TEST BANK for Plants and Society, 8th Edition, by Estelle Levetin, Karen McMahon, ISBN10: 1259880044 by StudyGuide

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 1 Plants in Our Lives 1) The consumption of meat by humans indirectly makes them ________. A) primary consumers B) secondary consumers C) primary producers D) secondary producers E) herbivores 2) The process of photosynthesis produces these two end products: A) carbon dioxide and sugar B) oxygen and sugar C) carbon dioxide and oxygen D) water and carbon dioxide E) water and sugar 3) Which of the following are the sexual parts of a flower? A) stamens and carpels B) carpels and sepals C) sepals and petals D) stamens and sepals E) All of these are the sexual parts of a flower. 4) Which of the following is the study of the classification of plants? A) Ethnobotany B) Mycology C) Systematics D) Phycology E) Palynology 5) Which of the following is not a defined property of life? A) Growth and reproduction B) Ability to respond to the environment C) Organized structure D) Ability to adapt and evolve as a population E) All of the above are properties of life. 6) All of the following except one are examples of monocots. Choose the exception. A) grasses B) orchids C) dandelions D) lilies E) All of these are examples of monocots.

7) What is the main importance of gymnosperms to human societies? A) their seeds are important food sources B) medicines for a wide variety of illnesses C) wood for construction, fuel, and paper D) floral arrangements E) both their use as medicines and seeds for food 8) Toxic algal blooms are becoming more common due to which of the following? A) natural causes B) over harvesting of fish and other marine species C) increased recreational activities on lakes and streams D) increased nutrient pollution E) More than one of these reasons are correct. 9) The most serious cause of crop loss is plant diseases caused by which of the following? A) fungi B) bacteria C) viruses D) insects E) global warming 10) The Kingdom Fungi include which of the following organisms? A) Molds B) Mildews C) Yeast D) Mushrooms E) All of the above are classified as fungi. 11) Which of the following is an important role that fungi play? A) decomposers B) fermenters C) antibiotic producers D) food source E) All of these are important roles played by the Fungi. 12) What is the first step of hypothesis-driven science? A) Hypothesis B) Observation C) Experimentation D) Publication E) Formulating a theory

13) Which of the following is the best definition of a scientific theory? A) an explanation that is always supported by the facts and has never been disproved B) an educated guess C) a tentative explanation for an observed phenomenon D) an observation observed so many times it is considered a fact E) an undeniable truth supported by scientific evidence 14) The part of the Osage orange that was biologically mimicked by barbed wire to "tame the West" was its ________. A) "hedge apples" B) shaggy bark C) bright orange wood D) thorny branches E) repellant chemicals 15) The opposite metabolic "partner" of photosynthesis is which of the following processes? A) digestion B) cellular respiration C) ventilation (breathing) D) production of hormones E) DNA replication 16) Which of the following is not found in prokaryotic cells? A) ribosomes B) cell membrane C) nucleus D) DNA or RNA E) cytoplasm 17) Which of the following is not necessary for an individual to survive? A) metabolism B) organized structure C) organic composition D) ability to respond to the environment E) reproduction 18) Hereditary information in the cell is carried in which of the following? A) carbohydrates B) nucleic acids C) proteins D) lipids E) More than one of the above are correct.

19) Of the four molecules of life, which of the following is not a major organic group of the human diet? A) nucleic acids B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) proteins E) All of these are major organic groups of the human diet. 20) Which of the following is the proper order from least complex molecule to most complex? A) glucose >> glycogen >> maltose B) sucrose >> glucose >> starch C) glucose >> maltose >> starch D) maltose >> glucose >> sucrose E) glycogen >> starch >> sucrose 21) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) Many carbohydrates such as glucose are sources of energy for cells. B) Glucose and fructose are monosaccharides. C) The general formula for a six-carbon monosaccharide is C6H12O6. D) Disaccharides are composed of two monosaccharides. E) All of the above are correct. 22) The browning of apples is caused by the interaction of ________ and oxygen. A) terpenes B) alkaloids C) glycosides D) phenolics E) resins 23) Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be used as an energy food source for humans? A) cellulose B) glucose C) fructose D) starch E) sucrose 24) Glycogen is an energy storage molecule for which of the following organisms? A) bacteria B) plants C) animals D) fungi E) All of the above organisms except plants can store glycogen.

25) Amino acids are the subunits of which of the following? A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) nucleic acids D) polypeptides and proteins E) More than one of the above are correct. 26) Which type of lipid is most important in biological membranes? A) fats B) steroids C) phospholipids D) oils E) triglycerides 27) Flowering plants are classified as which of the following? A) gymnosperms B) conifers C) angiosperms D) fungi E) ferns 28) Which of the following secondary compounds are structurally similar to neurotransmitters and are mostly psychoactive? A) saponins B) tannins C) flavonoids D) terpenes E) alkaloids 29) A biochemist discovers a molecule with a structure consisting of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base. This molecule is most likely classified as which of the following? A) protein B) carbohydrate C) nucleic acid D) lipid E) secondary metabolite 30) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Nucleic acids are composed of repeating units called nucleotides. B) A nucleotide consists of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. C) DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid. D) The sequence of bases in DNA make up genes. E) All of the above are correct.

31) All of the following are characteristics of fungi except one. Choose the exception. A) reproduction by seeds B) nonphotosynthetic cells C) store glucose as glycogen D) many are decomposers of organic matter E) All of these are characteristics of the fungi. 32) The four parts of a typical angiosperm flower are ________, ________, ________, and ________. 33) The two groups of flowering plants are ________ and ________. 34) Whereas angiosperms produce seeds in ________, most gymnosperms produce seeds in ________. 35) In science, a tentative explanation for an observation is called a(n) ________. 36) The invention of Velcro was inspired by the plant ________. 37) Sucrose is a disaccharide consisting of ________ and ________. 38) One difference between RNA and DNA is that DNA contains the nitrogenous base ________, whereas RNA contains the nitrogenous base ________. 39) Amino acids are attached to each other in a protein by ________ bonds. 40) Amino acids differ from each other by the structure of their ________. 41) Starch is a carbohydrate form of energy storage in ________. 42) A polysaccharide that is a structural component of plant cell walls is starch. 43) The true algae comprise a group of eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms that are found mostly in aquatic environments, where they often form the base of the food chain. 44) DNA consists of complementary base pairs of AT and GC; RNA consists of base pairs AU and GC. 45) An angiosperm fruit develops from the flower part called the carpel. 46) Of all the algae, only the brown algae are considered part of the plant kingdom. 47) Fungi and plants form a symbiotic relationship known as lichens. 48) Cocklebur is the plant that inspired the invention of barbed wire. 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 1 Plants in Our Lives 1) The consumption of meat by humans indirectly makes them ________. A) primary consumers B) secondary consumers C) primary producers D) secondary producers E) herbivores Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) The process of photosynthesis produces these two end products: A) carbon dioxide and sugar B) oxygen and sugar C) carbon dioxide and oxygen D) water and carbon dioxide E) water and sugar Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Which of the following are the sexual parts of a flower? A) stamens and carpels B) carpels and sepals C) sepals and petals D) stamens and sepals E) All of these are the sexual parts of a flower. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4) Which of the following is the study of the classification of plants? A) Ethnobotany B) Mycology C) Systematics D) Phycology E) Palynology Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

5) Which of the following is not a defined property of life? A) Growth and reproduction B) Ability to respond to the environment C) Organized structure D) Ability to adapt and evolve as a population E) All of the above are properties of life. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) All of the following except one are examples of monocots. Choose the exception. A) grasses B) orchids C) dandelions D) lilies E) All of these are examples of monocots. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) What is the main importance of gymnosperms to human societies? A) their seeds are important food sources B) medicines for a wide variety of illnesses C) wood for construction, fuel, and paper D) floral arrangements E) both their use as medicines and seeds for food Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Toxic algal blooms are becoming more common due to which of the following? A) natural causes B) over harvesting of fish and other marine species C) increased recreational activities on lakes and streams D) increased nutrient pollution E) More than one of these reasons are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

9) The most serious cause of crop loss is plant diseases caused by which of the following? A) fungi B) bacteria C) viruses D) insects E) global warming Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) The Kingdom Fungi include which of the following organisms? A) Molds B) Mildews C) Yeast D) Mushrooms E) All of the above are classified as fungi. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Which of the following is an important role that fungi play? A) decomposers B) fermenters C) antibiotic producers D) food source E) All of these are important roles played by the Fungi. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) What is the first step of hypothesis-driven science? A) Hypothesis B) Observation C) Experimentation D) Publication E) Formulating a theory Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

13) Which of the following is the best definition of a scientific theory? A) an explanation that is always supported by the facts and has never been disproved B) an educated guess C) a tentative explanation for an observed phenomenon D) an observation observed so many times it is considered a fact E) an undeniable truth supported by scientific evidence Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) The part of the Osage orange that was biologically mimicked by barbed wire to "tame the West" was its ________. A) "hedge apples" B) shaggy bark C) bright orange wood D) thorny branches E) repellant chemicals Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) The opposite metabolic "partner" of photosynthesis is which of the following processes? A) digestion B) cellular respiration C) ventilation (breathing) D) production of hormones E) DNA replication Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) Which of the following is not found in prokaryotic cells? A) ribosomes B) cell membrane C) nucleus D) DNA or RNA E) cytoplasm Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

17) Which of the following is not necessary for an individual to survive? A) metabolism B) organized structure C) organic composition D) ability to respond to the environment E) reproduction Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Hereditary information in the cell is carried in which of the following? A) carbohydrates B) nucleic acids C) proteins D) lipids E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) Of the four molecules of life, which of the following is not a major organic group of the human diet? A) nucleic acids B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) proteins E) All of these are major organic groups of the human diet. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) Which of the following is the proper order from least complex molecule to most complex? A) glucose >> glycogen >> maltose B) sucrose >> glucose >> starch C) glucose >> maltose >> starch D) maltose >> glucose >> sucrose E) glycogen >> starch >> sucrose Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

21) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) Many carbohydrates such as glucose are sources of energy for cells. B) Glucose and fructose are monosaccharides. C) The general formula for a six-carbon monosaccharide is C6H12O6. D) Disaccharides are composed of two monosaccharides. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) The browning of apples is caused by the interaction of ________ and oxygen. A) terpenes B) alkaloids C) glycosides D) phenolics E) resins Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be used as an energy food source for humans? A) cellulose B) glucose C) fructose D) starch E) sucrose Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Glycogen is an energy storage molecule for which of the following organisms? A) bacteria B) plants C) animals D) fungi E) All of the above organisms except plants can store glycogen. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

25) Amino acids are the subunits of which of the following? A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) nucleic acids D) polypeptides and proteins E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Which type of lipid is most important in biological membranes? A) fats B) steroids C) phospholipids D) oils E) triglycerides Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Flowering plants are classified as which of the following? A) gymnosperms B) conifers C) angiosperms D) fungi E) ferns Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Which of the following secondary compounds are structurally similar to neurotransmitters and are mostly psychoactive? A) saponins B) tannins C) flavonoids D) terpenes E) alkaloids Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

29) A biochemist discovers a molecule with a structure consisting of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base. This molecule is most likely classified as which of the following? A) protein B) carbohydrate C) nucleic acid D) lipid E) secondary metabolite Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Nucleic acids are composed of repeating units called nucleotides. B) A nucleotide consists of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. C) DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid. D) The sequence of bases in DNA make up genes. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) All of the following are characteristics of fungi except one. Choose the exception. A) reproduction by seeds B) nonphotosynthetic cells C) store glucose as glycogen D) many are decomposers of organic matter E) All of these are characteristics of the fungi. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) The four parts of a typical angiosperm flower are ________, ________, ________, and ________. Answer: sepals; petals; stamen; carpels Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

33) The two groups of flowering plants are ________ and ________. Answer: monocots; dicots Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Whereas angiosperms produce seeds in ________, most gymnosperms produce seeds in ________. Answer: fruits; cones Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) In science, a tentative explanation for an observation is called a(n) ________. Answer: hypothesis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) The invention of Velcro was inspired by the plant ________. Answer: cocklebur Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Sucrose is a disaccharide consisting of ________ and ________. Answer: fructose; glucose Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) One difference between RNA and DNA is that DNA contains the nitrogenous base ________, whereas RNA contains the nitrogenous base ________. Answer: thymine; uracil Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) Amino acids are attached to each other in a protein by ________ bonds. Answer: peptide Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) Amino acids differ from each other by the structure of their ________. Answer: R-groups Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) Starch is a carbohydrate form of energy storage in ________. Answer: plants Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) A polysaccharide that is a structural component of plant cell walls is starch. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) The true algae comprise a group of eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms that are found mostly in aquatic environments, where they often form the base of the food chain. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) DNA consists of complementary base pairs of AT and GC; RNA consists of base pairs AU and GC. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) An angiosperm fruit develops from the flower part called the carpel. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Of all the algae, only the brown algae are considered part of the plant kingdom. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

47) Fungi and plants form a symbiotic relationship known as lichens. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Cocklebur is the plant that inspired the invention of barbed wire. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 2 The Plant Cell 1) The biological term, "cell" came about through the study of ________ cells. A) tomato B) wood C) bone D) cork E) blood 2) Which of the following is not a statement of the Cell Theory? A) All cells arise from preexisting cells. B) All cells contain the hereditary material, DNA. C) All organisms are made up of cells. D) The cell is the basic unit of life. E) All of the above are correct statements about the Cell Theory. 3) Who among the scientists listed below was not directly involved in the development of the Cell Theory? A) Hooke B) Schleiden C) Schwann D) Virchow E) All of these men were involved in the development of the Cell Theory. 4) The Cell Theory is categorized as which of the following? A) an educated guess B) a hypothesis that is in need of testing C) a speculative idea D) untested but quite probable E) an explanation accepted as a major principle of biology 5) The primary cell wall of a plant ________. A) consists of cellulose and lignin B) forms inside of the secondary cell wall C) consists primarily of cellulose D) gives wood its characteristic flexibility E) is described by more than one of these characteristics 6) Which of the following is found only in a plant cell? A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Chloroplasts E) Ribosomes 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) Which of the following statements about lignin is not correct? A) Lignin is indigestible by all organisms. B) In trees, lignin is more abundant in softwood species than hardwood species. C) Lignin protects the plant from pathogens. D) Lignin is found in secondary cell walls. E) Lignin is not found in primary cell walls. 8) Movement of materials from one plant cell to another is accomplished through which of the following? A) the cytosol B) the middle lamella C) microtubules D) plasmodesmata E) the cytoskeleton 9) Which of the following serves as the "cement" that glues plant cells together? A) cytosol B) lignin C) cellulose D) the cytoskeleton E) pectin 10) If you could travel from the inside of one plant cell into an adjacent plant cell, in what order would you find the following plant cell structures listed below? A) cytoplasm, plasma membrane, cell wall, middle lamella B) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, middle lamella, cell wall C) cytoplasm, plasma membrane, middle lamella, cell wall D) cytoplasm, middle lamella, plasma membrane, cell wall E) None of the above are correct. 11) Microtubules and microfilaments comprise the structure of which of the following? A) cell wall B) plasmodesmata C) plasma membrane D) middle lamella E) cytoskeleton 12) A plant plasma membrane is made up of ________ and ________. A) cellulose; lignin B) phospholipids; carbohydrates C) phospholipids; proteins D) cellulose; cholesterol E) phospholipids; cholesterol

13) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The plasma membrane is selectively permeable (differentially permeable). B) The movement of water across the membrane is called facilitated diffusion. C) Osmosis is a form of dialysis. D) Diffusion and dialysis are usually the same process. E) None of the above are correct. 14) If the proptoplast of plant cell A is hypertonic to the protoplast of adjacent plant cell B. Which way will water flow? A) From A to B B) From B to A C) Equally from B to A and A to B D) There will be no flow of water whatsoever E) None of the above are correct. 15) When a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the cell becomes ________. A) hypertonic B) plasmolyzed C) turgid D) osmotic E) flaccid 16) The free movement of water across a membrane is called ________. A) active transport B) simple diffusion C) plasmolysis D) osmosis E) dialysis 17) Of these three items - concentration gradient, energy, membrane proteins - which two are needed for active transport to take place? A) only a concentration gradient B) all three are needed for active transport to take place C) a concentration gradient and energy D) a concentration gradient and membrane proteins E) energy and membrane proteins 18) In drought conditions when soils are dry for long periods of time, plants cells become ________. A) hypertonic B) plasmolyzed C) turgid D) osmotic E) hydrated

19) ________ is(are) necessary for diffusion to take place. A) A cell membrane B) Membrane proteins C) Energy D) A concentration gradient E) More than one of the above are required. 20) Which of the following pigments is most abundant in chloroplasts? A) carotene B) xanthophyll C) melanin D) chlorophyll E) tannins 21) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Chloroplasts, leucoplasts, and chromoplasts are collectively called plastids. B) Amyloplasts are filled with plant oils. C) Mitochondria provides a location for photosynthesis to take place. D) Stroma holds adjacent plant cells together. E) Neither chloroplasts nor mitochondria are viewed as endosymbionts. 22) Plant pigments are specifically located within which of the following? A) thylakoid membranes. B) stroma C) plasma membranes D) nuclei E) golgi apparatus 23) Which of the following is not correct? A) During cellular respiration, glucose is chemically broken down to carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. B) The inner membrane of mitochondria has numerous infoldings called cristae. C) The matrix of mitochondria contains enzymes used in cellular respiration. D) In some cells, the central vacuole takes up 90 percent of the cell volume. E) Microbodies include peroxisomes, glyoxysomes, and ribosomes. 24) Which of the following is not found within the nucleus? A) chromatin B) nucleolus C) DNA D) ribosomes E) RNA

25) Which of the following terms is most closely associated with grana? A) leucoplasts B) stroma C) thylakoids D) vacuoles E) plastids 26) Carotenoids are found in which of the following? A) leucoplasts B) amyloplasts C) chloroplasts D) chromoplasts E) More than one of the above are correct. 27) Which of the following animals produces carotenoids? A) pea aphids B) flamingos C) chickens D) butterflies E) None of the above are correct—carotenoids are only produced by plants. 28) The mitochondrial equivalent to grana is(are) ________. A) the matrix B) cristae C) stroma D) plasma membranes E) ribosomes 29) What features in common with bacteria led scientists to conclude that chloroplasts and mitochondria evolved from bacteria? A) Their DNA is similar to the DNA of bacteria. B) Their ribosomes are similar to those of bacteria. C) Cell division in both is like bacterial cell division. D) The chemical composition of their inner membranes is similar to those of bacteria. E) Chloroplasts and mitochondria share all of these bacteria-like features. 30) Bacterial endosymbionts of sap-sucking insects provide needed ________ to their hosts. A) DNA B) sugars C) amino acids D) fats E) oils

31) Anthocyanin is found in which of the following organelles? A) central vacuole B) chromoplast C) chloroplast D) leucoplast E) endoplasmic reticulum 32) Regulating metabolism and controlling cellular reproduction by destruction of proteins is accomplished by which of the following? A) peroxisomes B) proteasomes C) glyoxysomes D) chromosomes E) tannosomes 33) The storage, modification, and packaging of proteins is accomplished by the ________. A) endoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondria C) proteasomes D) Golgi apparatus E) central vacuole 34) Most specifically, ribosomes are produced in the ________. A) chloroplast B) nucleus C) nucleolus D) central vacuole E) rough endoplasmic reticulum 35) Ribosomes are the sites of the synthesis of ________. A) proteins B) lipids C) carbohydrates D) nucleic acids E) fats and oils 36) The plastic ends of shoelaces that help prevent the shoelace from unraveling is called an aglet. What is the equivalent structure to an aglet on a chromosome? A) centromere B) chromatid C) chromatin D) nucleotide E) telomere

37) Which phase of mitosis appears to be the most opposite of prophase? A) anaphase B) metaphase C) telophase D) cytokinesis E) None of the above are correct. 38) Which of the following is correct? A) Chromosomes are always duplicated during prophase. B) All cells must go through interphase after telophase. C) Cytokinesis is the division of duplicated chromosomes. D) Mitosis is the same as cell division. E) The Cell Cycle typically includes interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis. 39) In which phase of mitosis do chromatids separate? A) metaphase B) prophase C) anaphase D) telophase E) interphase 40) Phragmoplasts are most closely associated with which of the following? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase E) cytokinesis 41) The phragmoplast eventually becomes the ________. A) nucleus B) cell wall C) plasma membrane D) middle lamella E) None of the above are correct. 42) If a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, so much water enters the protoplast that the cell becomes turgid. 43) The fluid mosaic model is the currently accepted explanation of membrane structure. 44) Proteins in the plasma membrane can reside on the outer or inner surface of the plasma membrane or extend completely through the plasma membrane. 45) Active transport of substances into a cell always requires the expenditure of energy by the cell, typically in the form of ATP. 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

46) Spindle fibers—composed of microtubules—stretch from the poles to the kinetochore of each chromatid. 47) The quantity of water entering a cell in an isotonic solution is equal to the amount of water exiting. 48) The cells of a wilted plant have lost so much water that they become plasmolyzed. 49) The Endosymbiont Theory postulates that some membrane-bound organelles of eukaryotic cells, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, were once free-living bacteria. 50) If vincristine—a drug that disrupts microtubules—is applied to dividing cells, chromosomes will not form. 51) According to the Cell Theory, DNA is the genetic material in all cells. 52) The cell is the basic unit of life. 53) Cytokinesis—the division of the cytoplasm—separates the two identical daughter nuclei and their associated cytoplasm—into two cells. 54) Cell division enables plants to grow, repair wounds, and regenerate lost cells. Cell division can even lead to the production of new, genetically identical individuals, or clones. 55) Most plant cells spend the majority of the time in prophase. 56) Tannosomes are newly discovered organelles containing tannins, common to woody plants such as oak trees.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 2 The Plant Cell 1) The biological term, "cell" came about through the study of ________ cells. A) tomato B) wood C) bone D) cork E) blood Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following is not a statement of the Cell Theory? A) All cells arise from preexisting cells. B) All cells contain the hereditary material, DNA. C) All organisms are made up of cells. D) The cell is the basic unit of life. E) All of the above are correct statements about the Cell Theory. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Who among the scientists listed below was not directly involved in the development of the Cell Theory? A) Hooke B) Schleiden C) Schwann D) Virchow E) All of these men were involved in the development of the Cell Theory. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) The Cell Theory is categorized as which of the following? A) an educated guess B) a hypothesis that is in need of testing C) a speculative idea D) untested but quite probable E) an explanation accepted as a major principle of biology Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) The primary cell wall of a plant ________. A) consists of cellulose and lignin B) forms inside of the secondary cell wall C) consists primarily of cellulose D) gives wood its characteristic flexibility E) is described by more than one of these characteristics Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following is found only in a plant cell? A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Chloroplasts E) Ribosomes Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Which of the following statements about lignin is not correct? A) Lignin is indigestible by all organisms. B) In trees, lignin is more abundant in softwood species than hardwood species. C) Lignin protects the plant from pathogens. D) Lignin is found in secondary cell walls. E) Lignin is not found in primary cell walls. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

8) Movement of materials from one plant cell to another is accomplished through which of the following? A) the cytosol B) the middle lamella C) microtubules D) plasmodesmata E) the cytoskeleton Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Which of the following serves as the "cement" that glues plant cells together? A) cytosol B) lignin C) cellulose D) the cytoskeleton E) pectin Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) If you could travel from the inside of one plant cell into an adjacent plant cell, in what order would you find the following plant cell structures listed below? A) cytoplasm, plasma membrane, cell wall, middle lamella B) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, middle lamella, cell wall C) cytoplasm, plasma membrane, middle lamella, cell wall D) cytoplasm, middle lamella, plasma membrane, cell wall E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Microtubules and microfilaments comprise the structure of which of the following? A) cell wall B) plasmodesmata C) plasma membrane D) middle lamella E) cytoskeleton Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) A plant plasma membrane is made up of ________ and ________. A) cellulose; lignin B) phospholipids; carbohydrates C) phospholipids; proteins D) cellulose; cholesterol E) phospholipids; cholesterol Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The plasma membrane is selectively permeable (differentially permeable). B) The movement of water across the membrane is called facilitated diffusion. C) Osmosis is a form of dialysis. D) Diffusion and dialysis are usually the same process. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) If the proptoplast of plant cell A is hypertonic to the protoplast of adjacent plant cell B. Which way will water flow? A) From A to B B) From B to A C) Equally from B to A and A to B D) There will be no flow of water whatsoever E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) When a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the cell becomes ________. A) hypertonic B) plasmolyzed C) turgid D) osmotic E) flaccid Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

16) The free movement of water across a membrane is called ________. A) active transport B) simple diffusion C) plasmolysis D) osmosis E) dialysis Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Of these three items - concentration gradient, energy, membrane proteins - which two are needed for active transport to take place? A) only a concentration gradient B) all three are needed for active transport to take place C) a concentration gradient and energy D) a concentration gradient and membrane proteins E) energy and membrane proteins Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) In drought conditions when soils are dry for long periods of time, plants cells become ________. A) hypertonic B) plasmolyzed C) turgid D) osmotic E) hydrated Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) ________ is(are) necessary for diffusion to take place. A) A cell membrane B) Membrane proteins C) Energy D) A concentration gradient E) More than one of the above are required. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

20) Which of the following pigments is most abundant in chloroplasts? A) carotene B) xanthophyll C) melanin D) chlorophyll E) tannins Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Chloroplasts, leucoplasts, and chromoplasts are collectively called plastids. B) Amyloplasts are filled with plant oils. C) Mitochondria provides a location for photosynthesis to take place. D) Stroma holds adjacent plant cells together. E) Neither chloroplasts nor mitochondria are viewed as endosymbionts. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Plant pigments are specifically located within which of the following? A) thylakoid membranes. B) stroma C) plasma membranes D) nuclei E) golgi apparatus Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Which of the following is not correct? A) During cellular respiration, glucose is chemically broken down to carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. B) The inner membrane of mitochondria has numerous infoldings called cristae. C) The matrix of mitochondria contains enzymes used in cellular respiration. D) In some cells, the central vacuole takes up 90 percent of the cell volume. E) Microbodies include peroxisomes, glyoxysomes, and ribosomes. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

24) Which of the following is not found within the nucleus? A) chromatin B) nucleolus C) DNA D) ribosomes E) RNA Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Which of the following terms is most closely associated with grana? A) leucoplasts B) stroma C) thylakoids D) vacuoles E) plastids Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Carotenoids are found in which of the following? A) leucoplasts B) amyloplasts C) chloroplasts D) chromoplasts E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Which of the following animals produces carotenoids? A) pea aphids B) flamingos C) chickens D) butterflies E) None of the above are correct—carotenoids are only produced by plants. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

28) The mitochondrial equivalent to grana is(are) ________. A) the matrix B) cristae C) stroma D) plasma membranes E) ribosomes Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) What features in common with bacteria led scientists to conclude that chloroplasts and mitochondria evolved from bacteria? A) Their DNA is similar to the DNA of bacteria. B) Their ribosomes are similar to those of bacteria. C) Cell division in both is like bacterial cell division. D) The chemical composition of their inner membranes is similar to those of bacteria. E) Chloroplasts and mitochondria share all of these bacteria-like features. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Bacterial endosymbionts of sap-sucking insects provide needed ________ to their hosts. A) DNA B) sugars C) amino acids D) fats E) oils Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Anthocyanin is found in which of the following organelles? A) central vacuole B) chromoplast C) chloroplast D) leucoplast E) endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

32) Regulating metabolism and controlling cellular reproduction by destruction of proteins is accomplished by which of the following? A) peroxisomes B) proteasomes C) glyoxysomes D) chromosomes E) tannosomes Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) The storage, modification, and packaging of proteins is accomplished by the ________. A) endoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondria C) proteasomes D) Golgi apparatus E) central vacuole Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Most specifically, ribosomes are produced in the ________. A) chloroplast B) nucleus C) nucleolus D) central vacuole E) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Ribosomes are the sites of the synthesis of ________. A) proteins B) lipids C) carbohydrates D) nucleic acids E) fats and oils Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

36) The plastic ends of shoelaces that help prevent the shoelace from unraveling is called an aglet. What is the equivalent structure to an aglet on a chromosome? A) centromere B) chromatid C) chromatin D) nucleotide E) telomere Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Which phase of mitosis appears to be the most opposite of prophase? A) anaphase B) metaphase C) telophase D) cytokinesis E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Which of the following is correct? A) Chromosomes are always duplicated during prophase. B) All cells must go through interphase after telophase. C) Cytokinesis is the division of duplicated chromosomes. D) Mitosis is the same as cell division. E) The Cell Cycle typically includes interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) In which phase of mitosis do chromatids separate? A) metaphase B) prophase C) anaphase D) telophase E) interphase Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) Phragmoplasts are most closely associated with which of the following? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase E) cytokinesis Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) The phragmoplast eventually becomes the ________. A) nucleus B) cell wall C) plasma membrane D) middle lamella E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) If a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, so much water enters the protoplast that the cell becomes turgid. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) The fluid mosaic model is the currently accepted explanation of membrane structure. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) Proteins in the plasma membrane can reside on the outer or inner surface of the plasma membrane or extend completely through the plasma membrane. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

45) Active transport of substances into a cell always requires the expenditure of energy by the cell, typically in the form of ATP. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Spindle fibers—composed of microtubules—stretch from the poles to the kinetochore of each chromatid. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) The quantity of water entering a cell in an isotonic solution is equal to the amount of water exiting. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) The cells of a wilted plant have lost so much water that they become plasmolyzed. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) The Endosymbiont Theory postulates that some membrane-bound organelles of eukaryotic cells, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, were once free-living bacteria. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) If vincristine—a drug that disrupts microtubules—is applied to dividing cells, chromosomes will not form. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) According to the Cell Theory, DNA is the genetic material in all cells. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

52) The cell is the basic unit of life. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Cytokinesis—the division of the cytoplasm—separates the two identical daughter nuclei and their associated cytoplasm—into two cells. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Cell division enables plants to grow, repair wounds, and regenerate lost cells. Cell division can even lead to the production of new, genetically identical individuals, or clones. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) Most plant cells spend the majority of the time in prophase. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Tannosomes are newly discovered organelles containing tannins, common to woody plants such as oak trees. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 3 The Plant Body 1) Which of the following is correct? A) The earliest forms of cellular life were unicellular. B) Single-celled organisms cannot carry out all the functions of life by themselves. C) Tissues are composed of specialized organs. D) Most cells of multicellular organisms such as plants are not highly specialized. E) The organs of flowering plants include roots, stems, and leaves. 2) Which of the following is not an area of active cell division? A) apical meristem B) lateral meristem C) cork cambium D) secondary phloem E) vascular cambium 3) Which of the following tissues results from secondary growth? A) periderm B) collenchyma C) epidermis D) sclerenchyma E) None of the above are correct. 4) Two of the following terms are correctly matched based on function. Choose the correct match. A) cork cambium :: parenchyma B) collenchyma :: secondary phloem C) sclerenchyma :: epidermis D) periderm :: epidermis E) secondary xylem :: apical meristem 5) Two of the following terms are correctly matched based on a close relationship between the two. Choose the correct match. A) secondary xylem :: tracheids B) secondary phloem :: vessel elements C) primary xylem :: cortex D) primary phloem :: periderm E) None of the above represents a close relationship. 6) Which of the following gives rise to leaves? A) cork cambium B) vascular cambium C) apical meristem D) more than one of these gives rise to leaves E) None of the above are correct. 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) A single layer of flattened cells on the outer surface of an herbaceous stem defines the A) cortex. B) pith. C) epidermis. D) apical meristem. E) periderm. 8) All of the following would be found in epidermis tissue except one. Choose the exception. A) guard cells B) companion cells C) cuticle D) stomata E) trichomes 9) Which of the following is a correct statement? A) Mitotically active regions of vascular plants are called meristems. B) The three basic types of tissues in higher plants are dermal, ground, and vascular tissue. C) Apical meristems give rise to primary growth (leaves, nonwoody stems, and roots). D) Secondary growth results from vascular cambium and cork cambium. E) All of the above are correct statements. 10) Which of the following cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata? A) companion cells B) trichomes C) guard cells D) vessel elements E) tracheids 11) Two of the following terms are correctly matched based on their similarity of function. Choose the correct match. A) cutin :: suberin B) cork :: cortex C) vessel elements :: sieve tube members D) trichomes :: sclereids E) sclerenchyma tissue :: living cells at maturity 12) The water-conducting cells found in angiosperms include which of the following? A) tracheids B) vessel elements C) sieve tube members D) both tracheids and vessel elements E) both tracheids and sieve tube members

13) What primary tissue composes most of the cortex of an herbaceous stem? A) sclerenchyma B) collenchyma C) parenchyma D) primary phloem E) primary xylem 14) Which of the following cells is not commonly found in gymnosperms? A) sieve tube members B) tracheids C) vessel elements D) parenchyma E) sclerenchyma 15) Which of the following statements if not correct? A) The cells involved in the transport of organic materials in the phloem are the sieve tube members. B) The column of connected sieve tube members is called the sieve tube. C) Adjoining each sieve tube member is a companion cell with a large nucleus that "controls" the adjacent sieve tube member through numerous plasmodesmata. D) In monocots, xylem and phloem are found in a ring at the periphery of the stem. E) Springwood has cells that are noticeably larger than those of summerwood. 16) How do sieve tube member (stm) cells differ from tracheids? A) stm cells occur in angiosperms; tracheids only occur in gymnosperms B) stm cells function as living cells; tracheids function as dead cells C) stm cells lack a companion cell; tracheids have a companion cell D) stm cells have secondary cell walls; tracheids have only a primary cell wall E) stm cells are found in vascular rays; tracheids are found only in parenchyma 17) To what cells are companion cells actually "companions"? A) sieve tube members B) tracheids C) vessel elements D) epidermal cells E) more than one of these 18) Of the following cells, which does not function as a support cell? A) fibers B) collenchyma C) tracheids D) vessel elements E) parenchyma

19) Of the following, which one functions as a living cell at maturity? A) fibers B) collenchyma C) tracheids D) vessel elements E) cork 20) The conducting cells of xylem are ________ and ________. A) tracheids; companion cells B) phloem; tracheids C) companion cells; sieve tube members D) tracheids; vessel elements E) none of the above are correct 21) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Epidermis :: protection B) Periderm :: protection C) Collenchyma :: support D) Xylem :: water conduction and support E) Sclerenchyma :: photosynthesis and storage 22) Looking at a cross section of a plant stem under a microscope, you see a clearly defined pith in the middle of the stem and vascular bundles in a ring surrounding the pith. You conclude that this plant is likely which of the following? A) monocot B) woody dicot C) conifer D) herbaceous dicot E) fern 23) The appearance of annual rings in wood is created by which of the following? A) smaller springwood cells and larger summerwood cells B) heavily pigmented springwood cells and lightly pigmented summerwood cells C) larger springwood cells and smaller summerwood cells D) the presence of cells in springwood and the absence of cells in summerwood E) vascular rays that extend to the cork cambium 24) Which of the following would you not find in mature secondary xylem? A) vascular rays B) parenchyma cells C) summerwood D) cortex E) More than one of these are correct.

25) In a mature tree, the cortex has been completely replaced by the ________. A) periderm B) secondary phloem C) secondary xylem D) vascular rays E) epidermis 26) In the roots of herbaceous dicots, where is the phloem found? A) in vascular bundles B) between the "cross-like arms" of the xylem C) in alternating bands with the xylem D) in the very center of the root E) between the pericycle and the endodermis 27) On what tissue would you find the Casparian strip? A) pericycle B) cortex C) endodermis D) epidermis E) primary xylem 28) What is the function of the Casparian strip? A) Maximizes photosynthesis. B) Conducts sugars to the cortex. C) Regulates the flow of water and minerals into the xylem. D) Converts sugar into starch. E) Prevents water from entering the epidermis. 29) Trees with roots submerged in water, like cypress trees, are able to take in oxygen thanks to which of the following? A) aerial roots B) prop roots C) contractile roots D) pneumatophores E) deep tap roots 30) Which of the following root tissues gives rise to lateral root branches? A) endodermis B) pericycle C) apical meristem D) cortex E) primary phloem

31) Which of the following choices is not a zone of the root tip? A) apical meristem B) zone of elongation C) zone of maturation D) vascular cylinder E) zone of cell division 32) You are viewing a cross section of a plant structure. There is a pith in the middle of the plant structure surrounded by xylem and phloem, which in turn are surrounded by an endodermis. You are most likely looking at which of the following? A) herbaceous dicot stem B) herbaceous dicot root C) monocot stem D) monocot root E) woody dicot trunk 33) Which of the following structures is found in an herbaceous dicot root but not in a monocot root? A) epidermis B) endodermis C) cortex D) pericycle E) All of these structures are found in both herbaceous dicot roots and monocot roots. 34) The Michigan lily has multiple leaves surrounding the stem. This leaf arrangement is termed ________. A) pinnately compound B) whorled C) alternate D) palmately compound E) opposite 35) The leaves of corn (Zea mays) exhibit parallel venation. Corn is classified as which of the following? A) herbaceous dicot B) woody dicot C) conifer D) monocot E) fern 36) Most photosynthesis takes place in the ________ of a typical leaf. A) spongy mesophyll B) epidermis C) palisade mesophyll D) vascular bundles E) guard cells 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

37) This plant is a dioecious perennial. The part eaten is the aerial stem. Of the following choices, this plant would likely be a(n) A) radish. B) lettuce. C) carrot. D) asparagus. E) turnip. 38) This plant is biennial and is important for the production of vitamin A. The part eaten is the tap root. This plant could be which of the following? A) radish. B) lettuce. C) carrot. D) asparagus. E) None of the above are correct. 39) The formation of secondary xylem is due to the activities of which of the following? A) vascular cambium B) cork cambium C) epidermis D) cortex E) None of the above are correct. 40) When a botanist speaks of wood, she is really speaking of the ________. A) secondary phloem B) periderm C) cortex D) secondary xylem E) None of the above are correct. 41) Which of the following cells does not occur in the phloem? A) sieve tube members B) companion cells C) parenchyma cells D) vessel elements E) fibers 42) Support tissues in herbaceous plants are which of the following? A) cork cells and cortex B) epidermis and phloem C) parenchyma and companion cells D) sclerenchyma and collenchyma E) sclerenchyma and parenchyma

43) Celery and rhubarb are which of the following? A) leaflets B) petioles C) stems D) vines E) fruits 44) Botanically, the radish is a composite vegetable consist of both ________ and ________. A) root; hypocotyl (base of stem) B) root; root hairs C) epicotyl; hypocotyl D) root; modified leaves E) None of the above are correct. 45) The cells in phloem involved in the conduction of sugars are ________ and ________. 46) A waterproofing fatty substance that coats cork cells is ________. 47) Whereas the cortex of an herbaceous dicot root is between the epidermis and ________, the cortex of an herbaceous dicot stem is between the epidermis and the ________. 48) A small plant that has modified leaves with sticky glandular hairs that trap insects is the ________. 49) In an herbaceous dicot root, most starch is stored in the ________, whereas in an herbaceous dicot stem most starch is stored in the ________. 50) Monocot stems lack a pith. 51) When there are two leaves at a node, the leaf arrangement is called compound. 52) The stalk that supports the blade of a leaf is the petiole. 53) Trichomes are hair-like structures on epidermal cells that may be irritating to animal herbivores. 54) Taproot systems have one large main root and many smaller branch roots. 55) Palisade cells of a leaf primarily regulate gas exchange between the plant and the surrounding atmosphere. 56) Absorption of water and minerals in a root occurs through the root hairs. 57) The vascular tissue of a root is found in vascular bundles. 58) Vegetative organs of the plant body include roots, stems, and leaves, but not flowers. 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

59) Leaves are usually the primary (but not the only) photosynthetic structures in plants. 60) If the blade of a leaf is undivided, the leaf is classified as "simple," and if the leaf is divided into separate leaflets, the leaf is classified as "compound."

4) Two of the following terms are correctly matched based on function. Choose the correct match. A) cork cambium :: parenchyma B) collenchyma :: secondary phloem C) sclerenchyma :: epidermis D) periderm :: epidermis E) secondary xylem :: apical meristem Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Two of the following terms are correctly matched based on a close relationship between the two. Choose the correct match. A) secondary xylem :: tracheids B) secondary phloem :: vessel elements C) primary xylem :: cortex D) primary phloem :: periderm E) None of the above represents a close relationship. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following gives rise to leaves? A) cork cambium B) vascular cambium C) apical meristem D) more than one of these gives rise to leaves E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) A single layer of flattened cells on the outer surface of an herbaceous stem defines the A) cortex. B) pith. C) epidermis. D) apical meristem. E) periderm. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) All of the following would be found in epidermis tissue except one. Choose the exception. A) guard cells B) companion cells C) cuticle D) stomata E) trichomes Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Which of the following is a correct statement? A) Mitotically active regions of vascular plants are called meristems. B) The three basic types of tissues in higher plants are dermal, ground, and vascular tissue. C) Apical meristems give rise to primary growth (leaves, nonwoody stems, and roots). D) Secondary growth results from vascular cambium and cork cambium. E) All of the above are correct statements. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata? A) companion cells B) trichomes C) guard cells D) vessel elements E) tracheids Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Two of the following terms are correctly matched based on their similarity of function. Choose the correct match. A) cutin :: suberin B) cork :: cortex C) vessel elements :: sieve tube members D) trichomes :: sclereids E) sclerenchyma tissue :: living cells at maturity Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

12) The water-conducting cells found in angiosperms include which of the following? A) tracheids B) vessel elements C) sieve tube members D) both tracheids and vessel elements E) both tracheids and sieve tube members Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) What primary tissue composes most of the cortex of an herbaceous stem? A) sclerenchyma B) collenchyma C) parenchyma D) primary phloem E) primary xylem Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Which of the following cells is not commonly found in gymnosperms? A) sieve tube members B) tracheids C) vessel elements D) parenchyma E) sclerenchyma Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) Which of the following statements if not correct? A) The cells involved in the transport of organic materials in the phloem are the sieve tube members. B) The column of connected sieve tube members is called the sieve tube. C) Adjoining each sieve tube member is a companion cell with a large nucleus that "controls" the adjacent sieve tube member through numerous plasmodesmata. D) In monocots, xylem and phloem are found in a ring at the periphery of the stem. E) Springwood has cells that are noticeably larger than those of summerwood. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

16) How do sieve tube member (stm) cells differ from tracheids? A) stm cells occur in angiosperms; tracheids only occur in gymnosperms B) stm cells function as living cells; tracheids function as dead cells C) stm cells lack a companion cell; tracheids have a companion cell D) stm cells have secondary cell walls; tracheids have only a primary cell wall E) stm cells are found in vascular rays; tracheids are found only in parenchyma Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) To what cells are companion cells actually "companions"? A) sieve tube members B) tracheids C) vessel elements D) epidermal cells E) more than one of these Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Of the following cells, which does not function as a support cell? A) fibers B) collenchyma C) tracheids D) vessel elements E) parenchyma Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) Of the following, which one functions as a living cell at maturity? A) fibers B) collenchyma C) tracheids D) vessel elements E) cork Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

20) The conducting cells of xylem are ________ and ________. A) tracheids; companion cells B) phloem; tracheids C) companion cells; sieve tube members D) tracheids; vessel elements E) none of the above are correct Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Epidermis :: protection B) Periderm :: protection C) Collenchyma :: support D) Xylem :: water conduction and support E) Sclerenchyma :: photosynthesis and storage Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Looking at a cross section of a plant stem under a microscope, you see a clearly defined pith in the middle of the stem and vascular bundles in a ring surrounding the pith. You conclude that this plant is likely which of the following? A) monocot B) woody dicot C) conifer D) herbaceous dicot E) fern Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) The appearance of annual rings in wood is created by which of the following? A) smaller springwood cells and larger summerwood cells B) heavily pigmented springwood cells and lightly pigmented summerwood cells C) larger springwood cells and smaller summerwood cells D) the presence of cells in springwood and the absence of cells in summerwood E) vascular rays that extend to the cork cambium Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

24) Which of the following would you not find in mature secondary xylem? A) vascular rays B) parenchyma cells C) summerwood D) cortex E) More than one of these are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) In a mature tree, the cortex has been completely replaced by the ________. A) periderm B) secondary phloem C) secondary xylem D) vascular rays E) epidermis Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) In the roots of herbaceous dicots, where is the phloem found? A) in vascular bundles B) between the "cross-like arms" of the xylem C) in alternating bands with the xylem D) in the very center of the root E) between the pericycle and the endodermis Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) On what tissue would you find the Casparian strip? A) pericycle B) cortex C) endodermis D) epidermis E) primary xylem Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

28) What is the function of the Casparian strip? A) Maximizes photosynthesis. B) Conducts sugars to the cortex. C) Regulates the flow of water and minerals into the xylem. D) Converts sugar into starch. E) Prevents water from entering the epidermis. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) Trees with roots submerged in water, like cypress trees, are able to take in oxygen thanks to which of the following? A) aerial roots B) prop roots C) contractile roots D) pneumatophores E) deep tap roots Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Which of the following root tissues gives rise to lateral root branches? A) endodermis B) pericycle C) apical meristem D) cortex E) primary phloem Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Which of the following choices is not a zone of the root tip? A) apical meristem B) zone of elongation C) zone of maturation D) vascular cylinder E) zone of cell division Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

32) You are viewing a cross section of a plant structure. There is a pith in the middle of the plant structure surrounded by xylem and phloem, which in turn are surrounded by an endodermis. You are most likely looking at which of the following? A) herbaceous dicot stem B) herbaceous dicot root C) monocot stem D) monocot root E) woody dicot trunk Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Which of the following structures is found in an herbaceous dicot root but not in a monocot root? A) epidermis B) endodermis C) cortex D) pericycle E) All of these structures are found in both herbaceous dicot roots and monocot roots. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) The Michigan lily has multiple leaves surrounding the stem. This leaf arrangement is termed ________. A) pinnately compound B) whorled C) alternate D) palmately compound E) opposite Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

35) The leaves of corn (Zea mays) exhibit parallel venation. Corn is classified as which of the following? A) herbaceous dicot B) woody dicot C) conifer D) monocot E) fern Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Most photosynthesis takes place in the ________ of a typical leaf. A) spongy mesophyll B) epidermis C) palisade mesophyll D) vascular bundles E) guard cells Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) This plant is a dioecious perennial. The part eaten is the aerial stem. Of the following choices, this plant would likely be a(n) A) radish. B) lettuce. C) carrot. D) asparagus. E) turnip. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) This plant is biennial and is important for the production of vitamin A. The part eaten is the tap root. This plant could be which of the following? A) radish. B) lettuce. C) carrot. D) asparagus. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

39) The formation of secondary xylem is due to the activities of which of the following? A) vascular cambium B) cork cambium C) epidermis D) cortex E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) When a botanist speaks of wood, she is really speaking of the ________. A) secondary phloem B) periderm C) cortex D) secondary xylem E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) Which of the following cells does not occur in the phloem? A) sieve tube members B) companion cells C) parenchyma cells D) vessel elements E) fibers Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Support tissues in herbaceous plants are which of the following? A) cork cells and cortex B) epidermis and phloem C) parenchyma and companion cells D) sclerenchyma and collenchyma E) sclerenchyma and parenchyma Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

43) Celery and rhubarb are which of the following? A) leaflets B) petioles C) stems D) vines E) fruits Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) Botanically, the radish is a composite vegetable consist of both ________ and ________. A) root; hypocotyl (base of stem) B) root; root hairs C) epicotyl; hypocotyl D) root; modified leaves E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) The cells in phloem involved in the conduction of sugars are ________ and ________. Answer: sieve tube members; companion cells Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) A waterproofing fatty substance that coats cork cells is ________. Answer: suberin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Whereas the cortex of an herbaceous dicot root is between the epidermis and ________, the cortex of an herbaceous dicot stem is between the epidermis and the ________. Answer: endodermis; pith Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

48) A small plant that has modified leaves with sticky glandular hairs that trap insects is the ________. Answer: sundew Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) In an herbaceous dicot root, most starch is stored in the ________, whereas in an herbaceous dicot stem most starch is stored in the ________. Answer: cortex; pith Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) Monocot stems lack a pith. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) When there are two leaves at a node, the leaf arrangement is called compound. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) The stalk that supports the blade of a leaf is the petiole. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Trichomes are hair-like structures on epidermal cells that may be irritating to animal herbivores. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Taproot systems have one large main root and many smaller branch roots. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

55) Palisade cells of a leaf primarily regulate gas exchange between the plant and the surrounding atmosphere. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Absorption of water and minerals in a root occurs through the root hairs. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) The vascular tissue of a root is found in vascular bundles. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) Vegetative organs of the plant body include roots, stems, and leaves, but not flowers. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Leaves are usually the primary (but not the only) photosynthetic structures in plants. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) If the blade of a leaf is undivided, the leaf is classified as "simple," and if the leaf is divided into separate leaflets, the leaf is classified as "compound." Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 4 Plant Physiology 1) Of the following, which is not a process involved in the movement of water through a plant? A) transpiration B) cohesion C) translocation D) absorption E) evaporation 2) The evaporation of water at stomatal surfaces on the leaves creates a(n)________ that pulls the water through the plant. A) tension caused by the cohesive pull on the water column B) osmotic pull caused by cohesive push on the water column C) vacuum created by diffusing water D) evaporative push created by osmosis E) a diffusion gradient 3) Which of the following prevents water moving through the xylem from falling back towards the roots? A) osmosis B) simple diffusion C) cohesion and adhesion D) gravity E) ionic bonds 4) What structure of the guard cells allows them to expand outward instead of spherically when inflated with water? A) thick outer walls in contact with epidermal cells B) thin inner walls that border the stomata C) thin outer walls in contact with epidermal cells D) thick inner walls that border the stomata E) a pericycle within the stomata 5) Which of the following is not correct? A) The loss of water vapor from leaves is the force behind the movement of water in xylem. B) About 90 percent of the water lost by evaporation is through the stomata. C) Transpiration by plants is not a major force in the global cycling of water. D) Stomata are generally open during daylight and closed at night. E) Xerophytes are plants that can grow in arid environments, partly due to reduced or sunken stomata.

6) The absorption of water from the soil is accomplished by two pathways: ________ and ________. A) Symplast; apoplast B) Apoptosis; hydroponics C) Hypertonic; hypotonic D) Diffusion; osmosis E) None of the above are correct 7) What is the big dilemma plants face on a hot, dry day? A) allowing H2O in while minimizing O2 loss B) allowing CO2 in while minimizing H2O loss C) allowing O2 in while minimizing H2O loss D) allowing O2 in while minimizing CO2 loss E) None of the above are correct. 8) Which of the following would not prevent the flow of water through a plant? A) 100% relative humidity B) very dry soils C) hypotonic soil solution relative to the plant D) damaged xylem tissue E) All of the above would prevent the flow of water through a plant. 9) The intercellular pathway of water movement from the soil to the xylem of the root is the ________ pathway. A) symplastic B) apoplastic C) leucoplastic D) chromoplastic E) pyroclastic 10) What is the source of the minerals required by plants for normal growth and development? A) the atmosphere B) the soil C) mycorrhizal fungi D) root hairs E) None of the above are correct. 11) Soils are most commonly deficient in ________ and ________. A) calcium; phosphorous B) nitrogen; calcium C) magnesium; nitrogen D) nitrogen; phosphorous E) calcium; nitrogen

12) Your tomato plants are stunted, older leaves are dark green, and there are patches of deep red pigmentation on the stems and leaves. Your tomato plant is likely suffering from ________ deficiency. A) phosphorous B) nitrogen C) magnesium D) calcium E) copper 13) Which of the following is not considered to be a heavy metal? A) Lead B) Cadmium C) Ozone D) Mercury E) Aluminum 14) What is the name given to plants that can concentrate minerals at levels 100 times more than normal? A) Hydroponicals B) Hyperaccumulators C) Phytoremediators D) Toxic accumulators E) None of the above are correct. 15) The polarity of water molecules creates ________ bonds between adjacent molecules. A) covalent B) ionic C) hydrogen D) peptide E) glycosidic 16) Which one of the following regulates the movement of water and minerals into the stele? A) xylem B) phloem C) Casparian strip D) root hairs E) None of the above are correct. 17) Transpiration occurs because of which of the following? A) evaporation of water at stomatal surfaces B) hypertonic soil solutions relative to the root solution C) absorption of water and dissolved minerals by root hairs D) osmotic pressure within xylem tissues E) the closing of guard cells

18) In what direction do dissolved sugars move in a plant? A) upward towards the stomata B) downward towards the roots C) to areas in need of energy regardless of direction D) upward during the day and downward at night E) Sugars stay where they are produced. 19) Regarding translocation, which of the following tissues serves as a sink? A) an actively growing fruit B) an apical meristem C) the cortex of a root D) the pith of a stem E) All of the above may serve as sinks. 20) The most common disaccharide transported in the phloem is which of the following? A) glucose B) fructose C) sucrose D) starch E) maltose 21) In the Pressure Flow Model of the movement of sugar through the phloem, what process causes the pressure? A) photosynthesis B) osmosis C) transpiration D) dialysis E) reverse osmosis 22) Which of the following is correct? A) Products of photosynthesis move from source to sink. B) The Pressure Flow Hypothesis may explain translocation in the phloem. C) The highly concentrated solution of sugar in the sieve tube members causes water to enter by osmosis from nearby xylem elements. D) After being uploaded from the phloem, sugars are usually converted to starch or other compounds. E) All of the above are correct. 23) Which of the following is a correct statement? A) Transpiration is a passive process; translocation requires metabolic energy. B) Translocation is a passive process; transpiration requires metabolic energy. C) Transpiration and translocation are both passive processes. D) Transpiration and translocation both require metabolic energy. E) None of the above are correct.

24) The growing of sugarcane in the New World to produce sugar was one of the main reasons for the ________. A) exploration of the New World by Columbus and other explorers B) purchase of the Louisiana territory C) extensive slave trade between Africa and the Americas D) War of 1812 E) demise of honey production in Europe 25) Which of the following statements is correct? A) After being uploaded from the phloem, sugars are usually converted to starch or other storage carbohydrates. B) During the Middle Ages, sugar was an expensive luxury. C) Columbus introduced sugarcane to the Caribbean Islands, and many islands were denuded of native forests and planted with sugarcane soon afterward. D) The growing of sugarcane was indirectly responsible for the establishment of slavery in the Americas. E) All of the above are correct. 26) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Sugarcane, saccharum officinarum, is a perennial member of the grass family, Poaceae. B) Sugarcane owes its importance to the sucrose stored in the cells of the stem. C) Sugarcane, which uses the C4 pathway for photosynthesis, is considered to be one of the most efficient converters of solar energy into chemical energy. D) Sugar beet, Beta vulgaris, is closely related to sugarcane. E) One gram of sugar has fewer calories than a gram of fat. 27) The Second Law of Thermodynamics states which of the following? A) In every energy exchange, some energy is destroyed. B) Energy cannot be created or destroyed. C) All of the energy in the Universe has existed forever. D) No energy conversion is 100% efficient. E) More than one of these statements are correct. 28) Starch and glycogen are energy-storage molecules. The energy stored in these molecules is an example of ________ energy. A) potential B) kinetic C) reduced D) oxidized E) electrical

29) Adding a phosphate group to a molecule is called ________. A) photosynthesis B) aerobic respiration C) oxidation D) phosphorylation E) reduction 30) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to another. B) The Second law of Thermodynamics states that in any transfer of energy there is always a loss of useful energy to the system, usually in the form of "heat" or radiant energy. C) All forms of energy are broadly classified as either potential energy or kinetic energy. D) When a molecule gains an electron, it is said to be oxidized; and when that molecule gives up the electron, it is said to be reduced. E) All of the above are correct. 31) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Many energy transformations in cells involve the transfer of electrons or hydrogen atoms. B) NAD is nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. C) FAD is flavin adenine dinucleotide. D) ATP cannot be recycled. E) All of the above are correct. 32) Enzymes are which of the following? A) catalysts B) proteins C) highly specific for certain reactants D) required to lower the energy for reactions to occur in biological systems E) All of the above are correct. 33) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The sun is basically a thermonuclear reactor producing electromagnetic radiation. B) Visible light is only a tiny spectrum of the full electromagnetic radiation but makes up about 40 percent of the radiant energy reaching the Earth. C) Photons have a fixed quantity of energy. D) The wavelengths of visible light useful to plants resides in the electromagnetic spectrum ranging from 380 to 760 nm in wavelength. E) All of the above are correct.

34) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The major photosynthetic pigments are xanthophylls and carotenoids. B) Chlorophyll is principally located in the stroma. C) The absorption spectrum of a pigment refers to the color of the visible light spectrum reflected from the pigment. D) Thylakoids can be found in stacks called grana. E) Vascular bundles bring oxygen to the palisade layer during photosynthesis. 35) During the Calvin cycle, ________ and ________ supply energy for the fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide. A) ATP; NADPH B) O2; CO2 C) ATP; O2 D) H2O; NADPH E) H2O; O2 36) When an electron is added to copper the charge on it changes from +2 to +1. This means copper has been chemically ________. A) phosphorylated B) oxidized C) reduced D) hydrolyzed E) energized 37) When ADP is phosphorylated, it becomes which of the following? A) DNA B) hydrolyzed C) AMP D) ATP E) oxidized 38) Visible light is a form of ________ radiation. A) electromagnetic B) ultraviolet C) cosmic D) magnetic E) chemical 39) Chlorophyll is most concentrated in the ________ of the chloroplast. A) stroma B) matrix C) cristae D) grana E) nucleus 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

40) The oxygen (O2) from photosynthesis is derived from the "splitting" of ________. A) CO2 B) ATP C) NADPH D) H2O E) glucose 41) The wavelength for the maximum light absorption of the reaction center of Photosystem I is in the ________ region. A) red B) blue C) green D) yellow E) None of the above are correct. 42) When the Photosystem I reaction center is oxidized, ________ is reduced. A) ADP B) NADPH C) NADP+ D) glucose E) H2O 43) The ultimate source of electrons in the light reactions of photosynthesis is which of the following? A) H2O B) CO2 C) ATP D) glucose E) NADP+ 44) How many turns of the Calvin Cycle are required for the production of one glucose (C6H12O6)? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 45) The energy to power the Calvin Cycle reactions come from the ________ of the light reactions. A) reactants B) products C) redox reactions D) photophosphorylation reactions E) enzymes 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

46) The first stable product of the Calvin Cycle is a ________ molecule. A) glucose B) fructose C) phosphoglyceraldehyde D) phosphoglyceric acid E) sucrose 47) The first step of the Calving Cycle is the fixation of ________. A) carbon dioxide B) ATP C) water D) oxygen E) glucose 48) The enzyme responsible for the first step of the Calvin Cycle is which of the following? A) ATP synthase B) RUBISCO C) catalase D) amylase E) NABISCO 49) How are CAM plants different from all other plants? A) The final product of CAM photosynthesis is sucrose. B) The CO2 that diffuses into CAM plants is incorporated into an organic acid. C) Carbon fixation occurs at night. D) Stomata remain open during the day. E) More than one of the above are correct. 50) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The products of photosynthesis are the reactants of cellular respiration. B) Photosynthesis is a catabolic pathway; respiration is an anabolic pathway. C) Only in cellular respiration is ATP produced. D) If photosynthesis did not exist, cellular respiration would be unaffected. E) The electromagnetic energy involved in photosynthesis is in the ultraviolet region. 51) The main purpose of cellular respiration is the production of which of the following? A) CO2 B) NADH C) glucose D) ATP E) water

52) In what stage of cellular respiration is glucose split? A) glycolysis B) Krebs cycle C) electron transport D) Calvin cycle E) anaerobic cycle 53) Where in a plant cell does most ATP production take place? A) stroma of the chloroplast B) grana of the chloroplast C) matrix of the mitochondrion D) inner membrane of the mitochondrion E) cytoplasm of the plant cell 54) What is the role of oxygen in aerobic cellular respiration? A) It is the final electron acceptor in electron transport. B) It provides energy for ATP synthase to function. C) It supplies electrons to electron transport. D) It is responsible for splitting glucose. E) It donates hydrogen ions to electrons. 55) What is the importance of glucose in cellular respiration? A) When it splits, it generates the ATP necessary for metabolism. B) It provides electrons for the electron transport system. C) It powers the ATP synthase in chemiosmosis. D) It is the final electron acceptor in electron transport. E) It provides the fuel for making proteins from glucose. 56) What powers ATP synthase to phosphorylate ADP to make ATP? A) the kinetic energy of the flow of NADH electrons B) the kinetic energy of the splitting of water C) the kinetic energy of the movement of protons (hydrogen ions) D) the kinetic energy of the spinning of the Krebs Cycle E) cyclic AMP and ADP 57) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The major organ of photosynthesis is the leaf. B) The actual site of photosynthesis is the chloroplast. C) Thylakoid sacs comprise the grana, sites of the light reaction. D) The stroma contains the enzymes that carry out the Calvin Cycle. E) All of the above are correct.

58) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) When light strikes a pigment molecule in either Photosystem I or Photosystem II, the energy is funneled into a reaction center which consists of a chlorophyll a molecule bound to a membrane protein. B) The Reaction Center for Photosystem I is called P700, which is related to the visible wavelength of its maximum absorption. C) The Reaction Center for Photosystem II is called P680, which is related to the visible wavelength of its maximum absorption. D) Photosystem I and Photosystem II are interconnected pathways. E) During Photosystem I and II, a proton is excited and ejected, leaving P680 and P700 in a reduced state. 59) The loss of water vapor from a leaf is known as translocation. 60) As transpiration occurs in the leaf, it creates a cohesive pull on the whole water column downward through the xylem to the root, where water uptake occurs to replace the water lost through transpiration. 61) Organic materials are translocated by the sieve tube members of the phloem. These sieve tube members are living and highly specialized. 62) The hypothesis currently accepted to explain translocation in the phloem is the Pressure Flow Hypothesis. 63) During glycolysis, glucose in broken down to yield two molecules of pyruvic acid. 64) The reaction center P680 is found in photosystem I. 65) Carotenoids are called accessory pigments. 66) The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast. 67) Oxygen is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis. 68) In chemiosmosis, the movement of ________ ions through the enzyme ________ generates ________ energy for the production of ________. 69) Glycolysis and the Krebs Cycle generate the electron carrier, ________, which carries electrons to the ________ where this electron carrier is oxidized. 70) The purpose of photosynthesis is to generate ________ while the purpose of aerobic respiration is to generate ________. 71) While photosynthesis uses electrons from ________ for its electron transport system, cellular respiration uses electrons from ________ for its electron transport system. 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

For each of the following, indicate during which stage or stages of aerobic cellular respiration it occurs (i.e., glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and/or electron transport system). 72) ATP formed ________. 73) CO2 given off ________. 74) NADH oxidized ________. 75) ATP used ________. For each of the following, indicate during which stage or stages of photosynthesis it occurs (i.e., Photosystem I, Photosystem II, and/or Calvin cycle). 76) Fixation of carbon dioxide during the ________. 77) O2 given off during ________. 78) ATP used during ________.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 4 Plant Physiology 1) Of the following, which is not a process involved in the movement of water through a plant? A) transpiration B) cohesion C) translocation D) absorption E) evaporation Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) The evaporation of water at stomatal surfaces on the leaves creates a(n)________ that pulls the water through the plant. A) tension caused by the cohesive pull on the water column B) osmotic pull caused by cohesive push on the water column C) vacuum created by diffusing water D) evaporative push created by osmosis E) a diffusion gradient Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Which of the following prevents water moving through the xylem from falling back towards the roots? A) osmosis B) simple diffusion C) cohesion and adhesion D) gravity E) ionic bonds Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) What structure of the guard cells allows them to expand outward instead of spherically when inflated with water? A) thick outer walls in contact with epidermal cells B) thin inner walls that border the stomata C) thin outer walls in contact with epidermal cells D) thick inner walls that border the stomata E) a pericycle within the stomata Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Which of the following is not correct? A) The loss of water vapor from leaves is the force behind the movement of water in xylem. B) About 90 percent of the water lost by evaporation is through the stomata. C) Transpiration by plants is not a major force in the global cycling of water. D) Stomata are generally open during daylight and closed at night. E) Xerophytes are plants that can grow in arid environments, partly due to reduced or sunken stomata. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) The absorption of water from the soil is accomplished by two pathways: ________ and ________. A) Symplast; apoplast B) Apoptosis; hydroponics C) Hypertonic; hypotonic D) Diffusion; osmosis E) None of the above are correct Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) What is the big dilemma plants face on a hot, dry day? A) allowing H2O in while minimizing O2 loss B) allowing CO2 in while minimizing H2O loss C) allowing O2 in while minimizing H2O loss D) allowing O2 in while minimizing CO2 loss E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Which of the following would not prevent the flow of water through a plant? A) 100% relative humidity B) very dry soils C) hypotonic soil solution relative to the plant D) damaged xylem tissue E) All of the above would prevent the flow of water through a plant. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) The intercellular pathway of water movement from the soil to the xylem of the root is the ________ pathway. A) symplastic B) apoplastic C) leucoplastic D) chromoplastic E) pyroclastic Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) What is the source of the minerals required by plants for normal growth and development? A) the atmosphere B) the soil C) mycorrhizal fungi D) root hairs E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Soils are most commonly deficient in ________ and ________. A) calcium; phosphorous B) nitrogen; calcium C) magnesium; nitrogen D) nitrogen; phosphorous E) calcium; nitrogen Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) Your tomato plants are stunted, older leaves are dark green, and there are patches of deep red pigmentation on the stems and leaves. Your tomato plant is likely suffering from ________ deficiency. A) phosphorous B) nitrogen C) magnesium D) calcium E) copper Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) Which of the following is not considered to be a heavy metal? A) Lead B) Cadmium C) Ozone D) Mercury E) Aluminum Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) What is the name given to plants that can concentrate minerals at levels 100 times more than normal? A) Hydroponicals B) Hyperaccumulators C) Phytoremediators D) Toxic accumulators E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) The polarity of water molecules creates ________ bonds between adjacent molecules. A) covalent B) ionic C) hydrogen D) peptide E) glycosidic Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

16) Which one of the following regulates the movement of water and minerals into the stele? A) xylem B) phloem C) Casparian strip D) root hairs E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Transpiration occurs because of which of the following? A) evaporation of water at stomatal surfaces B) hypertonic soil solutions relative to the root solution C) absorption of water and dissolved minerals by root hairs D) osmotic pressure within xylem tissues E) the closing of guard cells Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) In what direction do dissolved sugars move in a plant? A) upward towards the stomata B) downward towards the roots C) to areas in need of energy regardless of direction D) upward during the day and downward at night E) Sugars stay where they are produced. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) Regarding translocation, which of the following tissues serves as a sink? A) an actively growing fruit B) an apical meristem C) the cortex of a root D) the pith of a stem E) All of the above may serve as sinks. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

20) The most common disaccharide transported in the phloem is which of the following? A) glucose B) fructose C) sucrose D) starch E) maltose Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) In the Pressure Flow Model of the movement of sugar through the phloem, what process causes the pressure? A) photosynthesis B) osmosis C) transpiration D) dialysis E) reverse osmosis Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Which of the following is correct? A) Products of photosynthesis move from source to sink. B) The Pressure Flow Hypothesis may explain translocation in the phloem. C) The highly concentrated solution of sugar in the sieve tube members causes water to enter by osmosis from nearby xylem elements. D) After being uploaded from the phloem, sugars are usually converted to starch or other compounds. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Which of the following is a correct statement? A) Transpiration is a passive process; translocation requires metabolic energy. B) Translocation is a passive process; transpiration requires metabolic energy. C) Transpiration and translocation are both passive processes. D) Transpiration and translocation both require metabolic energy. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

24) The growing of sugarcane in the New World to produce sugar was one of the main reasons for the ________. A) exploration of the New World by Columbus and other explorers B) purchase of the Louisiana territory C) extensive slave trade between Africa and the Americas D) War of 1812 E) demise of honey production in Europe Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Which of the following statements is correct? A) After being uploaded from the phloem, sugars are usually converted to starch or other storage carbohydrates. B) During the Middle Ages, sugar was an expensive luxury. C) Columbus introduced sugarcane to the Caribbean Islands, and many islands were denuded of native forests and planted with sugarcane soon afterward. D) The growing of sugarcane was indirectly responsible for the establishment of slavery in the Americas. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Sugarcane, saccharum officinarum, is a perennial member of the grass family, Poaceae. B) Sugarcane owes its importance to the sucrose stored in the cells of the stem. C) Sugarcane, which uses the C4 pathway for photosynthesis, is considered to be one of the most efficient converters of solar energy into chemical energy. D) Sugar beet, Beta vulgaris, is closely related to sugarcane. E) One gram of sugar has fewer calories than a gram of fat. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

27) The Second Law of Thermodynamics states which of the following? A) In every energy exchange, some energy is destroyed. B) Energy cannot be created or destroyed. C) All of the energy in the Universe has existed forever. D) No energy conversion is 100% efficient. E) More than one of these statements are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Starch and glycogen are energy-storage molecules. The energy stored in these molecules is an example of ________ energy. A) potential B) kinetic C) reduced D) oxidized E) electrical Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) Adding a phosphate group to a molecule is called ________. A) photosynthesis B) aerobic respiration C) oxidation D) phosphorylation E) reduction Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

30) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to another. B) The Second law of Thermodynamics states that in any transfer of energy there is always a loss of useful energy to the system, usually in the form of "heat" or radiant energy. C) All forms of energy are broadly classified as either potential energy or kinetic energy. D) When a molecule gains an electron, it is said to be oxidized; and when that molecule gives up the electron, it is said to be reduced. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Many energy transformations in cells involve the transfer of electrons or hydrogen atoms. B) NAD is nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. C) FAD is flavin adenine dinucleotide. D) ATP cannot be recycled. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) Enzymes are which of the following? A) catalysts B) proteins C) highly specific for certain reactants D) required to lower the energy for reactions to occur in biological systems E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

33) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The sun is basically a thermonuclear reactor producing electromagnetic radiation. B) Visible light is only a tiny spectrum of the full electromagnetic radiation but makes up about 40 percent of the radiant energy reaching the Earth. C) Photons have a fixed quantity of energy. D) The wavelengths of visible light useful to plants resides in the electromagnetic spectrum ranging from 380 to 760 nm in wavelength. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The major photosynthetic pigments are xanthophylls and carotenoids. B) Chlorophyll is principally located in the stroma. C) The absorption spectrum of a pigment refers to the color of the visible light spectrum reflected from the pigment. D) Thylakoids can be found in stacks called grana. E) Vascular bundles bring oxygen to the palisade layer during photosynthesis. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) During the Calvin cycle, ________ and ________ supply energy for the fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide. A) ATP; NADPH B) O2; CO2 C) ATP; O2 D) H2O; NADPH E) H2O; O2 Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

36) When an electron is added to copper the charge on it changes from +2 to +1. This means copper has been chemically ________. A) phosphorylated B) oxidized C) reduced D) hydrolyzed E) energized Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) When ADP is phosphorylated, it becomes which of the following? A) DNA B) hydrolyzed C) AMP D) ATP E) oxidized Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Visible light is a form of ________ radiation. A) electromagnetic B) ultraviolet C) cosmic D) magnetic E) chemical Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) Chlorophyll is most concentrated in the ________ of the chloroplast. A) stroma B) matrix C) cristae D) grana E) nucleus Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) The oxygen (O2) from photosynthesis is derived from the "splitting" of ________. A) CO2 B) ATP C) NADPH D) H2O E) glucose Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) The wavelength for the maximum light absorption of the reaction center of Photosystem I is in the ________ region. A) red B) blue C) green D) yellow E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) When the Photosystem I reaction center is oxidized, ________ is reduced. A) ADP B) NADPH C) NADP+ D) glucose E) H2O Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) The ultimate source of electrons in the light reactions of photosynthesis is which of the following? A) H2O B) CO2 C) ATP D) glucose E) NADP+ Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

44) How many turns of the Calvin Cycle are required for the production of one glucose (C6H12O6)? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) The energy to power the Calvin Cycle reactions come from the ________ of the light reactions. A) reactants B) products C) redox reactions D) photophosphorylation reactions E) enzymes Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) The first stable product of the Calvin Cycle is a ________ molecule. A) glucose B) fructose C) phosphoglyceraldehyde D) phosphoglyceric acid E) sucrose Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) The first step of the Calving Cycle is the fixation of ________. A) carbon dioxide B) ATP C) water D) oxygen E) glucose Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

48) The enzyme responsible for the first step of the Calvin Cycle is which of the following? A) ATP synthase B) RUBISCO C) catalase D) amylase E) NABISCO Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) How are CAM plants different from all other plants? A) The final product of CAM photosynthesis is sucrose. B) The CO2 that diffuses into CAM plants is incorporated into an organic acid. C) Carbon fixation occurs at night. D) Stomata remain open during the day. E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The products of photosynthesis are the reactants of cellular respiration. B) Photosynthesis is a catabolic pathway; respiration is an anabolic pathway. C) Only in cellular respiration is ATP produced. D) If photosynthesis did not exist, cellular respiration would be unaffected. E) The electromagnetic energy involved in photosynthesis is in the ultraviolet region. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The main purpose of cellular respiration is the production of which of the following? A) CO2 B) NADH C) glucose D) ATP E) water Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

52) In what stage of cellular respiration is glucose split? A) glycolysis B) Krebs cycle C) electron transport D) Calvin cycle E) anaerobic cycle Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Where in a plant cell does most ATP production take place? A) stroma of the chloroplast B) grana of the chloroplast C) matrix of the mitochondrion D) inner membrane of the mitochondrion E) cytoplasm of the plant cell Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) What is the role of oxygen in aerobic cellular respiration? A) It is the final electron acceptor in electron transport. B) It provides energy for ATP synthase to function. C) It supplies electrons to electron transport. D) It is responsible for splitting glucose. E) It donates hydrogen ions to electrons. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) What is the importance of glucose in cellular respiration? A) When it splits, it generates the ATP necessary for metabolism. B) It provides electrons for the electron transport system. C) It powers the ATP synthase in chemiosmosis. D) It is the final electron acceptor in electron transport. E) It provides the fuel for making proteins from glucose. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

56) What powers ATP synthase to phosphorylate ADP to make ATP? A) the kinetic energy of the flow of NADH electrons B) the kinetic energy of the splitting of water C) the kinetic energy of the movement of protons (hydrogen ions) D) the kinetic energy of the spinning of the Krebs Cycle E) cyclic AMP and ADP Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The major organ of photosynthesis is the leaf. B) The actual site of photosynthesis is the chloroplast. C) Thylakoid sacs comprise the grana, sites of the light reaction. D) The stroma contains the enzymes that carry out the Calvin Cycle. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) When light strikes a pigment molecule in either Photosystem I or Photosystem II, the energy is funneled into a reaction center which consists of a chlorophyll a molecule bound to a membrane protein. B) The Reaction Center for Photosystem I is called P700, which is related to the visible wavelength of its maximum absorption. C) The Reaction Center for Photosystem II is called P680, which is related to the visible wavelength of its maximum absorption. D) Photosystem I and Photosystem II are interconnected pathways. E) During Photosystem I and II, a proton is excited and ejected, leaving P680 and P700 in a reduced state. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) The loss of water vapor from a leaf is known as translocation. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

60) As transpiration occurs in the leaf, it creates a cohesive pull on the whole water column downward through the xylem to the root, where water uptake occurs to replace the water lost through transpiration. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) Organic materials are translocated by the sieve tube members of the phloem. These sieve tube members are living and highly specialized. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) The hypothesis currently accepted to explain translocation in the phloem is the Pressure Flow Hypothesis. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) During glycolysis, glucose in broken down to yield two molecules of pyruvic acid. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) The reaction center P680 is found in photosystem I. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 65) Carotenoids are called accessory pigments. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

67) Oxygen is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) In chemiosmosis, the movement of ________ ions through the enzyme ________ generates ________ energy for the production of ________. Answer: Hydrogen; ATP synthase; kinetic; ATP Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) Glycolysis and the Krebs Cycle generate the electron carrier, ________, which carries electrons to the ________ where this electron carrier is oxidized. Answer: NADH; electron transport system Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 70) The purpose of photosynthesis is to generate ________ while the purpose of aerobic respiration is to generate ________. Answer: Glucose; ATP Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) While photosynthesis uses electrons from ________ for its electron transport system, cellular respiration uses electrons from ________ for its electron transport system. Answer: Water; glucose Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

For each of the following, indicate during which stage or stages of aerobic cellular respiration it occurs (i.e., glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and/or electron transport system). 72) ATP formed ________. Answer: all stages Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 73) CO2 given off ________. Answer: Krebs cycle Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 74) NADH oxidized ________. Answer: electron transport system Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 75) ATP used ________. Answer: glycolysis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic For each of the following, indicate during which stage or stages of photosynthesis it occurs (i.e., Photosystem I, Photosystem II, and/or Calvin cycle). 76) Fixation of carbon dioxide during the ________. Answer: Calvin cycle Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 77) O2 given off during ________. Answer: Photosystem II Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 78) ATP used during ________. Answer: Calvin cycle Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 5 Plant Life Cycle: Flowers 1) What are the green leafy structures of a typical flower the covers the unopened flower bud? A) sepals B) petals C) stamens D) carpels E) corolla 2) Which of the following is the correct sequence of floral structures from the outside to the inside of a typical flower? A) androecium, calyx, corolla, gynoecium B) calyx, corolla, gynoecium, androecium C) calyx, corolla, androecium, gynoecium D) corolla, calyx, androecium, gynoecium E) calyx, androecium, gynoecium, corolla 3) Together, the calyx and corollas constitute which of the following: A) perianth B) gynoecium C) anther D) filament E) stigma 4) What would you find between the sepals and the stamen of a typical complete flower? A) the calyx B) the gynoecium C) the androecium D) the corolla E) xylem 5) All of the following except one are parts of a typical carpel. Choose the exception. A) style B) filament C) stigma D) ovary E) zygote 6) Sepals, the outermost whorl of leaf-like structures that cover the unopened flower bud are usually which of the following: A) dead parenchyma and collenchyma B) green and photosynthetic C) green and cyanotic D) green and toxic E) None of the above are correct. 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) What are breaking tulips? A) tulips with bulbs that shatter on planting B) tulips with pedicels that split along a seam C) tulips with bulbs that split leading to more than one flower per bulb D) tulips with unpredictable stripes of vivid color against a contrasting background E) None of the above are correct. 8) Flowers that have all four floral appendages are called which of the following: A) complete B) incomplete C) angiosperms D) gymnosperms E) None of the above are correct. 9) What does the virus that causes the breaking of tulips do to cause this effect? A) infects the phloem and reduce the flow of sucrose to the bulbs B) suppresses the expression of reds and blues in some perianth cells but not others C) causes the cloning of cells similar to cancer D) creates holes in the phloem allowing for the leakage of sap that attracts aphids who then create tunnels to the bulbs E) None of the above are correct. 10) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) A flower can be both incomplete and perfect. B) A flower can be both complete and imperfect. C) A flower can be both incomplete and imperfect. D) A flower can be both complete and perfect. E) More than one of these are an incorrect statement. 11) A plant with imperfect flowers has which of the following? A) stamens and carpels but lacks either sepals or petals B) lacks either stamens or carpels C) lacks either stamens, carpels, sepals, or petals D) problems adjusting E) None of the above are correct. 12) Which of the following becomes a fruit? A) the entire flower B) the carpel C) the anther D) the ovary E) the ovule

13) The ________ of a flower produce eggs while the ________ of the flower produce sperm. A) ovary, anther B) style, filament C) stigma, anther D) style, stigma E) anther, ovary 14) You find a flower that is dioecious, hypogenous, and zygomorphic. Which of the following statements would be the correct interpretation of this information? A) The flower has both sexes, an inferior ovary, and bilateral symmetry. B) The flower has one sex, a superior ovary, and bilateral symmetry. C) The flower has one sex, an inferior ovary, and bilateral symmetry. D) The flower has both sexes, a superior ovary, and radial symmetry. E) None of the above are correct. 15) Lilies have a diploid number of 24. After meiosis, how many chromosomes do each of the gametes have? A) 24 B) 48 C) 12 D) 6 E) None of the above are correct. 16) Which of the following does not describe inflorescence types? A) spike B) raceme C) panicle D) umbel E) All of the above describe different inflorescence types. 17) Regular flowers (actinomorphic) have radial symmetry and include all but which of the following? A) orchid B) sunflower C) daffodil D) lily E) rose 18) Which of the following plant structures (or forms) are not haploid? A) spores B) gametophytes C) sporophytes D) gametes E) All of these plant structures are haploid.

19) When in meiosis is the haploid condition established? A) after the first cytokinesis B) after the second cytokinesis C) between metaphase II and anaphase II D) between telophase II and the second cytokinesis E) during interphase 20) In what stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate? A) metaphase I B) anaphase I C) metaphase II D) anaphase II E) during interphase II 21) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Chromosomes are duplicated during prophase. B) Synapsis occurs when homologous chromosomes physically meet. C) Crossing over results in chromatids that are complete but have new genetic combinations. D) Spores are reproductive units formed in a sporangium. E) The sporophyte is the diploid plant. 22) Which of the following is triploid in a typical angiosperm? A) the egg B) the megaspore mother cells C) the endosperm D) the embryo E) the microspore mother cells 23) What is the fate of the four megaspores that result from meiosis in a typical angiosperm? A) All four develop into ovules. B) Two develop into ovules; two develop into the seed coat. C) One develops into an ovule; the other three become microspores. D) One develops into an ovule; the other three degenerate. E) All of the above are correct. 24) What is the fate of the four microspores that result from meiosis in a typical angiosperm? A) All four develop into pollen grains. B) Two develop into pollen grains; two develop into the pollen outer wall. C) One develops into a pollen grain; the other three become megaspores. D) One develops into a pollen grain; the other three degenerate. E) None of the above are correct.

25) In the life cycle of a typical angiosperm, meiosis leads directly to the formation of which of the following? A) sperm and eggs B) a zygote C) gametophytes D) microspores and megaspores E) sporophytes 26) In the life cycle of a typical angiosperm, which of the following undergoes meiosis? A) megaspores B) microspore mother cells C) female gametophytes D) embryos E) More than one of the above undergoes meiosis. 27) For which of the following has the study of pollen been shown to be important? A) the search for oil deposits B) Navajo sacred ceremonies C) determining the diets of ancient peoples D) causing hay fever E) All of these are reasons why the study of pollen is important. 28) The complementary adaptations of flowers and their pollinators is a result of which of the following? A) sexual selection B) adaptation to plant behavior C) convergent evolution D) coevolution: interactions between plants and pollinators over time E) None of the above are correct. 29) You find a flower that is small, white, odorless, and with long filaments and copious pollen. This flower is most likely pollinated by which of the following? A) wind. B) bees. C) moths or flies. D) hummingbirds. E) rain splash. 30) A carpellate flower is which of the following? A) unisexual male flower B) unisexual female flower C) flower with both sex organs D) flower without petals E) none of the above

31) Endosperm forms when which one of the following takes place? A) when two polar nuclei and one sperm unite B) when the zygote develops into an embryo C) when the embryo sac or female gametophyte is formed D) when pollen chambers fill with microspores E) All of the above are correct. 32) In squash flowers, the flower parts are inserted above the ovary. What is this condition called? A) hypogynous B) perigynous C) hypergynous D) epigynous E) None of the above are correct. 33) Enfleurage is a process used in the production of which of the following? A) honey. B) alcoholic drinks. C) molasses. D) perfumes. E) None of the above are correct. 34) In angiosperm double fertilization, one sperm nucleus fertilizes the egg and the other fertilizes which of the following? A) polar nuclei. B) antipodals. C) endosperm. D) integuments. E) synergids. 35) What is the function of endosperm? A) It provides protection for the seed. B) It develops into the fruit. C) It provides nourishment for the developing embryo. D) It directs the pollen tube to the egg. E) None of the above are correct. 36) Which of the following structures is not part of the ovule? A) polar nuclei B) synergids C) exine D) antipodals E) pollen grain

37) Most of the nutritive value of rice, wheat, and corn grains is found in which of the following? A) endosperm B) seed coat C) embryo D) cotyledons E) None of the above are correct. 38) Which of the following develops into the male gametophyte? A) anther B) microspore C) carpel D) ovary E) ovule 39) The pollen tube of the germinated pollen grain serves to which of the following? A) Delivers the sperm to the female gametophyte. B) Anchors the pollen grain on the stigma of the flower. C) Delivers nutrients to the ovule within the ovary. D) Forms microspores from macrospores. E) None of the above are correct. 40) Homologous chromosomes cross-over and exchange genes during what stage of meiosis? A) prophase I B) prophase II C) metaphase I D) telophase II E) anaphase I 41) Flowers pollinated by birds are often which of the following? A) heavily scented B) night bloomers C) pigmented (red, orange, or yellow) D) speckled to resemble insects E) lacking petals 42) Which of the following is a pendulous (hanging) inflorescence and consists only of unisexual flowers? A) catkin B) spike C) raceme D) head E) umbel 43) During double fertilization one sperm unites with the ________ to form a zygote, while the second sperm unites with the ________ to form the primary endosperm nucleus. 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

44) In flowers meiosis occurs in the ________ of the stamen and the ________ of the carpel. 45) The female gametophyte of flowering plants is called the ________. 46) Meiosis results in the production of ________ haploid cells. 47) A unisexual flower lacking carpels would be called ________. 48) The highly resistant outer pollen wall called the ________ allows the pollen grain to be identified in geological sediments. 49) Fruit formation without fertilization is known as ________. 50) A flower pattern of 3s or 6s indicates a monocot. 51) Flowers are essentially modified branches with four sets of specialized appendages or floral organs: sepals, petals, stamens, and endosperm. 52) The entire whorl of sepals of a single flower is called the calyx. 53) Fly-pollinated flowers are usually pale in color and give off a delicate scent only in the evenings. 54) Wind-pollinated flowers usually have large showy petals. 55) The stigma is that part of the carpel that receives pollen grains. 56) The pollen producing parts of a flower are called anthers. 57) In the seventeenth century, a buying frenzy for exotic orchids resulted in an economic crisis for the Netherlands.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 5 Plant Life Cycle: Flowers 1) What are the green leafy structures of a typical flower the covers the unopened flower bud? A) sepals B) petals C) stamens D) carpels E) corolla Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following is the correct sequence of floral structures from the outside to the inside of a typical flower? A) androecium, calyx, corolla, gynoecium B) calyx, corolla, gynoecium, androecium C) calyx, corolla, androecium, gynoecium D) corolla, calyx, androecium, gynoecium E) calyx, androecium, gynoecium, corolla Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Together, the calyx and corollas constitute which of the following: A) perianth B) gynoecium C) anther D) filament E) stigma Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) What would you find between the sepals and the stamen of a typical complete flower? A) the calyx B) the gynoecium C) the androecium D) the corolla E) xylem Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) All of the following except one are parts of a typical carpel. Choose the exception. A) style B) filament C) stigma D) ovary E) zygote Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Sepals, the outermost whorl of leaf-like structures that cover the unopened flower bud are usually which of the following: A) dead parenchyma and collenchyma B) green and photosynthetic C) green and cyanotic D) green and toxic E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) What are breaking tulips? A) tulips with bulbs that shatter on planting B) tulips with pedicels that split along a seam C) tulips with bulbs that split leading to more than one flower per bulb D) tulips with unpredictable stripes of vivid color against a contrasting background E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

8) Flowers that have all four floral appendages are called which of the following: A) complete B) incomplete C) angiosperms D) gymnosperms E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) What does the virus that causes the breaking of tulips do to cause this effect? A) infects the phloem and reduce the flow of sucrose to the bulbs B) suppresses the expression of reds and blues in some perianth cells but not others C) causes the cloning of cells similar to cancer D) creates holes in the phloem allowing for the leakage of sap that attracts aphids who then create tunnels to the bulbs E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) A flower can be both incomplete and perfect. B) A flower can be both complete and imperfect. C) A flower can be both incomplete and imperfect. D) A flower can be both complete and perfect. E) More than one of these are an incorrect statement. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) A plant with imperfect flowers has which of the following? A) stamens and carpels but lacks either sepals or petals B) lacks either stamens or carpels C) lacks either stamens, carpels, sepals, or petals D) problems adjusting E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

12) Which of the following becomes a fruit? A) the entire flower B) the carpel C) the anther D) the ovary E) the ovule Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) The ________ of a flower produce eggs while the ________ of the flower produce sperm. A) ovary, anther B) style, filament C) stigma, anther D) style, stigma E) anther, ovary Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) You find a flower that is dioecious, hypogenous, and zygomorphic. Which of the following statements would be the correct interpretation of this information? A) The flower has both sexes, an inferior ovary, and bilateral symmetry. B) The flower has one sex, a superior ovary, and bilateral symmetry. C) The flower has one sex, an inferior ovary, and bilateral symmetry. D) The flower has both sexes, a superior ovary, and radial symmetry. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) Lilies have a diploid number of 24. After meiosis, how many chromosomes do each of the gametes have? A) 24 B) 48 C) 12 D) 6 E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

16) Which of the following does not describe inflorescence types? A) spike B) raceme C) panicle D) umbel E) All of the above describe different inflorescence types. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Regular flowers (actinomorphic) have radial symmetry and include all but which of the following? A) orchid B) sunflower C) daffodil D) lily E) rose Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Which of the following plant structures (or forms) are not haploid? A) spores B) gametophytes C) sporophytes D) gametes E) All of these plant structures are haploid. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) When in meiosis is the haploid condition established? A) after the first cytokinesis B) after the second cytokinesis C) between metaphase II and anaphase II D) between telophase II and the second cytokinesis E) during interphase Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

20) In what stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate? A) metaphase I B) anaphase I C) metaphase II D) anaphase II E) during interphase II Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Chromosomes are duplicated during prophase. B) Synapsis occurs when homologous chromosomes physically meet. C) Crossing over results in chromatids that are complete but have new genetic combinations. D) Spores are reproductive units formed in a sporangium. E) The sporophyte is the diploid plant. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Which of the following is triploid in a typical angiosperm? A) the egg B) the megaspore mother cells C) the endosperm D) the embryo E) the microspore mother cells Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) What is the fate of the four megaspores that result from meiosis in a typical angiosperm? A) All four develop into ovules. B) Two develop into ovules; two develop into the seed coat. C) One develops into an ovule; the other three become microspores. D) One develops into an ovule; the other three degenerate. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

24) What is the fate of the four microspores that result from meiosis in a typical angiosperm? A) All four develop into pollen grains. B) Two develop into pollen grains; two develop into the pollen outer wall. C) One develops into a pollen grain; the other three become megaspores. D) One develops into a pollen grain; the other three degenerate. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) In the life cycle of a typical angiosperm, meiosis leads directly to the formation of which of the following? A) sperm and eggs B) a zygote C) gametophytes D) microspores and megaspores E) sporophytes Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) In the life cycle of a typical angiosperm, which of the following undergoes meiosis? A) megaspores B) microspore mother cells C) female gametophytes D) embryos E) More than one of the above undergoes meiosis. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) For which of the following has the study of pollen been shown to be important? A) the search for oil deposits B) Navajo sacred ceremonies C) determining the diets of ancient peoples D) causing hay fever E) All of these are reasons why the study of pollen is important. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

28) The complementary adaptations of flowers and their pollinators is a result of which of the following? A) sexual selection B) adaptation to plant behavior C) convergent evolution D) coevolution: interactions between plants and pollinators over time E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) You find a flower that is small, white, odorless, and with long filaments and copious pollen. This flower is most likely pollinated by which of the following? A) wind. B) bees. C) moths or flies. D) hummingbirds. E) rain splash. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) A carpellate flower is which of the following? A) unisexual male flower B) unisexual female flower C) flower with both sex organs D) flower without petals E) none of the above Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Endosperm forms when which one of the following takes place? A) when two polar nuclei and one sperm unite B) when the zygote develops into an embryo C) when the embryo sac or female gametophyte is formed D) when pollen chambers fill with microspores E) All of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

32) In squash flowers, the flower parts are inserted above the ovary. What is this condition called? A) hypogynous B) perigynous C) hypergynous D) epigynous E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Enfleurage is a process used in the production of which of the following? A) honey. B) alcoholic drinks. C) molasses. D) perfumes. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) In angiosperm double fertilization, one sperm nucleus fertilizes the egg and the other fertilizes which of the following? A) polar nuclei. B) antipodals. C) endosperm. D) integuments. E) synergids. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) What is the function of endosperm? A) It provides protection for the seed. B) It develops into the fruit. C) It provides nourishment for the developing embryo. D) It directs the pollen tube to the egg. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

36) Which of the following structures is not part of the ovule? A) polar nuclei B) synergids C) exine D) antipodals E) pollen grain Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Most of the nutritive value of rice, wheat, and corn grains is found in which of the following? A) endosperm B) seed coat C) embryo D) cotyledons E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Which of the following develops into the male gametophyte? A) anther B) microspore C) carpel D) ovary E) ovule Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) The pollen tube of the germinated pollen grain serves to which of the following? A) Delivers the sperm to the female gametophyte. B) Anchors the pollen grain on the stigma of the flower. C) Delivers nutrients to the ovule within the ovary. D) Forms microspores from macrospores. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) Homologous chromosomes cross-over and exchange genes during what stage of meiosis? A) prophase I B) prophase II C) metaphase I D) telophase II E) anaphase I Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) Flowers pollinated by birds are often which of the following? A) heavily scented B) night bloomers C) pigmented (red, orange, or yellow) D) speckled to resemble insects E) lacking petals Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Which of the following is a pendulous (hanging) inflorescence and consists only of unisexual flowers? A) catkin B) spike C) raceme D) head E) umbel Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) During double fertilization one sperm unites with the ________ to form a zygote, while the second sperm unites with the ________ to form the primary endosperm nucleus. Answer: egg; polar nuclei Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) In flowers meiosis occurs in the ________ of the stamen and the ________ of the carpel. Answer: anther; ovary Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

45) The female gametophyte of flowering plants is called the ________. Answer: embryo sac Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Meiosis results in the production of ________ haploid cells. Answer: four Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) A unisexual flower lacking carpels would be called ________. Answer: staminate Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) The highly resistant outer pollen wall called the ________ allows the pollen grain to be identified in geological sediments. Answer: exine Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) Fruit formation without fertilization is known as ________. Answer: parthenocarpy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) A flower pattern of 3s or 6s indicates a monocot. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) Flowers are essentially modified branches with four sets of specialized appendages or floral organs: sepals, petals, stamens, and endosperm. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

52) The entire whorl of sepals of a single flower is called the calyx. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Fly-pollinated flowers are usually pale in color and give off a delicate scent only in the evenings. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Wind-pollinated flowers usually have large showy petals. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) The stigma is that part of the carpel that receives pollen grains. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) The pollen producing parts of a flower are called anthers. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) In the seventeenth century, a buying frenzy for exotic orchids resulted in an economic crisis for the Netherlands. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 6 Plant Life Cycle: Fruits and Seeds 1) Which of the following is not one of the pericarp layers? A) mesocarp B) exocarp C) metacarp D) endocarp E) All of the above are correct. 2) You discover a fleshy fruit with a thin exocarp, fleshy mesocarp, and hard stony endocarp. What type of fruit have you discovered? A) pome B) hesperidium C) pepo D) berry E) drupe 3) Which of the following is correct? A) A berry has a thin exocarp, a soft, fleshy mesocarp, and an endocarp enclosing one to many seeds (e.g., tomatoes). B) A hesperidium is a berry with a tough leathery rind (e.g., oranges). C) A pepo is a specialized berry with a tough outer rind (consisting of both receptacle tissue and exocarp), such as pumpkins, melons, and cucumbers. D) A drupe has a thin exocarp, a fleshy mesocarp, and a hard, stony endocarp that encases the seed (e.g., cherries, plums). E) All of the above are correct. 4) You discover a fleshy fruit with a tough, leathery rind and internal juice sacs each containing a single seed. You have discovered a A) pome. B) hesperidium. C) pepo. D) berry. E) drupe. 5) You discover an indehiscent dry fruit that does not split open. It has a single seed that is free within the pericarp. How would your fruit be classified? A) follicle B) achene C) grain D) legume E) capsule

6) You discover a fleshy fruit that developed from a single flower with multiple carpels. How would you classify your fleshy fruit? A) aggregate fruit B) drupe C) pepo D) multiple fruit E) pome 7) Multiple fruits result from which of the following? A) fusion of ovaries from many separate flowers on an inflorescence B) separation of one ovum into many ovules C) fusion of dehiscent follicles D) separation of capsules into many inflorescences E) None of the above are correct. 8) A strawberry is classified as which of the following? A) a berry B) a pome C) an aggregate fruit D) an achene E) More than one of these fruit types are correct. 9) Corn seed is classified as which of the following? A) achene B) grain or caryopsis C) multiple fruit D) drupe E) berry 10) Zucchini squash is classified as which of the following? A) pome B) hesperidium C) pepo D) berry E) vegetable not a fruit 11) The defining difference between monocots and dicots is which of the following? A) the number of flower parts B) the vein pattern C) the root type D) number of cotyledons E) their type of flower parts

12) Which of the following best describes a dicot seed? A) two thin cotyledons, abundant endosperm, and a coleoptile B) one large, thick cotyledon, very little endosperm, and a hilum C) one thin cotyledon, abundant endosperm, and a coleorhiza D) two large, thick cotyledons, abundant endosperm, and a micropyle E) None of the above correctly describes a dicot seed. 13) All of the following structures are visible in monocot seeds except one. Choose the exception. A) scutellum B) radicle C) coleoptile D) coleorhiza E) micropyle 14) Which of the following structures is a protective sheath surrounding the epicotyl? A) coleoptile B) coleorhiza C) scutellum D) testa E) caryopsis 15) The first structure to emerge from a germinating seed is which of the following? A) epicotyl B) hypocotyl C) radicle D) cotyledon E) coleoptile 16) In most dicots, the ________ emerges through the soil first while in most monocots, the ________ emerges through the soil first. A) radicle; scutellum B) epicotyl; radicle C) hypocotyl; scutellum D) hypocotyl; coleoptile E) epicotyl; coleoptile 17) Which of the following is correct? A) A testa is a thin, membranous seed coat that protects the embryo from adverse environmental conditions. B) A hilum and micropyle are usually visible on the surface of the testa. C) The hilum is a scar that results from the separation of the seed from the ovary wall. D) The embryo consists of the epicotyl, hypocotyl, and radicle. E) All of the above are correct.

18) According to a poorly informed decision by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1893, tomatoes are classified as which of the following? A) berries B) hesperidiums C) poisonous D) vegetables E) None of the above are correct. 19) The "Apple of Peru" is called which of the following? A) tomato B) apple C) chestnut D) orange E) grapefruit 20) Tomatoes belong to the mostly poisonous ________ (solanaceous) family. A) lily B) hemlock C) nightshade D) buttercup E) bittersweet 21) Solanum lycopersicum is the scientific name of which of the following? A) apple B) chestnut C) orange D) tomato E) grapefruit 22) Research by Charles Darwin and his son lead to the discovery of the plant hormone ________. A) gibberellin B) auxin C) cytokinin D) abscisic acid E) ethylene 23) Parthenocarpy can be induced by the application of ________ to flowers before pollen is mature. A) gibberellin B) auxin C) cytokinin D) abscisic acid E) ethylene

24) Auxins work by stimulating which of the following? A) internode elongation B) cell division C) fruit softening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure 25) Gibberellin works by stimulating which of the following? A) internode elongation B) cell division C) fruit softening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure 26) Abscisic acid works by stimulating which of the following? A) internode elongation B) cell division C) fruit softening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure 27) Cytokinins work by stimulating which of the following? A) internode elongation B) cell division C) fruit softening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure 28) Ethylene works by stimulating ________. A) internode elongation B) cell division. C) fruit softening and ripening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure 29) The red color of tomatoes is mainly the result of which of the following pigments? A) beta-carotene B) anthocyanin C) chlorophyll D) lycopene E) xanthophyll

30) The Aft gene promotes which of the following? A) larger apples. B) sweeter oranges. C) larger grapefruits. D) purple tomatoes. E) more than one of these. 31) Malus pumila is the scientific name of which of the following? A) apple B) chestnut C) orange D) tomato E) grapefruit 32) To insure growing the same variety of apple, which of the following do large-scale apple growers do? A) hand pollinate compatible varieties B) only plant seeds from the tree with the desirable variety C) graft stems from desirable varieties to hardy rootstock D) spray crops heavily with auxin and ethylene E) prevent bees from cross-pollinating the desirable trees with ones that are less desirable 33) Which of the following statements does not describe an apple fruit? A) It is a pome B) The ovary formed from the fusion of five ovaries C) The endocarp is the papery-like material surrounding the seeds D) Most of the fruit develops from the receptacle E) All of these statements describe an apple fruit. 34) Which of the following was the first citrus fruit known to Western civilization? A) sweet orange B) grapefruit C) lime D) citron E) lemon 35) Castanea dentata is the scientific name of which of the following? A) sweet orange B) apple C) American chestnut D) tomato E) the fungus that causes Chestnut blight

36) What attracts animals and insect specialists to oranges? A) the orange color B) fragrant essential oils C) nutritious seeds D) brightly colored flowers E) a bumpy epicarp 37) To grow bright orange oranges, ________ is essential. A) a warm tropical climate B) year-round rainfall C) cool nighttime temperatures D) snow at least once in the year E) extreme variation in daytime and nighttime temperatures 38) The largest of the citrus fruits is the A) grapefruit. B) blood orange. C) citron. D) pummelo. E) kumquat. 39) What caused the nearly total demise of the American chestnut tree? A) overharvesting of the tree for wood B) overharvesting the fruits C) expanding human settlements D) a fungal disease, Chestnut blight E) None of the above are correct. 40) A winged dry fruit is classified as which of the following? A) nut B) achene C) samara D) schizocarp E) pepo 41) If ________ is applied to a dwarf plant variety it will grow to a normal height for that variety. A) auxin B) cytokinin C) gibberellin D) abscisic acid E) estrogen

42) Bananas when put in a paper bag with a ripe avocado will ripen faster than if they are in the bag without the avocado. This happens because avocado is a "super" producer of ________. A) auxin B) ethylene C) gibberellin D) cytokinin E) glycogen 43) What scar is left when the seed separates from the ovary wall? A) testa B) micropyle C) hilum D) coleorhiza E) abscission 44) Phototropism is a growth response to gravity. 45) Botanically, nuts are one-seeded fruits with hard, stony pericarps, such as acorns and hazelnuts. 46) According to Dan Jansen, plants that had coevolved with large herbivores in the Americas, lost the animal distributors of their massive fruits when these massive animals became extinct over 13,000 years ago. 47) Application of abscisic acid will cause leaves to drop from trees. 48) The SEEDS project demonstrated that conditions of weightlessness and exposure to cosmic radiation were inhibitory to the germination of tomato seeds. 49) Although widely cultivated in California and Florida today, oranges and other citrus fruits are native to Brazil. 50) Ethylene, salicylic acid, and abscisic acid are all "stress hormones" released in response to the presence of pathogens. 51) Abscisic acid is an inhibitor hormone that promotes dormancy in seeds and buds. It is also involved in regulating water balance in plants by causing stomata to close. 52) The navel in a navel orange is actually an aborted ________. 53) During seed germination the ________ of the embryo emerges first. 54) Achenes, nuts, and grains are all types of dry ________ fruits. 55) The ________ is a protective covering around the epicotyl of a monocot seedling. 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

56) The juice of the ________ may dangerously elevate blood levels of certain prescription drugs. 57) ________ are fruits from tropical Asia which are known as much for their heavenly taste as for their foul smell.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 6 Plant Life Cycle: Fruits and Seeds 1) Which of the following is not one of the pericarp layers? A) mesocarp B) exocarp C) metacarp D) endocarp E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) You discover a fleshy fruit with a thin exocarp, fleshy mesocarp, and hard stony endocarp. What type of fruit have you discovered? A) pome B) hesperidium C) pepo D) berry E) drupe Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Which of the following is correct? A) A berry has a thin exocarp, a soft, fleshy mesocarp, and an endocarp enclosing one to many seeds (e.g., tomatoes). B) A hesperidium is a berry with a tough leathery rind (e.g., oranges). C) A pepo is a specialized berry with a tough outer rind (consisting of both receptacle tissue and exocarp), such as pumpkins, melons, and cucumbers. D) A drupe has a thin exocarp, a fleshy mesocarp, and a hard, stony endocarp that encases the seed (e.g., cherries, plums). E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) You discover a fleshy fruit with a tough, leathery rind and internal juice sacs each containing a single seed. You have discovered a A) pome. B) hesperidium. C) pepo. D) berry. E) drupe. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) You discover an indehiscent dry fruit that does not split open. It has a single seed that is free within the pericarp. How would your fruit be classified? A) follicle B) achene C) grain D) legume E) capsule Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) You discover a fleshy fruit that developed from a single flower with multiple carpels. How would you classify your fleshy fruit? A) aggregate fruit B) drupe C) pepo D) multiple fruit E) pome Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Multiple fruits result from which of the following? A) fusion of ovaries from many separate flowers on an inflorescence B) separation of one ovum into many ovules C) fusion of dehiscent follicles D) separation of capsules into many inflorescences E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) A strawberry is classified as which of the following? A) a berry B) a pome C) an aggregate fruit D) an achene E) More than one of these fruit types are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Corn seed is classified as which of the following? A) achene B) grain or caryopsis C) multiple fruit D) drupe E) berry Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Zucchini squash is classified as which of the following? A) pome B) hesperidium C) pepo D) berry E) vegetable not a fruit Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) The defining difference between monocots and dicots is which of the following? A) the number of flower parts B) the vein pattern C) the root type D) number of cotyledons E) their type of flower parts Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

12) Which of the following best describes a dicot seed? A) two thin cotyledons, abundant endosperm, and a coleoptile B) one large, thick cotyledon, very little endosperm, and a hilum C) one thin cotyledon, abundant endosperm, and a coleorhiza D) two large, thick cotyledons, abundant endosperm, and a micropyle E) None of the above correctly describes a dicot seed. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) All of the following structures are visible in monocot seeds except one. Choose the exception. A) scutellum B) radicle C) coleoptile D) coleorhiza E) micropyle Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Which of the following structures is a protective sheath surrounding the epicotyl? A) coleoptile B) coleorhiza C) scutellum D) testa E) caryopsis Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) The first structure to emerge from a germinating seed is which of the following? A) epicotyl B) hypocotyl C) radicle D) cotyledon E) coleoptile Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

16) In most dicots, the ________ emerges through the soil first while in most monocots, the ________ emerges through the soil first. A) radicle; scutellum B) epicotyl; radicle C) hypocotyl; scutellum D) hypocotyl; coleoptile E) epicotyl; coleoptile Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Which of the following is correct? A) A testa is a thin, membranous seed coat that protects the embryo from adverse environmental conditions. B) A hilum and micropyle are usually visible on the surface of the testa. C) The hilum is a scar that results from the separation of the seed from the ovary wall. D) The embryo consists of the epicotyl, hypocotyl, and radicle. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) According to a poorly informed decision by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1893, tomatoes are classified as which of the following? A) berries B) hesperidiums C) poisonous D) vegetables E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) The "Apple of Peru" is called which of the following? A) tomato B) apple C) chestnut D) orange E) grapefruit Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

20) Tomatoes belong to the mostly poisonous ________ (solanaceous) family. A) lily B) hemlock C) nightshade D) buttercup E) bittersweet Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Solanum lycopersicum is the scientific name of which of the following? A) apple B) chestnut C) orange D) tomato E) grapefruit Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Research by Charles Darwin and his son lead to the discovery of the plant hormone ________. A) gibberellin B) auxin C) cytokinin D) abscisic acid E) ethylene Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Parthenocarpy can be induced by the application of ________ to flowers before pollen is mature. A) gibberellin B) auxin C) cytokinin D) abscisic acid E) ethylene Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

24) Auxins work by stimulating which of the following? A) internode elongation B) cell division C) fruit softening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Gibberellin works by stimulating which of the following? A) internode elongation B) cell division C) fruit softening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Abscisic acid works by stimulating which of the following? A) internode elongation B) cell division C) fruit softening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Cytokinins work by stimulating which of the following? A) internode elongation B) cell division C) fruit softening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

28) Ethylene works by stimulating ________. A) internode elongation B) cell division. C) fruit softening and ripening D) cell elongation E) stomatal closure Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) The red color of tomatoes is mainly the result of which of the following pigments? A) beta-carotene B) anthocyanin C) chlorophyll D) lycopene E) xanthophyll Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) The Aft gene promotes which of the following? A) larger apples. B) sweeter oranges. C) larger grapefruits. D) purple tomatoes. E) more than one of these. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Malus pumila is the scientific name of which of the following? A) apple B) chestnut C) orange D) tomato E) grapefruit Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

32) To insure growing the same variety of apple, which of the following do large-scale apple growers do? A) hand pollinate compatible varieties B) only plant seeds from the tree with the desirable variety C) graft stems from desirable varieties to hardy rootstock D) spray crops heavily with auxin and ethylene E) prevent bees from cross-pollinating the desirable trees with ones that are less desirable Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Which of the following statements does not describe an apple fruit? A) It is a pome B) The ovary formed from the fusion of five ovaries C) The endocarp is the papery-like material surrounding the seeds D) Most of the fruit develops from the receptacle E) All of these statements describe an apple fruit. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Which of the following was the first citrus fruit known to Western civilization? A) sweet orange B) grapefruit C) lime D) citron E) lemon Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Castanea dentata is the scientific name of which of the following? A) sweet orange B) apple C) American chestnut D) tomato E) the fungus that causes Chestnut blight Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

36) What attracts animals and insect specialists to oranges? A) the orange color B) fragrant essential oils C) nutritious seeds D) brightly colored flowers E) a bumpy epicarp Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) To grow bright orange oranges, ________ is essential. A) a warm tropical climate B) year-round rainfall C) cool nighttime temperatures D) snow at least once in the year E) extreme variation in daytime and nighttime temperatures Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) The largest of the citrus fruits is the A) grapefruit. B) blood orange. C) citron. D) pummelo. E) kumquat. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) What caused the nearly total demise of the American chestnut tree? A) overharvesting of the tree for wood B) overharvesting the fruits C) expanding human settlements D) a fungal disease, Chestnut blight E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) A winged dry fruit is classified as which of the following? A) nut B) achene C) samara D) schizocarp E) pepo Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) If ________ is applied to a dwarf plant variety it will grow to a normal height for that variety. A) auxin B) cytokinin C) gibberellin D) abscisic acid E) estrogen Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Bananas when put in a paper bag with a ripe avocado will ripen faster than if they are in the bag without the avocado. This happens because avocado is a "super" producer of ________. A) auxin B) ethylene C) gibberellin D) cytokinin E) glycogen Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) What scar is left when the seed separates from the ovary wall? A) testa B) micropyle C) hilum D) coleorhiza E) abscission Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

44) Phototropism is a growth response to gravity. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) Botanically, nuts are one-seeded fruits with hard, stony pericarps, such as acorns and hazelnuts. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) According to Dan Jansen, plants that had coevolved with large herbivores in the Americas, lost the animal distributors of their massive fruits when these massive animals became extinct over 13,000 years ago. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Application of abscisic acid will cause leaves to drop from trees. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) The SEEDS project demonstrated that conditions of weightlessness and exposure to cosmic radiation were inhibitory to the germination of tomato seeds. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) Although widely cultivated in California and Florida today, oranges and other citrus fruits are native to Brazil. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

50) Ethylene, salicylic acid, and abscisic acid are all "stress hormones" released in response to the presence of pathogens. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) Abscisic acid is an inhibitor hormone that promotes dormancy in seeds and buds. It is also involved in regulating water balance in plants by causing stomata to close. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) The navel in a navel orange is actually an aborted ________. Answer: ovary Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) During seed germination the ________ of the embryo emerges first. Answer: radicle Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Achenes, nuts, and grains are all types of dry ________ fruits. Answer: indehiscent Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) The ________ is a protective covering around the epicotyl of a monocot seedling. Answer: coleoptile Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) The juice of the ________ may dangerously elevate blood levels of certain prescription drugs. Answer: grapefruit Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

57) ________ are fruits from tropical Asia which are known as much for their heavenly taste as for their foul smell. Answer: Durians Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 7 Genetics 1) Alternative forms of the same gene are called which of the following? A) loci B) homologous C) heterozygous D) alleles E) None of the above are correct. 2) A pea plant received a dominant allele for flower color from one of its parents and a recessive allele for flower color from its other parent. The genotype of this pea plant is called which of the following? A) homozygous recessive B) heterozygous C) homozygous dominant D) undetermined E) hemizygous 3) A pea plant received a dominant allele for flower color from one of its parents and a dominant allele for flower color from its other parent. The genotype of this pea plant is classified as which of the following? A) homozygous recessive B) heterozygous C) homozygous dominant D) undetermined E) hemizygous recessive 4) A pea plant received a dominant allele for flower color from one of its parents and a dominant allele for flower color from its other parent. The phenotype of this pea plant is which of the following? A) homozygous recessive B) heterozygous C) homozygous dominant D) undetermined E) Not enough information is given to determine the phenotype. 5) Which of the following was unknown during Mendel's time? A) the structure of DNA B) mitosis and meiosis C) genes and chromosomes D) the structure of nucleotides E) None of these were known in Mendel's time.

6) What was the immediate fate of Mendel's 1865 publication of his pea plant experiments? A) He received universal praise and the science of genetics was born. B) It was immediately condemned as anti-religious and banned by the Catholic Church. C) He was accused of fraud and fudging his data. D) It was mostly ignored for over 30 years. E) It was likely read carefully by Charles Darwin, because it reinforced his belief in "blending" inheritance. 7) What trait did the parent pea plants have that made Mendel's experiments possible? A) They were self-pollinating. B) They were all homozygous dominant. C) They were all homozygous recessive. D) They were all heterozygous. E) More than one of these traits made Mendel's experiments possible. 8) In pea plants, purple flower color is dominant to white flower color. If in the P generation, a pure-breeding white flowering pea plant is crossed with a pure-breeding purple flowering pea plant, what will be the expected phenotypes of the F2 generation? A) all purple flowering pea plants B) 1/2 purple flowering pea plants; 1/2 white C) all white flowering pea plants D) 3/4 purple flowering pea plants; 1/4 white E) 1/4 purple flowering pea plants; 3/4 white 9) In pea plants, purple flower color is dominant to white flower color. If in the P generation, a pure-breeding white flowering pea plant is crossed with a pure-breeding purple flowering pea plant, what will be the expected genotypes of the F2 generation? A) all homozygous dominant B) 1/2 homozygous dominant; 1/2 homozygous recessive C) all homozygous recessive D) 3/4 homozygous dominant; 1/4 homozygous recessive E) 1/4 homozygous dominant; 1/2 heterozygous; 1/4 homozygous recessive 10) Mendel's principle of segregation relates directly to an event that occurs in ________ of meiosis. A) Prophase I B) Anaphase I C) Metaphase I D) Prophase II E) Anaphase II

11) Which of the following crosses will produce offspring that show the recessive phenotype? A) Aa × AA B) AA × aa C) Aa × Aa D) AA × Aa E) The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 12) In a cross between a pure breeding tall plant (dominant) and a pure breeding dwarf plant (recessive) the expected genotypes of the offspring will be which of the following? A) all homozygous dominant B) all heterozygous C) all homozygous recessive D) 3/4 heterozygous; 1/4 homozygous recessive E) half homozygous dominant; half heterozygous 13) In a cross between a pure breeding tall (dominant) plant and a pure breeding dwarf (recessive) plant, the expected phenotypes of the offspring will be which of the following? A) 3/4 tall: 1/4 dwarf B) half tall: half dwarf C) all tall D) all dwarf E) The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 14) In a cross between a heterozygous smooth-seeded (Ss) plant and a homozygous wrinkled-seeded (ss) plant, what would be the expected phenotypes of the offspring? A) all smooth B) all wrinkled C) 3/4 smooth:1/4 wrinkled D) half smooth: half wrinkled E) The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 15) In Mendelian genetic crosses, a(n) ________ allele is only expressed in the homozygous condition. A) recessive B) dominant C) homozygous D) heterozygous E) indeterminate

16) In Mendel's work with peas, an F1 hybrid (smooth yellow) was crossed to the recessive (wrinkled green) parent type. In terms of color, what were the frequencies of the phenotypes in the offspring of this cross? A) all green B) all yellow C) 1/2 green and 1/2 yellow D) 3/4 yellow and 1/4 green E) none of the above 17) Which of the following is not correct? A) Sometimes more than two alleles exist for a given character, but only in a population, not an individual. B) Polygenic inheritance means that the expression of a given character is determined by more than one pair of genes. C) Mendel did not know about "linkage." D) The Human Genome Project is complete. E) So far, only a few locations on human chromosomes have been directly connected to human disease. 18) Which of the following could be an RNA codon? A) TAT B) CGT C) AAU D) GAT E) all of the above 19) In pea plants, the smooth seed trait is dominant to the wrinkled seed trait and the green pod trait is dominate to the yellow pod trait. If a pea plant that is homozygous dominant for both traits is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous recessive for both traits what will be the expected genotypes of the offspring of this cross? A) homozygous dominate for both traits B) heterozygous for both traits C) 1/2 homozygous dominant and 1/2 homozygous recessive D) 1/4 homozygous dominant; 1/2 heterozygous; 1/4 homozygous recessive E) 3/4 heterozygous and 1/4 homozygous dominant 20) In pea plants, the smooth seed trait is dominant to the wrinkled seed trait and the green pod trait is dominate to the yellow pod trait. If a pea plant that is homozygous dominant for both traits is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous recessive for both traits what will be the expected phenotypes of the offspring of this cross? A) all smooth seed with yellow pods B) 1/2 smooth seed with yellow pods; 1/2 wrinkled seed with green pods C) 3/4 smooth seed with yellow pods; 1/4 wrinkled seed with green pods D) all wrinkled seed with green pods E) The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

21) If a portion of a DNA molecule being transcribed is ATCCGATGA, then the complementary portion of mRNA would read as follows: A) ATCCGATGA B) TAGGCTACT C) UAGGCUACU D) AUCCGAUGA E) GCAATGCAG 22) If a segment of DNA read CATGAGACT, the complementary transcribed sequence would read: A) CATGAGACT B) GTACTCTGA C) CAUGAGACU D) GUACUCUGA E) None of the above are correct. 23) A cross between pure-breeding red carnations and pure-breeding white carnations yields all pink carnations. This is an example of which of the following? A) complete dominance B) incomplete dominance C) co-dominance D) polygenic inheritance E) linkage 24) A cross between a brown chicken and a white chicken results in chicks that are speckled brown and white. This is an example of which of the following? A) complete dominance B) incomplete dominance C) codominance D) polygenic inheritance E) linkage 25) A cross between two F1 pink dahlia yields plants with 9 varieties of flower color. This is an example of which of the following? A) complete dominance. B) incomplete dominance. C) co-dominance. D) polygenic inheritance. E) linkage. 26) The result of polygenic inheritance is typically which of the following? A) continuous variation of a trait, such as height, around a mean. B) all heterozygous genotypes. C) phenotypes that are distinct from each other. D) novel phenotypic variations. E) All of the above are correct. 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

27) Linked genes A) tend to be inherited together. B) do not segregate from each other during meiosis. C) do not assort independently. D) do all of the above. E) do none of the above. 28) A point mutation is a change in which of the following? A) a centromere B) a whole chromatid C) a single base D) a whole chromosome E) a single codon 29) The first flowering plant genome that was sequenced was this species. A) Zea mays B) Oryza sativa C) Sorgum bicolor D) Arabidopsis thaliana E) Drosophila melanogaster 30) The actual coding part of a gene is called which of the following? A) exon. B) intron. C) codon. D) polymerase. E) None of the above are correct. 31) The codon, AUG, is a start codon that also codes for the amino acid, A) valine. B) phenylalanine. C) cysteine. D) methionine. E) leucine. 32) Which of the following is correct? A) Plant genomes are usually larger and more complicated than those of many animals. B) The wild mustard has more genes than any animal species. C) A number of genes are identical in both plants and animals. D) Comparative plant genomics are increasing every year. E) All of the above are correct.

33) Which of the following molecules serves as the "blueprint" for protein synthesis? A) rRNA B) tRNA C) mRNA D) RNA polymerase E) All of these molecules are found in all aspects of protein synthesis. 34) Transcription leads to the production of ________ whereas translation leads to the formation of ________. A) tRNA; polypeptides B) polypeptides; mRNA C) mRNA; polypeptides D) mRNA; RNA E) rRNA; polypeptides 35) Which of the following is involved with gene silencing? A) mRNA B) miRNA C) tRNA D) rRNA E) None of the above are correct. 36) Eukaryotic mRNA is translated with the aid of which organelle? A) the nucleus B) the Golgi C) the ribosome D) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) None of the above are correct. 37) Insertion and deletion mutations both can cause which of the following? A) point mutations. B) somatic mutations. C) frame-shift mutations. D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above are correct. 38) The introduction of genes from one organism into another is called ________ technology. A) restriction DNA B) somatic cell cloning C) germ cell D) recombinant DNA E) plasmid restructuring

39) Using bacterial ________, researchers are able to insert new genes into eukaryote cells to produce proteins of interest. A) mRNA B) plasmids C) sex chromosomes D) ribosomes E) cell membranes 40) According to Mendel's Principle of ________ a pair of alleles separate from each other during the formation of gametes. 41) ________ enzymes cut the DNA molecule at specific base sequences. 42) If genes are on the same chromosome they will be inherited together; this condition is called ________. 43) If both alleles of a gene are expressed in the heterozygote, the condition is called ________. 44) ________ is the molecule that carries genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes. 45) Portions of the mRNA molecule that are removed before translation are known as ________. 46) ________ and ________ described the structure of the DNA molecule. 47) A protein composed of 50 amino acids would be coded for by the exon of a gene that is ________ bases long. 48) Phenotype indicates the genetic makeup of an organism. 49) In sesame plants, the one pod condition (P) is dominant to the three-pod condition (p). A cross between PP and Pp would result in a 1:1 ratio of one pod to three in the offspring. 50) Translation results in the formation of mRNA as a complimentary copy of DNA. 51) Ribosomal RNA joins with a number of proteins to form ribosomes. 52) The anticodon is a series of three bases on the mRNA molecule that pairs with the complementary codon of tRNA. 53) In addition to mutations, other inherited changes can cause chemical changes to chromatin. Epigenetics is the study of the inheritance of these changes, often involving a methyl group attachment to either a nucleotide or a histone protein. 54) Somatic mutations are always passed along to offspring.

55) SNPs are locations in human DNA in which a single nucleotide base differs among individuals. 56) Approximately 99.9% of the human genome consists of genes comprising DNA that codes for proteins.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 7 Genetics 1) Alternative forms of the same gene are called which of the following? A) loci B) homologous C) heterozygous D) alleles E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) A pea plant received a dominant allele for flower color from one of its parents and a recessive allele for flower color from its other parent. The genotype of this pea plant is called which of the following? A) homozygous recessive B) heterozygous C) homozygous dominant D) undetermined E) hemizygous Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) A pea plant received a dominant allele for flower color from one of its parents and a dominant allele for flower color from its other parent. The genotype of this pea plant is classified as which of the following? A) homozygous recessive B) heterozygous C) homozygous dominant D) undetermined E) hemizygous recessive Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) A pea plant received a dominant allele for flower color from one of its parents and a dominant allele for flower color from its other parent. The phenotype of this pea plant is which of the following? A) homozygous recessive B) heterozygous C) homozygous dominant D) undetermined E) Not enough information is given to determine the phenotype. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Which of the following was unknown during Mendel's time? A) the structure of DNA B) mitosis and meiosis C) genes and chromosomes D) the structure of nucleotides E) None of these were known in Mendel's time. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) What was the immediate fate of Mendel's 1865 publication of his pea plant experiments? A) He received universal praise and the science of genetics was born. B) It was immediately condemned as anti-religious and banned by the Catholic Church. C) He was accused of fraud and fudging his data. D) It was mostly ignored for over 30 years. E) It was likely read carefully by Charles Darwin, because it reinforced his belief in "blending" inheritance. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) What trait did the parent pea plants have that made Mendel's experiments possible? A) They were self-pollinating. B) They were all homozygous dominant. C) They were all homozygous recessive. D) They were all heterozygous. E) More than one of these traits made Mendel's experiments possible. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) In pea plants, purple flower color is dominant to white flower color. If in the P generation, a pure-breeding white flowering pea plant is crossed with a pure-breeding purple flowering pea plant, what will be the expected phenotypes of the F2 generation? A) all purple flowering pea plants B) 1/2 purple flowering pea plants; 1/2 white C) all white flowering pea plants D) 3/4 purple flowering pea plants; 1/4 white E) 1/4 purple flowering pea plants; 3/4 white Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) In pea plants, purple flower color is dominant to white flower color. If in the P generation, a pure-breeding white flowering pea plant is crossed with a pure-breeding purple flowering pea plant, what will be the expected genotypes of the F2 generation? A) all homozygous dominant B) 1/2 homozygous dominant; 1/2 homozygous recessive C) all homozygous recessive D) 3/4 homozygous dominant; 1/4 homozygous recessive E) 1/4 homozygous dominant; 1/2 heterozygous; 1/4 homozygous recessive Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Mendel's principle of segregation relates directly to an event that occurs in ________ of meiosis. A) Prophase I B) Anaphase I C) Metaphase I D) Prophase II E) Anaphase II Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

11) Which of the following crosses will produce offspring that show the recessive phenotype? A) Aa × AA B) AA × aa C) Aa × Aa D) AA × Aa E) The answer cannot be determined from the information given. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) In a cross between a pure breeding tall plant (dominant) and a pure breeding dwarf plant (recessive) the expected genotypes of the offspring will be which of the following? A) all homozygous dominant B) all heterozygous C) all homozygous recessive D) 3/4 heterozygous; 1/4 homozygous recessive E) half homozygous dominant; half heterozygous Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) In a cross between a pure breeding tall (dominant) plant and a pure breeding dwarf (recessive) plant, the expected phenotypes of the offspring will be which of the following? A) 3/4 tall: 1/4 dwarf B) half tall: half dwarf C) all tall D) all dwarf E) The answer cannot be determined from the information given. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) In a cross between a heterozygous smooth-seeded (Ss) plant and a homozygous wrinkled-seeded (ss) plant, what would be the expected phenotypes of the offspring? A) all smooth B) all wrinkled C) 3/4 smooth:1/4 wrinkled D) half smooth: half wrinkled E) The answer cannot be determined from the information given. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) In Mendelian genetic crosses, a(n) ________ allele is only expressed in the homozygous condition. A) recessive B) dominant C) homozygous D) heterozygous E) indeterminate Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) In Mendel's work with peas, an F1 hybrid (smooth yellow) was crossed to the recessive (wrinkled green) parent type. In terms of color, what were the frequencies of the phenotypes in the offspring of this cross? A) all green B) all yellow C) 1/2 green and 1/2 yellow D) 3/4 yellow and 1/4 green E) none of the above Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Which of the following is not correct? A) Sometimes more than two alleles exist for a given character, but only in a population, not an individual. B) Polygenic inheritance means that the expression of a given character is determined by more than one pair of genes. C) Mendel did not know about "linkage." D) The Human Genome Project is complete. E) So far, only a few locations on human chromosomes have been directly connected to human disease. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

18) Which of the following could be an RNA codon? A) TAT B) CGT C) AAU D) GAT E) all of the above Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) In pea plants, the smooth seed trait is dominant to the wrinkled seed trait and the green pod trait is dominate to the yellow pod trait. If a pea plant that is homozygous dominant for both traits is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous recessive for both traits what will be the expected genotypes of the offspring of this cross? A) homozygous dominate for both traits B) heterozygous for both traits C) 1/2 homozygous dominant and 1/2 homozygous recessive D) 1/4 homozygous dominant; 1/2 heterozygous; 1/4 homozygous recessive E) 3/4 heterozygous and 1/4 homozygous dominant Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) In pea plants, the smooth seed trait is dominant to the wrinkled seed trait and the green pod trait is dominate to the yellow pod trait. If a pea plant that is homozygous dominant for both traits is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous recessive for both traits what will be the expected phenotypes of the offspring of this cross? A) all smooth seed with yellow pods B) 1/2 smooth seed with yellow pods; 1/2 wrinkled seed with green pods C) 3/4 smooth seed with yellow pods; 1/4 wrinkled seed with green pods D) all wrinkled seed with green pods E) The answer cannot be determined from the information given. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

21) If a portion of a DNA molecule being transcribed is ATCCGATGA, then the complementary portion of mRNA would read as follows: A) ATCCGATGA B) TAGGCTACT C) UAGGCUACU D) AUCCGAUGA E) GCAATGCAG Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) If a segment of DNA read CATGAGACT, the complementary transcribed sequence would read: A) CATGAGACT B) GTACTCTGA C) CAUGAGACU D) GUACUCUGA E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) A cross between pure-breeding red carnations and pure-breeding white carnations yields all pink carnations. This is an example of which of the following? A) complete dominance B) incomplete dominance C) co-dominance D) polygenic inheritance E) linkage Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

24) A cross between a brown chicken and a white chicken results in chicks that are speckled brown and white. This is an example of which of the following? A) complete dominance B) incomplete dominance C) codominance D) polygenic inheritance E) linkage Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) A cross between two F1 pink dahlia yields plants with 9 varieties of flower color. This is an example of which of the following? A) complete dominance. B) incomplete dominance. C) co-dominance. D) polygenic inheritance. E) linkage. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) The result of polygenic inheritance is typically which of the following? A) continuous variation of a trait, such as height, around a mean. B) all heterozygous genotypes. C) phenotypes that are distinct from each other. D) novel phenotypic variations. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Linked genes A) tend to be inherited together. B) do not segregate from each other during meiosis. C) do not assort independently. D) do all of the above. E) do none of the above. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

28) A point mutation is a change in which of the following? A) a centromere B) a whole chromatid C) a single base D) a whole chromosome E) a single codon Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) The first flowering plant genome that was sequenced was this species. A) Zea mays B) Oryza sativa C) Sorgum bicolor D) Arabidopsis thaliana E) Drosophila melanogaster Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) The actual coding part of a gene is called which of the following? A) exon. B) intron. C) codon. D) polymerase. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) The codon, AUG, is a start codon that also codes for the amino acid, A) valine. B) phenylalanine. C) cysteine. D) methionine. E) leucine. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

32) Which of the following is correct? A) Plant genomes are usually larger and more complicated than those of many animals. B) The wild mustard has more genes than any animal species. C) A number of genes are identical in both plants and animals. D) Comparative plant genomics are increasing every year. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Which of the following molecules serves as the "blueprint" for protein synthesis? A) rRNA B) tRNA C) mRNA D) RNA polymerase E) All of these molecules are found in all aspects of protein synthesis. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Transcription leads to the production of ________ whereas translation leads to the formation of ________. A) tRNA; polypeptides B) polypeptides; mRNA C) mRNA; polypeptides D) mRNA; RNA E) rRNA; polypeptides Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Which of the following is involved with gene silencing? A) mRNA B) miRNA C) tRNA D) rRNA E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

36) Eukaryotic mRNA is translated with the aid of which organelle? A) the nucleus B) the Golgi C) the ribosome D) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Insertion and deletion mutations both can cause which of the following? A) point mutations. B) somatic mutations. C) frame-shift mutations. D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) The introduction of genes from one organism into another is called ________ technology. A) restriction DNA B) somatic cell cloning C) germ cell D) recombinant DNA E) plasmid restructuring Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) Using bacterial ________, researchers are able to insert new genes into eukaryote cells to produce proteins of interest. A) mRNA B) plasmids C) sex chromosomes D) ribosomes E) cell membranes Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) According to Mendel's Principle of ________ a pair of alleles separate from each other during the formation of gametes. Answer: Segregation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) ________ enzymes cut the DNA molecule at specific base sequences. Answer: Restriction Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) If genes are on the same chromosome they will be inherited together; this condition is called ________. Answer: linkage Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) If both alleles of a gene are expressed in the heterozygote, the condition is called ________. Answer: co-dominance Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) ________ is the molecule that carries genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes. Answer: mRNA Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) Portions of the mRNA molecule that are removed before translation are known as ________. Answer: introns Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) ________ and ________ described the structure of the DNA molecule. Answer: Watson; Crick Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

47) A protein composed of 50 amino acids would be coded for by the exon of a gene that is ________ bases long. Answer: 150 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Phenotype indicates the genetic makeup of an organism. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) In sesame plants, the one pod condition (P) is dominant to the three-pod condition (p). A cross between PP and Pp would result in a 1:1 ratio of one pod to three in the offspring. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) Translation results in the formation of mRNA as a complimentary copy of DNA. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) Ribosomal RNA joins with a number of proteins to form ribosomes. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) The anticodon is a series of three bases on the mRNA molecule that pairs with the complementary codon of tRNA. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) In addition to mutations, other inherited changes can cause chemical changes to chromatin. Epigenetics is the study of the inheritance of these changes, often involving a methyl group attachment to either a nucleotide or a histone protein. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

54) Somatic mutations are always passed along to offspring. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) SNPs are locations in human DNA in which a single nucleotide base differs among individuals. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Approximately 99.9% of the human genome consists of genes comprising DNA that codes for proteins. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 8 Plant Systematics and Evolution 1) Who among the following is considered the "Father of Botany"? A) Aristotle B) Linnaeus C) Dioscorides D) Pliny the Elder E) Theophrastus 2) Materia Medica, written by ________, was the most influential of the medical herbals from Roman times through the Middle Ages. A) Aristotle B) Linnaeus C) Dioscorides D) Pliny the Elder E) Theophrastus 3) Linnaeus based his botanical classification scheme on which of the following? A) plant genetics B) stamen characteristics C) leaf and stem characteristics D) carpel characteristics E) the number and arrangement of flower parts 4) Which of the following scientists adopted and popularized the Binomial System of Nomenclature? A) Fleming B) Darwin C) Linnaeus D) Mendel E) None of the above are correct. 5) Which of the following is the correct way to write the binomial scientific name for red maple? A) Acer rubrum B) Acer rubrum C) Acer Rubrum D) acer rubrum E) None of the above are correct. 6) In the taxonomic hierarchy, related genera are grouped into which of the following? A) species B) order C) family D) class E) kingdom 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) The correct order for the botanical taxonomic hierarchy is which of the following sequences? A) kingdom-class-division-order-family-genus-species B) kingdom-order-family-division-class-genus-species C) kingdom-division-class-family-order-genus-species D) kingdom-division-class-order-family-genus-species E) None of the above are correct. 8) Which of the following is not a problem with the biological species concept? A) Many related plant species can interbreed. B) Many plants within the same species cannot interbreed. C) Plants in different species may be very similar morphologically. D) All of these are problems with the biological species concept. E) None of the above are correct. 9) Which of the following is the most reliable evolutionary species concept? A) morphological species concept B) biological species concept C) ecological species concept D) genealogical (phylogenetic) species concept E) All of the above are correct. 10) How many species are estimated to be lost from the tropical rain forests per year? A) 90 B) 900 C) 9000 D) 90000 E) None of the above are correct. 11) Approximately what percent of medicinal drugs originated from plants? A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 50 E) 75 12) Initial failure to control mealybug infestations of coffee crops in Kenya was due to which of the following? A) overuse of pesticides B) an identification error C) genetic engineering D) introduction of the wrong biocontrol agent E) an endoparasite of the mealybug

13) Why is knowledge of biodiversity important to humanity? A) For improvement of crop breeding programs B) For identification of species important for soil fertility C) For identification of plant species for medicinal drugs D) All of the above are reasons why knowledge of biodiversity is important to humanity. E) None of the above are correct. 14) According to your textbook, in what subject area did Charles Darwin get his college degree? A) theology B) geology C) biology D) entomology E) evolution 15) What was Darwin's "job" aboard the HMS Beagle? A) naturalist B) surveyor C) cook D) companion to the captain E) None of the above are correct. 16) The purpose of the voyage of the HMS Beagle was to do which of the following? A) find proof of evolution B) discover new plants and animals for the Royal collection C) map the coast of South America D) start new English settlements in South America E) None of the above are correct. 17) What was one of the observations Darwin made in the Galapagos Islands? A) Species on the island shared similarities to species on the adjacent mainland but with some distinct differences. B) Species on the island did not have counterparts on the adjacent mainland as if they were separately created. C) Species on the island were identical to species on the adjacent mainland but much smaller. D) There were no differences between species on the island and species on the adjacent mainland. E) All of the above statements are correct. 18) What caused Darwin to rush into publication, On the Origin of Species in 1859? A) A letter he received from Alfred Russel Wallace outlined a hypothesis very similar to his own. B) He lived in fear of being ostracized by the Church of England. C) He was in ill health and wanted to publish his theory before he died. D) He was deeply in debt and needed the money. E) Darwin knew his hypothesis must be published before it could become a theory.

19) Which of the following is not one of the underlying premises of Darwin's theory of natural selection? A) All natural populations tend to overproduce. B) There is competition for scarce resources in nature. C) Members in a species exhibit heritable differences. D) Those individuals better adapted to their environment will survive and reproduce at a higher rate. E) The best adapted organisms are always those that are stronger or faster. 20) One piece of information missing from Darwin's Theory of Evolution was which of the following? A) proof that organisms actually evolve B) an explanation for how species evolve C) the mechanism for phenotypic variation D) data that showed populations overproduce offspring E) None of the above are correct. 21) What happened when bent grass was transplanted to soils contaminated with heavy metals? A) All of the transplants perished. B) All of the transplants survived. C) Most of the transplants survived; a few perished. D) Most of the transplants perished; a few survived. E) None of the plants perished but they mutated to produce a new species. 22) The naturalist who formulated a hypothesis of evolution very similar to Darwin's was A) Alfred Russel Wallace. B) John Henslow. C) Carolus Linnaeus. D) George Clifford. E) Frederic Chopin. 23) There is a current movement to replace the artificial Linnaean taxonomic scheme with a ________ scheme. A) genealogical B) phylogenetic C) morphological D) ecological E) cosmological 24) What is a clade? A) a group of individuals that share a similar morphology B) any group of individuals or of higher taxonomic rank of any size that share common ancestry C) a group of individuals that interbreed successfully D) a group of individuals that are genetically similar E) a taxonomic group assembled from individuals that look similar 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

25) Which of the following is not a true clade? A) eudicots B) paleodicots C) monocots D) paleomonocots E) All of the above are true clades. 26) Cows have been bred over by farmers over centuries to produce more milk. Some cows produce so much milk, that their enlarged udders make it difficult for the cows to walk. The increased milk production of the cows is an example of which of the following? A) recombinant DNA engineering B) natural selection C) artificial selection D) sexual selection E) animal cruelty 27) The goal of PhyloCode is to offer an alternative to which of the following? A) the Linnaean nomenclature system B) Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection C) genetic engineering D) artificial selection E) the cladistic method of classification 28) The barcode gene used for discriminating between animals and algal species is the ________ gene. A) rbcL B) matK C) coxL D) brcA E) Staph1 29) Why is the coxL gene less useful in both in plants and fungi as a barcode gene? A) Plants and fungi do not produce the product of the coxL gene. B) The nucleotide sequence of this gene is too similar in plants and fungi. C) The coxL gene exists in too many copies in plants and fungi. D) Plants and fungi evolve too rapidly for the gene to be of any use. E) None of the above are correct. 30) A barcode gene used for discriminating between plant species is the ________ gene. A) rbcL B) nitP C) coxL D) brcA E) Ecoli

31) Which of the following is a disadvantage to using DNA from organelles o obtain barcode genes? A) Organelle DNA occurs in multiple copies. B) Organelle DNA is more difficult to sequence. C) No organelles have DNA. D) Organelles are inherited only maternally; thus paternal DNA cannot be considered. E) Organelle DNA evolves too slowly for differences to be detected. 32) The theory of Evolution by Natural Selection is best described by which of the following statements? A) an educated guess B) an explanation supported by all the evidence and a principle of biology that has never been disproved C) not accepted by the scientific community D) predicted but not proved E) None of the above are correct. 33) Scientific names are unique because a scientific name can only be assigned to a single species. 34) The PhyloCode abandons the Linnaean ranks of the taxonomic hierarchy, recognizing only clades, not necessarily specific Linnaean ranks. 35) Species are fixed entities, unchanging over time. 36) Barcoding relies on a "genetic barcode," a short segment of DNA that is used as a standard for a particular group of organisms, and not necessarily on an "expert" for that group. 37) Most scientists would agree that losing 10 percent of the currently classified 1.4 million species would not directly affect the biodiversity of Earth. 38) In Linnaeus's sexual system of classification, "husband and wife have separate beds" indicates that the plant has imperfect flowers. 39) The phylogenetic system was a method of naming plants that included a lengthy description. 40) The four underlying conditions of Darwin's Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection are as follows: variation, overproduction of offspring, competition, and the reproduction of the fittest (those that leave the most offspring). 41) The Language of Flowers refers to a Victorian practice of writing love notes on flower petals. 42) ________ is a trait that promotes survival and reproductive success of an organism in a particular environment. 43) ________ published On the Origin of Species in 1859 in which he presented his theory of evolution by means of natural selection. 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

44) ________ is the branching sequence of evolution that illustrates the evolutionary relationships among organisms. 45) A group of organisms that can trace their descent from a single common ancestor (and also contains all descendant species) is said to be ________. 46) ________ is a clade-based alternative to the Linnaean binomial system. 47) The difference in a barcode gene's nucleotide sequence in greater ________ species than ________ a species.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 8 Plant Systematics and Evolution 1) Who among the following is considered the "Father of Botany"? A) Aristotle B) Linnaeus C) Dioscorides D) Pliny the Elder E) Theophrastus Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Materia Medica, written by ________, was the most influential of the medical herbals from Roman times through the Middle Ages. A) Aristotle B) Linnaeus C) Dioscorides D) Pliny the Elder E) Theophrastus Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Linnaeus based his botanical classification scheme on which of the following? A) plant genetics B) stamen characteristics C) leaf and stem characteristics D) carpel characteristics E) the number and arrangement of flower parts Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) Which of the following scientists adopted and popularized the Binomial System of Nomenclature? A) Fleming B) Darwin C) Linnaeus D) Mendel E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Which of the following is the correct way to write the binomial scientific name for red maple? A) Acer rubrum B) Acer rubrum C) Acer Rubrum D) acer rubrum E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) In the taxonomic hierarchy, related genera are grouped into which of the following? A) species B) order C) family D) class E) kingdom Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) The correct order for the botanical taxonomic hierarchy is which of the following sequences? A) kingdom-class-division-order-family-genus-species B) kingdom-order-family-division-class-genus-species C) kingdom-division-class-family-order-genus-species D) kingdom-division-class-order-family-genus-species E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

8) Which of the following is not a problem with the biological species concept? A) Many related plant species can interbreed. B) Many plants within the same species cannot interbreed. C) Plants in different species may be very similar morphologically. D) All of these are problems with the biological species concept. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Which of the following is the most reliable evolutionary species concept? A) morphological species concept B) biological species concept C) ecological species concept D) genealogical (phylogenetic) species concept E) All of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) How many species are estimated to be lost from the tropical rain forests per year? A) 90 B) 900 C) 9000 D) 90000 E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Approximately what percent of medicinal drugs originated from plants? A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 50 E) 75 Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

12) Initial failure to control mealybug infestations of coffee crops in Kenya was due to which of the following? A) overuse of pesticides B) an identification error C) genetic engineering D) introduction of the wrong biocontrol agent E) an endoparasite of the mealybug Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) Why is knowledge of biodiversity important to humanity? A) For improvement of crop breeding programs B) For identification of species important for soil fertility C) For identification of plant species for medicinal drugs D) All of the above are reasons why knowledge of biodiversity is important to humanity. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) According to your textbook, in what subject area did Charles Darwin get his college degree? A) theology B) geology C) biology D) entomology E) evolution Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) What was Darwin's "job" aboard the HMS Beagle? A) naturalist B) surveyor C) cook D) companion to the captain E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

16) The purpose of the voyage of the HMS Beagle was to do which of the following? A) find proof of evolution B) discover new plants and animals for the Royal collection C) map the coast of South America D) start new English settlements in South America E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) What was one of the observations Darwin made in the Galapagos Islands? A) Species on the island shared similarities to species on the adjacent mainland but with some distinct differences. B) Species on the island did not have counterparts on the adjacent mainland as if they were separately created. C) Species on the island were identical to species on the adjacent mainland but much smaller. D) There were no differences between species on the island and species on the adjacent mainland. E) All of the above statements are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) What caused Darwin to rush into publication, On the Origin of Species in 1859? A) A letter he received from Alfred Russel Wallace outlined a hypothesis very similar to his own. B) He lived in fear of being ostracized by the Church of England. C) He was in ill health and wanted to publish his theory before he died. D) He was deeply in debt and needed the money. E) Darwin knew his hypothesis must be published before it could become a theory. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

19) Which of the following is not one of the underlying premises of Darwin's theory of natural selection? A) All natural populations tend to overproduce. B) There is competition for scarce resources in nature. C) Members in a species exhibit heritable differences. D) Those individuals better adapted to their environment will survive and reproduce at a higher rate. E) The best adapted organisms are always those that are stronger or faster. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) One piece of information missing from Darwin's Theory of Evolution was which of the following? A) proof that organisms actually evolve B) an explanation for how species evolve C) the mechanism for phenotypic variation D) data that showed populations overproduce offspring E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) What happened when bent grass was transplanted to soils contaminated with heavy metals? A) All of the transplants perished. B) All of the transplants survived. C) Most of the transplants survived; a few perished. D) Most of the transplants perished; a few survived. E) None of the plants perished but they mutated to produce a new species. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) The naturalist who formulated a hypothesis of evolution very similar to Darwin's was A) Alfred Russel Wallace. B) John Henslow. C) Carolus Linnaeus. D) George Clifford. E) Frederic Chopin. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

23) There is a current movement to replace the artificial Linnaean taxonomic scheme with a ________ scheme. A) genealogical B) phylogenetic C) morphological D) ecological E) cosmological Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) What is a clade? A) a group of individuals that share a similar morphology B) any group of individuals or of higher taxonomic rank of any size that share common ancestry C) a group of individuals that interbreed successfully D) a group of individuals that are genetically similar E) a taxonomic group assembled from individuals that look similar Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Which of the following is not a true clade? A) eudicots B) paleodicots C) monocots D) paleomonocots E) All of the above are true clades. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

26) Cows have been bred over by farmers over centuries to produce more milk. Some cows produce so much milk, that their enlarged udders make it difficult for the cows to walk. The increased milk production of the cows is an example of which of the following? A) recombinant DNA engineering B) natural selection C) artificial selection D) sexual selection E) animal cruelty Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) The goal of PhyloCode is to offer an alternative to which of the following? A) the Linnaean nomenclature system B) Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection C) genetic engineering D) artificial selection E) the cladistic method of classification Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) The barcode gene used for discriminating between animals and algal species is the ________ gene. A) rbcL B) matK C) coxL D) brcA E) Staph1 Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) Why is the coxL gene less useful in both in plants and fungi as a barcode gene? A) Plants and fungi do not produce the product of the coxL gene. B) The nucleotide sequence of this gene is too similar in plants and fungi. C) The coxL gene exists in too many copies in plants and fungi. D) Plants and fungi evolve too rapidly for the gene to be of any use. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) A barcode gene used for discriminating between plant species is the ________ gene. A) rbcL B) nitP C) coxL D) brcA E) Ecoli Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Which of the following is a disadvantage to using DNA from organelles o obtain barcode genes? A) Organelle DNA occurs in multiple copies. B) Organelle DNA is more difficult to sequence. C) No organelles have DNA. D) Organelles are inherited only maternally; thus paternal DNA cannot be considered. E) Organelle DNA evolves too slowly for differences to be detected. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) The theory of Evolution by Natural Selection is best described by which of the following statements? A) an educated guess B) an explanation supported by all the evidence and a principle of biology that has never been disproved C) not accepted by the scientific community D) predicted but not proved E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Scientific names are unique because a scientific name can only be assigned to a single species. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

34) The PhyloCode abandons the Linnaean ranks of the taxonomic hierarchy, recognizing only clades, not necessarily specific Linnaean ranks. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Species are fixed entities, unchanging over time. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Barcoding relies on a "genetic barcode," a short segment of DNA that is used as a standard for a particular group of organisms, and not necessarily on an "expert" for that group. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Most scientists would agree that losing 10 percent of the currently classified 1.4 million species would not directly affect the biodiversity of Earth. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) In Linnaeus's sexual system of classification, "husband and wife have separate beds" indicates that the plant has imperfect flowers. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) The phylogenetic system was a method of naming plants that included a lengthy description. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) The four underlying conditions of Darwin's Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection are as follows: variation, overproduction of offspring, competition, and the reproduction of the fittest (those that leave the most offspring). Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) The Language of Flowers refers to a Victorian practice of writing love notes on flower petals. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) ________ is a trait that promotes survival and reproductive success of an organism in a particular environment. Answer: Adaptation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) ________ published On the Origin of Species in 1859 in which he presented his theory of evolution by means of natural selection. Answer: Charles Darwin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) ________ is the branching sequence of evolution that illustrates the evolutionary relationships among organisms. Answer: Phylogeny Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) A group of organisms that can trace their descent from a single common ancestor (and also contains all descendant species) is said to be ________. Answer: monophyletic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

46) ________ is a clade-based alternative to the Linnaean binomial system. Answer: PhyloCode Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) The difference in a barcode gene's nucleotide sequence in greater ________ species than ________ a species. Answer: between; within Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 9 Diversity of Plant Life 1) The prokaryotes are classified in which of the following domains? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya D) Bacteria and Archaea E) Eukarya and Bacteria 2) Which of the following is not correct? A) Members of the Kingdom Plantae are autotrophic. B) Members of the Kingdom Animalia are heterotrophic. C) Members of the Kingdom Fungi are classified as absorptive heterotrophs. D) The cyanobacteria are also called "extremophiles." E) The Kingdom Plantae includes organisms ranging from green algae to flowering plants. 3) You discover an organism living in a hot spring near the boiling point of water. It has no organelles and some molecular characteristics that are very similar to eukaryotes. You likely have found a member of which of the following groups? A) bacterium. B) archaeon. C) fungus. D) single-celled plant. E) single-celled animal. 4) Which of the following are exclusively absorptive heterotrophs? A) fungi B) plants C) bacteria D) protists E) animals 5) Fungi are closest phylogenetically to which of the following taxons? A) plant B) animals C) bacteria D) protists E) archaea 6) Which of the following is not an embryophyte? A) Loblolly pine B) Nootka rose C) Bongo kelp D) Sphagnum moss E) white pine 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) Land plants first evolved over ________ million years ago. A) 4 B) 40 C) 400 D) 4000 E) None of the above is correct. 8) Flowering plants belong to the division ________. A) Lycophyta B) Magnoliophyta C) Sphenophyta D) Cycadophyta E) Ginkgophyta 9) Plants evolved from ancestral Protista related to today's freshwater ________. A) green algae B) brown algae C) red algae D) liverworts E) ferns 10) Which of the following relationships is correct? A) Bryophyta :: Ferns B) Pterophyta :: Mosses C) Ginkgophyta :: Conifers D) Magnoliophyta :: Flowering plants E) All of the above are correct. 11) Which of the following plants has xylem and phloem? A) mosses B) hornworts C) ferns D) liverworts E) None of the plants above has xylem and phloem. 12) In a typical plant, which of the generations is diploid? A) gametophyte B) sporophyte C) both gametophyte and sporophyte D) neither gametophyte nor sporophyte E) All of the above are haploid plants.

13) In which structure does meiosis take place? A) gametophyte B) sporophyte C) zygote D) gamete E) None of the above is correct. 14) The ________ develops into the sporophyte. A) sperm B) egg C) gametophyte D) zygote E) cambium 15) A plant in its life cycle has the following structures: separate male and female gametophytes, archegonia and antheridia, protonema, and sporangia. This plant is would be classified as which one of the following taxa? A) fern B) moss C) pine D) dicot E) monocot 16) A plant in its life cycle has the following structures: a short-lived gametophyte with archegonia and antheridia, sporangium with annulus, and rhizomes. This plant would be classified as which one of the following taxa? A) fern B) moss C) pine D) dicot E) monocot 17) A plant in its life cycle has the following structures: microsporangia and megasporangia, pollen cones, archegonia, and naked seeds. This plant would be classified as which one of the following taxa? A) fern B) moss C) pine D) dicot E) monocot

18) In mosses, the ________ depends on the ________ for nutrition and support, whereas in pines and ferns, it's the opposite. A) gametophyte; sporophyte B) gamete; zygote C) zygote; gamete D) sporophyte; gametophyte E) None of the above is correct. 19) What do ferns and mosses have that conifers such as pines lack? A) a gametophyte B) sporangia C) archegonia D) flagellated sperm E) More than one of these are correct. 20) What is unusual about the genus Sphagnum? A) It actively grows in below freezing temperatures. B) It can metabolize in the absence of oxygen. C) It can grow in acid water. D) It can photosynthesize at night. E) All of the above are correct. 21) A club moss is a A) bryophyte. B) lycophyte. C) pterophyte. D) hepatophyte. E) conifer. 22) Liverworts, mosses, and hornworts are now classified into three separate divisions: A) Hepatophyta B) Bryophyta C) Anthocerophyta D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct. 23) The acid environment created by living Sphagnum allowed the preservation of prehistoric humans in both Europe and North America. One anthropological find in Florida suggested which of the following? A) The people preserved in the bogs had been there for less than 100 years. B) The people preserved in the bogs had been victims of murder. C) The brain tissue was well preserved and yielded good DNA samples. D) The people preserved in the bogs were closely related to modern Native Americans. E) None of the above is correct.

24) Plants growing on other larger plants are called ________. A) bryophytes B) lycophytes C) pterophytes D) hepatophytes E) epiphytes 25) These plants are vascular, non-seed producers that 200 to 300 million years ago formed extensive forests. These plants are from which of the following groups? A) bryophytes B) lycophytes C) pterophytes D) hepatophytes E) angiosperms 26) Lycopodium powder was once used for all of the following purposes except one. Choose the exception. A) gunpowder B) photography flash powder C) talcum powder D) coating for pills E) to stop bleeding 27) Which one of the following was a tree-sized plant from 300 million years ago that was an important component of the Carboniferous Period forests? A) Lycopodium B) Lepidodendron C) Equisetum D) Marchantia E) Fagus 28) You find a vascular plant that produces spores, sporangia in a conelike structure at the tips of stems and with silica in the cell walls. This plant would be classified into which of the following groups? A) club moss B) horsetail C) spike moss D) whisk fern E) Calamites 29) Which of these vascular plants reproduce by seeds? A) horsetails B) club mosses C) ferns D) cycads E) none of the above 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) The fossil record indicates that ________ were dominant features of the landscape during the Mesozoic Era. A) angiosperms B) mosses C) ferns D) cycads E) whisk ferns 31) Which of the following is correct? A) Seed plants are currently the dominant vegetation in the world. B) In cones, the seeds are exposed at maturity and for this reason are said to be "naked." C) The conifers, like all gymnosperms, are an ancient group of plants that reached their greatest diversity during the past geological periods. D) The Wollemi pine (Wollemia nobilis) is literally a "living fossil" E) All of the above are correct. 32) The male gametangium in mosses is called which of the following? A) archegonium B) antheridium C) sporophyte D) capsule E) protonema 33) Guam disease has been attributed to the toxins found in which of the following groups? A) angiosperms B) ferns C) mosses D) cycads E) pines 34) The gametophyte generation of ________ is the dominant generation. A) bryophytes B) Psilotum C) pterophytes D) gymnosperms E) angiosperms 35) Where does meiosis occur in mosses? A) within the protonema B) within the archegonium C) within the antheridium D) within the capsule E) within the gametophyte

36) The largest and most diverse group of nonseed vascular plants belong to which of the following taxa? A) horsetails B) club mosses C) ferns D) quill mosses E) whisk mosses 37) You find a primitive-looking plant with no leaves or true roots, branching stems with globose yellow sporangia. This plant would be classified as which of the following taxa? A) a fern B) Lycopodium C) Equisetum D) Psilotum E) It is impossible to determine the answer with the information given. 38) Which of the following is not a division of seed producing vascular plants? A) Coniferophyta B) Cycadophyta C) Ginkgophyta D) Pterophyta E) Gnetophyta 39) Which of the following is a correct statement about Wollemi pine? A) It is a living fossil. B) It is not a true pine. C) It is known in the fossil record as far back as the Jurassic period. D) There is very little genetic variability between populations. E) All of these are true statements about the Wollemi pine. 40) Which of the following gymnosperm divisions contain plants that look like palms? A) Coniferophyta B) Cycadophyta C) Ginkgophyta D) Gnetophyta E) None of the above is correct. 41) Resin from conifers can do which of the following? A) seal wounds. B) serve as a source of turpentine. C) serve as a source of rosin. D) form amber. E) All of the above are correct.

42) All of these statements about BMAA are correct except one. Choose the exception. A) BMAA is an amino acid. B) BMAA is found in the starch of conifers. C) BMAA blocks communication of brain nerve cells. D) BMAA is found in high concentrations in seeds. E) BMAA may contribute to a host of human diseases found on Guam. 43) This tree is the only living species in its division, produces rancid smelling seeds, is dioecious, and is a Chinese symbol of good luck. This tree is which of the following? A) Ginkgo biloba B) Pinus contorta C) Cycas rumphii D) Wollemia nobilis E) Pteridium aquilinum 44) Which of the following is a desert shrub that produces alkaloids used in the treatment of asthma and hay fever? A) Ephedra B) Gnetum C) Welwitschia D) Gingko E) Asclepias syriaca 45) This member of Gnetophyta lives in the Namib desert, has a long taproot, two leathery leaves, and can live over 1000 years. This plant is likely which of the following? A) Ephedra B) Gnetum C) Welwitschia D) an undescribed cycad E) None of the above is correct. 46) Amber is a fossilized tree resin, derived largely from ancient conifers, but also from the resin of the ________ family. A) Fabaceae B) Fagaceae C) Lepidoptera D) Bignoniaceae E) Apiaceae 47) Ferns, horsetails, and club mosses all produce ________ by meiosis. 48) ________ are gymnosperms which resemble palms and are found in tropical and subtropical areas. 49) Retention of the developing embryo in the sporophyte is one of the major features of all ________. 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

50) The female gametangium in ferns and many other plants is known as the ________. 51) The largest trees and the oldest trees occur in the division ________. 52) Another name for the fern gametophyte is the ________. 53) The oldest living trees are the ________ pines. 54) Land plants never have flagellated sperm. 55) The sporophyte is the dominant plant form of the gymnosperms and angiosperms. 56) Gymnosperms produce seeds that are "naked" and not enclosed in fruits. 57) One characteristic of land plants is a life cycle with an alternation of gametophyte and sporophyte generations. 58) The gametophyte is very conspicuous in both the Bryophyta and Coniferophyta. 59) The seed cone is larger and more complex structurally than the pollen cone. 60) The silica impregnated in the walls of club mosses gave rise to the name scouring rushes. 61) The starch of cycads, prior to processing, is toxic. 62) The origin of angiosperms dates back to the Cambrian Period. 63) The sporophytes of ferns have roots but the gametophyte prothallus has rhizoids. 64) Conifers include the oldest, tallest and most massive trees.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 9 Diversity of Plant Life 1) The prokaryotes are classified in which of the following domains? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya D) Bacteria and Archaea E) Eukarya and Bacteria Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following is not correct? A) Members of the Kingdom Plantae are autotrophic. B) Members of the Kingdom Animalia are heterotrophic. C) Members of the Kingdom Fungi are classified as absorptive heterotrophs. D) The cyanobacteria are also called "extremophiles." E) The Kingdom Plantae includes organisms ranging from green algae to flowering plants. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) You discover an organism living in a hot spring near the boiling point of water. It has no organelles and some molecular characteristics that are very similar to eukaryotes. You likely have found a member of which of the following groups? A) bacterium. B) archaeon. C) fungus. D) single-celled plant. E) single-celled animal. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) Which of the following are exclusively absorptive heterotrophs? A) fungi B) plants C) bacteria D) protists E) animals Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Fungi are closest phylogenetically to which of the following taxons? A) plant B) animals C) bacteria D) protists E) archaea Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following is not an embryophyte? A) Loblolly pine B) Nootka rose C) Bongo kelp D) Sphagnum moss E) white pine Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Land plants first evolved over ________ million years ago. A) 4 B) 40 C) 400 D) 4000 E) None of the above is correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

8) Flowering plants belong to the division ________. A) Lycophyta B) Magnoliophyta C) Sphenophyta D) Cycadophyta E) Ginkgophyta Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Plants evolved from ancestral Protista related to today's freshwater ________. A) green algae B) brown algae C) red algae D) liverworts E) ferns Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following relationships is correct? A) Bryophyta :: Ferns B) Pterophyta :: Mosses C) Ginkgophyta :: Conifers D) Magnoliophyta :: Flowering plants E) All of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Which of the following plants has xylem and phloem? A) mosses B) hornworts C) ferns D) liverworts E) None of the plants above has xylem and phloem. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

12) In a typical plant, which of the generations is diploid? A) gametophyte B) sporophyte C) both gametophyte and sporophyte D) neither gametophyte nor sporophyte E) All of the above are haploid plants. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) In which structure does meiosis take place? A) gametophyte B) sporophyte C) zygote D) gamete E) None of the above is correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) The ________ develops into the sporophyte. A) sperm B) egg C) gametophyte D) zygote E) cambium Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) A plant in its life cycle has the following structures: separate male and female gametophytes, archegonia and antheridia, protonema, and sporangia. This plant is would be classified as which one of the following taxa? A) fern B) moss C) pine D) dicot E) monocot Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

16) A plant in its life cycle has the following structures: a short-lived gametophyte with archegonia and antheridia, sporangium with annulus, and rhizomes. This plant would be classified as which one of the following taxa? A) fern B) moss C) pine D) dicot E) monocot Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) A plant in its life cycle has the following structures: microsporangia and megasporangia, pollen cones, archegonia, and naked seeds. This plant would be classified as which one of the following taxa? A) fern B) moss C) pine D) dicot E) monocot Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) In mosses, the ________ depends on the ________ for nutrition and support, whereas in pines and ferns, it's the opposite. A) gametophyte; sporophyte B) gamete; zygote C) zygote; gamete D) sporophyte; gametophyte E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

19) What do ferns and mosses have that conifers such as pines lack? A) a gametophyte B) sporangia C) archegonia D) flagellated sperm E) More than one of these are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) What is unusual about the genus Sphagnum? A) It actively grows in below freezing temperatures. B) It can metabolize in the absence of oxygen. C) It can grow in acid water. D) It can photosynthesize at night. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) A club moss is a A) bryophyte. B) lycophyte. C) pterophyte. D) hepatophyte. E) conifer. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Liverworts, mosses, and hornworts are now classified into three separate divisions: A) Hepatophyta B) Bryophyta C) Anthocerophyta D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

23) The acid environment created by living Sphagnum allowed the preservation of prehistoric humans in both Europe and North America. One anthropological find in Florida suggested which of the following? A) The people preserved in the bogs had been there for less than 100 years. B) The people preserved in the bogs had been victims of murder. C) The brain tissue was well preserved and yielded good DNA samples. D) The people preserved in the bogs were closely related to modern Native Americans. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Plants growing on other larger plants are called ________. A) bryophytes B) lycophytes C) pterophytes D) hepatophytes E) epiphytes Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) These plants are vascular, non-seed producers that 200 to 300 million years ago formed extensive forests. These plants are from which of the following groups? A) bryophytes B) lycophytes C) pterophytes D) hepatophytes E) angiosperms Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

26) Lycopodium powder was once used for all of the following purposes except one. Choose the exception. A) gunpowder B) photography flash powder C) talcum powder D) coating for pills E) to stop bleeding Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Which one of the following was a tree-sized plant from 300 million years ago that was an important component of the Carboniferous Period forests? A) Lycopodium B) Lepidodendron C) Equisetum D) Marchantia E) Fagus Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) You find a vascular plant that produces spores, sporangia in a conelike structure at the tips of stems and with silica in the cell walls. This plant would be classified into which of the following groups? A) club moss B) horsetail C) spike moss D) whisk fern E) Calamites Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

29) Which of these vascular plants reproduce by seeds? A) horsetails B) club mosses C) ferns D) cycads E) none of the above Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) The fossil record indicates that ________ were dominant features of the landscape during the Mesozoic Era. A) angiosperms B) mosses C) ferns D) cycads E) whisk ferns Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Which of the following is correct? A) Seed plants are currently the dominant vegetation in the world. B) In cones, the seeds are exposed at maturity and for this reason are said to be "naked." C) The conifers, like all gymnosperms, are an ancient group of plants that reached their greatest diversity during the past geological periods. D) The Wollemi pine (Wollemia nobilis) is literally a "living fossil" E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) The male gametangium in mosses is called which of the following? A) archegonium B) antheridium C) sporophyte D) capsule E) protonema Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

33) Guam disease has been attributed to the toxins found in which of the following groups? A) angiosperms B) ferns C) mosses D) cycads E) pines Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) The gametophyte generation of ________ is the dominant generation. A) bryophytes B) Psilotum C) pterophytes D) gymnosperms E) angiosperms Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Where does meiosis occur in mosses? A) within the protonema B) within the archegonium C) within the antheridium D) within the capsule E) within the gametophyte Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) The largest and most diverse group of nonseed vascular plants belong to which of the following taxa? A) horsetails B) club mosses C) ferns D) quill mosses E) whisk mosses Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

37) You find a primitive-looking plant with no leaves or true roots, branching stems with globose yellow sporangia. This plant would be classified as which of the following taxa? A) a fern B) Lycopodium C) Equisetum D) Psilotum E) It is impossible to determine the answer with the information given. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Which of the following is not a division of seed producing vascular plants? A) Coniferophyta B) Cycadophyta C) Ginkgophyta D) Pterophyta E) Gnetophyta Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) Which of the following is a correct statement about Wollemi pine? A) It is a living fossil. B) It is not a true pine. C) It is known in the fossil record as far back as the Jurassic period. D) There is very little genetic variability between populations. E) All of these are true statements about the Wollemi pine. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Which of the following gymnosperm divisions contain plants that look like palms? A) Coniferophyta B) Cycadophyta C) Ginkgophyta D) Gnetophyta E) None of the above is correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

41) Resin from conifers can do which of the following? A) seal wounds. B) serve as a source of turpentine. C) serve as a source of rosin. D) form amber. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) All of these statements about BMAA are correct except one. Choose the exception. A) BMAA is an amino acid. B) BMAA is found in the starch of conifers. C) BMAA blocks communication of brain nerve cells. D) BMAA is found in high concentrations in seeds. E) BMAA may contribute to a host of human diseases found on Guam. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) This tree is the only living species in its division, produces rancid smelling seeds, is dioecious, and is a Chinese symbol of good luck. This tree is which of the following? A) Ginkgo biloba B) Pinus contorta C) Cycas rumphii D) Wollemia nobilis E) Pteridium aquilinum Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) Which of the following is a desert shrub that produces alkaloids used in the treatment of asthma and hay fever? A) Ephedra B) Gnetum C) Welwitschia D) Gingko E) Asclepias syriaca Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

45) This member of Gnetophyta lives in the Namib desert, has a long taproot, two leathery leaves, and can live over 1000 years. This plant is likely which of the following? A) Ephedra B) Gnetum C) Welwitschia D) an undescribed cycad E) None of the above is correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Amber is a fossilized tree resin, derived largely from ancient conifers, but also from the resin of the ________ family. A) Fabaceae B) Fagaceae C) Lepidoptera D) Bignoniaceae E) Apiaceae Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Ferns, horsetails, and club mosses all produce ________ by meiosis. Answer: spores Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) ________ are gymnosperms which resemble palms and are found in tropical and subtropical areas. Answer: Cycads Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) Retention of the developing embryo in the sporophyte is one of the major features of all ________. Answer: land plants or embryophytes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

50) The female gametangium in ferns and many other plants is known as the ________. Answer: archegonium Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The largest trees and the oldest trees occur in the division ________. Answer: Coniferophyta Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) Another name for the fern gametophyte is the ________. Answer: prothallus Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) The oldest living trees are the ________ pines. Answer: bristlecone Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Land plants never have flagellated sperm. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) The sporophyte is the dominant plant form of the gymnosperms and angiosperms. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Gymnosperms produce seeds that are "naked" and not enclosed in fruits. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

57) One characteristic of land plants is a life cycle with an alternation of gametophyte and sporophyte generations. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) The gametophyte is very conspicuous in both the Bryophyta and Coniferophyta. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) The seed cone is larger and more complex structurally than the pollen cone. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) The silica impregnated in the walls of club mosses gave rise to the name scouring rushes. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) The starch of cycads, prior to processing, is toxic. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) The origin of angiosperms dates back to the Cambrian Period. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) The sporophytes of ferns have roots but the gametophyte prothallus has rhizoids. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

64) Conifers include the oldest, tallest and most massive trees. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 10 Human Nutrition 1) Which of the following is not a macronutrient? A) fats B) protein C) carbohydrates D) vitamins E) All of the above are macronutrients. 2) Which of the following is a correct statement about macronutrients? A) Macronutrients are called that because they are larger than micronutrients. B) Macronutrients are required in larger amounts than micronutrients. C) Macronutrients include vitamins and minerals. D) All of these are correct statements about macronutrients. E) None of the above are a correct statement. 3) The recommended average daily caloric intake for an adult male is which of the following? A) 1000 kcal B) 2000 kcal C) 2200 kcal D) 3000 kcal E) 3200 kcal 4) Fat supplies ________ kilocalories per gram. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 10 5) The building blocks of carbohydrates are which of the following? A) monosaccharides. B) amino acids. C) fatty acids. D) disaccharides. E) More than one of the above are correct. 6) The most abundant monosaccharide is which of the following? A) fructose B) galactose C) sucrose D) glucose E) amylose

7) Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is a component of the disaccharide lactose? A) fructose B) sucrose C) ribose D) galactose E) maltose 8) Which of the following is a disaccharide found in germinating grains? A) lactose B) maltose C) galactose D) sucrose E) dextrose 9) The most common disaccharide is which of the following? A) lactose B) maltose C) glucose D) sucrose E) galactose 10) Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate or polysaccharide? A) galactose B) glycogen C) sucrose D) lactose E) More than one of these are complex carbohydrates. 11) Glycogen is stored in which of the following? A) chloroplasts. B) fat cells. C) skeletal muscle and fat cells. D) liver and skeletal muscle cells, as well as fungi. E) mitochondria and chloroplasts. 12) Symptoms of this deficiency include puffy skin, swollen belly, fatty liver, and listlessness. This deficiency is from the lack of which of the following? A) vitamin A B) iodine C) lipids D) proteins E) carbohydrates

13) ________ is a serious condition that results from a deficiency of protein and kilocalories. A) Marasmus B) Kwashiorkor C) Type 2 diabetes D) Celiac disease E) Rickets 14) Which of the following is associated with obesity? A) type 2 diabetes B) hypertension C) asthma D) osteoarthritis E) All of these are associated with obesity. 15) Which of the following plant compounds occur in the middle lamella? A) mucilage B) hemicellulose C) lignin D) gum E) pectin 16) Which of the following is not true of butyric acid? A) It stabilizes blood glucose levels. B) It reduces blood cholesterol levels. C) It is produced in the small intestine. D) Raises the acidity of the colon. E) It is produced by bacteria. 17) The fiber from ________ has been shown to reduce the risk of colorectal cancer. A) fruits B) whole grains C) vegetables D) seeds E) all of these 18) Two plants that in combination supply all of the essential amino acids are which of the following? A) beans and rice B) corn and rice C) beans and tomatoes D) beans and corn E) corn and tomatoes

19) The recommended amount of calories from proteins is at least ________ percent. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 40 20) What does the text say is the ultimate cause of gluten sensitivity? A) damaged and flattened villi in the small intestine B) diets consisting primarily of wheat C) high permeability of the intestinal wall D) T cells of the immune system attacking gluten molecules E) lack of enzymes to break down gluten 21) What does zonulin do? A) Increases the permeability of the intestinal lining. B) Breaks down gluten into its component amino acids. C) Stimulates T cells to attack gluten molecules. D) Breaks down cholesterol in the liver. E) Induces cellular respiration. 22) Triglycerides include which of the following? A) steroids B) mostly made from monosaccharides C) fats and oils D) soluble in water E) More than one of these answers are correct. 23) The building blocks of triglycerides are glycerol and which of the following? A) amino acids B) nucleotides C) monosaccharides D) fatty acids E) None of the above are correct. 24) How do unsaturated fatty acids differ from saturated fatty acids? A) Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bonds. B) Unsaturated fatty acids have more hydrogen atoms. C) Unsaturated fatty acids are soluble in water. D) Unsaturated fatty acids are always solid at room temperature. E) Unsaturated fatty acids differ in all of these ways.

25) The scientific evidence shows that which of the following applies to omega-3 fatty acid? A) They are found most abundantly in beef. B) They are found in saturated fats. C) They reduce the incidence of celiac disease. D) They reduce the risk of blood clots. E) Fatty acids are described by all of the above. 26) Which of the following statements is correct about LDL? A) It is a protein that carries cholesterol to cells. B) It removes excess cholesterol from tissues. C) It is the "bad" cholesterol. D) It is found in high quantities in palm and coconut oils. E) It helps prevent atherosclerosis. 27) Corn oil ________ HDL and ________ LDL, whereas olive oil ________ HDL and ________ LDL. A) raises; lowers; lowers; raises B) lowers; raises; raises; lowers C) lowers; lowers; raises; lowers D) raises; raises; lowers; lowers E) None of the above are correct. 28) Diets high in trans fats have been shown to cause or contribute to all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) type 2 diabetes B) coronary heart disease C) lower levels of LDL D) higher levels of LDL E) lower levels of HDL 29) Which of the following vitamins is important in the production of collagen? A) A B) B6 C) C D) D E) B12 30) Essential amino acids include which of the following? A) collagen B) keratin C) actin D) myosin E) None of the above are correct.

31) Celiac disease episodes can be triggered by which of the following? A) gluten B) secalin C) hordein D) All of the above can trigger celiac disease episodes. E) None of the above can trigger celiac disease episodes. 32) A deficiency in vitamin K can cause which of the following conditions? A) beriberi B) poor blood clotting C) rickets D) muscle weakness E) night blindness 33) Symptoms of this deficiency are dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and eventually death. This deficiency is which of the following? A) osteomalacia B) xerophthalmia C) anemia D) goiter E) pellagra 34) The vitamin, ________, is involved in the breakdown of carbohydrates before entering the Krebs cycle. A) biotin B) thiamine C) niacin D) D E) B12 35) The only vitamin not available from plants is which of the following? A) biotin B) thiamine C) niacin D) D E) B12 36) Which of the following vitamins is obtainable through the skin's exposure to UV light? A) A B) B2 C) C D) D E) E

37) The amount of calcium in bones is under the control of hormones and vitamin ________. A) A B) B2 C) C D) D E) E 38) Which of the following minerals is a major component of hemoglobin? A) iron B) calcium C) iodine D) phosphorous E) More than one of the above are major components of hemoglobin. 39) Persons with celiac disease show elevated levels of what enzyme? A) transglutaminase B) ATP synthase C) catalase D) amylase E) None of the above are correct. 40) ________ vitamins can be stored by the body; as a consequence, they can build up to toxic levels if overconsumed. A) Fat-soluble B) Complex C) Organic D) Water-soluble E) Sugar-soluble 41) Lack of iodine results in the nutritional disease called ________. A) goiter B) anemia C) osteoporosis D) kwashiorkor E) elephantiasis 42) Childhood obesity in countries such as Brazil and the United States may lead to increases in Type 2 diabetes as adults. 43) Breast-fed infants in some impoverished countries may have a higher risk for rickets. 44) The Surgeon General in 2001 stated that the obesity epidemic in the United States would probably not affect the health gains we had achieved in recent decades. 45) All proteins in plants are incomplete; they lack either the right combination of amino acids or lack those amino acids in the right proportions. 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

46) Some benefits from a mostly vegetable diet are a decreased chance of contracting cardiovascular disease and colon cancer. 47) The primary treatment for patients with celiac disease is to remove gluten from the diet. 48) Marasmus is a nutritional disease that results when the caloric but not the protein needs are met. 49) Kwashiorkor takes place when neither caloric nor protein needs are met by children. 50) The vitamins A, D, E, and K can be stored in the fatty tissues of the body. 51) The pigment beta-carotene in plants is converted into vitamin C in the human body. 52) Beriberi is a nutritional disease caused by insufficient protein in the diet resulting in abdominal swelling and a reddish tint to dark hair and skin. 53) Most dietary lipids are ________. 54) ________ may destroy destructive free radicals that have been implicated as the cause of cancer and other diseases. 55) The form of iron found in plant sources is called ________. Its absorption can be improved by vitamin C. 56) Fats that have only single bonds between the carbon atoms are called ________ fats. 57) In the human body, the beta-carotene of carrots is converted to ________. 58) ________ on a food label indicate the percentage of nutrients that are provided by a single serving of a food based on a 2000 Calorie diet.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 10 Human Nutrition 1) Which of the following is not a macronutrient? A) fats B) protein C) carbohydrates D) vitamins E) All of the above are macronutrients. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following is a correct statement about macronutrients? A) Macronutrients are called that because they are larger than micronutrients. B) Macronutrients are required in larger amounts than micronutrients. C) Macronutrients include vitamins and minerals. D) All of these are correct statements about macronutrients. E) None of the above are a correct statement. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) The recommended average daily caloric intake for an adult male is which of the following? A) 1000 kcal B) 2000 kcal C) 2200 kcal D) 3000 kcal E) 3200 kcal Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4) Fat supplies ________ kilocalories per gram. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 10 Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

5) The building blocks of carbohydrates are which of the following? A) monosaccharides. B) amino acids. C) fatty acids. D) disaccharides. E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) The most abundant monosaccharide is which of the following? A) fructose B) galactose C) sucrose D) glucose E) amylose Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is a component of the disaccharide lactose? A) fructose B) sucrose C) ribose D) galactose E) maltose Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Which of the following is a disaccharide found in germinating grains? A) lactose B) maltose C) galactose D) sucrose E) dextrose Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

9) The most common disaccharide is which of the following? A) lactose B) maltose C) glucose D) sucrose E) galactose Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate or polysaccharide? A) galactose B) glycogen C) sucrose D) lactose E) More than one of these are complex carbohydrates. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Glycogen is stored in which of the following? A) chloroplasts. B) fat cells. C) skeletal muscle and fat cells. D) liver and skeletal muscle cells, as well as fungi. E) mitochondria and chloroplasts. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) Symptoms of this deficiency include puffy skin, swollen belly, fatty liver, and listlessness. This deficiency is from the lack of which of the following? A) vitamin A B) iodine C) lipids D) proteins E) carbohydrates Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

13) ________ is a serious condition that results from a deficiency of protein and kilocalories. A) Marasmus B) Kwashiorkor C) Type 2 diabetes D) Celiac disease E) Rickets Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Which of the following is associated with obesity? A) type 2 diabetes B) hypertension C) asthma D) osteoarthritis E) All of these are associated with obesity. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) Which of the following plant compounds occur in the middle lamella? A) mucilage B) hemicellulose C) lignin D) gum E) pectin Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) Which of the following is not true of butyric acid? A) It stabilizes blood glucose levels. B) It reduces blood cholesterol levels. C) It is produced in the small intestine. D) Raises the acidity of the colon. E) It is produced by bacteria. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

17) The fiber from ________ has been shown to reduce the risk of colorectal cancer. A) fruits B) whole grains C) vegetables D) seeds E) all of these Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Two plants that in combination supply all of the essential amino acids are which of the following? A) beans and rice B) corn and rice C) beans and tomatoes D) beans and corn E) corn and tomatoes Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) The recommended amount of calories from proteins is at least ________ percent. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 40 Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) What does the text say is the ultimate cause of gluten sensitivity? A) damaged and flattened villi in the small intestine B) diets consisting primarily of wheat C) high permeability of the intestinal wall D) T cells of the immune system attacking gluten molecules E) lack of enzymes to break down gluten Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

21) What does zonulin do? A) Increases the permeability of the intestinal lining. B) Breaks down gluten into its component amino acids. C) Stimulates T cells to attack gluten molecules. D) Breaks down cholesterol in the liver. E) Induces cellular respiration. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Triglycerides include which of the following? A) steroids B) mostly made from monosaccharides C) fats and oils D) soluble in water E) More than one of these answers are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) The building blocks of triglycerides are glycerol and which of the following? A) amino acids B) nucleotides C) monosaccharides D) fatty acids E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) How do unsaturated fatty acids differ from saturated fatty acids? A) Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bonds. B) Unsaturated fatty acids have more hydrogen atoms. C) Unsaturated fatty acids are soluble in water. D) Unsaturated fatty acids are always solid at room temperature. E) Unsaturated fatty acids differ in all of these ways. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

25) The scientific evidence shows that which of the following applies to omega-3 fatty acid? A) They are found most abundantly in beef. B) They are found in saturated fats. C) They reduce the incidence of celiac disease. D) They reduce the risk of blood clots. E) Fatty acids are described by all of the above. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Which of the following statements is correct about LDL? A) It is a protein that carries cholesterol to cells. B) It removes excess cholesterol from tissues. C) It is the "bad" cholesterol. D) It is found in high quantities in palm and coconut oils. E) It helps prevent atherosclerosis. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Corn oil ________ HDL and ________ LDL, whereas olive oil ________ HDL and ________ LDL. A) raises; lowers; lowers; raises B) lowers; raises; raises; lowers C) lowers; lowers; raises; lowers D) raises; raises; lowers; lowers E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Diets high in trans fats have been shown to cause or contribute to all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) type 2 diabetes B) coronary heart disease C) lower levels of LDL D) higher levels of LDL E) lower levels of HDL Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

29) Which of the following vitamins is important in the production of collagen? A) A B) B6 C) C D) D E) B12 Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Essential amino acids include which of the following? A) collagen B) keratin C) actin D) myosin E) None of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Celiac disease episodes can be triggered by which of the following? A) gluten B) secalin C) hordein D) All of the above can trigger celiac disease episodes. E) None of the above can trigger celiac disease episodes. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) A deficiency in vitamin K can cause which of the following conditions? A) beriberi B) poor blood clotting C) rickets D) muscle weakness E) night blindness Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

33) Symptoms of this deficiency are dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and eventually death. This deficiency is which of the following? A) osteomalacia B) xerophthalmia C) anemia D) goiter E) pellagra Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) The vitamin, ________, is involved in the breakdown of carbohydrates before entering the Krebs cycle. A) biotin B) thiamine C) niacin D) D E) B12 Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) The only vitamin not available from plants is which of the following? A) biotin B) thiamine C) niacin D) D E) B12 Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Which of the following vitamins is obtainable through the skin's exposure to UV light? A) A B) B2 C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

37) The amount of calcium in bones is under the control of hormones and vitamin ________. A) A B) B2 C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Which of the following minerals is a major component of hemoglobin? A) iron B) calcium C) iodine D) phosphorous E) More than one of the above are major components of hemoglobin. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) Persons with celiac disease show elevated levels of what enzyme? A) transglutaminase B) ATP synthase C) catalase D) amylase E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) ________ vitamins can be stored by the body; as a consequence, they can build up to toxic levels if overconsumed. A) Fat-soluble B) Complex C) Organic D) Water-soluble E) Sugar-soluble Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

41) Lack of iodine results in the nutritional disease called ________. A) goiter B) anemia C) osteoporosis D) kwashiorkor E) elephantiasis Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Childhood obesity in countries such as Brazil and the United States may lead to increases in Type 2 diabetes as adults. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) Breast-fed infants in some impoverished countries may have a higher risk for rickets. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) The Surgeon General in 2001 stated that the obesity epidemic in the United States would probably not affect the health gains we had achieved in recent decades. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) All proteins in plants are incomplete; they lack either the right combination of amino acids or lack those amino acids in the right proportions. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Some benefits from a mostly vegetable diet are a decreased chance of contracting cardiovascular disease and colon cancer. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

47) The primary treatment for patients with celiac disease is to remove gluten from the diet. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Marasmus is a nutritional disease that results when the caloric but not the protein needs are met. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) Kwashiorkor takes place when neither caloric nor protein needs are met by children. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) The vitamins A, D, E, and K can be stored in the fatty tissues of the body. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The pigment beta-carotene in plants is converted into vitamin C in the human body. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) Beriberi is a nutritional disease caused by insufficient protein in the diet resulting in abdominal swelling and a reddish tint to dark hair and skin. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Most dietary lipids are ________. Answer: triglycerides Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

54) ________ may destroy destructive free radicals that have been implicated as the cause of cancer and other diseases. Answer: Antioxidants Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) The form of iron found in plant sources is called ________. Its absorption can be improved by vitamin C. Answer: non-heme Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Fats that have only single bonds between the carbon atoms are called ________ fats. Answer: saturated Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) In the human body, the beta-carotene of carrots is converted to ________. Answer: vitamin A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) ________ on a food label indicate the percentage of nutrients that are provided by a single serving of a food based on a 2000 Calorie diet. Answer: Daily values Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 11 Origins of Agriculture 1) The shift from hunting-gathering to agriculture began well before ________ thousand years ago. A) 10 B) 20 C) 100 D) 200 E) 1000 2) Which of the following is true about the diets of Paleolithic foraging societies? A) They were almost all exclusively meat-based. B) They were almost all exclusively plant-based. C) They were almost all nutrient poor. D) They varied widely and seasonally from one society to another. E) None of the above are correct. 3) Which of the modern foraging societies subsisted almost entirely on a meat-based diet? A) the Hadza of Tanzania B) Arctic Inuit C) !Kung of the Kalahari Desert D) the Botai of Central Asia E) All of these foraging societies subsisted almost entirely on a meat-based diet. 4) Coprolites are fossilized ________ from both invertebrates and vertebrates. A) seeds B) pollen C) fecal matter D) plant crystals E) bones 5) Which of the following implements provides information on the food of the botanical diet of Paleolithic hunter-gatherers? A) grinding stones B) sickles C) digging implements D) sharp stone flakes E) All of the above provide information on the botanical diets of Paleolithic hunter-gatherers. 6) Paleolithic refers to which of the following? A) Only those hunter-gatherer societies that used wild nut grass as food. B) Only those hunter-gatherer societies that used tubers as food. C) Early foraging groups of the "Old Stone Age" or preagricultural societies. D) Those societies that used the "Paleo Diet." E) None of the above are correct. 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) Which of the following is correct about the "Paleo Diet?" A) It is a nutritional diet that duplicates exactly the diets of ancestral Anatomically Modern Humans. B) Advocates eat little very little meat. C) The Paleo Diet eliminates atherosclerosis and heart disease. D) The Paleo Diet is virtually the same in all hunter-gatherer societies. E) The Paleo Diet is impossible to verify and the benefits are debatable. 8) At the Wadi Kubbaniya excavation site, the most abundant plant remains found were which of the following? A) wild nut grass tubers B) potato tubers C) cassava D) maize (corn) E) tomatoes 9) Which among of the following plant parts does not preserve well in the soil over long periods of time? A) starch grains B) flower parts C) phytoliths D) pollen E) seeds 10) The most decay resistant substance in a plant is which of the following? A) cellulose B) starch C) hemicellulose D) lignin E) pectin 11) The most common dietary material recovered at archaeological sites are which of the following? A) starch grains B) fruits C) root tubers D) seeds E) leaves 12) Pollen grains preserve well in soils because of which of the following? A) tough chemical properties of the exine B) lignified outer wall C) numerous phytoliths found within the pollen grains D) small size of the pollen grains E) suberin and cutin in the epidermis 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

13) Phytoliths A) Are crystals of silica created in epidermal cells. B) Can be composed of calcium oxalate. C) Remain intact in the soil for thousands of years. D) Can be used to identify plant species. E) Are described by all of these statements. 14) Which of the following is correct about the traditional !Kung foraging way of life? A) Their diet was mainly animal based. B) Wild nut grass tubers were an important protein source. C) They did not consume enough calories to maintain their life style. D) Women did most of the hunting while men engaged in warfare. E) Their foraging activities averaged less than 3 days per week. 15) European mitochondrial DNA studies revealed which of the following? A) Ancient European foragers and early European farmers were closely related. B) Modern Europeans are directly related to ancient European foragers. C) The first European farmers were immigrants from the Indonesian archipelago. D) The ancient European foragers likely were Neanderthals or other ancestral clades of Homo spp. E) All of the above are correct. 16) Archaeological evidence indicates that ________ may have been the first plant domesticated in the Fertile Crescent. A) wheat B) peas C) barley D) corn E) lentils 17) Archaeological evidence indicates that in Jarmo in northeastern Iraq, domestication of wheat and barley took place before ________ thousand years ago, and probably much earlier since this domestication was already well-established by this time. A) 9 B) 12 C) 15 D) 18 E) 21 18) Scientists were able to hypothesize that cats were domesticated in China approximately 5000 years ago because of which of the following? A) An unusual carbon isotope in cat bones indicated cats were eating rat pests. B) Cats were found buried with Chinese dignitaries. C) Cats were found buried with trinkets and other symbols of affection. D) More than one of these cats were domesticated. E) None of the above are correct. 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

19) Domestication syndrome refers to which of the following? A) Diseases that domesticated plants and animals contract and that their wild counterparts do not contract. B) The expression of a suite of genes that generate tameness and other domestication effects. C) The effects on humans of the domestication of plants and animals. D) The inability of domesticated plants to exist in the wild because of thousands of years of inbreeding. E) That barley domestication preceded the domestication of animals. 20) Archaeological evidence from the Kuk Swamp site indicated that inhabitants were growing A) wild nut grass. B) wheat and barley. C) taro and banana. D) marijuana and opium poppy. E) maize (corn). 21) Which one of the following statements is(are) correct about the Far East as it pertains to the domestication of plants? A) Excavations in Asia indicate that agriculture arose at several locations in the Far East. B) Rice cultivation probably began at least 11,500 years ago along the Yangtze River. C) The domestication of the saturniid moth, Bombyx mori, began there using mulberry trees as a food source. D) The domestication of the modern horse may have started there over 5,000 years ago. E) All of the above are correct. 22) Which of the following is not among the evidence discovered that New Guinea was one of the first primary centers of agriculture? A) rapid deforestation. B) soil mounding and deeply dug channels. C) phytoliths from domesticated crops. D) discovery of a highland plant growing in lowlands. E) starch grains and phytoliths of a domesticated plant recovered from stone tools. 23) The best evidence indicates that bananas were first cultivated in A) New Guinea. B) Southeast Asia. C) Mesoamerica. D) Northern Africa. E) the Fertile Crescent.

24) How did domestication efforts in the New World differ from the Old World? A) New World domestication efforts focused mainly on fruits. B) New World cultures did not domesticate any grain plants. C) New World cultures domesticated many plants but relatively fewer animal species. D) New World domestication efforts only began 1000 to 2000 years ago. E) There was no New World domestication of any animals. 25) Archaeological evidence suggests that teosinte, the ancestral forerunner of maize (corn), was domesticated in Mexico approximately ________ years ago. A) 500 B) 5,500 C) 7,000 D) 10,000 E) None of the above are correct. 26) Archaeological evidence from the ________ reveals a relatively continuous evolution from foraging to farming and the first domestication of maize (corn). A) Fertile Crescent B) Kuk Swamp C) Wadi Kubbaniya D) Tehuacan Valley E) Kalahari Desert 27) Chili peppers were domesticated approximately 6000 years ago in A) the Bahamas. B) South America. C) South Africa. D) Mesopotamia. E) the Far East. 28) Which of the following is correct about the domestication of plants in the New World? A) The Neolithic societies of the New World domesticated many species of plants. B) The transition from foraging to farming can be thoroughly documented for the groups of peoples inhabiting the Teohuacan valley of Central Mexico. C) Microfossils have revealed that chili peppers were domesticated in South America more than 6,000 years ago. D) The Inca of South America domesticated hundreds of varieties of potatoes. E) All of the above are correct. 29) Sunflower and goosefoot were domesticated in which of the following areas? A) eastern North America B) northwest North America C) southwest North America D) Meso-America E) South America 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) How have domesticated varieties of wild grasses lost their ability to survive in Nature? A) They can no longer reproduce without artificial pollination. B) Through extensive inbreeding, they have lost all resistance to diseases. C) Fruiting heads do not shatter and release seeds. D) Pollen tubes only travel half way to the carpel. E) All of these are ways that wild grasses have lost their ability to survive in Nature. 31) Which of the following is not correct about the domestication of plants? A) Traits in wild plants are artificially selected to suit human needs and do not necessarily have a great survival value if these plants are not cultivated. B) Most wild grasses have shattering fruiting heads, which will break apart at a slight touch, and therefore can never be useful for human use. C) Plant breed still select for desired traits using traditional crosses. D) Germination of seeds is delayed by hormonal control or mechanical means until the following spring. E) Early foragers selected their domesticated plants from wild plants that had larger seeds, fruits, or tubers. 32) Which of the following is not a trait of at least some domesticated plant varieties? A) larger fruits, seeds, and tubers B) loss of seed dormancy C) inability to release fruits D) increased genetic variability E) All of the above are traits of domesticated plant varieties. 33) Which of the following centers of plant domestication is not paired correctly with its principle crops? A) Near East :: wheat and barley B) Africa :: sorghum and cassava C) Mesoamerica :: maize (corn) D) South America :: potato E) None of the above are correct. 34) Coffee was first domesticated in the mountains of A) Ethiopia. B) Peru. C) Columbia. D) Zimbabwe. E) Appalachia. 35) Which of the following is not true about Nikolai I. Vasilov? A) He pinpointed 8 locations worldwide as centers of origin for major domesticated plants. B) He was an adherent of Mendelian genetics. C) For his efforts, Stalin declared him a hero of the Soviet Union. D) His work on centers of origin of domesticated plants has been modified. E) All of these statements are true about Nikolai. I. Vasilov. 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

36) The Tehuacan Valley is an early site of agriculture currently located in which country? A) Iran B) Iraq C) Mexico D) Peru E) Ecuador 37) In the Near East our first cultivated plants were which of the following? A) corn and beans B) corn and wheat C) wheat and barley D) potatoes and wheat E) corn and maize 38) The Stone Age period that refers to the time after the start of agriculture is which of the following? A) Paleolithic B) Neolithic C) Lithic D) Cenozoic E) Cincinnatian 39) The Fertile Crescent was an early site of agriculture in which of the following areas? A) Far East B) New World C) Near East D) Africa E) Southern Europe 40) The Far East is the center of origin for corn. 41) All foraging societies have disappeared due to global climate change. 42) Many hunter-gathering societies have a significant knowledge of botany in the areas they inhabit. 43) Natural selection shapes domesticated plants to suit human needs. 44) One early hypothesis on the origin of agriculture states that it was an unknown ancient genius who realized that plants found at dumpsites had grown from discarded seeds. 45) Evidence now suggests that agriculture may have arisen independently in the Papua New Guinea highlands nearly 7,000 years ago.

46) A center of origin for a particular domesticated plant most likely will be the site which has the greatest number of wild and domesticated relatives of that crop. 47) Tools of the hunt provide information on the size of the animals hunted and how they were killed. 48) There is evidence of hunter-gatherer settlements from nearly 18,000 years ago, suggesting that such settlements were actually present much earlier. 49) The currently available evidence suggests that early foraging groups had a varied plant diet. 50) All plant parts are equally well preserved, giving us an unprecedented view of ancient agriculture. 51) Changes commonly seen in domesticated plants when compared to their wild relatives include a change in the plant's life cycle from perennial to annual and a reduction in protective structures such as thorns, spines, and trichomes. 52) ________ is believed to be the first major food crop to have been domesticated. 53) The earliest evidence of agricultural societies appeared approximately ________ years ago. 54) ________ are fossilized fecal materials that have been used to provide direct evidence of the diet of early humans. 55) The ________ is a site that has yielded the oldest agricultural evidence to date. 56) ________ is the Russian botanist who proposed eight centers of origin for domesticated crops.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 11 Origins of Agriculture 1) The shift from hunting-gathering to agriculture began well before ________ thousand years ago. A) 10 B) 20 C) 100 D) 200 E) 1000 Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following is true about the diets of Paleolithic foraging societies? A) They were almost all exclusively meat-based. B) They were almost all exclusively plant-based. C) They were almost all nutrient poor. D) They varied widely and seasonally from one society to another. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Which of the modern foraging societies subsisted almost entirely on a meat-based diet? A) the Hadza of Tanzania B) Arctic Inuit C) !Kung of the Kalahari Desert D) the Botai of Central Asia E) All of these foraging societies subsisted almost entirely on a meat-based diet. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) Coprolites are fossilized ________ from both invertebrates and vertebrates. A) seeds B) pollen C) fecal matter D) plant crystals E) bones Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Which of the following implements provides information on the food of the botanical diet of Paleolithic hunter-gatherers? A) grinding stones B) sickles C) digging implements D) sharp stone flakes E) All of the above provide information on the botanical diets of Paleolithic hunter-gatherers. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Paleolithic refers to which of the following? A) Only those hunter-gatherer societies that used wild nut grass as food. B) Only those hunter-gatherer societies that used tubers as food. C) Early foraging groups of the "Old Stone Age" or preagricultural societies. D) Those societies that used the "Paleo Diet." E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Which of the following is correct about the "Paleo Diet?" A) It is a nutritional diet that duplicates exactly the diets of ancestral Anatomically Modern Humans. B) Advocates eat little very little meat. C) The Paleo Diet eliminates atherosclerosis and heart disease. D) The Paleo Diet is virtually the same in all hunter-gatherer societies. E) The Paleo Diet is impossible to verify and the benefits are debatable. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) At the Wadi Kubbaniya excavation site, the most abundant plant remains found were which of the following? A) wild nut grass tubers B) potato tubers C) cassava D) maize (corn) E) tomatoes Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Which among of the following plant parts does not preserve well in the soil over long periods of time? A) starch grains B) flower parts C) phytoliths D) pollen E) seeds Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) The most decay resistant substance in a plant is which of the following? A) cellulose B) starch C) hemicellulose D) lignin E) pectin Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) The most common dietary material recovered at archaeological sites are which of the following? A) starch grains B) fruits C) root tubers D) seeds E) leaves Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) Pollen grains preserve well in soils because of which of the following? A) tough chemical properties of the exine B) lignified outer wall C) numerous phytoliths found within the pollen grains D) small size of the pollen grains E) suberin and cutin in the epidermis Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) Phytoliths A) Are crystals of silica created in epidermal cells. B) Can be composed of calcium oxalate. C) Remain intact in the soil for thousands of years. D) Can be used to identify plant species. E) Are described by all of these statements. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Which of the following is correct about the traditional !Kung foraging way of life? A) Their diet was mainly animal based. B) Wild nut grass tubers were an important protein source. C) They did not consume enough calories to maintain their life style. D) Women did most of the hunting while men engaged in warfare. E) Their foraging activities averaged less than 3 days per week. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) European mitochondrial DNA studies revealed which of the following? A) Ancient European foragers and early European farmers were closely related. B) Modern Europeans are directly related to ancient European foragers. C) The first European farmers were immigrants from the Indonesian archipelago. D) The ancient European foragers likely were Neanderthals or other ancestral clades of Homo spp. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

16) Archaeological evidence indicates that ________ may have been the first plant domesticated in the Fertile Crescent. A) wheat B) peas C) barley D) corn E) lentils Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Archaeological evidence indicates that in Jarmo in northeastern Iraq, domestication of wheat and barley took place before ________ thousand years ago, and probably much earlier since this domestication was already well-established by this time. A) 9 B) 12 C) 15 D) 18 E) 21 Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Scientists were able to hypothesize that cats were domesticated in China approximately 5000 years ago because of which of the following? A) An unusual carbon isotope in cat bones indicated cats were eating rat pests. B) Cats were found buried with Chinese dignitaries. C) Cats were found buried with trinkets and other symbols of affection. D) More than one of these cats were domesticated. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

19) Domestication syndrome refers to which of the following? A) Diseases that domesticated plants and animals contract and that their wild counterparts do not contract. B) The expression of a suite of genes that generate tameness and other domestication effects. C) The effects on humans of the domestication of plants and animals. D) The inability of domesticated plants to exist in the wild because of thousands of years of inbreeding. E) That barley domestication preceded the domestication of animals. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) Archaeological evidence from the Kuk Swamp site indicated that inhabitants were growing A) wild nut grass. B) wheat and barley. C) taro and banana. D) marijuana and opium poppy. E) maize (corn). Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Which one of the following statements is(are) correct about the Far East as it pertains to the domestication of plants? A) Excavations in Asia indicate that agriculture arose at several locations in the Far East. B) Rice cultivation probably began at least 11,500 years ago along the Yangtze River. C) The domestication of the saturniid moth, Bombyx mori, began there using mulberry trees as a food source. D) The domestication of the modern horse may have started there over 5,000 years ago. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

22) Which of the following is not among the evidence discovered that New Guinea was one of the first primary centers of agriculture? A) rapid deforestation. B) soil mounding and deeply dug channels. C) phytoliths from domesticated crops. D) discovery of a highland plant growing in lowlands. E) starch grains and phytoliths of a domesticated plant recovered from stone tools. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) The best evidence indicates that bananas were first cultivated in A) New Guinea. B) Southeast Asia. C) Mesoamerica. D) Northern Africa. E) the Fertile Crescent. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) How did domestication efforts in the New World differ from the Old World? A) New World domestication efforts focused mainly on fruits. B) New World cultures did not domesticate any grain plants. C) New World cultures domesticated many plants but relatively fewer animal species. D) New World domestication efforts only began 1000 to 2000 years ago. E) There was no New World domestication of any animals. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Archaeological evidence suggests that teosinte, the ancestral forerunner of maize (corn), was domesticated in Mexico approximately ________ years ago. A) 500 B) 5,500 C) 7,000 D) 10,000 E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

26) Archaeological evidence from the ________ reveals a relatively continuous evolution from foraging to farming and the first domestication of maize (corn). A) Fertile Crescent B) Kuk Swamp C) Wadi Kubbaniya D) Tehuacan Valley E) Kalahari Desert Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Chili peppers were domesticated approximately 6000 years ago in A) the Bahamas. B) South America. C) South Africa. D) Mesopotamia. E) the Far East. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Which of the following is correct about the domestication of plants in the New World? A) The Neolithic societies of the New World domesticated many species of plants. B) The transition from foraging to farming can be thoroughly documented for the groups of peoples inhabiting the Teohuacan valley of Central Mexico. C) Microfossils have revealed that chili peppers were domesticated in South America more than 6,000 years ago. D) The Inca of South America domesticated hundreds of varieties of potatoes. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) Sunflower and goosefoot were domesticated in which of the following areas? A) eastern North America B) northwest North America C) southwest North America D) Meso-America E) South America Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

33) Which of the following centers of plant domestication is not paired correctly with its principle crops? A) Near East :: wheat and barley B) Africa :: sorghum and cassava C) Mesoamerica :: maize (corn) D) South America :: potato E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Coffee was first domesticated in the mountains of A) Ethiopia. B) Peru. C) Columbia. D) Zimbabwe. E) Appalachia. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Which of the following is not true about Nikolai I. Vasilov? A) He pinpointed 8 locations worldwide as centers of origin for major domesticated plants. B) He was an adherent of Mendelian genetics. C) For his efforts, Stalin declared him a hero of the Soviet Union. D) His work on centers of origin of domesticated plants has been modified. E) All of these statements are true about Nikolai. I. Vasilov. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) The Tehuacan Valley is an early site of agriculture currently located in which country? A) Iran B) Iraq C) Mexico D) Peru E) Ecuador Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

37) In the Near East our first cultivated plants were which of the following? A) corn and beans B) corn and wheat C) wheat and barley D) potatoes and wheat E) corn and maize Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) The Stone Age period that refers to the time after the start of agriculture is which of the following? A) Paleolithic B) Neolithic C) Lithic D) Cenozoic E) Cincinnatian Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) The Fertile Crescent was an early site of agriculture in which of the following areas? A) Far East B) New World C) Near East D) Africa E) Southern Europe Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) The Far East is the center of origin for corn. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) All foraging societies have disappeared due to global climate change. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) Many hunter-gathering societies have a significant knowledge of botany in the areas they inhabit. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) Natural selection shapes domesticated plants to suit human needs. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) One early hypothesis on the origin of agriculture states that it was an unknown ancient genius who realized that plants found at dumpsites had grown from discarded seeds. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) Evidence now suggests that agriculture may have arisen independently in the Papua New Guinea highlands nearly 7,000 years ago. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) A center of origin for a particular domesticated plant most likely will be the site which has the greatest number of wild and domesticated relatives of that crop. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Tools of the hunt provide information on the size of the animals hunted and how they were killed. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

48) There is evidence of hunter-gatherer settlements from nearly 18,000 years ago, suggesting that such settlements were actually present much earlier. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) The currently available evidence suggests that early foraging groups had a varied plant diet. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) All plant parts are equally well preserved, giving us an unprecedented view of ancient agriculture. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) Changes commonly seen in domesticated plants when compared to their wild relatives include a change in the plant's life cycle from perennial to annual and a reduction in protective structures such as thorns, spines, and trichomes. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) ________ is believed to be the first major food crop to have been domesticated. Answer: Rice Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) The earliest evidence of agricultural societies appeared approximately ________ years ago. Answer: 10,000 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) ________ are fossilized fecal materials that have been used to provide direct evidence of the diet of early humans. Answer: Coprolites Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

55) The ________ is a site that has yielded the oldest agricultural evidence to date. Answer: Yangtze River Valley Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) ________ is the Russian botanist who proposed eight centers of origin for domesticated crops. Answer: Vavilov Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 12 The Grasses 1) What percentage of the world's vegetation are members of the Family Poaceae? A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 25 2) Grasses are A) eudicots. B) monocots. C) paleodicots. D) lycopods. E) gymnosperms. 3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Poaceae? A) Leaves are alternate. B) Culms are hollow at the node. C) Leaves exhibit netlike venation. D) Fibrous root systems are dominate. E) Many have horizontal stems, such as aboveground stolons or underground rhizomes. 4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of grass flowers? A) They usually have three stamens. B) Grass flowers have enlarged, feathery stigmas. C) Surrounding each flower are two bracts: an outer lemma and an inner palea. D) Flowers are complete. E) There is a single ovule in the ovary. 5) Which of the following terms is not matched with its definition? A) stolon - underground horizontal stem B) lemma - outer bract surrounding a grass flower C) culm - the stem of a grass plant D) awn - slender bristle extending from a lemma E) glume - a bract beneath a spikelet 6) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) Typical fruits for the Poaceae are grains. B) Fruits are dry, single-seeded and indehiscent. C) Interior to the bran is a layer of enlarged cells called the aleurone layer. D) The germ is the embryo with its sheaths. E) All of the above are correct.

7) Which of the following plants is not a member of the Poaceae? A) wheat B) rice C) maize (corn) D) oats E) All of the above are members of the Poaceae 8) Which of the following statements applies to wheat? A) Wheat is one of the most widely cultivated cereals in the world. B) Wheat supplies a major percentage of the nutrient needs of humans. C) The spikes of wheat are tightly packed with grains, usually with long awns. D) Wheat has been called "The Staff of Life." E) All of the above are correct. 9) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The domestication of wheat involves hybridization and resulting polyploidy of several species of wheat. B) Molecular studies indicate that goat grasses should remain in the genus Triticum. C) Triticum monococcum is a diploid species of wheat commonly known as einkorn wheat. D) Emmer wheat is a tetraploid. E) Tetraploid wheat evolved naturally about 100,000 years ago. 10) Which of the following is correct? A) Durum wheat is grown primarily in the northern United States, Canada, and southern Europe. B) Wheat cultivars can be categorized by their growing conditions and their protein content. C) Bread often supplies more than half of the dietary calories to people throughout the world. D) Applying heat to the grain makes the glumes easy to remove but also changes the gluten, making it "flat bread." E) All of the above statements are correct. 11) The bracts surrounding a grass grain are called ________. A) lemma B) chaff C) palea D) glumes E) awns 12) The outer wall of a grass grain is the ________. A) chaff B) aleurone layer C) coleoptile D) germ E) bran

13) If a grass seed geminates, the ________ provides enzymes that break down endosperm. A) chaff B) aleurone layer C) coleoptile D) germ E) bran 14) The embryo along with its coleoptile and coleorhiza sheaths are the ________. A) chaff B) aleurone layer C) coleoptile D) germ E) bran 15) White flour is processed ________. A) chaff B) germ C) endosperm D) bran E) More than one of the above are correct. 16) In whole-grain products, what part of the grain is removed? A) chaff B) germ C) endosperm D) bran E) More than one of the above are correct. 17) Which of the following is not a correct match between the wheat species and its common name? A) Triticum monococcum :: einkorn wheat B) Triticum turgidum :: emmer wheat C) Triticum durum :: bread wheat D) All of the above are correctly matched. E) None of the above are correctly matched. 18) Which species of wheat is used for producing bread flour? A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum durum C) Triticum monococcum D) Triticum turgidum E) None of the above are correct

19) Which of the following species of wheat is tetraploid? A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum durum C) Triticum monococcum D) Triticum turgidum E) None of the above are correct 20) Which of the following is the most commonly grown species of wheat? A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum durum C) Triticum monococcum D) Triticum turgidum E) None of the above are correct. 21) All of the following describe hard wheat except one. Choose the exception. A) higher gluten than soft wheat B) used mainly in making bread C) grown in areas with limited rainfall D) lower protein content than soft wheat E) All of the above are correct. 22) Of particular concern to wheat farmers worldwide is a variety of the stem rust fungus known as which of the following? A) Uk66 B) Ur91 C) Ug99 D) Gr76 E) Nk92 23) Which of the following essential vitamins is not missing in whole-grain wheat? A) A B) B3 C) C D) B12 E) None of the above are correct. 24) Pick the statement that is not correct. A) Early breads were prepared from whole grains that were coarsely ground. B) Refined flour comprises mainly starchy endosperm. C) Refined flour has a shorter shelf life than does flour that has not been refined. D) Compared with other major cereals, wheat is a nutrient-rich food, missing only four of the essential nutrients (vitamins A, B12, C, and iodine) E) The protein content of wheat is about 13 percent.

25) Botanically, what is the silk of maize? A) the stamen filaments B) the carpel styles C) the carpel ovaries D) the stamen anthers E) amylopectin 26) What part of the maize plant prevents seed dispersal? A) the tassel B) the husk C) the silk D) the fruits E) None of the above are correct. 27) Which of the following suggests that corn is an unusual cereal? A) Corn is much larger than other cereals. B) Corn has separate staminate and carpellate inflorescences. C) The grains can be of various colors. D) The grains are "naked." E) All of the above are correct. 28) This type of maize has a core of soft starch surrounded by hard starch and a large percentage of water in endosperm cells. This type of maize is called ________. A) flint B) dent C) waxy D) popcorn E) flour 29) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Until recently, the United States was committed to clean, renewable energy sources. B) In 2017, the United States produced nearly 60 percent of the world's supply of ethanol for fuel. C) Some scientists claim that the energy efficiency of growing corn for fuel may even result in an energy loss (considering the use of fertilizer, etc.) D) Ecologists are concerned about the potential land use changes that could indirectly threaten the Amazonian rain forests and the Pantanal of Brazil because of the expansion of its biofuel program. E) All of the above are correct.

30) The most common corn grown by Native Americans in northern North America was which of the following? A) flint B) dent C) waxy D) popcorn E) flour 31) The most common corn grown in the Corn Belt of the United States is ________. A) flint B) dent C) waxy D) sweet E) flour 32) The many colors of "Indian" corn result from pigments in the pericarp and the ________. A) cotyledons B) coleoptile C) aleurone layer D) coleorhiza E) endodermis 33) The color and patterns seen in Indian corn are evidence of ________. A) evolution B) transduction C) transposons D) inbreeding E) artificial selection 34) Pick the statement that is correct: A) Flint corn has virtually no starch near the outer part of the kernel. B) Sweet corn contains a high concentration of lipids instead of starch in the endosperm. C) Corn is a fall annual that grows best under the extreme conditions of the northern prairies. D) Kernel color is a simple recessive character of the aleurone layer and pericarp. E) Barbara McClintock discovered transposons or "jumping genes" in corn. 35) How is teosinte different from maize? A) Teosinte has terminal staminate flowers. B) Teosinte has lateral carpellate flowers. C) Teosinte has a diploid number of 20. D) Teosinte kernels are surrounded by a hard fruit case. E) Teosinte differs from maize in all the above.

36) The 1970 Southern leaf blight wide-spread epidemic was blamed on which of the following? A) the use of GMOs. B) extreme rainfall caused by global warming. C) an extreme drought caused by global warming. D) the use of disease-susceptible male-sterile lines. E) organic farming techniques. 37) Approximately, 85% of the corn genome consists of which of the following? A) transposons. B) introns. C) viruses. D) inserted deletions. E) exons. 38) Most corn grown in the United States is used for ________. A) flour and cooking oil B) biofuel C) making liquor and beer D) popcorn and directly eating as corn-on-the-cob E) animal food 39) A number of scientists believe that using plant material for ethanol production will not become efficient until the ethanol can be made from ________ instead of sugars and starches. A) cellulose B) lignin C) hemicellulose D) nucleic acids E) All of the above are correct 40) Which is the best environment for growing rice? A) high-elevation mountains. B) lowland tropical areas periodically flooded. C) cool, moist climates with sandy soils. D) former lake beds in dry climates. E) All of the above environments are excellent for growing rice. 41) This staple crop grows to be 1 meter tall, flowers are in a panicle at tip of stalk, grains surrounded by bracts, and air chambers in the stalk. This staple crop is which of the following? A) maize. B) barley. C) rice. D) wheat E) none of the above.

42) Which of the following statements about rice is(are) correct? A) Rice is a large, multi-stalked annual. B) A stalk of rice has a terminal panicle bearing grains surrounded by bracts. C) Rice has characteristic air chambers in the stem that provide for the diffusion of gases throughout the plant. D) There are thousands of varieties of Oryza sativa, which require different growing conditions and may vary in color, shape, size, and aroma. E) All of the above are correct statements. 43) The growth of rice in paddies is enhanced by the nitrogen-producing species, A) Anabaena azollae B) Oryza sativa C) Aegilops tauschi D) Triticum aestivum E) Zea mays 44) In rice cultivation, what is winnowing? A) draining of the fields to prepare for harvesting. B) harvesting the plant using sickles. C) separating the grain from the chaff. D) freeing the grain from the outer bracts. E) None of the above are correct. 45) This variety of rice is the oldest variety and is not sticky when cooked. This variety of rice is called ________. A) indica B) javanica C) japonica D) amaroo E) wild rice 46) Which of the following grains is a C4 plant that vegetatively looks similar to maize? A) Secale cereale B) Hordeum vulgare C) Zea mays D) Sorgum bicolor E) Avena sativa 47) Which of the following species is not correctly paired with its common name? A) Avena sativa :: oat B) Triticum aestivum :: wheat C) Oryza sativa :: rice D) Secale cereal :: goat grass E) Hordeum vulgare :: barley

48) Which of the following is currently believed to be the ancestor of modern corn? A) triticale B) triticum C) tripsacum D) teosinte E) None of the above are correct. 49) In a grain the highest amount of starch would be found in the ________. A) seed coat B) endosperm C) embryo D) bran E) aleurone layer 50) Polyploidy has had a significant impact on the evolution of modern ________. A) corn B) rice C) wheat D) potato E) soybeans 51) Goat grasses played an important role in the evolution of which of the following: A) corn B) rice C) wheat D) potatoes E) peanuts 52) The short grain rice variety that is sticky when cooked is called which of the following: A) indica B) japonica C) javanica D) sinensis E) none of the above 53) Our present-day bread wheats are thought to be hybrids of einkorn wheat and goat grass. 54) The protein in wheat flour that provide elasticity to dough and permit breads and cakes to rise is gluten. 55) A hybrid crop called Aegilops is a cross between wheat and rye. 56) One unusual feature about the female flowers of maize is that they have a very long style. 57) Wheat is native to the North America. 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

58) Nitrogen-fixing species are able to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form of nitrogen that can be utilized by plants. 59) Much of the corn grown in the United States today is used as animal feed, with only a small portion of the corn harvest being eaten directly by humans. 60) Barbara McClintock is also recognized as the first geneticist to consider the existence of epigenetic inheritance. 61) A major aim of current wheat breeding programs is resistance to ________ disease. 62) The condition in which an organism has more than the diploid number of chromosomes is known as ________. 63) The oldest forms of domesticated wheat are ________ and emmer. 64) ________ is a tetraploid wheat species that produces a hard starch ideal for making pasta and semolina flour. 65) ________ is primarily grown today to make the malt for brewing of beer. 66) The embryo of a grain is referred to as the ________. 67) ________ is the cereal grain which feeds the most people worldwide. 68) Sugarcane and bamboo are in the same botanical family as wheat; the scientific name of this family is ________.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 12 The Grasses 1) What percentage of the world's vegetation are members of the Family Poaceae? A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 25 Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Grasses are A) eudicots. B) monocots. C) paleodicots. D) lycopods. E) gymnosperms. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Poaceae? A) Leaves are alternate. B) Culms are hollow at the node. C) Leaves exhibit netlike venation. D) Fibrous root systems are dominate. E) Many have horizontal stems, such as aboveground stolons or underground rhizomes. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of grass flowers? A) They usually have three stamens. B) Grass flowers have enlarged, feathery stigmas. C) Surrounding each flower are two bracts: an outer lemma and an inner palea. D) Flowers are complete. E) There is a single ovule in the ovary. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

5) Which of the following terms is not matched with its definition? A) stolon - underground horizontal stem B) lemma - outer bract surrounding a grass flower C) culm - the stem of a grass plant D) awn - slender bristle extending from a lemma E) glume - a bract beneath a spikelet Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) Typical fruits for the Poaceae are grains. B) Fruits are dry, single-seeded and indehiscent. C) Interior to the bran is a layer of enlarged cells called the aleurone layer. D) The germ is the embryo with its sheaths. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Which of the following plants is not a member of the Poaceae? A) wheat B) rice C) maize (corn) D) oats E) All of the above are members of the Poaceae Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Which of the following statements applies to wheat? A) Wheat is one of the most widely cultivated cereals in the world. B) Wheat supplies a major percentage of the nutrient needs of humans. C) The spikes of wheat are tightly packed with grains, usually with long awns. D) Wheat has been called "The Staff of Life." E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

9) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The domestication of wheat involves hybridization and resulting polyploidy of several species of wheat. B) Molecular studies indicate that goat grasses should remain in the genus Triticum. C) Triticum monococcum is a diploid species of wheat commonly known as einkorn wheat. D) Emmer wheat is a tetraploid. E) Tetraploid wheat evolved naturally about 100,000 years ago. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following is correct? A) Durum wheat is grown primarily in the northern United States, Canada, and southern Europe. B) Wheat cultivars can be categorized by their growing conditions and their protein content. C) Bread often supplies more than half of the dietary calories to people throughout the world. D) Applying heat to the grain makes the glumes easy to remove but also changes the gluten, making it "flat bread." E) All of the above statements are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) The bracts surrounding a grass grain are called ________. A) lemma B) chaff C) palea D) glumes E) awns Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) The outer wall of a grass grain is the ________. A) chaff B) aleurone layer C) coleoptile D) germ E) bran Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

13) If a grass seed geminates, the ________ provides enzymes that break down endosperm. A) chaff B) aleurone layer C) coleoptile D) germ E) bran Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) The embryo along with its coleoptile and coleorhiza sheaths are the ________. A) chaff B) aleurone layer C) coleoptile D) germ E) bran Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) White flour is processed ________. A) chaff B) germ C) endosperm D) bran E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) In whole-grain products, what part of the grain is removed? A) chaff B) germ C) endosperm D) bran E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

17) Which of the following is not a correct match between the wheat species and its common name? A) Triticum monococcum :: einkorn wheat B) Triticum turgidum :: emmer wheat C) Triticum durum :: bread wheat D) All of the above are correctly matched. E) None of the above are correctly matched. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Which species of wheat is used for producing bread flour? A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum durum C) Triticum monococcum D) Triticum turgidum E) None of the above are correct Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) Which of the following species of wheat is tetraploid? A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum durum C) Triticum monococcum D) Triticum turgidum E) None of the above are correct Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) Which of the following is the most commonly grown species of wheat? A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum durum C) Triticum monococcum D) Triticum turgidum E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

21) All of the following describe hard wheat except one. Choose the exception. A) higher gluten than soft wheat B) used mainly in making bread C) grown in areas with limited rainfall D) lower protein content than soft wheat E) All of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Of particular concern to wheat farmers worldwide is a variety of the stem rust fungus known as which of the following? A) Uk66 B) Ur91 C) Ug99 D) Gr76 E) Nk92 Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Which of the following essential vitamins is not missing in whole-grain wheat? A) A B) B3 C) C D) B12 E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Pick the statement that is not correct. A) Early breads were prepared from whole grains that were coarsely ground. B) Refined flour comprises mainly starchy endosperm. C) Refined flour has a shorter shelf life than does flour that has not been refined. D) Compared with other major cereals, wheat is a nutrient-rich food, missing only four of the essential nutrients (vitamins A, B12, C, and iodine) E) The protein content of wheat is about 13 percent. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

25) Botanically, what is the silk of maize? A) the stamen filaments B) the carpel styles C) the carpel ovaries D) the stamen anthers E) amylopectin Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) What part of the maize plant prevents seed dispersal? A) the tassel B) the husk C) the silk D) the fruits E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Which of the following suggests that corn is an unusual cereal? A) Corn is much larger than other cereals. B) Corn has separate staminate and carpellate inflorescences. C) The grains can be of various colors. D) The grains are "naked." E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) This type of maize has a core of soft starch surrounded by hard starch and a large percentage of water in endosperm cells. This type of maize is called ________. A) flint B) dent C) waxy D) popcorn E) flour Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

29) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Until recently, the United States was committed to clean, renewable energy sources. B) In 2017, the United States produced nearly 60 percent of the world's supply of ethanol for fuel. C) Some scientists claim that the energy efficiency of growing corn for fuel may even result in an energy loss (considering the use of fertilizer, etc.) D) Ecologists are concerned about the potential land use changes that could indirectly threaten the Amazonian rain forests and the Pantanal of Brazil because of the expansion of its biofuel program. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) The most common corn grown by Native Americans in northern North America was which of the following? A) flint B) dent C) waxy D) popcorn E) flour Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) The most common corn grown in the Corn Belt of the United States is ________. A) flint B) dent C) waxy D) sweet E) flour Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

32) The many colors of "Indian" corn result from pigments in the pericarp and the ________. A) cotyledons B) coleoptile C) aleurone layer D) coleorhiza E) endodermis Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) The color and patterns seen in Indian corn are evidence of ________. A) evolution B) transduction C) transposons D) inbreeding E) artificial selection Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Pick the statement that is correct: A) Flint corn has virtually no starch near the outer part of the kernel. B) Sweet corn contains a high concentration of lipids instead of starch in the endosperm. C) Corn is a fall annual that grows best under the extreme conditions of the northern prairies. D) Kernel color is a simple recessive character of the aleurone layer and pericarp. E) Barbara McClintock discovered transposons or "jumping genes" in corn. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) How is teosinte different from maize? A) Teosinte has terminal staminate flowers. B) Teosinte has lateral carpellate flowers. C) Teosinte has a diploid number of 20. D) Teosinte kernels are surrounded by a hard fruit case. E) Teosinte differs from maize in all the above. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

36) The 1970 Southern leaf blight wide-spread epidemic was blamed on which of the following? A) the use of GMOs. B) extreme rainfall caused by global warming. C) an extreme drought caused by global warming. D) the use of disease-susceptible male-sterile lines. E) organic farming techniques. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Approximately, 85% of the corn genome consists of which of the following? A) transposons. B) introns. C) viruses. D) inserted deletions. E) exons. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Most corn grown in the United States is used for ________. A) flour and cooking oil B) biofuel C) making liquor and beer D) popcorn and directly eating as corn-on-the-cob E) animal food Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) A number of scientists believe that using plant material for ethanol production will not become efficient until the ethanol can be made from ________ instead of sugars and starches. A) cellulose B) lignin C) hemicellulose D) nucleic acids E) All of the above are correct Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) Which is the best environment for growing rice? A) high-elevation mountains. B) lowland tropical areas periodically flooded. C) cool, moist climates with sandy soils. D) former lake beds in dry climates. E) All of the above environments are excellent for growing rice. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) This staple crop grows to be 1 meter tall, flowers are in a panicle at tip of stalk, grains surrounded by bracts, and air chambers in the stalk. This staple crop is which of the following? A) maize. B) barley. C) rice. D) wheat E) none of the above. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Which of the following statements about rice is(are) correct? A) Rice is a large, multi-stalked annual. B) A stalk of rice has a terminal panicle bearing grains surrounded by bracts. C) Rice has characteristic air chambers in the stem that provide for the diffusion of gases throughout the plant. D) There are thousands of varieties of Oryza sativa, which require different growing conditions and may vary in color, shape, size, and aroma. E) All of the above are correct statements. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) The growth of rice in paddies is enhanced by the nitrogen-producing species, A) Anabaena azollae B) Oryza sativa C) Aegilops tauschi D) Triticum aestivum E) Zea mays Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

44) In rice cultivation, what is winnowing? A) draining of the fields to prepare for harvesting. B) harvesting the plant using sickles. C) separating the grain from the chaff. D) freeing the grain from the outer bracts. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) This variety of rice is the oldest variety and is not sticky when cooked. This variety of rice is called ________. A) indica B) javanica C) japonica D) amaroo E) wild rice Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Which of the following grains is a C4 plant that vegetatively looks similar to maize? A) Secale cereale B) Hordeum vulgare C) Zea mays D) Sorgum bicolor E) Avena sativa Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Which of the following species is not correctly paired with its common name? A) Avena sativa :: oat B) Triticum aestivum :: wheat C) Oryza sativa :: rice D) Secale cereal :: goat grass E) Hordeum vulgare :: barley Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

48) Which of the following is currently believed to be the ancestor of modern corn? A) triticale B) triticum C) tripsacum D) teosinte E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) In a grain the highest amount of starch would be found in the ________. A) seed coat B) endosperm C) embryo D) bran E) aleurone layer Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) Polyploidy has had a significant impact on the evolution of modern ________. A) corn B) rice C) wheat D) potato E) soybeans Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) Goat grasses played an important role in the evolution of which of the following: A) corn B) rice C) wheat D) potatoes E) peanuts Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

52) The short grain rice variety that is sticky when cooked is called which of the following: A) indica B) japonica C) javanica D) sinensis E) none of the above Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Our present-day bread wheats are thought to be hybrids of einkorn wheat and goat grass. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) The protein in wheat flour that provide elasticity to dough and permit breads and cakes to rise is gluten. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) A hybrid crop called Aegilops is a cross between wheat and rye. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) One unusual feature about the female flowers of maize is that they have a very long style. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) Wheat is native to the North America. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

58) Nitrogen-fixing species are able to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form of nitrogen that can be utilized by plants. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Much of the corn grown in the United States today is used as animal feed, with only a small portion of the corn harvest being eaten directly by humans. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) Barbara McClintock is also recognized as the first geneticist to consider the existence of epigenetic inheritance. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) A major aim of current wheat breeding programs is resistance to ________ disease. Answer: stem rust Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) The condition in which an organism has more than the diploid number of chromosomes is known as ________. Answer: polyploidy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) The oldest forms of domesticated wheat are ________ and emmer. Answer: einkorn Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) ________ is a tetraploid wheat species that produces a hard starch ideal for making pasta and semolina flour. Answer: Durum Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

65) ________ is primarily grown today to make the malt for brewing of beer. Answer: Barley Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) The embryo of a grain is referred to as the ________. Answer: germ Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) ________ is the cereal grain which feeds the most people worldwide. Answer: Rice Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) Sugarcane and bamboo are in the same botanical family as wheat; the scientific name of this family is ________. Answer: Poaceae Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 13 Legumes 1) Legumes are high in protein because of which of the following attributes? A) their ability to extract nitrogen from organic matter in the soil. B) large amounts of nitrogen fertilizer used in their cultivation. C) their association with nitrogen-fixing bacteria growing in root nodules. D) their ability to remove nitrogen from the atmosphere. E) None of the above are correct. 2) Most legumes share very similar flower and fruit structures. The fruit is commonly classified as which one of the following? A) pod B) umbel C) raceme D) nut E) None of the above are correct 3) The average amount of protein in beans is ________ percent. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 25 4) Which of the following is not a correct match? A) Adzuki beans :: Vigna angularis B) Chickpeas :: Cicer arietinum C) Navy beans :: Phaseolus vulgaris D) Pinto beans :: Phaseolus vulgaris E) All of the above are correct matches. 5) A disease associated with eating Windsor beans is ________. A) hemolytic anemia B) marasmus C) type 2 diabetes D) hemophilia E) rickets 6) Rhizobium and other nitrogen fixing bacteria can reduce atmospheric nitrogen to which of the following? A) ammonia. B) ammonium. C) nitrate. D) nitrite. E) all of these. 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) Which of the following is correct? A) Nitrogen is an important element in amino acids, proteins, and cholesterol. B) Plants lacking a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing partner must rely on nitrogen compounds in the soil. C) Most commercial fertilizers contain nodules with nitrogen-fixing bacteria. D) A positive effect of nitrogen fertilizer application is that it can cause huge population increases of algae called "algal blooms." E) Humans have had little impact on the nitrogen cycle, even with the burning of fossil fuels. 8) Nitrifying bacteria convert ________ to ________. A) nitrate; nitrite B) ammonium; nitrate C) ammonium; nitrite D) nitrate; ammonium E) nitrite; ammonium 9) How has the anthropogenic input of nitrogen had negative effects? A) Acid rain is produced. B) Global warming has increased. C) Dead zones caused by algal blooms are increasing. D) It has contributed to the world population boom. E) All of these are negative effects caused by anthropogenic inputs of nitrogen. 10) This legume is native to India, can tolerate drought conditions and has been cultivated for over 3000 years. This legume is which of the following? A) Vicia faba B) Pisum sativum C) Phaseolus vulgaris D) Cajanus cajan E) Arachis hypogea 11) The peanut, Arachis hypogaea, is a very unusual plant because of which of the following? A) After pollination, the flower stalk elongates and pushes the developing fruit into the soil. B) The erect bean stalk can reach over 30 meters in height. C) The embryo has only one cotyledon. D) The peanut butter is nutritionally superior to almond butter. E) None of the above are correct. 12) What is one disadvantage of planting hybrid seed? A) Seed must be purchased anew each time there is a planting. B) Hybrid plants are less vigorous. C) Yields are less than with non-hybrid plants. D) Hybrid plants are more susceptible to diseases. E) All of these are disadvantages to planting hybrid seed.

13) This legume, also called groundnuts, are originally native to South America. A) Vicia faba B) Pisum sativum C) Phaseolus vulgaris D) Cajanus cajan E) Arachis hypogaea 14) The development and popularity of the peanut is due mostly to the efforts of whom? A) Barbara McClintock B) Charles Darwin C) George Washington Carver D) Engelbert Kaempfer E) Jorge Moche 15) How is olive oil different from other types of plant-based oils? A) It can be used as a fuel for lighting lamps. B) The oil is extracted from the fruit. C) It is the most used of all of the plant-based oils. D) It is extracted from a gymnosperm. E) None of the above are correct. 16) Which of the following oils has the lowest levels of saturated fats and highest levels of monounsaturated fats? A) olive oil B) sunflower oil C) peanut oil D) canola oil E) coconut oil 17) Which of the following oils is not correctly paired with the type of oil it is? A) sunflower :: nondrying B) soy :: drying C) castor bean :: nondrying D) sunflower :: semidrying E) tung :: drying 18) The cultivated peanut is known to be a natural hybrid of two wild diploid species: A) Arachis duranensis and Arachis ipaensis B) Arachis duranensis and arachnids C) Aesclepias tuborosa and Arachis ipaensis D) Glycine max and Arachis ipaensis E) None of the above are correct.

19) ________ oil is a replacement for petroleum in the production of inks. A) Sunflower B) Lesquerella C) Soy D) Tung E) Olive 20) The base oil for biodiesel fuel is ________ oil. A) sunflower B) lesquerella C) soy D) tung E) olive 21) Soybeans cannot be eaten raw because of the presence of a trypsin inhibitor. What does trypsin do? A) It mediates the production of ATP. B) It is an enzyme used in the breakdown of proteins. C) It is important in the production of HDL. D) It binds oxygen to hemoglobin. E) It activates several hormones. 22) Which of the following is not a soy product? A) tofu B) tempeh C) edamame D) dal E) All of these are soy products. 23) Which of the following is a health benefit derived from the consumption of isoflavones? A) lower LDL levels B) reduced risk of osteoporosis C) inhibition of tumor formation D) reduced symptoms of menopause E) All of these are health benefits derived from the consumption of isoflavones 24) Which of the following was the legume used by Gregor Mendel in his experiments? A) Vicia faba. B) Pisum sativum. C) Phaseolus vulgaris. D) Cajanus cajan. E) Arachis hypogea.

25) The Leucaena leucocephala tree has a number of beneficial characteristics, one of which is the following: A) It is widely distributed throughout North America. B) Its pods can be used to create a "mother's milk" for babies. C) The tree can be grown for multipurpose wood (for lumber, furniture, construction, and pulp). D) Its flower can be used as an insecticide. E) None of the above are a beneficial characteristic. 26) Which of the following species is not matched correctly with its common name? A) Pisum sativum - garden pea B) Arachis hypogea - peanut C) Vicia faba - lead tree D) Glycine max - soybean E) Medicago sativa - alfalfa 27) Which one of the following is not one of the many uses of Leucaena leucocephala? A) edible seeds B) firewood C) making furniture D) restoring soil fertility E) producing lecithin 28) The most widely grown forage legume is which of the following? A) Pisum sativum B) Arachis hypogea C) Vicia faba D) Glycine max E) Medicago sativa 29) How is alfalfa an important tool in biotechnology? A) Its cells readily incorporate novel genes. B) It is easy to cross alfalfa with almost any other plant. C) Its DNA hybridizes with animal DNA. D) Its cells clone easily. E) None of the above are correct. 30) Psophocarpus tetragonolobus is a potentially valuable legume because of which of the following characteristics? A) It grows rapidly and produces versatile wood. B) The oil can be used for producing ink and a lubricant. C) All parts of the plant are edible and nutritious. D) It can grow in a wide variety of climates. E) It can fix nitrogen without Rhizobium.

31) This legume may have helped the Pilgrims of Plymouth Colony survive and produces golf ball-sized tubers. This legume is which of the following? A) Psophocarpus tetragonolobus B) Apios americana C) Arachis hypogea D) Vicia faba E) Glycine max 32) This legume is grown mainly in Mesoamerica and is a tropical vine. The part eaten is the tuberous roots. This legume is called: A) jicama B) groundnut C) carob D) tamarind E) tuba-root 33) The Indian drink, kheer, is made from which of the following? A) jicama B) rice C) carob D) tamarind E) tuba-root 34) Henry Ford once built a car that had a plastic body made from ________ oil. A) peanut B) sunflower C) olive D) soy E) castor bean 35) Which of the following is not correct? A) Dozens of types of peas and beans are valued for their lipid content, not their protein content. B) The protein content of soybeans is one of the highest of all crops. C) Legumes can serve as forage crops. D) Legumes can serve as "green manure." E) The jicama is cultivated largely in Mexico, and Central America. 36) Which of the following types of oil can form a thin waterproof, elastic film? A) drying B) semidrying C) nondrying D) wetting E) All of these types of oil can form a thin waterproof, elastic film

37) ________ oil is a drying oil used by ancient Egyptians to waterproof coffins. A) Canola B) Linseed C) Palm D) Sunflower E) Soy 38) Sixty percent of the soybean genome consists of which of the following? A) exons. B) introns. C) transposons. D) point mutations. E) regulatory DNA. 39) The Mexican "turnip" is actually which of the following? A) soybean B) yam bean C) jicama D) groundnuts E) alfalfa 40) Which legume is considered the "Cinderella Crop"? A) peas B) lentils C) green beans D) soybeans E) string beans 41) Which of the following forms of nitrogen is most commonly absorbed by plants? A) nitrates B) nitrites C) nitrogen oxide D) ammonium E) nitrogen gas 42) What is the food-storing part of a leguminous seed? A) the pod B) the cotyledons C) the seed coat D) the germ E) axils

43) What soybean product is made from curds of soy milk? A) soy sauce B) textured vegetable protein C) tofu D) miso E) cellulose polyesters 44) Which leguminous tree has been nicknamed "Jack's beanstalk" because of its amazing growth rate? A) winged bean B) leucaena C) groundnut D) lesquerella E) soybean 45) The best plant sources of protein are the legumes. 46) Legumes are members of the bean family, Fabaceae, which also includes alfalfa, clover, and corn. 47) Soybeans are often rotated with corn in the Corn Belt region of the United States in order to enrich the soil. 48) Ecologists recommend planting fast-growing leguminous trees to reclaim eroded or barren areas. 49) Anthropogenic sources of fixed nitrogen are roughly half the amounts contributed by all other natural sources. 50) Olive oil is derived from fruits unlike most plant oils that come from seeds. 51) The most unsaturated oils have the slowest drying time. 52) Soybeans have been transformed into a variety of food products. For this reason they are increasing their caloric impact on the Western diet. 53) Legumes are second only to the cereals in their importance to human nutrition. 54) Legumes are an excellent source of high-quality protein. 55) Bacteria found in nodules in the roots of legumes can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates, a form usable to plants by a process known as nitrogen ________. 56) ________ is a popular American food made from grinding up the seeds of a legume; It was originally invented as a health food. 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

57) ________ are legumes which have a higher protein content than lean beef. 58) ________ is a relatively non-polluting fuel developed from vegetable oils that can substitute for petroleum-derived products.

4) Which of the following is not a correct match? A) Adzuki beans :: Vigna angularis B) Chickpeas :: Cicer arietinum C) Navy beans :: Phaseolus vulgaris D) Pinto beans :: Phaseolus vulgaris E) All of the above are correct matches. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) A disease associated with eating Windsor beans is ________. A) hemolytic anemia B) marasmus C) type 2 diabetes D) hemophilia E) rickets Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Rhizobium and other nitrogen fixing bacteria can reduce atmospheric nitrogen to which of the following? A) ammonia. B) ammonium. C) nitrate. D) nitrite. E) all of these. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Which of the following is correct? A) Nitrogen is an important element in amino acids, proteins, and cholesterol. B) Plants lacking a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing partner must rely on nitrogen compounds in the soil. C) Most commercial fertilizers contain nodules with nitrogen-fixing bacteria. D) A positive effect of nitrogen fertilizer application is that it can cause huge population increases of algae called "algal blooms." E) Humans have had little impact on the nitrogen cycle, even with the burning of fossil fuels. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Nitrifying bacteria convert ________ to ________. A) nitrate; nitrite B) ammonium; nitrate C) ammonium; nitrite D) nitrate; ammonium E) nitrite; ammonium Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) How has the anthropogenic input of nitrogen had negative effects? A) Acid rain is produced. B) Global warming has increased. C) Dead zones caused by algal blooms are increasing. D) It has contributed to the world population boom. E) All of these are negative effects caused by anthropogenic inputs of nitrogen. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) This legume is native to India, can tolerate drought conditions and has been cultivated for over 3000 years. This legume is which of the following? A) Vicia faba B) Pisum sativum C) Phaseolus vulgaris D) Cajanus cajan E) Arachis hypogea Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) The peanut, Arachis hypogaea, is a very unusual plant because of which of the following? A) After pollination, the flower stalk elongates and pushes the developing fruit into the soil. B) The erect bean stalk can reach over 30 meters in height. C) The embryo has only one cotyledon. D) The peanut butter is nutritionally superior to almond butter. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) What is one disadvantage of planting hybrid seed? A) Seed must be purchased anew each time there is a planting. B) Hybrid plants are less vigorous. C) Yields are less than with non-hybrid plants. D) Hybrid plants are more susceptible to diseases. E) All of these are disadvantages to planting hybrid seed. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) This legume, also called groundnuts, are originally native to South America. A) Vicia faba B) Pisum sativum C) Phaseolus vulgaris D) Cajanus cajan E) Arachis hypogaea Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) The development and popularity of the peanut is due mostly to the efforts of whom? A) Barbara McClintock B) Charles Darwin C) George Washington Carver D) Engelbert Kaempfer E) Jorge Moche Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) How is olive oil different from other types of plant-based oils? A) It can be used as a fuel for lighting lamps. B) The oil is extracted from the fruit. C) It is the most used of all of the plant-based oils. D) It is extracted from a gymnosperm. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

16) Which of the following oils has the lowest levels of saturated fats and highest levels of monounsaturated fats? A) olive oil B) sunflower oil C) peanut oil D) canola oil E) coconut oil Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Which of the following oils is not correctly paired with the type of oil it is? A) sunflower :: nondrying B) soy :: drying C) castor bean :: nondrying D) sunflower :: semidrying E) tung :: drying Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) The cultivated peanut is known to be a natural hybrid of two wild diploid species: A) Arachis duranensis and Arachis ipaensis B) Arachis duranensis and arachnids C) Aesclepias tuborosa and Arachis ipaensis D) Glycine max and Arachis ipaensis E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) ________ oil is a replacement for petroleum in the production of inks. A) Sunflower B) Lesquerella C) Soy D) Tung E) Olive Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

20) The base oil for biodiesel fuel is ________ oil. A) sunflower B) lesquerella C) soy D) tung E) olive Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Soybeans cannot be eaten raw because of the presence of a trypsin inhibitor. What does trypsin do? A) It mediates the production of ATP. B) It is an enzyme used in the breakdown of proteins. C) It is important in the production of HDL. D) It binds oxygen to hemoglobin. E) It activates several hormones. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Which of the following is not a soy product? A) tofu B) tempeh C) edamame D) dal E) All of these are soy products. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Which of the following is a health benefit derived from the consumption of isoflavones? A) lower LDL levels B) reduced risk of osteoporosis C) inhibition of tumor formation D) reduced symptoms of menopause E) All of these are health benefits derived from the consumption of isoflavones Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

24) Which of the following was the legume used by Gregor Mendel in his experiments? A) Vicia faba. B) Pisum sativum. C) Phaseolus vulgaris. D) Cajanus cajan. E) Arachis hypogea. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) The Leucaena leucocephala tree has a number of beneficial characteristics, one of which is the following: A) It is widely distributed throughout North America. B) Its pods can be used to create a "mother's milk" for babies. C) The tree can be grown for multipurpose wood (for lumber, furniture, construction, and pulp). D) Its flower can be used as an insecticide. E) None of the above are a beneficial characteristic. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Which of the following species is not matched correctly with its common name? A) Pisum sativum - garden pea B) Arachis hypogea - peanut C) Vicia faba - lead tree D) Glycine max - soybean E) Medicago sativa - alfalfa Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Which one of the following is not one of the many uses of Leucaena leucocephala? A) edible seeds B) firewood C) making furniture D) restoring soil fertility E) producing lecithin Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

28) The most widely grown forage legume is which of the following? A) Pisum sativum B) Arachis hypogea C) Vicia faba D) Glycine max E) Medicago sativa Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) How is alfalfa an important tool in biotechnology? A) Its cells readily incorporate novel genes. B) It is easy to cross alfalfa with almost any other plant. C) Its DNA hybridizes with animal DNA. D) Its cells clone easily. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Psophocarpus tetragonolobus is a potentially valuable legume because of which of the following characteristics? A) It grows rapidly and produces versatile wood. B) The oil can be used for producing ink and a lubricant. C) All parts of the plant are edible and nutritious. D) It can grow in a wide variety of climates. E) It can fix nitrogen without Rhizobium. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) This legume may have helped the Pilgrims of Plymouth Colony survive and produces golf ball-sized tubers. This legume is which of the following? A) Psophocarpus tetragonolobus B) Apios americana C) Arachis hypogea D) Vicia faba E) Glycine max Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

32) This legume is grown mainly in Mesoamerica and is a tropical vine. The part eaten is the tuberous roots. This legume is called: A) jicama B) groundnut C) carob D) tamarind E) tuba-root Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) The Indian drink, kheer, is made from which of the following? A) jicama B) rice C) carob D) tamarind E) tuba-root Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Henry Ford once built a car that had a plastic body made from ________ oil. A) peanut B) sunflower C) olive D) soy E) castor bean Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Which of the following is not correct? A) Dozens of types of peas and beans are valued for their lipid content, not their protein content. B) The protein content of soybeans is one of the highest of all crops. C) Legumes can serve as forage crops. D) Legumes can serve as "green manure." E) The jicama is cultivated largely in Mexico, and Central America. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

36) Which of the following types of oil can form a thin waterproof, elastic film? A) drying B) semidrying C) nondrying D) wetting E) All of these types of oil can form a thin waterproof, elastic film Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) ________ oil is a drying oil used by ancient Egyptians to waterproof coffins. A) Canola B) Linseed C) Palm D) Sunflower E) Soy Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Sixty percent of the soybean genome consists of which of the following? A) exons. B) introns. C) transposons. D) point mutations. E) regulatory DNA. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) The Mexican "turnip" is actually which of the following? A) soybean B) yam bean C) jicama D) groundnuts E) alfalfa Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

40) Which legume is considered the "Cinderella Crop"? A) peas B) lentils C) green beans D) soybeans E) string beans Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) Which of the following forms of nitrogen is most commonly absorbed by plants? A) nitrates B) nitrites C) nitrogen oxide D) ammonium E) nitrogen gas Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) What is the food-storing part of a leguminous seed? A) the pod B) the cotyledons C) the seed coat D) the germ E) axils Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) What soybean product is made from curds of soy milk? A) soy sauce B) textured vegetable protein C) tofu D) miso E) cellulose polyesters Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

44) Which leguminous tree has been nicknamed "Jack's beanstalk" because of its amazing growth rate? A) winged bean B) leucaena C) groundnut D) lesquerella E) soybean Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) The best plant sources of protein are the legumes. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Legumes are members of the bean family, Fabaceae, which also includes alfalfa, clover, and corn. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Soybeans are often rotated with corn in the Corn Belt region of the United States in order to enrich the soil. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Ecologists recommend planting fast-growing leguminous trees to reclaim eroded or barren areas. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) Anthropogenic sources of fixed nitrogen are roughly half the amounts contributed by all other natural sources. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

50) Olive oil is derived from fruits unlike most plant oils that come from seeds. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The most unsaturated oils have the slowest drying time. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) Soybeans have been transformed into a variety of food products. For this reason they are increasing their caloric impact on the Western diet. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Legumes are second only to the cereals in their importance to human nutrition. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Legumes are an excellent source of high-quality protein. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) Bacteria found in nodules in the roots of legumes can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates, a form usable to plants by a process known as nitrogen ________. Answer: fixation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) ________ is a popular American food made from grinding up the seeds of a legume; It was originally invented as a health food. Answer: Peanut butter Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

57) ________ are legumes which have a higher protein content than lean beef. Answer: Soybeans Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) ________ is a relatively non-polluting fuel developed from vegetable oils that can substitute for petroleum-derived products. Answer: Biodiesel Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 14 Starchy Staples 1) The two most consumed starchy staples are potatoes and ________. A) sweet potatoes B) taro C) cassava D) yams E) Jerusalem artichoke 2) Most plants store food reserves in which form? A) cellulose B) starch C) lignin D) galactose E) None of the above is correct. 3) Horizontal, underground stems are called ________. A) tuber B) rhizomes C) stolons D) corms E) bulbs 4) Strawberry propagates asexually by which of the following? A) tubers B) rhizomes C) stolons D) corms E) bulbs 5) Potatoes propagate asexually by which of the following? A) buds of tubers B) rhizomes C) stolons D) corms E) bulbs 6) Onions propagate asexually by which of the following? A) tubers B) rhizomes C) stolons D) corms E) bulbs

7) How do corms differ from bulbs? A) Corms store starch in their stems. B) Corms produce fruits. C) Corms are all inedible. D) Corms can multiply and form cormlets. E) All of these are ways in which corms differ from bulbs. 8) How do tuberous roots differ from taproots? A) Tuberous roots do not store starch. B) Tuberous roots develop from modified fibrous roots. C) Tuberous roots are not edible. D) Plants from tuberous roots are dicots. E) None of the above is correct. 9) Bananas are actually native to which of the following regions? A) Southeast Asia B) Indo-Malaysia C) Northern Australia D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct. 10) Which of the following are characteristics of bananas? A) They can be eaten raw or cooked. B) Most bananas today are sterile triploids. C) The "trunk" of this monocot is not woody but arises from an underground corm. D) The single flowering stalk contains 5 to 13 groups of flowers. E) All of the above are correct. 11) Solanum tuberosum, the white potato, was first domesticated in which country over 10,000 years ago? A) Ireland. B) Chile. C) Peru. D) Mexico. E) Idaho. 12) The potato was initially rejected as food in Europe because it was thought to be ________. A) poisonous B) hallucinogenic C) a cause of leprosy D) a cause of rickets E) All of the above are correct

13) Phytophthora infestans is the scientific name of which of the following? A) a tall shrub with tuberous roots similar to the sweet potato B) cassava C) taro D) the pathogen that causes late blight E) the pathogen that causes rickets 14) Which of the following is not correct about the Irish Famine? A) The English government did all it could to mitigate the suffering of the Irish people. B) While potatoes crops were decimated by late blight; cereal crops were unaffected. C) More than a million Irish left Ireland; most went to the United States. D) The Penal Laws made it more difficult for Irish Catholics to succeed as land-owners. E) One response to the Poor Law Extension Act was the eviction of Irish tenants from their homes. 15) The Irish Famine was made worse because of which of the following? A) The potatoes planted were genetically identical. B) The English government was unsympathetic to the plight of the Irish. C) Potatoes were practically the entire diet of the Irish poor. D) There was widespread suppression of Catholics. E) All of the factors listed above made the Irish Famine worse. 16) Which of the following is not one of the major potato producing states in the United States? A) Maine B) Nevada C) Washington D) Idaho E) All of the above are major potato producing states. 17) Which of the following statement is not correct? A) The word potato is derived from the Arawak Indian word batata (actually for the sweet potato). B) Every state in the United States grows potatoes. C) Potato chips were developed by George Crum in New York State. D) The potato plant is a stringy, vine-like perennial. E) The fruit of the potato is a many-seeded berry. 18) What is chuno? A) an alcoholic drink made from cassava B) a type of fried sweet potato common in Mexico C) a freeze-dried dehydrated potato prepared by Peruvian Indians D) an essential ingredient of Poi, a traditional dish of native Hawaiians E) a dish similar to mashed potatoes but made from taro

19) This plant is a bushy, herbaceous annual dicot with a many-seeded fruit and two types of stems. What is the scientific name of this plant? A) Ipomoea batatas B) Manihot esculenta C) Colocasia esculenta D) Solanum tuberosum E) Dioscorea cayenensis 20) The darkened ring found in some potato chips is the ________. A) periderm B) cortex C) pith D) vascular tissue E) None of the above is correct. 21) Which of the following tissues makes up much of a potato tuber? A) the pith B) vascular tissue C) the cortex D) the periderm E) the pome 22) Potato tubers that are planted must contain at least one of these: A) seed B) bud (an "eye") C) root D) flower E) rachis 23) What is one of the biggest disadvantages of planting potato tubers instead of potato seeds? A) There is an increase in genetic variability. B) The yield is far less. C) There is greater susceptibility to disease because they are genetic clones. D) It is more labor intensive. E) Potato blight becomes much more common. 24) Which of the following is not a true statement about potatoes? A) The greatest diversity of Solanum species is in Peru. B) The Colorado potato beetle is a serious potato pest. C) Potatoes are a good source of vitamin B and C. D) No Solanum species is resistant to all strains of late blight. E) Much of the nutritional value of a potato is in the periderm.

25) The best potato variety for baking is probably which variety? A) Superior B) Red LaSoda C) Katahdin D) Norland E) Russet 26) Which of the following staples is not matched correctly with its family? A) Solanum tuberosum :: nightshade B) Manihot esculenta :: spurge C) Ipomoea batatas :: yam D) Colocasia esculenta :: arum E) Helianthus tuberosus :: Jerusalem artichoke 27) All of the following species are correctly matched with its common name except one. Choose the exception. A) Solanum tuberosum - potato B) Manihot esculenta - cassava C) Ipomoea batatas - sweet potato D) Colocasia esculenta - yam E) Helianthus tuberosus - Jerusalem artichoke 28) This starchy staple is a storage root that grows as a vine and requires a long warm growing season. What is this starchy staple? A) potato B) taro C) cassava D) yam E) sweet potato 29) Which of the following is true about the sweet potato? A) It was introduced into Spain by Columbus. B) Its original name was batata. C) It was originally cultivated in Peru. D) It is a not really a type of yam. E) All of these statements are true about sweet potatoes. 30) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Varieties of cassava are classified as either sweet or bitter, based on the concentration of hydrocyanic acid. B) Enzymes of cyanogenic glycosides are already present in cassava. C) In South America, the traditional preparation of sweet potato produces a meal called farinha. D) The root of cassava is very high in protein. E) The cassava genome has more genes than that of humans.

31) While originating is South America, cassava has become a major staple in which of the following areas? A) Africa B) North America C) China D) Europe E) Australia 32) This starchy staple grows from a tall shrub with palmately compound leaves, large tuberous roots, and can be cultivated from seeds. This starchy staple is which of the following? A) Ipomoea batatas B) Manihot esculenta C) Colocasia esculenta D) Solanum tuberosum E) Dioscorea cayenensis 33) The most damaging pathogen of cassava is which of the following? A) Phytophthora infestans. B) Bacillus thuringiensis. C) tobacco mosaic virus. D) cassava mosaic virus (CMV). E) More than one of these is devastating. 34) Which of the following is not correct about Manihot esculenta? A) It grows well in nutrient-poor soils. B) Nigeria is one of the leading producers of this starchy staple. C) It cannot tolerate extended dry periods without rainfall. D) It can be cultivated from seed. E) It is resistant to locust infestations. 35) This misnamed staple was once known as sun root, does not contain starch, and is a weedy perennial in the sunflower family. This staple is known as which of the following? A) potato. B) taro. C) cassava. D) yam. E) Jerusalem artichoke. 36) Inulin is a polymer of which of the following? A) glucose. B) fructose. C) sucrose. D) maltose. E) starch.

37) Helianthus tuberosus is native to which area? A) North America. B) South America. C) Africa. D) Asia. E) Polynesia. 38) Which of the following is a corm that is steamed, crushed, and fermented to make poi? A) cassava B) yam C) sweet potato D) taro E) None of the above is correct. 39) Which starchy staple is a source of diosgenin, shown to inhibit ovulation in women? A) yam B) manioc C) sweet potato D) white potato E) banana 40) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Starch is the most common carbohydrate storage product found in plants. B) Sugars are the direct products of photosynthesis but are generally not stored as such. C) There are two distinct components of starch: amylose and amylopectin, which differ in their nutritional benefits. D) Starch is mostly extracted commercially from corn, potatoes, and cassava, but can be extracted from almost any grain, tuber, or other plant storage organ. E) Although starch is ubiquitous in plants, it unfortunately cannot be used in the production of sugar-based sweeteners. 41) The sweet potato is classified as which one of the following? A) rhizome B) stolon C) root D) tuber E) corm 42) The source of tapioca pearls is the moist flour obtained from the ________ root. A) Colocasia B) Manihot C) Dioscorea D) Ipomoea E) Solanum

43) The continent to which sweet potatoes are native is Africa. 44) The wild potato species, Solanum bulbocastanum, is resistant to all known strains of Phytophthora spp. 45) Many of today's cultivars of potatoes are grouped into the following types: round white, russet, round red, and long white. 46) The major disadvantage of cassava as a dietary staple is that it is very low in carbohydrates. 47) The breakdown and fermentation of starch by yeast produces alcohol that can be used for beverages, but not for industrial solvents or petroleum fuel substitute. 48) Cassava comes in two forms: bitter and sweet. The sweet form contains high concentrations of hydrocyanic acid. 49) In the Polynesian Islands, current sweet potato varieties showed just one genetic lineage, and virtually no mixed heritage. 50) Modified stems which grow horizontally underground and function in vegetative reproduction are called stolons. 51) The scientific name of the plant family containing white potato is Solanaceae. 52) ________ is the component of starch that is a highly branched molecule. 53) ________ is the component of starch that is relatively soluble in water. 54) ________ is the major component of starch comprising about ________ percent of this molecule. 55) ________ is in high demand because it is sweeter and less inexpensive to process than sucrose. 56) Yams are an important source of ________ used to make human sex hormones and cortisone. 57) ________ is a tuberous root native to South America. 58) The starchy staple which grows as a corm is ________. 59) Grating and other methods of processing cassava are necessary to remove the toxin ________.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 14 Starchy Staples 1) The two most consumed starchy staples are potatoes and ________. A) sweet potatoes B) taro C) cassava D) yams E) Jerusalem artichoke Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Most plants store food reserves in which form? A) cellulose B) starch C) lignin D) galactose E) None of the above is correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Horizontal, underground stems are called ________. A) tuber B) rhizomes C) stolons D) corms E) bulbs Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4) Strawberry propagates asexually by which of the following? A) tubers B) rhizomes C) stolons D) corms E) bulbs Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

5) Potatoes propagate asexually by which of the following? A) buds of tubers B) rhizomes C) stolons D) corms E) bulbs Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Onions propagate asexually by which of the following? A) tubers B) rhizomes C) stolons D) corms E) bulbs Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) How do corms differ from bulbs? A) Corms store starch in their stems. B) Corms produce fruits. C) Corms are all inedible. D) Corms can multiply and form cormlets. E) All of these are ways in which corms differ from bulbs. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) How do tuberous roots differ from taproots? A) Tuberous roots do not store starch. B) Tuberous roots develop from modified fibrous roots. C) Tuberous roots are not edible. D) Plants from tuberous roots are dicots. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

9) Bananas are actually native to which of the following regions? A) Southeast Asia B) Indo-Malaysia C) Northern Australia D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following are characteristics of bananas? A) They can be eaten raw or cooked. B) Most bananas today are sterile triploids. C) The "trunk" of this monocot is not woody but arises from an underground corm. D) The single flowering stalk contains 5 to 13 groups of flowers. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Solanum tuberosum, the white potato, was first domesticated in which country over 10,000 years ago? A) Ireland. B) Chile. C) Peru. D) Mexico. E) Idaho. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) The potato was initially rejected as food in Europe because it was thought to be ________. A) poisonous B) hallucinogenic C) a cause of leprosy D) a cause of rickets E) All of the above are correct Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

13) Phytophthora infestans is the scientific name of which of the following? A) a tall shrub with tuberous roots similar to the sweet potato B) cassava C) taro D) the pathogen that causes late blight E) the pathogen that causes rickets Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Which of the following is not correct about the Irish Famine? A) The English government did all it could to mitigate the suffering of the Irish people. B) While potatoes crops were decimated by late blight; cereal crops were unaffected. C) More than a million Irish left Ireland; most went to the United States. D) The Penal Laws made it more difficult for Irish Catholics to succeed as land-owners. E) One response to the Poor Law Extension Act was the eviction of Irish tenants from their homes. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) The Irish Famine was made worse because of which of the following? A) The potatoes planted were genetically identical. B) The English government was unsympathetic to the plight of the Irish. C) Potatoes were practically the entire diet of the Irish poor. D) There was widespread suppression of Catholics. E) All of the factors listed above made the Irish Famine worse. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) Which of the following is not one of the major potato producing states in the United States? A) Maine B) Nevada C) Washington D) Idaho E) All of the above are major potato producing states. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

17) Which of the following statement is not correct? A) The word potato is derived from the Arawak Indian word batata (actually for the sweet potato). B) Every state in the United States grows potatoes. C) Potato chips were developed by George Crum in New York State. D) The potato plant is a stringy, vine-like perennial. E) The fruit of the potato is a many-seeded berry. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) What is chuno? A) an alcoholic drink made from cassava B) a type of fried sweet potato common in Mexico C) a freeze-dried dehydrated potato prepared by Peruvian Indians D) an essential ingredient of Poi, a traditional dish of native Hawaiians E) a dish similar to mashed potatoes but made from taro Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) This plant is a bushy, herbaceous annual dicot with a many-seeded fruit and two types of stems. What is the scientific name of this plant? A) Ipomoea batatas B) Manihot esculenta C) Colocasia esculenta D) Solanum tuberosum E) Dioscorea cayenensis Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) The darkened ring found in some potato chips is the ________. A) periderm B) cortex C) pith D) vascular tissue E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

21) Which of the following tissues makes up much of a potato tuber? A) the pith B) vascular tissue C) the cortex D) the periderm E) the pome Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Potato tubers that are planted must contain at least one of these: A) seed B) bud (an "eye") C) root D) flower E) rachis Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) What is one of the biggest disadvantages of planting potato tubers instead of potato seeds? A) There is an increase in genetic variability. B) The yield is far less. C) There is greater susceptibility to disease because they are genetic clones. D) It is more labor intensive. E) Potato blight becomes much more common. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Which of the following is not a true statement about potatoes? A) The greatest diversity of Solanum species is in Peru. B) The Colorado potato beetle is a serious potato pest. C) Potatoes are a good source of vitamin B and C. D) No Solanum species is resistant to all strains of late blight. E) Much of the nutritional value of a potato is in the periderm. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

25) The best potato variety for baking is probably which variety? A) Superior B) Red LaSoda C) Katahdin D) Norland E) Russet Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Which of the following staples is not matched correctly with its family? A) Solanum tuberosum :: nightshade B) Manihot esculenta :: spurge C) Ipomoea batatas :: yam D) Colocasia esculenta :: arum E) Helianthus tuberosus :: Jerusalem artichoke Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) All of the following species are correctly matched with its common name except one. Choose the exception. A) Solanum tuberosum - potato B) Manihot esculenta - cassava C) Ipomoea batatas - sweet potato D) Colocasia esculenta - yam E) Helianthus tuberosus - Jerusalem artichoke Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) This starchy staple is a storage root that grows as a vine and requires a long warm growing season. What is this starchy staple? A) potato B) taro C) cassava D) yam E) sweet potato Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

29) Which of the following is true about the sweet potato? A) It was introduced into Spain by Columbus. B) Its original name was batata. C) It was originally cultivated in Peru. D) It is a not really a type of yam. E) All of these statements are true about sweet potatoes. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Varieties of cassava are classified as either sweet or bitter, based on the concentration of hydrocyanic acid. B) Enzymes of cyanogenic glycosides are already present in cassava. C) In South America, the traditional preparation of sweet potato produces a meal called farinha. D) The root of cassava is very high in protein. E) The cassava genome has more genes than that of humans. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) While originating is South America, cassava has become a major staple in which of the following areas? A) Africa B) North America C) China D) Europe E) Australia Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) This starchy staple grows from a tall shrub with palmately compound leaves, large tuberous roots, and can be cultivated from seeds. This starchy staple is which of the following? A) Ipomoea batatas B) Manihot esculenta C) Colocasia esculenta D) Solanum tuberosum E) Dioscorea cayenensis Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

33) The most damaging pathogen of cassava is which of the following? A) Phytophthora infestans. B) Bacillus thuringiensis. C) tobacco mosaic virus. D) cassava mosaic virus (CMV). E) More than one of these is devastating. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Which of the following is not correct about Manihot esculenta? A) It grows well in nutrient-poor soils. B) Nigeria is one of the leading producers of this starchy staple. C) It cannot tolerate extended dry periods without rainfall. D) It can be cultivated from seed. E) It is resistant to locust infestations. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) This misnamed staple was once known as sun root, does not contain starch, and is a weedy perennial in the sunflower family. This staple is known as which of the following? A) potato. B) taro. C) cassava. D) yam. E) Jerusalem artichoke. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Inulin is a polymer of which of the following? A) glucose. B) fructose. C) sucrose. D) maltose. E) starch. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

37) Helianthus tuberosus is native to which area? A) North America. B) South America. C) Africa. D) Asia. E) Polynesia. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Which of the following is a corm that is steamed, crushed, and fermented to make poi? A) cassava B) yam C) sweet potato D) taro E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) Which starchy staple is a source of diosgenin, shown to inhibit ovulation in women? A) yam B) manioc C) sweet potato D) white potato E) banana Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Starch is the most common carbohydrate storage product found in plants. B) Sugars are the direct products of photosynthesis but are generally not stored as such. C) There are two distinct components of starch: amylose and amylopectin, which differ in their nutritional benefits. D) Starch is mostly extracted commercially from corn, potatoes, and cassava, but can be extracted from almost any grain, tuber, or other plant storage organ. E) Although starch is ubiquitous in plants, it unfortunately cannot be used in the production of sugar-based sweeteners. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

41) The sweet potato is classified as which one of the following? A) rhizome B) stolon C) root D) tuber E) corm Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) The source of tapioca pearls is the moist flour obtained from the ________ root. A) Colocasia B) Manihot C) Dioscorea D) Ipomoea E) Solanum Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) The continent to which sweet potatoes are native is Africa. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) The wild potato species, Solanum bulbocastanum, is resistant to all known strains of Phytophthora spp. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) Many of today's cultivars of potatoes are grouped into the following types: round white, russet, round red, and long white. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

46) The major disadvantage of cassava as a dietary staple is that it is very low in carbohydrates. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) The breakdown and fermentation of starch by yeast produces alcohol that can be used for beverages, but not for industrial solvents or petroleum fuel substitute. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Cassava comes in two forms: bitter and sweet. The sweet form contains high concentrations of hydrocyanic acid. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) In the Polynesian Islands, current sweet potato varieties showed just one genetic lineage, and virtually no mixed heritage. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) Modified stems which grow horizontally underground and function in vegetative reproduction are called stolons. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The scientific name of the plant family containing white potato is Solanaceae. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) ________ is the component of starch that is a highly branched molecule. Answer: Amylopectin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

53) ________ is the component of starch that is relatively soluble in water. Answer: Amylose Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) ________ is the major component of starch comprising about ________ percent of this molecule. Answer: Amylopectin; 80 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) ________ is in high demand because it is sweeter and less inexpensive to process than sucrose. Answer: Fructose Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Yams are an important source of ________ used to make human sex hormones and cortisone. Answer: saponins Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) ________ is a tuberous root native to South America. Answer: Cassava Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) The starchy staple which grows as a corm is ________. Answer: taro Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Grating and other methods of processing cassava are necessary to remove the toxin ________. Answer: HCN Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 15 Feeding a Hungry World 1) Approximately how many people in the world are receiving insufficient food to meet their daily requirements? A) 8 million B) 80 million C) 800 million D) 8 billion E) 80 billion 2) Which of the following is correct? A) The United States has an obesity epidemic. B) Over 800 million people in the world are hungry and malnourished. C) Since the earliest of recorded history, humans have practiced plant breeding by artificial selection. D) The wild perennial grass teosinte gave rise to modern corn. E) All of the above are correct. 3) Why did early farmers likely select grain plants with nonshattering grain heads to cultivate? A) Seeds produced in nonshattering heads were not eaten by herbivores. B) Seeds produced in nonshattering heads did not have mutations. C) Seeds produced in nonshattering heads were not scattered on the ground. D) Seeds produced in nonshatterring heads were larger and tastier. E) All of these are reasons could explain why early farmers selected plants with nonshattering heads. 4) Artificial selection has led to the development of many different crops from the wild type of which of these plants? A) Brassica oleacea B) Quercus palustris C) Acer saccharum D) Aesclepias syriaca E) None of the above is correct. 5) Which of the following is correct about the history of the Green Revolution? A) The earliest involvement of U.S. scientists came in the early 1940s. B) The original purpose of the Green Revolution was to strengthen the agricultural practices used in Latin America. C) Insecticides, herbicides, and fungicides were all needed to maximize yield and were originally seen as a panacea in the Green Revolution. D) For maximum yield, the miracle crops also required ample water. E) All of the above are correct.

6) The basic scientific basis for understanding plant breeding was not fully understood until the work of ________ was accepted. A) Charles Darwin B) Gregor Mendel C) Watson and Crick D) Barbara McClintock E) Linnaeus 7) The evolution of maize involves which of the following ancestral plants? A) teosinte. B) brassica. C) corn-like sunflowers. D) quinoa. E) amaranth. 8) Maize differs from the plant ancestor from which it evolved by which of the following? A) the size of its stalks. B) its root system. C) the size and number of its ears. D) its nonshattering habit. E) All of these are correct. 9) Which of the following was not developed from Brassica oleracea? A) cabbage B) broccoli C) corn D) cauliflower E) Brussels sprouts 10) What was the principle crop behind the Green Revolution? A) maize B) rice C) potato D) wheat E) barley 11) Which of the following is correct? A) The large-scale growing of high-demand crops, such as soybean and rapeseed, has increased the risks associated with monoculture. B) Half of the wheat acreage in the United States is planted with just 9 varieties. C) Some researchers believe that the future in agriculture is to move away from the instability and unnaturalness of annual, monocultural cultivation, and model agriculture after natural ecosystems. D) The National Plant Germplasm System has more than 500,000 seed samples, representing 8,000 species. E) All of the above are correct. 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) Who is considered the Father of the Green Revolution? A) Norman Borlaug B) Thomas Hunt Morgan C) Charles Darwin D) Gregor Mendel E) James Watson 13) One advantage of high-yielding wheat developed during the Green Revolution was which of the following? A) resistance to late blight. B) resistance to plant lodging. C) their nonshattering heads. D) the development of dwarf varieties E) None of the above is correct. 14) The biggest loss of crop plants is due to which of the following? A) herbaceous insect pests B) fungal diseases C) theft by malnourished humans D) viral diseases E) mold 15) The cheapest and most effective method for producing healthy plants is which of the following? A) large inputs of fertilizers B) large-scale spraying of pesticides C) development of disease-resistant varieties D) large-scale spraying of herbicides E) the practice of monoculture 16) What process is undermining the development of disease-resistant varieties of plants? A) genetically modified plants B) widespread weed invasion C) the continuous evolution of pests and pathogens D) the input of too much pesticide and herbicide E) monocropping 17) The main crop of interest for development during World War II was which of the following? A) rubber trees B) disease-resistant wheat C) gum trees D) latex-producing euphorbia E) high-yield potatoes

18) CIMMYT is an acronym for which of the following: A) a devastating disease of wheat B) a program for developing high-yielding dwarf varieties of wheat C) a program to develop genetically modified strains of maize D) an organization dedicated to bringing an end to world hunger E) None of the above is correct. 19) Which of the following is an issue of concern about the Green Revolution? A) the necessary heavy inputs of fertilizer and pesticides B) the expense is too great for many poor farmers C) the high energy cost of producing fertilizers D) environmental and health effects associated with chemical inputs E) All of these are issues of concern about the Green Revolution 20) Which of the following is not correct? A) The question of ownership when it comes to germplasm, is not controversial internationally. B) It is hoped that land races of valuable crops retrieved from ICARDA will thrive as they once did in local environments. C) Today, a foundation continues to promote the cultivation of heirloom varieties of rice, one of which likely originated from Indonesia. D) Ethiopia is the only primary center of genetic diversity for the coffee tree, although Colombia is the leading coffee-producing nation. E) Only 250 to 300 of the 50,000 edible species of plants are actually used for human food. 21) Which of the following is a major western United States aquifer that is being depleted due to agricultural demands? A) Mahomet Aquifer B) Ogallala Aquifer C) Turlock Basin D) Edwards Aquifer E) Lake Okeechobee 22) What general process results in soils becoming increasingly saline? A) the use of salt producing plants B) the underuse of fertilizers C) global warming D) the evaporation of water E) monoculture agriculture 23) Probably the most serious environmental factor limiting crop productivity is which of the following? A) use of GM plants B) evolution of pests resistant to pesticides C) increasing salinity of soils D) invasion of weeds from tropical areas E) None of the above is correct. 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

24) What is the population of the world in billions as of April 2018? A) 6.1 B) 7.6 C) 8.0 D) 9.6 E) 11.8 25) While some say the solution to human malnutrition and starvation is greater food production, critics say the real problem is which of the following? A) food distribution B) the practice of monocropping C) the use of GM crops D) growing traditional staple crops E) None of the above is correct. 26) The best way to reduce soil erosion is by the following which farming practice? A) conventional tillage B) maximal tillage C) reduced tillage D) no tillage farming E) All of the above are correct. 27) The use of chemical nitrogen fertilizer can be reduced by the use of all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) organic fertilizers B) free-living nitrogen fixing bacteria C) improved varieties of plants D) genetically engineering the nitrogen fixation process E) controlling lightning strikes 28) Which of the following farming practices encouraged the widespread use of monoculture? A) genetically uniform plant species. B) increased mechanization of farm machinery. C) intense fertilization of crops. D) intense use of herbicides and pesticides. E) All of these encouraged the widespread use of monoculture. 29) Fifty percent of cotton grown in the United States is of ________ varieties. A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 9 E) 12

30) Monoculture has been the underlying cause of which of the following disasters? A) the Irish potato famine B) the destruction of Sri Lankan coffee plantations C) the corn leaf blight epidemic D) the extensive loss of Florida citrus trees E) All of the above are correct. 31) India, has lost 75% of the 30,000 land races of rice it once had. What led to the loss of all of those land races of rice? A) an epidemic of the disease bakanae B) dependence on high-yielding crops C) switching from rice as a staple to corn and potatoes D) an invasion of Norwegian rats E) the widespread use of herbicides 32) What is germplasm? A) another term for traditional varieties B) the effect of a fungal infection C) the general term for any plant pathogen D) the genetic information of a plant that makes it unique E) the end result of genetic erosion 33) What is Panicum sonorum? A) an improved variety of wheat B) the species that resulted from a cross between wheat and rye C) an heirloom variety of grass once a Native American staple D) the scientific name for rice E) an heirloom variety of rice once grown in the Southern United States 34) This plant has leaves and fruits that are edible. Fruits are achenes and are high in lysine and methionine and the fatty acid linoleic acid. This plant is called ________. A) Chenopodium quinoa B) Amaranthus caudatus C) Lupinus mutabilis D) Solanum quitoense E) Oxalis tuberosa 35) This high-altitude plant is a tall white-flowered perennial with round, orange berries. The flesh of the fruit is vivid green and are rich in vitamins A and C. This plant is which of the following? A) Chenopodium quinoa B) Amaranthus caudatus C) Lupinus mutabilis D) Solanum quitoense E) Oxalis tuberosa

36) Cyphomandra betacea is a solanaceous plant known as which of the following? A) tomato B) tomarillo C) soybean D) tarwi E) chia 37) All of the following species are matched correctly with their common name except one. Choose the exception. A) Oryza ivara :: pig's weed B) Lupinus mutabilis :: quinoa C) Solanum quitoense :: naranjilla D) Oxalis tuberosa :: New Zealand yam E) Cyphomandra betacea :: tamarillo 38) The small circular bits of DNA in bacteria that have been used as vectors to introduce genes in genetic engineering are called ________. A) genomes B) plasmids C) callus D) chromosomes E) centromeres 39) A mass of actively dividing cells in tissue culture is called a(n) ________. A) explant B) clone C) callus D) growth regulator E) organoid 40) Which of the following associations is not correct? A) Oca :: tuber crop from the Andes B) Tarwi :: Lupinus mutabilis C) Naranjilla :: high in protein and fats D) Amaranth :: Important staple in pre-Columbian era E) Chia :: Salvia hispanica 41) Which of the following would be a strategy to stop genetic erosion? A) Collect seeds of traditional varieties for storage in a seed bank. B) Introduce monoculture to maximize agricultural efficiency. C) Introduce industrialized agricultural techniques. D) Limit agriculture to the cultivation of major domesticated crops. E) Create new varieties using recombinant DNA.

42) A mass of actively dividing cells in tissue culture can develop into a plant if ________. A) sucrose is added B) plant hormones are added C) minerals are added D) herbicides are added E) plasmids are added 43) Loss of plant genetic diversity can be blamed on which of the following? A) monocultural practices B) plant disease C) the Green Revolution D) all of the above E) both A and C 44) Transfer of specific genes from one variety to another within the same species or between closely related species is termed: A) cisgenesis B) endosymbiosis C) Genetic nondisjunction D) Marker assisted selection E) None of the above is correct. 45) Identify the Andean crop with edible seeds and leaves that was known by the Incas as the "mother grain." A) amaranth B) tarwi C) breadfruit D) quinoa E) acorns 46) What fruit triggered the world's most famous mutiny? A) banana B) pineapple C) breadfruit D) tomato E) lima beans 47) Approximately 93% of the U.S. soybean crop has been genetically engineered for which of the following characteristics? A) insect resistance B) herbicide resistance C) higher yield D) better taste E) better color

48) A genetically engineered crop that is being developed to eliminate blindness due to vitamin A deficiency is which of the following? A) Bt corn B) golden rice C) high oleic acid soybean D) disease resistant potato E) herbicide resistant soybean 49) Overall, almost 10 million hectares of land are lost annually because of salinity; this may be the most serious environmental factor limiting productivity. 50) The human population of the world will continue to decrease well into the twenty-second century. 51) The answer to feeding the world's population must be found in the regions where most of the people live and where most of the future population growth is expected. 52) The tree tomato or tamarillo is known for its versatility; adding sugar makes it a dessert but the addition of vinegar or pepper makes it suitable for soups or stews. 53) Norman Borlaug was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1970 for the work to develop dwarf varieties of major food crops. 54) Monoculture is the practice of growing a single variety of a crop in a field. 55) Local varieties of a crop are known as germplasm or traditional varieties. 56) Protoplasm is the entire genetic information of an organism. 57) Sustainable agriculture is a mixed species system in which crops can be harvested without degradation of the environment. 58) Organisms that contain a "foreign" gene in each of their cells are called transmogrified. 59) Germplasm is the loss of valuable genetic heritage due to the extinction of wild and traditional varieties. 60) Three factors that have encouraged the wide scale practice of monoculture are 1) mechanization 2) improved crop varieties, and the 3) use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. 61) Seeds of domesticated plants and their wild relatives are deposited as a resource for plant breeders in germplasm. 62) In many plants, foreign genes are introduced using a Ti plasmid, a small circular strand of DNA found in bacterial cells. 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

63) In 1997, Monsanto began developing genetically modified wheat with herbicide resistance with the expressed intention of creating a worldwide monoculture. 64) An alternative to the white potato, ________ is an Andean crop whose rhizomes resemble wrinkled carrots. 65) ________ is a high protein seed crop that can be eaten whole or ground into flour; its use was banned by the Spanish conquistadors because of its association with religious practices of the Aztecs. 66) The introduction of Bacillus thuringiensis genes into crop plants transfers the trait of ________ resistance. 67) Genetically engineered rapeseed plants have been developed that can produce lauric acid, a fatty acid used in the manufacturing of ________ and/or ________. 68) The first genetically engineered crop that was marketed in the U.S. was a ________ modified for longer shelf life. 69) For many genetically engineered crops a plasmid from the bacterium ________ has been used as a vector to transfer foreign genes into the crop. 70) The widespread adoption of Bt corn is due to its ability to control a number of insect pests that attack corn, especially the ________. 71) In 1999 a group of scientists speculated that Bt corn might be a threat to the environment by harming populations of ________ butterflies that laid their eggs on milkweeds found around Bt cornfields. 72) One benefit of developing edible vaccines through genetic engineering is that there will be no need for ________ of the vaccine. 73) A massive recall of food products made from StarLink corn was triggered because it was thought that the ________ toxin in this variety might be a possible food allergen.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 15 Feeding a Hungry World 1) Approximately how many people in the world are receiving insufficient food to meet their daily requirements? A) 8 million B) 80 million C) 800 million D) 8 billion E) 80 billion Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following is correct? A) The United States has an obesity epidemic. B) Over 800 million people in the world are hungry and malnourished. C) Since the earliest of recorded history, humans have practiced plant breeding by artificial selection. D) The wild perennial grass teosinte gave rise to modern corn. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Why did early farmers likely select grain plants with nonshattering grain heads to cultivate? A) Seeds produced in nonshattering heads were not eaten by herbivores. B) Seeds produced in nonshattering heads did not have mutations. C) Seeds produced in nonshattering heads were not scattered on the ground. D) Seeds produced in nonshatterring heads were larger and tastier. E) All of these are reasons could explain why early farmers selected plants with nonshattering heads. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) Artificial selection has led to the development of many different crops from the wild type of which of these plants? A) Brassica oleacea B) Quercus palustris C) Acer saccharum D) Aesclepias syriaca E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Which of the following is correct about the history of the Green Revolution? A) The earliest involvement of U.S. scientists came in the early 1940s. B) The original purpose of the Green Revolution was to strengthen the agricultural practices used in Latin America. C) Insecticides, herbicides, and fungicides were all needed to maximize yield and were originally seen as a panacea in the Green Revolution. D) For maximum yield, the miracle crops also required ample water. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) The basic scientific basis for understanding plant breeding was not fully understood until the work of ________ was accepted. A) Charles Darwin B) Gregor Mendel C) Watson and Crick D) Barbara McClintock E) Linnaeus Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

7) The evolution of maize involves which of the following ancestral plants? A) teosinte. B) brassica. C) corn-like sunflowers. D) quinoa. E) amaranth. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Maize differs from the plant ancestor from which it evolved by which of the following? A) the size of its stalks. B) its root system. C) the size and number of its ears. D) its nonshattering habit. E) All of these are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Which of the following was not developed from Brassica oleracea? A) cabbage B) broccoli C) corn D) cauliflower E) Brussels sprouts Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) What was the principle crop behind the Green Revolution? A) maize B) rice C) potato D) wheat E) barley Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

11) Which of the following is correct? A) The large-scale growing of high-demand crops, such as soybean and rapeseed, has increased the risks associated with monoculture. B) Half of the wheat acreage in the United States is planted with just 9 varieties. C) Some researchers believe that the future in agriculture is to move away from the instability and unnaturalness of annual, monocultural cultivation, and model agriculture after natural ecosystems. D) The National Plant Germplasm System has more than 500,000 seed samples, representing 8,000 species. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) Who is considered the Father of the Green Revolution? A) Norman Borlaug B) Thomas Hunt Morgan C) Charles Darwin D) Gregor Mendel E) James Watson Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) One advantage of high-yielding wheat developed during the Green Revolution was which of the following? A) resistance to late blight. B) resistance to plant lodging. C) their nonshattering heads. D) the development of dwarf varieties E) None of the above is correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

14) The biggest loss of crop plants is due to which of the following? A) herbaceous insect pests B) fungal diseases C) theft by malnourished humans D) viral diseases E) mold Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) The cheapest and most effective method for producing healthy plants is which of the following? A) large inputs of fertilizers B) large-scale spraying of pesticides C) development of disease-resistant varieties D) large-scale spraying of herbicides E) the practice of monoculture Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) What process is undermining the development of disease-resistant varieties of plants? A) genetically modified plants B) widespread weed invasion C) the continuous evolution of pests and pathogens D) the input of too much pesticide and herbicide E) monocropping Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) The main crop of interest for development during World War II was which of the following? A) rubber trees B) disease-resistant wheat C) gum trees D) latex-producing euphorbia E) high-yield potatoes Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

21) Which of the following is a major western United States aquifer that is being depleted due to agricultural demands? A) Mahomet Aquifer B) Ogallala Aquifer C) Turlock Basin D) Edwards Aquifer E) Lake Okeechobee Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) What general process results in soils becoming increasingly saline? A) the use of salt producing plants B) the underuse of fertilizers C) global warming D) the evaporation of water E) monoculture agriculture Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Probably the most serious environmental factor limiting crop productivity is which of the following? A) use of GM plants B) evolution of pests resistant to pesticides C) increasing salinity of soils D) invasion of weeds from tropical areas E) None of the above is correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) What is the population of the world in billions as of April 2018? A) 6.1 B) 7.6 C) 8.0 D) 9.6 E) 11.8 Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

25) While some say the solution to human malnutrition and starvation is greater food production, critics say the real problem is which of the following? A) food distribution B) the practice of monocropping C) the use of GM crops D) growing traditional staple crops E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) The best way to reduce soil erosion is by the following which farming practice? A) conventional tillage B) maximal tillage C) reduced tillage D) no tillage farming E) All of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) The use of chemical nitrogen fertilizer can be reduced by the use of all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) organic fertilizers B) free-living nitrogen fixing bacteria C) improved varieties of plants D) genetically engineering the nitrogen fixation process E) controlling lightning strikes Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Which of the following farming practices encouraged the widespread use of monoculture? A) genetically uniform plant species. B) increased mechanization of farm machinery. C) intense fertilization of crops. D) intense use of herbicides and pesticides. E) All of these encouraged the widespread use of monoculture. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

29) Fifty percent of cotton grown in the United States is of ________ varieties. A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 9 E) 12 Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Monoculture has been the underlying cause of which of the following disasters? A) the Irish potato famine B) the destruction of Sri Lankan coffee plantations C) the corn leaf blight epidemic D) the extensive loss of Florida citrus trees E) All of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) India, has lost 75% of the 30,000 land races of rice it once had. What led to the loss of all of those land races of rice? A) an epidemic of the disease bakanae B) dependence on high-yielding crops C) switching from rice as a staple to corn and potatoes D) an invasion of Norwegian rats E) the widespread use of herbicides Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) What is germplasm? A) another term for traditional varieties B) the effect of a fungal infection C) the general term for any plant pathogen D) the genetic information of a plant that makes it unique E) the end result of genetic erosion Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

33) What is Panicum sonorum? A) an improved variety of wheat B) the species that resulted from a cross between wheat and rye C) an heirloom variety of grass once a Native American staple D) the scientific name for rice E) an heirloom variety of rice once grown in the Southern United States Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) This plant has leaves and fruits that are edible. Fruits are achenes and are high in lysine and methionine and the fatty acid linoleic acid. This plant is called ________. A) Chenopodium quinoa B) Amaranthus caudatus C) Lupinus mutabilis D) Solanum quitoense E) Oxalis tuberosa Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) This high-altitude plant is a tall white-flowered perennial with round, orange berries. The flesh of the fruit is vivid green and are rich in vitamins A and C. This plant is which of the following? A) Chenopodium quinoa B) Amaranthus caudatus C) Lupinus mutabilis D) Solanum quitoense E) Oxalis tuberosa Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Cyphomandra betacea is a solanaceous plant known as which of the following? A) tomato B) tomarillo C) soybean D) tarwi E) chia Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

37) All of the following species are matched correctly with their common name except one. Choose the exception. A) Oryza ivara :: pig's weed B) Lupinus mutabilis :: quinoa C) Solanum quitoense :: naranjilla D) Oxalis tuberosa :: New Zealand yam E) Cyphomandra betacea :: tamarillo Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) The small circular bits of DNA in bacteria that have been used as vectors to introduce genes in genetic engineering are called ________. A) genomes B) plasmids C) callus D) chromosomes E) centromeres Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) A mass of actively dividing cells in tissue culture is called a(n) ________. A) explant B) clone C) callus D) growth regulator E) organoid Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Which of the following associations is not correct? A) Oca :: tuber crop from the Andes B) Tarwi :: Lupinus mutabilis C) Naranjilla :: high in protein and fats D) Amaranth :: Important staple in pre-Columbian era E) Chia :: Salvia hispanica Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

41) Which of the following would be a strategy to stop genetic erosion? A) Collect seeds of traditional varieties for storage in a seed bank. B) Introduce monoculture to maximize agricultural efficiency. C) Introduce industrialized agricultural techniques. D) Limit agriculture to the cultivation of major domesticated crops. E) Create new varieties using recombinant DNA. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) A mass of actively dividing cells in tissue culture can develop into a plant if ________. A) sucrose is added B) plant hormones are added C) minerals are added D) herbicides are added E) plasmids are added Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) Loss of plant genetic diversity can be blamed on which of the following? A) monocultural practices B) plant disease C) the Green Revolution D) all of the above E) both A and C Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) Transfer of specific genes from one variety to another within the same species or between closely related species is termed: A) cisgenesis B) endosymbiosis C) Genetic nondisjunction D) Marker assisted selection E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

45) Identify the Andean crop with edible seeds and leaves that was known by the Incas as the "mother grain." A) amaranth B) tarwi C) breadfruit D) quinoa E) acorns Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) What fruit triggered the world's most famous mutiny? A) banana B) pineapple C) breadfruit D) tomato E) lima beans Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Approximately 93% of the U.S. soybean crop has been genetically engineered for which of the following characteristics? A) insect resistance B) herbicide resistance C) higher yield D) better taste E) better color Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) A genetically engineered crop that is being developed to eliminate blindness due to vitamin A deficiency is which of the following? A) Bt corn B) golden rice C) high oleic acid soybean D) disease resistant potato E) herbicide resistant soybean Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) Overall, almost 10 million hectares of land are lost annually because of salinity; this may be the most serious environmental factor limiting productivity. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) The human population of the world will continue to decrease well into the twenty-second century. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The answer to feeding the world's population must be found in the regions where most of the people live and where most of the future population growth is expected. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) The tree tomato or tamarillo is known for its versatility; adding sugar makes it a dessert but the addition of vinegar or pepper makes it suitable for soups or stews. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Norman Borlaug was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1970 for the work to develop dwarf varieties of major food crops. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Monoculture is the practice of growing a single variety of a crop in a field. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

55) Local varieties of a crop are known as germplasm or traditional varieties. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Protoplasm is the entire genetic information of an organism. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) Sustainable agriculture is a mixed species system in which crops can be harvested without degradation of the environment. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) Organisms that contain a "foreign" gene in each of their cells are called transmogrified. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Germplasm is the loss of valuable genetic heritage due to the extinction of wild and traditional varieties. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) Three factors that have encouraged the wide scale practice of monoculture are 1) mechanization 2) improved crop varieties, and the 3) use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) Seeds of domesticated plants and their wild relatives are deposited as a resource for plant breeders in germplasm. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

62) In many plants, foreign genes are introduced using a Ti plasmid, a small circular strand of DNA found in bacterial cells. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) In 1997, Monsanto began developing genetically modified wheat with herbicide resistance with the expressed intention of creating a worldwide monoculture. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) An alternative to the white potato, ________ is an Andean crop whose rhizomes resemble wrinkled carrots. Answer: oca Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 65) ________ is a high protein seed crop that can be eaten whole or ground into flour; its use was banned by the Spanish conquistadors because of its association with religious practices of the Aztecs. Answer: Amaranth Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) The introduction of Bacillus thuringiensis genes into crop plants transfers the trait of ________ resistance. Answer: insect Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) Genetically engineered rapeseed plants have been developed that can produce lauric acid, a fatty acid used in the manufacturing of ________ and/or ________. Answer: soaps; detergents Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

68) The first genetically engineered crop that was marketed in the U.S. was a ________ modified for longer shelf life. Answer: tomato Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) For many genetically engineered crops a plasmid from the bacterium ________ has been used as a vector to transfer foreign genes into the crop. Answer: agrobacterium tumefaciens Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 70) The widespread adoption of Bt corn is due to its ability to control a number of insect pests that attack corn, especially the ________. Answer: European corn borer Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) In 1999 a group of scientists speculated that Bt corn might be a threat to the environment by harming populations of ________ butterflies that laid their eggs on milkweeds found around Bt cornfields. Answer: Monarch Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 72) One benefit of developing edible vaccines through genetic engineering is that there will be no need for ________ of the vaccine. Answer: refrigeration Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 73) A massive recall of food products made from StarLink corn was triggered because it was thought that the ________ toxin in this variety might be a possible food allergen. Answer: Bt Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 16 Stimulating Beverages 1) Caffeine belongs to a class of chemicals called ________. A) alkaloids B) flavonoids C) theobromines D) tannins E) cannabinoids 2) Caffeine's main physiological effect in humans is on the ________ system. A) peripheral nervous B) central nervous C) endocrine D) lymphatic E) circulatory 3) Caffeine is a common additive in which of the following? A) Many soft drinks B) Energy drinks C) Medications D) "energy shots" E) All of the above are correct. 4) How does caffeine improve athletic performance? A) It sends more nerve impulses to muscles. B) It causes the body to burn more fat for energy. C) It stimulates mitochondria to produce more ATP. D) It directly speeds up muscle contractions. E) It acts like a neurotransmitter that takes over the cerebral cortex. 5) Which of the following is not a known effect of caffeine? A) Caffeine enhances the pain-relieving effects of aspirin and acetaminophen. B) Caffeine can serve as an appetite suppressant. C) Caffeine is a very strong antidiuretic. D) Caffeine may provide protection from unknown harmful environmental agents. E) Caffeine in coffee significantly lowers the incidence of Parkinson's disease. 6) There is conclusive evidence that moderate caffeine intake by humans can cause ________. A) birth defects B) infertility C) lower birth weights D) mental retardation E) None of the above is correct.

7) Which of the following has more caffeine per once than the others? A) Bed Bull B) Coca Cola C) Monster Energy D) Rockstar E) Espresso 8) For what purpose do plants produce alkaloids? A) to discourage animals from eating their unripe fruit B) to prevent frost damage by hardening their cells C) to deter herbaceous insects D) to attract pollinators E) to stimulate root growth 9) What effect does caffeine have on the circulatory system? A) It causes the heart to pump slowly and thus more efficiently. B) It enhances the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in capillaries. C) It reduces blood flow in veins that service the heart. D) It causes blood vessels in the brain to constrict. E) It reduces blood flow to the brain. 10) Which of the following is true about the effects of drinking coffee? A) Drinking coffee may reduce the incidence of heart disease. B) Drinking coffee reduces the amount of the neurotransmitter dopamine. C) Drinking coffee increases susceptibility to Parkinson's disease. D) Drinking coffee enhances the symptoms of type 2 diabetes. E) Drinking coffee has none of these effects. 11) Which of the following is the antioxidant found in coffee, tea, and chocolate that may reduce the incidence of cancer and slow the process of aging? A) glutathione B) flavonoid C) melatonin D) tocophenol E) catalase 12) The newest method of decaffeination is which of the following? A) ethyl acetate B) swiss-Water decaffeination method C) supercritical carbon dioxide process D) steam washing at 400°F E) One of the above is correct.

13) The insurance underwriting firm, Lloyd's of London, began in which of the following locations? A) chocolate shop. B) tea parlor. C) coffeehouse. D) tea plantation. E) restaurant. 14) Coffee trees are native to which country? A) Yemen. B) Sri Lanka. C) Java. D) Ethiopia. E) Brazil. 15) The pathogen (coffee rust) that has devastated coffee crops historically and more recently is ________. A) Phytopthora infestans B) Monilliophthora roreri C) Crinipellis pernicisosa D) Tricoderma spp E) Hemileia vastatrix 16) All of the following are pathogens of cacao except one. Choose the exception. A) Phytopthora infestans B) Monilliophthora roreri C) Crinipellis pernicisosa D) Hemileia vastatrix E) None of the above is a pathogen of cacao. 17) A variety of coffee tree resistant to coffee rust is which of the following? A) Castillo. B) Arabica. C) Oolong. D) Canephora. E) Liberica. 18) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) The term "cappuccino" came about because the frothed milk resembled the hood of Capuchin friars. B) Coffee trees grown in the sun actually have higher yields. C) Sun coffee plantations may have serious impacts on biodiversity in the Neotropics such as Costa Rica. D) The coffee trade is worth 19 billion per year. E) All of the above are correct. 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

19) This plant produces clusters of small, white flowers, its fruit is a berry called a "cherry," and it is a small evergreen tree. What is this plant? A) coffee B) tea C) chocolate D) coca E) Could be any of these. The description given matches all four. 20) What part of the coffee pericarp is used to make coffee? A) the entire pericarp B) just the seeds C) just the mesocarp D) the endocarp and seed E) the entire pericarp except the exocarp 21) What is not correct about the growth requirements of coffee trees? A) They grow best in relatively cool conditions. B) They require around 200 cm of rainfall per year. C) They require short periods of frost to yield large amounts of fruit. D) They require a juvenile period of between 3 and 5 years before they begin fruiting. E) They are not an invasive species. 22) A method recently developed turns coffee pulp into ________. A) garden compost B) biofuel C) a new beverage tasting similar to coffee D) flour E) nitrogen fertilizer 23) Light roasted coffees are typically ________ and ________. A) milder; sweeter B) milder; less sweet C) stronger; sweeter D) stronger; less sweet E) None of the above is correct. 24) Which one of the following is(are) correct? A) Twenty-five million farmers worldwide grow coffee. B) Farmers may be forced to sell their coffee to middlemen for only 25 cents per pound. C) Fair Trade certified coffee is an international attempt to maintain reasonable coffee prices for farmers. D) The Fairtrade Labeling Organization is an umbrella organization designed to set international fair-trade standards. E) All of the above are correct.

25) Which of the following is not correct about dark roasted coffees? A) They are produced at higher temperatures than light roasts. B) They have a higher caffeine concentration than light roasts. C) The dark color of dark roasts is from carbonization. D) Dark roasts are less sweet than light roasts. E) Some Coffea species are higher in caffeine than others. 26) Coffee fruit for this variety of coffee is first passed through the digestive system of a civet. This variety of coffee is which of the following? A) Jamaica Blue Mountain. B) Robusta. C) Kopi luwak. D) Coffea canephora. E) Arabica. 27) The choicest and mildest coffee is produced by which of the following? A) Coffea canephora. B) Coffea liberica. C) Coffea Castillo. D) Coffea arabica. E) None of the above is correct. 28) All of the following compounds have been used in the decaffeination process except one. Choose the exception. A) carbon dioxide. B) ethyl acetate. C) methylene chloride. D) hydrochloric acid. E) cardiac glycosides. 29) Which of the following is not correct about shade grown coffees? A) They have higher yields than sun grown coffee. B) They are important shelters for birds. C) They require less chemical input. D) There is less erosion in shade grown coffee plantations. E) None of the above is correct. 30) What tea is used in the Japanese Tea Ceremony? A) chai B) green C) white D) oolong E) black

31) Which of the following is not correct? A) Tea is made from the dried tip leaves of Camellia sinensis. B) Tea is a shrub or small tree that grows from sea level to over 6,000 feet. C) In Japan, the tea ceremony represents a concept that universal truths lie in simple tasks. D) Chia is a sweet and spicy tea drink from India. E) Green teas are always fermented to reduce the alcohol content. 32) Which of the following teas is fully fermented? A) chai B) green C) white D) oolong E) black 33) For the most superior teas, what part of the tea plant is harvested? A) the oldest, lower leaves B) leaves on the outer branches C) the top two leaves and terminal buds D) axillary buds and the three lowest leaves E) All of the tea plant is harvested. 34) This tea is brewed from young leaves covered with trichomes. This tea is called ________ tea. A) chai B) green C) white D) oolong E) black 35) Small leaf oolong teas are called A) orange pekoe. B) souchong. C) chai. D) Earl Grey. E) jasmine. 36) Which of the following is not a compound normally found in tea? A) theanine B) tannin C) thiol D) bergamot E) All of these compounds are found normally in tea.

37) These compounds, found in tea, are thought to inhibit the eating of leaves of the plant by herbivores. A) alkaloids B) tannins C) flavonoids D) theanines E) theobromines 38) The relaxing effects of tea are due to the compound, A) theophylline. B) theol. C) theanine. D) tannin. E) theobromine. 39) What event caused the British to become tea drinkers? A) the coffee rust epidemic of the late 19th century B) the 1773 Boston Tea Party in the British colonies C) the colonization of India by the British during the 18th century D) the opium wars in China in the mid-1800s E) the Korean War 40) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) There are many beneficial health effects associated with drinking tea. B) The stimulating effects of tea are due to the caffeine and theophylline present in the leaf. C) The East India Company hoped to monopolize the colonial tea trade by underselling the colonial tea merchant. D) The Boston Tea Party took place in 1773. E) All of the above are correct. 41) The original chocolate beverage invented by the Aztec, had which of the following additives? A) bergamot B) ginger C) jasmine D) chili pepper E) nutmeg 42) Because they were barred from so many professions in England, ________ turned to chocolate manufacturing. A) Catholics B) Quakers C) Jews D) Amish E) Scientologists

43) Which of the following is not a commonly grown variety of cacao? A) criollo B) forastero C) castillo D) trinitario E) flan 44) The first chocolate bar was created by whom? A) Joseph Fry B) Henri Nestle C) Milton Hershey D) John Cadbury E) Johnny Cash 45) The compound in chocolate that imparts that "loving feeling" is which of the following? A) theobromine. B) stearic acid. C) urushiol. D) phenylethylamine. E) theophylline 46) Which of the following is a beneficial fungus used as a biocontrol to reduce the incidence of fungal diseases in Theobroma cacao? A) Monilliophthora B) Tricoderma C) Crinipellis D) Camellia E) Hemileia 47) What part of the cacao plant is prepared into cocoa? A) the pod pulp B) the leaves C) the seeds D) the root E) the entire pod 48) After harvesting, what process follows that gives chocolate its taste and aroma? A) withering B) thrashing C) boiling D) fermenting E) None of the above is correct.

49) What part of the cacao seed is used to produce chocolate liquor? A) the cotyledons B) the seed coat C) the embryo D) the entire seed E) the hypocotyl 50) All of the following botanical terms are paired correctly with terms they are more commonly called except one. Choose the exception. A) coffee berries :: cherries B) coffee seeds :: beans C) cacao fat :: butter D) cacao cotyledons :: nibs E) cacao seeds :: berries 51) Cocoa powder is made from removing ________ from the ________. A) nibs; seeds B) pulp; beans C) cocoa butter; liquor D) seeds; pods E) pith; coco 52) Which of the following in not a result of dutching cocoa powder? A) acidity is neutralized B) solubility is increased C) the color darkens D) flavor is enhanced E) destroys many of cacao's antioxidants 53) Which of the following processes is not associated with chocolate or cocoa production? A) conching B) carmelizing C) fermenting D) "dutching" E) percolating 54) What was used as a tea substitute in the South during the Civil War? A) yaupon holly B) yerba mate C) thea D) coca cola E) coffee

55) In processing green teas, ________ takes place right after the leaves are picked. A) steaming B) withering C) fermentation D) crushing E) drying 56) The flavor and aroma of coffee depends on the size of the berry. 57) In studies, coffee drinkers have been shown to have a lower incidence of type 2 diabetes. 58) Coffee houses are first known from Vienna. 59) The residual pulp clinging to the coffee beans is allowed to "ferment" prior to washing. 60) The disease which historically had the greatest impact on coffee production is coffee blight. 61) A cherry is another name for a cacao pod. 62) The most common method of producing instant coffee is spray drying. 63) Reactions occurring during roasting at high temperatures involve the release of substances such as the essential oil chamomile, which gives coffee its characteristic aroma. 64) Environmentally and ecologically, sun grown coffee trees are preferred over shade grown coffee trees. 65) Tea is the world's most popular beverage. 66) Paraguay tea was a true tea substitute consumed in the southern United States during the Civil War blockade. 67) In the production of chocolate liquor, the nibs of the cacao seed are used.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 16 Stimulating Beverages 1) Caffeine belongs to a class of chemicals called ________. A) alkaloids B) flavonoids C) theobromines D) tannins E) cannabinoids Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Caffeine's main physiological effect in humans is on the ________ system. A) peripheral nervous B) central nervous C) endocrine D) lymphatic E) circulatory Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Caffeine is a common additive in which of the following? A) Many soft drinks B) Energy drinks C) Medications D) "energy shots" E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4) How does caffeine improve athletic performance? A) It sends more nerve impulses to muscles. B) It causes the body to burn more fat for energy. C) It stimulates mitochondria to produce more ATP. D) It directly speeds up muscle contractions. E) It acts like a neurotransmitter that takes over the cerebral cortex. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

5) Which of the following is not a known effect of caffeine? A) Caffeine enhances the pain-relieving effects of aspirin and acetaminophen. B) Caffeine can serve as an appetite suppressant. C) Caffeine is a very strong antidiuretic. D) Caffeine may provide protection from unknown harmful environmental agents. E) Caffeine in coffee significantly lowers the incidence of Parkinson's disease. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) There is conclusive evidence that moderate caffeine intake by humans can cause ________. A) birth defects B) infertility C) lower birth weights D) mental retardation E) None of the above is correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Which of the following has more caffeine per once than the others? A) Bed Bull B) Coca Cola C) Monster Energy D) Rockstar E) Espresso Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) For what purpose do plants produce alkaloids? A) to discourage animals from eating their unripe fruit B) to prevent frost damage by hardening their cells C) to deter herbaceous insects D) to attract pollinators E) to stimulate root growth Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

9) What effect does caffeine have on the circulatory system? A) It causes the heart to pump slowly and thus more efficiently. B) It enhances the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in capillaries. C) It reduces blood flow in veins that service the heart. D) It causes blood vessels in the brain to constrict. E) It reduces blood flow to the brain. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following is true about the effects of drinking coffee? A) Drinking coffee may reduce the incidence of heart disease. B) Drinking coffee reduces the amount of the neurotransmitter dopamine. C) Drinking coffee increases susceptibility to Parkinson's disease. D) Drinking coffee enhances the symptoms of type 2 diabetes. E) Drinking coffee has none of these effects. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Which of the following is the antioxidant found in coffee, tea, and chocolate that may reduce the incidence of cancer and slow the process of aging? A) glutathione B) flavonoid C) melatonin D) tocophenol E) catalase Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) The newest method of decaffeination is which of the following? A) ethyl acetate B) swiss-Water decaffeination method C) supercritical carbon dioxide process D) steam washing at 400°F E) One of the above is correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

13) The insurance underwriting firm, Lloyd's of London, began in which of the following locations? A) chocolate shop. B) tea parlor. C) coffeehouse. D) tea plantation. E) restaurant. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Coffee trees are native to which country? A) Yemen. B) Sri Lanka. C) Java. D) Ethiopia. E) Brazil. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) The pathogen (coffee rust) that has devastated coffee crops historically and more recently is ________. A) Phytopthora infestans B) Monilliophthora roreri C) Crinipellis pernicisosa D) Tricoderma spp E) Hemileia vastatrix Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) All of the following are pathogens of cacao except one. Choose the exception. A) Phytopthora infestans B) Monilliophthora roreri C) Crinipellis pernicisosa D) Hemileia vastatrix E) None of the above is a pathogen of cacao. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

17) A variety of coffee tree resistant to coffee rust is which of the following? A) Castillo. B) Arabica. C) Oolong. D) Canephora. E) Liberica. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) The term "cappuccino" came about because the frothed milk resembled the hood of Capuchin friars. B) Coffee trees grown in the sun actually have higher yields. C) Sun coffee plantations may have serious impacts on biodiversity in the Neotropics such as Costa Rica. D) The coffee trade is worth 19 billion per year. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) This plant produces clusters of small, white flowers, its fruit is a berry called a "cherry," and it is a small evergreen tree. What is this plant? A) coffee B) tea C) chocolate D) coca E) Could be any of these. The description given matches all four. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) What part of the coffee pericarp is used to make coffee? A) the entire pericarp B) just the seeds C) just the mesocarp D) the endocarp and seed E) the entire pericarp except the exocarp Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

21) What is not correct about the growth requirements of coffee trees? A) They grow best in relatively cool conditions. B) They require around 200 cm of rainfall per year. C) They require short periods of frost to yield large amounts of fruit. D) They require a juvenile period of between 3 and 5 years before they begin fruiting. E) They are not an invasive species. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) A method recently developed turns coffee pulp into ________. A) garden compost B) biofuel C) a new beverage tasting similar to coffee D) flour E) nitrogen fertilizer Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Light roasted coffees are typically ________ and ________. A) milder; sweeter B) milder; less sweet C) stronger; sweeter D) stronger; less sweet E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Which one of the following is(are) correct? A) Twenty-five million farmers worldwide grow coffee. B) Farmers may be forced to sell their coffee to middlemen for only 25 cents per pound. C) Fair Trade certified coffee is an international attempt to maintain reasonable coffee prices for farmers. D) The Fairtrade Labeling Organization is an umbrella organization designed to set international fair-trade standards. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

25) Which of the following is not correct about dark roasted coffees? A) They are produced at higher temperatures than light roasts. B) They have a higher caffeine concentration than light roasts. C) The dark color of dark roasts is from carbonization. D) Dark roasts are less sweet than light roasts. E) Some Coffea species are higher in caffeine than others. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Coffee fruit for this variety of coffee is first passed through the digestive system of a civet. This variety of coffee is which of the following? A) Jamaica Blue Mountain. B) Robusta. C) Kopi luwak. D) Coffea canephora. E) Arabica. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) The choicest and mildest coffee is produced by which of the following? A) Coffea canephora. B) Coffea liberica. C) Coffea Castillo. D) Coffea arabica. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) All of the following compounds have been used in the decaffeination process except one. Choose the exception. A) carbon dioxide. B) ethyl acetate. C) methylene chloride. D) hydrochloric acid. E) cardiac glycosides. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

29) Which of the following is not correct about shade grown coffees? A) They have higher yields than sun grown coffee. B) They are important shelters for birds. C) They require less chemical input. D) There is less erosion in shade grown coffee plantations. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) What tea is used in the Japanese Tea Ceremony? A) chai B) green C) white D) oolong E) black Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Which of the following is not correct? A) Tea is made from the dried tip leaves of Camellia sinensis. B) Tea is a shrub or small tree that grows from sea level to over 6,000 feet. C) In Japan, the tea ceremony represents a concept that universal truths lie in simple tasks. D) Chia is a sweet and spicy tea drink from India. E) Green teas are always fermented to reduce the alcohol content. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) Which of the following teas is fully fermented? A) chai B) green C) white D) oolong E) black Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

33) For the most superior teas, what part of the tea plant is harvested? A) the oldest, lower leaves B) leaves on the outer branches C) the top two leaves and terminal buds D) axillary buds and the three lowest leaves E) All of the tea plant is harvested. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) This tea is brewed from young leaves covered with trichomes. This tea is called ________ tea. A) chai B) green C) white D) oolong E) black Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Small leaf oolong teas are called A) orange pekoe. B) souchong. C) chai. D) Earl Grey. E) jasmine. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Which of the following is not a compound normally found in tea? A) theanine B) tannin C) thiol D) bergamot E) All of these compounds are found normally in tea. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

37) These compounds, found in tea, are thought to inhibit the eating of leaves of the plant by herbivores. A) alkaloids B) tannins C) flavonoids D) theanines E) theobromines Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) The relaxing effects of tea are due to the compound, A) theophylline. B) theol. C) theanine. D) tannin. E) theobromine. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) What event caused the British to become tea drinkers? A) the coffee rust epidemic of the late 19th century B) the 1773 Boston Tea Party in the British colonies C) the colonization of India by the British during the 18th century D) the opium wars in China in the mid-1800s E) the Korean War Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) There are many beneficial health effects associated with drinking tea. B) The stimulating effects of tea are due to the caffeine and theophylline present in the leaf. C) The East India Company hoped to monopolize the colonial tea trade by underselling the colonial tea merchant. D) The Boston Tea Party took place in 1773. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

41) The original chocolate beverage invented by the Aztec, had which of the following additives? A) bergamot B) ginger C) jasmine D) chili pepper E) nutmeg Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Because they were barred from so many professions in England, ________ turned to chocolate manufacturing. A) Catholics B) Quakers C) Jews D) Amish E) Scientologists Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) Which of the following is not a commonly grown variety of cacao? A) criollo B) forastero C) castillo D) trinitario E) flan Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) The first chocolate bar was created by whom? A) Joseph Fry B) Henri Nestle C) Milton Hershey D) John Cadbury E) Johnny Cash Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

45) The compound in chocolate that imparts that "loving feeling" is which of the following? A) theobromine. B) stearic acid. C) urushiol. D) phenylethylamine. E) theophylline Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Which of the following is a beneficial fungus used as a biocontrol to reduce the incidence of fungal diseases in Theobroma cacao? A) Monilliophthora B) Tricoderma C) Crinipellis D) Camellia E) Hemileia Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) What part of the cacao plant is prepared into cocoa? A) the pod pulp B) the leaves C) the seeds D) the root E) the entire pod Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) After harvesting, what process follows that gives chocolate its taste and aroma? A) withering B) thrashing C) boiling D) fermenting E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

49) What part of the cacao seed is used to produce chocolate liquor? A) the cotyledons B) the seed coat C) the embryo D) the entire seed E) the hypocotyl Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) All of the following botanical terms are paired correctly with terms they are more commonly called except one. Choose the exception. A) coffee berries :: cherries B) coffee seeds :: beans C) cacao fat :: butter D) cacao cotyledons :: nibs E) cacao seeds :: berries Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) Cocoa powder is made from removing ________ from the ________. A) nibs; seeds B) pulp; beans C) cocoa butter; liquor D) seeds; pods E) pith; coco Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) Which of the following in not a result of dutching cocoa powder? A) acidity is neutralized B) solubility is increased C) the color darkens D) flavor is enhanced E) destroys many of cacao's antioxidants Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

53) Which of the following processes is not associated with chocolate or cocoa production? A) conching B) carmelizing C) fermenting D) "dutching" E) percolating Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) What was used as a tea substitute in the South during the Civil War? A) yaupon holly B) yerba mate C) thea D) coca cola E) coffee Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) In processing green teas, ________ takes place right after the leaves are picked. A) steaming B) withering C) fermentation D) crushing E) drying Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) The flavor and aroma of coffee depends on the size of the berry. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) In studies, coffee drinkers have been shown to have a lower incidence of type 2 diabetes. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

58) Coffee houses are first known from Vienna. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) The residual pulp clinging to the coffee beans is allowed to "ferment" prior to washing. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) The disease which historically had the greatest impact on coffee production is coffee blight. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) A cherry is another name for a cacao pod. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) The most common method of producing instant coffee is spray drying. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) Reactions occurring during roasting at high temperatures involve the release of substances such as the essential oil chamomile, which gives coffee its characteristic aroma. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) Environmentally and ecologically, sun grown coffee trees are preferred over shade grown coffee trees. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

65) Tea is the world's most popular beverage. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) Paraguay tea was a true tea substitute consumed in the southern United States during the Civil War blockade. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) In the production of chocolate liquor, the nibs of the cacao seed are used. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 17 Herbs and Spices 1) Essential oils are least concentrated in which of the following plant parts? A) roots B) leaves C) flowers D) Fruits E) None of the above are correct. 2) Most essential oils are classified chemically as which of the following? A) polyphenols B) terpenes C) flavonoids D) alkaloids E) tannins 3) In addition to being flavorful to humans and discouraging herbivores such as insects, research has shown that many herbs and spices can also ________. A) cause certain cancers B) be used to treat superficial wounds C) inhibit the growth of bacterial and fungi D) encourage the growth of beneficial fungi E) do more than one of the above 4) Onions, k garlic, allspice, and oregano were found to be the most effective for killing which of the following organisms? A) fungi B) bacteria C) protozoa D) carnivores E) None of the above are correct. 5) Unfortunately, the current "aromatherapy" industry in the United States is not well regulated, and pure, unadulterated essential oils are not always available for scientific study. The current revival of aromatherapy can be traced to French researchers in the early to mid-twentieth century, especially ________. A) Rene Gattefosse B) Marco Polo C) Kublai Khan D) Ferdinand Magellan E) Anne Hathaway

6) In Ancient Greece, the "middlemen" who brought spices from the Far East to sell to and trade with the Greeks were ________ merchants. A) Indian B) Chinese C) Hebrew D) Egyptian E) Arab 7) After the first century, the Romans began trading directly with India by ships, via the Red Sea, to the Indian Ocean, thus breaking the centuries-old Arab monopoly on ________. A) Spice trading B) Herb business with China C) Pepper growing under waterfalls protected by dragons D) Aromatherapy in Europe E) None of the above are correct. 8) Which of the following statements about aromatherapy is not correct? A) None of the essential oils have been shown to be effective in any way. B) The aromatherapy industry is not regulated. C) Rigorous scientific testing of essential oils has not been done. D) Essential oils from varieties within the same species may have different effects. E) Some essential oils can be toxic. 9) Alaric the Visigoth threatened Rome with destruction unless he received gold, silver, silk, and 3000 pounds of ________ in addition to gold, silver, silks, and other valuable items. A) cinnamon B) pepper C) ginger D) saffron E) oregano 10) Which of the following people did not help Portugal monopolize the spice trade to Europe through trading outposts in the East? A) Vasco da Gama B) Alfonso de Albuquerque C) Alvares Cabral D) Ferdinand Magellan E) All of the above helped expand Portugal's control on the spice trade. 11) The travels and adventures of ________ to the Far East in the 13th century encouraged European explorers to travel East in search of exotic spices. A) Alexander the Great B) Christopher Columbus C) Marco Polo D) Henry the Navigator E) Magellan 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) Christopher Columbus went to his grave still believing he had found ________. A) the fountain of youth B) the source of all the exotic spices Europe craved C) that Earth was round D) the western sea route to the Far East E) the lost tribe of Israel 13) In the 16th century, the country that monopolized the spice trade was ________. A) England B) Holland C) Italy D) Spain E) Portugal 14) The country that monopolized the spice trade in the 17th century was ________. A) England B) Holland C) Italy D) Spain E) Portugal 15) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Allspice :: Pimenta dioica, myrtle family B) Capsicum peppers :: Capsicum spp., tomato family C) Nutmeg :: Myristica fragrans, nutmeg family D) Mace :: Myristica fragrans, nutmeg family E) Vanilla :: Eugenia caryophyllata, myrtle family 16) Which of the following is not a New World spice? A) allspice B) vanilla C) cinnamon D) paprika E) All of the above are New World spices. 17) This spice is one of the oldest known spices. It derives from the secondary phloem of a tree kept bushy in cultivation. This spice is derived from plants in the species: A) Cinnamomum cassia B) Piper nigrum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) None of the above are correct.

18) This spice is produced from unripe dried berries and has a biting flavor due to volatile oils. This spice is derived from plants in the species A) Cinnamomum cassia. B) Piper nigrum. C) Myristica fragrans. D) Zingiber officinale. E) Eugenia caryophyllata. 19) This spice is native to the Spice Islands and is from unopened flower buds that must remain unopened. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Cinnamomum cassia B) Piper nigrum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Eugenia caryophyllata 20) Which of the following pair of spices come from the same species of tree? A) nutmeg and mace B) ginger and turmeric C) black pepper and chili pepper D) cinnamon and allspice E) marjoram and oregano 21) Which of the following is correct about cloves? A) Its scientific name is Myristica fragrans. B) Cloves were not highly valued in ancient China. C) Cloves are native to the New World, especially from high elevations in the Andes. D) Cloves are an unopened flower bud. E) Cloves are harvested when the nuts are mature for harvesting. 22) Which of the following spices can cause hallucinations accompanied by vomiting, dizziness, and headaches? A) turmeric B) nutmeg C) allspice D) marjoram E) oregano 23) This spicy spice is made from the aril of a fruit produced by pistillate flowers. This spice is which of the following? A) turmeric B) nutmeg C) mace D) marjoram E) More than one of the above are correct. 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

24) Nutmeg can do which of the following? A) Aids in digestion B) Stimulates the appetite C) Eases intestinal discomfort D) Reduces vomiting and nausea E) All of the above are correct. 25) This spice is produced from a rhizome of an herbaceous perennial and has been used to relieve nausea. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Curcuma longa B) Capsicum annuum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus 26) This spice is used to prepare mustard and is the main spice in curry powder; it is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Curcuma longa B) Capsicum annuum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus 27) Curcumin has been shown to be an effective as an antioxidant and an antibacterial agent. It may also be effective against certain cancers. Curcumin is derived from which of the following? A) ginger. B) cinnamon. C) turmeric. D) saffron. E) hot chilies. 28) This spice is obtained from stigmas and the spice plant is propagated by corms. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Curcuma longa B) Capsicum annuum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus 29) Which of the following is the most expensive of all the spices? A) ginger B) cinnamon C) turmeric D) saffron E) mace 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) The New World spice that fooled Columbus into thinking he had found a trade route to the Far East is of the genus ________. A) Capsicum B) Vanilla C) Pimenta D) Ocimum E) Petroselinum 31) Which of the following is correct about mace or nutmeg? A) They are both derived from the plant Myristica fragrans. B) Nutmeg trees are usually, but not always, dioecious. C) The glossy, dark brown seeds are covered by a thick net called an aril. D) In large quantities, both nutmeg and mace can be hallucinogenic. E) All of the above are correct. 32) The concentration of capsaicin is highest in ________ peppers. A) tabasco B) jalapeno C) ghost D) bell E) paprika 33) Among the following species, which includes one of the "hottest" chili pepper from South America? A) Capsicum annuum B) Capsicum frutescens C) Capsicum chinense D) Capsicum baccatum E) Capsicum chaconese 34) Capsaicin has been shown to be effective as which of the following? A) a blood thinner B) an aggravator of arthritis C) a substitute for sugar D) a fungicide E) More than one of the above are correct. 35) This spice is produced from the capsules of an orchid which grows as a vine native to Central America. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Curcuma longa B) Vanilla planifolia C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus

36) Which of the following is correct about turmeric? A) Turmeric has a long history in the Indian Ayurvedic system and is used as a remedy for medical complaints. B) Turmeric is the world's most expensive spice. C) The flavor and aroma of turmeric is pungent, slightly bitter, and musky. D) Curcumin from turmeric has no known medicinal properties. E) Turmeric can only be used for flavoring; no other function is known. 37) "Sweating" is a process employed in the production of ________. A) allspice B) ginger C) saffron D) vanilla E) More than one of the above are correct. 38) Which of the following plants produces a precursor compound related to one produced by Vanilla planifolia? A) Capsicum chinense B) Curcuma longa C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus 39) This spice is produced from dried berries of an evergreen tree that resemble peppercorns. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Capsicum chinense B) Curcuma longa C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Pimenta dioica 40) Which of the following is not correct about capsicum peppers? A) They all belong to a single genus in the Family Solanaceae. B) There are very few varieties, and these are grown only in the Neotropics. C) Capsicum chinense does not have its origins in China. D) The capsaicin content is negligible in sweet bell peppers but in very high concentrations in jalapeno peppers. E) The hottest peppers have a capsaicin detectability range of about 1 part per million. 41) To create yeast that produced vanillin, genetic researchers inserted the genes of fungi, bacteria, and ________ into the yeast genome. A) viruses B) mice C) humans D) pigs E) fruit flies 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) Members of this herbal family have square stems, aromatic, simple leaves. This herbal family is which of the following? A) Lamiaceae B) Apiaceae C) Brassicaceae D) Alliaceae E) Liliaceae 43) An herb that mimics estrogen and inhibits androgen is which of the following? A) garlic B) lavender C) coriander D) sage E) oregano 44) This herb grows as a small shrub with gray-green leaves and produces fragrant essential oils in its flowers. It also has antiseptic properties. This herb is found in the genus ________. A) Brassica B) Armoracia C) Allium D) Lavandula E) Mentha 45) This herbal family produces umbels and schizocarps, which are typically used as herbs. This herbal family is which of the following? A) Lamiaceae B) Apiaceae C) Brassicaceae D) Alliaceae E) Liliaceae 46) Isothiocyanates found in ________ may help prevent tooth decay and alleviate the symptoms of asthma. A) garlic B) peppermint C) lavender D) oregano E) wasabi 47) Which of the following is true about vanilla? A) Vanilla is originally from an orchid, Vanilla planifolia, indigenous to the New World tropics. B) Uncured or unfermented vanilla beans lack the characteristic flavor, which is due to vanillin. C) When properly cured, the pods are black. D) Synthetic vanilla accounts for 99 percent of all vanilla currently sold on the market. E) All of the above are correct. 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

48) Each of the following compounds is paired correctly with the plant in which it is found except one. Choose the exception. A) curcumin :: saffron B) capsaicin :: chili pepper C) sinigrin :: black pepper D) allicin :: garlic E) menthol :: peppermint 49) Curcumin, found in chili peppers, has shown promise as a treatment for cancer. 50) There is no clear distinction between herbs and spices. 51) The characteristic scents of aromatic plants are due to the presence of essential oils, which are types of secondary plant compounds that are may not be essential to a plant's basic metabolic function. 52) Chemically, most essential oils are classified as terpenes, which may have evolved to deter herbivores, especially insects. 53) Essentials oils do not have any known antimicrobial properties. 54) Herbs are generally aromatic leaves or seeds, whereas spices are usually aromatic fruits, flowers, bark, or other plants of tropical origin. 55) Saffron is a spice derived from the stamens of crocus flowers. 56) The Ebers Papyrus, dated at about 3,500 years ago, lists the medical uses of many plants, and provides evidence that an active spice trade already existed. 57) During the time of the Ancient Greek civilization, the spice trade was flourishing between the Mediterranean region and the Far East, brought in by Arab traders. 58) When Rome fell in A.D. 476, the trade between Europe and the East virtually disappeared. However, during the Dark Ages, exotic spices from the East were abundant throughout Europe. 59) In Marco Polo's book, The Travels of Marco Polo, the author describes the abundant spices and plantations of the East, whose presence helped establish new overland routes for exploration by Europeans. 60) Nutmeg is obtained from the tree, Myristica fragrans. 61) Garlic has been linked to gynecomastia in boys. 62) The pungent odor of garlic is due to the release of the compound, allicin. 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

63) ________ is a compound extracted from an orchid fruit. 64) ________ seeds contain an oil that has been extracted for use in chemical warfare as well as being ground with vinegar and turmeric into a paste to make a very popular condiment. 65) Capsicum peppers are the source of the pungent alkaloid ________, a New World rival to black pepper. 66) ________ are actually the dried unopened flower buds of a myrtle tree. 67) ________ is nicknamed the "pizza herb" because it gives pizza sauce its distinctive flavor. 68) ________ and onion contain a sulfurous oil that imparts a powerful taste and aroma which has a use as an antiseptic. 69) ________ are volatile substances that contribute to the scent and flavor of aromatic plants. 70) The ________ is a document from ancient Egypt that records the medicinal uses of many herbs and spices. 71) ________ is the belief that the application of certain essential oils can heal ailments of the body and mind.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 17 Herbs and Spices 1) Essential oils are least concentrated in which of the following plant parts? A) roots B) leaves C) flowers D) Fruits E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Most essential oils are classified chemically as which of the following? A) polyphenols B) terpenes C) flavonoids D) alkaloids E) tannins Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) In addition to being flavorful to humans and discouraging herbivores such as insects, research has shown that many herbs and spices can also ________. A) cause certain cancers B) be used to treat superficial wounds C) inhibit the growth of bacterial and fungi D) encourage the growth of beneficial fungi E) do more than one of the above Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) Onions, k garlic, allspice, and oregano were found to be the most effective for killing which of the following organisms? A) fungi B) bacteria C) protozoa D) carnivores E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Unfortunately, the current "aromatherapy" industry in the United States is not well regulated, and pure, unadulterated essential oils are not always available for scientific study. The current revival of aromatherapy can be traced to French researchers in the early to mid-twentieth century, especially ________. A) Rene Gattefosse B) Marco Polo C) Kublai Khan D) Ferdinand Magellan E) Anne Hathaway Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) In Ancient Greece, the "middlemen" who brought spices from the Far East to sell to and trade with the Greeks were ________ merchants. A) Indian B) Chinese C) Hebrew D) Egyptian E) Arab Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

7) After the first century, the Romans began trading directly with India by ships, via the Red Sea, to the Indian Ocean, thus breaking the centuries-old Arab monopoly on ________. A) Spice trading B) Herb business with China C) Pepper growing under waterfalls protected by dragons D) Aromatherapy in Europe E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Which of the following statements about aromatherapy is not correct? A) None of the essential oils have been shown to be effective in any way. B) The aromatherapy industry is not regulated. C) Rigorous scientific testing of essential oils has not been done. D) Essential oils from varieties within the same species may have different effects. E) Some essential oils can be toxic. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Alaric the Visigoth threatened Rome with destruction unless he received gold, silver, silk, and 3000 pounds of ________ in addition to gold, silver, silks, and other valuable items. A) cinnamon B) pepper C) ginger D) saffron E) oregano Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following people did not help Portugal monopolize the spice trade to Europe through trading outposts in the East? A) Vasco da Gama B) Alfonso de Albuquerque C) Alvares Cabral D) Ferdinand Magellan E) All of the above helped expand Portugal's control on the spice trade. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

11) The travels and adventures of ________ to the Far East in the 13th century encouraged European explorers to travel East in search of exotic spices. A) Alexander the Great B) Christopher Columbus C) Marco Polo D) Henry the Navigator E) Magellan Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) Christopher Columbus went to his grave still believing he had found ________. A) the fountain of youth B) the source of all the exotic spices Europe craved C) that Earth was round D) the western sea route to the Far East E) the lost tribe of Israel Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) In the 16th century, the country that monopolized the spice trade was ________. A) England B) Holland C) Italy D) Spain E) Portugal Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) The country that monopolized the spice trade in the 17th century was ________. A) England B) Holland C) Italy D) Spain E) Portugal Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Allspice :: Pimenta dioica, myrtle family B) Capsicum peppers :: Capsicum spp., tomato family C) Nutmeg :: Myristica fragrans, nutmeg family D) Mace :: Myristica fragrans, nutmeg family E) Vanilla :: Eugenia caryophyllata, myrtle family Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) Which of the following is not a New World spice? A) allspice B) vanilla C) cinnamon D) paprika E) All of the above are New World spices. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) This spice is one of the oldest known spices. It derives from the secondary phloem of a tree kept bushy in cultivation. This spice is derived from plants in the species: A) Cinnamomum cassia B) Piper nigrum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) This spice is produced from unripe dried berries and has a biting flavor due to volatile oils. This spice is derived from plants in the species A) Cinnamomum cassia. B) Piper nigrum. C) Myristica fragrans. D) Zingiber officinale. E) Eugenia caryophyllata. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

19) This spice is native to the Spice Islands and is from unopened flower buds that must remain unopened. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Cinnamomum cassia B) Piper nigrum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Eugenia caryophyllata Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) Which of the following pair of spices come from the same species of tree? A) nutmeg and mace B) ginger and turmeric C) black pepper and chili pepper D) cinnamon and allspice E) marjoram and oregano Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Which of the following is correct about cloves? A) Its scientific name is Myristica fragrans. B) Cloves were not highly valued in ancient China. C) Cloves are native to the New World, especially from high elevations in the Andes. D) Cloves are an unopened flower bud. E) Cloves are harvested when the nuts are mature for harvesting. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Which of the following spices can cause hallucinations accompanied by vomiting, dizziness, and headaches? A) turmeric B) nutmeg C) allspice D) marjoram E) oregano Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

23) This spicy spice is made from the aril of a fruit produced by pistillate flowers. This spice is which of the following? A) turmeric B) nutmeg C) mace D) marjoram E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Nutmeg can do which of the following? A) Aids in digestion B) Stimulates the appetite C) Eases intestinal discomfort D) Reduces vomiting and nausea E) All of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) This spice is produced from a rhizome of an herbaceous perennial and has been used to relieve nausea. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Curcuma longa B) Capsicum annuum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) This spice is used to prepare mustard and is the main spice in curry powder; it is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Curcuma longa B) Capsicum annuum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

27) Curcumin has been shown to be an effective as an antioxidant and an antibacterial agent. It may also be effective against certain cancers. Curcumin is derived from which of the following? A) ginger. B) cinnamon. C) turmeric. D) saffron. E) hot chilies. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) This spice is obtained from stigmas and the spice plant is propagated by corms. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Curcuma longa B) Capsicum annuum C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) Which of the following is the most expensive of all the spices? A) ginger B) cinnamon C) turmeric D) saffron E) mace Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

30) The New World spice that fooled Columbus into thinking he had found a trade route to the Far East is of the genus ________. A) Capsicum B) Vanilla C) Pimenta D) Ocimum E) Petroselinum Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Which of the following is correct about mace or nutmeg? A) They are both derived from the plant Myristica fragrans. B) Nutmeg trees are usually, but not always, dioecious. C) The glossy, dark brown seeds are covered by a thick net called an aril. D) In large quantities, both nutmeg and mace can be hallucinogenic. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) The concentration of capsaicin is highest in ________ peppers. A) tabasco B) jalapeno C) ghost D) bell E) paprika Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Among the following species, which includes one of the "hottest" chili pepper from South America? A) Capsicum annuum B) Capsicum frutescens C) Capsicum chinense D) Capsicum baccatum E) Capsicum chaconese Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

34) Capsaicin has been shown to be effective as which of the following? A) a blood thinner B) an aggravator of arthritis C) a substitute for sugar D) a fungicide E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) This spice is produced from the capsules of an orchid which grows as a vine native to Central America. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Curcuma longa B) Vanilla planifolia C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Which of the following is correct about turmeric? A) Turmeric has a long history in the Indian Ayurvedic system and is used as a remedy for medical complaints. B) Turmeric is the world's most expensive spice. C) The flavor and aroma of turmeric is pungent, slightly bitter, and musky. D) Curcumin from turmeric has no known medicinal properties. E) Turmeric can only be used for flavoring; no other function is known. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) "Sweating" is a process employed in the production of ________. A) allspice B) ginger C) saffron D) vanilla E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

38) Which of the following plants produces a precursor compound related to one produced by Vanilla planifolia? A) Capsicum chinense B) Curcuma longa C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Crocus sativus Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) This spice is produced from dried berries of an evergreen tree that resemble peppercorns. This spice is derived from plants in the species ________. A) Capsicum chinense B) Curcuma longa C) Myristica fragrans D) Zingiber officinale E) Pimenta dioica Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Which of the following is not correct about capsicum peppers? A) They all belong to a single genus in the Family Solanaceae. B) There are very few varieties, and these are grown only in the Neotropics. C) Capsicum chinense does not have its origins in China. D) The capsaicin content is negligible in sweet bell peppers but in very high concentrations in jalapeno peppers. E) The hottest peppers have a capsaicin detectability range of about 1 part per million. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

41) To create yeast that produced vanillin, genetic researchers inserted the genes of fungi, bacteria, and ________ into the yeast genome. A) viruses B) mice C) humans D) pigs E) fruit flies Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Members of this herbal family have square stems, aromatic, simple leaves. This herbal family is which of the following? A) Lamiaceae B) Apiaceae C) Brassicaceae D) Alliaceae E) Liliaceae Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) An herb that mimics estrogen and inhibits androgen is which of the following? A) garlic B) lavender C) coriander D) sage E) oregano Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) This herb grows as a small shrub with gray-green leaves and produces fragrant essential oils in its flowers. It also has antiseptic properties. This herb is found in the genus ________. A) Brassica B) Armoracia C) Allium D) Lavandula E) Mentha Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

45) This herbal family produces umbels and schizocarps, which are typically used as herbs. This herbal family is which of the following? A) Lamiaceae B) Apiaceae C) Brassicaceae D) Alliaceae E) Liliaceae Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Isothiocyanates found in ________ may help prevent tooth decay and alleviate the symptoms of asthma. A) garlic B) peppermint C) lavender D) oregano E) wasabi Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Which of the following is true about vanilla? A) Vanilla is originally from an orchid, Vanilla planifolia, indigenous to the New World tropics. B) Uncured or unfermented vanilla beans lack the characteristic flavor, which is due to vanillin. C) When properly cured, the pods are black. D) Synthetic vanilla accounts for 99 percent of all vanilla currently sold on the market. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

48) Each of the following compounds is paired correctly with the plant in which it is found except one. Choose the exception. A) curcumin :: saffron B) capsaicin :: chili pepper C) sinigrin :: black pepper D) allicin :: garlic E) menthol :: peppermint Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) Curcumin, found in chili peppers, has shown promise as a treatment for cancer. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) There is no clear distinction between herbs and spices. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The characteristic scents of aromatic plants are due to the presence of essential oils, which are types of secondary plant compounds that are may not be essential to a plant's basic metabolic function. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) Chemically, most essential oils are classified as terpenes, which may have evolved to deter herbivores, especially insects. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Essentials oils do not have any known antimicrobial properties. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

54) Herbs are generally aromatic leaves or seeds, whereas spices are usually aromatic fruits, flowers, bark, or other plants of tropical origin. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) Saffron is a spice derived from the stamens of crocus flowers. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) The Ebers Papyrus, dated at about 3,500 years ago, lists the medical uses of many plants, and provides evidence that an active spice trade already existed. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) During the time of the Ancient Greek civilization, the spice trade was flourishing between the Mediterranean region and the Far East, brought in by Arab traders. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) When Rome fell in A.D. 476, the trade between Europe and the East virtually disappeared. However, during the Dark Ages, exotic spices from the East were abundant throughout Europe. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) In Marco Polo's book, The Travels of Marco Polo, the author describes the abundant spices and plantations of the East, whose presence helped establish new overland routes for exploration by Europeans. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

60) Nutmeg is obtained from the tree, Myristica fragrans. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) Garlic has been linked to gynecomastia in boys. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) The pungent odor of garlic is due to the release of the compound, allicin. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) ________ is a compound extracted from an orchid fruit. Answer: Vanillin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) ________ seeds contain an oil that has been extracted for use in chemical warfare as well as being ground with vinegar and turmeric into a paste to make a very popular condiment. Answer: Mustard Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 65) Capsicum peppers are the source of the pungent alkaloid ________, a New World rival to black pepper. Answer: capsaicin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) ________ are actually the dried unopened flower buds of a myrtle tree. Answer: Cloves Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

67) ________ is nicknamed the "pizza herb" because it gives pizza sauce its distinctive flavor. Answer: Oregano Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) ________ and onion contain a sulfurous oil that imparts a powerful taste and aroma which has a use as an antiseptic. Answer: Garlic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) ________ are volatile substances that contribute to the scent and flavor of aromatic plants. Answer: Essential oils Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 70) The ________ is a document from ancient Egypt that records the medicinal uses of many herbs and spices. Answer: Ebers Papyrus Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) ________ is the belief that the application of certain essential oils can heal ailments of the body and mind. Answer: Aromatherapy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 18 Materials: Cloth, Wood, and Paper 1) The most valuable fibers for making cloth, rope, and paper is(are) which of the following? A) pure white cellulose B) a combination of cellulose and lignin C) pure lignin D) a combination of cellulose, lignin, and pectin E) pure pectin 2) Besides cellulose, which of the following compounds can also be found in fiber cell walls? A) lignins B) gums C) pectins D) tannins E) All of the above can be found in fiber cell walls. 3) The RSW1 gene codes an enzyme that allows plants to produce which of the following? A) Bt toxin. B) polyester. C) cellulose. D) herbicide resistance. E) sclerenchyma fibers. 4) Fibers used in making rope are ________ fibers. A) textile B) cordage C) filling D) mineral E) gluten 5) Which of the following is not a basket type? A) catheads B) kittenheads C) skep D) jewel-lid basket E) All of the above are types of baskets. 6) What was the cultural purpose of jewel baskets? A) to show off a family's wealth with jewels and decorations to important tribal members B) to be offered as special gifts for important events C) to advertise a son or daughter's availability for marriage D) to congratulate young men who have run a gauntlet E) None of the above are correct.

7) Which of the following terms is not matched correctly? A) bast fibers :: secondary phloem B) hard fibers :: vascular bundles C) surface fibers :: seed hairs D) soft fibers :: seed coats E) leaf fibers :: monocot leaves 8) Which of the following is a type of basket for keeping bees? A) rattle-lid B) cat-heads C) hollow lid D) feather E) skep 9) In this basket-making technique, warps radiate out from the center to create the framework of the basket. This basket-making technique is called ________. A) plaiting B) coiling C) ginning D) twining E) retting 10) Which of the following is not correct? A) In basket weaving, only one technique can be used. B) Warps are the strips of material that are placed vertically or radiated out from the center. C) Warps make up the framework of the basket. D) Wefts are the more flexible, horizontal strips that are woven over and under the warps. E) Splints are flat strips of wood. 11) A process that employs microbes to extract fibers from materials is called ________. A) ginning B) decortication C) retting D) coiling E) plaiting 12) Some of the finest, most detailed baskets in the world were created by which tribe? A) indigenous peoples of the Aleutian Islands B) native Americans of the Ottawa tribe C) native Americans of the Apache tribe D) native Americans of the Algonquin tribe E) None of the above are correct.

13) The term, muslin, refers to which of the following? A) linen. B) cotton. C) wool. D) rayon. E) sisal. 14) Gossypium spp. are the source of which of the following? A) linen. B) cotton. C) wool. D) rayon. E) sisal. 15) The fibers of cotton are extensions from which of the following? A) vascular bundles. B) root hairs. C) seed coats. D) leaf petioles. E) secondary xylem. 16) The capsules of cotton plants are more commonly called ________. A) pods B) drupes C) follicles D) bolls E) schizocarps 17) Which of the following is a correct true statement about Old World cotton species? A) G. hirsutum is an important Old World cotton species. B) Old World cottons are diploid (2N = 26). C) Old World cottons produce only long lints. D) Egyptian cotton is the common name of G. arboreum. E) More than one of the above are a correct statement about Old World cotton species. 18) Which of the following is not correct? A) The process of rendering cotton fibers into cloth was discovered independently during prehistoric times in both the Old World and New World. B) The native peoples of the American Southwest did not understand the use of cotton. C) Cotton became a Muslim industry in the near east in the ninth and tenth centuries. D) Cotton was introduced into Florida over 450 years ago. E) Currently the top cotton-producing country in the world is the People's Republic of China.

19) Which of the following is correct about cotton? A) Cotton is a shrubby plant with palmately lobed leaves. B) Cotton grows well in temperate, maritime climates. C) Only a few seed hairs may grow from a single seed. D) The hairs of the cotton seed produce roots to feed the cotton seed. E) All of the above are correct. 20) The very next process after cotton is picked is ________. A) finishing B) coiling C) ginning D) sizing E) retting 21) Which of the following statements is not correct about Eli Whitney's invention? A) It reduced the need for slave labor. B) It is a device for separating seeds from fiber. C) It made economically possible the use of short lint cotton. D) The main part of the invention is a roller studded with spikes covered by a metal mesh. E) It was not a great financial success for its inventor. 22) Which of the following substances was not used in the standard method in 18th century England for bleaching cotton fibers? A) lye B) sour milk C) cow dung D) egg whites E) All of these substances were used to bleach cotton fibers. 23) In cotton production ________ makes cotton fabric softer and increases its sheen. A) mercerization B) decortication C) ginning D) coiling E) sizing 24) Which of the following is a correct statement about Bt cotton hybrid? A) It is an insect toxin produced by the gene Cry1Ac. B) It is effective against several bollworm pests of cotton. C) It has greatly reduced the use of chemical pesticides. D) In India, use of Bt cotton increased yields dramatically. E) All of these are correct statements about Bt cotton.

25) Which of the following is not correct? A) Both New World species of cotton are tetraploids (2n = 52). B) The use of cotton harvested from Gossypium barbadense dates back well before 10,000 years ago. C) Eli Whitney's invention of the cotton gin had its greatest effect in the Midwest. D) Mechanized cotton production "came of age" at the same time Europe's demand for cotton grew. E) Cotton seeds can be used to make livestock feed and cooking oil. 26) Which of the following is a finishing process for cotton that improves its strength, luster, and affinity for dyes? A) mercerization B) fragmentation C) sizing D) bio-engineering with Bacillus thuringiensis E) use of pesticides to kill the boll weevil 27) Flax fibers originate from which of the following? A) stems. B) leaves. C) seeds. D) roots. E) More than one of the above are correct. 28) Flax fibers are extracted using the ________ process. A) finishing B) coiling C) ginning D) sizing E) retting 29) Which of the following is not correct about ramie? A) It is a bast fiber. B) Chlorine is used to bleach the fibers. C) The ramie plant is a member of the nettle family. D) Ramie fibers are long, strong, and lustrous. E) Ramie fibers are brittle. 30) Wild flax fibers were discovered in a cave in the western part of the Republic of Georgia with an age of ________ years. A) 5,000 B) 10,000 C) 20,000 D) 30,000 E) The age was impossible to determine. 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

31) What is the name of the harvesting process that frees the flax fibers from any remaining stem particles? A) Sketching B) Scutching C) Blanching D) Searing E) Bleaching 32) Denim jeans were originally made from which of the following materials? A) linen. B) ramie. C) hemp. D) jute. E) cotton. 33) This leaf fiber derives from desert Agave spp and is used for making rope and floor mats. This leaf fiber is called ________. A) manilla hemp B) hemp C) kapok D) coir E) sisal 34) Rayon, essentially, is a "synthetic" fiber made from which of the following? A) pure cellulose B) cotton bolls C) hemp fibers D) flax seeds E) jute backing 35) ________ cloth is made from the secondary phloem of Broussonetia papyrifera. A) Ramie B) Tapa C) Amate D) Kapok E) Coir 36) Due to human activities, ________ percent of the world's forests have been lost since the advent of modern humans. A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80 E) None of the above are correct.

37) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Ramie :: a perennial shrub of the nettle family B) Retting :: extracts the fibers from the stem by employing microbial decomposition C) Burlap :: from the stems of plants in the mallow family, native to Asia D) Cannibis sativa :: hemp production E) All of the above are correct associations. 38) Which of the following is not made from Cannabis sativa today? A) Jeans B) Twines C) Ropes D) Canvas E) All of the above are made from Cannabis sativa. 39) In order to replant a single Mahogany tree seedling, what must be done? A) Eliminate herbivores that would feed on the seedling. B) Clear large areas of the forest to allow for more light. C) Import Monarch butterflies from California to be pollinators. D) Reestablish companion plants like myrtle trees. E) Relocate indigenous Native American populations. 40) The tree with the densest wood is which of the following? A) Ochroma pyramidale B) Swietenia mahagoni C) Guaiacum officinale D) Pseudotsuga menziesii E) Quercus alba 41) This "softwood" tree species was used to make masts for sailing ships but was mostly wiped out by overharvesting and a fungal disease called pine blister rust. This softwood tree species is which of the following? A) Swietenia mahagoni B) Pinus strobus C) Pseudotsuga menziesii D) Quercus alba E) Pinus contorta 42) All of the following statements about resin are true except one. Choose the exception. A) They are polymerized terpenes. B) They are insoluble in water. C) They have a protective function. D) When fossilized, they become rosin. E) Most resin is extracted from conifers.

43) Modern paper is mostly a mat of which of the following? A) phloem cells B) xylem cells C) pith cells D) bark cells E) parenchyma cells 44) The ancient Egyptians utilized the ________ of papyrus in the making of paper. A) phloem fibers B) xylem fibers C) xylem vessels D) pith E) leaves 45) A principal goal of processing wood for pulp in paper making is to do which of the following? A) Remove the bark from trees B) Dissolve away the lignin C) Cut the wood into thin short fragments D) Wash away chemicals E) Dissolve away the cellulose 46) Softwood mostly comprises which of the following? A) vessels B) tracheids C) bas D) fibers E) None of the above are correct. 47) A durable wood useful for flooring, cabinets, furniture, and whiskey barrels is which one of the following? A) slash pine B) white oak C) Douglas fir D) loblolly pine E) plywood 48) Commercial sources of cork are from the bark of which evergreen tree? A) Pseudotsuga menziesii B) Pinus strobus C) Quercus alba D) Quercus suber E) Quercus rubra

49) Bamboo has traditionally been used for making which of the following? A) furniture B) baskets C) building materials D) paper E) All of the above are correct. 50) The first plant used in the Chinese invention of paper was which of the following? A) sedge B) flax C) mulberry D) rice E) None of the above are correct. 51) A thin sheet of a highly desired wood that is glued to a less expensive wood is termed ________. A) plywood B) veneer C) sapwood D) heartwood E) hardwood 52) A soggy mass of xylem fibers is known as ________. A) parchment B) veneer C) plywood D) pulp E) None of the above are correct. 53) Which of the following is often used for furniture veneers? A) yellow pine B) Douglas fir C) red oak D) mahogany E) All of these are correct. 54) Which plant oil given below serves as the base for linoleum and oilcloths? A) cottonseed B) linseed C) hemp D) soybean E) safflower

55) Which of the following is made from bast fibers? A) linen B) cotton C) sisal D) coir E) None of the above are correct. 56) Plant fibers have been used for thousands of years to make cloth, rope, paper, and numerous other articles. 57) Animal fibers, such as wool and silk, are made of protein whereas plant fibers are composed primarily of cellulose. 58) High quality cotton is made from short lints. 59) In plaiting, splints are the primary materials. 60) The use of chlorine to bleach cotton fibers replaced the standard method that included using buttermilk. 61) Linen and ramie are made from surface fibers. 62) Sisal and Manila hemp are example of monocotyledonous leaves made into hard fibers. 63) Hackling is a process in linen production which involves pounding to free fibers. 64) Burlap sacks are made from flax fibers. 65) The invention of the "flyer" helped overcome the problem of having to stop periodically to wind yarn on the spindle. 66) During the time of the Industrial Revolution, spinning machines using multiple spindles mechanized the process of spinning. 67) Cotton evolved from the same species, Gossypium hirsutum, and spread around the world in prehistoric times. 68) Manila hemp is a member of the cannabis family. 69) Wood with a specific gravity of 1.25 is less dense than wood with a specific gravity of 0.91. 70) Botanically speaking, ________ is secondary xylem tissue. 71) Viscose is associated with the production of ________. 72) There are three basic techniques to basketry: ________, ________, and ________. 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

73) The older, nonfunctional xylem of the trunk is known as ________, and is often dark in color. 74) Bamboo and kenaf have been suggested as a source of ________ for paper production. 75) Gymnosperm resins are the source of the ________ used by musicians and baseball players. 76) ________ and Douglas fir are generally used for plywood. 77) ________ is the source of the seed fiber coir. 78) ________ cloth was the indigenous fabric of Polynesia. 79) ________ is the process of scraping away by hand or machine unwanted tissues from hard fibers. 80) Today the resonators in marimbas and xylophones are usually metal; however, in the original instruments the resonators were made from ________. 81) Arundo donax is best known as the source of ________ used in woodwind instruments.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 18 Materials: Cloth, Wood, and Paper 1) The most valuable fibers for making cloth, rope, and paper is(are) which of the following? A) pure white cellulose B) a combination of cellulose and lignin C) pure lignin D) a combination of cellulose, lignin, and pectin E) pure pectin Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Besides cellulose, which of the following compounds can also be found in fiber cell walls? A) lignins B) gums C) pectins D) tannins E) All of the above can be found in fiber cell walls. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) The RSW1 gene codes an enzyme that allows plants to produce which of the following? A) Bt toxin. B) polyester. C) cellulose. D) herbicide resistance. E) sclerenchyma fibers. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4) Fibers used in making rope are ________ fibers. A) textile B) cordage C) filling D) mineral E) gluten Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

5) Which of the following is not a basket type? A) catheads B) kittenheads C) skep D) jewel-lid basket E) All of the above are types of baskets. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) What was the cultural purpose of jewel baskets? A) to show off a family's wealth with jewels and decorations to important tribal members B) to be offered as special gifts for important events C) to advertise a son or daughter's availability for marriage D) to congratulate young men who have run a gauntlet E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Which of the following terms is not matched correctly? A) bast fibers :: secondary phloem B) hard fibers :: vascular bundles C) surface fibers :: seed hairs D) soft fibers :: seed coats E) leaf fibers :: monocot leaves Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Which of the following is a type of basket for keeping bees? A) rattle-lid B) cat-heads C) hollow lid D) feather E) skep Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

9) In this basket-making technique, warps radiate out from the center to create the framework of the basket. This basket-making technique is called ________. A) plaiting B) coiling C) ginning D) twining E) retting Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following is not correct? A) In basket weaving, only one technique can be used. B) Warps are the strips of material that are placed vertically or radiated out from the center. C) Warps make up the framework of the basket. D) Wefts are the more flexible, horizontal strips that are woven over and under the warps. E) Splints are flat strips of wood. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) A process that employs microbes to extract fibers from materials is called ________. A) ginning B) decortication C) retting D) coiling E) plaiting Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) Some of the finest, most detailed baskets in the world were created by which tribe? A) indigenous peoples of the Aleutian Islands B) native Americans of the Ottawa tribe C) native Americans of the Apache tribe D) native Americans of the Algonquin tribe E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

13) The term, muslin, refers to which of the following? A) linen. B) cotton. C) wool. D) rayon. E) sisal. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Gossypium spp. are the source of which of the following? A) linen. B) cotton. C) wool. D) rayon. E) sisal. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) The fibers of cotton are extensions from which of the following? A) vascular bundles. B) root hairs. C) seed coats. D) leaf petioles. E) secondary xylem. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) The capsules of cotton plants are more commonly called ________. A) pods B) drupes C) follicles D) bolls E) schizocarps Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

17) Which of the following is a correct true statement about Old World cotton species? A) G. hirsutum is an important Old World cotton species. B) Old World cottons are diploid (2N = 26). C) Old World cottons produce only long lints. D) Egyptian cotton is the common name of G. arboreum. E) More than one of the above are a correct statement about Old World cotton species. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Which of the following is not correct? A) The process of rendering cotton fibers into cloth was discovered independently during prehistoric times in both the Old World and New World. B) The native peoples of the American Southwest did not understand the use of cotton. C) Cotton became a Muslim industry in the near east in the ninth and tenth centuries. D) Cotton was introduced into Florida over 450 years ago. E) Currently the top cotton-producing country in the world is the People's Republic of China. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) Which of the following is correct about cotton? A) Cotton is a shrubby plant with palmately lobed leaves. B) Cotton grows well in temperate, maritime climates. C) Only a few seed hairs may grow from a single seed. D) The hairs of the cotton seed produce roots to feed the cotton seed. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) The very next process after cotton is picked is ________. A) finishing B) coiling C) ginning D) sizing E) retting Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

21) Which of the following statements is not correct about Eli Whitney's invention? A) It reduced the need for slave labor. B) It is a device for separating seeds from fiber. C) It made economically possible the use of short lint cotton. D) The main part of the invention is a roller studded with spikes covered by a metal mesh. E) It was not a great financial success for its inventor. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Which of the following substances was not used in the standard method in 18th century England for bleaching cotton fibers? A) lye B) sour milk C) cow dung D) egg whites E) All of these substances were used to bleach cotton fibers. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) In cotton production ________ makes cotton fabric softer and increases its sheen. A) mercerization B) decortication C) ginning D) coiling E) sizing Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Which of the following is a correct statement about Bt cotton hybrid? A) It is an insect toxin produced by the gene Cry1Ac. B) It is effective against several bollworm pests of cotton. C) It has greatly reduced the use of chemical pesticides. D) In India, use of Bt cotton increased yields dramatically. E) All of these are correct statements about Bt cotton. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

25) Which of the following is not correct? A) Both New World species of cotton are tetraploids (2n = 52). B) The use of cotton harvested from Gossypium barbadense dates back well before 10,000 years ago. C) Eli Whitney's invention of the cotton gin had its greatest effect in the Midwest. D) Mechanized cotton production "came of age" at the same time Europe's demand for cotton grew. E) Cotton seeds can be used to make livestock feed and cooking oil. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Which of the following is a finishing process for cotton that improves its strength, luster, and affinity for dyes? A) mercerization B) fragmentation C) sizing D) bio-engineering with Bacillus thuringiensis E) use of pesticides to kill the boll weevil Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Flax fibers originate from which of the following? A) stems. B) leaves. C) seeds. D) roots. E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Flax fibers are extracted using the ________ process. A) finishing B) coiling C) ginning D) sizing E) retting Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

29) Which of the following is not correct about ramie? A) It is a bast fiber. B) Chlorine is used to bleach the fibers. C) The ramie plant is a member of the nettle family. D) Ramie fibers are long, strong, and lustrous. E) Ramie fibers are brittle. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Wild flax fibers were discovered in a cave in the western part of the Republic of Georgia with an age of ________ years. A) 5,000 B) 10,000 C) 20,000 D) 30,000 E) The age was impossible to determine. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) What is the name of the harvesting process that frees the flax fibers from any remaining stem particles? A) Sketching B) Scutching C) Blanching D) Searing E) Bleaching Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) Denim jeans were originally made from which of the following materials? A) linen. B) ramie. C) hemp. D) jute. E) cotton. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

33) This leaf fiber derives from desert Agave spp and is used for making rope and floor mats. This leaf fiber is called ________. A) manilla hemp B) hemp C) kapok D) coir E) sisal Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Rayon, essentially, is a "synthetic" fiber made from which of the following? A) pure cellulose B) cotton bolls C) hemp fibers D) flax seeds E) jute backing Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) ________ cloth is made from the secondary phloem of Broussonetia papyrifera. A) Ramie B) Tapa C) Amate D) Kapok E) Coir Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Due to human activities, ________ percent of the world's forests have been lost since the advent of modern humans. A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80 E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

37) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Ramie :: a perennial shrub of the nettle family B) Retting :: extracts the fibers from the stem by employing microbial decomposition C) Burlap :: from the stems of plants in the mallow family, native to Asia D) Cannibis sativa :: hemp production E) All of the above are correct associations. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Which of the following is not made from Cannabis sativa today? A) Jeans B) Twines C) Ropes D) Canvas E) All of the above are made from Cannabis sativa. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) In order to replant a single Mahogany tree seedling, what must be done? A) Eliminate herbivores that would feed on the seedling. B) Clear large areas of the forest to allow for more light. C) Import Monarch butterflies from California to be pollinators. D) Reestablish companion plants like myrtle trees. E) Relocate indigenous Native American populations. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) The tree with the densest wood is which of the following? A) Ochroma pyramidale B) Swietenia mahagoni C) Guaiacum officinale D) Pseudotsuga menziesii E) Quercus alba Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

41) This "softwood" tree species was used to make masts for sailing ships but was mostly wiped out by overharvesting and a fungal disease called pine blister rust. This softwood tree species is which of the following? A) Swietenia mahagoni B) Pinus strobus C) Pseudotsuga menziesii D) Quercus alba E) Pinus contorta Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) All of the following statements about resin are true except one. Choose the exception. A) They are polymerized terpenes. B) They are insoluble in water. C) They have a protective function. D) When fossilized, they become rosin. E) Most resin is extracted from conifers. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) Modern paper is mostly a mat of which of the following? A) phloem cells B) xylem cells C) pith cells D) bark cells E) parenchyma cells Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) The ancient Egyptians utilized the ________ of papyrus in the making of paper. A) phloem fibers B) xylem fibers C) xylem vessels D) pith E) leaves Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

45) A principal goal of processing wood for pulp in paper making is to do which of the following? A) Remove the bark from trees B) Dissolve away the lignin C) Cut the wood into thin short fragments D) Wash away chemicals E) Dissolve away the cellulose Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) Softwood mostly comprises which of the following? A) vessels B) tracheids C) bas D) fibers E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) A durable wood useful for flooring, cabinets, furniture, and whiskey barrels is which one of the following? A) slash pine B) white oak C) Douglas fir D) loblolly pine E) plywood Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Commercial sources of cork are from the bark of which evergreen tree? A) Pseudotsuga menziesii B) Pinus strobus C) Quercus alba D) Quercus suber E) Quercus rubra Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) Bamboo has traditionally been used for making which of the following? A) furniture B) baskets C) building materials D) paper E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) The first plant used in the Chinese invention of paper was which of the following? A) sedge B) flax C) mulberry D) rice E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) A thin sheet of a highly desired wood that is glued to a less expensive wood is termed ________. A) plywood B) veneer C) sapwood D) heartwood E) hardwood Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) A soggy mass of xylem fibers is known as ________. A) parchment B) veneer C) plywood D) pulp E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

53) Which of the following is often used for furniture veneers? A) yellow pine B) Douglas fir C) red oak D) mahogany E) All of these are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Which plant oil given below serves as the base for linoleum and oilcloths? A) cottonseed B) linseed C) hemp D) soybean E) safflower Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) Which of the following is made from bast fibers? A) linen B) cotton C) sisal D) coir E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Plant fibers have been used for thousands of years to make cloth, rope, paper, and numerous other articles. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) Animal fibers, such as wool and silk, are made of protein whereas plant fibers are composed primarily of cellulose. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

58) High quality cotton is made from short lints. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) In plaiting, splints are the primary materials. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) The use of chlorine to bleach cotton fibers replaced the standard method that included using buttermilk. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) Linen and ramie are made from surface fibers. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) Sisal and Manila hemp are example of monocotyledonous leaves made into hard fibers. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) Hackling is a process in linen production which involves pounding to free fibers. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) Burlap sacks are made from flax fibers. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

65) The invention of the "flyer" helped overcome the problem of having to stop periodically to wind yarn on the spindle. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) During the time of the Industrial Revolution, spinning machines using multiple spindles mechanized the process of spinning. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) Cotton evolved from the same species, Gossypium hirsutum, and spread around the world in prehistoric times. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) Manila hemp is a member of the cannabis family. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) Wood with a specific gravity of 1.25 is less dense than wood with a specific gravity of 0.91. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 70) Botanically speaking, ________ is secondary xylem tissue. Answer: wood Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) Viscose is associated with the production of ________. Answer: rayon Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

72) There are three basic techniques to basketry: ________, ________, and ________. Answer: plaiting; twining; coiling Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 73) The older, nonfunctional xylem of the trunk is known as ________, and is often dark in color. Answer: heartwood Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 74) Bamboo and kenaf have been suggested as a source of ________ for paper production. Answer: pulp Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 75) Gymnosperm resins are the source of the ________ used by musicians and baseball players. Answer: rosin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 76) ________ and Douglas fir are generally used for plywood. Answer: Pines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 77) ________ is the source of the seed fiber coir. Answer: Coconut Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 78) ________ cloth was the indigenous fabric of Polynesia. Answer: Bark Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

79) ________ is the process of scraping away by hand or machine unwanted tissues from hard fibers. Answer: Decortication Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 80) Today the resonators in marimbas and xylophones are usually metal; however, in the original instruments the resonators were made from ________. Answer: gourds Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 81) Arundo donax is best known as the source of ________ used in woodwind instruments. Answer: reeds Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 19 Medicinal Plants 1) The earliest known medical document prescribed ________ for pain relief. A) mandrake B) willow bark C) silphium D) bloodwort E) nightshade 2) Which of the following is not correct? A) The earliest known medical document is 30,000 years old. B) Ancient China is also a source of information about the early medicinal uses of plants. C) The Badianus Manuscript is an illustrated document reporting the extensive traditional medical knowledge of the Aztecs. D) The herbal medicine of ancient Greece upon which the foundations of Western medicine were established. E) All of the above are correct. 3) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Silphium :: an effective contraceptive used by Greek and Roman women. B) Dioscorides's work :: the standard medical reference in Europe for 1,500 years. C) Martinus de la Cruz :: created the Badianus Manuscript of Aztec medicine. D) Doctrine of Signatures :: recognized distinct "signatures" visible on plants that corresponded to human anatomy. E) Herbalism :: Well developed by Europeans, not by Native Americans. 4) Beginning in the first century A.D. and for 1500 years after, the standard medical herbal text was A) The Complete Herbal. B) De Materia Medica. C) The Herball. D) Canon of Medicine. E) Theatrum Botanicum. 5) Which of the following is an example of the Doctrine of Signatures? A) A cure for watery, runny eyes is an eyewash made from onion. B) A hyper-diluted solution of snake venom can treat the effects of a snake bite. C) Liverworts, which look like human livers, can treat psoriasis of the liver. D) To diagnose an illness, examine the liver of a sacrificed sheep. E) To heal a wound from a sword, apply a poultice to the sword that made the wound.

6) Certain Native American tribes used ________ to treat allergies and to perform ritual purifications. A) Hydrastis canadensis B) Hamamelis virginiana C) Echinacea purpurea D) Juniperus virginiana E) Sanguinaria Canadensis 7) All of the following pairs of terms are matched correctly except one. Choose the exception. A) Coneflower :: antidote for snakebites and cold remedy B) Witch hazel :: smoked as a remedy for headaches C) Bloodroot :: remedy for bronchitis and rheumatism D) Golden seal :: treatment for wounds and eye inflammations E) All of the above are matched correctly. 8) Echinacea purpurea, often found in cough drops, was shown to be effective in which of the following? A) reduction of the severity and duration of colds in children B) prevention of evolution of the influenza virus C) reduction in the symptoms of arthritis and fibromyalgia D) lessen the symptoms of flu and colds in adults E) reduces the symptoms of bipolar syndrome 9) The blending of traditional herbal medicine and modern medicine is most prominent in ________ culture. A) Chinese B) Indian C) Native American D) Sub-Saharan African E) Egyptian 10) Which of the following families is not among those with significant amounts of alkaloids? A) Solanaceae B) Rosaceae C) Fabaceae D) Rubiaceae E) Ulmaceae 11) Which of the following is not a correct statement about alkaloids? A) They all contain nitrogen. B) They are usually basic. C) Amygdalin is an alkaloid. D) Their major effect is on the nervous system. E) Some alkaloids are poisonous.

12) Which of the following is not a correct statement about glycosides? A) A sugar molecule is a part of their structure. B) Some glycosides are used in the production of sex hormones. C) Cyanide is the breakdown product of some glycosides. D) Coffee contains toxic glycosides. E) Some glycosides affect the cardiovascular system. 13) William Withering successfully treated "dropsy" (now known as caused by congestive heart failure) patients with leaves from which of the following? A) Digitalis purpurea B) Echinacea purpurea C) Salix alba D) Hydrastis canadensis E) Artemisia annua 14) Which of the following is a correct statement about digitalis? A) It is extracted from an herbaceous perennial. B) The plant from which it is extracted is in the carnation family. C) It is a cardioactive glycoside. D) Its effect is to speed up the heart. E) More than one of these statements are correct about digitalis. 15) Which of the following is not a true statement about digitalis? A) It increases the strength of each heartbeat. B) It reduces urinary output from the kidneys. C) A therapeutic dose in one patient could be toxic in another. D) Arrhythmia can result from a toxic dose. E) It is a diuretic. 16) Which of the following statements is(are) correct? A) Over 75 percent of the rural population of the world relies on herbal medicine as their only health care. B) The People's Republic of China is the leading country for incorporating traditional herbal medicine into a modern health care system. C) As younger members of a tribe are drawn into modern cultures, the knowledge of herbal medicines is slowly lost. D) The Terra Nova Forest Reserve in Belize is a 6,000 acre sanctuary dedicated to the survival of medicinal plants. E) All of the above are correct. 17) Which of the following is an effect of acetylsalicylic acid? A) It relieves the symptoms of malaria. B) It is useful in treating edema. C) It can be used to treat liver damage. D) It is effective in curing common headaches. E) All of these are effects of salicylic acid. 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

18) All of the following medicinal plants are matched correctly with the disease or condition they are used to treat except one. Choose the exception. A) Cantharanthus roseus :: acute childhood leukemia B) Serenoa repens :: benign prostate enlargement C) Sanguinaria canadensis :: bronchitis D) Cinchona officinalis :: malaria E) Rauwolfia serpentine :: ovarian cancer 19) Aspirin has all of the following properties except which one of the following? A) antimalarial properties B) anti-inflammatory properties C) analgesic properties D) antipyretic properties E) anti-clotting properties 20) Glycosides are categorized by the nature of the non-sugar or active components. What are the correct types listed below? A) Cyanogenic glycosides B) Cardioactive glycosides C) Saponins D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above are correct. 21) Daily use of aspirin may reduce the occurrence of which of the following? A) malaria B) heart attacks C) schizophrenia D) asthma E) all of these 22) Daily use of aspirin has been shown to reduce the occurrence of which of the following? A) strokes B) cataracts C) blood clots D) pathogen attacks in plants E) All of these may be correct. 23) Which of the following compounds suppresses the activity of prostaglandins? A) quinine B) reserpine C) acetylsalicylic acid D) saponins E) vincristine

24) What effect do prostaglandins have on the stomach lining? A) Promote the secretion of mucus and the overproduction of stomach acid. B) Enhance the production of hydrochloric acid. C) Promote the absorption of aspirin by the stomach lining. D) Increase stomach muscle contractions. E) Prostaglandins do all of the above, depending on their location. 25) Reye's syndrome is related to patients taking aspirin after having contracted which of the following? A) chicken pox B) malaria C) ovarian cancer D) edema E) schizophrenia 26) The release of ________ turns on systemic acquired resistance to pathogens in plants. A) reserpine B) vinblastine C) salicylic acid D) taxol E) camptothecin 27) All of the following compounds are matched correctly with the condition they are used to treat except one. Choose the exception. A) taxol :: ovarian cancer B) vincristine :: Hodgkin's disease C) ephedrine :: asthma D) artemisinin :: malaria E) All of the above are correctly matched. 28) Plasmodium merozoites leaving the liver multiply in which of the following locations? A) liver B) lymph nodes C) white blood cells D) red blood cells E) endothelial cells 29) Plasmodium gametocytes form in which of the following? A) liver B) lymph nodes C) lungs D) red blood cells E) endothelial cells

30) Quinine directly kills Plasmodium in which stage of its life cycle? A) merozoites B) sporozoites C) gametocytes D) merozoites and sporozoites E) sporozoites and gametocytes 31) Of the many species of Plasmodium, which of the following are responsible for the majority of malarial deaths in humans? A) P. vivax B) P. ovale C) P. falciparum D) P. malariae E) None of the above is correct. 32) To treat a burn, you can use the cut leaves of which of the following? A) Echinacea purpurea B) Ephedra sinica C) Aloe vera D) Rauwolfia serpentina E) More than one of these plants can be used to treat a burn. 33) Compounds obtained from this plant has been used to make methamphetamine. A) Echinacea purpurea B) Ephedra sinica C) Catharanthus roseus D) Taxus brevifolia E) Hypericum perforatum 34) Which of the following is not correct? A) Vinblastine and vincristine are compounds from Vinca that are successful treatments for various forms of leukemia and lymphoma. B) Taxol, a terpene obtained from the bark of the Pacific yew, is a known poisonous plant that has antitumor properties in the treatment of ovarian, lung, head, and neck cancers. C) Compounds from Camptotheca acuminata have confirmed anticancer properties. D) St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) may work against depression by elevating specific mood-enhancing neurotransmitters such as serotonin. E) All of the above are correct. 35) For which of these plants has their treatment effectiveness been called into question because of recent research? A) St. John's Wort B) purple coneflower C) Ginkgo biloba D) saw palmetto E) All of the above are correct. 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

36) Which of the following medicinal plant extracts is a glycoside? A) quinine B) digitalis C) morphine D) codeine E) cocaine 37) The authoritative reference on medicinal plants for over 1500 years was De Materia Medica, written by whom? A) Aristotle B) Mendel C) Pasteur D) Dioscorides E) Linnaeus 38) Seeds and pits of many members of the rose family contain which type of glycoside? A) cyanogenic B) cardioactive C) purgative D) saponin E) None of the above are correct. 39) A text of plant descriptions, medical uses, and collection methods is known as a(n) ________. 40) Glycosides are characterized by a ________ group attached to the active component. 41) One major threat to traditional medicine in the tropical rain forest is ________. 42) All alkaloids contain nitrogen, have a basic pH, and a ________ taste. 43) Alkaloids generally affect physiology by acting on the ________ system. 44) Approximately ________ percent of all medicines used in the United States today are still plant based. 45) Ancient Greek and Roman women used a plant called silphium as a ________. 46) ________ is a plant that is the source of compounds that are effective decongestants as well as central nervous system stimulants. 47) Salicylic acid, which provided the basis for the development of aspirin, is believed to be a plant hormone that functions in ________. 48) Both cardioactive glycosides and saponins contain a ________ molecule as the active component. 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) Up to three million people die from various species of malaria-causing organisms each year. 50) Digitoxin has uses both as a treatment for glaucoma and as an antidote to the side effects of chemotherapy. 51) The connection between plants and health has a history of only a few hundred years. 52) Cyanogenic glycosides release cyanogen. 53) Two countries in which herbal medicine still plays an extensive role are China and India. 54) Ethnobotanists work with indigenous peoples to learn traditional medical practices and their plant sources. 55) Aloin is the poison used in blow darts and as an effective muscle relaxant during surgery. 56) The active principals in most medicinal plants are classified as secondary plant products. 57) Hippocrates' "De Materia Medica" was the standard medical textbook in the 1700s. 58) Saw palmetto inhibits alpha reductase, which converts testosterone into DHT. 59) Currently, several million heart patients rely on an extract of Digitalis purpurea to the treatment of various types of heart disease. 60) Even patients under a doctor's supervision can experience toxic side effects and must be monitored carefully to prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 19 Medicinal Plants 1) The earliest known medical document prescribed ________ for pain relief. A) mandrake B) willow bark C) silphium D) bloodwort E) nightshade Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following is not correct? A) The earliest known medical document is 30,000 years old. B) Ancient China is also a source of information about the early medicinal uses of plants. C) The Badianus Manuscript is an illustrated document reporting the extensive traditional medical knowledge of the Aztecs. D) The herbal medicine of ancient Greece upon which the foundations of Western medicine were established. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Silphium :: an effective contraceptive used by Greek and Roman women. B) Dioscorides's work :: the standard medical reference in Europe for 1,500 years. C) Martinus de la Cruz :: created the Badianus Manuscript of Aztec medicine. D) Doctrine of Signatures :: recognized distinct "signatures" visible on plants that corresponded to human anatomy. E) Herbalism :: Well developed by Europeans, not by Native Americans. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) Beginning in the first century A.D. and for 1500 years after, the standard medical herbal text was A) The Complete Herbal. B) De Materia Medica. C) The Herball. D) Canon of Medicine. E) Theatrum Botanicum. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Which of the following is an example of the Doctrine of Signatures? A) A cure for watery, runny eyes is an eyewash made from onion. B) A hyper-diluted solution of snake venom can treat the effects of a snake bite. C) Liverworts, which look like human livers, can treat psoriasis of the liver. D) To diagnose an illness, examine the liver of a sacrificed sheep. E) To heal a wound from a sword, apply a poultice to the sword that made the wound. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Certain Native American tribes used ________ to treat allergies and to perform ritual purifications. A) Hydrastis canadensis B) Hamamelis virginiana C) Echinacea purpurea D) Juniperus virginiana E) Sanguinaria Canadensis Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) All of the following pairs of terms are matched correctly except one. Choose the exception. A) Coneflower :: antidote for snakebites and cold remedy B) Witch hazel :: smoked as a remedy for headaches C) Bloodroot :: remedy for bronchitis and rheumatism D) Golden seal :: treatment for wounds and eye inflammations E) All of the above are matched correctly. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Echinacea purpurea, often found in cough drops, was shown to be effective in which of the following? A) reduction of the severity and duration of colds in children B) prevention of evolution of the influenza virus C) reduction in the symptoms of arthritis and fibromyalgia D) lessen the symptoms of flu and colds in adults E) reduces the symptoms of bipolar syndrome Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) The blending of traditional herbal medicine and modern medicine is most prominent in ________ culture. A) Chinese B) Indian C) Native American D) Sub-Saharan African E) Egyptian Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following families is not among those with significant amounts of alkaloids? A) Solanaceae B) Rosaceae C) Fabaceae D) Rubiaceae E) Ulmaceae Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Which of the following is not a correct statement about alkaloids? A) They all contain nitrogen. B) They are usually basic. C) Amygdalin is an alkaloid. D) Their major effect is on the nervous system. E) Some alkaloids are poisonous. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

16) Which of the following statements is(are) correct? A) Over 75 percent of the rural population of the world relies on herbal medicine as their only health care. B) The People's Republic of China is the leading country for incorporating traditional herbal medicine into a modern health care system. C) As younger members of a tribe are drawn into modern cultures, the knowledge of herbal medicines is slowly lost. D) The Terra Nova Forest Reserve in Belize is a 6,000 acre sanctuary dedicated to the survival of medicinal plants. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Which of the following is an effect of acetylsalicylic acid? A) It relieves the symptoms of malaria. B) It is useful in treating edema. C) It can be used to treat liver damage. D) It is effective in curing common headaches. E) All of these are effects of salicylic acid. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) All of the following medicinal plants are matched correctly with the disease or condition they are used to treat except one. Choose the exception. A) Cantharanthus roseus :: acute childhood leukemia B) Serenoa repens :: benign prostate enlargement C) Sanguinaria canadensis :: bronchitis D) Cinchona officinalis :: malaria E) Rauwolfia serpentine :: ovarian cancer Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

19) Aspirin has all of the following properties except which one of the following? A) antimalarial properties B) anti-inflammatory properties C) analgesic properties D) antipyretic properties E) anti-clotting properties Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) Glycosides are categorized by the nature of the non-sugar or active components. What are the correct types listed below? A) Cyanogenic glycosides B) Cardioactive glycosides C) Saponins D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Daily use of aspirin may reduce the occurrence of which of the following? A) malaria B) heart attacks C) schizophrenia D) asthma E) all of these Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Daily use of aspirin has been shown to reduce the occurrence of which of the following? A) strokes B) cataracts C) blood clots D) pathogen attacks in plants E) All of these may be correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

23) Which of the following compounds suppresses the activity of prostaglandins? A) quinine B) reserpine C) acetylsalicylic acid D) saponins E) vincristine Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) What effect do prostaglandins have on the stomach lining? A) Promote the secretion of mucus and the overproduction of stomach acid. B) Enhance the production of hydrochloric acid. C) Promote the absorption of aspirin by the stomach lining. D) Increase stomach muscle contractions. E) Prostaglandins do all of the above, depending on their location. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Reye's syndrome is related to patients taking aspirin after having contracted which of the following? A) chicken pox B) malaria C) ovarian cancer D) edema E) schizophrenia Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) The release of ________ turns on systemic acquired resistance to pathogens in plants. A) reserpine B) vinblastine C) salicylic acid D) taxol E) camptothecin Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

27) All of the following compounds are matched correctly with the condition they are used to treat except one. Choose the exception. A) taxol :: ovarian cancer B) vincristine :: Hodgkin's disease C) ephedrine :: asthma D) artemisinin :: malaria E) All of the above are correctly matched. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Plasmodium merozoites leaving the liver multiply in which of the following locations? A) liver B) lymph nodes C) white blood cells D) red blood cells E) endothelial cells Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) Plasmodium gametocytes form in which of the following? A) liver B) lymph nodes C) lungs D) red blood cells E) endothelial cells Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Quinine directly kills Plasmodium in which stage of its life cycle? A) merozoites B) sporozoites C) gametocytes D) merozoites and sporozoites E) sporozoites and gametocytes Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

31) Of the many species of Plasmodium, which of the following are responsible for the majority of malarial deaths in humans? A) P. vivax B) P. ovale C) P. falciparum D) P. malariae E) None of the above is correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) To treat a burn, you can use the cut leaves of which of the following? A) Echinacea purpurea B) Ephedra sinica C) Aloe vera D) Rauwolfia serpentina E) More than one of these plants can be used to treat a burn. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Compounds obtained from this plant has been used to make methamphetamine. A) Echinacea purpurea B) Ephedra sinica C) Catharanthus roseus D) Taxus brevifolia E) Hypericum perforatum Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

34) Which of the following is not correct? A) Vinblastine and vincristine are compounds from Vinca that are successful treatments for various forms of leukemia and lymphoma. B) Taxol, a terpene obtained from the bark of the Pacific yew, is a known poisonous plant that has antitumor properties in the treatment of ovarian, lung, head, and neck cancers. C) Compounds from Camptotheca acuminata have confirmed anticancer properties. D) St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) may work against depression by elevating specific mood-enhancing neurotransmitters such as serotonin. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) For which of these plants has their treatment effectiveness been called into question because of recent research? A) St. John's Wort B) purple coneflower C) Ginkgo biloba D) saw palmetto E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Which of the following medicinal plant extracts is a glycoside? A) quinine B) digitalis C) morphine D) codeine E) cocaine Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

37) The authoritative reference on medicinal plants for over 1500 years was De Materia Medica, written by whom? A) Aristotle B) Mendel C) Pasteur D) Dioscorides E) Linnaeus Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Seeds and pits of many members of the rose family contain which type of glycoside? A) cyanogenic B) cardioactive C) purgative D) saponin E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) A text of plant descriptions, medical uses, and collection methods is known as a(n) ________. Answer: herbal text Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Glycosides are characterized by a ________ group attached to the active component. Answer: sugar Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) One major threat to traditional medicine in the tropical rain forest is ________. Answer: deforestation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

42) All alkaloids contain nitrogen, have a basic pH, and a ________ taste. Answer: bitter Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) Alkaloids generally affect physiology by acting on the ________ system. Answer: nervous Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) Approximately ________ percent of all medicines used in the United States today are still plant based. Answer: 25 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) Ancient Greek and Roman women used a plant called silphium as a ________. Answer: contraceptive Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) ________ is a plant that is the source of compounds that are effective decongestants as well as central nervous system stimulants. Answer: Ephedra Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Salicylic acid, which provided the basis for the development of aspirin, is believed to be a plant hormone that functions in ________. Answer: protection Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Both cardioactive glycosides and saponins contain a ________ molecule as the active component. Answer: steroid Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) Up to three million people die from various species of malaria-causing organisms each year. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) Digitoxin has uses both as a treatment for glaucoma and as an antidote to the side effects of chemotherapy. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The connection between plants and health has a history of only a few hundred years. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) Cyanogenic glycosides release cyanogen. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Two countries in which herbal medicine still plays an extensive role are China and India. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Ethnobotanists work with indigenous peoples to learn traditional medical practices and their plant sources. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) Aloin is the poison used in blow darts and as an effective muscle relaxant during surgery. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

56) The active principals in most medicinal plants are classified as secondary plant products. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) Hippocrates' "De Materia Medica" was the standard medical textbook in the 1700s. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) Saw palmetto inhibits alpha reductase, which converts testosterone into DHT. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Currently, several million heart patients rely on an extract of Digitalis purpurea to the treatment of various types of heart disease. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) Even patients under a doctor's supervision can experience toxic side effects and must be monitored carefully to prevent life-threatening arrhythmias. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 20 Psychoactive Plants 1) The main effect of psychoactive drugs is on the brain's ________. A) neurotransmitters B) sensory neurons C) motor neurons D) interneurons E) More than one of these are correct 2) Addictive compounds generally elicit one or more of which of the following? A) Psychological dependence B) Physiological dependence C) Tolerance D) Have an effect on the mesolimbic dopamine system E) All of the above are correct. 3) Cocaine can do which of the following? A) relieve pain B) act as a stimulant C) cause death D) cause addiction E) Cocaine can do all of the above. 4) All of these psychoactive drugs are correctly paired with their effect except one. Choose the exception. A) cocaine :: stimulant B) kava :: hallucinogen C) nutmeg :: hallucinogen D) opium :: depressant E) tobacco :: stimulant 5) The level of what neurotransmitter is elevated by all addictive drugs? A) serotonin B) endorphin C) dopamine D) oxytocin E) The level of more than one of these neurotransmitters is elevated by all addictive drugs.

6) Which of the following is a correct statement about the effects of stimulants and opiates on neurotransmitters? A) Stimulants disrupt the transport of neurotransmitters back to their site of origin to be reabsorbed and opiates inhibit the shutdown of neurotransmitter production. B) Both stimulants and opiates disrupt the transport of neurotransmitters back to their site of origin to be reabsorbed. C) Opiates disrupt the transport of neurotransmitters back to their site of origin to be reabsorbed and stimulants inhibit the shutdown of neurotransmitter production. D) Both stimulants and opiates inhibit the shutdown of neurotransmitter production. E) None of the above are correct. 7) What is the name of the area in the brain that is the origin of the "reward pathway"? A) Dopamine B) Ventral Tegmental Area C) Lateral sinus D) Corpus callosum E) Corpora quadrigemina 8) Which of the following is a correct statement about psychoactive drug effects in the brain? A) The neurotransmitter involved attaches to receptors in the ventral tegmental area and causes its psychoactive effect. B) Chronic drug abuse causes the neurotransmitter involved to release cyclic AMP. C) Chronic drug abuse causes cyclic AMP to activate a translation factor called VTA. D) Chronic drug abuse causes VTA to inhibit the production of the neurotransmitter involved. E) All of these are true statements about the psychoactive drug effects in the brain. 9) VTA, NA, cyclic AMP, and CREB are all factors involved in which of the following conditions? A) psychological dependence B) physiological dependence C) tolerance D) resistance E) All of the above are correct. 10) The active compound in all the following psychoactive plants is an alkaloid except one. Choose the exception. A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii

11) What is the name of the signaling molecule that activates a transcription factor (CREB), that then triggers certain genes to dull the reward circuit by inhibiting the dopamine-producing neurons of the VTA? A) ATP B) NADP C) Cyclic AMP D) AMP E) None of the above are correct. 12) Which part of the poppy plant produces the exudate used in making opium? A) the leaves B) the roots C) the seeds D) the fruits E) the stems 13) Which of the following choices applies to the opium poppy? A) It is a large annual herb of the family Papaveraceae. B) After pollination, the ovary matures into a capsule. C) The milky sap of the green capsule exudes a white latex rich in alkaloids. D) It is native to the Middle East. E) All of the above are correct. 14) Laudanum is a tincture of alcohol and which of the following? A) opium B) marijuana C) heroin D) peyote E) tobacco 15) Widespread opium addiction in China ended after which of the following took place? A) first opium war B) establishment of the People's Republic of China C) second opium war D) Japanese invasion in World War II E) United States intervened to stop it 16) Which of the following is a correct statement about opium? A) Opium has been eaten, drunk, and smoked for centuries. B) The usual method of preparation for opium as medication was to dissolve the crude opium in wine. C) Hippocrates advocated poppy wine as a medicine for many complaints. D) The tincture of opium, called laudanum, was a popular medication for centuries. E) All of the above are correct.

17) Morphine is an alkaloid found in the psychoactive plant taxonomically known as which of the following? A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii 18) Which of the following neurotransmitter receptors is affected by morphine? A) serotonin B) endorphin C) dopamine D) oxytocin E) adrenaline 19) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) More than 20 alkaloids have been found in opium, with morphine and codeine the most significant. B) Morphine was named after Morpheus, the Greek god of dreams. C) Morphine is unsurpassed in its ability to deaden pain. D) Morphine was always administered by syringe. E) Morphine binds to the endorphin receptor sites and mimics endorphin's actions. 20) Heroin was believed to be superior to codeine as which of the following? A) pain reliever B) cough suppressant C) headache potion D) cure for diarrhea E) wound treatment 21) This psychoactive plant is a dioecious annual with distinctive palmately compound leaves. This psychoactive plant is A) Papaver somniferum. B) Erythroxylum coca. C) Cannabis sativa. D) Nicotiana tabacum. E) Lophophora williamsii. 22) Which of the following is correct about the history of opium? A) Opium use has only a minor historical connection with China. B) Opium use began to increase when smoking tobacco was introduced to China. C) The British wanted a favorable trade balance with China. D) The Chinese had virtually no interest European goods. E) All of the above are correct statements about the history of opium.

23) Which of the following is not correct about heroin? A) The Bayer company introduced heroin, which they believed was a nonaddictive opiate with analgesic properties superior to morphine. B) Cough syrups with heroin were promoted for their effectiveness in adults and children alike. C) Heroin is actually six times more addictive than morphine. D) Heroin addiction has caused long-standing drug and crime problems in the United States. E) The greatest producer of heroin is Peru. 24) The first peoples known to have used marijuana as a psychoactive plant were the A) Cyprians. B) Incas. C) Spartans. D) Scythians. E) Mayans. 25) Marijuana with the highest THC content is grown under ________ conditions. A) hot and moist B) cool and moist C) cool and dry D) hot and dry E) None of the above is correct. 26) THC mimics a compound that binds to receptors in the brain. This compound in the brain that is mimicked by THC is called ________. A) anandamide B) 2AG C) CBD D) dopamine E) cyclic AMP 27) THC mainly affects the regions of the brain involved in which of the following? A) speech B) motor activities C) digestion D) breathing E) tactile sensations 28) Marijuana shows promise in treating which of the following conditions? A) Parkinson's disease. B) multiple sclerosis. C) PTSD D) wound healing. E) All of the above conditions can be treated by substances from marijuana.

29) The first peoples known to have used coca as a psychoactive plant were whom of the following? A) Cyprians B) Incas C) Spartans D) Scythians E) Mayans 30) Which statement about Datura stramonium is not correct? A) It contains a tropine alkaloid that is used to treat motion sickness B) It is in the nightshade family C) It can be toxic D) It contains atropine that dilates pupils E) All of these statements about D. stramonium are correct. 31) Medically, cocaine is an effective ________. A) blood thinning agent B) regulator of birth contractions C) local anesthetic D) treatment for migraines E) wound healer 32) Which of the following is an adverse effect of cocaine use? A) addiction B) psychosis C) damage to nasal cartilage D) sudden death E) All of these are adverse effects of cocaine use. 33) This psychoactive plant is an herbaceous annual that is a natural tetraploid hybrid. It has large leaves and a terminal inflorescence. This psychoactive plant is called ________. A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii 34) The first narcotic used in South America was which of the following? A) tobacco B) cocaine C) peyote D) marijuana E) opium

35) Ambil is a product made from which of the following? A) coca leaves B) marijuana roots C) tobacco leaves D) opium E) peyote 36) The active compound from this psychoactive plant is similar in structure to a neurotransmitter. When ingested the dried buttons cause vivid hallucinations that may be pleasant or unpleasant. Physical effects include nausea and tremors. This psychoactive plant is classified as which of the following? A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii 37) Which of the following is the most often used psychoactive substance in the world? A) Opium B) Caffeine C) Cocaine D) Mescaline E) Heroin 38) Morning glory seeds contain the psychoactive compound ________. A) cocaine B) THC C) D-lysergic acid D) belladonna E) morphine 39) In the preparation of this narcotic, roots are chewed, spit out, and mixed with water. The plant from which this narcotic is derived is classified as which of the following? A) Erythroxylum coca. B) Papaver somniferum. C) Piper methysticum. D) Lophophora williamsii. E) Ipomoea violoaceae. 40) Of all the psychoactive plants covered in this chapter, the one responsible for the most human deaths is classified as which of the following? A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

41) Which of the following hallucinogenic plants is a cactus? A) morning glory B) peyote C) nutmeg D) marijuana E) None of the above are correct. 42) Mescaline is the major active compound derived from which of the following? A) peyote B) marijuana C) poppies D) ergot E) None of the above are correct. 43) Which of the following psychoactive plants contains amides of D-lysergic acid alkaloids? A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Ipomoea violoaceae E) Lophophora williamsii 44) Which part of Cannabis has the highest concentration of the hallucinogen THC? A) lower leaves B) female flowers C) resin D) seeds E) All of the above are correct. 45) The use of Cannabis can be traced back to which of the following countries? A) India B) China C) Suriname D) Peru E) Gondwanaland 46) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Three grades of Cannabis are recognized: bhang, ganja, and charas. B) The word for "assassin" derives from the word hashishins, which is also a root for the word of the resin, hashish. C) In Paris, hashish clubs were common meeting places for intellectuals, writers, poets, and artists. D) Cannabinoids are phenolic compounds. E) The number of people dying annually from Cannabis abuse numbers in the hundreds of thousands—far greater than the number of deaths from alcohol and tobacco use combined.

47) The concentration of THC (delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol) varies considerably, depending on which of the following? A) genetic strain B) sex C) climate D) growing conditions E) All of the above can affect the concentration of THC. 48) Opiates can do all of the following except ________. A) deaden pain B) impair digestion C) dull awareness D) stimulate the nervous system E) cause hallucinations 49) Which of the following statements about tobacco is not correct? A) Nicotine is synthesized in the roots. B) Tobacco is a member of the nightshade family. C) Tobacco is mildly addictive. D) Nicotiana tabacum is the predominant tobacco cultivar. E) All of the above are correct. 50) Name the seedless variety of marijuana that produces the highest levels of THC. A) oriental B) indica C) ganja D) sinsemilla E) None of the above are correct. 51) The pure resin from flowering female marijuana plants is called ________. A) charas or hashish B) ganja C) bhang D) dagga E) medicinalis 52) A member of the pepper family, the root of this plant is used to prepare a popular beverage in Polynesia that acts as a depressant upon the CNS. A) Cannabis sativa B) Erythroxylum coca C) Piper methysticum D) Atropa belladonna 53) The use of psychoactive plants probably dates back to prehistory.

54) Psychoactive plants are still used today to reduce pain, relieve fatigue and hunger, and enhance spirituality. 55) The neurons sending out neurotransmitters into synapses are always the postsynaptic neurons. 56) The major active ingredient in opium is the alkaloid heroin. 57) Crack is prepared by heating cocaine hydrochloride with baking soda. 58) By the end of the Opium Wars (after 1913), nearly 25% of the Chinese population of China was addicted to opium. 59) More than 20 potent alkaloids have been identified in opium, with morphine and codeine probably being the most significant. 60) The chewing of coca leaves for its mild stimulating effects dates back to 1500 B.C. in India. 61) The active ingredient in most psychoactive drugs is an alkaloid. 62) It is important to remember that there is always a large distinction between drugs that are medicinal, psychoactive, and toxicity. 63) In contemporary use, the term narcotic applies to any psychoactive compound that is dangerously addictive. 64) A hallucinogen by legal definition is any dangerously addictive drug, e.g. heroin or cocaine. 65) The development of the hypodermic syringe accelerated the spread of morphine addiction. 66) Secondary smoke from cigarettes has not been shown to pose a health risk. 67) The active principals in most psychoactive plants are classified as secondary plant products. 68) Opiates have been used indiscriminately in the past to control such common ailments as diarrhea and coughing. 69) Heroin addiction is on the rise in the United States because it is much purer and much cheaper than it was just 50 years ago. 70) The phrase "going cold turkey" used to describe the abrupt cessation of a drug habit because "goose bumps" became prominent in a person undergoing opiate withdrawal. 71) Tolerance means requiring ever-increasing amounts of a drug to obtain stronger effects. 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

72) All alkaloids contain nitrogen and have a basic pH.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 20 Psychoactive Plants 1) The main effect of psychoactive drugs is on the brain's ________. A) neurotransmitters B) sensory neurons C) motor neurons D) interneurons E) More than one of these are correct Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Addictive compounds generally elicit one or more of which of the following? A) Psychological dependence B) Physiological dependence C) Tolerance D) Have an effect on the mesolimbic dopamine system E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Cocaine can do which of the following? A) relieve pain B) act as a stimulant C) cause death D) cause addiction E) Cocaine can do all of the above. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) All of these psychoactive drugs are correctly paired with their effect except one. Choose the exception. A) cocaine :: stimulant B) kava :: hallucinogen C) nutmeg :: hallucinogen D) opium :: depressant E) tobacco :: stimulant Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) The level of what neurotransmitter is elevated by all addictive drugs? A) serotonin B) endorphin C) dopamine D) oxytocin E) The level of more than one of these neurotransmitters is elevated by all addictive drugs. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following is a correct statement about the effects of stimulants and opiates on neurotransmitters? A) Stimulants disrupt the transport of neurotransmitters back to their site of origin to be reabsorbed and opiates inhibit the shutdown of neurotransmitter production. B) Both stimulants and opiates disrupt the transport of neurotransmitters back to their site of origin to be reabsorbed. C) Opiates disrupt the transport of neurotransmitters back to their site of origin to be reabsorbed and stimulants inhibit the shutdown of neurotransmitter production. D) Both stimulants and opiates inhibit the shutdown of neurotransmitter production. E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

7) What is the name of the area in the brain that is the origin of the "reward pathway"? A) Dopamine B) Ventral Tegmental Area C) Lateral sinus D) Corpus callosum E) Corpora quadrigemina Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Which of the following is a correct statement about psychoactive drug effects in the brain? A) The neurotransmitter involved attaches to receptors in the ventral tegmental area and causes its psychoactive effect. B) Chronic drug abuse causes the neurotransmitter involved to release cyclic AMP. C) Chronic drug abuse causes cyclic AMP to activate a translation factor called VTA. D) Chronic drug abuse causes VTA to inhibit the production of the neurotransmitter involved. E) All of these are true statements about the psychoactive drug effects in the brain. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) VTA, NA, cyclic AMP, and CREB are all factors involved in which of the following conditions? A) psychological dependence B) physiological dependence C) tolerance D) resistance E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) The active compound in all the following psychoactive plants is an alkaloid except one. Choose the exception. A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

11) What is the name of the signaling molecule that activates a transcription factor (CREB), that then triggers certain genes to dull the reward circuit by inhibiting the dopamine-producing neurons of the VTA? A) ATP B) NADP C) Cyclic AMP D) AMP E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) Which part of the poppy plant produces the exudate used in making opium? A) the leaves B) the roots C) the seeds D) the fruits E) the stems Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) Which of the following choices applies to the opium poppy? A) It is a large annual herb of the family Papaveraceae. B) After pollination, the ovary matures into a capsule. C) The milky sap of the green capsule exudes a white latex rich in alkaloids. D) It is native to the Middle East. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Laudanum is a tincture of alcohol and which of the following? A) opium B) marijuana C) heroin D) peyote E) tobacco Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) Widespread opium addiction in China ended after which of the following took place? A) first opium war B) establishment of the People's Republic of China C) second opium war D) Japanese invasion in World War II E) United States intervened to stop it Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) Which of the following is a correct statement about opium? A) Opium has been eaten, drunk, and smoked for centuries. B) The usual method of preparation for opium as medication was to dissolve the crude opium in wine. C) Hippocrates advocated poppy wine as a medicine for many complaints. D) The tincture of opium, called laudanum, was a popular medication for centuries. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Morphine is an alkaloid found in the psychoactive plant taxonomically known as which of the following? A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Which of the following neurotransmitter receptors is affected by morphine? A) serotonin B) endorphin C) dopamine D) oxytocin E) adrenaline Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

19) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) More than 20 alkaloids have been found in opium, with morphine and codeine the most significant. B) Morphine was named after Morpheus, the Greek god of dreams. C) Morphine is unsurpassed in its ability to deaden pain. D) Morphine was always administered by syringe. E) Morphine binds to the endorphin receptor sites and mimics endorphin's actions. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) Heroin was believed to be superior to codeine as which of the following? A) pain reliever B) cough suppressant C) headache potion D) cure for diarrhea E) wound treatment Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) This psychoactive plant is a dioecious annual with distinctive palmately compound leaves. This psychoactive plant is A) Papaver somniferum. B) Erythroxylum coca. C) Cannabis sativa. D) Nicotiana tabacum. E) Lophophora williamsii. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) Which of the following is correct about the history of opium? A) Opium use has only a minor historical connection with China. B) Opium use began to increase when smoking tobacco was introduced to China. C) The British wanted a favorable trade balance with China. D) The Chinese had virtually no interest European goods. E) All of the above are correct statements about the history of opium. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

23) Which of the following is not correct about heroin? A) The Bayer company introduced heroin, which they believed was a nonaddictive opiate with analgesic properties superior to morphine. B) Cough syrups with heroin were promoted for their effectiveness in adults and children alike. C) Heroin is actually six times more addictive than morphine. D) Heroin addiction has caused long-standing drug and crime problems in the United States. E) The greatest producer of heroin is Peru. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) The first peoples known to have used marijuana as a psychoactive plant were the A) Cyprians. B) Incas. C) Spartans. D) Scythians. E) Mayans. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Marijuana with the highest THC content is grown under ________ conditions. A) hot and moist B) cool and moist C) cool and dry D) hot and dry E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) THC mimics a compound that binds to receptors in the brain. This compound in the brain that is mimicked by THC is called ________. A) anandamide B) 2AG C) CBD D) dopamine E) cyclic AMP Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

27) THC mainly affects the regions of the brain involved in which of the following? A) speech B) motor activities C) digestion D) breathing E) tactile sensations Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Marijuana shows promise in treating which of the following conditions? A) Parkinson's disease. B) multiple sclerosis. C) PTSD D) wound healing. E) All of the above conditions can be treated by substances from marijuana. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) The first peoples known to have used coca as a psychoactive plant were whom of the following? A) Cyprians B) Incas C) Spartans D) Scythians E) Mayans Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Which statement about Datura stramonium is not correct? A) It contains a tropine alkaloid that is used to treat motion sickness B) It is in the nightshade family C) It can be toxic D) It contains atropine that dilates pupils E) All of these statements about D. stramonium are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

31) Medically, cocaine is an effective ________. A) blood thinning agent B) regulator of birth contractions C) local anesthetic D) treatment for migraines E) wound healer Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) Which of the following is an adverse effect of cocaine use? A) addiction B) psychosis C) damage to nasal cartilage D) sudden death E) All of these are adverse effects of cocaine use. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) This psychoactive plant is an herbaceous annual that is a natural tetraploid hybrid. It has large leaves and a terminal inflorescence. This psychoactive plant is called ________. A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) The first narcotic used in South America was which of the following? A) tobacco B) cocaine C) peyote D) marijuana E) opium Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

35) Ambil is a product made from which of the following? A) coca leaves B) marijuana roots C) tobacco leaves D) opium E) peyote Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) The active compound from this psychoactive plant is similar in structure to a neurotransmitter. When ingested the dried buttons cause vivid hallucinations that may be pleasant or unpleasant. Physical effects include nausea and tremors. This psychoactive plant is classified as which of the following? A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Which of the following is the most often used psychoactive substance in the world? A) Opium B) Caffeine C) Cocaine D) Mescaline E) Heroin Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Morning glory seeds contain the psychoactive compound ________. A) cocaine B) THC C) D-lysergic acid D) belladonna E) morphine Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

39) In the preparation of this narcotic, roots are chewed, spit out, and mixed with water. The plant from which this narcotic is derived is classified as which of the following? A) Erythroxylum coca. B) Papaver somniferum. C) Piper methysticum. D) Lophophora williamsii. E) Ipomoea violoaceae. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Of all the psychoactive plants covered in this chapter, the one responsible for the most human deaths is classified as which of the following? A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Nicotiana tabacum E) Lophophora williamsii Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) Which of the following hallucinogenic plants is a cactus? A) morning glory B) peyote C) nutmeg D) marijuana E) None of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Mescaline is the major active compound derived from which of the following? A) peyote B) marijuana C) poppies D) ergot E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

43) Which of the following psychoactive plants contains amides of D-lysergic acid alkaloids? A) Papaver somniferum B) Erythroxylum coca C) Cannabis sativa D) Ipomoea violoaceae E) Lophophora williamsii Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) Which part of Cannabis has the highest concentration of the hallucinogen THC? A) lower leaves B) female flowers C) resin D) seeds E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) The use of Cannabis can be traced back to which of the following countries? A) India B) China C) Suriname D) Peru E) Gondwanaland Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

46) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Three grades of Cannabis are recognized: bhang, ganja, and charas. B) The word for "assassin" derives from the word hashishins, which is also a root for the word of the resin, hashish. C) In Paris, hashish clubs were common meeting places for intellectuals, writers, poets, and artists. D) Cannabinoids are phenolic compounds. E) The number of people dying annually from Cannabis abuse numbers in the hundreds of thousands—far greater than the number of deaths from alcohol and tobacco use combined. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) The concentration of THC (delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol) varies considerably, depending on which of the following? A) genetic strain B) sex C) climate D) growing conditions E) All of the above can affect the concentration of THC. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Opiates can do all of the following except ________. A) deaden pain B) impair digestion C) dull awareness D) stimulate the nervous system E) cause hallucinations Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

49) Which of the following statements about tobacco is not correct? A) Nicotine is synthesized in the roots. B) Tobacco is a member of the nightshade family. C) Tobacco is mildly addictive. D) Nicotiana tabacum is the predominant tobacco cultivar. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) Name the seedless variety of marijuana that produces the highest levels of THC. A) oriental B) indica C) ganja D) sinsemilla E) None of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The pure resin from flowering female marijuana plants is called ________. A) charas or hashish B) ganja C) bhang D) dagga E) medicinalis Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) A member of the pepper family, the root of this plant is used to prepare a popular beverage in Polynesia that acts as a depressant upon the CNS. A) Cannabis sativa B) Erythroxylum coca C) Piper methysticum D) Atropa belladonna Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

53) The use of psychoactive plants probably dates back to prehistory. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Psychoactive plants are still used today to reduce pain, relieve fatigue and hunger, and enhance spirituality. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) The neurons sending out neurotransmitters into synapses are always the postsynaptic neurons. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) The major active ingredient in opium is the alkaloid heroin. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) Crack is prepared by heating cocaine hydrochloride with baking soda. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) By the end of the Opium Wars (after 1913), nearly 25% of the Chinese population of China was addicted to opium. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) More than 20 potent alkaloids have been identified in opium, with morphine and codeine probably being the most significant. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

60) The chewing of coca leaves for its mild stimulating effects dates back to 1500 B.C. in India. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) The active ingredient in most psychoactive drugs is an alkaloid. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) It is important to remember that there is always a large distinction between drugs that are medicinal, psychoactive, and toxicity. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) In contemporary use, the term narcotic applies to any psychoactive compound that is dangerously addictive. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) A hallucinogen by legal definition is any dangerously addictive drug, e.g. heroin or cocaine. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 65) The development of the hypodermic syringe accelerated the spread of morphine addiction. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) Secondary smoke from cigarettes has not been shown to pose a health risk. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

67) The active principals in most psychoactive plants are classified as secondary plant products. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) Opiates have been used indiscriminately in the past to control such common ailments as diarrhea and coughing. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) Heroin addiction is on the rise in the United States because it is much purer and much cheaper than it was just 50 years ago. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 70) The phrase "going cold turkey" used to describe the abrupt cessation of a drug habit because "goose bumps" became prominent in a person undergoing opiate withdrawal. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) Tolerance means requiring ever-increasing amounts of a drug to obtain stronger effects. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 72) All alkaloids contain nitrogen and have a basic pH. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 21 Poisonous and Allergy Plants 1) Joe the bartender first felt his feet become paralyzed, then his legs beneath the knee, followed by his legs above the knee. The paralysis continued moving up his body and in a very short time, paralysis of his diaphragm caused respiratory failure and his death. What poison likely killed Joe the bartender? A) hemlock B) curare C) milkweed juice D) strychnine E) usnic acid 2) Destiny the dentist suddenly felt all her muscles relax at the same time. She could not talk and found swallowing difficult. She eventually died from asphyxiation. What poison likely killed Destiny the dentist? A) hemlock B) curare C) milkweed juice D) strychnine E) usnic acid 3) Manuel the software developer suddenly saw a big flash of light and started having violent convulsions. Twenty-four hours later, he was dead. What poison likely killed Manuel the software developer? A) hemlock B) curare C) milkweed juice D) strychnine E) usnic acid 4) All of the plants below are correctly paired with the toxic compound they produce except one. Choose the exception. A) Strychnos toxifera :: curare B) Conicum maculatum :: cicutoxin C) Asclepius spp. :: galitoxin D) Nerium oleander :: nerioside E) Sophora secundiflora :: cytisine 5) How does curare have its effect? A) It overstimulates the central nervous system. B) It blocks neurotransmitter receptors in the motor cortex of the brain. C) It blocks nerve impulses to muscles. D) It inhibits the heart pacemaker causing the heart to stop beating. E) It causes the lysing of ribosome thus stopping protein synthesis. 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

6) Which of the following statements is not correct about usnic acid? A) It is a secondary product found in species of Asclepias. B) It is antiviral and antibacterial. C) It blocks the production of carotenoids. D) It has been used as a weight-loss supplement. E) It has been responsible for killing wild elk. 7) Allelopathy in desert environments probably evolved in response to which of the following? A) pollinator competition B) discouraging herbivory C) fruit dispersal D) competition for resources, especially water. E) foraging by indigenous peoples 8) This plant produces a cloud of allelopathic compounds that is washed into the soil by rain and is a powerful inhibitor of plants that would grow close by. This plant is classified as which of the following? A) Artemesia californica. B) Callistemon citrinus. C) Encella farinose. D) Salvia leucophylla. E) More than one of the above are correct. 9) Which of the following is an allelopathic compound that was used to develop a natural herbicide? A) juglone B) leptospermone C) cineole D) tyrosine E) guayule 10) Grayanotoxins are found in which of the following plants? A) oleander B) yews C) rhododendrons D) castor beans E) lily-of-the-valley

11) Several days after a meal of bean soup, Lenora the blacksmith started vomiting and had diarrhea. She felt like her mouth and throat were on fire. Later, she started bleeding from her eyes and coughing up blood. She eventually died from kidney failure. What poison killed Lenora the blacksmith? A) ricin B) saponin C) cytisine D) andromedotoxin E) neroside 12) What part of the ricin molecule is the toxin? A) the disulfide bond B) the polypeptide A chain C) the polypeptide B chain D) the vesicle that surrounds it E) None of the above is correct. 13) Gunther consumed some red seeds and had hallucinations of what he thought might be his future. After eating some more red seeds, Gunther's respiratory muscles became paralyzed and he died from asphyxiation. From what plant were the seeds that Gunther consumed? A) Ambrosia trifida B) Cynodon dactylis C) Sophora secundiflora D) Conium maculatum E) None of the above is correct. 14) Which of the following compounds blocks the breakdown of lactic acid and leads to acidosis? A) galitoxin B) tremetol C) urushiol D) cytisine E) nerioside 15) How does ricin stop protein synthesis? A) It hardens cell membranes making it impossible for amino acids to enter the cell. B) It pokes holes in the rough endoplasmic reticula. C) It destroys ribosomes by lysing them. D) It prevents Golgi apparatus vesicles from forming. E) Ricin does all of the above.

16) All of the toxins below are correctly paired with the physiological effects they cause except one. Choose the exception. A) coniine — paralysis begins in lower limbs and moves upward eventually paralyzing the diaphragm B) cytisine — hallucinations followed by paralysis of respiratory muscles C) tremetol — acidosis and lethargy D) saponins — rapid and acute muscle paralysis E) All of the above matches are correct. 17) Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? A) Plants produce nearly 400,000 known secondary compounds. B) High concentrations of tannins attract insects to oak trees. C) Cyanogens are not toxic and do not affect the hormonal balance and life cycles of insects. D) Rotenone is derived from Chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium. E) All of the above are incorrect statements. 18) Which of the following botanical insecticides is effective against garden and host pests but also highly toxic to fish? A) rotenone B) neem oil C) pyrethrum D) nicotine E) cardiac glycosides 19) What is the function of B-lymphocytes? A) They bind directly to antigens B) They produce antibodies C) They produce antigens D) They release histamine E) B-lymphocytes have all of these functions 20) Which of the following antibodies is involved in the allergic reaction? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM 21) Which of the following compounds is responsible for the symptoms of an allergic response? A) histamine B) usnic acid C) cytisine D) glutamine E) More than one of these compounds is responsible for the symptoms of an allergic response. 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

22) A foreign substance that triggers an immune response is classified as which of the following? A) antibody B) antigen C) lymphocytes D) immunoglobulin E) basophil 23) Hay fever is more properly called which of the following? A) contact dermatitis B) allergic dermatitis C) allergic rhinitis D) allergic asthma E) contact rhinitis 24) Which of the following statements is not correct about asthma? A) An asthma attack can be triggered by exercise. B) One sign of asthma is excess mucus secretion. C) Hay fever can lead to asthma. D) The incidence of asthma has increased in recent years. E) The incidence of asthma has sharply declined in recent years. 25) The allergens in pollen are classified as which of the following? A) glycoproteins. B) lipoproteins. C) immunoglobulins. D) lymphocytes E) glycosides. 26) Which of the following is correct about the immune system? A) The basis of the immune system is the ability to distinguish between "self" and "nonself" molecules. B) When foreign substances are detected by the immune system, antibodies are often produced. C) The IgE class of antibodies is involved in allergic reactions. D) Lymphocytes produce IgE antibodies that are attached to the surface of basophils and mast cells. E) All of the above are correct. 27) Most hay fever in late summer and early fall is caused by pollen from the plant species ________. A) Juniperus ashei B) Ambrosia artemisiifolia C) Cynodon dactylis D) Toxicodendron radicans E) Encella farinosa

28) The leading cause of "hay fever" in early summer are commonly which of the following? A) molds B) angiosperm trees C) grasses D) weeds E) conifers 29) The study of periodic plant life cycle events is called ________. A) phrenology B) etiology C) genealogy D) phenology E) philology 30) Amal published a scientific paper on flowering cycles of Quercus garryana. Amal would be a(n)________. A) etiologist B) phenologist C) pathologist D) philologist E) phrenologist 31) Studies of honeysuckle flowering over the last several decades show which of the following? A) Flowering is occurring earlier in spring with each decade. B) The number of flowers being produced has decreased dramatically. C) Flowers have become progressively smaller. D) Flowering is occurring for shorter periods of time in the spring. E) All of these events are occurring. 32) As CO2 concentrations in the atmosphere continue to increase, which of the following will be the probable effect? A) increased plant biomass worldwide B) increased incidence of hay fever C) increased incidence of asthma D) increase in the size and toxicity of poison ivy E) All of the above will likely happen. 33) Poison oak currently does not have a natural distribution in which of the following areas? A) California B) Oregon C) Arizona D) Washington E) Michigan

34) Which of the following is an allergen that causes contact dermatitis? A) usnic acid B) glochid C) urushiol D) histamine E) pyrethrum 35) Which of the following is a food not known to be allergenic? A) allspice B) brazil nut C) chocolate D) garlic E) apples 36) Which of the following is correct about ragweed? A) It is an alien species to North America. B) There are only annual species. C) Ambrosia trifida is a short species under a foot in height. D) The pollen wall proteins are responsible for triggering the IgE-mediated response. E) Ragweed has not reached Europe as of this time. 37) A plant that produces non-allergenic latex that may be a viable replacement for the natural latex currently in use is which of the following? A) Hevea brasillensis B) Parthenium argentatum C) Veratrum californicum D) Euphorbia marginata E) Salvia leucophylla 38) Allergic reactions to latex products include which of the following? A) allergic rhinitis B) conjunctivitis C) asthma D) anaphylaxis E) All of the above may be allergic reactions to latex. 39) A rare and sometimes fatal allergic reaction characterized by a rapid drop in blood pressure and cardiovascular collapse is known as which of the following? A) analgesia B) hives C) anaphylaxis D) eczema E) rhinitis

40) The Monarch butterfly stores cardiac glycosides obtained when the caterpillar feeds on what poisonous plant? A) poison hemlock B) oleander C) St. John's wort D) milkweed E) ragweed 41) Which botanical insecticide is made from the dried and ground-up flowers of Chrysanthemum? A) rotenone B) neem oil C) pyrethrum D) nicotine E) All of the above are correct. 42) Toxicodendron radicans is a member of which plant family? A) Ulmaceae B) Anacardiaceae C) Aesclepiadaceae D) Poaceae E) Asteraceae 43) ________ belong to a family of common houseplants that are poisonous because of the presence of calcium oxalate crystals which will inflame the tongue and throat if eaten. 44) ________ is an arrow poison that has found to have medical value as a muscle relaxant during surgery. 45) The drink from the juice of ________ ________ was the method of capital punishment in ancient Athens. 46) ________ ________ is a case of human poisoning caused by drinking the milk of cows who have grazed on white snakeroot. 47) The leaves and stems of the ________ ________ are covered with hypodermic-like hairs that, when brushed against, inject irritating compounds into the skin. 48) ________ is a natural insecticide from the roots of several tropical legumes that was originally used by indigenous peoples in South America to stun fish and make their capture easier. 49) ________ is a type of interaction between plants in which chemicals are released into the environment that inhibit the growth and development of competing plants.

50) Sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes are typical symptoms of hay fever, which is technically called ________ ________. 51) ________ is unique in its action on the body in the way it amplifies sensitivity of sight, touch, smell, and hearing. 52) ________ are plant compounds that make the skin more susceptible to ultraviolet radiation, often inducing a blistery sunburn. 53) "Hayfever" can only be caused by airborne pollen grains from species of Ambrosia. 54) Antibodies are produced by basophils. 55) The genus Ambrosia contains numerous species of plants commonly called ragweed. 56) Medications that can control the symptoms of respiratory allergies are called antihistamines. 57) Increased use of gloves for protection in medical and dental practice has increased the incidence of latex allergy. 58) Strychnine said to be the deadliest natural poison, is a toxic protein found in the mottled seeds of the common castor bean. 59) Usnic acid is a naturally occurring compound found in lichen species used in cosmetics, deodorants, toothpaste and medicinal creams. 60) The use of products made from a desert shrub called snake root is being suggested as a substitute for natural rubber to eliminate allergic reactions.

4) All of the plants below are correctly paired with the toxic compound they produce except one. Choose the exception. A) Strychnos toxifera :: curare B) Conicum maculatum :: cicutoxin C) Asclepius spp. :: galitoxin D) Nerium oleander :: nerioside E) Sophora secundiflora :: cytisine Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) How does curare have its effect? A) It overstimulates the central nervous system. B) It blocks neurotransmitter receptors in the motor cortex of the brain. C) It blocks nerve impulses to muscles. D) It inhibits the heart pacemaker causing the heart to stop beating. E) It causes the lysing of ribosome thus stopping protein synthesis. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following statements is not correct about usnic acid? A) It is a secondary product found in species of Asclepias. B) It is antiviral and antibacterial. C) It blocks the production of carotenoids. D) It has been used as a weight-loss supplement. E) It has been responsible for killing wild elk. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Allelopathy in desert environments probably evolved in response to which of the following? A) pollinator competition B) discouraging herbivory C) fruit dispersal D) competition for resources, especially water. E) foraging by indigenous peoples Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

8) This plant produces a cloud of allelopathic compounds that is washed into the soil by rain and is a powerful inhibitor of plants that would grow close by. This plant is classified as which of the following? A) Artemesia californica. B) Callistemon citrinus. C) Encella farinose. D) Salvia leucophylla. E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Which of the following is an allelopathic compound that was used to develop a natural herbicide? A) juglone B) leptospermone C) cineole D) tyrosine E) guayule Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Grayanotoxins are found in which of the following plants? A) oleander B) yews C) rhododendrons D) castor beans E) lily-of-the-valley Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

11) Several days after a meal of bean soup, Lenora the blacksmith started vomiting and had diarrhea. She felt like her mouth and throat were on fire. Later, she started bleeding from her eyes and coughing up blood. She eventually died from kidney failure. What poison killed Lenora the blacksmith? A) ricin B) saponin C) cytisine D) andromedotoxin E) neroside Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) What part of the ricin molecule is the toxin? A) the disulfide bond B) the polypeptide A chain C) the polypeptide B chain D) the vesicle that surrounds it E) None of the above is correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) Gunther consumed some red seeds and had hallucinations of what he thought might be his future. After eating some more red seeds, Gunther's respiratory muscles became paralyzed and he died from asphyxiation. From what plant were the seeds that Gunther consumed? A) Ambrosia trifida B) Cynodon dactylis C) Sophora secundiflora D) Conium maculatum E) None of the above is correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

14) Which of the following compounds blocks the breakdown of lactic acid and leads to acidosis? A) galitoxin B) tremetol C) urushiol D) cytisine E) nerioside Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) How does ricin stop protein synthesis? A) It hardens cell membranes making it impossible for amino acids to enter the cell. B) It pokes holes in the rough endoplasmic reticula. C) It destroys ribosomes by lysing them. D) It prevents Golgi apparatus vesicles from forming. E) Ricin does all of the above. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) All of the toxins below are correctly paired with the physiological effects they cause except one. Choose the exception. A) coniine — paralysis begins in lower limbs and moves upward eventually paralyzing the diaphragm B) cytisine — hallucinations followed by paralysis of respiratory muscles C) tremetol — acidosis and lethargy D) saponins — rapid and acute muscle paralysis E) All of the above matches are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? A) Plants produce nearly 400,000 known secondary compounds. B) High concentrations of tannins attract insects to oak trees. C) Cyanogens are not toxic and do not affect the hormonal balance and life cycles of insects. D) Rotenone is derived from Chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium. E) All of the above are incorrect statements. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

18) Which of the following botanical insecticides is effective against garden and host pests but also highly toxic to fish? A) rotenone B) neem oil C) pyrethrum D) nicotine E) cardiac glycosides Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) What is the function of B-lymphocytes? A) They bind directly to antigens B) They produce antibodies C) They produce antigens D) They release histamine E) B-lymphocytes have all of these functions Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) Which of the following antibodies is involved in the allergic reaction? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Which of the following compounds is responsible for the symptoms of an allergic response? A) histamine B) usnic acid C) cytisine D) glutamine E) More than one of these compounds is responsible for the symptoms of an allergic response. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

22) A foreign substance that triggers an immune response is classified as which of the following? A) antibody B) antigen C) lymphocytes D) immunoglobulin E) basophil Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Hay fever is more properly called which of the following? A) contact dermatitis B) allergic dermatitis C) allergic rhinitis D) allergic asthma E) contact rhinitis Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Which of the following statements is not correct about asthma? A) An asthma attack can be triggered by exercise. B) One sign of asthma is excess mucus secretion. C) Hay fever can lead to asthma. D) The incidence of asthma has increased in recent years. E) The incidence of asthma has sharply declined in recent years. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) The allergens in pollen are classified as which of the following? A) glycoproteins. B) lipoproteins. C) immunoglobulins. D) lymphocytes E) glycosides. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

26) Which of the following is correct about the immune system? A) The basis of the immune system is the ability to distinguish between "self" and "nonself" molecules. B) When foreign substances are detected by the immune system, antibodies are often produced. C) The IgE class of antibodies is involved in allergic reactions. D) Lymphocytes produce IgE antibodies that are attached to the surface of basophils and mast cells. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Most hay fever in late summer and early fall is caused by pollen from the plant species ________. A) Juniperus ashei B) Ambrosia artemisiifolia C) Cynodon dactylis D) Toxicodendron radicans E) Encella farinosa Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) The leading cause of "hay fever" in early summer are commonly which of the following? A) molds B) angiosperm trees C) grasses D) weeds E) conifers Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) The study of periodic plant life cycle events is called ________. A) phrenology B) etiology C) genealogy D) phenology E) philology Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

30) Amal published a scientific paper on flowering cycles of Quercus garryana. Amal would be a(n)________. A) etiologist B) phenologist C) pathologist D) philologist E) phrenologist Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Studies of honeysuckle flowering over the last several decades show which of the following? A) Flowering is occurring earlier in spring with each decade. B) The number of flowers being produced has decreased dramatically. C) Flowers have become progressively smaller. D) Flowering is occurring for shorter periods of time in the spring. E) All of these events are occurring. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) As CO2 concentrations in the atmosphere continue to increase, which of the following will be the probable effect? A) increased plant biomass worldwide B) increased incidence of hay fever C) increased incidence of asthma D) increase in the size and toxicity of poison ivy E) All of the above will likely happen. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Poison oak currently does not have a natural distribution in which of the following areas? A) California B) Oregon C) Arizona D) Washington E) Michigan Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

34) Which of the following is an allergen that causes contact dermatitis? A) usnic acid B) glochid C) urushiol D) histamine E) pyrethrum Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Which of the following is a food not known to be allergenic? A) allspice B) brazil nut C) chocolate D) garlic E) apples Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Which of the following is correct about ragweed? A) It is an alien species to North America. B) There are only annual species. C) Ambrosia trifida is a short species under a foot in height. D) The pollen wall proteins are responsible for triggering the IgE-mediated response. E) Ragweed has not reached Europe as of this time. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) A plant that produces non-allergenic latex that may be a viable replacement for the natural latex currently in use is which of the following? A) Hevea brasillensis B) Parthenium argentatum C) Veratrum californicum D) Euphorbia marginata E) Salvia leucophylla Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

38) Allergic reactions to latex products include which of the following? A) allergic rhinitis B) conjunctivitis C) asthma D) anaphylaxis E) All of the above may be allergic reactions to latex. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) A rare and sometimes fatal allergic reaction characterized by a rapid drop in blood pressure and cardiovascular collapse is known as which of the following? A) analgesia B) hives C) anaphylaxis D) eczema E) rhinitis Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) The Monarch butterfly stores cardiac glycosides obtained when the caterpillar feeds on what poisonous plant? A) poison hemlock B) oleander C) St. John's wort D) milkweed E) ragweed Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) Which botanical insecticide is made from the dried and ground-up flowers of Chrysanthemum? A) rotenone B) neem oil C) pyrethrum D) nicotine E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) Toxicodendron radicans is a member of which plant family? A) Ulmaceae B) Anacardiaceae C) Aesclepiadaceae D) Poaceae E) Asteraceae Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) ________ belong to a family of common houseplants that are poisonous because of the presence of calcium oxalate crystals which will inflame the tongue and throat if eaten. Answer: Aroids Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) ________ is an arrow poison that has found to have medical value as a muscle relaxant during surgery. Answer: Curare Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) The drink from the juice of ________ ________ was the method of capital punishment in ancient Athens. Answer: poison hemlock Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) ________ ________ is a case of human poisoning caused by drinking the milk of cows who have grazed on white snakeroot. Answer: Milk sickness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) The leaves and stems of the ________ ________ are covered with hypodermic-like hairs that, when brushed against, inject irritating compounds into the skin. Answer: stinging nettle Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

48) ________ is a natural insecticide from the roots of several tropical legumes that was originally used by indigenous peoples in South America to stun fish and make their capture easier. Answer: Rotenone Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) ________ is a type of interaction between plants in which chemicals are released into the environment that inhibit the growth and development of competing plants. Answer: Allelopathy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) Sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes are typical symptoms of hay fever, which is technically called ________ ________. Answer: allergic rhinitis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) ________ is unique in its action on the body in the way it amplifies sensitivity of sight, touch, smell, and hearing. Answer: Strychnine Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) ________ are plant compounds that make the skin more susceptible to ultraviolet radiation, often inducing a blistery sunburn. Answer: Phototoxins Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) "Hayfever" can only be caused by airborne pollen grains from species of Ambrosia. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

54) Antibodies are produced by basophils. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) The genus Ambrosia contains numerous species of plants commonly called ragweed. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Medications that can control the symptoms of respiratory allergies are called antihistamines. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) Increased use of gloves for protection in medical and dental practice has increased the incidence of latex allergy. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) Strychnine said to be the deadliest natural poison, is a toxic protein found in the mottled seeds of the common castor bean. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Usnic acid is a naturally occurring compound found in lichen species used in cosmetics, deodorants, toothpaste and medicinal creams. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) The use of products made from a desert shrub called snake root is being suggested as a substitute for natural rubber to eliminate allergic reactions. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 22 The Algae 1) In which of the following way(s) does (do) the algae differ from land plants? A) Algae do not have cell walls. B) Some algae do not have chlorophyll a. C) Some algae are not photosynthetic. D) Algae are not embryophytes. E) All of these are ways in which algae differ from land plants. 2) Which of the following statements is(are) correct about the algae? A) They are a diverse group of photosynthetic organisms. B) They range in size from microscopic single cells to giant, complex, multicellular organisms. C) They occupy the base of food chains in both freshwater and marine ecosystems. D) They have been used as food for humans throughout the world. E) All of the above are correct. 3) The ancestors of this organism first appeared in the fossil record about 3.5 billion years ago and has phycobillin accessory pigments. A) dinoflagellate B) euglena C) cyanobacterium D) diatom E) green alga 4) The most common thallus types include which of the following? A) Nonmotile, amoeboid, or flagellated B) Colonies that may be nonmotile or flagellated C) Chains or filaments that may be branched or unbranched D) Parenchymatous thalli that produce a three-dimensional structure in the form of blades, sheets, or tubes E) All of the above are varieties of thalli that appear in the algae. 5) A heterocyst is a cell specialized for which of the following functions? A) photosynthesis B) nitrogen fixation C) sexual reproduction D) cellular respiration E) external digestion

6) You discover a flagellated single-celled organism living in a freshwater pond. It has a greenish color, a pellicle, a short flagellum and a long flagellum, and a large red eye spot. You have likely discovered which of the following? A) dinoflagellate B) Euglena C) cyanobacterium D) diatom E) green alga 7) You discover a single-celled organism living in a tide pool encased within a glassy wall-like shell. It has a centric shape. You have likely discovered which of the following? A) dinoflagellate B) euglena C) cyanobacterium D) diatom E) green alga 8) The Kingdom Protista is probably polyphyletic. Which of the following protist groups is not correctly matched? A) Dinophyta :: dinoflagellates B) Bacillariophyta :: diatoms C) Phaeophyta :: brown algae D) Chlorophyta :: blue green bacteria E) Rhodophyta :: red algae 9) You discover a single-celled organism living in a freshwater pond. It is covered in cellulose plates and has two flagella. You have likely discovered which of the following? A) dinoflagellate B) Euglena C) cyanobacterium D) diatom E) Nostoc 10) Many cyanobacteria are enclosed in a ________ sheath. A) mucilaginous B) filamentous C) cartilaginous D) chitinized E) keratinized 11) When does sexual reproduction occur in diatoms? A) when ocean temperatures fall below 4°C B) after zoospores hibernate for several months C) after one of the frustule halves reaches a certain size D) after a diatom passes through the gut of an anemone E) None of the above are correct. 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) All of the following correctly pair up an organism with a unique structure or compound it possesses except one. Choose the exception. A) cyanobacteria :: heterocysts B) diatoms :: frustule C) red algae :: phycobillins D) brown algae :: alginic acid E) green algae :: conceptacles 13) From which of the following did land plants evolve? A) Rhodophytes B) Dinophytes C) Chlorophytes D) Phaeophytes E) Euglenophytes 14) Their high production of ________ make microalgae valuable for the production of biofuel. A) monosaccharides B) triglycerides C) polysaccharides D) waxes E) proteins 15) Diatoms, in the division Bacillariophyta, are mainly unicells surrounded by a silicon-based wall consisting of two halves, called a(n) ________. A) oogonium B) ephyra C) radula D) fructification E) None of the above are correct. 16) In the life cycle of a green alga, syngamy occurs between which of the following? A) zoospores B) sporangia C) gametes D) zygotes E) gametophytes 17) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Sexual reproduction of diatoms is through cell division. B) Diatoms are common in tropical oceans but rare in cold oceans. C) Brown algae include only the kelps. D) The Phaeophyta are the least complex of all the algae. E) In Fucus, the swollen areas at the ends of the blade are reproductive structures called receptacles. 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

18) Ulva is both ________ and ________. A) isogamous; heteromorphic B) anisogamous; heteromorphic C) anisogamous; isomorphic D) isogamous; isomorphic E) oogamous; isomorphic 19) In the life cycle of a green alga, meiosis specifically occurs in the ________. A) gametophyte B) sporangia C) gametangia D) sporophyte E) zygote 20) Based on genetic studies, the living genus of algae that most closely resembles the evolutionary ancestor of land plants is which of the following? A) Chlamydomonas B) Coleochaete C) Microcladia D) Fucus E) Laminaria 21) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The green algae are characterized by the presence of chlorophyll a and b. B) Various charophyte species show biochemical and ultrastructural features that are shared with land plant but not with chlorophytes. C) Green algae are classified in two divisions: Chlorophyta and Charophyta. D) Genetic analysis from DNA sequences supports the hypothesis that the charophytes are the closest living relatives of land plants. E) All of the above are correct. 22) The red color of red algae is due to which of the following? A) phycoerythrin B) chlorophyll c C) fucoxanthin D) carotene E) xanthophyll 23) In the life cycle of brown algae, meiosis specifically occurs in which of the following? A) oogonia B) antheridia C) the female thallus D) the male thallus E) More than one of the above are correct.

24) What is found in land plants that is lacking in Fucus? A) the pigment, chlorophyll B) multicellularity C) cellular nuclei D) a true alternation of generations E) More than one of the above are correct. 25) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The green algae are most abundant and diverse in the oceans. B) Many species of green algae are used as food. C) Sea lettuce (Ulva spp) is toxic until cooked. D) Zoospores are the products of meiosis. E) The Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic, unlike other true algae, which are eukaryotic. 26) Which of the following substances has been shown to block the replication of rhinoviruses? A) agar B) alginic acid C) carrageenan D) cellulose E) phycobillins 27) All of the following are genera being studied for the purpose of biofuel production except one. Choose the exception. A) Spirogyra B) Chlamydomonas C) Chlorella D) Anabaena E) Dunaliella 28) Which of the following matches is not correct? A) Kombu :: Laminaria japonica B) Dulse :: Rhodymenia and Palmaria C) Nori :: fertilizer D) Hydrocolloids :: agar and carrageenan E) None of the above are incorrect. 29) Which of the following is not a hydrocolloid? A) agar B) alginic acid C) carrageenan D) cellulose E) More than one of these are not a hydrocolloid

30) How do red algae differ from green and brown algae? A) They contain no form of chlorophyll. B) They have a multicellular thallus. C) Their gametes are not flagellated. D) Their environments are mainly marine. E) All of these are ways in which red algae differ from green and brown algae. 31) Porphrya is also known as which of the following? A) kombu. B) wakame. C) dulse. D) nori. E) More than one of the above are correct. 32) Which of the following high-protein "alga" was cultivated by the Aztecs and is a traditional food in Chad? A) Spirulina B) Nostoc C) Chlamydomonas D) Undaria E) Laminaria 33) Which of the following is a common component of ice cream and toothpaste? A) agar B) alginic acid C) carrageenan D) cellulose E) More than one of the above is a common component of ice cream and toothpaste. 34) Compounds isolated from Amphidinium have shown promise as which of the following? A) biofuels B) cancer-fighting agents C) a treatment for AIDS D) a stabilizing agent in a variety of foods E) being useful in all of these applications 35) One of the most toxic cyanobacteria is which of the following? A) Nostoc B) Azolla C) Anabaena D) Oscillatoria E) Gleobacter

36) How do toxins produced by Microcystis aeruginosa cause damage? A) by interfering with protein synthesis B) by breaking down the cytoskeleton C) by disrupting mitosis D) by poking holes in the nuclear membrane E) by doing all of the above 37) What organ is affected by the toxins produced by Microcystis aeruginosa? A) liver B) stomach C) pancreas D) heart E) small intestine 38) Anatoxin-a is used in research on which of the following? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Polio myelitis C) GERD D) Equine encephalitis E) Zika 39) Brevetoxins cause ________ in humans. A) diarrhea B) paralysis C) nerve damage D) respiratory illness E) all of these ailments 40) This dinoflagellate species is stimulated to producing toxins after consuming fish feces. The skin of fish affected by the toxin is destroyed and the affected fish die within hours after exposure to the toxin. This dinoflagellate species is classified as which one of the following species? A) Codium fragile B) Karenia brevis C) Pfiesteria piscicida D) Grateloupia turuturu E) Anas platyrhyncus 41) Which of the following is not correct? A) It has been difficult to secure adequate amounts of active algal compounds for screening and testing. B) Amphidinium produces a class of molecules known as amphidinolides. C) Some compounds from various types of algae show a range of activity against herpes and HIV viruses. D) Fucoidan is being used to treat chemical addiction in humans. E) Microcystins may cause liver failure. 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) Which of the following is not a contributing factor to the success of Caulerpa taxifolia? A) tolerance of broad range of temperatures B) an elaborate sexual reproduction strategy C) rapid growth rate D) its inedibility E) All of these are contributing factors to the success of Caulerpa taxifolia. 43) How is Caulerpa taxifolia and other siphonous algae different from typical green algae? A) They do not use chlorophyll a and b as photosynthetic pigments. B) They do not have a thallus. C) They have both zoospores and gametes in its life cycle. D) They are heteromorphic and heterotrophic. E) They are coenocytic and have a stolon. 44) The unicellular algae that cause "red tides" belong to the Division ________. A) Rhodophyta B) Bacillariophyta C) Chlorophyta D) Dinophyta E) Phaeophyta 45) Instead of a rigid cell wall, a proteinaceous pellicle occurs on organisms in the Division ________. A) Dinophyta B) Euglenophyta C) Chlorophyta D) Bacillariophyta E) Rhodophyta 46) Ciguatera poisoning is due to activities of which of the following? A) green algae B) diatoms C) dinoflagellates D) brown algae E) euglena 47) Algal blooms may affect which of the following? A) Drinking water B) Fish consumption C) "shellfish" consumption D) Aquatic bird reproduction E) All of the above can be affected by algal blooms.

48) Which of the following is a neurotoxin produced by members of the Cyanobacteria? A) hepatotoxin B) ciguatoxin C) mycotoxin D) anatoxin-a E) digitalin 49) Algal blooms are triggered by which of the following? A) rapid temperature change B) increasing salinity C) decreases in oxygen D) nutrient enrichment E) increases in carbon dioxide 50) Which group of algae can be differentiated into a holdfast, stipe, and blade? A) cyanobacteria B) brown algae C) dinoflagellates D) green algae E) red algae 51) The unicellular algae that cause "Red Tides" are known as ________. 52) In Fucus, the swollen areas at the ends of the blade are reproductive regions known as ________. 53) The body of an alga is termed the ________. 54) Diatoms with bilateral symmetry are known as ________ diatoms. 55) Agar and carrageenan are examples of chemicals called ________ which are used as emulsifiers, stabilizers, and gelling agents. 56) ________ ________ can be used as soil additive since it can act like a field of broken glass to discourage some microscopic garden pests. 57) ________ ________ is a product derived from the brown algae that imparts a smooth texture in both foods like icings and puddings and in industrial products like paints and hand lotions. 58) ________ have virtually indestructible shells of glass which have been used industrially for their polishing, filtering, and reflective properties. 59) Agar is derived from ________ ________ and is used as a growth medium for microorganisms. 60) Unlike land plants, algae lack true tissue differentiation. 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

61) The thallus or body of an alga can vary considerably from one-celled to many celled. 62) The dinoflagellates appeared on earth 3.5 billion years ago. 63) Reproduction is diverse among the various groups of algae; however, there is true retention of the embryo in any group. 64) In some cases, the diploid stage is only seen in the zygote. 65) Molecular evidence indicates that the algae are polyphyletic and represent several independent evolutionary lines. 66) Currently the "algae" are classified in two domains and at least six separate kingdoms. 67) Dinoflagellates only occur in marine environments. 68) The glass-like cell wall of diatoms is called a frustule. 69) The euglenoids are capable of producing an extremely powerful nerve toxin and are responsible for the phenomenon known as the Red Tide. 70) Spirulina, now a dietary protein supplement, was first grown in shallow ponds by the Aztecs. 71) Chlorophyll a and b occur in all divisions of algae but not the Cyanobacteria. 72) The genus Pfiesteria in the Division Chlorophyta is capable of forming toxic metabolites. 73) Dinoflagellates cause ciguatera poisoning, a type of food poisoning with bizarre neurological symptoms. 74) Invasive species usually have low reproductive rates. 75) Depletion of oxygen by algal blooms can actually cause the "death" of an entire ecosystem. 76) Siphonous algae have a tubular organization with no internal walls. 77) In biological control, a synthetic toxin is introduced to control the spread of an invasive species. 78) The Chlorophyta and Charophyta are part of the Kingdom Protista.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 22 The Algae 1) In which of the following way(s) does (do) the algae differ from land plants? A) Algae do not have cell walls. B) Some algae do not have chlorophyll a. C) Some algae are not photosynthetic. D) Algae are not embryophytes. E) All of these are ways in which algae differ from land plants. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following statements is(are) correct about the algae? A) They are a diverse group of photosynthetic organisms. B) They range in size from microscopic single cells to giant, complex, multicellular organisms. C) They occupy the base of food chains in both freshwater and marine ecosystems. D) They have been used as food for humans throughout the world. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) The ancestors of this organism first appeared in the fossil record about 3.5 billion years ago and has phycobillin accessory pigments. A) dinoflagellate B) euglena C) cyanobacterium D) diatom E) green alga Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) The most common thallus types include which of the following? A) Nonmotile, amoeboid, or flagellated B) Colonies that may be nonmotile or flagellated C) Chains or filaments that may be branched or unbranched D) Parenchymatous thalli that produce a three-dimensional structure in the form of blades, sheets, or tubes E) All of the above are varieties of thalli that appear in the algae. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) A heterocyst is a cell specialized for which of the following functions? A) photosynthesis B) nitrogen fixation C) sexual reproduction D) cellular respiration E) external digestion Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) You discover a flagellated single-celled organism living in a freshwater pond. It has a greenish color, a pellicle, a short flagellum and a long flagellum, and a large red eye spot. You have likely discovered which of the following? A) dinoflagellate B) Euglena C) cyanobacterium D) diatom E) green alga Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

7) You discover a single-celled organism living in a tide pool encased within a glassy wall-like shell. It has a centric shape. You have likely discovered which of the following? A) dinoflagellate B) euglena C) cyanobacterium D) diatom E) green alga Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) The Kingdom Protista is probably polyphyletic. Which of the following protist groups is not correctly matched? A) Dinophyta :: dinoflagellates B) Bacillariophyta :: diatoms C) Phaeophyta :: brown algae D) Chlorophyta :: blue green bacteria E) Rhodophyta :: red algae Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) You discover a single-celled organism living in a freshwater pond. It is covered in cellulose plates and has two flagella. You have likely discovered which of the following? A) dinoflagellate B) Euglena C) cyanobacterium D) diatom E) Nostoc Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Many cyanobacteria are enclosed in a ________ sheath. A) mucilaginous B) filamentous C) cartilaginous D) chitinized E) keratinized Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

11) When does sexual reproduction occur in diatoms? A) when ocean temperatures fall below 4°C B) after zoospores hibernate for several months C) after one of the frustule halves reaches a certain size D) after a diatom passes through the gut of an anemone E) None of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) All of the following correctly pair up an organism with a unique structure or compound it possesses except one. Choose the exception. A) cyanobacteria :: heterocysts B) diatoms :: frustule C) red algae :: phycobillins D) brown algae :: alginic acid E) green algae :: conceptacles Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) From which of the following did land plants evolve? A) Rhodophytes B) Dinophytes C) Chlorophytes D) Phaeophytes E) Euglenophytes Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Their high production of ________ make microalgae valuable for the production of biofuel. A) monosaccharides B) triglycerides C) polysaccharides D) waxes E) proteins Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

15) Diatoms, in the division Bacillariophyta, are mainly unicells surrounded by a silicon-based wall consisting of two halves, called a(n) ________. A) oogonium B) ephyra C) radula D) fructification E) None of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) In the life cycle of a green alga, syngamy occurs between which of the following? A) zoospores B) sporangia C) gametes D) zygotes E) gametophytes Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Sexual reproduction of diatoms is through cell division. B) Diatoms are common in tropical oceans but rare in cold oceans. C) Brown algae include only the kelps. D) The Phaeophyta are the least complex of all the algae. E) In Fucus, the swollen areas at the ends of the blade are reproductive structures called receptacles. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Ulva is both ________ and ________. A) isogamous; heteromorphic B) anisogamous; heteromorphic C) anisogamous; isomorphic D) isogamous; isomorphic E) oogamous; isomorphic Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

19) In the life cycle of a green alga, meiosis specifically occurs in the ________. A) gametophyte B) sporangia C) gametangia D) sporophyte E) zygote Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) Based on genetic studies, the living genus of algae that most closely resembles the evolutionary ancestor of land plants is which of the following? A) Chlamydomonas B) Coleochaete C) Microcladia D) Fucus E) Laminaria Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The green algae are characterized by the presence of chlorophyll a and b. B) Various charophyte species show biochemical and ultrastructural features that are shared with land plant but not with chlorophytes. C) Green algae are classified in two divisions: Chlorophyta and Charophyta. D) Genetic analysis from DNA sequences supports the hypothesis that the charophytes are the closest living relatives of land plants. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) The red color of red algae is due to which of the following? A) phycoerythrin B) chlorophyll c C) fucoxanthin D) carotene E) xanthophyll Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

23) In the life cycle of brown algae, meiosis specifically occurs in which of the following? A) oogonia B) antheridia C) the female thallus D) the male thallus E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) What is found in land plants that is lacking in Fucus? A) the pigment, chlorophyll B) multicellularity C) cellular nuclei D) a true alternation of generations E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The green algae are most abundant and diverse in the oceans. B) Many species of green algae are used as food. C) Sea lettuce (Ulva spp) is toxic until cooked. D) Zoospores are the products of meiosis. E) The Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic, unlike other true algae, which are eukaryotic. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Which of the following substances has been shown to block the replication of rhinoviruses? A) agar B) alginic acid C) carrageenan D) cellulose E) phycobillins Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

27) All of the following are genera being studied for the purpose of biofuel production except one. Choose the exception. A) Spirogyra B) Chlamydomonas C) Chlorella D) Anabaena E) Dunaliella Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Which of the following matches is not correct? A) Kombu :: Laminaria japonica B) Dulse :: Rhodymenia and Palmaria C) Nori :: fertilizer D) Hydrocolloids :: agar and carrageenan E) None of the above are incorrect. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) Which of the following is not a hydrocolloid? A) agar B) alginic acid C) carrageenan D) cellulose E) More than one of these are not a hydrocolloid Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) How do red algae differ from green and brown algae? A) They contain no form of chlorophyll. B) They have a multicellular thallus. C) Their gametes are not flagellated. D) Their environments are mainly marine. E) All of these are ways in which red algae differ from green and brown algae. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

31) Porphrya is also known as which of the following? A) kombu. B) wakame. C) dulse. D) nori. E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) Which of the following high-protein "alga" was cultivated by the Aztecs and is a traditional food in Chad? A) Spirulina B) Nostoc C) Chlamydomonas D) Undaria E) Laminaria Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Which of the following is a common component of ice cream and toothpaste? A) agar B) alginic acid C) carrageenan D) cellulose E) More than one of the above is a common component of ice cream and toothpaste. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Compounds isolated from Amphidinium have shown promise as which of the following? A) biofuels B) cancer-fighting agents C) a treatment for AIDS D) a stabilizing agent in a variety of foods E) being useful in all of these applications Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

35) One of the most toxic cyanobacteria is which of the following? A) Nostoc B) Azolla C) Anabaena D) Oscillatoria E) Gleobacter Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) How do toxins produced by Microcystis aeruginosa cause damage? A) by interfering with protein synthesis B) by breaking down the cytoskeleton C) by disrupting mitosis D) by poking holes in the nuclear membrane E) by doing all of the above Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) What organ is affected by the toxins produced by Microcystis aeruginosa? A) liver B) stomach C) pancreas D) heart E) small intestine Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Anatoxin-a is used in research on which of the following? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Polio myelitis C) GERD D) Equine encephalitis E) Zika Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

39) Brevetoxins cause ________ in humans. A) diarrhea B) paralysis C) nerve damage D) respiratory illness E) all of these ailments Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) This dinoflagellate species is stimulated to producing toxins after consuming fish feces. The skin of fish affected by the toxin is destroyed and the affected fish die within hours after exposure to the toxin. This dinoflagellate species is classified as which one of the following species? A) Codium fragile B) Karenia brevis C) Pfiesteria piscicida D) Grateloupia turuturu E) Anas platyrhyncus Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) Which of the following is not correct? A) It has been difficult to secure adequate amounts of active algal compounds for screening and testing. B) Amphidinium produces a class of molecules known as amphidinolides. C) Some compounds from various types of algae show a range of activity against herpes and HIV viruses. D) Fucoidan is being used to treat chemical addiction in humans. E) Microcystins may cause liver failure. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

42) Which of the following is not a contributing factor to the success of Caulerpa taxifolia? A) tolerance of broad range of temperatures B) an elaborate sexual reproduction strategy C) rapid growth rate D) its inedibility E) All of these are contributing factors to the success of Caulerpa taxifolia. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) How is Caulerpa taxifolia and other siphonous algae different from typical green algae? A) They do not use chlorophyll a and b as photosynthetic pigments. B) They do not have a thallus. C) They have both zoospores and gametes in its life cycle. D) They are heteromorphic and heterotrophic. E) They are coenocytic and have a stolon. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) The unicellular algae that cause "red tides" belong to the Division ________. A) Rhodophyta B) Bacillariophyta C) Chlorophyta D) Dinophyta E) Phaeophyta Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) Instead of a rigid cell wall, a proteinaceous pellicle occurs on organisms in the Division ________. A) Dinophyta B) Euglenophyta C) Chlorophyta D) Bacillariophyta E) Rhodophyta Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

46) Ciguatera poisoning is due to activities of which of the following? A) green algae B) diatoms C) dinoflagellates D) brown algae E) euglena Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Algal blooms may affect which of the following? A) Drinking water B) Fish consumption C) "shellfish" consumption D) Aquatic bird reproduction E) All of the above can be affected by algal blooms. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Which of the following is a neurotoxin produced by members of the Cyanobacteria? A) hepatotoxin B) ciguatoxin C) mycotoxin D) anatoxin-a E) digitalin Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) Algal blooms are triggered by which of the following? A) rapid temperature change B) increasing salinity C) decreases in oxygen D) nutrient enrichment E) increases in carbon dioxide Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

50) Which group of algae can be differentiated into a holdfast, stipe, and blade? A) cyanobacteria B) brown algae C) dinoflagellates D) green algae E) red algae Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The unicellular algae that cause "Red Tides" are known as ________. Answer: dinoflagellates Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) In Fucus, the swollen areas at the ends of the blade are reproductive regions known as ________. Answer: receptacles Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) The body of an alga is termed the ________. Answer: thallus Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Diatoms with bilateral symmetry are known as ________ diatoms. Answer: pennate Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) Agar and carrageenan are examples of chemicals called ________ which are used as emulsifiers, stabilizers, and gelling agents. Answer: hydrocolloids Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

56) ________ ________ can be used as soil additive since it can act like a field of broken glass to discourage some microscopic garden pests. Answer: Diatomaceous earth Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) ________ ________ is a product derived from the brown algae that imparts a smooth texture in both foods like icings and puddings and in industrial products like paints and hand lotions. Answer: Alginic acid Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) ________ have virtually indestructible shells of glass which have been used industrially for their polishing, filtering, and reflective properties. Answer: Diatoms Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Agar is derived from ________ ________ and is used as a growth medium for microorganisms. Answer: red algae Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) Unlike land plants, algae lack true tissue differentiation. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) The thallus or body of an alga can vary considerably from one-celled to many celled. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) The dinoflagellates appeared on earth 3.5 billion years ago. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

63) Reproduction is diverse among the various groups of algae; however, there is true retention of the embryo in any group. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) In some cases, the diploid stage is only seen in the zygote. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 65) Molecular evidence indicates that the algae are polyphyletic and represent several independent evolutionary lines. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) Currently the "algae" are classified in two domains and at least six separate kingdoms. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) Dinoflagellates only occur in marine environments. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) The glass-like cell wall of diatoms is called a frustule. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) The euglenoids are capable of producing an extremely powerful nerve toxin and are responsible for the phenomenon known as the Red Tide. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

70) Spirulina, now a dietary protein supplement, was first grown in shallow ponds by the Aztecs. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) Chlorophyll a and b occur in all divisions of algae but not the Cyanobacteria. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 72) The genus Pfiesteria in the Division Chlorophyta is capable of forming toxic metabolites. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 73) Dinoflagellates cause ciguatera poisoning, a type of food poisoning with bizarre neurological symptoms. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 74) Invasive species usually have low reproductive rates. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 75) Depletion of oxygen by algal blooms can actually cause the "death" of an entire ecosystem. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 76) Siphonous algae have a tubular organization with no internal walls. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

77) In biological control, a synthetic toxin is introduced to control the spread of an invasive species. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 78) The Chlorophyta and Charophyta are part of the Kingdom Protista. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 23 Fungi in the Natural Environment 1) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) As a group, the fungi are among the most abundant organisms in the world. B) Fungi are vital to the environment as decomposers or as symbiotic partners. C) Fungi provide us with lifesaving antibiotics, fermented foods, and beverages. D) Fungi are now known to represent multiple lines of evolution within the Eukarya. E) Fungi, although abundant, rarely cause plant or animal diseases. 2) The Kingdom Fungi are characterized by which of the following? A) being evolutionarily more advanced than protists in terms of multicellularity than the Protista. B) heterotrophic lifestyle C) the presence of chitin D) sharing unique molecular similarities derived from DNA sequences E) All of the above are correct. 3) There are two groups of fungal-like protists: ________ and ________. A) Myxomycota; Oomycota B) Chytridiomycota; Zygomycota C) Basidiomycota; Chytridiomycota D) Glomeromycota; Zygomycota E) None of the above are correct. 4) Myxomycota are characterized by which of the following? A) affinities to both animals and fungi B) amoeboid feeding stage called the plasmodium C) feeding by engulfing bacteria and organic matter D) producing unicellular spores that may remain dormant E) All of the above are characteristics of the Myxomycota. 5) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) flagellated cells :: swarm cells B) amoeboid cells :: myxamoeba C) encystment :: protection from unfavorable conditions D) sporangia :: meiosis and spore formation occur in Myxomycota E) slime molds :: toxic, amoeboid forms that can damage the environment 6) Which of the following is not correct about the Oomycota? A) They are called slime molds. B) They are photosynthetic heterotrophs. C) They are not really closely related to the true fungi. D) They have threadlike nonseptate hyphae. E) They have oogonia with one or more oospores, as well as motile zoospores.

7) The water mold Saprolegnia has which of the following characteristics? A) biflagellate zoospores B) encysted states during development C) separate male and female gametangia produce haploid spores D) relatives of Saprolegnia cause late blight of potato and downy mildew of grapes E) All of the above are correct. 8) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The Kingdom Fungi comprises a diverse, monophyletic group. B) Over 100,000 species have been classified. C) The Fungi are morphologically diverse. D) Yeast is a general term to describe unicellular fungi that reproduce by budding. E) Reproduction in the fungi is always by the production of asexual spores. 9) In the Zygomycota, the thick-walled sexual spores are called which of the following? A) zygospores B) sporangiospores C) mycorrhizae D) plasmogamids E) hymenia 10) Which of the following relationships is not correct? A) sporangiospores :: asexual reproduction B) plasmogamy :: sexual reproduction C) hymenium :: asci forming a layer D) Rhizopus :: a zygomycete laboratory contaminant E) Ascus :: sexual spores in a saclike structure common in the Basidiomycota 11) The ascocarp is a fruiting body common in which of the following groups? A) Ascomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Boletes D) Cladosporium E) None of the above are correct. 12) Hyphae is to mycelium as ________ is(are) to ________. A) leaves; a branch B) roots; a root system C) apples; an apple tree D) root hairs; a root E) phloem; a vascular bundle

13) A mushroom is to mycelium as ________ is(are) to ________. A) leaves; a branch B) roots; a root system C) apples; an apple tree D) root hairs; a root E) phloem; a vascular bundle 14) Fungi that are imperfect lack which of the following? A) mycelium B) cell walls C) dikaryotic nuclei D) sexual reproduction E) More than one of these are correct. 15) Most fungal spores are dispersed by which of the following agents? A) wind B) water C) insects D) small rodents E) bats 16) Genetically, true fungi are closest to which of the following groups? A) plants B) bacteria C) archaea D) animals E) protists 17) In most sexually reproducing fungi, what event immediately follows plasmogamy? A) meiosis B) mitosis C) karyogamy D) syngamy E) isogamy 18) Fungal karyogamy is the fusion of A) cytoplasm B) gametes C) zygotes D) hyphae E) haploid nuclei

19) If a basidiomycete has a diploid number of 12, what is the ploidy number immediately after karyogamy? A) 12 B) 6 C) 6 + 6 D) 12 + 12 E) 24 20) The myxomycetes are most like fungi in their ________ stage. A) feeding B) reproductive C) swarming D) dormant E) vegetative 21) Spores of the myxomycetes are in which state? A) haploid B) diploid C) dikaryotic D) triploid E) tetraploid 22) This single-celled organism has haploid biflagellated zoospores and antheridia that flank the oogonium. The hyphae are nonseptate except at the base. This single-celled organism belongs in the Division ________. A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Zygomycetes D) Myxomycetes E) Oomycetes 23) In which of the following divisions is the species that is the cause of late blight of potato? A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Zygomycetes D) Myxomycetes E) Oomycetes 24) The only true fungi with motile cells are the ________. A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Zygomycetes D) Chytridiomycetes E) Glomeromycetes

25) What characteristic do chytridiomycetes share with land plants? A) cellulose cell walls B) flagellated sperm C) an alternation of generations D) true roots E) Chytridiomycetes share all of these characteristics with land plants. 26) What sets the zygomycetes apart from other fungi? A) dikaryon nuclei B) thick-walled sexual spores C) All zygomycetes are imperfect. D) They have an alternation of generations. E) All of these set zygomycetes apart from other fungi. 27) Endomycorrhizal fungi are members of which of the following groups? A) basidiomycetes B) ascomycetes C) zygomycetes D) chytridiomycetes E) glomeromycetes 28) All of these fungi are paired correctly with the division they are in except one. Choose the exception. A) Allomyces :: Chytridiomycota B) Pilobolus :: Zygomycota C) Glomus :: Ascomycota D) Armillaria :: Basidiomycota E) Boletes :: Basidiomycota 29) In this group of fungi, spores are borne on tiny "spike" that project out from a club-like structure. This group of fungi are which of the following? A) basidiomycetes B) ascomycetes C) zygomycetes D) chytridiomycetes E) None of the above are correct. 30) In what specific structure does meiosis take place in the ascomycetes? A) ascus B) ascogonium C) ascospores D) hymenium E) antheridium

31) Which of the following statements is correct about fungi? A) Most are heterotrophs; some are autotrophs. B) The vast majority are heterotrophs. C) All are autotrophs and largely marine. D) Most are autotrophs; some are heterotrophs E) They are more closely related to plants than animals. 32) Which of the following is not a role of fungi in the environment? A) parasites B) pathogens C) mutual symbionts D) saprobes E) primary producers 33) What are facultative parasites? A) saprobes that can become parasitic B) two or more parasites that work together C) parasites that can't exist without their host D) parasites that are exclusively intracellular E) None of the above are correct. 34) Beneficial fungi have been used in all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) antibiotic production B) bioremediation C) cheese production D) starch production E) aeration of water in eutrophic lakes 35) Which of the following species has been the focus of research as a potential bioremediation agent? A) Serpula lacrymans B) Phaenerochaete chrysosporium C) Cochliobolus heterostrophus D) Phytophthora infestans E) Puccinia graminis 36) Approximately what percentage of plants are mycorrhizal? A) 5 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) 90

37) Which of the following minerals is the most important one supplied by mycorrhizal fungi to their partner? A) nitrogen B) potassium C) phosphorous D) magnesium E) calcium 38) What does a mycorrhizal plant supply to its partner? A) oxygen B) water C) minerals D) sugars E) all of these 39) All of the following species are matched correctly with the disease they cause except one. Choose the exception. A) Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis - late blight of potatoes B) Phytophora ramorum - sudden oak death C) Ophiostoma ulmi - Dutch Elm disease D) Puccinia graminis - wheat rust E) Ustilago maydis - corn smut 40) Which of the following is not a spore stage of Puccinia graminis? A) basidiosprores B) uredospores C) ascospores D) teliospores E) spermatia 41) Wheat and ________ are alternate hosts for the wheat rust fungus. A) potato B) barberry C) rhododendron D) milkweed E) More than one of the above are correct. 42) Germination of late blight fungus occurs under which of the following conditions? A) low temperatures and low humidity B) low temperatures and high humidity C) high temperatures and low humidity D) high temperatures and high humidity E) high temperatures and high light intensity

43) All of the following produce basidiospores except one. Choose the exception. A) Ustilago maydis B) Puccinia graminis C) Morchella esculenta D) Ganoderma applanatum E) Armillaria bulbosa 44) Which of the following is a structure produced by an endomycorrhizal fungus? A) aecium B) oogonium C) arbuscle D) zygospore E) More than one of these structures are produced by an endomycorrhizal fungus. 45) A disease caused by an ascomycete and spread by bark beetles resulting in wilting and death in trees is the ________ disease. A) chestnut blight B) corn smut C) Dutch elm D) wheat rust E) white nose wilt 46) To which group of fungi do the brewing and baking yeasts belong? A) myxomycetes B) basidiomycetes C) ascomycetes D) zygomycetes E) imperfect fungi 47) Fungi which develop a mutualistic relationship with the roots of vascular plants are known as which of the following? A) lichens B) mycorrhizae C) saprobes D) facultative parasites E) plant pathogens 48) Morels and truffles are fruiting bodies found in which group of fungi? A) ascomycetes B) zygomycetes C) oomycetes D) basidiomycetes E) myxomycetes

49) Asexual spores that are not formed within a sporangium are called which of the following? A) sporangiospores B) basidiospores C) ascospores D) conidia E) oospores 50) The spore stage of the wheat rust fungus that can infect wheat from barberry is which of the following? A) spermatium B) basidiospore C) aeciospore D) teliospore E) uredospore 51) The spore stage of the wheat rust fungus that is called the "repeating stage" is termed the ________. A) spermatium B) basidiospore C) aeciospore D) teliospore E) uredospore 52) The spore stage of the wheat rust fungus that can infect barberry is the ________. A) spermatium B) basidiospore C) aeciospore D) teliospore E) uredospore 53) The spore stage of the wheat rust fungus that initiates plasmogamy is which of the following? A) spermatium B) basidiospore C) aeciospore D) teliospore E) uredospore 54) The slender thread-like structures which compose the body of a fungus are called ________. 55) The oomycetes are in the kingdom ________. 56) An asexual spore not formed in a sporangium is termed a ________. 57) When slime mold spores germinate, they give rise to either ________ or swarm cells.

58) A hypha with 2 different nuclei in each cell is known as a ________. 59) Specialized asexual lichen propagules that consist of small groups of algal cells with interwoven hyphae are called ________. 60) The scientific name for the wheat rust fungus is ________. 61) The use of microorganisms to reclaim contaminated soil and water is known as ________. 62) Some wood-rotting fungi are being investigated for their potential to degrade ________ and environmental toxins. 63) The evolution of fungicide resistant strains of the fungus ________ has resulted in a renewed threat to potato crops worldwide. 64) Ustilago maydis is the fungus that causes ________. 65) An interwoven mass of hyphae is called a(n) ________. 66) The asexual spores formed by oomycetes are called ________. 67) A characteristic cell wall material of organisms in the Kingdom Fungi is ________. 68) Asexual reproduction in yeast is generally carried out through ________. 69) Beadle and Tatum performed their classical genetic studies on an ascomycete classified as ________. 70) ________ parasites can live as saprobes but will invade living tissue when suitable hosts are available. 71) Mycorrhizal fungi aid plants in the absorption of ________ and minerals from the soil. 72) Recent evidence has led to the classification of Division Chytridiomycota in the Kingdom ________. 73) A multifaceted approach to plant disease control that uses sanitation, crop rotation, biological controls, disease forecasting, and genetic resistance along with fungicides is called ________. 74) Brown rot fungi decompose ________ but leave the ________ unchanged. 75) In the oomycetes, spores may be formed from the breakup of hyphae, or on highly specialized hyphal branches often contained within fruiting bodies. 76) Puffball spores are dispersed by insects. 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

77) The great Bengal famine of 1942 was caused by the wheat rust fungus. 78) Rust fungi lack a fruiting body. 79) Uredospores of the wheat rust fungus can be carried by prevailing winds for hundreds of miles. 80) Chytridiomycetes are often parasites of other fungi. 81) All fungi reproduce sexually. 82) Morels and cup fungi are examples of basidiomycetes. 83) Truffles are traditionally hunted in Europe by using trained pigs. 84) The reproductive perfect stage is also known as the asexual stage. 85) Fungi obtain nutrients from the environment as absorptive heterotrophs.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 23 Fungi in the Natural Environment 1) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) As a group, the fungi are among the most abundant organisms in the world. B) Fungi are vital to the environment as decomposers or as symbiotic partners. C) Fungi provide us with lifesaving antibiotics, fermented foods, and beverages. D) Fungi are now known to represent multiple lines of evolution within the Eukarya. E) Fungi, although abundant, rarely cause plant or animal diseases. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) The Kingdom Fungi are characterized by which of the following? A) being evolutionarily more advanced than protists in terms of multicellularity than the Protista. B) heterotrophic lifestyle C) the presence of chitin D) sharing unique molecular similarities derived from DNA sequences E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) There are two groups of fungal-like protists: ________ and ________. A) Myxomycota; Oomycota B) Chytridiomycota; Zygomycota C) Basidiomycota; Chytridiomycota D) Glomeromycota; Zygomycota E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4) Myxomycota are characterized by which of the following? A) affinities to both animals and fungi B) amoeboid feeding stage called the plasmodium C) feeding by engulfing bacteria and organic matter D) producing unicellular spores that may remain dormant E) All of the above are characteristics of the Myxomycota. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

5) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) flagellated cells :: swarm cells B) amoeboid cells :: myxamoeba C) encystment :: protection from unfavorable conditions D) sporangia :: meiosis and spore formation occur in Myxomycota E) slime molds :: toxic, amoeboid forms that can damage the environment Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following is not correct about the Oomycota? A) They are called slime molds. B) They are photosynthetic heterotrophs. C) They are not really closely related to the true fungi. D) They have threadlike nonseptate hyphae. E) They have oogonia with one or more oospores, as well as motile zoospores. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) The water mold Saprolegnia has which of the following characteristics? A) biflagellate zoospores B) encysted states during development C) separate male and female gametangia produce haploid spores D) relatives of Saprolegnia cause late blight of potato and downy mildew of grapes E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The Kingdom Fungi comprises a diverse, monophyletic group. B) Over 100,000 species have been classified. C) The Fungi are morphologically diverse. D) Yeast is a general term to describe unicellular fungi that reproduce by budding. E) Reproduction in the fungi is always by the production of asexual spores. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

9) In the Zygomycota, the thick-walled sexual spores are called which of the following? A) zygospores B) sporangiospores C) mycorrhizae D) plasmogamids E) hymenia Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) Which of the following relationships is not correct? A) sporangiospores :: asexual reproduction B) plasmogamy :: sexual reproduction C) hymenium :: asci forming a layer D) Rhizopus :: a zygomycete laboratory contaminant E) Ascus :: sexual spores in a saclike structure common in the Basidiomycota Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) The ascocarp is a fruiting body common in which of the following groups? A) Ascomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Boletes D) Cladosporium E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) Hyphae is to mycelium as ________ is(are) to ________. A) leaves; a branch B) roots; a root system C) apples; an apple tree D) root hairs; a root E) phloem; a vascular bundle Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

13) A mushroom is to mycelium as ________ is(are) to ________. A) leaves; a branch B) roots; a root system C) apples; an apple tree D) root hairs; a root E) phloem; a vascular bundle Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Fungi that are imperfect lack which of the following? A) mycelium B) cell walls C) dikaryotic nuclei D) sexual reproduction E) More than one of these are correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) Most fungal spores are dispersed by which of the following agents? A) wind B) water C) insects D) small rodents E) bats Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16) Genetically, true fungi are closest to which of the following groups? A) plants B) bacteria C) archaea D) animals E) protists Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

17) In most sexually reproducing fungi, what event immediately follows plasmogamy? A) meiosis B) mitosis C) karyogamy D) syngamy E) isogamy Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Fungal karyogamy is the fusion of A) cytoplasm B) gametes C) zygotes D) hyphae E) haploid nuclei Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) If a basidiomycete has a diploid number of 12, what is the ploidy number immediately after karyogamy? A) 12 B) 6 C) 6 + 6 D) 12 + 12 E) 24 Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) The myxomycetes are most like fungi in their ________ stage. A) feeding B) reproductive C) swarming D) dormant E) vegetative Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

21) Spores of the myxomycetes are in which state? A) haploid B) diploid C) dikaryotic D) triploid E) tetraploid Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) This single-celled organism has haploid biflagellated zoospores and antheridia that flank the oogonium. The hyphae are nonseptate except at the base. This single-celled organism belongs in the Division ________. A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Zygomycetes D) Myxomycetes E) Oomycetes Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) In which of the following divisions is the species that is the cause of late blight of potato? A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Zygomycetes D) Myxomycetes E) Oomycetes Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) The only true fungi with motile cells are the ________. A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Zygomycetes D) Chytridiomycetes E) Glomeromycetes Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

25) What characteristic do chytridiomycetes share with land plants? A) cellulose cell walls B) flagellated sperm C) an alternation of generations D) true roots E) Chytridiomycetes share all of these characteristics with land plants. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) What sets the zygomycetes apart from other fungi? A) dikaryon nuclei B) thick-walled sexual spores C) All zygomycetes are imperfect. D) They have an alternation of generations. E) All of these set zygomycetes apart from other fungi. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Endomycorrhizal fungi are members of which of the following groups? A) basidiomycetes B) ascomycetes C) zygomycetes D) chytridiomycetes E) glomeromycetes Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) All of these fungi are paired correctly with the division they are in except one. Choose the exception. A) Allomyces :: Chytridiomycota B) Pilobolus :: Zygomycota C) Glomus :: Ascomycota D) Armillaria :: Basidiomycota E) Boletes :: Basidiomycota Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

29) In this group of fungi, spores are borne on tiny "spike" that project out from a club-like structure. This group of fungi are which of the following? A) basidiomycetes B) ascomycetes C) zygomycetes D) chytridiomycetes E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) In what specific structure does meiosis take place in the ascomycetes? A) ascus B) ascogonium C) ascospores D) hymenium E) antheridium Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Which of the following statements is correct about fungi? A) Most are heterotrophs; some are autotrophs. B) The vast majority are heterotrophs. C) All are autotrophs and largely marine. D) Most are autotrophs; some are heterotrophs E) They are more closely related to plants than animals. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) Which of the following is not a role of fungi in the environment? A) parasites B) pathogens C) mutual symbionts D) saprobes E) primary producers Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

33) What are facultative parasites? A) saprobes that can become parasitic B) two or more parasites that work together C) parasites that can't exist without their host D) parasites that are exclusively intracellular E) None of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Beneficial fungi have been used in all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) antibiotic production B) bioremediation C) cheese production D) starch production E) aeration of water in eutrophic lakes Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Which of the following species has been the focus of research as a potential bioremediation agent? A) Serpula lacrymans B) Phaenerochaete chrysosporium C) Cochliobolus heterostrophus D) Phytophthora infestans E) Puccinia graminis Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Approximately what percentage of plants are mycorrhizal? A) 5 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) 90 Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

37) Which of the following minerals is the most important one supplied by mycorrhizal fungi to their partner? A) nitrogen B) potassium C) phosphorous D) magnesium E) calcium Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) What does a mycorrhizal plant supply to its partner? A) oxygen B) water C) minerals D) sugars E) all of these Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) All of the following species are matched correctly with the disease they cause except one. Choose the exception. A) Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis - late blight of potatoes B) Phytophora ramorum - sudden oak death C) Ophiostoma ulmi - Dutch Elm disease D) Puccinia graminis - wheat rust E) Ustilago maydis - corn smut Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Which of the following is not a spore stage of Puccinia graminis? A) basidiosprores B) uredospores C) ascospores D) teliospores E) spermatia Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

41) Wheat and ________ are alternate hosts for the wheat rust fungus. A) potato B) barberry C) rhododendron D) milkweed E) More than one of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Germination of late blight fungus occurs under which of the following conditions? A) low temperatures and low humidity B) low temperatures and high humidity C) high temperatures and low humidity D) high temperatures and high humidity E) high temperatures and high light intensity Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) All of the following produce basidiospores except one. Choose the exception. A) Ustilago maydis B) Puccinia graminis C) Morchella esculenta D) Ganoderma applanatum E) Armillaria bulbosa Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) Which of the following is a structure produced by an endomycorrhizal fungus? A) aecium B) oogonium C) arbuscle D) zygospore E) More than one of these structures are produced by an endomycorrhizal fungus. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

45) A disease caused by an ascomycete and spread by bark beetles resulting in wilting and death in trees is the ________ disease. A) chestnut blight B) corn smut C) Dutch elm D) wheat rust E) white nose wilt Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) To which group of fungi do the brewing and baking yeasts belong? A) myxomycetes B) basidiomycetes C) ascomycetes D) zygomycetes E) imperfect fungi Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) Fungi which develop a mutualistic relationship with the roots of vascular plants are known as which of the following? A) lichens B) mycorrhizae C) saprobes D) facultative parasites E) plant pathogens Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) Morels and truffles are fruiting bodies found in which group of fungi? A) ascomycetes B) zygomycetes C) oomycetes D) basidiomycetes E) myxomycetes Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

49) Asexual spores that are not formed within a sporangium are called which of the following? A) sporangiospores B) basidiospores C) ascospores D) conidia E) oospores Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) The spore stage of the wheat rust fungus that can infect wheat from barberry is which of the following? A) spermatium B) basidiospore C) aeciospore D) teliospore E) uredospore Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) The spore stage of the wheat rust fungus that is called the "repeating stage" is termed the ________. A) spermatium B) basidiospore C) aeciospore D) teliospore E) uredospore Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) The spore stage of the wheat rust fungus that can infect barberry is the ________. A) spermatium B) basidiospore C) aeciospore D) teliospore E) uredospore Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

53) The spore stage of the wheat rust fungus that initiates plasmogamy is which of the following? A) spermatium B) basidiospore C) aeciospore D) teliospore E) uredospore Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) The slender thread-like structures which compose the body of a fungus are called ________. Answer: hyphae Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) The oomycetes are in the kingdom ________. Answer: Protista Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) An asexual spore not formed in a sporangium is termed a ________. Answer: conidium Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) When slime mold spores germinate, they give rise to either ________ or swarm cells. Answer: myxamoeba Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) A hypha with 2 different nuclei in each cell is known as a ________. Answer: dikaryon Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

59) Specialized asexual lichen propagules that consist of small groups of algal cells with interwoven hyphae are called ________. Answer: soredia Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) The scientific name for the wheat rust fungus is ________. Answer: Puccinia graminis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) The use of microorganisms to reclaim contaminated soil and water is known as ________. Answer: bioremediation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) Some wood-rotting fungi are being investigated for their potential to degrade ________ and environmental toxins. Answer: petroleum Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) The evolution of fungicide resistant strains of the fungus ________ has resulted in a renewed threat to potato crops worldwide. Answer: Phytophthora infestans Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) Ustilago maydis is the fungus that causes ________. Answer: corn smut Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 65) An interwoven mass of hyphae is called a(n) ________. Answer: mycelium Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

66) The asexual spores formed by oomycetes are called ________. Answer: zoospores Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) A characteristic cell wall material of organisms in the Kingdom Fungi is ________. Answer: chitin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) Asexual reproduction in yeast is generally carried out through ________. Answer: budding Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) Beadle and Tatum performed their classical genetic studies on an ascomycete classified as ________. Answer: Neurospora crassa Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 70) ________ parasites can live as saprobes but will invade living tissue when suitable hosts are available. Answer: Facultative Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) Mycorrhizal fungi aid plants in the absorption of ________ and minerals from the soil. Answer: water Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 72) Recent evidence has led to the classification of Division Chytridiomycota in the Kingdom ________. Answer: Fungi Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

73) A multifaceted approach to plant disease control that uses sanitation, crop rotation, biological controls, disease forecasting, and genetic resistance along with fungicides is called ________. Answer: integrated pest management Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 74) Brown rot fungi decompose ________ but leave the ________ unchanged. Answer: cellulose; lignin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 75) In the oomycetes, spores may be formed from the breakup of hyphae, or on highly specialized hyphal branches often contained within fruiting bodies. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 76) Puffball spores are dispersed by insects. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 77) The great Bengal famine of 1942 was caused by the wheat rust fungus. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 78) Rust fungi lack a fruiting body. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 79) Uredospores of the wheat rust fungus can be carried by prevailing winds for hundreds of miles. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

80) Chytridiomycetes are often parasites of other fungi. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 81) All fungi reproduce sexually. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 82) Morels and cup fungi are examples of basidiomycetes. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 83) Truffles are traditionally hunted in Europe by using trained pigs. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 84) The reproductive perfect stage is also known as the asexual stage. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 85) Fungi obtain nutrients from the environment as absorptive heterotrophs. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 24 Beverages and Foods from Fungi 1) Archaeologists know that ancient Egyptians made red wine because of the presence of ________ acid in jars found in the tomb of Pharaoh Tutankhamen. A) syringic B) tartaric C) lysergic D) lactic E) acetic 2) Which of the following organisms can turn wine into vinegar? A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae B) Acetobacter aceti C) Agaricus bisporus D) Aspergillus oryzae E) Artemesia annua 3) How is wine kept from turning to vinegar? A) exposure to high temperature B) the use of low wavelength radiation C) the maintenance of anaerobic conditions D) the addition of bacteria that increase the acidity of the wine E) All of these can prevent wine from turning to vinegar. 4) What may happen to the quality of cork and cork oak trees if climate change continues? A) A decline in the quality of cork stoppers B) Thinner layers of bark C) Production of more lenticels, increasing the possibility of Acetobacter contamination. D) Conversion of alcohol into vinegar because of less dense, more airy cork E) All of the above may happen. 5) Which of the following is a characteristic of wine grape plants? A) flowers are three-parted B) leaves are pinnately compound C) flowers are imperfect D) flowers are self-pollinating E) None of these is characteristics of wine grape plants. 6) Which of the following is the species that provides necessary rootstock for virtually all wine grape plants? A) Vitis acerifolia B) Vitis labrusca C) Vitis rupestris D) Vitis vinifera E) Vitis vulpine 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) The aroma and flavor of fine red wines is obtained by aging the wine in barrels made from white oak. B) The best method is to age the wine in tanks with oak chips. C) For most red wines, a second fermentation in the barrel is a necessity. D) During bottling, wine is placed in sterile bottles that are flushed with pure oxygen to prevent aging. E) Champagne, strictly speaking, is a sparkling wine produced only by Dom Perignon. 8) Why is it necessary to graft rootstock onto wine grape plants? A) to avoid aphid infestation B) to avoid downy mildew infection C) to avoid deer damage D) to create wines with a higher alcohol content E) to insure the wine grape flowers are pollinated 9) The serious problem created by the importation to Europe of North America grapevines in 1860 was caused by A) Saprolegnia B) Phylloxera C) Plasmopara D) Artemesia E) Aspergillus 10) In the production of red wine, the red skins are removed after A) crushing. B) pressing. C) fermentation. D) riddling. E) clarification. 11) What are the two products of alcohol fermentation? A) ethanol and oxygen B) lactic acid and ethanol C) lactic acid and oxygen D) ethanol and carbon dioxide E) lactic acid and carbon dioxide 12) With climate change, which of the following may happen? A) Vineyards will increase their yield. B) The grapes will mutate. C) The Tuscany area in Italy will expand twice-fold. D) The Bordeaux region of France will no longer be suitable for the cultivation of wine grapes. E) None of the above is correct. 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

13) What is the purpose of adding sulfur dioxide during wine grape fermentation? A) removal of oxygen B) inhibition of unwanted microorganisms C) prevention of wine turning into vinegar D) inhibition of substrate level phosphorylation E) All of the above are correct. 14) How would white wine taste if the fermentation temperature was 5°C? A) It would have a yeasty taste. B) It would be perfect; 5°C is the best temperature for white wine fermentation. C) It would taste too fruity. D) It would taste burnt. E) It would have a lower alcohol content. 15) Breaking up the skin cap several times a day is required for what type of wine? A) white B) red C) champagne D) dessert E) All of the above are correct. 16) Red wine fermentation continues for a maximum of how long? A) 2 days B) 2 years C) 2 weeks D) 2 months E) 3 years in barrels 17) Yeast begin to die above alcohol concentrations of ________ percent. A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16 E) 20 18) Lees are removed from wine by using various agents. Among the following, which is not one of those agents? A) egg whites B) gelatin C) bentonite clay D) sorbic acid E) All of these are agents are used to remove lees.

19) Which of the following is a process that could occur in the production of both white and red wines? A) filtration using millipore filters B) fermentation at temperatures between 25°C and 30°C C) removal of skin caps D) a second fermentation E) All of these processes could occur in the production of both white and red wines. 20) Which of the following wines is not one of the principal wines used in champagne cuvee? A) chardonnay B) chenin blanc C) pinot noir D) pinot meunier E) malbec 21) The removal of sediments from a champagne bottle is called A) riddling B) racking C) clarification D) disgorgement E) capping 22) To increase the alcohol content of wine, typically ________ is added. A) sherry B) cuvee C) brandy D) port E) grappa 23) The first step in brewing beer involves which of the following? A) moistening B) drying C) crushing D) roasting E) mashing 24) The starch from which of the following plants is typically not used in beer brewing? A) wheat B) potato C) corn D) rice E) barley

25) In beer brewing, what is wort? A) the germinated barley grains B) the grain starch C) the strained mash D) the roasted malt E) the hops/mash mixture 26) What part of Humulus lupulus is used in beer brewing? A) the roots B) the buds C) the leaves D) the bark E) the flowers 27) Which of the following microbes is used in the production of sake? A) Saprolegnia B) Phylloxera C) Plasmopara D) Artemesia E) Aspergillus 28) In sake production, the sugars from the enzymatic breakdown of starch is called which of the following? A) koji B) moto C) moromi D) tasukete E) itsu 29) In the making of distilled spirits, the ________ of beer or wine concentrates the alcohol. A) double fermentation B) boiling C) acidifying D) filtering E) oxidizing 30) Wormwood is used in the making of which of the following? A) gin B) tequila C) absinthe D) cognac E) All of the above are correct.

31) The most commonly eaten fungi are found in which of the following divisions? A) Ascomycota B) Zygomycota C) Chitridiomycota D) Basidiomycota E) Glomeromycota 32) This cultivated mushroom is grown on natural or artificial logs and, in some countries, is prescribed in cancer therapy. This cultivated mushroom is which of the following? A) Lentinus edodes B) Agaricus bisporus C) Volvariella volvacea D) Pleurotus pulmonarius E) Coprinus comatus. 33) Which brain center is inhibited by alcohol? A) speech B) vision C) balance D) judgement E) All of these brain centers are inhibited by alcohol. 34) Hops are added to the wort in beer making for which of the following reasons? A) to balance the sweet taste of the malt B) to preserve the beer C) to promote a foamy head D) to do all of the above E) None of the above is correct. 35) Malt is essential to the brewing process because it is the source of which of the following? A) sugar for the yeast B) agents to clarify the beer C) the pungent taste of beer D) yeast for fermentation E) agents to promote the Calvin cycle 36) An unaged distilled spirit that is flavored by steeping for several weeks in juniper "berries" for flavor is which of the following? A) vodka B) brandy C) rye D) gin E) aloe vera

37) Which of the following is not true about the production of rice wine (sake)? A) The carbohydrate base is rice. B) It has an alcoholic content of 5%. C) A mold is the source of enzymes that convert rice starch into fermentable sugars. D) Yeast is the fermenting organism. E) The alcohol content is only 1 percent. 38) Which of the following is not true about the effect of alcohol upon the body? A) It is a stimulant of the CNS. B) It increases the levels of HDLs. C) It is metabolized by the liver to water and carbon dioxide. D) It is associated with certain birth defects. E) It is associated with macrocephaly. 39) The year a wine was made is called its ________ year. 40) ________ ATPs are formed from the chemical energy released when glucose is broken down during fermentation. 41) The French ________ is the observation that the French have a lower incidence of cardiovascular disease despite a diet high in saturated fats and cholesterol. 42) Yeast is a single-cell ________ that will forgo ________ ________ in an anaerobic environment. 43) Evidence of a wine-like drink was found recently in a 8,000 to 9,000 year-old site in ________. 44) ________ ________ syndrome is the damage done to the fetus whose mothers drank immoderate amounts of alcohol during pregnancy. 45) The enzyme in the liver that degrades alcohol to carbon dioxide and water is known as ________ ________. 46) The resulting mix of skins, seeds, and juice when grapes are crushed is called the ________. 47) ________ is a technique whereby a substance is heated to rid it of bacterial contaminants. 48) The ancient art of wine making is now called the science of ________. 49) It was the scientist ________ who discovered that yeast, through an anaerobic process, converts grape juice into wine. 50) One of the first widely used fungicides was ________ mixture, a lethal mix of copper sulfate and lime that protects the grape vine from downy mildew.

51) A ________ wine has no residual sweetness since fermentation continues to completion. 52) In ________ fermentation, the fermentable base is left open to the environment to pick up any wild yeast strains present in the environment. 53) Technically speaking, wine is fermented ________ ________. 54) The drinking of absinthe became part of the daily ritual in Paris and was known as the ________ hour after the vibrant color of the liqueur. 55) The ________ was incited by an unpopular tax that divided West against East in the second decade of the American Republic. 56) Grafted grape vines introduced a far more lethal pathogen, the oomycete ________ ________. 57) What saved the vineyards threatened with downy mildew throughout France in the 1870s? 58) Mushrooms can be considered a fairly good human food source because they contain complete proteins. 59) Fermented foods are usually lower in nutritional quality than the unfermented base. 60) Alcohol acts as a stimulant of the central nervous system. 61) Downy mildew of grapes is caused by Phylloxera, root-feeding aphids. 62) The cultivation of grapes is known as viticulture. 63) The fermenting organism in both the production of beer and wine is the bacterium in the genus Acetobacter. 64) Louis Pasteur, a noted French microbiologist of the 19th century, is credited with developing several standard steps in the champagne making process. 65) Enology is the science of wine making. 66) During fermentation, sugar is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide through the action of yeast. 67) Hard liquors or spirits (whiskey, brandy, etc.) are made by the pasteurization of a beer or wine. 68) Brandy is added to dessert wines to halt fermentation and maintain natural sweetness. 69) Quorn mycoprotein is a high-protein meat substitute obtained from the mycelium of a fungus.

4) What may happen to the quality of cork and cork oak trees if climate change continues? A) A decline in the quality of cork stoppers B) Thinner layers of bark C) Production of more lenticels, increasing the possibility of Acetobacter contamination. D) Conversion of alcohol into vinegar because of less dense, more airy cork E) All of the above may happen. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Which of the following is a characteristic of wine grape plants? A) flowers are three-parted B) leaves are pinnately compound C) flowers are imperfect D) flowers are self-pollinating E) None of these is characteristics of wine grape plants. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following is the species that provides necessary rootstock for virtually all wine grape plants? A) Vitis acerifolia B) Vitis labrusca C) Vitis rupestris D) Vitis vinifera E) Vitis vulpine Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) Which of the following is(are) correct? A) The aroma and flavor of fine red wines is obtained by aging the wine in barrels made from white oak. B) The best method is to age the wine in tanks with oak chips. C) For most red wines, a second fermentation in the barrel is a necessity. D) During bottling, wine is placed in sterile bottles that are flushed with pure oxygen to prevent aging. E) Champagne, strictly speaking, is a sparkling wine produced only by Dom Perignon. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) Why is it necessary to graft rootstock onto wine grape plants? A) to avoid aphid infestation B) to avoid downy mildew infection C) to avoid deer damage D) to create wines with a higher alcohol content E) to insure the wine grape flowers are pollinated Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) The serious problem created by the importation to Europe of North America grapevines in 1860 was caused by A) Saprolegnia B) Phylloxera C) Plasmopara D) Artemesia E) Aspergillus Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) In the production of red wine, the red skins are removed after A) crushing. B) pressing. C) fermentation. D) riddling. E) clarification. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) What are the two products of alcohol fermentation? A) ethanol and oxygen B) lactic acid and ethanol C) lactic acid and oxygen D) ethanol and carbon dioxide E) lactic acid and carbon dioxide Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

12) With climate change, which of the following may happen? A) Vineyards will increase their yield. B) The grapes will mutate. C) The Tuscany area in Italy will expand twice-fold. D) The Bordeaux region of France will no longer be suitable for the cultivation of wine grapes. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) What is the purpose of adding sulfur dioxide during wine grape fermentation? A) removal of oxygen B) inhibition of unwanted microorganisms C) prevention of wine turning into vinegar D) inhibition of substrate level phosphorylation E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) How would white wine taste if the fermentation temperature was 5°C? A) It would have a yeasty taste. B) It would be perfect; 5°C is the best temperature for white wine fermentation. C) It would taste too fruity. D) It would taste burnt. E) It would have a lower alcohol content. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) Breaking up the skin cap several times a day is required for what type of wine? A) white B) red C) champagne D) dessert E) All of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

16) Red wine fermentation continues for a maximum of how long? A) 2 days B) 2 years C) 2 weeks D) 2 months E) 3 years in barrels Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Yeast begin to die above alcohol concentrations of ________ percent. A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16 E) 20 Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Lees are removed from wine by using various agents. Among the following, which is not one of those agents? A) egg whites B) gelatin C) bentonite clay D) sorbic acid E) All of these are agents are used to remove lees. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19) Which of the following is a process that could occur in the production of both white and red wines? A) filtration using millipore filters B) fermentation at temperatures between 25°C and 30°C C) removal of skin caps D) a second fermentation E) All of these processes could occur in the production of both white and red wines. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

20) Which of the following wines is not one of the principal wines used in champagne cuvee? A) chardonnay B) chenin blanc C) pinot noir D) pinot meunier E) malbec Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) The removal of sediments from a champagne bottle is called A) riddling B) racking C) clarification D) disgorgement E) capping Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) To increase the alcohol content of wine, typically ________ is added. A) sherry B) cuvee C) brandy D) port E) grappa Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) The first step in brewing beer involves which of the following? A) moistening B) drying C) crushing D) roasting E) mashing Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

24) The starch from which of the following plants is typically not used in beer brewing? A) wheat B) potato C) corn D) rice E) barley Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) In beer brewing, what is wort? A) the germinated barley grains B) the grain starch C) the strained mash D) the roasted malt E) the hops/mash mixture Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) What part of Humulus lupulus is used in beer brewing? A) the roots B) the buds C) the leaves D) the bark E) the flowers Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) Which of the following microbes is used in the production of sake? A) Saprolegnia B) Phylloxera C) Plasmopara D) Artemesia E) Aspergillus Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

28) In sake production, the sugars from the enzymatic breakdown of starch is called which of the following? A) koji B) moto C) moromi D) tasukete E) itsu Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) In the making of distilled spirits, the ________ of beer or wine concentrates the alcohol. A) double fermentation B) boiling C) acidifying D) filtering E) oxidizing Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Wormwood is used in the making of which of the following? A) gin B) tequila C) absinthe D) cognac E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) The most commonly eaten fungi are found in which of the following divisions? A) Ascomycota B) Zygomycota C) Chitridiomycota D) Basidiomycota E) Glomeromycota Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

32) This cultivated mushroom is grown on natural or artificial logs and, in some countries, is prescribed in cancer therapy. This cultivated mushroom is which of the following? A) Lentinus edodes B) Agaricus bisporus C) Volvariella volvacea D) Pleurotus pulmonarius E) Coprinus comatus. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) Which brain center is inhibited by alcohol? A) speech B) vision C) balance D) judgement E) All of these brain centers are inhibited by alcohol. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) Hops are added to the wort in beer making for which of the following reasons? A) to balance the sweet taste of the malt B) to preserve the beer C) to promote a foamy head D) to do all of the above E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Malt is essential to the brewing process because it is the source of which of the following? A) sugar for the yeast B) agents to clarify the beer C) the pungent taste of beer D) yeast for fermentation E) agents to promote the Calvin cycle Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

36) An unaged distilled spirit that is flavored by steeping for several weeks in juniper "berries" for flavor is which of the following? A) vodka B) brandy C) rye D) gin E) aloe vera Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Which of the following is not true about the production of rice wine (sake)? A) The carbohydrate base is rice. B) It has an alcoholic content of 5%. C) A mold is the source of enzymes that convert rice starch into fermentable sugars. D) Yeast is the fermenting organism. E) The alcohol content is only 1 percent. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) Which of the following is not true about the effect of alcohol upon the body? A) It is a stimulant of the CNS. B) It increases the levels of HDLs. C) It is metabolized by the liver to water and carbon dioxide. D) It is associated with certain birth defects. E) It is associated with macrocephaly. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) The year a wine was made is called its ________ year. Answer: vintage Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) ________ ATPs are formed from the chemical energy released when glucose is broken down during fermentation. Answer: Two Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

41) The French ________ is the observation that the French have a lower incidence of cardiovascular disease despite a diet high in saturated fats and cholesterol. Answer: paradox Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) Yeast is a single-cell ________ that will forgo ________ ________ in an anaerobic environment. Answer: Ascomycete; aerobic respiration Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) Evidence of a wine-like drink was found recently in a 8,000 to 9,000 year-old site in ________. Answer: China. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) ________ ________ syndrome is the damage done to the fetus whose mothers drank immoderate amounts of alcohol during pregnancy. Answer: Fetal alcohol Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) The enzyme in the liver that degrades alcohol to carbon dioxide and water is known as ________ ________. Answer: alcohol dehydrogenase Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 46) The resulting mix of skins, seeds, and juice when grapes are crushed is called the ________. Answer: must Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

47) ________ is a technique whereby a substance is heated to rid it of bacterial contaminants. Answer: Pasteurization Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) The ancient art of wine making is now called the science of ________. Answer: Enology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) It was the scientist ________ who discovered that yeast, through an anaerobic process, converts grape juice into wine. Answer: Pasteur Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) One of the first widely used fungicides was ________ mixture, a lethal mix of copper sulfate and lime that protects the grape vine from downy mildew. Answer: Bordeaux Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 51) A ________ wine has no residual sweetness since fermentation continues to completion. Answer: dry Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) In ________ fermentation, the fermentable base is left open to the environment to pick up any wild yeast strains present in the environment. Answer: spontaneous Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Technically speaking, wine is fermented ________ ________. Answer: grape juice Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

54) The drinking of absinthe became part of the daily ritual in Paris and was known as the ________ hour after the vibrant color of the liqueur. Answer: green Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) The ________ was incited by an unpopular tax that divided West against East in the second decade of the American Republic. Answer: Whiskey Rebellion Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Grafted grape vines introduced a far more lethal pathogen, the oomycete ________ ________. Answer: Plasmopara viticola Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) What saved the vineyards threatened with downy mildew throughout France in the 1870s? Answer: a fungicide called the Bordeaux mixture Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) Mushrooms can be considered a fairly good human food source because they contain complete proteins. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Fermented foods are usually lower in nutritional quality than the unfermented base. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) Alcohol acts as a stimulant of the central nervous system. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

61) Downy mildew of grapes is caused by Phylloxera, root-feeding aphids. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) The cultivation of grapes is known as viticulture. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) The fermenting organism in both the production of beer and wine is the bacterium in the genus Acetobacter. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) Louis Pasteur, a noted French microbiologist of the 19th century, is credited with developing several standard steps in the champagne making process. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 65) Enology is the science of wine making. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) During fermentation, sugar is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide through the action of yeast. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) Hard liquors or spirits (whiskey, brandy, etc.) are made by the pasteurization of a beer or wine. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

68) Brandy is added to dessert wines to halt fermentation and maintain natural sweetness. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) Quorn mycoprotein is a high-protein meat substitute obtained from the mycelium of a fungus. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 25 Fungi That Affect Human Health 1) How does penicillin affect bacteria? A) It binds to and immobilizes bacterial tRNA. B) It blocks the formation of bacterial cell walls. C) It interferes with the storage of glucose. D) It pokes holes in the bacterial plasma membrane. E) None of the above is correct. 2) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Fungi produce carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. B) Fungi produce a vast number of secondary compounds. C) Many fungal metabolites have widespread commercial importance. D) Fungi may produce both antibiotics that serve as toxins. E) All of the above are correct. 3) Penicillin was first used to treat war wounds in which of the following wars? A) the American Civil War B) the Spanish-American War C) World War I D) World War II E) the American-Korean War 4) Which of the following statements is correct about penicillin? A) Penicillin is a by-product of metabolism found in specific Penicillium species that inhibits gram-positive bacterial growth. B) Penicillin saved thousands of lives during WWI. C) Fleming's discovery occurred when he deliberately put a mold in his bacterial cultures. D) Fleming was trying to find a cure for deadly E. coli bacteria. E) Commercial production of penicillin must be carried out in small flasks made of white oak. 5) What has been the downside to the widespread use of penicillin? A) The evolution of resistance by many bacteria. B) The development of allergies by many humans. C) It is very easy to overdose on small amounts of penicillin. D) Penicillin strains are now highly addictive. E) The cost of penicillin is prohibitive for much of the world. 6) Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin? A) amoxicillin B) ampicillin C) methicillin D) cephalosporin E) All of the above are semisynthetic penicillin. 1 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) The most valuable commercial strain of penicillin is which of the following? A) Penicillium chrysogenum B) Penicillium alba C) Penicillium notatum D) Penicillium pylorus E) All of the above are effective commercial strains of Penicillium. 8) The following pairs are matched correctly except one. Choose the exception. A) tetracycline :: bactericidal and fungicidal B) penicillin :: bactericidal C) griseofulvum :: fungicidal D) cephalosporin :: fungicidal E) echinocandin :: fungicidal 9) Mycotoxins most commonly develop in which of the following locations? A) growing fields. B) storage. C) processing. D) cooking. E) the digestion process. 10) After World War II, the pharmaceutical industry developed which of the following? A) Altered versions of penicillin with greater stability B) Biochemical mutants with 10,000 times more penicillin than the original organisms C) Altered penicillin with broader antibacterial activity D) Penicillin that could be taking orally at home E) All of the above are correct. 11) The fungus ________ is the most common source of mycotoxins affecting human health. A) Claviceps purpurea B) Penicillium chrysogenum C) Aspergillus flavus D) Amanita verosa E) Candida albicans 12) In which of the following plants could you find ergot? A) potato B) wheat C) apple D) squash E) In all of these plants you could find ergot.

13) All of the following fungal species are matched with the active chemical compound they produce except one. Choose the exception. A) Claviceps purpurea :: ergometrine B) Conocybe cyanopus :: amatoxins C) Amanita muscaria :: ibotenic acid D) Panaeolus cyanescens :: psilocybin E) Amanita virosa :: aflatoxins 14) The fungus most closely related to the fungus producing the hallucinogenic drug, LSD is which of the following? A) Claviceps purpurea B) Conocybe cyanopus C) Amanita muscaria D) Panaeolus cyanescens E) Psilocybe cubensis 15) Which of the following is true about fungal poisons and toxins? A) Fungal toxins detrimental to humans fall into two groups, mycotoxins and mushroom toxins. B) Mycotoxins are commonly produced by fungi growing in contaminated food. C) Mycotoxins are among the most potent known carcinogens. D) Brazilian peanut meal contaminated with Aspergillus flavus was the likely suspect in causing Turkey X disease. E) All of the above are correct. 16) Aflatoxins have been implicated in ________ cancer. A) breast B) bone C) liver D) pancreatic E) colon 17) Ergot are fungal ________. A) basidiocarps B) asci C) arbuscles D) sclerotia E) conidia

18) Several hours after eating a peanut butter sandwich on rye bread, Bart the bartender starting scratching his itchy skin. He then began having severe muscle cramps and spasms. A short while later, he began having visions of demons dancing on tables. What fungal poison did Bart the bartender ingest? A) ergometrine B) amatoxins C) ibotenic acid D) psilocybin E) aflatoxins 19) Which of the following common genera of fungi are known to produce mycotoxins? A) Aspergillus B) Penicillium C) Fusarium D) Alternaria E) All of the above produce known mycotoxins. 20) By far most fatalities from mushroom poisonings are caused by mushroom in the genus ________. A) Galerina B) Amanita C) Psilocybe D) Agaricus E) Conocybe 21) Which of the following is not a correct statement? A) Aspergillus flavus is a common saprobe that occurs on many grains and legumes in storage. B) Aspergillus flavus can produce aflatoxins. C) Aspergillus flavus may be restricted to specific strains. D) Aspergillus flavus always produces mycotoxins. E) Aspergillus flavus cannot be used to prepared fermented food for the above reasons. 22) You find a beautiful tall, white mushroom with a well-defined annulus, veil, and volva, especially in the "button stage," You most likely have found which of the following? A) Amanita muscaria. B) Psilocybe cubensis. C) Agaricus bisporus. D) Amanita virosa. E) Lentinus edodes.

23) The following compounds are matched correctly with their effect except one. Choose the exception. A) cyclosporin :: immunosuppression B) lovastatin :: lowers LDL C) amatoxin :: gangrene; hallucinations D) ergometrine :: vasoconstriction; smooth muscle cramping E) muscimol :: epilepsy-like seizures; hallucinations 24) Which of the following compounds has its effect by blocking the synthesis of mRNA? A) aflatoxins B) lovastatin C) amatoxins D) ergometrine E) muscimol 25) What organ is most affected by amatoxins? A) heart B) lungs C) kidney D) liver E) pancreas 26) Which of the following is correct about ergotism? A) People infected invariably die. B) Chronic poisoning can lead to gangrenous poisoning. C) Acute ergotism cannot be caused by contaminated bread. D) The sclerotia contain only a few secondary metabolites. E) All of the above are correct. 27) Called by the Aztecs Teonanacatl, this sacred mushroom is of the genus ________. A) Galerina B) Amanita C) Psilocybe D) Agaricus E) Conocybe 28) Which among the following provides the best treatment for ringworm? A) streptomycin B) griseofulvin C) cyclosporin D) simvastatin E) cephalosporin

29) Preparations made from ergot can be used to affect all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) prevent transplant rejection B) induce abortions C) aid in childbirth D) treat migraine headaches E) induce hallucinations 30) Candida albicans is the causal agent for all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) vaginal yeast infection B) diaper rash C) thrush D) ringworm E) invasive candidiasis 31) Which of the following is not correct? A) Many scientists believe that fungi still contain a wealth of novel compounds yet to be discovered. B) Cyclosporin A, a metabolite isolated from Tolypocladium inflatum, was the "wonder drug of the '70s." C) Cyclosporin A is used for many organ transplants. D) Statins are cholesterol-lowering drugs that were originally isolated from fungi. E) All of the above are correct. 32) Chintu, a chicken farmer, complained to her doctor about shortness of breath. The doctor diagnosed her with tuberculosis. But soon after the diagnosis, the infection became systemic, spreading to other organs. She later died from the infection. Chintu probably did not have tuberculosis. She likely had which of the following? A) Tinea pedis B) coccidioidomycosis C) histoplasmosis D) ergotism E) candidiasis 33) The most common of the opportunistic fungi is which of the following genera? A) Coccidioides B) Aspergillus C) Candida D) Cladosporium E) Trichophyton

34) The following fungi are correctly matched with their type of mycoses except one. Choose the exception. A) Microsporum :: systemic B) Canidia :: superficial C) Histoplasma :: systemic D) Trichophyton :: superficial E) Aspergillus :: systemic 35) Which of the following is one of the most common allergenic fungi? A) Coccidioides B) Aspergillus C) Candida D) Alternaria E) Trichophyton 36) Seth the secretary works in one of the oldest buildings in the city. Lately, Seth has been suffering from burning eyes, dizziness, tightness of breath, and headaches. Most likely Seth the secretary has which of the following? A) tinea pedis B) sick building syndrome C) histoplasmosis D) ergotism E) candidiasis 37) Which of the following historical events may be associated with ergotism? A) It may have affected Czar Peter the Great in his attempt to invade Turkey. B) It may have contributed to the hysteria around the Salem witch trials. C) It may have played a role in the peasant's collective panic around the French Revolution. D) All of the above may be correct. E) None of the above is correct. 38) Living in water-damaged indoor areas and producing potent mycotoxins is the fungus called ________. A) Coccidioides B) Aspergillus C) Stachybotrys D) Alternaria E) Trichophyton 39) St. Anthony's fire or the "dancing mania" was probably caused by ingesting which of the following? A) psilocybin mushrooms B) fly agaric C) ergoted grain D) Amanita virosa E) Aspergillus spores 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

40) Which of the following is the most potent psychoactive drug known? A) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) B) THC C) Psilocybin D) Heroin E) Cocaine 41) Which of the following contains a hallucinogen that can pass through the kidneys unaltered? A) Atropa belladonna B) Lophophora williamsii C) Cannabis sativa D) Amanita muscaria E) Papaver somniferum 42) An unusual intoxicant (ibotenic acid), which is excreted by the kidneys unaltered and for this reason has been used with ritual urine drinking, is which of the following? A) muscimol B) mescaline C) psilocybin D) atropine E) tannins 43) A ring-like membrane on the stalk of a mushroom is called a(n) ________. A) gill B) scale C) volva D) annulus E) mycelium 44) Coccidioides immitis is the cause of which of the following? A) histoplasmosis B) candidiasis C) athlete's foot D) valley fever E) ringworm 45) The amatoxins are: A) protoplasmic toxins B) neurotoxins C) gastrointestinal irritants D) mycotoxins E) non-toxic

46) Which of the following is not a benefit of statin drugs? A) They are effective in preventing strokes. B) Statins reduce coronary artery inflammation, which is a major cause of heart attacks. C) Statins reduce the risk of colon cancer in combination when combined with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. D) Statins may lower the risk of Alzheimer's. E) Statins may lower the risk of breast cancer. 47) Which of the following genera is a sacred mushroom among the native tribes of Mexico and Central America? A) Amanita B) Psilocybe C) Penicillium D) Claviceps E) Aspergillus 48) The fungus which infects rye plants and is a source of lysergic acid is known as ________. 49) Tinea pedis is better known as ________. 50) Griseofulvin is an antibiotic that is used to treat ________ diseases. 51) Fungal toxins produced by the hyphae of common molds are called ________. 52) ________ are fungi that parasitize outer layers of the body, such as skin, hair, and nails. 53) Common saprobes that can cause systemic infections in immune-compromised patients are called ________ pathogens. 54) It has been suggested that the consumption of ________ grain may have caused the hysteria that led to the Salem witch trials in 1692. 55) Statin drugs were originally developed to reduce ________ levels and are now being hailed as new wonder drugs. 56) During the Middle Ages, ergotism was called ________. 57) Penicillin production today comes from Penicillium chrysogenum originally isolated from a moldy ________. 58) ________ was first isolated from contaminated animal feed that caused Turkey X Disease. 59) Inhalation of ________ from the spores of Stachybotrys was implicated in the death of infants from pulmonary hemorrhage.

60) This partial veil is a membrane that covers the ________ during mushroom development. 61) A ringworm infection occurring on the scalp is called ________. 62) Psilocybin and psilocin are also known as "magic mushrooms" in the genus Psilocybe. 63) Ibotenic acid, the major toxin of Amanita muscaria, the fly agaric, is converted into muscimol, which produces psychoactive effects on humans. 64) Statin drugs act as inhibitors to one of the enzymes necessary for cholesterol synthesis in the body. 65) Poisonous mushrooms always have an annulus and volva. 66) Pravastatin, simvastatin, and lovastatin are all derived from the fermentation process of the fungus Aspergillus aquaticus. 67) LSD affects midbrain activity by interfering with the action of the neurotransmitter serotonin. 68) LSD is associated with ergot of rye. 69) Cladosporium and Alternaria are common allergenic fungi. 70) In many instances, both poisonous and edible species of mushroom occur within a single genus. 71) Antibiotics have ended the threat of all bacterial diseases. 72) The majority of mushrooms are safe for human consumption, although they may not be very palatable. 73) The genus Amanita contains deadly amatoxins, even though a few species in the genus are actually edible. 74) Antidotes are available for amatoxins.

4) Which of the following statements is correct about penicillin? A) Penicillin is a by-product of metabolism found in specific Penicillium species that inhibits gram-positive bacterial growth. B) Penicillin saved thousands of lives during WWI. C) Fleming's discovery occurred when he deliberately put a mold in his bacterial cultures. D) Fleming was trying to find a cure for deadly E. coli bacteria. E) Commercial production of penicillin must be carried out in small flasks made of white oak. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) What has been the downside to the widespread use of penicillin? A) The evolution of resistance by many bacteria. B) The development of allergies by many humans. C) It is very easy to overdose on small amounts of penicillin. D) Penicillin strains are now highly addictive. E) The cost of penicillin is prohibitive for much of the world. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin? A) amoxicillin B) ampicillin C) methicillin D) cephalosporin E) All of the above are semisynthetic penicillin. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 7) The most valuable commercial strain of penicillin is which of the following? A) Penicillium chrysogenum B) Penicillium alba C) Penicillium notatum D) Penicillium pylorus E) All of the above are effective commercial strains of Penicillium. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

8) The following pairs are matched correctly except one. Choose the exception. A) tetracycline :: bactericidal and fungicidal B) penicillin :: bactericidal C) griseofulvum :: fungicidal D) cephalosporin :: fungicidal E) echinocandin :: fungicidal Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Mycotoxins most commonly develop in which of the following locations? A) growing fields. B) storage. C) processing. D) cooking. E) the digestion process. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10) After World War II, the pharmaceutical industry developed which of the following? A) Altered versions of penicillin with greater stability B) Biochemical mutants with 10,000 times more penicillin than the original organisms C) Altered penicillin with broader antibacterial activity D) Penicillin that could be taking orally at home E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) The fungus ________ is the most common source of mycotoxins affecting human health. A) Claviceps purpurea B) Penicillium chrysogenum C) Aspergillus flavus D) Amanita verosa E) Candida albicans Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

12) In which of the following plants could you find ergot? A) potato B) wheat C) apple D) squash E) In all of these plants you could find ergot. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 13) All of the following fungal species are matched with the active chemical compound they produce except one. Choose the exception. A) Claviceps purpurea :: ergometrine B) Conocybe cyanopus :: amatoxins C) Amanita muscaria :: ibotenic acid D) Panaeolus cyanescens :: psilocybin E) Amanita virosa :: aflatoxins Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) The fungus most closely related to the fungus producing the hallucinogenic drug, LSD is which of the following? A) Claviceps purpurea B) Conocybe cyanopus C) Amanita muscaria D) Panaeolus cyanescens E) Psilocybe cubensis Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) Which of the following is true about fungal poisons and toxins? A) Fungal toxins detrimental to humans fall into two groups, mycotoxins and mushroom toxins. B) Mycotoxins are commonly produced by fungi growing in contaminated food. C) Mycotoxins are among the most potent known carcinogens. D) Brazilian peanut meal contaminated with Aspergillus flavus was the likely suspect in causing Turkey X disease. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 4 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

16) Aflatoxins have been implicated in ________ cancer. A) breast B) bone C) liver D) pancreatic E) colon Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) Ergot are fungal ________. A) basidiocarps B) asci C) arbuscles D) sclerotia E) conidia Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) Several hours after eating a peanut butter sandwich on rye bread, Bart the bartender starting scratching his itchy skin. He then began having severe muscle cramps and spasms. A short while later, he began having visions of demons dancing on tables. What fungal poison did Bart the bartender ingest? A) ergometrine B) amatoxins C) ibotenic acid D) psilocybin E) aflatoxins Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

19) Which of the following common genera of fungi are known to produce mycotoxins? A) Aspergillus B) Penicillium C) Fusarium D) Alternaria E) All of the above produce known mycotoxins. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) By far most fatalities from mushroom poisonings are caused by mushroom in the genus ________. A) Galerina B) Amanita C) Psilocybe D) Agaricus E) Conocybe Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) Which of the following is not a correct statement? A) Aspergillus flavus is a common saprobe that occurs on many grains and legumes in storage. B) Aspergillus flavus can produce aflatoxins. C) Aspergillus flavus may be restricted to specific strains. D) Aspergillus flavus always produces mycotoxins. E) Aspergillus flavus cannot be used to prepared fermented food for the above reasons. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 22) You find a beautiful tall, white mushroom with a well-defined annulus, veil, and volva, especially in the "button stage," You most likely have found which of the following? A) Amanita muscaria. B) Psilocybe cubensis. C) Agaricus bisporus. D) Amanita virosa. E) Lentinus edodes. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

23) The following compounds are matched correctly with their effect except one. Choose the exception. A) cyclosporin :: immunosuppression B) lovastatin :: lowers LDL C) amatoxin :: gangrene; hallucinations D) ergometrine :: vasoconstriction; smooth muscle cramping E) muscimol :: epilepsy-like seizures; hallucinations Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Which of the following compounds has its effect by blocking the synthesis of mRNA? A) aflatoxins B) lovastatin C) amatoxins D) ergometrine E) muscimol Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) What organ is most affected by amatoxins? A) heart B) lungs C) kidney D) liver E) pancreas Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 26) Which of the following is correct about ergotism? A) People infected invariably die. B) Chronic poisoning can lead to gangrenous poisoning. C) Acute ergotism cannot be caused by contaminated bread. D) The sclerotia contain only a few secondary metabolites. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

27) Called by the Aztecs Teonanacatl, this sacred mushroom is of the genus ________. A) Galerina B) Amanita C) Psilocybe D) Agaricus E) Conocybe Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) Which among the following provides the best treatment for ringworm? A) streptomycin B) griseofulvin C) cyclosporin D) simvastatin E) cephalosporin Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 29) Preparations made from ergot can be used to affect all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) prevent transplant rejection B) induce abortions C) aid in childbirth D) treat migraine headaches E) induce hallucinations Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) Candida albicans is the causal agent for all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) vaginal yeast infection B) diaper rash C) thrush D) ringworm E) invasive candidiasis Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

31) Which of the following is not correct? A) Many scientists believe that fungi still contain a wealth of novel compounds yet to be discovered. B) Cyclosporin A, a metabolite isolated from Tolypocladium inflatum, was the "wonder drug of the '70s." C) Cyclosporin A is used for many organ transplants. D) Statins are cholesterol-lowering drugs that were originally isolated from fungi. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 32) Chintu, a chicken farmer, complained to her doctor about shortness of breath. The doctor diagnosed her with tuberculosis. But soon after the diagnosis, the infection became systemic, spreading to other organs. She later died from the infection. Chintu probably did not have tuberculosis. She likely had which of the following? A) Tinea pedis B) coccidioidomycosis C) histoplasmosis D) ergotism E) candidiasis Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) The most common of the opportunistic fungi is which of the following genera? A) Coccidioides B) Aspergillus C) Candida D) Cladosporium E) Trichophyton Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

34) The following fungi are correctly matched with their type of mycoses except one. Choose the exception. A) Microsporum :: systemic B) Canidia :: superficial C) Histoplasma :: systemic D) Trichophyton :: superficial E) Aspergillus :: systemic Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 35) Which of the following is one of the most common allergenic fungi? A) Coccidioides B) Aspergillus C) Candida D) Alternaria E) Trichophyton Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Seth the secretary works in one of the oldest buildings in the city. Lately, Seth has been suffering from burning eyes, dizziness, tightness of breath, and headaches. Most likely Seth the secretary has which of the following? A) tinea pedis B) sick building syndrome C) histoplasmosis D) ergotism E) candidiasis Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) Which of the following historical events may be associated with ergotism? A) It may have affected Czar Peter the Great in his attempt to invade Turkey. B) It may have contributed to the hysteria around the Salem witch trials. C) It may have played a role in the peasant's collective panic around the French Revolution. D) All of the above may be correct. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 10 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

38) Living in water-damaged indoor areas and producing potent mycotoxins is the fungus called ________. A) Coccidioides B) Aspergillus C) Stachybotrys D) Alternaria E) Trichophyton Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 39) St. Anthony's fire or the "dancing mania" was probably caused by ingesting which of the following? A) psilocybin mushrooms B) fly agaric C) ergoted grain D) Amanita virosa E) Aspergillus spores Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) Which of the following is the most potent psychoactive drug known? A) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) B) THC C) Psilocybin D) Heroin E) Cocaine Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) Which of the following contains a hallucinogen that can pass through the kidneys unaltered? A) Atropa belladonna B) Lophophora williamsii C) Cannabis sativa D) Amanita muscaria E) Papaver somniferum Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

42) An unusual intoxicant (ibotenic acid), which is excreted by the kidneys unaltered and for this reason has been used with ritual urine drinking, is which of the following? A) muscimol B) mescaline C) psilocybin D) atropine E) tannins Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 43) A ring-like membrane on the stalk of a mushroom is called a(n) ________. A) gill B) scale C) volva D) annulus E) mycelium Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) Coccidioides immitis is the cause of which of the following? A) histoplasmosis B) candidiasis C) athlete's foot D) valley fever E) ringworm Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) The amatoxins are: A) protoplasmic toxins B) neurotoxins C) gastrointestinal irritants D) mycotoxins E) non-toxic Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

51) Fungal toxins produced by the hyphae of common molds are called ________. Answer: mycotoxins Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) ________ are fungi that parasitize outer layers of the body, such as skin, hair, and nails. Answer: Dermatophytes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) Common saprobes that can cause systemic infections in immune-compromised patients are called ________ pathogens. Answer: opportunistic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) It has been suggested that the consumption of ________ grain may have caused the hysteria that led to the Salem witch trials in 1692. Answer: ergoted Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) Statin drugs were originally developed to reduce ________ levels and are now being hailed as new wonder drugs. Answer: cholesterol Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) During the Middle Ages, ergotism was called ________. Answer: St. Anthony's Fire Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 57) Penicillin production today comes from Penicillium chrysogenum originally isolated from a moldy ________. Answer: cantaloupe Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

58) ________ was first isolated from contaminated animal feed that caused Turkey X Disease. Answer: Aflatoxin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) Inhalation of ________ from the spores of Stachybotrys was implicated in the death of infants from pulmonary hemorrhage. Answer: mycotoxins Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) This partial veil is a membrane that covers the ________ during mushroom development. Answer: gills Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) A ringworm infection occurring on the scalp is called ________. Answer: tinea capitis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) Psilocybin and psilocin are also known as "magic mushrooms" in the genus Psilocybe. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) Ibotenic acid, the major toxin of Amanita muscaria, the fly agaric, is converted into muscimol, which produces psychoactive effects on humans. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 64) Statin drugs act as inhibitors to one of the enzymes necessary for cholesterol synthesis in the body. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

65) Poisonous mushrooms always have an annulus and volva. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) Pravastatin, simvastatin, and lovastatin are all derived from the fermentation process of the fungus Aspergillus aquaticus. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) LSD affects midbrain activity by interfering with the action of the neurotransmitter serotonin. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) LSD is associated with ergot of rye. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) Cladosporium and Alternaria are common allergenic fungi. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 70) In many instances, both poisonous and edible species of mushroom occur within a single genus. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) Antibiotics have ended the threat of all bacterial diseases. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

72) The majority of mushrooms are safe for human consumption, although they may not be very palatable. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 73) The genus Amanita contains deadly amatoxins, even though a few species in the genus are actually edible. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 74) Antidotes are available for amatoxins. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 26 Plant Ecology 1) The term ecology literally means the study of the ________. A) house B) planet C) biosphere D) ecosystem E) biome 2) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) An ecosystem is the functional unit of the environment. B) An ecosystem includes interactions between organisms and all the components of their environment. C) Biomes are large terrestrial regions recognizable by their characteristic vegetation and climate. D) Renewable resources are futuristic and will never be able to sustain a burgeoning human population. E) The best approach to environmentalism is to manage renewable resources with minimal environmental disruption. 3) Firs trees, spotted owls, rodents, slugs, and various fungal species living in a Pacific Northwest forest constitute a(n) ________. A) ecosystem B) community C) population D) biosphere E) combination of all of these 4) Acacia tortillis is the dominant tree of the Serengeti. Collectively the Serengeti A. tortillis represent a(n) ________. A) ecosystem B) community C) population D) biosphere E) combination of all the above 5) Grasses, herbs, herbivores, carnivores, deep organic soils, rapid nitrogen cycling. Found in a typical grassland, collectively these represent a(n) ________. A) ecosystem B) community C) population D) biosphere E) combination of all of these

6) Tuber gibbosum is a mycorrhizal, truffle-producing fungus that is food for rodents in Pacific Northwest forests. What is T. gibbosum's niche? A) the Pacific Northwest forest B) being a fungus C) the combination of the fungus, the tree it is symbiotic with, and the rodent D) providing food for trees via its mycorrhizal function E) providing food 7) Sharks and dolphins live in similar habitats and have similar morphologies. This represents an example of A) competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) biological magnification E) occupying a specialized niche 8) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Under natural conditions, no two species may occupy the same niche indefinitely. B) Competitive exclusion has been amply demonstrated through experimentation. C) The water hyacinth is a major problem in southern waterways, where it crowds out native species. D) Dandelions, coyotes, and humans are examples of specialists. E) Crucial to the functioning of an ecosystem is the relationship of organisms in a food chain. 9) Two closely related plant species live in the same community. One has a shallow fibrous root system whereas the other has a deep tap root system. This represents an example of which of the following? A) competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) occupying a generalized niche E) biological magnification 10) Turner decided to not mow his lawn for one year and see what happened. After one year, he had a yard full of dandelions. This represents an example of which of the following. A) invasive species and competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) biological magnification E) occupying a specialized niche

11) Starlings are called the rats of the bird world. They live in a wide variety of environments throughout North America. This represents an example of which of the following? A) competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) occupying a generalized niche E) occupying a specialized niche 12) Flying squirrels eat mushrooms that decompose the remains of fir trees - the dominant plants in the forest. Spotted owls eat the flying squirrels. In turn, crows eat the eggs of spotted owls. The flying squirrels are which of the following? A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) tertiary consumers E) none of these 13) Flying squirrels eat mushrooms that decompose the remains of fir trees - the dominant plants in the forest. Spotted owls eat the flying squirrels. In turn, crows eat the eggs of spotted owls. The crows are which of the following? A) primary producers. B) primary consumers. C) secondary consumers. D) tertiary consumers. E) none of these. 14) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Producers :: organisms capable of producing complex organic compounds B) Autotrophs :: producer organisms capable of producing their own food for consumption C) Decomposers :: saprobes D) Ecosystem :: in effect transfers energy from a lower level to a higher level E) Biomass :: organic material contained in dead organisms 15) Flying squirrels eat mushrooms that decompose the remains of fir trees - the dominant plants in the forest. Spotted owls eat the flying squirrels. In turn, crows eat the eggs of spotted owls. The fir trees are which of the following? A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) tertiary consumers E) None of the above is correct.

16) Flying squirrels eat mushrooms that decompose the remains of fir trees - the dominant plants in the forest. Spotted owls eat the flying squirrels. In turn, crows eat the eggs of spotted owls. The mushrooms are which of the following? A) primary producers. B) primary consumers. C) secondary consumers. D) tertiary consumers. E) None of the above is correct. 17) In the energy dynamics of an ecosystem, the energy is captured by consumers in the which of the following processes? A) cellular respiration B) photosynthesis C) protein synthesis D) DNA replication E) anaerobic respiration 18) When a horse eats an apple about 10% of the energy from the apple is available to do cellular work. This is a representation of which of the following? A) the First Law of Thermodynamics B) the Second Law of Thermodynamics C) the Law of Mass and Energy Conservation D) both the First and the Second Law of Thermodynamics E) All three of the above laws together are the cause. 19) The biomass of tertiary consumers is terrestrial ecosystem is typically less than that of which of the following? A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) decomposers E) All of the above are correct. 20) More humans could be fed if they ate more ________. A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) tertiary consumers E) None of the above is correct.

21) In a particular freshwater ecosystem, fish ingested plankton that had 5 ppm (parts per million) mercury in their bodies. The fish then had 200 ppm of mercury in their bodies. Bird then ate the fish resulting in their bodies having 1600 ppm mercury. This represents an example of which of the following? A) competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) biological magnification E) occupying a specialized niche 22) Who was the author who alerted the public to the importance of biological magnification? A) Charles Darwin B) Louis Pasteur C) Rachel Carson D) Rosalind Franklin E) Claudia Johnson 23) Which of the following is a carbon sink? A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) decomposers E) All of the above are correct. 24) Tropical rain forests are carbon ________ and thus are contributing to a(n) ________ in global warming. A) sources; increase B) sinks; reduction C) sinks; increase D) sources; reduction E) magnifiers; oxidation 25) Hypothetically, as global warming continues, photosynthesis will ________ and respiration will ________. A) increase; decrease B) increase; increase C) decrease; decrease D) decrease; increase E) Nothing will happen; there is no evidence of global warming. 26) Global carbon dioxide levels have increased by ________ percent in the last 100 years. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 E) 30 5 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

27) What is the name of the successor to the Kyoto Protocol that establishes a trust fund with contributions of 10 billion dollars per year to compensate poorer nations for local climate changes caused by the greenhouse gas emissions of wealthier nations? A) Treaty of Kent B) Copenhagen Accord C) Greenhouse pact D) Global Environmental Initiative E) None of the above is correct. 28) All of the following will result from global warming except one. Choose the exception. A) Climates will become drier. B) Pest and pathogen populations will increase. C) Oceans will become more alkaline. D) Coastal areas will be inundated. E) Phenologies will be disrupted. 29) Which of the following is correct about the United States and the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions? A) The U.S. was one of the first signers of the Kyoto Protocol. B) The U.S. met its target to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 7% in 2012. C) The U.S. Senate in 2003 approved a bill to curb emissions of CO2 and other greenhouse gases. D) The U.S. leads the world in its commitment to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to slow global warming. E) None of these statements is correct. 30) The retreat of a large glacier scoured the earth removing all vegetation and soil. The first plants to recolonize the devastated area were mosses. The type of succession represented in this scenario is ________ and moss is considered a ________ species. A) primary; pioneer B) primary; secondary C) secondary; pioneer D) secondary; primary E) primary; successional 31) Which of the following countries is not a signer of the Kyoto Protocol? A) Japan B) China C) The United States D) Germany E) England

32) The soils of this biome are nutrient and organic matter poor and subject to wind erosion. This biome is which of the following? A) tundra B) chaparral C) grassland D) desert E) tropical rain forest 33) This biome includes short-lived annuals, plants with reduced leaves and photosynthetic stems, and plants with long tap roots. This biome would be classified as which of the following? A) tundra B) chaparral C) grassland D) desert E) tropical rain forest 34) This biome includes evergreen plants with sclerophyllous leaves. Allelopathy is common and plants in this biome are adapted to frequent fires. This biome would be classified as which of the following? A) tundra B) chaparral C) grassland D) desert E) tropical rain forest 35) The savanna is a type of ________. A) tundra B) chaparral C) grassland D) desert E) tropical rain forest 36) Which of the following also produces a natural rubber latex similar to that of the rubber tree in the Amazon? A) Parthenium argentatum B) Quercus rubra C) Pinus pseudostrobus D) Juglans nigra E) Simmondsia chinensis 37) A biome characterized by permafrost is which of the following? A) tundra B) chaparral C) boreal forest D) desert E) tropical rain forest 7 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

38) In this biome, conifers dominate, soils have low fertility and are acidic. Caribou live in this biome part of the year. This biome is ________. A) tundra B) chaparral C) taiga D) desert E) tropical rain forest 39) The greatest species diversity is found in this biome. A) deciduous forest B) tropical rain forest C) grasslands D) taiga E) montane rain forest 40) A xerophyte may have which of the following adaptations? A) succulent stems B) aerial roots C) germinate during the dry summer season D) a xerophyte may have all of these adaptations E) None of the above is correct. 41) The liquid wax taken from the seeds of this desert plant is similar to the spermaceti oil obtained from the endangered sperm whale. This plant is called ________. A) jojoba B) carnauba C) safflower D) olive E) live oak 42) The main source of natural rubber comes from which native plant of the tropical rainforest? A) Hevea brasiliensis B) Manilkara zapota C) Phytelephas macrocarpa D) Bertholletia excelsa E) Aesclepias tuberosa 43) What two physical factors are most important in determining the type of biome found in a region? A) soil type and annual precipitation B) fire and temperature C) temperature and precipitation D) temperature and topography E) insolation and precipitation 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

44) The bison in the North American prairie and the wildebeest in the savanna of Africa are examples of which of the following? A) ecological equivalents B) abiotic factors C) producers D) decomposers E) primary producers 45) Which ecological pyramid illustrates the observation that it takes many small organisms to support the nutritional needs of one large organism? A) pyramid of numbers B) pyramid of biomass C) pyramid of energy D) pyramid of calories E) pyramid schemes 46) Which of the following statements is correct? A) New scientific reports suggest that many diverse species from biogeographic locations across the world are actually not responding to changes in world climate. B) The phenology of most species shows that there is no change in the periodic cycles of appearance of organisms. C) Carbon dioxide is the raw material of photosynthesis, but plant growth has not changed since it has increased in the atmosphere over the past 50 years. D) Current research suggests that community composition is likely to change in an enhanced carbon dioxide world in which invasives may replace native species. E) None of the above is correct. 47) The growth of vegetation after a forest fire is an example of which of the following: A) competitive exclusion B) secondary succession C) biological magnification D) primary succession E) absolute competition 48) A ________ ________ is a linear sequence indicating the nutritional relationships between organisms in a community. 49) A ________ community is the last successional stage in both primary and secondary succession. 50) ________ ________ are the harvests of natural products from the rain forest that can be collected with minimal environmental damage and for long-term sustainable economic gain. 51) ________ is a process in which rubber is treated with sulfur and heat to stabilize its elastic properties. 9 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

52) Global ________ and an increase in carbon dioxide in the air from human activities have all contributed to the greenhouse effect. 53) ________ is the hard endosperm of a rain forest palm that can be carved into figurines, jewelry, or buttons. 54) Studies of primary rain forests in the Amazon showed that tropical rain forests may play a major role in slowing greenhouse warming. 55) Consider a simplified ecosystem: grass->mice->weasels->. According to the pyramid of biomass concept, if you were to determine the collective dry weight of all the organisms at each trophic level, the weasels would have the largest biomass and the grasses would have the smallest. 56) Data collected from a local forest ecosystem quantified the number of organisms from four different trophic levels: 5, 50,000, 150,000, and 1,000,000. The number of herbivores would most likely be 150,000. 57) Carbon returns to the atmospheric reservoir when plants photosynthesize. 58) "Habitat" specifically refers to the physical setting where an organism lives. 59) The progressive development of a forest community on an abandoned pasture is an example of primary succession. 60) The first organisms to occupy a new successional site are called pioneer species. 61) The biosphere is the interplay between a community and the abiotic factors in the environment. 62) The range of disease-carrying organisms will likely be reduced as global climate change increases. 63) The dominant vegetation in the boreal or taiga biome is a forest of conifers. 64) The savanna is a temperate forest biome characterized by trees that annually shed their leaves in autumn. 65) Deciduous trees in a temperate forest lose all their leaves in the fall, thus stopping their primary production activities. 66) A utility company burning coal to produce electricity is an example of the First Law of Thermodynamics. 67) Niche is the broad range of characteristics of an organism that defines how it relates to the rest of its community.

68) The invasion of life onto an island newly created by volcanic activity is an example of primary succession. 69) When a car is driven, only about 10% of the high-quality chemical energy available in the gasoline is converted into mechanical energy to propel the vehicle. The remaining 90% is degraded to low quality heat that is released into the environment. This is an illustration of the Second Law of Thermodynamics. 70) According to the pyramid of energy, it generally takes about 100 kilograms (dry weight) of clover to make 10 kg of rabbit, which in turn will make 1 kg of fox. 71) Photosynthesis is the oxidation of glucose yielding energy and releasing carbon dioxide. 72) Autotrophs cannot synthesize food and must realize their nutritional needs by eating other organisms. 73) True heterotrophs cannot manufacture or produce their own food. 74) Biomes are the climax communities for particular regions of the terrestrial environment. 75) Cacti have modified their leaves into spines and developed water-storing, photosynthetic stems. Characteristics such as these that enhance the survival of an organism in its environment are known as adaptations. 76) Cacti and other succulents often have green stems and trunks where additional photosynthesis can take place. 77) Clear-cutting is the method of tree harvesting that is least disruptive to a forest. 78) In the shelterwood method of tree harvesting, some mature trees are not harvested to regenerate the forest naturally.

Plants and Society, 8e (Levetin) Chapter 26 Plant Ecology 1) The term ecology literally means the study of the ________. A) house B) planet C) biosphere D) ecosystem E) biome Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 2) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) An ecosystem is the functional unit of the environment. B) An ecosystem includes interactions between organisms and all the components of their environment. C) Biomes are large terrestrial regions recognizable by their characteristic vegetation and climate. D) Renewable resources are futuristic and will never be able to sustain a burgeoning human population. E) The best approach to environmentalism is to manage renewable resources with minimal environmental disruption. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 3) Firs trees, spotted owls, rodents, slugs, and various fungal species living in a Pacific Northwest forest constitute a(n) ________. A) ecosystem B) community C) population D) biosphere E) combination of all of these Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

4) Acacia tortillis is the dominant tree of the Serengeti. Collectively the Serengeti A. tortillis represent a(n) ________. A) ecosystem B) community C) population D) biosphere E) combination of all the above Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 5) Grasses, herbs, herbivores, carnivores, deep organic soils, rapid nitrogen cycling. Found in a typical grassland, collectively these represent a(n) ________. A) ecosystem B) community C) population D) biosphere E) combination of all of these Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 6) Tuber gibbosum is a mycorrhizal, truffle-producing fungus that is food for rodents in Pacific Northwest forests. What is T. gibbosum's niche? A) the Pacific Northwest forest B) being a fungus C) the combination of the fungus, the tree it is symbiotic with, and the rodent D) providing food for trees via its mycorrhizal function E) providing food Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

7) Sharks and dolphins live in similar habitats and have similar morphologies. This represents an example of A) competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) biological magnification E) occupying a specialized niche Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Under natural conditions, no two species may occupy the same niche indefinitely. B) Competitive exclusion has been amply demonstrated through experimentation. C) The water hyacinth is a major problem in southern waterways, where it crowds out native species. D) Dandelions, coyotes, and humans are examples of specialists. E) Crucial to the functioning of an ecosystem is the relationship of organisms in a food chain. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 9) Two closely related plant species live in the same community. One has a shallow fibrous root system whereas the other has a deep tap root system. This represents an example of which of the following? A) competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) occupying a generalized niche E) biological magnification Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

10) Turner decided to not mow his lawn for one year and see what happened. After one year, he had a yard full of dandelions. This represents an example of which of the following. A) invasive species and competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) biological magnification E) occupying a specialized niche Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 11) Starlings are called the rats of the bird world. They live in a wide variety of environments throughout North America. This represents an example of which of the following? A) competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) occupying a generalized niche E) occupying a specialized niche Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12) Flying squirrels eat mushrooms that decompose the remains of fir trees - the dominant plants in the forest. Spotted owls eat the flying squirrels. In turn, crows eat the eggs of spotted owls. The flying squirrels are which of the following? A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) tertiary consumers E) none of these Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

13) Flying squirrels eat mushrooms that decompose the remains of fir trees - the dominant plants in the forest. Spotted owls eat the flying squirrels. In turn, crows eat the eggs of spotted owls. The crows are which of the following? A) primary producers. B) primary consumers. C) secondary consumers. D) tertiary consumers. E) none of these. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 14) Which of the following is not a correct association? A) Producers :: organisms capable of producing complex organic compounds B) Autotrophs :: producer organisms capable of producing their own food for consumption C) Decomposers :: saprobes D) Ecosystem :: in effect transfers energy from a lower level to a higher level E) Biomass :: organic material contained in dead organisms Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15) Flying squirrels eat mushrooms that decompose the remains of fir trees - the dominant plants in the forest. Spotted owls eat the flying squirrels. In turn, crows eat the eggs of spotted owls. The fir trees are which of the following? A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) tertiary consumers E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

16) Flying squirrels eat mushrooms that decompose the remains of fir trees - the dominant plants in the forest. Spotted owls eat the flying squirrels. In turn, crows eat the eggs of spotted owls. The mushrooms are which of the following? A) primary producers. B) primary consumers. C) secondary consumers. D) tertiary consumers. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 17) In the energy dynamics of an ecosystem, the energy is captured by consumers in the which of the following processes? A) cellular respiration B) photosynthesis C) protein synthesis D) DNA replication E) anaerobic respiration Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 18) When a horse eats an apple about 10% of the energy from the apple is available to do cellular work. This is a representation of which of the following? A) the First Law of Thermodynamics B) the Second Law of Thermodynamics C) the Law of Mass and Energy Conservation D) both the First and the Second Law of Thermodynamics E) All three of the above laws together are the cause. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

19) The biomass of tertiary consumers is terrestrial ecosystem is typically less than that of which of the following? A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) decomposers E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 20) More humans could be fed if they ate more ________. A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) tertiary consumers E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 21) In a particular freshwater ecosystem, fish ingested plankton that had 5 ppm (parts per million) mercury in their bodies. The fish then had 200 ppm of mercury in their bodies. Bird then ate the fish resulting in their bodies having 1600 ppm mercury. This represents an example of which of the following? A) competitive exclusion B) ecological equivalence C) resource partitioning D) biological magnification E) occupying a specialized niche Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

22) Who was the author who alerted the public to the importance of biological magnification? A) Charles Darwin B) Louis Pasteur C) Rachel Carson D) Rosalind Franklin E) Claudia Johnson Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 23) Which of the following is a carbon sink? A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) decomposers E) All of the above are correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 24) Tropical rain forests are carbon ________ and thus are contributing to a(n) ________ in global warming. A) sources; increase B) sinks; reduction C) sinks; increase D) sources; reduction E) magnifiers; oxidation Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 25) Hypothetically, as global warming continues, photosynthesis will ________ and respiration will ________. A) increase; decrease B) increase; increase C) decrease; decrease D) decrease; increase E) Nothing will happen; there is no evidence of global warming. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 8 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

26) Global carbon dioxide levels have increased by ________ percent in the last 100 years. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 E) 30 Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 27) What is the name of the successor to the Kyoto Protocol that establishes a trust fund with contributions of 10 billion dollars per year to compensate poorer nations for local climate changes caused by the greenhouse gas emissions of wealthier nations? A) Treaty of Kent B) Copenhagen Accord C) Greenhouse pact D) Global Environmental Initiative E) None of the above is correct. Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 28) All of the following will result from global warming except one. Choose the exception. A) Climates will become drier. B) Pest and pathogen populations will increase. C) Oceans will become more alkaline. D) Coastal areas will be inundated. E) Phenologies will be disrupted. Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

29) Which of the following is correct about the United States and the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions? A) The U.S. was one of the first signers of the Kyoto Protocol. B) The U.S. met its target to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 7% in 2012. C) The U.S. Senate in 2003 approved a bill to curb emissions of CO2 and other greenhouse gases. D) The U.S. leads the world in its commitment to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to slow global warming. E) None of these statements is correct. Answer: E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 30) The retreat of a large glacier scoured the earth removing all vegetation and soil. The first plants to recolonize the devastated area were mosses. The type of succession represented in this scenario is ________ and moss is considered a ________ species. A) primary; pioneer B) primary; secondary C) secondary; pioneer D) secondary; primary E) primary; successional Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 31) Which of the following countries is not a signer of the Kyoto Protocol? A) Japan B) China C) The United States D) Germany E) England Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

32) The soils of this biome are nutrient and organic matter poor and subject to wind erosion. This biome is which of the following? A) tundra B) chaparral C) grassland D) desert E) tropical rain forest Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 33) This biome includes short-lived annuals, plants with reduced leaves and photosynthetic stems, and plants with long tap roots. This biome would be classified as which of the following? A) tundra B) chaparral C) grassland D) desert E) tropical rain forest Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 34) This biome includes evergreen plants with sclerophyllous leaves. Allelopathy is common and plants in this biome are adapted to frequent fires. This biome would be classified as which of the following? A) tundra B) chaparral C) grassland D) desert E) tropical rain forest Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

35) The savanna is a type of ________. A) tundra B) chaparral C) grassland D) desert E) tropical rain forest Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 36) Which of the following also produces a natural rubber latex similar to that of the rubber tree in the Amazon? A) Parthenium argentatum B) Quercus rubra C) Pinus pseudostrobus D) Juglans nigra E) Simmondsia chinensis Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 37) A biome characterized by permafrost is which of the following? A) tundra B) chaparral C) boreal forest D) desert E) tropical rain forest Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 38) In this biome, conifers dominate, soils have low fertility and are acidic. Caribou live in this biome part of the year. This biome is ________. A) tundra B) chaparral C) taiga D) desert E) tropical rain forest Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 12 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

39) The greatest species diversity is found in this biome. A) deciduous forest B) tropical rain forest C) grasslands D) taiga E) montane rain forest Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 40) A xerophyte may have which of the following adaptations? A) succulent stems B) aerial roots C) germinate during the dry summer season D) a xerophyte may have all of these adaptations E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 41) The liquid wax taken from the seeds of this desert plant is similar to the spermaceti oil obtained from the endangered sperm whale. This plant is called ________. A) jojoba B) carnauba C) safflower D) olive E) live oak Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 42) The main source of natural rubber comes from which native plant of the tropical rainforest? A) Hevea brasiliensis B) Manilkara zapota C) Phytelephas macrocarpa D) Bertholletia excelsa E) Aesclepias tuberosa Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

43) What two physical factors are most important in determining the type of biome found in a region? A) soil type and annual precipitation B) fire and temperature C) temperature and precipitation D) temperature and topography E) insolation and precipitation Answer: C Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 44) The bison in the North American prairie and the wildebeest in the savanna of Africa are examples of which of the following? A) ecological equivalents B) abiotic factors C) producers D) decomposers E) primary producers Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 45) Which ecological pyramid illustrates the observation that it takes many small organisms to support the nutritional needs of one large organism? A) pyramid of numbers B) pyramid of biomass C) pyramid of energy D) pyramid of calories E) pyramid schemes Answer: A Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

46) Which of the following statements is correct? A) New scientific reports suggest that many diverse species from biogeographic locations across the world are actually not responding to changes in world climate. B) The phenology of most species shows that there is no change in the periodic cycles of appearance of organisms. C) Carbon dioxide is the raw material of photosynthesis, but plant growth has not changed since it has increased in the atmosphere over the past 50 years. D) Current research suggests that community composition is likely to change in an enhanced carbon dioxide world in which invasives may replace native species. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 47) The growth of vegetation after a forest fire is an example of which of the following: A) competitive exclusion B) secondary succession C) biological magnification D) primary succession E) absolute competition Answer: B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 48) A ________ ________ is a linear sequence indicating the nutritional relationships between organisms in a community. Answer: food chain Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 49) A ________ community is the last successional stage in both primary and secondary succession. Answer: climax Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 50) ________ ________ are the harvests of natural products from the rain forest that can be collected with minimal environmental damage and for long-term sustainable economic gain. Answer: Extractive reserves Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 15 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

51) ________ is a process in which rubber is treated with sulfur and heat to stabilize its elastic properties. Answer: Vulcanization Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 52) Global ________ and an increase in carbon dioxide in the air from human activities have all contributed to the greenhouse effect. Answer: deforestation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 53) ________ is the hard endosperm of a rain forest palm that can be carved into figurines, jewelry, or buttons. Answer: Tagua Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 54) Studies of primary rain forests in the Amazon showed that tropical rain forests may play a major role in slowing greenhouse warming. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 55) Consider a simplified ecosystem: grass->mice->weasels->. According to the pyramid of biomass concept, if you were to determine the collective dry weight of all the organisms at each trophic level, the weasels would have the largest biomass and the grasses would have the smallest. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 56) Data collected from a local forest ecosystem quantified the number of organisms from four different trophic levels: 5, 50,000, 150,000, and 1,000,000. The number of herbivores would most likely be 150,000. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 16 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

57) Carbon returns to the atmospheric reservoir when plants photosynthesize. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 58) "Habitat" specifically refers to the physical setting where an organism lives. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 59) The progressive development of a forest community on an abandoned pasture is an example of primary succession. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 60) The first organisms to occupy a new successional site are called pioneer species. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 61) The biosphere is the interplay between a community and the abiotic factors in the environment. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 62) The range of disease-carrying organisms will likely be reduced as global climate change increases. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 63) The dominant vegetation in the boreal or taiga biome is a forest of conifers. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

64) The savanna is a temperate forest biome characterized by trees that annually shed their leaves in autumn. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 65) Deciduous trees in a temperate forest lose all their leaves in the fall, thus stopping their primary production activities. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 66) A utility company burning coal to produce electricity is an example of the First Law of Thermodynamics. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 67) Niche is the broad range of characteristics of an organism that defines how it relates to the rest of its community. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 68) The invasion of life onto an island newly created by volcanic activity is an example of primary succession. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 69) When a car is driven, only about 10% of the high-quality chemical energy available in the gasoline is converted into mechanical energy to propel the vehicle. The remaining 90% is degraded to low quality heat that is released into the environment. This is an illustration of the Second Law of Thermodynamics. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic

70) According to the pyramid of energy, it generally takes about 100 kilograms (dry weight) of clover to make 10 kg of rabbit, which in turn will make 1 kg of fox. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 71) Photosynthesis is the oxidation of glucose yielding energy and releasing carbon dioxide. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 72) Autotrophs cannot synthesize food and must realize their nutritional needs by eating other organisms. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 73) True heterotrophs cannot manufacture or produce their own food. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 74) Biomes are the climax communities for particular regions of the terrestrial environment. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 75) Cacti have modified their leaves into spines and developed water-storing, photosynthetic stems. Characteristics such as these that enhance the survival of an organism in its environment are known as adaptations. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 76) Cacti and other succulents often have green stems and trunks where additional photosynthesis can take place. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 19 Copyright 2020 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

77) Clear-cutting is the method of tree harvesting that is least disruptive to a forest. Answer: FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic 78) In the shelterwood method of tree harvesting, some mature trees are not harvested to regenerate the forest naturally. Answer: TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Gradable: automatic