesterone c. estrogen d. oxytocin 69. Which one of the following is an advantage to being an androgynous individual? a. Androgynous individuals are more flexible when it comes to coping with difficult situations. b. Androgynous individuals choose to ignore emotionally expressive capacities, and therefore, show more masculine traits. c. Androgynous individuals have lower emotional intelligence, but higher IQ. d. Androgynous individuals are typically independent as they find it hard to accept emotional support from others, particularly women.

70. Which one of the following terms refers to a mental plan that guides sexual behavior? a. sexual script b. sexual network c. cognitive map d. resolution 71. How does the average frequency of peoples’ sex drives change as they enter old age? a. Sexual activity gradually comes to an end as people enter their 70s. b. Regularity and opportunity are the crucial factors to extend sex drive in old age. c. Taking aphrodisiacs such as powdered rhinoceros horn helps improve sex drive in old age. d. Sex in old age is unhealthy and should be avoided as it can lead to several other health problems.

72. Daniel and Christoph are men who have been in a loving, committed relationship for over 35 years. Daniel’s sister, Claire claims, “Gay men cannot have healthy, long-term relationships, because they’ll never be able to have the family dynamic that a man and a woman will have.” What is Claire exhibiting with her opinion? a. homosexism b. homophobia c. heterosexism d. heterophobia 73. Luiz is a five-year-old boy, who has five sisters and spends a lot of time playing with them. When he is in school, Luiz spends most of his time playing with the girls in his class. What would be an accurate description of Luiz's behavior according to the biological biasing effect? a. Luiz experienced prenatal exposure to male hormones, which has had a relatively slight masculinizing effect on his behavior. b. Luiz's exposure to his many sisters has had a relatively slight feminizing effect on his behavior. c. Luiz experienced prenatal exposure to female hormones, which has had a relatively slight feminizing effect on his behavior. d. Luiz's exposure to his many sisters has had a relatively slight masculinizing effect on his behavior.

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Chap 11_16e 74. “Nondemanding intercourse” that is being controlled by the person exhibiting a sexual dysfunction would be a suitable course of treatment for which classification of sexual dysfunction? a. female sexual interest/arousal disorder b. female orgasmic disorder c. hypersexual disorder d. delayed ejaculation 75. The chromosomes needed for male development are a. an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. b. two Y chromosomes. c. an X chromosome and two Y chromosomes. d. two X chromosomes.

76. Which one of the following refers to forced intercourse that occurs in the context of a date or other voluntary encounter? a. acquaintance rape b. forcible rape c. gray rape d. statutory rape 77. Adam and Jack are twin boys; Jack recently came out as gay. What is the probability that Adam is also gay? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% 78. What are aphrodisiacs? a. substances that increase sexual desire or pleasure b. substances that decrease sexual motivation c. individuals who identify with both sexes d. individuals who are born with a particular biological sex, but identify with the opposite gender 79. Historically, parents and other adults in Western countries like the United States tended to encourage girls in emotion-oriented or a. expressive behaviors. b. instrumental behaviors. c. aggressive behaviors. d. goal-directed behaviors.

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Chap 11_16e 80. The method for inhibiting ejaculation by compressing the tip of the penis is called a. the squeeze technique. b. delayed ejaculation. c. push-pull strategy. d. circumcision.

81. What is the first level of sexual response indicated by initial signs of sexual arousal? a. excitement phase b. plateau phase c. orgasm phase d. resolution phase 82. Which of the following typically marks the start of the process to acquire gender identity? a. labeling b. stereotyping c. non-conforming d. policing 83. Which of the following is valid advice to foster intimacy and communication? a. be open about feelings b. be firm about expectations c. establish who is right or wrong d. avoid expressing negative emotions 84. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the effects of pornography? a. Porn can be so exciting that normal sex seems dull by comparison. b. With excessive use of porn, sensitization sets in. c. Compulsive users of porn are typically better at maintaining long-term relationships. d. Porn helps couples objectify each other sexually and thus improves relationships.

85. Despite the fact that Ken is male and Kara is female and their biological makeup is so different, their levels of sexual interest are very similar. What is likely to be the strongest factor contributing to this? a. The female body is more sensitive to testosterone than the male body, so it takes lower doses to initiate sexual arousal. b. The female body is more sensitive to estrogen than the male body, so it takes lower doses to initiate sexual arousal. c. The female body is less sensitive to testosterone than the male body, so it takes higher doses to initiate sexual arousal. d. The female body is less sensitive to estrogen than the male body, so it takes higher doses to initiate sexual arousal.

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Chap 11_16e 86. What is the term that refers to false beliefs about rape that tend to blame the victim and increase the likelihood that some men will think that rape is justified? a. rape myths b. rape schedule c. rape kits d. rape fantasy 87. The short period after orgasm during which males are unable to again reach orgasm is called a. refractory period. b. plateau period. c. resolution period. d. stimulation period.

88. Ellison and Irene have been engaging in casual sexual intercourse off and on for about a month. Ellison always tells Irene that she is, "the sexiest person he has ever been with." Irene was flattered at first, but after some thought, it does not make her feel good. Which of the APA conditions for unhealthy sexualization is Irene experiencing? a. A person is valued solely due to sexual appearance or behavior, not other characteristics. b. A person is led to narrowly equate sexual attractiveness with being “sexy.” c. A person is objectified sexually (treated as an object for the gratification of other people). d. A person is inappropriately used in a sexual way by another person.

89. Which one of the following accurately details the result of sterilization? a. The process involves medical procedures such as vasectomy or tubal ligation that make a man or a woman infertile. b. The process leads to asexuality in the majority of men and women. c. The process leads to loss of interest in sex in the majority of men and women. d. The process involves the surgical removal of the testicles or ovaries.

90. Researchers have found that greater overall health and well-being of citizens, lower rates of crime, greater economic prosperity, and more effective government can be directly attributed to which of the following? a. civic engagement b. entrepreneurship c. social loafing d. brainstorming 91. If a person has either little or no sexual motivation or sexual feelings or has too much, he would most likely be suffering from a a. orgasm disorder. b. arousal disorder. c. sexual pain disorder. d. desire disorder

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Chap 11_16e 92. What is the term used to describe the presence of both “masculine” and “feminine” traits in a single person? a. androgyny b. gender variant c. bisexual d. asexual 93. Which one of the following is an effect of oversexualization? a. It leads young girls to see themselves as having value only as sexual objects. b. It results in high self-esteem and confidence. c. It enables girls to perform extremely well in intellectual activities. d. It increases the age at which young girls engage in risky sexual behaviors.

94. Lorrie had always felt that she was different from the other kids in school, because she never truly felt like

herself. When she was younger, Lorrie identified as a boy, but she knew she wanted to make her outward appearance reflect how she felt inside through undergoing a. androgyny. b. gender role socialization. c. gender dysphoria. d. sex reassignment surgery.

95. At birth, Alex’s sex was assigned as female. Throughout their life, however, Alex has identified more as having a male gender. How would Alex most commonly identify? a. gender variant b. asexual c. gender dysphoric d. intersexual 96. What would be the primary symptom of a person diagnosed with pedophilic disorder? a. sex with children or child molesting b. "flashing," or displaying the genitals to unwilling people c. "peeping," or viewing the genitals of others without their permission d. sexually touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting adult, usually in a public place 97. Russell and Alma are attempting to increase their sexual compatibility by trying to achieve simultaneous orgasm.

Which of the following reasons is the most valid for why Russell and Alma's goal could be misguided? a. It is impossible for sexual partners to achieve simultaneous orgasms. b. Research shows that simultaneous orgasm has been found to not be pleasurable for either partner. c. The inability to achieve simultaneous orgasm can inhibit sexual enjoyment and intimacy between partners. d. The ability to achieve simultaneous orgasm will create a spirit of competition between couples and inhibit intimacy.

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Chap 11_16e 98. Which one of the following accurately reflects a growing trend related to sex reassignment surgeries? a. The surgery is sometimes carried out with young people. b. Adults who seek the surgery are unhappy with the results. c. The long-term psychological costs of having surgery usually outweigh the benefits. d. The failure rate for this surgery is higher among children than adults.

99. When parents tell their daughters that “girls need to be nice,” what is the most accurate description for what they are doing? a. gender role stereotyping b. gender role confusion c. gender role socialization d. gender role appropriation 100. How do sadism and masochism differ from each other in terms of sexual pleasure? a. Sadism derives sexual pleasure from inflicting pain or humiliation, while masochism derives pleasure from receiving pain or humiliation. b. Sadism derives sexual pleasure from receiving pain or humiliation, while masochism derives pleasure from inflicting pain or humiliation. c. Sadism derives sexual pleasure from causing anxiety or guilt in a partner, while masochism derives pleasure from feeling anxiety or guilt. d. Sadism derives sexual pleasure from feeling anxiety or guilt, while masochism derives pleasure from causing anxiety or guilt in a partner.

101. Twice a month, Robert takes his two year-old son Braden to the store to get groceries for the household. What is the type of behavior that Robert is reinforcing in his son with these trips? a. instrumental behavior b. emotional behavior c. expressive behavior d. biological behavior 102. What is premature ejaculation? a. a persistent, upsetting loss of sexual desire b. an inability to maintain an erection for lovemaking c. a persistent delay or absence of ejaculation during lovemaking d. ejaculation that consistently occurs before the man and his partner want it to occur 103. Glen plans to fully transition into the man he wishes to be with a sex reassignment surgery. When Glen told his family and coworkers, they were not very accepting, and Glen soon developed severe anxiety, which led to a. gender dysphoria. b. gender variance. c. gender role strain. d. gender confusion.

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Chap 11_16e 104. Jordan encourages her son, Ari, to have dance parties before bed to let all of his feelings from the day out.

What kind of behavior is Jordan reinforcing with this activity? a. instrumental behavior b. expressive behavior c. goal-directed behavior d. biological behavior 105. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between penis size and the sexual pleasure of female partners? a. Males with larger penises are able to provide more intense pleasure to their sexual partners. b. Female subjective feelings of pleasure and intensity of orgasm are not related to penis size. c. Males with larger penises are able to engage in sexual activity longer than males with smaller penises. d. Female subjective feelings of pleasure and intensity of orgasm are related to penis size in instances of long-term relationships.

106. Which one of the following is an individual psychological benefit of civic engagement? a. higher self-esteem and better relationships with others b. greater economic prosperity and more effective government c. greater overall health and well-being of citizens d. lower rates of crime 107. According to sex therapist Barry McCarthy, which element of creating a healthy sexual relationship helps couples deal with any negative experiences that might occur? a. sexual anticipation b. valuing one’s sexuality c. believing you deserve sexual pleasure d. valuing intimacy 108. Mariana and her boyfriend, Lee, are out on a date when Lee begins to kiss Mariana. Which phase of sexual response will Mariana move into after she has passed the initial levels of arousal? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution 109. Which one of the following is a medical procedure for sterilization? a. tubal ligation b. squeeze method c. circumcision d. female genital mutilation

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Chap 11_16e 110. A paraphilic disorder where the focus of paraphilia is on nonhuman objects would be defined as a. fetishistic. b. exhibitionistic. c. voyeuristic. d. frotteuristic.

111. Which one of the following describes a supernormal stimulus? a. any stimulus that is more potent than the natural stimuli that we have evolved to encounter b. the use of fictional or non-natural stimuli to achieve sexual arousal c. any stimuli that originates outside the accepted, or “normal” definition of human sexuality d. the excessive use of natural stimuli to achieve sexual arousal and satisfaction 112. Jason is a male patient who is prone to acts of exhibitionism. Jason is most likely trying to a. prove his manhood to overcome a deep sense of inadequacy. b. express a deeply felt rage toward women. c. express repressed intimacy. d. push back against social conditioning.

113. Priyanka is very in love with her partner, Elsever but when they attempt to have sexual activity, Priyanka finds that she has no physical response to these moments. She feels very distressed by this absence of response, and worries that eventually Elsever will leave to find a different relationship. What kind of sexual dysfunction might this situation describe? a. arousal disorder b. desire disorder c. orgasm disorder d. sexual pain disorder 114. What is the recommended method to protect children from child molesters? a. Children should be taught not to have interactions with adults outside their parents. b. Children should be forbidden from accepting gifts from people other than their parents. c. Children should be instructed to never implicitly trust caretakers who are not their parents. d. Children should be restricted from using technological devices without parental supervision.

115. Talia is 10-years-old, and her mother has caught her listening to promiscuous music. She is worried her daughter might relate the lyrics in the music to her own life and becoming too oversexualized for her age. Which of the following is a potential result of being oversexualized at too young an age? a. stunted intellectual development b. low self-esteem and eating disorders c. anxiety attacks d. insomnia and sleepwalking

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Chap 11_16e 116. Wayne is in college and is dating his classmate, Caitlin. Wayne and Caitlin are sexually active, and Wayne is always very insistent that they use protection. Wayne considers himself very responsible when it comes to safe sex. What is a common male gender stereotype that Wayne's behavior disproves? a. Males do not care about safe sex and are solely interested in sexual activity. b. College-age males are not sexually active. c. College-age males are sexually aggressive and sometimes violent. d. Males tend to make poorer decisions about sexual behavior when they are aroused.

117. Which one of the following STDs is untreatable? a. hepatitis B b. gonorrhea c. chlamydia d. syphilis 118. After taking personality tests, Dante scored high in both masculinity and femininity, making him psychologically androgynous. Dante's friend, Carlos scored very high in masculinity. What is the primary difference in how Dante and Carlos cope with difficult situations? a. Carlos will have more masculine skills to handle any obstacle, while Dante is more sensitive and will likely be more stressed by difficult situations. b. Dante will be more adaptable to difficult situations, while Carlos' strict masculine perspective will likely hinder his coping skills. c. Carlos will have more understanding of the feminine approach to coping, while Dante will be torn between masculine and feminine reactions to difficult situations. d. Dante will not be able to deal with stress because his view is mixed, and Carlos' strict masculine view will hinder his coping skills.

119. Which one of the following is a treatment for female sexual interest/arousal disorder? a. sensate focus b. hypnosis c. aversion therapy d. shaping 120. Which one of the following is sex therapist Barry McCarthy's advice for a continuing healthy sexual relationship? a. Couples should understand that the essence of satisfying lovemaking is the giving and receiving of pleasure. b. Couples who are busy should avoid unexpected, spontaneous lovemaking. c. Couples should consciously start. d. Couples should assume that they know what their partner is thinking or feeling and in this way, establish who is right or wrong.

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Chap 11_16e 121. Ellis is a woman in her forties married to Chris, a 47-year-old man. Ellis is concerned that Chris’ sex drive is lower than it has been. Which of the following is accurate regarding the sex drive of middle-aged men? a. Sex drive naturally declines with age and relates to an increased output of sex hormones, especially testosterone. b. Sex drive naturally declines with age and relates to a reduced output of sex hormones, especially testosterone. c. Sex drive naturally increases with age and relates to a reduced output of sex hormones, especially testosterone. d. Sex drive naturally increases with age and relates to an increased output of sex hormones, especially testosterone.

122. Which one of the following accurately represents female orgasmic disorder? a. The female’s partner is inattentive to her sexual needs, thus causing the female an inability to reach orgasm. b. Some female’s genetic makeup results in an unresponsiveness to sexual stimuli. c. The main cause for a woman's inability to reach orgasm is due to insecurity of sexuality. d. If focused on the female, common difficulty can be attributed to overcontrol of sexual response.

123. Which one of the following diseases can be sexually transmitted? a. hepatitis B b. tuberculosis c. vaginismus d. dyspareunia 124. One evening, an assailant followed a woman to her car and raped her. The assailant was arrested and stated that he committed the crime because he hated women. Which type of rape occurred? a. acquaintance rape b. date rape c. forcible rape d. marital rape 125. Gender role socialization in our society prepares children for a world in which men are expected to be a. conquering. b. passive. c. emotional. d. dependent

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Chap 11_16e 126. Gender role socialization is characterized by two main types of behaviors: instrumental and expressive. What is the difference between these two behaviors? a. Expressive behaviors are normally encouraged in boys, while instrumental behaviors are encouraged in girls. b. Expressive behaviors tend to be more directly aggressive and loud, while instrumental behaviors tend to be emotional and delicate. c. Instrumental behaviors are normally encouraged in boys, while expressive behaviors are encouraged in girls. d. Instrumental behaviors are used to teach motor skills, while expressive behaviors are used to foster emotional development.

127. In the context of rape, which one of the following statements best describes gender role stereotypes? a. Traditional masculine stereotypes include the ideas that a man should take the initiative and persist in attempts at sexual intimacy—even when the woman says no. b. Traditional feminine stereotypes include the idea that women should show direct interest in sex and should lead men. c. One study of college men found that college males high in gender role stereotyping were seldom aroused by rape stories. d. Men who believe rape myths and who have been drinking are more likely to understand signals that a woman wants sexual advances to stop.

128. Kara is counseling a couple about sexual dysfunction and wants to be careful to avoid labeling a sexual dysfunction as a problem of just one of them. Why? a. Sexual dysfunctions are complex and can be traced to multiple factors, between both partners. b. Appearing to side with one of the partners will affect a psychologist’s ability to treat both partners. c. Assigning blame for sexual dysfunction can trigger empathy between partners. d. Disclosing a diagnosis of one partner’s sexual dysfunction to both partners would be a violation of ethics.

129. Which one of the following best defines gender identity? a. one’s personal sense of maleness or femaleness b. one's genetic expression of maleness or femaleness c. one's cultural influence upon the roles of maleness or femaleness d. one's biological sex defining the sense of maleness or femaleness 130. What is the squeeze technique treatment used for? a. It is used to treat premature ejaculation. b. It is used to treat vaginismus. c. It is used to treat dyspareunia. d. It is used to treat female orgasmic disorder.

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Chap 11_16e 131. Which sexual response phase would an individual move into once they have experienced orgasm? a. resolution b. excitement c. plateau d. ejaculation 132. Both castration and sterilization have a significant impact on sex drive. What is one of the primary differences between both castration's and sterilization's influence on sex drive? a. Castration only removes the sex organs and has no influence on hormonal sex drive. Sterilization reduces sex drive. b. Castration reduces sex drive, while sterilization has been shown to increase sex drive. c. Castration removes sex organs but causes hormones to build up, which increases sex drive. Sterilization increases sex drive. d. Castration reduces sex drive, and sterilization reduces sex drive, in addition to making the patient infertile.

133. Kuro was born with one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Kuro identifies as male even though he had lower amounts of testosterone during prenatal development and, consequently, does not have fully developed male sex organs. Kuro is male according to which biological dimension(s) of sex? a. hormonal sex and genital sex b. genital sex and gonadal sex c. genetic sex d. gonadal sex 134. A female child is born with congenital adrenal hyperplasia, where the body produces too much androgen. Once the child reached sexual maturity, how might she be affected by the different hormonal changes? a. The secondary sex characteristics will be influenced by the increased androgen producing more body hair and a deeper voice. b. The secondary sex characteristics will develop causing breasts to develop, as well as other changes in body shape. c. The secondary sex characteristics will develop producing a broadening of the hips. d. The secondary sex characteristics will trigger sexual maturity and the onset of menstruation.

135. According to Sandra Bem and the Bem Sex Role Inventory (BSRI), masculine males have great difficulty

expressing warmth, playfulness, and concern, because they feel a. it will make them unacceptably “feminine.” b. will force them to behave like children. c. it will highlight their masculine superiority. d. it will make them look ignorant.

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Chap 11_16e 136. If gender role socialization by parents reaffirms rough, aggressive behavior in boys and emotional, delicate behavior in girls, what is a primary argument against biologically based gender expectations? a. The natural difference between boys and girls is based on an inherent genetic difference between the two. b. The natural difference between boys and girls that parents perceive likely comes from the parents’ own teaching. c. The natural difference between boys and girls that parents perceive is primarily enforced by one's culture. d. The natural difference between boys and girls is completely nonexistent and should be ignored.

137. Which of the following reasons is the most definitive explanation for the behavior of exhibitionists? a. Exhibitionists often feel inadequate and have compulsions to prove their manhood. b. Exhibitionists are typically unmarried men who are lonely and desperate for attention. c. Exhibitionists come from strict backgrounds causing them to act out with deviant behavior. d. Exhibitionists have psychological disorders that result from early sexual maturation.

138. Historically, what did parents and other adults in Western countries such as the United States encourage boys to do? a. They encouraged boys to prepare for the world of work b. They encouraged boys to cultivate indirect aggression. c. They encouraged boys to use expressive behaviors. d. They encouraged boys to show their emotions.

139. Ivan and Olivia both go to the same college and are both member of the same dating app. They meet for the first time and engage in sexual activity. What type of sexual script are Ivan and Olivia adhering to? a. courtship b. friends with benefits c. hookup d. traditional dating 140. A rape survivor describes her assailant as a guy she met at a party a few weeks ago. She said they talked briefly and even exchanged numbers. What form of rape occurred? a. forcible rape b. acquaintance rape c. sexual assault d. sexual misconduct 141. Edith has reached a stage in life when she has stopped menstruating (having her period). What is this stage called? a. menopause b. menarche c. ovulation d. puberty

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Chap 11_16e 142. Sheri is pregnant with a little boy, and her recent blood tests found that her testosterone levels are slightly less than average for a woman in her thirties. Under which theory of homosexuality would this be a contributing factor to Sheri’s son’s future sexual orientation? a. biological biasing theory b. gender identity theory c. sexually antagonistic selection d. prenatal hormonal theory 143. A boy is pressured by his parents to "act like a boy." What does this exemplify? a. gender role socialization b. gender variance c. gender narcissism d. gender sensitization 144. What would be the recommended advice to help foster intimacy and communication to build a healthy relationship? a. try to see things through your partner’s eyes b. inhibit counter-productive emotions, such as anger or disappointment c. establish who is right or wrong d. avoid sharing difficult or uncomfortable feelings 145. Which one of the following sexual scripts involves two strangers having sex? a. hook-up b. friends with benefits c. traditional d. committed 146. Ivy is applying for a job but is nervous about her chances, because she knows the company does not hire many women. What is the best description of what Ivy is experiencing? a. gender role socialization b. gender role confusion c. gender role appropriation d. gender role stereotyping 147. Rose goes to see a doctor because she is having genital pain during sexual intercourse. She is also experiencing muscle spasms in her vagina that make sexual intercourse difficult or impossible. What sexual disorder to these symptoms strongly suggest? a. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder b. female orgasmic disorder c. hypoactive sexual desire d. female sexual interest/arousal disorder

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Chap 11_16e 148. When do individuals begin learning gender roles? a. immediately after birth b. after reaching puberty c. during middle adulthood d. during late adulthood 149. Which of the following defines gender role strain? a. stress associated with any conflict between personal identity and the expectations associated with a gender role b. stress associated with any conflict between two individuals of the opposite sex c. stress associated with any conflict between two individuals of the same gender d. stress associated with accepting an individual's personal identity 150. The surgical removal of the testicles or ovaries is known as a. castration. b. sex reassignment surgery c. sterilization. d. circumcision.

151. Which of the following is an example of practicing safe sex that would be most effective? a. having sex with one partner b. discussing your partner’s sexual health prior to engaging in sex c. using a condom during sex d. not engaging in sex while intoxicated 152. Luna and Patrick have been in a healthy relationship for over eight years, but recently they had a huge fight about wanting children, which didn't get resolved. Ever since then, their sexual interest in each other has declined. What is a potential solution that Luna and Patrick could use to resolve this issue? a. They could sit down and talk about the fight they had in a respectful and caring manner to resolve the issue. b. They could go see a sex therapist to help figure out which one of them is causing the decline in sexual interest. c. They could discuss ways to increase their sexual desire of each other through open communication. d. They could discuss the issue with their friends to see if they have any insight how it could be resolved.

153. Why is it a principal requirement for the diagnosis of a sexual dysfunction that the patient be troubled by the symptoms? a. Sexual disorders are based on expectations. What is a problem for some, might be welcomed by others. b. Treating a sexual disorder can be a difficult process. Anything that does not strongly affect a patient is best left untreated. c. It would be a breach of ethics to diagnose a dysfunction of which the patient is unaware. d. If a patient is not troubled by symptoms of sexual dysfunction, then it is likely only a short-term issue.

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Chap 11_16e 154. When comparing the number of sexual partners that people in the United States report having compared to people in developing countries, which of the following is true? a. People in developing countries are likely to have two or more sexual partners, as opposed to one in the United States. b. People in developing countries are likely to engage in premarital sex much later in life than people in the United States. c. People in developing countries are likely to engage in premarital sex much sooner in life than people in the United States. d. People in developing countries are likely to have just one recent sexual partner, as opposed to two or more in the United States.

155. Which one of the following statements accurately represents the stability of an individual's sexual orientation? a. Sexual orientation commonly changes for people when they reach puberty and begin feeling sexual desire. b. Sexual orientation remains fairly consistent throughout the average person’s life. c. A person’s sexual orientation can be easily changed by others. d. Sexual orientation fluctuates frequently throughout the average person’s life.

156. Alexa and Brendan have been married for almost one year. Alexa claims that she has never had an orgasm during sexual intercourse with Brendan. Which of the following is the most accurate description of Alexa's situation? a. Since females place a high priority on emotional closeness during intercourse, Alexa and Brendan must not have enough emotional intimacy. b. Since simultaneous orgasm is such a strongly intimate goal, Alexa should attempt to achieve orgasm simultaneously to Brendan c. About one in three females does not experience orgasm during the first year of marriage, so Alexa is experiencing a common occurrence. d. About 15 percent of women are unable to reach orgasm during sex, so Alex must fall within that minority 157. What is the treatment option available for gender dysphoria? a. sex reassignment surgery b. MRI-guided laser ablation c. endonasal endoscopy d. sensate focus 158. Which one of the following is an orgasm disorder? a. vaginismus b. premature ejaculation c. dyspareunia d. hypoactive sexual desire

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Chap 11_16e 159. Which one of the following is a method of self-stimulation that causes sexual pleasure or orgasm? a. masturbation b. fetishism c. groping d. flashing 160. Which of the following forms of contact will put one at risk for exposure to HIV infection? a. hugging b. unprotected vaginal sex c. sharing a drink d. sharing a swimming pool 161. If the primary symptom of an individual is a persistent, upsetting loss of sexual desire, what condition would the individual most likely be diagnosed with? a. hypoactive sexual desire b. hyperactive sexual desire c. frotteuristic disorder d. pedophilic disorder 162. Which one of the following is an accepted notion about masculine traits? a. Individuals who possess masculine traits are more independent and assertive. b. Individuals who possess masculine traits are more nurturing and interpersonally oriented. c. Individuals who possess masculine traits are more likely to seek and receive social support. d. Individuals who possess masculine traits are more likely to experience greater social closeness with others and more happiness in marriage.

163. Which one of the following is an example of a sexual script? a. hook-up b. refractory c. resolution d. plateau 164. Which of the following statements accurately describes the most common difficulty faced by gay men and lesbians in modern society? a. Gay men and lesbians often suffer rejection by family and discrimination in hiring and housing. b. Gay men and lesbians often encounter intense alienation and identity disorders due to the lack of a defined homosexual culture. c. Gay men and lesbians often suffer from deep anxiety and depression from the inability to start families of their own. d. Gay men and lesbians often receive pressure from their peers to forcefully convert to heterosexuality.

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Chap 11_16e 165. Secondary sexual characteristics differ from the primary sexual characteristic in that they are the a. sexual features other than the genitals and reproductive organs. b. sexual features including the genitals and internal reproductive organs. c. sexual features influenced primarily by estrogens in the body. d. sexual features influenced primarily by androgens in the body.

166. Which one of the following statements best describes the excitement phase of sexual response in females? a. When sexual stimulation ends, females immediately leave the excitement phase. b. When sexual stimulation ends, the excitement phase gradually subsides. c. When sexual stimulation ends, females return to the beginning of the excitement phase. d. When sexual stimulation ends, most females skip the excitement phase and return to the plateau phase.

167. Which one of the following terms refers to the process of learning gender behaviors considered appropriate for one’s sex in a given culture? a. gender role socialization b. gender sensitization c. gender variance d. gender narcissism 168. How does the friends with benefit sexual script differ from the hook-up sexual script? a. Hook-ups are more casual and involve sex with near strangers. b. Hook-ups involve having sex without romantic involvement. c. Hook-ups happen when both parties are in long-term relationships other people. d. Hook-ups do not involve actual intercourse, only oral sex.

169. Sexual intercourse carried out against the victim’s will, under the threat of violence or bodily injury is termed a. forcible rape. b. acquaintance rape. c. date rape. d. statutory rape.

170. While current casual sexual scripts tend to favor oral sex over traditional intercourse, which of the following risks is still evident in these sexual encounters? a. pregnancy b. STDs c. psychological distress d. sex addiction 171. Which of the following STDs currently have no available treatment options? a. gonorrhea b. chlamydia c. syphilis d. hepatitis B Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_16e 172. Vaginal pain before, during, or after sexual intercourse is called a. dyspareunia. b. sexual abstinence. c. paraphrenia. d. sexual anorexia.

173. Which one of the following accurately describes an issue related to marital rape? a. Marital rape is generally misconstrued as an extramarital affair. b. Women seldom report nonconsensual sexual acts carried out by their spouse, as these do not classify as rape under any circumstances. c. Marital rape is legal as it happens between a legally married couple. d. Men who commit marital rape often believe that they have done nothing wrong.

174. What is delayed ejaculation? a. a persistent interruption or absence of orgasm during lovemaking b. an inability to maintain an erection for lovemaking c. a persistent, upsetting loss of sexual desire d. ejaculation that consistently occurs before the man and his partner want it to occur 175. Which term refers to oversimplified beliefs about people of different genders being actually like? a. gender role stereotypes b. gender variance c. gender narcissism d. gender empowerment 176. Nagira is a seven-year-old girl being raised by two dads, one of which is her biological father. What influence will their upbringing have on Nagira's sexual orientation? a. Her fathers' sexuality will have no influence on Nagira's sexual orientation. b. Nagira is 50 percent more likely to be gay because both of her parents are gay. c. Her fathers' sexuality will influence Nagira to be heterosexual. d. Nagira is 25 percent more likely to be gay because her biological father is gay.

177. Millie is seven-years-old and does not enjoy the baking lessons that her grandmother has with her once a month.

Millie feels that baking is a pointless skill and that she can find better things to do with her time, like skateboard.

What is a likely outcome for Millie's acceptance of her gender role? a. Millie may eventually learn to appreciate baking with her grandmother. b. Millie may learn another skill to please her grandmother so that she does not have to bake. c. Millie may develop gender role strain and combat the stereotypes of her gender. d. Millie may completely abandon her love of skateboarding to adhere to her gender role.

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Chap 11_16e 178. Gender role socialization in our society prepares children for a world in which women are expected to be a. passive. b. controlling. c. unemotional. d. conquering.

179. What is the second level of sexual response during which physical arousal intensifies? a. plateau phase b. excitement phase c. orgasm phase d. resolution phase 180. A man who attends a party is accused of forcing sex on a woman who attended the same party. When questioned, he claims that he knows this woman has had sex with friends of his in the past. Which common defense of those accused of rape is this man using? a. A woman who appears alone in public and dresses attractively is “asking for it.” b. If a woman goes home with a man on a first date, she is interested in sex. c. If a woman is sexually active, she is probably lying if she says she was raped. d. When a woman says no, she really means yes.

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Chap 11_16e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. a

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Chap 11_16e 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. a 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. c 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_16e 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. c 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_16e 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. a 91. d 92. a 93. a 94. d 95. a 96. a 97. c 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. a 102. d 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. a 107. a 108. b 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_16e 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. d 115. b 116. d 117. a 118. b 119. a 120. a 121. b 122. d 123. a 124. c 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. a 129. a 130. a 131. a 132. b 133. c 134. a 135. a 136. b 137. a

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Chap 11_16e 138. a 139. c 140. b 141. a 142. d 143. a 144. a 145. a 146. d 147. a 148. a 149. a 150. a 151. b 152. a 153. a 154. d 155. b 156. c 157. a 158. b 159. a 160. b 161. a 162. a 163. a 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_16e 166. b 167. a 168. a 169. a 170. b 171. d 172. a 173. d 174. a 175. a 176. a 177. c 178. a 179. a 180. c

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Chap 12_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Every semester, the university requires each professor to be evaluated by each class they teach. Which of the following forms of personality assessment would most likely be used for this purpose? a. situational test b. rating scale c. behavioral assessment d. projective test 2. In the context of social learning theory, which of the following refers to a desire to act like the person one admires? a. expectancy b. identification c. imitation d. self-reinforcement 3. According to Rogers's theory, internalized conditions of worth can contribute to incongruence that disrupts which of the following? a. self-actualization b. traits c. the organismic valuing process d. personality development 4. Sheldon was presented with several different black-and-white ambiguous images that he needs to tell a story from. Which of the following personality tests is Sheldon taking? a. TAT b. Rorschach test c. MMPI-2 d. 16 Personality Factor test 5. Which of the following is the most accurate description of self-concept? a. It refers to a person’s characteristics that have been judged or evaluated. b. It refers to a stable quality that a person shows in most situations. c. It consists of all one’s ideas, perceptions, stories, and feelings about who one is. d. It refers to people who have several traits in common.

6. Who among the following is considered a major humanistic theorist? a. Carl Jung b. Hans Eysenck c. Carl Rogers d. Karen Horney

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Chap 12_16e 7. Which of the following statements applies to unconditional positive regard with respect to Rogers's theory? a. It refers to a natural, undistorted, full-body reaction to an experience. b. It refers to complete, unqualified acceptance of another person as he or she is. c. It refers to internal standards used to judge the value of one's thoughts, actions, feelings, or experiences. d. It refers to external conditions that strongly influence behavior.

8. Jade is committed, in control, resistant to stress, and open to new challenges. Which of the following best describes her? a. Hardy personality b. Type A personality c. self-actualized personality d. self-realized personality 9. How are projective tests different from interviews? a. Projective tests can be easily faked, whereas interviews are rigidly structured to prevent misrepresentation. b. Projective tests have questions with predetermined answers, whereas interviews are always open-ended. c. Projective tests are a type of direct observation of real-life conditions, whereas interviews entail asking a person to describe ambiguous stimuli. d. Projective tests attempt to reveal unconscious thoughts, whereas interviews attempt to identify observable attributes.

10. Professor Smith uses the same multiple-choice exam each semester for his teaching assistants to grade. What type of exam is this? a. objective test b. personality questionnaire c. situational test d. projective test 11. Which of the following analyses best describes the difference between Cattell and Allport’s classification of traits? a. Allport used a subjective approach to classify traits, while Cattell used a statistical method. b. Cattell used a subjective approach to classify traits, while Allport used a statistical method. c. The building blocks of personality, known as central traits, were developed by Cattell. d. The visible areas of personality, known as surface traits, were developed by Allport.

12. To which of the following descriptions does the concept of self-esteem most accurately apply? a. It refers to the phenomenon of regarding oneself as a worthwhile person. b. It refers to a stable quality that a person shows in most situations. c. It refers to the perception of one’s own personality traits. d. It refers to a style of personality defined by a group of related traits.

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Chap 12_16e 13. Divya and her girlfriend go to an abstract art museum to view paintings. To which of the following personality tests is this most similar? a. Rorschach b. 16PF c. MMPI-2 d. Big Five 14. Pau is a scientist who believes that external circumstances and situations influence behaviors. Which of the following statements would Pau most likely agree with? a. Your personality must match the nature of the work you are doing in order to be comfortable in that job. b. It doesn’t matter what kind of personality you have, you would be polite at a wedding reception. c. When interviewing a potential roommate, you would want to know what their personality is like first. d. People you have known for years are pretty much the same as they were when you originally met them.

15. According to a psychologist, certain behaviors are the result of unconscious thoughts and motives. Which of the following approach is he likely using to treat his patients? a. humanistic b. behavioral c. social learning d. psychoanalytic 16. Alex believes that musicians, chefs, and artists seem similar because their jobs require them to act a certain way. Which of the following is influencing this behavior? a. personality traits b. biological predispositions c. external situations d. internal genetics 17. Josh thinks of himself as a team player, reliable, and a conscientious member of his department. However, when Seshu gave Josh his evaluation, he was surprised to learn that he was not viewed as a team player in his department. Which of the following is Josh experiencing? a. moral anxiety b. neurotic anxiety c. incongruence d. congruence 18. According to Rogers's theory, which of the following refers to thinking of oneself as a good, lovable, and worthwhile person? a. self-actualization b. incongruence c. organismic valuing d. positive self-regard

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Chap 12_16e 19. Your friend is described as affectionate, creative, punctual, and even tempered. Which of the following did you just rate your friend based on? a. Stanford–Binet assessment b. behavioral assessment c. Five factor model d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 20. Which of the following personality theories stress the role of inherited biological predispositions? a. psychoanalytic theory b. humanist theory c. trait theory d. social learning theory 21. Which of the following attributes refers to a willingness to manipulate others? a. hysteria b. narcissism c. Machiavellianism d. psychopathy 22. Which of the following is a limitation of projective testing of personality? a. It is unhelpful in setting goals for therapy. b. It is less effective in getting clients to discuss upsetting topics. c. It fails to detect major conflicts. d. Its validity is uncertain.

23. Kana knows that if she can get through her shift at work, she’ll be able to have a fun weekend camping with her friends. Which of these concepts applies to the anticipation of camping? a. psychological situation b. situational determinant c. expectancy d. fixation 24. According to social learning theory, personality can be explained by three factors that affect reactions, one of which includes how a person interprets an event or stimuli, or the a. self-efficacy. b. reinforcement value. c. expectancy. d. psychological situation.

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Chap 12_16e 25. Which of the following personality assessments differs most significantly from a rating scale assessment by exposing people to actual conditions rather than describing them? a. situational test b. objective test c. behavioral assessment d. projective test 26. Which of the following represents an unconscious image of the center of the self, representing unity, wholeness, completion, and balance? a. the psyche b. a persona c. a self-actualizer d. a self-archetype 27. Which of the following is a situation as it is perceived and interpreted by an individual, not as it exists objectively? a. a psychological situation b. a situational determinant c. a situational test d. a social situation 28. Kimiya has finally found peace, happiness, and harmony within herself. Which of the following statements can most definitely be said of Kimiya? a. Kimiya has not resolved conflicts of the phallic stage and is fixated. b. Kimiya has identified with her same sex parent and strives to change this. c. Kimiya received ample amounts of love and acceptance from others. d. Kimiya was exposed to conditional positive regard as a child from others.

29. In the context of the Big Five personality traits, when people tend to be anxious, emotionally “sour,” irritable, and unhappy, they are usually high in a. extroversion. b. neuroticism. c. agreeableness. d. openness to experience.

30. When using the trait approach to define personality, which of the following does it most accurately identify? a. cultural characteristics of a shared group b. your past, present, and future selves as socially identified c. situations that impact specific groups of people d. your unwavering behaviors and qualities in most situations

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Chap 12_16e 31. Which of the following are mental processes that deny, distort, or otherwise block out sources of threat and anxiety? a. ego-defense mechanisms b. trait profiles c. biological predispositions d. Freudian slips 32. One reason Freud has been criticized is a. he did not believe women who said they had been sexually molested as children. b. some believe that he pioneered the general idea of unconscious processes. c. he emphasized early childhood experiences. d. his concepts are easy to test scientifically, but never have been.

33. Which of the following most accurately describes the effect of providing assessments to people one works with? a. One should give feedback that focuses on the person's character rather than their behavior. b. One should provide concrete examples that provide some basis for one's comments. c. One should offer a large number of suggestions that can be acted upon. d. One should ignore nonverbal cues generated by the person receiving the feedback.

34. Which of the following is a person who is living creatively and fully using his or her potential? a. a self-actualizer b. a fully functioning person c. an ideal self d. a possible self 35. Which of the following refers to Freud’s name for the “life instincts”? a. the psyche b. eros c. the id d. libido 36. Which of the following statements details the primary difference between subclinical traits and secondary traits? a. Subclinical traits focus on traits that will not influence any diagnosis, while secondary traits can have an influence on a person’s psychological diagnosis. b. Subclinical traits focus on traits that will not influence any diagnosis, while secondary traits do not have any bearing on a person’s psychological diagnosis. c. Subclinical traits focus on traits that might influence a diagnosis, while secondary traits can only indirectly influence a person’s psychological diagnosis. d. Subclinical traits focus on traits that might influence a diagnosis, while secondary traits do not have any bearing on a person’s psychological diagnosis.

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Chap 12_16e 37. Which of the following are standards used to compare an individual’s performance on a test with that of others? a. traits b. behavioral assessments c. norms d. interviews 38. A system of concepts, assumptions, ideas and principles proposed to explain personality is a a. temperament. b. personality theory. c. self-esteem. d. psychoanalytic theory.

39. A preschool teacher is watching how certain students interact with each other and is taking notes. Which method is she using? a. thematic apperception b. direct observation c. projective personality d. objective personality 40. Which of the following is a test intended to uncover characteristics of one’s personality? a. a personality questionnaire b. an objective test c. a personality interview d. a behavioral assessment 41. Which of the following is the most accurate description of personality? a. It refers to a person’s unique and relatively stable patterns of thinking, emotions, and behavior. b. It refers to an individual’s perception of his or her own traits. c. It refers to a person’s characteristics that have been judged or evaluated. d. It refers to the tendency to generalize a favorable impression to unrelated details of one’s character.

42. Which of the following is an example of a personality test? a. Knox Cubes Personality Assessment b. Kohs Block Temperament Battery c. Turing Test of Enduring Traits d. The California Psychological Inventory 43. Maya typically is happy go lucky and has many friends. However, she has recently been feeling that she has been putting her friend’s needs ahead of her own. Which of the Big Five personality traits is Maya displaying? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extroversion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_16e 44. According to Freud, which of the following levels of awareness represents the contents of the mind that are beyond awareness, especially impulses and desires? a. the unconscious level of awareness b. the central level of awareness c. the conscious level of awareness d. the preconscious level of awareness 45. Six-year-old Mia likes to hang out with her mom and tells everyone how creative and smart her mom is.

According to social learning theory, which of the following is Mia doing? a. She is exhibiting a fixation on her mom. b. She is showing congruence with her mom. c. She is imitating her mom. d. She is identifying with her mom.

46. According to Carl Rogers, which of the following describes the impact of being incongruent between one’s selfimage and one’s ideal self? a. The ideal self can never be attained, so being incongruent with one’s self-image will have no effect on one’s personality. b. The self-image must surpass the ideal self for incongruency to have a positive effect on one’s personality. c. The closer one’s self-image is to their ideal self, the more depression and disillusion one begins to feel toward their own personality. d. The further one’s self-image is from their ideal self, the more anxiety they will feel about their personality.

47. You are interviewing for your first job. The employer says that they are asking all potential new hires the same questions. Which of the following personality assessment forms is this most similar to? a. structured interview b. unstructured interview c. objective personality test d. projective personality test 48. The ACT and SAT are aptitude tests used widely by colleges to rate incoming students. Which of the following best describes these? a. personality questionnaire b. objective test c. projective test d. situational test 49. Which of the following is a component of Freud’s personality theory containing primitive drives present at birth? a. the superego b. the ego c. the psyche d. the id

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Chap 12_16e 50. Kevin is applying for a job and is required to take a personality test as part of the application. Which of the following would the employer be most interested in as it best applies to the MMPI-2 test? a. test question response patterns b. individual answers to test questions c. situational application of the material presented d. organizational application of the material presented 51. In which of the following personality assessments is a person asked to describe ambiguous or unstructured stimuli or make up stories about them? a. an intelligence test b. a factor analysis c. a psychological situation d. a projective test 52. Which of the following describes the primary difference between the Rorschach Inkblot Test and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)? a. The Rorschach Inkblot Test reveals problem areas in the functioning of a person’s personality, while the TAT reveals more about how a person view himself or herself. b. The Rorschach Inkblot Test reveals more details on how a person perceives the world, while the TAT reveals more about a person’s relationships. c. The Rorschach Inkblot Test reveals more about a person’s relationships, while the TAT reveals more details about how a person perceives the world. d. The Rorschach Inkblot Test reveals more about how a person view himself or herself, while the TAT reveals problem areas in the functioning of a person’s personality.

53. In leadership, two groups of behaviors are important. One is managing people, which involves a. actions that manage time. b. actions that delegate tasks. c. actions that define responsibilities. d. actions that build trust.

54. Which of the following are the core traits that characterize an individual’s personality? a. surface traits b. secondary traits c. source traits d. central traits 55. Which of the following aspects of personality as measured by the MMPI-2 refers to excessive worry about one’s physical health? a. social introversion b. paranoia c. hypochondriasis d. psychopathic deviate

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Chap 12_16e 56. According to Freud, which of the following involves delaying action (or pleasure) until it is appropriate? a. the dark triad b. the pleasure principle c. the halo effect d. the reality principle 57. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of incongruence? a. It refers to a state that exists when there is a discrepancy between one’s experiences and self-image. b. It refers to a collection of thoughts, beliefs, feelings, and images concerning the person that one could become. c. It refers to an idealized image of oneself or the person one would like to be. d. It refers to a continuously evolving conception of one’s personal identity.

58. Psychoanalytic theory, the first and best-known psychodynamic approach, was developed from the work of a. Sigmund Freud. b. Hans Eysenck. c. Gordon Allport. d. Raymond B. Cattell.

59. Jordan is a personality researcher who maximizes the role of inheritance in her work. She most likely agrees with which of the following? a. trait theories b. psychoanalytic theory c. humanistic theories d. behavior learning theory 60. Jerry believes he is someone who never angers, but in reality, he seems to be quite angry or irritated most of the time. Which of the following is Jerry experiencing? a. neurotic anxiety b. moral anxiety c. incongruence d. congruence 61. Which of the following personality theories attempts to describe personality with a small number of key attributes or factors? a. trait theories b. psychoanalytic theories c. social learning theories d. humanistic theories

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Chap 12_16e 62. Darcy only wears black, eats no animal products, arrives early to all meetings, and loves animals. Which of the following best describes these lifestyle choices? a. They are secondary traits. b. They are surface traits. c. They are primary traits. d. They are source traits.

63. Which of the following refers to an ability to choose that is not determined by genetics, learning, or unconscious forces? a. striving for superiority b. free will c. extroversion d. introversion 64. In Freudian theory, the force, primarily pleasure-oriented, that energizes the personality is known as the a. superego. b. psyche. c. libido. d. ego.

65. One limitation of projective tests is that they a. may be projective tests for the scorer, since that person must interpret ambiguous responses. b. are criticized for having rigid right-or-wrong answers. c. provide a very limited range of information about a person. d. are easy to fake.

66. In the context of the Big Five personality traits theory, when people are irresponsible, careless, and undependable, they are usually low on a. conscientiousness. b. neuroticism. c. agreeableness. d. extroversion.

67. According to Freud, which of the following refers to a person who is obstinate, stingy, or compulsive and generally has difficulty "letting go"? a. an anal-retentive personality b. an oral-dependent personality c. a phallic personality d. an oral-aggressive personality

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Chap 12_16e 68. Psychoanalytic theory places developmental emphasis on which of the following? a. combined effects of heredity and environment b. psychosexual stages c. development of self-image d. critical learning situations 69. Adetula studies how dog breeds have reputations for being more friendly and attached to humans. These inherited traits as studied by researchers would occur in which of the following fields? a. behavioral genetics b. analytical genetics c. environmental nature d. social learning 70. Which of the following statements highlights the difference between the particular Big Five personality traits of “agreeableness” and “openness”? a. Agreeableness has more to do with friendliness and attractiveness to others, while openness focuses more on creativity and ideas. b. Agreeableness has more to do with being responsible and achieving, while openness focuses more on creativity and ideas. c. Agreeableness has more to do with accepting creativity and new ideas, while openness focuses friendliness and attractiveness to others. d. Agreeableness has more to do with friendliness and attractiveness to others, while openness focuses more on being responsible and goal-oriented.

71. You see your friend’s mom yelling at a cashier in a local store. You note the cashier's reaction, time of day, store, and how many others saw the incident. This experience is similar to which of the following personality assessments? a. projective b. objective c. interview d. observation 72. The professor notices her students focusing intently on her lecture of abnormal disorders. Which of the following levels do the words and body language reside in? a. preconscious b. conscious c. subconscious d. unconscious

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Chap 12_16e 73. Mary has been described as competent, efficient, and effective in her position. As a result, she is confident, has high self-efficacy, and is loved by her coworkers. Which of the following statements best describes Mary? a. She has high self-esteem and is not self-critical. b. She is extremely self-critical and has a Type D personality. c. She qualifies as an introvert with a hardy personality. d. She has a Type A personality and is prone to periods of self-doubt.

74. According to Freud, which of the following levels of awareness represents an area of the mind containing information that can be voluntarily brought to awareness? a. the central level of awareness b. the preconscious level of awareness c. the unconscious level of awareness d. the conscious level of awareness 75. Which of the following personality theories places greater importance on the external environment and on the effects of conditioning? a. trait theories b. behaviorist theories c. psychodynamic theories d. humanistic theories 76. According to social learning theory, which of the following refers to a child's emotional attachment to admired adults, especially those who provide love and care? a. reinforcement value b. self-actualization c. identification d. expectancy 77. Bill and Jerry have known each other for years. Bill says Jerry has the same personality that he had when he first met him. Which of the following aspects of personality is likely the cause of why Jerry remains the same? a. external situations b. biological predispositions c. personality traits d. ego defense mechanisms 78. When asked to describe yourself, you say you are honest, reliable, and outgoing. Which of the following are you referring to? a. character b. mood c. temperament d. ideal self

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Chap 12_16e 79. You think about and focus intently on your recent beach vacation. These thoughts, feelings, and memories reside in which of these levels? a. preconscious b. conscious c. subconscious d. unconscious 80. If someone is driven, achieves all their goals, and is very dependable, which of the following most accurately describes their personality? a. They are high on the conscientious scale. b. They are high on the neuroticism measure. c. They are quite agreeable and will not fight with you. d. They are outgoing and love new experiences.

81. Mary kept getting into trouble at school. Her parents would scold and ground her every time, but never offered any praise or positive reinforcement when she exhibited correct behaviors. Which of the following statements most accurately applies to Mary? a. She is more likely to develop organismic valuing because of a lack of self-discipline. b. She received conditions of worth from her parents; therefore, she is not bad anymore. c. She was being overindulged by her parents and will become arrogant and selfish. d. She received conditional positive regard from her parents and lower self-esteem.

82. Which of the following statements most accurately displays the impact of imitation on an individual’s personality? a. When developing a personality, children are inclined to imitate the behavior of their same-sex parent. b. Children have a hereditary predisposition to imitate gender roles supported by their culture. c. Children’s imitation of their parents solidifies emotional attachment and fosters healthy personality development. d. Children often imitate their preferred parent’s gender role to help define their own personality.

83. Jen’s college roommate was quite messy and disorderly. Which of the following likely applies to her roommate? a. Jen’s roommate is likely anal-expulsive according to psychoanalytic theory. b. Jen’s roommate is likely anal-retentive according to humanistic theory. c. Jen’s roommate is likely oral-aggressive according to social learning theory. d. Jen’s roommate is likely oral-dependent according to behavioral theory.

84. Tara has a friend’s birthday party at an arcade that she is really excited about; however, first she must attend her little brother’s elementary school graduation. Tina says to herself, “All you have to do is sit quietly for an hour then you can go crazy with your friends.” Which of the following most accurately describes this situation? a. functional fixedness b. reinforcement value c. trait-situation interaction d. biological predisposition

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Chap 12_16e 85. A television show depicts groups of people on a deserted island with a goal to leave the island. Which of the following forms of personality assessment is being employed? a. Thematic Apperception Test b. situational test c. unstructured interview d. rating scale test 86. According to Freud, which of the following levels of awareness represents the region of the mind that includes all mental contents that a person is aware of at any given moment? a. the conscious level of awareness b. the preconscious level of awareness c. the central level of awareness d. the unconscious level of awareness 87. In the context of learning theories, which of the following refers to praise, attention, approval, and/or affection from others? a. social reinforcement b. self-reinforcement c. self-actualization d. positive self-regard 88. Josie is described as being smart, happy, and optimistic. Which of the following best describes these attributes? a. They are central traits. b. They are primary traits. c. They are secondary traits. d. They are surface traits.

89. Which of the following two types of personality assessment are essentially alternate versions of the same test that list certain traits or aspects of behavior on which a person is graded? a. objective test and rating scale b. situational test and objective test c. rating scale and behavioral assessment d. behavioral assessment and situational test 90. Every time Jorge gets nervous, he bites his nails while Sybil tends to smoke. Fixation likely occurred at which stage according to psychoanalytic theory? a. latency b. phallic c. anal d. oral

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Chap 12_16e 91. Mike bounces from job to job looking for the job that satisfies him the most in his quest for ultimate happiness.

Which of the following best describes why this is occurring, according to humanist theories? a. Mike is looking for self-actualization through a continuous search for personal fulfillment. b. Mike is compensating for his own personal limitations once he realizes and moves to a new job. c. Mike is attempting to balance his id, ego, and superego through new experiences at each job. d. Mike is trying to overcompensate from under developed conditions of self-worth from his childhood.

92. Which of the following refers to how the results of a personality questionnaire might differ from the results of a behavioral assessment? a. Personality questionnaire results are more objective and reliable than results from behavioral assessments. b. Personality questionnaire results are more subjective and valid than results from behavioral assessments. c. Personality questionnaire results are more thought provoking of their subjects than results from behavioral assessments. d. Personality questionnaire results are more likely to carry bias than results from behavioral assessments.

93. What should a good leader do when his or her team faces a big challenge? a. A good leader should refuse to take on the challenge when the team is sure to fail. b. A good leader should delegate the task of handling the challenge to more productive members. c. A good leader should transfer the project to a different team with more experienced members. d. A good leader should break the problem down into smaller, more manageable pieces.

94. Freud theorized that the core of personality develops before age six in a series of a. ego ideals. b. psychosexual stages. c. fixations. d. personas.

95. Which of the following is a way in which students can develop leadership skills? a. by taking part in extracurricular activities like student government and varsity sports b. by turning in course assignments on time c. by spending more time in the library d. by skipping college and taking up employment instead 96. Mei has received ample amounts of love, affection, and acceptance from others, including her husband Bob. Which of the following descriptions most appropriately applies to Mei? a. Mei is an incongruent person. b. Mei is fixated and unable to move on. c. Mei is narcissistic as a result of the love received. d. Mei is a fully functioning person.

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Chap 12_16e 97. According to Maslow's theory, which of the following most accurately portrays the notion of peak experiences? a. Peak experiences refer to private perceptions of reality. b. Peak experiences refer to the capacity to laugh at oneself. c. Peak experiences refer to temporary moments of self-actualization. d. Peak experiences refer to an ability to choose that is not determined by genetics, learning, or unconscious forces.

98. In which of the following do external circumstances influence the expression of a personality attribute? a. trait-situation interactions b. factor analyses c. trait profiles d. ego-defense mechanisms 99. According to Freud, which of the following represents moral conscience by acting as a judge or censor for the thoughts and actions of the ego? a. the superego b. the psyche c. the id d. the ego ideal 100. Dr. Kline is using a psychological test that utilizes lots of black and white pictures with no words. Which of the following is he likely using to extract emotions? a. TAT b. 16PF c. MMPI-2 d. Rating scales 101. Which of the following are traits that are inconsistent and focus primarily on an individual’s preferences which are subject to changes and evolutions, such as food and musical tastes? a. secondary traits b. central traits c. source traits d. surface traits 102. Which of the following statements most definitely assess the importance of the questions that occur on the MMPI-2 standardized personality test? a. Each individual question is designed to unveil something unique about a subject’s personality. b. The most important aspect of the test is how all of the questions are answered together to decipher trends in a subject’s way of thinking. c. The main goal of the questions is to learn if the subject is suffering from a psychological disorder. d. All of the questions are broken down to assess a particular personality trait and the presence of that trait in the subject.

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Chap 12_16e 103. Christian prefers pizza, iced coffee with chocolate syrup, scary movies, and R&B music. Which of the following best describes these preferences? a. These are secondary traits. b. These are surface traits. c. These are primary traits. d. These are source traits.

104. You were tasked with the job of describing your significant other. Which of these approaches might you use to achieve this? a. trait approach b. humanistic approach c. psychodynamic approach d. social learning approach 105. What do good leaders do in the face of failure? a. They become pessimistic and vulnerable to making more mistakes. b. They have a strong belief in the idea that things can be turned around and are active learners. c. They shield team members from setbacks and challenges. d. They accept defeat and abandon the task at hand.

106. Kenny is loud, outgoing, and prefers to be around lots of people all the time. Which of the following best describes Kenny? a. extroverted b. introverted c. psychotic d. Type A personality 107. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates self-concept? a. Madya uses his daily experiences to construct a mental picture of his own personality. b. Kelvin uses his friend's thoughts and opinions of him as an accurate portrait of himself. c. Debra thinks that she has changed drastically through the years, but her friends say otherwise. d. Keri says she never has new experiences and her personality has not changed since the age of 10.

108. Which of the following aspects of personality measured by the MMPI-2 test refers to emotional shallowness in relationships and a disregard for social and moral standards? a. psychopathic deviate b. social introversion c. mania d. schizophrenia

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Chap 12_16e 109. Martin is self-described as being good-natured and trusting, but not having a creative bone in his body in addition to being set in his ways and not like changes of any kind. Which of the following statements most accurately describes Martin? a. Martin is likely high on the agreeableness scale while low on the neuroticism scale. b. Martin is likely low on the neuroticism scale and high on the openness to new experience scale. c. Martin is likely low on the openness to experience scale and high on the agreeableness scale. d. Martin is likely low on the extraversion scale and high on the neuroticism scale.

110. In leadership, two groups of behaviors are important. One is managing tasks, which involves a. actions that manage time. b. actions that build a sense of trust. c. actions that build respect. d. actions that build liking among members of a team.

111. Which of the following personality tests are used to measure source traits as described by Cattell? a. Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire b. California Psychological Inventory c. Neuroticism, Extraversion, Openness Personality Inventory d. Guilford–Zimmerman Temperament Survey 112. Which of the following statements can be made when confirming the accuracy of the various types of personality theories? a. Humanistic theories are often more accurate than other theories because of the subjective nature under which they are devised. b. Behavior and social learning theories are often more accurate than other theories, because they are based on external, measurable factors. c. All of the personality theories are accurate in regard to each one’s level of usefulness in describing a person’s behavior. d. All of the personality theories fail to account for accuracy in a scientific form, because personality is unable to be measured scientifically.

113. Missy was told she was a “sweet, little princess,” while Mateo was told he was a “brave little man.” These patterns of behavior being taught by their parents influence Missy and Mateo’s personalities by supporting which of the following elements of personality? a. gender identities b. gender roles c. sexual predispositions d. self-reinforcement

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Chap 12_16e 114. Tim has decided to focus on philanthropic activities as a generative goal during retirement. Which of the following best describes Tim? a. Tim is likely self-actualized. b. Tim is likely self-realized. c. Tim is being spontaneous since he retired. d. Tim has an efficient perception of reality.

115. Jax and Max are identical twins who, separated at birth, grew up in different families. Which of the following would be most likely due to similar genetics? a. Both drive hybrid cards. b. Both have dogs named Dog. c. Both use the same toothpaste. d. Both are gay.

116. When a test gives the same score when different people score it, it is known as a/an a. objective test. b. sensitive test. c. normative test. d. projective test.

117. Which of the following are basic underlying traits or dimensions of personality? a. subclinical traits b. source traits c. surface traits d. central traits 118. Which of the following is a standardized personality test and is mostly characterized by its distinct ability to correctly identify people with psychological problems? a. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 b. The Guilford–Zimmerman Temperament Survey c. The California Psychological Inventory d. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire 119. Which of the following is an advantage of projective tests of personality? a. They are difficult to fake because they have no right or wrong answers. b. They easily expose defensiveness and tendencies to exaggerate shortcomings and troubles. c. They have additional validity scales that uncover whether a person’s scores should be invalidated. d. They expose people to conditions like frustration or pressure that are capable of uncovering personality characteristics.

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Chap 12_16e 120. According to humanistic theories of personality, which of the following developmental milestones would be considered most impactful on an individual’s personality? a. psychosexual stages b. critical learning situations c. combined effects of heredity and environment d. formation of self-image 121. Which of the following can most appropriately be said of a personality trait? a. It implies that a person has been evaluated as possessing positive qualities. b. It refers to a stable quality that a person shows in most situations. c. It consists of all one’s ideas, perceptions, stories, and feelings about who one is. d. It tends to rise when one experiences success or praise and provides a buffer against negative experiences.

122. Prajesh and Alaina were set up on blind date. Their conversations were similar to which of the following? a. structured interview b. unstructured interview c. projective personality test d. objective personality test 123. Which of the following most accurately portrays the behavioral approach to leadership? a. People are born with the traits that are required to be good leaders. b. Good leaders have certain traits that enable them to effectively manage teams. c. Emotional intelligence and cooperativeness are less significant traits for good leaders. d. Possessing intelligence and extroversion is enough to be a good leader.

124. Which of the following statements highlights the main difference in how Asian culture and American culture view the concept of self-esteem? a. In America, self-esteem is based on benefit to the collective group, while in Asian cultures, it is commonly based on personal success. b. In America, self-esteem is based on the strength of one’s conviction, while in Asian cultures, it is commonly based on the concrete examples of one’s success. c. In America, self-esteem is based on personal success, while in Asian cultures, it is commonly based on the benefit to the collective group. d. In America, self-esteem is based on concrete examples of one’s success, while in Asian cultures, it is commonly based on the strength of one’s conviction.

125. Which of the following refers to a theory where only a handful of characteristics account for most individual differences in personality? a. the Big Five personality traits theory b. the behavioral personality theory c. the two-factor theory of personality d. the dark triad theory

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Chap 12_16e 126. Which of the following are qualities of individuals that are not extreme enough to merit a psychiatric diagnosis? a. central traits b. subclinical traits c. surface traits d. source traits 127. Which of the following is a deeply ingrained, learned pattern of behavior? a. a response b. a cue c. a drive d. a habit 128. Which of the following statements embodies the conclusions drawn from studies on identical twins? a. Personality is shaped primarily by the environment. b. The choices we make in life are completely a product of our genes. c. Heredity is responsible for about 50 percent of the variation in many personality traits. d. Our behavior and personality traits are "wired in" for life.

129. Which of the following is a projective test that consists of complex, irregular monochromatic shapes? a. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory b. The Rorschach Inkblot Test c. The Thematic Apperception Test d. The Guilford–Zimmerman Temperament Survey 130. According to learning theorists, which of the following refers to external conditions that strongly influence behavior? a. conditions of worth b. situational determinants c. striving for superiority d. peak experiences 131. Which of the following aspects of personality measured by the MMPI-2 test refers to the presence of physical complaints for which no physical basis can be established? a. hysteria b. mania c. psychasthenia d. hypochondriasis 132. Which of the following refers to the study of inherited behavioral traits? a. behavioral genetics b. behavioral assessment c. direct observation d. factor analysis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_16e 133. Which of the following refers to an innate ability for humans to act in a certain way that accommodates a particular situation? a. a source trait b. a central trait c. a biological predisposition d. a subclinical attribute 134. Which of the following views do trait and psychodynamic theorists have in common? a. Inheritance is emphasized by both. b. Self-actualization and growth are emphasized by both. c. Expectancies and learning are emphasized by both. d. Unconscious motivations are emphasized by both.

135. According to Carl Rogers's self-theory, which of the following most accurately describes the theory of possible selves? a. Possible selves refer to a total subjective perception of one's body and personality. b. Possible selves refer to a continuously evolving conception of one's personal identity. c. Possible selves refer to an idealized image of oneself or the person one would like to be. d. Possible selves refer to a collection of thoughts, feelings, and images of someone you could become.

136. Joey takes Debra’s toys and hides them so that she can’t play with them when he’s not around. Debra could respond to this behavior in several ways. According to behaviorists, which of the following is her response likely guided by? a. Debra’s ego ideal and the strength of her conscience guide her behavior. b. Debra’s inborn trait dimension of agreeableness and conscientiousness will guide her behavior. c. Debra’s available cues and the previous response outcomes will guide her decision-making. d. Debra’s tendency to engage in instrumental rather than expressive behaviors will guide her behavior.

137. In the context of trait theories, which of the following refers to a statistical technique used to correlate multiple measurements and identify general underlying factors? a. behavioral assessment b. the Rorschach Inkblot Test c. the Thematic Apperception Test d. factor analysis 138. According to Freud, which of the following refers to an unresolved conflict or emotional hang-up caused by overindulgence or frustration? a. an ego ideal b. a trait profile c. a fixation d. a trait-situation interaction

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Chap 12_16e 139. According to the humanistic theories on personality, which of the following is a barrier to personal growth? a. self-actualization b. fixations c. wishful thinking d. conscious conflicts 140. Which of the following is a projective test that is especially efficient at uncovering feelings about social situations and relationships? a. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire b. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. The Rorschach Inkblot Test d. The Thematic Apperception Test 141. Which of the following is a personality type where a person’s attention is directed outward, and he or she can be described as bold and outgoing? a. paranoid b. extrovert c. agreeable d. hardy 142. Which of the following statements depicts the difference between self-efficacy and self-reinforcement as they relate to one’s personality? a. Self-efficacy is the belief that our actions will produce results we want, while self-reinforcement is the praise we give ourselves for reaching those results. b. Self-efficacy is the belief that our actions are moralistic, while self-reinforcement is the praise we give ourselves for achieving a moral self. c. Self-efficacy is the ability to assess one’s own personality, while self-reinforcement is the ability to improve the weak areas of our personality. d. Self-efficacy is the security in our body’s physical abilities, while self-reinforcement is the encouragement we use to improve ourselves.

143. How does the neo-Freudian psychologist Karen Horney’s perspective on the origin of neuroses differ from traditional Freudian theories? a. Horney believed that the driving force behind neuroses is a striving for superiority. b. Horney believed that a struggle to control forbidden id drives is what causes neuroses. c. Horney believed that feelings of isolation and helplessness rooted in childhood cause neuroses. d. Horney believed that neuroses evolve from the development of a persona, or public self.

144. Habits and expectancies are emphasized as components of personality structure in which of the following? a. trait theories b. psychoanalytic theory c. humanistic theories d. behaviorist and social learning theories

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Chap 12_16e 145. As an adult, if you have strong preferences for overeating, smoking, and kissing, which of these are expressed, according to Freud? a. oral needs b. latency conflicts c. phallic problems d. Oedipal conflicts 146. Maggie, a 65-year-old recent retiree, is now travelling the world by having new adventures. Which of the following statements best describes Maggie? a. She is self-realized. b. She is self-actualized. c. She is someone with cardinal traits. d. She is an incongruent person.

147. Which of the following statements describes the oral stage of a child's personality development? a. lasts from 1–3 years old b. lasts from 6–12 years old c. lasts from 3–6 years old d. lasts from birth to one year old 148. According to psychoanalytic theory, which of the following best applies to the development of the personality core? a. It was developed by the age of 6 in a series of psychosexual stages. b. It was developed after the age of 12 through social reinforcement. c. It only developed because of unconditional positive regard from your parents. d. Instrumental behavior was the only way it developed after the age of 6.

149. Abigail is happy, spontaneous, and loves to visit some of the wonders of the world where she can lose herself in harmony and ecstasy. Which of the following best describes Abigail? a. She is likely self-actualized. b. She no longer has a self-efficacy level. c. She has conditional positive regard for life. d. She has a phallic personality.

150. Which of the following most accurately defines schizophrenia as an aspect of personality measured by the MMPI-2 test? a. It refers to emotional withdrawal and unusual or bizarre thinking and actions. b. It refers to one’s tendency to be socially withdrawn. c. It refers to emotional shallowness in relationships and a disregard for social and moral standards. d. It refers to the presence of obsessive worries, phobias, and compulsive or ritualistic actions.

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Chap 12_16e 151. Abraham Maslow referred to the process of fully developing personal potential as a. self-actualization. b. free will. c. introversion. d. incongruence.

152. How does the notion of self-concept differ from the notion of self-esteem? a. Self-concept is how clearly you think about your own personality, while self-esteem is the value you put on your own personality. b. Self-concept is the ability to perceive your own personality, while self-esteem is the value you put on your own personality. c. Self-concept is the value you place on your own personality, while self-esteem is the ability to describe your own personality. d. Self-concept is how strongly, or favorably, you think about your own personality, while self-esteem is the level of value you place on your own personality.

153. Which of the following psychologists distinguished between central traits and secondary traits? a. Gordon Allport b. Hans Eysenck c. Sigmund Freud d. Carl Jung 154. The term “psyche” as used by Freud referred to a. the mind, mental life, and personality as a whole. b. ”death instincts.” c. ”life instincts.” d. primitive drives.

155. According to Freud, the “internalized parent” that tries to bring behavior under control is the a. superego. b. ego. c. id. d. reality principle.

156. You have been having a really tough time dealing with depression, and one day you run into an acquaintance and tell them that you are doing just fine and that “things are going very well.” Which conscious part of our personality would Carl Jung say you are using? a. persona b. neurotic error c. archetype d. verbal fixation

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Chap 12_16e 157. Phil was found walking alone but could not recall how he got there. While he has no physical injuries, he did have emotional trauma from his recent house fire. Which of the following likely applies to what Phil experienced, according to psychoanalysis? a. He fixated at the subconscious level. b. He repressed the trauma into his unconscious mind. c. He blocked the fire within his preconscious mind. d. He was physically changed as a result of norepinephrine.

158. Which of the following refers to the death instinct postulated by Freud? a. thanatos b. eros c. libido d. psychopathy 159. Natalie wants to improve herself while attending college. She has considered all of her perceived flaws and accepted the ones she cannot change. Using your judgment, which of the following most likely describes the techniques she is applying to herself? a. humanistic b. psychodynamic c. behavioral d. social learning 160. The general pattern of attention, arousal, and mood that is evident from birth is called what? a. temperament b. personality c. character d. traits 161. Danica makes a sarcastic comment, but Katie does not realize that the comment is sarcastic and takes it literally. The difference in interpretation relates to which concept? a. the reinforcement value b. the expectancy c. the psychological situation d. self-efficacy 162. You are interviewing for a new position, and the interviewer asks you to describe yourself. You tell him or her that you are driven, are results-oriented, and are highly reliable. Which of these did you just describe? a. self-concept b. temperament c. self-esteem d. character

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Chap 12_16e 163. Which of the following most accurately defines the concept of a drive within the context of learning theories of personality? a. It is any stimulus strong enough to goad a person to action. b. It is a signal from the environment. c. It is an external condition that strongly influences behavior. d. It is a natural, undistorted, full-body reaction to an experience.

164. Danny remembers a time when he was young that his dad took him hunting. Danny recalled being very upset at the sight of a dead animal and was nearly in tears, when his dad told him “There is no use being upset; it’s just an animal.” Which of the following is Danny likely experiencing? a. possible selves b. ideal self c. conditions of worth d. organismic valuing 165. Remi finds a wallet in the hallway of her dorm. No one is around, so he takes the wallet to the building’s lost and found. Which of the following statements would learning theorists most likely say about Remi? a. He is honest in all situations. b. He is honest in this specific situation. c. He is probably an extrovert. d. He has a cardinal trait of honesty.

166. You’ve taken a trait profile quiz. Which of these were likely used? a. 16 Personality Factor assessment b. behavioral assessment c. biofeedback assessment d. Stanford–Binet assessment 167. Jimmy’s behavior is being assessed by a psychologist who would like to be able to better predict his future behavior. Which of the following is this psychologist likely using? a. trait approach b. humanistic approach c. psychodynamic approach d. social learning approach 168. According to Freud, the decision-making part of personality that operates on the reality principle is known as the a. superego. b. ego. c. psyche. d. id.

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Chap 12_16e 169. Behaviorists might attribute academic dishonesty (such as cheating) to a. students’ biological predispositions to cheat in class. b. students’ lack of congruence between ideal and real selves. c. specific situations in classes that let cheating take place. d. students’ instinctual drives of anger against authority figures.

170. The teacher has invited a school psychologist into her classroom to record detailed angry actions of certain students in order to further develop an improvement plan. Which of the following forms of personality assessment best describes what is occurring? a. projective testing b. behavioral assessment c. objective testing d. Thematic Apperception Test 171. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the concept of conditions of worth? a. They refer to internal standards used to determine the value of one's thoughts, actions, feelings, or experiences. b. They refer to external conditions that strongly influence behavior, attitudes, or thoughts. c. They refer to temporary moments of self-actualization. d. They refer to idealized images of oneself.

172. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the impact of the halo effect? a. It refers to the view that human nature is neither negative nor positive. b. It refers to the phenomenon wherein an individual regards oneself as a worthwhile person. c. It refers to facets of behavior that can be employed to assess an individual. d. It refers to the tendency to generalize a favorable (or unfavorable) impression to the whole personality.

173. Which of the following statements most accurately describes agreeable people as they are categorized in terms of the Big Five personality traits? a. Agreeable people lack strong social support from others. b. Agreeable people often put the interests of family ahead of their own. c. Agreeable people are at an advantage with respect to succeeding in business. d. Agreeable people tend to have few friends.

174. In the context of behavioral personality theories, cues refer to a. patterns of behaviors regarded as "male" or "female" within a culture. b. deeply ingrained, learned patterns of behavior. c. stimuli strong enough to goad a person to action. d. signals from the environment.

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Chap 12_16e 175. Which of the following traits refers to how trusting, lenient, soft-hearted, and good-natured a person is, as opposed to suspicious, critical, ruthless, and irritable? a. extroversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism 176. According to Rogers, a fully functioning person refers to a. a person living in harmony with his or her deepest feelings, impulses, and intuitions. b. a person with the ability to laugh at oneself. c. a person who is sensitive to the fake and dishonest. d. a person who accepts the shortcomings of others with tolerance.

177. In the context of the Big Five personality traits, people who are creative and receptive to new ideas usually rate high on a. neuroticism. b. agreeableness. c. conscientiousness. d. openness to experience.

178. In the context of social learning theory, which of the following refers to a capacity for producing a desired result? a. self-reinforcement b. self-actualization c. self-efficacy d. self-regard 179. Corey recently received a promotion and has never held a leadership position before. Which of the following should Corey do first? a. He should explain that he is new to this position and will need a little time to learn of his department and employees. b. He should start delegating tasks to whoever wants them first in order to keep work flowing. c. He needs to hire a personal assistant to do all the easier tasks for him to free up his time to golf. d. He needs to focus his energy on reading about how to be a leader and start developing these skills immediately.

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Chap 12_16e 180. How do the humanistic theories of personality commonly differ from the theories based on social learning and behavior? a. Humanistic theories are more subjective and personal, while social learning theories often encompass many people and environmental influences in behavior. b. Humanistic theories focus primarily on mental capacities and inner conflict, while social learning theories often encompass many people and environmental influences in behavior. c. Humanistic theories encompass many people and environmental influences in behavior, while social learning theories are often more subjective and personal. d. Humanistic theories focus primarily on mental capacities and inner conflict, while social learning theories focus on how traits affect one’s personality.

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Chap 12_16e Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. d 25. a 26. d

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Chap 12_16e 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. d 52. b 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_16e 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. b 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_16e 83. a 84. c 85. b 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. c 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. d 94. b 95. a 96. d 97. c 98. a 99. a 100. a 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. a 105. b 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_16e 111. a 112. c 113. b 114. a 115. d 116. a 117. b 118. a 119. a 120. d 121. b 122. b 123. b 124. c 125. a 126. b 127. d 128. c 129. b 130. b 131. d 132. a 133. c 134. a 135. d 136. c 137. d

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Chap 12_16e 138. c 139. c 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. c 144. d 145. a 146. b 147. d 148. a 149. a 150. a 151. a 152. b 153. a 154. c 155. a 156. a 157. b 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. c 162. a 163. a 164. c 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_16e 166. a 167. a 168. b 169. c 170. b 171. a 172. d 173. b 174. d 175. b 176. a 177. d 178. c 179. a 180. a

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Chap 13_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is a general adaptation syndrome (GAS) stage during which the body mobilizes its resources to cope with added stress? a. alarm reaction b. resistance c. secondary appraisal d. exhaustion 2. What is emotion-focused coping? a. managing or controlling one’s emotional reaction to a stressful or threatening situation b. taking proactive measures to correct a stressful or threatening situation c. choosing a way to meet a threat or challenge d. coping with stress through a preconceived set of emotions and reactions 3. Which of the following shows promise for helping people to control their heart rhythms and lower blood pressure? a. mastery training b. biofeedback c. problem-focused coping d. projection 4. Malia was born with a physical disability that impaired her ability to walk. As an adult, Malia is an elite Paralympic athlete with medals in three sports. What type of defense mechanism did Malia likely employ growing up as a child with a disability? a. reaction formation b. compensation c. rationalization d. projection 5. Brizan has just lost his job. He is proactive in trying to resolve this source of stress: He immediately uses the internet to look up other jobs in his field and plans to eliminate non-essentials from his budget to make his savings last longer. Which type of coping approach is Brizan using? a. emotion-focused coping b. problem-focused coping c. avoidant coping d. displaced aggression 6. Which of the following is NOT an element of stress? a. ambivalence b. pressure c. unpredictability d. uncontrollability

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Chap 13_16e 7. Many people would say that if you looked up the term "hardy personality" in a dictionary, there would be a big photo of Ben. What can we assume about Ben? a. He is more likely to be hiding symptoms of a psychosomatic disorder. b. He is more likely to achieve personal growth from negative experiences. c. He is more likely to approach conflict with a winner-take-all attitude. d. He is more likely to have difficulty sustaining long-term relationships.

8. Jiang hears a loud noise behind her house. She grabs a flashlight and goes outside to check for possible animals or prowlers. What is Jiang engaged in? a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. behavioral response d. stress 9. Linda recently started a new job and broke up with her boyfriend. Which of these is considered a life stressor? a. both experiences b. starting a new job c. a relationship breakup d. neither experience 10. Which of the following describes how progressive relaxation differs from meditation? a. Progressive relaxation is a specific process of tightening and loosening muscles to achieve relaxation, while meditation can take many forms. b. Progressive relaxation is the visualization of images that result in calmness and relaxation, while meditation can take many forms. c. Progressive relaxation is simply the process of interrupting thoughts to produce relaxation, while meditation is specifically the visualization of images that result in calmness and relaxation. d. Progressive relaxation is simply the process of interrupting thoughts to produce relaxation, while meditation is specifically the tightening and loosening muscles to achieve relaxation.

11. Which of the following helps animals become more resistant to learned helplessness? a. progressive relaxation b. mastery training c. guided imagery d. emotion-focused coping 12. Because Rosa scored a 250 on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, she has an elevated risk for a. physical illness. b. reaction formation. c. learned helplessness. d. psychosomatic disorders.

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Chap 13_16e 13. Within the context of psychological defenses, how are the uses of denial and repression similar in the ways in which they help individuals? a. Both denial and repression employ the unconscious to avoid feelings of anxiety. b. Both denial and repression refuse the acknowledgment of reality to avoid anxiety. c. Both denial and repression cause the individual to retreat to an earlier, more simplistic level of development to avoid anxiety. d. Both denial and repression cause a failure of the actual perception of the anxiety the individual is facing.

14. Charlie hates taking exams. He spends the week before finals biting his nails, sleeping poorly, and worrying. He tries to distract himself by watching funny movies the night before the exam. This is an example of a. denial. b. emotion-focused coping. c. relationship-focused coping. d. problem-focused coping.

15. Which of the following terms refers to attributing one's own feelings, shortcomings, or unacceptable impulses to others? a. rationalization b. regression c. displacement d. projection 16. Brenda has used a primary appraisal, but not a secondary appraisal, in her analysis of an event. Because she has not used a secondary appraisal, we can guess that the event was a. highly emotional. b. nonthreatening. c. related to Brenda’s self-identity. d. followed by a physiological response.

17. Julie works as a support counselor at a high school and decided to do a study on the health-endangering habits of her students. Based on the U.S. average, what might Julie find is the most common health risk in which the students of her school engage? a. played 3 or more hours of video games per day b. rode with a drinking driver in the past 30 days c. used cannabis in the past 30 days d. did not have any vegetables in the previous 7 days 18. Which person is most likely to experience eustress? a. Rob, who goes to the climbing gym every Friday to challenge himself and improve his skills. b. Hamza, who regularly gets into political arguments on social media in the evenings. c. Juana, who is overwhelmed with tasks at work and is not sure if she can finish them all. d. Amanda, who is going to a networking function and is anxious about whether people will talk to her.

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Chap 13_16e 19. Which of the following coping mechanisms would apply to a man who takes a walk in the forest to reduce feelings of distress? a. rationalization b. emotion-focused coping c. repression d. problem-focused coping 20. The psychological defense mechanism known as compensation is defined as a. diverting a thought or behavior from its natural target toward a less threatening one. b. counteracting a real or imagined weakness by emphasizing desirable traits or seeking to excel in the area of weakness or in other areas. c. separating emotion from a threatening or anxiety-provoking situation by talking or thinking about it in impersonal “intellectual” terms. d. attributing one’s own feelings, shortcomings, or unacceptable impulses to others.

21. After working as a nurse in the ER of a busy urban hospital during a wave of gang violence, Justina developed a psychosomatic disorder. What do we know about Justina's experience? a. Her symptoms are created by issues originating in her own mind. b. Her symptoms are a figment of her imagination. c. Her doctors see no physical evidence of her symptoms. d. Her symptoms are mental and develop as result of a lack of sleep.

22. In which stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS) are bodily resources drained and stress hormones depleted? a. the first stage of resistance b. the second stage of resistance c. exhaustion d. alarm reaction 23. In which of the following ways can learned helplessness have a profoundly negative impact on a person? a. A person experiencing learned helplessness will almost always be diagnosed with depression. b. A person experiencing helplessness in a scenario will likely feel it in other aspects of their lives. c. Learned helplessness is a psychological state that can easily be spread from one individual to another. d. Learned helplessness can result in a deterioration of one’s personal relationships and feelings of affection.

24. Dr. Haverford suggests to her client that her mood problems stem from problems with the neurotransmitter serotonin. Dr. Haverford mentions nothing about social or behavioral factors that may be related to mood. To understand her client’s problems, Dr. Haverford seems to be using the a. medical model. b. biopsychosocial model. c. behaviorist model. d. interdisciplinary model.

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Chap 13_16e 25. Behavioral risk factors can be minimized through a. early prevention. b. lifestyle changes. c. community health programs including social media. d. All of the options.

26. Raising three kids on her own while working as a paralegal at a busy law firm sometimes makes Helen feel so stressed, she feels like she might shatter into a million pieces. What is a simple strategy Helen can implement right away to help reduce her feelings of stress? a. taking things one by one at a slower pace b. slowing her respiration and heart rate c. minimizing social contact to focus on key goals d. picturing times when she was young, and life was simpler 27. Which of the following people is most vulnerable to burnout? a. Jennifer, who is passionate about her work. b. Malcolm, who is ambivalent about his job. c. Sya, who feels little emotional demand from work. d. Mohammed, who works for a low salary.

28. At the local after-work watering hole, what are most people complaining about as sources of on-the-job stress? a. low salary and inflexible hours b. low salary and lack of growth opportunity c. long hours and heavy workload d. heavy workload and uncertain expectations 29. In most day-to-day situations, perceived threat has to do with the idea of a. survival. b. pressure. c. resistance. d. control.

30. After dealing with depression for a couple of months, Zack registered for a course in mastery training. What will Zack gain from the course that can serve as an "antidote" to his feelings of depression? a. hope b. hardiness c. repression d. relaxation

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Chap 13_16e 31. Which of the following occurs during the alarm reaction stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? a. The body’s resources become drained. b. Bodily adjustments to stress begin to stabilize. c. Some bodily processes speed up, while others slow down. d. The body’s defenses come into balance.

32. Students who role-play ways to resist smoking pressures from peers, adults, and tobacco product advertising are most likely engaged in a. mastery training. b. life skills training. c. refusal skills training. d. guided imagery.

33. Which of the following examples depicts how stress can be considered beneficial to the body? a. A tourist in a crowded, foreign city square experiences high levels of stress. b. An office worker is feeling tremendous stress after being assigned five new projects. c. A student is stressed out after calculating the payment levels of her student loans from college. d. A wife feels high levels of stress due to the constant arguments she has with her husband.

34. You experience a large disruption that threatens a central part of your life and is very difficult to deal with. Most likely, soon you will experience body changes, thoughts, and actions associated with the psychological process of a. stress. b. frustration. c. conflict. d. a daily hassle.

35. Harold has been unemployed for many years and is constantly struggling to pay his bills. The stress Harold is experiencing is an example of a. chronic stress. b. a major life stressor. c. acute stress. d. learned helplessness.

36. A health program at Jorge's school teaches him about self-control, social skills, decision-making, and how to cope with day-to-day stressors. What type of program is Jorge attending? a. life skills training b. cognitive-behavioral therapy c. refusal skills training d. behavioral training

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Chap 13_16e 37. Which of the following will have the greatest impact on Ahmad's immediate health? a. being stuck in traffic on the way to an important meeting b. moving to a new apartment in a different neighborhood c. losing a promotion at work that he was certain he would get d. ending his marriage after being together for 22 years 38. During which stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS) are people most likely to experience anxiety, selfdestructive behavior, and poor judgment? a. the final phase of alarm reaction b. exhaustion c. the first phase of alarm reaction d. resistance 39. Alfonse has a large project due to his boss by the end of the week. Although it’s stressful, he makes a step-bystep to-do list to ensure he can accomplish the project on time. Alfonse is displaying what type of coping? a. emotion-focused coping b. retroactive-focused coping c. problem-focused coping d. meaning-focused coping 40. The general adaptation syndrome (GAS) proposes three levels of stress resistance. Which of the following lists the correct order of these stages? a. alarm–exhaustion–resistance b. alarm–resistance-exhaustion c. resistance–exhaustion–alarm d. resistance–alarm-exhaustion 41. Which of the following would be most effective in getting a child to avoid the temptation to begin smoking? a. community health campaigns b. social media campaigns c. refusal skills training d. life skills training 42. Jodie was served divorce papers by her husband, but she refuses to accept that they are really getting divorced and acts as though the marriage will continue. What type of defense mechanism may explain this? a. denial b. projection c. rationalization d. reaction formation

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Chap 13_16e 43. Which of the following explains the role that alcohol use plays in the promotion of long-term health and wellbeing? a. Alcohol use should be moderated to ensure a subjective well-being. b. Moderate alcohol can be consumed in conjunction with subjective well-being. c. Alcohol use is unrelated to a subjective well-being and can be consumed at one’s discretion. d. Subjective well-being is improved by increased alcohol consumption.

44. In general, problem-focused coping tends to be especially useful when a person is facing a. a series of microstressors. b. a situation that cannot be controlled. c. a controllable stressor. d. an approach–approach conflict.

45. Who is more likely to experience a negative impact on their health and well-being? a. Nick, who deals with hassles at his job each day. b. Carlos, who recently was laid off from his job. c. Melinda, who recently got married and had a baby. d. Tonya, who recently broke up with her boyfriend.

46. Jasmine has been experiencing feelings of helplessness, vulnerability, anxiety, and emotional numbness. What might this be the result of? a. daily hassles b. traumatic stress c. defense mechanisms d. denial 47. Which of the following is associated with poor health and marked by persistent negative emotions, including anxiety, depression, and hostility? a. Type A personality b. Type D personality c. hardy personality d. Type C personality 48. Diana has been tempted to take up smoking since her older sister and brother smoke as well. Diana’s mother enrolled her in a class where Diana role-played how to deny pressure to take up smoking. Which of the following type of healthy living promotion is this an example of? a. life-skills training b. refusal-skills training c. will-strengthening training d. community health campaign

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Chap 13_16e 49. Which type of psychologist might investigate why people continue to smoke or eat high fat and processed food despite knowing the potential adverse health implications of such behaviors? a. health psychologist b. social psychologist c. cognitive psychologist d. stress psychologist 50. Which of the following takes place in the alarm reaction stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? a. The body becomes better able to cope with the original stressor. b. The first signs of psychosomatic disorders begin to appear. c. The body’s stress hormones become depleted. d. The adrenal glands produce more adrenaline, noradrenaline, and cortisol.

51. Which of the following describes how maintaining a subjective well-being can impact one’s overall health? a. Maintaining a subjective well-being positively impacts psychological health, which, in turn, improves physical health. b. Maintaining a subjective well-being can negatively impact physical health at the expense of psychological health. c. Maintaining a subjective well-being can negatively impact psychological health at the expense of physical health. d. Maintaining subjective well-being focuses solely on perception and has no impact on either psychological or physical health.

52. Anne felt that she could not succeed at her final exam, and thinking about the final exam made her feel physically ill. For Anne, the final exam is most likely a(n) a. major life event. b. daily hassle. c. immune response. d. stressor.

53. What are psychosomatic disorders? a. illnesses that are characterized by extreme stress, resulting in a host of imaginary symptoms b. illnesses brought on by a combination of problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping c. illnesses that result in a host of symptoms such as apprehension, fear, stress, dread, uneasiness, and depression d. illnesses in which psychological factors contribute to bodily damage or to damaging changes in bodily functioning 54. People who fully embrace their new culture experience fewer social difficulties. This is a major benefit of a. sublimation. b. separation. c. marginalization. d. assimilation.

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Chap 13_16e 55. Who is most likely to experience a decrease in their immune system? a. Deshaun, who is in the midst of final exams week. b. Beatriz, who is starting a new high-profile job. c. Marco, who is beginning his first serious relationship. d. Jules, who is in training to compete in her first triathlon.

56. Which of the following techniques involves the intentional visualization of pictures that are calming, relaxing, or beneficial in other ways? a. progressive relaxation b. guided imagery c. mastery training d. emotion-focused coping 57. According to Richard Lazarus, primary appraisal involves a. deciding if a situation is relevant to oneself and if it is a threat. b. using defense mechanisms to cope with difficult situations. c. deciding how to cope with a threat or challenge. d. controlling one’s emotional reaction to a stressful or threatening situation.

58. Which of the following people would likely experience the highest degree of stress? a. a doctor working in an emergency room b. a person who has weekly physical therapy c. an athlete who runs over 75 miles per week d. a student who is preparing for final exams 59. Why is the excessive stress of a burnout a special problem in particular professions, such as nursing, social work, and police work? a. Burnout is especially prevalent in emotionally demanding helping professions. b. Burnout happens to people who are more passionate about their work. c. Burnout often occurs from a lack of competence in one’s profession. d. Burnout is especially common in jobs with higher average pay.

60. During which stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS) are people most likely to experience symptoms such as fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, and sore muscles? a. the first phase of the stage of resistance b. the first phase of the alarm reaction c. the final phase of the stage of resistance d. the final phase of the alarm reaction

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Chap 13_16e 61. Which of the following is a typical characteristic of a Type D personality? a. time urgency b. worry c. procrastination d. stress resistance 62. According to Richard Lazarus, which step of dealing with a threat answers the question, “Am I okay or in trouble?” a. resistance b. secondary appraisal c. exhaustion d. primary appraisal 63. Alexi recently immigrated to the United States. He rejects U.S. culture, refuses to learn English, and only interacts with others who immigrated from his home country. What pattern best explains how Alexi is adapting to acculturative stress? a. assimilation b. marginalization c. separation d. integration 64. Which of the following terms explains the appearance of symptoms, such as gastrointestinal distress, hives, or hypertension that result from high levels of stress? a. psychosomatic disorders b. resolving different kinds of conflicts c. applying defense mechanisms to stressful situations d. appraising a situation as positive or threatening 65. Carlton has always been interested in psychology, and he eventually wants to get involved in efforts to improve the well-being of people in low-income, urban communities like the one he has grown up in. What should Carlton select as his major in college? a. health psychology b. clinical psychology c. neuropsychology d. cognitive psychology 66. You are the superintendent of schools in a large city. Based on statistics, which of the following would you recommend be added to the health curriculum to help reduce risk behaviors among the highest number of students? a. smoking cessation b. safe-sex practices c. healthy nutrition d. dealing with depression

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Chap 13_16e 67. The best way to minimize treatment noncompliance is to a. call the patient or client every day. b. build a trusting relationship with the client or patient. c. make referrals to informal friends and family. d. threaten not to continue with treatment if instructions aren’t followed.

68. Engaging in primary appraisal allows us to a. become less hostile. b. become emotionally aroused. c. enact coping behaviors only for stimuli that are relevant. d. have difficulty expressing our emotions.

69. Which of the following terms defines minor but frequent daily stresses? a. repressors b. hassles c. frustrations d. conflicts 70. Life-change units are associated with which of the following? a. the fight-or-flight response b. the Social Readjustment Rating Scale c. the Workplace stress scale d. the Hassles and Uplifts Scale 71. Advice, guidance, encouragement, acceptance, emotional comfort, and financial help are all examples of a. acute stress. b. social support. c. antistressors. d. social readjustment.

72. Since starting classes at the university, Ayanna has been experiencing some fluctuations in her mood and occasional feelings of stress and loneliness. However, she is still functioning relatively well and enjoys eating meals with her dorm mates and people watching in the quad. What might Ayanna be experiencing? a. major depression b. college blues c. repression d. eustress

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Chap 13_16e 73. Murid’s grandfather is dying of cancer. The coping strategy that will be most effective in reducing Murid’s stress around this event is a. problem-focused coping. b. life-skills training. c. guided imagery. d. emotion-focused coping.

74. Which of the following is a negative effect of extended cortisol release caused by chronic or prolonged stress? a. The heart is subjected to abnormal pressure. b. The thyroid is damaged. c. The lungs are placed are under stress. d. The immune system is weakened.

75. Which of the following would be most helpful to individuals who suffer from severe anxiety attacks and wish to control their heart rate to reduce the effects of anxiety? a. mastery training b. reaction formation c. displacement d. biofeedback 76. Which of the following is a medical specialty field that commonly allies with health psychology to manage health-related disease and illness? a. nuclear medicine b. physical medicine c. forensic medicine d. behavioral medicine 77. Which of the following describes the defense mechanism of displacement? a. diverting a thought or behavior from its natural target toward a less threatening one b. taking on characteristics of an admired person, usually to compensate for perceived personal deficits c. attributing one’s own feelings, shortcomings, or unacceptable impulses to others d. counteracting a real or imagined weakness by emphasizing desirable traits or seeking to excel in other areas 78. Health psychologists investigate how genetics, behaviors, and social support impact health. This approach of focusing on multiple areas to understand health and well-being is central to which model? a. multiple interaction approach b. biomedical c. biopsychosocial d. avoidance approach

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Chap 13_16e 79. A woman stubs her toe on a bench while walking to get a glass of water in the middle of the night. She is frustrated and lashes out in anger, punching the wall with her fist. This is an example of a. emotion-focused coping. b. approach–avoidance. c. alarm reaction. d. reaction formation.

80. Which is the most impactful way that community health campaigns and social media can influence a person’s health and well-being? a. by informing and motivating that person to avoid behavior risks b. by showing how healthy others are shaming that person into improving their health c. by targeting the person’s close friends to help influence that person d. by tempting the person with other distractions, such as fancy cars and exotic travels 81. In which stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS) does resistance fall to its lowest degree? a. exhaustion b. resistance c. appraisal d. alarm reaction 82. In an average class of high school seniors, which of the following would be the most common risk behavior? a. carrying a weapon b. having unsafe sex c. smoking cigarettes d. smoking marijuana 83. Mastery training refers to the perceived level of control that one has over one’s environment and is governed primarily by which of the following emotions? a. hope b. love c. helplessness d. anxiety 84. Halfway up Heartbreak Hill, Roberto felt his body, mind, and spirit start to give out. It was a lifelong dream to run the Boston Marathon, and he did not want to fail. So, he tried to push onward and with each step he told himself, "You're strong, Roberto. You can do this. I believe in you." What is Roberto using to help him get through this challenging experience? a. biofeedback b. stress inoculation c. mastery training d. repression

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Chap 13_16e 85. Which of the following stress reduction techniques is used by a man who visualizes that he is relaxing on a beach? a. mastery training b. guided imagery c. progressive relaxation d. biofeedback 86. Feelings of hostility toward a family member, the names of people we dislike, and past failures are common targets of a. regression. b. repression. c. projection. d. identification.

87. After weeks of struggling with stress, Hae set up some sessions with a psychologist who helps her decrease the level of physical tension in her body. What type of treatment is Hae receiving? a. progressive muscle relaxation b. guided imagery c. biofeedback d. psychoneuroimmunology 88. Aisha had made plans with her coworkers to go out to dinner after work. Aisha does not really wish to go out with them, and would instead prefer to go out with her girlfriend to the movies. Aisha claims to her coworkers that she has relatives in town she has to show around and cannot make dinner after work. What is Aisha demonstrating? a. intellectualization b. rationalization c. displacement d. denial 89. Which of the following individuals is most likely to be experiencing a psychosomatic disorder? a. Rachel, who has felt heartburn and aches in her hips after stressful weeks at work. b. Jorge, who recently began taking a new medication and broke out in hives all over his chest. c. Mika, who had a flare-up of arthritis pain in her hands and toes after the weather turned cold. d. Cedric, who has stomach pains after eating dinner at a questionable cafe in an unfamiliar city.

90. Manuel's first job out of college has been nothing but a series of missteps and failures so far. He has lost his confidence and wants to go back to college where he aced every exam and was the most popular guy on his dorm floor. What is Manuel likely experiencing? a. fantasy b. compensation c. regression d. displacement

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Chap 13_16e 91. Which of the following is an example of the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. Diamond begs her mother for a puppy even after she is told she can’t have one. b. Patrice can’t stop talking even after her teacher asks her to remain silent. c. Tyrique almost falls out of the tree, but he grabs a branch, and now that the danger of falling has passed, he focuses his energy and attention on getting down from the tree safely. d. It is time for Fallon’s nap, but he cannot fall sleep.

92. Dr. Frobish possesses which personality because she is an intensively driven workaholic, is preoccupied with deadlines, and always seems to be in a rush? a. Type-B b. Type-C c. Type-D d. Type-A 93. Which of the following is most likely to suffer from psychosomatic disorders? a. a Type-A personality b. an optimistic person c. a Type-B personality d. a hardy personality 94. Which of the following best describes stress? a. the pressure or demand placed on an organism to adjust or adapt b. a state of despondency marked by feelings of hopelessness c. the belief that one cannot control the outcome of events d. a state of having mixed positive and negative feelings 95. Rush hour traffic, lost keys, parent expectations, and inclement weather are all examples of a(n) a. microstressors. b. mind conflicts. c. life events. d. catastrophe.

96. Javier recently emigrated from Mexico. He remains active in the local Mexican-American community and participates in Mexican cultural activities. He also interacts with his new American neighbors and has attended their birthday parties and barbecues. What approach is Javier demonstrating as he builds his new life in America? a. integration b. separation c. assimilation d. marginalization

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Chap 13_16e 97. Tim is a longtime smoker. His good friend Jenna just quit smoking. How will this impact the likelihood that Tim will also quit smoking? a. It will marginally increase the probability that Tim will quit. b. It will have no impact on the probability that Tim will quit. c. It will guarantee that Tim will quit. d. It will substantially increase the probability that Tim will quit.

98. Anna is a school counselor. She hates going to work and wants to lock the door and cry whenever a student comes to her for help. She just doesn’t feel like she has anything left to give. What aspect of job burnout does this exemplify? a. exhaustion b. depersonalization c. giving up d. diminished personal accomplishment 99. According to research conducted on family-focused interventions, the major difference between effective and ineffective family-focused treatments involves whether a. the client has adequate social skills. b. family members promote the client’s autonomy. c. a medical practitioner or a family therapist conducts the intervention. d. a family member chooses the option that will require the client to expend the least effort.

100. Which pattern of acculturative stress is usually the least severe? a. integration b. marginalization c. assimilation d. separation 101. Billy is trying to quit smoking, but his wife Mary is also a smoker. Based on what we know about social factors influencing healthy behaviors, which of the following would be most likely to lead to success? a. Billy joining a smoking cessation program but not mentioning it to his wife. b. Billy continuing to encourage his wife to join a smoking cessation program, while he tries to quit smoking on his own to hang out at his favorite bar where his smoker friends also spend time. c. Billy encouraging his wife to join a smoking cessation program, while he tries to quit smoking on his own. d. Billy joining a smoking cessation program and sharing this with Mary but not encouraging her to also change her behavior.

102. Lydia is often described as having a positive outlook on life. She assumes the best of people and situations.

Lydia exemplifies: a. optimism. b. biofeedback. c. negative affectivity. d. type A personality.

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Chap 13_16e 103. Chandane failed her second Anatomy exam and worried that her chances of becoming a physical therapist were very slim. This time, she decided to get help from her professor during office hours every week to try to do better on the last two exams. According to Lazarus, deciding to seek out help was a. a primary appraisal. b. a contingency appraisal. c. a secondary appraisal. d. a diathesis.

104. Which of the following occurs in the alarm reaction stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? a. Stress hormones are released into the bloodstream b. Stress hormones get depleted. c. The body’s resources become drained. d. Resistance rises to its highest level 105. George is currently experiencing a significant amount of stress at work. At the same time, he is feeling strong positive emotions and is enjoying the challenges. What is most likely true of George? a. He is at an elevated risk for getting sick. b. He has a Type-A personality. c. He is capable of finding creative solutions. d. He is engaging in the process of sublimation.

106. After failing a big math exam, Akbar told himself that he must be stupid and that he'll never be good at math.

What would likely be the impact of Akbar's self-talk? a. learned helplessness b. reaction formation c. social readjustment d. psychosomatic disorders 107. In which pattern of acculturative stress do people adopt the new culture as their own and have contact with its members? a. separation b. integration c. marginalization d. assimilation 108. Which of the following terms refers to the belief that one cannot control the outcome of events? a. learned helplessness b. ambivalence c. reaction formation d. frustration

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Chap 13_16e 109. Julie has a low score on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. Which of the following best describes her situation? a. Her stress level is likely to be high. b. She is experiencing a moderate life crisis. c. She is less likely to catch a cold. d. Her level of daily hassles is relatively high.

110. Which of the following occurs during the first phase of alarm reaction in general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? a. People have symptoms such as loss of appetite, fever, fatigue, upset stomach, and shortness of breath. b. The first signs of physical disorders triggered by psychological factors begin to appear. c. Resistance reaches its highest level. d. Bodily adjustments to stress stabilize 111. A person who has deep feelings of despondency is likely experiencing a. depression. b. ambivalence. c. aggression. d. burnout.

112. Samir is having a difficult time with his classes. He tries to keep from becoming anxious about his grades by going to movies and parties with his friends. However, Samir is frequently irritated and gets sick often. Which of the following factors is probably contributing to his mood problems and illnesses? a. He is using a problem-focused coping strategy. b. He is using an emotion-based coping strategy c. He is using a positive reappraisal strategy d. He is using a primary appraisal coping strategy.

113. Which of the following defense mechanisms is displayed by new college freshman adjusting to living in a dorm by sleeping with a blanket he had when he was a child? a. projection b. regression c. repression d. compensation 114. Which of the following is the most definitive characteristic of a hardy personality? a. unusual resistance to stress b. strong sense of independence c. increased problem-solving ability d. higher propensity toward showing compassion

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Chap 13_16e 115. Which of the following defines health psychology? a. the study of how cognitive and behavioral principles can be used to prevent illness and promote physical well-being b. the study of the effects of physical treatments, such as medication and psychosurgery, on mental illnesses c. the study of the comparative health behaviors and related outcomes of different species d. the study of mental processes, such as the placebo effect, on physical health and well-being 116. Which of the following tends to directly elevate physical arousal? a. coping statements b. guided imagery c. progressive relaxation d. negative self-statements 117. According to Richard Lazarus, a person thinks of a way to handle a particular threat or challenge during a. secondary appraisal. b. avoidance–avoidance conflict. c. approach–avoidance conflict. d. primary appraisal.

118. Fatima is trying to be the healthiest person she can possibly be and feel satisfied with life. She is focusing on her a. acculturation. b. personal goal. c. well-being. d. general adaptation syndrome 119. After experiencing a stressor for a period of time, Ben has been showing signs of anxiety, irritability, selfneglect, and frequent illness. According to the GAS model, what stage is he likely in? a. stage of exhaustion b. alarm reaction c. stage of resistance d. stage of recovery 120. Psychoneuroimmunology can be described as the study of a. the use of drugs to treat psychological disorders. b. links among behavior, stress, disease, and immunity. c. links between psychosomatic and physical illness. d. the impact of stress on the nervous system.

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Chap 13_16e 121. Lindsey leads workshops as part of a program that teaches people how to reduce their risk factors through diet and exercise. What type of program is Lindsey involved with? a. community health campaign b. refusal skills training c. life skills training d. behavioral training 122. Refusal skills training is a program that teaches a. adults the skills that support a healthy lifestyle. b. adults how to reject unwanted sexual advances. c. youth to resist pressures to smoke or use drugs. d. youth the steps to set and achieve personal goals.

123. According to the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), what occurs at the first, or most immediate, level of stress response? The body a. prepares itself through an emergency response. b. uses all defenses to fight the stress. c. shuts down most organs. d. becomes exhausted.

124. Which type of defense mechanism is used by a person who channels their feelings of aggression into sports? a. reaction formation b. sublimation c. identification d. projection 125. According to research conducted by Salvatore Maddi, which of the following is a characteristic of people with a hardy personality type? a. They feel that they have control over their lives and their work. b. They tend to see life as a series of threats or problems. c. They have an unusually low resistance to stress. d. They are generally laid-back and highly emotional.

126. If someone gave Darryl a t-shirt that read "Eternal Optimist," he would wear it with pride. What do we know about Darryl? a. He is more likely to deal with problems head-on. b. He likely has a Type-A personality. c. He is likely has completed a course in mastery training. d. He is more likely to use projection when experiencing stress.

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Chap 13_16e 127. Dan is naturally a very energetic, aggressive person, but it is generally not considered socially acceptable for him to act on his impulses. So, Dan decides to pursue a career in kickboxing, where he can release his aggression in the ring with other people who have similar tendencies. What does Dan's career choice demonstrate? a. displacement b. compensation c. repression d. projection 128. Which of the following is most likely to be taught in a life skills training session? a. how to make informed decisions b. how to achieve a balanced diet c. how to stop smoking d. how to prevent pregnancy 129. Which of the following is used to block out, or counteract, negative self-talk in stressful situations? a. biofeedback b. defense mechanisms c. coping statements d. mastery training 130. What is a field similar to health psychology that integrates psychological factors in the treatment of disease? a. biofeedback technicians b. biopsychosocial health psychologists c. behavioral medicine d. medical stress testers 131. A woman who came from a poor and struggling family works longer hours at the office and constantly outperforms her fellow coworkers is exemplifying which common defense mechanism? a. reaction formation b. projection c. repression d. compensation 132. Helplessness typically occurs when a. emotion-focused coping fails. b. stress leads to burnout. c. events appear to be uncontrollable. d. approach–approach conflicts cannot be resolved.

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Chap 13_16e 133. Which of the following is one of the most telltale signs of a Type A personality? a. adaptability b. stress resistance c. chronic anger d. worry 134. In Lazarus’s two-part cognitive appraisal process, secondary appraisals involve: a. interpreting the sensory input. b. deciding whether a situation is stressful or not. c. evaluating our response options and choosing coping behaviors. d. hiding our emotions.

135. Which of the following is an example of a lifestyle disease? a. heart disease b. depression c. HIV/AIDS d. hemophilia 136. Which of the following people is demonstrating the defense mechanism of identification? a. Rashida is unable to cope with the recent death of her sister and talks about her as if she is still alive. b. Paulo feels lost in his new job, so he tries to emulate the behaviors of his high-powered, successful boss. c. Hunter wanted to be an engineer, but he struggles with math, so he criticizes engineers as being cold and aloof. d. Ally is feeling anxious about an upcoming presentation, so she looks at the situation in rational, impersonal terms.

137. Of all the possible stress reduction techniques, which of the following has the most health benefits? a. frustration b. exercise c. meditation d. biofeedback 138. Which of the following is an element of stress that is most likely to occur when a person must meet urgent external demands or expectations? a. resistance b. pressure c. unpredictability d. control

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Chap 13_16e 139. Which of the following is a common feature of depression? a. hopelessness b. projection c. displacement d. alarm 140. What are example characteristics of someone with a Type A personality? a. time urgent, resilient, and tolerant b. patient, tolerant, and docile c. noncompetitive, patient, and docile d. competitive, impatient, and hostile 141. Recently, Joel and Uri had their first child. They are experiencing difficulty dealing with the lack of sleep and demands of the new baby. The kind of stress the two men are experiencing is called a. daily hassle. b. major life event. c. hassle. d. trauma.

142. Daniela commonly has four alcoholic drinks per day during the week and more on the weekends. What might a health psychologist recommend to Daniela? a. reducing her alcohol use to no more than two drinks per day b. completely cutting out alcohol use c. reducing her alcohol use to no more than three drinks per day d. drinking the same amount of alcohol each day of the week 143. When her mother first died after a long illness, Dina was an emotional wreck and refused to admit that her mother was gone. But after a few weeks, Dina was able to acknowledge and process the loss. Which statement best reflects Dina's experience? a. Dina used the defense mechanism of denial to control her distress temporarily until she was able to cope with the loss. b. Dina used the defense mechanism of regression, which enabled her to cope by pretending her mother was still alive. c. Dina used the defense mechanism of reaction formation, which helped her imagine her mother in a better place. d. Dina used the defense mechanism of intellectualization to keep her feelings separate from her functioning life.

144. Assume that a negative event has occurred in your life. Which of the following conditions would make this event the most stressful? a. It was unexpected. b. It occurred just after a positive event. c. It was just like an event you had experienced a year earlier. d. It was a planned vacation.

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Chap 13_16e 145. Which of the following recommendations for dealing with stress from a traumatic event would be the least effective coping mechanism for a sufferer? a. Talk with others about your fears and concerns stemming from the event. b. Consider and apply the skills that have helped you overcome the particular event. c. Give yourself the appropriate amount of time to heal and work through the traumatic event. d. Continue to live your life and try to push the event out of your mind.

146. Which of the following is an element of stress? a. displacement b. pressure c. compensation d. ambivalence 147. Burnout can best be described as a. a belief that one has no control over the outcome of life events. b. a stressful condition caused by choosing between incompatible alternatives. c. a work-related condition of mental, physical, and emotional exhaustion. d. a specific situation in which a person must meet urgent external demands.

148. Which of the following examples would be the least likely target of repression as a defense mechanism? a. Anger toward your father for failing to come to your dance recital when you were six years old. b. The humiliation of telling your spouse that you have been fired from your job. c. The name of a classmate in primary school who was mean to several of your friends. d. The embarrassment of messing up during a public speech during high school.

149. Which would likely be the most effective method a psychological health specialist’s office could deploy on their website to promote behavioral changes that improve health? a. Post pictures online of ugly people smoking cigarettes and coughing. b. Post information about diets that encourage rapid weight loss. c. Post video stories of people who have experienced depression. d. Post a quiz on alcohol use with customized tips to reduce problem drinking.

150. Devonte is a combat veteran with injuries that make it difficult for him to work and be active. What is an example of a strategy a health psychologist might use to improve Devonte's response to his situation? a. Help him work through negative thoughts and feelings. b. Direct him in physical therapy to improve his mobility. c. Conduct a brain scan to determine the cause of his problems. d. Prescribe medication to reduce his feelings of learned helplessness.

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Chap 13_16e 151. In the context of acculturative stress, what is separation? a. rejecting one’s old culture but suffering rejection by members of the new culture b. maintaining one’s own cultural identity and avoiding contact with the new culture c. maintaining one’s own cultural identity but participating in the new culture d. adopting the new culture as one’s own and having contact with its members 152. Which of the following is an example of the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. Betty steps down as class treasurer her senior year because she needs to focus on her grades. b. Burt is determined to learn how to play chess, so he spends all his time reading chess books. c. Nanette stays up all night to study for her math test. d. Larry has been lost in the woods for days. After such a long period of anxiety and fear, Larry collapses by a tree.

153. What is the difference between the primary and secondary appraisal of stressors? a. In primary appraisal, you decide how to deal with a given situation, and in secondary appraisal, you decide what that situation meant to you. b. In primary appraisal, you decide the relevance of the situation, and in secondary appraisal, you decide how to deal with that situation. c. In primary appraisal, you assess how a situation will impact you, and in secondary appraisal, you assess how that situation will impact other around you d. In primary appraisal, you assess how a situation will impact those involved, and in secondary appraisal, you assess how that situation will have an effect on you.

154. Which of the following experiments would be unlikely to lead the subjects to develop learned helplessness? a. A student is given unsolvable puzzles to solve for prizes and told that the puzzles are simple. b. A mouse is put in a tub of water and is unable to swim onto a floating platform to escape. c. A dog in a box receives mild shocks from the floor and is unable to move away from the shock. d. A rat in a cage receives mild shocks but can learn to turn off the shock by pressing a lever.

155. Jordan is experiencing significant stress during finals, and it is causing him minor neck and shoulder pain, which makes it difficult for him to fall asleep. He elects to try a tip from one of his classmates and tense up his neck, shoulders, and upper arms and slowly relax them. What form of relaxation is Jordan trying? a. meditation b. body awareness c. progressive relaxation d. guided imagery 156. Marlena tends to experience periods of depression, has negative views about herself and others, and is often irritable with others. Which of the following is likely true of Marlena? a. She scores high on subjective well-being. b. She has below-average behavioral risk factors. c. She has a disease-prone personality. d. She has achieved a state of self-actualization.

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Chap 13_16e 157. According to Richard Lazarus, what is the first step in dealing with a threat? a. assessing the resources that one has b. deciding whether a situation is relevant or irrelevant, positive or threatening c. finding a way to handle the threat d. experiencing a perceived lack of control while thinking about the threat 158. Tamara's mother is dying of cancer. What will likely be the best strategy Tamara can use to help her cope with this situation? a. problem-focused coping b. emotion-focused coping c. behavioral coping d. cognitive coping 159. Noomi seems to live by the “don’t sweat the small stuff” concept. She is relaxed, laid-back, and never seems too concerned about meeting deadlines or finishing a to-do list. Noomi has which type of personality? a. Type B b. stress-free c. Type A d. optimistic 160. According to Friedman and Rosenman, which personality type is characterized by ambitiousness, competitiveness, and achievement orientation? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D 161. Which of the following defense mechanisms involves fulfilling unmet desires in imagined achievements or activities? a. fantasy b. sublimation c. projection d. repression 162. Due to a physical disability, Chad has experienced repeated failures in sports and other physical recreational activities at school, which is causing him distress. Which of the following is the best option for Chad's parents to help their son? a. Enroll Chad in a program that will decrease his learned helplessness by giving him a sense of control. b. Enroll Chad in a program that will decrease his symptoms of depression by instilling a sense of optimism. c. Enroll Chad in a program that will decrease his learned helplessness by building a Type-A personality. d. Enroll Chad in a program that will decrease his symptoms of depression by focusing on academic tasks.

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Chap 13_16e 163. In the context of acculturative stress, what is marginalization? a. rejecting one's old culture but suffering rejection by members of the new culture b. maintaining one's old cultural identity but participating in the new culture c. adopting the new culture as one's own and having contact with its members d. maintaining one's old cultural identity and avoiding contact with the new culture 164. Having a higher level of social support is a. negatively correlated with health problems. b. unrelated to gender. c. important to health for children but less so for adults. d. correlated with Type A personality.

165. It doesn't take a person long after meeting Connie to know that she is personally committed to herself and her family and has a strong sense of control over her life. What else can we infer about Connie? a. She tends to hide psychosomatic symptoms. b. She is more likely to develop depression. c. She has a hardy personality. d. She has a Type-A personality.

166. What is problem-focused coping? a. using a defense mechanism to cope with problems b. managing or controlling one’s emotional reaction to a stressful or threatening situation c. trying out important decisions partially whenever possible d. directly managing or remedying a stressful or threatening situation 167. During which stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS) do the first signs of psychosomatic disorders begin to appear? a. exhaustion b. the first phase of alarm reaction c. the final phase of alarm reaction d. resistance 168. Which of the following is an alternate term for the defense mechanism of displacement? a. regression b. compensation c. projection d. sublimation

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Chap 13_16e 169. According to Richard Lazarus, in which stage does a person ask himself or herself “What can I do about this situation?” a. secondary appraisal b. primary appraisal c. alarm reaction d. resistance 170. The first stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is called a. resistance. b. primary appraisal. c. alarm reaction. d. secondary appraisal.

171. Divonte experienced a death in her family from the hurricane that recently passed through the city. Her stress levels are very high and she is starting to feel very tired and distracted at work. From these symptoms, what phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome would we say that Divonte is in? a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. frustration 172. Sanjay has recently been meeting with Dr. Chan, who advises him to avoid sleep deprivation and to set aside periods for relaxation each day. What is Dr. Chan focusing on to help Sanjay? a. health-promoting behaviors b. refusal-skills training c. life-skills training d. general adaptation skills 173. Which of the following reasons explains how social media can be so effective in promoting healthy behaviors? a. Social media is a powerful tool that brings cost-effective health information to the masses and promotes behavioral change. b. Research has found that people tend to be very honest in their self-disclosures on social media, particularly related to health-promoting behaviors. c. Social media targets users to advertising toward health-promoting products. d. Those who use social media tend to be stronger in their critical thinking skills.

174. Which of the following is a common characteristic of depression? a. aggression b. despondency c. panic attacks d. delusions

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Chap 13_16e 175. Farhan has had to deal with a lot of stress. His parents both have chronic diseases, he and his wife argue constantly, and his new job demands a lot of his time. According to research on the effects of stress, Farhan will most likely a. show a decreased immune response to infectious diseases. b. get divorced in the next year. c. develop a serious mental illness, such as schizophrenia. d. choose to go back to college.

176. Which of the following is NOT considered a behavioral risk factor? a. smoking e-cigarettes b. having alcoholic parents c. eating hydrogenated fats d. watching tv all weekend 177. Which of the following is a program that teaches students stress reduction, self-protection, decision-making, self-control, and social skills? a. mastery training b. refusal skills training c. stress inoculation d. life skills training 178. Eliza has recently been experiencing feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness. What is one factor that is most likely to be contributing to her current emotional state? a. self-critical thoughts b. psychosomatic symptoms c. eustress d. college blues 179. Carol has been feeling a lot of stress trying to finish all her papers and study for final exams. What would you recommend Carol do to help manage her stress? a. Get some outdoor exercise. b. Do a biofeedback session. c. Activate defense mechanisms. d. Enjoy some beer or wine each night.

180. During the first Gulf War, many individuals were hospitalized for the trauma of not knowing whether the warheads contained chemical weapons or not. This is an example of one of the main dimensions of stress, called a. (un)predictability. b. centrality. c. valence. d. ambivalence.

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Chap 13_16e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. a

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Chap 13_16e 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_16e 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. d 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. d 75. d 76. d 77. a 78. c 79. c 80. a 81. a 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_16e 83. a 84. b 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. b 89. a 90. c 91. c 92. d 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. b 100. a 101. b 102. a 103. c 104. a 105. c 106. a 107. d 108. a 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_16e 111. a 112. b 113. b 114. a 115. a 116. d 117. a 118. c 119. a 120. b 121. a 122. c 123. a 124. b 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. a 129. c 130. c 131. d 132. c 133. c 134. c 135. c 136. b 137. b

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Chap 13_16e 138. b 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. a 144. a 145. d 146. b 147. c 148. b 149. d 150. a 151. b 152. d 153. b 154. d 155. c 156. c 157. b 158. b 159. a 160. a 161. a 162. a 163. a 164. a 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_16e 166. d 167. d 168. d 169. a 170. c 171. b 172. a 173. a 174. b 175. a 176. b 177. d 178. a 179. a 180. a

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Chap 14_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Moana is two years old and was born with Down syndrome. Because Moana has an intellectual disorder that arose before adulthood, she is best categorized as having a a. neurocognitive disorder. b. psychological trauma-based disorder. c. neurodevelopmental disorder. d. stress-vulnerability based disorder.

2. Ketill refuses to carry an umbrella when walking to and from work in the rain. Ketill is displaying a. social rigidity. b. social nonconformity. c. insanity. d. comorbidity.

3. Which of the following is characterized by a bodily symptom that mimics a physical disability but is actually caused by anxiety or emotional distress? a. conversion disorder b. bipolar I disorder c. cyclothymic disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 4. Declaring a person to be insane ultimately reflects what type of process? a. legal b. cognitive c. behavioral d. psychosocial 5. “Deliberate practice” refers to which of the following? a. having a keen interest in a task b. practicing for long periods of time c. gathering useful feedback to help you improve your performance d. scheduling time to practice a task 6. The stress-vulnerability model suggests that mental disorders result from the combination of which two types of factors? a. environmental and genetic b. chemical and neurological c. biological and developmental d. social and psychological

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Chap 14_16e 7. A person who has dissociative amnesia experiences a loss of a. personal identity. b. future memories. c. past memories. d. social comfort.

8. A person who is described as a loner, who engages in extremely odd behavior, and has bizarre thought patterns but is not actively psychotic would be diagnosed with which type of personality disorder? a. schizotypal b. schizoid c. antisocial d. dependent 9. Someone with brain damage or an intellectual disability could plead not guilty to a crime by reason of a. necessity. b. duress. c. self-defense. d. diminished responsibility.

10. Lesley recently gave birth to a healthy baby. During her pregnancy, Lesley's husband left her, and she no longer feels positive about raising a child because she is alone. Due to her circumstances, Lesley is at an increased risk of a. bipolar I disorder. b. postpartum depression. c. bipolar II disorder. d. hypomania.

11. A person who has xenophobia would likely avoid a. high, exposed places. b. contact with strangers. c. dark winter regions. d. being in crowded areas.

12. Harlow's identical twin was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is Harlow's risk for developing schizophrenia? a. 82 percent b. 48 percent c. 27 percent d. 64 percent

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Chap 14_16e 13. Which of the following best describes anxiety disorders? a. uncontrollable worry b. heightened fear c. situational unease d. repetitive behavior 14. Which of the following statements reflects the traditional view of OCD? a. Obsessions give rise to compulsions. b. Compulsion leads to obsession. c. Obsession and the compulsion are unrelated. d. Compulsions are generated without any stimuli.

15. Which of the following has most likely preceded a person’s suicide attempt? a. The person has received inpatient treatment. b. The person has threatened to commit suicide. c. The person has experienced intense grief. d. The person has been drinking or doing drugs.

16. Which one of the following reflects a current concern regarding attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. ADHD treatment is not covered by many insurance plans. b. Diagnoses for ADHD are heavily skewed toward girls. c. ADHD diagnoses are seen as pathologizing boyhood. d. ADHD diagnostic criteria in the DSM-5 are too imprecise.

17. You would expect a person who has antisocial personality disorder to be a. self-absorbed. b. submissive. c. lonely. d. deceitful.

18. Which one of the following is a feature of a dependent personality? a. Individuals have high self-confidence. b. Individuals allow others to run their lives. c. Individuals place their needs ahead of others. d. Individuals are suspicious and hypersensitive.

19. Which one of the following best describes the pattern of unwanted memories, nightmares, and flashbacks that continues for more than a month after a traumatic event? a. acute stress disorder b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. somatic symptom disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_16e 20. Ziv is a therapist and believes that his client's anxiety disorders are caused by raging conflicts between the id, ego, and superego. Ziv's beliefs about the causes of anxiety disorders indicate that he supports a. the behavioral approach. b. the cognitive approach. c. the humanistic approach. d. the psychodynamic approach.

21. A majority of psychologists believe that multiple identity is a. real and common. b. real and rare. c. fake. d. questionable.

22. Someone who lurks outside a celebrity’s home because they believe the celebrity secretly loves them would be experiencing what type of delusion? a. persecutory b. grandiose c. somatic d. erotomanic 23. A mental health clinic sees 100 patients over the course of a day. About how many of these clients meet the criteria for comorbidity? a. 10 b. 25 c. 40 d. 75 24. The difference between somatoform disorders and psychosomatic illnesses is best described as a. somatoform disorders only involve physical factors and psychosomatic illnesses only involve mental factors. b. somatoform disorders are explained by psychological factors and psychosomatic illnesses are explained by physical factors. c. somatoform disorders have no identifiable physical cause and psychosomatic illnesses result in real physical damage to the body. d. somatoform disorders involve coping with stress and psychosomatic disorders do not involve coping with stress.

25. Which of the following would most likely be associated with a person who has been diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder? a. high melatonin levels b. low serotonin uptake c. chronic daily stress d. strong irrational fears

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Chap 14_16e 26. Garnet is laughing uncontrollably in the therapist's office, speaks in an alien language to an imaginary rabbit, and claims he is the ruler of the planet Xenon. It is likely that Garnet is experiencing a. neurosis. b. psychosis. c. a neurodevelopmental disorder. d. erotomanic-type delusional disorder.

27. Dissociative fugue is defined as a. sudden travel away from home, plus confusion about one’s personal identity. b. exhibiting the characteristics of a disease or injury without an identifiable physical cause. c. excessively collecting various unnecessary things while giving away one's most precious personal belongings. d. extreme preoccupations with certain thoughts and compulsive performance of certain behaviors.

28. Which of the following defines a severe disorder characterized by disturbances in thought, perceptions, emotions, and behavior? a. schizophrenia b. agoraphobia c. dissociative fugue d. factitious disorder 29. Which of the following symptoms would likely cause the most distress for a person? a. panic b. anxiety c. apprehension d. fear 30. Which of the following describes a manic episode? a. an experience of seeing or hearing stimuli that don't exist b. a deep state of calmness when a person is hypnotized c. a period of low energy, motivation, and mood d. a period of abnormally excessive energy and elation 31. According to one perspective on schizophrenia, increased sensitivity to dopamine may cause someone with the disorder to experience a. blunted emotions. b. auditory hallucinations. c. catatonic states. d. social withdrawal.

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Chap 14_16e 32. Which of the following best reflects people who have schizophrenia and experience catatonia? a. They talk for days while continuously moving their bodies to the point of exhaustion. b. They remain in a stupor that occasionally gives way to agitated outbursts or violent behavior. c. They consciously enter a catatonic state as a means of controlling their inner turmoil. d. They have heightened sensory responses that lead to visual and auditory hallucinations.

33. Kenon frequently takes his infant son Wyatt to the doctor, telling the doctor that Wyatt had a fever the previous day or was up all night vomiting. The doctor can find no evidence that there is anything wrong with Wyatt, though he performs numerous tests. Because of all the trips to the doctor, Kenon is given a great deal of attention and sympathy from others. Kenon's behavior suggests he has a. Munchausen syndrome. b. Munchausen by proxy syndrome. c. conversion disorder. d. dissociative fugue.

34. Which one of the following is often a better predictor of success than intelligence? a. tactic b. grit c. norm d. strategy 35. Ashton is experiencing psychosis, believes she can read the minds of world leaders from great distances, claims to have a special relationship with the prime minister of England, and feels that she is going unrecognized by others for her "special" talents. Ashton is best described as having a(n) a. grandiose-type delusional disorder. b. erotomanic-type delusional disorder. c. jealous-type delusional disorder. d. persecutory-type delusional disorder.

36. Wambui is fearful of driving over bridges. Due to his fear of bridges, Wambui is missing work, is unable to make appointments, and is driving great distances to avoid bridges when completing errands. Wambui's behavior can best be described as a. functional. b. corrective. c. maladaptive. d. insane.

37. Payton was abused by his parents at an early age and was placed in foster care. While in foster care, Payton was diagnosed with ADHD. Presently, she is diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder and a likely contributing cause to the disorder is a. neurocognitive factors. b. neurodevelopmental factors. c. an extra 21st chromosome. d. psychological trauma.

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Chap 14_16e 38. Jordan is a research scientist who studies psychopathology. What does she study? a. mental disorders b. socially unacceptable behaviors c. consequences of personal actions d. consequences of group actions 39. Which one of the following disorders refers to excessively collecting various things? a. hoarding disorder b. kleptomania c. narcolepsy d. bipolar I disorder 40. Hadria is 14 years old and shows little remorse for hitting her younger sister in the face when she's angry.

Hadria is impulsive, dishonest, and recently was arrested for shoplifting. Her behavior is an indication of a(n) a. conduct disorder. b. histrionic personality disorder. c. paranoid personality disorder. d. avoidant personality disorder.

41. A person who seems happy and content but suddenly has a fit of anger at the slightest perceived criticism would be described as having what type of personality? a. narcissistic b. histrionic c. borderline d. avoidant 42. In which of the following risk factors for depression in women is the biological influence the greatest? a. childbirth b. poverty c. birth control d. parenting 43. What is required to overcome mental health challenges? a. isolation b. perseverance c. confinement d. medication

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Chap 14_16e 44. Which of the following terms refers to a withdrawal from reality marked by hallucinations and delusions, disturbed thoughts and emotions, and personality disorganization? a. trauma b. schizophrenia c. diathesis d. psychosis 45. A thought that consumes your mind and creates high levels of anxiety would be considered which of the following? a. a compulsion b. an acute stress disorder c. an adjustment disorder d. an obsession 46. Which of the following would most likely increase a person’s risk for developing Alzheimer’s disease? a. being exposed to alcohol in the womb b. having a parent who had the disease c. growing up in a stressful environment d. experiencing a highly traumatic event 47. Which of the following terms refers to psychopathologies resulting from damage to the nervous system before adulthood? a. neurodevelopmental disorders b. neurocognitive disorders c. psychotraumatic disorders d. emotive disorders 48. Sidney has an excessive, irrational fear of leaving her home and worries that something extremely threatening to her will happen in public spaces. Sidney most likely has a. panic disorder. b. agoraphobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. a specific phobia.

49. A person who is a victim of a violent crime would most likely experience which of the following? a. trauma b. dissociation c. conversion d. mania

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Chap 14_16e 50. If some individuals spend unusual amounts of time doing things such as washing their hands or counting their heartbeats, and these behaviors cause them distress and interfere with their daily lives, what disorder might they have? a. obsessive-compulsive and related disorders b. somatic symptom disorders c. schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders d. neurocognitive disorders 51. A person who consults the fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) would discover that a. the number of disorders has been reduced to about 100. b. homosexuality and neurosis are listed as disorders. c. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is no longer listed. d. gender identity disorder is listed as gender dysphoria.

52. Andile is at the dinner table and suddenly feels chest pain, has a racing heartbeat, and has fears of losing control. It is likely that Andile is experiencing a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. agoraphobia. c. a panic attack. d. a social phobia.

53. What is the primary symptom of delusional disorder? a. moderate depression that persists for two years or more b. the presence of deeply held, bizarre false beliefs c. chronic anxiety, with brief moments of intense, unexpected panic d. an intense, irrational fear of being observed or evaluated in social situations 54. Harper feels like everything looks bleak and hopeless. For over a month, she has been feeling like a worthless failure and is in total despair. Harper is likely experiencing a. dysthymia. b. cyclothymia. c. a bipolar disorder. d. a major depressive disorder.

55. Which one of the following is a reason why older men are more likely to father children who are at a greater risk of developing schizophrenia? a. Genetic mutations occur in aging male reproductive cells and increase the risk of disturbed brain development. b. Older males tend to have genetic mutations, which can be passed over to children through blood type. c. Sexual activity and functioning decrease in males as they grow older leading to degenerative sperm. d. Older males have more fragile X- and Y-chromosomes, and the Y-chromosome is the only universal carrier of the strain that causes schizophrenia.

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Chap 14_16e 56. Which of the following statements best defines the term neurocognitive disorders? a. psychopathologies caused by various forms of damage to the nervous system that arise after adulthood b. psychopathologies caused by observational learning that negatively impacts thought patterns c. psychopathologies caused by various forms of damage to the fetus during the prenatal development d. psychopathologies caused by various forms of damage to the nervous system that arise before adulthood 57. A therapist who treats clients with anxiety disorders by exploring aspects of their unconscious is employing what type of therapeutic approach? a. cognitive b. psychodynamic c. humanistic-existential d. behavioral 58. Shalev is a member of an impoverished, cultural underprivileged group and is living with prejudice and discrimination every day. He also has a parent diagnosed with schizophrenia. Shortly after his 17th birthday, Shalev was diagnosed with schizophrenia. One potential explanation for the onset of schizophrenia in Shalev's case is a. the stress-vulnerability model. b. the neurodevelopmental model. c. the psychosocial model. d. the psychiatric labeling model.

59. Humanistic psychologist Carl Rogers regarded disorders of emotion, including anxiety disorders, as the result of a faulty a. self-image. b. attitude. c. physique. d. emotion.

60. Which of the following is considered a psychotic disorder? a. schizophrenia b. schizoid personality disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. gender dysphoria 61. Which of the following is a feature of paranoia in schizophrenia? a. Paranoid delusions seldom occur in schizophrenia. b. Schizophrenics with paranoia seldom hallucinate. c. Delusions of people with paranoid schizophrenia are generally more bizarre than those in a delusional disorder. d. Delusions of people with paranoid schizophrenia are generally more convincing than those in a delusional disorder.

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Chap 14_16e 62. What classifies as excesses or exaggerations compared to normal behavior? a. positive symptoms b. negative symptoms c. neutral symptoms d. standard symptoms 63. Which of the following statements describes one way in which heredity affects the risk of developing schizophrenia? a. Genetic mutations occur in aging male reproductive cells and increase the risk of disturbed brain development, leading to schizophrenia. b. The younger a man is (even if he doesn’t have schizophrenia) when he fathers a child, the more likely it is that the child will develop schizophrenia. c. As women age, their eggs sustain damage from environmental and social stressors, increasing the risk for schizophrenia. d. It has been proven that schizophrenia is less common among close relatives and seldom passes down generations.

64. A clinician who emphasizes the cognitive perspective would likely attribute a patient’s depression to a. self-critical opinions. b. feelings of self-hatred. c. lack of light exposure. d. low levels of serotonin.

65. Which of the following best describes the relationship between heredity and schizophrenia? a. Heredity does not play a role as a cause of schizophrenia. b. The child of person with schizophrenia is less likely to develop the disorder than the spouse of a person with schizophrenia. c. The child of a person with schizophrenia will develop schizophrenia. d. Schizophrenia is more common among close relatives and tends to run in families.

66. Statistics on suicide in the United States show that while men typically use a gun or an equally fatal method to complete suicide, women most often attempt a. to slash their wrists. b. to overdose on drugs. c. to hang themselves. d. to jump from high places.

67. How does the risk factor for identical twins developing schizophrenia compare to the risk factor for two unrelated people to develop the disorder? a. It is almost three times greater. b. It is about 10 times greater. c. It is close to 25 times greater. d. It is nearly 50 times greater.

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Chap 14_16e 68. Which one of the following refers to mood disorders characterized by alternating periods of mania and depression? a. bipolar and related disorders b. persistent depressive disorder c. major depressive disorder d. dysthymic disorders 69. Psychopathologies that arise because of damage to the nervous system in adulthood are called what? a. neurocognitive disorders b. neurodevelopmental disorders c. conduct disorders d. organic disorders 70. A person who seeks to gain attention by falsely claiming that someone in his or her care has medical problems would likely have a. factitious disorder. b. adjustment disorder. c. cyclothymic disorder. d. bipolar I disorder.

71. Which one of the following is a psychosocial risk factor for schizophrenia? a. childhood sexual abuse b. peer social isolation c. inadequate childhood nutrition d. low household income 72. Which term refers to the simultaneous presence of two or more mental disorders in a person? a. comorbid b. bipolar c. dysthymic d. schizophrenic 73. What percentage of the population will be diagnosed with schizophrenia some time in their life? a. 2% b. 1% c. 5% d. 8%

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Chap 14_16e 74. Leda is consumed with worry over the well-being of her houseplants. She believes that by turning each of the light switches around the house on and off nine times, her plants will be safer and her concerns are eased.

Unfortunately, after a short period of time, her worries return and she must complete her light switch ritual over and over again. It is likely that Leda has a. hoarding disorder. b. a somatic symptom disorder. c. a trauma- and stressor-related disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

75. Hoarding disorder is classified as a type of a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. trauma- and stressor-related disorder. c. dissociative disorder. d. somatic symptom and related disorder.

76. Damian is constantly trying new things because he gets distracted easily and doesn't focus on a particular interest. Recently, he tried scuba diving and had fun, but when his instructor suggested he practice breathing slower and deeper, he shrugged off the feedback and decided he didn't like scuba diving. According to Angela Duckworth's research, Damian would score a. high on the grit scale. b. low on the grit scale. c. high on the perseverance scale. d. low on the interest scale.

77. Nat fears being evaluated by his boss, avoids using restrooms, and never speaks in public. Nat most likely has a. a social phobia. b. a specific phobia. c. panic disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder.

78. Micaiah holds odd postures for hours and occasionally his stupor gives way to agitated outbursts. Micaiah's symptoms are best described as a. flat affect. b. paranoia. c. catatonia. d. hebephrenia.

79. One of the greatest challenges faced when making a diagnosis of a mental illness is a. some symptoms may go unnoticed by the person being diagnosed. b. like physical illness, mental illness is typically diagnosed by assessing the presence or absence of a number of symptoms. c. symptoms of disorders are not quantifiable. d. psychiatric professionals lack a common resource to reference when making the diagnosis.

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Chap 14_16e 80. Jozef is having difficulty sleeping, is extremely irritable, and is suffering from such high levels of stress at his job that he feels he has been pushed beyond his ability to cope. Jozef is showing signs of. a. acute stress disorder. b. adjustment disorder. c. post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). d. somatic symptom disorder.

81. Which of the following terms best describes abnormality reflected in a very high score on an IQ test or anxiety scale? a. pathologic b. statistical c. maladaptive d. perceived 82. Which of the following is the best rationale for why women generally are less successful in committing suicide than men? a. Women feel more parental obligation. b. Women are inherently less violent. c. Women use slower methods. d. Women present more overt threats.

83. Purnama hears uncontrollable voices in her head and was declared by a judge to be not legally responsible for her actions. Which legal term describes Purnama? a. schizophrenic b. delusional c. deviant d. insane 84. Holt went to a relative's 80th birthday party and talked incessantly to every other guest about how shocked he was that he was recently fired from his job. He then punched holes in the walls with his fist, yelled at the hostess about not making his favorite appetizer, and proceeded to break the lightbulbs in all the table lamps.

Holt's behavior suggests that he may have a. histrionic personality disorder. b. avoidant personality disorder. c. schizotypal personality disorder. d. narcissistic personality disorder.

85. What is the primary symptom of schizophrenia? a. loss of contact with reality b. lack of strong emotions c. unnecessarily repetitious behavior d. disturbed gender identity

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Chap 14_16e 86. The cause of anxiety disorders may be best explained by a. the stress-vulnerability model. b. a lack of conflict between the id, ego, and superego. c. congruence between the real self and the ideal self. d. accurate assessment of ordinary threats and failures.

87. What would Angela Duckworth likely say about grit? a. that it is a flaw that can be easily fixed b. that it is a skill that anyone can develop c. that it is a less reliable predictor of success than intelligence d. that it primarily benefits the pursuit of short-term objectives 88. Which of the following is in the correct order of common phobias from most prevalent to least prevalent? a. acrophobia, astraphobia, aquaphobia, aviophobia b. acrophobia, aquaphobia, astraphobia, aviophobia c. astraphobia, acrophobia, aquaphobia, aviophobia d. acrophobia, astraphobia, aviophobia, aquaphobia 89. The drug lithium carbonate has been shown to be an effective treatment for a. bipolar I. b. major depressive disorder. c. personality disorders. d. anxiety disorders.

90. Structural brain imaging methods have revealed that the brains of people with schizophrenia are a. shrunk or atrophied. b. normal size. c. 20 percent larger than normal brains. d. dense with tangle webs of proteins.

91. What would be the typical signs of trouble to diagnose an individual with borderline personality disorder? a. The individual deeply distrusts others and is suspicious of other's motives, which are perceived as insulting or threatening. b. The individual is a loner, engages in extremely odd behavior, and has bizarre thought patterns, but is not actively psychotic. c. The individual is irresponsible, lacks guilt or remorse, and engages in antisocial behavior, such as aggression, deceit, or recklessness. d. The individual's self-image, moods, and impulses are erratic, and shows extreme sensitivity to any hint of criticism, rejection, or abandonment by others.

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Chap 14_16e 92. What would be the typical sign of trouble for an individual diagnosed with a neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease? a. The individual complains of physical sensations that are not medically diagnosed. b. The individual's ability to think and remember suffers a dramatic decline in adulthood. c. The individual will hear or see things that others don’t. d. The individual will have anxiety attacks and feel like he is going to die.

93. Leighton believes he is being controlled by aliens and hearing voices telling him to hurt his neighbors. Leighton is experiencing a. negative symptoms of a disorder. b. positive symptoms of a disorder. c. nonspecific symptoms of a disorder. d. uncategorizable symptoms of a disorder.

94. Disobeying public standards for acceptable conduct is called which of the following? a. psychosis b. social nonconformity c. insanity d. psychopathology 95. An individual feels extremely sad, worthless, fatigued, and empty most of the time. However, at times, he feels unusually good, cheerful, energetic, or “high.” Which one of the following disorders would he most likely be diagnosed with? a. bipolar II disorder b. bipolar I disorder c. dysthymic disorder d. conversion disorder 96. Ramiro was diagnosed with schizophrenia and is talking with his doctor about his recent brain scan. The doctor will most likely tell Ramiro his brain scan revealed a. his brain has smaller ventricles than a normal person's brain. b. the fissures in his brain are not atrophied. c. the ventricles in his brain are enlarged. d. his brain's activity is exceptionally high in the frontal lobes.

97. The difference between acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is best described as a. acute stress disorder involves having more intense symptoms for a longer period of time than PTSD. b. PTSD involves having less intense symptoms than acute stress disorder for a shorter period of time than acute stress disorder. c. acute stress disorder involves having symptoms for less than a month and PTSD involves having symptoms for more than a month. d. acute stress disorder involves the experience of a more stressful event than events related to PTSD.

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Chap 14_16e 98. Three weeks ago, Cass was held hostage and sexually abused. He is now seeking therapy because he is repeatedly reliving the traumatic event, having a hard time sleeping, and abruptly exploding with angry outbursts.

Cass is likely experiencing a. adjustment disorder. b. post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). c. acute stress disorder. d. dissociative fugue.

99. Jacob washes his hands 75 times a day. Jacob's handwashing behavior can be considered a. statistically abnormal. b. within culture norms. c. statistically normal. d. socially conforming.

100. Which drug produces effects that partially mimic the symptoms of schizophrenia? a. LSD b. PCP c. marijuana d. cocaine 101. A psychological disturbance lasting up to one month following stresses that fall outside the range of normal human experience is termed a. acute stress disorder. b. post-traumatic stress disorder. c. adjustment disorder. d. somatic disorder.

102. Certain individuals believe that they have some great, unrecognized talent, knowledge, or insight. They may also believe that they have a special relationship with an important person or with God or that they are a famous person. What type of delusional disorder is this? a. persecutory type b. erotomanic type c. somatic type d. grandiose type 103. Which disorder involves extreme preoccupation with certain thoughts and repeated performance of certain behaviors? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. somatic delusional disorder c. conversion disorder d. bipolar II disorder

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Chap 14_16e 104. Which of the following most accurately describes the brains of people who have schizophrenia? a. The neurons are tangled and twisted. b. The hippocampus has fewer dendrites. c. The ventricles contain excess fluid. d. The tissue of the brain is atrophied.

105. How is a negative symptom of a mental disorder determined? a. by comparison to normal behavior b. by the effect resulting from behavior c. by lack of genetic predisposition d. by level of emotion demonstrated 106. A person who has disabling pain in one arm with no medically diagnosable cause would instead likely be diagnosed with a. somatic symptom disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. dissociative disorder. d. cyclothymic disorder.

107. An individual hears voices in his head that instruct him to hurt himself. Which of the following terms best describes this imaginary perception? a. hallucination b. catatonia c. paranoia d. delusion 108. Which one of the following is NOT a symptom of schizophrenia? a. disturbed perception b. fear of open spaces c. flat emotions d. paranoid delusions 109. According to consensus among the psychological community, what is the underlying cause of most mental disorders? a. a high degree of biological risk, regardless of psychosocial factors b. a high level of psychosocial influences plus any level of biological risk c. a high degree of biological risk plus a low level of psychosocial factors d. a moderate or higher level of psychosocial factors plus high biological risks

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Chap 14_16e 110. Farai is a senior in college and has had trouble sleeping and felt mildly depressed since his father died suddenly a little over two years ago. Additionally, he has a negative self-image because he is struggling with his grades.

He would best be described as having a. dysthymia. b. bipolar disorder. c. manic disorder. d. cyclothymia.

111. Marisol is using deliberate practice to improve her lacrosse skills. According to Anders Ericsson, to achieve her goal, Marisol should apply the three Fs: a. friends, family, and fun. b. form, function, and finish. c. focus, feedback, and fix it. d. fire-up, find a way, and feel good.

112. Alphonso is blind to signs of disgust in others, is incapable of feeling guilt, and is manipulative. Alphonso's characteristics are indications of a(n) a. schizotypal personality disorder. b. histrionic personality disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. dependent personality disorder.

113. An individual experiencing a prolonged and deep depression starts taking drugs legally for treatment and becomes addicted, thus complicating the primary mood disorder with a secondary substance use disorder.

Which health condition is being exemplified here? a. comorbidity b. coinfection c. asymptomatic d. synergistic epidemic 114. A therapist who explains to a client that her problem with anxiety stems from unrealistic expectations of herself subscribes to which perspective on this class of disorders? a. humanistic b. psychodynamic c. behavioral d. existential 115. Walter is 60 years old and recently became a father for the first time. Due to his age, Walter should be concerned about an elevated risk for his child to develop a. schizophrenia. b. major depressive disorder. c. Down syndrome. d. antisocial personality disorder.

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Chap 14_16e 116. Which of the following is a culture-bound syndrome? a. bulimia nervosa b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. seasonal affective disorder d. post-traumatic stress disorder 117. A person who experiences extended feelings of sadness and despondency would likely be diagnosed with what type of mental disorder? a. depressive b. bipolar c. dissociative d. histrionic 118. Montana is the daughter of a schizophrenic parent and recently experienced active duty in a military conflict that contributed to a psychotic break. Montana's psychotic break best supports a. only psychosocial factors as the cause of psychosis. b. only genetic factors as the cause of psychosis. c. the stress-vulnerability model. d. the biological bases for psychosis.

119. The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thought to be linked to which neurotransmitter? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. serotonin d. norepinephrine 120. Grit refers to having the passion and perseverance to pursue a. a short objective. b. a long-term goal. c. a small task. d. daily chores.

121. Kayin has been experiencing moderate emotional ups and downs for many months. Kayin is most likely experiencing a. cyclothymic disorder. b. bipolar I disorder. c. bipolar II disorder. d. postpartum depression.

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Chap 14_16e 122. Someone who has astraphobia would likely experience significant distress during which situation? a. driving across a bridge b. speaking to a group c. being in a thunderstorm d. flying in a hot air balloon 123. Windsor is 85 years old and was recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Because this diagnosis occurred during adulthood, it is best categorized as a a. neurodevelopmental disorder. b. psychological trauma-based disorder. c. neurocognitive disorder. d. psychosocial-based disorder.

124. A person who is diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder would likely a. feel very little emotion and be unable to form close personal relationships with others. b. be dramatic and flamboyant, exaggerating their emotions to get attention from others. c. be timid and uncomfortable in social situations and fear evaluation by others. d. lack confidence, be extremely submissive, and rely on others excessively.

125. A person who collects many items of little value because having them provides a sense of safety and control would likely be diagnosed with a. hoarding disorder. b. conversion disorder. c. acute stress disorder. d. factitious disorder.

126. It is difficult to treat people suffering from paranoid delusions because a. there are no treatment options or therapy available for delusional disorders. b. delusional disorders are neurodevelopmental disorders. c. it is almost impossible for them to accept that they need help. d. they seldom respond to treatment.

127. Zhou has problems with selective attention and experiences disturbances in perceptions by having delusions and hallucinations. Recently, Zhou explained to his therapist that he believes that insects are crawling under his skin and that his enemies are trying to poison him. The disorder that Zhou's symptoms best characterize is a. schizophrenia. b. dissociative disorder. c. narcissistic personality disorder. d. jealous-type delusional disorder.

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Chap 14_16e 128. Rajani lives in a small community and was diagnosed with schizophrenia. Since her diagnosis has been treated and she is living on his own. However, Rajani is having difficulty getting hired, was denied housing, and was falsely accused of a crime because others in her small town are familiar with her diagnosis. Rajani is experiencing a. the effects of being a pseudopatient during treatment. b. medical student's disease. c. a neurosis. d. social stigmatization.

129. Which of the following behaviors meets the criterion for maladaptive behavior stemming from mental illness? a. missing work regularly because of anxiety b. mowing your lawn every day to impress your neighbors c. asking your significant other to kill a spider for you d. avoiding friends after a tragic death in your family 130. What type of disorders are considered to be the most serious of all psychological conditions? a. personality disorders b. mood disorders c. neurodevelopmental disorders d. anxiety disorders 131. In general, neurocognitive disorders tend to be caused by a. biological factors. b. psychological factors. c. environmental factors. d. prenatal factors.

132. An individual is dramatic, flamboyant, and exaggerates his or her emotions to get attention from others. Which of the following types of personality disorders most likely affects this person? a. histrionic personality disorder b. narcissistic personality disorder c. schizoid personality disorder d. borderline personality disorder 133. What is the major reason why people do not seek help for their mental illness? a. because of the fear of stigmatization b. because people seldom want to get better c. because many treatment success rates are low d. because people fear they could be a bad influence on society

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Chap 14_16e 134. Tashi is experiencing psychosis and believes that he is being spied on by the government, others are out to secretly poison him, and moves quickly to deter any potential of being covertly followed. Tashi is best described as having a a. jealous-type delusional disorder b. erotomanic-type delusional disorder c. somatic-type delusional disorder d. persecutory-type delusional disorder 135. What would be a typical symptom for a person diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder? a. The person feels very little emotion and can’t form close personal relationships with others. b. The person is dramatic and flamboyant, exaggerating their emotions to get attention from others. c. The person is timid and uncomfortable in social situations and fears evaluation by others. d. The person thinks they are wonderful, brilliant, important, and worthy of constant admiration.

136. Which one of the following refers to a mood disorder in which a person has episodes of extreme mania (excited, hyperactive, energetic, or grandiose behavior) and also periods of deep depression? a. conversion disorder b. bipolar II disorder c. cyclothymic disorder d. bipolar I disorder 137. Based on the names and symptom profiles of various anxiety disorders, the meaning of the word phobia likely means a. fear. b. worry. c. avoidance. d. fixation.

138. Which of the following is an example of a hallucination? a. A person is very easily annoyed by high-pitched sounds that other people don’t even seem to notice. b. A person believes his food has been poisoned. c. A person believes a celebrity is in love with them. d. A person sees insects crawling on them that aren’t really there.

139. Which of the following is most closely associated with schizophrenia? a. histrionics b. dissociation c. disintegration d. depression

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Chap 14_16e 140. Paulina is a 25-year-old Caucasian female who uses illegal drugs. Paulina is at a higher risk of completing suicide than a. Jamie, a 55-year-old Caucasian male. b. Han, a 17-year-old Native American male. c. Jenna, a 65-year-old Asian American female. d. Shawn, a 45-year-old male with chronic health problems.

141. What is the most likely remedy to treat patients diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder? a. phototherapy b. conversion therapy c. hypnosis d. chemotherapy 142. After developing a keen interest in something, the second stage of developing grit is a. deliberate practice. b. emotional management. c. solitary meditation. d. spiritual enlightenment.

143. Hallucinations are grounded in which of the following? a. perception b. cognition c. behavior d. emotion 144. Kiran was insulted and is now running amok. Because Kiran's condition is associated with Asian regions, it is best described as a a. brief psychotic disorder. b. culture-bound syndrome. c. cross-cultural type I disorder. d. neurosis.

145. Based on research and statistics compiled on suicide and suicidal ideation, a. people who are in relationships have higher suicide rates than single people. b. people who are diagnosed with depression are the only ones who attempt suicide. c. people who contemplate suicide tend to isolate themselves from others. d. people who talk about suicide or threaten to commit suicide rarely try it.

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Chap 14_16e 146. Jia, a clinical therapist, is working with a client and using a reference book for information to support her diagnosis of the client's symptoms. Jia is likely using a. the DSM-5. b. the Encyclopedia of Psychological Disorders. c. a case study. d. the physician's manual.

147. Jason is suffering from a delusion that causes him to think that his arm is diseased and rotting. What type of delusional disorder is this? a. persecutory b. somatic c. paranoid d. catatonic 148. Which one of the following statements is a common experience of people labeled as being mentally ill? a. They are placed in institutions. b. They are unable to function in society. c. They receive priority treatment. d. They experience social stigma.

149. An individual accused of a crime may argue that he or she is not guilty due to a diagnosable mental disorder, and hence was unable to realize that what he or she did was wrong. The legal term used to describe this action is a. insanity defense. b. charge bargaining. c. sentence bargaining. d. self-defense.

150. Antisocial behavior tends to decline naturally after what age? a. 12 b. 40 c. 18 d. 25 151. Which of the following is a possible prenatal risk factor for a child to develop schizophrenia later in life? a. exposure to rubella during pregnancy b. a woman drinking heavily during pregnancy c. treatment of a woman's migraine headaches during pregnancy d. treatment of a woman's arthritis during pregnancy

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Chap 14_16e 152. Jun is a psychotherapist and is working to reduce a client's agoraphobia. Jun explains to her client that selfdefeating behavior like agoraphobia is a product of avoidance learning. Jun's emphasis on learning indicates that she supports the a. behavioral approach. b. humanistic approach. c. psychodynamic approach. d. cognitive approach.

153. Avery is suffering from major depression and anxiety. The term that best describes Avery's situation is a. coexistence. b. comorbid. c. unclassifiable. d. amok.

154. Which of the following is a key criterion to determine whether a person’s behavior is socially nonconforming? a. the context in which it occurs b. the genetic background of the person c. the presence of other disorders d. the lack of remorse for the behavior 155. A person who has no close friends and doesn’t really experience happiness, sadness, or anger would be described as having what type of personality? a. paranoid b. schizoid c. antisocial d. schizotypal 156. Which of the following has the highest risk factor for attempting suicide? a. a 31-year-old male b. a 24-year-old female c. a 62-year-old male d. a 46-year-old female 157. Pippa has extremely low self-confidence. She allows her older sibling to make all her life decisions and spends most of her time volunteering at several homeless shelters. Pippa's behavior suggests she may have a a. histrionic personality disorder. b. borderline personality disorder. c. dependent personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder.

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Chap 14_16e 158. Hollis is well adjusted, yet feels distressed because his physical sex does not match his gender identity. Due to the revisions in the DSM-5, Hollis would NOT be diagnosed as disordered and instead would likely be diagnosed with a. depression. b. gender confusion. c. gender dysphoria. d. socially nonconforming.

159. Jose tells his doctor that he has lost the sensitivity in his hand. The area affected is like a glove. His doctor suddenly grabs Jose's arm and his arm pulls back involuntarily, indicating to the doctor that Jose does not have an organic basis for his "anesthesia." Jose is showing signs of a(n) a. conversion disorder. b. factitious disorder. c. dissociative disorder. d. adjustment disorder.

160. Depression that occurs only in response to reduced levels of melatonin caused by lack of sunlight is called a. seasonal affective disorder. b. cyclothymic disorder. c. somatic symptom disorder. d. factitious disorder.

161. Rhea's apartment is cluttered with stacks of newspapers, magazines, and junk mails from over 50 years of continuous collection of them up from the mailbox. She is unable to throw or give them away. Rhea's uncontrollable collecting is characteristic of a. a dissociative disorder. b. hoarding disorder. c. adjustment disorder. d. factitious disorder.

162. Which type of stress would most likely lead to the development of adjustment disorders in individuals? a. chronic physical illness b. rape c. earthquake d. war 163. A person who scores high on Angela Duckworth's grit rating scale is best described as a. having a passion and perseverance to pursue a very long-term goal. b. having many fleeting interests that are easy to succeed in. c. very strong physically and able to endure extensive physical challenges. d. less likely to be successful than a highly intelligent person.

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Chap 14_16e 164. Which one of the following is an important characteristic that "gritty" individuals possess? a. hope b. truth c. spirituality d. power 165. Among people who have schizophrenia, who is most likely to exhibit violent or dangerous behavior? a. a person who has hallucinations b. a person who shows flat affect c. a person who displays catatonia d. a person who uses illicit drugs 166. A person who believes the government is tracking her every move and thoughts via microwaves would be experiencing what type of delusion? a. somatic b. persecutory c. grandiose d. schizotypal 167. Sergei was involved in a terrible accident at work. On the way to the hospital, a member of the emergency response team asked him what his name was, but he could not remember his name nor events from his past.

Sergei most likely has a. a somatic symptom disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. dissociative amnesia. d. adjustment disorder.

168. Which one of the following is a psychosocial factor that is associated with schizophrenia? a. living in a troubled family b. attending private schools c. lacking intellectual stimulation d. being exposed to multiple cultures 169. Which of the following symptoms distinguishes postpartum depression from other types of depression? a. obsession b. restlessness c. dissociation d. paranoia

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Chap 14_16e 170. Which ethnic group has the highest suicide rate in the United States? a. Chinese Americans b. Hispanics c. Native Americans d. Asians 171. Which type of delusion is focused on a person’s beliefs about his or her own body? a. erotomanic b. hypochondriac c. somatic d. conversion 172. Brainwave patterns of individuals with antisocial personality disorder suggest a. underarousal of the brain. b. overarousal of the brain. c. enlarged ventricles. d. diminished gray matter.

173. A person who feels the need to tap each forkful of food against the plate three times to be sure it is safe to eat would most likely be diagnosed with a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. conversion disorder. c. bipolar I disorder. d. somatic delusional disorder.

174. Considering the symptoms and potential causes, which of the following is most likely a culture-bound disorder? a. bulimia nervosa b. postpartum depression c. panic disorder d. dissociative amnesia 175. The DSM-5 change in designation from gender identity disorder to gender dysphoria in part reflects concerns over which aspect of the term disorder? a. stigma b. biology c. comorbidity d. cause

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Chap 14_16e 176. Cecilia is 12 years old and is very interested in learning to play the piano. She practices every day and seeks feedback on her piano playing from others. Cecilia believes that if she becomes an accomplished piano player, she can enter a career in music and play music for the elderly in nursing homes. According to Angela Duckworth's research, Cecilia rates high in a. grit. b. the potential for a borderline personality disorder. c. maladaptive personality problems. d. the potential for a conversion disorder.

177. Jordan is a psychologist who believes in the traditional view of OCD theory. Which of the following most likely describes her beliefs about OCD? a. Compulsive attempts to cope lead to obsessive thoughts. b. Obsessive thoughts lead to compulsive attempts to cope. c. Compulsive behaviors are not linked to obsessive thoughts. d. Compulsive acts increase anxiety caused by obsessive thoughts.

178. In the context of the various causes of anxiety disorders, which view states that distorted thinking causes people to magnify ordinary threats and failures, leading to distress? a. humanistic theories b. psychodynamic approach c. existential theories d. cognitive approach 179. Which one of the following best refers to a significant impairment in psychological functioning? a. mental disorder b. mentalism c. mental protuberance d. mental block 180. For which of the following does perceived external evaluation play a key role? a. social anxiety disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. panic disorder d. schizophrenia

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Chap 14_16e Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. d 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. b

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Chap 14_16e 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. d 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. d 52. c 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_16e 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. a 76. b 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. b 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_16e 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. a 90. a 91. d 92. b 93. b 94. b 95. a 96. c 97. c 98. c 99. a 100. b 101. a 102. d 103. a 104. d 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. b 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_16e 111. c 112. c 113. a 114. a 115. a 116. a 117. a 118. c 119. a 120. b 121. a 122. c 123. c 124. a 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. d 129. a 130. b 131. a 132. a 133. a 134. d 135. d 136. d 137. a

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Chap 14_16e 138. d 139. c 140. c 141. a 142. a 143. a 144. b 145. c 146. a 147. b 148. d 149. a 150. b 151. a 152. a 153. b 154. a 155. b 156. b 157. c 158. c 159. a 160. a 161. b 162. a 163. a 164. a 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_16e 166. b 167. c 168. a 169. b 170. c 171. c 172. a 173. a 174. a 175. a 176. a 177. b 178. d 179. a 180. a

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Chap 15_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What type of personal qualities would likely make the most effective kind of therapist? a. emotional distance and intellectual rigor b. warmth, insightfulness, and an ability to set boundaries c. openness, honesty, and a willingness to confront evasive statements d. sense of humor, intellectual rigor, and the ability to compartmentalize emotions 2. What separates psychoanalysis from client-centered therapy? a. Psychoanalysis is more optimistic in nature. b. Client-centered therapy is based on the conscious, not the unconscious of the client. c. Client-centered therapy is more directive than psychoanalysis. d. Client-centered therapy's goal is for the therapist to fix the client's problems.

3. When providing emotional support to a friend in need, what would be the MOST detrimental a person could do? a. discuss his or her own similar experience b. share the problem with others c. listen without offering advice d. allow the friend to be angry and cry 4. Which of the following is the primary strength of psychodrama? a. dynamic insights b. focus on immediate awareness c. shared responsibility for problems d. personal empowerment 5. Five good things and two bad things happen during a person's day, but the person focuses only on the bad. This is an example of a. reciprocal inhibition. b. overgeneralization. c. all-or-nothing thinking. d. selective perception.

6. Mark is recovering from addiction to opioids. Under the supervision of a professional psychotherapist, he is working with various people who are dealing with drug addiction. He focuses particularly on crisis intervention.

Mark is likely working in a a. hospital. b. community mental health center. c. halfway house. d. mental institution.

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Chap 15_16e 7. A person who perceives sights and sounds that others don’t due to a mental disorder would be prescribed which of the following? a. stimulants b. antianxiety drugs c. antidepressants d. antipsychotic drugs 8. Which of the following medications are minor tranquilizers? a. antianxiety drugs b. mood stabilizers c. antipsychotics d. stimulants 9. Improvement that is based on a client’s belief that counseling will help is termed a. the Hawthorne effect. b. spontaneous remission. c. therapy placebo effect. d. an altered state of consciousness.

10. Which of the following best describes a community mental health center? a. a facility for people making the transition from an institution to independent living b. a facility offering a range of psychiatric care such as prevention, counseling, consultation, and crisis intervention c. a facility that allows patients to spend their days in the hospital but go home at night d. a facility designed to ease a person’s return to normal life and reduce the chances of being readmitted to a hospital 11. In the context of psychoanalysis, what does the term manifest content refer to? a. thoughts that move freely from one to another b. the obvious, visible meaning of a dream c. the hidden, symbolic meaning of a dream d. thoughts that are transferred from the patient to the therapist 12. The primary strength of brief psychodynamic therapy is a. personal empowerment. b. the productive use of conflict. c. constructive reenactments. d. a focus on immediate awareness.

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Chap 15_16e 13. What therapeutic approach is used to help patients address “internal conflict”? a. humanistic b. behavioral c. cognitive d. psychoanalytic 14. What therapy would be the most effective for someone who has problems with authority figures? a. group therapy b. client-centered therapy c. psychoanalysis d. mass media therapy 15. In what key way do cognitive therapies differ from psychodynamic therapies? a. Cognitive therapies focus on conscious elements. b. Cognitive therapies explore developmental insights. c. Cognitive therapies emphasize rewards for change. d. Cognitive therapies develop a sense of meaning in life.

16. A man who considers himself to be completely worthless after losing a part-time job is engaged in the error of a. reaction formation. b. selective perception. c. psychodrama. d. overgeneralization.

17. Proponents of electroconvulsive therapy claim that a. the therapy's shock-induced seizures alter or reset the biochemical and hormonal balance in the brain and body. b. the treatment works best for disorders other than depression, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. the treatment works by confusing patients so that they cannot remember why they were depressed. d. the therapy need not be followed by antidepressant drugs since there is little to no chance of a relapse.

18. People who take medication that makes them extremely nauseous whenever they take a small drink of alcohol are undergoing what type of treatment for their addiction? a. aversion therapy b. exposure therapy c. existential therapy d. Gestalt therapy 19. Patients being able to go home and practice what they have been learning is a major advantage of a. deinstitutionalization. b. partial hospitalization. c. halfway houses. d. community mental health centers.

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Chap 15_16e 20. Eddie shakes up a can of soda and sprays it on Alice in group therapy. Alice slaps him on the face. The next session, Eddie repeats the same behavior. What would an operant therapist who wanted to use nonreinforcement and extinction to handle the situation likely do? a. Take away Eddie's soda, because it was his reward. b. Give Eddie a time-out every time he shook up a can of soda. c. Give both Alice and Eddie a time-out the next time he sprays her and she slaps him. d. Explain to Alice that Eddie wants her attention and tell her to try to ignore him if possible.

21. To achieve maximum impact when using a token system, therapists focus on a. specific target behaviors. b. close approximations to desired responses. c. suppressed emotions. d. actions that cannot be modified.

22. Kayla is afraid of small spaces. What would be an example of an early stage of systematic desensitization? a. asking her permission to lock her in a closet b. discussing the personal history of her fear of small spaces at length c. shocking her with a mild electric current every time she thinks about being trapped d. having her tense all the muscles in her body in targeted groups, then releasing those muscles 23. Alonzo refuses to write notes to his family from the treatment center. Whenever Alonzo picks up a pencil or draws on a sheet of paper, the therapists give him a marble, which he can later trade for an ice cream. After a few days, Alonzo begins writing letters or words, and days later, he writes a few sentences, getting a marble each time. What two principles of operant conditioning are at work here? a. token economy and shaping b. shaping and positive reinforcement c. stimulus control and shaping d. token economy and stimulus control 24. Psychodrama is generally most effective at providing clients with perspective on a. personal interactions. b. repressed emotions. c. selective perceptions. d. fear hierarchies.

25. Yolanda, who has a fear of rats, plays her favorite uplifting hymn while watching a rat run around in a cage.

This is an example of a. flooding. b. vicarious desensitization. c. reciprocal inhibition. d. virtual reality exposure.

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Chap 15_16e 26. Which of the following statements should be kept in mind while evaluating a therapist? a. Therapists have varying rates of success due to many factors. b. A therapist usually encourages prolonged dependence on him or her. c. Therapy approaches that were successful for friends are likely the most effective. d. Therapists should require clients to not discuss their therapy with others.

27. Which of the following is an example of the use of mirror technique? a. A therapist restates Katie's own words to her and asks her how she feels hearing him or her said aloud. b. Sorboni looks at herself in a mirror and describes what she sees to the therapist. c. Andy watches Jorge play the role of "Andy" in a group therapy session. d. Ahmad plays the role of his dying sister in a group therapy session.

28. What type of therapy relies on neither the real-world exposure to fears nor the imagination of the client? a. vicarious desensitization b. eye movement desensitization and reprocessing c. virtual reality exposure d. systematic desensitization 29. Ultimately, the tokens used in operant therapies should be replaced with a. mood stabilizers. b. social rewards. c. insights. d. meaningful goals.

30. How does systematic desensitization help patients? a. by resetting goals b. by undoing learning c. by resolving conflicts d. by blocking emotions 31. What is the best way for a person to avoid imposing his or her personal views on the problems of others? a. reflect thoughts and feelings b. maintain confidentiality c. ask open-ended questions d. accept a person's frame of reference 32. Why is psychodynamic therapy today generally more effective than traditional psychoanalysis? a. Treatments are longer in duration and more frequent in number. b. Treatments are more frequent in number but shorter in duration. c. Treatments today are longer in duration, but psychodynamic therapy rarely lasts more than a year. d. Treatments are fewer in number and shorter in duration.

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Chap 15_16e 33. What statement from a client would a Gestalt therapist likely approve of? a. "I need your help to overcome my fear of snakes." b. "I'm going to stand up for myself and confront my abusive father today." c. "I'm going to make a plan to take a painting class because I know how much my husband loves art." d. "I don't need to be so angry when I think about my dead grandmother. It's not her fault she died."

34. When faced with uncovering deep personal insights and exploring critical unconscious conflicts, a patient in psychoanalysis may engage in a. psychodrama. b. extinction. c. reciprocal inhibition. d. resistance.

35. Which of the following therapies helps clients understand why certain behaviors and feelings occur and offers strategies to implement beneficial change? a. family therapy b. client-centered therapy c. psychodrama d. psychoanalysis 36. Which of the following best describes all-or-nothing thinking? a. blowing a single event out of proportion by extending it to a large number of unrelated situations b. perceiving only certain stimuli among a larger array of possibilities c. classifying objects or events as absolutely right or wrong, good or bad, acceptable or unacceptable, and so forth d. using one emotional state to inhibit the occurrence of another, such as joy preventing fear or anxiety inhibiting pleasure 37. What is systematic desensitization? a. the use of aversive stimuli to interrupt or prevent upsetting thoughts b. a guided reduction in fear, anxiety, or aversion attained by gradually approaching a feared stimulus while maintaining relaxation c. the process of rephrasing or repeating thoughts and feelings expressed by clients so that they can become aware of what they are saying d. a form of treatment that reduces unwanted behavior by pairing it with an unpleasant stimulus 38. A person who is working with a rational-emotive behavioral therapist would likely focus on changing his or her a. fears. b. motivations. c. goals. d. beliefs.

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Chap 15_16e 39. Which type of therapy is most likely to have limited effectiveness due to a weak therapeutic alliance? a. action therapy b. internet therapy c. group therapy d. nondirective therapy 40. Which of the following treatments presents increased risk due to potential complications associated with surgery? a. electroconvulsive therapy b. deep brain stimulation c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. exposure therapy 41. A person who participates in free association exercises and explores the content of his or her dreams is likely receiving which of the following? a. psychodrama b. aversion therapy c. psychoanalysis d. behavior therapy 42. What challenge might be best served by a self-help group? a. phobia b. addiction c. social anxiety d. depression 43. Which of the following can be considered the most intense brain stimulation therapy? a. deep brain stimulation b. vagus nerve stimulation c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. electroconvulsive therapy 44. An antisocial patient in a residential treatment facility is given a token for entering the activity room and standing by the wall. After several days, he is given a token for sitting at a table with other patients, but not speaking. A week later, he receives a token each time he sits at a table and acknowledges or speaks to another patient. This is an example of a. shaping. b. stimulus control. c. time-out. d. positive reinforcement.

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Chap 15_16e 45. How would a client-centered therapist respond to a client who said he wanted to murder his neighbor's dog? a. She would tell him he was behaving in a morally repugnant way. b. She would ask him the root of his feelings about dogs in general. c. She would listen without judging him and reflect back on what he said in other language. d. She would ask him if this was related to getting some sense of control over the universal fear of death.

46. The appeal of deep lesioning is that a. it alters the biochemical balance in the brain through shock-induced seizures. b. it can be reversed. c. it allows for electrical stimulation of precisely targeted brain regions. d. it can have value as a remedy for some very specific disorders.

47. Angelique is deeply uncomfortable in social situations and does not like to leave her home. What type of therapy might be the most effective for her? a. psychodrama b. aversion therapy c. distance therapy d. directive therapy 48. Which of the following dimensions of therapy is specifically designed to bring about direct changes in troublesome thoughts and feelings without seeking insight into their origins or meanings? a. action therapy b. time-limited therapy c. nondirective therapy d. group therapy 49. Which of the following is an example of a cognitive behavior therapy technique? a. thought stopping b. reciprocal inhibition c. vicarious desensitization d. free association 50. Which of the following is a danger signal to watch for in psychotherapy? a. a therapist asking both open-ended and closed questions b. a therapist waiting longer to respond than do people in everyday conversations c. a therapist paraphrasing the client's thoughts and feelings d. a therapist making excessive small talk about his or her problems 51. Which of the following therapies is insight-oriented and both directive and nondirective in nature? a. existential therapy b. Gestalt therapy c. rational-emotive behavior therapy d. brief psychodynamic therapy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_16e 52. How did Freud become the first psychotherapist? a. by developing a process called trephining to help patients with mental illnesses b. by helping patients gain insight into deeply hidden unconscious conflicts c. by using reinforcement to increased desired behaviors d. by applying medical therapies to patients with mental disorders 53. What is an example of aversion therapy? a. A woman with a fear of flying imagines herself in a plane. b. A longtime tobacco user is asked in a therapy session what anxiety his smoking is trying to relieve. c. An person who is addicted to alcohol is challenged to avoid drinking for a week. d. A child who sucks his or her thumb has his or her thumbs coated in a foul-tasting, if harmless, substance.

54. What is an example of something that would likely happen in creating a fear hierarchy? a. Louis drinks alcohol while his therapist gives him a painful electric shock. b. Larry visualizes his childhood abuse while his therapist makes him look at a light that she moves from side to side. c. Lenny completes a list of 10 experiences he associates with his fear of chickens. d. LaShawn tenses and relaxes the muscles in his face.

55. Who among the following is likely to have experienced a spontaneous remission? a. a person who feels better after partial hospitalization b. a person who feels better after psychoanalysis c. a person who feels better after several weeks without treatment d. a person who feels better after building a therapeutic alliance with the therapist 56. Which of the following questions would a skilled therapist be LEAST likely to ask a client who feels deep distress over his or her career? a. "What aspects of this career are most upsetting?" b. "How might you reduce your anxiety short term?" c. "How do you feel about this issue?" d. "Are you going to quit your job?"

57. Imagining feared stimuli is the most common method of desensitization because a. it is usually done at home without supervision. b. it can be done at a therapist's office. c. it involves reciprocal inhibition. d. it uses a combination of aversion therapy and exposure therapy.

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Chap 15_16e 58. Akbar has been experiencing the symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder for many years, and drugs have not worked. What would be a potentially helpful treatment option for him that does not involve surgery? a. deep brain stimulation (DBS) b. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) c. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) d. prefrontal lobotomy 59. Who is most closely linked with dream analysis? a. Sigmund Freud b. B.F. Skinner c. Carl Rogers d. Hans Eysenck 60. What is the best way for a therapist to respond to a client who says, “I can’t manage at work anymore”? a. "Do you want to quit that job?" b. "What's troubling you at work?" c. "Is your workload getting heavier?" d. "Are you really that upset about work?"

61. It is important for Marin to seek professional help, but she doesn't have money. Where should she turn? a. a crisis hotline b. a self-help group c. a peer counselor d. a county mental health center 62. Which of the following best reflects the concept of reciprocal inhibition? a. feeling calm when being followed by a growling dog b. watching another group member act like you in a scenario c. hearing a loud horn blast each time you light a cigarette d. losing an earned token for exhibiting a banned behavior 63. Unlike psychodynamic and humanistic therapies, cognitive therapy generally seeks to a. help clients change conscious maladaptive thoughts, beliefs, and feeling patterns. b. foster insight into unconscious motives. c. expand personal awareness by filling in gaps in experience. d. give clients the courage to make rewarding and socially constructive choices.

64. Which of the following medications are major tranquilizers? a. antianxiety drugs b. antipsychotic drugs c. stimulants d. mood stabilizers

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Chap 15_16e 65. A person who regularly visited the practitioner of the first psychological technique designed to promote positive changes in his or her behavior would be a client of a. Carl Jung. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Wilhelm Wundt. d. B.F. Skinner.

66. Although six-year-old Rocky likes spending time with his play therapist, when he gets angry, he yells, throws things, and knocks books off the shelves. When this occurs, the therapist sends Rocky back to the waiting room to sit with his guardian and is told he may return to the session once he calms down and can act appropriately.

What technique is Rocky’s therapist using? a. time-out b. extinction c. shaping d. stimulus control 67. Polly suffers from depression. What is the LEAST risky treatment for her? a. deep brain stimulation (DBS) b. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) c. prefrontal lobotomy d. pharmacotherapy 68. While talking to a friend who is coping with difficulties, which of the following is a behavior that helps rather than hinders? a. paraphrasing the friend's words b. asking closed questions c. probing painful topics d. responding immediately 69. What is the key factor underlying the effectiveness of exposure therapy? a. reflection b. aversion c. insight d. extinction 70. Approximately what percent of American people will be diagnosed with a mental health issue at some point in their lives? a. 50 b. 40 c. 30 d. 65

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Chap 15_16e 71. The most common quality that unites people who seek therapy is a. a desire to feel better. b. a need for medication. c. a feeling of weakness. d. a sense that their lives have hit a crisis point.

72. The treatment protocol for a person who is undergoing pharmacotherapy would primarily involve a. medication. b. meditation. c. hospitalization. d. desensitization.

73. Who among the following patients in a residential treatment facility is the LEAST likely to receive a token in a token economy? a. a patient who spends his or her spare time gardening b. a patient who cooks his or her own food c. a patient who talks to himself or herself d. a patient who dresses on his or her own 74. Vivian has always disliked the way her body looks, and sometimes limits her activities based on this. Her friend Jon hates to see Vivian feeling distressed and missing out on fun things. What would be a helpful thing for Jon to say to Vivian? a. "Why does every American woman hate their body?" b. "I'm a lot fatter than you." c. "Don’t be ridiculous. You look fine!" d. "I can see you look sad. Do you want to talk about it?"

75. What is the most likely reason a drug such as clozapine, which could be fatal, would be prescribed to a schizophrenic? a. because schizophrenia is socially stigmatized, and the lives of schizophrenics are not valued as much b. because it is the only drug that counteracts the symptoms of schizophrenia c. because the symptoms of schizophrenia are so severe that the patient's life is miserable d. because it is the only drug that insurance companies will cover 76. What type of therapist might ask her client how he wants to spend his few remaining years on earth? a. a client-centered therapist b. an existential therapist c. a Gestalt therapist d. a behavior therapist

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Chap 15_16e 77. Which of the following is a feature of electroconvulsive therapy? a. It requires electrodes to be implanted in the brain. b. It is primarily used to treat schizophrenia. c. It triggers a seizure in the patient. d. It uses magnetic pulses to temporarily block activity in the brain.

78. A colleague calls Taye one night and says she was fired from her job. Although he knew she was a lackluster performer with a poor attitude, Taye says, “That must be so disappointing for you.” From a basic counseling skills perspective, which of the following best describes Taye’s response? a. giving targeted advice b. maintaining confidentiality c. focusing on feelings d. clarifying problems 79. After spending thousands of dollars gambling on sports, Larry agreed with his wife’s request that he seek help for his addiction. Larry tells the therapist that his skill in researching players and teams enables him to win and that his substantial losses are merely a string of bad luck. What cognitive distortion will the therapist examine with Larry? a. all-or-nothing thinking b. gambler's fallacy c. attribution errors d. probability biases 80. Where would a person receiving therapy likely experience psychodrama? a. during Gestalt therapy b. during a psychoanalysis session c. during group therapy d. during exposure therapy 81. What situation would family therapy likely NOT be able to sufficiently address? a. the sudden death of a child b. the neglect by a father who uses drugs c. the numerous phobias of a mother d. the emotional distance of a teenager 82. Systematic desensitization and aversion therapy are different methods to address psychological disorders.

Which key concept do they have in common? a. shaping b. learning c. observation d. relaxation

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Chap 15_16e 83. Which of the following techniques works by temporarily blocking activity in specific parts of the brain? a. electroconvulsive therapy b. deep brain stimulation c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. aversion therapy 84. Which of the following techniques is most closely connected to aversion therapy? a. thought stopping b. rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) c. cognitive therapy d. all-or-nothing thinking 85. Which of the following is a belief held by humanistic therapists? a. Based on the human condition, patients should not expect to attain complete happiness through treatment. b. Therapists should be less concerned with insight than with helping people change problematic thinking patterns. c. It is not necessary to gain a deeper understanding of people's thoughts, emotions, and behavior. d. People have the capacity to freely choose to use their potentials fully and live rich, rewarding lives.

86. Javier pinches his arm lightly every time he realizes he’s called himself an idiot. What is Javier practicing? a. thought stopping b. selective perception c. role reversal d. selective memory 87. The somatic therapy of deep lesioning can best be described as a. noninvasive. b. targeted. c. magnetic. d. outdated.

88. Which of the following is a form of secondhand learning that allows clients to observe others performing a feared behavior? a. systematic desensitization b. the tension-release method c. modeling d. the mirror technique

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Chap 15_16e 89. A patient working with Freud to examine unconscious factors driving his or her disorder would be participating in a. role reversal. b. the mirror technique. c. free association. d. systematic desensitization.

90. While talking to a friend who is coping with difficulties, which of the following is a behavior that hinders rather than helps? a. accepting the friend's frame of reference b. offering solution strategies c. asking open-ended questions d. being unafraid of silence 91. Which of the following drugs is classified as a mood stabilizer? a. Valium b. Ritalin c. Lithium d. Prozac 92. Which of the following is a type of somatic therapy? a. flooding therapy b. participant observation c. brain stimulation therapy d. systematic desensitization 93. How does a token economy empower patients being treated in a residential facility? a. It allows them to determine the value of behaviors. b. It lets them develop a self-governing social system. c. It enables them to trade tokens for social rewards. d. It gives them responsibility for their own behavior.

94. Saying whatever comes to mind without worrying whether ideas are painful, embarrassing, or illogical is the basis of a. systematic desensitization. b. stimulus control. c. free association. d. vicarious desensitization.

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Chap 15_16e 95. People become unhappy and develop self-defeating habits because they have unrealistic or faulty beliefs. This is the basis of a. rational-emotive behavior therapy. b. aversion therapy. c. exposure therapy. d. client-centered therapy.

96. Which of the following has a major impact on whether therapy succeeds? a. the extent of reciprocal inhibition b. the extent of therapy placebo effect c. the strength of the therapeutic alliance d. the time taken to achieve spontaneous remission 97. Which of the following therapies requires a medical degree? a. psychiatry b. psychotherapy c. family therapy d. group therapy 98. A key perspective of rational-emotive behavior therapy is that a. humans need to uncover their true selves hidden behind a screen of defenses. b. people feel the way they do because of their beliefs. c. events cause us to have feelings. d. perception, or awareness, is disjointed and incomplete in maladjusted persons.

99. What approach will Dr. Leung likely use to prescribe the pharmacotherapy that alleviates Jenna’s depression and helps her regain a satisfactory quality of life? a. checking the DSM-5 formulas b. trying different drugs and doses c. reviewing past patient records d. talking to drug sales representatives 100. Which of the following does behavior modification use to directly alter human behavior? a. free association b. classical conditioning c. existential therapy d. thought stopping

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Chap 15_16e 101. A therapist who directs clients to take responsibility for what they want in the present moment likely practices which type of therapy? a. client-centered therapy b. existential therapy c. Gestalt therapy d. behavior therapy 102. Which is descriptive of a directive approach to psychotherapy? a. The therapist allows the client to direct the discussion. b. The therapist invites a friend of the client to direct to the discussion. c. The therapist directs the discussion. d. The family of the client directs the discussion.

103. What is a primary weakness of distance therapy? a. It discourages intensely private clients from participating. b. It is too expensive for most clients. c. It is rarely anonymous. d. It does not guarantee the professional qualifications of the therapist.

104. Someone who moves from the city to work in mental health on a Native American reservation would likely be trained in a. culturally sensitive therapy. b. traditional psychoanalysis. c. behavior therapy. d. client-centered therapy.

105. Which is an example of punishment? a. sending a child to their room b. removing chores from a child’s list c. seeing an A on an exam d. getting enough sleep 106. Which of the following people would likely require more than psychotherapy to be treated effectively? a. Jenny, who has agoraphobia. b. Chung, who has schizophrenia. c. Latisha, who believes everyone is against her. d. Bruce and Omar, whose marriage is struggling.

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Chap 15_16e 107. Which of the following focuses on a client’s free will to find and create a personal sense of meaning in life? a. logotherapy b. existential isolationism c. systemic brief therapy d. Gestalt therapy 108. Culturally skilled therapists must make it a point to a. reflect each client’s dialect. b. be aware of stereotypical views. c. encourage social assimilation. d. share their own background.

109. Which of the following involves observing another person reenact one’s own behavior? a. reciprocal inhibition b. the tension-release method c. free association d. the mirror technique 110. Psychoanalysis made a major contribution to modern therapies by highlighting the importance of a. unconscious conflicts. b. reinforcement. c. stimulus control. d. conscious feelings.

111. Whether or not people are experiencing a psychological disorder, they often share day-to-day troubles or concerns with others. What should the person who listens to these concerns focus on? a. encouraging insights b. accepting the person’s frame of reference c. offering advice d. suggesting solutions 112. From the perspective of Gestalt therapy, the term gaps in experience refers to the idea that a. people often shy away from expressing upsetting feelings. b. a sense of purpose in life adds greatly to psychological well-being. c. something that is right or valuable for the therapist may be wrong for the client. d. the presence of one emotional state can inhibit the occurrence of another.

113. In the Middle Ages, treatments for mental illness in Europe focused on a. psychosurgery. b. trepanning. c. psychotherapy. d. demonology.

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Chap 15_16e 114. What can be considered the minimum rationale for obtaining mental health treatment in the United States? a. a primary care referral b. a chemical imbalance c. a lack of social support d. a willingness to change 115. In psychodrama, what does a role reversal involve? a. a therapist playing the role of his or her client during a session b. a client observing another person reenact his or her behavior c. taking the part of another person to learn how he or she feels d. directly changing troubling thoughts and behaviors 116. Which of the following is a characteristic of halfway houses? a. They discourage residents from being near families. b. They are as medically oriented as hospitals are. c. They help ease residents back into the community. d. They are a long-term group living facility.

117. Which would be an example of nondirective psychotherapy? a. The therapist guides the progression of discussion. b. The therapist assists the client in directing their own understanding. c. The therapist invites a colleague to interpret dreams of the client. d. The therapist allows the client to self-direct their therapy journey with a 5-minute phone call.

118. Each time Ramiro catches himself engaging in selective perception, he snaps a rubber band on his wrist to produce a small but harmless pain. What is Ramiro practicing? a. vicarious desensitization b. aversion therapy c. somatic therapy d. thought stopping 119. What is the defining concept in the process of spontaneous remission? a. transference b. placebo c. insight d. time 120. Which somatic therapy has over 50 years of application and has continued to expand in use? a. pharmacotherapy b. electroconvulsive therapy c. Gestalt therapy d. exposure therapy

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Chap 15_16e 121. Which of the following enables a therapist to act in a way that allows clients to see themselves more clearly? a. free association b. transference c. reflection d. unconditional positive regard 122. According to Albert Ellis, the basic idea of rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) is as easy as A-B-C. In this case, what does C refer to? a. emotional consequence b. stimulus control c. cognitive behavior d. classical conditioning 123. Unlike psychoanalysts, behavior therapists believe that a. deep insight into one’s problems is often unnecessary for improvement. b. troublesome actions and thoughts should be indirectly, rather than directly, altered. c. people often resist changing when it is necessary to become healthier. d. therapy should stress the importance of understanding the origins of a psychological disorder.

124. Electroconvulsive therapy is mainly used to treat a. anxiety. b. depression. c. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. d. narcolepsy.

125. The fact that people cannot experience two opposite emotional states at the same time is the principle behind a. role reversal. b. positive reinforcement. c. reciprocal inhibition. d. systematic desensitization.

126. What type of therapy focuses primarily on directly addressing communication problems? a. psychodrama b. family therapy c. interpersonal therapy (ITP) d. directive therapy 127. With whom do family therapists work? a. the client only b. the client and spouse only c. the client, spouse, and any children d. the client’s family only

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Chap 15_16e 128. While talking to someone about his or her troubles, it is advisable to a. focus on feelings. b. offer advice. c. modify the person's frame of reference. d. avoid pausing before responding.

129. What is an example of something a nondirective therapist might say? a. "What do you think is your greatest fear?" b. "Why don't you try to overcome your fear of flying and get on that plane next month?" c. "You keep dreaming about falling because you are afraid your wife is going to leave you." d. "If you don't stop drinking, you're going to kill yourself."

130. Tito suffers from extreme social anxiety. A supportive friend might help him by a. getting Tito to laugh so he relaxes and forgets about his problem. b. sitting quietly with Tito and letting him start a conversation if he wants to. c. telling Tito he has to get over his problem if he wants to make more friends. d. encouraging Tito to step out of his comfort zone and try one social activity each week.

131. If a patient in a mental health institution no longer receives the usual token for performing a particular behavior, this behavior will a. occur more frequently. b. occur less frequently. c. become suppressed. d. extinguish entirely.

132. Who among the following patients in a residential treatment facility is MOST likely to receive a token in a token economy? a. a person who is usually quiet b. a person who disrobes in public c. a person who cries a lot d. a person who arrives for meals on time 133. Which of the following describes client-centered therapy? a. It is based on insights from conscious thoughts and feelings. b. It is directive in nature. c. It is based on insights from the unconscious mind. d. It focuses on directly changing troubling thoughts and behaviors.

134. Which form of therapy has shown to improve symptoms of PTSD in veterans returning from war? a. virtual reality exposure b. transference c. spontaneous remission d. selective perception Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_16e 135. Which of the following medications is used to calm attention deficit hyperactivity disorder? a. mood stabilizers b. stimulants c. antianxiety drugs d. antipsychotics 136. What does cognitive therapy rely on the most to treat depression? a. disrupting behavior patterns b. understanding the source of a client’s distress c. a client's ability to reason d. pharmacology 137. Which of the following may have been practiced by primitive therapists as an early method of psychosurgery? a. lobectomy b. trepanning c. hemispherectomy d. exorcism 138. Which of the following would be the best option for a person with limited resources who needs assistance in addressing a persistent behavioral problem? a. peer counseling b. hospitalization c. self-help groups d. crisis hotlines 139. What is an example of a therapeutic alliance that would MOST benefit the client? a. a therapist who keeps her emotional distance from her client to allow the client space to figure out his own problems b. a therapist who uses his own life as a model of mental health for the client to emulate c. a therapist who is responsive to the client and listens without judgment d. a therapist who feels comfortable enough with the client to chat about current events and weekend activities 140. What is likely the most important quality that an effective therapist has? a. intelligence b. a sense of humor c. the ability to listen closely d. the ability to speak well

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Chap 15_16e 141. Mohammad has been prescribed Haldol, because he has likely exhibited which symptom? a. delusions b. anxiety c. narcolepsy d. depression 142. What modern business model is the best example of a real-world token economy? a. an online retailer who offers a streaming video service b. a credit card that earns airline miles with every use c. a bank that gives you a toaster for opening up a checking account d. a clothing store that donates 10 percent of profits to charity 143. Which of the following describes insight therapy? a. any therapy that stresses the importance of understanding the origins of a psychological disorder, usually unresolved unconscious conflicts b. any therapy that stresses the need for the therapist to lead the patient toward a resolution of his or her psychological distress c. any therapy that stresses directly changing troublesome thoughts and/or behaviors without regard for their origins, unconscious or otherwise d. a brief dynamic psychotherapy that focuses on helping people by improving their relationships with others 144. To help a client achieve self-acceptance, a client-centered therapist would primarily focus on which technique? a. reflection b. authenticity c. unconditional positive regard d. free association 145. Which of the following is a basic counseling skill? a. probing painful topics b. offering advice c. asking closed questions d. being unafraid of silence 146. What was Freud's innovation in treatment? a. He was the first to focus on compassion. b. He was the first to locate the source of mental illness in the brain. c. He was the first to use a patient's own language as a way to treat the patient. d. He was the first to use medication to treat patients.

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Chap 15_16e 147. From a psychological perspective, a person who regularly engages in selective perception that emphasizes only negative events would be most likely to deal with the symptoms of a. schizophrenia. b. depression. c. phobia. d. mania.

148. Which of the following is an advantage of group therapy? a. It enables clients to engage in reciprocal transference with members of the group. b. It permits the therapist to create conditions for the client to resolve his or her psychological issues. c. It primarily focuses on acceptance, empathy, unconditional positive regard, and personal empowerment. d. It allows a person to act out or directly experience problems.

149. Which of the following is a variation of punishment that can be applied in operant therapy? a. stimulus control b. shaping c. time-out d. extinction 150. To assist a client in sharing information without being self-critical or holding back, a psychoanalyst would use which of the following techniques? a. free association b. dream analysis c. psychodrama d. transference 151. Which of the following is the oldest and most radical psychosurgery? a. deep lesioning b. lobotomy c. amygdalotomy d. limbic leucotomy 152. A person who has decided to tolerate the side effects of taking a mood stabilizer in order to reduce her symptoms of bipolar disorder has considered what concept? a. vicarious desensitization b. therapy placebo effect c. reciprocal inhibition d. risk–benefit ratio

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Chap 15_16e 153. When should helping your friend with a problem probably give way to professional therapy? a. when the friend in need does not appreciate your help b. when the friend presents you with a problem you don't feel equipped to handle c. when the friend is seeking help and direction from many different friends d. only when the friend asks to go to a professional 154. Which of the following is a feature of self-help groups? a. Members typically share a particular type of problem. b. They are managed by paraprofessionals. c. They consist of peer counselors who use their basic counseling skills to help people. d. Members typically share different types of problems.

155. What would a behavior therapist focus on? a. the unconscious source of fear b. the relationships that cause conflict c. a client's particular patterns of thought and action d. hormonal fluctuations in a client's bloodstream 156. Mary is receiving therapy from a rational-emotive behavior therapist. She tells her therapist, "I am incapable of being loved." What would be an example of her therapist's likely response? a. "What about your son? You told me he hugs you every morning. Why do you think he does that?" b. "You say that you think nobody loves you. How does that make you feel?" c. "What do you think are the sources of that feeling?" d. "If you really believe that, what are you going to do to change that?"

157. Nathaniel is receiving somatic therapy. What is likely true of his therapist? a. She is a medical doctor. b. She is a surgeon. c. She is a rational-emotive behavior therapist. d. She is trained in psychoanalysis.

158. Which is a newer development of treating phobias? a. virtual reality exposure b. fear hierarchy c. vicarious traumatization d. vicarious modeling 159. A disruptive mental health patient who is given a period of time-out by being sent out of the TV room for a brief period is undergoing what treatment method? a. positive reinforcement b. stimulus control c. shaping d. punishment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_16e 160. In which of the following would a client most likely be directly challenged and confronted by the therapist? a. rational-emotive behavior therapy b. behavior therapy c. psychoanalysis d. existential therapy 161. By giving tokens to patients who exhibit desired behaviors in a treatment facility, positive responses can be a. constantly shaped. b. immediately rewarded. c. controlled by stimuli. d. extinguished.

162. A therapist who guides clients through a process of deep muscle relaxation is likely employing which therapeutic method? a. thought stopping b. selective perception c. free association d. systematic desensitization 163. Which of the following is the strongest indication that a person should seek psychological counseling? a. if the past several days have felt unpleasant b. if life doesn’t seem to meet one’s expectations c. if friends and family express consistent concern d. if long-time relationships are no longer satisfying 164. In which therapeutic environment will the use of tokens be most effective? a. in a somatic therapy setting b. in an institutional setting c. in a group therapy session d. in an exposure session 165. Which of the following question types is most appropriate for a therapist to use while speaking to a client who is experiencing difficulties? a. open-ended questions b. closed questions c. rhetorical questions d. dichotomous questions 166. In an operant therapy environment, what is a key aspect of nonreinforcement? a. replacing tokens with social rewards b. ignoring inappropriate behavior c. providing positive attention d. physically removing one from a social situation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_16e 167. Gestalt therapy is based on the idea that a. humans can choose to become the persons they want to be. b. perception, or awareness, is disjointed and incomplete in people who are maladjusted. c. what is right or valuable for the therapist may be wrong for the client. d. humans have a true self that is hidden behind a screen of defenses.

168. Gestalt therapy and existential therapy both share an emphasis on a. the here and now. b. an intellectual understanding of life's challenges. c. the inevitability of death. d. the human tendency to hide behind a series of defenses.

169. The theory of a therapy placebo effect is predicated on the idea that a. drugs don't work as well as talk therapy. b. nonmedical therapy does not work as well as drugs. c. a patient's belief in the effectiveness of therapy is a crucial part of the therapeutic process. d. therapy does not actually work for most people.

170. Which of the following people has likely been prescribed a mood stabilizer? a. Franklin, who has schizotypal personality disorder. b. Cynthia, who has major depressive disorder. c. Ramesh, who has bipolar I disorder. d. Trista, who has obsessive-compulsive disorder.

171. In which type of therapy does the therapist guide the client through the process and emphasize change over insight? a. psychodrama b. psychoanalysis c. cognitive therapy d. client-centered therapy 172. Cognitive behavior therapy is currently the most popular approach in the field of a. nonmedical therapy. b. psychoanalysis. c. somatic therapy. d. pharmacotherapy.

173. In general, methods categorized as action therapies focus on a. why the problem occurred. b. how to fix the problem. c. who caused the problem. d. what are the problem’s impacts.

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Chap 15_16e 174. Any type of psychotherapy that is effective for a person will most likely allow him or her to a. experience beneficial change. b. advance his or her life goals. c. improve personal relationships. d. have a meaningful existence.

175. Existential therapy emphasizes a. the importance of suppressing upsetting mental images. b. the importance of uncovering a “true self” hidden behind a screen of defenses. c. immediate experience and awareness. d. the human ability to make choices.

176. Jackson has been recently released from prison, where he successfully overcame addiction to heroin. Where would he be likely living now? a. a community mental health center b. a mental institution c. a hospital d. a halfway house 177. Why is cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) likely as popular as it is? a. It combines the most beneficial aspects of several techniques and is therefore flexible. b. It is the therapy most closely associated with pharmacology. c. It is narrowly focused in its techniques and therefore provides consistency for clients. d. It attracts the most competent psychoanalysts.

178. When attempting to comfort a person who is in distress, restating or paraphrasing the person's last sentence is best done when a. the person has an opposing view about something. b. you want the person to listen to your views. c. the person seems to be at a loss for words. d. you want to offer advice to the person.

179. What would be an example of a situation that most mental health professionals would agree would involve an inappropriate use of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? a. Jane has been severely depressed for an extended period of time. b. Yuri has tried various antidepressant medications with no results. c. Montell will not receive antidepressant medication following ECT. d. Bryce has attempted to commit suicide twice in the last week.

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Chap 15_16e 180. What was the purpose of prefrontal lobotomy? a. to temporarily block activity in specific parts of the brain b. to calm persons who did not respond to any other type of treatment c. to implant electrodes that stimulate precisely targeted brain regions d. to cause the patient to lose consciousness for a short time

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Chap 15_16e Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. c 26. a

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Chap 15_16e 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. d 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. b 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_16e 55. c 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. d 75. c 76. b 77. c 78. c 79. c 80. c 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_16e 83. c 84. a 85. d 86. a 87. b 88. c 89. c 90. b 91. c 92. c 93. d 94. c 95. a 96. c 97. a 98. b 99. b 100. b 101. c 102. c 103. d 104. a 105. a 106. b 107. a 108. b 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_16e 111. b 112. a 113. d 114. d 115. c 116. c 117. b 118. d 119. d 120. a 121. c 122. a 123. a 124. b 125. c 126. b 127. c 128. a 129. a 130. b 131. d 132. d 133. a 134. a 135. b 136. c 137. b

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Chap 15_16e 138. c 139. c 140. c 141. a 142. b 143. a 144. c 145. d 146. c 147. b 148. d 149. c 150. a 151. b 152. d 153. b 154. a 155. c 156. a 157. a 158. a 159. d 160. d 161. b 162. d 163. c 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_16e 166. b 167. b 168. a 169. c 170. c 171. c 172. a 173. b 174. a 175. d 176. d 177. a 178. c 179. c 180. b

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Chap 16_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. In Muzafer Sherif’s study on the autokinetic effect and conformity, he found that participants ended up a. with estimates further from each other. b. with estimates closer to each other. c. realizing the autokinetic effect was an illusion. d. becoming physically ill.

2. You and your friend are the only two people at the movie theater. You are patiently waiting for the movie to begin. Which situation is an example of nonconforming behavior? a. A man walks in and sits in the seat next to you. b. Your friend gets up to buy popcorn. c. The manager announces that the projector is broken. d. You move because your seats are uncomfortable.

3. Chantal is a server at a busy restaurant. As she gets older, she realizes that she doesn’t enjoy interacting with people. What is Chantal likely experiencing? a. out-group effect b. role conflict c. ascribed status d. social comparison 4. The degree to which a person’s actions are explained by rewards or other circumstances is called a. justification. b. cognition. c. persuasion. d. attribution.

5. Who conducted the obedience studies that involved participants administering shocks to learners? a. Stanley Milgram b. Abraham Maslow c. Douglas McGregor d. Victor Vroom 6. Which of the following is the best example of a downward comparison? a. At least I received a “C”; many of my classmates failed. b. I am mean to my parents because they are mean to me. c. I am upset that my favorite actor did not win an award this year. d. As a lawyer, I strive to not disappoint my clients.

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Chap 16_16e 7. Which of the following most accurately describes the core of groupthink? a. social distance b. misguided loyalty c. lowball technique d. forced coercion 8. Dr. Sze is a new team leader of Team Blue at Conifer Mental Health. Which of the following should she do to create the most effective team? a. Reassure the team members that she is the final decision maker. b. Ensure all team members understand the expectations. c. Model confrontational behavior as needed. d. Set the tone for brash fast-paced brainstorming.

9. The tendency for a person who has refused a major request to subsequently be more likely to comply with a minor request is termed a. door-in-the-face effect. b. head-in-the-clouds effect. c. foot-in-the-door effect. d. hand-in-the-jar effect.

10. Which of the following statements accurately reflects attitude formation? a. Chance conditioning results in negative attitudes being formed exclusively. b. Media influence only leads to negative attitudes being developed in children. c. Child-rearing that reflects parental values, beliefs, and practices affects attitudes. d. Attitudes learned through interaction with others are typically discredited.

11. In the context of the actor–observer bias, as actors we attribute our behaviors to a. external causes. b. our innermost desires. c. our wants and motives. d. our personality traits.

12. The fact that people tend to reject new information that contradicts ideas that they already hold is a key premise of a. cognitive dissonance theory. b. fundamental attribution. c. groupthink. d. social facilitation.

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Chap 16_16e 13. Which of the following is the best example of a role conflict? a. a baseball coach who needs to kick a friend’s child off the team b. a baseball player who enjoys watching tennis c. a parent who is busy supervising his or her children d. a physicist who is assigned to teach a course in art history 14. Who among the following is most likely to conform? a. LiMei, who has low self-esteem. b. Luella, who is an artist. c. Maury, who is a college student. d. Yuri, who was raised by a supportive family.

15. Using the door-in-the-face technique, if you wanted to borrow your parents’ car for the weekend, which of the following should you request first? a. to borrow the car for an hour b. for them to give you the car c. a picture of the car d. a sit-down meeting to request the car 16. Which of the following represented a significant difference between the Milgram experiment conducted at Yale University and the replicated experiment conducted in Bridgeport, Connecticut? a. compliance b. contact c. environment d. process 17. Which of the following is the best example of groupthink? a. Your friends tell you that school is a waste of time. b. Your parents pressure you to work hard in school. c. Your friends laugh at you because you wear plaid shirts. d. Your managers expect you to always agree with them.

18. Which of the following is the best example of chance conditioning? a. I want to be a baseball player, even though my best friends are soccer players. b. I dislike large cities because I was once robbed in Los Angeles. c. I am an artist because my parents are also artists. d. I am desensitized to violence because I frequently watch horror movies.

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Chap 16_16e 19. Which of the following is the best example of a persuasive argument? a. I recently began learning about chemistry. It is an exciting subject. You should enroll in my course section. b. A change of job may be desirable. Doing so may improve my salary. It is worth the risk. c. I once worked in your company. Your jobs are at immediate risk. Unionization is the only answer. d. I am the owner of Top Flight Shoes. My company produces an excellent product. Our shoes improved my running performance.

20. Which statement BEST illustrates the difference between actor–observer bias and the fundamental attribution error? a. The fundamental attribution error is contingent on self-handicapping, whereas the actor–observer bias depends on one’s perceived attitudes. b. The fundamental attribution error is contingent on situational demands, whereas actor–observer bias is not. c. The fundamental attribution error pertains to external attributions, whereas actor–observer bias involves internal attributions. d. The fundamental attribution error pertains to the behavior of others only, whereas actor–observer bias involves our own behavior and the behavior of others.

21. Brainwashing requires which of the following? a. captive audience b. self-handicapping c. social loafing d. actor–observer bias 22. You are trying to make a decision with your group members whether to give a presentation using an activity or a lecture. In order to avoid groupthink, which of the following should you do? a. Make sure group members know they won’t be held accountable for their decisions. b. Encourage compliance. c. Discourage open inquiry. d. Make your personal preferences clear at the beginning.

23. Consider the statement, “I will only attend more parties when I start receiving good grades in my psychology course.” This is best described as which of the following strategies for reducing cognitive dissonance? a. Change your behavior. b. Reduce the amount of perceived choice. c. Add consonant thoughts. d. Change your attitude.

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Chap 16_16e 24. You are likely to behave in a way that improve the circumstances of groups you identify with. What is this called? a. in-group favoritism b. out-group favoritism c. compliance d. conformity 25. Which of the following is an ascribed social role? a. inmate b. teacher c. doctor d. criminal 26. TM took part in Milgram’s experiment, administering electric shock to other participants. In the context of the research, TM is best described as a a. teacher. b. learner. c. stimulus. d. confederate.

27. Which of the following is the best example of making an upward comparison? a. I am lucky to have even a part-time job because my friend cannot find a job at all. b. I feel empowered by belittling my subordinates at work. c. With hard work, I will succeed where my teammates have failed. d. My acting skills are mediocre compared to that of professional actors.

28. Laura, Hae, Amal, and Tasha are shooting hoops in the park. Soon, a crowd gathers to watch. Which player will most likely improve her performance? a. Laura, who is an average basketball player. b. Hae, who is an overconfident basketball player. c. Amal, who just started playing basketball. d. Tasha, who has never played basketball until now.

29. The theory of cognitive dissonance states that contradictory or inconsistent thoughts cause a psychological state of discomfort. What does this imply? a. that we have a need for consistency in our thoughts, perceptions, and images of ourselves b. that we have a need for hurting another person or achieving our goals at the expense of another c. that we have a need to get our own way regardless of the consequences to self or others d. that we have a need for contrasting ourselves with a person who ranks lower on some dimension

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Chap 16_16e 30. To make valuable contributions as a leader of a team, a person should a. assume team members know how to behave. b. violate ground rules. c. assume everyone knows what they do. d. model the behavior they want to see in others.

31. Rory has been feeling disrespected by her colleague, Aisha, for several months. For Rory to feel more respected by Aisha, which of the following is the best course of action? a. Tell Aisha that he is humiliated by her behavior, and that if she wants to be an effective colleague, she should start listening to his feelings. b. Explain to Aisha that he has done nothing wrong, and that he has no idea why she would disrespect her. c. Tell Aisha that she is the better employee, and that he will recommend she receive a raise. d. Schedule a meeting to talk with Aisha about how she has been feeling, and how they can work together to be more effective at their jobs.

32. Darryl is participating in research on people's attitudes toward individuals with blonde hair. Darryl's answers indicate that he does not want to marry someone with blonde hair, however, he would tolerate a neighbor who has blonde hair. Which type of instrument is being used to measure Darryl's attitude? a. a Likert attraction scale b. a social distance scale c. an actor–observer scale d. an interactive worldview scale 33. Jeremy has been brainwashed. What is the first thing Jeremy likely experienced? a. helplessness b. a changed attitude c. resentment d. conversion 34. Exerting less effort when performing a specific task with a group than when alone is known as a. social loafing. b. bystander effect. c. herd mentality. d. groupthink.

35. Although she studied for days, Suki left the classroom feeling unsure of how she did on the exam. Suki plans to ask the other students how they did when she sees them in the student union later on. If the other students report that they did poorly, how will Suki respond? a. She will be disappointed. b. She will feel better. c. She will speak with her professor. d. She will realize she should have studied harder.

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Chap 16_16e 36. Which of the following is the best example of brainwashing? a. ignoring your children such that you can be more productive at work b. forcing a man to listen to loud music until he agrees to sign a statement, then allowing him to rest c. teaching philosophy to a group of high school students d. breaking into a house, and then trying to forget that you committed a crime 37. Rowan recently became a vegetarian. At a holiday party, Rowan sees a plate of bacon-wrapped scallops and he quickly eats five. He spends the rest of the party telling others that he is a vegetarian. How can Rowan reduce the cognitive dissonance of his action at the appetizer table? a. Tell himself that bacon isn’t really meat. b. Tell himself that he was really hungry. c. Tell himself that if nobody saw him, it didn’t happen. d. Tell himself that most vegetarians slip up.

38. Which of the following can be inferred from Milgram’s research? a. When directions come from an authority, people rationalize that they are not personally responsible for their actions. b. When directions come from an authority, people rationalize that they can question the authorities any time. c. When directions come from an authority, people rationalize that these acts become humane. d. When directions come from an authority, people feel motivated and enthusiastic to commit these acts.

39. Which of the following statements best represents group structure? a. It solely refers to the expected behavior patterns associated with particular social positions. b. It consists of a network of roles, communication pathways, and power in a group. c. It is typical for organized groups to have a low degree of structure. d. It is typical for informal friendship groups to have a high degree of structure.

40. Which of the following is the best example of a cult? a. an authoritarian political party centered on a charismatic leader b. a committed and successful school chess team c. a church group that encourages free thought d. parents who strive to have their children finish college 41. You are attending a presentation on the importance of forestry management. The speaker is a charismatic expert who is genuinely trying to educate the audience with solid research supporting his conclusions. The speaker repeats the message, appeals to the audience’s fears, and clearly explains the benefits of his argument.

Which of the following would be the most likely reason the audience was not persuaded? a. The audience was poorly informed about the issue. b. The audience was not interested in the topic. c. The communicator provided only one side to a well-informed audience. d. The communicator wasn’t knowledgeable.

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Chap 16_16e 42. Sujata is canvassing for a political candidate. He first asks people to put a giant yard sign in their yard; if they refuse, he then asks if they’ll put a small sign. Which persuasion technique is Sujata using? a. foot-in-the-door b. lowballing c. highballing d. door-in-the-face 43. Montana is 12 years old and has recently joined the volleyball team. Who should Montana compare herself to in order to determine her relative ability? a. Her mother, who was a varsity volleyball player b. Her teammates c. Her volleyball coach d. Her younger brother, who recently started gymnastics 44. Riley and his wife are having dinner at a restaurant when a man with two young children sits at a table next to them. The children pound the table and talk loudly. Eventually, Riley angrily asks the man to control his poorly behaved children. The man apologizes and explains that the children are not themselves as they’ve just visited their mother in the hospital after a car accident. Which of the following did Riley demonstrate? a. atypical behavior b. actor–observer bias c. fundamental attribution error d. self-handicapping 45. Which of the following BEST summarizes why we often make mistakes when explaining the behavior of others? a. We have an innate need to give ourselves a break from accepting full responsibility for success or failure. b. We choose actions that are intimately woven into our views of the world. c. We infer causes from circumstances because we seldom know the real reason for others’ actions. d. We are influenced by our social groups and pressure to conform.

46. According to cognitive dissonance theory, when will Serita feel the most comfortable with her decision to get a new puppy? a. after she brings him home b. while she’s at the shelter c. while she is making a decision d. when she first decides to get a puppy 47. Which of the following would MOST likely be a statement or question in an attitude scale? a. Formal education is unimportant. b. What are your thoughts about formal education? c. Why are you willing to support formal education? d. Explain your plans about how best to attain formal education.

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Chap 16_16e 48. In the context of attitude measurement, on what type of scale do people say how willing they are to admit members of a group to various levels of social closeness? a. social distance scale b. behavioral anchor scale c. figure rating scale d. social readjustment scale 49. Which type of people are more susceptible to group pressures? a. people who seldom need the approval of others b. people who are low in self-confidence c. people who live in individualistic cultures d. people with low needs for structure 50. What does progress depend on in a team? a. each team member providing their expertise b. each team member doing their task independently c. the fact that social loafing will take place among team members d. the fact that no interactions or collaborations will take place between team members 51. You are attending a planning meeting for a conference that your agency is organizing and hosting. Your supervisor suggests holding the conference at the Hampton Inn because he held his wedding there and he knows it has good food. Two other group members speak up and assert this is a great option because they’ve had family stay there and the indoor pool is convenient for children. The group nods in agreement and asks you to contact the hotel to make arrangements. Which of the following could the group have done differently? a. They could have discussed alternatives. b. They could have included their personal feelings in the discussion. c. They could have been more supportive of other members and their ideas. d. They could have made the decision outside of a formal meeting environment.

52. Which statement best reflects a danger associated with in-groups and out-groups? a. They each come with distinct privileges that create an unequal power structure. b. They can create an “us versus them” mentality that may lead to conflict and prejudice. c. They often involve clashing demands that lead to negative health outcomes. d. They encourage the violation of established norms that promote antisocial behavior.

53. Jack’s mother is pleased that he behaved at the doctor's office. While leaving the office, Jack asks if they can stop for an ice cream, but his mother refuses. On the way home, Jacks asks her if he can have the lollipop in her purse. How will she likely respond? a. She will offer to stop for ice cream. b. She will agree to give him the lollipop. c. She will offer to get Jack a healthy snack. d. She will refuse to give him the lollipop.

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Chap 16_16e 54. While she was part of a cult, Ella was brainwashed into believing her family was untrustworthy and would harm her if she had contact with them. After the leader of the cult was arrested and the group disbanded, Ella was reunited with her family. Ella will likely a. join a different cult. b. struggle with chronic PTSD. c. revert to her prior beliefs. d. form her own cult.

55. When blindfolded people on a tug-of-war team think that other people are helping them, they don’t pull as hard.

This is an example of a. social loafing. b. mere presence. c. conformity. d. social facilitation.

56. What term is used to describe the pattern of behavior expected of a person in a social position? a. social role b. social attitude c. social character d. social mobility 57. Ming had her annual physical yesterday and learned that she has high blood pressure. When the doctor asks what may have contributed to this condition, what is Ming most likely to say? a. She has not been managing her stress well. b. She has preferred binge-watching shows over exercising. c. She has been eating a lot of salty food lately. d. She has a family history of high blood pressure.

58. A widely accepted but often unspoken standard of conduct for appropriate behavior is referred to as a(n) a. norm. b. attitude. c. culture. d. influence.

59. Which term best describes roles that are voluntarily attained by special effort? a. attached b. ascribed c. assigned d. achieved

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Chap 16_16e 60. How did the teachers react in Milgram's obedience experiment? a. They gave up midway through the experiment. b. They protested, sweated, trembled, and laughed nervously. c. They insisted on increasing the voltage beyond 450-volts. d. They offered to take the place of the learner rather than administer shocks.

61. Elon often sees his colleague, Bao, around town. Elon notices that Bao seems generous and kind, regardless of where she is or who she is talking with. According to Harold Kelley, Bao’s behavior would be best described as a. distinctive. b. objective. c. consistent. d. internal.

62. Changes in a person’s behavior induced by the presence or action of others is called a. social influence. b. social facilitation. c. social interference. d. mere presence.

63. Andrea is the new manager of an eight-person team that makes important contract decisions. Andrea wants to prevent groupthink in her team. Which approach would you recommend to Andrea? a. Encourage the team to make a final decision at the meeting and stick with it. b. Define each member’s role as a “devoted supporter.” c. Ensure that the team understands her feelings about the topic at hand. d. Make it clear that group members will be held accountable for decisions.

64. Which of the following refers to the tendency for people to change their behavior simply because other people are in close proximity? a. mere presence b. point of presence c. bystander effect d. door-in-the-face effect 65. Which person is violating a norm? a. A middle schooler colors her hair for the winter dance. b. An administrative assistant wears jeans on casual Friday. c. A homeless man walks into a bakery and buys a pastry. d. An employee yodels in her cubicle throughout the day.

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Chap 16_16e 66. Celia and her coworkers are talking about whether or not to include their boss in their monthly dinners out. Most of Celia's colleagues believe their boss would stifle the dinner conversation and make the experience less enjoyable. Celia feels that inviting the boss would make her feel good and would be the right thing to do. Which of the following will most likely happen? a. Celia's boss will find another group to socialize with. b. Celia will go out alone with her boss and grow distant from her coworkers. c. The group will decide not to invite their boss. d. The group will include their boss and end up enjoying their dinners.

67. Which of the following represents the underlying motivation of cognitive dissonance theory? a. consistency b. minimization c. social conformity d. mere presence 68. An ongoing pattern of life that is passed from one generation to the next is called a. culture. b. attitude. c. instinct. d. civic virtue.

69. Which of the following is the best example of an aggressive statement or aggressive behavior? a. Joseph gets a raise because he minimized others’ contributions to the project at work. b. Laura helps all of her coworkers to receive promotions at work. c. Chi lets her competitive opponent win a golf championship. d. Xavier respects the right of everyone to demand high-quality health care.

70. The tendency to perform better when in the presence of others is called a. mere presence. b. social facilitation. c. social influence. d. group conformity.

71. What is the term used to describe a group with which a person does not identify? a. out-group b. in-group c. formal group d. informal group

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Chap 16_16e 72. Rehearsal, role-playing, and overlearning are helpful for a. teamwork. b. groupthink. c. aggression. d. self-assertion.

73. What is the primary reason why people choose self-handicapping? a. It gives people the confidence to try again once they fail. b. It makes people feel better in situations where they might fail. c. It encourages receiving sympathy and kindness from others. d. It makes people optimistic to try something different next time.

74. Which of the following terms refers to a direct, honest expression of feelings and desires? a. self-assertion b. self-evaluation c. self-efficacy d. self-actualization 75. Kai is on a spiritual path and is seeking a charismatic leader who shares his beliefs. Which leader should Kai avoid? a. Trent, who is charismatic and encourages the questioning of Kai’s own spiritual awakening. b. Jorge, who teaches compassion and the transformative power of spirituality. c. Vida, who takes care of members’ every need and rewards members for eternal loyalty. d. Lorene, who promotes the relationship between diet and spirituality.

76. Measuring yourself with a person who ranks higher than you on some dimension is called a/an a. upward comparison. b. self-handicap. c. illustrative example. d. aspiring comparison.

77. Jordan runs faster when she takes part in a 5K compared to when she’s racing on her own. This is an example of a. social conformity. b. social loafing. c. social facilitation. d. social interference.

78. Individuals who are more susceptible to group pressures are a. those with low needs for structure or certainty. b. those who are concerned with the approval of others. c. those who are high in self-confidence. d. those who live in cultures that emphasize individualism.

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Chap 16_16e 79. In which of the following settings would you most likely discount (i.e., downgrade) internal causes for explaining someone’s disrespectful demeanor? a. funeral b. party c. bus station d. zoo 80. The psychological state of discomfort one experiences from contradictory or inconsistent thoughts is called a. cognitive dissonance. b. selection bias. c. social loafing. d. confirmation bias.

81. Trying to occupy two or more roles that make conflicting demands on behavior is called a. role engulfment. b. role conflict. c. class conflict. d. social conflict.

82. Which of the following is an example of an achieved social role? a. son b. adolescent c. inmate d. criminal 83. A group of people who accomplish more working together than they could working individually demonstrates a. a synergistic effect. b. cognitive dissonance. c. groupthink. d. social facilitation.

84. In the context of the actor–observer bias, what would be the role of an observer? a. to attribute others' behaviors to their wants, motives, and personality traits b. to attribute others' behaviors to external factors c. to attribute others' behaviors to situational factors d. to attribute others' behaviors to both external and internal causes 85. Melanie and DeShaun both slip and fall on the grass while walking to class. How is Melanie most likely to explain this scenario? a. Melanie fell because she is clumsy, while DeShaun fell because the grass was wet. b. DeShaun and Melanie both fell because they had too much to drink last night. c. Melanie fell because the grass was wet, while DeShaun fell because he is clumsy. d. DeShaun fell because he has an inner ear infection, while Melanie fell because she was daydreaming.

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Chap 16_16e 86. Which statement best explains how many psychologists view the outcome of the Stanford prison study? a. Achieved roles can dramatically alter one’s behavior. b. Biases and ascribed roles trigger male college students to behave in dehumanizing ways. c. Role-playing allows us to anticipate how others will behave in various situations. d. People will rationalize that they are not personally responsible for their actions when directions come from authority.

87. If you were a participant in the Asch experiment, how would you be MOST likely to exhibit the correct behavior? a. Be more anxious. b. Pretend to be a prison guard. c. Take the test alone with no one else around you. d. Surround yourself with at least five other participants.

88. The learning or practice that continues after initial mastery of a skill is known as a. overlearning. b. observational learning. c. informal learning. d. dialectic learning.

89. Which of the following is at the core of groupthink? a. encouraging group members to question thoughts and opinions b. providing reasonable explanations to group members c. seeking to maintain members' approval at all costs d. encouraging members to "rock the boat" 90. Ms. Donovan’s kindergarten class is expected to obey her rules of keeping their hands to themselves, minding their manners, and showing respect for adults. This example is best described as a. illegitimate authority. b. desirable obedience. c. crime of obedience. d. physical distance authority.

91. Which of the following is the best example of an assertive statement or assertive behavior? a. You state, “I want to have pie for dessert.” b. You state, “I want pie, but your pie is disgusting.” c. You want pie for dessert, yet do not state your opinion. d. You steal your brother’s piece of pie.

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Chap 16_16e 92. Obedience to authority would most likely occur between a a. psychology student and a sociology student. b. viola player and a violin player. c. store manager and a store clerk. d. chef and a food critic.

93. The Branch Davidians was a cult lead by David Koresh. Members believed that the end of the world was near and they had amassed an arsenal of weapons at their Texas compound. The cult was eventually destroyed following a lengthy siege that ended in a massive fire. Which of the following had the strongest influence over the Branch Davidians? a. the group's older members b. the group's leader, Koresh c. the presence of the weapons d. the conditions of the world 94. In the Milgram experiment, when actual participants saw two other confederate “teachers” resist orders and walk out, what percent continued to obey? a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 5 95. Which of the following terms defines the process of thinking about ourselves and others in a social context? a. social cognition b. social status c. social power d. social facilitation 96. Which of the following is the best example of self-handicapping? a. falsely telling your friend that you receive low grades in school b. believing that you will never be an effective public speaker c. choosing not to study for an art history exam d. when a person increases his credibility by telling his spouse that moving to Nevada will harm his career 97. In the context of attribution, who among the following is the best example of someone who is most likely to be perceived as having an external cause to go to the gym? a. Philip is happy when he exercises at the gym. b. Cynthia immediately goes to the gym after work every day. c. Gregory checks his weight on a scale before deciding to go to the gym. d. Xia encourages her friends to join her at the gym on weekends.

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Chap 16_16e 98. In the context of persuasion and consequent attitude change, how should the communicator act when selling a product? a. The communicator should be different from the audience in all aspects. b. The communicator should appear to gain the most if the audience accepts the message. c. The communicator should be a non-expert on the topic. d. The communicator should be likable and expressive.

99. Keisha's goal is to be the class valedictorian. Although her grades in health class are mediocre right now, she is working hard to improve so that she can earn a perfect GPA from now until her senior year. Who should Keisha compare herself to in order to meet her goal? a. last year’s valedictorian b. her best friend c. her younger sister, who wants to attend an ivy league school d. her health teacher, who has a doctorate degree 100. The tendency to perform better when in the presence of others is known as a. social facilitation. b. social ownership. c. social sustainability. d. social constructivism.

101. Arranging to perform under conditions that usually impair performance, so as to have an excuse for poor performance is called a. self-handicapping. b. self-serving bias. c. fundamental attribution error. d. confirmation bias.

102. In Asch’s line study, what percentage of participants provided a wrong answer at least once? a. 25 b. 75 c. 50 d. 100 103. A group with which a person mainly identifies is called a(n) a. in-group. b. out-group. c. formal group. d. informal group.

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Chap 16_16e 104. Zane and his sister are both 14 years old. Since they were preschoolers, Zane has criticized his sister’s appearance and lack of athletic ability when he is upset with her or he's had a bad day. Which behavior is Zane demonstrating? a. overlearned behavior b. nonassertive behavior c. aggressive behavior d. assertive behavior 105. Through his research, Milgram found that the presence of other dissenters reduced which of the following? a. obedience b. guilt c. social facilitation d. distance from authority 106. Which term refers to rewards and punishments administered by groups to enforce conformity among members? a. group sanctions b. groupthink c. group-serving bias d. groupshift 107. The more important group membership is to a person, the more he or she will a. conform. b. dissent. c. social loaf. d. communicate.

108. Any deliberate attempt to change attitudes or beliefs through information and arguments is called a. persuasion. b. aggression. c. perception. d. self-assertion.

109. In presenting a persuasive message, it is best suited to present both sides of the argument if the audience is a. poorly informed. b. well informed. c. minimally attentive. d. marginally interested.

110. Which of the following is the best example of the lowball technique? a. You agree to make dinner for your aunt, after which she says that she wants steak. b. You are happy to receive a “C” on your exam, even though you expected to receive a “B.” c. You want a promotion at work, but will accept being assigned to an office with a window. d. You pretend to be exhausted before a bicycle race, such that you catch your teammates off-guard.

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Chap 16_16e 111. In the context of persuasion and consequent attitude change, which one of the following is a principle applied for selling? a. The message should seldom state clear-cut conclusions. b. The message should appeal to emotions, particularly to fear or anxiety. c. The message should be backed up by product descriptions rather than facts and statistics. d. The message should rarely be repeated.

112. Marc’s car broke down on the way to class. If Marc attributes the breakdown to an internal cause, which of the following will he most likely tell his friends? a. The car was his grandfather’s. b. People shouldn’t drive in bad weather. c. There were too many potholes in the road. d. He forgot to take the car in for repairs last week.

113. In Milgram's experiment on obedience, what percentage of participants obeyed orders when they were face-toface with learners and were required to force their hands down on the shock plate? a. 30 b. 80 c. 10 d. 60 114. Which of the following is a characteristic of a team that involves members having to actively work together at all stages of a project? a. interdependence b. social loafing c. groupthink d. mobbing 115. In the context of brainwashing, under which condition would former values and beliefs be loosened? a. delegation b. isolation c. empowerment d. decentralization 116. In the context of persuasion and consequent attitude change, what should be the course of action when the audience is poorly informed? a. Only one side of the argument should be presented. b. Both sides of the argument should be presented. c. The message should avoid facts and statistics. d. The message should avoid stating clear-cut conclusions.

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Chap 16_16e 117. Hector thinks of himself as an excellent student who excels in all of his classes. The night before his first big statistics exam, Hector's roommate invites him to a party. Although Hector thinks he should stay home and study, he chooses to go to the party. What will Hector most likely feel as a result of his decision? a. ambivalence b. relief c. sadness d. discomfort 118. Which of the following refers to a method of gaining compliance that involves creating gentle pressure for people to act in accordance with your wishes? a. persuasion b. nudges c. teamwork d. aggression 119. In the context of forming attitudes, which of the following is the best example of direct contact? a. opposing an adjacent business that ruined your business b. agreeing to go to a party based on discussions with your friends c. cutting your hair short because your friends wear their hair that way d. deciding to discipline your child because you were raised in the same manner 120. Geoffrey can’t decide which car to buy, so he is asking various groups their opinion. Many people in his spinning class encourage him to buy a Toyota Prius. Most members of his hunting club recommend some type of Ford truck. His eight fraternity brothers all encourage him to buy a BMW. Which car will Geoffrey most likely buy and why? a. He will buy the Toyota Prius because he wants to impress his spinning class. b. He will buy the BMW because his fraternity brothers are most likely important friends. c. He will buy the Ford truck because it is the most practical for his hunting hobby. d. He will buy an all-electric Chevy sedan because he trusts his instincts in the end.

121. Sasha is conducting research in which she asks a representative sample whether they agree or disagree with statements such as "Physics students are more proficient at mathematics than chemistry students." This is an example of a. an attitude scale. b. an open-ended interview. c. a closed-ended interview. d. a social distance scale.

122. Every night after supper 10-year-old Sanjay watches violent TV shows until his bedtime. Sanjay's grandparents are concerned about the effects of these shows on Sanjay's attitude and behavior. Should they be concerned? a. Yes, because Sanjay's parents are not modeling positive attitudes and behaviors for him. b. Yes, because research suggests that TV violence leads some people to develop a mean worldview. c. No, because Sanjay is old enough to separate television fantasy from real-life experiences. d. No, because research suggests these television shows expose Sanjay to important real-life situations.

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Chap 16_16e 123. The degree of prestige, admiration, and respect accorded to a member of a group is called social a. status. b. power. c. acceptance. d. role.

124. Richard asks Ari what his favorite food is. What is this an example of? a. a social distance scale b. an attitude scale c. an open-ended interview d. coercion 125. In which of the following are individuals most highly encouraged to elaborate on their wide-ranging views? a. open-ended interview b. closed-ended interview c. unstructured questionnaire d. structured questionnaire 126. Which answer choice reflects the most popular self-handicapping strategy? a. Ashley states that she joined the chess club because her therapist encouraged her to socialize. b. Tyler states he didn’t score as many points in the basketball game because his legs hurt. c. Paolo states he can’t remember everything he said at the party because he was drinking too much. d. Thuy states she was late to her doctor's appointment because she was stuck in traffic.

127. You are a graduate teaching assistant (TA) for a Psych 101 course. The Wednesday after election day, the professor requests that TAs individually poll students by verbally asking them who they voted for. You believe this is an invasion of privacy, and you notice that the other TAs looks uneasy about this. What, if anything, can you do to prevent obedience to authority? a. You can apologize to the students after conducting the poll. b. You can file a complaint with the department after the poll. c. You can decline the professor's request with an explanation. d. You can ask the students to poll each other and share the data.

128. Creating ground rules is most important for a. conformity. b. obedience. c. teamwork. d. cognitive dissonance.

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Chap 16_16e 129. In which of the following situations would you be actively complying? a. You suffer, without protest, someone smoking near you in a nonsmoking zone. b. You lend money to a coworker who requests it to buy a sandwich. c. You tolerate a person talking loudly while you study in the library. d. You concede to a person who has grabbed an item you wanted during a sale.

130. Compared to a group, teams are best described as a. interdependent. b. dependent. c. independent. d. intradependent.

131. In Milgram's experiment, what happened when the experimenter gave orders to participants over the phone? a. no one obeyed b. everyone obeyed c. only about one-quarter obeyed d. more than three-fourths obeyed 132. Which of the following terms refers to the degree to which a group member can control, alter, or influence the behavior of another group member? a. social power b. social status c. social role d. social consciousness 133. The pressure to behave in certain ways in particular settings and social situations is known as situational a. demand. b. awareness. c. strength. d. coercion.

134. Which one of the following is a strategy in which commitment is gained first to reasonable or desirable terms, which are then made less reasonable or desirable? a. lowball technique b. stalking horse offer c. Trojan horse defense d. snowball effect 135. The success or failure of persuasion can be understood if we consider the communicator, the message, and the a. audience. b. norms. c. space. d. culture.

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Chap 16_16e 136. Which group probably has the most structure and strongest cohesion? a. the Lady Sparks varsity softball team b. the staff at Spitmore Hospital c. the algebra II class at Spring View High School d. the parents’ group at Piper Playground 137. A rating of the degree to which a person would be willing to have contact with a member of another group is known as a a. social distance scale. b. behavioral anchor scale. c. figure rating scale. d. social readjustment scale.

138. Which of the following was a criticism of Milgram's experiments? a. He did not use a large enough group to promote subject conformity. b. He failed to consider alternative explanations for his subjects' behavior. c. He actively biased the “learners” to behave the way they did. d. He based the experiment on a lie by using actors as "learners."

139. Standing up for one's rights by speaking out on one's own behalf is called a. self-efficacy. b. self-evaluation. c. self-actualization. d. self-assertion.

140. What occurs when we bring our behavior into agreement with perceived social norms? a. conformity b. groupthink c. collectivism d. coercion 141. Nate is the lead singer in a rock band. Before every concert, Nate complains that he didn’t warm up enough and has a terrible voice. This is an example of a. downward comparison. b. self-assertiveness. c. upward comparison. d. self‐handicapping.

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Chap 16_16e 142. Brett does not like country life. He vividly recalls long trips to his uncle's farm when he was a child. Brett and his brothers would all get car sick from the winding roads and his uncle did not have television to help pass the time. Brett's attitude about the country was most likely formed by a. interactions with others. b. group membership. c. media influence. d. direct experience.

143. The tendency to perform more poorly when in the presence of others is called a. social interference. b. social influence. c. social facilitation. d. groupthink.

144. Kendrick asks his neighbor Donna if she could watch his six-month-old for a few minutes while he runs to the market. Donna says sure. As Kendrick drops off the baby, he tells Donna that he may make a quick stop at the gym and will be back in an hour or so. What is Kendrick demonstrating? a. foot-in-the-door effect b. door-in-the-face effect c. compliance technique d. lowball technique 145. Caleb is attending his first dinner party. He arrives empty-handed, one hour late, wearing his gym clothes. How would you explain Caleb’s behavior? a. He is unaware of the situational demands of a dinner party. b. He has used downward comparisons most of his life. c. He has a consistent personality. d. He is attributing external causes to internal circumstances.

146. Javier is a Latino professor who attends St. Mary’s Catholic Church. Which person would be considered a member of Javier’s out-group? a. Father Thomas, a Catholic priest b. Peter, a Green Party member c. Sara, a fast food worker who didn’t finish high school d. Renata, a Latina science teacher 147. Nancy is the chief executive officer at TriGraphics Software. Which answer choice best describes her position within the company? a. She is high in social status and high in social power. b. She is high in social status but low in social power. c. She is low in social status but high in social power. d. She is low in social status and low in social power.

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Chap 16_16e 148. What is the most popular and dangerous self-handicapping strategy? a. binge eating b. sleeping c. drinking alcohol d. working out 149. In the context of persuasion and consequent attitude change, how should the message be structured when it is used for selling? a. The message should state clear-cut conclusions. b. The message should be backed up by product descriptions rather than facts and statistics. c. The message should rarely be repeated. d. The message should avoid appealing to emotions, particularly to fear or anxiety.

150. Muzafer Sherif investigated conformity in a perceptual task using a. persuasion. b. groupthink. c. the length of lines. d. the autokinetic effect.

151. Which of the following statements represents a common feature of assertiveness and aggression? a. Both assertive behavior and aggressive behavior involve the expression of feelings. b. Both assertive behavior and aggressive behavior maintain the respect of all parties. c. Both assertive behavior and aggressive behavior are hurtful to others. d. Both assertive behavior and aggressive behavior are based on anxiety and guilt.

152. Val is a social psychology student who is doing a paper on teamwork. Which of the following is she studying? a. the Choral Aires Choir b. the spectators at a Bears game c. the Opioid Addiction Task Force d. the Mount Holly School Board 153. Kobe has scheduled a meeting at his conference room in Dallas with a firm he hopes to contract with. His assistant has arranged the conference table and set out refreshments. The firm’s three partners walk into the conference room and all sit side-by-side on the sofa. How will Kobe most likely react? a. He will ask the partners to get up and sit at the table. b. He will be angry at his assistant for an inappropriate setup. c. He will appreciate the closeness of the firm's partners. d. He will feel uncomfortable at the partners' unexpected behavior.

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Chap 16_16e 154. Which of the following represents a primary criticism of Milgram’s research on obedience? a. The authority figures were not real teachers. b. The participants did not seem disturbed by their actions. c. Many of the participants had heart conditions. d. The experiments were unethical.

155. When making attributions, if a person's behavior occurs only under specific circumstances, then this type of behavior is termed a. consistent. b. neutral. c. distinctive. d. nominal.

156. Jeb’s car has run out of gas, and he needs someone to come get him and take him to the gas station. Which person is most likely to help him? a. His friend Tate who helped him last week and just got free concert tickets from Jeb. b. His sister who is trying to teach Jeb to be more independent and lives nearby. c. His boss who knows Jeb will miss an important meeting if he doesn’t get to work on time. d. His former girlfriend who has a new car and is home from work all day.

157. Which of the following is considered an underlying reason for crises such as the U.S. invasion and occupation of Iraq and the Columbia space shuttle disaster? a. groupthink b. social loafing c. mobbing d. false-consensus bias 158. Which one of the following is a group that an individual uses as a standard for social comparison? a. reference group b. focus group c. command group d. task group 159. One way you can reduce the experience of cognitive dissonance is to a. increase the amount of perceived choice. b. remove consonant thoughts. c. avoid changing your behavior. d. change your attitude.

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Chap 16_16e 160. The tendency to assign behavior to internal causes without regard to situational influences is called a. fundamental attribution error. b. cognitive bias. c. groupthink. d. situational bias.

161. Which term describes the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to internal causes while attributing one’s own behavior to external causes? a. selection bias b. actor–observer bias c. inductive bias d. participation bias 162. In the context of conformity, which type of people are more likely to conform to group pressures? a. people with low needs for structure or certainty b. people who are confident and less concerned with the approval of others c. people who live in cultures that emphasize group cooperation d. people who are independent and follow principles of individualism 163. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of aggression? a. The receiver feels sympathy for the actor. b. It emphasizes the use of physical violence. c. It is an attempt to get one’s own way no matter what. d. The actor is anxious.

164. To help prevent groupthink, the leader of a group should a. invite a group member or outsider to play devil’s advocate. b. discourage open inquiry among members of the group. c. focus on one or two generally accepted solutions. d. reveal their personal preferences at the outset.

165. Which of the following is a strategy a person can use to reduce dissonance? a. maintain behavior b. change beliefs c. emphasize dissonant thoughts d. try not to focus on consonant thoughts 166. Octavia is trying to find a way to gently pressure her employees to come back from breaks on time. Which of the following persuasion techniques should she use? a. door-in-the-face b. foot-in-the-door c. nudges d. lowballing Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_16e 167. Which of the following is defined as a collection of perspective statements expressing various possible views on an issue? a. focus group b. attitude scale c. social distance scale d. social norms 168. What term refers to the tendency for a person who has first complied with a small request to be more likely later to fulfill a larger request? a. foot-in-the-door effect b. arm-out-the-window effect c. door-in-the-face effect d. caught-in-the-act effect 169. Based on Stanley Milgram's research discussed in the chapter, under which circumstance would a person be least likely to obey authority? a. When the person and the authority figure are face-to-face. b. When person and the authority figure are in the same room. c. When the person and the authority figure are communicating by phone. d. When the person and the authority figure are different genders.

170. Taryn’s spouse, Alex, often belittles her at home when it’s just the two of them. However, Alex is kind and attentive to Taryn when others are around. Taryn wants to be more self-assertive with Alex. Which of the following approaches would you recommend? a. Taryn should belittle Alex in front of others to help expand Alex’s empathy. b. Taryn should be poised, overconfident, and argumentative when she attacks Alex’s assertive behavior. c. Taryn should manage her own anxiety and practice being more patient with Alex. d. Taryn should rehearse, role-play, and overlearn assertive behavior.

171. Roles that are assigned to a person or are not under personal control are known as a. achieved roles. b. ascribed roles. c. earned roles. d. attained roles.

172. Which of the following is the best example of coercion? a. Help me cheat on this week’s test or I will tell everyone that you cheated on last week’s test. b. Vote for me and I will deregulate the automobile industry. c. If you study hard, you will receive good grades. d. I will not help you rob a bank unless you share the profits of the heist.

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Chap 16_16e 173. Kelsey is excited because she has been accepted into the popular clique of girls at her middle school. In the cafeteria, the group has begun to tease Kelsey about her hairstyle. What can be classified as a group sanction in this situation? a. ridicule b. popularity c. appearance d. gender 174. Ingrid just transferred to a new high school. Which of the following would probably be Ingrid’s reference group when she attempts to identify the norms at her new school? a. her parents b. the French club at her former school c. her younger siblings d. the students in the school’s dining hall 175. Which of the following is the most likely example of Lilly’s behavior when she holds the attitude, with conviction, that artists do not make useful contributions to society? a. She encourages her children to study science, technology, engineering, and mathematics. b. She trains to be a brain surgeon and advocates for more science requirements in school. c. She knows little about art and is reluctant to share her opinions on art with her friends. d. She frequently disparages artists’ professional contributions and is unmoved by contrary opinions.

176. From a young age, Deanna believed that she wanted to be a landscape architect. She made a hobby out of studying city park design. However, in her first architecture course in high school, she received an F. Thereafter, she told her friends that she has always wanted to be a famous actress. Which of the following is Deanna most likely experiencing? a. pressure to conform b. deliberate persuasion c. misguided loyalty d. cognitive dissonance 177. What should group leaders do to prevent groupthink? a. Reveal all personal preferences in the beginning. b. Ban open inquiry among group members. c. Discourage a search for alternate solutions. d. Define each group member as a “critical evaluator.”

178. Which of the following would help a group leader to prevent groupthink from occurring? a. revealing their personal preferences in the beginning b. discouraging open inquiry among group members c. assuming the role of the devil’s advocate d. encouraging a search for alternate solutions

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Chap 16_16e 179. Which of the following defines a flawed decision-making process in which a collection of individuals favors conformity over critical analysis? a. groupthink b. scapegoating c. lowball technique d. social loafing 180. Bending to the requests of a person who has little or no authority or other form of social power is known as a. compliance. b. social loafing. c. social facilitation. d. convenience.

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Chap 16_16e Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap 16_16e 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. d 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_16e 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. a 63. d 64. a 65. d 66. c 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. b 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. a 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_16e 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. c 90. b 91. a 92. c 93. b 94. a 95. a 96. c 97. c 98. d 99. a 100. a 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. c 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. b 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_16e 111. b 112. d 113. a 114. a 115. b 116. a 117. d 118. b 119. a 120. b 121. a 122. b 123. a 124. c 125. a 126. c 127. c 128. c 129. b 130. a 131. c 132. a 133. a 134. a 135. a 136. a 137. a

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Chap 16_16e 138. c 139. d 140. a 141. d 142. d 143. a 144. d 145. a 146. c 147. a 148. c 149. a 150. d 151. a 152. d 153. d 154. d 155. c 156. a 157. a 158. a 159. d 160. a 161. b 162. c 163. c 164. a 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_16e 166. c 167. b 168. a 169. c 170. d 171. b 172. a 173. a 174. d 175. d 176. d 177. d 178. d 179. a 180. a

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Chap 17_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Margo is a new college student. According to research, who is Margo most likely to become friends with? a. Matt, the boy who lives down the hall who she sees every day. b. Mike, the boy in her lab who she sees once a week. c. Mitch, the boy in her class who she sees on Mondays and Wednesdays. d. Marvin, the boy in her hometown, who she sees during winter vacation.

2. Which of the following is a possible way that the textbook specifies can reduce prejudice in professional sports? a. participation in a sports team in general b. team management encourages self-disclosure c. facilities give each player ample personal space d. coaches can employ permissive management styles 3. Fatima generalizes that all men are irresponsible players, cheaters, and liars. When it comes to men, Fatima may be applying negative beliefs about individuals based solely on their membership in a group, which are called a. prejudice. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. out-group bias. d. stereotype.

4. An innate impulse that directs or motivates behavior, which psychologists tend to agree is not a direct cause of behavior, is called a(n) a. cue. b. instinct. c. stimulus. d. idea.

5. People with a secure attachment style are likely to a. regard themselves as friendly, good-natured, and likable. b. have stable employment. c. exhibit confidence as a public speaker. d. trust their parents and closest friends.

6. There is intimacy, passion, and commitment in which of the following types of love? a. consummate b. fatuous c. companionate d. romantic

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Chap 17_16e 7. Paul was recently attacked when he was walking home from a bar. Jenna believes that Paul must have done something to deserve or provoke the attack. Jenna’s explanation is an example of the a. actor-observer bias. b. fundamental attribution error. c. self-fulfilling prophecy. d. just world hypothesis 8. What term did Sternberg use to describe love that is characterized by intimacy, passion, and commitment? a. secure b. companionate c. consummate d. romantic 9. Which of the following defines the determination to stay in a long-term relationship with another person? a. absorption b. passion c. commitment d. intimacy 10. Which concept is best exemplified by someone who finds it relatively easy to get close to others? a. secure attachment b. fatuous love c. mutual interdependence d. reciprocity 11. Gina is travelling in Europe and joins a conversation with a group of students from Portugal who are staying at the same hostel. The students are discussing the trade relationships between countries around the world. Gina mentions that she thinks Switzerland is the most agreeable trade partner in the world, and other countries should recognize how generous Switzerland is when making trade agreements. Gina's statement is characteristic of a. ethnocentrism. b. displaced aggression. c. implicit prejudice. d. symbolic prejudice.

12. Which of the following is the best example of a superordinate goal? a. fixing a broken mirror with your sister so neither of you gets in trouble b. waiting for the right moment to bully your older brother c. returning a mistakenly mailed check to your boss d. a supermarket cashier waits to go home until after his boss finishes berating him

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Chap 17_16e 13. Before giving help to a stranger, the first thing people must do is a. take responsibility. b. select a course of action. c. define the event as an emergency. d. notice that something is happening.

14. The emphasis on "red" and "blue" states that drives much political and social conflict in the United States today demonstrates the effect of a. oversimplification. b. interdependence. c. dogmatism. d. scapegoating.

15. When hostilities triggered by frustration are redirected at “safer” targets, it is called a. self-fulfilling prophecy. b. displaced aggression. c. symbolic prejudice. d. stereotyping.

16. The case of Kitty Genovese demonstrated the role of the a. bystander effect. b. empathy-helping relationship. c. frustration–aggression hypothesis. d. authoritarian personality.

17. Engaging in actions that benefit another person is called a. social responsibility. b. asocial behavior. c. prosocial behavior. d. empathetic bonding.

18. Someone who stereotypes other people robs those people of their a. individuality. b. reciprocity. c. ethnicity. d. affiliation.

19. Knowledge that helps us see a person as one person rather than as a member of a group is called a. social exchange. b. individuating information. c. self-disclosure. d. mutual absorption.

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Chap 17_16e 20. Lorena is stuck in traffic on her way home on a hot day after getting fired from her job. While sitting in the traffic jam, her air conditioning stops working and her car begins overheating. A passenger in the car next to her sees Lorena's car overheating and rolls down his window, points to the hood of her car, and shouts toward Lorena that she needs to pull off the road. Despite the passenger's efforts to help her, Lorena angrily shouts back at him that he needs to mind his own business. Lorena's negative response to the passenger illustrates a. the frustration–aggression hypothesis. b. learned helplessness. c. indirect verbal bullying. d. empathic arousal.

21. One of the most direct means to change a prejudicial attitude is to change the associated a. belief. b. behavior. c. stereotype. d. group.

22. Assumptions that people generally get what they deserve are known as a. just-world beliefs. b. individuating information. c. self-fulfilling prophecies. d. reciprocal exchanges.

23. Jane Elliot's classroom experiment demonstrated how prejudice can be influenced by perceptions of a. status. b. goals. c. attachment. d. stimuli.

24. A number of reasons can be proposed for why people attract one another. Which among the following is most pertinent to the halo effect? a. familiarity b. similarity c. physical attractiveness d. reciprocity 25. Mona works at a bank. When Luis, a Colombian man, arrives to drop off his paycheck she pretends to be busy and directs him to another teller. She does this whenever a non-White person wants assistance. This is an example of a. ethnocentric bias. b. discrimination. c. dehumanizing stereotype. d. implicit prejudice.

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Chap 17_16e 26. Which of the following is the best example of an equal-status contact? a. a chemistry professor speaks with a geology professor b. a doctor is interrogated by a lawyer during a trial c. a doctor tells her cancer patient that the cancer will go into remission d. a mechanic asks for respect from his customer 27. A person who has mixed feelings about love and friendship likely has which type of attachment style? a. avoidant b. ambivalent c. companionate d. diffuse 28. A person who has opinions on what others think about him or her is engaged in a. implicit prejudice. b. social learning. c. self-stereotyping. d. mutual interdependence.

29. In a crowded environment, who are we more likely to provide help to in an emergency? a. someone we feel a connection with b. someone who has elevated status c. someone who fits our just-world beliefs d. someone who is in desperate need 30. Suppose someone has broken their leg and thus is in need of medical attention. The fact that there are others available to help best indicates that the responsibility to act is which of the following? a. diffused b. optional c. instinctual d. implicit 31. Gerald tripped on the curb with his cane and had to take a seat on a busy sidewalk against a building. He sat there for quite a while before a passerby stopped to ask if he needed help. Gerald was upset with people in general that he was ignored for a long period of time; however it is likely a. that he wasn't noticed by passersby trained to "keep their eyes to themselves." b. he was seen as a threat because of his cane. c. he was devictimizing himself. d. he did not show consummate love toward others.

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Chap 17_16e 32. Suppose Gregory ties up his brother in the closet and locks him inside but has no intention of harming him.

Gregory is engaging in which of the following? a. direct physical bullying b. indirect physical bullying c. aggression d. victimization 33. Which of the following passersby LEAST characterizes the influence of empathic arousal when stopping to help a person in need? a. Jeremy stops to help an attractive woman who dropped her groceries. b. Paula stops her car with her children in their car seats to help a woman with two children in car seats fix a flat tire. c. Nathan stops his car to see why a building on his block is on fire. d. Lana stops her car on the way home from the gym to help an elderly woman load a heavy bag of pet food into her car.

34. Which one of the following theories holds that there is no instinctive human programming for fist fighting, pipe bombing, or other violent or aggressive behaviors? a. frustration–aggression theory b. cognitive dissonance theory c. social exchange theory d. social learning theory 35. Which of the following describes the social exchange theory? a. The theory that different forms of love arise from combinations of three basic components. b. The theory that male emphasis on mates’ sexual fidelity is based on concerns about the paternity of offspring. c. The theory that rewards must exceed costs for relationships to endure. d. The theory that people learn to be aggressive by observing aggression in others.

36. What is Sternberg's term for the most complete and satisfying type of love? a. consummate love b. fatuous love c. romantic love d. companionate love 37. Before giving help in a situation, what is the final step a person must take? a. selecting a course of action b. defining the event as an emergency c. taking responsibility for outcomes d. checking for helpful bystanders

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Chap 17_16e 38. Leah is standing in line at the theater when the woman behind her starts a conversation. Soon into the conversation, the stranger tells Leah that she is having an affair and is leaving her boring husband because she met a man at work that is really exciting to be with. How the stranger went into details about her personal life after having just met Leah is an example of a. commitment. b. reciprocity. c. over-disclosure. d. halo effect.

39. Sternberg would describe love that is associated with high levels of interpersonal attraction, heightened arousal, mutual absorption, and sexual desire as a. intimate. b. consummate. c. fatuous. d. romantic.

40. Oversimplified images of people in various groups are called a. stereotypes. b. scapegoats. c. symbols. d. prototypes.

41. Hans is comfortable being close to his wife, trusts her, and knows that they can depend on each other. His relationship with his wife characterizes a. secure attachment. b. avoidant attachment. c. ambivalent attachment. d. unattached.

42. Sam and Jenni are intimate with each other and enjoy high levels of passion in their relationship. When asked by friends about when they are going to get married, they both reply that they are not ready to commit to marriage yet. According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, they are experiencing a. romantic love. b. companionate love. c. consummate love. d. infatuated love.

43. Linda has a stereotype about how a car mechanic behaves. The main advantage of her belief is that it a. allows for rapid processing. b. identifies critical information. c. is basically accurate. d. is a mental shortcut.

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Chap 17_16e 44. Suppose Arianna and Saulo must work together to safely navigate a glacial ice field. They have (or are engaged in) which of the following? a. equal-status contact b. scapegoating c. homogamy d. superordinate goal 45. Which of the following is a relationship approach that is best exemplified by someone whose friends and lovers have been somewhat unreliable? a. ambivalent attachment b. empty love c. implicit prejudice d. status inequality 46. Suppose you are from a rural area and are concerned about people assuming that you are a farmer or rancher.

Your concern is known as which of the following? a. stereotype threat b. self-stereotyping c. scapegoating d. implicit prejudice 47. Elaine's science quiz bowl team mocks members of a rival science bowl team by teasing them at every opportunity. Elaine's science quiz bowl team is displaying signs of a. social competition. b. just-world beliefs. c. equal-status contact with other students. d. stereotype threat.

48. In California, undocumented migrants are often blamed for high unemployment in the state, although statistics show that high unemployment is not related to the number of illegal migrants. In this example, illegal migrants are victims of a. mutual interdependence. b. status discrimination. c. stereotype threat. d. scapegoating.

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Chap 17_16e 49. Payton was bullied into playing football instead of playing piano by a close family relative. The constant bullying and the inability to pursue a personal goal frustrated Payton, but he maintained a role on the football team as the quarterback. The team's defense held every opponent to one touchdown that season, but at the end of a losing football season, Payton was quoted in the local paper as saying that the team lost so many games because the defense was poor. By scapegoating the team's defense for the losing season, Payton is likely showing a. authoritarian beliefs. b. ethnocentrism. c. systemic prejudice. d. displaced aggression.

50. The notion that most Americans are "purple" (i.e., that many people have both conservative “red” perspectives and liberal “blue” perspectives) serves as a rebuttal to a. stereotypes. b. ethnocentrism. c. aggression. d. dogmatism.

51. Levi loves his fiancée and texts her over 10 times a day. Additionally, he stopped attending get-togethers with his friends at work, ignores his hobbies, and spends little time with his family. Levi's fiancée responds to every text she gets from him, stopped spending time with her volunteer work, and doesn't get to the gym as much as she used to. Levi and his fiancée are experiencing a. over-disclosure. b. homogamy. c. reciprocity. d. mutual absorption.

52. The main reason that people make attributions that reflect the just world hypothesis is that these explanations a. enhance self-esteem. b. elevate unequal status. c. make them feel safer. d. reduce discrimination.

53. Which of the following is the BEST example of an authoritarian personality, from a prosocial and antisocial behavior standpoint? a. Patrick says that women are a major source of social discord and the citizens of his country are superior to those of other nations. b. Charles says that his research on ethnic strife is the most comprehensive work in his academic specialty and will help resolve future conflicts. c. Leon says that he will not permit his daughter to pursue romantic relationships with Asian Americans. d. Implicit prejudice Lionel wishes that his supervisor would overlook her internal prejudices and give him a merit-based promotion.

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Chap 17_16e 54. A relationship between two people that is a state of intense longing and desire is a. companionate love. b. passionate love. c. romantic love. d. infatuation love.

55. Suppose Natalie, an Asian American woman, goes on a date with Tyler, a Black American man. She suspects that because of his race, Tyler will be aggressive. Throughout their date, Natalie believes that his high-speed driving, entering doors before her, and loud voice all confirm her original beliefs of Black American men. Natalie is exhibiting which of the following? a. a self-fulfilling prophesy b. apathy c. reciprocity d. a superordinate goal 56. Lenny is in seventh grade. While the rest of the fourth graders are watching, Lenny pushes his way through the fourth grade hallway every day to get to Joe to take his lunch away, because it always has dessert cakes in it.

Joe is experiencing a. symbolic prejudice. b. de-victimization. c. implicit prejudice. d. bullying.

57. Agnes is upset that her boyfriend is breaking up with her. When describing her boyfriend to her college roommate, Agnes repeats a litany of sexist comments. Agnes's description of her boyfriend is characteristic of a. a stereotype of men. b. social vulnerability. c. displaced aggression. d. authoritarian beliefs.

58. Talib is searching a dating website for a potential relationship. According to the textbook, in the context of familiarity, which of the following pieces of information will most likely influence his choice in selecting a candidate for a potential date? a. physical proximity b. income level c. taste in music d. educational background 59. An effective approach to reducing prejudiced attitudes and behaviors is to increase a. equal-status contact. b. just-world beliefs. c. social competition. d. comparison levels.

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Chap 17_16e 60. Sarah and Jeb met two months ago and decided to get married. They are highly similar to each other in age, education, ethnicity, and religion. The similarities they have is known as a. homogamy. b. reciprocity. c. familiarity. d. proximity.

61. Which of the following best exemplifies prosocial behavior? a. Avery forgets to call his grandmother on Mother’s Day. b. Jason is blackmailed by Brianna. c. Mateo’s mother provides child support to Mateo’s father because of a court order. d. Tyler visits his aunt once a week to bring her groceries.

62. According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, intimacy is a. feelings of connectedness and affection. b. deep emotional and/or sexual feelings. c. sharing of private thoughts and feelings. d. dependence on another to meet one's needs.

63. Someone with an avoidant attachment style is most likely to a. see others as unreliable or overly eager to commit to relationships. b. regard themselves as misunderstood and underappreciated. c. shun public speaking engagements. d. disagree with authority figures.

64. Which of the following tends to lead people to divide the world into categories of "us" and "them"? a. social stereotyping b. mutual interdependence c. just-world beliefs d. symbolic prejudice 65. A cruise ship was sinking, and a large group of people found themselves stranded on a deserted island. They quickly divided themselves into two groups based on how much they valued settling down and focusing on longterm survival versus focusing on being rescued. After a few weeks, the groups were in conflict with each other, and they were preparing weapons to use in an inevitable battle. Suddenly, in the middle of the night, lights appeared on the distant horizon, and the groups immediately worked together to construct a huge signal fire and were rescued. The groups working together to light a signal fire is an example of working toward a. equal-status contact. b. a superordinate goal. c. group prejudice. d. dogmatism.

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Chap 17_16e 66. Adolf Hitler commonly referred to Jewish people collectively as “The Jew.” Which term is most closely associated with this past experience? a. dehumanization b. aggression c. stereotyping d. scapegoating 67. Which of the following can be said of aggression? a. No biological factors directly cause aggression. b. Frustration directly causes aggression. c. People are inherently aggressive. d. Drug abuse directly causes aggression.

68. Which of the following scenarios BEST represents the social learning theory of aggression? a. Lane is in court after being charged with spousal abuse. Lane's lawyer pointed out during the trial that Lane's experienced physical abuse as a child by both parents. b. Lane is experiencing high testosterone levels and throws a vase through a window during an argument. c. Lane is sitting in an overheated room at work and starts an argument with a coworker. d. Lane is given a rude gesture by a driver when trying to walk across a busy street and retaliates by picking up a rock and throwing it at the driver's car.

69. Negative feelings, opinions, and beliefs associated with a stereotype are known as: a. prejudice. b. discrimination. c. the in-group/out-group bias. d. fundamental attribution error.

70. Women tend to experience stereotype threat based on attitudes about their mathematics ability. According to the textbook, this impacts women’s scores on which of the following types of exams? a. finance b. chemistry c. physics d. astronomy 71. A theory that combines principles with cognitive processes, socialization, and modeling to explain behavior is called a. social learning theory. b. elaboration likelihood method. c. social reciprocity. d. the diathesis stress model.

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Chap 17_16e 72. Mr. Why is a well-educated science teacher and understands the way stereotypes can lead to prejudicial attitudes. Sadly, although Mr. Why doesn't make explicit prejudicial comments in his class, he believed that in past years, he could tell that well-dressed students who came from the rich side of town were smarter than poorly dressed students who came from the working class side of town. Mr. Why's school district implemented a student uniform policy over the past summer and now he feels that he really can't get a strong grasp of which students he thinks are more intelligent because they all dress the same. The school districts uniform policy is an example of combatting prejudice by a. creating more equal-status contact. b. promoting mutual interdependence. c. establishing superordinate goals. d. promoting status inequalities.

73. Which of the following is unlikely to be an accurate example of one of the stereotypes mentioned in the textbook? a. White men can’t jump. b. Older people are forgetful. c. Women aren’t good at math. d. Billionaires do not understand how the rest of society lives.

74. Which of the following refers to focusing on one’s own group, usually by rejecting all other groups? a. authoritarianism b. scapegoating c. ethnocentrism d. discrimination 75. According to Darley and Latané's research on the bystander effect, the potential for a person to provide help in an emergency is related to a. the number of others present. b. the nature of the emergency. c. the group membership of the victim. d. the extent of shared empathy.

76. Which of the following terms refers to deep emotional and/or sexual feelings? a. passion b. commitment c. libido d. intimacy

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Chap 17_16e 77. Which of the following groups will most likely underperform due to stereotype threat? a. Black American students told that they are taking a test that measures academic ability. b. Black American students who are told that they are completing a problem-solving task unrelated to ability. c. White American students who are told that they are taking a test that measures academic ability. d. White American students who are told that they are completing a problem-solving task unrelated to ability.

78. Which of the following combines the greatest number of approaches to combatting prejudice? a. equal-status contact activities b. activities that engage students with superordinate goals c. activities that require students to engage with mutual interdependence d. classrooms that are experiencing the "jigsaw" method of instruction 79. Rukiya often feels misunderstood by her partner and believes her partner is often unreliable. Additionally, she worries that her partner doesn't love her and is not sure her partner trusts her. Rukiya's feelings are characteristic of a. secure attachment. b. avoidant attachment. c. ambivalent attachment. d. unattachment.

80. Unconscious negative thoughts and feelings about members of other groups is called a. symbolic schematizing. b. systemic discrimination. c. implicit prejudice. d. personal stereotyping.

81. Any behavior that deliberately and repeatedly exposes a person to negative experiences is called a. dogmatism. b. prejudice. c. bullying. d. discrimination.

82. A person who has a fear of intimacy and tends to resist committing to others likely has which type of attachment style? a. antisocial b. displaced c. ambivalent d. avoidant

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Chap 17_16e 83. Which of the following is the best example of a status inequality? a. a supervisor and a subordinate b. an Black American man and an Asian American man c. a man and a woman d. a banker and a lawyer 84. Lars is sitting in the classroom waiting for his final paper to be returned by his professor. The temperature in the room is uncomfortably warm, and he is feeling pain from an injury at soccer practice earlier that morning. When his professor hands back his paper, Lars sees a very large F written on the front page of the paper in red marker with the text study harder next to it, and now knows that he is going to fail the semester. Lars is likely becoming more sensitive to a. instinctual impulses. b. empathic arousal. c. aggression cues. d. the weapons effect.

85. Which of the following is most consistent with the frustration–aggression hypothesis? a. Annoy me with your music and I may slap you. b. I can learn to put up with your annoying music. c. Some people’s violent behavior is triggered by small insults. d. You can channel frustration and anger into positive outcomes.

86. Blaming a person or a group for the actions of others or for conditions not of their making is called a. scapegoating. b. discrimination. c. bullying. d. apathy.

87. When children at a summer camp were divided into two separate camps, Rattlers and Eagles, they overcame hostility when they a. worked on superordinate goals. b. engaged in mutual interdependence. c. promoted just-world beliefs. d. encouraged self-disclosure.

88. Selena thinks that all computer programmers are antisocial and boring. When she meets Mark, a computer programmer, she immediately decides that she does not like him. Selena’s beliefs are a stereotype, and not liking Mark is a. a prejudice. b. a stereotype. c. a self-fulfilling prophecy. d. social comparison.

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Chap 17_16e 89. Sonya organized a group of fellow actors to give presentations in elementary classrooms that portray scenarios of choosing to help others in times of need. Sonya’s initiative is focused on applying which of the following to prevent aggression? a. social learning theory b. diffusion of responsibility c. bystander effect d. social exchange theory 90. Barry stops his vehicle on the highway to help a college student fix a flat tire while returning home on the holidays. Barry remembers a time when he was returning home from college, had car trouble, and missed a holiday dinner because he had to walk several miles to a gas station to borrow the tools needed to change a flat tire. Barry's decision to stop illustrates a. empathic arousal. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. bullying. d. general arousal.

91. According to Robert Sternberg, romantic love is based on a combination of a. intimacy and passion. b. passion and commitment. c. commitment and intimacy. d. intimacy, passion, and commitment.

92. During a sporting event involving a playoff game, Harlan trips on the stairs down the stadium and the refreshments he was selling spill everywhere. Amidst the confusion and spectacle of his fall and his efforts to clean up the mess, not one fan in the stadium took time away from the game to help him. Harlan's lack of help from the fans in the crowded stadium illustrates a. bystander apathy. b. empathic arousal. c. bullying. d. aggression.

93. Psychologists tend to question whether, which of the following is a source of aggressive behavior in humans? a. instinct b. hypoglycemia c. brain injury d. testosterone 94. Which of the following defines emotion that occurs when someone feels another person’s pain, fear, or anguish? a. social exchange b. emotional tolerance c. empathic arousal d. mutual absorption

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Chap 17_16e 95. Which one of the following is best defined as a negative attitude toward an entire group of people? a. prejudice b. bullying c. consummate d. comparison 96. Which of the following people in need of help is doing the best job in devictimizing themselves? a. Kalib shouts for help when he is being mugged. b. Bailey screams when her handbag is being pulled away from her. c. Morgan shouts "Fire!" "Someone help me by calling 911," when she is being attacked. d. Hunter sprays pepper spray into the face of her attacker.

97. For an in-class activity, Mr. Kay divides his students into two groups based on whether they were wearing brand-name clothing. He called the brand-named clothing student group the "Mallers" and the non-brand-name clothing students the "Thrifters." Mr. Kay's division of students based on whether or not they were wearing brand-name clothing as a defining measure of their socio-economic status is an example of a. oversimplified stereotypes. b. stereotype threat. c. dogmatism. d. ethnocentrism.

98. When running through the airport, Collin trips and spills all of his stuff out of his backpack. Lots of people see Collin trip and fall, but no one helps Collin or asks if he is okay. The fact that others do not help in this case is best explained by a. bystander apathy. b. prosocial behavior. c. groupthink. d. reciprocal empathy.

99. Flora’s car breaks down, leaving her stranded on the highway in the middle of rush hour. As more and more cars drive past her, Flora is surprised that no one stops to help her. The fact that other drivers fail to help Flora is most likely explained by a. over-sensationalized reporting. b. the bystander effect. c. bystander apathy. d. empathic arousal.

100. Paulina is engaged to be married. She has difficulty trusting her fiancée, feels nervous when her fiancée gets too close emotionally, and pulls back when things are not going well. Paulina's feelings are characteristic of a. secure attachment. b. avoidant attachment. c. ambivalent attachment. d. unattachment.

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Chap 17_16e 101. Which of the following scenarios is the best example of group prejudice? a. Amanda joins a racist group because she is racist. b. Amanda joins a “neighborhood watch” group to make friends and pretends to be against gun control in order to fit into the group. c. Amanda has racist friends, and they join together to form a racist group. d. Amanda joins the postal service and quits when she discovers that her manager is racist.

102. According to David Buss, men and women differ in their preferences for mates due to the effects of a. evolution. b. learning. c. media. d. ethnocentrism.

103. Which of the following is the best example of someone exhibiting ageism? a. You deny people a raise if they are over 50 years old. b. At 50 years old, you are more racially prejudiced than ever. c. At 60 years old, you don’t understand new technology. d. At 4 years old, you feel that your actions do not affect others.

104. Which of the following is the best example of a stereotype threat (as per the research of Claude Steele)? a. Henry is anxious about his basketball aptitude because “white people can’t jump.” b. Carla testifies against her assailant in court. c. Thomas confronts the man who is racially insulting him. d. Heidi deactivates a mail bomb sent to the women’s health center.

105. Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes the relationship between biology and aggressive behavior? a. Alcohol use lowers the threshold for aggression, making hostile behavior more likely. b. Higher testosterone levels make men, not women, more aggressive. c. Hypoglycemia restrains aggressive behaviors. d. Because we are biologically capable of aggression, aggressive behavior is inevitable.

106. Transfers of attention, information, affection, and favors between two people are called a. equal-status contacts. b. secure attachments. c. social exchanges. d. social comparisons.

107. Unfair actions directed toward people based on stereotyping and prejudice is called a. bullying. b. discrimination. c. scapegoating. d. apathy.

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Chap 17_16e 108. Donald is seeking to remarry after divorcing his ex-wife after 29 years of marriage. He is seeking a youthful, beautiful, healthy woman who is interested in starting a family and raising several children. The characteristics that Donald is seeking supports a view based on a. humanistic psychology. b. cognitive psychology. c. evolutionary psychology. d. existential psychology.

109. What aspect of love involves the pledge to love someone over the long run, through the ups and downs that are often part of love? a. romantic b. intimacy c. commitment d. desire 110. People tend to form friendships with whom they have more frequent contact, an experience that is facilitated by a. proximity. b. homogamy. c. familiarity. d. self-disclosure.

111. Consider your closest friends. Among the following choices, they are most likely similar to you in what way? a. height b. profession c. age d. weight 112. Which of the following is an example of an altruistic behavior? a. accidentally scaring a bank robber away by screaming when you see her b. telling the police that your company dumps toxic waste, even though you will lose your job c. setting up a scholarship fund for your children because you will receive tax deductions d. helping your neighbor cut down a tree, so that the leaves do not blow into your yard anymore 113. Which of the following strategies would effectively reduce prejudice between groups? a. assigning one group to supervise the other group in completing an assigned task b. having groups meet under equal terms and cooperate on a task c. having highly educated members of one group teach the children of the other group d. keeping intergroup contact to a minimum

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Chap 17_16e 114. Janeka does poorly on her psychology final, so she picks on her mother’s ability to cook. A frustration aggression theorist might explain this by focusing on a. the way Janeka’s frustration with her exam led her to be aggressive toward her mother. b. the way Janeka’s frustration with her mother led her to do poorly on her exam. c. which situational factors led Janeka to do poorly on her exam. d. which dispositional factors led Janeka to do poorly on her exam.

115. Which of the following best describes the type of aggression demonstrated through cyberbullying? a. indirect b. physical c. aversive d. dogmatic 116. Which term describes the nearly exclusive attention lovers give to one another? a. empathic arousal b. mutual interdependence c. mutual absorption d. secure attachment 117. Jane Elliott's experiment with prejudice was based on which characteristic? a. eye color b. political party c. ethnic group d. income level 118. According to the text, the “girl (boy) next door” effect most closely relates to which of the following factors that influence people’s attraction to one another? a. familiarity b. similarity c. physical attractiveness d. reciprocity 119. Suppose Alexia tells her sister, “You are a nerd and you will never have any real friends.” Alexia feels that she is not being mean and is simply trying to tell her sister the truth. Alexia is engaging in which of the following? a. direct verbal bullying b. indirect verbal bullying c. aggression d. victimization

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Chap 17_16e 120. Which of the following likely caused all the witnesses to the attack on Kitty Genovese to avoid helping her? a. diffusion of responsibility b. implicit prejudice c. just-world beliefs d. displaced aggression 121. Hal is a police officer who believes that all elderly people are bad drivers. He issues tickets to a lot of elderly drivers. The way that Hal unfairly targets and punishes elderly drivers is best described as: a. systemic prejudice. b. out-group bias. c. discrimination. d. anecdotal norms.

122. Which of the following statements most reflects just-world beliefs? a. Criminals get what they have coming when they encounter the law. b. People of color struggle because of economic disadvantages. c. Women are often perceived as aggressive when they stand up for inequalities in the world of work. d. Retired people have it too easy in their relaxed lifestyles.

123. Which of the following is at the core of scapegoating? a. blame b. authority c. ethnicity d. violence 124. Which of the following is the best example of cyberbullying? a. receiving a threatening email from your brother b. bragging about your new computer to your lower-income friend c. your former best friend steals your computer d. a lack of collaboration on an online homework assignment 125. What is the most common attachment style among adults in the United States? a. secure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. ambivalent attachment d. mutual attachment 126. What is a key characteristic of social stereotypes? a. oversimplification b. dehumanization c. discrimination d. individuation

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Chap 17_16e 127. Which of the following passersby is most likely to offer help at the scene of a car accident? a. A delivery driver comes upon a car accident on a side road and sees both drivers standing next to their cars with bottles of alcohol in their hands. b. A delivery driver comes upon a car accident on a busy freeway. c. A delivery driver comes upon a car accident on a side road after two other drivers are stopped to offer help. d. A delivery driver comes upon an accident on a side road and sees both drivers standing next to their cars with canes.

128. Linus stepped away from a sidewalk vegetable stand where he stopped to pick up something to eat after working the night shift. As he turns to leave, he sees a police officer across the street watching him and reaching toward his sidearm. The streetlight is dim, Linus has a Member of Blood symbol on the back of his jacket, and he is holding a knife in one hand and a long eggplant in the other. Though Linus is simply getting ready to eat the eggplant he just purchased, it's likely that he is being perceived as an aggressive threat by the police officer due to a. the effects of racism. b. Linus's instinctual behaviors. c. Linus's indirect verbal bullying. d. the weapons effect.

129. Jackie failed her history test and gets upset at the students who received an A. Jackie is showing her prejudice by a. being authoritarian. b. displaced aggression. c. being discriminatory. d. showing group prejudice.

130. Which of the following is the best example of implicit prejudice? a. I will not start a family because my spouse is not also ready to do so. b. I believe that I am a smart person. c. I will not promote men in my company. d. I believe that the term cleaning is more associated with family than career.

131. Seeking individuating information about unfamiliar people is a helpful strategy to a. avoid stereotyping. b. reduce aggression. c. sustain intimacy. d. promote competition.

132. A man who engages in self-stereotyping a. believes what others say about him. b. thinks he is better than other people. c. thinks he has less status than others. d. does not feel welcome in any group.

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Chap 17_16e 133. An adolescent girl who joins a popular social group and suddenly dislikes her neighborhood friend since childhood is engaging in a. group prejudice. b. symbolic prejudice. c. personal prejudice. d. implicit prejudice.

134. Troops under the command of General Right are told before they are deployed that the enemy is killing their own children, beating the elderly to death for not taking up arms to prepare for combat, and executing college students inside their country for humanitarian reasons. It is likely that General Right's troops are being given this information be for going into combat to a. create equal-status contact between the troops and the enemy. b. impose stereotype threat. c. to dehumanize the enemy. d. to engage displaced aggression in the troops.

135. Which of the following is the best example of indirect bullying? a. sticking your tongue out at someone once he or she has left the room b. spreading a rumor that someone is untrustworthy c. telling your friend that other people think she is stupid d. telling your brother how to tease his enemy at school 136. Which of the following terms is most closely associated with the concept of prejudice? a. attitude b. behavior c. aggression d. competition 137. There are three friends—Masako, Elida, and Renata—who notice that one of the boys in their class looks very sad one morning and is holding back tears. Each of the girls thinks the others will ask him what is wrong and be supportive and so none of them say a word. This failure to act because they thought others would is called a. pluralistic ignorance. b. social stereotyping. c. bystander apathy. d. diffusion of responsibility.

138. From an over-disclosure standpoint, which of the following statements, from Derek, is most likely to cause Carla to question Derek’s motives in their new friendship? a. I feel sexually inadequate. b. I have a job as a high-level manager. c. I enjoy extremely spicy foods. d. I have a doctorate in chemistry.

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Chap 17_16e 139. The desire to do which of the following is at the core of all aggression? a. cause harm b. spread prejudice c. initiate violence d. propagate dogmatism 140. Which of the following types of love only features intimacy, as opposed to passion and commitment? a. companionate b. romantic c. liking d. empty 141. Pamela is starting over at 52 after a difficult divorce and currently is very attracted to and dating Lon. Pamela values her professional career. Which of the following statements by Lon best represents a profitable relationship for Pamela? a. I love traveling and hope we can spend time together getting to know new places, but when we get to our destination, I might have to check in with work. b. I know I can be a downer at times, but when I'm feeling happy, I like to let the good times roll. c. From March to September, my retired parents live with me, but from October to February, I'm free to have fun because they pay the rent and spend the winters on the Mediterranean coast. d. Moving in together will lower our monthly bills, but you'll have a longer commute to the gym.

142. Feelings of suspicion, fear, or hatred are generally key characteristics of a. self-disclosure. b. prejudice. c. competition. d. reciprocity.

143. On a comparison level, Gertrude would be most likely to stay in her current friendship given which of the following? a. Her previous friends have been unpleasant and dishonest. b. Her previous friends have been supportive and caring. c. Her family lives on the other side of the country. d. Her family lives nearby.

144. According to Sternberg's model, two people who are friends share a mutual sense of a. intimacy. b. commitment. c. exchange. d. absorption.

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Chap 17_16e 145. Which of the following concepts was most at play in the murder of Kitty Genovese and the failure of others to assist her? a. pluralistic ignorance b. diffusion of responsibility c. status inequalities d. fundamental attribution error 146. In the context of the typical human psychological responses to aversive stimuli, which of the following is the best example of a typical response to driving a car with no air conditioning on a very hot day? a. to ration your limited water supply b. to think of the time you punched a bully c. to understand that this is only a temporary inconvenience d. to think of the time you won a scientific award 147. A person who has an ambivalent attachment style would be likely to a. feel misunderstood and unappreciated. b. resist committing to other people. c. see others as generally trustworthy. d. prefer having a secure partner.

148. Suppose Justin and Luke recently met, and discuss their career plans with one another. They are best exhibiting which of the following? a. familiarity b. reciprocity c. similarity d. halo effect 149. Which of the following types of love only features commitment, as opposed to intimacy and passion? a. liking b. empty c. infatuated d. fatuous 150. According to Darley and Latané, one's inability to notice a person who needs help is often a function of a. social norms. b. focused responsibility. c. in-group membership. d. antisocial behavior.

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Chap 17_16e 151. Howie is sitting in court about to hear the judge read his sentence or armed robbery. During the trial, his lawyer pointed out that Howie was born into poverty, raised by neglectful parents, and fended for himself on the streets since he was 12 years old. Howie's lawyer was making a point that he was a victim of a. discrimination. b. ethnocentrism. c. displaced aggression. d. status inequalities.

152. Which of the following is most consistent with social learning theory? a. We learn aggressive behavior from others. b. There is a human instinct for aggressive behavior. c. Direct bullying is less traumatic than indirect bullying. d. Indirect bullying is less traumatic than direct bullying.

153. Chad tells his friends not to spend time with Lionel because Chad wants to exclude Lionel from his circle of friends at school. Chad is using a. indirect verbal bullying. b. direct verbal bullying. c. direct physical bullying. d. indirect physical bullying.

154. Dianna is looking for a new husband after divorcing her ex-husband after nine years of marriage. Dianna is seeking a committed partner who is slightly older, successful at work, is a leader in the community, and is economically well positioned. The characteristics Dianna is seeking in a partner support a view of relationships based on a. evolutionary psychology. b. humanistic psychology. c. cognitive psychology. d. existential psychology.

155. Which of the following is the best example of over-disclosure? a. Andy speaks to Daliah at a research conference for half an hour about his research project. b. At an amusement park, Andy tells a stranger about his past physical abuse as a child. c. Andy tells Daliah at the start of their relationship that he is not seeking a sexual relationship. d. Andy tells his aunt that all of her friends are planning a surprise birthday party for her.

156. Which one of the following is the best way to avoid becoming a victim of bystander apathy? a. Call out, “I am being attacked; I need help right now.” b. Scream as loud as you can. c. Run into a large crowd of people. d. Calmly clarify that it is an emergency.

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Chap 17_16e 157. Which of the following couples in a relationship best reflects evolved behavioral patterns in mate selection? a. Barb is 57 and a wealthy business entrepreneur. Bob is 55 and a high school teacher. b. Bob is 55, a successful real estate developer, and interested in a casual relationship. Barb is 28, has two children, and interested in a long-term relationship. c. Barb is 35, has two children, and interested in marriage. Bob is 65, a successful real estate developer, and interested in a long-term relationship. d. Bob is 45, a high school teacher, and interested in a casual relationship. Barb is 55, a successful business entrepreneur, and interested in a casual relationship.

158. Harvey and Georgina have been married for 55 years. They feel intimacy toward each other, they have a passion for each other, and they are strongly committed to each other. According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, they are experiencing a. consummate love. b. companionate love. c. romantic love. d. liking.

159. Which of the following people is indirectly bullying another person? a. Yuri shoves Danielle into a locker every time they pass each other in the hallway at school. b. Yuri tells friends not to talk to Danielle every day during lunch at school. c. Yuri cuts in front of Danielle in the lunch line every day. d. Yuri calls Danielle a loser every time Danielle is unsuccessful at tennis meets.

160. Ralph and Alice like spending time together and feel committed toward meeting each other's needs. They've been married for a long time and don't feel the high levels of passion toward each other that they felt earlier in their marriage. According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, they are feeling a. companionate love. b. consummate love. c. romantic love. d. liking.

161. Which of the following describes a relationship based on intimacy, but lacking passion and commitment? a. romance b. infatuation c. liking d. attachment 162. Which of the following professors is most dogmatic? a. a history professor who says that there were many causes of World War I b. a chemistry professor who is certain that one gender is superior to another in his discipline c. a physics professor who enjoys teaching mathematics more so than engineering d. an English professor who requires papers to be written in proper grammar

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Chap 17_16e 163. According to research, which of the following will the average woman find most desirable in a potential male partner? a. high status b. physical attractiveness c. low commitment d. younger age 164. Which of the following most likely describes the people who make up a group of friends? a. similar b. indebted c. passionate d. secure 165. A stimulus that produces discomfort or displeasure and may heighten hostility and aggression is described as a. aversive. b. antisocial. c. empathic. d. displaced.

166. Which of the following couples BEST characterize romantic love? a. Logan and Parker are intimate with each other. b. Quinn and Shawn are intimate and committed to each other. c. Sydney and Val are intimate, passionate, and committed to each other. d. Aubrey and Brook are intimate and passionate toward each other.

167. A young couple with three children are stranded in their stalled vehicle on a busy freeway during rush hour. For two hours, they receive no help from others and must wait until a friend they called on their cell phone can arrive with a can of gas to restart the vehicle. The lack of assistance from others illustrates a. empathic arousal. b. aggression. c. infatuation. d. diffusion of responsibility.

168. Which of the following is a way in which prejudice can be effectively combatted? a. Increase the frequency of equal-status contact between opposing groups. b. Decrease the degree of self-disclosure among group members. c. Prevent the creation of superordinate goals for the opposing groups. d. Promote self-stereotyping and dogmatism among group members.

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Chap 17_16e 169. Suppose Li reveals to Susan that she has had few friends in the past and is worried that she will not be a good girlfriend for Susan. This is the clearest example of Li exhibiting which of the following? a. commitment b. social exchange c. self-disclosure d. mutual absorption 170. Albert walks Camille to her doorstep after their first date. They say goodbye and Albert leans forward to kiss Camille. Camille puts her arms around Albert and they kiss. That Camille responded positively toward Albert with a kiss is an illustration of a. reciprocity. b. familiarity. c. similarity. d. self-disclosure.

171. Arvis, an alien world, is being threatened by a newly discovered source of radiation that is linked to a solar flare.

The nations of the world pool their resources together to come up with a method to inoculate every person on the planet and survive the solar flare's radiation. That the nations of the world put aside their prejudices and worked cooperatively on a solution is an example of the power of a. superordinate goals. b. authoritarian beliefs. c. ethnocentrism. d. displaced aggression.

172. LaRae is described by her friends and coworkers as being very helpful and generous. They all note that she behaves in ways that make her likeable and that foster harmonious relationships among others. LaRae would probably receive a high score in a measure of a. neuroticism. b. openness. c. conscientiousness. d. agreeableness.

173. Which of the following best characterizes a superordinate learning goal? a. Students will choose two same-gender teams and work to achieve the best team score on a review quiz by making flash cards for important terms. b. Students will study their spelling words at their desk, and the student with the best score on the spelling test will receive an extended recess. c. Students will be divided into same-gender groups, and each student will receive one clue to solve a mystery. After sharing each student's clue, the students will work as a group to catch the villain. d. Students will work on an individual basis to generate a topic for a research project and search the Internet for information on their topic.

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Chap 17_16e 174. In 1934, the German government outlawed Jewish people from attending public gatherings. This is most closely an example of which of the following? a. personal prejudice b. discrimination c. sexism d. systemic prejudice 175. Suppose you assume unconsciously that a Native American woman is less suitable for a job than an Asian American woman. You have committed which of the following? a. explicit prejudice b. implicit prejudice c. symbolic prejudice d. group prejudice 176. A person's aggressive behavior results from observing aggression in others is a key premise of the a. frustration–aggression hypothesis. b. cognitive dissonance theory. c. social exchange theory. d. social learning theory.

177. What term did Sternberg use to describe love characterized by intimacy and commitment, but lacking passion? a. fatuous b. companionate c. romantic d. consummate 178. Mandy has a stereotype that engineers are dull. When she meets Matt, an engineer who writes exciting stories, she will likely create a subtype that a. Matt is the exception to the rule about engineers. b. engineers can be interesting and creative. c. Matt has not always been an engineer. d. creativity should be measured differently in engineers.

179. Pam is meeting a new coworker who recently emigrated from Australia. Pam has a stereotypical view of Australians. However, Pam asks her new coworker to tell her about herself and soon Pam realizes that her perception of people from Australia was completely wrong. Pam has benefited from the process of seeking a. individuating information. b. stereotype threat. c. labeling. d. mutual interdependence.

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Chap 17_16e 180. Adam is seven years old and walking home after school. As he is getting close to home, he hears shouting inside the house and knows that his parents are fighting again. Suddenly, he sees the door of the house get thrown open and a baseball bat flies out toward the driveway, hitting and shattering the family car's windshield.

The next day at school, Adam becomes frustrated with his teacher and throws his workbook at the teacher's desk. Adam's experiences and behaviors support the a. instinctual theory of aggressive behavior. b. social learning theory of aggressive behavior. c. theory of learned helplessness. d. anger management theory.

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Chap 17_16e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. b 26. a

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Chap 17_16e 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. a 51. d 52. c 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_16e 55. a 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. a 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. c 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_16e 83. a 84. c 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. c 95. a 96. d 97. a 98. a 99. b 100. b 101. b 102. a 103. a 104. a 105. a 106. c 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_16e 111. c 112. b 113. b 114. a 115. a 116. c 117. a 118. a 119. b 120. a 121. c 122. a 123. a 124. a 125. a 126. a 127. d 128. d 129. b 130. d 131. a 132. a 133. a 134. c 135. b 136. a 137. d

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Chap 17_16e 138. a 139. a 140. c 141. a 142. b 143. a 144. a 145. b 146. b 147. a 148. b 149. b 150. a 151. d 152. a 153. a 154. a 155. b 156. a 157. b 158. a 159. b 160. a 161. c 162. b 163. a 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_16e 166. d 167. d 168. a 169. c 170. a 171. a 172. d 173. c 174. d 175. b 176. d 177. b 178. a 179. a 180. b

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Chap 18_16e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Noise-battered children suffer from a serious handicap called a state of a. learned helplessness. b. sensory overload. c. cognitive overload. d. crowding stress.

2. Henry noticed that the neighborhood park, though used often by almost all the surrounding families, is in disrepair. After gathering up his children to head back home, Henry sees again how poorly the park is being kept up, but he leaves the park thinking that some of the other families with more time will take the initiative to clean and repair the park. Henry's lack of incentive to repair the park himself is an example of a. an ecological footprint. b. personalized normative feedback. c. the tragedy of the commons. d. conservation of effort.

3. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates flextime? a. Xiao chooses to work 10 hours per day so that he gets Fridays off. b. Linda works from home. c. Daniel has an assistant when his workload is too high. d. Lora receives overtime pay when she chooses to work extra hours per week.

4. Which of the following city-dwellers is applying the most effective measures to prevent attentional overload? a. Clark, who engages only in brief, superficial contacts and stops to watch street performers while walking to work b. Lana, who engages in long conversations with strangers who ask questions at the bus stop and walks with a cold and unfriendly expression on her face c. M.C., who ignores street performers while walking to work and wears a cold and unfriendly facial expression d. Hannah, who ignores street performers and engages with long conversations when strangers stop her to ask directions to city landmarks 5. Which is the study of behavioral dimensions of sports performance? a. sports psychology b. exercise science c. stress management d. kinesiology

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Chap 18_16e 6. Which of the following is the best example of a Theory Y leader? a. Li-Yun gave a raise to an employee who took it upon herself to streamline the company’s internal review process. b. Diane fired an employee who refused to work on weekends. c. Heidi instructs new editors that they must edit at least five scientific manuscripts each week. d. Nia wants her custodians to use their time efficiently and holds monthly “listening sessions” to understand her employees’ current concerns.

7. Caresa's job is not enjoyable, she feels like she is not challenged by her duties, and she has not received a pay raise in three years. It is likely that Caresa is feeling a. like she is not a good fit with her job. b. her needs, values, and wants are met by her job. c. she is rewarded fairly for doing a good job. d. her job meets her expectations.

8. The skills that include recognizing problems, evaluating the value and reliability of information, developing or assessing potential solutions to perspective thinking and metacognitive skills are related to a. critical thinking skills. b. collaborative skills. c. communication skills. d. complex skills.

9. Kannita is browsing an internet job site and applies for a job with the following description: "Duties include conducting the testing, selection, placement, and promotion of employees at our technology-focused research and development laboratory." It is likely that Kannita applied for a job in a. personnel psychology. b. organizational culture development. c. participative management. d. job enrichment.

10. Lonnie is filling out a job application, and the final question on the form asks him to describe a time in his past that he felt poorly treated by others. Lonnie's response is an example of his a. biodata. b. vocational interests. c. aptitude testing. d. critical incidents.

11. Which of the following statements relates to the term social norms marketing? a. a persuasion technique that seeks to change attitudes by making explicit, relevant social norms in order to foster compliance b. a technique that seeks to study attitudes by making explicit relevant social norms c. an ideology that seeks out attitudes by making explicit relevant social norms for conservation purpose d. a view that seeks to study attitudes by making implicit relevant social norms in order to foster future compliance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_16e 12. What happens when someone begins to think about flow? a. It stops immediately. b. Performance begins to decline but then quickly peaks once more. c. Performance increases. d. Performance slightly increases but then returns to peak levels.

13. According to the textbook, in terms of following a job description, which of the following people are likely to best fit in within their organizational culture? a. I follow my assigned duties without question. b. I delegate my menial duties to others. c. I ask my supervisor to clarify my assigned duties. d. I go beyond my assigned duties.

14. Which of the following statements accurately supports the use of mental practice? a. imagining a skilled performance can aid learning b. imagining a skilled performance increases learning more than actual practice c. imagining ways to improve a performance is sufficient when practice time is limited d. imagining a skilled performance can undo learning from an actual practice 15. Bo is interested in achievement motivation, control of attention, goal setting, and competition. It is most likely that Bo is a(n) a. educational psychologist. b. student of psychology and the law. c. sports psychologist. d. environmental psychologist.

16. Which of the following scenarios shows shared leadership? a. All employees decide on retirement benefits. b. Management distributes stock equitably among all employees. c. Management decides to lay off 10 percent of the staff across the company. d. An employee donates her accrued vacation time to her supervisor.

17. Why do attorneys seek psychologists' help in identifying potential jurors? a. to identify jurors who will favor or harm their efforts b. to exclude any jurors who know anyone connected with the trial c. to exclude jurors who are too authoritarian d. to exclude jurors who are biased and opinionated

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Chap 18_16e 18. Natural resources like the amount of land and water area required to replenish the resources that a human population consumes can be measured as a(n) a. ecological footprint. b. carbon footprint. c. metered resource. d. carbon debt.

19. Which of the following leadership theories leads to employees being treated more like "cogs in a machine"? a. Theory X b. Theory Y c. Theory Y communal d. transformational leadership theory 20. Suppose Tiffany is quite skilled at assessing body cues, such as those which indicate whether someone is interested in a topic. Based solely on this information, Tiffany is most likely to be skilled at which of the following? a. leadership b. teamwork c. problem solving d. communication 21. As a first step, what information may be collected for each juror during scientific jury selection? a. demographic information b. personality traits c. economic background d. verbal behavior 22. Willard is homeless and picks spray paint cans out of dumpsters. When he is alone at night, he sprays graffiti onto the walls of the buildings that side the alley he sleeps in. Willard is most likely living in which kind of environment? a. rural b. suburban c. farming d. urban 23. After her interview at an assessment center for an executive position at an insurance company, Nevaeh was asked to sit at desk in an "office." While she was seated, the desk phone rang, and when Nevaeh answered it, an "employee" told her she was calling because she didn't know how to proceed in filing a sexual harassment charge against her supervisor. Nevaeh was experiencing a(n) a. aptitude test. b. vocational interest test. c. in-basket test. d. situational judgment test.

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Chap 18_16e 24. Which of the following is making the most effective appeal to reduce environmentally destructive activities in their community? a. Ralph writes a letter to the editor that focuses on six ways to save money by recycling. b. Buddy writes a letter to the editor that focuses on how recycling will help the future generation economically. c. Aldo writes a letter to the editor on recycling that focuses on why he wants to leave the world a better place. d. Rachel writes a letter to the editor that focuses on the economic, community, and personally experienced benefits of recycling.

25. Which is the most direct link between psychology and law? a. jury research b. scientific jury selection c. death-qualified jury analysis d. special jury research 26. Transformational leadership is aimed at a. transforming employees to exceed expectations and look beyond self-interest to help the organization better compete. b. transforming employees to work as hard as possible, for the good of the company. c. transforming employees to seek out consensus from your coworkers, such that no one feels undervalued. d. training employees to look for leadership from your supervisor(s), as they know best how to run the company.

27. While practicing for her rugby game, Marla imagines herself running on the field while carrying the ball and meeting a tackler in the open field. She imagines how she will first make a small step to the left and then quickly turn to the right while spinning to avoid the tackle. Marla is aiding her performance skills by using a. rote learning. b. relaxation techniques. c. fixed routines. d. mental imagery.

28. Merigo recently installed a new thermostat in his home and downloaded an app that syncs with the thermostat that allows him to receive notifications on his energy use for heating his house and responds to excessive use by adjusting his thermostat from his phone. Merigo has increased his a. carbon footprint. b. environmental footprint. c. feedback and control. d. carbon debt.

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Chap 18_16e 29. When does an athlete experience intense concentration, detachment, a lack of fatigue and pain, a subjective slowing of time, and feelings of unusual power and control? a. during peak performance b. during mental practice c. during skill acquisition d. during competition 30. Under what conditions is job satisfaction highest? a. when a job is a good fit between work and a person's interests, abilities, needs, and expectations b. when a job pays a fair wage c. when a job is a good fit with a person's abilities d. when a job involves work that feels easy to perform 31. What is the result of athletes using self-regulation strategies? a. Their performance remains at optimal levels. b. Their performance declines. c. Their performance stagnates. d. Their poor performance reduces their self-confidence.

32. Thane is usually quite untidy but dresses nicely for his interview at an office building looking for a receptionist.

Despite appearing a little negative at times, the interviewer was impressed with Thane's appearance and perceived him as more positive than he actually was. Thane's interviewer is being influenced by a. biodata. b. Thane's aptitude. c. the halo effect. d. Thane's vocational interests.

33. Mattie likes her job as a nuclear engineer. She stays in touch with others about issues at work, attends meetings regularly, shares ideas during discussions, and rarely complains to others when things aren't going well. Mattie is showing characteristics associated with a. a low level of job satisfaction. b. a high level of vocational disinterest. c. a low level of situational judgment. d. a high level of organizational citizenship.

34. Manuela is attending a big game between her favorite football team and their biggest rival. How would an environmental psychologist describe this situation? a. social environment b. physical environment c. behavioral setting d. quality circle

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Chap 18_16e 35. Juries composed of women are more likely to vote for conviction in a. child sexual assault trials. b. domestic violence trials. c. sexual harassment trials. d. theft and robbery trials.

36. Which is one example of modifying the environment to change people’s behavior? a. painting a fly onto a urinal b. painting over graffiti c. building structures that have elaborate architecture rather than plain tiles d. removing a horn from automobiles 37. Due to crime-solving programs such as CSI, today’s jurors place too much confidence in a. DNA evidence. b. witnesses. c. appearance. d. perception.

38. Dr. Lenta conducts research combining social, cultural, and political influences to promote health in individuals.

Which type of psychology is most likely to interest Dr. Lenta? a. forensic psychology b. community psychology c. developmental psychology d. environmental psychology 39. Wyn is taking college classes at night and asked his boss if he could work four 10-hour-days instead of a regular work week of five 8-hour-days. Wyn is interested in a. a compressed work week. b. working less hours. c. flexplace work. d. self-management.

40. Jury trials are often fascinating studies in a. human behavior. b. courtroom practices. c. ergonomics. d. desensitization.

41. Which of the following is the most likely example of an employee who has been given the option of flexplace? a. I arranged to share my office cubicle with only my closest work friends. b. I am able to work from home. c. I have difficulty communicating with my coworkers. d. I have chosen the office cubicle closest to the window.

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Chap 18_16e 42. Xiao sees a graph on her electric bill that indicates she is using 30 percent more electricity than others in her area. To change her attitude about electricity consumption, Xiao's electric company is using a. social norms marketing. b. personalized normative feedback. c. a social dilemma. d. an illustration of Xiao's environmental footprint.

43. Which is most closely linked with low job satisfaction? a. absenteeism b. inefficiency c. illness d. anger 44. Cenobio rides his bike to work, uses solar panels to generate his electricity, and plants a garden in his backyard every year. Cenobio is making efforts toward a. living a carbon-neutral lifestyle. b. increasing the size of his carbon footprint. c. going along with the tragedy of the commons. d. increasing his ecological footprint.

45. A persuasion technique that seeks to change attitudes by comparing feedback about individual performance with relevant social norms in order to foster compliance is termed as a. personalized normative feedback. b. feedback of conservation efforts. c. control and conservation. d. social norms marketing.

46. Flora is an environmental psychologist and is conducting research on the behavior of children age seven in public parks when they are playing alone on the playground equipment. Flora is most likely using the playground equipment as a(n) a. physical environment. b. behavioral setting. c. social environment. d. aptitude test.

47. In the context of control and conservation, what is the consequence of burning fossil fuels, destroying forests, using chemical products, and stripping, clearing, and farming the land? a. Natural cycles are altered. b. They alter the human population. c. Conservation becomes difficult. d. An increase in environmental stressors.

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Chap 18_16e 48. Suppose you work from home in a professionally laid out home office. This is best described as which of the following? a. flexplace b. flextime c. quality circle d. job enrichment 49. Adina earned her Master's in Business Administration and is interviewing for a position at a large construction company. When asked how she will be able to tell if the company's employees are doing a good job, she replied that she would set specific goals for her team. Workers in sales would have a total sales goal, manual laborers would have a certain number of items to complete each day, and all employees would be directed to reduce waste materials by 25 percent. Adina is implementing a leadership strategy known as a. self-managed team building. b. Theory X. c. quality circles. d. management by objectives.

50. What method is adopted by psychologists to find solutions to problems such as overcrowding, pollution, and overuse of resources? a. environmental assessment b. resource management c. energy conservation d. urban planning 51. Which of the following is a series of actions molded into a smooth and efficient performance? a. a motor skill b. a psychologist's skill c. a testing skill d. a complex skill 52. Emile contacted a manager of a successful restaurant to schedule an appointment to meet for 20 minutes.

During the meeting, Emile asked questions about the qualifications for a managerial position, the current demands for new people in restaurant management, and the typical duties for a restaurant manager. Emile is conducting a(n) a. informational interview. b. job interview. c. character assessment. d. skill set assessment.

53. Which of the following is the best example of a job analysis? a. interviewing current employees to determine the job requirements b. reviewing employee performance c. questioning the goals of the company d. deciding whether you want to work at a company Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_16e 54. Which of the following statements relates to the term crowding? a. A subjective feeling of being over stimulated by a loss of privacy or by the nearness of others b. A transient feeling of being over stimulated by a loss of oneness or by the nearness of others c. a non-subjective feeling of being over stimulated by a loss of privacy or by the nearness of others d. an objective feeling of being non-stimulated by a loss of privacy or by the nearness of others 55. Which of the following athletes is optimizing skill learning? a. Bo practices diving on a trampoline while his grandfather explains that athletic performance can be improved by adopting a healthy diet. b. Babe video tapes himself leaving the blocks at the start of the race and subsequently reviews the tapes in a quiet room that is free of distractions. c. Betsy says each step of her long jump out loud when she makes practice jumps and relaxes afterward with her friends to relieve the stress of extended practice sessions. d. Kahila practices her softball fast pitching on the same mound from which she pitches during games, while her coach is giving her feedback.

56. Which of the following is the best example of organizational citizenship? a. keeping informed of your company’s shifting goals b. sticking to your job description c. dressing in a more formal manner d. negotiating the best contract for yourself 57. Femi teaches people how to relax, how to ignore distractions, and how to cope with stressors. It is most likely that Femi is a(n) a. educational psychologist. b. psychology of law student. c. environmental psychologist. d. sports psychologist.

58. Why is it important to manage one’s digital footprint? a. Research has found that 70 percent of employers have decided not to hire someone based on what they find online. b. Managing one’s digital footprint ensures that the environment is well cared for. c. Colleagues have been shown in studies to spend many hours each week researching their coworkers online. d. Supervisors often research their employees to ensure their internet presence is professional.

59. Making a job more personally rewarding, interesting, or intrinsically motivating refers to a. job enrichment. b. job satisfaction. c. management by objectives. d. job analysis.

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Chap 18_16e 60. According to the United Nations, what is the estimated global population in 2050? a. 7.5 billion b. 10 billion c. 12 billion d. 15 billion 61. Which is an example of a social dilemma? a. too many people driving their own cars instead of using the public transport system b. too few farmers using insecticides c. too many people are recycling d. too many people are taking their bicycles instead of driving their personal vehicles 62. Suppose Jerome is being tried in court, after being accused of physically assaulting attendees at a civil rights rally. According to the textbook, in this context, which of the following most closely illustrates the results of jury analysis at its best? a. Ruth is included in the final jury pool because she is an expert in civil rights. b. Sandra is included in the final jury pool because she faces discrimination in her job. c. Clarence is removed from the potential jury pool because he is racist. d. Anthony is removed from the jury pool because he does not follow current events.

63. Paulina is using a lot of fresh water to shower for 30 minutes in the morning, drives a sports car that gets 4 miles per gallon for the 60 miles to work and back every day, leaves her lights and air-conditioning on at home when she is out of the house, and eats all her meals with disposable cups, plates, and utensils. Paulina is leaving a larger than average a. global footprint. b. ecological footprint. c. world footprint. d. density footprint.

64. According to psychologist Alice Eagly, in the context of leadership, most people expect women in particular (not necessarily men) to be which of the following? a. communal b. independent c. ambitious d. dominant 65. Which of the following statement relates to the term architectural psychology? a. the study of the effects that buildings have on behavior and the design of buildings using behavioral principles b. the formal study of how environments affect behavioral principles c. a branch of industrial/organizational psychology concerned with testing, selection, placement, and promotion of employees d. the study of objects and other signals whose placement indicates to others the “ownership” or control of a particular area Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_16e 66. Davorka is watching videos of a previous criminal court case being staged by actors. While viewing the videos, Davorka and others are being observed and their behavior is being studied. It is most likely that Davorka is participating in a a. mock jury. b. situational judgment test. c. leaderless group discussion. d. self-managed team.

67. Sheng does his laundry at night because his electric company offers reduced prices for electricity during the evening hours. To reduce energy consumption during peak hours, Sheng's electric company is using a. feedback. b. social dilemmas. c. tragedy of the commons. d. control.

68. Why do psychologists watch for authoritarian traits in a potential juror? a. They are more likely to vote for conviction. b. They are likely to influence the judgment negatively. c. They are more or less likely to be biased but with a strong opinion. d. They influence other jurors in the jury.

69. Which is the ability to work well with others? a. creativity b. character c. conformity d. collaboration 70. What refers to the maintenance of good morale of employees? a. psychological efficiency b. physical efficiency c. work efficiency d. group dynamics efficiency 71. Hanae is interviewing expert workers to identify situations with which competent employees must be able to cope. Hanae is conducting a job analysis to identify a. factors that contribute to the onset of "desk rage." b. biodata to use when making personnel placements. c. organizational culture issues. d. critical incidents to develop job requirements for positions.

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Chap 18_16e 72. Which of the following is the best example of an in-basket test? a. Read this stack of memos and propose a course of action. b. Explain how this procedure violates company's safety standards. c. Describe what motivates you to succeed in a new job. d. Describe a time when you disagreed with your supervisor’s instructions.

73. Which of the following leadership strategies gives employees the most decision-making power? a. management by objective b. quality circles c. management by objective with quality circles d. self-managed teams 74. Why do architects often add tiled walls to public restrooms? a. to increase aesthetic value b. to discourage vandalism c. to make them most cost-effective d. to make them easiest to maintain 75. Raymond is preparing for his client's jury trial for a criminal case. He is using demographic information to evaluate jurors, conducting community surveys to learn how local citizens feel about the case, screening for authoritarian personality traits in jury candidates, and asking psychologists for help to identify jurors that will help or hurt their case in court. Raymond is applying the principles of a. Theory X. b. Theory Y. c. scientific jury selection. d. social norms marketing.

76. Which has been linked to children’s poor reading skills? a. living near airports b. high GPA c. overstimulation d. being involved in more than five extra-curricular activities 77. What is scientific jury selection? a. using social science principles to choose members of a jury b. using mathematical principles to choose members of a jury c. using interpersonal relationships to choose members of a jury d. using legal principles to choose members of a jury

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Chap 18_16e 78. Which of the following is a formal collection of printed examples of a person’s accomplishments and work? a. portfolio b. journal c. biodata d. scrapbook 79. Kettie started a plumbing business after college and wishes her employees to look beyond their self-interests to help the business compete. She encourages her employees to work ethically, tells her employees that their work is meaningful, holds "think outside the box" sessions with her employees to solve problems, and provides opportunities for training in new plumbing technologies. Kettie is favoring a. Theory X leadership methods. b. Theory Y leadership methods. c. transformational leadership methods. d. management by objective leadership methods.

80. Which of the following is best described as a quality circle? a. volunteers at a company who brainstorm together on how to maximize company output b. executives at a company assigned to address customer satisfaction c. a government accountability board d. accountants who advise on which financial laws are easiest for business owners to follow 81. Which is most associated with graffiti? a. urban life b. violence c. noise pollution d. rurality 82. What is the result of people living in the inner city suffering disadvantages in nutrition, education, income, and health care? a. pathological behaviors b. overcrowding c. territoriality d. environmental decay 83. What is one way for a job seeker to gather information about particular jobs? a. informational interviews b. performance assessment c. in-basket test d. program evaluation

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Chap 18_16e 84. Which of these scenarios best illustrates an effective self-managed team? a. All employees within a company work with each other to create a new software package. b. Each employee in a company works by himself or herself toward creating a new software package. c. A central group of employees within a company directs the creation of a new software package. d. A group of employees within a company uses no guidance from management to create a new software package.

85. Nonverbal communication has been linked with which? a. intelligence b. GPA c. job satisfaction d. emotional intelligence 86. Lawson is a psychologist helping a defense lawyer select jury members for a child sexual assault trial. Lawson is likely to pay a high degree of attention to the jury candidates' a. gender because women are more likely to vote for a conviction in child sexual assault cases. b. gender because women are less likely to vote for a conviction in child sexual assault cases. c. favorite colors because jurors that favor red are more likely to vote for a conviction in child sexual assault cases. d. favorite colors because jurors that favor red are less likely to vote for a conviction in child sexual assault cases.

87. What is a social dilemma? a. a social situation that tends to provide immediate rewards for actions that will have undesired effects in the long run b. a mixed situation that tends to provide future rewards for actions that will have undesired effects in the long run c. a societal situation that tends to provide no rewards for actions that will have desired effects in the long run d. a situation that tends not to provide immediate rewards for actions that will have undesired effects in the long run 88. Conan believes his coworkers are gossiping about him, thinks that he was treated unfairly when he was passed up for a promotion, and was recently assigned to be a mentor with a new employee that isn't working out. After speaking with an upset client who shouted at him on the office phone, Conan hangs up, throws his desktop computer into the waste basket, and smashes the office coffee pot against the wall. Conan is showing behaviors that are best described as a. low levels of job satisfaction. b. high levels of "desk rage." c. a high degree of organizational citizenship. d. high levels of workplace initiative.

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Chap 18_16e 89. Which of the following individuals is taking what is best described as an aptitude test? a. Su-Ki is observed for her oral communication skills. b. Peter is given an interview by a hiring committee. c. Leon’s job performance is evaluated by his subordinates. d. Zing is asked whether she prefers reading historical or contemporary novels.

90. What is done in environmental assessment? a. the measurement and analysis of the effects that an environment has on the behavior and perceptions of people within that environment b. the measurement and testing of the effects that an environment has on the blunting of the sensitivity of people within that environment c. the measurement and synthesis of the effects that an environment has only on the perceptions of people within that environment d. the measurement and feedback of the effects that an environment has on the behavior of people within that environment 91. Gano uses a website to monitor his consumption of fossil fuels and the amount of greenhouse gases that are released by the fuel's production and use. Gano is using the website to calculate his a. environmental footprint. b. ecological footprint. c. environmental assessment. d. carbon footprint.

92. In the context of psychological testing for appropriate careers, which of the following is the best example of an occupation that has a "conventional" vocational interest theme? a. clerk b. mechanic c. sales d. writer 93. Nobie is managing a stockbrokerage and divides his employees into three smaller groups. Each group is given the opportunity to develop a goal and allowed to work together while choosing their own methods for achieving results. Nobie is establishing a. self-managed teams. b. quality circles. c. a Theory X leadership style. d. management by objective methods of leadership.

94. Which of the following is the best example of flexplace? a. Alice can work from home. b. Frank chooses the location of the newest branch of his company. c. Gretchen visits the "supervisors only" break room. d. Luke leaves a large business to manage a small nonprofit.

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Chap 18_16e 95. The number of people in a given space or, inversely, the amount of space available to each person is referred to as a. density. b. personal space. c. crowding. d. territorial marking.

96. What principles are applied to the process of choosing a jury? a. social science principles b. basic math principles c. social engineering principles d. legal principles 97. Which is the definition of forensic psychology? a. study of clinical aspects of the law b. study of juries and their behavior c. study of DNA evidence presented during trials d. study of scientific evidence used by lawmakers 98. Which one of the given techniques are followed by the athletes to adjust their degree of arousal during events? a. imagery and relaxation techniques b. cognitive and behavioral techniques c. self-regulation strategies d. coping techniques 99. In the context of psychological testing for appropriate careers, which of the following is the closest vocational interest theme for a “chemist” occupation? a. investigative b. enterprising c. conventional d. realistic 100. Cedric is installing a new water heater in his house. His old water heater worked fine and he couldn't afford to pay for an upgrade, but he received a rebate for purchasing an energy-efficient model. By offering rebates, the manufacturer of the new water heater is a. dismantling social dilemmas. b. using personalized normative feedback. c. using social norms marketing. d. applying the tragedy of the commons to Cedric's situation.

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Chap 18_16e 101. Kaija is not opposed to the death penalty and is being evaluated as a potential jury member in a murder trial. She is a minority group member from a low-income background, is politically liberal, and has an authoritative personality. Kaija is a. more likely to be selected to serve on the jury. b. equally likely to serve on the jury because death-qualified jury selection is not affected by demographic factors. c. less likely to be selected to serve on the jury. d. more likely to be selected to serve on the jury, and if serving as a juror, she is less likely to vote for a conviction.

102. Which of the following is the best example of a critical incident? a. ability of a police officer to calmly talk down an active shooter b. ability of an employee to negotiate a high starting salary c. ability of a teacher to maximize the number of "A" grades given at the end of the term d. ability of an actor to win a major professional award 103. Which evaluation is most likely to reveal employee strengths and weaknesses? a. situational judgment test b. in-basket test c. 360-degree feedback d. leaderless group discussion 104. In the context of control and conservation, which of the following is implementing the most sound conservation practices? a. Jamie buys a new car that displays real-time gas mileage on its dashboard and can run on regular gas or ethanol blended gas. b. Hamm installs a new programmable thermostat in his house. c. Natalia reads her water bill carefully to see how much water she is using during the daytime hours. d. Sonya installs solar panels on her garage roof to heat water.

105. It really helps if conservation is seen as a(n) a. group effort. b. individual effort. c. global effort. d. psychologist's effort.

106. Cassius is learning to box and needs to practice his skills. Which of the following practice options would be most effective? a. using a punching bag b. jumping rope c. sparring with another boxer d. boxing with his shadow

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Chap 18_16e 107. Which of the following is the best example of job satisfaction? a. Honsai enjoys his duties at work, feels like he has the necessary abilities to succeed, and is expecting a raise. b. Joanne is working a job that has flexible hours, feels that her coworkers are happy, and is comfortable staying where she is at in her abilities. c. Lena feels fairly rewarded for her work, enjoys her supervisors, and likes the tasks she is assigned. d. Melanie is hoping for a raise for doing a good job because she knows her skills are superior to the other workers in her area.

108. Which of the following is a mainstay of personnel psychology? a. aptitude tests b. physical strength tests c. intelligence tests d. vocational interest tests 109. Selva is studying eyewitness testimony, insanity pleas, and criminal personality. It is most likely that Selva is interested in a. the tragedy of the commons. b. legal psychology. c. educational psychology. d. discovery learning.

110. Which is the outcome of John Calhoun’s study involving allowing rats to breed uncontrollably? a. Most of the rats were able to share the small space evenly. b. Three of the rats took over most of the middle of the area, leaving only the outer edges for all other rats. c. Two male rats took over the outer edges, crowding the rest of the rats into a very small middle area. d. The rats spontaneously stopped breeding when there was no more room to house additional rats comfortably.

111. Pavla has an authoritarian personality. Pavla is a. more likely to vote for a conviction as a juror. b. less likely to vote for a conviction as a juror. c. as likely as any other juror to vote for a conviction because personality type doesn't affect the fairness of jurors. d. less likely to be selected as a juror in a criminal case involving the death penalty.

112. Tragedy of the commons is defined as a. a social dilemma in which individuals, each acting in his or her immediate self-interest, overuse a scarce group resource. b. a persuasion technique that seeks to change attitudes by making explicit relevant social norms in order to foster compliance. c. a technique where people are much more likely to recycle if proper attention is given to psychological factors that promote recycling behavior. d. a continuous feedback about energy usage to both consumers and their energy suppliers.

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Chap 18_16e 113. Serena is a competitor in a sporting event. She feels that her physical, mental, and emotional states are harmonious and optimal. Serena is experiencing a. peak performance. b. a motor program. c. a task analysis. d. mental imagery.

114. Which is included in forensic psychology? a. helping to select police cadets b. assessing the qualifications of clinicians c. assessing the qualifications of jurors d. Understanding the role judges play in trials 115. Which of the following is the best example of a behavioral setting? a. prison cell b. forest c. hospital d. university 116. Which of the following is a stressful and intrusive sound, usually artificially generated? a. noise pollution b. house noise c. crowd noise d. proxemics 117. Mel was eager to apply Theory X leadership methods at her real estate business. However, after three months, absenteeism is high, employee turnover has increased, and worker morale is low. Mel's employees are showing a. communal dependence. b. low job satisfaction. c. agentic characteristics. d. high job enrichment interests.

118. Whenever personal comfort or convenience is involved, it is highly tempting to a. let others worry about it. b. turn the worry to the psychologists. c. turn the worry to the conservationists. d. turn the worry to lawmakers.

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Chap 18_16e 119. A bus depot or a waiting room are smaller areas within an environment whose use is well defined. Pick the best term to define this environmental setting. a. behavioral setting b. social environment c. natural settings d. public space 120. Which of the following best describes a full view method to evaluate an employee? a. 90-degree view b. 180-degree analysis c. 270-degree assessment d. 360-degree feedback 121. In an employment setting, biodata is most often used for which of the following? a. predicting future behavior b. assessing employee satisfaction c. assessing employees' values d. assigning tasks 122. How can an organization best deal with desk rage? a. Express sincere gratitude for others’ efforts. b. Declare mistakes immediately. c. Organize a company-wide “tolerance and dignity” day. d. Show competitiveness.

123. Mylo wants to increase his employee's productivity. After doing some research by using task analysis and timeand-motions studies, he decides to implement a few changes. Mylo sets up an assembly line, specializes each job on the line, and regularly schedules paydays for his employees. Mylo is applying a. Theory X leadership methods. b. Theory Y leadership methods. c. person-oriented leadership methods. d. transformational leadership methods.

124. Which of the following people is the best example of using a smart meter? a. illustrating monthly water use to a utility customer b. rationing energy use equitably among all customers c. choosing to disconnect power to a wasteful customer d. rationing energy supply during times of high-power usage

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Chap 18_16e 125. A performance during which physical, mental, and emotional states are harmonious and optimal is referred to as a. peak performance. b. skilled performance. c. team cooperation. d. expert performance.

126. The volume of greenhouse gases that individual consumption adds to the atmosphere is referred to as a. carbon footprint. b. ecological footprint. c. carbon debt. d. carbon neutrality.

127. Which of the following is added by psychologists to the existing urban problems which are a major source of urban stress? a. overstimulation b. crime c. impersonality d. pollution 128. You can keep track of them in a career-related journal called Portfolio. ''Them'' here relates to a. your key learning experiences. b. your skill set. c. your career path. d. your educational qualifications.

129. Latka is recruiting a professional to assist in the jury selection process. Which kind of person is Latka seeking? a. a lawyer b. a legal psychologist c. a forensic psychologist d. a paralegal 130. Delcina needs to relocate to a warmer climate for health reasons. She doesn't want to lose her job and asks her boss if she can shift her work duties to data entry and work from her home. Delcina is interested in a. applying flextime to her job. b. applying flexplace to her job. c. applying a compressed workweek to her job. d. seeking job enrichment at her work environment.

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Chap 18_16e 131. Inbee is working on her golf swing. Instead of breaking it down into smaller parts, Inbee practices her golf swing by slowly going through the entire motion of making the backswing and then swinging forward through the ball in one fluid motion. Inbee is practicing her golf swing using a(n) a. natural unit. b. artificial part. c. motor program. d. other-regulation strategy.

132. Which of the following is the best example of a death-qualified juror? a. My sister murdered her spouse and explained to me why she did so. b. A member of my family was murdered. c. I am willing to impose the death penalty. d. I have studied application of the death penalty in the United States.

133. Tyne is taking over her family's auto repair business and wants to emphasize human relations with her employees. Tyne has a person orientation rather than a task orientation and believes that her employees enjoy autonomy, are willing to accept responsibility, and have needs and goals that can be meshed with her business's goals. Tyne doesn't ask her employees to be directly involved in decision-making or problem solving. Tyne's approach to leadership favors a. Theory X leadership methods. b. Theory Y leadership methods. c. transformational leadership methods. d. shared leadership methods.

134. Who is hired by industries, government, or businesses to select, train, or evaluate people? a. organizational psychologists b. critics c. therapists d. demographers 135. Which situational test simulates group decision making and problem solving? a. Leaderless Group Discussion b. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory c. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey d. Vocational interest test 136. Rahimah is studying the territorial behavior of kinship groups in New Guinea. Rahimah is most likely a(n) a. personnel psychologist. b. environmental psychologist. c. architectural psychologist. d. ecological psychologist.

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Chap 18_16e 137. When Lilly walks down crowded sidewalks on her way to work in the city, she ignores street musicians and passersby, maintains a cold and unfriendly expression, and uses only superficial greetings with the elevator operators on the way to the floor she works on. Lilly may be using a blunted sensitivity toward others on her way to work to a. prevent attentional overload. b. avoid losing defensible space. c. mark territory. d. prevent critical incidents.

138. Which is one of the points discussed to obtain optimal skill learning? a. Seek feedback. b. Observe an amateur. c. Practice in an artificial environment. d. Break up the task into small artificial chunks.

139. Which of the following statement relates to the term e-portfolio? a. a digital collection of printed examples of a person’s accomplishments and work b. a collection of printed examples of a person’s accomplishments and work. c. the total collection of information that is available about you on the internet d. detailed biographical information about a job applicant 140. Which of the following is the best example of engaging in impression management? a. Amanda dresses professionally before speaking with a recruiter. b. Elizabeth diplomatically responds to workplace disputes. c. Quentin explains to his children that athletic aptitude is valued. d. Lauren works hard at a prestigious law school.

141. What can showcase examples of your work as well as relevant photos? a. e-portfolio b. e-resume c. LinkedIn d. Portfolio 142. What is sports psychology? a. the study of psychological and behavioral dimensions of sports performance b. the study of athletic behaviors during competition c. the study of exercise and nutrition d. the study of clinical aspects of sports injuries

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Chap 18_16e 143. Most of the time, scientific jury selection is an advantage of only the a. wealthy. b. poor. c. attorneys. d. psychologists.

144. The statement "one person's music is another's grating noise" suggest that when in confined living spaces, a. individual earphones can help reduce stress from crowding when listening to music. b. people in confined living spaces don't like listening to music. c. people in restricted environment don't enjoy solitary pastimes. d. noise is annoying in confined environments but it doesn't disrupt sleeping habits.

145. When behavior patterns change over time in space stations, being able to control one’s environment helps to a. lower stress. b. increase stress. c. give privacy. d. eliminate stress.

146. What is work efficiency in the context of an organization or an industry? a. maximum output at lowest cost b. minimal output at the lowest cost c. maximum output at medium cost d. maximum output at maximum cost 147. In the context of control and conservation, which of the following is making the smallest carbon footprint? a. Gamba is planting trees in his backyard for shade. b. Sunny is using hot water to wash her car. c. Leon is recycling motor oil for fuel. d. Sharree is tilling a field with a tractor to plant soybeans.

148. Which is the first point to be followed for optimal skill learning, according to sports studies? a. observing and imitating a skilled model b. learning verbal rules to back up motor learning c. getting feedback from a mirror d. practicing natural units then breaking the task into artificial parts

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Chap 18_16e 149. Which of the following managers has the best understanding of job enrichment? a. Khaza gives direct feedback to her workers and for safety reasons limits the freedom of the employees to make decisions. b. Shane hired trainers to present information on new technologies being implemented at the company he works for and lets his employees complete the training without direct feedback on how much they improved. c. Linda let her employees switch to doing a complete cycle of work and allows them to rearrange their work areas to fit their physical needs. d. Jeb implemented new safety rules after asking his employees about the areas in which they felt unsafe at work.

150. In which of the following are complex skills broken into subparts so that key elements can be identified and taught? a. task analysis b. job analysis c. critical analysis d. sub-parts analysis 151. Winston owns a chemical company that uses 100 million gallons of water a day to clean its production facilities.

His company's water use is measured as a(n) a. ecological footprint. b. carbon footprint. c. tragedy of the commons. d. environmental assessment.

152. Which of the following is seen as most effective in today's global economic climate? a. Theory X leadership b. Theory Y agentic leadership c. Theory Y communal leadership d. transformational leadership 153. Which information did a college campus place on recycling bins that increased usage by 65 percent? a. running total of cans deposited b. total cans deposited the week before c. total cans deposited during the current month d. total cans set as a goal to collect for the month 154. According to the textbook, in terms of following a job description, which of the following astronauts is most likely to succeed in their job? a. Andy gives instructions only to his direct subordinates. b. Jerry listens to all the orders he is given. c. Jaylene strives to fulfill his piloting duties to the best of his ability. d. Steve takes it upon himself to be a mentor to junior astronauts.

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Chap 18_16e 155. Yolanda is an environmental psychologist studying the behavior of sports team fans when traveling as a group on a bus. In the case of Yolanda's research, being in a group on a bus is the a. social environment. b. situational judgment test. c. critical incident. d. performance appraisal.

156. Which of the following best illustrates an organizational culture? a. whether a suit or a tie is required attire b. testing whether an employee requires assistants c. which activities are necessary to perform a job d. details of your employees’ personal lives 157. Marta is the defendant in a criminal court case. During the trial, her lawyer tells her to wear eyeglasses. Highly qualified expert witnesses are called by the defense to give testimony, and Mart's lawyer "slips out" unsavory information about the prosecution's witnesses during questioning, but it is stricken from the record. All evidence put aside, Marta is a. more likely to be convicted for her crime. b. less likely to be convicted for her crime. c. more likely to be convicted and receive a maximum sentence. d. more likely to be convicted and receive a minimal sentence.

158. Someone with high job satisfaction would be most likely to agree with which statement? a. I am proud of the work I accomplished. b. We completed our project in advance of the deadline. c. My coworkers received a raise. d. My job is easy.

159. Some of the findings of jury research are unsettling because a. jurors are rarely able to put aside their biases while decision making. b. jurors are unable to decide upon the witnesses presented while decision making. c. jurors do not receive enough evidence and material. d. jurors form an opinion early in the trial and stick to it.

160. Which of the following is best described as an assessment center? a. where you are interviewed and observed for a managerial role b. where you are given a personality test c. where you are evaluated by your superiors d. where you are evaluated by your subordinates

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Chap 18_16e 161. A pattern of behavior that contributes to many environmental problems is called a. a social dilemma. b. an escaping dilemma. c. personalized normative feedback. d. negligence and overuse.

162. Which of the following is an approach to leadership that emphasizes work efficiency? a. theory X leadership b. theory Y leadership c. transformational leadership d. shared leadership 163. What is meant by attentional overload? a. A stressful condition caused when sensory stimulation, information, and social contacts make excessive demands on attention b. A stressful condition caused when sensory stimulation, information, and social contacts make no demands on attention c. A stressful condition caused when sensory stimulation and stressful and intrusive noise make demands on attention d. A stressful condition caused when crowding overstimulates and loss of privacy makes no demands on attention 164. A smaller area within an environment whose use is well defined is referred to as a a. behavioral setting. b. social environment. c. social setting. d. physical environment.

165. Simon is attempting to show one of his trainees the steps involved in a complex situation. Which is Simon demonstrating? a. task analysis b. behavioral analysis c. performance evaluation d. program assessment 166. Which of the following is best described as a social environment? a. mathematics club b. shared office cubicles c. speech and debate classroom d. religious bookstore

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Chap 18_16e 167. Who provides personal counseling for handling performance, lowering stresses, and conflicts? a. a psychologist b. a personal manager c. a captain d. a physiotherapist 168. In the United States, murder trials may require a special jury, the one made up of people a. who are not opposed to the death penalty. b. who are opposed to the death penalty. c. who may or may not be opposed to the death penalty. d. with authoritarian personality traits.

169. Who have found that top shooters consistently squeeze the trigger between heartbeats? a. sports psychologists b. critics of gun laws c. intellectuals d. psychiatrists 170. Johann is preparing to enter the workforce. He is uploading his resume, making videos of him performing jobrelated skills, and posting photos that document his achievements and examples of his writing. Johann is most likely creating a(n) a. e-portfolio. b. profile. c. Facebook page. d. Twitter account.

171. What is a group that realistically simulates a courtroom jury? a. mock jury b. balanced jury c. scientific jury d. special jury 172. Exposure to toxic hazards, such as radiation, pesticides, and industrial chemicals, leads to an elevated risk of a. physical and mental illness. b. the extinction of animals. c. holes in the ozone layer. d. polluted lands.

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Chap 18_16e 173. Reagen wants to drive to work for convenience, but he also wants to reduce his carbon footprint. Burning fossil fuels leaves him with more carbon debt than he can offset. Reagen is experiencing a a. tragedy of the commons. b. carbon-neutral lifestyle. c. social norms marketing moment. d. social dilemma.

174. Community psychology is defined as a. the field that integrates many approaches to promote positive change and health. b. the study of the psychological and behavioral dimensions of the teachers who teach. c. the study of the psychological dimensions of the people in a specific geographic location. d. the field that seeks to understand how members of a local region can coexist peacefully.

175. Which branch of psychology has developed by leaps and bounds and has been a major contributor in the detailed study of complex skills? a. sports psychology b. educational psychology c. applied psychology d. developmental psychology 176. Which describes the application of psychological science to the law? a. legal psychology b. environmental psychology c. community psychology d. sports psychology 177. Nomusa is enjoying a concert by working her way to the front of the stage through a mass of people. While the density of the population is very high at the concert, Nomusa is comfortable. However, Nomusa is suddenly lifted up by other concertgoers and they begin body passing her above the audience. Now Nomusa is feeling overstimulated and stressed by a loss of control and experiencing a. territorial behavior. b. attentional overload. c. crowding. d. the tragedy of the commons.

178. Which of the following is implementing the most effective approach to applying environmental influences on behavior? a. Neil arranged the isles in his store like a maze and removed the doors from the restroom stalls. b. Barb placed benches for shoppers to rest on near signs in the store's parking lot and upgraded the locks on the doors to the restroom stalls. c. Laura added checkout lanes to reduce congestion in the store and upgraded the locks on the bathroom stalls. d. Jenni removed the flowers next to signs in the store's parking lot to increase parking space and removed the doors to the stalls in the bathrooms.

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Chap 18_16e 179. Which of the following is the best example of a Theory X leader? a. Isaiah wants his accountants to find a cheap yet functional hotel for the upcoming business conference, with amenities that everyone will enjoy. b. Ricardo requires his law firm employees to put in 12-hour workdays, six days per week, and does not approve of “idle chitchat” when you are at your desk. c. Hector encourages his computer programmers to pursue their own creative projects that are in line with company goals. d. Dion fired a senior chemist who did not routinely complete the company’s weekly work progress forms.

Indicate one or more answer choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

180. Which of the following is the best example of a transformative leader? a. Elena encourages her professors to see their work as making a valuable contribution to society and gives opportunities for further professional development. b. William requires his secretaries to work from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m., five days per week, and requires everyone to fully complete their daily tasks. c. Georgina tells her secretaries that other departments must be carefully overseen or the company’s product launches will not met their assigned schedules. d. Chu assigns each new security guard to a major department store, such that they can apply their lessons learned to subsequent assignments.

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Chap 18_16e Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. a

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Chap 18_16e 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_16e 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. a 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. a 78. a 79. c 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_16e 83. a 84. a 85. d 86. a 87. a 88. b 89. a 90. a 91. d 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. a 101. c 102. a 103. c 104. a 105. a 106. c 107. c 108. a 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_16e 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. a 116. a 117. b 118. a 119. a 120. d 121. a 122. a 123. a 124. a 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. a 129. b 130. b 131. a 132. c 133. b 134. a 135. a 136. b 137. a

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Chap 18_16e 138. a 139. a 140. a 141. a 142. a 143. a 144. a 145. a 146. a 147. a 148. a 149. c 150. a 151. a 152. d 153. b 154. d 155. a 156. a 157. b 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. a 162. a 163. a 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_16e 166. a 167. a 168. a 169. a 170. a 171. a 172. a 173. d 174. a 175. a 176. a 177. c 178. a 179. a 180. a

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