TEST BANK for Medical Terminology Simplified 6th Edition A Programmed Learning Approach by Body Syst

Chapter 1: Introduction to Programmed Learning and Medical Word Building Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which suffix means decrease, deficiency?

A. -rrhea B. -rrhage C. -rrhexis D. -penia E. -iasis 2. What is the meaning of gastr/o?

A. mouth B. intestine C. stomach D. liver E. bladder 3. To build a medical word, use a combining form (CF) to link a suffix that begins with a(n): A. “a.”

B. “o.”

C. vowel.

D. consonant.

E. “e.”

4. Which word element is a word root?

A. hepatB. hepatoC. hepatomD. -megaly E. hepatomegaly 5. A CF is a word root plus a: A. prefix.

B. vowel.

C. suffix.

D. word root.

E. consonant.

6. Which word element is an adjective suffix?

A. -oma

B. -penia C. -itis D. -ic E. -ia 7. Which element is always located at the beginning of a medical word?

A. word root B. suffix C. combining vowel D. prefix E. combining form 8. What does the word root usually indicate?

A. position B. number C. condition D. body part E. procedure 9. What does the prefix in post-mortem mean?

A. before B. after C. death D. life E. beyond 10. Arthr/o/centesis is a surgical puncture of a joint. In this word, arthr/o is a: A. prefix.

B. suffix.

C. word root.

D. combining vowel.

E. combining form.

11. A therm/o/meter is an instrument for measuring temperature. In this word, -meter is a(n): A. adjective.

B. verb.

C. combining form.

D. compound word.

E. suffix.

12. Which word is an example of a combining vowel used to link one root to another root?

A. gastr/itis B. gastr/o/dynia C. gastr/o/esophag/itis D. gastr/o/megaly E. gastr/oma 13. Which word is built correctly?

A. my/algia

B. C. D. E.

nephr/dynia aden/o/oid gastr/plasty py/rrhea

14. The suffix -itis means: A. pain.

B. blood.

C. excision.

D. rupture.

E. inflammation.

15. Which word contains a prefix?

A. hyperthermia B. gastric C. thermometer D. nephritis E. cardiac 16. The i in the term pelv/i/metry is called a: A. word root.

B. combining form.

C. suffix.

D. combining vowel.

E. consonant.

17. Vowels marked with a macron (-) indicate a: A. short sound.

B. stress.

C. silent letter.

D. long sound.

E. diphthong.

18. Oste/o/chondr/itis is an example of a: A. suffix that begins with a consonant.

B. simple word.

C. compound word.

D. medical word containing a prefix.

E. word with only one word element.

19. The oe in roentgen is pronounced: A. e.

B. oy.

C. u.

D. o.

E. a.

20. In medical terms, ch (as in cholera) is pronounced: A. “chal.”

B. C. D. E.

“cha.” “k.” “aitch.” “cee.”

21. To make words ending in y plural: A. retain the y and add es.

B. drop the y and add es.

C. drop the y and add i.

D. retain the y and add s.

E. drop the y and add ies.

22. The plural form of diagnosis is: A. diagnose.

B. diagnostic.

C. diagnosia.

D. diagnoses.

E. diagnosticians.

23. What does the suffix -ior mean?

A. small B. specialist C. condition D. pertaining to E. treatment 24. What is the plural form of appendix?

A. appendamata B. appendises C. appendices D. appendae E. appendia 25. What is the adjective form of axilla?

A. axillar B. axillary C. axilliac D. axillae E. axillic 26. What is the plural form of radius?

A. radii B. radium C. radiae D. radious E. radial 27. What is the plural form of nucleus?

A. nuclear

B. nucleolus C. nuclei D. nucleic E. nucleii 28. Which word means surgical fracture of a bone?

A. oste/o/malacia B. oste/o/blast C. oste/o/clasis D. oste/o/gen E. oste/o/metry 29. Which word means rupture of an artery?

A. arthritis B. arthrodynia C. arteriorrhexis D. arthrodesis E. arthralgia 30. Which word means instrument for measuring the pelvis?

A. pelviscope B. pelvimetry C. pelvitomer D. pelvimeter E. pelvometer 31. In the term chol/e/lith/iasis, the element lith is a: A. combining form.

B. suffix.

C. prefix.

D. combining vowel.

E. word root.

32. Which term means pain in a nerve?

A. neuroblast B. neuralgia C. neuroclonic D. neuroglia E. neurogenic 33. What does the suffix -edema mean?

A. vomiting B. softening C. condition D. swelling E. tumor 34. Which suffix means pain?

A. -algia

B. -emesis C. -plasia D. -ectasis E. -poiesis 35. What does the term gastritis mean?

A. excision of the stomach B. pain in the stomach C. hemorrhage of the stomach D. inflammation of the stomach E. incision of the stomach 36. Which word means double vision?

A. bivisual B. divisual C. monopia D. diplopia E. bilateral 37. Which prefix means around?

A. transB. diaC. supraD. circumE. esto38. The prefix dia- means: A. away from.

B. within.

C. wide.

D. against.

E. through, across.

39. What is the term that means without a breast?

A. amastia B. dysmastia C. eumastia D. hemimastia E. supermastia 40. The prefix hypo- means: A. excessive.

B. below.

C. slow.

D. between.

E. above.

41. Which term means first pregnancy?

A. multigravida

B. primigravida C. polygravida D. agravida E. homogravida 42. The prefix homo- means: A. against.

B. good.

C. all.

D. same.

E. union.

43. Which word refers to transplantation of healthy tissue from one part of the body to another part of

the body in the same person? xen/o/graft allo/graft homo/graft auto/graft heter/o/graft

A. B. C. D. E.

44. What is the word element at the beginning of the terms intra/muscul/ar, post/nat/al, and macro/cyte?

A. combining form B. word root C. compound element D. suffix E. prefix 45. Which term is an adjective?

A. cardiac B. bile C. lung D. tooth E. kidney 46. The plural form of calcaneum is: A. calcaniae.

B. calcaneus.

C. calcaneal.

D. calcanea.

E. calcania.

47. To make words ending in is plural: A. drop is and add es.

B. drop is and add ex.

C. drop is and add ices.

D. drop is and add a.

E. retain is and add es.

48. Which term means enlargement of the liver?

A. B. C. D. E.

hepatorrhexis hepatosis hepatoma hepatomegaly hepatomalacia

49. What is the plural form of bacterium?

A. bacteria B. bacteries C. bacteriae D. bacterion E. bacteriae 50. Which terms is an adjective?

A. ganglia B. lumina C. pleural D. appendix E. colon 51. A herniation or swelling of the liver is called: A. hepatomegaly.

B. hepatodynia.

C. hepatomalacia.

D. hepatosis.

E. hepatocele.

52. The word mucous is a(n): A. adjective.

B. adverb.

C. noun.

D. plural form.

E. singular form.

53. The plural form of lumen is: A. lumena.

B. lumenae.

C. luminata.

D. lumina.

E. luminal.

54. The plural form of bursa is: A. bursi.

B. bursium.

C. bursices.

D. bursae.

E. bursal.

55. Which term is a noun?

A. B. C. D. E.

cutaneous acoustic hypodermic pulmonary rectum

True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

56. Compound words may consist of two or more word roots.

57. A word root + o results in a combining form.

58. The plural form of thrombus is thrombi.

59. The suffixes -ary, -ical, -ic, and -eal mean pertaining to.

60. The prefix diplo- means three.

61. The term proximal refers to farthest from the point of attachment.

62. The eyes are inferior to the nose.

63. The legs are inferior to the waist.

64. The term gastrodynia means excision of the stomach.

65. The terms anterior and ventral both refer to the front of the body.

Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. -algia B. -cele C. -centesis D. -clasis E. -edema F. -ectomy G. -emesis H. -emia I. -graph J. -itis K. -osis L. -pathy M. -scope N. circum-, peri-

O. P. Q. R. S. T.

dysmacropre-, proprimiretrosuper-

66. excision, removal 67. vomiting 68. inflammation 69. instrument for examining 70. surgical puncture 71. disease 72. swelling 73. abnormal condition; increase (used primarily with blood cells) 74. blood 75. hernia, swelling 76. instrument for recording 77. to break; surgical fracture 78. pain 79. around 80. before, in front 81. backward, behind 82. first 83. upper, above 84. large 85. bad, painful, difficult

Match the medical terms with their definitions.

A. appendectomy B. arteriostenosis C. arthrocentesis D. cardiomegaly E. chondromalacia F. electrocardiogram G. gastritis

H. gastroscope I. hemiplegia J. hemorrhage K. hemophobia L. hyperemesis M. lithotripsy N. lymphedema O. mastopexy P. myopathy Q. neuroma R. osteotome S. rhinoplasty T. tracheostomy 86. fixation of the breast 87. crushing a stone or calculus 88. forming an opening (mouth) into the trachea 89. narrowing or stricture of an artery 90. enlargement of the heart 91. excision of the appendix 92. softening of cartilage 93. surgical puncture of a joint 94. disease of muscle 95. tumor composed of nerve cells 96. fear of blood 97. inflammation of the stomach 98. instrument to examine the stomach 99. instrument to cut bone 100. record of electrical activity of the heart 101. bursting forth of blood 102. excessive or above-normal vomiting 103. swelling of lymph tissue 104. paralysis of one side of the body 105. surgical repair of the nose

Match the medical terms with their definitions.

A. anesthesia B. cyanosis C. diarrhea D. diplopia E. dystrophy F. endocrine G. homograft H. hypodermic I. macrocyte J. microscope K. neuralgia L. pelvimeter M. periodontal N. postnatal O. prenatal P. primigravida Q. retroversion R. superior S. thrombolysis T. transvaginal 106. Discharge or flow of fecal matter from the bowel 107. Bad development or nourishment 108. Pain of a nerve 109. Transplantation of same (tissue from one person to another person) 110. Abnormally large cell (usually erythrocyte) 111. Instrument for measuring the pelvis 112. Separation, destruction, or loosening of a blood clot 113. Abnormal condition of blue 114. Under the skin 115. Around a tooth 116. Period after birth 117. Secrete within 118. Woman during her first pregnancy 119. Instrument for examining minute objects 120. Without feeling 121. Pertaining to across the vagina 122. Pertaining to upper or above (toward the upper portion of) a structure

123. Turning backward (tipping back of an organ) from its normal position 124. Period before birth 125. Double vision Completion Complete each statement.

126. Use cyt/o (cell) to build a word that means study of cells.

127. Use chondr/o (cartilage) to build a word that means tumor of cartilage.

128. Use cephal/o (head) to build a word that means toward the head.

129. Use gastr/o (stomach) to build a word that means inflammation of the stomach.

130. Use thorac/o (chest) to build a word that means pertaining to the chest.

131. Use gastr/o (stomach) to build a word that means tumor of the stomach.

132. Use pelv/i (pelvis) to build a word that means instrument to measure the pelvis.

133. Use hemat/o (blood) to build a word that means fear of blood.

134. Use radi/o (radiation, x-ray, radius) to build a word that means process of recording an x-ray.

135. Use thorac/o (chest) to build a word that means incision of the chest.

Chapter 1: Introduction to Programmed Learning and Medical Word Building Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

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ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

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ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 56.

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ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T

MATCHING 66.

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ANS: F ANS: G ANS: J ANS: M ANS: C ANS: L ANS: E ANS: K ANS: H ANS: B ANS: I ANS: D ANS: A ANS: N ANS: Q

81.

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ANS: S ANS: R ANS: T ANS: P ANS: O

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

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ANS: O ANS: M ANS: T ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: P ANS: Q ANS: K ANS: G ANS: H ANS: R ANS: F ANS: J ANS: L ANS: N ANS: I ANS: S

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

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ANS: C ANS: E ANS: K ANS: G ANS: I ANS: L ANS: S ANS: B ANS: H ANS: M ANS: N ANS: F ANS: P ANS: J ANS: A ANS: T ANS: R ANS: Q ANS: O ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 126. ANS: cytology PTS: 1 127. ANS: chondroma PTS: 1 128. ANS: cephalad PTS: 1 129. ANS: gastritis PTS: 1 130. ANS: thoracic PTS: 1 131. ANS: gastroma PTS: 1 132. ANS: pelvimeter PTS: 1 133. ANS: hematophobia PTS: 1 134. ANS: radiography PTS: 1 135. ANS: thoracotomy PTS: 1

Chapter 2: Body Structure Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which term describes scar tissue formation during the healing process that binds anatomical

surfaces together? ablation claudication infarction occlusion adhesion

A. B. C. D. E.

2. What plane divides the body into right and left halves?

A. coronal B. lateral C. midsagittal D. frontal E. horizontal 3. The science that deals with the formation, structure, and function of cells is called: A. oncology.

B. cytology.

C. gastrology.

D. urology.

E. dermatology.

4. What is the structure that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity?

A. spinal column B. peritoneum C. diaphragm D. umbilicus E. stomach 5. What is the upper right abdominopelvic region (beneath the ribs)?

A. right lumbar region B. epigastric region C. right inguinal region D. right hypochondriac region E. umbilical region 6. The frontal plane is also known as the: A. median plane.

B. horizontal plane.

C. coronal plane.

D. midsagittal plane.

E. lateral plane.

7. The plane that divides the body into upper and lower halves is the: A. ventral plane.

B. horizontal plane.

C. sagittal plane.

D. dorsal plane.

E. frontal plane.

8. The most complex level of the human body is the: A. cellular level.

B. tissue level.

C. organ level.

D. system level.

E. organism level.

9. In anatomical position, the: A. body is lying down with face upward.

B. arms are folded across the chest.

C. body is erect and the eyes are looking forward.

D. palms of the hands face the back of the body.

E. toes point inward.

10. A coronal plane divides the body into: A. equal right and left halves.

B. unequal right and left halves.

C. front side and back side.

D. upper portion and lower portion.

E. four regions.

11. Which organ is located in the thoracic cavity?

A. heart B. colon C. pelvis D. intestine E. cecum 12. The middle region of the abdominopelvic cavity is the: A. hypogastric region.

B. inguinal region.

C. umbilical region.

D. lumbar region.

E. hypochondriac region.

13. The cranial and spinal cavities are subdivisions of the: A. ventral cavity.

B. pelvic cavity.

C. dorsal cavity.

D. thoracic cavity.

E. coronal cavity.

14. Anterior is a term synonymous with: A. posterior.

B. supine.

C. lateral.

D. cephalic.

E. front.

15. A histologist is a specialist in the study of: A. cells.

B. tissues.

C. organs.

D. systems.

E. organisms.

16. The plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portions is the: A. transverse plane.

B. coronal plane.

C. sagittal plane.

D. midsagittal plane.

E. median plane.

17. What directional term describes the position of the spine relative to the thorax?

A. proximal B. ventral C. posterior D. anterior E. inferior 18. In terms of body position, the opposite of cranial is: A. superior.

B. caudal.

C. lateral.

D. medial.

E. visceral.

19. The navel region of the abdomen is referred to as the: A. iliac.

B. pelvis.

C. umbilicus.

D. hypochondriac.

E. groin.

20. What is the cavity that surrounds the skull?

A. cranial B. thoracic C. abdominal D. pelvic E. spinal

21. What region of the body is used to describe pain that occurs above the stomach?

A. umbilical B. thoracic C. lumbar D. cervical E. epigastric 22. Which of the following produces images of an organ or area of the body after introduction of a

radiopharmaceutical tracer? radiography ultrasonography fluoroscopy x-ray nuclear scan

A. B. C. D. E.

23. A surgical connection of two ducts or blood vessels is: A. cauterization.

B. anastomosis.

C. colostomy.

D. endoscopy.

E. suture.

24. Which of the following imaging techniques shows x-ray images on a monitor of internal organs in

motion? radiography. magnetic resonance imaging. nuclear scan. fluoroscopy. ultrasound.

A. B. C. D. E.

25. What radiographic procedure employs high-frequency sound waves to produce an image?

A. MRI B. PET C. ultrasonography D. radiography E. nuclear scan 26. Blood poisoning, especially caused by bacteria or their toxins, is called: A. adhesion.

B. anastomosis.

C. cautery.

D. septicemia.

E. sterility.

27. Which condition involves fever, elevated heart and respiratory rates, and low blood pressure?

A. anastomosis B. sepsis C. adhesion

D. chondroma E. inflammation 28. The directional term proxim/al describes a position: A. farthest from the beginning of a structure.

B. to the side of a structure.

C. nearest to the beginning of a structure.

D. below another structure.

E. above another structure.

29. Visual examination of an organ or canal with a specialized lighted instrument is called: A. fluoroscopy.

B. scan.

C. tomography.

D. endoscopy.

E. pleuroscopy.

30. The word element that means tail is: A. cervic/o.

B. caud/o.

C. nucle/o.

D. chondr/o.

E. thorac/o.

31. The prefix ultra- means: A. across, through.

B. beneath, under.

C. excess, beyond.

D. toward.

E. away from.

32. Which term refers to the neck?

A. sacral B. coccygeal C. cervical D. thoracic E. lumbar 33. A noninvasive technique that uses electromagnetic energy to produce images of internal structures of

the body is a(n): CAT scan.

US. MRI. PET. SPECT.

A. B. C. D. E.

34. A specialized lighted instrument to view the interior of organs and cavities is a(n): A. endoscope.

B. microscope.

C. Doppler.

D. fluoroscope.

E. otoscope.

35. A cytologist specializes in the study of: A. organisms.

B. tissues.

C. systems.

D. organs.

E. cells.

36. What suffix means separation, destruction, or loosening?

A. -logist B. -toxic C. -lysis D. -logy E. -oma 37. In the anatomical position, how is the wrist described in relationship to the fingers?

A. The wrist is medial to the fingers.

B. The wrist is ventral to the fingers.

C. The wrist is anterior to the fingers.

D. The wrist is superior to the fingers.

E. The wrist is distal to the fingers.

38. A tumor in the inguinal area is located in the: A. stomach.

B. neck.

C. pelvis.

D. groin.

E. spine.

39. Another term for septicemia is: A. gastritis.

B. anemia.

C. toxemia.

D. leukocytes.

E. hemorrhage.

40. What is the therapeutic procedure that burns tissues by thermal heat, including electricity, or laser?

A. dermabrasion B. cauterization C. fulgurization D. curettage E. ablation 41. A gastroscope is a type of: A. microscope.

B. probe.

C. expander.

D. endoscope.

E. enlarger.

42. Which term describes a separation, destruction, or loosening of tissue?

A. histopathology B. histoblast C. histiocyte D. histolysis E. histoplasmin 43. What organ is contained in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

A. liver B. appendix C. lung D. ovary E. heart 44. What is the term for a tumor composed of cartilage?

A. gastroma B. carcinoma C. osteoma D. adenoma E. chondroma 45. Adhesions can develop anywhere in the body, but form most commonly in the: A. mouth.

B. ears.

C. spine.

D. diaphragm.

E. abdomen.

46. The simplest level of the human body is the: A. cellular level.

B. tissue level.

C. organ level.

D. system level.

E. organism level.

47. The word element that means navel is: A. cervic/o.

B. dist/o.

C. spin/o.

D. umbilic/o.

E. thorac/o.

48. Which suffix means specialist in the study of?

A. -logy B. -logist

C. -lysis D. -toxic E. -ad 49. What directional term describes the position of the mouth relative to the nose?

A. proximal B. distal C. lateral D. superior E. inferior 50. Where is the right lung in reference to the heart?

A. proximal B. distal C. lateral D. ventral E. dorsal Matching

Match the combining forms with their meanings.

A. anter/o B. caud/o C. cephal/o D. cervic/o E. chondr/o F. cyt/o G. dist/o H. dors/o I. gastr/o J. hist/o K. ili/o L. infer/o M. inguin/o N. later/o O. lumb/o P. pelv/i Q. proxim/o R. spin/o S. thorac/o T. umbilic/o 51. groin 52. loins (lower back) 53. near, nearest

54. cartilage 55. cell 56. tissue 57. lower, below 58. chest 59. neck; cervix uteri (neck of the uterus) 60. umbilicus, navel 61. tail 62. back (of body) 63. pelvis 64. spine 65. ilium (lateral, flaring portion of the hip bone) 66. head 67. stomach 68. anterior, front 69. far, farthest 70. side, to one side

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. adhesion B. anastomosis C. anterior D. C&S E. cauterization F. cervical G. cytologist H. Doppler I. endoscopy J. histologist K. inferior L. lateral M. medial N. nucleotoxic drugs O. organ P. posterior Q. radiologist R. radiopharmaceutical

S. superior T. thoracic 71. Medical specialist concerned with electromagnetic radiation, ultrasound, and other imaging

techniques 72. Measurement of blood flow by reflecting sound waves off moving blood cells 73. Visual examination of a cavity or canal using a special lighted instrument 74. Term that refers to the middle of a structure 75. Radioactive substance that travels to a specific organ that will be scanned 76. Destruction of tissue by electricity, freezing, heat, or corrosive chemicals 77. Ventral cavity that contains the heart, lungs, and associated structures 78. The area of the spine known as the neck 79. Medications administered to cancer patients during chemotherapy 80. Specialist in the study of cells 81. Specialist in the study of tissues 82. Body fluid test to find germs that cause an infection and determine what kind of medicine works best

to treat the infection or illness 83. Term that refers to the lower part of a structure or below a structure 84. Refers to the upper part of a structure or above a structure 85. Refers to the side of a structure 86. Refers to the front (of the body) 87. Refers to the back (of the body) 88. Connection between two vessels 89. Groups of tissue that perform a specific function 90. Band of scar tissue that binds anatomical surfaces together True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

91. The body’s inflammatory response to infection is known as adhesion.

92. Cytology is the study of the blood.

93. The abdominopelvic cavity contains the heart and the lungs.

94. Something in a lateral position is located toward the side.

95. The tips of the fingers are proximal to the elbow.

96. The horizontal plane is also known as the transverse plane.

97. The pelvic cavity contains the lungs.

98. Sepsis is the body’s response to diarrhea.

99. When you say, “The head is superior to the stomach,” you mean it is located below the stomach.

100. The directional term adduction indicates movement toward the body.

101. The dorsal cavity contains the lungs.

102. US is an imaging technique that scans the organs.

103. Hypogastric pain denotes that the pain is above the stomach.

104. The umbilical region is located near the navel.

105. Cytolysis describes a condition of cellular development.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use -logy (study of) to build a word that means study of cells.

107. Use pelv/i (pelvis) to build a word that means instrument for measuring the pelvis.

108. Use gastr/o (stomach) to build a word that means visual examination of the stomach.

109. Use radi/o (radiation, x-ray; radius [lower arm bone on the thumb side]) to build a word that means

process of recording an x-ray.

110. Use umbilic/o (umbilicus, navel) to build a word that means pertaining to the navel.

Chapter 2: Body Structure Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

ANS: M ANS: O ANS: Q ANS: E ANS: F ANS: J ANS: L ANS: S ANS: D ANS: T ANS: B ANS: H ANS: P ANS: R ANS: K ANS: C ANS: I ANS: A ANS: G ANS: N

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: Q ANS: H ANS: I ANS: M ANS: R ANS: E ANS: T ANS: F ANS: N ANS: G ANS: J ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

ANS: K ANS: S ANS: L ANS: C ANS: P ANS: B ANS: O ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F

COMPLETION 106. ANS: cytology PTS: 1 107. ANS: pelvimeter PTS: 1 108. ANS: gastroscopy PTS: 1 109. ANS: radiography PTS: 1 110. ANS: umbilical PTS: 1

Chapter 3: Integumentary System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which term means yellow skin?

A. xanthoderma B. xeroderma C. scleroderma D. melanoderma E. erythroderma 2. Which pairs are synonyms?

A. diaphoresis—sudoresis B. adipectomy—adenectomy C. adenoma—onychoma D. xeroderma—scleroderma E. leukemia—leukocytopenia 3. Which word is paired with its correct definition?

A. leukemia: decrease in white blood cells B. onychoma: hernia of nail bed C. petechia: minute hemorrhagic spot of skin D. sclerosis: softening E. vulgaris: rare 4. What is a dermatome?

A. instrument to cut the skin B. instrument to suction debris from necrosed skin C. incision made into the skin D. instrument to shave a mold E. incision of the basal layer 5. A chronic skin disease, usually marked by itchy, scaly, red patches covered by silvery gray scales, is

known as: vulgaris. melanoma. xeroderma. psoriasis. erythema.

A. B. C. D. E.

6. A person diagnosed with trichopathy has a disease of the: A. sweat glands.

B. fingernails.

C. skin.

D. hair.

E. stomach.

7. The medical term for red blood cells is: A. erythrocytes.

B. melanocytes.

C. xanthocytes.

D. lipocytes.

E. histiocytes.

8. A diagnosis of scleroderma means the skin is: A. hardened.

B. blue.

C. enlarged.

D. softened.

E. black.

9. What is the term for the layer of loose connective tissue that lies beneath the dermis?

A. adipose B. subcutaneous C. superficial D. vascular E. muscular 10. The contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite is: A. melanoma.

B. trichopathy.

C. scabies.

D. abrasion.

E. psoriasis.

11. Dermatitis is the medical term that means: A. darkening of the skin.

B. inflammation of the skin.

C. dryness of the skin.

D. hardening of the skin.

E. itching of the skin.

12. A malignant black tumor of the skin is called: A. onychoma.

B. xanthoma.

C. adenoma.

D. hidradenoma.

E. melanoma.

13. What is the term for the condition of excessive dryness of skin?

A. hidrosis B. leukoderma C. scleroderma D. xeroderma E. xerophagia

14. An inflammatory skin disease characterized by isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture is

called: hirsutism. pemphigus. impetigo. eczema. psoriasis.

A. B. C. D. E.

15. A characteristic sign of sunburn is: A. xanthoderma.

B. melanoderma.

C. erythroderma.

D. cyanosis.

E. scleroderma.

16. What does an overproduction of the sudoriferous glands produce?

A. oil B. sweat C. insulin D. fat E. white blood cells 17. Localized loss of skin pigmentation is: A. tinea.

B. scabies.

C. purpura.

D. ecchymosis.

E. vitiligo.

18. Which condition is treated by a dermatologist?

A. skin disorder B. sinus problem C. blood disorder D. stomach disorder E. diabetes mellitus 19. A fungal skin disease occurring on various parts of the body is known as: A. tinea.

B. pemphigus.

C. eczema.

D. vulgaris.

E. ecchymosis.

20. Warts, moles, and pimples are skin lesions called: A. macules.

B. papules.

C. xanthomas.

D. xerodermas.

E. lipomas.

21. What is a tumor of the nail (or nailbed) called?

A. lipoma B. adenoma C. onychoma D. melanoma E. adipoma 22. Which skin condition is caused by high levels of cholesterol?

A. adipocele B. histiocytoma C. melanosis D. xanthoma E. psoriasis 23. Pruritus of the hands means the patient suffers from: A. excessive sweating of the hands.

B. a disease of the nails of the hand.

C. inflammation of the hands.

D. itching of the hands.

E. a pathology that turns the hands blue.

24. Cyanosis of the skin may be caused by: A. excessive sun exposure.

B. increased levels of blood cholesterol.

C. insufficient leukocytes in the blood.

D. excessive dryness of the skin.

E. insufficient oxygen in the blood.

25. A physician who specializes in treating skin diseases is a(n): A. gastrologist.

B. oncologist.

C. hematologist.

D. gynecologist.

E. dermatologist.

26. A person who has psoriasis will experience: A. syncope.

B. cyanosis.

C. colitis.

D. hidrosis.

E. pruritus.

27. The therapeutic procedure to remove acne scars, fine wrinkles, or tattoos is called: A. electrodessication.

B. dermabrasion.

C. incision and drainage.

D. cryosurgery.

E. débridement.

28. The medical term for a blackhead is: A. melanoma.

B. chloasma.

C. pemphigus.

D. petechia.

E. comedo.

29. What condition is caused from a lack of pigmentation in the skin?

A. erythroderma B. cyanoderma C. leukoderma D. xanthoderma E. xeroderma 30. Which pairs are synonyms?

A. xeroderma—scleroderma B. onychoma—adenoma C. scleroderma—ichthyosis D. hidrosis—hidropoiesis E. allograft—xenograft 31. The surgical procedure that removes necrotized tissue from a wound is called: A. cryosurgery.

B. electrodessication.

C. dermabrasion.

D. débridement.

E. chemical peel.

32. The medical term for a freckle is: A. comedo.

B. macule.

C. bulla.

D. papule.

E. wheal.

33. The abbreviation bx means: A. breast radiograph.

B. second-degree burn.

C. biopsy.

D. cross-graft.

E. autograft.

34. A high-intensity ultraviolet B light therapy used to treat mild-to-moderate psoriasis without harming

healthy skin is known as: A. fulguration.

B. excimer laser.

C. cryosurgery.

D. débridement.

E. dermabrasion.

35. A carbuncle is a(n): A. fungal infection.

B. abscess.

C. skin ulceration.

D. abrasion.

E. rash.

36. In the word ichthyosis, the root ichthy means: A. horny.

B. hard, blistery.

C. fungus.

D. dry, scaly.

E. pustule.

37. Skin is relatively waterproof because of: A. skin oil.

B. keratin.

C. sweat.

D. lunula.

E. strata.

38. What is the term that means fatty tumor?

A. adenocarcinoma B. lipoma C. adipocele D. lipocele E. lipid 39. A skin graft taken from a different part of the same patient’s body is a(n): A. allograft.

B. homograft.

C. xenograft.

D. heterograft.

E. autograft.

40. What is the term used to describe a skin ulceration caused by prolonged pressure?

A. psoriasis B. carbuncle C. pressure ulcer D. tinea E. impetigo 41. A pharmacological agent that reduces severe itching is known as: A. antifungal B. antibiotic C. aspirin

D. diuretic E. antipruritic 42. Loss of hair, especially on the head, is a condition called: A. sebaceous.

B. ecchymosis.

C. hirsutism.

D. alopecia.

E. impetigo.

43. Plantar warts, or verrucae, are caused by: A. several fungal species.

B. handling certain reptiles.

C. viruses.

D. poor hygiene.

E. pressure from ill-fitting shoes.

44. What secondary lesion is described as a small slit or crack-like sore that extends into the dermal

area? bulla wheal vesicle fissure papule

A. B. C. D. E.

45. A condition of profuse sweating is called: A. diaphoresis.

B. petechia.

C. rhinorrhea.

D. hypohidrosis.

E. hidradenosis.

46. A closed sac with a distinct membrane that contains fluid is called a(n): A. comedo.

B. abrasion.

C. furuncle.

D. cyst.

E. carbuncle.

47. The pharmacological treatment for skin inflammation is: A. antibiotics.

B. antifungals.

C. antimyotics.

D. antithrombotics.

E. corticosteroids.

48. Drugs that treat skin infections by killing bacteria are known as: A. antibiotics.

B. antifungals.

C. antipruritics.

D. corticosteroids.

E. anti-inflammatories.

49. What condition is caused by a virus?

A. urticaria B. warts C. impetigo D. carbuncle E. vitiligo 50. What condition is defined as a localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white

patches? urticaria impetigo vitiligo psoriasis petechia

A. B. C. D. E.

51. Metastasis is a term that means: A. benign tumor.

B. tumor is localized.

C. tumor spreads within an organ only.

D. cells travel to remote regions of the body.

E. tumor is cancerous but remains localized.

52. White patches on a mucous membrane of the tongue or cheek is called: A. scleroderma B. tinea C. psoriasis D. eczema E. leukoplakia 53. A fungal infection of the skin is known as: A. dermatitis B. dermatomycosis C. dermophagia D. dermatocyst E. dermatopathology 54. Which of the following describes an abscess?

A. inflammatory disease of the joints B. fatty mass on the skin C. localized collection of pus at the site of an infection D. thickened scar E. layers of infected growths 55. An example of a lesion containing pus that is usually less than 1 cm in diameter is a(n): A. macule.

B. fissure.

C. ulcer.

D. pustule.

E. papule.

Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. cutane/o B. hidr/o C. hydr/o D. ichthy/o E. kerat/o F. lip/o G. melan/o H. myc/o I. onych/o J. pil/o K. py/o L. scler/o M. seb/o N. squam/o O. xer/o P. -malacia Q. -oid R. -pathy S. -phoresis T. -plasty 56. softening 57. sweat 58. hardening; sclera (white of eye) 59. horny tissue; hard; cornea 60. disease 61. dry 62. fungus 63. dry, scaly 64. sebum, sebaceous 65. hair 66. scale

67. nail 68. skin 69. black 70. water 71. fat 72. carrying, transmission 73. pus 74. resembling 75. surgical repair

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. acne B. alopecia C. bulla D. comedo E. cryosurgery F. débridement G. eczema H. electrodessication I. fissure J. hirsutism K. I&D L. impetigo M. keratosis N. macule O. petechia P. pressure ulcer Q. scabies R. vitiligo S. wart T. xenograft 76. Inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin 77. Absence or loss of hair; also called baldness 78. Process in which high-frequency electrical sparks are used to dehydrate and destroy diseased tissue 79. Dry sebum plugging a pore of the skin; also called blackhead 80. Incision of a lesion, such as an abscess, followed by the drainage of its contents 81. Small slit or crack-like sore that extends into the dermal area 82. Excessive growth of hair or presence of hair in unusual places, especially in women

83. Removal of dead or damaged tissue from a wound or burn site to prevent infection and facilitate

healing 84. Vesicle or blister larger than 1 cm in diameter 85. Use of subfreezing temperature to destroy abnormal tissue cells 86. Redness of skin caused by swelling of the capillaries 87. Skin ulceration caused by prolonged pressure over the affected area; also called bedsore 88. Bacterial skin infection with pustules that rupture and form crusts 89. Horny growth on the skin, such as a callus 90. Localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches 91. Contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite 92. Rounded epidermal growth caused by a virus 93. Flat, pigmented, circumscribed area of the skin; also known as freckles, flat mole, or rash 94. Minute, pinpoint hemorrhagic spot of the skin 95. Skin transplanted from a foreign donor (usually a pig) to a human True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. Dermabrasion is used to remove acne scars, tattoos, or fine wrinkles.

97. The plural form of verruca (wart) is verrucas.

98. Alopecia is also known as chloasma.

99. Scabies is a contagious skin disease.

100. The scratch test is synonymous with the prick test.

101. Corticosteroids are used to treat skin tumors.

102. Kaposi sarcoma is a benign tumor associated with skin cancer.

103. A bx is used to confirm or establish a diagnosis.

104. Basal cell carcinoma is a rare type of malignant skin cancer.

105. Leukemia is a disease of unrestrained growth of immature white blood cells.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use lip/o (fat) to build a word that means fat cell.

107. Use onych/o (nail) to build a word that means softening of the nails.

108. Use dermat/o (skin) to build a word that means abnormal condition of the skin.

109. Use trich/o (hair) to build a word that means disease of the hair.

110. Build a word that means softening of the nail(s).

111. Build a word that means specialist in the study of skin (disease).

112. Build a word that means abnormal condition of sweat(ing).

113. Build a word that means tumor (that is) black.

114. Build a word that means excision of the nail(s).

115. Build a word that means pertaining to under the skin.

Chapter 3: Integumentary System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: E ANS: E ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: P ANS: B ANS: L ANS: E ANS: R ANS: O ANS: H ANS: D ANS: M ANS: J ANS: N ANS: I ANS: A ANS: G ANS: C ANS: F ANS: S ANS: K ANS: Q ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: H ANS: D ANS: K ANS: I ANS: J

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: F ANS: C ANS: E ANS: G ANS: P ANS: L ANS: M ANS: R ANS: Q ANS: S ANS: N ANS: O ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T

COMPLETION 106. ANS: lipocyte PTS: 1 107. ANS: onychomalacia PTS: 1 108. ANS: dermatosis PTS: 1 109. ANS: trichopathy PTS: 1 110. ANS: onychomalacia PTS: 1 111. ANS: dermatologist PTS: 1

112. ANS: hidrosis PTS: 1 113. ANS: melanoma PTS: 1 114. ANS: onychectomy PTS: 1 115. ANS: hypodermic PTS: 1

Chapter 4: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A disease characterized by overexpansion and destruction of the alveoli and associated with smoking

is known as: emphysema. empyema. atelectasis. bronchiectasis. asthma.

A. B. C. D. E.

2. A condition characterized by attacks of difficult breathing and wheezing caused by spasms of the

bronchial tubes is called: pleurisy. asthma. pneumonia. bronchorrhagia. aerophagia.

A. B. C. D. E.

3. Inflammation of the mucous membranes of the bronchial tubes is known as: A. pneumonia.

B. pneumonomycosis.

C. bronchitis.

D. bronchostenosis.

E. bronchiectasis.

4. What infectious disease produces small lesions or tubercles in the lungs?

A. emphysema B. asthma C. pneumonia D. tuberculosis E. bronchitis 5. What device is worn by a person with sleep apnea?

A. NMT B. IPPB C. CPAP D. MRI E. PFT 6. A surgical puncture to remove fluid from the lung is called: A. pneumocentesis.

B. pneumonectomy.

C. pneumonorrhaphy.

D. pneumonotomy.

E. pneumopexy.

7. A contagious respiratory infection characterized by onset of fever, chills, headache, and muscle pain

is called: epiglottitis. asthma. atelectasis. epistaxis. influenza.

A. B. C. D. E.

8. What term describes pain associated with the membrane that covers the lungs?

A. bronchiectasis B. pleuralgia C. pneumonomalacia D. pharyngoplegia E. pneumonopathy 9. Continuous, high-pitched whistling sounds, usually during expiration, are called: A. stridor.

B. rhonchi.

C. wheezes.

D. rales.

E. croup.

10. What is the natural process of drawing air into the lungs called?

A. aerotherapy B. dyspnea C. expiration D. orthopnea E. inspiration 11. What is the occupational disease caused by inhalation of black dust called?

A. melanosis B. pneumonosis C. silicosis D. siderosis E. pneumonomelanosis 12. What is the medical term for head cold?

A. epistaxis B. coryza C. cephalodynia D. ascites E. empyema 13. A narrowing or stricture of the voice box is known as: A. pharyngostenosis.

B. laryngostenosis.

C. pneumostenosis.

D. laryngospasm.

E. pharyngospasm.

14. Which disorder is genetic?

A. atelectasis B. cystic fibrosis C. pertussis D. epiglottitis E. emphysema 15. Which procedure is used to assess the volume and air flow rate of the lungs?

A. bronchoscopy B. pulmonary function test C. arterial blood gases D. sweat test E. sputum culture 16. What term means presence of pus in the pleural cavity?

A. pyothorax B. pyosis C. pyemia D. pyothoracosis E. empyosis 17. An acute infectious disease characterized by an explosive cough is known as: A. hypoxemia B. atelectasis C. coryza D. pertussis E. pneumothorax 18. Which paired words are synonyms?

A. trachea—voice box B. larynx—windpipe C. pharynx—throat D. necropsy—biopsy E. gastric—intestines 19. Which term refers to a loss of feeling or sensation?

A. apnea B. anesthesia C. aspiration D. aerophagia E. asthma 20. A lobectomy is a procedure that removes a portion of the: A. larynx.

B. diaphragm.

C. lung.

D. nose.

E. trachea.

21. Which hormonal agent is effective in reducing inflammation associated with chronic lung disease?

A. aspirin B. corticosteroid C. antibiotic D. estrogen E. progesterone 22. When a person has difficulty breathing in any position except in a sitting or standing position, the

condition is known as: A. dyspnea.

B. orthopnea.

C. apnea.

D. eupnea.

E. aerophagia.

23. During the swallowing process, the structure that closes off the larynx is the: A. pharynx.

B. epiglottis.

C. fascia.

D. trachea.

E. septum.

24. Which term is in plural form?

A. bronchus B. alveolus C. fungus D. nares E. polyp 25. Which term denotes normal breathing?

A. eupnea B. dyspnea C. apnea D. orthopnea E. fascia 26. When tracheal obstruction causes cessation of breathing, the procedure that helps gain access to the

airway below the obstruction is: chondroplasty. tracheostomy. pneumonectomy. pharyngoscopy. rhinoplasty.

A. B. C. D. E.

27. Involuntary contraction of the bronchi is called: A. bronchiectasis.

B. bronchospasm.

C. bronchostenosis.

D. bronchorrhagia.

E. bronchitis.

28. The medical term for swallowing air is: A. aerophagia.

B. aerotherapy.

C. aerophobia.

D. aerohydrotherapy.

E. aeroscope.

29. What are the abnormal breath sounds heard during inhalation or exhalation called?

A. crackles B. eupnea C. coryza D. empyema E. ascites 30. A high-pitched, musical sound made on inspiration that is caused by obstruction is known as: A. stridor.

B. eupnea C. coryza.

D. empyema.

E. ascites.

31. The exchange of O2 and CO2 in body cells is called: A. inhalation.

B. metabolism.

C. external respiration.

D. internal respiration.

E. catabolism.

32. A disease characterized by bronchial dilation that usually leads to secondary infection is called: A. pleural effusion.

B. ascites.

C. heart failure.

D. hemoptysis.

E. bronchiectasis.

33. The area in the chest between the lungs is called the: A. pleural cavity.

B. diaphragm.

C. alveolus.

D. sinus cavity.

E. mediastinum.

34. A type of pneumonia seen in patients with AIDS is: A. bronchopneumonia.

B. lobar pneumonia.

C. walking pneumonia.

D. pneumocystis pneumonia.

E. pneumomycosis.

35. A total absence of oxygen in body tissues is known as: A. hypoxemia.

B. oxyosmia.

C. anoxia.

D. oxygenation.

E. hypoxia.

36. High levels of CO2 in the bloodstream result in: A. empyema.

B. influenza.

C. anoxia.

D. alkalosis.

E. acidosis.

37. Asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis belong to a group of chronic respiratory conditions

known as: ARDS. COPD. CF. RD. SIDS.

A. B. C. D. E.

38. A patient who is instructed to sleep propped up on three pillows to improve breathing has what

condition? aerophagia orthopnea atelectasis pleurisy rhonchus

A. B. C. D. E.

39. Which medical condition involves collection of air in the pleural cavity and causes the lung to

collapse? acidosis pneumoconiosis pneumothorax pleurisy pleuritis

A. B. C. D. E.

40. What statement about the pleura is correct?

A. It is a muscle that separates the abdominal and thoracic cavities.

B. It is a membrane in the lungs in which there is an exchange of O2 and CO2.

C. It is cartilaginous rings that give support to the larynx.

D. It is one of the lobes of the right lung.

E. It is a membrane that covers the lung.

41. What is the medical term for nosebleed?

A. empyema B. coryza C. epistaxis D. hypoxia E. pertussis 42. What condition causes an abnormal presence of fluid in the pleural cavity?

A. pleurodynia B. pleural fibrosis C. pleuritis D. pleural effusion E. pleuroplegia 43. An acute respiratory syndrome that occurs in children and infants and is characterized by laryngeal

obstruction and barking cough is called: rhonchi. pertussis. crackle. croup. atelectasis.

A. B. C. D. E.

44. Which test measures the breathing capacity of the lungs?

A. arterial blood gases B. postural positions C. chest x-ray D. MRI E. spirometry 45. What drugs dilate the walls of the bronchi in the treatment of asthma?

A. corticosteroids B. anti-inflammatories C. decongestants D. bronchodilators E. expectorants 46. The use of a stethoscope to listen to sounds within the body, especially the chest, neck, and

abdomen, is called: intubation. mechanical ventilation. bronchoscopy. auscultation. oxygenation.

A. B. C. D. E.

47. Which drugs are used to inhibit blood clotting and treat a serious condition called pulmonary

embolism?

A. antibiotics B. antifungals

C. corticosteroids D. anticoagulants E. bronchodilators 48. Labored breathing is called: A. dyspnea.

B. tachypnea.

C. eupnea.

D. hyperpnea.

E. apnea.

49. A drainage tube placed through the patient’s chest cavity may be described as: A. transverse cardiac.

B. transverse thoracic.

C. transverse urethral.

D. transverse vaginal.

E. transverse vertical.

50. The unexpected and unexplained death of an apparently well infant is known as: A. ARDS. B. SOB. C. SIDS. D. OSA. E. DPT. 51. The directional term that means near or beside the nose is: A. supranasal.

B. paranasal.

C. postnasal.

D. inferonasal.

E. hyponasal.

52. Polysomnography is a test to diagnose: A. emphysema.

B. bronchitis.

C. pneumonia.

D. sleep disorders.

E. AIDS. 53. What structure is affected when a patient undergoes a pneumonectomy?

A. sinus cavity B. nose C. oral cavity D. alveoli E. lung(s) 54. An agent used to dissolve thick secretions and improve respiratory difficulties is known as a(n): A. mucolytic B. bronchodilator

C. corticosteroid D. antibiotic E. oxytocic 55. Which of the following is a rare form of lung cancer that develops in the pleura and is caused

primarily by the inhalation of asbestos fibers?

A. pleuritis B. cystic fibrosis C. mesothelioma D. pneumothorax E. empyema Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. aer/o B. atel/o C. bronchi/o D. bronchiol/o E. cyan/o F. laryng/o G. lob/o H. pharyng/o I. pleur/o J. pneum/o K. pulmon/o L. py/o M. rhin/o N. thorac/o O. trache/o P. -ectasis Q. -osmia R. -oxia S. -phagia T. -pnea 56. blue 57. air; lung 58. larynx (voice box) 59. nose 60. pharynx (throat) 61. bronchiole 62. pleura

63. chest 64. incomplete, imperfect 65. dilation, expansion 66. smell 67. breathing 68. lobe 69. pus 70. swallowing, eating 71. oxygen 72. air 73. lung 74. bronchus (plural, bronchi) 75. trachea (windpipe)

Match the medical words with their meanings.

A. anosmia B. atelectasis C. bronchodilators D. bronchoscopy E. corticosteroids F. coryza G. crackles H. croup I. cystic fibrosis J. emphysema K. empyema L. epistaxis M. hypoxia N. influenza O. MRI P. pertussis Q. pneumonectomy R. postural drainage S. rhonchi T. wheeze 76. Disease characterized by decrease in alveolar elasticity 77. Inherited disease with production of thick mucus that causes severe congestion within the lungs and

digestive system

78. Direct visualization of the bronchi by using an endoscope 79. Radiographic technique that uses electromagnetic energy to produce a scan of the chest and lungs 80. Excision of the entire lung 81. Absence or decrease in the sense of smell 82. Collapse of lung tissue, preventing exchange of O2 and CO2 83. Acute inflammation of the nasal passages accompanied by profuse nasal discharge; also called a cold 84. Pus in a body cavity 85. Hemorrhage from the nose; also called nosebleed 86. Deficiency of oxygen in the tissues; usually a sign of respiratory impairment 87. Acute, contagious respiratory infection characterized by sudden onset of fever, chills, headache, and

muscle spasm 88. Acute infectious disease characterized by a “whoop”-sounding cough 89. Whistling or sighing sound resulting from narrowing of the lumen of a respiratory passageway that

occurs in asthma, croup, and hay fever 90. Agents that dilate the wall of the bronchi to increase air flow 91. Hormonal agents that reduce tissue edema and inflammation associated with chronic lung disease 92. Use of body positioning to assist in removal of secretions from specific lobes of the lung, bronchi, or

lung cavities 93. Abnormal chest sounds resembling snoring that are produced in airways with accumulated fluids 94. Respiratory syndrome that occurs primarily in children and is characterized by laryngeal obstruction

and a barking cough 95. Fine bubbling sounds heard during inspiration when there is fluid in the alveoli; also called rales True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. Empyema is characterized by pus in the pleural cavity.

97. Bronchoscopy is a visual examination of the nose.

98. Hypoxemia is a deficiency of oxygen in body tissues.

99. A nosebleed is known as epistaxis.

100. The abbreviation SOB refers to shortness of breath.

101. Another name for the common cold is croup.

102. The abbreviation PFT refers to tests that measure the capacity of the lungs and the volume of air

during inhalation and exhalation.

103. Pleural rub is described as the grating sound of the pleural linings rubbing against each other that is

heard on auscultation.

104. PCP is a test that diagnoses breathing disorders.

105. Tracheostomy is a surgical procedure to create an artificial opening (mouth).

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use laryng/o (larynx, voice box) to build a word that means instrument for examining the larynx.

107. Use tachy- (rapid) to build a word that means rapid breathing.

108. Use brady- (slow) to build a word that means slow breathing.

109. Use pneum/o (air; lung) to build a word that means excision of a lung.

110. Use -thorax (chest) to build a word that means pus in the thorax.

111. Build a word that means abnormal condition of blueness.

112. Build a word that means paralysis of the larynx.

113. Build a word that means surgical puncture of the pleura.

114. Build a word that means excision of the tonsils.

115. Build a word that means swallowing air.

Chapter 4: Respiratory System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: E ANS: J ANS: F ANS: M ANS: H ANS: D ANS: I ANS: N ANS: B ANS: P ANS: Q ANS: T ANS: G ANS: L ANS: S ANS: R ANS: A ANS: K ANS: C ANS: O

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: J ANS: I ANS: D ANS: O ANS: Q ANS: A ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: F ANS: K ANS: L ANS: M ANS: N ANS: P ANS: T ANS: C ANS: E ANS: R ANS: S ANS: H ANS: G

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T

COMPLETION 106. ANS: laryngoscope PTS: 1 107. ANS: tachypnea PTS: 1 108. ANS: bradypnea PTS: 1 109. ANS: pneumonectomy PTS: 1 110. ANS: pyothorax PTS: 1 111. ANS: cyanosis PTS: 1

112. ANS: laryngoplegia PTS: 1 113. ANS: pleurocentesis PTS: 1 114. ANS: tonsillectomy PTS: 1 115. ANS: aerophagia PTS: 1

Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the largest blood vessel in the body and also the main trunk of systemic circulation?

A. pulmonary vein B. superior vena cava C. inferior vena cava D. pulmonary artery E. aorta 2. Where are the cervical lymph nodes located?

A. armpit B. neck C. groin D. abdomen E. chest 3. What term describes decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part?

A. deoxygenated B. anemia C. ischemia D. dystrophy E. infarction 4. Which condition can be detected on an electrocardiogram?

A. tachycardia B. bradyphagia C. phlebostenosis D. aneurysm E. hemangioma 5. What is the chamber of the heart that first receives deoxygenated blood via two large veins?

A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle E. aorta 6. Which abbreviation is matched correctly with its meaning?

A. IVC—inferior ventricular contractions B. CHF—cardiogenic heart failure C. LV—left vein D. MI—myocardial ischemia E. SA—sinoatrial 7. Which term is singular?

A. B. C. D. E.

septum atria cardia bacteria diagnoses

8. The relaxation phase of the heart is: A. systole.

B. diastole.

C. tachycardia.

D. bradycardia.

E. angiectasis.

9. Which term refers to a mass of undissolved matter lodged in a blood vessel?

A. varicosity B. arteriole C. venule D. ductus arteriosus E. embolus 10. What streptococcal infection causes damage to the heart valves and heart muscle?

A. Hodgkin disease B. Raynaud phenomenon C. rheumatic heart disease D. mitral valve disorder E. ischemia 11. The term aortostenosis denotes: A. rupture of the aorta.

B. softening of the aorta.

C. narrowing of the aorta.

D. expansion of the aorta.

E. disease of the aorta.

12. How many flaps are present in the bicuspid valve?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 13. The tricuspid valve is located between which two chambers of the heart?

A. right atrium and left atrium B. right atrium and right ventricle C. right atrium and left ventricle D. right ventricle and left ventricle E. left atrium and left ventricle 14. A blood clot that obstructs a vessel is called:

A. B. C. D. E.

coarctation. thrombus. patency. angina. lipidemia.

15. The process of cells clumping together is known as: A. hematopathy.

B. anticoagulation.

C. hematopoiesis.

D. agglutination.

E. hematoma.

16. After the electrical impulse of the heart passes through the AV node, it travels next to the: A. SA node.

B. bundle of His. C. Purkinje fibers.

D. bundle branches.

E. mitral valve.

17. The term that refers to the fibrous sac that surrounds and encloses the entire heart is the: A. myocardium.

B. endocardium.

C. pericardium.

D. epicardium.

E. atrium.

18. What surgical term means suturing a vein?

A. phleborrhaphy.

B. venosclerosis.

C. phlebostenosis.

D. venotomy.

E. phleborrhexis.

19. The superior vena cava receives blood from the: A. right atrium.

B. legs and torso.

C. pulmonary artery.

D. head and arms.

E. right ventricle.

20. The interventricular septum separates the left ventricle from the: A. right atrium.

B. left atrium.

C. right ventricle.

D. myocardium.

E. pericardium.

21. Localized dilation of a blood vessel wall that introduces the risk of a rupture is known as:

A. B. C. D. E.

thrombolysis. angioma. arteriolith. aneurysm. arteriopathy.

22. Which structure is located inferior to the mitral valve?

A. right atrium.

B. right ventricle.

C. left atrium.

D. left ventricle.

E. pulmonary vein.

23. A fatal condition in which the heart cannot pump adequate amounts of blood to tissues and organs is

known as: arteriosclerosis. rheumatic heart disease. heart failure. hypertension. aortic coarctation.

A. B. C. D. E.

24. A soft blowing sound caused by turbulent blood flow is a: A. rale.

B. gallop.

C. bruit.

D. wheeze.

E. crackle.

25. The SA node is located in the: A. aortic arch.

B. right ventricle.

C. left atrium.

D. left ventricle.

E. right atrium.

26. The medical term for tumor composed of lymph vessels is: A. lymphoma.

B. angioma.

C. myoma.

D. hematoma.

E. lymphangioma.

27. Which abbreviation refers to high blood pressure?

A. HDL B. HTN C. HF D. BP E. CHF

28. Which abbreviation refers to good cholesterol, a high-density lipoprotein?

A. RBC B. WBC C. mL D. HDL E. LDL 29. A disease characterized by an abnormal hardening of the arteries is called: A. cardiomegaly.

B. aortomalacia.

C. arteriosclerosis.

D. aortopathy.

E. arteriospasm.

30. What is the term that means incision of a vein to withdraw blood?

A. venolysis B. phlebectomy C. phlebolith D. phleboplasty E. phlebotomy 31. Chest pain associated with coronary artery disease is called: A. ischemia.

B. hyperalgia.

C. angina.

D. angiodynia.

E. pectorodynia.

32. A condition of incompetent valves in veins may result in: A. infarction.

B. varicose veins.

C. hypotension.

D. arteriosclerosis.

E. phlebolith.

33. Coronary arteries supply blood to the: A. lungs.

B. brain.

C. kidneys.

D. myocardium.

E. liver.

34. Which class of drugs helps break down and destroy a blood clot?

A. statins B. thrombolytics C. antivirals D. immunosuppressants E. beta blockers

35. In which condition do leaflets of the mitral valve prolapse into the left atrium during systole?

A. HF B. ICD C. MVP D. CHF E. CAD 36. What is the term for removal of a clot?

A. embolism B. catheterization C. thrombectomy D. valvotomy E. venisection 37. Through which structures do conduction impulses pass, in sequential order, causing the heart to

contract?

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers AV node, SA node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers AV bundle, AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers Purkinje fibers, SA node, AV node, AV bundle Purkinje fibers, AV node, SA node, AV bundle

A. B. C. D. E.

38. An EKG taken with a small portable recorder capable of storing information up to 24 hours is called

the: A. B. C. D. E.

stress test. nuclear stress test. electrocardiography. cardiac monitor test.

Holter monitor test.

39. An AV heart block in which no electrical impulses reach the ventricles is known as: A. first-degree block.

B. second-degree block.

C. third-degree block.

D. fourth-degree block.

E. fifth-degree block.

40. Cells that engulf and digest cellular debris are called: A. cancer cells.

B. bacterial cells.

C. mucous cells.

D. phagocytes.

E. erythrocytes.

41. The term that best describes cardiac arrhythmia is: A. hypertension.

B. atherosclerosis.

C. arteriosclerosis.

D. calcium blocker.

E. fibrillation.

42. Which statement best describes echocardiography?

A. It uses a radiopharmaceutical to scan the heart.

B. It guides a catheter through the vein into the heart.

C. It introduces a contrast medium into the heart as images are taken.

D. It injects a radioactive substance to assess abnormal heart structures.

E. It uses ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures and motion of the heart.

43. Which drugs block sodium from being absorbed back into blood?

A. statins B. thrombolytics C. immunosuppressants D. diuretics E. antiarrhythmics 44. Which term means disease of heart muscle?

A. aortic stenosis B. cardiomegaly C. arteriolitis D. cardiomyopathy E. mitral prolapse 45. What blood vessel carries oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs?

A. inferior vena cava B. superior vena cava C. pulmonary vein D. pulmonary artery E. aortic branch 46. Which abbreviation refers to a disease cause by AIDS? A. CAD B. EBV C. HIV D. HDL E. HTN 47. The term bruit is defined as: A. irregular rhythm of the heartbeat.

B. mild to severe pain in the chest.

C. abnormal blowing sound heard on auscultation.

D. irregular contractions of the heart.

E. dysrhythmia.

48. Which term is defined as a malignancy of connective tissue, including bone, fat, and fibrous tissue?

A. Kaposi sarcoma B. Hodgkin disease C. mononucleosis

D. rheumatic heart disease E. Raynaud disease 49. What term refers to slow movement of blood in the veins?

A. phlebectasis B. phlebosclerosis C. bradyphlebia D. phlebostasis E. phlebalgia 50. Complications of mononucleosis include: A. enlarged lymph nodes.

B. inflammation of the stomach.

C. tumor of the larynx.

D. ruptured appendix.

E. infected colon.

51. A backflow of blood in the heart is called: A. regurgitation.

B. arrhythmia.

C. stenosis.

D. hypoxia.

E. dysrhythmia.

52. Rapid, uncoordinated quivering of the myocardium is called: A. ischemia.

B. thrombosis.

C. embolism.

D. fibrillation.

E. patency.

53. Which procedure involves passage of a balloon catheter through an occluded coronary vessel to

compress plaque against the artery walls? bypass surgery angioplasty cardiac catheterization cardioplasty arterioplasty

A. B. C. D. E.

54. Name the blood test that measures protein released into damaged heart muscle, as occurs with a

heart attack. lipid panel troponin I stress test ELISA CBC

A. B. C. D. E.

55. Blockage of lymph vessels that results in localized fluid retention and tissue swelling is known as: A. hyperhidrosis

B. hydromegaly C. lymphomegaly D. lymphangioma E. lymphedema Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. aden/o B. agglutin/o C. angi/o D. arteri/o E. arteriol/o F. ather/o G. atri/o H. cardi/o I. immun/o J. lymphaden/o K. lymphangi/o L. phag/o M. phleb/o N. scler/o O. thromb/o P. -graphy Q. -phylaxis R. -poiesis S. -stenosis T. -um 56. hardening; sclera (white of eye) 57. fatty plaque 58. vein 59. heart 60. structure, thing 61. narrowing, stricture 62. swallowing, eating 63. vessel (usually blood or lymph) 64. immune, immunity, safe 65. blood clot 66. arteriole

67. clumping, gluing 68. lymph vessel 69. lymph gland (node) 70. protection 71. process of recording 72. formation, production 73. gland 74. artery 75. atrium

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. AIDS B. angioplasty C. arrhythmia D. bruit E. cardiac enzyme studies F. Doppler G. embolus H. heart block I. Hodgkin disease J. Holter monitor K. hyperlipidemia L. hypertension M. ischemia N. Kaposi sarcoma O. mononucleosis P. myocardial infarction (MI) Q. statins R. stress test S. thrombolytics T. TIA 76. Soft, blowing sound heard on auscultation; murmur 77. Inability of the heart to maintain a steady beat 78. Excessive amount of lipids in the blood 79. Ultrasonography that measures blood flow in blood vessels 80. Interference with electrical impulses that control activity of the heart muscle 81. Any endovascular procedure that reopens narrowed blood vessels and restores blood flow 82. Battery of blood tests performed to determine the presence of cardiac damage

83. Portable device worn by a patient that records the heart rhythms, usually for 24 hours 84. Drugs that reduce low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol in the blood 85. Partial or complete occlusion of one or more of the coronary arteries; also called heart attack 86. Insufficient oxygenated blood to a body part as a result of interruption of blood flow 87. Drugs prescribed to dissolve a blood clot 88. Temporary interference with blood supply to the brain without permanent damage 89. Acute infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) characterized by a sore throat, fever,

fatigue, and enlarged lymph nodes 90. Malignancy of connective tissue, including bone, fat, muscle, and fibrous tissue, that is closely

associated with AIDS 91. Evaluating cardiovascular fitness while exercising on a treadmill 92. High blood pressure 93. Deficiency of cellular immunity induced by infection with HIV 94. Blood clot that becomes lodged in a blood vessel 95. Malignant disease characterized by enlargement of lymph nodes and splenomegaly True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. Embolectomy is the removal of a clot that has traveled into a blood vessel and suddenly caused

occlusion.

97. Atherotomy is the loosening of plaque from an artery.

98. Pericardiocentesis is a surgical puncture to remove fluid from the pericardial space.

99. Aneurysmorrhaphy is the suturing (repair) of a ballooned-out portion of an artery.

100. CABG refers to coronary artery bypass grafting to remove a cancerous tumor.

101. Drugs that break down and destroy a clot are known as thrombolytics.

102. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma involves the lymphoid tissue.

103. Splenomegaly is hemorrhage of the liver.

104. HIV causes AIDS. 105. Mononucleosis is caused by a bacterial infection.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use phleb/o (vein) to build a word that means inflammation of a vein.

107. Use ather/o (fatty plaque) to build a word that means abnormal condition of fatty plaque hardening.

108. Use angi/o (vessel) to build a word that means tumor of a vessel.

109. Use lymphangi/o (lymph vessel) to build a word that means tumor composed of lymphatic vessels.

110. Use lymph/o (lymph) to build a word that means formation or production of lymphocytes or

lymphoid tissue.

111. Build a surgical word that means puncture of the heart.

112. Build a word that means abnormal condition of narrowing or stricture of the aorta.

113. Build a word that means enlargement of the heart.

114. Build a surgical word that means separation, destruction, or loosening of a blood clot.

115. Build a surgical word that means excision or removal of an embolus.

Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: E ANS: E ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: N ANS: F ANS: M ANS: H ANS: T ANS: S ANS: L ANS: C ANS: I ANS: O ANS: E ANS: B ANS: K ANS: J ANS: Q ANS: P ANS: R ANS: A ANS: D ANS: G

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: D ANS: C ANS: K ANS: F ANS: H ANS: B ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: J ANS: Q ANS: P ANS: M ANS: S ANS: T ANS: O ANS: N ANS: R ANS: L ANS: A ANS: G ANS: I

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F

COMPLETION 106. ANS: phlebitis PTS: 1 107. ANS: atherosclerosis PTS: 1 108. ANS: angioma PTS: 1 109. ANS: lymphangioma PTS: 1 110. ANS: lymphopoiesis PTS: 1 111. ANS: cardiocentesis PTS: 1

112. ANS: aortostenosis PTS: 1 113. ANS: cardiomegaly PTS: 1 114. ANS: thrombolysis PTS: 1 115. ANS: embolectomy PTS: 1

Chapter 6: Digestive System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The term for lack of appetite is: A. anorexia.

B. dysphagia.

C. leukoplakia.

D. obstipation.

E. achlorhydria.

2. What is the term that means stricture or narrowing of the rectum?

A. rectodynia B. rectoplasty C. rectospasm D. rectopexy E. rectostenosis 3. Protrusion of an organ through its natural wall is known as: A. reflux.

B. perforation.

C. volvulus.

D. diverticulosis.

E. hernia.

4. Where does the mechanical process of digestion begin?

A. mouth B. esophagus C. stomach D. small intestine E. large intestine 5. What is the term for the diagnostic procedure used to examine the anus and rectum?

A. sigmoidoscopy B. colonoscopy C. enteroscopy D. colposcopy E. proctoscopy 6. Which statement regarding anatomical position is correct?

A. The esophagus is inferior to the stomach.

B. The stomach is superior to the duodenum.

C. The rectum is inferior to the anus.

D. The jejunum is inferior to the ileum.

E. The duodenum is inferior to the jejunum.

7. What is the term for a stone in the bile duct?

A. B. C. D. E.

lithiasis cholecystolithiasis adenolithiasis choledocholith renal calculus

8. What imaging technique uses high-frequency sound waves to produce an image of the liver,

gallbladder, or pancreas?

MRI CT scan radiography ultrasonography nuclear scan

A. B. C. D. E.

9. A twisting of the bowel upon itself, causing obstruction, is a disorder known as: A. fistula.

B. constipation.

C. volvulus.

D. irritable bowel disease E. Crohn disease.

10. What is the term for passage of stools containing bright red blood?

A. hematoma B. toxemia C. hematoblast D. hematochezia E. hemolysis 11. Where is bile produced?

A. stomach B. salivary glands C. pancreas D. liver E. gallbladder 12. Which specialist is correctly matched with the type of therapy performed?

A. periodontist—straightens teeth B. gastrologist—treats gingivitis C. cardiologist—treats muscular disorders D. orthodontist—treats tooth pain E. enterologist—treats diseases of the intestinal tract 13. What condition involves excessive flow of saliva?

A. gastrorrhea B. sialorrhea C. diarrhea D. cholemesis E. hyperemesis

14. During digestion, the gallbladder releases bile into the: A. stomach.

B. small intestine.

C. colon.

D. liver.

E. pancreas.

15. Esophageal varices are: A. hernias around the pylorus.

B. hemorrhoids.

C. perianal fistulae.

D. polyps.

E. swollen, twisted veins.

16. A gastroscopy is performed with a(n): A. sigmoidoscope.

B. flexible, fiber-optic scope.

C. colonoscope.

D. catheter.

E. esophagoscope.

17. What term refers to an intestinal disorder of the colon characterized by diarrhea and abdominal

cramps? hematochezia enteropathy dysentery polyposis hepatitis

A. B. C. D. E.

18. The bowel disorder Crohn disease is also known as: A. diarrhea.

B. volvulus.

C. ischemia.

D. melena.

E. regional ileitis.

19. Abnormal side pockets in a hollow organ, such as the intestine, are called: A. caries.

B. ulcers.

C. dysentery.

D. diverticula.

E. ascites.

20. Accumulation of serous fluids in the abdominal cavity is called: A. flatus.

B. anorexia.

C. ascites.

D. bulimia.

E. edema.

21. The pear-shaped, sac-like organ that serves as a reservoir for bile is the: A. liver.

B. pancreas.

C. gallbladder.

D. spleen.

E. duodenum.

22. Acute gastritis or peptic ulcer may result in: A. diarrhea.

B. sialorrhea.

C. hyperemesis.

D. cholemesis.

E. hematemesis.

23. Dysphagia results from a problem connected with: A. swallowing.

B. appetite.

C. diarrhea.

D. the colon.

E. polyps.

24. A cholelith is a: A. pancreatic stone.

B. liver stone.

C. salivary stone.

D. gallstone.

E. stomach stone.

25. What is the term for white plaques on the mucosa of the mouth?

A. stomatitis B. leukoplakia C. steatorrhea D. melena E. leukemia 26. What is the term for difficult or painful swallowing?

A. borborygmus B. flatus C. nausea D. eructation E. dysphagia 27. What diagnostic test is performed on feces to detect the presence of “hidden” blood not apparent on

visual inspection?

A. stool culture B. stool guaiac test C. hepatitis panel

D. sialography E. liver function test 28. Which surgical procedure treats morbid obesity by shortening the jejunum?

A. gastrectomy B. vertical banded gastroplasty C. roux-en-Y gastric bypass D. enterectomy E. colonectomy 29. Linguogingival means pertaining to: A. the tongue and the salivary glands.

B. the salivary glands and gums.

C. teeth and the tongue.

D. the tongue and gums.

E. teeth and gums.

30. A small, tumor-like, benign growth that projects from a mucous membrane surface is called a(n): A. lesion.

B. polyp.

C. wart.

D. ulcer.

E. ileus.

31. Which structure has respiratory and digestive functions?

A. tongue B. uvula C. trachea D. esophagus E. pharynx 32. A mass of enlarged twisted veins in the mucous membranes inside or outside of the rectum is called

a: A. B. C. D. E.

hernia. hemorrhoid. polyp. tumor. fistula.

33. Suture of the second portion of the small intestine is called: A. enterorrhaphy.

B. ileorrhaphy.

C. duodenorrhaphy.

D. jejunorrhaphy.

E. colonorrhaphy.

34. Which structure carries bile from the liver to the duodenum?

A. lymph duct B. hepatic duct

C. common bile duct D. pancreatic duct E. cystic duct 35. The suffix -prandial means: A. enlargement.

B. meal.

C. vomit.

D. gall.

E. expansion.

36. What is the term for backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus as a result of malfunction of the

lower esophageal sphincter? hematemesis dyspepsia ascites gastroesophageal reflux disease borborygmus

A. B. C. D. E.

37. Jaundice is caused by excessive levels of: A. saliva.

B. chyme.

C. gastric acid.

D. insulin.

E. bilirubin.

38. Structural abnormalities of the esophagus can be diagnosed by the following test: A. lower GI series.

B. barium swallow.

C. barium enema.

D. colonoscopy.

E. nasogastric intubation.

39. An abnormal tube-like passage from one organ to another or from one organ to the surface is called

a(n): anastomosis. fistula. volvulus. hemorrhoid. stenosis.

A. B. C. D. E.

40. Bleeding of the gums is a primary symptom of: A. gingivitis.

B. sialitis.

C. esophagitis.

D. stomatitis.

E. periodontitis.

41. What does the term dyspepsia refer to?

A. B. C. D. E.

frequent digestion rapid digestion abnormally slow digestion normal digestion indigestion

42. The section of the large intestine associated with the appendix is the: A. colon.

B. cecum.

C. rectum.

D. anus.

E. sigmoid colon.

43. Which organ is an accessory organ of digestion?

A. stomach B. colon C. ileum D. liver E. spleen 44. In which pathological condition are there bulging pouches in the GI tract?

A. Crohn disease B. diverticular disease C. colonic polyposis D. inflammatory bowel disease E. volvulus 45. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is also known as: A. borborygmus.

B. spastic colon.

C. colonalgia.

D. colonic irrigation.

E. coloptosis.

46. Buccal means pertaining to the: A. cheek.

B. gums.

C. tongue.

D. teeth.

E. throat.

47. A new opening from the large bowel to the surface of the body is called: A. duodenotomy.

B. jejunostomy.

C. enterostomy.

D. colostomy.

E. jejuntomy.

48. Lingu/o means the same as:

A. B. C. D. E.

gingiv/o. gloss/o. or/o. stomat/o. dent/o.

49. The opposite of -ptosis is: A. -stenosis.

B. -pexy.

C. -ptysis.

D. -stasis.

E. -phagia.

50. Which medications control loose stools and relieve diarrhea?

A. antacids B. antiemetics C. laxatives D. antidiarrheals E. suppositories 51. Identify the stage of colon cancer that metastasizes from its original site to other organs of the body.

A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V 52. A narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the first part of the small intestine that occurs in the

neonate is called: pyloric stenosis. gastromegaly. duodenostomy. fistula. ascites.

A. B. C. D. E.

53. The adoption of a gluten-free diet aids in the treatment of: A. GERD. B. cirrhosis.

C. appendicitis.

D. lithiasis.

E. celiac disease.

54. Pharmacological agents that block H2 receptors in the stomach are used in the treatment of: A. diarrhea.

B. Crohn disease.

C. peptic ulcer disease.

D. constipation.

E. borborygmus.

55. Bacterial or fungal infection that requires prompt medical attention is known as: A. pancreatitis.

B. dysentery.

C. hematochezia.

D. peritonitis.

E. volvulus.

Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. chol/e B. cholangi/o C. cholecyst/o D. choledoch/o E. col/o F. enter/o G. gastr/o H. gingiv/o I. gloss/o J. hepat/o K. odont/o L. or/o M. pharyng/o N. proct/o O. rect/o P. sial/o Q. sigmoid/o R. -orexia S. -pathy T. -rrhea 56. disease 57. mouth 58. gums 59. teeth 60. throat 61. bile vessel 62. stomach 63. rectum 64. appetite 65. intestine (usually small)

66. bile, gall 67. anus, rectum 68. saliva, salivary gland 69. sigmoid colon 70. tongue 71. liver 72. bile duct 73. colon 74. gallbladder 75. discharge, flow

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. anastomosis B. anorexia C. ascites D. barium enema E. barium swallow F. borborygmus G. cholelithiasis H. Crohn disease I. deglutition J. diverticulosis K. dysentery L. dyspepsia M. dysphagia N. endoscopy O. enterostomy P. hemorrhoid Q. hernia R. irritable bowel syndrome S. jaundice T. lithotripsy 76. Enlarged, twisted varicose vein in the rectal region 77. Invasive procedure to eliminate calculi in the bile ducts 78. Protrusion of any organ or structure through the wall of the cavity in which it is naturally contained 79. Yellowing of the skin caused by hepatitis 80. Condition of pouch-like herniations through the intestinal wall 81. Lack or loss of appetite, resulting in the inability to eat

82. Accumulation of serous fluid in the abdomen caused by a disease 83. Gurgling noises caused by passage of gas through the intestine that are audible with a stethoscope 84. Chronic inflammation, usually of the ileum, but possibly affecting any portion of the intestinal tract 85. Inflammation of the intestine caused by ingesting water or food containing chemical irritants,

bacteria, or parasites that results in bloody diarrhea 86. Epigastric discomfort felt after eating; also called indigestion 87. Abdominal pain and altered bowel function for which no organic cause can be determined; also

called spastic colon 88. Surgical joining of two ducts, vessels, or bowel segments to allow flow from one to another 89. Presence or formation of gallstones in the gallbladder or common bile duct 90. Visual examination of a cavity or canal using a specialized lighted instrument 91. Radiographic examination of the rectum and colon after enema administration of a contrast medium

into the rectum 92. Radiographic examination of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine after oral administration of

a contrast medium 93. Act of swallowing 94. Surgical creation of an opening (mouth) in the small intestine 95. Inability or difficulty in swallowing True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. Steatorrhea refers to undigested fats that appear in the feces.

97. Antiemetics control loose stools and relieve diarrhea.

98. ESWL is a noninvasive method used to destroy calculi.

99. Gastroscopy is endoscopy of the small intestine.

100. Volvulus requires ultrasonography to untwist the loop of the bowel.

101. Peritonitis requires prompt medical attention.

102. Ultrasound helps diagnose digestive disorders, locate tumors, and guide insertion of instruments

during surgical procedures.

103. Another name for stool guaiac test is hemoccult test.

104. Pancreatitis is caused by a virus.

105. Proctoscopy is endoscopy of the small intestines.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use hepat/o (liver) to build a word that means downward displacement of the liver.

107. Use -pepsia (digestion) to build a word that means bad, painful, or difficult digestion.

108. Use lith/o (stone, calculus) to build a word that means crushing of a gallstone.

109. Use -algia (pain) to build a word that means pain in the stomach.

110. Use an- (without, not) to build a word that means without an appetite.

111. Build a term that means surgical repair of a bile duct.

112. Build a term that means visual examination of the colon.

113. Build a word that means disease of the gallbladder.

114. Build a word that means tumor of the pancreas.

115. Build a word that means surgical fixation of a movable liver (to the abdominal wall).

Chapter 6: Digestive System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: A ANS: E ANS: E ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: S ANS: L ANS: H ANS: K ANS: M ANS: B ANS: G ANS: O ANS: R ANS: F ANS: A ANS: N ANS: P ANS: Q ANS: I ANS: J ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: P ANS: T ANS: Q ANS: S ANS: J ANS: B ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: F ANS: H ANS: K ANS: L ANS: R ANS: A ANS: G ANS: N ANS: D ANS: E ANS: I ANS: O ANS: M

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F

COMPLETION 106. ANS: hepatoptosis PTS: 1 107. ANS: dyspepsia PTS: 1 108. ANS: cholecystolithotripsy PTS: 1 109. ANS: gastralgia PTS: 1 110. ANS: anorexia PTS: 1 111. ANS: choledochoplasty PTS: 1

112. ANS: colonoscopy PTS: 1 113. ANS: cholecystopathy PTS: 1 114. ANS: pancreatoma PTS: 1 115. ANS: hepatopexy PTS: 1

Chapter 7: Urinary System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What term means act of voiding urine?

A. nocturia B. micturition C. oliguria D. urodynia E. pyorrhea 2. What term means increase in nitrogenous compounds in the blood?

A. azotemia B. polyuria C. enuresis D. dysuria E. oliguria 3. What surgical procedure involves crushing a stone or calculus?

A. lithotomy B. lithotripsy C. lithectomy D. lithiasis E. lithoscope 4. What is the surgical procedure to correct a prolapsed kidney?

A. nephroptosis B. nephrodesis C. nephrotomy D. nephropexy E. nephrostomy 5. Herniation of the urethra is known as: A. rectocele.

B. ureterocele.

C. pyelopathy.

D. urethrocele.

E. nephritis.

6. Which instrument is used to inspect the urinary bladder?

A. cystotome B. cystitis C. cystoscope D. cystectomy E. cystostomy 7. Excessive accumulation of fluid within body tissues is called:

A. B. C. D. E.

diuresis. lithiasis. cystitis. edema. hematuria.

8. What is the abbreviation for intravenous pyelography?

A. IP B. INP C. IPG D. IVPG E. IVP 9. The medical word for scanty urinary output is: A. icturia.

B. oliguria.

C. uremia.

D. hematuria.

E. polyuria.

10. Which term means increased urinary production?

A. oliguria B. polyuria C. anuria D. micturition E. continence 11. Waste products, such as urea, are microscopically filtered from blood by the: A. calyces.

B. nephrons.

C. collecting tubules.

D. Bowman capsules.

E. ureters.

12. What term means blood in urine?

A. diuresis B. hemoptysis C. hematuria D. uresis E. uricosurics 13. A dx of adenodynia means there is pain in: A. the intestines.

B. the stomach.

C. a gland.

D. the pelvic area.

E. the gallbladder.

14. What agents promote secretion of urine?

A. B. C. D. E.

potassium supplements antibiotics aspirin antispasmodics diuretics

15. When a urotoxin is suspected, it means there is a poisonous substance in the: A. ureter.

B. urethra.

C. urine.

D. bladder.

E. meatus.

16. The funnel-shaped reservoir that is the basin of the kidney is the: A. renal pelvis.

B. calyces.

C. urethra.

D. nephron.

E. bladder.

17. The abbreviation UTI refers to: A. urethral toxic infection.

B. ureter total inflammation.

C. urinary tract incontinence.

D. urinary tract infection.

E. ureter tubal infection.

18. A suprarenal tumor is located: A. within the kidney.

B. under the kidney.

C. on the kidney.

D. within the bladder.

E. on the bladder.

19. Painful urination is known as: A. anuria.

B. polyuria.

C. dysuria.

D. nocturia.

E. hematuria.

20. What small, tubular structure drains urine from the bladder?

A. ureter B. urethra C. renal pelvis D. calyx E. meatus 21. The urinary tract is composed of the:

A. B. C. D. E.

vagina, urethra, and bladder. ureters, bladder, and cervix. kidneys, ureters, and bladder. prostate, bladder, and urethra. kidneys, colon, and bladder.

22. Which terms share the same meaning?

A. cystitis—pyelitis B. urethrodynia—urethralgia C. oliguria—anuria D. nephritis—nephroptosis E. leukocyte—leukorrhea 23. Urinary incontinence, such as bedwetting, is called: A. enuresis.

B. diuresis.

C. oliguria.

D. hemoptysis.

E. hyperuricemia.

24. What is the term for a congenital opening of the urethra on the undersurface of the penis?

A. phimosis B. epididymitis C. uremia D. cryptorchidism E. hypospadias 25. What is the term that means uncontrolled loss of urine from the bladder?

A. continence B. incontinence C. urination D. nocturia E. anuria 26. Cystectomy is the surgical procedure for: A. incision into the bladder.

B. excision of the bladder.

C. incision into the kidney.

D. excision of the kidney.

E. creation of a new opening in the kidney.

27. A patient with a calculus in the ureter would most likely experience: A. ureterodynia.

B. nocturia.

C. polyuria.

D. cystitis.

E. homeostasis.

28. The inability to control urination is called:

A. B. C. D. E.

anuria. enuresis. frequency. polyuria. dysuria.

29. The ureters carry urine from the kidneys to the: A. urethra.

B. bladder.

C. renal pelvis.

D. renal artery.

E. meatus.

30. Obstruction that causes cessation of urine flow may result in the condition called: A. hydronephrosis.

B. pyorrhea.

C. hematuria.

D. diuresis.

E. hypospadias.

31. What diagnostic procedure below uses a radioactive substance to produce images of the kidney’s

structure and function? ultrasonography catheterization blood urea nitrogen renal nuclear scan creatinine clearance

A. B. C. D. E.

32. The outer layer of the kidney is called the: A. renal cortex.

B. renal medulla.

C. trigone.

D. renal tubule.

E. nephron.

33. The combining form py/o means: A. pus.

B. fever.

C. hidden.

D. heat.

E. renal pelvis.

34. Which term is matched with its correct meaning?

A. oliguria—decrease in urine volume B. hematuria—painful urination C. diuresis—increase in urine flow D. polyuria—complete absence of urine flow E. anuria—blood in urine

35. The combining form vesic/o means: A. seminal vesicle.

B. vas deferens.

C. vessels.

D. bladder.

E. prepuce.

36. The abbreviation ESWL is associated with: A. circulatory collapse.

B. severe hypotension.

C. hemorrhage.

D. dehydration.

E. nephrolithiasis.

37. All of the following are waste products filtered from blood EXCEPT: A. urea.

B. creatinine.

C. sodium.

D. carbon dioxide.

E. potassium.

38. Wilms tumor is a: A. malignant tumor of the kidney, usually occurring in children.

B. malignant tumor of the prostate associated with the aging process.

C. nonmalignant tumor resulting from kidney stones.

D. nonmalignant tumor present at birth.

E. malignant tumor of the bladder.

39. The doctor orders physical, chemical, and microscopic evaluation of a urine sample with a(n): A. creatinine clearance test B. ultrasonography C. blood urea nitrogen test D. urinalysis E. catheterization 40. What is an accurate description of nephrorrhaphy?

A. Hemorrhage in the kidney B. A stone present in the kidney C. Inflammation of the kidney D. Prolapse of the kidney E. Suturing of the kidney 41. Which urinary structure stores urine?

A. renal tubule B. ureter C. renal pelvis D. calyx E. bladder

42. What surgical procedure creates an opening between the renal pelvis and the skin to drain urine into

a collecting bag outside the body? nephrotomy percutaneous nephrostomy nephrolithotomy nephrorrhaphy cystectomy

A. B. C. D. E.

43. Renal abscess may lead to: A. pyuria.

B. ascites.

C. nephroptosis.

D. hypospadias.

E. nephrocele.

44. Which abbreviation refers to a laboratory test that measures the amount of urea (nitrogenous waste

product) in the blood?

IVP RP BUN WBC KUB

A. B. C. D. E.

45. What is the meaning of nephrolithotomy?

A. hardening of a stone B. removal of the urinary bladder and a calculus C. removal of the kidney and stones D. incision to remove a renal calculus E. incision to remove a kidney 46. What drug category promotes reduction of fluid in body tissues and also edema?

A. anti-inflammatories B. diuretics C. thrombolytics D. statins E. antibiotics 47. End-stage renal disease is synonymous with: A. chronic renal failure.

B. diuresis.

C. Wilms tumor.

D. urinary tract infection.

E. hemodialysis.

48. Herniation of the tube connecting the kidney and urinary bladder is known as: A. herniorrhaphy.

B. urethrocele.

C. ureterocele.

D. urethroileostomy.

E. urethrostomy.

49. An artificial kidney machine is involved in: A. hemodialysis.

B. renal transfusion.

C. renal calculi.

D. nephropexy.

E. renal transplantation.

50. Which of the following treatments describes the mechanical purification of blood from waste

products to help the kidneys function normally? renal transplantation catheterization creatinine clearance test dialysis ureteral stent

A. B. C. D. E.

51. Which of the following describes a medical condition in which a woman’s bladder bulges into her

vagina?

A. vaginocele B. cystoptosis C. cystopathy D. cystitis E. cystocele 52. Lithotripsy is a medical procedure associated with: A. kidney transplantations.

B. radiographic studies of the kidneys.

C. use of shock waves to crush urinary stones.

D. Foley catheterization.

E. CT scans.

53. The laboratory test performed on feces to detect the presence of blood in the stool is called: A. creatinine clearance test.

B. barium swallow test.

C. lower GI tract test.

D. stool guaiac test.

E. blood urea nitrogen test.

54. A type of dialysis that uses the abdominal membrane to remove toxins in patients with kidney failure

is called: toxodialysis. hemodialysis. filtrate dialysis. glomerular dialysis. peritoneal dialysis.

A. B. C. D. E.

55. Cystitis is commonly treated with the pharmacological agent known as a(n):

A. B. C. D. E.

antispasmodic. diuretic. antibiotic. potassium supplement. antiemetic.

Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. aden/o B. azot/o C. bacteri/o D. cyst/o E. glomerul/o F. meat/o G. nephr/o H. noct/o I. olig/o J. py/o K. pyel/o L. ur/o M. ureter/o N. urethr/o O. -iasis P. -lysis Q. -pathy R. -pexy S. -ptosis T. -tripsy 56. bladder 57. glomerulus 58. disease 59. fixation (of an organ) 60. prolapse, downward displacement 61. urine; urinary tract 62. crushing 63. urethra 64. gland 65. bacteria 66. nitrogenous compound

67. night 68. opening, meatus 69. kidney 70. renal pelvis 71. abnormal condition (produced by something specified) 72. ureter 73. scanty 74. pus 75. separation; destruction; loosening

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. anuria B. azoturia C. dialysis D. diuresis E. diuretics F. dysuria G. enuresis H. hypertension I. hypospadias J. hypotension K. lithiasis L. lithotripsy M. lumen N. nephrolithiasis O. nephromegaly P. nephropathy Q. nephropexy R. nephroptosis S. uremia T. Wilms tumor 76. Increase of nitrogenous substances, especially urea, in urine 77. Increased formation and secretion of urine 78. Painful or difficult urination, symptomatic of other urinary tract conditions 79. Involuntary discharge of urine after the age by which bladder control should have been established 80. Abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the undersurface of the penis 81. Elevated level of urea and other nitrogenous waste products in blood

82. Malignant neoplasm of the kidney that occurs in young children 83. Abnormal condition or presence of calculi 84. Process of removing toxic substances from blood when the kidneys do not function adequately 85. Any disorder of the kidneys, including inflammatory, degenerative, and sclerotic conditions 86. Downward displacement of a kidney 87. Crushing a stone in the bladder 88. Enlargement of a kidney 89. Abnormal condition of kidney stones 90. Agents used to control edema and stimulate the flow of urine 91. High blood pressure 92. Absence of urination 93. Tubular space within a structure 94. Decrease in blood pressure below normal 95. Surgical fixation of a floating kidney True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. Wilms tumor is a kidney cancer that affects men over age 50 years.

97. Glycosuria is a symptom of diabetes.

98. Kidneys control blood pressure.

99. BUN measures the amount of urea in blood.

100. Pyuria is an indication of mucus in blood.

101. Azotemia is synonymous with uremia.

102. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal passage between the ureter and the vagina.

103. Hydroureter may develop because of an obstructing kidney stone.

104. Bacteriuria is a symptom of urinary tract infection.

105. Catheterization is an incision to remove a stone.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use -uria (urine) to build a word that means difficult or painful urination.

107. Use nephr/o (kidney) to build a word that means specialist in the study of the kidney.

108. Use -uria (urine) to build a word that means condition of urination (during the) night.

109. Use trans- (across, through) to build a word that means pertaining to through the urethra.

110. Use -spadias (slit, fissure) to build a word that means above, on the penis (upper surface of urethral

opening).

111. Build a word that means forming, producing, origin (of a) calculus or stone.

112. Build a word that means inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney.

113. Build a word that means bacteria in the urine.

114. Build a word that means instrument to examine the bladder.

115. Build a word that means disease of the kidney(s).

Chapter 7: Urinary System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: Q ANS: R ANS: S ANS: L ANS: T ANS: N ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: H ANS: F ANS: G ANS: K ANS: O ANS: M ANS: I ANS: J ANS: P

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: F ANS: G ANS: I ANS: S ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: K ANS: C ANS: P ANS: R ANS: L ANS: O ANS: N ANS: E ANS: H ANS: A ANS: M ANS: J ANS: Q

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F

COMPLETION 106. ANS: dysuria PTS: 1 107. ANS: nephrologist PTS: 1 108. ANS: nocturia PTS: 1 109. ANS: transurethral PTS: 1 110. ANS: epispadias PTS: 1 111. ANS: lithogenesis PTS: 1

112. ANS: pyelonephritis PTS: 1 113. ANS: bacteriuria PTS: 1 114. ANS: cystoscope PTS: 1 115. ANS: nephropathy PTS: 1

Chapter 8: Reproductive Systems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What medical term refers to difficult childbirth or labor?

A. dysplasia B. dystocia C. dystonia D. dysmenorrhea E. dyspnea 2. The term colpocervical refers to the: A. uterus and cervix.

B. vagina and uterus.

C. ovary and uterus.

D. vagina and cervix.

E. fallopian tubes and cervix.

3. PID is the abbreviation for: A. progesterone-induced dysmenorrhea.

B. prenatal infectious disease.

C. pelvic inflammatory dysplasia.

D. postmenopausal-induced disorder.

E. pelvic inflammatory disease.

4. Postnatal means: A. before birth.

B. after birth.

C. before conception.

D. after conception.

E. after menopause.

5. Colpodynia means a person has pain in the: A. ovary.

B. fallopian tube.

C. cervix.

D. uterus.

E. vagina.

6. Excessive increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ is called: A. hydrocele.

B. hematoma.

C. hyperplasia.

D. adipoid.

E. hypertrophy.

7. The female external genitalia includes the:

A. B. C. D. E.

vagina.

Bartholin glands. uterus. oviducts. cervix.

8. Progesterone is secreted by the: A. ovaries.

B. uterus.

C. fallopian tubes.

D. testes.

E. prostate.

9. The structure that transports sperm from the testes to the urethra is the: A. prostate gland.

B. testes.

C. epididymis.

D. vas deferens.

E. seminal vesicles.

10. Which of the following refers to the congenital absence of one or both testes?

A. preeclampsia B. anorchidism C. cryptorchism D. epispadias E. impotence 11. Herniation of a fallopian tube is called: A. hysterocele.

B. colpocystocele.

C. salpingocele.

D. hydrocele.

E. metrocele.

12. What is the gravest form of pregnancy-induced hypertension?

A. pseudocyesis B. portal hypertension C. cuff inflation hypertension D. eclampsia E. dyspareunia 13. How does the discharge associated with candidiasis appear?

A. clear B. frothy C. curdy or cheese-like D. bloody E. greenish 14. What is the medical term for enlargement of the prostate gland?

A. B. C. D. E.

prostatomegaly prostatitis prostatectomy prostatalgia prostatorrhea

15. Gravida 2, para 1 denotes a woman who has had: A. 1 pregnancy and 2 births.

B. 2 pregnancies and 1 birth.

C. 2 pregnancies and 1 miscarriage.

D. 2 pregnancies and 1 abortion.

E. 2 pregnancies and 1 stillbirth.

16. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is associated with: A. the female reproductive system.

B. urinary infection.

C. young adults.

D. urinary flow obstruction.

E. spermatozoa.

17. Permanent cessation of menstruation as a result of the aging process is called: A. menorrhagia.

B. metrorrhagia.

C. menopause.

D. amenorrhea.

E. amenorrhagia.

18. Which organ surrounds the neck of the bladder and the urethra in a male?

A. epididymis B. prostate gland C. testes D. Cowper glands E. vas deferens 19. What is the name of the instrument used for examining the vagina and the cervix uteri?

A. colposcopy B. colposcope C. salpingoscopy D. salpingoscope E. cystoscope 20. The term orchidorrhaphy means: A. rupture of an ovary.

B. hemorrhage of the vagina.

C. suture of a testicle.

D. fixation of an ovary.

E. discharge from a testicle.

21. The presence of functional endometrial tissue in areas outside the uterus is called:

A. B. C. D. E.

toxic shock syndrome. eclampsia. kernicterus. retroversion. endometriosis.

22. The neck of the uterus is called the: A. labia minora.

B. vulva.

C. clitoris.

D. cervix.

E. Bartholin gland.

23. Which structure is affected by salpingitis?

A. ovary B. vagina C. uterus D. cervix E. fallopian tube 24. What hormonal preparations are used to raise the sperm count in infertility cases?

A. estrogens B. progesterones C. gonadotropins D. vitamins E. spermicides 25. The condition of improperly descended testicles is called: A. orchiopexy.

B. varicocele.

C. ectopy of the testicle.

D. hydrocele.

E. cryptorchidism.

26. What surgical procedure sterilizes the male by preventing the release of sperm?

A. prostatectomy B. vasectomy C. orchiorrhaphy D. hysterectomy E. testopathy 27. What is the medical term that refers to a primary sore of syphilis?

A. chancre B. chlamydia C. herpes D. trichomoniasis E. moniliasis 28. What structure produces testosterone?

A. B. C. D. E.

ovary testis uterus prostate epididymis

29. Another term for Cowper gland is: A. prostate gland.

B. bulbourethral gland.

C. Bartholin gland.

D. epididymal gland.

E. epididymis.

30. What is the procedure for surgical fixation of a prolapsed uterus?

A. metroptosis B. hysteroptosis C. hysteropexy D. hysteroplasty E. hysteromyotomy 31. The Pap test is used to diagnose: A. syphilis.

B. cervical cancer.

C. gonorrhea.

D. colpitis.

E. eclampsia.

32. Multipara means: A. woman who is pregnant for the first time.

B. pregnant woman.

C. woman who has delivered her first offspring.

D. woman who has had multiple abortions.

E. woman who has delivered more than one viable offspring.

33. The vaginal orifice is lubricated by secretions from the: A. cervix.

B. uterus.

C. fallopian tubes.

D. Bartholin glands.

E. ovaries.

34. Which term means excessive menstrual bleeding?

A. menorrhea B. dysmenorrhea C. menorrhagia D. oligomenorrhea E. hemomenorrhea 35. Which term is spelled correctly?

A. B. C. D. E.

mensturation menstral menstruation menistration menstrule

36. Testes are located in the: A. epididymis.

B. scrotum.

C. ductus deferens.

D. renal pelvis.

E. abdominal cavity.

37. Which surgery corrects cryptorchidism?

A. herniorrhaphy B. lithotripsy C. orchiopexy D. nephrolithotomy E. nephropexy 38. What term means pus in the fallopian tube?

A. pyogenesis B. salpingoma C. salpingocele D. pyosalpinx E. salpingocyesis 39. What is the medical term for menstrual pain and tension?

A. oligomenorrhea B. dystocia C. metrorrhagia D. dysmenorrhea E. dyspareunia 40. Which abbreviation indicates the procedure to widen the uterine cervix and scrape the endometrium?

A. C&S B. E&S C. D&C D. IUD E. PID 41. Which term describes a deficiency of spermatozoa in the semen?

A. hypospermia B. hypospermatogenesis C. oligospermia D. aspermatic E. orchiospermia 42. What type of screening uses the PSA blood test?

A. B. C. D. E.

infertility impotence prostate cancer gonadotropins eclampsia

43. Which term refers to inability of a male to achieve an erection?

A. hypospadias B. oligospermia C. aspermia D. epispadias E. impotence 44. What term means stenosis or narrowing of the preputial orifice so that the foreskin cannot be

retracted over the glans penis? phimosis cryptorchidism anorchism aspadias hypospadias

A. B. C. D. E.

45. What is the congenital defect in which the male urethra opens on the upper side of the penis?

A. phimosis B. epispadias C. hyperspadias D. multispadias E. hypercryptism 46. What is the surgical incision of the perineum during childbirth called?

A. perineorrhaphy B. colpotomy C. episiotomy D. laparotomy E. perineoplasty 47. The study and treatment of newborns is known as: A. pediatrics.

B. neonatology.

C. gynecology.

D. obstetrics.

E. immunology.

48. What medical term means premature separation of the placenta?

A. abruptio placentae B. ectopic pregnancy C. pseudocyesis D. dyspareunia E. placenta previa

49. The procedure that involves excision of the entire breast, nipple, areola, and its overlying skin is

called: radical mastectomy. modified radical mastectomy. lumpectomy. complex mastectomy. total mastectomy.

A. B. C. D. E.

50. The surgical removal of the foreskin or prepuce of the penis, usually performed in males when they

are infants, is called: circumcision. orchiotomy. left orchiectomy. bilateral vasectomy. transurethral resection of the prostate.

A. B. C. D. E.

51. A viral infection that is passed between people through skin-to-skin contact is known as: A. balanitis.

B. human papillomavirus infection.

C. epispadias.

D. prostatitis.

E. endometriosis.

52. If left untreated, chlamydia may cause serious damage to the female reproductive tract, including: A. mastodynia.

B. chancres.

C. herpes genitalis.

D. fibroids.

E. infertility.

53. Identify the term for the treatment of cancer, especially prostate cancer, by insertion of radioactive

implants directly into tissue.

TURP brachytherapy ligation cryosurgery prostatoplasty

A. B. C. D. E.

54. Which of the following terms means excessive menstrual bleeding?

A. menorrhea B. dysmenorrhea C. menorrhagia D. oligomenorrhea E. hemomenorrhea 55. Painful disorder in which tissue that normally lines the inside of the uterus grows outside the uterine

cavity.

A. toxic shock syndrome

B. C. D. E.

eclampsia candidiasis vulvopathy endometriosis

Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. andr/o B. balan/o C. cervic/o D. colp/o E. episi/o F. gonad/o G. gynec/o H. hyster/o I. lact/o J. mast/o K. nat/o L. oophor/o M. orchid/o N. salping/o O. vesicul/o P. -arche Q. -cyesis R. -gravida S. -para T. -tocia 56. glans penis 57. neck, cervix uteri (neck of the uterus) 58. beginning 59. pregnant woman 60. childbirth, labor 61. testis 62. breast 63. male 64. uterus (womb) 65. birth 66. ovary

67. tube (usually fallopian or eustachian [auditory] tubes) 68. vagina 69. milk 70. woman, female 71. pregnancy 72. to bear (offspring) 73. vulva 74. seminal vesicle 75. gonads, sex glands

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. anorchism B. aspermia C. balanitis D. chancre E. circumcision F. dilation and curettage G. dystocia H. genital warts I. gonadotropin J. gonorrhea K. hysterosalpingography L. leiomyoma M. menarche N. menopause O. oligomenorrhea P. orchiectomy Q. orchiopexy R. phimosis S. primigravida T. salpingography 76. Permanent cessation of menses 77. Difficult labor or childbirth 78. Beginning of menstrual function 79. Benign uterine tumor composed of muscle and fibrous tissue 80. Infrequent or scanty menstrual flow 81. Sexually transmitted disease caused by human papillomavirus 82. Woman in her first pregnancy

83. Radiography of the uterus and oviducts after introduction of a contrast medium 84. Procedure that widens the cervix with a dilator and scrapes the uterine endometrium with a curette 85. Complete absence of one or both testes 86. Stenosis of the preputial orifice 87. Lack of or failure to ejaculate semen 88. Inflammation of the skin covering the penis 89. Hormonal preparation used to increase sperm count in infertility 90. Surgical removal of the testes 91. STD in which a bacterial infection affects the mucous membrane of the genital tract in men and

women 92. Surgical removal of the foreskin or prepuce of the penis, usually performed in males when they are

infants 93. Skin lesion of the STD syphilis 94. Surgical fixation of a testis 95. Radiography of the fallopian tubes after introduction of a contrast medium True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. Pelvimetry is an instrument to measure the dimensions of the maternal pelvis.

97. Abortion is an induced termination of pregnancy before the embryo or fetus can exist on its own.

98. Tubal ligation is an incision to open the fallopian tube.

99. A laparoscope is the visual examination of the abdominal cavity.

100. D&C is a narrowing of the cervix and scraping of the endometrial lining of the uterus.

101. Cryosurgery is the use of cold temperatures to destroy abnormal tissue.

102. Cancer of the prostate is a benign tumor.

103. Varicocele is an enlarged, dilated vein near the testicle.

104. HPV refers to a virus.

105. Phimosis is an enlarged opening of the prepuce.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use trans- (through, across) to build a term that means pertaining to through the vagina.

107. Use hyster/o (uterus, womb) to build a term that means radiography of the uterus and fallopian

tubes.

108. Use metr/o (uterus) to build a word that means hemorrhage from the uterus.

109. Use oophor/o (ovary) to build a word that means inflammation of an ovary and oviduct.

110. Use colp/o (vagina) to build a word that means visual examination of the vagina.

111. Build a word that means inflammation of the glans penis.

112. Build a word that means no sperm or sperm cells are produced.

113. Build a word that means forming, producing, or origin of sperm (cells).

114. Build a word that means tumor composed of smooth muscle (fibroid tumor).

115. Build a word that means surgical puncture of the amniotic sac.

Chapter 8: Reproductive Systems Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: P ANS: R ANS: T ANS: M ANS: J ANS: A ANS: H ANS: K ANS: L ANS: N ANS: D ANS: I ANS: G ANS: Q ANS: S ANS: E ANS: O ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: N ANS: G ANS: M ANS: L ANS: O ANS: H ANS: S

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: K ANS: F ANS: A ANS: R ANS: B ANS: C ANS: I ANS: P ANS: J ANS: E ANS: D ANS: Q ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F

COMPLETION 106. ANS: transvaginal PTS: 1 107. ANS: hysterosalpingography PTS: 1 108. ANS: metrorrhagia PTS: 1 109. ANS: oophorosalpingitis PTS: 1 110. ANS: colposcopy PTS: 1 111. ANS: balanitis PTS: 1

112. ANS: aspermia PTS: 1 113. ANS: spermatogenesis PTS: 1 114. ANS: leiomyoma PTS: 1 115. ANS: amniocentesis PTS: 1

Chapter 9: Endocrine and Nervous Systems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which glands are located on the front and sides of the trachea just below the larynx?

A. thymus gland B. pituitary gland C. adrenal gland D. pancreas E. thyroid gland 2. Identify the term that describes a congenital defect characterized by incomplete closure of the spinal

canal. shingles sciatica spondylosis hydrocephalus spina bifida

A. B. C. D. E.

3. What is the medical term that means inability to speak?

A. apnea B. aphasia C. anorexia D. dysphasia E. diplopia 4. The hormone responsible for uterine contractions during childbirth is: A. glucagon.

B. prolactin.

C. estrogen.

D. oxytocin.

E. progesterone.

5. What is the function of the hormone glucagon?

A. It lowers blood glucose levels.

B. It increases blood glucose levels.

C. It regulates the amount of salt in the body.

D. It stimulates the absorption of calcium.

E. It regulates metabolism.

6. Which disorder is caused by hyperthyroidism?

A. adenoma B. neoplasm C. goiter D. cretinism E. Addison disease

7. Which endocrine gland secretes epinephrine?

A. pancreas B. adrenal cortex C. adenohypophysis D. neurohypophysis E. adrenal medulla 8. The combining form for sugar, sweetness is: A. sucr/o.

B. sucr/a.

C. glyc/o.

D. glec/o.

E. saccr/o.

9. Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?

A. glucagon B. cortisol C. aldosterone D. insulin E. androgen 10. The suprarenal glands lie superior to the kidneys, which means they are located: A. above the kidneys.

B. below the kidneys.

C. in front of the kidneys.

D. behind the kidneys.

E. beside the kidneys.

11. What progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system (CNS) causes weakness and

other muscle symptoms? sciatica shingles transient ischemia neuroma multiple sclerosis

A. B. C. D. E.

12. Graves disease is also known as: A. hypothyroidism.

B. thyrotoxicosis.

C. myxedema.

D. cretinism.

E. thyrotropin.

13. Another term for stroke is: A. paraplegia.

B. cerebral palsy.

C. parkinsonian syndrome.

D. cerebrovascular accident.

E. myelomalacia.

14. Glucagon is produced by the: A. thyroid gland.

B. pineal gland.

C. pancreas.

D. kidneys.

E. pituitary gland.

15. A pheochromocytoma is usually located in the: A. pancreas.

B. spinal cord.

C. brain.

D. adrenal gland.

E. thymus gland.

16. What term describes a viral disease in which painful blisters appear on the skin along the course of a

peripheral nerve? bifida occulta palsy multiple sclerosis shingles Huntington chorea

A. B. C. D. E.

17. Which gland secretes hormones that regulate the body’s metabolism?

A. pineal gland B. pancreas (islets of Langerhans) C. parathyroid gland D. adrenal gland E. thyroid gland 18. The hormone PTH is produced by the: A. parathyroid glands.

B. pituitary gland.

C. pancreas.

D. thymus gland.

E. thyroid gland.

19. In which condition do the membranes that cover the brain herniate through the opening of the skull?

A. cerebrosclerosis B. encephaloma C. meningocele D. stroke E. neuroglia 20. A body mass index of 40 or greater occurs in: A. Addison disease.

B. morbid obesity.

C. stroke.

D. diabetes.

E. sciatica.

21. Hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in adults causes: A. Cushing disease.

B. Parkinson disease.

C. myxedema.

D. gigantism.

E. hirsutism.

22. Gigantism and dwarfism result from improper functioning of hormones from the: A. pituitary gland.

B. adrenal gland.

C. thyroid gland.

D. pancreas.

E. thymus gland.

23. What is an incision of the thyroid gland called?

A. thyrostomy B. thyrotomy C. thyropathy D. thyromegaly E. thyroidectomy 24. The inner portion of the adrenal gland is the: A. cortex.

B. hypophysis.

C. medulla.

D. isthmus.

E. islet.

25. Which hormone helps control calcium levels in blood?

A. oxytocin B. insulin C. epinephrine D. FSH E. PTH 26. Which hormone is responsible for the body’s ability to react to dangerous situations with increased

responsiveness and energy? epinephrine insulin glucagon oxytocin vasopressin

A. B. C. D. E.

27. Which gland produces the hormone responsible for maintaining secondary sex characteristics?

A. adrenal gland B. thyroid gland

C. thymus gland D. pituitary gland E. pancreas 28. The disease characterized by polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is: A. diabetes mellitus.

B. myelomalacia.

C. hypercalcemia.

D. acromegaly.

E. jaundice.

29. What is the main characteristic of myxedema?

A. hirsutism and virilism B. hypofunction of the adrenal gland C. severe hypothyroidism during childhood D. advanced hypothyroidism during adulthood E. tumors in the thyroid gland 30. What is the master gland that regulates other glands?

A. thyroid gland B. pineal gland C. pituitary gland D. parathyroid gland E. adrenal gland 31. Insulin is produced by the: A. thyroid gland.

B. pineal gland.

C. pancreas.

D. kidneys.

E. pituitary gland.

32. An endocrinologist treats which disease?

A. cerebral palsy B. sterility C. diabetes D. meningitis E. myeloma 33. Surgical removal of a widened blood vessel that may cause hemorrhage is called: A. adrenalectomy.

B. aneurysmectomy.

C. embolectomy.

D. lobectomy.

E. adenectomy.

34. Chronic, recurring seizures are called: A. tonic spasms.

B. epilepsies.

C. CVAs. D. apoplexy.

E. clonic spasms.

35. Which type of disorder does an endocrinologist diagnose and treat?

A. digestive B. mental C. skin D. vascular E. metabolic 36. A small space between neurons is a(n): A. dendrite.

B. syncope.

C. axon.

D. pons.

E. synapse.

37. The pharmacological agents used to treat symptoms of psychosis and paranoia are: A. anesthetics.

B. anticonvulsants.

C. antiparkinsonians.

D. antibiotics.

E. antipsychotics.

38. Which term means excessive thirst?

A. polyphagia B. hypertrophy C. hypersecretion D. polydipsia E. polyuria 39. What disease is characterized by head nodding, bradykinesia, tremors, and shuffling gait?

A. Bell palsy B. hydrocephalus C. Parkinson disease D. palsy E. poliomyelitis 40. The primary source of energy for living organisms is: A. fat.

B. glucose.

C. salt.

D. water.

E. vitamin C. 41. What term is a synonym for IDDM? A. diabetes insipidus B. non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

C. non–insulin-dependent diabetes insipidus D. type 1 diabetes E. type 2 diabetes 42. Which term means enlargement of the extremities?

A. hypergonadism B. thyromegaly C. goiter D. tetany E. acromegaly 43. The insertion of a needle into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column to withdraw cerebrospinal

fluid for diagnostic and therapeutic procedures is called: EEG. LP. MEG. MRI. PET.

A. B. C. D. E.

44. Which term refers to a malignant brain tumor?

A. subdural hematoma B. glioblastoma C. meningioma D. neuroma E. myosarcoma 45. Which sign is characteristic of Huntington chorea?

A. exophthalmia B. acromegaly C. paralysis D. bizarre, dance-like movements E. jaundice 46. Cushing disease is characterized by an excessive amount of: A. growth hormone.

B. cortisol.

C. glucose.

D. insulin.

E. oxytocin.

47. Acromegaly is characterized by: A. hypoglycemia.

B. hyposecretion of growth hormone in children.

C. hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults.

D. hyposecretion of luteinizing hormone.

E. hypersecretion of luteinizing hormone.

48. Type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed in: A. premature infants.

B. childhood.

C. adulthood.

D. surgery.

E. adolescence.

49. Which disorder is characterized by cranial enlargement caused by accumulation of fluid within the

ventricles of the brain? hydrorrhea hydrocephalus hydrostatic hydrothermic hydrotaxis

A. B. C. D. E.

50. Which abbreviation refers to a progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system

characterized by inflammation, hardening, and loss of myelin throughout the spinal cord and brain and produces muscle weakness?

A. DM B. CVA C. MS D. LP E. IV 51. The four parathyroid glands are: A. located on the anterior upper surface of the thyroid gland.

B. located on the anterior lower surface of the thyroid gland.

C. located on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland.

D. embedded in the middle of the thyroid gland.

E. located on the four edges of the thyroid gland.

52. Which of the following is a surgical procedure to excise a circular disk of the skull to gain access to

brain tissue? thalamotomy transsphenoidal hypophysectomy neurectomy trephination cryosurgery

A. B. C. D. E.

53. Which term describes an enlargement of the thyroid gland?

A. hyperadrenalism B. tetany C. goiter D. thyrotropin E. thyropathy 54. What term describes an excessive growth of body hair, especially in women?

A. virilism B. hirsutism C. diuresis

D. cretinism E. tetany 55. An endoscopic procedure that removes pituitary tumors through the nasal cavity via the sphenoid

sinus is known as: sphenoidotomy. sphenoidostomy. transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. craniotomy. sphenofrontal.

A. B. C. D. E. Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. adrenal/o B. cephal/o C. cerebr/o D. encephal/o E. gli/o F. gluc/o, glyc/o G. mening/o H. my/o I. myel/o J. neur/o K. pancreat/o L. parathyroid/o M. thym/o N. thyr/o, thyroid/o O. toxic/o P. -dipsia Q. -paresis R. -phasia S. -plegia T. -trophy 56. brain 57. glue; neuroglial tissue 58. development, nourishment 59. thirst 60. paralysis 61. sugar, sweetness 62. pancreas 63. parathyroid glands

64. thymus gland 65. thyroid gland 66. poison 67. adrenal glands 68. meninges (membranes covering the brain and spinal cord) 69. bone marrow; spinal cord 70. nerve 71. speech 72. head 73. muscle 74. cerebrum 75. partial paralysis

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. Alzheimer disease B. CT scan C. epilepsy D. exophthalmos E. Graves disease F. HRT G. Huntington chorea H. hydrocephalus I. hypertrophy J. MRI K. multiple sclerosis L. myxedema M. neuroblastoma N. palsy O. panhypopituitarism P. poliomyelitis Q. RAIU R. sciatica S. shingles T. spina bifida 76. Abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs that may be caused by thyrotoxicosis, tumor, or aneurysm 77. Hyperthyroidism that involves growth of the thyroid gland associated with hypersecretion of

thyroxine 78. Advanced hypothyroidism in adults, causing edema and increased blood pressure

79. Total pituitary impairment that brings about a progressive, general loss of hormonal activity 80. Chronic, organic mental disorder characterized by deterioration of intellectual functioning, apathy,

disorientation, and speech and gait disturbances 81. Disorder affecting the central nervous system and characterized by recurrent seizures 82. Hereditary nervous disorder characterized by bizarre, involuntary, dance-like movements 83. Cranial enlargement caused by accumulation of fluid within the ventricles of the brain 84. Progressive degenerative disease of the CNS that causes muscle weakness, visual disturbance, and

neurological disability 85. Partial or complete loss of motor function; paralysis 86. Inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord caused by a virus and commonly resulting in

paralysis and spinal and muscle deformity 87. Severe pain in the leg along the course of a nerve that travels from the hip to the foot 88. Eruption of acute, inflammatory, herpetic vesicles on the trunk of the body along a peripheral nerve 89. Radiographic technique that uses electromagnetic energy to produce images of the body 90. Imaging procedure that measures levels of radioactivity in the thyroid gland after administration of

radioactive iodine 91. Radiographic procedure that uses a narrow beam of x-rays that rotates in a full arc around the patient

to obtain images of the body in cross-sectional slices 92. Oral administration or injection of synthetic hormones to replace a hormone deficiency 93. Increase in the size of an organ or tissue 94. Malignant tumor composed principally of cells resembling neuroblasts 95. Congenital neural tube defect characterized by incomplete closure of the spinal canal True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. Sciatica is a condition of severe facial pain along the course of the third cranial nerve.

97. Quadriplegia is a paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs.

98. TIA describes a temporary interference with blood supply to the brain.

99. Shingles is an eruption of acute, inflammatory, herpetic vesicles on the trunk of the body along a

peripheral nerve.

100. Palsy is synonymous with paralysis.

101. Bizarre, involuntary, dance-like movements are a characteristic of Huntington chorea.

102. Glycogenesis is a condition caused by a brain tumor.

103. Type 2 diabetes is abrupt in onset and usually develops in infancy.

104. Advanced hyperthyroidism in children results in a condition called myxedema.

105. A CNS disorder characterized by seizures is known as epilepsy.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use narc/o (stupor, numbness, sleep) to build a word that means seizure of sleep.

107. Use mening/o (meninges [membranes covering brain and spinal cord]) to build a word that means

hernia(tion) of the meninges.

108. Build a medical word that means blood condition of excessive glucose.

109. Build a medical word that means bad or difficult speech.

110. Build a medical word that means paralysis of four (limbs).

111. Build a medical word that means separation, destruction of the pancreas.

112. Build a medical word that means excision of the parathyroid gland.

113. Build a medical word that means inflammation of the brain.

114. Build a medical word that means instrument to measure the cranium (skull).

115. Build a word that means blood (that has) excessive calcium

Chapter 9: Endocrine and Nervous Systems Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: E ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: E ANS: E ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: T ANS: P ANS: S ANS: F ANS: K ANS: L ANS: M ANS: N ANS: O ANS: A ANS: G ANS: I ANS: J ANS: R ANS: B ANS: H ANS: C ANS: Q

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: L ANS: O ANS: A ANS: C ANS: G

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: H ANS: K ANS: N ANS: P ANS: R ANS: S ANS: J ANS: Q ANS: B ANS: F ANS: I ANS: M ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T

COMPLETION 106. ANS: narcolepsy PTS: 1 107. ANS: meningocele PTS: 1 108. ANS: hyperglycemia PTS: 1 109. ANS: dysphasia PTS: 1 110. ANS: quadriplegia PTS: 1 111. ANS: pancreatolysis PTS: 1

112. ANS: parathyroidectomy PTS: 1 113. ANS: encephalitis PTS: 1 114. ANS: craniometer PTS: 1 115. ANS: hypercalcemia PTS: 1

Chapter 10: Musculoskeletal System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the group of genetic diseases characterized by gradual atrophy and weakness of muscle

tissue? muscular dystrophy talipes equinovarus sequestrum myasthenia gravis torticollis

A. B. C. D. E.

2. Which type of fracture results when the broken ends of a bone are forced into one another?

A. compound B. greenstick C. impacted D. simple E. open 3. Which term has the opposite meaning of osteosclerosis?

A. osteogenesis B. osteorrhaphy C. osteomalacia D. osteoarthritis E. osteitis 4. Which word is in its plural form?

A. bursae B. vertebra C. phalange D. pleura E. diagnosis 5. The term myotomy means incision of: A. bone marrow.

B. cartilage.

C. a tendon.

D. the spinal cord.

E. a muscle.

6. What is abnormal lateral curvature of the spine called?

A. lordosis B. sciatica C. necrosis D. scoliosis E. kyphosis

7. Which muscle action indicates movement away from the midline of the body?

A. pronation B. rotation C. supination D. adduction E. abduction 8. A patient with lumbodynia has pain in the: A. knee.

B. ankle.

C. head.

D. lower back.

E. upper chest.

9. Eversion of the foot refers to: A. moving the sole of the foot inward.

B. moving the sole of the foot upward.

C. moving the foot outward.

D. moving the foot inward.

E. rotating the foot.

10. Trauma to a joint that causes injury to the surrounding ligament is called: A. strain.

B. sprain.

C. torticollis.

D. tendinitis.

E. talipes.

11. A person with inflammation of a joint experiences: A. costalgia.

B. cephalalgia.

C. arthrodynia.

D. chondritis.

E. osteodynia.

12. What disease in children involves inefficient mineralization of the bone-forming tissue that causes

deformities? osteochondroma rickets myelomalacia meningocele chondritis

A. B. C. D. E.

13. Intercostal muscles are located between the: A. vertebrae and ribs.

B. fingers.

C. toes.

D. ribs.

E. vertebrae.

14. The atlas supports the skull and is the: A. first cervical vertebra.

B. first thoracic vertebra.

C. first lumbar vertebra.

D. sacrum.

E. coccyx.

15. Cervicofacial refers to the face and: A. head.

B. neck.

C. chest.

D. hand.

E. brain.

16. The medical term for suture of a bone is: A. osteomalacia.

B. osteorrhaphy.

C. osteogenesis.

D. osteoarthritis.

E. osteosclerosis.

17. Where is the Achilles tendon located?

A. back B. upper arm C. foot D. knee E. chest 18. The function of a tendon is to attach: A. bone to bone.

B. muscle to bone.

C. muscle to muscle.

D. cartilage to bone.

E. vertebra to vertebra.

19. What anatomical term refers to the tail of the vertebral column?

A. carpal B. calcaneum C. coccyx D. sacrum E. lamina 20. A congenital deformity of the foot, also referred to as clubfoot, is called: A. torticollis.

B. sprain.

C. talipes.

D. strain.

E. dystrophy.

21. The second vertebra of the neck is identified as: A. T2.

B. L2.

C. S2.

D. C2.

E. V2.

22. An individual with quadriplegia has paralysis of: A. one upper extremity.

B. both upper extremities.

C. one lower extremity.

D. both lower extremities.

E. all extremities.

23. What disease is characterized by excessive uric acid?

A. rheumatoid arthritis B. crepitation C. contracture D. gout E. acidosis 24. The term spondylitis refers to inflammation of the: A. synovial fluid.

B. ribs.

C. fingers.

D. cartilage.

E. vertebrae.

25. A directional word that means near the point of attachment to the trunk is: A. lateral.

B. distal.

C. proximal.

D. superior.

E. inferior.

26. A physician who specializes in treating patients with cancer is a(n): A. orthodontist.

B. bariatric physician.

C. physiologist.

D. podiatrist.

E. oncologist.

27. What is an excessive amount of calcium in blood called?

A. calcicosis B. hypercalcemia C. calcitonin D. hypocalcemia

E. calciuria 28. Another name for osteitis deformans is: A. osteoporosis.

B. Paget disease.

C. polio.

D. Pott disease.

E. osteomyelitis.

29. Intervertebral disks are composed of: A. bone.

B. cartilage.

C. muscle fibers.

D. synovial fluid.

E. ligaments.

30. Hematopoiesis occurs in the: A. capillaries.

B. bone marrow.

C. cartilage.

D. liver.

E. periosteum.

31. What combining form refers to the thigh bone?

A. fibul/o B. rachi/o C. humor/o D. femor/o E. patell/o 32. Which type of fracture involves the bone injuring another organ, such as a broken rib piercing a

lung?

A. closed B. impacted C. complicated D. incomplete E. compound 33. What surgical procedure relieves symptoms of a ruptured disk?

A. open reduction B. sequestrectomy C. synovectomy D. laminectomy E. bursectomy 34. The term for wasting away (no development of muscle) is: A. myopathy.

B. myalgia.

C. hypertrophy.

D. atrophy.

E. myotonia.

35. Which term refers to the shaft of a long bone?

A. myeloblast B. epiphysis C. osteocyte D. periosteum E. diaphysis 36. What progressive, autoimmune, neuromuscular disorder is characterized by severe muscle weakness

and progressive fatigue? myalgia hypertrophy myasthenia gravis myosclerosis leiomyoma

A. B. C. D. E.

37. What surgical procedure repairs a joint?

A. tenorrhaphy B. arthroplasty C. fasciectomy D. carpectomy E. myoplasty 38. Which term describes a slipping or subluxation of a vertebra?

A. spondylitis B. lordosis C. spondylolisthesis D. kyphosis E. scoliosis 39. The bone of the upper arm is the: A. femur.

B. humerus.

C. tibia.

D. radius.

E. ulna.

40. Which condition involves fibrosis of connective tissue in the skin, fascia, muscle, or joint capsule

that prevents normal mobility? ganglion cyst osteophyte adenofibroma fibromyoma contracture

A. B. C. D. E.

41. What is the term for a segment of necrosed bone?

A. crepitation

B. rickets C. sequestrum D. rachitis E. necropsy 42. The plural form of pelvis is: A. pelvic.

B. pelvicular.

C. pelvex.

D. pelvaces.

E. pelves.

43. Which condition involves a malignant tumor of connective tissue?

A. chondroma B. myoma C. osteoma D. myosarcoma E. myeloma 44. What type of fracture involves a bone breaking and splintering into pieces?

A. greenstick B. comminuted C. impacted D. hairline E. compression 45. What is the term for the place where two bones meet?

A. subluxation B. contracture C. sequestrum D. articulation E. crepitation 46. What is the term for the visual examination of a joint with an endoscope?

A. arthroscope B. arthrography C. arthrocentesis D. arthroscopy E. arthroclasia 47. A malignant tumor of smooth muscle is called: A. leiomyosarcoma.

B. rhabdomyosarcoma.

C. rhabdomyoma.

D. leiomyoma.

E. leiotrichous.

48. Which of the following is paired incorrectly?

A. skeletal muscles—striated muscles

B. striated muscles—voluntary muscles C. voluntary muscles—visceral muscles D. involuntary muscles—visceral muscles E. smooth muscles—visceral muscles 49. Partial or incomplete dislocation is a condition called: A. talipes.

B. strain.

C. sprain.

D. subluxation.

E. sequestrum.

50. What bone condition is the result of vitamin D deficiency?

A. osteomalacia B. osteoporosis C. osteitis D. osteopenia E. osteogenesis 51. Excision of a necrosed bone is called: A. ostectomy.

B. osteochondrectomy.

C. arthrocentesis.

D. sequestrectomy.

E. chondrectomy.

52. Which surgical procedure replaces the femoral head and the acetabulum with a metal ball and stem?

A. acetabulotomy B. femorolysis C. total hip replacement D. arthroplasty E. osteoplasty 53. A lateral deviation of the great toe is a deformity known as a: A. sprain.

B. strain.

C. bunion.

D. herniation.

E. crepitation.

54. A fluid-filled tumor that commonly develops in the joint of the wrist is known as: A. arthroma.

B. herniated tumor.

C. ganglion cyst.

D. arthrodesis.

E. arthrodysplasia.

55. the smaller outer bone of the lower leg is the: A. calcaneus.

B. tibia.

C. fibula.

D. tarsal bone.

E. malleolus.

Matching

Match the combining forms with their meanings.

A. ankyl/o B. arthr/o C. cervic/o D. chondr/o E. cost/o F. crani/o G. lamin/o H. lumb/o I. my/o J. myel/o K. orth/o L. oste/o M. pelv/i N. spondyl/o O. ten/o P. -clast Q. -desis R. -malacia S. -physis T. -porosis 56. growth 57. vertebrae (backbone) 58. binding; fixation (of a bone or joint) 59. stiffness; bent, crooked 60. joint 61. neck; cervix uteri (neck of the uterus) 62. bone marrow; spinal cord 63. straight 64. bone 65. cartilage 66. muscle

67. tendon 68. to break; surgical fracture 69. ribs 70. cranium (skull) 71. softening 72. lamina (part of the vertebral arch) 73. porous 74. pelvis 75. lumbar

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. ankylosis B. arthrocentesis C. arthroscopy D. carpal tunnel syndrome E. contracture F. crepitation G. Ewing sarcoma H. gout I. herniated disk J. kyphosis K. lordosis L. myasthenia gravis M. Paget disease N. rheumatoid arthritis O. rotator cuff injuries P. scoliosis Q. sequestrectomy R. sequestrum S. strain T. torticollis 76. Immobility of a joint 77. Pain or numbness resulting from compression of the wrist canal, through which the tendons and

nerve pass 78. Fibrosis of connective tissue in the skin, fascia, muscle, or joint capsule that prevents normal

mobility 79. Grating sound made by movement of bone ends rubbing together indicating joint destruction 80. Malignant tumor that develops from bone marrow and occurs most commonly in adolescent boys

81. Metabolic disease that is a form of acute arthritis characterized by excessive uric acid in blood and

around the joints 82. Rupture of the nucleus pulposus between two vertebrae 83. Skeletal disease affecting older adults; also called osteitis deformans 84. Chronic, systemic disease characterized by inflammatory changes in joints and related structures,

resulting in crippling deformities 85. Fragment of a necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue 86. Increased curvature of the thoracic region of the vertebral column, leading to a humpback posture 87. Abnormal sideward curvature of the spine to the left or right 88. Autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by severe muscular weakness and progressive

fatigue 89. Damage incurred to the capsule of the shoulder joint that is reinforced by muscles and tendons 90. Trauma to a muscle from overuse or excessive forcible stretch 91. Puncture of a joint space with a needle to remove fluid 92. Visual examination of the interior of a joint performed by inserting an endoscope through a small

incision 93. Forward curvature of the spine in the lumbar region, leading to a swayback posture 94. Removal of necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue 95. Spasmodic contraction of neck muscles, causing stiffness and twisting; also called wryneck True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. A ganglion is an airless cyst that commonly develops along the joint and wrist.

97. Crepitation is a characteristic of muscular dystrophy.

98. Strains are caused by muscle trauma resulting from overuse or an excessive forcible stretch.

99. Wryneck is synonymous with torticollis.

100. A malignant tumor that develops from bone marrow, usually in long bones, is known as Ewing

sarcoma.

101. Gout is a form of arthritis characterized by excessive uric acid deposits around the joints, especially

the big toe.

102. Kyphosis is synonymous with swayback.

103. NSAIDs are antibiotic drugs used to treat infections.

104. Talipes is a congenital deformity of the hand.

105. Carpal tunnel syndrome is characterized by pain or numbness from compression of the nerve within

the wrist canal.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use -asthenia (weakness, debility) to build a term that means weakness or debility of muscles.

107. Use my/o (muscle) to build a word that means embryonic cell that develops into muscle.

108. Use epi- (above; upon) to build a word that means growth (upon the end of a long bone).

109. Use chondr/o (cartilage) to build a word that means malignant tumor from cartilage (cells).

110. Use syn- (union, together, joined) to build a term that means condition of joined fingers or toes.

111. Build a term that means tumor (composed of) bone.

112. Build a term that means pertaining to the upper arm bone.

113. Build a surgical term that means excision of the lamina (part of the vertebral arch).

114. Build a medical term that means softening of cartilage.

115. Build a medical term that means incision of the skull.

Chapter 10: Musculoskeletal System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: D ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: S ANS: N ANS: Q ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: J ANS: K ANS: L ANS: D ANS: I ANS: O ANS: P ANS: E ANS: F ANS: R ANS: G ANS: T ANS: M ANS: H

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: F ANS: G ANS: H ANS: I

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: M ANS: N ANS: R ANS: J ANS: P ANS: L ANS: O ANS: S ANS: B ANS: C ANS: K ANS: Q ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T

COMPLETION 106. ANS: myasthenia PTS: 1 107. ANS: myoblast PTS: 1 108. ANS: epiphysis PTS: 1 109. ANS: chondrosarcoma PTS: 1 110. ANS: syndactylism PTS: 1 111. ANS: osteoma PTS: 1

112. ANS: humeral PTS: 1 113. ANS: laminectomy PTS: 1 114. ANS: chondromalacia PTS: 1 115. ANS: craniotomy PTS: 1

Chapter 11: Special Senses: Eyes and Ears Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Where are the anatomical structures of the labyrinth located?

A. choroid B. inner ear C. external ear D. middle ear E. eustachian tube 2. Which term is a synonym for sty?

A. hordeolum B. exotropia C. vertigo D. cerumen E. choroiditis 3. What is an unusual intolerance and sensitivity to light called?

A. chromatophilia B. achromatopsia C. chromatopsia D. photophobia E. esotropia 4. What structure is composed of nerve endings and responsible for the reception and transmission of

light impulses? sclera choroid iris retina cornea

A. B. C. D. E.

5. What causes retinal damage marked by aneurysmal dilation of blood vessels?

A. strabismus B. diabetic retinopathy C. glaucoma D. exotropia E. astigmatism 6. What is the term for hearing loss resulting from an impairment in the transmission of sound caused

by an obstruction? anacusis Ménière disease strabismus suppurative conductive

A. B. C. D. E.

7. What is the medical term that means impairment of hearing as a result of the aging process?

A. tinnitus B. presbycusis C. Ménière disease D. otosclerosis E. myringopathy 8. Which medical term is a synonym for ophthalmodynia?

A. ophthalmalgia B. ophthalmectomy C. ophthalmoplegia D. ophthalmoscopy E. ophthalmitis 9. What is the medical term for farsightedness?

A. diplopia B. hyperopia C. myopia D. erythropia E. xanthopsia 10. Which structure is part of the external ear?

A. malleus B. stapes C. auricle D. eustachian tube E. cochlea 11. Rupture of the cornea is called: A. choroidorrhexis.

B. choroiditis.

C. keratitis.

D. keratorrhexis.

E. tympanorrhexis.

12. Which disorder involves a reduction or dimness of vision with no apparent pathological condition?

A. heteropsia B. amblyopia C. hyperopia D. glaucoma E. cataract disease 13. Which term means double vision?

A. myopia B. hyperopia C. diplopia D. nearsightedness E. farsightedness

14. The colored portion of the eye is the: A. sclera.

B. retina.

C. iris.

D. choroid.

E. cornea.

15. Which disorder involves excessive intraocular pressure (IOP) caused by a failure of the aqueous

humor to drain properly? astigmatism glaucoma esotropia cataract amblyopia

A. B. C. D. E.

16. What is the term for the white of the eye?

A. sclera B. retina C. choroid D. cornea E. iris 17. What is the term that refers to a twitching of the eyelid?

A. blepharotomy B. blepharoptosis C. blepharoplasty D. blepharitis E. blepharospasm 18. Excision of a part or all of the eyelid is called: A. blepharectomy.

B. ophthalmectomy.

C. blepharotomy.

D. keratorrhexis.

E. keratotomy.

19. Plastic surgery of the ear is called: A. blepharoplasty.

B. keratotomy.

C. otoscopy.

D. salpingoscopy.

E. otoplasty.

20. ENT is the abbreviation for: A. eyes, nose, and throat.

B. eyes, nose, and tympanic membrane.

C. ears, nose, and tympanic membrane.

D. ears, nose, and throat.

E. eyelids, nose, and throat.

21. What is the contractile opening in the center of the iris through which light rays enter the eye?

A. choroid B. pupil C. sclera D. conjunctiva E. iris 22. A physician who specializes in the treatment of eye disorders is a(n): A. optometrist.

B. ophthalmologist.

C. physiologist.

D. psychologist.

E. neurologist.

23. Which term refers to the duct that collects and drains tears?

A. auricle B. incus C. malleus D. choroid E. lacrimal 24. What structure of the inner ear helps maintain body equilibrium?

A. cochlea B. stapes C. incus D. semicircular canal E. tympanic membrane 25. What does the term otalgia refer to?

A. softening of the ear B. rupture of the eardrum C. suture of the ear D. difficulty hearing E. pain in the ear 26. Which medical term describes a type of vision?

A. blepharoptosis B. ophthalmalgia C. otodynia D. amblyopia E. dacryorrhea 27. A person with dacryadenalgia has pain in the: A. middle ear.

B. tear gland.

C. eardrum.

D. retina.

E. eyelid.

28. What is an inflammation of the middle ear called?

A. labyrinthitis B. tympanitis C. mastoiditis D. otitis media E. conjunctivitis 29. Which test measures hearing acuity at various sound frequencies?

A. audiometry B. Rinne test C. Weber test D. tonometry E. otoscopy 30. What is a feeling of spinning or dizziness called?

A. tinnitus B. exophthalmos C. vertigo D. vitiligo E. nystagmus 31. Which procedure is used to insert pressure-equalizing tubes in the eardrum?

A. pneumatic otoscopy B. stapedotomy C. salpingostomy D. otoplasty E. myringotomy 32. The perception of ringing, hissing, or other sounds in the ears or head when no external sound is

present is called: A. tinnitus.

B. anacusis.

C. presbycusis.

D. ankylosis.

E. otosclerosis.

33. Ossification in the bony labyrinth that leads to progressive deafness is called: A. tinnitus.

B. otosclerosis.

C. tympanosclerosis.

D. tympanorrhexis.

E. mastoiditis.

34. The condition in which blood and other fluids leak from intraocular vessels and destroy the visual

cells leading to permanent visual loss is called: A. presbyopia.

B. glaucoma.

C. macular degeneration.

D. cataracts.

E. achromatopsia.

35. The vascular layer of the eye that contains rods and cones is the: A. retina.

B. cornea.

C. sclera.

D. choroid.

E. conjunctiva.

36. What does the combining form phac/o refer to?

A. iris B. old age C. hearing D. lens E. vision 37. Which procedure involves an incision of the eardrum to relieve pressure and drain fluid?

A. myringotomy B. tympanostomy C. myringorrhexis D. labyrinthotomy E. tympanoplasty 38. Radial keratotomy is used in the treatment for: A. macular degeneration.

B. night blindness.

C. nearsightedness.

D. xerophthalmia.

E. mastoiditis.

39. Which test evaluates bone conduction versus air conduction of sound in one ear at a time?

A. Rinne test B. otoscopy C. tympanoscopy D. audiometry E. Weber test 40. What structure leads from the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

A. tympanic membrane B. eustachian tube C. malleus D. cochlea E. auricle 41. Astigmatism can be described as: A. esotropia.

B. exotropia.

C. defective curvature of the cornea and lens.

D. localized infection of the eye.

E. a tumor pressing on the nerves.

42. Myopia can be described as: A. farsightedness.

B. nearsightedness.

C. astigmatism.

D. strabismus.

E. esotropia.

43. What test does the optometrist use to diagnose glaucoma?

A. tonometry B. ophthalmoscopy C. fluorescein angiography D. visual acuity examination E. Snellen chart examination 44. What is the snail-shaped tube in the inner ear called?

A. auricle B. pinna C. cochlea D. auditory meatus E. oval window 45. Visual examination of the ear is called: A. audiometry.

B. ophthalmoscopy.

C. otoscopy.

D. endoscopy.

E. tympanometry.

46. Which condition is commonly called pink eye?

A. coreitis B. conjunctivitis C. lacrimation D. scleritis E. anisocoria 47. Hyperopia is a condition also known as: A. nearsightedness.

B. farsightedness.

C. strabismus.

D. astigmatism.

E. glaucoma.

48. Impairment of vision as a result of old age is known as: A. anisocoria.

B. emmetropia.

C. diplopia.

D. presbyopia.

E. esotropia.

49. What is characteristic of the condition called tinnitus?

A. hearing loss as a result of old age B. dizziness associated with nausea C. ringing sound in the ears D. dysphonia E. discharge of fluid from the ears 50. The visual examination of the eye is called: A. audiometry.

B. ophthalmoscopy.

C. tympanometry.

D. tuning fork test.

E. Rinne test.

51. What is the medical term for color blindness?

A. astigmatism B. cataract C. hordeolum.

D. achromatopsia.

E. strabismus.

52. The CF salping/o means: A. turning.

B. sound.

C. labyrinth (inner ear).

D. tubes (usually fallopian or eustachian [auditory] tubes).

E. stapes.

53. Inflammation of the eyelid is called: A. conjunctivitis.

B. corneitis.

C. blepharitis.

D. retinitis.

E. ossiculitis.

54. Downward displacement of the eyelid is called: A. amblyopia.

B. esotropia.

C. blepharoptosis.

D. choroiditis.

E. conjunctivitis.

55. Which diagnostic test assesses retinal blood flow after injection of a fluorescent dye?

A. cystography B. intravenous fluorescein angiography

C. tympanography D. dacryocystography E. retinography Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings.

A. acous/o B. blephar/o C. chromat/o D. conjunctiv/o E. choroid/o F. core/o G. corne/o H. dacry/o I. dipl/o J. irid/o K. kerat/o L. myring/o M. ophthalm/o N. ot/o O. salping/o P. -metry Q. -opsia R. -ptosis S. -rrhea T. -tropia 56. prolapse, downward displacement 57. eyelid 58. hearing 59. cornea 60. pupil 61. tear; lacrimal apparatus (duct, sac, or gland) 62. double 63. ear 64. horny tissue; hard; cornea 65. eye 66. iris 67. tube (usually fallopian or eustachian [auditory] tubes)

68. vision 69. turning 70. discharge, flow 71. conjunctiva 72. act of measuring 73. color 74. tympanic membrane (eardrum) 75. choroid

Match the medical words with their definitions.

A. achromatopsia B. anacusis C. astigmatism D. audiometry E. cataract F. diabetic retinopathy G. exotropia H. glaucoma I. hordeolum J. iridoplegia K. macular degeneration L. Ménière disease M. myringoplasty N. myringotomy O. otoscopy P. photophobia Q. Rinne test R. strabismus S. tinnitus T. vertigo 76. Condition of color blindness that is more common in men 77. Defective curvature of the cornea and lens that results in a distorted image 78. Opacity (cloudiness) of the lens as a result of protein deposits on its surface that slowly build up

until vision is lost 79. Retinal damage marked by aneurysmal dilation of blood vessels that occurs as a result of diabetes 80. Muscular eye disorder in which the eyes turn from the normal position so that they deviate in

different directions 81. Small, purulent, inflammatory infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid; also called sty

82. Increased intraocular pressure caused by the failure of aqueous humor to drain, resulting in atrophy

of the optic nerve and eventual blindness 83. Unusual intolerance and sensitivity to light that occurs in such diseases as meningitis, inflammation

of the eyes, measles, and rubella 84. Complete hearing loss 85. Rare disorder of unknown etiology within the labyrinth of the inner ear that can lead to progressive

hearing loss 86. Ringing in the ears 87. Sensation of moving around in space or a feeling of spinning or dizziness 88. Loss of central vision and a common cause of visual impairment in persons over age 50 years 89. Hearing acuity test that is performed with a vibrating tuning fork placed on the mastoid process and

then in front of the external auditory canal and used to test bone and air conduction 90. Test that measures hearing acuity at various sound frequencies 91. Visual examination of the ear, especially the eardrum 92. Incision of the eardrum to relieve pressure and release pus from the middle ear or to surgically insert

tympanostomy tubes in the eardrum 93. Surgical repair of a perforated eardrum with a tissue graft 94. Strabismus in which there is deviation of the visual axis of one eye away from that of the other eye;

also called wall-eye 95. Paralysis of the iris True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

96. Mydriatics cause pupils to constrict so that the ophthalmologist can obtain an accurate measurement

for the correct prescription of glasses.

97. Myringotomy is an incision of an eardrum to relieve pain or to insert PE tubes.

98. The Rinne test is a type of tuning fork test to evaluate bone conduction of sound in one ear at a time.

99. Otoscopy is an incision of the tympanic membrane by using an otoscope.

100. Miotics reduce IOP by enlarging the pupils.

101. Myringoplasty and tympanoplasty are synonymous terms.

102. Audiometry is a test that measures hearing acuity at various sound frequencies.

103. An iridectomy is an excision of a portion of the iris to relieve IOP for glaucoma.

104. Blepharoplasty is also known as an “eye tuck.”

105. Tonometry is a test that measures IOP and is used to detect glaucoma.

Completion Complete each statement.

106. Use ophthalm/o (eye) to build a word that means specialist in the study of the eyes.

107. Use -cusis (hearing) to build a word that means old age (poor) hearing.

108. Use myring/o (tympanic membrane [eardrum]) to build a word that means surgical repair of the

eardrum.

109. Build a word that means downward displacement or prolapse of the eyelid.

110. Build a word that means discharge or flow from the ears.

111. Build a word that means inflammation of the conjunctiva.

112. Build a word that means abnormal condition of the ear caused by a fungus.

113. Build a surgical term that means surgical repair of the cornea.

114. Build a word that means surgical repair of the eyelids.

115. Build a word that means double vision.

Chapter 11: Special Senses: Eyes and Ears Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: E ANS: A ANS: E ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D ANS: E ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: R ANS: B ANS: A ANS: G ANS: F ANS: H ANS: I ANS: N ANS: K ANS: M ANS: J ANS: O ANS: Q ANS: T ANS: S ANS: D ANS: P ANS: C ANS: L ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: F ANS: R ANS: I ANS: H

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: P ANS: B ANS: L ANS: S ANS: T ANS: K ANS: Q ANS: D ANS: O ANS: N ANS: M ANS: G ANS: J

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T

COMPLETION 106. ANS: ophthalmologist PTS: 1 107. ANS: presbycusis PTS: 1 108. ANS: myringoplasty PTS: 1 109. ANS: blepharoptosis PTS: 1 110. ANS: otorrhea PTS: 1 111. ANS: conjunctivitis PTS: 1

112. ANS: otomycosis PTS: 1 113. ANS: keratoplasty PTS: 1 114. ANS: blepharoplasty PTS: 1 115. ANS: diplopia PTS: 1