TEST BANK Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James W.Kalat
Chapter 1: The Major Issues TRUE/FALSE 1. Neuroscientists are more interested in studying behavior than biological psychologists. ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
2. According to Tinbergen, a physiological explanation describes why a structure or behavior evolved as it did. ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
3. An evolutionary explanation describes why a structure or behavior evolved.
1
The Major Issues
ANS: F of Behavior MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
4. An ontogenetic explanation is one that describes the development of a structure or behavior. ANS: T of Behavior MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
5. A functional explanation describes why a structure or behavior evolved as it did. ANS: T of Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
6. Genes are the units of heredity. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
7. A strand of DNA serves as a template (model) for the synthesis of RNA molecules. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
8. It is possible for two heterozygous brown-eyed parents to have blue-eyed children. ANS: T OBJ: 5
2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Chapter 1
REF: Mendelian Genetics
9. If both parents are heterozygous, then all of their children should be homozygous. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
10. The sex chromosomes X and Y are known as autosomal genes. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
11. Sex-linked genes are usually found on the Y chromosome. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
12. When chromosomes cross over, it is more likely to affect genes that are on separate chromosomes than genes that are on the same chromosome. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
13. The genetic sex of an offspring is determined primarily by the sex chromosome contributed by the mother. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
14. Sex-limited genes are found only on the X and Y chromosome. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
15. To determine the contributions of heredity and environment, researchers rely mainly on studies of monozygotic and dizygotic twins. ANS: T Environment
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
16. Researchers have found specific genes linked to certain specific behaviors. ANS: T Environment KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
17. The damaging effects of phenylalanine in children with PKU are unavoidable. ANS: F Environment
3
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
The Major Issues
18. Genes become more prevalent in a population if they contribute to reproductive success. ANS: T Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
19. Humans have stopped evolving. ANS: F Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
20. Evolutionary psychology deals with how behaviors have evolved, especially social behaviors. ANS: T Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
21. Research scientists are free to do as they wish when conducting research with animals. ANS: F Research
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
22. The underlying mechanisms of behavior are similar across species. ANS: T Research KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
23. Invertebrate nerves follow the same basic principles as human nerves. ANS: T Research KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
24. Minimalists do not tolerate any kind of animal research. ANS: F Research KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
25. Professional organizations such as the Society for Neuroscience publish guidelines for the use of animals in research. ANS: T Research KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
26. Abolitionists maintain that no animals have the same rights as humans. ANS: F Research KEY: NEW
4
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
Chapter 1
27. The dispute between abolitionists and animal researchers is a dispute between two ethical positions. ANS: T Research KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
28. The ethical debate between animal researchers and abolitionists has always proceeded in an intelligent and mutually respectful way. ANS: F Research KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Biological psychologists are primarily interested in the study of the physiological, evolutionary, and . a. social influence on attitudes b. developmental mechanisms of behavior and experience c. use of reinforcement to change behavior d. mental well-being of plants ANS: B OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
2. At the microscopic level, we find two kinds of cells: a. molecules and mitochondria b. mitochondria and glia c. neurons and glia d. neurons and molecules ANS: C OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
3. The primary difference between biological psychologists and neuroscientists is that neuroscientists place greater emphasis on studying: a. chemistry. b. psychology. c. biology. d. behavior. ANS: D of Behavior KEY: NEW
5
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
The Major Issues
4. Much of biological psychology concerns: a. chemistry. b. brain functioning. c. neurology. d. anatomy. ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
5. Jill is interested in studying how hormones influence sexual behavior of rats. She is most likely a: a. biological psychologist. b. neuroscientist. c. clinical psychologist. d. psychiatrist. ANS: A of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
6. The question “Given this universe composed of matter and energy, why is there such a thing as consciousness?” is called the . a. cosmic force question b. mind-body problem c. universal question d. biological problem ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior KEY: NEW
7. A fundamental property is one that . a. answers all questions b. occurs only in certain parts of the nervous system c. cannot be reduced to something else d. cannot be explained ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior KEY: NEW
8. If a person believes that hormones released at different stages of the menstrual cycle affect a person’s mood, then it would be considered a(n) explanation. a. functional b. ontogenetic c. physiological d. evolutionary ANS: C of Behavior KEY: NEW
6
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Chapter 1
9.
A(n) explanation describes why a structure or behavior evolved as it did. a. functional b. ontogenetic c. physiological d. evolutionary ANS: A of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
10. A(n) describes how a structure or behavior develops, including the influences of genes, nutrition, experiences, and their interactions. a. functional b. ontogenetic c. physiological d. evolutionary ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
11. Understanding how genes, nutrition, and experience work together to produce a tendency toward a particular sexual orientation is an example of a(n) explanation. a. ontogenetic b. evolutionary c. functional d. common sense ANS: A PTS: 1 Approach to Behavior OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Biological TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
12. Which type of explanation describes how a structure or behavior develops? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
13. A(n) explanation would describe eating in terms of the hypothalamus affecting insulin production, which affects the availability of glucose in cells. a. physiological b. ontogenetic c. evolutionary d. functional ANS: A of Behavior KEY: NEW
7
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
The Major Issues
14. Explaining differences in running speed as a function of differences in muscle fiber types is an example of a(n) explanation. a. ontogenetic b. physiological c. evolutionary d. functional ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
15. Understanding differences in intelligence as a function of early learning experiences is an example of a(n) explanation. a. ontogenetic b. physiological c. functional d. evolutionary ANS: A PTS: 1 Approach to Behavior OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
DIF: conceptual REF: The Biological TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
16. A person who studies the influence of genetic predisposition to be aggressive in combination with early aggressive experiences is seeking for a(n) explanation. a. physiological b. behavioral c. evolutionary d. ontogenetic ANS: of Behavior KEY: NEW
D PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
17. Mapping out the relationship between shared bone structures across different species suggests there is a(n) explanation. a. ontogenetic b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. physiological ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
18. An evolutionary explanation of why we get goose bumps when cold is that: a. the sympathetic nervous system is activated. b. we inherited the mechanism from our remote ancestors who had more hair. c. it keeps us warm. d. children are often raised in cold environments.
8
Chapter 1
ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
19. Having camouflage that matches an animal’s typical surroundings in order to provide protection from predators is an example of a(n) explanation. a. evolutionary b. functional c. ontogenetic d. physiological ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
20. A functional explanation of why giraffes have such long necks is that: a. it lowers the blood pressure in their brains. b. their necks became longer because they stretched them. c. it allows them greater access to their food supply. d. parent giraffes make their babies reach for food. ANS: C of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
21. How human language develops as the result of genes and the opportunity to hear language during a sensitive period in early life is an example of a(n) explanation. a. physiological b. ontogenetic c. evolutionary d. functional ANS: B of Behavior OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: conceptual
REF:
TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Biological Explanations KEY: NEW
22. Which type of explanation might describe the presence of a behavior in a particular species by showing how that behavior increased the reproductive success of the species? a. physiological b. ontogenetic c. evolutionary d. solipsistic ANS: C of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
23. Which type of explanation describes the advantages provided by a particular structure or behavior? a. physiological b. ontogenetic c. evolutionary d. functional
9
The Major Issues
ANS: D of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
24. Which of the following is TRUE about genetic drift? a. It occurs more often in large populations. b. It occurs when species move to a new location. c. It takes thousands of years to happen. d. It occurs more often in small populations. ANS: D of Behavior OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF:
TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Biological Explanations KEY: NEW
25. In a small population of sheep, the dominant male may produce many more offspring than the other males, spreading his genes. This is an example of: a. a physiological explanation. b. artificial selection. c. genetic drift. d. recombination. ANS: C of Behavior OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: conceptual
REF:
TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Biological Explanations KEY: NEW
26. The amygdala appears to be an important part of the brain for experiencing fear. Which of the following is an example of a functional explanation of fear? a. Describing the anatomical connections between the amygdala and other parts of the brain b. Describing the neurotransmitters involved in the activity of the amygdala c. Describing why fear improves the chances for survival d. Describing how fears develop in infancy ANS: C of Behavior OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: conceptual
REF:
TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Biological Explanations KEY: NEW
27. A(n) explanation of human behavior is often controversial, because many behaviors alleged to be part of our evolutionary heritage could have been learned instead. a. physiological b. ontogenetic c. evolutionary d. functional ANS: D of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
28. In most bird species, only the male sings and then only in his territory during the reproductive season. This is to attract females and to ward off other males, which serves to improve their chances of mating. This behavior demonstrates: a. that physiological explanations are preferred over other kinds of explanations. b. learning during a critical period.
10
Chapter 1
c. that physiological, ontogenetic, evolutionary, and functional explanations are mutually exclusive. d. how physiological, ontogenetic, evolutionary, and functional explanations can all be used to explain the same behavior. ANS: D of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
29. In certain species of songbirds, development of the song requires the opportunity to hear the appropriate song during a sensitive period in life as well as the genes to prepare them to learn the song. This is a(n) explanation of birdsong. a. physiological b. ontogenetic c. evolutionary d. functional ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
30. Which of the following would be a functional explanation for why birds sing? a. Testosterone causes the growth of certain brain areas which control singing in certain birds. b. Birds sing due to instinct. c. Birds sing because they hear their song early in life and form a template which controls later singing. d. Birds sing to defend territories and attract mates. ANS: D of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
31. Which of the following would be a physiological explanation for why birds sing? a. Testosterone causes the growth of certain brain areas which control singing in certain birds. b. Birds sing due to instinct. c. Birds sing because they hear their song early in life and form a template which controls later singing. d. Birds sing to defend territories and attract mates. ANS: A of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
32. An adult male sparrow sings its normal song: a. if he hears the song during a sensitive period early in his life. b. only when he hears a female bird singing. c. if his own species' song is the first song he hears when young. d. regardless of whether or not he has ever heard his species' song from another bird.
11
The Major Issues
ANS: A of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
33. Consciousness occurs: a. in all kinds of nervous systems some of the time. b. In certain parts of certain kinds of nervous system all of the time. c. in certain parts of certain kinds of nervous systems some of the time. d. in all kinds of nervous systems all of the time. ANS: C PTS: 1 Approach to Behavior OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Biological TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
34. Consciousness does not occur when: a. you are awake. b. you are dreaming. c. You are daydreaming. d. you are in a dreamless sleep. ANS: D OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
35. In addition to when you are in a dreamless sleep, consciousness does not occur when you are a. in a coma. b. daydreaming. c. watching television. d. exercising. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
36. Biological psychology is a field of study and a a. fundamental property b. string theory c. way to understand our place in the cosmos d. point of view ANS: D OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
37. The brain has an enormous number of a. sections; spaces b. divisions; subareas c. appendages; spaces d. sections; subareas ANS: B OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
12
.
and
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Chapter 1
38. The view of the brain from above is called the a. anterior b. ventral c. dorsal d. posterior ANS: C OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
39. The view of the brain from below is called the a. anterior b. linear c. ventral d. dorsal ANS: C OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW MSC: www
view.
view.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
40. The explanation calls attention to features left over from ancestors that serve little or no function in descendants. a. otogenetic b. physiological c. evolutionary d. biological ANS: C of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
41. The explanation that would be used to call attention to the presence of goose bumps in humans would be the explanation. a. evolutionary b. otogenetic c. neurological d. physiological ANS: A of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
42. Goose bumps in humans. a. show fear b. show anger c. create intimidation d. no longer serve a purpose ANS: D of Behavior KEY: NEW
13
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
The Major Issues
43. The erections of hairs on the body, most often around arms and shoulders are called: a. static. b. fur. c. goose bumps. d. insulation. ANS: C of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
44. In furry animals, the erection of hairs helps the animal: a. show fear. b. hide. c. look intimidating. d. get warm. ANS: C of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
45. The use of certain behaviors for camouflage is something that would be covered with the explanation. a. functional b. otogenetic c. evolutionary d. physiological ANS: A of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
46. The sea dragon is a fish that looks and acts like kelp in order to attract its food. The explanation that proposed that this is due to genetic modification that expands smaller appendages already present in these fish’s ancestors would be the explanation. a. functional b. evolutionary c. otogenetic d. biological ANS: B of Behavior KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Biological Explanations TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
47. Each of the following requires a Ph.D. except for a a. clinical psychologist b. counseling psychologist c. school psychologist d. social worker ANS: D OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
14
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Chapter 1
48. Fields that focus on research include all of the following except: a. neuroscience. b. neuropsychology. c. neurochemistry. d. neurology. ANS: D OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
49. A(n) investigates the chemical reactions in the brain. a. neurochemist b. psychophysiologist c. comparative psychologist d. neurologist ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
50. Most have a mixture of psychological and medical training, and they work in hospitals and clinics. a. neurochemists b. neuropsychologists c. neurologists d. neuroscientists ANS: B OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
51. A helps people with emotional distress or troublesome behaviors, sometimes using drugs or other medical procedures. a. clinical psychologist b. psychiatrist c. neuropsychologist d. counseling psychologist ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
52. A stroke patient might seek the aid of a(n) a. neuroscientist b. clinical psychologist c. occupational therapist d. neurochemist ANS: C OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
15
to increase the functions of daily life.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
The Major Issues
53. A director position in research would normally require at least a a. Ph.D. b. master’s degree c. bachelor’s degree d. research certificate ANS: A OBJ: 4
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior KEY: NEW
54. The field of biological psychology presents a range of career options in a. research; sociology b. therapy; philosophy c. research; therapy d. therapy; sociology ANS: C OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
and
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
55. Social workers and clinical psychologists need to be able to recognize possible signs of brain disorder so that they can: a. set up treatment. b. refer the client to the proper specialist. c. construct a behavior plan. d. monitor progress. ANS: B OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
56. According to David Chalmers, consciousness is: a. a fundamental property of matter. b. not necessary for brain functioning. c. easy to observe. d. independent of the brain. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
57. Chalmers’ fundamental “hard problem” is: a. knowing why we sleep. b. understanding how neurotransmitters are created. c. wondering how someone could be a dualist. d. why and how brain activity is associated with consciousness. ANS: D OBJ: 3
16
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Chapter 1
58. According to Chalmers, knowing why and how brain activity is associated with consciousness is the: a. mentalistic debate. b. hard problem. c. easy problem. d. problem of other minds. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
59. Which of the following careers is MOST different than the others? a. Behavioral neuroscientist b. Neuropsychologist c. Psychophysiologist d. Psychiatrist ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
60. A researcher is interested in how the nervous system responds when the organism is in a certain emotional situation. This researcher might be identified as a(n): a. neuroscientist. b. neurosurgeon. c. sociobiologist. d. comparative psychologist. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
61. Someone who investigates how the functioning of the brain and other organs influences behavior is called a: a. sociobiologist. b. neuropsychologist. c. behavioral neuroscientist. d. comparative psychologist. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
62. A neuropsychologist . a. has an M.D. and specializes in the treatment of brain damage b. conducts research on animal behavior (similar to an ethologist) c. is more often a teacher than a practitioner d. tests the abilities and disabilities of brain-damaged people ANS: D OBJ: 4
17
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
The Major Issues
63. A comparative psychologist: a. compares the reactions different people have in similar situations. b. considers the evolutionary histories of different species and their behaviors. c. compares nervous system responses of different people. d. helps people with emotional distress. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
64. A medical degree is MOST likely held by which specialist? a. behavioral neuroscientist b. neurologist c. biopsychologist d. neuropsychologist ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
65. Which of the following specialists is MOST likely to hold a medical degree? a. behavioral neuroscientist b. neurologist c. biopsychologist d. neuropsychologist ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
66. Which of the following specialists is MOST likely to work with people with brain damage? a. comparative psychologist b. biopsychologist c. neuropsychologist d. psychobiologist ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
67. A psychiatrist: a. helps people with emotional distress. b. performs brain surgery. c. treats people with brain damage. d. relates behaviors to the functions they have served in their evolutionary past. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
68. Which of the following specialists would be MOST interested in changes in heart rate when students are taking an exam? a. neurologist b. sociobiologist c. psychophysiologist d. neuroscientist
18
Chapter 1
ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
69. Of the following, which person is MOST likely to deal exclusively with brain disorders? a. social worker b. physical therapist c. clinical psychologist d. neurologist ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Career Opportunities TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
70. When researchers try to estimate the heritability of a human behavior, what are the main
kinds of individuals they consider? A Twins and adopted children B People from non-western cultures C Newborns and infants D Uneducated people living in educated societies ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior KEY: NEW
71. The results of several studies of facial expressions in people who were born blind suggest: a. a minor role for genetics in the control of facial expressions. b. a major role for genetics as well as environment in the control of facial expressions. c. no role of genetics in the control of facial expressions. d. no role of genetics but a major role of environment in the control of facial expressions. ANS: B Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
72. Units of heredity that maintain their structural identity from one generation to another are: a. enzymes. b. mutations. c. nucleic acids. d. genes. ANS: D Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
73. What are chromosomes composed of? a. DNA b. RNA c. proteins d. carbohydrates ANS: A Genetics
19
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
The Major Issues
74. Chromosomes consist of large, double-stranded molecules of: a. deoxyribonucleic acid. b. ribonucleic acid. c. autosomal genes. d. recombination genes. ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
75. A strand of DNA serves as a template (model) for the synthesis of a. chromosomes b. RNA c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates ANS: B Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
.
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
76. Biological catalysts that regulate chemical reactions in the body are called: a. enzymes. b. DNA. c. RNA. d. nuclei. ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
77. Enzymes serve as . a. genetic templates b. physiological markers of chemical reactions in the body c. biological catalysts that regulate chemical reactions in the body d. catalysts for the synthesis of protein molecules ANS: C Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
78. Interruption of the production of RNA would directly affect which of the following? a. protein synthesis b. carbohydrate production c. sex hormone release d. production of DNA ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
79. Chemically, what is the route from genes to their expression? a. DNA to proteins to RNA b. DNA to RNA to proteins c. proteins to DNA to RNA d. RNA to DNA to proteins ANS: B
20
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Mendelian
Genetics
OBJ: 2
TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
80. RNA is: a. an exact copy of DNA. b. a complementary copy of one strand of a DNA molecule. c. a combination of many proteins. d. the product of digesting DNA. ANS: B Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
81. A person with two recessive genes is considered to be a. homozygous b. heterozygous c. unitary d. marginal ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
for that trait.
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
82. Recessive genes manifest their effects only when the individual is a. sex limited b. homo sapien c. homozygous d. heterozygous ANS: C Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
for them.
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
83. Suppose "A" is a dominant gene and "a" is a recessive gene. One parent has genes Aa and the other parent has genes aa. What genes will the children probably have? a. All will be AA. b. All will be aa. c. Three-fourths will be Aa, one-fourth aa. d. Half will be Aa, half aa. ANS: D Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
84. Suppose "A" is a dominant gene for the ability to taste phenylthiocarbamide and "a" is a recessive gene for inability to taste it. Which of the following couples could possibly have both a child who tastes it and a child who does not? a. father AA, mother aa b. father Aa, mother AA c. father Aa, mother Aa d. father AA, mother AA ANS: C Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
85. Suppose "A" is a dominant gene for the ability to curl the tongue lengthwise, and "a" is a recessive gene for inability to do so. Which of the following couples can be certain that all their children will be able to curl their tongue lengthwise?
21
The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
father aa, mother AA father Aa, mother Aa father aa, mother aa father Aa, mother aa
ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
86. Suppose both the father and the mother are "heterozygous" for the gene that controls ability to curl the tongue lengthwise, and this gene is dominant. What can we predict about their children? a. All will be heterozygous for the ability to curl. b. All will be homozygous for the ability to curl. c. All will be homozygous for the inability to curl. d. They may be homozygous or heterozygous for ability to curl, or homozygous for inability. ANS: D Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
87. In one family, all three children are homozygous for a recessive gene. What can be concluded about the parents? a. Each parent is also homozygous for the recessive gene. b. Each parent is heterozygous. c. One parent is homozygous for the dominant gene; the other is homozygous for the recessive gene. d. Each parent is either homozygous for the recessive gene or heterozygous. ANS: D Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
88. Suppose all people with blonde hair have blue eyes and all people with dark hair have brown eyes. If the genes for eye and hair color are on the same chromosome, then what would most likely happen if these chromosomes crossed over? a. Hair and eye color could be inherited independently. b. All people with dark hair would have brown eyes. c. All people with blonde hair will have brown eyes. d. Hair color would be dominant over eye color. ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
89. Suppose all people with blonde hair have blue eyes and all people with dark hair have brown eyes. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation? a. Hair color is dominant over eye color. b. There is no genetic variability in hair or eye color in the population. c. Blue eyes are dominant over brown eyes. d. Hair and eye color are on the same chromosome. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian Genetics OBJ: 3 TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior 90. A trait not expressed when combined with a dominant trait is called a(n) trait. a. nurture b. recessive
22
Chapter 1
c. dominant d. homozygous ANS: B Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
91. Suppose that adopted children are more similar to their biological parents than their adoptive parents in their preferences for a flavor of ice cream. Which of the following would be true? a. Heritability of this trait is high. b. Preferences for ice cream are determined solely by the environment. c. Flavors of ice cream are naturally selected. d. Heritability of this trait is low. ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
92. Almost all humans have 23 pairs of which of the following? a. RNA b. Chromosomes c. Genes d. Corduroys ANS: B Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
93. An autosomal gene is a gene: a. on the X chromosome. b. on the Y chromosome. c. on any chromosome other than the X or Y chromosome. d. that shows no evidence of crossing over. ANS: C Genetics MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
94. Which of the following pairs of sex chromosomes would be found in a normal male mammal? a. XX b. XY c. YY d. YZ ANS: B Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
95. In humans, which chromosome(s) contain(s) few genes? a. All human chromosomes contain few genes. b. Both the X and Y chromosomes contain few genes. c. The X chromosome contains few genes. d. The Y chromosome contains few genes. ANS: D Genetics
23
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
The Major Issues
96. In general, when biologists speak of sex-linked genes they are referring to genes on: a. autosomal chromosomes. b. more than one chromosome. c. the X chromosome. d. the Y chromosome. ANS: C Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
97. If a characteristic is controlled by an X-linked recessive gene, it produces its apparent effects: a. more often in males. b. more often in females. c. only in childhood. d. only after puberty. ANS: A Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
98. An example of a sex-linked trait is: a. eye color. b. color vision deficiency. c. temperament. d. intelligence. ANS: B Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
99. Color vision deficiency is more common in males than in females because it is controlled by a: a. sex-limited gene. b. Y-linked gene. c. dominant X-linked gene. d. recessive X-linked gene. ANS: D Genetics 100.
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Genes located on the sex chromosomes are called: a. sex-linked. b. sex-limited. c. autosomal. d. recombination. ANS: A Genetics
101.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Males are more likely than females to exhibit color vision deficiency because of a gene that is: a. sex-limited.
24
Chapter 1
b. recessive and sex-linked. c. crossing over. d. dominant and sex-linked. ANS: B Genetics 102.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Which of the following is the BEST explanation for why males can grow breasts under certain hormonal conditions? a. Sex-linked genes become activated. b. The Y chromosome becomes activated. c. Sex-limited genes become activated. d. Breast growth is linked to color vision deficiency. ANS: C Genetics
106.
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior MSC: www
A gene is found that controls the age at which a man grows bald, if at all. That gene seldom affects women, even if they have the gene. What kind of gene is this MOST likely to be? a. an X-linked gene b. a sex-limited gene c. a sex-linked dominant gene d. a sex-linked recessive gene ANS: B Genetics
105.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
Sex-limited genes are present: a. in males only. b. in females only. c. in both sexes. d. on enzymes. ANS: C Genetics
104.
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Sex-limited genes are found on: a. X chromosomes only. b. Y chromosomes only. c. X AND Y chromosomes. d. any chromosomes. ANS: D Genetics
103.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Under what conditions are the effects of sex-limited genes demonstrated? a. When they are dominant b. When they are homozygous c. When particular hormones are present d. When they appear on the X chromosome ANS: C Genetics
25
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
The Major Issues
107.
On a given trait, high heritability suggests that: a. adopted children will closely resemble their biological parents. b. adopted children will closely resemble their adoptive parents. c. identical twins will be less similar to each other than adopted siblings. d. fraternal twins will be more similar to each other than identical twins. ANS: A Genetics
108.
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
What are the chances of having a child with at least one dominant gene if both parents are heterozygous? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% ANS: C Genetics
109.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
If a group of individuals shares a highly similar environment, what effect does this have on the heritability estimate of a characteristic? a. Heritability will be low. b. Heritability will be high. c. Heritability estimates will be unaffected. d. It is determined by the power of the environmental factors. ANS: B Genetics MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
110. For a group of individuals, the heritability score for a particular trait = .5. What can be said about the heredity of this trait? a. Hereditary differences account for all of the observed differences for this group of individuals. b. Hereditary differences account for none of the observed differences for this group of individuals. c. Hereditary differences account for some of the observed differences for this group of individuals. d. The differences found within this group are mostly due to differences in the environment. ANS: C Genetics
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
111. What is the relationship between heritability estimates and environmental factors? a. High environmental consistency raises heritability estimates. b. High environmental consistency lowers heritability estimates. c. Environments have no effect on heritability estimates. d. The effects of the environment on heritability estimates are unpredictable. ANS: A Environment
26
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Chapter 1
112. If a trait has high heritability: a. hereditary differences account for none of the observed variations in that characteristic within that population. b. the environment cannot influence that trait. c. it is still possible for the environment to influence that trait. d. the trait is not influenced by heredity. ANS: C Environment
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
113. Which of the following would contribute to an overestimation of heritability? a. Increasing the genetic similarity between people b. Eliminating the multiplier effect c. Overestimating the effect of the environment d. Ignoring the effect of the prenatal environment ANS: D Environment
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
114. Which of the following factors, if overlooked, may lead to an overestimation of heritability? a. Prenatal environment b. Low IQ c. Sex-linked genes d. RNA ANS: A Environment
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
115. Researchers have tested many behaviors for heritability and have found evidence of a link to heritability for almost every behavior tested. One exception is: a. social attitudes. b. loneliness. c. television watching. d. religious affiliation. ANS: D Environment
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior KEY: NEW
116. Any estimate of the heritability of a particular trait is specific to: a. a given population. b. the parents. c. the trait. d. the strength of the trait. ANS: A Environment
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior KEY: NEW
117. Which one of the following statements is TRUE about PKU?
27
The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
It is the genetic inability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. It measures brain activity. It is not a hereditary condition. It does not need to be treated.
ANS: A Environment
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
118. Individuals afflicted with PKU need to avoid: a. foods high in phenylalanine. b. foods high in vitamin K. c. alcohol. d. sunlight. ANS: A Environment MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
119. Why do children with PKU become mentally retarded? a. Unmetabolized amino acids accumulate and affect the brain. b. Essential axons lack myelin sheaths. c. Dendrites and synapses fail to form in associative areas of the cortex. d. Their immune systems do not fight off brain infections. ANS: A Environment MSC: www 120.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
How is it possible to prevent the mental retardation that is generally associated with PKU? a. Through exercise b. Through diet c. Through drugs d. Through exposure to bright light ANS: B Environment
122.
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
What is TRUE about a newborn baby with PKU? a. The baby is already, irreversibly mentally retarded. b. The baby is not mentally retarded, but inevitably will become mentally retarded. c. The baby can avoid becoming mentally retarded by special education. d. The baby can avoid becoming mentally retarded by following a strict diet. ANS: D Environment
121.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Untreated PKU will result in: a. a loss of phenylalanine. b. impaired brain development.
28
Chapter 1
c. temporary loss of memory. d. enhanced brain development. ANS: B Environment KEY: NEW 123.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
.
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Changes in single genes are called: a. alterations. b. mutations. c. mendelians. d. enzymes. ANS: B OBJ: 3
127.
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
For children with PKU on an ordinary diet, the heritability of PKU would be virtually a. 0 b. .5 c. 1.0 d. impossible to calculate ANS: C Environment
126.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
Someone claims that if genes control a condition, it can be controlled only by drugs or surgery, but not by changes in the environment. Which of the following is the strongest example to CONTRADICT that claim? a. Color-blindness b. Eye color c. Phenylketonuria (PKU) d. Down syndrome ANS: C Environment
125.
DIF: factual REF: Heredity and TOP: 1.2 The Genetics and Behavior
Which of the following is an example of a genetically controlled condition that can be minimized by following a particular diet? a. Down syndrome b. Color-blindness c. Epilepsy d. Phenylketonuria (PKU) ANS: D Environment
124.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Most mutations produce: a. dominant genes. b. recessive genes.
29
The Major Issues
REF: Mendelian Genetics
c. sex-linked genes. d. sex-limited genes. ANS: B OBJ: 3 128.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: Mendelian Genetics
For natural selection to generate evolutionary change in a population: a. there need not be any differences in the traits of individuals in that population. b. the change in gene frequencies must help the species in the long run. c. the differences must have a hereditary basis. d. the change in gene frequencies will probably be harmful to the species. ANS: C Behavior
132.
REF: Mendelian Genetics
Which of the following is NOT one of the many ways that genes can affect behavior? a. Genes may affect neurotransmitter levels or receptors. b. Genes can act indirectly by making it more likely you will be raised in a particular environment. c. Genes themselves cause behavior without any influence of the environment. d. Genes produce proteins that may make it more likely for a person to become addicted. ANS: C OBJ: 3
131.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
To say that there is a "gene for blue eyes": a. means that a gene directly produces blue eyes. b. suggests dominance, since you only need one gene to express the trait. c. suggests that other genes might produce blue eyes also. d. means that a gene indirectly produces blue eyes through a complex process of protein synthesis and environmental input. ANS: D OBJ: 3
130.
REF: Mendelian Genetics
Mutations are: a. a common occurrence in most single genes. b. guided by the needs of the organism in its environment. c. almost always beneficial to the organism. d. changes in single genes. ANS: D OBJ: 3
129.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Which of the following is necessarily included in the concept of evolution? a. Species improvements from one generation to the next. b. "If you don't use it, you lose it." c. Generationally changing frequencies of various genes in the population. d. Improvements to the individual. ANS: C Behavior OBJ: 5
30
PTS: 1
DIF: conceptual
TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Chapter 1
REF: The Evolution of
133.
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of evolution? a. "Survival of the fittest" b. "Reproduction of the fittest" c. "If you don't use it, you lose it." d. "Always look for ways to improve." ANS: B Behavior OBJ: 5
134.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Breeding particular cows together to create offspring that produce more milk is an example of: a. natural selection. b. artificial selection. c. evolution. d. mutation. ANS: B Behavior
138.
MSC: www
Breeding some animals selectively because they possess some desirable characteristic is called: a. evolution. b. natural selection. c. artificial selection. d. artificial insemination. ANS: C Behavior
137.
TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: The Evolution of
What is it called when some animals are selectively bred because they possess some desirable characteristic? a. Evolution b. Natural selection c. Artificial selection d. Artificial insemination ANS: C Behavior
136.
DIF: conceptual
Which of the following is TRUE with respect to evolution? a. "If you don't use it, you lose it." b. Evolutionary success is assessed by the number of one's offspring surviving to reproduce. c. Evolution benefits the species, in the long run. d. Evolution benefits the individual. ANS: B Behavior
135.
PTS: 1
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
The primary difference between artificial selection and natural selection is: a. artificial selection results in fewer mutations. b. natural selection is faster.
31
The Major Issues
c. artificial selection is ineffective. d. the factor that determines who will survive and reproduce. ANS: D Behavior 139.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
.
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
The theory of evolution through the inheritance of acquired characteristics is known as: a. Lamarckian evolution. b. Darwinian evolution. c. artificial evolution. d. Huxley’s evolution. ANS: A Behavior
143.
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
The phrase "If you don't use it, you lose it" best represents a. Lamarckian evolution b. Darwinian evolution c. artificial evolution d. Huxley’s evolution ANS: A Behavior
142.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
Which of the following represents Lamarckian evolution? a. "Survival of the fittest" b. "Reproduction of the fittest" c. "If you don't use it, you lose it" d. "Look out for number one" ANS: C Behavior
141.
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
When a dog is bred for a particular trait, this is called: a. artificial selection. b. evolution. c. natural selection. d. group selection. ANS: A Behavior
140.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior MSC: www
Which of the following theories would support the idea that by taking out a peoples' wisdom teeth, eventually fewer people will be born with them? a. Lamarckian evolution b. Darwinism c. Natural selection d. Artificial selection ANS: A Behavior
32
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Chapter 1
144.
More people would be born without an appendix if: a. the appendix was removed before a person reproduced. b. a person who was born without an appendix reproduces more than people who have an appendix. c. the appendix was removed after a person reproduced. d. the appendix of healthy people was x-rayed. ANS: B Behavior
145.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Evolution of
TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
An evolutionary psychologist would likely be most interested in studying: a. altruistic behavior of meerkats. b. cardiovascular function across species. c. anatomy of the rat brain. d. neurotransmitters in primates. ANS: A Behavior
149.
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Evolution improves the fitness of the population, which is defined as: a. the number of copies of one's genes that endure in later generations. b. survival of the individual. c. ability to adapt to a variety of environments. d. overall health and well-being. ANS: A Behavior OBJ: 5
148.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
Which of the following statements about evolution is TRUE? a. Because having goose bumps isn’t very effective in keeping us warm, soon people will be born without goose bumps. b. Humans have stopped evolving. c. Evolution means improvement. d. Genes in the previous generation may not be adaptive in future generations. ANS: D Behavior
147.
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
What supports the argument that humans have NOT stopped evolving? a. Medicine and technology are keeping more people alive these days. b. More mutations will occur because of increased use of pesticides. c. Evolution is based on reproduction rates so as long as some people have more children than others do, their genes will spread. d. Humans are no longer subject to "survival of the fittest." ANS: C Behavior
146.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior MSC: www
What is TRUE about altruistic behavior? a. It is evident in every animal species. b. It can be completely explained in terms of genetic contributions. c. It is difficult to explain from an evolutionary/genetic point of view.
33
The Major Issues
d. It has a genetic component only in humans. ANS: C Behavior 150.
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Helping your neighbors (who are unrelated to you) rake their leaves because they helped you fix your car is an example of: a. kin selection. b. reciprocal altruism. c. natural selection. d. group selection. ANS: B Behavior
155.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
When organisms help those they recognize as capable of returning the favor, this is termed: a. kin selection. b. group selection. c. reciprocal altruism. d. sociobiology. ANS: C Behavior
154.
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior KEY: NEW
Which of the following would be the BEST example of altruistic behavior? a. Bullying other kids in the lunch line b. Spreading rumors about your boss c. Picking up your room d. Helping an elderly person across the street ANS: D Behavior
153.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
Why is a genetic explanation for altruism problematic? a. Only non-human animals exhibit altruistic behaviors. b. Altruistic behaviors rarely benefit the individual performing them. c. Altruism is more common among the young than among adults. d. No behavior has been linked to any genes. ANS: B Behavior
152.
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Altruistic behavior is: a. the idea that individuals help those who will return the favor. b. the selection for a gene that benefits an individual’s relatives. c. an action that benefits the actor only. d. an action that benefits someone other than the actor. ANS: D Behavior
151.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Kin selection as an explanation for altruistic behavior would argue that:
34
Chapter 1
a. b. c. d.
individuals help others who help them. individuals pick their mates based on how altruistic they are. individuals spread their genes by helping their relatives. society benefits as a whole when individuals help each other.
ANS: C Behavior 156.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
According to the text, in the control of behavior, genes are a. all important and difficult b. are irrelevant c. neither all important nor irrelevant d. all important ANS: C Behavior
160.
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Which of the following explanations for a genetic basis for altruism is most favored by the text? a. Benefits to the species b. Kin selection c. Group selection d. Involves little individual cost ANS: B Behavior
159.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
Kin selection as an explanation for altruistic behavior would argue that: a. individuals help others who help them. b. individuals pick their mates based on how altruistic they are. c. individuals spread their genes by helping their relatives. d. society benefits as a whole when individuals help each other. ANS: C Behavior
158.
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Which of the following provides the strongest rationale for how altruistic genes could spread in a population? a. Altruistic behaviors cost very little. b. Altruistic groups survive better than less cooperative ones. c. Animals help those who help them in return. d. Animals feel better when they help others. ANS: C Behavior
157.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
.
DIF: factual REF: The Evolution of TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
Which of the following is NOT a reason that biological psychologists study animals? a. Animal's brains and behavior are often similar to humans. b. Animals are often easier to study than humans. c. Biological psychologists are interested in the animals themselves.
35
The Major Issues
d. One does not have to consider ethical issues with animals. ANS: D Research 161.
DIF: conceptual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ethical Debate TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Ethical Debate TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
Which statement about most psychological experiments using nonhuman animals is correct? a. Animals are given intense, repeated, inescapable shocks in many experiments. b. Extreme pain and stress are inflicted in attempts to drive the animals insane. c. The research leads to no useful discoveries. d. The research is regulated by animal care committees. ANS: D OBJ: 2
166.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
Which of the following is an argument for animal research? a. Animal research is beneficial. b. Animals cannot give informed consent to participate. c. Animals have the same rights as humans. d. Killing animals for scientific gain is murder. ANS: A OBJ: 2 MSC: www
165.
DIF: factual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
Minimalists believe that: a. all research should be done on animals. b. some animal research is acceptable, but not all. c. no animal research should be conducted. d. researchers should use only small animals. ANS: B OBJ: 2
164.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
How do most biological psychologists feel regarding the use of animals in research? a. They believe that any animal has the same rights as any human. b. They will avoid using painful procedures, unless they will directly benefit the animal. c. They are working to replace all animal experimentation with computer simulations. d. They use animals only if the potential benefits to humans outweigh the costs to the animals. ANS: D Research
163.
DIF: conceptual REF: Reasons for Animal TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
Which of the following is NOT a strong argument in support of conducting animal research? a. The underlying mechanisms are similar across species. b. Certain ethical restrictions make it impossible to use humans. c. Animals have shorter life spans for studying developmental changes. d. Animals can’t give consent to participate in research. ANS: D Research
162.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Ethical Debate TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
The function of an Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee is to:
36
Chapter 1
a. b. c. d.
evaluate veterinarians who provide care to laboratory animals. determine whether research is merely for the benefit of humans. evaluate proposed experiments to ensure that they minimize pain and discomfort. provide food and water for lab animals, and keep cages clean.
ANS: C OBJ: 3 167.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ethical Debate TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
Which of the following is not required (or strongly encouraged) of scientists conducting research with animals? a. Obtain approval of their project by an Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee. b. Abide by standards for cleanliness and animal care. c. Assume that any procedure that causes humans pain will cause animals pain. d. All the other choices are required or strongly encouraged. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ethical Debate TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
SHORT ANSWER 1. List the four biological explanations of behavior. ANS: physiological, ontogenetic, evolutionary, and functional PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations of Behavior TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
2. In what circumstance is a woman color deficient? ANS:
If the woman has that recessive gene on both of her X chromosomes PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian Genetics TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
3. List the three gene states. ANS: Dominant, recessive, and intermediate PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Mendelian Genetics TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
4. Define the “hard problem” of consciousness according to David Chalmers. ANS:
This concerns why and how any kind of brain activity is associated with consciousness.
37
The Major Issues
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
OBJ: 3
5. List the two major categories of careers related to biological psychology. ANS: research and therapy PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior
Career Opportunities
OBJ:
4
OBJ:
5
6. Briefly describe Lamarckian evolution. ANS: This is the theory of evolution through the inheritance of acquired characteristics. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: The Evolution of Behavior
7. Please list two arguments in favor of animal research and two arguments against animal research. ANS: For: underlying mechanisms of behavior are similar across species and are easier to study interest in animals for their own sake animal research may shed light on human evolution certain experiments can't be done on humans because of ethical restraints Against: some animals undergo painful procedures that are not for their benefit animals can not give informed consent sometimes the results from animals will not generalize to humans animals should have the same rights as humans PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Reasons for Animal Research TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Reserach
ESSAY 1. Discuss the four biological explanations of behavior.
38
Chapter 1
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Explanations of Behavior OBJ: 1 TOP: 1.1 The Biological Approach to Behavior MSC: www 2. Describe the relationship between heredity and environment. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
DIF: conceptual REF: Heredity and Environment TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
3. Discuss David Chalmers’s easy and hard problem of consciousness. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Introduction TOP: 1.2 The Biological Approach to Behavior
OBJ: 3
4. Briefly describe the common misunderstandings about evolution. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 1.2 Genetics and Behavior
REF: The Evolution of Behavior
5. Describe the reasons for animal research. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Reasons for Animal Research TOP: 1.3 The Use of Animals in Research
Chapter 2: Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses TRUE/FALSE
39
The Major Issues
OBJ:
5
1. Dendrites contain the nuclei, ribosomes, mitochondria, and other structures found in most cells. ANS: F and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
2. A small gap is usually present between neurons. ANS: T and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
3. Neurons receive information and transmit it to other cells. ANS: T and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
4. Axons are covered with an insulating material called a myelin sheath. ANS: T and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
5. An afferent axon brings information into a structure. ANS: T and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
6. An efferent axon carries information away from a structure. ANS: T and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
7. Neurons can have any number of dendrites, but no more than one axon. ANS: T and Glia
40
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
8. The general rule among neurons is that the wider the branching, the fewer connections with other neurons. ANS: F and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
9. The greater the surface area of a dendrite, the more information it can receive from other neurons. ANS: T and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
10. Neurons are distinguished from other cells by their shape. ANS: T and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
11. Glial cells serve many functions. ANS: T and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
12. There are more glial cells than neurons in the human brain. ANS: T and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
13. Glial cells transmit information across long distances. ANS: F and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
14. Astrocytes remove waste material created when neurons die and control the amount of blood flow to each brain area. ANS: T and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
15. Oligodendrocytes in the periphery are specialized types of glia. ANS: F and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
16. Schwann cells build the myelin sheaths in the periphery of the body. ANS: T and Glia
41
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
The Major Issues
17. Most chemicals can easily cross the cell membrane of a neuron. ANS: F and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
18. The blood-brain barrier is made up of closely packed glial cells. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
19. One disadvantage of the blood-brain barrier is that it keeps out most forms of nutrition. ANS: T OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
20. The primary source of energy used by the brain is fat. ANS: F Vertebrate Neurons
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
21. At rest, the inside of a neuron's membrane is more negative than the outside. ANS: T the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse MSC: www
22. The difference in voltage in a resting neuron is called the resting potential. ANS: T the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
23. Increasing the electrical gradient for potassium would reduce the tendency for potassium ions to exit the neuron. ANS: T the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse MSC: www
24. The sodium-potassium pump is what normally brings the membrane back to its original state of polarization after the peak of the action potential. ANS: F the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse MSC: www
25. If a drug was given that temporarily inactivated the sodium-potassium pumps, action potentials would cease immediately. ANS: F the Neuron
42
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
Chapter 1
26. A prolonged increase in the permeability of the membrane to sodium ions would interfere with a neuron's ability to have an action potential. ANS: T the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
27. Additional stimulation beyond the threshold of excitation will result in a greater depolarization of the membrane during an action potential. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential MSC: www
28. Dendrites and cell bodies are capable of producing action potentials. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential MSC: www
29. In a myelinated axon, sodium channels are absent in the nodes of Ranvier. ANS: F PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The two kinds of cells in the nervous system are: a. neurons and glia b. dendrites and axons c. ribosomes and lysosomes d. neurons and axons ANS: A and Glia OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: Anatomy of Neurons
TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
2. What are the two kinds of cells in the nervous system? a. neurons and glia b. dendrites and axons c. ribosomes and lysosomes d. neurons and axons ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
3. Santiago Ramon y Cajal demonstrated that: a. at rest, the neuron has a negative charge inside its membrane. b. neurons are separate from one another. c. neurons communicate at specialized junctions called synapses. d. action potentials follow the all-or-none law.
43
The Major Issues
ANS: B and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
4. Who was the first researcher to demonstrate that neurons are separate from one another? a. Curt P. Richter b. Santiago Ramon y Cajal c. Charles S. Sherrington d. Jose Delgado ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
5. Prior to the work of Santiago Ramon y Cajal, what did many investigators believe? a. Nerves conducted impulses at the speed of light. b. Transmission across a synapse was just as fast as transmission along an axon. c. The tip of an axon physically merged with the next neuron. d. All neurons were of similar size and shape. ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
6. Which of the following contributed most to Cajal's ability to find that neurons are separate from one another? a. Charles Sherrington's study of reflexes b. Camillo Golgi's cell staining method c. Perves & Hadley's dye injection method d. Galileo's invention of the telescope ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
7. The cell membrane is composed of two layers of: a. protein. b. fat. c. carbohydrate. d. plasma. ANS: B and Glia KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
8. Neurons differ most strongly from other body cells in their: a. temperature. b. shape. c. osmotic pressure. d. mitochondria. ANS: B and Glia
44
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
9. The of neurons most strongly differentiate them from other cells in the body. a. temperature. b. shape. c. osmotic pressure. d. mitochondria. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
10. What structure is composed of two layers of fat molecules that are free to flow around one another? a. the endoplasmic reticulum b. a ribosome c. a mitochondrion d. the membrane ANS: D and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
11. Water, oxygen and most freely flow across a cell membrane. a. calcium b. positively charged ions c. magnesium d. carbon dioxide ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
12. Which chemicals flow most freely across a cell membrane? a. proteins, fats, and carbohydrates b. positively charged ions c. water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide d. calcium and magnesium ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
13. Chemicals than cannot flow freely across a cell membrane enter a neuron through: a. a Golgi complex. b. specialized protein channels. c. the endoplasmic reticulum. d. gaps in the myelin sheath. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
14. The structure that contains the chromosomes is called the: a. endoplasmic reticulum. b. nucleus. c. mitochondrion. d. ribosome.
45
The Major Issues
ANS: B and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
15. Which of the following is most likely to cross the cell membrane by simple diffusion? a. large proteins b. small, charged ions c. small, uncharged molecules d. large, charged ions ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
16. Small, charged molecules can cross the cell membrane through: a. diffusion. b. ribosomes. c. mitochondria. d. protein channels. ANS: D and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
17. Protein channels allow to cross the cell membrane. a. large charged molecules b. small charged molecules c. large uncharged molecules d. small uncharged molecules ANS: B and Glia KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
18. Where do the metabolic activities occur that provide energy for all of the other activities of the cell? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosomes c. Lysosomes d. Golgi complexes ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
19. Ribosomes are the part of a cell that: a. performs metabolic activities. b. breaks down harmful chemicals. c. transports proteins. d. synthesizes new proteins. ANS: D and Glia
46
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
20. The sites at which the cell synthesizes new protein molecules are called: a. mitochondria. b. endoplasmic reticula. c. ribosomes. d. plasma membranes. ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
21. The endoplasmic reticulum is a: a. network of thin tubes that transport newly synthesized proteins. b. site where the cell synthesizes new protein molecules. c. structure that separates the inside of the cell from the outside. d. structure that contains the chromosomes. ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
22. The main feature that distinguishes a neuron from other animal cells is that a neuron has: a. a larger nucleus. b. a distinctive shape. c. the ability to metabolize a variety of fuels. d. a high internal concentration of sodium ions. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
23. One of the most distinctive features of neurons compared to other types of cells is their: a. shape. b. number of mitochondria. c. lack of a cell membrane. d. size. ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
24. What receives excitation from other neurons and conducts impulses to muscle or gland cells? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. dendrites d. dendritic spines ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
25. Dendrites . a. contain the nucleus, ribosomes, and other structures found in most cells b. are branching fibers that get narrower near their ends c. is a thin fiber of constant diameter d. are an insulating material that cover an axon
47
The Major Issues
ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
26. The branching fibers that form the information-receiving pole of the nerve cells are called: a. motor neurons. b. dendrites. c. sensory neurons. d. axons. ANS: B and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
27. The surface of a dendrite is lined with specialized junctions through which the dendrite receives information from other neurons. What are these junctions called? a. synaptic receptors b. axons c. synaptic hillocks d. glia ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
28. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a dendrite? a. It tapers as it gets further from the cell body. b. It is in contact with the dendrites of other neurons. c. Its surface may be lined with synaptic receptors. d. It receives information from other neurons or the environment. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
29. The tree-like branches of a neuron that receive information from other neurons are called: a. axons. b. dendrites. c. soma. d. myelin. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
30. Some dendrites contain additional short outgrowths. What are these outgrowths called? a. hillocks b. dendritic spines c. dendritic roots d. myelin sheaths ANS: B and Glia OBJ: 1
48
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
REF: Anatomy of Neurons
31. Many dendrites contain short outgrowths called spines that: a. increase the surface area available for synapses. b. increase the speed of transmission. c. eliminate cell waste products. d. increase the symmetry of the cell. ANS: A and Glia KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
32. Dendrites often contain additional short outgrowths. These are believed to: a. increase the surface area available for synapses. b. increase the speed of transmission. c. eliminate cell waste products. d. help the cell maintain its shape. ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
33. A greater amount of branching on dendrites allows them to: a. manufacture more mitochondria. b. have a larger surface area available for receiving information from other neurons. c. increase their membrane permeability. d. lower their resting potential. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
34. Incoming synapses are primarily found on: a. dendrites only. b. cell bodies only. c. axons only. d. dendrites and cell bodies. ANS: D and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
35. The information sender of the neuron, which conveys an impulse toward either other neurons or a gland or muscle, is called the: a. axon. b. dendrite. c. soma. d. myelin. ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
36. Which of the following is the correct order of transmission of information within a neuron? a. cell body, dendrite, axon b. dendrite, axon, cell body c. axon, cell body, dendrite d. dendrite, cell body, axon
49
The Major Issues
ANS: D and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
37. Compared to dendrites, axons usually: a. form the information-receiving pole of the neuron. b. are shorter than the dendrites. c. are covered with myelin. d. taper in diameter toward their periphery. ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
38. The insulating material which covers many vertebrate axons is called the: a. dendrite. b. myelin sheath. c. cell body or soma. d. presynaptic terminal. ANS: B and Glia OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: Anatomy of Neurons
TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
39. Myelin covers: a. all axons b. most dendrites c. some axons in vertebrates and none in invertebrates d. all vertebrate axons and some invertebrate axons ANS: C and Glia OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: Anatomy of Neurons
TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
40. What does myelin cover? a. all axons b. most dendrites c. some axons in vertebrates and none in invertebrates d. all vertebrate axons and some invertebrate axons ANS: C and Glia OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: Anatomy of Neurons
TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
41. Nodes of Ranvier are: a. gaps in the myelin of axons. b. the same as the myelin sheath. c. the spiny outgrowths on dendrites. d. responsible for cell metabolism. ANS: A and Glia MSC: www
50
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
42. Gaps in the insulating material that surrounds axons are known as: a. interpeduncular nuclei. b. nodes of Ranvier. c. myelin synapses. d. presynaptic terminals. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
43. A presynaptic terminal is also known as: a. an end bulb b. a node of Ranvier c. myelin d. a spine ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
44. Which of the following is NOT true of axons? a. They can vary greatly in length. b. They carry information toward the soma. c. They release chemicals that cross the synapse. d. Some of them are covered with myelin sheaths. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
45. What is the point from which an axon releases chemicals into the synapse? a. the myelin sheath b. the presynaptic terminal c. a dendritic spine d. the endoplasmic reticulum ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
46. An axon has many branches, each of which swells at its tip. These are known as: a. presynaptic terminals. b. efferent axons. c. afferent axons. d. intrinsic neurons. ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
47. Chemicals are released by axons: a. into the presynaptic terminal. b. into the junction between neurons. c. through the efferent terminals. d. to the mitochondria.
51
The Major Issues
ANS: B and Glia MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
48. An axon releases chemicals: a. into the presynaptic terminal. b. into the junction between neurons. c. through the efferent terminals. d. to the mitochondria. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
49. A neuron can have any number of a. dendrites; axon b. axons; dendrite c. cell bodies; axon d. cell bodies; dendrite ANS: A and Glia KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
50. Neurons typically have one a. dendrite; axons b. axon; dendrites c. cell body; axons d. dendrite; cell bodies ANS: B and Glia
, but no more than one
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
.
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
, but many
.
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
51. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an axon? a. It can be up to a meter long. b. It has a constant diameter. c. It carries information toward the cell body. d. It may be covered with a myelin sheath. ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
52. As a general rule, where do axons convey information? a. toward dendrites of their own cell b. toward their own cell body c. away from their own cell body d. to surrounding glia ANS: C and Glia
52
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
53. If you were to accidentally touch a hot stove with your hand, you would quickly pull your hand away. The information carried to the muscles in your arm to make them contract was carried by: a. efferent neurons. b. afferent neurons. c. intrinsic neurons. d. sensory neurons. ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
54. If all of a neuron's dendrites or axons were contained within the spinal cord, it would be considered a(n) neuron. a. efferent b. afferent c. intrinsic d. Purkinje ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
55. What would a neuron in the pons be called that receives information only from other cells in the pons and sends information only to other cells in the pons? a. afferent b. efferent c. intrinsic d. inter-synaptic ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
56. Which of these is true of glial cells? a. They are larger than neurons b. They transmit information over long distances. c. They do not transmit information over long distances. d. They are less numerous then neurons. ANS: C and Glia KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
57.Which of the following is a characteristic of glial cells in the human brain? a. They are larger than neurons. b. They are capable of transmitting impulses when neurons fail to do so. c. They are more numerous than neurons. d. They are like neurons, except that they lack axons. ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
58. Glial cells:
53
The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
are less numerous than neurons in the human brain. transmit information over long distances within the central nervous system. occupy about ten times more space in the brain than do neurons. occupy about the same total space as do neurons.
ANS: D and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
59. Which function is NOT performed by glia? a. removing waste materials b. building myelin sheaths c. transmitting information d. guiding the growth of axons and dendrites ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
60. One type of glia helps synchronize the activity of axons. They are called: a. oligodendrocytes. b. astrocytes. c. radial glia. d. Schwann cells. ANS: B and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
61. Which of the following is NOT true of astrocytes? a. They wrap around the presynaptic terminals of several axons. b. They help synchronize the activity of the axons. c. They remove waste material. d. They make up the myelin sheaths in the periphery of the body. ANS: D and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
62. Which type of glia remove waste material in the nervous system? a. astrocytes b. Schwann cells c. oligodendrocytes d. radial glia ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
63. What type of glial cells myelinate axons in the brain and spinal cord? a. oligodendrocytes b. Schwann cells c. radial glia d. astrocytes ANS: A and Glia
54
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
64. Which type of glia release chemicals that modify the activity of neighboring neurons? a. astrocytes b. Schwann cells c. oligodendrocytes d. radial glia ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
65. Which type of glia builds myelin sheaths around axons in the periphery of the body? a. astrocytes b. Schwann cells c. oligodendrocytes d. radial glia ANS: B and Glia MSC: www 66.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
in the brain and spinal cord and in the periphery are specialized types of glia that build the myelin sheaths that surround neurons. a. Oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells b. Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes c. Microglia; oligodendrocytes d. Radial glia; Schwann cells ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
67. Glial cells whose function most closely resembles that of the immune system are called: a. oligodendrocytes. b. Schwann cells. c. microglia. d. radial glia. ANS: C and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
68. Radial glia: a. guide the migration of neurons during embryonic development. b. synchronize the activity of axons. c. wrap around the presynaptic terminals of several axons. d. build the myelin sheaths that surround and insulate certain axons. ANS: A and Glia
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
69. Of the following, the most important consideration in developing a drug that will act in the brain is:
55
The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
if the drug can be inexpensively manufactured. if the drug will cross the blood-brain barrier. how long the drug will act. the number of people who will use the drug.
ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
70. The risk of having part of the brain unprotected by the blood-brain barrier is that: a. it is invisible to brain imaging techniques. b. it takes longer for drugs to work. c. viruses or toxic chemicals are more likely to damage it. d. the blood is poorly oxygenated. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
71. What is the mechanism that prevents or slows some chemicals from entering the brain, while allowing others to enter? a. a threshold b. a blood-brain barrier c. an endoplasmic wall d. a differential-drug inhibitor ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
72. In the brain, an arrangement of endothelial cells: a. has gaps large enough to allow the passage of molecules. b. synthesizes neurotransmitters. c. does not allow most molecules to pass because the cells are so tightly packed. d. has gaps that are filled with enzymes that attack most blood chemicals. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
73. What happens to a virus that manages to cross the blood-brain barrier and enter the brain? a. It is destroyed by natural killer cells. b. It gets trapped in a neuron, then both are destroyed by natural killer cells. c. It gets trapped in a glial cell, then both are destroyed by natural killer cells. d. It stays in the nervous system throughout the person's life. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
74. Which of the following is an important function of the blood-brain barrier? a. It enables more nutrients to reach the brain. b. It maintains an electrical gradient. c. It aids in the production of neurotransmitters. d. It protects the brain from most viruses. ANS: A OBJ: 3
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
75. Which of the following molecules would be able to passively cross the blood-brain barrier? a. small, uncharged molecules b. large, charged molecules c. glucose d. amino acids ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
76. Molecules that can cross the blood-brain barrier are usually: a. large, uncharged molecules, such as lactose. b. large, charged molecules. c. neurotransmitters, such as dopamine. d. molecules that can dissolve in the fats of the capillary walls. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
77. The major disadvantage of a blood-brain barrier is that: a. many chemicals can easily diffuse into the brain. b. it requires so much glucose to maintain it. c. certain required chemicals must be actively transported. d. viruses can’t escape. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
78. Glucose enters the brain via which type of transport? a. indirect transport b. direct transport c. passive transport d. active transport ANS: D OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
79. Compared to passive transport, the major disadvantage of active transport is that it: a. cannot transport chemicals out of the brain. b. requires expenditure of energy. c. transports glucose into the brain. d. transports viruses into the brain. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
81. What is the main source of nutrition for vertebrate neurons?
57
The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
Fats Glucose Sodium Complex carbohydrates
ANS: B Vertebrate Neurons
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
82. Why do neurons rely so heavily on glucose as their source of nutrition? a. Neurons lack the enzymes necessary to metabolize other fuels. b. Glucose is the only fuel that can be used even in the absence of vitamins. c. Glucose is not used extensively by other parts of the body. d. Other fuels do not readily cross the blood-brain barrier. ANS: D Vertebrate Neurons
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
83. What are two requirements for the brain to metabolize glucose? a. thiamine and oxygen b. vitamin C and nitrogen c. niacin and bicarbonate d. riboflavin and iron ANS: A Vertebrate Neurons
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
84. Why does the brain need thiamine? a. to enable glucose to cross the blood-brain barrier b. as a source of fuel in case there is not enough glucose c. as a building block for making proteins d. to enable it to metabolize glucose ANS: D Vertebrate Neurons
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
85. If the brain does not have enough thiamine, what is it unable to do? a. maintain its blood-brain barrier b. pump glucose across the blood-brain barrier c. produce certain neurotransmitters d. metabolize glucose ANS: D Vertebrate Neurons
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
86. Which group is most likely to suffer from a thiamine deficiency? a. alcoholics b. heroin addicts c. diabetics d. infants ANS: A PTS: 1 Vertebrate Neurons OBJ: 3 87. What leads to Korsakoff's syndrome?
58
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
Chapter 1
a. b. c. d.
thiamine deficiency resulting from alcoholism glucose deficiency resulting from alcoholism viruses that manage to cross the blood-brain barrier glial cells that over-reproduce and increase pressure in the brain
ANS: A Vertebrate Neurons
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
88. Korsakoff's syndrome: a. is marked by severe memory impairments. b. results from too much thiamine. c. results from lack of oxygen to the brain. d. is due to a breakdown of the blood-brain barrier. ANS: A Vertebrate Neurons
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Nourishment in TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
89. The membrane of a neuron is specialized to: a. keep all types of intercellular chemicals from moving out of the neuron. b. keep all types of extracellular chemicals from moving into the neuron. c. control the exchange of chemicals between the inside and outside of the cell. d. produce chains of fatty acids and proteins. ANS: C the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
90. The membrane of a neuron is composed of a. carbohydrates; purines b. fat molecules; proteins c. proteins; neurotransmitters d. benzene molecules; carbohydrates ANS: B the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
with
embedded in them.
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
91. What is the difference in voltage called that typically exists between the inside and the outside of a neuron? a. concentration gradient b. generator potential c. resting potential d. shock value ANS: C the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
92. When stating that the neuron's membrane is polarized, you are referring to a difference in electrical potential between: a. the axons and the dendrites. b. the axon hillock and the cell body. c. sodium ions and potassium ions. d. the inside and the outside of the membrane.
59
The Major Issues
ANS: D the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
93. The resting potential is mainly the result of: a. negatively charged proteins inside the cell. b. positively charged proteins inside the cell. c. negatively charged proteins outside the cell. d. positively charged proteins outside the cell. ANS: A the Neuron KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
94. The resting potential of a neuron refers to: a. the net positive charge on the inside of the neuron. b. ions which rest in one place in the cell. c. the movement of ions to the outside of the neuron. d. the net negative charge on the inside of the neuron. ANS: D the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
95. What is the approximate resting potential of the inside of a neuron's membrane, relative to the outside? a. -70 millivolts b. +10 millivolts c. 0 millivolts d. +90 millivolts ANS: A the Neuron KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
96. The selectivity of a neuron membrane is analogous to: a. the blood-brain barrier. b. the action potential. c. the resting potential. d. myelin. ANS: A the Neuron KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
97. Allowing only certain people to cross the street, and only at certain times, is comparable to a neuron’s with respect to ions. a. threshold of excitation b. all-or-none law c. resting potential d. selective permeability ANS: D
60
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DIF: conceptual
Chapter 1
REF: The Resting Potential of
the Neuron KEY: NEW
OBJ: 1
TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
98. When a neuron's membrane is at rest, which of the following molecules crosses through it MOST slowly? a. potassium b. sodium c. water d. carbon dioxide ANS: A the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
99. When the neuronal membrane is at rest, the potassium channels: a. permit potassium ions to pass quickly and easily. b. permit potassium ions to pass slowly. c. prohibit any movement of potassium ions. d. help to open up the sodium channels. ANS: B the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
100. When the neuronal membrane is at rest, the sodium channels: a. permit sodium ions to pass quickly and easily. b. permit potassium ions to cross instead of sodium. c. are closed. d. fluctuate rapidly between open and closed. ANS: C the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
101. Which of the following describes selective permeability? a. Ions can only travel in certain directions across the membrane. b. Only certain molecules are allowed to cross the membrane freely. c. Only certain types of stimulation will result in an action potential. d. All molecules must pass through designated channels. ANS: B the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
102. When a neuron’s membrane is at rest, the concentration gradient tends to move sodium cell and the electrical gradient tends to move it the cell. a. into, into b. into, out of c. out of, into d. out of, out of ANS: A the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
103. When a neuron’s membrane is at rest, the concentration gradient tends to move potassium the cell and the electrical gradient tends to move it the cell.
61
the
The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
into, into into, out of out of, into out of, out of
ANS: C the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
104. The sodium-potassium pump repeatedly transports potassium ions into it. a. three; two b. two; three c. one; three d. one; two ANS: A the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
105. The sodium-potassium pump repeatedly transports three two ions into it. a. calcium; potassium b. potassium; calcium c. potassium; sodium d. sodium; potassium ANS: D the Neuron MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
sodium ions out of the cell while drawing
ions out of the cell while drawing
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
106. Electrical gradients lead to what kind of movements? a. the general movement of ions into the neuron b. the general movement of ions out of the neuron c. the movement of ions to areas having the same electrical charges d. the movement of ions to areas having the opposite electrical charges ANS: D the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
107. Under which conditions would the sodium-potassium pump be far less effective in creating a concentration gradient? a. if dendrites were generally longer than axons b. if the glia-to-neuron ratio were higher c. if selective permeability of the membrane did not exist d. if it were an active transport system that required energy ANS: C the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
108. The net effect of each cycle of the sodium-potassium pump is to: a. decrease the number of positively charged ions within the cell.
62
Chapter 1
b. increase the number of positively charged ions within the cell. c. decrease the number of positively charged ions outside the cell. d. increase the number of negatively charged ions within the cell. ANS: A the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
109. What is one major cause for the resting potential of a neuron's membrane? a. a difference in size between axons and dendrites b. a high permeability of the membrane to water molecules c. the refractory period of the membrane d. the sodium-potassium pump ANS: D the Neuron MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
110. The sodium-potassium pump pumps sodium ions a. into the cell; into the cell b. into the cell; out of the cell c. out of the cell; out of the cell d. out of the cell; into the cell ANS: D the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
and potassium ions
.
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
111. The concentration gradient refers to: a. the fact that the concentration of ions is greater on the inside of a neuron. b. the fact that the concentration of ions is greater on the outside of a neuron. c. the difference in distribution for various ions between the inside and outside of the membrane. d. the negatively charged proteins inside the cell. ANS: C the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
112. What is meant by the term "concentration gradient" with respect to neurons? a. Sodium is more concentrated in the dendrites and potassium in the axon. b. Negative charges are more concentrated outside the cell. c. Sodium and potassium ions are more concentrated on opposite sides of the membrane. d. Potassium is more concentrated in the dendrites and sodium in the axon. ANS: C the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
113. Concentration gradients lead to what kind of movements? a. the general movement of ions into the neuron b. the general movement of ions out of the neuron c. the movement of ions to areas of their highest concentrations d. the movement of ions to areas of their lowest concentrations ANS: D the Neuron
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DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
The Major Issues
114. Which of the following events would increase the concentration gradient of sodium? a. decreased permeability to potassium ions b. increased activity of the sodium potassium pump c. increased membrane permeability to sodium ions d. increased membrane permeability to chloride ions ANS: B the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
115. The concentration gradient for potassium tends to: a. draw potassium into the cell. b. push chloride out of the cell. c. push sodium out of the cell. d. push potassium out of the cell. ANS: D the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
116. Which of the following is NOT true for sodium ions when the cell is at resting potential? a. Sodium ions remain outside the cell because the sodium- potassium pump drives them out. b. Sodium gates are tightly closed. c. Sodium tends to be driven into the neuron by the concentration gradient. d. Sodium tends to be driven out of the neuron by the electrical gradient. ANS: D the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
117. When the neuron is at rest, what is responsible for moving potassium ions OUT of the cell? a. a concentration gradient b. an electrical gradient c. both a concentration gradient and an electrical gradient d. the sodium-potassium pump ANS: A the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
118. When the neuron is at rest, what is responsible for moving potassium ions into the cell? a. concentration gradient b. an electrical gradient c. the sodium-potassium pump d. both the sodium-potassium pump and electrical gradient ANS: D the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
119. When a membrane is at rest, what attracts potassium ions to the inside of the cell? a. an electrical gradient b. a concentration gradient c. both an electrical gradient and a concentration gradient d. neither an electrical gradient nor a concentration gradient ANS: A
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Chapter 1
REF: The Resting Potential of
the Neuron
OBJ: 1
TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
120. When a membrane is at rest, what attracts sodium ions to the inside of the cell? a. an electrical gradient b. a concentration gradient c. both an electrical gradient and a concentration gradient d. neither an electrical gradient nor a concentration gradient ANS: C the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
121. When the neuron is at rest, what is responsible for moving sodium ions out of the cell? a. a concentration gradient b. an electrical gradient c. both a concentration gradient and an electrical gradient d. the sodium-potassium pump ANS: D the Neuron
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
122. Which of the following is an advantage of having a resting potential? a. The toxic effects of sodium are minimized inside the cell. b. No energy is required to maintain it. c. The cell is prepared to respond quickly to a stimulus. d. All of the ions are maintained in equal concentrations throughout the cytoplasm. ANS: C the Neuron OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
REF: The Resting Potential of
TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
123. Negatively charged ions like a. sodium b. chloride c. calcium d. potassium ANS: B the Neuron
DIF: factual
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
are mostly located outside the cell.
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
124. Ordinarily, stimulation of a neuron takes place: a. through hyperpolarization. b. at the synapse. c. in the mitochondria. d. in the endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
125. What is the result if a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a more negative potential? a. Hyperpolarization
65
The Major Issues
b. Depolarization c. an action potential d. a threshold ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
126. Hyperpolarization is: a. increased polarization. b. decreased polarization. c. the threshold of the cell. d. the resting potential of the cell. ANS: A OBJ: 3 127.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
Which of the following would produce a hyperpolarization of a neuron? a. applying a negative charge inside the neuron with a microelectrode b. applying a positive charge inside the neuron with a microelectrode c. increasing the membrane's permeability to sodium d. decreasing the membrane's permeability to potassium ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
128. What is the result if a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a potential slightly closer to zero? a. hyperpolarization b. depolarization c. selective permeability d. a refractory period ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
129. The neuron will produce an action potential only if the depolarization exceeds what level? a. the threshold of excitation b. the resting potential c. hyperpolarization d. the refractory period ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
130. A membrane produces an action potential whenever the potential across it reaches what level? a. the resting potential b. -90 mV c. the threshold of excitation d. the refractory period ANS: C OBJ: 3
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Chapter 1
REF: The Action Potential
131. If there is a depolarizing effect on a neuron, the result will be that the neuron will fire: a. no matter how slight the effect. b. forever. c. only if it reaches threshold. d. only if the cell is in its relative refractory period. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
132. The sodium gates in the axon are usually closed. Which of the following opens them? a. depolarization of the membrane b. increased concentration of socium outside the cell c. increased concentration of sodium inside the cell d. increased activity of the sodium-potassium pump ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential MSC: www
133. What tends to open the sodium gates across a neuron's membrane? a. hyperpolarization of the membrane b. depolarization of the membrane c. increase in the sodium concentration outside the neuron d. passing the peak of the action potential and entering the refractory period ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
134. What happens to the ion gates when the membrane of a neuron starts to be depolarized? a. Potassium gates close. b. Chloride gates open. c. Sodium gates close. d. Sodium gates open. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
135. Stimulus A depolarizes a neuron just barely above the threshold. Stimulus B depolarizes a neuron to 10 mV beyond threshold. What can we expect to happen? a. Stimulus B will produce an action potential that is conducted at a faster speed than A. b. Stimulus B will produce an action potential of greater magnitude than stimulus A. c. Stimulus B will produce an action potential but stimulus A will not. d. Stimulus A and stimulus B will produce the same response in the neurons. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
136. If depolarization is less than the cell's threshold: a. sodium is prevented from crossing the membrane. b. potassium is prevented from crossing the membrane.
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The Major Issues
REF: The Action Potential MSC: www
c. sodium crosses the membrane only slightly more than usual. d. the cell will still produce an action potential. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential MSC: www
137. Which of the following actions would depolarize a neuron? a. decreasing membrane permeability to calcium b. increasing membrane permeability to potassium c. decreasing membrane permeability to sodium d. increasing membrane permeability to sodium ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
138. Stimulation of a neuron beyond a certain level is called the: a. firing threshold b. hillock threshold c. threshold of excitation d. threshold of inhibition ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
139. The action potential of a neuron depends mostly on what movement of ions? a. sodium ions entering the cell b. sodium ions leaving the cell c. potassium ions entering the cell d. potassium ions leaving the cell ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
140. In the normal course of an action potential: a. sodium channel remain open for long periods of time. b. the concentration of sodium equalizes across the membrane. c. sodium remains much more concentrated outside than inside the neuron. d. subthreshold stimulation intensifies the action potential. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
141. Voltage-activated channels are channels for which a change in the voltage across the membrane alters their: a. permeability. b. length. c. number. d. threshold. ANS: A OBJ: 3
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse MSC:
Chapter 1
REF: The Action Potential www
142. At the peak of the action potential, the electrical gradient of potassium: a. is the same as during the resting potential. b. pulls sodium into the cell. c. pushes potassium out of the cell. d. pulls potassium into the cell. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential MSC: www
143. When the potential across a membrane reaches threshold, the sodium channels: a. open to let sodium enter the cell rapidly. b. close to prevent sodium from entering the cell. c. open to let sodium exit the cell rapidly. d. close to prevent sodium from exiting the cell. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
144. Suppose we applied a drug to a neuron that caused its sodium gates to suddenly open wide. What would happen? a. hyperpolarization of the membrane b. an increase in the threshold c. an action potential d. nothing, because potassium gates would compensate ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
145. During the entire course of events from the start of an action potential until the membrane returns to its resting potential, what is the net movement of ions? a. sodium in, potassium in b. sodium out, potassium out c. sodium in, potassium out d. sodium out, potassium in ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
146. A drug that blocks the sodium gates of a neuron's membrane would: a. decrease the threshold. b. block the action potential. c. cause repeated action potentials. d. eliminate the refractory period. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
147. After the peak of an action potential, what prevents sodium ions from continuing to enter the cell? a. There is no longer a concentration gradient for sodium. b. The sodium-potassium pump greatly increases its rate of activity.
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The Major Issues
c. All the available sodium ions have already entered the cell. d. The sodium gates in the membrane close. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
148. At what point do the sodium gates begin to close, shutting out further entry of sodium into the cell? a. at the peak of the action potential b. when the threshold is reached c. at the end of the relative refractory period d. when the concentration gradient for sodium is eliminated ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
149. Just after the peak of the action potential, what movement of ions restores the membrane to approximately the resting potential? a. Sodium ions enter the cell. b. Potassium ions enter the cell. c. Potassium ions leave the cell. d. Sodium ions travel down the axon. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
150. What causes potassium ions to leave the axon just after the peak of the action potential? a. a continuing concentration gradient and the opening of the potassium gates b. an increase in the concentration gradient across the membrane c. increased tendency of the sodium-potassium pump to pump potassium out d. binding of potassium ions to proteins that leave at this time ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
151. A drug that decreases the flow of potassium through the potassium gates of the membrane would: a. block action potentials. b. increase the threshold of the membrane. c. slow the return of the membrane to its resting potential. d. cause the membrane to be hyperpolarized. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
152. A drug would prevent an action potential if it: a. lowers the threshold of the membrane. b. blocks the movement of potassium across the membrane. c. blocks the movement of sodium across the membrane. d. increases the movement of sodium across the membrane. ANS: C OBJ: 3
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PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
Chapter 1
REF: The Action Potential
153. Local anesthetic drugs attach to the sodium channels of the membrane, which: a. allows sodium ions to enter and stop action potential. b. prevents potassium ions from entering and stopping action potential. c. allows potassium ions to enter and stop action potential. d. prevents sodium ions from entering and stopping action potential. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential KEY: NEW
154. Local anesthetic drugs, such as Novocain, work by: a. opening the potassium gates. b. blocking the sodium gates. c. inactivating the sodium-potassium pump. d. decreasing blood flow to certain areas of the brain. ANS: B OBJ: 3 155.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
Which of the following represents the all-or-none law? a. Every depolarization produces an action potential. b. Every hyperpolarization produces an action potential. c. The size of the action potential is independent of the strength of the stimulus that initiated it. d. Every depolarization reaches the threshold, even if it fails to produce an action potential. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
156. The all-or-none law states that: a. a neuron produces an action potential of maximal strength, or none at all. b. all neurons fire or none at all. c. all neurons in a pathway fire at the same time, or none do. d. all ions move in the same direction, or none do. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
157. The all-or-none law applies to: a. cell bodies of neurons. b. dendrites. c. axons. d. all parts of a neuron. ANS: C OBJ: 3
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
The Major Issues
REF: The Action Potential
158. The presence of an all-or-none law suggests that neurons can only convey different messages by changing their: a. rate or pattern of action potentials. b. size of action potentials. c. speed of action potentials. d. sodium-potassium pump activity. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential MSC: www
159. According to the all-or-none law: a. all neurons produce an action potential at the same time or none at all. b. all of the extracellular sodium enters the axon, or none at all. c. once an axon reaches threshold, the amplitude and velocity of an action potential are nearly equal each time. d. neurons are either active all the time or not at all. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
160. The primary feature of a neuron that prevents the action potential from traveling back from where it just passed is the: a. concentration gradient. b. refractory period. c. sodium potassium pump. d. phospholipid bilayer. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
161. Under what conditions is it impossible for a stimulus to produce an action potential? a. if the membrane is in its absolute refractory period b. if it occurs at the same time as a hyperpolarizing stimulus c. if sodium ions are more concentrated outside the cell than inside d. if the potassium gates have been blocked ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
162. Which feature of a neuron limits the number of action potentials it can produce per second? a. the threshold b. the refractory period c. saltatory conduction d. the length of the axon ANS: B OBJ: 3
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
Chapter 1
REF: The Action Potential
163. A neuron's sodium gates are firmly closed and the membrane cannot produce an action potential during: a. the absolute refractory period. b. the relative refractory period. c. depolarization. d. saltatory conduction. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
164. During the relative refractory period: a. the sodium gates are firmly closed. b. the sodium gates are reverting to their usual state. c. the sodium gates are wide open. d. the potassium gates are firmly closed. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Action Potential
165. Where do most action potentials begin? a. in the dendrites b. in the cell body c. at the axon hillock d. at the tip of the axon ANS: C Action Potential
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Propagation of the TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
166. What happens once an action potential starts? a. It is conducted the rest of the way as an electrical current. b. It needs additional stimulation to keep it going along the axon. c. It increases in speed as it goes. d. It is regenerated at other points along the axon. ANS: D Action Potential
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Propagation of the TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
167. What will affect the speed of an action potential? a. the strength of the stimulus b. the time since the last action potential c. the length of the axon d. the resistance of the membrane ANS: D Action Potential MSC: www
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Propagation of the TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
The Major Issues
168. What will NOT affect the speed of an action potential? a. the presence of myelin b. the diameter of the axon c. the length of the axon d. the number of sodium gates ANS: C Action Potential
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Propagation of the TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
169. How is the speed of an action potential down an unmyelinated axon BEST described? a. the speed of electricity, regardless of the size of the axon b. less than 1 meter per second, regardless of the size of the axon c. faster in thin axons than in thick ones d. faster in thick axons than in thin ones ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4 TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: The Myelin Sheath and
170. The presence of myelin and the diameter of the axon: a. affect the strength and frequency of the stimulus b. affect the speed of an action potential c. affect the strength of an action potential d. affect the frequency of an action potential ANS: B PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
171. Which two factors affect the speed of an action potential? a. the strength and frequency of the stimulus b. the location of the cell body and the length of the axon c. the length and diameter of the axon d. the presence of myelin and the diameter of the axon ANS: D PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse KEY: NEW
172. The function of a myelin sheath is to: a. prevent action potentials from traveling in the wrong direction. b. increase the velocity of transmission along an axon. c. increase the magnitude of an action potential. d. provide a store of nutrients for the neuron. ANS: B PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
173. If you were to stub your toe and feel the pressure a second or two before you feel the pain, then which of the following statements is most likely true? a. Pain sensitive neurons are large and myelinated. b. Pain sensitive neurons are longer. c. Pressure sensitive neurons are small and lightly myelinated. d. Pressure sensitive neurons are large and myelinated.
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ANS: D PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
174. What are the nodes of Ranvier? a. gates in the membrane that admit all ions freely b. gaps in the myelin sheath c. branching points in an axon d. places where dendrites join the cell body ANS: B PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse MSC: www
175. The myelin sheath is interrupted periodically by short sections of axon called: a. axon gaps b. nodes of Cajal c. axon nodes d. nodes of Ranvier ANS: D PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
176. In a myelinated axon, where are sodium gates abundant? a. in the areas covered by myelin b. at the nodes of Ranvier c. throughout the axon d. only in the axon hillock ANS: B PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
177. To what does saltatory conduction refer? a. the production of an action potential by the movement of sodium ions b. the transmission of an impulse along a myelinated axon c. the transmission of impulses along dendrites d. the transmission of an impulse between one neuron and another ANS: B PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
178. Saltatory conduction the velocity of action potentials and the neuron. a. decreases; decreases b. decreases; increases c. increases; decreases d. increases; increases ANS: C PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
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the amount of energy used by
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
The Major Issues
179. How does saltatory conduction affect energy use in a neuron? a. It eliminates the need for action potentials. b. It increases the duration of the refractory period. c. It reduces the frequency of action potentials. d. It reduces the work load for the sodium-potassium pump. ANS: D PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
180. What disease is related to the destruction of myelin sheaths? a. multiple sclerosis b. cystic fibrosis c. myasthenia gravis d. Parkinson's disease ANS: A PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
181. In what way is a myelinated axon that has lost its myelin (through disease) different from an axon that was never myelinated? a. It has a smaller diameter. b. It lacks sodium gates along parts of its surface. c. It has a longer refractory period. d. It has a much higher threshold. ANS: B PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse Conduction
182. Multiple sclerosis is one of several: a. blood-brain disorders b. neuron diseases c. demyelinating diseases d. movement disorders ANS: C PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
183. Which of the following is NOT governed by the all-or-none law? a. unmyelinated axons b. myelinated axons c. motor neurons d. local neurons ANS: D PTS: 1 Saltatory Conduction OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
184. In what direction does a local neuron transmit information? a. through its dendrites to cell body to axon b. through its axon to cell body to dendrites c. only toward the cell body d. equally well in any direction
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Chapter 1
ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: Local Neurons
185. Which of the following describes the transmission of information in a local neuron? a. The signal decreases in strength as it travels. b. The signal increases in strength as it travels. c. The signal strength remains constant as it travels. d. Local neurons do not transmit any information. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: Local Neurons
186. Why are local neurons more difficult to study? a. There are so few of them that they are difficult to find. b. They are so small. c. They exist only in humans, so there are ethical considerations. d. They die if separated from other neurons. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: Local Neurons
187. Which of the following is TRUE of local neurons? a. They exchange information with distant neurons. b. They abide by the all-or-none principle. c. The change in membrane potential increases as it travels. d. They have short dendrites and axons. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: Local Neurons
188. A local neuron: a. has an axon approximately a meter long. b. conveys information to other neurons across great distances. c. is a small neuron with no axon or a very short one. d. has an axon with many branches far from the cell body. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 2.2 The Nerve Impulse
REF: Local Neurons
SHORT ANSWER 1. List the parts of a neuron. ANS: Dendrites, a soma (cell body), an axon, and presynaptic terminals. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
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DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons and Glia TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
The Major Issues
2. Briefly describe glial cells. ANS: They are the other major components of the nervous system. They do not transmit information over long distances as neurons do, although they do exchange chemicals with adjacent neurons. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons and Glia TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
3. Briefly describe the structure of the blood-brain barrier and why it is important. ANS: Tightly joined endothelial cells form the capillary walls in the brain, making the blood-brain barrier. This protects the brain from harmful viruses, bacteria, and chemicals that might otherwise be able to enter the brain and cause damage. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Blood-Brain Barrier TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
4. The electrical gradient of a neuron membrane refers to what? ANS: A difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of the cell. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of the Neuron TOP: 2.1 The Nerve Impulse
5. What would happen to the resting potential if a neuron's membrane was always completely permeable to charged ions? ANS: The freedom of movement would allow the ions to equalize on either side of the membrane, causing the resting potential to disappear. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Resting Potential of the Neuron TOP: 2.1 The Nerve Impulse
6. Briefly describe the all-or-none law of action potentials. ANS: Once a neuron reaches the threshold of activation, the action potential is conducted all of the way down the axon without loss of intensity. Furthermore, the magnitude of the action potential is roughly the same every time and is independent of the intensity of the stimulus that initiated it. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
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DIF: factual REF: The Action Potential TOP: 2.1 The Nerve Impulse
Chapter 1
7. What is saltatory conduction? ANS: The jumping of action potentials from node to node . PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: The Myelin Sheath and Saltatory Conduction TOP: 2.1 The Nerve Impulse
ESSAY 1. Briefly describe how the brain transports essential chemicals. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Anatomy of Neurons and Glia TOP: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System
2. Describe the aspects of the resting potential. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: The Resting Potential of the Neuron TOP: 2.1 The Nerve Impulse
3. Why do neurons have a resting potential? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 6
DIF: conceptual REF: The Nerve Impulse TOP: 2.2 Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses
4. Briefly describe the function of voltage-gated channels. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 MSC: www
DIF: conceptual REF: 41 TOP: 2.1 The Nerve Impulse
5. Briefly describe the refractory period of a neuron. ANS:
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The Major Issues
The Action Potential
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: The Action Potential TOP: 2.1 The Nerve Impulse
Chapter 3: Synapses TRUE/FALSE 1. Transmission of information between neurons occurs in the same way as transmission along the axon. ANS: F Synapses MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
2. A reflex arc consists only of sensory neurons. ANS: F Synapses MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
3. Only sensory neurons are found in a reflex arc. ANS: F Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
4. Reflexive flexion and extension of a dog's legs can still occur when the spinal cord is disconnected from the brain. ANS: T Synapses OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
5. At synapses, the cell that receives the message is called the presynaptic neuron. ANS: F Synapses OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
6. At synapses, the cell that delivers the message is called the presynaptic neuron. ANS: T Synapses OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
7. Electrical communication between neurons is faster than chemical communication within neurons.
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Chapter 1
ANS: T Synapses OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
8. Chemical communication between neurons is faster than electrical communication within neurons. ANS: F Synapses OBJ: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
9. The amount of temporal summation depends on the rate of stimulation. ANS: T Synapses OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
10. Most excitatory post-synaptic potentials result in an action potential. ANS: F Synapses OBJ: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
11. Graded potentials can be depolarizations or hyperpolarizations. ANS: T Synapses OBJ: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
MSC: www 12. Spatial summation is the result of synaptic inputs from different locations arriving at the same time. ANS: T Synapses OBJ: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
13. Inhibitory synapses actively suppress excitatory responses. ANS: T Synapses OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: The Properties of
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
14. Most neurons have a spontaneous firing rate, a periodic production of action potentials even without synaptic input. ANS: T
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PTS: 1
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Relationship Among
EPSP, IPSP, and Action Potentials OBJ: 3 TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
15. Some neurotransmitters are monoamines. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse OBJ: 2 TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse 16. Gases can be used as neurotransmitters. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse OBJ: 2 TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse MSC: www 17. Neurotransmitter levels in the brain can be affected by changes in diet. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse OBJ: 3 TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse 18. Most of the known neurotransmitters are synthesized from amino acids. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse OBJ: 3 TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse
19. Most neurons release more than one kind of neurotransmitter. ANS: T PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
20. Generally speaking, a neuron will release a greater number of neurotransmitters than what it will respond to with its own receptors. ANS: F PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
21. Whether or not a neurotransmitter is excitatory depends on the response of the postsynaptic receptor. ANS: T PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
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Chapter 1
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
22. Rapid changes in heart rate are probably due to the activity of ionotropic receptors. ANS: T PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 5
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
23. Most of the brain’s excitatory ionotropic synapses use the neurotransmitter glutamate. ANS: T PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
24. Metabotropic synapses use a large variety of transmitters. ANS: T PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 8
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
25. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is an antagonist. ANS: T OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.1 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
26. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is an agonist. ANS: F OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.1 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
27. Unlike studies with animals, MDMA in humans is harmless to serotonin neurons. ANS: F Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.1 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
28. Opiates work at the pain receptors in the skin. ANS: F Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.1 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
29. Marijuana is used medically to enhance memory. ANS: F Drugs OBJ:
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PTS: 1 4 TOP:
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused 3.1 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
The Major Issues
MSC: www
30. Marijuana withdrawal is more intense than opiate withdrawal. ANS: F Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.1 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Charles S. Sherrington was the first to infer the properties of which of the following? a. synapses b. the refractory period c. the sodium-potassium pump d. dendrites and axons ANS: A Synapses 2. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
are specialized junctions between neurons. Nodes of Ranvier Synapses Dendrites Spines
ANS: B Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
3. Specialized junctions between neurons are called: a. nodes of Ranvier. b. spines. c. dendrites. d. synapses. ANS: D Synapses MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
4. On the basis of what evidence were the properties of synapses first inferred? a. the electron microscope b. single-neuron recordings c. behavioral observations d. PET scans ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
5. The circuit from sensory neuron to muscle response is called: a. a reflex arc.
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b. a synapse. c. flexion. d. extension. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Properties of Synapses OBJ: 1 TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse 6. The proper order of a reflex arc is: a. motor neuron, sensory neuron, interneuron. b. sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron. c. motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron. d. sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron. ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
7. Why is the speed of conduction through a reflex arc slower than the speed of conduction of an action potential along an axon? a. Transmission between neurons at synapses is slower than along axons. b. The longer an axon, the slower its velocity. c. Interneurons have thicker axons than other neurons. d. There are greater amounts of myelin involved in the reflex arc. ANS: A Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
8. Sherrington deduced that transmission at a synapse must be slower than conduction along an axon. This was based on what kind of evidence? a. temporal summation b. drugs that increase or inhibit activity at synapses c. the speed of reflexive responses d. differences in diameter between axons and dendrites ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
9. A certain weak stimulus produces no reflexive response, but a rapid repetition of that stimulus may produce such a response. What is this phenomenon called? a. spatial summation b. temporal summation c. saltatory conduction d. synaptic combination ANS: B Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
10. Sherrington found that repeated stimuli within a brief time have a cumulative effect. He referred to this phenomenon as: a. temporal summation b. spatial summation c. synaptic summation d. saltatory summation
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ANS: A Synapses MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
11. Temporal summation most likely occurs with: a. infrequent, subthreshold excitation. b. rapid succession of stimuli that each exceed threshold. c. infrequent, inhibitory stimuli. d. rapid succession of subthreshold excitation. ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
12. Which of the following statements regarding reflexes would Charles Sherrington most likely agree with? a. The overall speed of conduction through a reflex arc is faster than conduction along an axon. b. Repeated stimuli occurring within a brief time can have a cumulative effect. c. Each neuron physically merges with the next one. d. Excitatory synapses are more important than inhibitory synapses. ANS: B Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
13. To measure temporal summation in single cells, researchers: a. attach electrodes to the scalp. b. insert an microelectrode into the scalp. c. collect sodium and potassium ions from nearby glial cells. d. record depolarizations of the postsynaptic neuron. ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
14. A graded depolarization is known as an: a. EPIP b. IPSP c. ESPN d. EPSP ANS: D Synapses KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
15. Which of the following is TRUE about EPSPs? a. It takes two to produce an action potential. b. They decay over time and space. c. They can be either excitatory or inhibitory. d. They occur because potassium gates open. ANS: B
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DIF: 51
Chapter 1
REF: The Properties of
Synapses MSC: www
OBJ: 2
TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
16. An EPSP is a(n): a. graded depolarization. b. depolarization with a rebounding hyperpolarization. c. graded hyperpolarization. d. action potential in a reflex arc. ANS: A Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
17. Which of the following is NOT true about EPSPs? a. They decay over time. b. Their strength decreases with distance. c. They operate on an all-or-none principle. d. They are depolarizations. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Properties of Synapses OBJ: 2 TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse 18. The primary difference between an EPSP and an action potential is that: a. the magnitude of an action potential decreases as it travels along the membrane. b. EPSPs occur without sodium ions entering the cell. c. action potentials are always hyperpolarizations. d. EPSPs are subthreshold events that decay over time and space. ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
19. Depolarization is to as hyperpolarization is to a. excitation; inhibition b. inhibition; excitation c. increasing the threshold; decreasing the threshold d. decreasing the threshold; increasing the threshold ANS: A Synapses MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
.
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
20. What causes an EPSP? a. the deactivation of cytoplasmic enzymes b. the opening of sodium channels c. the opening of potassium channels d. inherited paranormal psychic abilities ANS: B Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
21. Like an action potential, an EPSP results from:
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The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
sodium ions entering the cell. potassium ions entering the cell. sodium ions exiting the cell. potassium ions exiting the cell.
ANS: A Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
22. Which of the following would produce spatial summation? a. Present two or more weak stimuli at the same time. b. Start action potentials at both ends of one axon at the same time. c. Do not allow a flexor muscle to relax before stimulating it again. d. Present a rapid sequence of weak stimuli. ANS: A Synapses MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
23. Spatial summation refers to: a. multiple weak stimulations that occur in rapid succession. b. a decrease in responsiveness after repeated stimulation. c. multiple weak stimulations that occur at the same time. d. an increase in the strength of action potentials after repeated stimulation. ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
24. What is the primary difference between temporal summation and spatial summation? a. Only spatial summation can produce an action potential. b. Spatial summation depends on contributions from more than one sensory neuron. c. Temporal summation produces a hyperpolarization instead of a depolarization. d. Spatial summation alters the response of more than one postsynaptic cell. ANS: B Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
25. Simultaneous weak stimuli at different locations produce a greater reflexive response than one of the stimuli by itself. What is this phenomenon called? a. Sherrington's law b. temporal summation c. spatial summation d. the all-or-none law ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
26. What do temporal summation and spatial summation have in common? a. Both involve the activity of only two neurons. b. Both require a response from the brain. c. Both depend on a combination of visual and auditory stimuli. d. Both enable a reflex to occur in response to weak stimuli.
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ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
27. Temporal summation is to as spatial summation is to a. time, location b. EPSP, IPSP c. location, time d. depolarization, hyperpolarization ANS: A Synapses KEY: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
.
DIF: conceptual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
28. Which of the following patterns of post-synaptic excitation will most likely result in an action potential? a. rapid sequence of EPSPs b. rapid sequence of IPSPs c. large number of simultaneous IPSPs d. large number of simultaneous IPSPs and EPSPs ANS: A Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
29. When a vertebrate animal contracts the flexor muscles of a leg, it relaxes the extensor muscles of the same leg. Sherrington considered this evidence for the existence of: a. spatial summation. b. temporal summation. c. inhibitory messages. d. the delay in transmission at synapses. ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
30. What ordinarily prevents extensor muscles from contracting at the same time as flexor muscles? a. the ligaments and tendons that bind them together b. learned patterns of coordination in the cerebral cortex c. inhibitory synapses in the spinal cord d. control of both muscles by different branches of the same axon. ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
31. In a reflex arc, the coordination between contraction of certain muscles and relaxation of others is mediated by: a. glial cells. b. motor neurons. c. sensory neurons. d. interneurons.
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ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
32. A normal, healthy animal never contracts the flexor muscles and the extensor muscles of the same leg at the same time. Why not? a. When the interneuron sends excitatory messages to one, inhibitory messages go to the other. b. They are mechanically connected in a way that makes it impossible for both to contract at the same time. c. Such coordination is learned through prenatal movement. d. Both muscles are controlled by branches of the same axon. ANS: A Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
33. Inhibitory synapses on a neuron: a. hyperpolarize the postsynaptic cell. b. weaken the cell's polarization. c. increase the probability of an action potential. d. move the potential closer to the cell's threshold. ANS: A Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
34. A temporary hyperpolarization is known as an: a. EPSP. b. IPSP. c. ISPS. d. EPIP. ANS: B of Synapses KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual R REF: The Properties TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
35. Which of the following would most likely result in an IPSP? a. potassium ions entering the cell b. sodium ions entering the cell c. chloride ions entering the cell d. chloride ions leaving the cell ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
36. Increased permeability to which of the following ions would most likely result in an IPSP? a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. bicarbonate
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ANS: B Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
37. An IPSP represents: a. the location where a dendrite branches. b. a gap in a myelin sheath. c. a subthreshold depolarization. d. a temporary hyperpolarization. ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
38. Increased permeability to a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. bicarbonate ANS: B Synapses
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse would most likely result in an IPSP.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
39. An EPSP is to as an IPSP is to . a. hyperpolarization; depolarization b. depolarization; hyperpolarization c. spatial summation; temporal summation d. temporal summation; spatial summation ANS: B Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
40. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining whether or not two EPSPs combine to reach threshold? a. size of the EPSPs b. timing between them c. threshold of the postsynaptic cell d. threshold of the presynaptic cell ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
41. Even at rest, most neurons have periodic production of action potentials, known as the: a. spontaneous firing rate. b. excitatory firing rate. c. all-or-none law. d. Dale’s principle. ANS: A Synapses
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DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
The Major Issues
42. The “decision” for a neuron to fire is determined by the: a. number of EPSPs only. b. spontaneous firing rate. c. number of IPSPs only. d. ratio of EPSPs to IPSPs. ANS: D Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
43. The "spontaneous firing rate" of a neuron refers to: a. its resting potential. b. its rate of energy consumption. c. its rate of producing action potentials even when it is not stimulated. d. the velocity of its action potentials under normal conditions. ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
44. Which of the following is TRUE about the spontaneous firing rates of neurons? a. EPSPs increase the frequency. b. EPSPs decrease the frequency. c. IPSPs increase the frequency. d. One EPSP equals the effect of two IPSPs. ANS: A Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual TOP: 3.1 Synapses
REF: The Properties of
45. What determines whether a neuron has an action potential? a. only the number of EPSPs impinging on an axon b. only the number of IPSPs impinging on the dendrites c. the combined effects of EPSPs and IPSPs d. summation effects of IPSPs ANS: C Synapses
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual TOP: 3.1 Synapses
REF: The Properties of
46. Which one of Sherrington's inferences about the synapse was WRONG? a. Transmission at a synapse is slower than transmission of impulses along an axon. b. Transmission at the synapse is primarily an electrical process. c. Synapses can be either excitatory or inhibitory. d. Synapses make spatial summation and temporal summation possible. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Transmission at Synapses the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: The Discovery of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
47. What was the first evidence reported by T. R. Elliott suggesting that synapses operate chemically? a. Adrenaline mimics the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. b. Adrenaline decreases heart rate. c. Adrenaline produces a hormone which decreases heart rate. d. Adrenaline mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system.
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ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Transmission at Synapses the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: The Discovery of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
48. Loewi demonstrated that synapses operate by the release of chemicals. He did this by: a. applying adrenaline directly to the heart muscle. b. collecting fluid from a stimulated frog's heart, transferring it to another frog's heart, and measuring that heart rate. c. measuring the speed of a dog's reflexes while the dog was under the influence of various drugs. d. applying an extract of marijuana in eye drops and discovering that it dilated the pupils. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Transmission at Synapses the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: The Discovery of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
49. The research that firmly established synaptic communication as chemical was: a. Elliot's adrenaline mimicking sympathetic activation. b. Loewi's transfer of fluid from stimulated frog hearts. c. Sherrington's study of reflexes. d. Eccles's measurement of IPSPs. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Transmission at Synapses the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: The Discovery of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
50. After one frog's heart has been stimulated, an extract of fluid from that heart can make a second frog's heart beat faster. What conclusion did Otto Loewi draw from these results? a. Transmission at synapses is a chemical event. b. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are antagonistic. c. Transmission at heart muscle synapses is electrical. d. Hormones facilitate the actions of the nervous system. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Transmission at Synapses the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: The Discovery of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
51. The correct sequence of chemical events at a synapse is: a. reuptake, release, transport, synthesis b. synthesis, transport, release, reuptake c. transport, release, reuptake, synthesis d. recycle, reuse, release, return ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse 53.
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
are a category of chemicals including adenosine and several of its derivatives. a. Neuropeptides b. Acetylcholine
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c. Monoamines d. Purines ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
54. What is the most unusual thing about the neurotransmitter nitric oxide (NO)? a. It is found only in sensory neurons. b. It is both excitatory and inhibitory. c. It is normally a poisonous gas. d. It is also known as "laughing gas." ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
55. Nitric oxide's value is that it: a. increases blood flow to certain areas of the brain. b. restricts blood flow to certain areas of the brain. c. increases growth of microglia. d. decreases growth of microglia. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
56. Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by active neurons to dilate the blood vessels and increase blood flow? a. endorphins b. glycine c. nitric oxide d. acetylcholine ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
57. In addition to influencing other neurons,
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
dilates the nearby blood vessels, thereby
increasing blood flow to that area of the brain. a. b. c. d.
endorphins glycine nitric oxide acetylcholine
ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
58. What provides the building blocks for synthesizing all neurotransmitters? a. substances found in the diet
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b. breakdown products of DNA c. breakdown products formed from other transmitters d. methane and ethanol ANS: A Synapse
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual TOP: 3.2 Synapses
REF: Chemical Events at the
59. The basic building blocks for the majority of neurotransmitters are: a. amino acids. b. nitric oxide. c. sugars. d. carbohydrates. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
60. All of the following are catecholamines EXCEPT: a. dopamine. b. serotonin. c. norepinephrine. d. epinephrine. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
61. Which of the following is NOT a catecholamine? a. Dopamine b. Epinephrine c. Norepinephrine d. Serotonin ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
62. The catecholamines include: a. epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin. b. epinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine. c. dopamine, serotonin, and acetylcholine. d. epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine. ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 2 MSC: www
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
63. A new drug is discovered that affects the activity of enzymes. Which of the following stages of synaptic transmission is most likely to be affected? a. Synthesis b. Diffusion c. action potential d. Release
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ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
64. What makes nitric oxide unique among neurotransmitters? a. It is released before the action potential occurs. b. It is taken back up into the presynaptic neuron. c. It is a gas. d. It is composed of amino acids. ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
65. What do dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine share in common? a. They all affect the same receptors. b. They are all synthesized from the same amino acids. c. They are all released by the same neurons. d. They all are gases. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
66. Avoiding foods with lecithin, such as eggs and peanuts, would affect which neurotransmitter level the most? a. acetylcholine b. serotonin c. GABA d. endorphin ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
67. The amino acid tryptophan is the precursor to which neurotransmitter? a. dopamine b. endorphin c. serotonin d. nitric oxide ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
68. After a meal that was rich in the amino acid tryptophan, which neurotransmitter level would be increased the most? a. dopamine b. endorphin
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c. serotonin d. nitric oxide ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
69. If you eat a food containing tryptophan, what can you consume with it to increase its entry to the brain? a. phenylalanine b. carbohydrates c. fats d. thiamine ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
70. Dopamine and norepinephrine are classified as: a. second messengers. b. purines. c. proteins. d. catecholamines. ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
71. Insulin increases the entry of tryptophan into the brain by: a. weakening the blood-brain barrier. b. converting tryptophan into a compound that more easily enters the brain. c. increasing metabolic activity only in those areas of the brain that use tryptophan. d. causing certain competing amino acids to enter other cells, outside the brain. ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
72. Acetylcholine is synthesized in the: a. postsynaptic terminal. b. presynaptic terminal. c. cell body. d. dendrites. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
73. The presynaptic terminal stores high concentrations of neurotransmitter molecules in: a. axons b. vesicles c. peptides
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The Major Issues
d. dendrites ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
74. Large neurotransmitters are synthesized in the: a. postsynaptic terminal. b. presynaptic terminal. c. cell body. d. dendrites. ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
75. Although slower than an action potential, synaptic transmission is still relatively fast because: a. the synaptic cleft is very narrow. b. sodium ions are transported quickly. c. neurotransmitters diffuse faster than electricity. d. EPSPs travel faster than IPSPs. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
76. Vesicles are located: a. in postsynaptic terminals. b. in dendrites. c. in presynaptic terminals. d. outside of the neuron in the extracellular fluid. ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
78. The tiny packets that contain neurotransmitters in the presynaptic neuron are called: a. vesicles. b. bags. c. sacs. d. terminals. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
79. High concentrations of all neurotransmitters, except for NO, are stored in the: a. presynaptic terminals. b. postsynaptic terminals. c. axon. d. cell body.
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ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
80. When an action potential reaches the end of an axon, it evokes the release of neurotransmitters by opening channels in the axon terminal. a. chloride b. bicarbonate c. calcium d. oxygen ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
81. When an action potential reaches the end of an axon, the depolarization causes what ionic movement in the presynaptic cell? a. sodium out of the cell b. lithium out of the cell c. iron into the cell d. calcium into the cell ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
82. An action potential causes the release of neurotransmitters by: a. blocking potassium pores in the membrane. b. opening chloride pores in the membrane. c. blocking iron pores in the membrane. d. opening calcium pores in the membrane. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse OBJ: 4 TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse 83. The release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic terminal is most dependent on the influx of what ion? a. sodium b. potassium c. chloride d. calcium ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
84. The neuron excretes neurotransmitter through its membrane by a process called: a. Dale's principle. b. exocytosis.
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c. endocytosis. d. voltage-dependent flow. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Chemical Events at a Synapse OBJ: 4 the Synapse 85. Exocytosis is the process by which neurotransmitters are: a. excreted into the synaptic cleft. b. synthesized. c. destroyed. d. secreted into synaptic vesicles. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
86. Given a repetitive series of action potentials in a given neuron, we can expect that: a. each action potential will release the same amount of neurotransmitter. b. later action potentials in a series will release more neurotransmitter than the first. c. many action potentials will fail to release any neurotransmitters at all. d. some action potentials will release one chemical as the neurotransmitter, and others will release other chemicals. ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
87. What is the synaptic cleft? a. the gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron b. a packet that stores neurotransmitter molecules c. a subthreshold depolarization d. the storage location for calcium ions ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
88. What happens when a neurotransmitter is released by a presynaptic cell? a. It causes calcium to rush into the presynaptic neuron. b. It causes calcium to rush into the postsynaptic neuron. c. The neurotransmitter passively spreads across the synaptic cleft. d. The neurotransmitter is actively transported across the synaptic cleft. ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse 89. In general, a single neuron releases neurotransmitter(s). a. one; many b. dozens of; only one c. several; only one
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DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
neurotransmitter(s) and can respond to
Chapter 1
d. several; many ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
90. In most cases, how many neurotransmitters can activate a postsynaptic neuron? a. only one neurotransmitter b. any neurotransmitter c. several transmitters, with different synapses responding to different transmitters d. several transmitters, which must be received simultaneously ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
91. The main advantage of a neuron releasing more than one neurotransmitter is that: a. if it runs out of one, it has others. b. it can release different transmitters on different occasions. c. it can send more complex messages. d. it can release one from the axon's terminal and one from another location along the axon. ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
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92. What determines the effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic neuron? a. the speed the action potential traveled down the axon b. the number of branches of the presynaptic axon c. the receptors on the postsynaptic membrane d. the distance between the synapse and the cell body ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
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93. A neurotransmitter receptor is: a. a protein embedded in the membrane. b. a channel in the membrane. c. found only on the soma. d. activated similarly for all neurotransmitters. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
94. A receptor can directly open a channel exerting a(n) longer effects. a. gated; metabotropic b. ionotropic; gated c. metabotropic; ionotropic d. ionotropic; metabotropic
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effect or it can produce slower but
The Major Issues
ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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95. What does it mean to say that acetylcholine exerts ionotropic effects? a. It opens gates for a particular ion. b. It alters the permeability of the presynaptic neuron. c. It increases the concentration of ions within the vesicles. d. It changes the electrical charge of sodium ions from positive to negative. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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96. Which of the following actions is most likely to be dependent on ionotropic effects? a. gradual sleepiness b. hormone release c. hunger d. rapid muscle contraction ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 5
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97. Glutamate opens sodium gates, enabling sodium ions to enter the postsynaptic cell. What is this effect called? a. metabotropic b. ionotropic c. modulatory d. orthodromic ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse 98. The neurotransmitter GABA exerts a. ionotropic; excitatory b. ionotropic; inhibitory c. metabotropic; excitatory d. metabotropic; inhibitory ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse MSC: www
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 5
effects, and its effects are almost always
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
99. Ionotropic effects: a. depolarize the postsynaptic membrane. b. hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane. c. may depolarize or hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane. d. enhance the reabsorption of neurotransmitters.
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ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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100. Ionotropic effects are characterized by: a. rapid, short-lived effects. b. rapid, long lasting effects. c. excitatory only. d. inhibitory only. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
101. Which of the following characterizes ionotropic effects? a. rapid, short-lived effects b. rapid, long lasting effects c. excitatory only d. inhibitory only ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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102. Few pianists can play quickly enough to play the Minute Waltz in a minute. The finger movements that are required are likely to involve which type of neurotransmitter effects? a. ionotropic effects b. metabotropic effects c. second messenger effects d. neuromodulator effects ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 5
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103. Compared to ionotropic effects, metabotropic effects are: a. quicker and briefer. b. slower and briefer. c. quicker and longer-lasting. d. slower and longer-lasting. ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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104. Which of the following is more typical of a metabotropic effect than an ionotropic effect? a. produces inhibitory effects on the postsynaptic cell b. influences the speed of conduction by the postsynaptic cell c. produces long-lasting effects on the post-synaptic cell d. controls sensory processes ANS: C
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OBJ: 5
105. Neurotransmitter is to as cyclic AMP is to a. first messenger, second messenger b. second messenger, first messenger c. metabotropic, ionotropic d. receptor, neuromodulator ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
.
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 5
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106. Which effect is consistently associated with a "second messenger"? a. ionotropic b. metabotropic c. inhibitory d. excitatory ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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107. Receptor molecules for neurotransmitters that exert metabotropic effects are proteins that bind to outside the membrane, and attach to inside the membrane. a. calcium; potassium b. neurotransmitters; nicotine c. neurotransmitters; G-proteins d. adenosine; nitric oxide ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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108. The second messenger communicates to areas: a. outside the cleft b. in the cleft c. within the cell d. outside the cell ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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109. "Second messengers" carry their messages to: a. the presynaptic membrane. b. areas within the postsynaptic cell. c. areas within the presynaptic cell. d. the surrounding glia. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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MSC: www
110. A metabotropic synapse, by way of its second messenger, . a. has effects localized to one point on the membrane b. can influence activity in much of the presynaptic cell c. can influence activity in much or all of the postsynaptic cell d. has minimal effect on the postsynaptic cell ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 5
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111. Suppose a new neurotransmitter is identified that does not excite or inhibit postsynaptic cells, but affects the release of other neurotransmitters or the sensitivity of postsynaptic cells. This neurotransmitter would most likely be categorized as a(n): a. neuromodulator. b. ionotropic modulator. c. hormone. d. gas. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 5
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112. Many neurons release neuropeptides mostly from the: a. vesicles b. nodes c. axons d. dendrites ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 5
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113. A hormone is a chemical that is: a. secreted by a gland to the outside world. b. conveyed by the blood to other organs, whose activity it influences. c. capable of activating or inhibiting muscle fibers. d. a feedback message from the postsynaptic neuron to the presynaptic neuron. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse 114. A chemical is called a(n) a. hormone b. neurotransmitter c. neuromodulator d. endocrine
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when it flows through the blood to targets throughout the body.
The Major Issues
ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 6
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115. Hormones exert their effects: a. similarly to metabotropic neurotransmitters. b. similarly to ionotropic neurotransmitters. c. by attaching to special receptors on muscle fibers. d. by being metabolized by presynaptic cells and thus converted into neurotransmitters. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 6
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DIF: factual OBJ: 7
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116. The anterior pituitary is composed of: a. glandular tissue. b. neural tissue. c. vaso tissue. d. lymph tissue. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse 117. The anterior pituitary is composed of a. glandular tissue; neural tissue b. neural tissue; glandular tissue c. neural tissue; neural tissue d. glandular tissue; glandular tissue ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
and the posterior pituitary is composed of
DIF: factual OBJ: 7
118. Releasing hormones are synthesized in the a. anterior pituitary; bloodstream b. hypothalamus; anterior pituitary c. hypothalamus; posterior pituitary d. posterior pituitary; hypothalamus ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
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and released in the
DIF: factual OBJ: 7
.
.
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119. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) controls: a. secretions of the gonads. b. secretions of the mammary glands. c. secretions of the thyroid gland. d. secretions of the adrenal cortex. ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 7
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120. What is the function of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase? a. It synthesizes acetylcholine from the diet. b. It increases the sensitivity of the postsynaptic cell to acetylcholine. c. It blocks further release of the transmitter acetylcholine. d. It breaks acetylcholine down into components for recycling. ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 7
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121. Suppose you were bitten by a black widow spider whose venom increases the release of acetylcholine from the presynaptic terminal. Which of the following treatments would be most effective? a. Bite the spider back. b. Increase the activity of acetylcholinesterase. c. Decrease reuptake. d. Increase the activity of COMT. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 7
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122. What happens to acetylcholine after it attaches to a receptor on the postsynaptic cell? a. It is broken down into two components. b. It is reabsorbed intact by the presynaptic cell. c. The postsynaptic cell metabolizes it as a source of energy. d. It continues to stimulate the postsynaptic neuron until replaced by another neurotransmitter. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 7
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123. What would be the effect of a drug that inhibits the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase? a. prolonged action of acetylcholine at its synapses b. decreased duration of action of acetylcholine at its synapses c. decreased synthesis of acetylcholine by the presynaptic cell d. increased synthesis of acetylcholine by the presynaptic cell ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 7
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124. After serotonin or one of the catecholamine transmitters stimulates the postsynaptic receptor, most of the transmitter molecules: a. remain on the receptor until other neurotransmitters replace them. b. are broken into components while still attached to the postsynaptic cell.
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c. are metabolized by the postsynaptic cell as a source of energy. d. are reabsorbed by the presynaptic cell. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Chemical Events at a Synapse OBJ: 7 the Synapse 125. Reuptake is the absorption of: a. neurotransmitters by the postsynaptic neuron. b. neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron. c. nutrients and waste products by glial cells. d. neurotransmitters by glial cells. ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 7
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REF: The Sequence of TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at
126. Reuptake is an alternative to which other process? a. recycling of neurotransmitters b. enzymatic breakdown of neurotransmitters c. absorption of neurotransmitter by the postsynaptic neuron d. re-release of neurotransmitters from postsynaptic neurons ANS: B PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 7
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127. "Transporter" proteins transport neurotransmitters: a. back into the presynaptic neuron. b. across the synapse to the postsynaptic neuron. c. across the synapse back to the presynaptic neuron. d. to the appropriate receptor sites. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 7
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128. COMT and MAO are: a. enzymes that convert catecholamines into inactive chemicals. b. enzymes that make catecholamines. c. neurotransmitters in the same group as serotonin. d. the inactive fragments of catecholamines. ANS: A PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 8
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129. The primary method for disposal of peptide neurotransmitters is: a. inactivation by the enzymes MAO and COMT. b. reuptake by the presynaptic neuron. c. diffusion. d. reuptake by the postsynaptic neuron. ANS: C
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Chemical Events at a Synapse OBJ: 8 TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse 130. Activation of autoreceptors tends to: a. increase further neurotransmitter release. b. stimulate GABA release. c. increase sodium-potassium pump activity. d. decrease further neurotransmitter release. ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 8
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DIF: factual OBJ: 8
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131. Autoreceptors monitor the: a. number of action potentials. b. extracellular sodium concentration. c. amount of neurotransmitter released. d. amount of reuptake. ANS: C PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
132. The chemicals used as neurotransmitters in humans are found in: a. no other species. b. other mammals also, but not in non-mammals. c. other vertebrates, but not in invertebrates. d. apparently all or nearly all other species. ANS: D PTS: 1 Chemical Events at a Synapse the Synapse
DIF: factual OBJ: 8
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133. Our brains respond to plant chemicals because: a. plants use chemicals similar to neurotransmitters. b. animals evolved from plants. c. plants have evolved neuron-like cells. d. those are the only chemicals that are stable at common environmental temperatures. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Introduction TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
134. A drug that mimics or increases the effects of a neurotransmitter is called a(n): a. agonist. b. antagonist. c. stimulant. d. protagonist. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
135. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is called a(n): a. agonist.
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b. antagonist. c. depressant. d. protagonist. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
136. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is a(n) the effects is a(n) . a. neuromodulator; synergist b. agonist; antagonist c. depressant; stimulant d. antagonist; agonist ANS: D OBJ: 1 MSC: www
; a drug that mimics or increases
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
137. Which effect would be considered to be antagonistic? a. blocking the synthesis of neurotransmitters b. stimulating the release of neurotransmitters c. blocking the reuptake of neurotransmitters d. interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
138. Which effect would be considered to be agonistic? a. blocking the synthesis of neurotransmitters b. stimulating the release of neurotransmitters c. blocking the postsynaptic receptors d. mimicking enzymes that breakdown neurotransmitters ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
139. To say that a drug has an affinity for a particular type of receptor is to imply that the drug: a. breaks down neurotransmitter chemicals at that receptor site. b. will always excite the postsynaptic receptor. c. will always inhibit the postsynaptic receptor. d. binds to that receptor. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
140. The key into a lock analogy best describes: a. a drug’s efficacy b. a drug’s affinity for a receptor c. breakdown at a receptor site d. a drug’s reuptake ANS: B OBJ: 2
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Chapter 1
MSC: www
141. If a drug binds to a particular receptor, it is said to: a. increase the synthesis of the neurotransmitter used at that receptor. b. decrease the synthesis of the neurotransmitter used at that receptor. c. stimulate breakdown at that receptor. d. have an affinity for that type of receptor. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
142. With respect to drug effects, "efficacy" means the tendency of a drug to: a. have inhibitory effects. b. have excitatory effects. c. attach to a receptor. d. activate a receptor. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
143. What is one factor in determining whether a drug that readily attaches to a receptor will have agonistic or antagonistic effects? a. its affinity for the receptor b. its efficacy c. the neurotransmitter than normally attaches to that receptor d. its electrical charge ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
144. If a drug has high affinity and low efficacy, what effect does it have on the postsynaptic neuron? a. antagonistic b. agonistic c. proactive d. destructive ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
145. If a drug has high affinity and high efficacy, what effect does it have on the postsynaptic neuron? a. antagonistic b. agonistic c. proactive d. destructive ANS: B OBJ: 2
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The Major Issues
146. The effectiveness and side-effects of a drug vary from one person to the next. One reason for this is that: a. most drugs are chemically unstable, resulting in unpredictable effects. b. most drugs interact with the diet to produce variable effects. c. each drug tends to affect more than one kind of synapse. d. drugs will break down neurotransmitters into different component parts in different people. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
147. Why do the effects of certain transmitters, such as serotonin, vary from one synapse to another? a. The brain releases different forms of serotonin at different synapses. b. It depends whether it is an original serotonin molecule or one that has been recycled. c. The width of the synaptic cleft varies from one synapse to another. d. There are several kinds of postsynaptic receptors for serotonin. ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
148. Affinity refers to a drug’s , while efficacy refers to a drug’s . a. concentration; effectiveness b. function; structure c. strength of binding to the receptor; tendency to activate the receptor d. tendency to activate the receptor; strength of binding to the receptor ANS: C Drugs OBJ:
PTS: 1 3 TOP:
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
149. The brain area most often linked to drug addiction is the: a. nucleus accumbens. b. whole limbic system. c. frontal lobes. d. brain stem. ANS: A Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
150. Which of the following activities does NOT stimulate dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens? a. gambling b. sexual excitement c. video games d. running ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
151. Which neurotransmitter has been repeatedly connected with addictive drugs? a. epinephrine b. acetylcholine c. serotonin d. dopamine
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ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
152. Most habit-forming drugs activate which type of synapse? a. acetylcholine b. opiate c. GABA d. dopamine ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
153. A drug that produces excitement, alertness, elevated mood, and decreased fatigue is referred to as a: a. stimulant. b. depressant. c. hallucinogen. d. tranquilizer. ANS: A Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
154. The presynaptic terminal ordinarily reabsorbs released dopamine through a protein called a: a. dopamine reabsorber b. dopamine releaser c. dopamine transporter d. dopamine agonist ANS: C Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
155. At the synapse, amphetamine: a. blocks the breakdown of dopamine. b. increases the release of dopamine from the presynaptic terminal. c. increases the sensitivity of dopamine receptors. d. decreases the sensitivity of dopamine receptors. ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
156. At the synapse, amphetamine: a. blocks the breakdown of dopamine. b. decreases the release of dopamine from the presynaptic terminal. c. inhibits the dopamine transporter. d. decreases the sensitivity of dopamine receptors. ANS: C Drugs NEW: KEY
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The Major Issues
157. At the synapse, cocaine: a. increases the synthesis of dopamine. b. blocks the breakdown of dopamine. c. accelerates the breakdown of dopamine. d. blocks the reuptake of dopamine. ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
158. Why do cocaine and amphetamine produce similar effects? a. Both increase the activity of the sodium-potassium pump. b. Both increase the presence of dopamine in the synapses. c. Both cause a weakening of the blood-brain barrier. d. The brain converts both of them into acetylcholine. ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
159. The effect of Ritalin (methylphenidate) on the synapse is most similar to that of: a. cocaine. b. GABA. c. prozac. d. alcohol. ANS: A Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
160. The main difference between methylphenidate (Ritalin), when taken as a medication for attention deficit disorder, and cocaine, when taken as a drug of abuse, is that methylphenidate: a. inhibits receptors that cocaine excites. b. produces the same effects more slowly. c. attaches to a different set of receptors. d. increases metabolic rate whereas cocaine decreases it. ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
161. At high doses, MDMA: a. destroys axons that release acetylcholine. b. destroys axons that release serotonin. c. stimulates axons that release acetylcholine. d. destroys axons in humans, but not in laboratory rats. ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
162. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) is also known as? a. ecstasy b. crack c. angel dust d. ganja
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ANS: A Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
163. The stimulant effects of MDMA are likely due to actions at synapses, while the hallucinogenic effects are likely due to actions at synapses. a. dopamine, nitric oxide b. neuropeptide Y, serotonin c. dopamine, serotonin d. serotonin, dopamine ANS: C Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
164. Nicotine directly stimulates receptors in the central nervous system and at nerve-muscle junctions. These nicotinic receptors are also receptors for which neurotransmitter? a. glutamate b. dopamine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
165. Cocaine is to as nicotine is to a. dopamine, acetylcholine b. acetylcholine, dopamine c. dopamine, serotonin d. norepinephrine, acetylcholine ANS: A Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions .
DIF: conceptual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
166. A drug that relaxes a person and makes them less sensitive to pain is most likely a(n): a. opiate. b. hallucinogen. c. stimulant. d. cannabinoid. ANS: A Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
167. Pert and Snyder's discovery that opiates bind with certain receptors led to what other discovery? a. the functions of inhibitory synapses b. the endogenous chemicals that bind with those receptors c. other classes of receptors with which opiates will bind d. more effective ways of manufacturing the drugs ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
168. Opiate drugs bind to receptors in the brain for: a. endorphins.
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b. catecholamines. c. indolamines. d. monoamines. ANS: A Drugs MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
169. What effect do opiate drugs have on dopamine? a. They increase the synthesis of dopamine. b. They directly increase the release of dopamine. c. They indirectly increase the release of dopamine by blocking transmitters that normally block dopamine. d. They mimic dopamine. ANS: C Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
170. When opiates block the activity of the locus coeruleus, this results in: a. hallucinations. b. sleep. c. increased arousal. d. decreased fear and memory. ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
171. Cannabinoids are a class of chemicals that include: a. nicotine. b. cocaine. c. morphine. d. marijuana. ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
172. A certain drug user experiences intensified sensations and the illusion that time is passing slowly. He also experiences problems with attention and memory. These symptoms are most characteristic of the use of which drug? a. LSD b. cocaine c. nicotine d. marijuana ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
173. Which is MORE characteristic of marijuana users than of cocaine users? a. sudden "crash" several hours after taking the drug b. impairments of attention and memory c. increased sensitivity to the drug's effects d. high risk of overdose on the drug
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ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
174. Why are the withdrawal effects of marijuana usually less intense than other drugs? a. Marijuana affects only the brain stem. b. Marijuana leaves the body slowly. c. Marijuana affects only presynaptic neurons. d. The body compensates by producing more dopamine. ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
175. Why is marijuana unlikely to interfere with breathing or heart rate? a. Marijuana cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. b. It is so slow acting that the brain can compensate. c. Receptors for marijuana in those brain areas are absent. d. Marijuana dissolves quickly and leaves the body quickly. ANS: C Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
176. Cannabinoid receptors are located on the: a. the postsynaptic neuron b. the presynaptic neuron c. the cell body d. axon ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
177. Anandamide and 2-AG are believed to be the naturally occurring neurotransmitters that bind to the same receptors as which drug? a. heroin b. cocaine c. alcohol d. marijuana ANS: D Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
178. 2-AG is believed to be an endogenous chemical that: a. increases dopamine release. b. produces serotonin. c. binds to cannabinoid receptors. d. is responsible for producing nausea. ANS: C Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
179. Uniquely, endogenous cannabinoid receptors are located: a. on the presynaptic neuron.
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The Major Issues
b. on the cell body. c. on the dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron. d. inside the cell membrane. ANS: A Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
180. Endogenous cannabinoids act to: a. decrease neurotransmitter release from presynaptic neurons. b. block reuptake of neurotransmitter. c. stimulate release of dopamine. d. decrease synthesis of neurotransmitter. ANS: A Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
181. The effect of cannabinoids to reduce nausea is most likely mediated by a. dopamine b. serotonin c. opiate d. acetylcholine ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
receptors.
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
182. Cannabinoid chemicals affect synapses by: a. blocking the activity of second messengers. b. decreasing the release of both glutamate and GABA. c. stimulating endorphin receptors. d. decreasing the synthesis of dopamine and norepinephrine. ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
183. Which of the following is NOT a likely effect of using marijuana? a. memory loss b. decreased nausea c. reduced risk of Parkinson's disease d. suppressed appetite ANS: C Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
184. Drugs that grossly distort perception are known as: a. hallucinogens. b. depressants. c. opiates. d. stimulants. ANS: A Drugs
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DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
Chapter 1
185. Which drugs most closely resemble the neurotransmitter serotonin? a. hallucinogens b. cannabinoids c. opiates d. stimulants ANS: A Drugs MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
186. LSD and other hallucinogenic drugs resemble which neurotransmitter? a. norepinephrine b. dopamine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine ANS: C Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
187. LSD and other hallucinogenic drugs probably exert their effects most directly on what part of the neuron? a. the axon terminals b. the postsynaptic receptors c. the reuptake protein channels d. the sodium-potassium pump ANS: B Drugs
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
188. A common drug to treat alcoholism that produces illness after consuming alcohol is: a. antabuse b. NMDA c. COMT d. anandamide ANS: A OBJ: 7 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Alcohol and Alcoholism TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the sequence of events that occurs in synaptic transmission. ANS: Synthesis, storage, release, diffusion, activation of receptor, and inactivation/reuptake. PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: A Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse
2. List the major types of neurotransmitters. ANS:
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The Major Issues
Amino acids, neuropeptides, acetylcholine, monoamines, and purines. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: A Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse
3. Briefly compare the differences between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors. Include their mechanisms of action and how this explains the difference in their effects on the postsynaptic cell. ANS: Ionotropic receptors are ion channels that open as soon as the neurotransmitter attaches and close when the neurotransmitter is removed, making the effects rapid and short lived. Metabotropic receptors use a second messenger system to affect many different activities in the cell, which are slower but longer lasting. PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: conceptual REF: A Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse
4. Briefly describe autoreceptors. ANS:
These are receptors at the presynaptic terminals that are sensitive to the same transmitter they release. PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: A Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse
5. Describe the differences between antagonists and agonists. ANS: Antagonists are drugs that block neurotransmitters. Agonists are drugs that mimic or increase the effects of drugs. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Drug Mechanisms TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions KEY: NEW
OBJ:
ESSAY 1. Briefly describe spatial summation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of the Synapse TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
2. Briefly describe why synapses are a “decision maker.” ANS: Answers will vary.
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2
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: The Properties of the Synapse TOP: 3.1 The Concept of the Synapse
3. Describe the main chemical events at a synapse. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: A Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse
4. Describe the main properties of neuropeptides (neuromodulators). ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 6 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: A Sequence of Chemical Events at a Synapse TOP: 3.2 Chemical Events at the Synapse
5. Briefly describe how drug abuse can “rewire” the brain. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: A Survey of Abused Drugs TOP: 3.3 Synapses, Drugs, and Addictions
OBJ: 3
Chapter 4: Anatomy of the Nervous System TRUE/FALSE 1. Neurons that directly convey messages to muscles and glands are part of the central nervous system. ANS: F PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
2. If you fell asleep on a sunny beach lying on your stomach, then your dorsal side would likely be sunburned. ANS: T
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DIF: conceptual
The Major Issues
REF: Terminology to Describe
the Nervous System OBJ: 1
TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
3. The elbow is more distal to the shoulder than the hand. ANS: F PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1 Nervous System
DIF: conceptual TOP:
REF: Terminology to Describe 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate
4. Cell bodies of motor neurons are located outside of the spinal cord. ANS: F OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
5. A tract in the spinal cord would most likely be found in the white matter. ANS: T OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
6. The parasympathetic nervous system activates the "fight or flight" response. ANS: F System MSC:
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 www
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
7. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems generally have opposing actions on the major internal organs. ANS: T System
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DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Chapter 1
8. Ganglia in the parasympathetic system are arranged in a chain near the spinal cord. ANS: F System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
9. Parasympathetic neurons use acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter. ANS: T System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
10. The hindbrain consists of the medulla, the pons, and the cerebellum. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
11. Damage to the medulla is frequently fatal. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
12. Some cranial nerves include both sensory and motor components. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
13. Cranial Nerve II is called the optic nerve. ANS: T OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
14. The function of the cerebellum is limited to balance and coordination. ANS: F OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
15. Substantia nigra gives rise to the dopamine-containing pathway that facilitates readiness for movement. ANS: T OBJ: 5
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Midbrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
The Major Issues
16. The limbic system is important for motivation and emotional behaviors. ANS: T OBJ: 6 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
17. Although relatively small, the hypothalamus is very important for a large range of motivated behaviors. ANS: T OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
18. Deterioration of the basal ganglia may lead to Parkinson’s disease. ANS: T OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
19. The choroid plexus reabsorbs the cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: F OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
20. Cerebrospinal fluid provides the major cushion for the brain. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
21. Hydrocephalus is caused by inflammation of the meninges. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
22. Damage to the right hemisphere of the cortex would most likely cause loss of sensory or motor control on the left side of the body. ANS: T Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
23. The human cerebral cortex contains up to eight distinct layers of cell bodies. ANS: F Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
24. Damage to the striate cortex of the right hemisphere causes blindness in the left visual field. ANS: T OBJ: 1
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PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Chapter 1
REF: The Occipital Lobe
25. The parietal lobe lies between the occipital lobe and the central sulcus. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Parietal Lobe MSC: www
26. The prefrontal cortex is important for working memory. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Frontal Lobe
27. Many cells in association areas of the brain respond to more than one sensory modality. ANS: F Together??
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
28. The “binding problem” refers to the question of how various brain regions produce a single perception of a single object. ANS: T Together??
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
29. The primary function of the cerebral cortex appears to be elaboration of sensory material. ANS: T Together??
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
30. Bumps and depressions in the skull are closely related to how well-developed the underlying brain areas are. ANS: F PTS: 1 Anatomy with Behavior OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Correlating Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
31. Electroencephalography records neural signals generated by the activity of populations of neurons. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Recording Brain Activity TOP: 4.3 Research MethodsMSC: www
32. Humans have a higher brain-to-body ratio than all other species. ANS: F Intelligence
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DIF: factual REF: Brain Size and TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
The Major Issues
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What are the two parts of the central nervous system? a. autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system b. cerebrum and cerebellum c. sympathetic division and parasympathetic division d. brain and spinal cord ANS: D PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
2. The central nervous system is composed of: a. the brain and spinal cord. b. all the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord. c. the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. d. the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. ANS: A PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
3. Which division of the nervous system is composed of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems? a. Central b. Parasympathetic c. Peripheral d. Sympathetic ANS: C PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
4. Together, the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system make up the nervous system. a. peripheral b. central c. sympathetic d. dorsal ANS: A PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
5. Which division of the nervous system consists of neurons bringing messages from the senses to the central nervous system? a. Autonomic b. Sympathetic c. Somatic d. Parasympathetic ANS: C PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
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6. The somatic division of the nervous system carries signals from the a. senses; central nervous system b. organs; autonomic nervous system c. organs; sympathetic nervous system d. senses; peripheral nervous system ANS: D PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2
to the
.
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
7. Nerves from the central nervous system convey information to the muscles and glands by way of the: a. autonomic nervous system. b. somatic nervous system. c. sympathetic nervous system. d. parasympathetic nervous system. ANS: B PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
8. When someone tickles you, the tickling sensation will be carried by neurons that are part of the nervous system. a. central b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. autonomic ANS: C PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
9. An axon in your hand causes contraction of a muscle fiber in your finger as you write. This neuron belongs to which branch of the nervous system? a. Central b. Somatic c. Sympathetic d. Parasympathetic ANS: B PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
10. Which division of the nervous system consists of neurons that control the heart, intestines, and other organs? a. Internal b. Afferent c. Somatic d. Autonomic ANS: D
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DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Terminology to Describe
the Nervous System OBJ: 2
TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
11. Which plane shows brain structures as they would be seen from the front? a. Coronal b. Sagittal c. Horizontal d. Transverse ANS: A PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
12. Which plane shows brain structures as they would be seen from above? a. Coronal b. Sagittal c. Horizontal d. Commuter ANS: C PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
13. Which plane shows brain structures as they would be seen from the side? a. Coronal b. Sagittal c. Horizontal d. Commuter ANS: B PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
14. Which of the following means "toward the side, away from the midline"? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Proximal d. Ventral ANS: A PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
15. Which of the following means "toward the back"? a. Dorsal b. Medial c. Proximal d. Ventral ANS: A PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
16. In anatomy, the opposite of medial is: a. lateral. b. dorsal. c. ventral.
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d. rostral. ANS: A PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
17. If one structure is on the left side of the body and another is on the right, they are said to be to each other. a. medial b. lateral c. ipsilateral d. contralateral ANS: D PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
18. What is the name given to a cluster of neurons inside the CNS? a. Lamina b. Column c. Nucleus d. Ganglion ANS: C PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
19. What is the name given to a cluster of neurons outside the CNS? a. Lamina b. Column c. Tract d. Ganglion ANS: D PTS: 1 the Nervous System OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Terminology to Describe TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
20. The basal ganglia are a related cluster of cell bodies in the central nervous system. Technically, the basal ganglia should have been name the basal: a. tract. b. lamina. c. gyrus. d. nuclei. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
21. The spinal cord communicates with: a. sense organs and muscles below the level of the head. b. all sense organs and muscles in the human body. c. dorsal root ganglia only. d. ventral root ganglia only. ANS: A OBJ: 2
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
The Major Issues
22. The cell bodies of sensory neurons that are in clusters of neurons outside the spinal cord are called: a. sensory nuclei b. sensory clusters c. ventral root ganglia d. dorsal root ganglia ANS: D OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
23. According to the Bell-Magendie law: a. ventral roots of the spinal cord carry sensory information. b. dorsal roots of the spinal cord carry motor information. c. ventral and dorsal roots both carry sensory and motor information. d. ventral roots carry motor information while dorsal roots carry sensory information. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
24. After damage to the dorsal roots of the spinal cord, an individual will suffer what kind of loss? a. Sensation from the affected body area b. Control of the peripheral muscles in the affected body area c. Control of organs in the affected body area d. Control of the muscles on the opposite side of the body ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
25. After damage to the ventral roots of the spinal cord, an individual will suffer what kind of loss? a. Sensation from the affected body area b. Control of the peripheral muscles in the affected body area c. Control of organs in the affected body area d. Control of the muscles on the opposite side of the body ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
26. If the ipsilateral dorsal and ventral roots were cut, which of the following would be true? a. Sensation would be lost on one side, and motor control on the other. b. Sensation would be lost on both sides. c. Motor control would be lost on both sides. d. Sensation and motor control would be lost on one side. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
27. Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in the: a. spinal cord. b. dorsal root ganglia. c. white matter. d. ventral roots.
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ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
28. Suppose a virus damaged only the dorsal roots of the spinal cord, but not the ventral roots. What would happen to the sensory and motor abilities of the affected area? a. Loss of sensation, but preserved motor control b. Loss of both sensation and motor control c. Loss of motor control, but preserved sensation d. Unaffected sensation and motor control ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
29. Axons of motor neurons would most likely be found in which of the following? a. Gray matter b. White matter c. Dorsal roots d. Tracts ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
30. Cell bodies of motor neurons would most likely be found in which of the following? a. Gray matter b. White matter c. Dorsal roots d. Tracts ANS: A OBJ: 2
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
The Major Issues
31. Where would you find the dorsal root ganglia? a. At the base of the brain b. In the gray matter of the spinal cord c. In the white matter of the spinal cord d. Outside, but near, the spinal cord ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
32. A cross section of the spinal cord indicates that gray matter is: a. densely packed with myelinated axons. b. composed mostly of unmyelinated axons. c. densely packed with cell bodies and dendrites. d. composed only of dendrites. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
33. In the spinal cord, white matter is comprised mostly of a. cell bodies; myelinated axons b. dendrites; myelinated axons c. myelinated axons; cell bodies d. cell bodies; dendrites ANS: C OBJ: 2
, while gray matter is mostly
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
34. Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is mainly composed of what structures? a. cell bodies and dendrites b. myelinated axons c. unmyelinated axons d. ganglia ANS: A OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
35. If the spinal cord is cut at a given segment, the brain loses sensation at: a. that segment only. b. that segment and all segments above it. c. that segment and all segments below it. d. all other segments. ANS: C OBJ: 2
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Chapter 1
.
36. The autonomic nervous system: a. only receives information from the heart, intestines, and other organs. b. only sends information to the heart, intestines, and other organs. c. receives and sends information to the heart, intestines, and other organs. d. conveys messages from the sense organs to the central nervous system. ANS: C System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
37. Which part of the nervous system prepares the body for "fight or flight" activities? a. Sympathetic b. Somatic c. Parasympathetic d. Peripheral ANS: A System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
38. Erection of the hairs, known in humans as "goose bumps," is caused by activation of which branch of the nervous system? a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic c. Central d. Peripheral ANS: B System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
39. The sweat glands, adrenal glands, and muscles that constrict blood vessels have input from only the nervous system. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. central d. dorsal root ANS: A System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
40. Seeing a snake come out of the drain in the bathtub might increase your heart rate, dilate your pupils, cause you to sweat, and raise the hair on your neck. These responses are due to the activity of the nervous system. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. motor ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual System OBJ: 3 TOP: Nervous System 41. Which activity is increased by the sympathetic nervous system? a. Salivation b. Heart rate c. Digestive activity
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The Major Issues
REF: The Autonomic Nervous 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate
d. Body temperature ANS: B System MSC:
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 www
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
42. You are walking after dark. A sudden noise frightens you. Your heart pounds, your pulse races, and your breathing rate increases. These responses are due to your: a. parasympathetic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. immune system. ANS: B System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
43. Which of the following would be the most likely effect of taking a drug that blocks sympathetic nervous system activity? a. Increased blood pressure b. Sweating c. Slowed digestion d. Decreased heart rate ANS: D System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
44. Sympathetic ganglia: a. are located inside the spinal cord. b. act more independently than do parasympathetic ganglia. c. are closely linked and often act as a single system. d. have short postganglionic fibers extending to internal organs. ANS: C System MSC:
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 www
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
45. What is unique about the autonomic activity of the sweat glands? a. They receive only parasympathetic input. b. They receive only sympathetic input. c. They only work when it's hot outside. d. Both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous system increase sweating. ANS: B System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
46. What, generally, is the relationship between the activity of the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems? a. The sympathetic controls internal organs while the parasympathetic controls peripheral organs. b. The sympathetic usually has specific, localized effects, while the parasympathetic has broad effects. c. They usually have opposite effects on the same organ. d. The sympathetic is involved in voluntary behavior, while the parasympathetic is involved
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in involuntary behavior. ANS: C System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
47. Digestive activity is increased by the activation of which branch of the autonomic nervous system? a. The parasympathetic b. The sympathetic c. Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic d. Neither the parasympathetic nor the sympathetic ANS: A System 48. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Sympathetic is to as parasympathetic is to . central nervous system; peripheral nervous system voluntary behavior; involuntary behavior arousal; relaxation neurotransmitters; hormones
ANS: C System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
49. One principle of the autonomic nervous system is the concept of a. synergy b. dual innervation c. a relay center d. a limbic system ANS: B System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
.
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
50. Which kinds of activities are produced from activation of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. fight-or-flight b. increased heart rate and blood pressure c. a decrease in digestion d. calmness and relaxation ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous System OBJ: 3 TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System 51. The parasympathetic nervous system has: a. long preganglionic and long postganglionic axons. b. long preganglionic and short postganglionic axons. c. short preganglionic and short postganglionic axons. d. short preganglionic and long postganglionic axons. ANS: B System MSC:
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 www
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
52. In the parasympathetic nervous system, the preganglionic fibers are fibers are . a. long, long
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The Major Issues
, and the postganglionic
b. long, short c. short, long d. short, short ANS: B System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
53. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the sympathetic system? a. Is found in the thoracic and lumbar cord b. Has long post-ganglionic fibers c. Releases ACh at the ganglion d. Releases DA at the ganglion ANS: D System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
54. Which neurotransmitter is used by the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine ANS: C System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
55. Acetylcholine is the only neurotransmitter released by: a. the sympathetic nervous system's postganglionic synapses. b. the parasympathetic nervous system's postganglionic axons. c. intrinsic neurons in the spinal cord. d. intrinsic neurons of the hippocampus. ANS: B System MSC:
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 www
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
56. Which neurotransmitter is most often used by postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine ANS: D System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
57. Most of the postganglionic synapses of the sympathetic nervous system use: a. GABA. b. norepinephrine. c. acetylcholine. d. serotonin. ANS: B
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PTS: 1
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: The Autonomic Nervous
System
OBJ: 3
TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
58. Sympathetic is to as parasympathetic is to a. serotonin; dopamine b. dopamine; serotonin c. acetylcholine; norepinephrine d. norepinephrine; acetylcholine ANS: D System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
.
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
59. One way that over-the-counter cold remedies work is by: a. increasing parasympathetic activity. b. decreasing sympathetic activity. c. increasing sympathetic activity. d. blocking all autonomic activity. ANS: C System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
60. A general effect of over-the-counter cold remedies is that they: a. stimulate dopamine receptors. b. decrease activity of the somatic nervous system. c. increase activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. d. increase activity of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: D System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
61. Given their effects on the nervous system, one side effect of over-the-counter cold remedies is increased: a. digestive activity. b. salivation. c. heart rate. d. sinus flow. ANS: C System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Autonomic Nervous TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
62. What consists of the medulla, the pons, and the cerebellum? a. Hindbrain b. Reticular formation c. Midbrain d. Forebrain ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
63. The term rhombencephalon refers to the: a. brainstem. b. hindbrain. c. midbrain.
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The Major Issues
d. forebrain. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
64. The hindbrain consists of the: a. tectum, tegmentum, and reticular formation. b. thalamus and hypothalamus. c. spinal cord and cranial nerves. d. medulla, pons, and cerebellum. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System MSC: www
65. What structure is composed of the medulla, pons, the midbrain, and certain central structures of the forebrain? a. Limbic system b. Thalamus c. Brain stem d. Cerebellum ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
66. Reflexive changes in heart rate and breathing when you are exercising, for example, are regulated by which of the following? a. Thalamus b. Forebrain c. Medulla d. Pons ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
67. The medulla is considered part of the brain rather than the spinal cord because it: a. developed later in evolution. b. is contained in the skull. c. develops from a separate group of neurons. d. is composed only of interneurons. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
68. Breathing, heart rate, vomiting, salivation, coughing, and sneezing are all controlled by which structure? a. Medulla b. Thalamus c. Cerebellum
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Chapter 1
d. Pons ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
69. As axons from the spinal cord enter the skull, which structure do they enter? a. Midbrain b. Forebrain c. Medulla d. Cerebellum ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
70. Damage to which hindbrain structure would be most life-threatening? a. Occipital cortex b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Corpus callosum ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 TOP:
DIF: conceptual REF: The Hindbrain System 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
71. Which of the following structures is part of the brain stem? a. Basal ganglia b. Pons c. Cerebellum d. Frontal lobe ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
72. The medulla controls a number of reflexes through: a. the midbrain. b. the forebrain. c. cranial nerves. d. skeletal nerves. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
73. The term pons (meaning "bridge") is named as such because: a. the sensory and motor neurons connect with each other. b. passing axons skip over the pons. c. axons within the pons cross over from one side to the other. d. neurons compete with one another, as in the game of bridge.
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The Major Issues
ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
74. The pons acts as a bridge between: a. the hindbrain and the forebrain. b. the thalamus and the hypothalamus. c. one side of the nervous system and the other. d. the thalamus and the cerebral cortex. ANS: C OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
75. Functionally, cranial nerves carry which kind of information? a. Motor and sensory b. Motor only c. Sensory only d. Sympathetic only ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
76. Which major functions are controlled by the cranial nerves? a. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system b. Sensation and muscle control of the head c. Skeletal muscles of the trunk d. Skeletal muscles of the extremities ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
77. How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 16 ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
78. The cranial nerve nuclei for nerves a. III; XII b. IV; X c. I; V d. V; XII ANS: D OBJ: 4 79.
through
are in the medulla and pons.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
The nuclei for most of the cranial nerves are located in the: a. cerebral cortex. b. hypothalamus.
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Chapter 1
c. midbrain. d. pons and medulla. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
80. The nuclei for cranial nerves I through IV are located in the: a. midbrain and forebrain. b. hindbrain. c. pons and medulla. d. spinal cord. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
81. Vision is to as hearing is to . a. cranial nerve I; cranial nerve X b. cranial nerve II; cranial nerve VIII c. cranial nerve II; cranial nerve V d. cranial nerve IV; cranial nerve VIII ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System MSC: www
82. The reticular formation is contained within the: a. brain stem. b. spinal cord. c. raphe system. d. cerebellum. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
83. The ascending portion of the reticular formation sends outputs to: a. the raphe system. b. the cerebellum. c. much of the cerebral cortex. d. motor areas of the spinal cord. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
84. The descending portion of the reticular formation is one of several brain areas that control the: a. sensory areas of the brain. b. sensory areas of the spinal cord. c. motor areas of the brain. d. motor areas of the spinal cord. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
85. The ascending portion of the reticular formation: a. controls the motor areas of the spinal cord.
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The Major Issues
b. is responsible for the eye muscles. c. controls the motor areas of the brain. d. increases arousal and attention. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
86. The raphe system sends axons to the: a. forebrain. b. reticular formation. c. spinal cord. d. cerebellum. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
87. The raphe system the brain's readiness to respond to stimuli and sends axons to the a. increases; cerebellum b. decreases; forebrain c. decreases; basal ganglia d. increases; forebrain ANS: D OBJ: 4
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
88. The raphe system: a. increases the brain's readiness to respond to stimuli. b. is important for balance and coordination. c. controls the sensory areas of the spinal cord. d. regulates the rate of production of cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
89. The cerebellum contributes to the control of what function? a. Hunger b. Temperature c. Olfaction d. Movement ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
90. Research indicates that the behavioral effects of the cerebellum may be due to its role in: a. coordinating information from left and right hemispheres. b. focusing and shifting attention and organizing sensory inputs. c. interpreting visual stimuli. d. coordinating the release of hormones.
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ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
91. If a person has difficulty determining which of two rhythms is faster, it is likely that she suffered damage to the: a. cerebellum. b. forebrain. c. tectum. d. medulla. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
92. Besides problems with balance and coordination, a person with damage to the cerebellum would also likely have problems with: a. reflexive changes in heart rate. b. shifting attention between auditory and visual stimuli. c. amnesia. d. rational decision-making. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hindbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
93. In which area of the brain would one find the tectum, tegmentum, superior and inferior colliculi, and substantia nigra? a. Midbrain b. Hindbrain c. Reticular formation d. Forebrain ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Midbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
94. The term mesencephalon refers to the: a. brainstem. b. hindbrain. c. midbrain. d. forebrain. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Midbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
95. Superior colliculus is to a. vision; hearing b. taste; smell c. vision; touch d. touch; hearing ANS: A OBJ: 5
as inferior colliculus is to
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Midbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
96. What type of neurons in the substantia nigra deteriorates in Parkinson's disease? a. Dopamine
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The Major Issues
b. Serotonin c. Norepinephrine d. Acetylcholine ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Midbrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
97. A group of forebrain structures is important for motivated and emotional behavior. What is the name given to this group of structures? a. Limbic system b. Reticular formation c. Tegmentum d. Basal ganglia ANS: A OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
98. The limbic system is important for: a. emotional behaviors. b. motor coordination. c. coordination between the eyes and ears. d. perceiving three-dimensional objects. ANS: A OBJ: 6
144
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Chapter 1
99. The interlinked structures that form a border around the brainstem are referred to as the: a. basal ganglia b. hypothalamus c. limbic system d. rhombic system ANS: C OBJ: 6 100.
The diencephalon is composed of the: a. thalamus and basal ganglia. b. basal ganglia and hypothalamus. c. thalamus and hypothalamus. d. thalamus and hippocampus. ANS: C OBJ: 6
101.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System MSC: www
Which of the following structures provides the main source of input to the cerebral cortex? a. Limbic system b. Medulla c. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus ANS: C OBJ: 6
104.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
The thalamus can be thought of as a(n): a. relay center b. ganglia c. modulation center d. emotion center ANS: A OBJ: 6
103.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
One function of the thalamus is to: a. relay sensory information to the cerebral cortex. b. regulate sleep cycles. c. direct the secretions of the hypothalamus. d. moderate emotional outbursts. ANS: A OBJ: 6
102.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Damage to the thalamus would most likely result in: a. abnormal emotional behavior. b. loss of sensory input to the cortex. c. abnormal hormone release. d. difficulty in distinguishing between two rhythms. ANS: B OBJ: 6
145
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
The Major Issues
105.
Sensory information that is not processed by the thalamus includes: a. olfactory information. b. visual information. c. auditory information. d. somatosensory information. ANS: A OBJ: 6
106.
Olfactory information is processed by the: a. thalamus via the olfactory bulbs. b. cortex via the olfactory bulbs. c. spinal cord. d. medulla. ANS: B OBJ: 6
107.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
By both neural and hormonal pathways, the hypothalamus regulates activity of the: a. pituitary gland. b. thalamus. c. retina. d. ventricles. ANS: A OBJ: 6
109.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
An impairment of eating, drinking, temperature regulation, or sexual behavior suggests possible damage to which brain structure? a. Midbrain b. Hippocampus c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebellum ANS: C OBJ: 6
108.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Secretions from which gland will also affect the secretion of hormones from the thyroid gland, adrenal gland, and ovaries or testes? a. thymus gland b. pineal gland c. Pancreas d. pituitary gland ANS: D OBJ: 6
146
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Chapter 1
110. Although the pituitary is often called the master gland, its activity is regulated by the: a. basal ganglia. b. hippocampus. c. hypothalamus. d. thalamus. ANS: C OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
111. The pituitary gland synthesizes and releases hormones: a. to the outside of the body. b. to the thalamus. c. into the bloodstream. d. to the hypothalamus. ANS: C OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
112. Which structure is likely to be damaged in Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, and other conditions that impair movement? a. Thalamus b. Basal ganglia c. Limbic system d. Reticular formation ANS: B OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
113. Damage to the basal ganglia would most likely result in: a. a movement disorder. b. problems with visual perception. c. problems with auditory perception. d. a loss of pain sensation. ANS: A OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
114. Damage to the basal ganglia would most likely cause problems with: a. emotion. b. hearing. c. vision. d. movement. ANS: D OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
115. The nucleus basalis sends information to the: a. hypothalamus. b. basal ganglia. c. cerebral cortex. d. hippocampus.
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The Major Issues
ANS: C OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
116. Patients with Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease have impairments of attention and intellect because of inactivity or deterioration of their . a. Tectum b. Thalamus c. Hippocampus d. nucleus basalis ANS: D OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
117. Which of the following brain areas is most likely affected in Parkinson’s, Alzheimer’s, and other diseases that impair intellect and attention? a. Nucleus basalis b. Medulla c. Occipital lobe d. Thalamus ANS: A OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
118. The nucleus basalis is a key part of the brain’s system for: a. emotional response. b. attention. c. visual perception. d. auditory perception. ANS: B OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
119. The hippocampus plays a major role in: a. innate sexual behavior. b. temperature regulation. c. memory. d. secretion of hormones. ANS: C OBJ: 6 120.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 95 TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System - The Forebrain
An individual has difficulty remembering certain things after brain damage, but all memories stored before the damage are intact. The brain area most likely damaged is the: a. fornix. b. hypothalamus. c. hippocampus. d. nucleus basalis. ANS: C OBJ: 6
148
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Forebrain System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Chapter 1
121.
The ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid space are all: a. part of the forebrain. b. filled with cerebrospinal fluid. c. involved in cognitive functioning. d. filled with blood. ANS: B OBJ: 3
122.
A fluid-filled channel in the center of the spinal cord is called the: a. ventricle. b. central canal. c. raphe system. d. meninge. ANS: B OBJ: 3
123.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
What is contained in the ventricles of the brain? a. Glia b. Cell bodies c. Dendrites and axons d. Cerebrospinal fluid ANS: D OBJ: 3
126.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Meningitis is an inflammation of the: a. cerebrospinal fluid. b. glia. c. membranes surrounding the brain. d. medulla oblongata. ANS: C OBJ: 3
125.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
The choroid plexus: a. cushions the brain. b. protects the brain from infection. c. is another name for the ventricles. d. forms the cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: D OBJ: 3
124.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord are called: a. CSF. b. ventricles. c. meninges. d. hydrocephali.
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The Major Issues
ANS: C OBJ: 3 MSC: www 127.
Cerebrospinal fluid is gradually reabsorbed in the a. dura b. subarachnoid space c. pia d. cistern ANS: B OBJ: 3
128.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Hydrocephalus is usually associated with: a. a lack of nutrition. b. an obstruction of the flow of CSF. c. an excess of hormones. d. a constriction of the skull bones. ANS: B OBJ: 3
131.
DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
What causes hydrocephalus? a. Poorly developed skull bones in an infant b. Interruption of blood flow to the brain around the time of birth c. Obstruction in the flow of cerebrospinal fluid d. Damage to one of the cranial nerves ANS: C OBJ: 3
130.
PTS: 1 TOP:
of the brain.
A function of the cerebrospinal fluid is to: a. cushion the brain. b. hold blood in reserve for emergencies. c. maintain the blood-brain barrier. d. synthesize neurotransmitters. ANS: A OBJ: 3
129.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex receives most of its input from the and controls the muscles on the side. a. contralateral; ipsilateral b. ipsilateral; contralateral c. ipsilateral; ipsilateral d. contralateral; contralateral ANS: D Cerebral Cortex
150
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
side of the body
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Chapter 1
132.
The large bundle of axons connecting the two hemispheres of the brain is called the: a. corpus callosum. b. limbic system. c. midbrain. d. thalamus. ANS: A Cerebral Cortex
133.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: Introduction
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: Introduction
Across mammalian species, the most constant structure (in terms of relative size) is the: a. cortex. b. medulla. c. cerebellum. d. thalamus. ANS: C OBJ: 1
137.
REF: Introduction
The constitutes a higher percentage of the brain in primates than in other species of comparable size. a. cerebral cortex b. cerebellum c. basal ganglia d. thalamus ANS: A OBJ: 1
136.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
What do the corpus callosum and anterior commissure have in common? a. They both produce CSF. b. They both connect the two hemispheres. c. They are made up of gray matter. d. They each have six laminae. ANS: B OBJ: 1
135.
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: www
Which of the following is gray matter? a. The outer surfaces of the cerebral cortex b. The inner surface of the cerebral cortex c. The cerebral ventricles d. The axons of the brainstem and spinal cord ANS: A OBJ: 1
134.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: Introduction
Which of the following is TRUE about laminae in the cerebral cortex? a. All cortical areas contain six layers. b. Odd numbered laminae contain only neurons; even numbered laminae contain only glia. c. The laminae vary in thickness in different areas. d. Each layer corresponds to a different sensory modality.
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The Major Issues
ANS: C Cerebral Cortex
138.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
All of the cells in a given column in the cerebral cortex: a. have the same shape. b. are the same size. c. are involved in the same function. d. are connected to one another by a single horizontal cell. ANS: C Cerebral Cortex
142.
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
If you could selectively damage the individual laminae of the cortex, damage to which layer would most likely affect visual sensation? a. Layer IV of the temporal cortex b. Layer V of the occipital cortex c. Layer IV of the occipital cortex d. Layer II of the frontal cortex ANS: C Cerebral Cortex
141.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
Lamina IV is prominent in: a. all the primary sensory areas. b. the secondary sensory areas. c. primary motor areas. d. spinal cord. ANS: A Cerebral Cortex
140.
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Lamina V is thickest in the: a. primary sensory area. b. secondary sensory areas. c. primary motor areas. d. spinal cord. ANS: C Cerebral Cortex
139.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
If a cell in a given column responds to touch on the person's right toe, then another cell in the same column would respond to: a. touch on the left toe. b. sounds from the right ear. c. touch on the right finger. d. touch on the right toe. ANS: D Cerebral Cortex
152
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Chapter 1
143.
Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is most important for visual information? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal ANS: A Cerebral Cortex
144.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Occipital Lobe
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Occipital Lobe
What is one important difference between people who are blind because of cortical blindness and others who are blind because of problems with their eyes? a. People with damage to their eyes can still imagine visual scenes. b. People with cortical blindness are really just pretending to be blind. c. There is no distinguishable difference between them. d. People with cortical blindness are also deaf. ANS: A OBJ: 1
148.
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: www
An individual has normal eyes and normal pupillary reflexes but no pattern perception or visual imagery. This person suffers from: a. imagery deficit syndrome. b. cortical blindness. c. parietal lobe degeneration. d. retinal degeneration. ANS: B OBJ: 1
147.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
What deficits does a person suffer after damage to the striate cortex in the occipital lobe? a. Deafness b. Blindness c. Loss of touch and other body sensations d. Loss of fine motor control ANS: B OBJ: 1
146.
DIF: factual REF: Organization of the TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Cortical blindness may result from the destruction of: a. any part of the cortex. b. the occipital cortex. c. the parietal cortex. d. the central sulcus. ANS: B Cerebral Cortex
145.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Occipital Lobe
Which part of the cerebral cortex is most important for the sense of touch? a. Occipital lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Frontal lobe
153
The Major Issues
ANS: B OBJ: 1 149.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Parietal Lobe
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Parietal Lobe
What is the primary target area in the cortex for information regarding muscle-stretch and joint receptors? a. primary somatosensory cortex b. occipital lobe c. central sulcus d. precentral gyrus ANS: A OBJ: 1
153.
REF: The Parietal Lobe
The monitors all the information about eye, head, and body positions and passes it on to brain areas that control movement. a. parietal lobe b. occipital lobe c. central sulcus d. precentral gyrus ANS: A OBJ: 1
152.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
What is the primary target area on the cerebral cortex for touch and other skin sensations? a. olfactory bulbs b. striate cortex c. precentral gyrus d. postcentral gyrus ANS: D OBJ: 1
151.
REF: The Parietal Lobe
The postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe is the primary area for which type of sensation? a. Touch b. Vision c. Hearing d. Smell ANS: A OBJ: 1
150.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Parietal Lobe
Someone who suddenly loses the ability to identify objects by feeling them has probably suffered damage to what area of the cerebral cortex? a. parietal lobe b. temporal lobe c. frontal lobe d. corpus callosum ANS: A OBJ: 1
154
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Chapter 1
REF: The Parietal Lobe
154.
A blind person who suddenly loses the ability to read Braille has probably suffered damage to what area of the cerebral cortex? a. Temporal lobe b. Frontal lobe c. Occipital lobe d. Parietal lobe ANS: D OBJ: 1
155.
REF: The Temporal Lobe
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Temporal Lobe
Which lobe seems to be especially involved in the comprehension of spoken language in humans? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Frontal d. Temporal ANS: D OBJ: 1
158.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
The temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex is the primary target for which kind of sensory information? a. somatosensory, including touch b. the simplest aspects of vision c. gustatory d. auditory ANS: D OBJ: 1
157.
REF: The Parietal Lobe
What is the primary area of the cerebral cortex for auditory sensations? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal ANS: C OBJ: 1
156.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Temporal Lobe
Which lobe contributes to perception of movement and recognition of faces? a. Occipital lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Frontal lobe ANS: C OBJ: 1
155
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
The Major Issues
REF: The Temporal Lobe
159.
A tumor in the temporal lobe may give rise to: a. flashes of light. b. visual hallucinations. c. olfactory hallucinations. d. prolonged yawning. ANS: B OBJ: 1
160.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Temporal Lobe
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex MSC:
REF: The Temporal Lobe www
Which lobe contains the primary motor cortex and the prefrontal cortex? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal ANS: D OBJ: 1
164.
REF: The Temporal Lobe
Following damage to the temporal lobe, monkeys that fail to display normal fear of snakes most likely have which of the following? a. Korsakoff's syndrome b. Kluver-Bucy syndrome c. Wertmann syndrome d. Urbach-Wiethe disease ANS: B OBJ: 1
163.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Monkeys with Kluver-Bucy syndrome fail to show normal fears and anxieties after damage to the: a. temporal lobe. b. parietal lobe. c. occipital lobe. d. frontal lobe. ANS: A OBJ: 1
162.
REF: The Temporal Lobe
Visual hallucinations are often associated with tumors in which brain area? a. temporal lobe b. corpus callosum c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe ANS: A OBJ: 1
161.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Which lobe contains the precentral gyrus? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal
156
Chapter 1
REF: The Frontal Lobe
ANS: D OBJ: 1 165.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Frontal Lobe MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Frontal Lobe
Prefrontal lobotomies were conducted in the United States in an attempt to: a. restore memory. b. restrain prisoners. c. treat severe obesity. d. treat severe psychiatric disorders. ANS: D OBJ: 1
169.
REF: The Frontal Lobe
Neurons in the prefrontal cortex than neurons in other cortical areas. a. are larger in size b. have more dendritic spines c. have greater velocities of action potentials d. are more sensitive to light ANS: B OBJ: 1
168.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
The only area of the cerebral cortex known to receive input from ALL sensory modalities is the: a. thalamus. b. prefrontal cortex. c. striate cortex. d. parietal lobe. ANS: B OBJ: 1
167.
REF: The Frontal Lobe
The precentral gyrus is essential for: a. fine movements. b. coordination between vision and hearing. c. emotions. d. hunger and thirst. ANS: A OBJ: 1
166.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Frontal Lobe
The prefrontal cortex is important for: a. the processing of visual information. b. working memory. c. language acquisition. d. recognizing faces. ANS: B OBJ: 1
157
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
The Major Issues
REF: The Frontal Lobe
170.
Knowing that it is appropriate to tackle people on the football field, but not in the classroom, is dependent on functioning of the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. occipital cortex. c. amygdala. d. somatosensory cortex. ANS: A OBJ: 1
171.
REF: The Frontal Lobe
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Frontal Lobe
If the prefrontal cortex is damaged, an individual may: a. have difficulty remembering where they just put their keys. b. sleep 18-22 hours per day. c. have impaired vision. d. lose memory for faces. ANS: A OBJ: 1
174.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
One reason why people with prefrontal cortex damage may act impulsively is that they have trouble: a. remembering who they are. b. making visual discriminations. c. maintaining normal hormone levels. d. adjusting their behavior to different contexts. ANS: D OBJ: 1
173.
REF: The Frontal Lobe
Damage to the often causes people to lose their social inhibitions and to ignore the rules of polite conduct. a. corpus callosum b. cerebellum c. prefrontal cortex d. striate cortex ANS: C OBJ: 1
172.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
REF: The Frontal Lobe
A person showers with his clothes on and pours water on the tube of toothpaste instead of on the toothbrush. He probably suffers from damage to the: a. occipital lobe. b. striate cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. parietal cortex. ANS: C OBJ: 1
158
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Chapter 1
REF: The Frontal Lobe
175.
The "binding problem" is the issue of how we: a. convert sensory information into a pattern that produces movement. b. perceive visual, auditory and other aspects of a stimulus as a single object. c. transfer information between the left and right hemispheres. d. communicate between the word comprehension and word production areas of the brain. ANS: B Together? MSC: www
176.
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
One currently popular hypothesis about the binding problem is that binding depends on: a. increased velocity of action potentials. b. convergence of all sensory inputs onto a single central processor. c. synchronized activity in different brain areas. d. a special kind of activity in the pineal gland. ANS: C Together?
179.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
Which of the following is TRUE about the cortical areas that are sometimes known as "association areas"? a. They do have the main control of thinking and reasoning. b. They would be better described as additional sensory areas. c. They form associations between touch and hearing. d. They integrate information from more than one sensory system. ANS: B Together?
178.
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
The binding or large-scale integration problem is the difficulty of: a. getting the different parts of the brain to physically connect during development. b. understanding how neurons work. c. knowing how the visual, auditory, and other areas of your brain work together to create a combined perception of a single object. d. how more than one person can perceive the same object at the same time. ANS: C Together?
177.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
The area of the brain known to be important for "binding" is the: a. thalamus. b. central sulcus. c. parietal cortex. d. corpus callosum. ANS: C Together? MSC: www
159
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
The Major Issues
180.
People with damage of the parietal cortex tend to have trouble a. hearing sounds b. locating objects in space c. remembering past events d. speaking ANS: B Together?
181.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
The postcentral gyrus contains a. one b. two c. four d. six ANS: C Together?
183.
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
Individuals with parietal lobe damage: a. have difficulty binding the different aspects of perception. b. bind different aspects of vision only. c. become hyperactive. d. show an increase in synchrony of brain activity. ANS: A Together?
182.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex separate representations of the body.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Correlating Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
Computerized axial tomography creates an image from: a. microwaves. b. infrared rays. c. x-rays. d. gamma rays. ANS: C PTS: 1 Anatomy with Behavior OBJ: 1
185.
DIF: factual REF: How Do the Parts Work TOP: 4.2 The Cerebral Cortex
The study of relating skull anatomy (bumps and depressions) to behavior is known as: a. neurology. b. phrenology. c. psychology. d. scientology. ANS: B PTS: 1 Anatomy with Behavior OBJ: 3
184.
.
DIF: factual REF: Correlating Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
What is the major difference between how phrenologists and today's researchers study the brain? a. Today’s researchers never use case studies. b. Phrenologists did not critically examine their data. c. Today's researchers focus on skull thickness. d. Phrenologists were not concerned with behavior.
160
Chapter 1
ANS: B PTS: 1 Brain Anatomy with Behavior 186.
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 1
If you were interested in determining if the volume of the hippocampus is associated with the amount of stress a person was experiencing, which of the following methods would be the best choice? a. CAT b. fMRI c. PET d. rCBF ANS: A PTS: 1 Anatomy with Behavior OBJ: 1
187.
1
DIF: factual REF: Correlating Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
An electroencephalograph measures: a. action potentials in an individual neuron. b. the electrical resistance of hair. c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain. d. the average activity of the cells in a given region of the brain. ANS: D Activity
190.
DIF: factual REF: Correlating Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
An MRI device creates an image of the brain based on: a. x-rays. b. gamma rays. c. release of electromagnetic energy from atomic nuclei. d. release of radioactive substances. ANS: C PTS: 1 Anatomy with Behavior OBJ:
189.
DIF: conceptual REF: Correlating Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
Which of the following brain imaging techniques does NOT provide a functional measure of brain activity? a. MEG b. EEG c. fMRI d. MRI ANS: D PTS: 1 Anatomy with Behavior OBJ: 1
188.
REF: REF: Correlating TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Recording Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
Evoked potentials in the brain are most likely to be detected by a(n): a. CAT scan. b. MRI. c. EEG. d. PET scan. ANS: C Activity
161
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Recording Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
The Major Issues
191.
Which of the following brain imaging techniques measures faint magnetic fields? a. MEG b. MRI c. EEG d. PET ANS: A PTS: 1 Anatomy with Behavior OBJ: 1
192.
Which of the following methods is dependent upon injecting a radioactive chemical into the blood to measure blood flow? a. fMRI b. PET c. CAT d. magnetic stimulation ANS: B Activity
193.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Recording Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Recording Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
A lesion is: a. an area of brain next to a blood vessel. b. a cell that lines the surface of a ventricle. c. a fluid-filled space in the brain. d. an area that has been damaged. ANS: D OBJ: 3
196.
DIF: factual REF: Recording Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
Which of the following techniques is dependent upon the release of oxygen from hemoglobin molecules? a. PET b. rCBF c. MRI d. fMRI ANS: D Activity
195.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
One major problem with studies that use PET or rCBF is: a. choosing an appropriate comparison condition. b. getting the blood to move where you want it. c. they can be done only while someone is asleep. d. they are completely noninvasive. ANS: A Activity
194.
DIF: factual REF: Correlating Brain TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
An ablation is: a. an area of brain next to a blood vessel. b. a brain area that has been removed. c. a fluid-filled space in the brain. d. an area that has been damaged.
162
Chapter 1
REF: Effects of Brain Damage
ANS: B OBJ: 3 197.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
REF: Effects of Brain Damage
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
REF: Effects of Brain Damage
How does the method of transcranial magnetic stimulation of brain areas differ from magnetic inactivation? a. Brain activation results from long, intense magnetic stimulation. b. Brain inactivation results from mild, brief magnetic stimulation. c. The magnets are simply reversed. d. Brain activation results from mild, brief magnetic stimulation. ANS: D OBJ: 3
201.
REF: Effects of Brain Damage
The purpose of creating a sham lesion is to: a. destroy a brain area believed to be interfering with normal behavior. b. assess the effects of introducing an electrode. c. test the stereotaxic map. d. create a path for injecting chemicals. ANS: B OBJ: 3
200.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
Researchers using a biochemical method to direct a mutation to a particular gene are using the approach. a. sham lesion b. gene-splicing c. lesion d. gene-knockout ANS: B OBJ: 3
199.
REF: Effects of Brain Damage
A stereotaxic instrument would most likely be used for: a. placing an electrode in the brain. b. assessing regional blood flow. c. testing reflexes. d. measuring blood pressure. ANS: A OBJ: 3
198.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
REF: Effects of Brain Damage
Based on brain-to-body weight ratio, it appears that: a. language is a by-product of this ratio. b. humans have the highest ratio of all species. c. this ratio is a constant across vertebrates. d. intelligence is not simply an outcome of this ratio. ANS: D Intelligence
163
PTS: 1 OBJ: NA
DIF: factual REF: Brain Size and TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
The Major Issues
202.
Which of the following species has the highest brain-to-body ratio? a. Humans b. Frogs c. squirrel monkey d. Elephant ANS: C Intelligence
203.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Size and TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
So far, it appears that the brain feature most strongly correlated with intelligence in humans is the: a. volume of the hippocampus. b. brain-to-body ratio. c. brain weight. d. amount of gray matter. ANS: D Intelligence
204.
PTS: 1 OBJ: NA
PTS: 1 OBJ: NA
DIF: factual REF: Brain Size and TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
Women on the average have a greater density of neurons in part of the a. hippocampus b. temporal lobe c. frontal lobe d. gray matter ANS: B Intelligence
PTS: 1 OBJ: NA
.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Size and TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
SHORT ANSWER 1. Organize the following divisions of the nervous system in a hierarchy to show the relationships between them: central, peripheral, autonomic, sympathetic, parasympathetic, somatic. ANS: The complete nervous system can be divided into the central and peripheral nervous systems. The peripheral is further divided into the somatic and autonomic. The autonomic is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Terminology to Describe the Nervous System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
2. Describe the Bell-Magendie law. ANS: The Bell-Magendie law, which was one of the first discoveries about the functions of the nervous system states that the entering dorsal roots (axon bundles) in the spinal cord carry sensory information and the exiting ventral roots carry motor information. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
164
DIF: conceptual REF: 86 REF: The Spinal Cord TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
Chapter 1
3. Describe the main differences between basal ganglia and cerebellum function. ANS: Cerebellum: contributions to the control of movement, balance and coordination Basal Ganglia: initiation of movements, connections to the frontal areas of the cortex, which are responsible for planning sequences of behavior and for certain aspects of memory and emotional expression. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: The Forebrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
4. Name the major parts of the ventricular system. ANS: Lateral ventricles, third ventricle, cerebral aqueduct, fourth ventricle, central canal. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Ventricles TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
OBJ: 3
5. Name the major subcortical areas of the forebrain. ANS: The subcortical areas of the forebrain include the thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, basal ganglia, and hippocampus. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Forebrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
OBJ: 3
6. Name and describe two different methods for measuring brain function (not anatomy). ANS: PET scan: Uses an injection of a radioactive substance that, as it decays, produces gamma rays that are detected outside of the head. Greater radioactivity in a particular area indicates greater blood flow to that region. fMRI: The presence of hemoglobin with oxygen acts differently in a magnetic field than hemoglobin without oxygen. Because active areas of the brain use more oxygen, these areas can be detected by MRI equipment that is sensitive to these magnetic differences. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
REF: Recording Brain Activity
ESSAY 1. Describe the basic anatomy and function of the spinal cord. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1
165
DIF: conceptual
REF: The Spinal Cord
The Major Issues
OBJ:
1
OBJ: 3
TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
2. Describe the basic functions and components of the autonomic nervous system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 MSC: www
DIF: conceptual REF: The Autonomic Nervous System TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
3. Briefly describe the general organization of the Cerebral cortex, including a brief description of each cortical lobe. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: The Forebrain TOP: 4.1 Structure of the Vertebrate Nervous System
4. Briefly describe the main categories of methods for studying brain function. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
REF: Recording Brain Activity
OBJ:
1
5. Briefly describe some of the gender differences found in human brains. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 4.3 Research Methods
REF: Brain Size and Intelligence
OBJ: NA
6. Briefly discuss some of the limits of brain research methods. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Recording Brain Activity TOP: 4.3 Research MethodsMSC: www
Chapter 5: Development and Plasticity of the Brain TRUE/FALSE
166
Chapter 1
OBJ: 1
1. The human central nervous system begins to form when the embryo is about 10 weeks old. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
2. Once the brain is fully developed, the anatomy of the brain is unchanging. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
3. The fluid-filled cavity within the neural tube becomes the central canal of the spinal cord and the four ventricles of the brain. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
4. Proliferation is the production of new cells. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
5. Axons are usually formed before the dendrites. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
6. After cells have differentiated as neurons or glia, they migrate. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
7. An early and fast stage of neuronal development is myelination. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
8. Some neurons provide the myelination for other neurons. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
9. Myelination of the brain and spinal cord is complete by the time of birth. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain 10.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Synaptogenesis is a process that begins before birth and continues throughout life.
167
The Major Issues
ANS: T Vertebrate Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
11. Recent evidence suggests that adult vertebrate brains generate new neurons. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
12. The number of neurons in the brain is continually increasing throughout life. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
13. Mammals and amphibians are similar in that they can both easily generate new axons. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
14. The brain requires millions of chemicals to correctly guide the growth of axons to their target locations. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
15. Apoptosis is distinct from necrosis, which is death caused by an injury or a toxic substance. ANS: T Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
16. Nerve growth factor is a chemical that promotes the survival and activity of neurons. ANS: T Neuronal Survival MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
17. The developing infant brain is highly resistant to damage. ANS: F Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
18. Physical exercise is important for increased dendrite growth and branching. ANS: T Experience
168
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Chapter 1
19. Exercise may account for some of the neural benefits that come from rearing rats in an enriched environment. ANS: T Experience MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
20. A rat in a more stimulating environment develops a thicker cortex, more dendritic branching, and improved learning. ANS: T Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
21. The most common cause of brain damage in children is closed head injury. ANS: T PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
22. In strokes caused by ischemia or hemorrhage, neurons die from overstimulation. ANS: T PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
23. The damaging effects of a stroke can be limited if treated within a short period of time. ANS: T PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
24. Diaschisis refers to the decreased activity of surviving neurons after damage to other neurons. ANS: T Recovery www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage MSC:
25. One effective method to overcome diaschisis after brain damage is to administer stimulant drugs. ANS: T Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
26. An axon in the peripheral nervous system is more likely to recover after being cut than if it is crushed. ANS: F Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
27. Paralysis caused by spinal cord injury is usually only temporary in humans. ANS: F Recovery MSC: www
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28. Denervation supersensitivity results from the disuse of incoming axons. ANS: F Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
29. Recent evidence suggests that phantom limb pain is caused by sensations coming from the stump of the amputated limb. ANS: F Recovery www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage MSC:
30. Deafferentation of the left arm results in the inability to move it. ANS: F Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ability of the brain to change its anatomy over time, within limits, is known as: a. plasticity. b. regression. c. connectivity. d. long term potentiation. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
OBJ: 1
2. Early in development, the nervous system begins as a: a. tube surrounding a fluid-filled cavity. b. spherical structure in the center of the embryo. c. diffuse system of cells scattered throughout the body. d. single layer of cells covering the heart and other internal organs. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
3. The human central nervous system: a. begins to form during the fetal stage. b. is unlike all other vertebrate central nervous systems in its developmental process. c. begins to form when the embryo is about two weeks old. d. begins to form when the embryo is about two months old. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
4. As the neural tube sinks under the surface of the skin, the forward end enlarges and differentiates into the:
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a. b. c. d.
spine, midbrain, and forebrain. hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain. hindbrain, midbrain. midbrain, forebrain.
ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
5. When do the ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord form? a. shortly after birth in humans b. just as the forebrain starts its rapid phase of growth c. early in embryonic development d. during the third trimester ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
6. The fluid-filled cavity of the developing neural tube becomes the: a. forebrain. b. midbrain. c. spinal cord. d. ventricular system. ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
7. What is the production of new neurons called? a. differentiation b. migration c. myelination d. proliferation ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
8. Stem cells are important for which of the following developmental processes? a. migration b. proliferation c. myelination d. synaptogenesis ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain MSC: www
9. Proliferation is the: a. production of new cells. b. movement of primitive neurons and glia. c. formation of dendrites and an axon. d. insulation process that occurs on some axons.
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ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain MSC: www
10. Proliferation occurs: a. at the top of the spinal column. b. around the vesicles. c. around the ventricles. d. at the expanding edge of the brain. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
11. After cells have differentiated as neurons or glia, they: a. differentiate. b. proliferate. c. myelinate. d. migrate. ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
12. Chemicals known as and guide neuron migration. a. immunoglobulins; sodium b. glia; neurothrophins c. immunoglobulins; chemokines d. chemokines; neurothrophins ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: conceptual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
13. What term describes the movement of primitive neurons and glia within the developing nervous system? a. Differentiation b. Migration c. Myelination d. Proliferation ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
14. Which of the following would most likely interfere with migration of neurons during development? a. altering the chemical paths b. damaging dendrites c. loss of myelin d. increased differentiation ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: conceptual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
15. Migration is the: a. production of new cells.
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b. movement of primitive neurons and glia. c. gradual formation of dendrites and an axon. d. insulation process that occurs on some axons. ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
16. Immunoglobulins and chemokines play an important role in neural: a. migration. b. proliferation. c. synaptogenesis. d. apoptosis. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
17. Which of the following best characterizes how axons arrive at the correct target cells? a. They follow electrical gradients. b. They follow chemical gradients from the target cell. c. Axons send out chemicals to the target cells. d. Target cells send out branches for the axons to follow. ANS: B OBJ: 2TOP:
PTS: 1 DIF: factual 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
18. Migration requires: a. a precise chemical environment. b. cells which are myelinated. c. mature neurons. d. neurons with fully developed dendrites. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
19. Differentiation is the: a. production of new cells. b. movement of primitive neurons and glia. c. formation of dendrites and an axon. d. insulation process that occurs on some axons. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
20. What is the process called when a primitive neuron begins to develop dendrites and an axon? a. Differentiation b. Migration c. Myelination d. Proliferation ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
21. The formation of a neuron’s distinctive shape occurs during the
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stage of neurogenesis.
a. proliferation b. migration c. differentiation d. myelination ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
22. Whether or not a transplanted immature neuron adopts the properties of neurons in the new location or retains at least some properties of neurons from where it was taken from depends largely on how much the transplanted neuron has: a. myelinated. b. proliferated. c. migrated. d. differentiated. ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
23. After the migrating neuron reaches its destination, a. dendrites b. axons c. nuclei d. ganglions ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
begin to form.
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain MSC: www
24. Myelination is a process common to: a. all vertebrate axons. b. all vertebrate dendrites. c. some vertebrate axons. d. some invertebrate axons. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
25. For some axons, glial cells produce an insulating sheath that makes rapid transmission possible. What is this process called? a. Differentiation b. Migration c. Myelination d. Proliferation ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
26. In humans, myelination first occurs in the: a. spinal cord. b. hindbrain. c. midbrain. d. forebrain.
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ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain MSC: www
27. Myelination in the human brain: a. is complete upon birth. b. is complete around the second birthday. c. is complete sometime shortly after adolescence. d. continues well into the adult years. ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
28. The stages of neurogenesis that occur for the longest duration are: a. myelination and synaptogenesis. b. proliferation and myelination. c. migration and proliferation. d. differentiation and migration. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
29. The final stage of neurodevelopment is called: a. synaptogenesis. b. differentiation. c. migration. d. fusion. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
30. The formation of new synapses is called: a. synaptogenesis. b. differentiation. c. migration. d. fusion. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
31. New neurons are known to develop in all of the following cases EXCEPT: a. olfactory receptors. b. the human corpus callosum. c. the brain area responsible for birdsong. d. hippocampus of mammals.
ANS: B Vertebrate Brain KEY: NEW
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DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
The Major Issues
32. As a rule, all vertebrate neurons develop during an embryological stage. Among the few types of neurons that can develop in adulthood are: a. ganglion cells in the retina. b. olfactory receptors. c. motor nerves in the spinal cord. d. long-axoned neurons of the primary motor cortex. ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
33. Brain cells that are neither neurons nor glia, but which are capable of dividing and then differentiating into neurons or glia, are called: a. parallel fibers. b. intrinsic cells. c. stem cells. d. glomeruli. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
34. What happened when Weiss grafted an extra leg onto a salamander adjacent to one of the hindlegs? a. The new leg gradually took over for the old. b. The new leg withered and died. c. Nerves from the old leg attached to the new in a random fashion. d. Branches of axons from the old leg attached to corresponding muscles in the new. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
35. What process occurs when axons attempt to form connections to a grafted limb in a salamander? a. Axons connect randomly, but only muscles "tuned" to the right message respond. b. Axons connect randomly and muscles learn to coordinate through experience. c. Axons find their way to corresponding muscles in the new leg. d. A lack of nerve growth fiber leads to the degeneration of the new leg. ANS: C OBJ: 2
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Chapter 1
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
36. If you cut the optic nerve of a newt, what happens? a. The fibers grow back and attach to random targets, so they see a scrambled picture. b. The fibers grow back and attach to their original targets, resulting in normal vision. c. The newt remains blind, since neurons do not regenerate. d. The fibers attach to multiple targets, resulting in blurry vision. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
37. Chemicals in the amphibian tectum guide the growth of axons from the retina to their correct location in the tectum by: a. having dozens of different growth factors. b. using an electrical gradient. c. using a chemical gradient. d. glial cell transportation. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
38. Roger Sperry cut a newt's optic nerve and rotated the eye. Axons from what used to be the dorsal part of the retina (now located on the ventral side) grew back to the target areas: a. that ordinarily get input from the dorsal retina. b. that ordinarily get input from the ventral retina. c. that ordinarily get input from the center of the retina. d. equally and diffusely. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
39. When Sperry cut a newt's optic nerve and rotated the eye by 180 degrees, each axon: a. degenerated. b. regenerated to a random location. c. regenerated to the area where it had originally been. d. regenerated, but to the area appropriate to its new location. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons KEY: NEW MSC: www
40. What visual capabilities did Sperry's newt have after Sperry cut the optic nerve and rotated the eye? a. It regained normal vision. b. It saw the world upside down and backwards. c. It required experience to relearn how to see. d. It remained blind. ANS: B OBJ: 2
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The Major Issues
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
41. Which of the following best describes the process by which developing axons find their general target areas? a. completely random growth b. shape attraction c. electrical attraction d. chemical attraction ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
42. Axons sort themselves over the surface of the target area: a. by following a gradient of chemicals. b. through apoptosis. c. through necrosis. d. based on their size. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons MSC: www
43. Which of the following are selective as axons form synapses with target cells? a. axons, but not target cells b. target cells, but not axons c. both axons and target cells d. neither axons nor target cells ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
44. Competition of neurons for postsynaptic sites results in survival of only the most successful axons. This general principle is called: a. natural selection. b. evolution. c. apoptosis. d. neural Darwinism. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons MSC: www
45. The concept that neurons refine their many connections based on which ones are most successful is known as: a. natural selection. b. evolution. c. survival of the fittest. d. neural Darwinism. ANS: D OBJ: 2
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Chapter 1
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
46. What is meant by neural Darwinism? a. The brains of higher primates are the ones that are most similar to those of humans. b. Most individual differences in the brain are due to genetic mutations. c. Successful neurons develop while less successful neurons weaken or die. d. Successful neurons reproduce while less successful neurons do not. ANS: C OBJ: 2 47. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
steer new axonal branches and synapses in the right direction. Chemokines Immunoglobulin Glia Neurotrophins
ANS: D Neuronal Survival MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
48. Why is it that all neurons in a healthy adult brain have made appropriate connections? a. Chemical messages from our muscles tell our brain how many neurons to form and that number perfectly matches the connections required. b. If an axon does not make the appropriate connections by a certain age, it dies. c. We are born with all connections formed. d. Connections form rapidly, but we learn to use whatever connections have formed. ANS: B Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
49. Why is it that every axon in an adult mammal has a target cell (muscle cell or other neuron) with which it makes synaptic contact? a. Each target cell causes the growth of a neuron and its axon. b. After formation, axons release a chemical that causes a target cell to form. c. Axons that fail to find a target cell die. d. An axon will make contact with any kind of cell and adjust its function as necessary. ANS: C Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
50. What is signaled by nerve growth factor (NGF)? a. That a target cell has "accepted" an axon b. Which target cell a growing axon should connect with c. That axons should elongate as the body grows bigger d. The need for new neurons to form in brain areas that are lacking in neurons ANS: A Neuronal Survival
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The Major Issues
51. Nerve growth factor (NGF): a. promotes the survival and growth of the axon. b. is a fuel metabolized by neurons. c. promotes programmed cell death. d. is a hormone first released at puberty. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
52. Necrosis: a. is a programmed mechanism of cell death. b. is cell death caused by an injury or a toxic substance. c. promotes the survival and growth of dendrites. d. promotes the activity of neurons. ANS: B Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
53. Apoptosis: a. is a programmed mechanism of cell death. b. promotes the survival and growth of the axon. c. promotes the survival and growth of dendrites. d. promotes the activity of neurons. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
54. If a sympathetic nervous system axon does not receive enough nerve growth factor, the neuron will: a. kill itself. b. grow a shorter axon. c. compensate by growing more dendrites. d. decrease its velocity of action potentials. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
55. What is apoptosis? a. the growth of an axon in response to NGF b. the leakage of transmitters from vesicles c. a program of "suicide" by a neuron d. dendritic branching in the sympathetic nervous system ANS: C Neuronal Survival
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Chapter 1
56. Some neurons die during development because: a. they are surrounded by glia. b. they do not receive enough GABA. c. they receive too much NGF. d. they fail to receive enough NGF. ANS: D Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
57. The function of neurotrophins is to: a. inhibit proliferation. b. promote survival of axons. c. be used as fuel. d. signal that an axon has been "rejected." ANS: B Neuronal Survival MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
58. Which of the following is NOT a function of neurotrophins? a. Direct axonal growth during development. b. Increase axonal branching in mature neurons. c. Increase regrowth of axons after brain damage. d. Induce apoptosis of neurons. ANS: D Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
59. Developing neurons need for survival. a. neurotrophins only b. neurotrophins and synaptic input c. synaptic input only d. apoptosis ANS: B Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
60. An axon that does not receive enough neurotrophins from a target cell will: a. branch out and form other synapses on other cells. b. manufacture its own neurotrophins. c. degenerate and die. d. fail to reabsorb transmitters that have already been released. ANS: C Neuronal Survival
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The Major Issues
61. In development, neurotrophins . During adulthood, they a. preserve neurons; produce apoptosis b. produce apoptosis; increase neuronal branching c. facilitate differentiation; facilitate migration d. preserve neurons; increase neuronal branching ANS: D Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
.
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
62. At later stages of the neuron's development, neurotrophins: a. increase the branching of axons. b. cause the neuron's death. c. become converted into myelin. d. connect the axon to axons of adjoining cells. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
63. Which statement most accurately describes embryonic development of the nervous system in humans? a. The majority of cells remain as primitive neurons until birth. b. All synapses that are formed are permanent. c. Neurons form before birth; synapses form after birth. d. Far more neurons are produced than will ultimately survive. ANS: D Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
64. In response to nervous system injury, neurotrophins: a. cause the neuron's death. b. reduce inflammation due to this injury. c. increase regrowth of damaged axons. d. promote apoptosis. ANS: C Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
65. Massive cell death in the brain during prenatal development is: a. an indication of a genetic abnormality. b. an indication of restricted blood flow to the fetus. c. usually due to an autoimmune disorder. d. normal. ANS: D Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
66. The most likely explanation for the excess proliferation of neurons in early development is that it: a. compensates for connection errors. b. uses up excess stored fuel. c. increases learning capacity when it is most needed. d. prevents apoptosis.
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ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
67. For survival, developing neurons need: a. neurotrophins only. b. neurotrophins and synaptic input. c. synaptic input only. d. apoptosis. ANS: B Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
68. Compared to an adult, a fetus has: a. more neurons. b. approximately the same number of neurons. c. about half the number of neurons. d. about one-tenth the number of neurons. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
69. After maturity, the apoptotic mechanisms become: a. hyperactive. b. extinct. c. dormant. d. very complex. ANS: C Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
70. An iodine deficiency in the diet can lead to an inadequate production of thyroid hormones. What is the result if this occurs in an infant or developing fetus? a. Down's syndrome b. mental retardation c. Tourette's syndrome d. accelerated body growth ANS: B Developing Brain
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
The Major Issues
71. What modern day practice helps prevent an inadequate production of thyroid hormones? a. fluoride in drinking water b. processed sugar c. iodized salt d. artificial sweeteners ANS: C Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
72. In infants, anesthetic drugs can increase: a. proliferation. b. migration. c. myelination. d. apoptosis. ANS: D Developing Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
73. Children of mothers who drink heavily during pregnancy are born with: a. fetal alcohol syndrome b. Turner's syndrome c. Klinefelter's syndrome d. PKU ANS: A Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
74. The mechanism of fetal alcohol syndrome probably relates to: a. overexcited neurons. b. apoptosis. c. decreases apoptosis. d. necrosis. ANS: B Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
75. What condition would be suspected if a young child shows decreased alertness, hyperactivity, mental retardation, motor problems, a heart defect, and abnormal facial features? a. fetal alcohol syndrome b. Turner's syndrome c. Klinefelter's syndrome d. PKU ANS: A Developing Brain
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Chapter 1
76. The most likely reason that children with fetal alcohol syndrome have brain abnormalities is because alcohol: a. overexcites neurons. b. stimulates nerve growth factor. c. decreases apoptosis. d. decreases release of neurotrophins. ANS: D Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
77. What brain abnormalities are found in children with fetal alcohol syndrome? a. short axons with few branches b. short dendrites with few branches c. lack of dopamine receptors d. smaller than normal ventricles ANS: B Developing Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
78. Alcohol suppresses the release of a. 5-HT b. DA c. GABA d. glutamate ANS: D Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain , the brain’s main excitatory transmitter.
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
79. How much alcohol, if any, can a pregnant woman drink without worrying about the negative effects on her child? a. The equivalent of two cocktails a day b. The equivalent of one beer a day c. Anything less than what causes her to act drunk d. Unknown, and therefore abstention is recommended ANS: D Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
80. Alcohol can damage the developing brain by: a. tearing the cell membrane. b. increasing synaptic inhibition and therefore apoptosis. c. overstimulating neurons. d. interfering with protein production. ANS: B Developing Brain
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
The Major Issues
81. Children of mothers who use cocaine during pregnancy: a. have a slightly higher birth weight. b. are likely to develop Turner's syndrome. c. have a slightly lower IQ score. d. are born with severe abnormalities resembling cerebral palsy. ANS: C OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 131 TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain - The Vulnerable Developing Brain
82. Children of mothers who smoke cigarettes during pregnancy are at an increased risk of: a. intellectual deficits. b. Korsakoff's syndrome. c. Rett syndrome. d. Parkinson's disease. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 131 TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain - The Vulnerable Developing Brain
83. On average, exposure to nicotine during pregnancy increases risk of a. emotional b. attention c. learning d. memory ANS: B Developing Brain KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
deficits.
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
84. Which of the following, if any, would be more damaging to an adult brain than to the brain of an infant or fetus? a. Exposure to alcohol b. Infections like German measles c. Iodine deficiency in the diet d. All of these are more damaging to an infant brain. ANS: D Developing Brain
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
86. Keeping animals in a varied environment with stimulation increases the: a. branching of dendrites. b. speed of action potentials. c. density of Nodes of Ranvier along the axon. d. thickness of axons. ANS: A Experience
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DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Chapter 1
87. The areas of the cortex used by expert video game players are most likely to cortical areas of those who don’t play video games. a. be thicker b. have smaller, but a greater number of neurons c. have faster action potentials d. be more resistant to transcortical stimulation ANS: A Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
than the same
DIF: conceptual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
88. Which of the following aspects of brain and neural functioning can be most clearly altered by experience? a. velocity of action potentials b. structure of dendrites and axons c. chemical constituents of the ventricles d. number of laminae in the cerebral cortex ANS: B Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
89. What is different about rats raised in an enriched environment in comparison to rats raised in an impoverished environment? a. a more pleasant personality b. improved learning performance c. better parenting skills d. nothing ANS: B Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
90. Research in people over age 60 who were randomly assigned to experience six months of aerobic exercise showed: a. that they developed more axons. b. that they developed less tumors. c. that they developed greater thickness of the cortex. d. that they developed less thickness of the cortex. ANS: C Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
91. Which of the following factors seems to be particularly important for branching of neurons during brain development? a. Physical activity b. Playing logic games c. Having good teachers d. Having a sterile environment ANS: A Experience MSC: www
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DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
The Major Issues
92. Brain studies of blind people suggest that they have greater attention to touch and auditory stimulation because: a. cortical areas for touch and audition are thicker. b. their visual cortex is used for touch and verbal tasks. c. they have greater neural branching. d. they have greater neurotrophin release. ANS: B Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
93. An MEG study of professional musicians listening to pure tones showed that: a. professional musicians had brain responses that were twice as strong as non-musicians. b. professional musicians had slightly less brain responses as non-musicians. c. professional musicians had drastically less brain responses as non-musicians. d. professional musicians had brain responses five times as strong as non-musicians. ANS: A Experience
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DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
94. Musicians who use the left hand to finger the violin strings have some alterations in one brain area, which is the: a. left hemisphere prefrontal cortex. b. right hemisphere prefrontal cortex. c. left hemisphere postcentral gyrus. d. right hemisphere postcentral gyrus. ANS: D Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
95. Focal hand dystonia, sometimes called "musician's cramp", is caused by: a. extreme overlap of cortical representation of the fingers. b. deterioration of muscles in the hand. c. demyelination of neurons in the fingers. d. buildup of excess GABA in the temporal cortex. ANS: A Experience
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DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
96. Closed head injury is: a. the most common cause of brain damage in young adults. b. usually fatal. c. the most common cause of Korsakoff's syndrome. d. related to Alzheimer's disease. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Short-Term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage 97. The most common cause of brain damage in young people is: a. infection. b. gunshot wounds. c. stroke. d. closed head injury.
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REF: Brain Damage and
98. Closed head injury results in damage partially because of: a. increased production of myelin. b. excessive deficit of neurotrophins. c. rotational forces that push the brain against the inside of the skull. d. infection. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Short-Term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
REF: Brain Damage and
99. A sharp blow to the head resulting from an assault or trauma that does not actually puncture the brain is called a: a. stroke. b. cerebrovascular accident. c. hemorrhage. d. closed head injury. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Short-Term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
REF: Brain Damage and
100. Which of the following is the most common cause of a stroke? a. Lack of glucose b. Ischemia from an obstruction of an artery c. Hemorrhage of an artery d. Blow to the head ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
101. A stroke caused by an artery rupturing is also known as: a. ischemia. b. hemorrhage. c. closed head injury. d. penumbra. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
102. Which of the following is not a cerebrovascular accident? a. Ischemia b. Hemorrhage c. Stroke d. Penumbra ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
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The Major Issues
103. A stroke which is caused when an artery ruptures is also known as: a. ischemia. b. hemorrhage. c. closed head injury. d. penumbra. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2 104. Ischemia is to as hemorrhage is to a. older individuals; younger individuals b. proximal; distal c. obstruction; rupture d. barely noticeable; lethal ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage .
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
105. What does edema mean? a. Lack of glucose b. Ischemia from an obstruction of an artery c. Hemorrhage of an artery d. Swelling due to accumulation of fluid ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
106. After a stroke, cells in the penumbra: a. are the first to die. b. help to remove dead or dying cells in the area of damage. c. quickly become more active, compensating for the area of damage. d. may die days or weeks after a stroke. ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
107. After ischemia, neurons deprived of blood: a. transform from neurons into glia. b. lose much of their oxygen and glucose supplies. c. break down the blood-brain barrier. d. increase the velocity of their action potentials. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW 108. a. b. c. d.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
cells proliferate after a stroke. Penumbra Microglia Ischemia Cancer
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DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
110. Ischemia and hemorrhage kill neurons by: a. understimulating them. b. overstimulating them. c. overactivating the sodium-potassium pump. d. depleting the glutamate supply available to neurons. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
111. A stroke kills neurons in two waves, first by and second by a. overstimulation; understimulation b. Understimulation; overstimulation c. collateral sprouting; denervation supersensitivity d. denervation supersensitivity; collateral sprouting ANS: A PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
.
DIF: 140 REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
112. Damage due to stroke caused by ischemia can be minimized by administering a drug that: a. breaks up blood clots. b. overstimulates neurons in and around the damaged area. c. increases the release of glutamate. d. slows down the sodium-potassium pump. ANS: A PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
113. Although the following methods may or may not actually work, which one would theoretically be of potential benefit to stroke victims? a. increasing activity at glutamate receptors b. opening sodium channels c. closing potassium channels d. blocking glutamate receptors ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
114. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA): a. is recommended for hemorrhage. b. overstimulates glutamate receptors. c. should be administered a few days after stroke. d. is helpful in cases of ischemia. ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
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The Major Issues
115. Which of the following would be the best treatment for helping someone who is suffering from a stroke caused by a blood clot? a. decrease activity of the sodium-potassium pump b. warm the brain c. administer tPA d. enhance glutamate release ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
116. In research aimed at minimizing damage due to stroke, attempts to prevent overstimulation of cells have produced: a. very promising results. b. disappointing results. c. a complex interaction between age of patient and season of the year. d. positive results in humans, but not so for animals. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
117. Researchers have tried using drugs that block apoptosis. Results have been: a. favorable in animals and human trials. b. favorable in animal trials but too costly to try with humans. c. favorable in animal trials but difficult or impractical to apply to humans. d. unfavorable in all research trials. ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
118. One approach in minimizing stroke damage in laboratory animals is the use of: a. calcium b. serotonin c. cannabinoids d. opioids ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
119. To date, the most effective laboratory method minimizing the damage resulting from stroke in nonhuman animals has been to: a. use drugs which trap free radicals. b. use drugs which effect cannabinoids. c. use neurotrophins which block apoptosis. d. cool the brain. ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
120. In hemorrhage, cells in the penumbra: a. lose much of their oxygen. b. lose much of their glucose. c. are flooded with excess oxygen. d. act quickly to strengthen the blood-brain barrier.
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DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
121. Research on laboratory animals indicates that cannabinoids are most effective if taken: a. as soon as the stroke occurs. b. within 20 minutes of the stroke. c. steadily for one month. d. shortly before the stroke. ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1 NEW
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
122. Diaschisis refers to the: a. increase in activity of neurons surrounding a damaged area. b. decreased activity of surviving neurons after other neurons are damaged. c. increased activity in the cerebral cortex after damage to any part of the brain. d. increased activity in the hypothalamus after damage to any part of the brain. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
123. A lesion in the hypothalamus can lead to decreased activity in the cerebral cortex, even though the cerebral cortex is undamaged. The decreased activity in the cortex because of the loss of incoming neurons is called: a. diaschisis. b. deafferentation. c. cytotoxicity. d. hyperpolarization. ANS: A Recovery
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DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
124. To promote recovery, stroke victims should be given: a. stimulant drugs immediately after the stroke. b. any drug that decreases dopamine. c. stimulant drugs a few days after the stroke. d. tranquilizers a few days after the stroke. ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
125. Following a stroke, amphetamine could help by: a. inducing apoptosis. b. blocking activity in overstimulated areas of the brain. c. blocking glutamate release. d. increasing activity in understimulated areas of the brain. ANS: D Recovery
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The Major Issues
126. Which of the following treatments would be most likely to help a patient starting several days after a stroke? a. Injecting a drug to block dopamine b. Administering tranquilizers c. Extensive bed rest d. Giving stimulant drugs combined with physical therapy ANS: D Recovery MSC: www
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DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
127. Which axons will regenerate to a significant degree if cut or crushed? a. Those in invertebrates but not in vertebrates b. Only those which are unmyelinated c. Those in the central nervous system but not in the peripheral nervous system d. Those in the peripheral nervous system but not in the central nervous system ANS: D Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
128. What is one impediment to regeneration of axons in the mammalian central nervous system? a. Inhibitory chemicals secreted by the damaged portion of the axon b. Bacterial infections caused by the decaying tissue c. Large amounts of scar tissue d. Inhibitory messages sent from the cell nucleus when an axon is damaged ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
129. A damaged axon: a. will never grow back. b. can grow back under certain circumstances. c. will grow back if its dendrites do also. d. will grow back only if it is myelinated. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
130. After a cut through the spinal cord, axons grow back enough to restore functioning in certain but not in . a. adults; infants b. infants; adults c. fish; mammals d. mammals; primates ANS: C Recovery
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Chapter 1
131. One limiting factor in the ability of damaged axons to regenerate in the brain and spinal cord is that: a. they don't have any myelin to guide them. b. they regenerate only one to two millimeters. c. growing dendrites compete with growing axons. d. there are no muscles in the brain and spinal cord to guide the growth. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
132. Scar tissue and myelin are similar in that they both: a. secrete chemicals to restore axons. b. are produced after brain damage. c. are formed in normal development of the nervous system. d. secrete chemicals that inhibit axon growth. ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
133. What is one impediment to regeneration of axons in the mammalian central nervous system? a. Inhibitory chemicals secreted by the damaged portion of the axon b. Bacterial infections caused by the decaying tissue c. Glia release chemicals that inhibit axon growth d. Inhibitory messages sent from the cell nucleus when an axon is damaged ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
134. One reason why axons regenerate better in the peripheral nervous system of mammals than in the central nervous system is that the peripheral nervous system: a. has fewer myelinated axons. b. has glial cells that destroy scar tissue. c. maintains a temperature closer to that at which embryonic cells form. d. produces a chemical that promotes axon growth. ANS: D Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
135. Central nervous system axons regenerate much better in fish than in mammals because fish: a. nerves do not have to travel so far to reach their target. b. myelin does not secrete proteins that inhibit axon growth. c. nerves have so much more myelin than do mammal nerves. d. myelin secretes a protein that accelerates regeneration. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
136. Central nervous system axons regenerate much better in fish than in mammals because: a. fish nerves do not have to travel so far to reach their target. b. fewer fish nerves are covered with myelin. c. fish do not produce as much scar tissue. d. fish generally have a lower body temperature.
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ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
137. After central nervous system damage, myelin: a. degenerates and dies. b. secretes proteins that inhibit axon regrowth. c. secretes proteins that enhance some regrowth of axons. d. becomes thicker in surviving axons. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
138. If some of the axons innervating a given cell are destroyed or if they become inactive, what compensatory process takes place in the remaining presynaptic cells? a. activation of previously silent synapses b. removal of toxins c. denervation supersensitivity d. collateral sprouting ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
139. What is the term for the new branches that may form in uninjured axons after damage to surrounding axons? a. collateral sprouts b. bifurcations c. denervation supersensitivity d. diaschisis ANS: A Recovery MSC: www
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
140. After damaging input to the hippocampus, collateral sprouting is associated with improvements in: a. memory. b. taste. c. vision. d. hearing. ANS: A Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
141. After damage to a set of axons, neurotrophins induce nearby: a. injured axons to form new branches. b. injured dendrites to form new branches. c. uninjured axons to form new branches. d. uninjured dendrites to form new branches. ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 1
142. If a tree branch is cut, the surrounding branches may grow enough to fill in the empty space left by the missing branch. When this same type of event occurs in the nervous system following brain damage, it is called: a. hemiplegia. b. denervation supersensitivity. c. collateral sprouting. d. tree branching. ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
143. After damage to the connections to the left hippocampus from the left entorhinal cortex, sprouts develop from the: a. left occipital cortex. b. right entorhinal cortex. c. left hippocampus. d. right hippocampus. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
144. Heightened sensitivity to a neurotransmitter after the destruction of an incoming axon is known as: a. axon supersensitivity b. disuse supersensitivity c. enervation supersensitivity d. denervation supersensitivity ANS: D Recovery 145. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
helps compensate for decreased axon input. Axon supersensitivity Disuse supersensitivity Enervation supersensitivity Denervation supersensitivity
ANS: D Recovery MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
146. Damage to some of the axons that innervate a given structure may give rise to: a. collateral sprouting, but not denervation supersensitivity. b. denervation supersensitivity, but not collateral sprouting. c. both collateral sprouting and denervation supersensitivity. d. neither collateral sprouting nor denervation supersensitivity. ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
The Major Issues
147. If most of the axons that transmit dopamine to some brain area die or become inactive, the remaining dopamine synapses become: a. less responsive. b. less easily stimulated. c. more resistant. d. more responsive. ANS: D Recovery NEW
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
148. After learning strengthens one set of synapses, other synapses: a. weaken. b. die. c. get stronger. d. become aroused. ANS: A Recovery NEW
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DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
149. In some cases, enables people to maintain nearly normal behavior even after losing most of the axons in some pathway. a. receptor supersensitivity b. disuse supersensitivity c. extra supersensitivity d. response supersensitivity ANS: A Recovery NEW
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
150. If a brain area loses a set of incoming axons, we can expect some combination of by the remaining axons and collateral sprouting by other axons that ordinarily attach to some other target. a. disuse supersensitivity b. decreased response c. denervation supersensitivity d. response supersensitivity ANS: C Recovery NEW
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
151. Certain axons innervating a given neuron are damaged. What compensatory change is likely to take place in that postsynaptic cell? a. collateral sprouting b. removal of toxins c. denervation supersensitivity d. decrease in glucose utilization ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 1
152.
occurs as a surviving axon grows a new branch to replace the synapses left vacant by a damaged axon. a. Collateral sprouting b. Degeneration supersensitivity c. Denervation supersensitivity d. Axon sprouting ANS: A Recovery NEW
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DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
153. If supersensitivity takes place, what can one expect to find regarding the number of receptors? a. An increased number in the presynaptic cell b. A decreased number in the presynaptic cell c. An increased number in the postsynaptic cell d. A decreased number in the postsynaptic cell ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
154. Denervation supersensitivity refers to an increase in: a. production and release of neurotransmitters. b. growth of axon branches. c. responses to neurotransmitters. d. polarization of the membrane at rest. ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
155. What is one reason for gradual behavioral recovery from brain damage? a. Uninjured areas of the brain develop new functions to take over the ones that were lost. b. Glia cells are transformed into neurons. c. Additional myelin forms on the axons that were not destroyed. d. Postsynaptic cells deprived of input become supersensitive. ANS: D Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
156. Suppose a finger is amputated. The part of the cerebral cortex that used to respond to that finger will: a. degenerate and die. b. remain alive but forever inactive. c. be active at times when the individual would have used that finger. d. become responsive to other fingers or part of the palm. ANS: D Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
The Major Issues
157. A section of the somatosensory cortex ordinarily responds to the third finger of the left hand. If that finger is amputated, to what will the cells in this part of the cortex respond? a. Nothing b. The second and fourth fingers and part of the palm c. The third finger of the right hand d. The entire left hand and the entire right hand ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
158. Investigators recorded activity from the cerebral cortex of monkeys that had an entire limb deafferented twelve years earlier. Much to their surprise, what did they find? a. The organization of this area of the cortex had not been changed at all by the operation. b. This whole cortical area had become responsive to the face. c. This whole cortical area had become response to the opposite limb. d. This whole cortical area had developed motor instead of sensory functions. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
159. A cortical cell originally responded to stimulation of the middle finger. After amputation of that finger it begins responding to the second and fourth fingers. What most likely accounts for this? a. Synaptic reorganization b. Growth of completely new axons c. Altered pattern of blood vessels in the brain d. A psychotic reaction ANS: A Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
160. A continuing sensation of an amputated body part is called: a. phantom limb b. ghost limb c. Neuralgia d. tingling limb ANS: A Recovery MSC: www
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
161. After loss of sensory input from a limb, the axons representing that limb degenerate and: a. cause immediate cell death. b. leave vacant synaptic sites at several levels of the CNS. c. destroy any leftover synapses. d. cause no change in the associated neurons. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 1
162. The area of the cortex that receives input from the face is adjacent to the area of the cortex that receives input from the foot. After amputation of the foot, it is possible that a phantom limb sensation will be felt whenever the: a. other foot is touched. b. face is touched. c. face is anesthetized. d. axons from the foot regrow. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
163. Modern methods have demonstrated that phantom limbs develop only if the relevant portion of the reorganizes and becomes responsive to alternative inputs. a. somatosensory cortex b. torso c. axon d. glia ANS: A Recovery KEY: NEW
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
164. Because spinal injury damages many axons, ones. a. glia b. collateral sprouts c. postsynaptic neurons d. phantom limbs ANS: C Recovery NEW
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develop increased sensitivity to the remaining
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
165. Even input produces enhanced responses. a. mild b. negative c. strong d. positive ANS: A Recovery KEY: NEW
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
166. Sensations from phantom limbs: a. come from the stump of the amputated limb. b. are a result of brain reorganization. c. do not have a neural basis. d. can be diminished if more of the limb is removed surgically. ANS: B Recovery MSC: www
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The Major Issues
167. One way to relieve the pain associated with a phantom limb is to: a. remove more of the amputated limb. b. have the amputee learn to use an artificial limb. c. stimulate that part of the cortex. d. help them understand that there is no neural basis for these sensations. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
168. If a person suffered injury to the right motor cortex that resulted in paralysis of the left arm and later showed some evidence of recovery of function, which of the following would be a likely explanation? a. Using the right arm more strengthened the left arm. b. The left motor cortex strengthened its control over the left arm. c. New neurons grew in place of the damaged ones. d. The left arm was deafferented. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
169. A monkey with one deafferented limb: a. cannot control the muscles of that limb. b. moves that limb whenever it uses its contralateral limb. c. uses it spontaneously, even though the animal has lost sensation to that body part. d. does not use it, even though it can still control the muscles. ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
170. A deafferented limb: a. has lost its sensory input. b. has lost its motor control. c. is an amputated limb. d. is one which an organism uses spontaneously. ANS: A Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
171. After deafferenting a monkey's forelimb, it generally fails to use it because: a. the muscles are too weak. b. moving it is painful. c. they have no motor control in the limb. d. walking on three limbs is easier than moving the impaired limb. ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
172. After damage to the visual cortex, a rat no longer approaches the white card it has been trained to approach. What is the evidence that the rat has not completely forgotten the task? a. It can relearn the task faster than it can learn to approach a black card. b. After a delay, it spontaneously regains the memory and approaches a white card. c. After several unreinforced sessions, it begins responding correctly. d. Its heart rate increases when looking at a white card but not when looking at a black card.
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ANS: A Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
173. If findings from rat studies generalize to humans, then which of the following best describes how brain damage affects memory for a learned skill? a. It destroys the memory forever. b. The memory is not affected. c. The memory may be present, but difficult to locate. d. The old memory is lost, but new ones are easier to acquire ANS: C Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
174. In dealing with brain-damaged patients, the usual goal is to: a. get the patients to rely on other people for the skills that they have lost. b. get the patients to make as much use as possible of the impaired systems. c. promote physical changes in the brain, such as collateral sprouting. d. encourage complete inactivity to enable the brain to engage in restorative processes. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
175. Who is most likely to assess the abilities of someone who has recently had brain damage? a. Neurosurgeon b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Neuropsychologist ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
176. In general, what can we say about recovery for brain-damaged patients in the future? a. There is very little hope of recovery. b. Researchers are optimistic, but they need to evaluate many possible therapies. c. Drug therapies have clear advantages over all other approaches. d. Brain grafts are the only real answer. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
SHORT ANSWER 1. Define proliferation during neural development. ANS: This is the production of new cells. Early in development, the cells lining the ventricles of the brain divide. Some cells remain where they are, continuing to divide. Others become primitive neurons and glia that begin migrating to other locations. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
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The Major Issues
2. Define differentiation during neural development. ANS: A primitive (simple) neuron forms its axon and dendrites, becoming a true neuron. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the Vertebrate Brain TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
3. Define myelination during neural development. ANS: During this process, glia produce the insulating fatty sheaths that accelerate transmission in many vertebrate axons. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the Vertebrate Brain TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
4. Describe how axons reach their targets during development. ANS: Axons follow the chemical gradient that is produced by the target cells. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Pathfinding by Axons TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
5. Define denervation supersensitivity. ANS: This is heightened sensitivity to a neurotransmitter after the destruction of an incoming axon. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
6. Describe how phantom limb sensations that seemingly come from a missing hand might occur when the face is touched. ANS: The area of the cortex that normally responds to the face could send collateral sprouts to the adjacent area of the cortex that was innervated by the hand. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
ESSAY 1. Describe the five main stages of growth and development of neurons. ANS: Answers will vary.
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the Vertebrate Brain TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
2. Describe how experience can alter brain development (give a specific example). ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and Short-term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
3. Briefly describe how strokes affect the brain. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and Short-term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
4. Briefly describe sprouting. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
5. Describe the relationship of sensory representation and phantom limb sensation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 5: Development and Plasticity of the Brain TRUE/FALSE 1. The human central nervous system begins to form when the embryo is about 10 weeks old. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
2. Once the brain is fully developed, the anatomy of the brain is unchanging. ANS: F
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The Major Issues
REF: Maturation of the
Vertebrate Brain
OBJ: 1
TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
3. The fluid-filled cavity within the neural tube becomes the central canal of the spinal cord and the four ventricles of the brain. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
4. Proliferation is the production of new cells. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
5. Axons are usually formed before the dendrites. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
6. After cells have differentiated as neurons or glia, they migrate. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
7. An early and fast stage of neuronal development is myelination. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
8. Some neurons provide the myelination for other neurons. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
9. Myelination of the brain and spinal cord is complete by the time of birth. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain 10.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Synaptogenesis is a process that begins before birth and continues throughout life. ANS: T Vertebrate Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
11. Recent evidence suggests that adult vertebrate brains generate new neurons. ANS: T
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Chapter 1
REF: Maturation of the
Vertebrate Brain MSC: www
OBJ: 2
TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
12. The number of neurons in the brain is continually increasing throughout life. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
13. Mammals and amphibians are similar in that they can both easily generate new axons. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
14. The brain requires millions of chemicals to correctly guide the growth of axons to their target locations. ANS: F Vertebrate Brain MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
15. Apoptosis is distinct from necrosis, which is death caused by an injury or a toxic substance. ANS: T Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
16. Nerve growth factor is a chemical that promotes the survival and activity of neurons. ANS: T Neuronal Survival MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
17. The developing infant brain is highly resistant to damage. ANS: F Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
18. Physical exercise is important for increased dendrite growth and branching. ANS: T Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
19. Exercise may account for some of the neural benefits that come from rearing rats in an enriched environment. ANS: T Experience MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
20. A rat in a more stimulating environment develops a thicker cortex, more dendritic branching, and improved learning.
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ANS: T Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
21. The most common cause of brain damage in children is closed head injury. ANS: T PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
22. In strokes caused by ischemia or hemorrhage, neurons die from overstimulation. ANS: T PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
23. The damaging effects of a stroke can be limited if treated within a short period of time. ANS: T PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
24. Diaschisis refers to the decreased activity of surviving neurons after damage to other neurons. ANS: T Recovery www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage MSC:
25. One effective method to overcome diaschisis after brain damage is to administer stimulant drugs. ANS: T Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
26. An axon in the peripheral nervous system is more likely to recover after being cut than if it is crushed. ANS: F Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
27. Paralysis caused by spinal cord injury is usually only temporary in humans. ANS: F Recovery MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
28. Denervation supersensitivity results from the disuse of incoming axons. ANS: F Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
29. Recent evidence suggests that phantom limb pain is caused by sensations coming from the stump of the amputated limb.
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ANS: F Recovery www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage MSC:
30. Deafferentation of the left arm results in the inability to move it. ANS: F Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ability of the brain to change its anatomy over time, within limits, is known as: a. plasticity. b. regression. c. connectivity. d. long term potentiation. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
OBJ: 1
2. Early in development, the nervous system begins as a: a. tube surrounding a fluid-filled cavity. b. spherical structure in the center of the embryo. c. diffuse system of cells scattered throughout the body. d. single layer of cells covering the heart and other internal organs. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
3. The human central nervous system: a. begins to form during the fetal stage. b. is unlike all other vertebrate central nervous systems in its developmental process. c. begins to form when the embryo is about two weeks old. d. begins to form when the embryo is about two months old. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
4. As the neural tube sinks under the surface of the skin, the forward end enlarges and differentiates into the: a. spine, midbrain, and forebrain. b. hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain. c. hindbrain, midbrain. d. midbrain, forebrain. ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
5. When do the ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord form? a. shortly after birth in humans
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b. just as the forebrain starts its rapid phase of growth c. early in embryonic development d. during the third trimester ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
6. The fluid-filled cavity of the developing neural tube becomes the: a. forebrain. b. midbrain. c. spinal cord. d. ventricular system. ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
7. What is the production of new neurons called? a. differentiation b. migration c. myelination d. proliferation ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
8. Stem cells are important for which of the following developmental processes? a. migration b. proliferation c. myelination d. synaptogenesis ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain MSC: www
9. Proliferation is the: a. production of new cells. b. movement of primitive neurons and glia. c. formation of dendrites and an axon. d. insulation process that occurs on some axons. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain MSC: www
10. Proliferation occurs: a. at the top of the spinal column. b. around the vesicles. c. around the ventricles. d. at the expanding edge of the brain.
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ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
11. After cells have differentiated as neurons or glia, they: a. differentiate. b. proliferate. c. myelinate. d. migrate. ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
12. Chemicals known as and guide neuron migration. a. immunoglobulins; sodium b. glia; neurothrophins c. immunoglobulins; chemokines d. chemokines; neurothrophins ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: conceptual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
13. What term describes the movement of primitive neurons and glia within the developing nervous system? a. Differentiation b. Migration c. Myelination d. Proliferation ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
14. Which of the following would most likely interfere with migration of neurons during development? a. altering the chemical paths b. damaging dendrites c. loss of myelin d. increased differentiation ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: conceptual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
15. Migration is the: a. production of new cells. b. movement of primitive neurons and glia. c. gradual formation of dendrites and an axon. d. insulation process that occurs on some axons. ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
16. Immunoglobulins and chemokines play an important role in neural: a. migration. b. proliferation.
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c. synaptogenesis. d. apoptosis. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
17. Which of the following best characterizes how axons arrive at the correct target cells? a. They follow electrical gradients. b. They follow chemical gradients from the target cell. c. Axons send out chemicals to the target cells. d. Target cells send out branches for the axons to follow. ANS: B OBJ: 2TOP:
PTS: 1 DIF: factual 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
18. Migration requires: a. a precise chemical environment. b. cells which are myelinated. c. mature neurons. d. neurons with fully developed dendrites. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
19. Differentiation is the: a. production of new cells. b. movement of primitive neurons and glia. c. formation of dendrites and an axon. d. insulation process that occurs on some axons. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
20. What is the process called when a primitive neuron begins to develop dendrites and an axon? a. Differentiation b. Migration c. Myelination d. Proliferation ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
21. The formation of a neuron’s distinctive shape occurs during the a. proliferation b. migration c. differentiation d. myelination ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
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stage of neurogenesis.
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
Chapter 1
22. Whether or not a transplanted immature neuron adopts the properties of neurons in the new location or retains at least some properties of neurons from where it was taken from depends largely on how much the transplanted neuron has: a. myelinated. b. proliferated. c. migrated. d. differentiated. ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
23. After the migrating neuron reaches its destination, a. dendrites b. axons c. nuclei d. ganglions ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
begin to form.
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain MSC: www
24. Myelination is a process common to: a. all vertebrate axons. b. all vertebrate dendrites. c. some vertebrate axons. d. some invertebrate axons. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
25. For some axons, glial cells produce an insulating sheath that makes rapid transmission possible. What is this process called? a. Differentiation b. Migration c. Myelination d. Proliferation ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
26. In humans, myelination first occurs in the: a. spinal cord. b. hindbrain. c. midbrain. d. forebrain. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain MSC: www
27. Myelination in the human brain: a. is complete upon birth. b. is complete around the second birthday. c. is complete sometime shortly after adolescence.
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d. continues well into the adult years. ANS: D Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
28. The stages of neurogenesis that occur for the longest duration are: a. myelination and synaptogenesis. b. proliferation and myelination. c. migration and proliferation. d. differentiation and migration. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
29. The final stage of neurodevelopment is called: a. synaptogenesis. b. differentiation. c. migration. d. fusion. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
30. The formation of new synapses is called: a. synaptogenesis. b. differentiation. c. migration. d. fusion. ANS: A Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the 5.1 Development of the Brain
31. New neurons are known to develop in all of the following cases EXCEPT: a. olfactory receptors. b. the human corpus callosum. c. the brain area responsible for birdsong. d. hippocampus of mammals.
ANS: B Vertebrate Brain KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
32. As a rule, all vertebrate neurons develop during an embryological stage. Among the few types of neurons that can develop in adulthood are: a. ganglion cells in the retina. b. olfactory receptors. c. motor nerves in the spinal cord. d. long-axoned neurons of the primary motor cortex. ANS: B Vertebrate Brain
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Chapter 1
33. Brain cells that are neither neurons nor glia, but which are capable of dividing and then differentiating into neurons or glia, are called: a. parallel fibers. b. intrinsic cells. c. stem cells. d. glomeruli. ANS: C Vertebrate Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
34. What happened when Weiss grafted an extra leg onto a salamander adjacent to one of the hindlegs? a. The new leg gradually took over for the old. b. The new leg withered and died. c. Nerves from the old leg attached to the new in a random fashion. d. Branches of axons from the old leg attached to corresponding muscles in the new. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
35. What process occurs when axons attempt to form connections to a grafted limb in a salamander? a. Axons connect randomly, but only muscles "tuned" to the right message respond. b. Axons connect randomly and muscles learn to coordinate through experience. c. Axons find their way to corresponding muscles in the new leg. d. A lack of nerve growth fiber leads to the degeneration of the new leg. ANS: C OBJ: 2
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REF: Pathfinding by Axons
36. If you cut the optic nerve of a newt, what happens? a. The fibers grow back and attach to random targets, so they see a scrambled picture. b. The fibers grow back and attach to their original targets, resulting in normal vision. c. The newt remains blind, since neurons do not regenerate. d. The fibers attach to multiple targets, resulting in blurry vision. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
37. Chemicals in the amphibian tectum guide the growth of axons from the retina to their correct location in the tectum by: a. having dozens of different growth factors. b. using an electrical gradient. c. using a chemical gradient. d. glial cell transportation. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
38. Roger Sperry cut a newt's optic nerve and rotated the eye. Axons from what used to be the dorsal part of the retina (now located on the ventral side) grew back to the target areas: a. that ordinarily get input from the dorsal retina. b. that ordinarily get input from the ventral retina. c. that ordinarily get input from the center of the retina. d. equally and diffusely. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
39. When Sperry cut a newt's optic nerve and rotated the eye by 180 degrees, each axon: a. degenerated. b. regenerated to a random location. c. regenerated to the area where it had originally been. d. regenerated, but to the area appropriate to its new location. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons KEY: NEW MSC: www
40. What visual capabilities did Sperry's newt have after Sperry cut the optic nerve and rotated the eye? a. It regained normal vision. b. It saw the world upside down and backwards. c. It required experience to relearn how to see. d. It remained blind. ANS: B OBJ: 2
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Chapter 1
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
41. Which of the following best describes the process by which developing axons find their general target areas? a. completely random growth b. shape attraction c. electrical attraction d. chemical attraction ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
42. Axons sort themselves over the surface of the target area: a. by following a gradient of chemicals. b. through apoptosis. c. through necrosis. d. based on their size. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons MSC: www
43. Which of the following are selective as axons form synapses with target cells? a. axons, but not target cells b. target cells, but not axons c. both axons and target cells d. neither axons nor target cells ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
44. Competition of neurons for postsynaptic sites results in survival of only the most successful axons. This general principle is called: a. natural selection. b. evolution. c. apoptosis. d. neural Darwinism. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons MSC: www
45. The concept that neurons refine their many connections based on which ones are most successful is known as: a. natural selection. b. evolution. c. survival of the fittest. d. neural Darwinism. ANS: D OBJ: 2
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The Major Issues
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
46. What is meant by neural Darwinism? a. The brains of higher primates are the ones that are most similar to those of humans. b. Most individual differences in the brain are due to genetic mutations. c. Successful neurons develop while less successful neurons weaken or die. d. Successful neurons reproduce while less successful neurons do not. ANS: C OBJ: 2 47. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
REF: Pathfinding by Axons
steer new axonal branches and synapses in the right direction. Chemokines Immunoglobulin Glia Neurotrophins
ANS: D Neuronal Survival MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
48. Why is it that all neurons in a healthy adult brain have made appropriate connections? a. Chemical messages from our muscles tell our brain how many neurons to form and that number perfectly matches the connections required. b. If an axon does not make the appropriate connections by a certain age, it dies. c. We are born with all connections formed. d. Connections form rapidly, but we learn to use whatever connections have formed. ANS: B Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
49. Why is it that every axon in an adult mammal has a target cell (muscle cell or other neuron) with which it makes synaptic contact? a. Each target cell causes the growth of a neuron and its axon. b. After formation, axons release a chemical that causes a target cell to form. c. Axons that fail to find a target cell die. d. An axon will make contact with any kind of cell and adjust its function as necessary. ANS: C Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
50. What is signaled by nerve growth factor (NGF)? a. That a target cell has "accepted" an axon b. Which target cell a growing axon should connect with c. That axons should elongate as the body grows bigger d. The need for new neurons to form in brain areas that are lacking in neurons ANS: A Neuronal Survival
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Chapter 1
51. Nerve growth factor (NGF): a. promotes the survival and growth of the axon. b. is a fuel metabolized by neurons. c. promotes programmed cell death. d. is a hormone first released at puberty. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
52. Necrosis: a. is a programmed mechanism of cell death. b. is cell death caused by an injury or a toxic substance. c. promotes the survival and growth of dendrites. d. promotes the activity of neurons. ANS: B Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
53. Apoptosis: a. is a programmed mechanism of cell death. b. promotes the survival and growth of the axon. c. promotes the survival and growth of dendrites. d. promotes the activity of neurons. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
54. If a sympathetic nervous system axon does not receive enough nerve growth factor, the neuron will: a. kill itself. b. grow a shorter axon. c. compensate by growing more dendrites. d. decrease its velocity of action potentials. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
55. What is apoptosis? a. the growth of an axon in response to NGF b. the leakage of transmitters from vesicles c. a program of "suicide" by a neuron d. dendritic branching in the sympathetic nervous system ANS: C Neuronal Survival
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The Major Issues
56. Some neurons die during development because: a. they are surrounded by glia. b. they do not receive enough GABA. c. they receive too much NGF. d. they fail to receive enough NGF. ANS: D Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
57. The function of neurotrophins is to: a. inhibit proliferation. b. promote survival of axons. c. be used as fuel. d. signal that an axon has been "rejected." ANS: B Neuronal Survival MSC: www
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
58. Which of the following is NOT a function of neurotrophins? a. Direct axonal growth during development. b. Increase axonal branching in mature neurons. c. Increase regrowth of axons after brain damage. d. Induce apoptosis of neurons. ANS: D Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
59. Developing neurons need for survival. a. neurotrophins only b. neurotrophins and synaptic input c. synaptic input only d. apoptosis ANS: B Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
60. An axon that does not receive enough neurotrophins from a target cell will: a. branch out and form other synapses on other cells. b. manufacture its own neurotrophins. c. degenerate and die. d. fail to reabsorb transmitters that have already been released. ANS: C Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Chapter 1
61. In development, neurotrophins . During adulthood, they a. preserve neurons; produce apoptosis b. produce apoptosis; increase neuronal branching c. facilitate differentiation; facilitate migration d. preserve neurons; increase neuronal branching ANS: D Neuronal Survival
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.
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
62. At later stages of the neuron's development, neurotrophins: a. increase the branching of axons. b. cause the neuron's death. c. become converted into myelin. d. connect the axon to axons of adjoining cells. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
63. Which statement most accurately describes embryonic development of the nervous system in humans? a. The majority of cells remain as primitive neurons until birth. b. All synapses that are formed are permanent. c. Neurons form before birth; synapses form after birth. d. Far more neurons are produced than will ultimately survive. ANS: D Neuronal Survival
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DIF: conceptual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
64. In response to nervous system injury, neurotrophins: a. cause the neuron's death. b. reduce inflammation due to this injury. c. increase regrowth of damaged axons. d. promote apoptosis. ANS: C Neuronal Survival
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
65. Massive cell death in the brain during prenatal development is: a. an indication of a genetic abnormality. b. an indication of restricted blood flow to the fetus. c. usually due to an autoimmune disorder. d. normal. ANS: D Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
66. The most likely explanation for the excess proliferation of neurons in early development is that it: a. compensates for connection errors. b. uses up excess stored fuel. c. increases learning capacity when it is most needed. d. prevents apoptosis.
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ANS: A Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
67. For survival, developing neurons need: a. neurotrophins only. b. neurotrophins and synaptic input. c. synaptic input only. d. apoptosis. ANS: B Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
68. Compared to an adult, a fetus has: a. more neurons. b. approximately the same number of neurons. c. about half the number of neurons. d. about one-tenth the number of neurons. ANS: A Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
69. After maturity, the apoptotic mechanisms become: a. hyperactive. b. extinct. c. dormant. d. very complex. ANS: C Neuronal Survival
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DIF: factual REF: Determinants of TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
70. An iodine deficiency in the diet can lead to an inadequate production of thyroid hormones. What is the result if this occurs in an infant or developing fetus? a. Down's syndrome b. mental retardation c. Tourette's syndrome d. accelerated body growth ANS: B Developing Brain
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Chapter 1
71. What modern day practice helps prevent an inadequate production of thyroid hormones? a. fluoride in drinking water b. processed sugar c. iodized salt d. artificial sweeteners ANS: C Developing Brain
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
72. In infants, anesthetic drugs can increase: a. proliferation. b. migration. c. myelination. d. apoptosis. ANS: D Developing Brain MSC: www
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
73. Children of mothers who drink heavily during pregnancy are born with: a. fetal alcohol syndrome b. Turner's syndrome c. Klinefelter's syndrome d. PKU ANS: A Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
74. The mechanism of fetal alcohol syndrome probably relates to: a. overexcited neurons. b. apoptosis. c. decreases apoptosis. d. necrosis. ANS: B Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
75. What condition would be suspected if a young child shows decreased alertness, hyperactivity, mental retardation, motor problems, a heart defect, and abnormal facial features? a. fetal alcohol syndrome b. Turner's syndrome c. Klinefelter's syndrome d. PKU ANS: A Developing Brain
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
The Major Issues
76. The most likely reason that children with fetal alcohol syndrome have brain abnormalities is because alcohol: a. overexcites neurons. b. stimulates nerve growth factor. c. decreases apoptosis. d. decreases release of neurotrophins. ANS: D Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
77. What brain abnormalities are found in children with fetal alcohol syndrome? a. short axons with few branches b. short dendrites with few branches c. lack of dopamine receptors d. smaller than normal ventricles ANS: B Developing Brain MSC: www
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78. Alcohol suppresses the release of a. 5-HT b. DA c. GABA d. glutamate ANS: D Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain , the brain’s main excitatory transmitter.
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
79. How much alcohol, if any, can a pregnant woman drink without worrying about the negative effects on her child? a. The equivalent of two cocktails a day b. The equivalent of one beer a day c. Anything less than what causes her to act drunk d. Unknown, and therefore abstention is recommended ANS: D Developing Brain
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
80. Alcohol can damage the developing brain by: a. tearing the cell membrane. b. increasing synaptic inhibition and therefore apoptosis. c. overstimulating neurons. d. interfering with protein production. ANS: B Developing Brain
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Chapter 1
81. Children of mothers who use cocaine during pregnancy: a. have a slightly higher birth weight. b. are likely to develop Turner's syndrome. c. have a slightly lower IQ score. d. are born with severe abnormalities resembling cerebral palsy. ANS: C OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 131 TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain - The Vulnerable Developing Brain
82. Children of mothers who smoke cigarettes during pregnancy are at an increased risk of: a. intellectual deficits. b. Korsakoff's syndrome. c. Rett syndrome. d. Parkinson's disease. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 131 TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain - The Vulnerable Developing Brain
83. On average, exposure to nicotine during pregnancy increases risk of a. emotional b. attention c. learning d. memory ANS: B Developing Brain KEY: NEW
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deficits.
DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
84. Which of the following, if any, would be more damaging to an adult brain than to the brain of an infant or fetus? a. Exposure to alcohol b. Infections like German measles c. Iodine deficiency in the diet d. All of these are more damaging to an infant brain. ANS: D Developing Brain
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DIF: factual REF: The Vulnerable TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
86. Keeping animals in a varied environment with stimulation increases the: a. branching of dendrites. b. speed of action potentials. c. density of Nodes of Ranvier along the axon. d. thickness of axons. ANS: A Experience
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DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
The Major Issues
87. The areas of the cortex used by expert video game players are most likely to cortical areas of those who don’t play video games. a. be thicker b. have smaller, but a greater number of neurons c. have faster action potentials d. be more resistant to transcortical stimulation ANS: A Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
than the same
DIF: conceptual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
88. Which of the following aspects of brain and neural functioning can be most clearly altered by experience? a. velocity of action potentials b. structure of dendrites and axons c. chemical constituents of the ventricles d. number of laminae in the cerebral cortex ANS: B Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
89. What is different about rats raised in an enriched environment in comparison to rats raised in an impoverished environment? a. a more pleasant personality b. improved learning performance c. better parenting skills d. nothing ANS: B Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
90. Research in people over age 60 who were randomly assigned to experience six months of aerobic exercise showed: a. that they developed more axons. b. that they developed less tumors. c. that they developed greater thickness of the cortex. d. that they developed less thickness of the cortex. ANS: C Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
91. Which of the following factors seems to be particularly important for branching of neurons during brain development? a. Physical activity b. Playing logic games c. Having good teachers d. Having a sterile environment ANS: A Experience MSC: www
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DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Chapter 1
92. Brain studies of blind people suggest that they have greater attention to touch and auditory stimulation because: a. cortical areas for touch and audition are thicker. b. their visual cortex is used for touch and verbal tasks. c. they have greater neural branching. d. they have greater neurotrophin release. ANS: B Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
93. An MEG study of professional musicians listening to pure tones showed that: a. professional musicians had brain responses that were twice as strong as non-musicians. b. professional musicians had slightly less brain responses as non-musicians. c. professional musicians had drastically less brain responses as non-musicians. d. professional musicians had brain responses five times as strong as non-musicians. ANS: A Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
94. Musicians who use the left hand to finger the violin strings have some alterations in one brain area, which is the: a. left hemisphere prefrontal cortex. b. right hemisphere prefrontal cortex. c. left hemisphere postcentral gyrus. d. right hemisphere postcentral gyrus. ANS: D Experience
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
95. Focal hand dystonia, sometimes called "musician's cramp", is caused by: a. extreme overlap of cortical representation of the fingers. b. deterioration of muscles in the hand. c. demyelination of neurons in the fingers. d. buildup of excess GABA in the temporal cortex. ANS: A Experience
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DIF: factual REF: Fine-Tuning by TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
96. Closed head injury is: a. the most common cause of brain damage in young adults. b. usually fatal. c. the most common cause of Korsakoff's syndrome. d. related to Alzheimer's disease. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Short-Term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage 97. The most common cause of brain damage in young people is: a. infection. b. gunshot wounds. c. stroke. d. closed head injury.
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REF: Brain Damage and
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Short-Term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
REF: Brain Damage and
98. Closed head injury results in damage partially because of: a. increased production of myelin. b. excessive deficit of neurotrophins. c. rotational forces that push the brain against the inside of the skull. d. infection. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Short-Term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
REF: Brain Damage and
99. A sharp blow to the head resulting from an assault or trauma that does not actually puncture the brain is called a: a. stroke. b. cerebrovascular accident. c. hemorrhage. d. closed head injury. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Short-Term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
REF: Brain Damage and
100. Which of the following is the most common cause of a stroke? a. Lack of glucose b. Ischemia from an obstruction of an artery c. Hemorrhage of an artery d. Blow to the head ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
101. A stroke caused by an artery rupturing is also known as: a. ischemia. b. hemorrhage. c. closed head injury. d. penumbra. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
102. Which of the following is not a cerebrovascular accident? a. Ischemia b. Hemorrhage c. Stroke d. Penumbra ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
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103. A stroke which is caused when an artery ruptures is also known as: a. ischemia. b. hemorrhage. c. closed head injury. d. penumbra. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
104. Ischemia is to as hemorrhage is to a. older individuals; younger individuals b. proximal; distal c. obstruction; rupture d. barely noticeable; lethal ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2 MSC: www
.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
105. What does edema mean? a. Lack of glucose b. Ischemia from an obstruction of an artery c. Hemorrhage of an artery d. Swelling due to accumulation of fluid ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
106. After a stroke, cells in the penumbra: a. are the first to die. b. help to remove dead or dying cells in the area of damage. c. quickly become more active, compensating for the area of damage. d. may die days or weeks after a stroke. ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
107. After ischemia, neurons deprived of blood: a. transform from neurons into glia. b. lose much of their oxygen and glucose supplies. c. break down the blood-brain barrier. d. increase the velocity of their action potentials. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW 108. a. b. c. d.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
cells proliferate after a stroke. Penumbra Microglia Ischemia Cancer
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ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
110. Ischemia and hemorrhage kill neurons by: a. understimulating them. b. overstimulating them. c. overactivating the sodium-potassium pump. d. depleting the glutamate supply available to neurons. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
111. A stroke kills neurons in two waves, first by and second by a. overstimulation; understimulation b. Understimulation; overstimulation c. collateral sprouting; denervation supersensitivity d. denervation supersensitivity; collateral sprouting ANS: A PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
.
DIF: 140 REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
112. Damage due to stroke caused by ischemia can be minimized by administering a drug that: a. breaks up blood clots. b. overstimulates neurons in and around the damaged area. c. increases the release of glutamate. d. slows down the sodium-potassium pump. ANS: A PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
113. Although the following methods may or may not actually work, which one would theoretically be of potential benefit to stroke victims? a. increasing activity at glutamate receptors b. opening sodium channels c. closing potassium channels d. blocking glutamate receptors ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
114. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA): a. is recommended for hemorrhage. b. overstimulates glutamate receptors. c. should be administered a few days after stroke. d. is helpful in cases of ischemia. ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
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115. Which of the following would be the best treatment for helping someone who is suffering from a stroke caused by a blood clot? a. decrease activity of the sodium-potassium pump b. warm the brain c. administer tPA d. enhance glutamate release ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
116. In research aimed at minimizing damage due to stroke, attempts to prevent overstimulation of cells have produced: a. very promising results. b. disappointing results. c. a complex interaction between age of patient and season of the year. d. positive results in humans, but not so for animals. ANS: B PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
117. Researchers have tried using drugs that block apoptosis. Results have been: a. favorable in animals and human trials. b. favorable in animal trials but too costly to try with humans. c. favorable in animal trials but difficult or impractical to apply to humans. d. unfavorable in all research trials. ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
118. One approach in minimizing stroke damage in laboratory animals is the use of: a. calcium b. serotonin c. cannabinoids d. opioids ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
119. To date, the most effective laboratory method minimizing the damage resulting from stroke in nonhuman animals has been to: a. use drugs which trap free radicals. b. use drugs which effect cannabinoids. c. use neurotrophins which block apoptosis. d. cool the brain. ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
120. In hemorrhage, cells in the penumbra: a. lose much of their oxygen. b. lose much of their glucose. c. are flooded with excess oxygen. d. act quickly to strengthen the blood-brain barrier.
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ANS: C PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
121. Research on laboratory animals indicates that cannabinoids are most effective if taken: a. as soon as the stroke occurs. b. within 20 minutes of the stroke. c. steadily for one month. d. shortly before the stroke. ANS: D PTS: 1 Short-Term Recovery OBJ: 1 NEW
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
122. Diaschisis refers to the: a. increase in activity of neurons surrounding a damaged area. b. decreased activity of surviving neurons after other neurons are damaged. c. increased activity in the cerebral cortex after damage to any part of the brain. d. increased activity in the hypothalamus after damage to any part of the brain. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
123. A lesion in the hypothalamus can lead to decreased activity in the cerebral cortex, even though the cerebral cortex is undamaged. The decreased activity in the cortex because of the loss of incoming neurons is called: a. diaschisis. b. deafferentation. c. cytotoxicity. d. hyperpolarization. ANS: A Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
124. To promote recovery, stroke victims should be given: a. stimulant drugs immediately after the stroke. b. any drug that decreases dopamine. c. stimulant drugs a few days after the stroke. d. tranquilizers a few days after the stroke. ANS: C Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
125. Following a stroke, amphetamine could help by: a. inducing apoptosis. b. blocking activity in overstimulated areas of the brain. c. blocking glutamate release. d. increasing activity in understimulated areas of the brain. ANS: D Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 1
126. Which of the following treatments would be most likely to help a patient starting several days after a stroke? a. Injecting a drug to block dopamine b. Administering tranquilizers c. Extensive bed rest d. Giving stimulant drugs combined with physical therapy ANS: D Recovery MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
127. Which axons will regenerate to a significant degree if cut or crushed? a. Those in invertebrates but not in vertebrates b. Only those which are unmyelinated c. Those in the central nervous system but not in the peripheral nervous system d. Those in the peripheral nervous system but not in the central nervous system ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
128. What is one impediment to regeneration of axons in the mammalian central nervous system? a. Inhibitory chemicals secreted by the damaged portion of the axon b. Bacterial infections caused by the decaying tissue c. Large amounts of scar tissue d. Inhibitory messages sent from the cell nucleus when an axon is damaged ANS: C Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
129. A damaged axon: a. will never grow back. b. can grow back under certain circumstances. c. will grow back if its dendrites do also. d. will grow back only if it is myelinated. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
130. After a cut through the spinal cord, axons grow back enough to restore functioning in certain but not in . a. adults; infants b. infants; adults c. fish; mammals d. mammals; primates ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
The Major Issues
131. One limiting factor in the ability of damaged axons to regenerate in the brain and spinal cord is that: a. they don't have any myelin to guide them. b. they regenerate only one to two millimeters. c. growing dendrites compete with growing axons. d. there are no muscles in the brain and spinal cord to guide the growth. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
132. Scar tissue and myelin are similar in that they both: a. secrete chemicals to restore axons. b. are produced after brain damage. c. are formed in normal development of the nervous system. d. secrete chemicals that inhibit axon growth. ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
133. What is one impediment to regeneration of axons in the mammalian central nervous system? a. Inhibitory chemicals secreted by the damaged portion of the axon b. Bacterial infections caused by the decaying tissue c. Glia release chemicals that inhibit axon growth d. Inhibitory messages sent from the cell nucleus when an axon is damaged ANS: C Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
134. One reason why axons regenerate better in the peripheral nervous system of mammals than in the central nervous system is that the peripheral nervous system: a. has fewer myelinated axons. b. has glial cells that destroy scar tissue. c. maintains a temperature closer to that at which embryonic cells form. d. produces a chemical that promotes axon growth. ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
135. Central nervous system axons regenerate much better in fish than in mammals because fish: a. nerves do not have to travel so far to reach their target. b. myelin does not secrete proteins that inhibit axon growth. c. nerves have so much more myelin than do mammal nerves. d. myelin secretes a protein that accelerates regeneration. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
136. Central nervous system axons regenerate much better in fish than in mammals because: a. fish nerves do not have to travel so far to reach their target. b. fewer fish nerves are covered with myelin. c. fish do not produce as much scar tissue. d. fish generally have a lower body temperature.
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ANS: C Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
137. After central nervous system damage, myelin: a. degenerates and dies. b. secretes proteins that inhibit axon regrowth. c. secretes proteins that enhance some regrowth of axons. d. becomes thicker in surviving axons. ANS: B Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
138. If some of the axons innervating a given cell are destroyed or if they become inactive, what compensatory process takes place in the remaining presynaptic cells? a. activation of previously silent synapses b. removal of toxins c. denervation supersensitivity d. collateral sprouting ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
139. What is the term for the new branches that may form in uninjured axons after damage to surrounding axons? a. collateral sprouts b. bifurcations c. denervation supersensitivity d. diaschisis ANS: A Recovery MSC: www
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
140. After damaging input to the hippocampus, collateral sprouting is associated with improvements in: a. memory. b. taste. c. vision. d. hearing. ANS: A Recovery
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DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
141. After damage to a set of axons, neurotrophins induce nearby: a. injured axons to form new branches. b. injured dendrites to form new branches. c. uninjured axons to form new branches. d. uninjured dendrites to form new branches. ANS: C Recovery
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
The Major Issues
142. If a tree branch is cut, the surrounding branches may grow enough to fill in the empty space left by the missing branch. When this same type of event occurs in the nervous system following brain damage, it is called: a. hemiplegia. b. denervation supersensitivity. c. collateral sprouting. d. tree branching. ANS: C Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
143. After damage to the connections to the left hippocampus from the left entorhinal cortex, sprouts develop from the: a. left occipital cortex. b. right entorhinal cortex. c. left hippocampus. d. right hippocampus. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
144. Heightened sensitivity to a neurotransmitter after the destruction of an incoming axon is known as: a. axon supersensitivity b. disuse supersensitivity c. enervation supersensitivity d. denervation supersensitivity ANS: D Recovery 145. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
helps compensate for decreased axon input. Axon supersensitivity Disuse supersensitivity Enervation supersensitivity Denervation supersensitivity
ANS: D Recovery MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
146. Damage to some of the axons that innervate a given structure may give rise to: a. collateral sprouting, but not denervation supersensitivity. b. denervation supersensitivity, but not collateral sprouting. c. both collateral sprouting and denervation supersensitivity. d. neither collateral sprouting nor denervation supersensitivity. ANS: C Recovery
236
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 1
147. If most of the axons that transmit dopamine to some brain area die or become inactive, the remaining dopamine synapses become: a. less responsive. b. less easily stimulated. c. more resistant. d. more responsive. ANS: D Recovery NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
148. After learning strengthens one set of synapses, other synapses: a. weaken. b. die. c. get stronger. d. become aroused. ANS: A Recovery NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
149. In some cases, enables people to maintain nearly normal behavior even after losing most of the axons in some pathway. a. receptor supersensitivity b. disuse supersensitivity c. extra supersensitivity d. response supersensitivity ANS: A Recovery NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
150. If a brain area loses a set of incoming axons, we can expect some combination of by the remaining axons and collateral sprouting by other axons that ordinarily attach to some other target. a. disuse supersensitivity b. decreased response c. denervation supersensitivity d. response supersensitivity ANS: C Recovery NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
151. Certain axons innervating a given neuron are damaged. What compensatory change is likely to take place in that postsynaptic cell? a. collateral sprouting b. removal of toxins c. denervation supersensitivity d. decrease in glucose utilization ANS: C Recovery
237
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
The Major Issues
152.
occurs as a surviving axon grows a new branch to replace the synapses left vacant by a damaged axon. a. Collateral sprouting b. Degeneration supersensitivity c. Denervation supersensitivity d. Axon sprouting ANS: A Recovery NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
153. If supersensitivity takes place, what can one expect to find regarding the number of receptors? a. An increased number in the presynaptic cell b. A decreased number in the presynaptic cell c. An increased number in the postsynaptic cell d. A decreased number in the postsynaptic cell ANS: C Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
154. Denervation supersensitivity refers to an increase in: a. production and release of neurotransmitters. b. growth of axon branches. c. responses to neurotransmitters. d. polarization of the membrane at rest. ANS: C Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
155. What is one reason for gradual behavioral recovery from brain damage? a. Uninjured areas of the brain develop new functions to take over the ones that were lost. b. Glia cells are transformed into neurons. c. Additional myelin forms on the axons that were not destroyed. d. Postsynaptic cells deprived of input become supersensitive. ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
156. Suppose a finger is amputated. The part of the cerebral cortex that used to respond to that finger will: a. degenerate and die. b. remain alive but forever inactive. c. be active at times when the individual would have used that finger. d. become responsive to other fingers or part of the palm. ANS: D Recovery
238
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 1
157. A section of the somatosensory cortex ordinarily responds to the third finger of the left hand. If that finger is amputated, to what will the cells in this part of the cortex respond? a. Nothing b. The second and fourth fingers and part of the palm c. The third finger of the right hand d. The entire left hand and the entire right hand ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
158. Investigators recorded activity from the cerebral cortex of monkeys that had an entire limb deafferented twelve years earlier. Much to their surprise, what did they find? a. The organization of this area of the cortex had not been changed at all by the operation. b. This whole cortical area had become responsive to the face. c. This whole cortical area had become response to the opposite limb. d. This whole cortical area had developed motor instead of sensory functions. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
159. A cortical cell originally responded to stimulation of the middle finger. After amputation of that finger it begins responding to the second and fourth fingers. What most likely accounts for this? a. Synaptic reorganization b. Growth of completely new axons c. Altered pattern of blood vessels in the brain d. A psychotic reaction ANS: A Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
160. A continuing sensation of an amputated body part is called: a. phantom limb b. ghost limb c. Neuralgia d. tingling limb ANS: A Recovery MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
161. After loss of sensory input from a limb, the axons representing that limb degenerate and: a. cause immediate cell death. b. leave vacant synaptic sites at several levels of the CNS. c. destroy any leftover synapses. d. cause no change in the associated neurons. ANS: B Recovery
239
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
The Major Issues
162. The area of the cortex that receives input from the face is adjacent to the area of the cortex that receives input from the foot. After amputation of the foot, it is possible that a phantom limb sensation will be felt whenever the: a. other foot is touched. b. face is touched. c. face is anesthetized. d. axons from the foot regrow. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
163. Modern methods have demonstrated that phantom limbs develop only if the relevant portion of the reorganizes and becomes responsive to alternative inputs. a. somatosensory cortex b. torso c. axon d. glia ANS: A Recovery KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
164. Because spinal injury damages many axons, ones. a. glia b. collateral sprouts c. postsynaptic neurons d. phantom limbs ANS: C Recovery NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
develop increased sensitivity to the remaining
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage KEY:
165. Even input produces enhanced responses. a. mild b. negative c. strong d. positive ANS: A Recovery KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
166. Sensations from phantom limbs: a. come from the stump of the amputated limb. b. are a result of brain reorganization. c. do not have a neural basis. d. can be diminished if more of the limb is removed surgically. ANS: B Recovery MSC: www
240
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 1
167. One way to relieve the pain associated with a phantom limb is to: a. remove more of the amputated limb. b. have the amputee learn to use an artificial limb. c. stimulate that part of the cortex. d. help them understand that there is no neural basis for these sensations. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
168. If a person suffered injury to the right motor cortex that resulted in paralysis of the left arm and later showed some evidence of recovery of function, which of the following would be a likely explanation? a. Using the right arm more strengthened the left arm. b. The left motor cortex strengthened its control over the left arm. c. New neurons grew in place of the damaged ones. d. The left arm was deafferented. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
169. A monkey with one deafferented limb: a. cannot control the muscles of that limb. b. moves that limb whenever it uses its contralateral limb. c. uses it spontaneously, even though the animal has lost sensation to that body part. d. does not use it, even though it can still control the muscles. ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
170. A deafferented limb: a. has lost its sensory input. b. has lost its motor control. c. is an amputated limb. d. is one which an organism uses spontaneously. ANS: A Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
171. After deafferenting a monkey's forelimb, it generally fails to use it because: a. the muscles are too weak. b. moving it is painful. c. they have no motor control in the limb. d. walking on three limbs is easier than moving the impaired limb. ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
172. After damage to the visual cortex, a rat no longer approaches the white card it has been trained to approach. What is the evidence that the rat has not completely forgotten the task? a. It can relearn the task faster than it can learn to approach a black card. b. After a delay, it spontaneously regains the memory and approaches a white card. c. After several unreinforced sessions, it begins responding correctly. d. Its heart rate increases when looking at a white card but not when looking at a black card.
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The Major Issues
ANS: A Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
173. If findings from rat studies generalize to humans, then which of the following best describes how brain damage affects memory for a learned skill? a. It destroys the memory forever. b. The memory is not affected. c. The memory may be present, but difficult to locate. d. The old memory is lost, but new ones are easier to acquire ANS: C Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
174. In dealing with brain-damaged patients, the usual goal is to: a. get the patients to rely on other people for the skills that they have lost. b. get the patients to make as much use as possible of the impaired systems. c. promote physical changes in the brain, such as collateral sprouting. d. encourage complete inactivity to enable the brain to engage in restorative processes. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
175. Who is most likely to assess the abilities of someone who has recently had brain damage? a. Neurosurgeon b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Neuropsychologist ANS: D Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
176. In general, what can we say about recovery for brain-damaged patients in the future? a. There is very little hope of recovery. b. Researchers are optimistic, but they need to evaluate many possible therapies. c. Drug therapies have clear advantages over all other approaches. d. Brain grafts are the only real answer. ANS: B Recovery
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
SHORT ANSWER 1. Define proliferation during neural development. ANS: This is the production of new cells. Early in development, the cells lining the ventricles of the brain divide. Some cells remain where they are, continuing to divide. Others become primitive neurons and glia that begin migrating to other locations. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
242
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the Vertebrate Brain TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
Chapter 1
2. Define differentiation during neural development. ANS: A primitive (simple) neuron forms its axon and dendrites, becoming a true neuron. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the Vertebrate Brain TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
3. Define myelination during neural development. ANS: During this process, glia produce the insulating fatty sheaths that accelerate transmission in many vertebrate axons. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the Vertebrate Brain TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
4. Describe how axons reach their targets during development. ANS: Axons follow the chemical gradient that is produced by the target cells. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Pathfinding by Axons TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
5. Define denervation supersensitivity. ANS: This is heightened sensitivity to a neurotransmitter after the destruction of an incoming axon. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
6. Describe how phantom limb sensations that seemingly come from a missing hand might occur when the face is touched. ANS: The area of the cortex that normally responds to the face could send collateral sprouts to the adjacent area of the cortex that was innervated by the hand. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Later Mechanisms of Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
ESSAY 1. Describe the five main stages of growth and development of neurons. ANS: Answers will vary.
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The Major Issues
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Maturation of the Vertebrate Brain TOP: 5.1 Development of the Brain
2. Describe how experience can alter brain development (give a specific example). ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and Short-term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
3. Briefly describe how strokes affect the brain. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and Short-term Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
4. Briefly describe sprouting. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
5. Describe the relationship of sensory representation and phantom limb sensation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Later Mechanisms of Recovery TOP: 5.2 Plasticity After Brain Damage
Chapter 7: The Other Sensory Systems TRUE/FALSE 1. The amplitude of a sound wave is its intensity. ANS: T OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
2. Doubling the amplitude of sound doubles the perceived loudness.
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REF: Sound and the Ear
ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Sound and the Ear
3. The pinna helps us identify the location of a sound. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Sound and the Ear
4. After sound waves pass through the auditory canal, they strike the tympanic membrane. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Sound and the Ear MSC: www
5. The inner ear contains a snail-shaped structure called the cochlea. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Sound and the Ear
6. The structures within the ear amplify the sound waves coming into the ear. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Sound and the Ear
7. Auditory receptors are called hair cells. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Sound and the Ear
8. According to the place theory, the basilar membrane resembles the strings of a piano in that each area along the membrane is tuned to a specific frequency. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Pitch Perception MSC: www
9. The major problem with the frequency theory of pitch perception is that neurons can't produce action potentials frequently enough to match high frequency sound waves. ANS: T OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Pitch Perception
10. Low frequencies travel farther along the basilar membrane than high frequencies. ANS: T OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
11. Amusia refers to impaired detection of frequency changes.
245
The Major Issues
REF: Pitch Perception
ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Pitch Perception MSC: www
12. People with damage to the primary auditory cortex hear simple sounds reasonably well. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: The Auditory Cortex
13. Most cells in the auditory cortex respond best to pure tones. ANS: F OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: The Auditory Cortex
14. Surrounding the primary auditory cortex are additional auditory areas, in which cells respond more to changes in sounds than to any prolonged sound. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: The Auditory Cortex
15. The ability to detect motion of sounds depends on the same area of the brain that helps detect motion of objects. ANS: T OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: The Auditory Cortex
16. Inner-ear deafness, results from damage to the pinna. ANS: F OBJ: 3
246
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
Chapter 1
REF: Hearing Loss
17. Conductive deafness is primarily a problem with the auditory nerve. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Hearing Loss MSC: www
18. Phase differences are useful for detecting localization of low frequency sounds. ANS: T OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.1 Other Sensory Systems
REF: Sound Localization
19. The vestibular organ consists of the saccule, utricle, and three semicircular canals. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Vestibular Sensation
20. The Pacinian corpuscle detects sudden displacements or high-frequency vibrations on the skin. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Vestibular Sensation
21. Strong pain releases both glutamate and substance P. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
22. The cingulate cortex becomes more reactive in response to the emotional aspect of pain. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
23. Following exposure to painful stimuli, brain activation is limited to the somatosensory cortex. ANS: F OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
24. Opiates exert their pain relieving effects by their action in the periphery of the body. ANS: F OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain MSC: www
25. Endorphins are only released when painful stimuli are present. ANS: F OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain MSC: www
26. Itching appears to be one type of pain message. ANS: F OBJ: 4
247
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Itch
27. Taste receptors are continually being replaced. ANS: T OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste MSC: www
28. In contrast to the other senses, taste information is received primarily by the ipsilateral hemisphere. ANS: T OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
29. Supertasters are more likely to enjoy spicy foods. ANS: F OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
30. There are hundreds of different types of olfactory receptors. ANS: T OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Olfaction
31. Women are less sensitive to odors than men. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Olfaction
32. Adaptation occurs quickly to pheromones. ANS: F OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Pheromones
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the basis for differences in sensory abilities across species? a. The larger the organism, the more intense the stimulus must be to be detected. b. All organisms detect all stimuli, but only focus on those involved in survival. c. Organisms detect a range of stimuli that are biologically relevant for that species. d. The larger the organism, the larger the range of stimuli detected. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 7.0 Other Sensory Systems
DIF: conceptual
REF: Introduction
2. Which of the following is TRUE about the stimuli detectable by the auditory and visual systems of humans? a. Humans can detect all sights and sounds, as long as they are above a minimal intensity. b. Humans respond to a narrower range of stimuli than most other species. c. Humans are sensitive to all the stimuli lower organisms can detect, as well as some they cannot. d. Humans are sensitive to a wide range of range of stimuli.
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ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 7.0 Other Sensory Systems
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
3. Across species, it appears that the sense organs are most attuned to: a. biologically useful stimuli. b. low intensity stimuli. c. detecting odors of other species. d. detection of chemical stimuli. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 7.0 Other Sensory Systems
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
4. What is the intensity of a sound wave called? a. frequency b. loudness c. amplitude d. tone ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Sound and the Ear
5. The of a sound is the number of compressions per second. a. pitch b. frequency c. amplitude d. loudness ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
6. What is the perception of the intensity of a sound wave called? a. pitch b. frequency c. amplitude d. loudness ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
7. Pitch is a perception related to which aspect of sound? a. amplitude b. frequency c. intensity d. across-fiber pattern coding ANS: B OBJ: 2
249
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Sound and the Ear
8. What occurs to a tone as the frequency increases? a. Pitch gets higher. b. Pitch gets lower. c. Loudness increases. d. Loudness decreases. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Sound and the Ear
9. If two voices differ in their frequency, this means they differ in their: a. amplitude. b. number of waves per second. c. height of each wave. d. loudness. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
10. Loudness is to as pitch is to a. frequency; intensity b. amplitude; frequency c. pitch; tone d. amplitude; intensity ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: 190
REF: Sound and the Ear
DIF: conceptual MSC: www
REF: Sound and the Ear
.
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
11. Suppose the highest pitch you can hear is about 20,000 Hz. Under what circumstances will that limit change? a. It drops naturally as you grow older. b. It drops if you go several months without listening to any high pitches. c. It drops only as a result of injury or disease. d. It increases with musical training. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
12. The fact that each person’s pinna is shaped differently from anyone else’s suggests that much of sound localization is: a. impossible. b. learned. c. restricted to activity of the cochlea. d. enhanced by having small ears. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
13. The outer ear includes: a. the tympanic membrane. b. the pinna. c. the MGN. d. the cochlea.
250
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REF: Sound and the Ear
ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
14. The structure that we commonly refer to as the ear (on the outside of the head) is formally known as the: a. tympanic membrane. b. stapes. c. pinna. d. malleus. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
15. The eardrum is also known as the: a. pinna. b. ossicle. c. tympanic membrane. d. cochlea. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
16. The eardrum vibrates at: a. a much higher frequency than the sound waves that hit it. b. half the frequency of the sound waves that hit it. c. the same frequency as the sound waves that hit it. d. a constant frequency regardless of the frequency of the sound. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
17. What is another name for the tympanic membrane? a. eardrum b. pinna c. auditory nerve d. cochlea ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Sound and the Ear
18. What is the function of the pinna? a. It vibrates in synchrony with high-frequency tones. b. It protects the eardrum from overstimulation. c. It filters out distracting sounds. d. It helps us locate the source of sounds. ANS: D OBJ: 1
251
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Sound and the Ear
19. The tympanic membrane connects to three tiny bones that transmit the vibrations to the: a. cochlea. b. pinna. c. oval window. d. hair cells. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
20. Vibrations in the fluid of the cochlea causes? a. movement of the pinna. b. hair cells to displace. c. vibrations of the eardrum. d. vestibular input. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
21. Three small bones connect the tympanic membrane to the oval window. What is the function of these bones? a. They hold the tympanic membrane in place. b. They convert airwaves into waves of greater pressure. c. They spread out the air waves over an area of larger diameter. d. They change the frequency of air waves into lower frequencies that can be heard. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
22. Which of the following are presented in the correct order when describing some of the structures that sound waves travel through as they pass from the outer ear to the inner ear? a. pinna, tympanic membrane, oval window, cochlea b. tympanic membrane, pinna, cochlea c. pinna, stapes, eardrum d. malleus, tympanic membrane, oval window, pinna ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Sound and the Ear
23. The malleus, incus, and stapes are small bones: a. in the inner ear. b. in the outer ear. c. that transmit information from the outer ear to the middle ear. d. that transmit information from the tympanic membrane to the oval window. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual MSC: www
24. The hammer, anvil and stirrup are found in the: a. cochlea. b. middle ear. c. external auditory canal. d. temporal lobe.
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REF: Sound and the Ear
ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
25. The stirrup makes the oval window vibrate at the entrance to the: a. haircells. b. scala media. c. eardrum. d. scala vestibuli. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Sound and the Ear
26. Why is it important for sound vibrations to be amplified as they pass through the ear? a. The inner membrane gets less sensitive with age. b. More force is needed to create waves in fluid. c. Much of the vibration is lost in the eardrum. d. Too much is lost through friction. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
27. The scala vestibuli makes up part of the: a. tympanic membrane. b. cochlea. c. middle ear. d. ossicles. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
28. The scala media makes up part of the: a. tympanic membrane. b. middle ear. c. cochlea. d. ossicles. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
29. In the auditory system, hair cells are specialized receptors that respond to: a. mechanical displacement. b. electromagnetic energy. c. chemicals. d. vestibular input. ANS: A OBJ: 1
253
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DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Sound and the Ear
30. The scala tympani makes up part of the: a. tympanic membrane. b. middle ear. c. cochlea. d. ossicles. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
31. The tympanic membrane is to the a. anvil; hammer b. stirrup; anvil c. inner ear; middle ear d. middle ear; inner ear ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
as the oval window is to the
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
.
REF: Sound and the Ear
32. What is the name of the receptor cells of the auditory system? a. rods and cones b. sound bulbs c. hair cells d. basilar membranes ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
33. Where are the auditory receptor cells located? a. in the semicircular canal b. on the tympanic membrane c. on the basilar membrane d. in the malleus ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
34. How do sound waves ultimately result in the production of receptor potentials? a. The tectorial membrane squeezes the auditory nerve. b. The basilar membrane releases neurotransmitters. c. Hair cells in the cochlea vibrate, causing ion channels to open in their membrane. d. The scala vestibuli has receptors that create action potentials. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Sound and the Ear
35. According to the frequency theory, the: a. tectorial membrane vibrates in synchrony with the auditory nerve. b. auditory nerve is responsible for perception of sound but not loudness. c. basilar membrane vibrates in synchrony with a sound, producing action potentials at the same frequency. d. basilar membrane is tuned to a specific frequency and vibrates whenever that frequency is present.
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ANS: C OBJ: 2
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DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
36. Perception of a low tone is to as perception of a high tone is to a. volley principle; frequency theory b. frequency theory; place theory c. place theory; volley principle d. gate theory; frequency theory ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
.
REF: Pitch Perception
37. At low frequencies, the intensity of the sound is coded by the: a. frequency of action potentials. b. number of neurons producing action potentials. c. oval window. d. the relative frequency of action potentials. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
38. At low frequencies, our perception of loudness is determined by: a. the number of activated hair cells. b. the frequency of action potentials. c. which neurons are activated. d. which part of the basilar membrane is vibrating. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
39. What is the major problem for the frequency theory of sound perception? a. It cannot account for perception of low pitch sounds. b. It cannot account for perception of low amplitude sounds. c. It requires the cochlea to vibrate, and it does not. d. Neurons cannot respond as quickly as the theory requires. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Pitch Perception
40. Which of the following assumptions is necessary for the place theory of pitch perception, but NOT for the frequency theory? a. Various auditory neurons respond best to different wavelengths. b. The response of an auditory neuron declines if a sound is repeated many times. c. The louder a sound, the more auditory neurons respond to it. d. Most times we hear a combination of many wavelengths, not a pure tone. ANS: A OBJ: 2
255
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DIF: conceptual
The Major Issues
REF: Pitch Perception
41. The frequency theory of pitch perception works well for works well for perception of frequencies. a. low; low b. high; low c. high; high d. low; high ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
frequencies, while the place theory
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
42. The fact that the refractory period limits the firing rate of a neuron is problematic for which of the following? a. frequency theory b. place theory c. volley theory d. both the frequency theory and the place theory ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Pitch Perception
43. The fact that the various parts of the basilar membrane are tightly bound together is problematic for which of the following? a. the frequency theory b. the place theory c. the volley theory d. both the frequency theory and the place theory ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual MSC: www
REF: Pitch Perception
44. The current view of how we perceive sounds less than 100 Hz is based on: a. the frequency of action potentials. b. the area along the basilar membrane that responds most strongly. c. volleys of responses. d. the asymmetrical positioning of an individual's ears. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
45. "Every sound causes one location along the basilar membrane to resonate, and thereby excites neurons in that area." This is one way to state which theory about pitch perception? a. volley principle b. frequency theory c. place theory d. opponent-process theory ANS: C OBJ: 2
256
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DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Pitch Perception
46. Currently, the most prevalent theory of pitch perception is: a. the frequency theory. b. the place theory. c. the volley principle. d. a combination of frequency, place, and volley principles, depending on the frequency of the tone. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Pitch Perception
47. The current view of how we perceive high frequencies is based on: a. the frequency of responses by each auditory neuron. b. volleys of responses by many auditory neurons. c. where along the basilar membrane neurons fire most rapidly. d. the ratio of firing among three types of receptors. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Pitch Perception
48. The highest frequency sounds vibrate hair cells: a. farther along the membrane. b. near the base of the membrane. c. in the middle of the membrane. d. along the entire length of the membrane. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Pitch Perception
49. The current view of how we perceive frequencies greater than 1,000 but less than 5,000 Hz is based on: a. the frequency of responses by each auditory neuron. b. volleys of responses by many auditory neurons. c. the area along the basilar membrane where neurons fire most rapidly. d. the ratio of firing among three types of receptors. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
50. Which of the following is true regarding theories of pitch perception? a. The frequency, pitch, and volley theories each work best for different frequencies. b. The frequency theory works best for all frequencies. c. The place theory works best for all frequencies. d. Each theory works equally well for all frequencies. ANS: A OBJ: 2
257
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DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Pitch Perception
51. Where is the basilar membrane most sensitive to the vibrations of very high-frequency sound waves? a. closest to the cochlea b. at the apex, farthest from the cochlea c. about halfway between the cochlea and the apex d. It is equally sensitive across the entire membrane. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
52. High frequency tones produce maximum displacement: a. at the base of the basilar membrane. b. at the apex of the basilar membrane. c. at the narrow end of the cochlea. d. in the eighth cranial nerve. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
53. Where is the basal membrane most sensitive to the vibrations of low-frequency sound waves? a. closest to the cochlea b. at the apex, farthest from the cochlea c. about half-way between the cochlea and the apex d. It is equally sensitive across the entire membrane. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
54. The ability to hear a note and identify it perfectly is called: a. ultimate pitch. b. sharp pitch. c. tonal pitch. d. absolute pitch. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
55. Most auditory information is sent to which hemisphere of the brain? a. the ipsilateral side b. the contralateral side c. the left hemisphere d. It depends on whether the individual is dominant for audition in the right or the left hemisphere. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
56. To what lobe of the cerebral cortex is auditory information sent? a. occipital b. temporal c. parietal d. frontal
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ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
57. A tonotopic map refers to: a. an auditory cortex map of sounds. b. a diagram of which kinds of sounds are most common in different parts of the world. c. a diagram comparing the different tones to which different species are sensitive. d. a map showing connections between the auditory cortex and the visual cortex. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
58. Damage to V1 produces and damage to A1 produces a. blindness; complete deafness b. complete deafness; blindness c. blindness; deafness to complex sounds d. blindness; ringing in the ears ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
.
REF: The Auditory Cortex
59. People with massive damage to the primary auditory cortex: a. are rendered completely deaf. b. are rendered deaf to only high-frequency sounds. c. cannot recognize combinations or sequences of sounds. d. can no longer hear and recognize simple sounds. ANS: C OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
60. Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in: a. difficulty in responding to sequences of sounds b. complete deafness c. tone deafness d. inability to hear sounds other than one's own voice ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
61. To what kinds of tones do cells in the primary auditory cortex respond best? a. low-pitch tones b. high-pitch tones c. pure single tones d. combinations or patterns of tones ANS: D OBJ: 2
259
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DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: The Auditory Cortex
62. Patients with damage in area MT have problems with perception of: a. location of sounds. b. location of objects. c. movement of objects and sounds. d. high frequency sounds. ANS: C OBJ: 2 63. Visual imagery is to a. A1; A1 b. V1; V1 c. area MT; A1 d. V1; A1 ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
as auditory imagery is to
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
REF: The Auditory Cortex
.
DIF: conceptual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
64. Areas bordering the primary auditory cortex are important for: a. detecting loudness of sounds. b. analyzing the meaning of sounds. c. determining location of sounds. d. detecting pitch of sounds. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
65. A person would have the most difficulty locating the sight and sound of an approaching train with damage to the: a. area MT. b. parietal cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. tympanic membrane. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
66. Which of the following would a cell in the primary auditory cortex be LEAST excited by? a. a pure tone b. the sound of conversation c. an unusual sound d. a tone with several harmonics ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
67. What is the result of damage to the primary auditory cortex? a. tone deafness b. complete deafness c. difficulty in responding to sequences of sounds d. inability to hear sounds other than one's own voice
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REF: The Auditory Cortex
ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
68. Within the primary auditory cortex, most cells respond selectively to a particular: a. loudness. b. rhythm. c. frequency. d. word. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: The Auditory Cortex
69. What kind of deafness is the result of damage to the cochlea or the hair cells? a. conductive b. nerve c. temporary d. hysterical ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Hearing Loss
70. Which of the following statements about nerve deafness is FALSE? a. It can be caused by inadequate oxygen to the brain at birth. b. Hearing aids can compensate for some of the hearing loss. c. Prolonged exposure to loud noise is one of the most common causes. d. With surgical treatment, it is possible to regain normal hearing. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Hearing Loss
DIF: factual MSC:
REF: Hearing Loss www
71. Conductive deafness is also known as: a. nerve deafness. b. middle ear deafness. c. inner ear deafness. d. outer ear deafness. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
72. Which of the following would a person with conductive deafness be able to hear better than a person with nerve deafness? a. everything b. themselves talking c. other people talking d. nothing ANS: B OBJ: 3
261
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DIF: conceptual
The Major Issues
REF: Hearing Loss
73. People with conductive deafness: a. often have an abnormal cochlea. b. often have an abnormal auditory nerve. c. often suffer damage to the hair cells. d. can benefit from surgery or hearing aids. ANS: D OBJ: 3 74.
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Hearing Loss
What can most people with nerve deafness hear? a. some frequencies of sound better than others b. external sounds, but not their own voices c. soft sounds better than loud sounds d. nothing at all ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Hearing Loss
75. What can people with conductive deafness hear? a. high-pitched sounds but not low-pitched sounds b. their own voice better than external sounds c. sounds, but not pitch; everything is monotone d. nothing at all ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
76. Conductive deafness is to as nerve deafness is to a. the inner ear; the middle ear b. the middle ear; the inner ear c. disease; exposure to loud noises d. age; disease ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
REF: Hearing Loss
.
DIF: conceptual
REF: Hearing Loss
77. Which of the following is true for nerve deafness? a. It is usually temporary. b. It often can be corrected by surgery. c. It will involve a normal cochlea and auditory nerve. d. It can result from damage to the cochlea. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Hearing Loss
78. Tinnitus is often: a. suffered by those with conductive deafness. b. seen in the very young. c. due to a phenomenon like the phantom limb. d. due to differential loudness. ANS: C OBJ: 3
262
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DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Hearing Loss
79. If the cochlea suffers damage but it is confined to one part of the cochlea, that individual will lose: a. all hearing. b. hearing of certain frequencies of sound. c. hearing of certain rhythms of sound. d. hearing of certain loudness of sound. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Hearing Loss
80. Damage to the part of the cochlea that sends information about high frequency sounds to the primary auditory cortex could result in: a. hearing loss in the opposite ear. b. inability to hear loud sounds. c. tinnitus. d. complete hearing loss. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual MSC:
REF: Hearing Loss www
DIF: factual
REF: Hearing Loss
81. Nerve deafness often produces: a. hearing loss in the opposite ear. b. tinnitus. c. inability to hear loud sounds. d. infections. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
82. Nerve deafness is to as conductive deafness is to a. the inner ear; the middle ear b. the middle ear; the inner ear c. disease; exposure to loud noises d. age; disease ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
.
DIF: conceptual
REF: Hearing Loss
83. Which statement about tinnitus is FALSE? a. Many people with nerve deafness experience tinnitus. b. Many people with conductive deafness experience tinnitus. c. Tinnitus is common among the elderly. d. Tinnitus is a frequent or constant ringing in the ears. ANS: B OBJ: 3
263
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Hearing Loss
84. Comparisons between which two responses are helpful in locating the source of a sound? a. the base and the apex of the basilar membrane b. the middle ear and the inner ear c. the left ear and the right ear d. the start of the sound and the end of the sound ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
85. Humans localize low frequencies by a. timing; phase b. loudness; phase c. phase; timing d. phase; loudness ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound Localization
differences and high frequencies by
DIF: factual
differences.
REF: Sound Localization
86. What sound characteristics can be compared between the two ears to locate the source of the sound? a. sound shadows and frequency b. frequency and amplitude c. loudness and timing d. timbre and rhythm ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound Localization
87. For what kind of sounds can differences in loudness be used most accurately for localization? a. loud b. soft c. low-pitched d. high-pitched ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound Localization
88. Which two factors determine whether or not there will be a "sound shadow"? a. loudness and ear size b. head size and frequency c. frequency and cochlea size d. suddenness of onset and loudness ANS: B OBJ: 2
264
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DIF: conceptual
Chapter 1
REF: Sound Localization
89. Timing differences can be used most accurately for localizing: a. sudden-onset sounds. b. gradual-onset sounds. c. loud sounds. d. bird alarm calls. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
90. In terms of sound localization, low frequencies are to differences. a. timing; phase b. loudness; phase c. phase; timing d. phase; loudness ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
REF: Sound Localization
differences, as high frequencies are to
DIF: factual
REF: Sound Localization
91. A sound shadow refers to: a. out of phase sound waves. b. in phase sound waves. c. the time it takes sound waves to reach the ears. d. how much louder a high-frequency sound is for the ear closest to the sound. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Sound Localization
92. Which of the following would be LEAST able to use phase differences as a means of sound localization? a. chimpanzees b. humans c. elephants d. ground squirrels ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: conceptual
REF: Sound Localization
93. Suppose you suddenly become deaf in one ear. With practice, you would most likely be able to locate familiar sounds based on differences in: a. phase. b. frequency. c. pitch. d. loudness. ANS: D OBJ: 2
265
PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Sound Localization
94. What does the vestibular system detect? a. the degree of stretch of muscles b. vibrations on the skin c. the location of sounds d. movement of the head ANS: D OBJ:
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Vestibular Sensation
95. Which of the following would be most impaired with damage to the vestibular senses? a. writing b. hearing c. visually tracking an object while dancing d. ability to discriminate salt from sugar ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Vestibular Sensation
96. In the otolith organs, the otoliths are calcium carbonate particles that: a. push against hair cells when moved. b. vibrate with different frequencies. c. stabilize the semicircular canals. d. enhance sound localization. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Vestibular Sensation MSC: www
97. Which two structures provide information about vestibular sensation? a. cochlea and otolith organs b. semicircular canals and cochlea c. semicircular canals and otolith organs d. cerebellum and sinuses ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Vestibular Sensation
98. The vestibular organ consists of: a. only otolith organs. b. only semicircular canals. c. otolith organs and semicircular canals. d. the cochlea and an otolith organ. ANS: C OBJ: 1
266
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
Chapter 1
REF: Vestibular Sensation
99.
The function of the semicircular canals is to: a. locate the source of low frequency tones. b. locate the source of high frequency tones. c. detect movement of the head. d. establish a sense of direction while traveling. ANS: C OBJ: 1
100.
component and a
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Vestibular Sensation KEY: NEW component.
REF: Vestibular Sensation
The somatosensory system involves sensation of: a. sight and sound. b. sound and touch. c. the body and its movements. d. the head and movements of the eyes. ANS: C OBJ: 2
103.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
The eighth cranial nerve contains both a(n) a. vestibular; somatosensory b. visual; vestibular c. auditory; taste d. auditory; vestibular ANS: D OBJ: 1
102.
REF: Vestibular Sensation MSC: www
An acceleration of the head at any angle causes: a. the jelly-like substance in one of the semicircular canals to move to another canal. b. the jelly-like substance in one of the semicircular canals to push against hair cells. c. fluid to spill out from the otolith organs into the semicircular canals. d. hair cells to become stiff and straight. ANS: B OBJ: 1
101.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
What kind of receptors detect pain, warmth, and cold? a. cranial b. semicircular c. vestibular d. somatosensory ANS: D OBJ: 2
267
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Somatosensation
104.
Meissner's corpuscles are: a. elaborate neuron endings for touch. b. simple, bare neuron endings. c. bare endings surrounded by non-neural cells. d. important components of the blood. ANS: A OBJ: 2
105.
Stimulation of a touch receptor opens a. choline b. potassium c. sodium d. calcium ANS: C OBJ: 2
106.
channels in the axon.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation MSC: www
Pacinian corpuscles respond best to: a. rapid mechanical pressure. b. low frequency sounds. c. horizontal head movements. d. slow mechanical movements. ANS: A OBJ: 2
108.
REF: Somatosensation
Ruffini's endings are: a. elaborate neuron endings for touch. b. simple, bare neuron endings. c. bare endings surrounded by non-neural cells. d. important components of the blood. ANS: A OBJ: 2
107.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
Pain receptors of the skin are: a. elaborate neuron endings. b. also known as Ruffini endings. c. simple, bare neuron endings. d. also known as Meissner's corpuscles. ANS: C OBJ: 2
268
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
Chapter 1
REF: Somatosensation
109.
When mechanical pressure bends the membrane of a Pacinian corpuscle: a. the membrane's resistance to the flow of sodium ions increases. b. the membrane's resistance to the flow of sodium ions decreases. c. the membrane becomes hyperpolarized. d. there is a sustained, long-term response to this pressure. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
110. Each spinal nerve has: a. either a sensory or a motor component. b. both a sensory and a motor component. c. connections to most parts of the body. d. connections to each of the major internal organs. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
111. Someone who has suffered damage to the sensory component of one spinal nerve would lose sensation from: a. the contralateral half of the body. b. the ipsilateral half of the body. c. one ventricle. d. one dermatome. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
112. What is a dermatome? a. an area of the skin innervated by a given spinal nerve b. an instrument used to record impulses in the spinal cord c. the point at which sensory nerves make contact with motor nerves d. an area of the skin that has no touch receptors ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
113. Cutting a spinal nerve would result in loss of: a. sensation in the face. b. motor control in the part of the body it innervated. c. sensation in the part of the body it innervated. d. motor control and sensation in the part of the body it innervated. ANS: D OBJ: 2
269
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Somatosensation
114. Somatosensory information travels from the thalamus to which area of the cortex? a. parietal lobe b. frontal lobe c. hippocampus d. limbic cortex ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
115. An individual with damage to the primary somatosensory cortex would most have problems with: a. memory. b. hearing. c. ability to locate where someone was touching them. d. balance. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
116. After damage to the somatosensory cortex, a person would have the most difficulty with: a. perceiving moving sounds. b. balance. c. eye movements. d. pointing to their own body parts. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
117. Along each strip of somatosensory cortex, different sub-areas respond to: a. different types of receptors. b. different areas of the body. c. different parts of the cortex. d. different types of transmitters. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
118. Which of the following is TRUE about various types of somatosensation? a. They are produced by varied responses by a single type of receptor. b. They involve different receptors, but the spinal cord integrates the information. c. They remain separate through the spinal cord, but are interpreted by a single set of cortical neurons. d. They are at least partly distinct all the way from the receptors to the cerebral cortex. ANS: D OBJ: 3
270
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
Chapter 1
REF: Somatosensation
119. What neurotransmitter is released by axons that carry pain information to the brain? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. substance P d. encephalin ANS: C OBJ: 4 120.
The heat receptor responds to a. tryptophan b. pacinian c. menthol d. capsaicin ANS: D OBJ: 4
121.
, the chemical that makes jalapeños.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
A mild degree of pain releases the neurotransmitter a. glutamate, substance P b. GABA, substance P c. glutamate, dopamine d. GABA, dopamine ANS: A OBJ: 4
123.
REF: Pain MSC: www
REF: Pain
The nucleus of the thalamus is associated with pain perception of the body. a. anterior b. posterior c. ventral posterior d. ventral lateral ANS: C OBJ: 4
122.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
. A more intense pain also releases
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
What would you expect if a researcher injected substance P into an animal's spinal cord? a. The animal would be paralyzed. b. The animal would show indications of pain in the part of the body that sends information to that section of the spinal cord. c. The animal would show indications of pain in the part of the spinal cord where the substance was injected. d. The animal would show signs of aggression. ANS: B OBJ: 4
271
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Pain
.
124.
A mild pain stimulus is associated with a release of: a. substance P. b. substance P and glutamate. c. glutamate. d. neuromodulators. ANS: C OBJ: 4
125.
The sensory aspect of pain activates the cortex. a. cingulate, somatosensory b. somatosensory, cingulate c. fusiform, premotor d. premotor, fusiform ANS: B OBJ: 4
126.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain MSC: www KEY: NEW
Certain painful stimuli activate neurons which release endorphins in the: a. periaqueductal gray area. b. ventricles c. forebrain. d. cerebellum. ANS: A OBJ: 4
129.
cortex, whereas the emotional aspect activates the
Endorphins: a. can interact with the same receptors as morphine. b. have chemical structures just like morphine. c. increase pain. d. are human-made drugs which mimic endorphins. ANS: A OBJ: 4
128.
REF: Pain
The brain chemicals known as endorphins and enkephalins produce effects similar to which substance? a. vitamin B-1 (thiamine) b. substance P c. opiates d. amphetamines ANS: C OBJ: 4
127.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
Morphine and other opiate drugs decrease sensitivity to pain by: a. depleting substance P from parts of the nervous system. b. mimicking the effects of endorphins at the synapses. c. preventing sodium from crossing the membrane. d. altering blood flow to various parts of the nervous system.
272
Chapter 1
REF: Pain
ANS: B OBJ: 4 130.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
Studies with placebos and studies using hypnotism suggest that much of the reduction in pain is the result of decreased activation in the: a. emotion areas of the brain. b. hypothalamus. c. spinal cord. d. somatosensory areas of the cortex. ANS: A OBJ: 4
134.
REF: Pain
After hurting your elbow in a biking accident, the gate-control theory of pain suggests that to reduce the pain, you could: a. eat hot peppers. b. rub it gently. c. focus on how painful it is. d. block endorphin release. ANS: B OBJ: 4
133.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
What process is predicted by the gate theory of pain? a. Pain information grows more intense as it passes each synapse on its way to the brain. b. Non-pain information can inhibit pain information. c. Intense pain can shut out all other sensory information. d. The intensity of pain experience depends entirely on the excitability of pain receptors. ANS: B OBJ: 4
132.
REF: Pain
The current view of how endorphins decrease the experience of pain is that they: a. deplete the brain of substance P. b. block the release of substance P. c. block sodium channels in the membrane of certain neurons. d. increase the sensitivity of neurons to dopamine. ANS: B OBJ: 4
131.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
Which of the following drug actions would most likely block the effectiveness of placebos? a. blocking capsaicin receptors b. blocking endorphin receptors c. stimulating substance P receptors d. stimulating endorphin receptors ANS: B OBJ: 4
273
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Pain
135.
Why is morphine NOT used to suppress pain during an operation? a. It is only effective while a person is conscious. b. Its effects are local. c. It inhibits dull pain, but not sharp pain. d. Its effects would be too temporary. ANS: C OBJ: 4
136.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain KRY: NEW
Anti-inflammatory drugs, such as ibuprofen, relieve pain by: a. reducing the release of chemicals from damaged tissues. b. dulling the pain information. c. blocking synapses. d. numbing the damaged tissue. ANS: A OBJ: 4
140.
REF: Pain
Small-diameter pain axons: a. carry sharp pain information. b. carry dull pain information. c. do not respond to endorphins. d. are associated with large cell bodies. ANS: B OBJ: 4
139.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
Large-diameter pain axons: a. carry sharp pain information. b. carry dull pain information. c. readily respond to endorphins. d. are associated with small cell bodies. ANS: A OBJ: 4
138.
REF: Pain
Morphine is effective in relieving: a. pain on the skin. b. sharp pain. c. slow, dull pain. d. pain in the interior of the body. ANS: C OBJ: 4
137.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
Itching is primarily the result of: a. bad circulation. b. baby powder. c. histamine release. d. substance P release.
274
Chapter 1
REF: Pain
ANS: C OBJ: 4 141.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
Antihistamine drugs tend to a. reduce, increase b. reduce, reduce c. increase, increase d. increase, reduce ANS: A OBJ: 4
145.
itching, and opiates tend to
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Itch
REF: Itch
itching.
REF: Itch MSC: www
Most theorists believe that the first sensory system was: a. vision. b. vestibular. c. pain. d. chemical. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
146.
REF: Itch
One peculiarity of itch sensations is that: a. they can be felt in body parts that have no sensory receptors. b. they are suppressed by morphine for unusually long times. c. they are suppressed by Novocaine for unusually long times. d. they depend on action potentials transmitted at very slow speeds. ANS: D OBJ: 4
144.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
What is the relationship between pain and itch? a. Pain inhibits itch. b. Itch is a mild form of pain. c. Itch and pain are different, but both are reduced by opiate drugs. d. Itch and pain are different, but both are increased by opiate drugs. ANS: A OBJ: 4
143.
REF: Itch
A distinctive feature of itch is that it relies on: a. axons that go directly from the skin to the cerebral cortex. b. axons that make several synapses before reaching the spinal cord. c. unusually fast axons. d. unusually slow axons. ANS: D OBJ: 4
142.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
One difference between labeled-line coding and across-fiber pattern coding is that labeled-line is: a. only found in vertebrates. b. less versatile. c. more complicated. d. slower.
275
The Major Issues
ANS: B OBJ: 1 147.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Chemical Coding
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Chemical Coding
Taste and smell axons converge onto many of the same cells in an area called the: a. frontal cortex. b. striate cortex. c. insular cortex. d. endopiriform cortex. ANS: D OBJ: 1
151.
REF: Chemical Coding
Our ability to see a wide range of colors, despite the presence of only three types of receptors, indicates that color vision depends on which type of coding? a. across-fiber pattern b. reciprocal-inhibitory c. labeled-line d. hierarchical ANS: A OBJ: 1
150.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Each receptor responds to a wide range of stimuli and contributes to the perception of each of them. This type of coding is referred to as: a. across-fiber. b. labeled-line. c. hierarchical. d. reciprocal-excitatory. ANS: A OBJ: 1
149.
REF: Chemical Coding
Each receptor responds to a limited range of stimuli and sends a direct line to the brain. This type of coding is referred to as: a. across-fiber. b. labeled-line. c. vestibular. d. hierarchical. ANS: B OBJ: 1
148.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
The receptors for taste are: a. true neurons. b. covered in myelin. c. modified skin cells. d. modified blood cells. ANS: C OBJ: 1
276
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Chapter 1
REF: Taste
152.
The receptors for taste are not true neurons, but are actually modified skin cells. In what way are these cells like neurons? a. Once taste receptors die, they are never replaced. b. They release neurotransmitters. c. They have axons. d. They are covered with a myelin sheath. ANS: B OBJ: 1
153.
REF: Taste
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
In adult humans, the taste buds are: a. evenly distributed across the front half of the tongue. b. evenly distributed across the whole tongue. c. concentrated near the center of the tongue. d. concentrated along the outside edge of the tongue. ANS: D OBJ: 1
156.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
What are found in papillae? a. olfactory receptors b. clusters of neurons c. hair cells d. taste buds ANS: D OBJ: 1
155.
REF: Taste
The receptors for taste are like skin cells in that they: a. are continuously being replaced. b. are covered with a myelin sheath. c. are also sensitive to touch. d. do not release neurotransmitters. ANS: A OBJ: 1
154.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
Which of the following is TRUE about taste receptors? a. Their dendrites extend outside the taste buds. b. They are located mainly along the outside edge of the tongue. c. Each taste bud contains only one receptor cell. d. Humans have hundreds of types of taste receptors, each sensitive to a different set of chemicals. ANS: B OBJ: 1
277
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Taste MSC: www
157.
Which of the following is TRUE about taste receptors? a. Their dendrites extend outside the taste buds. b. They are virtually nonexistent in the center of the tongue. c. Each taste bud contains only one receptor cell. d. Humans have hundreds of types of taste receptors, each sensitive to a different set of chemicals. ANS: B OBJ: 1
158.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
Why does orange juice taste unpleasant just after one uses toothpaste? a. Toothpaste contains a chemical that changes certain taste receptors. b. When the teeth are clean, the acid in the orange juice irritates them. c. Toothpaste removes a coating that protects the tongue. d. Toothpaste enhances the binding of molecules to sweetness receptors. ANS: A OBJ: 1
162.
REF: Taste
Reduced response to one taste after exposure to another is referred to as: a. adaptation. b. cross-adaptation. c. umami. d. PTC. ANS: B OBJ: 1
161.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
What do toothpaste, miracle berries, and Gymnema sylvestre have in common? a. They are extremely expensive. b. They modify taste perception. c. They contain illegal drugs. d. They activate substance P receptors. ANS: B OBJ: 1
160.
REF: Taste
The miracle of miracle berries is that after eating them: a. they become tasteless. b. salty substances taste sour. c. you don't gain any weight. d. sour substances can taste sweet. ANS: D OBJ: 1
159.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
After soaking your tongue in a sour solution you try tasting salty, sweet, and bitter substances. How are these tastes affected? a. You will be unable to detect the sweet taste, but the other two will be unaffected. b. You will be unable to detect the sweet or salty tastes, but bitter will be unaffected. c. You will be unable to reliably detect any of the other tastes. d. There will be little or no effect on these three tastes.
278
Chapter 1
ANS: D OBJ: 1 163.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Adaptation is to as cross-adaptation is to a. sour; sweet b. same tastes; different tastes c. overstimulation; rebound effects d. weak stimulation; strong stimulation ANS: B OBJ: 1
167.
REF: Taste
REF: Taste
After soaking their tongues in a sour solution, what do most people experience? a. Other sour substances taste less sour. b. Other sour substances taste more sour. c. Other sour substances taste sweet as well as sour. d. All substances are perceived as relatively tasteless. ANS: A OBJ: 1
166.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
After eating salty pretzels, the salty potato chips will taste less salty because of: a. cross-adaptation. b. adaptation. c. umami. d. amiloride. ANS: B OBJ: 2
165.
REF: Taste
Exposure to an extremely salty substance decreases sensitivity to other salty substances. What is this phenomenon called? a. adaptation b. olfaction c. umami d. analgesia ANS: A OBJ: 1
164.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
Taste perception in the brain depends on: a. relative activity of different taste neurons. b. absolute frequency of action potentials. c. only taste receptors on the anterior part of the tongue. d. the angular gyrus. ANS: A OBJ: 1
279
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Taste
168.
Chemicals that prevent sodium from crossing the membrane: a. intensify the salty taste. b. do not affect taste. c. reduce the intensity of salty tastes. d. cause an increase in sensitivity to other primary tastes. ANS: C OBJ: 1
169.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
We can identify a wide variety of bitter substances because: a. we have many different bitter receptors. b. we have only one bitter receptor that responds to all bitter substances. c. we can combine the activity of the sour and salty receptors. d. even Pacinian corpuscles respond to bitter substances. ANS: A OBJ: 2
173.
REF: Taste
One reason why we have difficulty tasting low concentrations of a bitter chemical is that: a. we have dozens of different types of bitter receptors. b. bitter receptors are located only on the back of the tongue. c. bitter receptors have axons with very slow conduction velocities. d. each bitter receptor responds to a wide variety of chemicals. ANS: A OBJ: 2
172.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Sweetness, bitterness and umami receptors operate by: a. closing potassium channels. b. depolarizing the membranes. c. activating a protein which causes the release of a second messenger. d. simply permitting sodium ions to cross their membranes. ANS: C OBJ: 2
171.
REF: Taste
What causes excitation of the taste receptors that respond to salty tastes? a. a decrease in the activity of adjacent sweet and bitter receptors b. sodium ions crossing the membrane of the receptor c. a hyperpolarization due to the increased concentration of sodium ions outside the cell d. a blockage of the sodium gates ANS: B OBJ: 1
170.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
Information carried to the brain along the chorda tympani comes from the: a. posterior one-third of the tongue. b. posterior two-third of the tongue. c. center of the tongue. d. anterior two-thirds of the tongue. ANS: D OBJ: 2
280
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Chapter 1
REF: Taste
174.
If someone anesthetized your chorda tympani, you would: a. no longer taste anything. b. no longer taste anything in the posterior part of your tongue. c. no longer taste anything in the anterior part of your tongue. d. not notice any change in your ability to taste. ANS: C OBJ: 2
175.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
R REF:
Taste
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
Which of the following would be able to tolerate the highest level of PTC? a. people with many fungiform papillae near the tip of the tongue b. people with few fungiform papillae near the tip of the tongue c. supertasters d. a pregnant woman ANS: B OBJ: 2
179.
REF: Taste
The primary taste cortex is known as the: a. flavor cortex. b. olfactory cortex. c. insular cortex. d. occipital cortex. ANS: C OBJ: 2
178.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
The taste nerves initially project to the: a. nucleus of the tractus solitarius. b. cerebral cortex. c. hypothalamus. d. orbital prefrontal cortex. ANS: A OBJ: 2
177.
REF: Taste
The nucleus of the tractus solitarius in the medulla is known to receive information from what source? a. tongue b. nose c. ears d. skin of the hands ANS: A OBJ: 2
176.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Taste
If you are a supertaster, then: a. you require high concentrations of a particular taste to be able to identify it. b. you have more fungiform papillae in the center of your tongue. c. you are more sensitive than the average person to nearly all tastes. d. your ability to taste makes up for your lack of ability to identify odors by smell.
281
The Major Issues
ANS: C OBJ: 2 180.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Olfaction
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Olfaction
Olfactory receptor sites are located: a. in the brain. b. on cilia. c. in the olfactory bulb. d. on the basilar membrane. ANS: B OBJ: 3
184.
REF: Olfaction
In mammals, each olfactory cell has threadlike dendrites that: a. extend from the cell body into the mucous surface of the nasal passage. b. extend from the cell body directly into the brain. c. extend from the mucous surface of the nasal passage to the base of the skull. d. intermingle with one another to form a web-like structure. ANS: A OBJ: 3
183.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
How many kinds of olfactory receptors do we have? a. two or three b. seven c. twenty d. hundreds ANS: D OBJ: 3
182.
REF: Taste
Olfaction also plays a subtle role in: a. sleeping. b. social behavior. c. touch sensation. d. vestibular sensation. ANS: B OBJ: 3
181.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Olfaction
How is olfactory information coded in receptor cells? a. Each odor produces a different ratio of firing across three types of olfactory cells. b. Each odor produces a different ratio of firing across six types of olfactory cells. c. There are hundreds of types of receptor molecules, each responsive to a different chemical. d. Chemicals in the air are transported to the olfactory cortex. ANS: C OBJ: 3
282
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Chapter 1
REF: Olfaction
185.
Rats and mice are better able to discriminate odors than humans because they: a. have a greater variety of olfactory receptors. b. are closer to the ground. c. have more practice. d. have shorter olfactory cilia. ANS: A OBJ: 3
186.
REF: Olfaction
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Olfaction
What is unusual about olfactory receptors compared to most other mature mammalian neurons? a. They have more than one axon each. b. They have no axons. c. They are replaceable when old neurons die. d. They use more than one neurotransmitter. ANS: C OBJ: 3
189.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Olfactory receptors carry their message to the: a. cochlea. b. NTS. c. insular cortex. d. olfactory bulb. ANS: D OBJ: 3
188.
REF: Olfaction
Analogous to lateral inhibition, when olfactory receptors are stimulated, they: a. inhibit the activity of other receptors. b. quickly die. c. inhibit cell reproduction. d. inhibit nausea. ANS: A OBJ: 3
187.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Olfaction
Given a very faint odor of air freshener, who is most likely to detect it? a. male b. post-menopausal female c. cycling female d. pre-pubertal female ANS: C OBJ: 3
283
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Olfaction
190.
Deleting a single gene for potassium channels in mice led to an amazing superpower related to the sense of: a. touch. b. smell. c. sight. d. hearing. ANS: B OBJ: 3
191.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses MSC:
Pheromones are important for the a. food-getting b. sexual c. temperature-regulating d. conscious and intentional ANS: B OBJ: 4
194.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Pheromones
Pheromone receptors in humans are located in the: a. tongue. b. VNO. c. olfactory mucosa. d. cochlea. ANS: C OBJ: 4
193.
REF: Olfaction
The vomeronasal organ (VNO) is a set of receptors located: a. in the inner ear. b. near, but separate from, the olfactory receptors. c. in the throat. d. in the cerebral ventricles. ANS: B OBJ: 4
192.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Pheromones www
behaviors of many mammalian species.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Pheromones
Researchers have found the VNO in humans. It compares to other species in that it is: a. more dependent on practice or training in humans. b. a more prominent organ in humans. c. a small organ without obvious receptors. d. a small organ with many more receptors. ANS: C OBJ: 4
284
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Chapter 1
REF: Pheromones
195.
One major difference between olfaction and VNO receptors is that: a. there are many more VNO receptors. b. VNO receptors are continuously growing. c. VNO receptors do not adapt. d. olfactory receptors are sensitive to pheromones. ANS: C OBJ: 4
196.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
Repeated exposure to male pheromones may be associated with not sexually active. a. more regular menstrual cycles b. sweating c. increased olfactory capabilities d. increased appetite ANS: A OBJ: 4
199.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Pheromones
Many women living in a college dormitory will gradually begin to synchronize their menstrual cycles. The research indicates that this is, at least in part, based on: a. sound. b. sight. c. pheromones. d. similar activity schedules. ANS: C OBJ: 4
198.
REF: Pheromones
Studies indicate that pheromones may play a role in humans': a. ability to detect odors. b. memories. c. sexual behaviors. d. dietary choices. ANS: C OBJ: 4
197.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Pheromones
in young women who are
REF: Pheromones
Of the following, which one would be most closely associated with experiencing synesthesia? a. hearing voices b. seeing colors and shapes c. seeing colors of letter or words d. inability to feel pain ANS: C OBJ: 5
285
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
The Major Issues
REF: Synesthesia
200.
A person who “sees” spoken language or music may be experiencing: a. synesthesia. b. amnesia. c. anesthesia. d. aphasia. ANS: A OBJ: 5
201.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Synesthesia
One hypothesis of synesthesia is: a. that all of the axons from one cortical area have more branches into that cortical area. b. that all of the axons from one cortical area have branches into another cortical area. c. that some of the axons from one cortical area have branches into another cortical area. d. that some of the axons from one cortical area have more branches into that cortical area. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
REF: Synesthesia MSC: www
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the major structures of the middle ear. ANS: Tympanic membrane, oval window, malleus, incus and stapes. PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Sound and the Ear
OBJ:
1
OBJ:
2
2. Name the three main theories of pitch perception. ANS: Place theory, frequency theory and combination theory. PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
DIF: factual
REF: Pitch Perception
3. What is nerve deafness? ANS: Nerve deafness results from damage to the cochlea, the hair cells, or the auditory nerve. It can occur in any degree and may be confined to one part of the cochlea, in which case someone hears certain frequencies and not others. PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition
286
DIF: factual
REF: Hearing Loss OBJ: 3
Chapter 1
4. Briefly describe the somatosensory system. ANS: It controls the sensation of the body and its movements, including discriminative touch, deep pressure, cold, warmth, pain, itch, tickle, and the position and movement of joints. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Somatosensation
OBJ:
2
5. Pain axons release what two neurotransmitters in the spinal cord? ANS: Mild pain – glutamate; stronger pain - substance P. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
REF: Pain
OBJ: 4
6. Define synesthesia. ANS: Synesthesia is the experience of one sense in response to stimulation of a different sense. PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: Synesthesia TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
ESSAY 1. Describe how the auditory cortex parallels the visual cortex. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: 7.1 Audition MSC: www
DIF: conceptual
REF: The Auditory Cortex OBJ:
2. Describe in detail one of the ways of relieving pain. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 7.2 The Mechanical Senses
287
REF: Pain
The Major Issues
OBJ: 4
2
3. Describe the differences between labeled-line and across-fiber pattern chemical coding. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Chemical Coding TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
4. Describe the basic mechanisms of taste receptors. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Taste TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
5. Briefly describe the behavioral effects of pheromones in humans. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Pheromones TOP: 7.3 The Chemical Senses
MSC: www
Chapter 8: Movement TRUE/FALSE 1. A striated muscle controls movement of the body in relation to the environment. ANS: T Movements
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
REF: Muscles and Their
2. In skeletal muscles, every axon releases dopamine. ANS: F Movements
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
REF: Muscles and Their
3. Taking a drug that blocks acetylcholine receptors would be helpful for a person with myasthenia gravis. ANS: F Movements MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
REF: Muscles and Their
4. A fish swimming in cold water can swim rapidly, but fatigues much faster. ANS: T Movements
288
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
Chapter 1
5. Fast-twitch fibers have fast contractions and rapid fatigue. ANS: F Movements
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
6. The relative percentage of fast- and slow-twitch fibers is unchangeable after birth. ANS: F Movements
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
7. Marathon runners build up muscle fibers that are also helpful for sprinting. ANS: F Movements
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
8. The stretch reflex is caused by a stretch of the muscle. ANS: T Movements
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
9. Activation of the Golgi tendon organs results in contraction of the muscle. ANS: F Movements MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
10. Infants have several reflexes not seen in adults. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
11. Allied reflexes are stronger in infants and children than adults. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
12. Most types of movement can be clearly classified as voluntary or involuntary. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
13. Central pattern generators are most likely to be found in the spinal cord. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
14. A fixed sequence of movements is called a motor program. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
289
DIF: factual MSC: www
The Major Issues
REF: Units of Movement
15. The motor cortex has direct connections to the muscles. ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
16. Control of a single muscle is distributed over a population of cells in the motor cortex. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
17. The motor cortex can become active when imagining movement. ANS: T OBJ: 1
290
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
Chapter 1
18. People with severe spinal cord injury continue to produce normal activity in the motor cortex when they want to move. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
19. The prefrontal cortex plans movements according to their probable outcomes. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
20. The supplementary motor cortex is mainly active when preparing for an organized sequence of movements. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
21. Mirror neurons are active both during preparation for a movement and while watching someone else perform the same or a similar movement. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
22. The sensory cortex produces a kind of activity called a readiness potential before any voluntary movement. ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
23. Paths from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord are called the corticospinal tracts. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
24. The symptoms of cerebellar damage resemble those of alcohol intoxication. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
25. People with cerebellar damage are faster at shifting their attention to a particular visual location. ANS: F OBJ: 4
291
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
The Major Issues
26. Parkinson’s symptoms usually don't appear until 70-80% of the substantia nigra neurons have died. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Movement Disorders
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
27. Late-onset Parkinson's disease is largely determined by genetics. ANS: F OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Movement Disorders
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
28. Dopamine neurons are more vulnerable than most other neurons to damage caused by metabolic problems. ANS: T OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Movement Disorders
REF: Parkinson’s Disease MSC: www
29. Brain transplants for Parkinson's patients have generally been very successful. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Movement Disorders
REF: Parkinson’s Disease MSC: www
30. In Huntington's disease, earlier onset is associated with slower deterioration over time. ANS: F OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Movement Disorders
REF: Huntington's Disease
31. Huntington’s disease is controlled by an autosomal dominant gene. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Movement Disorders
REF: Huntington's Disease
32. The gene for Huntington's disease is recessive. ANS: F OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Movement Disorders
REF: Huntington's Disease
33. The more glutamine repeats that a person has, the earlier the age of onset of Huntington's disease. ANS: T OBJ: 4
292
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Movement Disorders
Chapter 1
REF: Huntington's Disease
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Ultimately, the purpose of having a brain is to: a. control movement. b. solve logical problems. c. control hormone release. d. comprehend language. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
2. In infancy, the sea squirt has a brain until it: a. mates. b. stops moving. c. eats clown fish. d. migrates to open water. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
3. What type of muscle controls movements of the heart? a. smooth b. striated c. cardiac d. antagonistic ANS: C Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
4. What type of muscle controls movements of internal organs? a. smooth b. striated c. cardiac d. antagonistic ANS: A Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
5. What type of muscle is responsible for the movement of your body through the environment? a. smooth b. striated c. cardiac d. syncarpous ANS: B Movement MSC: www
293
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
The Major Issues
6. The heart is to as movement of the body is to a. smooth muscles; rough muscles b. cardiac muscles; striated muscles c. striated muscles; skeletal muscles d. antagonistic muscles; skeletal muscles ANS: B Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
.
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
7. Internal organs are to as movement of the body is to a. smooth muscles; rough muscles b. smooth muscles; striated muscles c. striated muscles; skeletal muscles d. antagonistic muscles; skeletal muscles ANS: B Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
.
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
8. Cardiac muscles have properties: a. just like those of smooth muscles. b. just like those of skeletal muscles. c. just like those of antagonistic muscles. d. intermediate between those of smooth and skeletal. ANS: D Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
9. What is the relationship between the motor neuron axons and muscle fibers? a. Each axon innervates only one muscle fiber. b. The more muscle fibers a single axon innervates, the more precise the movements. c. The more axons which innervate a single muscle fiber, the more precise the movements. d. The fewer muscle fibers a single axon innervates, the more precise the movements. ANS: D Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
10. The eye muscles can be moved with greater precision than the biceps muscles because the: a. biceps have only slow-twitch muscles. b. biceps have only fast-twitch muscles. c. biceps are opposed by an antagonistic muscle; the eye muscles are not. d. eye muscles have a lower ratio of muscle fibers to axons. ANS: D Movement
294
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
Chapter 1
11. You have precise control over the movement of your fingers, probably because: a. they have many muscle fibers per motor neuron. b. they have few muscle fibers per motor neuron. c. the axons in the fingers have faster action potentials. d. you have learned how to write. ANS: B Movement www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement MSC:
12. What is the name given to the synapse where a motor neuron's axon meets a muscle fiber? a. neuromuscular junction b. polar junction c. muscle spindle d. neurofiber synapse ANS: A Movement MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
13. A neuromuscular junction is a synapse: a. where a sensory axon delivering information from a muscle meets a neuron. b. where a motor neuron axon meets a muscle fiber. c. specific to cardiac muscles. d. where a muscle excites or inhibits a neuron. ANS: B Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
14. Moving a leg or arm back and forth requires opposing sets of muscles called: a. extensor muscles. b. flexor muscles. c. cardiac muscles. d. antagonistic muscles. ANS: D Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
15. When an axon releases a transmitter at the nerve-muscle junction, the response of the muscle is to: a. always relax. b. always contract. c. relax or contract, depending on the transmitter. d. relax or contract, depending on the duration and amount of transmitter. ANS: B Movement
295
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
The Major Issues
16. Axons release at junctions with skeletal muscles. a. many different neurotransmitters b. dopamine c. norepinephrine d. acetylcholine ANS: D Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
17. The absence of acetylcholine will cause a muscle to: a. relax. b. contract. c. fatigue. d. stretch. ANS: A Movement KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
18. What will cause a muscle to relax? a. electrical stimulation b. absence of acetylcholine c. presence of norepinephrine d. presence of epinephrine ANS: B Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
19. Which muscle is "antagonistic" to a flexor muscle in the right arm? a. a flexor muscle in the right arm b. an extensor muscle in the left arm c. an extensor muscle in the right arm d. another flexor muscle in the right arm ANS: C Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
20. A contraction of equal force in antagonist muscles of the arm would result in a. flexion b. extension c. no movement d. rotation ANS: C Movement
296
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
of the arm.
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
Chapter 1
21. The eye muscles have a ratio of about a. two, three b. one, three c. three, two d. three one ANS: B Movement
axon(s) per
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
22. The biceps muscles of the arm have a ratio of a. four b. three c. one d. two ANS: C Movement 23. At the elbow, the a. extensor muscle b. flexor muscle c. striated muscle d. skeletal muscle ANS: B Movement NEW
muscle fiber(s).
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
to more than a hundred fibers.
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
brings the hand toward the shoulder.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement KEY:
24. A deficit of acetylcholine or its receptors: a. cause involuntary movement b. increase movement c. impair movement d. does not affect movement ANS: C Movement NEW 25. In movement the, a. Flexor b. Striated c. Extensor d. Skeletal ANS: C Movement KEY: NEW
297
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement KEY:
muscle straightens the arm.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
The Major Issues
26. What happens when a fish swims at low temperatures? a. Muscle fibers contract more vigorously than at high temperatures. b. The fish swims more slowly. c. The fish swims at its usual speed but fatigues more rapidly. d. The fish swims at its usual speed but fatigues more slowly. ANS: C Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
27. A fish will adjust to lower water temperatures by: a. increasing the speed of its action potentials. b. increasing the amplitude of its action potentials. c. recruiting different muscle fibers. d. increasing its basal metabolic rate. ANS: C Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
28. What are the differences among the three types of skeletal muscle found in fish (red, pink, and white)? a. speed of contraction b. susceptibility to fatigue c. both speed of contraction and susceptibility to fatigue d. only their color ANS: C Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
29. Of the three types of skeletal muscles found in fish, which type is least susceptible to fatigue? a. Red b. White c. Blue d. Pink ANS: A Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
30. At high temperatures, a fish relies mostly on its: a. white muscles. b. red muscles. c. blue muscles. d. pink muscles. ANS: B Movement
298
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
Chapter 1
31. Which would be especially important when running up a flight of stairs at full speed? a. fast-twitch muscles b. slow-twitch muscles c. smooth muscles d. intermediate muscles ANS: A Movement MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
32. If a new species were found with legs composed almost completely of fast-twitch muscles, what could we infer about its behavior? a. It could chase prey over long distances. b. It could chase prey only over short distances. c. It probably travels constantly. d. It probably moves slowly and grazes on vegetation. ANS: B Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
33. During aerobic exercises such as dancing, as glucose is used by the muscles, a. fast-twitch fibers absorb more glucose b. slow-twitch muscles produce glucose anaerobically c. glucose use increases d. glucose use decreases ANS: D Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
.
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
34. Exercising at a high altitude where there is less oxygen is most likely to affect: a. intermediate fibers. b. anaerobic contraction. c. fast-twitch fibers. d. slow-twitch fibers. ANS: D Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
35. Vigorous use of fast-twitch fibers results in fatigue because the process is: a. aerobic. b. anaerobic. c. anabolic. d. abolic. ANS: B Movement
299
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
The Major Issues
36. Compared to the average weekend jogger, a world class marathon runner probably has a higher percentage of which kind of fibers in his legs? a. slow-twitch b. fast-twitch c. smooth muscle d. white muscle ANS: A Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
37. Compared to a long distance runner, a world class sprinter probably has more of which kind of fibers in her legs? a. slow-twitch b. fast-twitch c. smooth muscle d. striated muscle ANS: B Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
39. A proprioceptor is sensitive to the: a. degree of relaxation or contraction of smooth muscle tissue. b. position and movement of a part of the body. c. percentage of fibers that are contracting within a muscle bundle. d. degree of fatigue in a muscle. ANS: B Movement MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
40. The stretch reflex: a. results in a stretch. b. is caused by a stretch. c. inhibits motor neurons. d. sends a message for a muscle to relax. ANS: B Movement
300
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
Chapter 1
41. Which of the following are two kinds of proprioceptors? a. extensors and contractors b. contractors and muscle spindles c. muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs d. muscle spindles and extensors ANS: C Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
42. A boxer’s ability to sense the position of his arm and hand before planning a punch is dependent on the sense of: a. proprioception. b. somatosensation. c. pain. d. vision. ANS: A Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
43. A muscle spindle responds to the: a. oxygen level in the muscle. b. acetylcholine concentration at the nerve-muscle junction. c. fatigue of the muscle. d. stretch of the muscle. ANS: D Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
44. A sudden stretch of a muscle excites a feedback system that opposes the stretch. This message starts in the: a. dorsal root ganglion. b. cerebellum. c. Pacinian corpuscles. d. muscle spindles. ANS: D Movement MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
45. A physician taps you just below the knee to check a reflex that is based on information from which kind of receptor? a. a Golgi tendon organ b. an oscillator c. a muscle spindle d. a vestibular organ ANS: C Movement
301
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
The Major Issues
46. A tap on the knee just below the kneecap will elicit extension of the leg. This reflex indicates that: a. muscle spindles have been stretched. b. Golgi tendon organs have been stretched. c. neurons have been damaged in the spinal cord. d. muscle spindles have been relaxed. ANS: A Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
47. A Golgi tendon organ responds to: a. increases in muscle tension. b. decreases in muscle tension. c. increases in muscle spindles. d. decreases in muscle spindles. ANS: A Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
48. Which type of proprioceptor responds to increases in muscle tension? a. Golgi tendon organ b. fast-twitch fiber c. muscle spindle d. slow-twitch fiber ANS: A Movement MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
49. The role of the Golgi tendon organs is to: a. prevent extreme muscle contractions. b. guard against fatigue of muscles. c. produce rapid repetitive movements such as finger tapping. d. regulate blood flow to the tendons and muscles. ANS: A Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
50. Slow and continuous stretching exercises could relax a muscle by: a. stretching the muscle spindle organs. b. decreasing glucose utilization. c. stretching the Golgi tendon organs. d. increasing muscle fiber density. ANS: C Movement
302
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
Chapter 1
51. Muscle spindles respond to changes in muscle muscle . a. tension; fatigue b. fatigue; tension c. stretch; tension d. tension; stretch ANS: C Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
; Golgi tendon organs respond to changes in
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
52. Activity of a muscle spindle is to as activity of the Golgi tendon organ is to a. contraction; inhibition of contraction b. inhibition of contraction; contraction c. inhibition of contraction; inhibition of contraction d. contraction; contraction ANS: A Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
.
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
53. What experience is similar to losing proprioception? a. Losing your sense of equilibrium b. Walking on a leg that has "fallen asleep" c. Having a phantom limb d. Teeth chattering in the cold ANS: B Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
54. A physician who asks you to cross your legs and then taps just below the knee is testing your reflexes. a. constriction b. slow c. stretch d. fast ANS: C Movement
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Muscles and Their TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
55. Infants have several reflexes, such as the a. knee-jerk reflex; rooting reflex b. Babinski reflex; knee-jerk reflex c. rooting reflex; Babinski reflex d. knee-jerk reflex; grasp reflex
and the
ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
303
The Major Issues
, that are not seen in adults.
REF: Units of Movement
56. The rooting reflex and the Babinski reflex are characteristic of which group? a. infants, but not normal adults b. adults, but not normal infants c. humans, but not non-humans d. non-humans, but not humans ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
57. What is the stimulus for the Babinski reflex? a. Stroking the sole of the foot b. Placing an object firmly in the palm of the hand c. Touching the cheek near the mouth d. A loud noise ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
58. What is the stimulus for the rooting reflex? a. Stroking the sole of the foot b. Placing an object firmly in the palm of the hand c. Touching the cheek near the mouth d. A loud noise ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
59. In adulthood, the rooting and Babinski reflexes: a. continue to occur, just as in infancy. b. are completely lost, as the reflexive connections disappear. c. are suppressed, but they can return if cortical activity decreases. d. are suppressed, but they can return if the person is motivated. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
60. If a neurologist tests an adult patient for infant reflexes, the neurologist is probably trying to determine whether the person has suffered damage to the: a. cerebral cortex. b. toe. c. peripheral motor system. d. cerebellum. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
304
Chapter 1
REF: Units of Movement
61. The Babinski reflex clinically occurs in a(n): a. person with Parkinson's disease. b. adult with damage to the cerebral cortex. c. child born without feet. d. person with Huntington’s disease. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: conceptual
REF: Units of Movement
62. You most likely expect the Babinski reflex to occur in a(n): a. person with Parkinson's disease. b. male teenager. c. child born without feet. d. adult with damage to the cerebral cortex. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: conceptual
REF: Units of Movement
63. Closing your eyes and sneezing in response to suddenly seeing a bright light is an example of: a. the rooting reflex. b. an allied reflex. c. a Babinski reflex. d. a ballistic movement. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
64. A ballistic movement: a. is a rhythmic alternation between two movements. b. is guided by feedback during the course of the movement. c. proceeds automatically once it has been triggered. d. tends to overcorrect itself. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
65. Which of the following is an example of a ballistic movement? a. threading a needle b. singing a song c. picking up a newspaper d. a reflexive knee jerk ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: conceptual
REF: Units of Movement
66. Central pattern generators: a. contribute to rhythmic patterns of movement. b. generate movement which is unresponsive to environmental stimulation. c. constrict the pupils in response to bright light. d. control all reflexes in adult humans. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
305
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Units of Movement
67. A motor program is a: a. mechanism that guides movement on the basis of sensory feedback. b. mechanism that produces an alternation between two movements. c. plan for training a brain-damaged person to walk. d. movement that, once triggered, continues automatically until its completion. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
68. Which of the following is an example of a motor program in chickens with featherless wings? a. flapping wings if suddenly dropped b. learning to fly c. stretching its wings but not flapping them d. flapping its wings while eating ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: factual
REF: Units of Movement
69. Which of the following behaviors would most likely result from activity of central pattern generators? a. a dog shaking itself to dry off b. catching a baseball c. playing the piano d. yawning ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: conceptual
REF: Units of Movement
70. Which of the following is an example of a motor program in a human? a. yawning b. a list of things to do today c. a baby's first steps d. a teenager learning to drive ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
DIF: conceptual
REF: Units of Movement
71. In order to elicit movement, the motor cortex: a. has direct connections to the muscles. b. sends axons to the brainstem and spinal cord. c. controls isolated movement in a single muscle. d. relies on feedback from individual muscle fibers. ANS: B OBJ: 1
306
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
Chapter 1
72. Very brief electrical stimulation of the motor cortex results in: a. relaxation. b. muscle twitching. c. laughing. d. complex, coordinated movements. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
73. Longer stimulation (1/2 sec) of the arm region of a monkey's motor cortex results in: a. brief muscle twitches of the arm. b. repetitive muscle twitches of the fingers. c. a fixed set of muscle movements such as contraction of the biceps. d. a fixed outcome using different muscle movements depending on the initial position of the arm. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
74. The posterior parietal cortex: a. is the main area for touch and other body information. b. keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world. c. is active during preparations for a movement and less active during movement itself. d. responds to lights, noises, and other signals for a movement. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
75. People with posterior parietal damage: a. can see an object, but are unable to describe it. b. have good hand-eye coordination only if they close one eye. c. have difficulty accurately locating and approaching a sound. d. will not step over an obstacle, although they can accurately describe it. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
76. People with posterior parietal damage: a. cannot walk toward something they hear. b. have trouble converting vision into action. c. can walk toward something they see but cannot reach out to grasp it. d. cannot accurately describe what they see. ANS: B OBJ: 1
307
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The Major Issues
77. The prefrontal cortex: a. is the main area for touch and other body information. b. keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world. c. is active during preparations for a movement and less active during movement itself. d. responds to lights, noises, and other signals for a movement. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
78. The premotor cortex: a. is the main area for touch and other body information. b. keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world. c. is active during preparations for a movement and less active during movement itself. d. responds to lights, noises, and other signals for a movement. ANS: C OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
79. Which of the following would most likely happen with damage to the prefrontal cortex? a. Inability to move b. Loss of somatosensory experiences c. Poorly planned movements d. No effect on movement ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
80. The part of the cortex that is most active during preparations for a movement and less active during the movement itself is the: a. premotor cortex. b. somatosensory cortex. c. inferior temporal cortex. d. tabes dorsalis. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
81. In contrast to people with posterior parietal damage, people with damage to certain parts of the occipital cortex outside the primary visual cortex: a. can't locate the source of sounds. b. lose their ability to see everything. c. can accurately describe what they see but cannot reach out to grasp it. d. cannot accurately describe what they see but can reach out to grasp it. ANS: D OBJ: 1
308
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Chapter 1
82. When are the cells in the premotor cortex (in contrast to the primary motor cortex) most active? a. In preparation for movements b. During movements c. At or after the end of movements d. During inhibition of movements ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
83. The part of the cortex that responds mostly to the sensory signals that lead to a movement is the: a. premotor cortex. b. prefrontal cortex. c. supplementary motor cortex. d. tabes dorsalis. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
84. Cells in the prefrontal cortex, premotor cortex, and messages to the primary motor cortex. a. posterior parietal cortex b. secondary motor cortex c. somatosensory cortex d. supplementary motor cortex ANS: D OBJ: 1
prepare for a movement, sending
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
85. The supplementary motor cortex becomes active: a. during the second or two after a movement. b. during the second or two prior to a movement. c. only during a movement. d. only after a movement. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
86. A quick typist would rely heavily on the movements. a. supplementary motor b. premotor c. prefrontal d. occipital ANS: A OBJ: 1
309
cortex to organize smooth sequences of finger
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
The Major Issues
87. Damage to the impairs the ability to organize smooth sequences of activities. a. premotor cortex b. prefrontal cortex c. supplementary motor cortex d. tabes dorsalis ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
88. Just thinking about the intention to put your arm around your attractive date would activate which of the following motor areas? a. posterior parietal lobe b. primary motor cortex c. premotor cortex d. supplementary motor cortex ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
89. Watching another person shoot a basketball is most likely to activate the person who is watching. a. primary motor cortex b. spinal cord c. mirror d. observational ANS: C OBJ: 1
neurons in the brain of
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
90. Mirror neurons are active when: a. viewing mirror images. b. watching others perform movements. c. identifying ourselves in the mirror. d. playing the piano. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
91. Children with neurons. a. MS b. polio c. autism d. ADHD
were found to have less activity in the brain areas believed to contain mirror
ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
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Chapter 1
92. The motor cortex produces a kind of activity called a(n) a. readiness potential b. action potential c. evoked potential d. motor potential ANS: A OBJ: 1
before any voluntary movement.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
93. Studies on conscious decisions regarding voluntary movements suggest that: a. we are conscious of our decision before brain activity is generated for movement. b. voluntary movements are the result of free will. c. brain activity for the movement begins before we are conscious of our decision. d. we are unable to judge when we make conscious decisions. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
94. People with damage to the parietal cortex appear to lack a. feelings of intention b. the ability to make conscious decisions c. a sense of timing d. muscle strength ANS: A OBJ: 1
related to voluntary movements.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
95. Paths from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord are called the: a. pyramidalspinal tracts. b. horizontalspinal tracts. c. dorsospinal tracts. d. corticospinal tracts. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
96. Axons of the lateral corticospinal tract extend to what area? a. cerebellum b. cerebral cortex c. spinal cord d. Thalamus ANS: C OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
311
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The Major Issues
97. Most of the axons of the pyramidal tract go to which side of the body? a. Contralateral b. Ipsilateral c. Bilateral d. Ventrolateral ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
98. The lateral tract cross over point is in the: a. pyramids of the medulla. b. spinal cord. c. reticular formation. d. vestibular nucleus. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
99. Damage to one side of the lateral tract below the level of the medulla would most likely affect: a. fine motor control on the opposite side of the body. b. fine motor control on the same side of the body. c. bilateral control of the neck, shoulders, and trunk. d. rapid ballistic movements. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
100. Lateral tract axons are responsible for movements in the: a. arms, hands, and toes. b. trunk. c. face and head. d. internal organs. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
101. Which behaviors would most likely be impaired by damage to the lateral tract? a. Writing a check b. Walking c. Standing d. Digesting food ANS: A OBJ: 1
312
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Chapter 1
102. The tract that includes many axons from the primary motor cortex, the reticular formation, and the vestibular nucleus is the: a. pyramids of the medulla. b. medial tract. c. dorsolateral tract. d. cerebellar tract. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
103. Most of the axons of the medial tract go to which side of the body? a. Contralateral b. Ipsilateral c. Bilateral d. Dorsolateral ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
104. Movements near the midline of the body, such as bending and turning of the trunk, are controlled by which motor system? a. Dorsolateral tract b. Medial tract c. Supplementary d. Hippocampal ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
105. What is the relationship between the lateral tract and the medial tract? a. Most movements are controlled by one or the other, but not both. b. Most movements rely on both, which work in a cooperative fashion. c. Most movements that are initiated by one are terminated by the other. d. One is excitatory while the other is inhibitory. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement KEY: NEW
106. If you have trouble with rapid, ballistic movement sequences that require accurate timing, you probably have suffered damage to the: a. reticular formation. b. cerebellum. c. hippocampus. d. hypothalamus. ANS: B OBJ: 4
313
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The Major Issues
107. Speaking, piano playing, athletic skills, and other rapid movements would be most impaired by damage to which structure? a. Reticular formation b. Cerebellum c. Ventromedial hypothalamus d. Parasympathetic nervous system ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
108. Damage to the cerebellum is most likely to interfere with: a. lifting weights. b. the ability to remember a series of events. c. rapid movements that require timing. d. chewing and swallowing. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
109. Patients with damage to the cerebellum are impaired at making movements. a. continuous, rapid b. imagining, continuous c. rapid, imagining d. imagining, rapid ANS: B OBJ: 4
movements, but relatively normal in
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
110. What is the name of the rapid eye movement occurring when a person moves his or her eyes from one focus point to another? a. gyration b. sclerosis c. slide d. saccade ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
111. A saccade is initiated by impulses from the: a. spinal cord. b. hypothalamus. c. cerebellum. d. hippocampus. ANS: C OBJ: 4
314
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Chapter 1
112. After damage to the cerebellar cortex, an individual has trouble with which part of the finger-tonose test? a. The initial rapid movement to the nose b. The second step involving the hold function c. The third step which involves the finger moving to the nose by a slow movement d. Both the second and third steps ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
113. The finger-to-nose test is a common way of testing for possible damage to what structure? a. Spinal cord b. Basal ganglia c. Medulla d. Cerebellum ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
114. The nuclei of the cerebellum (as opposed to the cerebellar cortex) are most important in: a. moving a finger rapidly toward a target. b. holding a finger in a steady position. c. using the hands to lift heavy weights. d. coordinating the left hand with the right hand. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
115. The symptoms of cerebellar damage resemble those of: a. a heart attack. b. Parkinson's disease. c. intoxication. d. mental illness. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
116. A man who has suffered from damage to the cerebellar cortex is given the finger-to-nose test. He is most likely to have trouble with which part of the task? a. Understanding the instructions b. Controlling the initial, rapid movement c. Holding his finger steady following the initial, rapid movement d. Moving his finger to his nose following the brief hold function ANS: B OBJ: 4
315
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The Major Issues
117. The cerebellum is most important for any process that requires: a. precise timing. b. control of muscle strength. c. comparison between the left and right hemispheres. d. detecting the intensity of a stimulus. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
118. In a study, functional MRI measured cerebellar activity. It was found that the cerebellum was quite active when individuals: a. lifted objects. b. remembered seeing faces. c. made reflexive movements. d. felt objects with both hands to decide whether they were the same. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
119. The cerebellum appears to be critical for: a. motor behaviors only. b. certain aspects of attention. c. judging which tone is louder. d. controlling the force of a movement. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
120. Purkinje cells are: a. proprioceptors. b. flat cells in sequential planes. c. nuclei in the central cerebellum. d. axons parallel to one another. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
121. How do parallel fibers in the cerebellum control the duration of a response? a. By determining the number of Purkinje cells that fire in sequence b. By altering the velocity of action potentials from Purkinje cells c. By determining which one of all the available Purkinje cells becomes active d. By passing information back and forth between one Purkinje cell and another ANS: B OBJ: 4
316
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Chapter 1
122. Which widely branching cells are responsible for all of the output from the cerebellar cortex to the nuclei of the cerebellum? a. parallel fibers b. Purkinje cells c. putamen cells d. saccade cells ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
123. The greater the number of Purkinje cells activated, the: a. less the collective duration of the response. b. greater the collective duration of the response. c. greater the strength of the response. d. less the strength of the response. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
124. The number of Purkinje cells activated determines the a. speed b. power c. duration d. accuracy ANS: C OBJ: 4
of the resulting movement.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
125. The structure composed of the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus is the: a. basal ganglia. b. limbic system. c. cerebellum. d. sympathetic nervous system. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Basal Ganglia TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
126. Most of the output from the globus pallidus to the thalamus releases: a. glutamate. b. ACh. c. dopamine. d. GABA ANS: D OBJ: 5
317
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The Major Issues
127. Which basal ganglia structure(s) is/are important for receiving input from sensory areas of the thalamus and the cerebral cortex? a. globus pallidus and putamen b. globus pallidus and caudate nucleus c. caudate nucleus and putamen d. globus pallidus ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Basal Ganglia TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
128. The basal ganglia work together to initiate movement by: a. ceasing to inhibit movement. b. inhibiting thalamic nuclei. c. exciting cerebellar nuclei. d. exciting spinal cord nuclei. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Basal Ganglia TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
129. Cerebellum is to as basal ganglia are to . a. clumsy; paralysis b. initiation; stopping c. gross muscle function; fine motor coordination d. timing; voluntary movements ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Basal Ganglia TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
130. With experience, the motor skills required to drive a car become more automatic over time mostly because of changes in the: a. cerebellum. b. primary motor cortex. c. basal ganglia. d. spinal cord. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Basal Ganglia TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
131. What is one of the main symptoms of Parkinson's disease? a. Rapid fatigue of the muscles b. Loss of saccadic eye movements c. Difficulty initiating movements d. Inability to coordinate speech with movements ANS: C OBJ: 1
318
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Chapter 1
REF: Parkinson’s Disease MSC: www
132. Most Parkinson's patients suffer depression: a. only during the late stages of the disease. b. as a reaction to the muscle failure they suffer. c. as one of the symptoms of the disease. d. if they are under 50 years of age when the disease strikes. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
133. Parkinson's disease patients, who usually have trouble walking, can walk surprisingly well when they: a. have their eyes closed. b. walk backwards. c. count their steps. d. are following a parade. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
134. Which of the following is NOT common in people with Parkinson's disease? a. Difficulty initiating voluntary movements b. Slowness of movements c. Rigidity and tremors d. Outbursts of emotions ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
135. Parkinson's disease is caused by degeneration of a pathway of neurons that releases which neurotransmitter? a. Acetylcholine b. Substance P c. Serotonin d. Dopamine ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
136. The immediate cause of Parkinson's disease is the: a. net increase in the excitatory output from the globus pallidus. b. gradual, progressive death of neurons in the substantia nigra. c. immediate, mass death of neurons releasing acetylcholine. d. accumulation of amyloid-beta in neurons. ANS: B OBJ: 2
319
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The Major Issues
REF: Parkinson’s Disease MSC: www
137. A loss of dopamine activity leads to movements. a. less; faster b. more; faster c. less; slower d. more; slower ANS: C OBJ: 2
stimulation of the motor cortex and
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
onset of
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
138. Most research on Parkinson's disease has focused on which part of the brain? a. Globus pallidus b. Substantia nigra c. Thalamus d. Cortex ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
139. In Parkinson's disease, which pathway in the brain degenerates? a. Basal ganglia to cerebellum b. Substantia nigra to caudate nucleus and putamen c. Cerebellum to spinal cord d. Cerebral cortex to spinal cord ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
140. Many of the symptoms of Parkinson's disease apparently relate to: a. an imbalance between activity in the left and right hemispheres. b. a decrease in metabolic activity in the cerebellum. c. loss of arousal in the cortex. d. increased excitation of neurons in the substantia nigra. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
141. Symptoms of Parkinson's disease emerge only after the number of neurons in the substantia nigra decreases to what level? a. To the point where there are no cells remaining b. Less than 20% of the original total c. Less than 50% of the original total d. Less than 90% of the original total ANS: B OBJ: 2
320
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Chapter 1
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
142. Having an identical twin with Parkinson's disease greatly increases the other twin's likelihood of also getting Parkinson's disease if the: a. first twin had late-onset Parkinson's disease. b. first twin had early-onset Parkinson's disease. c. twins are male. d. twins are female. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
143. The role of heredity in late-onset Parkinson's disease: a. equals that of early onset Parkinson's disease. b. is probably not as great as with early onset Parkinson's disease. c. is greater for DZ twins that MZ twins. d. is greater for females than males. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
144. Although several genes have been found to be more common among people with Parkinson’s disease, these genes are: a. more common in men than women. b. more common in women than men. c. small contributors to the incidence of late-onset Parkinson’s disease. d. large contributors to the incidence of late-onset Parkinson’s disease. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease MSC: www
145. Genetic factors have their greatest impact on Parkinson’s disease in cases of: a. early onset of the disease. b. late onset of the disease. c. first-born children. d. children with older brothers and sisters. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
146. At least some cases of Parkinson's disease are apparently linked to what cause? a. A recessive gene on chromosome 4 b. The accumulation of aluminum in the cerebral cortex and hypothalamus c. A chronic lack of vitamin B-1 d. A toxic substance found in a heroin substitute ANS: D OBJ: 2
321
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The Major Issues
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
147. Although Parkinson's disease is usually limited to old people, it has occurred in a small number of young people that: a. used a designer drug. b. used cocaine. c. lived near a nuclear power plant. d. were on low-protein diets. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease MSC: www
148. What is the effect of MPTP? a. It kills the neurons that release dopamine. b. It suppresses activity of the immune system. c. It is converted in the brain to dopamine. d. It inhibits the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
149. MPTP and some chemicals in herbicides: a. can damage cells of the substantia nigra. b. can cause Huntington's disease. c. are illegal designer drugs. d. are effective treatments for Parkinson's disease. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
150. It is believed that exposure to herbicides and pesticides is: a. the primary cause of Parkinson's disease. b. a contributing factor in some cases of Huntington's disease. c. the primary cause of myasthenia gravis. d. a contributing factor in some cases of Parkinson's disease. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease KEY: NEW
151. If Parkinson's disease were caused primarily by exposure to herbicides and pesticides, we should expect to find: a. near epidemics in some geographical regions. b. greater incidence in people under 50 than in older people. c. greater incidence in women than in men. d. greater incidence in left-handers than in right-handers. ANS: A OBJ: 2
322
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Chapter 1
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
152. Cigarette smoking and coffee drinking the risk. a. increase, increases b. increase, decreases c. decrease, decreases d. decrease, increases ANS: D OBJ: 2
the risk of Parkinson’s disease, and marijuana
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
153. One thing that many different causes of Parkinson’s disease share in common is that they: a. are all curable. b. cause damage to the mitochondria. c. increase dopamine release. d. occur more often in women than men. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
154. Cigarette smoking correlates with a decreased risk of: a. Huntington’s disease. b. sleep apnea. c. Parkinson’s disease. d. myasthenia gravis. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
155. What is the most common drug in the treatment for Parkinson's disease? a. haloperidol b. physostigmine c. Dilantin d. L-dopa ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
156. What characteristic of L-dopa makes it an effective treatment for Parkinson's disease? a. L-dopa has a negative ionic charge. b. L-dopa dissolves readily in water but poorly in fats. c. L-dopa binds tightly to both glutamate and GABA synapses. d. L-dopa can cross the blood-brain barrier. ANS: D OBJ: 3
323
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The Major Issues
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
157. The reason why a dopamine pill is ineffective for treating Parkinson's disease is that: a. there is already too much dopamine present. b. dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier. c. it would have to be the size of a baseball to be effective. d. it is too expensive. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
158. Which of the following is a limitation of using L-dopa for Parkinson's disease? a. It only helps those who are in the later stages. b. It doesn't cross the blood-brain barrier. c. It can contribute to a greater loss of dopamine neurons. d. It blocks glutamate receptors. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
159. L-dopa is most effective: a. in the early to intermediate stages of Parkinson's disease. b. in the late stages of Parkinson's disease. c. for females. d. for either the very young or the very old. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease MSC: www
160. Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment for Parkinson's disease? a. Drugs that directly stimulate dopamine receptors b. MPTP c. Neurotrophins d. Antioxidant drugs ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
161. L-Dopa, a common treatment for Parkinson's disease, is a drug that: a. inhibits activity of the immune system. b. increases the brain's production of dopamine. c. blocks the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. d. facilitates the passage of sodium across neuron membranes. ANS: B OBJ: 3
324
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Chapter 1
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
162. Of the following, which is considered LEAST promising as a treatment for Parkinson's disease? a. high-frequency electrical stimulation of the globus pallidus b. adrenal gland transplants c. antioxidants d. neurotrophins ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
163. Immature cells that are capable of developing into a variety of cells are known as: a. stem cells. b. neurotrophins. c. L-dopa cells. d. mitochondria. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
164. Transplanting brain tissue into Parkinson's patients would most likely be successful if: a. the patient is older. b. they are female. c. the brain tissue comes from rats. d. the transplant was accompanied by neurotrophins. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
165. As an option for treating Parkinson’s patients, transplantation of stem cells appears to be: a. the most effective technique. b. more effective in late stages of the disease. c. modestly effective, as with other treatments. d. not at all effective. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson’s Disease
166. Early symptoms of Huntington's disease usually include: a. paralysis. b. jerky arm movements and body tremors. c. rapid fatigue. d. difficulty coordinating the left hand with the right hand. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
167. What is especially limited in a patient with Huntington's disease? a. The ability to learn and improve new movements b. Controlling aim and duration of eye movements c. Reflexes d. Short-term memory ANS: A OBJ: 4
325
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
The Major Issues
REF: Huntington's Disease
168. What is a common symptom of Huntington's disease? a. Rapid fatigue of the muscles b. Loss of both sensation and motor control in certain limbs c. Twitches, tremors, and writhing that interfere with voluntary movement d. Impairment of saccadic eye movements and rapid alternating movements ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
169. Which of the following is TRUE of Huntington's disease? a. There is a loss of dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra. b. The symptoms can be effectively treated. c. The earlier the onset, the more rapid the deterioration. d. It is caused by environmental toxins. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
170. Which parts of the brain deteriorate most strongly in Huntington's disease? a. Pathways of neurons containing the neurotransmitter dopamine b. The cerebellum and medulla c. The caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus d. The hippocampus and amygdala ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease MSC: www
171. The psychological disorders that accompany Huntington's disease could be mistaken for which of the following? a. Schizophrenia b. Dissociative identity disorder c. Antisocial personality disorder d. Bipolar disorder ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
172. What is the usual age of onset for Huntington's disease? a. 5-7 years old b. 12-20 years old c. 30-50 years old d. 65 years or older ANS: C OBJ: 4
326
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
Chapter 1
REF: Huntington's Disease
173. Which of the following is NOT true of Huntington's disease? a. It is controlled by a gene on chromosome 4. b. It is possible to predict with nearly 100% accuracy who will get the disease. c. It is generally treated with L-dopa. d. The average age of onset is around 40 years. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
174. What is the relationship of genetics to Huntington's disease? a. It is caused by a dominant gene on the X chromosome. b. It is caused by a dominant gene on chromosome 4. c. It is caused by a recessive gene on one of the autosomal chromosomes. d. There is no evidence linking Huntington's disease to any gene. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
175. Which of the following can be used as a presymptomatic test for Huntington's disease? a. differences in blood flow between the left and right hemispheres b. examination of chromosome 4 c. a blood test that measures the concentration of phenylalanine d. tests of the P300 component of an evoked potential ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
176. In its normal form, part of the gene which controls Huntington's disease repeats its sequence of bases: a. under ten times. b. between approximately 11-24 times. c. at least 36 times. d. approximately 75 or 80 times. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
177. The sequence of bases repeated more often in people with Huntington's disease is: a. T-A-G. b. C-A-G. c. C-A-T. d. H-U-N. ANS: B OBJ: 5
327
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
The Major Issues
REF: Huntington's Disease
178. The presymptomatic test for Huntington's disease enables one to predict not only who will get the disease but also: a. the approximate age of onset. b. what other diseases the person will get. c. which drugs will best alleviate the disease. d. which symptoms will become prominent first, and which ones later. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
179. The gene for Huntington's disease codes for a protein called: a. huntingtin. b. chorea. c. protein #4. d. C-A-G. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
180. One effect of an abnormal form of the protein huntingtin on neurons is to: a. increase dopamine release. b. damage the nucleus. c. block acetylcholine receptors. d. prevent the release of BDNF. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
181. Which of the following would be the most promising treatment for Huntington’s disease? a. Enhancing formation of glutamine chains b. Increasing production of huntingtin c. Blocking formation of glutamine chain clustering d. Decreasing production of BDNF ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Huntington's Disease
SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the neuromuscular junction? ANS: A synapse between a motor neuron axon and a muscle fiber. PTS: 1 OBJ:
328
DIF: factual 2 TOP:
REF: Muscles and Their Movements 8.1 The Control of Movement
Chapter 1
2. How do fast and slow-twitch muscle fibers differ? ANS: Fast-twitch are fast contracting, but fatigue rapidly. Slow-twitch are slow contracting, but do not fatigue as easily. PTS: 1 OBJ:
DIF: factual 2 TOP:
REF: Muscles and Their Movements 8.1 The Control of Movement
3. Briefly describe the Babinski reflex. ANS: If you stroke the sole of the foot of an infant, he/she extends the big toe and fans the others. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 8.1 The Control of Movement
REF: Units of Movement
OBJ:
2
4. What is the main function of the posterior parietal cortex? ANS: It keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
OBJ:
1
5. What are the three main structures of the basal ganglia? ANS: The caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pallidus. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Basal Ganglia TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
OBJ:
5
6. Why is L-dopa effective in treating Parkinson's patients, but not dopamine? ANS: L-dopa is able to cross the blood brain barrier and be used in the synthesis of dopamine. Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
329
REF: Parkinson's Disease OBJ:
The Major Issues
3
ESSAY 1. Describe the areas and major functions of the primary motor cortex (include the relevant areas near to the motor cortex). ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
OBJ:
4
OBJ:
4
2. Describe the significance of mirror neurons. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
3. Describe the relationship of conscious decisions and movements. What may this relationship reveal about consciousness? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebral Cortex TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement MSC: www
OBJ:
4
4. Briefly describe the cellular organization of the cerebellum. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Cerebellum TOP: 8.2 Brain Mechanisms of Movement
OBJ:
4
5. Briefly describe the nature of Parkinson’s disease. Include a discussion of its causes and possible treatments. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 8.3 Disorders of Movement
REF: Parkinson's Disease OBJ:
Chapter 9: Wakefulness and Sleep TRUE/FALSE
330
Chapter 1
3
1. Alternation between wakefulness and sleep depends completely on stimuli in the environment. ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
2. Animals produce endogenous circadian rhythms that last about a day. ANS: T OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
3. Young children are more likely to be “morning people” than older adults. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
4. Bright light late in the afternoon shortens the circadian rhythm. ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
5. The mean preferred time of going to sleep gets later and later until about age 20 and then starts a gradual reversal. ANS: T OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
6. The stimulus that stops the circadian rhythm is referred to by the German term zeitgeber. ANS: F Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
7. The dominant zeitgeber for land animals is light. ANS: T Biological Clock MSC: www
331
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
The Major Issues
8. A disruption of circadian rhythms due to crossing time zones is known as jet lag. ANS: T Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
9. Blind and deaf animals do not have circadian rhythms. ANS: F Biological Clock MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
10. Biological clocks are very resistant to environmental influences. ANS: T Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
11. The biological clock depends on part of the hypothalamus, called the suprachiasmatic nucleus. ANS: T Biological Clock MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
12. Melanopsin is required for producing circadian rhythms. ANS: F Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
13. High levels of ‘Per’ and ‘Tim’ are associated with sleepiness. ANS: T Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
14. Inactivation of the ‘Tim’ protein resets the biological clock. ANS: T Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
15. Melatonin is released by the SCN. ANS: F Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
16. Changes in EEG waves occur when neurons fire in synchrony. ANS: T OBJ: 1 MSC: www
332
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Chapter 1
17. Alpha waves are characteristic of relaxation, not of all wakefulness. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
18. Stages 2 and 3 together constitute slow-wave sleep (SWS). ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
19. REM is usually the first stage of sleep after a person goes to bed. ANS: F Sleep OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
20. Dreams only occur during REM sleep. ANS: F OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
21. After removing all sensory input to the brain, an animal would continue to have periods of sleep and wakefulness. ANS: T PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
22. Arousal seems to be regulated by a single structure in the brainstem. ANS: F PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
23. The onset of sleep requires active brain processes. ANS: T PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
24. Orexin is not necessary for waking up, but it is for staying awake. ANS: T PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
25. Muscle relaxation during REM sleep occurs because of decreased activity in the pons. ANS: F PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
26. REM sleep depends on a relationship between the neurotransmitters serotonin and acetylcholine.
333
The Major Issues
ANS: T PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
27. The regular use of tranquilizers can result in insomnia. ANS: T OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Sleep Disorders TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
28. Sleep apnea is characterized by sleep attacks during wakefulness. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Sleep Disorders TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
29. Narcolepsy is a condition characterized by frequent periods of sleepiness during the day. ANS: T OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Sleep Disorders TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
30. Night terrors occur during NREM sleep. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Sleep Disorders TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
31. Temporary sleep deprivation causes the body to respond in a similar manner as it does to being ill. ANS: T OBJ: 7
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
32. In general, animals that have the most total sleep also have the highest percentage of REM sleep. ANS: T OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 283 TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
33. REM deprivation is more difficult for a person to deal with than NREM deprivation. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 283 TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
34. The activation-synthesis theory of dreams argues that dreams are the result of random brain activity. ANS: T on Dreaming MSC: www
334
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Perspectives TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Chapter 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Psychologists in the early to mid part of the 20th century had difficulty with the notion that wake and sleep cycles were generated from within the body because: a. there was no scientific evidence to support this notion. b. all species operate on the same cycle. c. at that time there were no recorded sleep disorders. d. they accepted the theory that all behaviors were responses to stimuli. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Introduction TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
2. If a migratory bird is kept in a laboratory room with constant temperature and 12 hours of light each day, when does it show migratory restlessness? a. steadily at all times b. never c. at approximately the correct time of year for migration d. at random intervals throughout the year ANS: C OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
3. If a migratory bird is kept in a laboratory without any cues to the season, it will become: a. more active in the spring. b. less active in the spring. c. more active in the summer. d. more active in the winter. ANS: A OBJ: 1 4.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
What does "endogenous" mean? a. occurring at regular intervals b. learned c. sensitive to light/dark patterns d. generated from within ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
5. Animals produce endogenous circadian rhythms that: a. last about an hour. b. last about a day. c. last about a week d. last more then a day. ANS: B OBJ: 1
335
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
The Major Issues
6. Circadian cycles are to as circannual cycles are to a. light-dark; temperature b. endogenous; exogenous c. mating; hibernating d. daily; yearly ANS: D OBJ: 1 MSC: www
.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
7. Which of the following is most clearly under the control of a circadian rhythm in most animals? a. Sleep b. storage of body fat c. migration d. Mating ANS: A OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
8. Suppose you fell into a cave and lost your watch. Without any time cues, your circadian rhythm would: a. increase dramatically over time. b. cease to exist. c. decrease over time. d. remain relatively stable. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
9. A human's body temperature over the course of 24 hours is usually highest: a. about the time of awakening. b. mid-morning. c. mid to late afternoon. d. in the middle of the night. ANS: C OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
10. Which of the following is TRUE concerning the duration of a self-generated sleep/activity cycle? a. It is unreliable in most species, and dependably close to 24 hours only in primates. b. It is longer if the organism is normally active in the dark. c. There is little or no variability from one individual to another. d. It is highly consistent in a given individual in a given environment. ANS: D OBJ: 1
336
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
Chapter 1
11. Mammals have circadian rhythms: a. only for their sleep/activity cycle. b. only for frequency of eating and drinking. c. for sleep and body temperature only. d. for a variety of activities, including sleep. ANS: D OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
12. Someone who considers herself a “morning person” should take college classes at what time of the day? a. right after lunch b. in the late evening c. early morning d. after sleep deprivation ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
13. Suppose you work on a submarine with only artificial light. You are required to follow a
schedule of working for 12 hours and then sleeping for 6. What rhythm, if any, will your alertness and body temperature show? a. They will follow a rhythm of 18 hours. b. They will follow the usual rhythm of 24 hours. c. They will follow a rhythm of 21 hours. d. They will cease to show any consistent rhythm. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and SleepingKEY: NEW
14. Based on research, it has been determined that the human circadian rhythm appears to be: a. shorter than 24 hours. b. exactly 24 hours. c. just over 24 hours. d. closer to 28 hours. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
15. Which of the following people would be most alert when watching a late-night movie? a. 40 year old b. 20 year old c. 16 month baby d. a morning person ANS: B OBJ: 1
337
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
The Major Issues
16. What happens if people are put in an environment that is constantly light? a. It does not affect them in any way. b. They complain that they cannot sleep. c. They complain that they have difficulty waking up. d. They follow a cycle closer to 28 hours than to 24 hours. ANS: B Biological Clock MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
17. Social stimuli – that is, the effects of other people – are weak other vigorous activity. a. effects b. motivators c. rhythms d. zeitgebers ANS: D Biological Clock KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
, unless they induce exercise or
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
18. What happens if people are put in an environment that is constantly dark? a. It does not affect them in any way. b. They complain that they cannot sleep. c. They complain that they have difficulty waking up. d. They follow a cycle closer to 28 hours than to 24 hours. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
19. An astronaut orbiting earth experiences 45-minute periods of daylight alternating with 45-minutes of darkness. What is likely to happen? a. The alternating patterns allow for normal rhythm development. b. They are fully alert during wakeful periods. c. They are able to sleep during rest periods. d. They sleep poorly during rest periods. ANS: D Biological Clock KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
20. A person's circadian activity cycle would most likely drift out of phase with the activity of other people if the person: a. spends a period of time in the wilderness, away from clocks. b. habitually eats a big meal just before bedtime. c. spends a period of time in seclusion, away from sunlight. d. lives near the equator, where the seasons do not vary. ANS: C Biological Clock
338
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
Chapter 1
21. A "zeitgeber" is a(n): a. biological clock. b. animal that does not have a biological clock. c. environmental cue that resets a biological clock. d. body activity that is controlled by a biological clock. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
22. A stimulus that resets the circadian rhythm is referred to by the German term: a. lichtgeber. b. zeitgeber. c. zeitadian. d. circazeit. ANS: B Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
23. What is the principal zeitgeber for land animals? a. Light b. The tides c. Temperature d. Barometric pressure ANS: A Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
24. What happens if people live in an environment in which the cycle of light and dark is other than 24 hours? a. Within a few days, they adjust to waking and sleeping on the new schedule, whatever it is. b. They adjust better if the cycle is some multiple of 24 (e.g., 48). c. They adjust better if the cycle is close to 24 (e.g., 25). d. They fail to adjust at all. ANS: C Biological Clock MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
25. In the absence of any light, dark, or time cues, human circadian rhythms would: a. become much shorter than 24 hours. b. become slightly longer than 24 hours. c. cease to exist. d. make the person crazy. ANS: B Biological Clock
339
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
The Major Issues
26. When traveling across time zones, adjustments are easier when traveling which direction? a. Travel to the east is easier. b. Travel to the west is easier. c. There is no difference. d. It varies greatly from person to person. ANS: B Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
27. Which of the following would most likely help someone adjust to jet lag? a. taking a nap during the day b. taking melatonin when you need to wake up c. keeping the room light when you need to stay awake d. darkening the room when you need to stay awake ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
28. A disruption of circadian rhythms due to crossing time zones is known as: a. circashift. b. phaselag. c. jetlag. d. zeitgeber. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
29. Research on circadian rhythms has shown that one of the best ways to increase the alertness and efficiency of workers on night shifts is to: a. expose them to bright lights while they work. b. keep the environmental temperature constant from night to day. c. have them eat a big meal before going to sleep. d. allow them to catnap. ANS: A Biological Clock MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
30. When studying disruptions to the biological clock in animals, what did Curt Richter find? a. Blinding animals strongly disrupted their clock. b. Rendering animals deaf strongly disrupted their clock. c. Long periods of forced activity strongly disrupted the clock. d. The biological clock is insensitive to most forms of interference. ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
31. What happens after damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus itself? a. Light no longer resets the biological clock, but the animal continues generating a 24-hour rhythm. b. Animals' activity patterns become less consistent and no longer respond to light and dark cycles.
340
Chapter 1
c. Animals lose their biological rhythms of temperature, but keep other circadian rhythms. d. Animals begin to maintain a constant level of activity throughout the 24-hour day. ANS: B Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
32. The surest way to disrupt the biological clock is to damage the: a. substantia nigra. b. caudate nucleus. c. lateral hypothalamus. d. suprachiasmatic nucleus. ANS: D Biological Clock MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
33. A key area of the hypothalamus, particularly important in the regulation of the biological clock, is the: a. substantia nigra. b. caudate nucleus. c. lateral hypothalamus. d. suprachiasmatic nucleus. ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
34. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the: a. substantia nigra. b. caudate nucleus. c. thalamus. d. hypothalamus. ANS: D Biological Clock MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
35. After damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, the body: a. cannot generate biological rhythms. b. still has rhythms in synchrony with environmental patterns of light and dark. c. still has rhythms, but they are less consistent. d. still has rhythms, but they can only be reset by artificial light. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
36. If suprachiasmatic nucleus neurons are disconnected from the rest of the brain, they: a. no longer produce any activity. b. continue to produce activity that follows a circadian rhythm. c. produce a 20-hour rhythm. d. produce spontaneous bursts of activity, but on no rhythmic pattern. ANS: B Biological Clock
341
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DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
The Major Issues
37. What is a strong piece of evidence that the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) generates the circadian rhythm? a. Stimulation of the SCN awakens an individual. b. SCN neurons generate a circadian rhythm of impulses even after removal from the brain. c. Different groups of SCN neurons reach their peak of activity at different times of day. d. Certain animals that are born without an SCN are inactive throughout the day. ANS: B Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
38. What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in circadian rhythms? a. Its neurons generate a 24-hour rhythm by themselves. b. Its neurons can reset the biological clock, but they do not generate it. c. It relays visual information to the biological clock. d. It relays information from the biological clock to areas that control temperature and activity. ANS: A Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
39. The role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the regulation of biological rhythms is to: a. coordinate several biological clocks. b. feed visual information to the biological clock. c. generate the circadian rhythm. d. generate circannual rhythms. ANS: C Biological Clock MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
40. When fetal hamster SCN tissue was transplanted, the adult recipients' biological clocks: a. no longer functioned. b. shifted by one hour. c. began producing a rhythm consistent with that of the donor. d. were unaffected by the donor SCN tissue. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
41. How is the circadian rhythm of adult hamsters affected after transplanting SCN tissue from hamster fetuses with abnormal (20 hour) circadian rhythms? a. There is no change from their previous 24 hour cycle. b. It depends on the age of the adult hamsters. c. The adult hamsters adopted the rhythm of the transplanted tissue. d. All indications of a cycle disappeared. ANS: C Biological Clock
342
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DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
Chapter 1
42. The SCN produces circadian rhythms by altering: a. blood pressure. b. production of proteins. c. action potential velocity. d. axon myelination. ANS: B Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
43. By altering , the SCN produces circadian rhythms. a. blood pressure b. action potential velocity c. the production of proteins d. axon myelination ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
44. Researchers have demonstrated that the expression of the SCN genes can be changed through: a. exposure of the eyes to light. b. barometric pressure. c. the diet. d. morning exercise. ANS: A Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
45. After isolating a neuron from the rest of the brain, you find that it has a moderately stable circadian rhythm. The most likely home of this neuron is in the: a. optic nerve. b. MPOA. c. SCN. d. pineal gland. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
46. The SCN is located just above the: a. optic chiasm. b. thalamus. c. hypothalamus. d. visual cortex. ANS: A Biological Clock KEY: NEW
343
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DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
The Major Issues
47. A small branch of the optic nerve, known as the a. opticthalamic path b. retinohypothalamic path c. opticretinal path d. retinothalamic path ANS: B Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
extends directly from the retina to the SCN.
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
48. The retinohypothalamic path to the SCN comes from a special population of retinal ganglion cells that have their own photopigment, called: a. circaopsin. b. photopsin c. rodopsin. d. melanopsin. ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
49. The retinohypothalamic pathway receives input from the: a. retinal ganglion cells that respond directly to light. b. occipital cortex. c. SCN. d. LGN. ANS: A Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
50. The circadian rhythm is reset by input from special ganglion cells in the retina. These ganglion cells are unusual in that they: a. receive input from only cones, not rods. b. are located only in a doughnut-shaped band surrounding the fovea. c. respond directly to light, but respond very slowly. d. become active only at night or in very dim light. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
51. The input from the eyes to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, responsible for shifting the phase of the circadian rhythm, originates from: a. cones only. b. ganglion cells that are not connected to any cones or rods. c. cones and rods equally. d. rods only. ANS: B Biological Clock MSC: www
344
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DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
Chapter 1
52. The retinohypothalamic path extends directly from the: a. SCN to the hypothalamus. b. retina to the SCN. c. hypothalamus to the SCN. d. retina to the cortex. ANS: B Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
53. Alternation of TIM protein levels by a pulse of light during the night will: a. shorten the onset of sleep. b. increase PER protein levels. c. phase-advance the temperature cycle. d. decrease sleepiness. ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
54. The proteins PER and TIM, originally discovered in insect but now found in mammals also, influence circadian rhythms by: a. building up during the day and declining during sleep. b. being transformed into melatonin. c. stimulating and inhibiting (respectively) the release of acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex. d. providing negative feedback from the muscles to the neurons that innervate them. ANS: A Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
55. The PER and TIM proteins accumulate during the day until they cause sleepiness. What prevents them from continuing to accumulate at night? a. Metabolic rates increase at night, so proteins are digested faster than they can be synthesized. b. The high levels of melatonin present at night react with the proteins to disable them. c. The proteins are unstable at the lower body temperatures that are typical at night. d. When the proteins reach a high level, they turn off the genes that produce them. ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
56. When the PER and TIM levels increase, they feed back to inhibit the genes that produce the molecules. a. Tau b. messenger RNA c. Chronos d. DNA ANS: B Biological Clock KEY: NEW
345
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DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
The Major Issues
57. When the PER and TIM levels are low, they result in: a. narcolepsy. b. insomnia. c. sleepiness. d. wakefulness. ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
58. Alteration of the per gene in humans is associated with: a. prolonged circadian rhythms. b. shortened circadian rhythms. c. absence of circadian rhythms. d. narcolepsy. ANS: B Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
59. People with a mutation in their per gene are more likely to: a. wake up early. b. go to bed late. c. wake up late. d. have high melatonin levels. ANS: A Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
60. In one family that has a mutation in the gene responsible for their PER protein, behavior changed in what way? a. They had REM sleep but no non-REM sleep. b. They sometimes experienced several consecutive days of insomnia. c. They liked to go to bed early and wake up early. d. They suffered sudden attacks of sleepiness during the day. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
61. When do the secretions of melatonin begin? a. just before a person awakens b. when body temperature is at its lowest c. when body temperature is at its highest d. a couple of hours before a person naturally falls asleep ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
62. If you wanted to go to sleep at 11 pm, the best time to take melatonin would be: a. at the time you go to bed. b. about 9 pm. c. when you wake up that morning. d. at lunchtime. ANS: B
346
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DIF: conceptual
Chapter 1
REF: Mechanisms of the
Biological Clock
OBJ: 2
63. The pineal gland releases the rhythms. a. androgen b. melanopsin c. melatonin d. Estrogen ANS: C Biological Clock
TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping hormone, which influences both circadian and circannual
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
64. Taking melatonin pills in the late evening: a. phase-advances the biological clock. b. phase-delays the biological clock. c. increases sleepiness. d. has no noticeable effects. ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
65. Why will taking a melatonin pill in the evening have little effect on sleepiness? a. Body temperature is too low. b. Body temperature is too high. c. The pineal gland is only active in the morning. d. The pineal gland produces melatonin at that time anyway. ANS: D Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
66. If you take a melatonin pill in the early afternoon, you will: a. become very active. b. be wide awake in a very short period of time. c. become sleepy within two hours. d. not sleep well that night. ANS: C Biological Clock
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Mechanisms of the TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping
67. What does an electroencephalograph measure? a. action potentials in an individual neuron b. the electrical resistance of the scalp c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain d. the average of the electrical potentials of the cells in a given region of the brain ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
68. What is the best way to objectively determine if someone is asleep?
347
The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
Monitor breathing rates. Measure muscle tension. Monitor brain waves. Use self-report measures.
ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
69. An polysomnograph displays: a. action potentials of individual neurons. b. a combination of EEG and eye-movement records. c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain. d. the electrical resistance of the scalp. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
70. An electroencephalograph displays: a. action potentials of individual neurons. b. a net average of all the neurons' potentials. c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain. d. the electrical resistance of the scalp. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
71. Alpha waves are characteristic of what type of activity? a. NREM sleep b. Nightmares c. relaxed wakefulness d. periods of great excitement ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
72. What do the EEG waves look like when brain activity is "desynchronized"? a. long, slow waves of large amplitude b. short, rapid waves of large amplitude c. regular alternation between waves of large amplitude and waves of small amplitude d. irregular waves with low amplitude ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
73. Sleep spindles and K-complexes are most characteristic of which sleep stage? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4 ANS: B OBJ: 1
348
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Chapter 1
74. Sleep spindles originate from: a. PGO waves. b. sudden stimuli. c. SCN neurons. d. interactions between the thalamus and cortex. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
75. A sharp high-amplitude negative wave followed by a smaller, slower, positive wave is called: a. a sleep spindle. b. a K-complex. c. a slow-wave. d. REM. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
76. Slow-wave sleep is comprised of: a. alpha wave sleep. b. stages 1 and 2. c. stages 3 and 4. d. REM sleep. ANS: C OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
77. What is also known as slow-wave sleep? a. alpha wave sleep b. stages 1 and 2 c. stages 3 and 4 d. REM sleep ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep OBJ: 1 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms 78. How do sleep stages 3 and 4 differ? a. body position b. percentage of REM c. percentage of serotonin that is released d. percentage of slow, low amplitude waves ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
79. With each succeeding stage of sleep (from 1 to 4): a. breathing and heart rates increase. b. brain activity increases. c. slow, large-amplitude waves increase in number. d. brain waves become smaller. ANS: C
349
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DIF: conceptual
The Major Issues
REF: Stages of Sleep
OBJ: 1 80.
TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
EEG waves are larger when brain activity decreases because: a. the EEG measures muscle tension, which also decreases. b. neurons are becoming more synchronized. c. neurons are becoming more desynchronized. d. blood flow is increasing. ANS: B OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Stages of Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
81. What is one of the contradictions in "paradoxical" sleep? a. The frequency of the brain waves is low, while the amplitude is high. b. The brain is very active, while many of the muscles are deeply relaxed. c. Subcortical structures are very active, while the cerebral cortex is inactive. d. Postural muscles are tense, while heart rate and breathing rate are very low. ANS: B Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
82. What is paradoxical about paradoxical sleep? a. It serves restorative functions, and yet the body has no apparent need for it. b. It is light sleep in some ways and deep sleep in other ways. c. It depends on serotonin for its onset and acetylcholine for its offset. d. It is associated with dreaming although brain activity is low. ANS: B Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
83. What is synonymous with paradoxical sleep? a. alpha waves b. stages 1 and 2 c. stages 3 and 4 d. REM sleep ANS: D Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
84. During REM sleep, the EEG shows: a. regular, high-voltage slow waves. b. irregular, high-voltage slow waves. c. regular, low-voltage slow waves. d. irregular, low-voltage fast waves. ANS: D Sleep MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
85. It is possible to determine a person's stage of sleep through which kinds of monitoring?
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a. b. c. d.
EEG and GSR GSR and eye movements EEG and eye movements body position and carbon dioxide level in the blood
ANS: C Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
86. Which of the following is NOT associated with REM sleep? a. increased probability of dreaming b. facial twitches c. EEG pattern resembling wakefulness d. tense and active postural muscles ANS: D Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
87. REM sleep is characterized by which of the following? a. tension and activity of the postural muscles b. low and steady heart and breathing rates c. a high level of brain activity d. a highly synchronized EEG pattern ANS: C Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
88. Sometimes people find themselves unable to move their postural muscles immediately
after awakening. Why? A Blood pressure is too low. B The motor nerves are inactive until body temperature reaches its normal level. C An increase in light striking the eyes reflexively inhibits the motor neurons. D Part of the brain is still asleep. ANS: D Sleep KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
89. Facial twitches are most characteristic of which stage of sleep? a. stage 2 b. stage 3 c. stage 4 d. REM ANS: D Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
90. After entering stage 4 for the first time each evening, the sleeper typically: a. returns immediately to stage 1. b. enters REM. c. cycles back through stages 3 and 2. d. wakes up.
351
The Major Issues
ANS: C Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
91. The EEG record for REM sleep is most similar to which other sleep stage? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4 ANS: A Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
92. For a normal person, which part of a night's sleep contains the largest percentage of stage 4 sleep? a. early in the night b. the middle of the night c. toward the end of the night d. all parts equally ANS: A Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
93. For a normal person, about how long does a cycle of sleep (from stage 1 to stage 4 and back again) last? a. 10 minutes b. 90 minutes c. 4 hours d. 7 hours ANS: B Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
94. Compared to the earlier part, the later part of a night's sleep: a. includes a larger percentage of REM sleep. b. includes a lower percentage of REM sleep. c. is characterized by declining body temperature. d. has more slow wave sleep. ANS: A Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
95. The relationship between sleep stage and dreaming is that dreams: a. occur only in REM sleep. b. occur only in NREM sleep. c. are more frequent and more vivid in REM sleep. d. are more frequent and more vivid in NREM sleep. ANS: C Sleep
352
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DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Chapter 1
96. What is the best way to determine if an individual who claims to never dream does, in fact, have dreams? a. Ask them about their dreams immediately after they wake up in the morning. b. Wake them up during REM sleep and ask them if they have been dreaming. c. Wake them up during NREM sleep and ask them if they have been dreaming. d. Ask them under hypnosis if they have had any dreams recently. ANS: B Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
97. Typically, a person who falls asleep enters: a. stage 4 and slowly progresses through the stages 3, 2, 1 and then REM. b. REM and then slowly progresses from stage 4, to 3, then 2, and lastly 1. c. stage 1 and slowly progresses through stages 2, 3 and 4, but not necessarily in order. d. stage 1 and slowly progresses through stages 2, 3 and 4 in order. ANS: D Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
98. Which of the following occurs as a normal night's sleep progresses? a. Stage 4 and REM both increase. b. Stage 4 and REM both decrease. c. Stage 4 increases, while REM decreases. d. Stage 4 decreases, while REM increases. ANS: D Sleep
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
99. In comparison to NREM dreams, REM dreams: a. are less likely to include striking visual imagery. b. are more likely to include complicated plots. c. do not contain violence. d. are almost always less than five minutes. ANS: B Sleep 100.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Paradoxical or REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
After a cut through the midbrain separates the forebrain and part of the midbrain from all the lower structures, an animal: a. stops sleeping. b. sleeps a normal amount per day, but lacks REM sleep. c. enters a prolonged state of sleep. d. alternates rapidly between sleep and wakefulness. ANS: C PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
353
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
The Major Issues
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
101.
After cutting each of the individual tracts that enter the medulla and spinal cord, depriving the brain of almost all sensory input, an animal: a. continues to have periods of wakefulness and sleep. b. stops sleeping. c. goes into a coma. d. enters a prolonged state of sleep. ANS: A PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
102.
The a. b. c. d.
reticular formation tectum tegmentum thalamus REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
The role of the reticular formation in arousal is that it is: a. the single, critical system in arousing the cortex. b. only one of several systems involved in arousal. c. activated only by external stimuli. d. activated only by internal stimuli. ANS: B PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
105.
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
What is the result of electrical stimulation to the reticular formation? a. Sudden onset of sleep b. Increased alertness c. Coma d. Hallucinations ANS: B PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
104.
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
is a structure that extends from the medulla into the forebrain.
ANS: A PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms 103.
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
What is activated by the reticular formation? a. the spinal cord b. only those portions of the cerebral cortex involved in processing sensory information c. only subcortical structures in the brain stem and midbrain d. wide regions of the entire cerebral cortex ANS: D PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
354
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REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
106.
Stimulation of the pontomesencephalon: a. awakens a sleeping individual. b. decreases alertness in someone already awake. c. shifts the EEG from short waves to long, slow waves. d. delays the onset of the next REM period. ANS: A PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
107.
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
With regard to sleep and arousal, the locus coeruleus is: a. very active during sleep. b. active when the pontomesencephalon is not. c. almost completely inactive during sleep. d. instrumental in waking us up. ANS: C PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
109.
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
One part of the reticular formation that contributes to cortical arousal is known as the: a. tectomesencephalon b. pontomesencephalon c. corticomesencephalon d. rubromesencephalon ANS: B PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
108.
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
In response to meaningful events, the locus coeruleus releases: a. norepinephrine. b. acetylcholine. c. dopamine. d. serotonin. ANS: A PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
110. Axons from the locus coeruleus release a. norepinephrine b. acetylcholine c. dopamine d. serotonin ANS: A PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
355
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
widely throughout the cortex.
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
The Major Issues
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
111. Which of the following events would most likely activate the locus coeruleus? a. taking a nap b. daydreaming c. walking d. hearing a bear growl in the woods ANS: D PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
112. Orexin, produced by neurons in the hypothalamus, appears to be necessary for: a. getting to sleep. b. waking up. c. raising body temperature. d. staying awake. ANS: D PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
113. Cells in the basal forebrain increase arousal and wakefulness by releasing: a. norepinephrine. b. acetylcholine. c. dopamine. d. serotonin. ANS: B PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
114. A couple of paths from the hypothalamus release histamine, thereby: a. increasing arousal. b. initiating sleep. c. shifting sleep from REM to NREM. d. slowing the circadian rhythm. ANS: A PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
115. Which of the following structures is NOT a brain structure of arousal and attention? a. suprachiasmatic nucleus b. reticular formation c. locus coeruleus d. raphe nuclei ANS: A PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
356
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REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
116. Some drugs used to treat allergies may produce drowsiness if they: a. block histamine. b. stimulate acetylcholine. c. decrease adenosine. d. block GABA. ANS: A PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
117. During sleep, what happens in the brain?
A cessation of spontaneous activity in neurons B increased firing by dopamine neurons C decreased firing by dopamine neurons D increased firing by GABA neurons ANS: D PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms KEY: NEW MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
118. During , cells in the pons send messages that inhibit the motor neurons that control the body’s large muscles. a. wakefulness b. REM sleep c. NREM sleep d. transition from wakefulness to sleep or sleep to wakefulness ANS: B PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
119. Sometimes people find themselves unable to move their postural muscles immediately after awakening. Why? A Blood pressure is too low. B The motor nerves are inactive until body temperature reaches its normal level. C An increase in light striking the eyes reflexively inhibits the motor neurons. D Part of the brain is still asleep. ANS: D PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms KEY: NEW 120.
121.
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
Research found that during REM sleep, activity: a. decreased in the pons, while it increased in the limbic system. b. increased in the pons, while it decreased in the limbic system. c. decreased in both the pons and the limbic system. d. increased in both the pons and the limbic system. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM Sleep OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms During REM sleep, neuronal activity decreases in the:
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The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
122.
123.
entire brain. pons. limbic system. primary visual cortex and the motor cortex.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM Sleep OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms PGO (waves) is an abbreviation for which of the following? a. paradoxical gradual onset b. psycho-galvanic oscillation c. pons geniculate occipital d. psychasthenia glyceric onomatopoeia ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM Sleep OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms PGO waves are associated with which of the following? a. NREM sleep b. REM sleep c. relaxation during wakefulness d. being awakened from REM sleep ANS: B Sleep MSC: www
124.
125.
126.
127.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
The onset of REM sleep begins with activity in the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. pons. c. medulla. d. cerebellum. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM Sleep OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms After a period of sleep deprivation, PGO waves begin to: a. occur during sleep stages 2-4 and wakefulness. b. decrease in intensity. c. reverse their sequence of brain activity. d. cause sleep paralysis during waking. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM Sleep OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms REM sleep is associated with: a. tension and activity of the postural muscles. b. PGO waves in the brain. c. a highly synchronized EEG pattern. d. decreased heart rate. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM Sleep OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms The sequence of the bursts of neural activity during REM sleep is: a. lateral geniculate nucleus, pons, and occipital cortex. b. occipital cortex, pons, and lateral geniculate nucleus.
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c. pons, lateral geniculate nucleus, and occipital cortex. d. pons, occipital lobe, and lateral geniculate nucleus. ANS: C Sleep 128.
130.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM Sleep OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms After damage to the floor of the pons, what happens during a cat's REM sleep? a. The eyes move vertically instead of horizontally. b. Heart rate becomes steadier. c. Breathing rate decreases. d. The cat’s muscles are not relaxed. DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
It appears from research with cats that one function of the messages from the pons to the spinal cord is to prevent us from: a. dreaming. b. sleeping too soundly. c. acting out our dreams. d. having difficulty falling asleep. ANS: C PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms
132.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
During REM sleep, the pons sends inhibitory messages to the: a. spinal cord. b. occipital lobe. c. vestibular system. d. cerebral cortex.
ANS: D PTS: 1 Wakefulness and Arousal Brain Mechanisms 131.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
The pons sends inhibitory messages to motor neurons of the spinal cord during which sleep stage(s)? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stages 3 and 4 d. REM sleep ANS: D Sleep KEY: NEW
129.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 2
REF: Brain Mechanisms of TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and
A person who is taking an antidepressant that increases serotonin or norepinephrine levels in the brain is most likely to have: a. interrupted or shortened REM sleep. b. prolonged wakefulness. c. prolonged NREM sleep. d. enhanced dreaming.
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The Major Issues
ANS: A Sleep 133.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 OBJ:3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 OBJ:3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Aside from the problems with failing to breathe at times during the night, people with sleep apnea are also found to have: a. enlarged hearts. b. overactive bladders. c. desynchronized temperature rhythms. d. fewer neurons in certain brain areas. ANS: D Disorders
138.
PTS: 1 OBJ:3
Which of these is characteristic of sleep apnea? a. involuntary movements of the arms and legs during sleep. b. periods without breathing during sleeping. c. tendency to fall asleep suddenly during the day. d. sleep walking and sleep terrors. ANS: B Disorders KEY: NEW
137.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
One disadvantage in using tranquilizers as sleeping pills it that they may: a. cause narcolepsy. b. decrease body temperature during the second half of the night. c. cause sleeplessness on later nights. d. prevent the brain from inhibiting movements during sleep. ANS: C Disorders
136.
PTS: 1 OBJ:3
What is a likely consequence if someone's temperature rhythm is phase-delayed? a. waking up frequently during the night b. having problems going to sleep after losing your job c. difficulty falling asleep d. not breathing during the night ANS: C Disorders
135.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Function in REM TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
What is a defining criterion for insomnia? a. a person who consistently feels sleepy during the day b. consistently less than 6 hours of sleep per night c. at least 50% less REM sleep than normal d. more time spent in NREM sleep than in REM sleep ANS: A Disorders
134.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 OBJ:3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Similar to the effects of sleep apnea, rats that are repeatedly oxygen-deprived lose neurons throughout the cortex and hippocampus, causing impairments in: a. learning and memory.
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b. dreaming. c. respiratory reflexes. d. appetite. ANS: A Disorders 139.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Which of the following has often been interpreted as an intrusion of REM sleep into wakefulness? a. Narcolepsy b. Sleep apnea c. REM behavior disorder d. Somnambulism ANS: A Disorders
143.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Which kind of adults is most likely to suffer from sleep apnea? a. Overweight men b. Depressed women c. Recent immigrants to a country d. People who eat a high-protein diet ANS: A Disorders
142.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
The probability of sleep apnea is increased among which group of people? a. College students during finals week b. Those who are addicted to tranquilizers c. Overweight men d. People who work on swing shifts ANS: C Disorders
141.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Which of the following physical conditions is related to apnea? a. Puberty b. Being female c. Being obese d. Having asthma ANS: C Disorders
140.
PTS: 1 OBJ:3
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
What is narcolepsy? a. Sleepwalking b. The inability to breathe while sleeping c. Involuntary movements of the limbs while sleeping d. Sudden periods of sleepiness during the day ANS: D
361
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Sleep
Disorders 144.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Mice that lack orexin have difficulty: a. breathing at night. b. maintaining wakefulness. c. sleeping. d. waking up. ANS: B OBJ: 6
149.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
One explanation for narcolepsy in humans is: a. a loss of orexin-containing neurons in the hypothalamus. b. a genetic loss of basal forebrain neurons. c. swollen tonsils. d. damage to the locus coeruleus. ANS: A Disorders
148.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
What are the dreamlike experiences at the onset of sleep that are difficult to distinguish from reality? a. Hypnagogic hallucinations b. Idiopathic hallucinations c. Occipital illusions d. Pseudo-psychedelic visions ANS: A Disorders MSC: www
147.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
What does cataplexy involve? a. Dreamlike experiences that the person has trouble distinguishing from reality b. An attack of muscle weakness while awake c. A lack of inhibition of movement during REM sleep d. Repeated involuntary movement of the legs or arms during sleep ANS: B Disorders
146.
TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of narcolepsy? a. Attacks of sleepiness during the day b. Attacks of muscle weakness during the day c. Involuntary movements of the limbs during sleep d. Dreamlike experiences that are hard to distinguish from reality ANS: C Disorders
145.
OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Sleep Disorders TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Loss of orexin-containing neurons in the hypothalamus may contribute to: a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. insomnia.
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Chapter 1
d. periodic limb movement disorder. ANS: B Disorders MSC: www 150.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
People with REM behavior disorder: a. show intrusions of REM sleep into wakefulness. b. show bizarre behaviors while awake due to REM deprivation at night. c. enter REM sleep at unusual and unpredictable times. d. move vigorously during REM, apparently acting out their dreams. ANS: D Disorders
154.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Repeated involuntary movements of the arms and legs that may prevent a person from falling asleep are known as: a. REM behavior disorder. b. night terrors. c. periodic limb movement disorder. d. restless legs syndrome. ANS: C Disorders
153.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
Drugs that are used to control narcolepsy also tend to produce what other effects? a. uncontrollable hand tremors and facial tics b. increased wakefulness c. reduction of sympathetic arousal d. relief from the symptoms of schizophrenia ANS: B Disorders
152.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Huntington’s disease may also affect orexin-containing neurons in the hypothalamus, leading to symptoms similar to: a. sleep apnea. b. periodic limb movement disorder. c. REM behavior disorder. d. narcolepsy. ANS: D Disorders
151.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
People with REM sleep disorder most likely have: a. damage in the pons and midbrain. b. damage to areas of the brain that normally produce movements during REM. c. restricted oxygen intake during sleep due to factors associated with obesity. d. abnormally high levels of serotonin in the brain. ANS: A Disorders
363
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
The Major Issues
155.
REM behavior disorder occurs mostly in: a. adults. b. young adults. c. children. d. older people. ANS: D Disorders
156.
Night terrors are most common in a. adults; NREM sleep b. adults; REM sleep c. children; NREM sleep d. children; REM sleep ANS: C Disorders
157.
160.
during
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms .
DIF: conceptual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Night terrors can be distinguished from nightmares in that night terrors: a. occur during REM sleep. b. occur during NREM sleep. c. are far more common in adults than children. d. usually involve sleep talking. ANS: B Disorders
159.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Nightmares are to as night terrors are to a. children; adults b. REM; NREM c. narcolepsy; cataplexy d. dopamine; serotonin ANS: B Disorders
158.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Which of the following is more common during REM sleep than during NREM sleep? a. sleep talking b. sleepwalking c. nightmares d. night terrors ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Sleep Disorders OBJ: 3 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms When does sleep walking occur? a. only during REM sleep b. only during NREM sleep c. during both stage 3 and 4 sleep d. during the brief transition period between REM sleep and non-REM sleep ANS: C Disorders
364
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Chapter 1
KEY: NEW 161.
Which of the following is NOT true about sleepwalking? a. It occurs mostly in children. b. It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker. c. It runs in families. d. It occurs most often during stages 3 and 4. ANS: B Disorders
162.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Which of the following claims would be made by the evolutionary perspective of sleep? a. The function of sleep is similar to that of hibernation. b. More highly evolved species, such as humans, need more sleep than other species. c. During sleep, we relive the experiences of past generations. d. Sleep enables the body to repair and restore itself to promote survival. ANS: A OBJ: 1
164.
DIF: factual REF: Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
Which of the following is TRUE about sleepwalking? a. It occurs mostly in adults. b. It is most common early in the night. c. It occurs during REM. d. It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker. ANS: B Disorders
163.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
According to the evolutionary perspective of sleep, the primary function of sleep is to: a. conserve energy. b. promote brain development. c. restore body functions that were exhausted during wakefulness. d. enable the person to re-experience, in dreams, the events of the past. ANS: A OBJ: 1 MSC: www
365
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
The Major Issues
165.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding hibernation and sleep? a. They conserve energy. b. They increase body temperature. c. They lower body temperature. d. They increase during times of food shortages. ANS: B OBJ: 1
166.
Which of the following is NOT true about hibernation? a. The longer an animal spends in hibernation, the shorter its life expectancy. b. During hibernation, an animal's body temperature drops. c. Pet hamsters sometimes hibernate. d. An extract from the brain of a hibernating animal can cause another animal to lower its body temperature. ANS: A OBJ: 1
167.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
A decrease in the amount of sleep most likely to affect the performance of migratory bird during: a. migration season. b. NREM sleep. c. the daytime. d. seasons other than migration. ANS: D OBJ: 1
169.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Which of the following shows a decreased need for sleep? a. birds during migration b. mammalian mothers during pregnancy c. cats during the mating season d. children when they are ill ANS: A OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
168.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Migratory birds sleep less during the migratory season because they: a. are too busy finding food. b. decrease their need for sleep. c. are worried about predators. d. are too busy mating. ANS: B OBJ: 1
366
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Chapter 1
170.
Grazing animals that need to eat for many hours per day get less sleep than carnivores because: a. they do not need as much sleep b. carnivores can satisfy nutritional needs with a single mean. c. they are not as active d. they have different circadian rhythms ANS: B OBJ: 1
171.
European swifts sleep: a. after a meal. b. only in their nest. c. during flight. d. only at night. ANS: C OBJ: 1
172.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
What effects are generally produced during prolonged sleep deprivation in laboratory animals? a. continuous seizures b. few noticeable adverse effects c. similar effects to sleep deprivation studies with humans d. more severe effects than in sleep deprivation studies with humans ANS: D OBJ: 1
174.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
How does prolonged sleep deprivation affect human volunteers? a. It produces death. b. It decreases later need for sleep. c. Brain activity increases. d. It impairs concentration. ANS: D OBJ: 1
173.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams? KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
One study found that a nap that included creative problem solving. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stages 3 and 4 d. REM ANS: D OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
367
sleep enhanced performance on certain kinds of
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
The Major Issues
175.
Which of the following would most likely have the highest total amount of REM sleep? a. infant human b. old horse c. young cow d. old bear ANS: A OBJ: 1
176.
Young adults deprived of a night’s sleep show deficits on a. verbal b. sensory c. memory d. motor ANS: C OBJ: 1
177.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
For which species does REM sleep compose the largest percentage of total sleep? a. species that get a great deal of sleep b. species that sleep very little c. humans, dolphins, and others with a large brain d. the aged members of any species ANS: A OBJ: 1
179.
tasks.
Another aspect of sleep’s contribution to memory relates to: a. delta waves b. sleep spindles. c. alpha waves. d. PKO spikes. ANS: B OBJ: 1
178.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Research suggests that REM is: a. important for all types of memory. b. most important for strengthening memories of motor skills. c. most important for strengthening memories of lists of words. d. not important for strengthening memories of any kind. ANS: B OBJ: 1
368
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Chapter 1
180.
If we compare either different species or different ages, what trend emerges? a. The less total sleep, the higher the percentage of REM sleep b. The more total sleep, the higher the percentage of REM sleep c. The more activity during wakefulness, the higher the percentage of REM sleep d. The more activity during wakefulness, the lower the percentage of REM sleep ANS: B OBJ: 1
181.
If you were awakened every time you entered REM sleep for a few days, and then were permitted to sleep without interruptions, you would: a. spend about 50 percent more time in REM sleep than usual. b. get nothing but REM sleep the next night. c. get little or no REM sleep for the next several nights. d. spend about the same time in REM sleep as usual. ANS: A OBJ: 1
182.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Research suggests that a. stage II b. stage I c. deep d. REM ANS: D OBJ: 1 MSC: www
185.
or more hours per night have the highest percentage
Compared to REM, research suggests that NREM is: a. important for all types of memory. b. important for strengthening memories of motor skills. c. important for strengthening memories of lists of words. d. not important for strengthening memories of any kind. ANS: C OBJ: 1
184.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Among adult humans, those who sleep of REM sleep. a. 9 b. 5 c. 8 d. 10 ANS: A OBJ: 1
183.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
sleep is most important for strengthening memories of motor skills.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
REM sleep has been shown to: a. inhibit sexual arousal. b. interfere with new learning. c. strengthen the formation of new motor skills. d. strengthen memories for new facts.
369
The Major Issues
ANS: C OBJ: 1 186.
A recent hypothesis proposed that the role of REM is: a. to shake the eyeballs back and forth in order to get sufficient oxygen to the corneas of the eyes. b. to shake the eyeballs back and forth so the individual moves from REM to NREM. c. no different than the role of NREM. d. to bring to the surface the individual's unconscious wishes. ANS: A OBJ: 1
187.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Perspectives TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
According to the activation-synthesis hypothesis, it should be possible to predict (with better than chance accuracy) the content of a person's dreams if we know what information about the person? a. concentration of serotonin and acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex b. number and type of emotional experiences during the day c. stimuli currently acting on the body and areas of spontaneous brain activity d. time the person went to sleep and the current time ANS: C on Dreaming
190.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
According to the activation-synthesis hypothesis, what do dreams reflect? a. The brain's attempt to make sense of spontaneous neural activity b. Unconscious motivations and emotions c. Experiences that have been part of the species' evolutionary history d. An imbalance among hormone levels ANS: A on Dreaming
189.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Whereas most theorists have proposed that REM serves functions in memory and brain development, according to one newer hypothesis, the role of REM is merely to: a. rest the muscles. b. increase oxygen flow to the cornea. c. keep the person from waking up. d. synchronize activity between the left and right hemispheres. ANS: B OBJ: 1
188.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Biological Perspectives TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
According to the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreams, a dream represents the brain’s effort to: a. thinking that takes place under unusual conditions b. make sense of sparse and distorted information c. predict the future d. bring up past events ANS: B on Dreaming KEY: NEW
370
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Perspectives TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Chapter 1
191.
Dreams begin with arousing stimuli, whether generated from the external or internal environment, according to which hypothesis/theory? a. Freud's theory of dreams b. the repair and restoration theory c. a clinico-anatomical hypothesis d. the evolutionary theory ANS: C on Dreaming
192.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Perspectives TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Patients with damage to report no dreams. a. the upper part of the parietal cortex b. the lower part of the parietal cortex c. all layers of the occipital lobe d. the nonvisual areas of the temporal lobe ANS: B on Dreaming
194.
DIF: factual REF: Biological Perspectives TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
Which hypothesis/theory suggests that the primary motor cortex is suppressed so arousal during sleep cannot lead to action? a. Freud's theory of dreams b. the repair and restoration theory c. a clinico-anatomical hypothesis d. the evolutionary hypothesis ANS: C on Dreaming
193.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Perspectives TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
During dreaming, which of the following area or areas continue to be highly active? a. the hypothalamus, amygdala, and other emotional areas b. the primary motor cortex in the precentral gyrus c. the areas of the prefrontal cortex that are key to working memory d. the primary visual cortex and primary auditory cortex ANS: A on Dreaming MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Biological Perspectives TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
SHORT ANSWER 1. Define the term endogenous circadian rhythm. ANS: Sleep and wake cycles that last about a day. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Endogenous Cycles OBJ: TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and SleepingKEY: NEW
371
The Major Issues
1
2. List some examples of “zeitgebers”. ANS: Light, exercise, noise, meals, temperature. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Setting and Resetting the Biological Clock TOP: 9.1 Rhythms of Waking and Sleeping -
3. List the stages of sleep including their dominant electrophysiological marker. ANS: Stage I: slow wave sleep, alpha rhythm Stage II: slow wave sleep, sleep spindles, K complexes Stage III: slow wave sleep, delta waves Stage IV: slow wave sleep, delta waves REM sleep: REM PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Stages of Sleep OBJ: TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
1
4. Briefly describe the role of the locus coeruleus in arousal and attention. ANS: The locus coeruleus is a small structure in the pons which is inactive at most times but emits bursts of impulses in response to meaningful events. Axons from the locus coeruleus release norepinephrine widely throughout the cortex, so this area has a huge influence. Anything that stimulates the locus coeruleus strengthens the storage of recent memories and increases wakefulness. The locus coeruleus is silent during sleep. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Mechanisms of Wakefulness and Arousal OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms 5. Provide three explanations for why we sleep. ANS: We sleep to allow the body to recover from the exertions of the day by rebuilding proteins and replenishing energy stores. We sleep to conserve energy at a time of day in which we would be relatively inefficient. We sleep to facilitate learning by consolidating memories. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
372
Chapter 1
OBJ:
1
ESSAY 1. Describe how light resets the SCN. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Mechanisms of the Biological Clock OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms 2. Describe the neuroanatomy of arousal and attention. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Mechanisms of Wakefulness and Arousal OBJ: 2 TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms 3. Describe brain function during REM sleep. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 MSC: www
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Function in REM Sleep TOP: 9.2 Stages of Sleep and Brain Mechanisms
4. Discuss the relationship between sleep and memory. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams?
OBJ:
1
OBJ:
1
5. Discuss the leading theories on the biological perspectives on dreaming. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Functions of Sleep TOP: 9.3 Why Sleep? Why REM? Why Dreams? MSC: www
Chapter 10: Internal Regulation TRUE/FALSE
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The Major Issues
1. Homeostasis refers to temperature regulation and other biological processes that keep body variables within a fixed range. ANS: T Allostasis MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
2. Set points can change over time. ANS: T Allostasis
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
3. Human maintain a higher body temperature during the day than at night. ANS: T Allostasis
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
4. Only reptiles use behavioral mechanisms to regulate body temperature. ANS: F Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
5. Humans spend about one-third of their total energy maintaining body temperature. ANS: F Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
6. The physiological changes that defend body temperature depend on areas in and near the hypothalamus. ANS: T Temperature MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
7. A moderate fever can increase an individual's chance of surviving a bacterial infection. ANS: T Temperature
374
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
Chapter 1
8. Vasopressin increases blood pressure by constricting the blood vessels. ANS: T Regulation
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Mechanisms of Water
9. The solutes inside and outside a cell produce an osmotic pressure. ANS: T OBJ: 1TOP:
PTS: 1 10.2 Thirst
DIF: conceptual MSC: www
REF: Osmotic Thirst
10. Drinking salty sea water will satisfy osmotic thirst. ANS: F OBJ: 1TOP:
PTS: 1 10.2 Thirst
DIF: conceptual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
11. Drinking pure water is the best way to reduce osmotic thirst. ANS: T OBJ: 1TOP:
PTS: 1 10.2 Thirst
DIF:
conceptual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
12. Renin is released from the posterior pituitary. ANS: F PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and MSC: www
13. Angiotensin II acts on the kidney to retain more sodium. ANS: F PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
14. The large intestine absorbs water and minerals. ANS: T Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food
15. Newborn animals survive at first on mother’s milk. ANS: T Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food MSC: www
16. Most mammals at about the age of weaning lose the intestinal enzyme lactase. ANS: T Selection
375
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
The Major Issues
REF: Digestion and Food
17. The main signal to end a meal is high glucose levels in the blood. ANS: F Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food
18. Stomach distension is necessary to produce satiety. ANS: F PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short and Long Term
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short and Long Term
19. CCK limits meal size. ANS: T PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 2
20. Chronically high insulin levels decrease appetite. ANS: F PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short and Long Term MSC: www
21. Obese people tend to produce more insulin than people of normal weight. ANS: T PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short and Long Term
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short and Long Term
22. Injections of leptin reduce eating in rats. ANS: T PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 2
23. The arcuate nucleus receives only hunger signals. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Brain Mechanisms
24. The paraventricular nucleus normally inhibits meal size. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Brain Mechanisms
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Brain Mechanisms
25. Orexin inhibits appetite. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
26. Damage to the lateral hypothalamus would increase feeding behavior. ANS: F OBJ: 3
376
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Brain Mechanisms
27. Some cases of obesity can be traced to a single gene that affects melanocortin receptors. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Eating Disorders
28. The most simple and effective way to lose weight is to exercise more and eat less. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Eating Disorders
DIF: factual
REF: Eating Disorders
29. Anorexia is a problem of lack of appetite. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
30. Bulimia seems to be characterized by an addiction to food. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Eating Disorders
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Large birds, like flamingos, often stand on one leg to: a. impress the opposite sex. b. eat. c. maintain muscle strength. d. warm the leg that is tucked under their body. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
2. What defines a homeostatic process? a. the regulation of blood flow b. any process governed by hormones c. the maintenance of certain body variables within a fixed range d. reproduction involving distinct male and female genders in a species ANS: C Allostasis
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
3. Processes that reduce any discrepancies from the set point are known as: a. negative feedback. b. positive feedback. c. homeothermic. d. thermostasis. ANS: A Allostasis
377
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
The Major Issues
4. The term refers to temperature regulation and other biological processes that keep body variables within a fixed range. a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. homeothermic d. thermostasis ANS: C Temperature MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
5. Much of motivated behavior can be described as: a. diabetic feedback. b. negative feedback. c. positive feedback. d. homeothermic mechanisms. ANS: B Allostasis
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
6. When the range maintained by homeostatic processes is very narrow, what is it called? a. a set point b. a match point c. idiopathic d. band specific ANS: A Allostasis
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
7. A set point refers to: a. a very narrow range that the body works to maintain at a stable level. b. the regulation of blood flow. c. the release of hormones at a set point in time. d. initiating a change in body temperature at a set point in time. ANS: A Allostasis
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
8. Set points for temperature and body fat: a. are fixed. b. change with time of year only. c. only change due to varying internal conditions. d. change depending on many conditions. ANS: D Allostasis
378
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
Chapter 1
9. Some set points may vary considerably over time in order to respond to changes in the environment. This adaptability is known as: a. homeostasis. b. allostasis. c. negative feedback. d. homeothermic. ANS: B Allostasis
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
10. Homeostasis is to as allostasis is to a. constant, variable b. variable, constant c. constant, decreasing d. variable, increasing ANS: A Allostasis
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
11. An average young adult expends about a. 3,000 b. 2,600 c. 2,000 d. 3,600 ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
.
DIF: factual REF: Homeostasis and TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation kilocalories (kcal) per day.
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
12. Humans expend most of their energy on what activity? a. walking, running, and other forms of locomotion b. in the beating of their hearts and blood circulation c. propagating action potentials in the billions of neurons in the nervous system d. maintaining basal metabolism ANS: D Temperature MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
13. Poikilothermic organisms include: a. humans. b. most mammals. c. amphibians and reptiles. d. all mammals and all fish. ANS: C Temperature
379
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
The Major Issues
14. Poikilothermic organisms have body temperatures which: a. remain relatively constant no matter the change in the external environment. b. are the same as the temperatures of their environments. c. are nearly constant, although the brain temperature varies. d. allow them to survive in very warm climates only. ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
15. How do reptiles control their body temperature, if at all? a. They dilate or constrict blood vessels. b. They move to different locations in their environment. c. They shiver and sweat. d. There is nothing they can do. ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
16. How do amphibians and reptiles control their body temperature? a. they cannot b. by shivering and sweating c. by changing the reflectivity of their skin d. by choosing an appropriate area of the environment ANS: D Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
17. Homeothermic organisms include: a. amphibians and reptiles. b. reptiles and fish. c. amphibians and fish. d. mammals and birds. ANS: D Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
18. Generating heat is to as radiating heat is to a. surface area; temperature of the set point b. total body mass; surface area c. raising the set point; lowering the set point d. sweating; shivering ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
.
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
19. Which organisms, if any, use behavioral means to regulate their body temperature? a. poikilothermic, but not homeothermic b. homeothermic, but not poikilothermic c. both poikilothermic and homeothermic d. neither poikilothermic nor homeothermic ANS: C Temperature
380
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
Chapter 1
20. One advantage of being homeothermic is that it: a. reduces the fuel requirements of the body. b. prevents excessive reliance on a single sensory system. c. enables the individual to stay active when the environment is cool. d. decreases the need for shivering and sweating. ANS: C Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
21. An advantage of maintaining a constant body temperature is that it: a. enables an animal to stay equally active at all environmental temperatures. b. enables an animal to survive on a wider variety of diets. c. minimizes the energy that must be expended on basal metabolism. d. enables an animal to detect changes in the temperature of the environment. ANS: A Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
22. Some insects, frogs and fish survive extreme cold by: a. generating vast amounts of heat through their blood. b. stocking their blood with large amounts of glycerol at the start of the winter. c. allowing ice crystals to expand in their blood vessels and cells. d. decreasing their surface to volume ratio. ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
23. Why did mammals evolve a body temperature of 37 degrees Celsius? a. They benefit from a high temperature because they seldom need to cool themselves by much. b. Most protein bonds begin to break at this temperature. c. Their body proteins are stable only at 37 degrees Celsius or above. d. It is the only way they can detect changes in the temperature of the environment. ANS: A Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
24. What is the benefit of maintaining a body temperature of 37 degrees Celsius? a. warmer muscles b. more protein c. more blood d. more body water ANS: A Temperature
381
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
The Major Issues
25. The temperature required by reproductive cells of birds and most mammals is: a. higher than the rest of the body. b. lower than the rest of the body. c. the same as the internal organs of the body. d. fluctuating in direct opposition to changes in body temperature. ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
26. Beyond about 40° or 41°C, a. RNA b. DNA c. cells d. proteins ANS: D Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation begin to break their bonds and lose their useful properties.
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
27. The physiological changes that defend body temperature are mainly controlled by the: a. pineal body and preoptic area. b. preoptic area and anterior hypothalamus. c. parietal cortex and hypothalamus. d. preoptic area and posterior hypothalamus. ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
28. Blood vessel constriction, shivering, and sweating are controlled by which area of the brain? a. pineal body b. preoptic area of the hypothalamus c. parietal cortex d. cerebellum ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
29. The POA/AH monitors body temperature partly by monitoring: a. its own temperature. b. brain temperature. c. heart temperature. d. the temperature of the thalamus. ANS: A Temperature MSC: www
382
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
Chapter 1
30. If an experimenter heats the preoptic area of an animal in a cool environment, the animal will: a. shiver. b. pant or sweat. c. fluff its fur. d. decrease its preference for salty tastes. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 294 TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation - Controlling Body Temperature
31. If an experimenter cools the preoptic area of an animal in a warm environment, the animal will: a. shiver. b. pant or sweat. c. move to a colder environment. d. decrease its preference for salty tastes. ANS: A Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
32. What evidence do we have that the preoptic area controls body temperature? a. After damage to the preoptic area, an animal will simultaneously sweat and shiver. b. Each cell in the preoptic area has a temperature at which it is most active. c. Removed cells maintain a constant temperature even in a cell culture. d. Heating or cooling the preoptic area leads to sweating or shivering. ANS: D Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
33. Cells in the preoptic area of the hypothalamus monitor which temperatures? a. internal organs b. their own and the skin c. differences between the arteries and veins d. differences between internal organs and the skin ANS: B Temperature MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
34. A person most likely to shiver when the: a. skin is cold, but the preoptic area is at normal temperature. b. temperature difference between the skin and the preoptic area is large. c. skin and the preoptic area are both hot. d. skin and the preoptic area are both cold. ANS: D Temperature
383
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
The Major Issues
35. Damage to the preoptic area causes an animal to: a. eat a great deal and gain weight. b. stop eating. c. fail to sweat when overheating, but still shiver when cold. d. fail to shiver and sweat sufficiently. ANS: D Temperature KEY:
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 NEW
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
36. After damage to the preoptic area, an animal: a. eats a great deal and gains weight. b. stops eating. c. fails to sweat when overheating, but still shivers when cold. d. fails to shiver and sweat sufficiently. ANS: D Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
37. How do adult mammals with damage to the preoptic area regulate their body temperature? a. physiologically b. pharmacologically c. behaviorally d. not at all ANS: C Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
38. The way that mammals with damage to their preoptic area regulate their body temperature is similar to what other group? a. birds b. reptiles c. normal mammals d. inanimate objects ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
39. When bacteria, viruses, fungi, or other intruders invade the body, it mobilizes a. leptin b. cholecystokinin c. cytokines d. leukocytes ANS: D Temperature MSC: www
384
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
to attack them.
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
Chapter 1
40. In response to infection, leukocytes release proteins called: a. leptin. b. cholecystokinin. c. cytokines. d. insulin. ANS: C Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
41. If an animal which lacks physiological mechanisms of temperature control gets an infection, it: a. gets cold instead of feverish. b. gets hot only at the point where the infection began. c. chooses a hotter environment. d. recovers faster than animals that can control body temperature. ANS: C Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
42. A fever: a. develops independently of the preoptic area. b. is part of the body's defense against an illness. c. is an indication that the body is not yet fighting the infection. d. serves to keep an animal warm during periods of reduced activity. ANS: B Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
43. In humans, a fever above a. 37°C (98°F) b. 39°C (103°F) c. 41°C (109°F) d. 36°C (96°F) ANS: C Temperature
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation is life-threatening.
DIF: factual REF: Controlling Body TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
44. Approximately what percent of the mammalian body is composed of water? a. 10% b. 20% c. 50% d. 70% ANS: D TOP: 10.2 Thirst
385
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Introduction
45. Your posterior pituitary is most likely to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH): a. if you are very thirsty. b. shortly after drinking a large glass of water. c. if you are very hungry. d. shortly after eating a large meal. ANS: A Regulation
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Mechanisms of Water
46. What is the hormone released by the posterior pituitary that causes your kidneys to reabsorb and conserve water? a. antidiuretic hormone b. insulin c. luteinizing hormone d. oxytocin ANS: A Regulation
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Mechanisms of Water
47. Vasopressin raises blood pressure by: a. causing the blood vessels to dilate. b. constricting the blood vessels. c. increasing the blood's salt concentration. d. decreasing the blood's salt concentration. ANS: B Regulation
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Mechanisms of Water
48. Diabetes insipidus literally means "passing without taste" because the urine is produced in such large quantities that it is tasteless. This disease is most likely caused by a problem with the production or release of: a. renin. b. vasopressin. c. angiotensinogen. d. prostaglandins. ANS: B Regulation
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: conceptual
REF: Mechanisms of Water
49. Which hormone, released by the posterior pituitary, both raises blood pressure and enables the kidneys to reabsorb water? a. vasopressin b. prolactin c. thymosin d. ACTH ANS: A Regulation
386
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Mechanisms of Water
50. The two types of thirst are and a. osmotic thirst; hypervolemic thirst b. osmotic thirst; hypovolemic thirst c. hypovolemic thirst; set point thirst d. vasopressin thirst; osmotic thirst ANS: B TOP: 10.2 Thirst
PTS: 1
.
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst OBJ: 1
51. After an increase in the solute concentrations in the body, you will experience: a. a set point. b. osmotic thirst. c. hypovolemic thirst. d. hunger. ANS: B TOP: 10.2 Thirst
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst OBJ: 1
52. Eating salty potato chips increases the concentration of sodium in the: a. extracellular fluid. b. intracellular fluid. c. nuclear fluid. d. osmotic fluid. ANS: A TOP: 10.2 Thirst
PTS: 1
DIF: conceptual
REF: Osmotic Thirst OBJ: 1
53. The tendency of water to flow across a semipermeable membrane from the area of low solute concentration to the area of higher concentration is termed: a. hypovolemic pressure. b. hypovolemic thirst. c. osmotic pressure. d. OVLT. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
54. What is caused by a high concentration of solutes outside the cells? a. increase in blood pressure b. water flows into the cells c. water flows out of the cells d. excretion of diluted urine ANS: C OBJ: 1
387
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual MSC: www
The Major Issues
REF: Osmotic Thirst
55. What is the cause of osmotic thirst? a. dryness of the throat b. the availability of tasty fluids c. low blood volume d. increased concentration of solutes in the blood ANS: D OBJ: 1 56. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
occurs when solutes are more concentrated on one side of the membrane than on the other. Osmoytic thirst Osmotic pressure Hypovolemic thirst Hypovolemic pressure
ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
57. Eating salty pretzels would most likely result in: a. a craving for plain water. b. a greater salt craving. c. drinking sugary liquids. d. hypovolemic thirst. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: conceptual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
58. What kind of thirst is produced by an increased concentration of solutes in the blood? a. Postprandial b. Hypovolemic c. Non-homeostatic d. Osmotic ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
59. The brain gets part of its information regarding low osmotic pressure from: a. receptors around the third ventricle. b. the blood-brain barrier. c. the subfornical organ. d. thalamus. ANS: A OBJ: 1
388
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Osmotic Thirst
60. Specialized neurons for detecting osmotic pressure are found in the brain areas surrounding which structure? a. third ventricle b. nucleus dorsalis c. pituitary gland d. Hypothalamus ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
61. The areas around the third ventricle can detect chemicals circulating in the blood because: a. these areas are not protected by a blood-brain barrier. b. these areas have low concentrations of solutes themselves. c. there is so much more blood here than anywhere else in the brain. d. these cells maintain a higher internal temperature than the rest of the body. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
62. The areas important for detecting osmotic pressure and the salt content of the blood include: a. substantia nigra. b. red nucleus. c. ventromedial hypothalamus. d. OVLT and subfornical organ. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
63. What area of the brain is largely responsible for detecting osmotic pressure? a. substantia nigra b. red nucleus c. ventromedial hypothalamus d. OVLT and subfornical organ ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
64. The brain can anticipate an osmotic need before the rest of the body actually experiences it: a. because of the change in blood pressure. b. because the stomach can detect high levels of sodium. c. through detection of highly concentrated urine. d. because of the rate of vasopressin release. ANS: B OBJ: 2
389
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Osmotic Thirst
65. An animal knows when to stop drinking by: a. monitoring CCK levels. b. how much urine is present in the bladder. c. detecting how much water is in the stomach. d. monitoring vasopressin levels. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
66. After a lesion to the lateral preoptic area, a rat would react to an increase in sodium levels by: a. drinking less and excreting highly concentrated urine. b. drinking more and excreting a great deal of dilute urine. c. increasing its activity level without changing the amount it drinks. d. sweating profusely, but not drinking much. ANS: A Regulation
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Mechanisms of Water
67. The rate at which the posterior pituitary releases vasopressin is under the control of the: a. lateral preoptic area of the hypothalamus. b. supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei. c. subfornical organ. d. thalamus. ANS: B Regulation
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Mechanisms of Water
68. A rat with damage to its lateral preoptic area: a. drinks a lot of water. b. drinks only to wash down its food. c. has normal osmotic thirst but impaired hypovolemic thirst. d. has impaired osmotic thirst. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: conceptual
REF: Osmotic Thirst
69. The lateral preoptic area and surrounding parts of the hypothalamus control: a. CCK levels. b. hunger. c. drinking. d. vasopressin levels. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: factual
70. What causes hypovolemic thirst? a. dryness of the throat b. low blood volume c. increased concentration of solutes in the blood d. too much salt in the diet
390
Chapter 1
REF: Osmotic Thirst
ANS: B PTS: 1 and1 Sodium-Specific Hunger
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst TOP: 10.2 Thirst
71. A loss of blood will lead to what kind of thirst? a. Osmotic b. Non-homeostatic c. Hypovolemic d. Postprandial ANS: C PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2 72. Like vasopressin, a. angiotensin I b. angiotensin II c. renin d. sodium
DIF: factual TOP:
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and 10.2 Thirst
constricts the blood vessels, compensating for the drop in blood pressure.
ANS: B PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP:
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and 10.2 Thirst
73. After a loss of blood volume, an animal will: a. drink whatever it can find, indiscriminately. b. drink a great deal of pure water. c. drink excessively concentrated saltwater. d. alternately drink pure water and excessively concentrated saltwater. ANS: D PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2 74. Consuming too much salt will trigger thirst. a. sympathetic, parasympathetic b. parasympathetic, sympathetic c. osmotic, hypovolemic d. hypovolemic, osmotic ANS: C PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
thirst. Bleeding or heavy sweating will trigger
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
75. An animal with hypovolemic thirst will drink: a. a large volume of pure water. b. only enough to moisten its throat. c. mildly salty water rather than pure water. d. only water with a low pH. ANS: C PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
391
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
The Major Issues
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
76. Sodium-specific hunger is closely associated with: a. osmotic thirst. b. hypovolemic thirst. c. the OVLT. d. decreased renin release. ANS: B PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP:
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and 10.2 Thirst
77. Vasopressin and angiotensin II are similar in that they both promote: a. increased urination. b. decreased thirst. c. decreased blood pressure. d. increased blood pressure. ANS: D PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
78. Hypovolemic thirst: a. depends mostly on the lateral preoptic area. b. can be satisfied better by salt water than by pure water. c. is stimulated by an increased concentration of solutes in the blood. d. can only be satisfied by drinking a great deal of pure water. ANS: B PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
79. Individuals who have lost sodium and other solutes: a. may experience a craving for salty tastes. b. must learn by trial and error to replace the correct amount. c. will often experience a craving for vitamins. d. lose ability to discriminate among tastes. ANS: A PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
80. Severe blood loss will result in a preference for: a. pure water. b. slightly salty water. c. highly concentrated salt solutions. d. carbohydrates. ANS: B PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
81. Hypovolemia induces thirst by inducing production of which hormone? a. CCK b. Insulin c. Prolactin d. Angiotensin II ANS: D PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
392
Chapter 1
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
82. The effect of an injection of a drug that blocks angiotensin II receptors would be: a. decreased hunger. b. decreased drinking. c. increased drinking. d. increased blood pressure. ANS: B PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
83. What effect does the hormone angiotensin II have? a. increased storage of food as fat b. constriction of blood vessels c. decreased emptying of the stomach d. increased growth of the gonads ANS: B PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
84. Strong craving for salty tastes is known as: a. potassium-specific thirst. b. sodium-specific hunger. c. sodium-specific thirst. d. potassium-specific hunger. ANS: B PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2 85. The hormone aldosterone results in the: a. conservation of water. b. excretion of sodium. c. conservation of sodium. d. decreased preference for salty tastes. ANS: C PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2 86. Aldosterone triggers: a. conservation of water. b. an increased preference for salty tastes. c. excretion of sodium. d. a decreased preference for salty tastes. ANS: B PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
393
The Major Issues
87. Aldosterone and angiotensin II together change the properties of the tractus solitarius. a. renin receptors b. sodium receptors c. smell receptors d. taste receptors ANS: D PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP: 10.2 Thirst
, neurons in the nucleus of
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and
88. A combination of the hormones aldosterone and angiotensin II leads to an increase in preference for tastes. a. sweet b. sour c. salty d. bitter ANS: C PTS: 1 Sodium-Specific Hunger OBJ: 2
DIF: factual TOP:
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and 10.2 Thirst KEY: NEW
89. Bears eat as much as they can at one time because: a. they do not regulate body temperature. b. they do not need a constant supply of energy. c. their main foods are available in large quantities for short times. d. their food is always difficult to find. ANS: C TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
90. Small birds generally eat: a. as much as they can at one time. b. only what they need at the moment. c. three discrete meals per day. d. mostly during the night. ANS: B TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1
91. What is the first point in the digestive system where enzymes begin to break down food? a. Mouth b. Esophagus c. Stomach d. small intestine ANS: A Selection
394
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
Chapter 1
REF: Digestion and Food MSC: www
92. The esophagus brings food from the: a. mouth to the stomach. b. stomach to the sphincter. c. sphincter to the intestines. d. stomach to the intestines. ANS: A Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food
93. What is the main site for absorption of digested food into the bloodstream? a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine ANS: C Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food
94. The small intestine: a. absorbs water and minerals. b. digests proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. c. is the secondary site for the absorption of digested foodstuffs into the bloodstream. d. stores excess nutrients as glycogen, protein, or fat. ANS: B Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food
95. The large intestine: a. absorbs water and minerals. b. digests proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. c. is the main site for the absorption of digested foodstuffs into the bloodstream. d. stores excess nutrients as glycogen, protein, or fat. ANS: A Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food
96. Most young mammals stop nursing, at least partly, due to the loss of what ability? a. metabolizing the sugar in milk b. sucking sufficiently c. the Babinski reflex d. digesting the fat in milk ANS: A Selection
395
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
The Major Issues
REF: Digestion and Food
97. After a certain age, most mammals lose their ability to metabolize lactose because: a. levels of the enzyme lactase decline. b. it competes with other nutrients in other food types. c. eating meat is not compatible with drinking milk. d. they no longer need the nutrients found in milk. ANS: A Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food
98. What best explains the absence of the use of dairy products in many Asian cuisines? a. cultural bias b. digestive limitations c. religious taboos d. the geographic region's incapability of supporting dairy animals ANS: B Selection
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food
99. Humans are a partial exception to which rule? a. Adults can all drink milk. b. They all have a declining level of lactose tolerance as they age. c. All children limit dairy products. d. Milk causes stomach cramps in all humans. ANS: B Selection 100.
REF: Digestion and Food KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
, which are
REF: Digestion and Food KEY: NEW
The ability to digest lactose varies in a patchy way from place to place on which continent? a. Asia b. Europe c. Africa d. Antarctica ANS: C Selection
102.
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
People who are lactose intolerant can consume a little milk, and larger amounts of easier to digest. a. cheese and yogurt b. Meats c. fruits and vegetables d. beans ANS: A Selection
101.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
Many people, including physicians, believe that eating a. salt b. fatty foods c. sugar d. protein
396
Chapter 1
REF: Digestion and Food KEY: NEW
makes children hyperactive.
ANS: C Selection 103.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
, which enables
REF: Digestion and Food KEY: NEW
, which induces sleepiness.
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food KEY: NEW
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
and other large
REF: Digestion and Food KEY: NEW
Taste and other mouth sensations contribute to: a. hunger. b. satiety. c. thirst. d. overeating. ANS: B PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
107.
REF: Digestion and Food KEY: NEW
Tryptophan enters the brain by an active-transport protein that it shares with amino acids. a. phenylalanine b. melatonin c. lactose d. glucose ANS: A Selection
106.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
Increasing tryptophan helps the brain produce a. glucose b. phenylalanine c. melatonin d. lactose ANS: C Selection MSC: www
105.
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
A common misconception is that eating turkey increases the body’s supply of the brain to make chemicals that make you sleepy. a. lactase b. tryptophan c. lacrose d. sucrose ANS: B Selection
104.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
Ordinarily, which of the following is the most important mechanism for ending a meal? A the amount of glucose in the blood B the amount of leptin reaching the brain C the amount of insulin reaching the brain D sensations from the stomach ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
397
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
The Major Issues
REF: Short- and Long-Term KEY: NEW
108.
In sham-feeding, animals are: a. allowed to chew but not swallow. b. allowed to chew and swallow, but the food never enters the stomach. c. only allowed to eat a mixture devoid of nutrients. d. only allowed to eat an artificial substance. ANS: B PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
109.
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
The brain finds out about the degree of stretch of the stomach from: a. visual feedback. b. the hormone angiotensin. c. sensory receptors on the skin of the abdomen. d. activity of the vagus nerve. ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
110. By what means does the brain find out about the nutrient content of food in the stomach? a. Hormones b. activity of the vagus nerve c. activity of the splanchnic nerves d. the duodenum ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
111. The vagus nerve is to as the splanchnic nerves are to . a. stomach fullness; nutrient contents of the stomach b. the taste of food; the texture of food c. nutrient contents of the stomach; water contents of the stomach d. oral factors (such as chewing and taste); stomach fullness ANS: A PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4 MSC: www
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
112. The vagus and splanchnic nerves help to control feeding by relaying information to the brain from the: a. taste buds. b. muscles. c. stomach. d. liver. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
398
Chapter 1
REF: Short- and Long-Term
113. The first digestive site that absorbs a significant amount of nutrients is the: a. mouth. b. stomach. c. duodenum. d. vagus. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
114. If the duodenum is partly distended and the stomach is not full, rats will: a. continue to eat. b. eat larger meals. c. stop eating. d. drink more. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term MSC: www
115. The splanchnic nerves convey information about: a. the nutrient contents of the stomach. b. discomfort in the stomach. c. satiety. d. thirst. ANS: A PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
116. When food distends the duodenum, the duodenum releases which hormone? a. CCK b. Aldosterone c. angiotensin II d. Prolactin ANS: A PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
117. When food distends the duodenum, the duodenum releases which hormone? a. Prolactin b. Aldosterone c. angiotensin II d. Cholecystokinin ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
399
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
The Major Issues
REF: Short- and Long-Term MSC: www
118. One way by which food in the duodenum inhibits appetite is by: a. inhibiting the release of CCK. b. releasing CCK. c. breaking down CCK into inactive components. d. releasing glucagon. ANS: B PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
119. An injection of CCK will: a. increase sodium preferences. b. lead to a preference for fatty foods. c. decrease the size of the next meal. d. cause increased storage of food as fats. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4 120.
One interpretation of how the hormone CCK promotes satiety is that it: a. speeds up the digestive processes in the intestines. b. increases the rate at which glucose enters the cells of the body. c. causes the stomach to fill more quickly. d. facilitates the emptying of the stomach. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
121.
REF: Short- and Long-Term
Which of the following is NOT true about the hormone CCK (cholecystokinin)? a. The duodenum releases CCK when food distends the duodenum. b. CCK tightens the sphincter muscle between the stomach and duodenum. c. CCK crosses the blood-brain barrier and inhibits cells in the hypothalamus. d. CCK stimulates the vagus nerve and causes cells in the hypothalamus to release CCK as a neurotransmitter. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
122.
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
The blood's glucose level ordinarily remains relatively constant because of the activity of: a. CCK. b. the liver. c. the thyroid gland. d. the gall bladder. ANS: B PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
400
Chapter 1
REF: Short- and Long-Term
123.
Why does the level of glucose in the blood vary so little under normal circumstances? a. Manufacturing glucose is a lengthy process, so the body uses it slowly. b. Glucose does not leave the blood to enter the cells of the body. c. Mammals learn to eat only foods that contain glucose. d. The liver can convert stored nutrients into glucose. ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
124.
126.
127.
REF: Short- and Long-Term
Which hormone controls the rate at which glucose leaves the blood and enters the cells? a. CCK b. Aldosterone c. Glucagon d. Insulin ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
125.
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term MSC: www
Which hormonal levels fluctuate when people are eating, or getting ready to eat? a. insulin levels fall b. insulin levels rise c. CCK levels rise d. CCK levels fall ANS: B PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
Glucagon stimulates the liver to covert a. glucose; glycogen b. glucose; insulin c. glycogen; glucose d. insulin; glycogen
to
ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
.
Glucagon stimulates the liver to: a. convert glucose to glycogen. b. store glucose. c. convert glycogen to glucose. d. decrease blood glucose levels. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
401
The Major Issues
128.
What happens when insulin levels are high? a. Fat supplies are converted to glucose, which enters the blood. b. Fat supplies are depleted. c. Glucose entry into the cells increases. d. The sphincter muscle between the stomach and the duodenum opens. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
129.
REF: Short- and Long-Term MSC: www
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
What insulin levels would we expect to find when an animal is putting on extra fat in preparation for migration or hibernation? a. very low, as in diabetes b. normal c. high d. unstable and rapidly fluctuating ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
132.
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
Chronically high insulin levels lead to increased appetite by: a. lowering body temperature, increasing the need for nutrition. b. preventing glucose from entering the cells. c. causing a high percentage of available glucose to be stored as fat. d. directly altering the responses of the taste buds. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
131.
REF: Short- and Long-Term
What happens when insulin levels are high upon completing a meal? a. Fat supplies are converted to glucose which enters the blood. b. Glucose entry into the cells decreases. c. Blood glucose levels increase. d. The individual feels hungry again soon after the meal. ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
130.
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
What happens when blood levels of insulin are extremely low? a. Glucose leaves the blood to be stored as fat. b. Appetite is low. c. There is excess glucose in the blood, but it cannot enter the cells. d. The brain shifts to proteins as its main source of fuel. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
402
Chapter 1
REF: Short- and Long-Term
133.
Through what mechanism does insulin affect appetite? A It enables stored nutrients to enter the blood stream. B It enables glucose in the blood stream to enter the cells. C It converts other nutrients into glucose. D It converts glucose into other nutrients. ANS: B PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
134.
REF: Short- and Long-Term
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
For most obese individuals, giving them leptin would: A decrease appetite. B increase appetite. C increase sensitivity to leptin. D produce little effect. ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4 MSC: www
137.
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
Variations in insulin level alter hunger by changing the: a. rate of emptying by the stomach. b. availability of glucose to the cells. c. sensitivity of the taste buds. d. ability of CCK to cross the blood-brain barrier. ANS: B PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
136.
REF: Short- and Long-Term
Why do both high levels and very low levels of insulin lead to increased eating? a. Glucose leaves the blood to be stored as fat. b. Fat supplies are being rapidly converted to glucose. c. Little glucose is reaching the cells to be used as fuel. d. Activity of the taste buds is directly enhanced. ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
135.
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term KEY: NEW
Which of the following groups of people would most likely benefit from taking leptin? a. anorexic patients b. normal obese people c. obese people with faulty leptin receptors d. obese people who fail to produce leptin ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
403
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
The Major Issues
REF: Short- and Long-Term
138.
signals the brain about the body’s fat reserves, providing a long-term indicator of whether meals have been too large or too small. a. Renin b. Insulin c. Leptin d. Glucagon ANS: C PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
139.
REF: Short- and Long-Term
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Short- and Long-Term
High levels of leptin are associated with: a. decreased activity and eating. b. increased activity and eating. c. decreased activity and increased eating. d. increased activity and decreased eating. ANS: D PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
142.
DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
Leptin is produced by: a. the paraventricular nucleus. b. body fat. c. neuropeptide Y. d. orexin A. ANS: B PTS: 1 Regulation of Feeding OBJ: 4
141.
REF: Short- and Long-Term
Fat cells produce: a. CCK. b. insulin. c. neuropeptide Y. d. leptin. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 4 Regulation of Feeding
140.
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
Many kinds of information impinge onto two kinds of cells in one nucleus of the hypothalamus, which is regarded as the “master area” for control of appetite. That area is the: A suprachiasmatic nucleus. B sexually dimorphic nucleus. C solitary nucleus D arcuate nucleus ANS: D OBJ: 3
404
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual KEY: NEW
Chapter 1
REF: Brain Mechanisms
143.
144.
Rats with damage to the paraventricular nucleus (PVN) eat a. larger meals b. more frequent meals c. more if the food tastes good and less if it tastes bad d. smaller meals
compared to normal rats.
ANS: A OBJ: 3
REF: Brain Mechanisms
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Leptin directly activates receptors in the part of the hypothalamus known as the: a. paraventricular nucleus. b. ventromedial hypothalamus. c. arcuate nucleus. d. lateral preoptic area. ANS: C OBJ: 3
147.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
An increase in the size of meals is most likely to occur following damage to which area of the hypothalamus? a. Paraventricular b. Lateral c. Preoptic d. Ventromedial ANS: A OBJ: 3
146.
DIF: factual
Which area of the hypothalamus seems to be critical for the ending of meals? a. lateral hypothalamus b. ventromedial hypothalamus c. preoptic area d. paraventricular nucleus ANS: D OBJ: 3
145.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Which of the following would result in an increase in body weight? a. chronically low insulin levels b. damage to the paraventricular nucleus c. damage to the lateral hypothalamus d. stimulation of the ventromedial hypothalamus ANS: B OBJ: 3
405
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Brain Mechanisms
148.
Neurons in the arcuate nucleus would be most excited by: a. bitter food. b. tasty food. c. leptin. d. CCK. ANS: B OBJ: 3
149.
REF: Brain Mechanisms
DIF: factual
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
neurons in the
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
nucleus.
REF: Brain Mechanisms
In the control of appetite, CCK, leptin, and insulin converge their effects onto hypothalamic cells that release transmitters in the family. a. melanocortin b. endorphin c. acetylcholine d. purine ANS: A OBJ: 4
152.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
CCK, insulin, and leptin provide input to the a. satiety-sensitive, paraventricular b. satiety-sensitive, arcuate c. hunger-sensitive, arcuate d. hunger-sensitive, paraventricular ANS: B OBJ: 4
151.
DIF: factual
Ghrelin is associated with in the periphery and in the brain. a. CCK release, inhibition of the arcuate nucleus b. leptin release, inhibition of the arcuate nucleus c. stomach contractions, excitation of the arcuate nucleus d. stomach distension, excitation of the arcuate nucleus ANS: C OBJ: 4
150.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Hunger and satiety-sensitive neurons in the arcuate nucleus affect neurons in the affecting meal size. a. paraventricular nucleus b. lateral hypothalamus c. OVLT d. ventromedial hypothalamus ANS: A OBJ: 4
406
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
, thereby
REF: Brain Mechanisms
153.
A drug that stimulates melanocortin receptors would most likely: a. increase meal frequency. b. increase leptin production. c. decrease meal size. d. increase meal size. ANS: C OBJ: 4
154.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Brain Mechanisms
What is the result of inhibition of the paraventricular nucleus (PVN) by the transmitter neuropeptide Y? a. increased meal size b. decreased meal size c. finicky food selection d. cessation of drinking during meals ANS: A OBJ: 4
157.
REF: Brain Mechanisms
When neuropeptide Y inhibits the paraventricular nucleus, it: a. leads to extreme undereating. b. produces extreme overeating. c. depletes fat stores. d. interferes with digestion. ANS: B OBJ: 4
156.
DIF: factual
Inhibitory neurotransmitters used by the hunger-sensitive neurons of the arcuate nucleus that inhibit the PVN include: a. alpha-MSH and leptin. b. NPY and insulin. c. insulin and glucagon. d. NPY and AgRP. ANS: D OBJ: 4
155.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Under what condition does orexin motivate animals to eat? a. right after a meal b. when approaching starvation c. in the mornings d. when insulin levels are high ANS: B OBJ: 4
407
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Brain Mechanisms
158.
Which of the following would lead to eating a larger than normal meal? a. increasing leptin levels b. decreasing NPY levels c. increasing NPY levels d. damaging the lateral hypothalamus ANS: C OBJ: 4
159.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: conceptual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
An animal refuses food and loses weight after damage to which part of the hypothalamus? A suprachiasmatic nucleus B ventromedial hypothalamus C lateral hypothalamus D paraventricular nucleus. ANS: C OBJ: 4
162.
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Output from the paraventricular nucleus acts on the: a. preoptic area. b. ventromedial hypothalamus. c. lateral hypothalamus. d. baroreceptors. ANS: C OBJ: 4
161.
DIF: conceptual
One of the most promising hopes for appetite control drug researchers is the: a. melanocortin receptor. b. cortin receptor. c. melan receptor. d. agoutin receptor. ANS: A OBJ: 4
160.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual KEY: NEW
REF: Brain Mechanisms
After damage to the lateral hypothalamus, animals: a. show normal osmotic thirst but not hypovolemic thirst. b. show normal hypovolemic thirst but not osmotic thirst. c. eat less. d. eat more. ANS: C OBJ: 4
408
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Brain Mechanisms
163.
Electrical stimulation of a rat's lateral hypothalamus would most likely result in: a. an increase in food seeking behaviors. b. a decrease in food seeking behaviors. c. a decrease in chewing and other reflexes associated with eating. d. damage to dopamine-containing axons passing through it. ANS: A OBJ: 4
164.
as axons passing through are to
DIF: conceptual
.
REF: Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
The increases the pituitary gland’s secretion of hormones that increase insulin secretion. a. occipital cortex b. lateral hypothalamus c. medial part of the hypothalamus d. pineal gland ANS: B OBJ: 3
167.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Which of the following behaviors would be most affected by damage to the cell bodies of the lateral hypothalamus? a. feeding behavior b. sexual behavior c. osmotic thirst d. memory ANS: A OBJ: 3
166.
DIF: conceptual
In the lateral hypothalamus, cell bodies are to a. feeding; overall activity b. feeding; drinking c. overall arousal; feeding d. drinking; feeding ANS: A OBJ: 3
165.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
An animal has trouble digesting its food after damage to the: a. occipital cortex. b. lateral hypothalamus. c. medial part of the hypothalamus. d. pineal gland. ANS: B OBJ: 3
409
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Brain Mechanisms
168.
What is one reason why animals with a lesion in the lateral hypothalamus eat so little? a. They are constantly active and over-responsive to sensory stimuli. b. All the food they eat is immediately converted into fat storage. c. They experience a decreased cortical response to the smell and sight of food. d. They have low levels of blood sugar. ANS: C OBJ: 3
169.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
In what way is a rat with damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus similar to a starving animal? a. Both will eat a large amount of whatever food is available, regardless of its taste. b. Both empty food out of their stomachs at a rate that is slower than normal. c. Both have low levels of fuel available to its cells. d. Both go through long periods of refusing to eat. ANS: C OBJ: 3
172.
REF: Brain Mechanisms
After damage in and around the ventromedial hypothalamus, animals are more likely to: a. overeat and gain weight. b. refuse food and lose weight. c. produce low levels of the hormone CCK. d. be slow in their digestion. ANS: A OBJ: 3
171.
DIF: factual
An animal is most likely to eat more frequently and gain weight after damage to the: a. preoptic area. b. areas surrounding the third ventricle. c. ventromedial hypothalamus. d. lateral hypothalamus. ANS: C OBJ: 3
170.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: conceptual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Animals eat more frequent (but normal size) meals after damage to the (but at normal frequency) after damage to the . a. paraventricular nucleus, ventromedial hypothalamus b. ventromedial hypothalamus, paraventricular nucleus c. lateral hypothalamus, ventromedial hypothalamus d. paraventricular nucleus, lateral hypothalamus ANS: B OBJ: 3
410
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
. They eat larger meals
REF: Brain Mechanisms
173.
Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus leads to eating: a. the same, but drinking less than normal amounts. b. the same large amount each meal, regardless of the taste. c. less. d. normal-sized meals, but eating them more frequently. ANS: D OBJ: 3
174.
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
What is one reason why animals with damage in or near the ventromedial hypothalamus overeat? a. They have low levels of insulin. b. Their stomach emptying rate is slow compared to other animals. c. They have excessively high levels of the hormone CCK. d. They store too much of each meal as fat. ANS: D OBJ: 3
178.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
What are two reasons why animals with ventromedial hypothalamic damage overeat? a. rapid stomach emptying and high insulin levels b. high CCK levels and under-responsiveness to tastes c. decreased thirst and lack of facial muscle fatigue d. decreased body temperature and increased levels of digestive juices ANS: A OBJ: 3
177.
REF: Brain Mechanisms
After damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus, an animal will most likely: a. increase its activity level. b. eat much more at any given meal. c. overeat when presented with a sweetened diet. d. only undereat when presented with a very sweet food. ANS: C OBJ: 3
176.
DIF: factual
Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus leads to: a. eating the same amount; there are no changes. b. eating less. c. eating more when presented with a normal or sweetened diet. d. becoming less finicky about what they eat. ANS: C OBJ: 3
175.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Animals with damage in or near the ventromedial hypothalamus gain weight: a. even if they eat the same amount as a normal animal. b. in spite of high activity levels. c. only if they have access to unlimited water supplies. d. only if they eat a small number of very large meals per day. ANS: A OBJ: 3
411
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual MSC: www
The Major Issues
REF: Brain Mechanisms
179.
The increasing prevalence of obesity obviously relates to the increased availability of our diet and . a. depression b. psychological distress c. increased activity d. sedentary lifestyle ANS: D OBJ: 5
180.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Eating Disorders
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Eating Disorders
More Native American Pimas are overweight now than in the early 1900s because of a change in which aspect of their lives? A Diet B Stress C Exercise D Education ANS: A OBJ: 5
183.
REF: Eating Disorders
Obesity in Prader-Willi syndrome is linked to a problem with: a. melanocortin. b. ghrelin. c. NPY. d. leptin. ANS: B OBJ: 5
182.
DIF: conceptual
A Danish study correlating the weights of 540 adopted children with various adoptive and biological relatives found: a. a higher correlation with biological relatives than adoptive relatives. b. a higher correlation with adoptive siblings than with biological siblings. c. the same correlation with biological relatives and adoptive relatives. d. a higher correlation with biological relatives during childhood but a higher correlation with adoptive relatives in adulthood. ANS: A OBJ: 5
181.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: conceptual
REF: Eating Disorders
Fructose, used in corn syrup as a sweetener, may lead to increased obesity by: a. failing to trigger satiety. b. having more calories than other sugars. c. slowing fat digestion. d. enhancing PVN activity. ANS: A OBJ: 5
412
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Eating Disorders
184.
Orlistat (Xenical) can reduce body weight by: a. increasing CCK release. b. increasing stomach distention. c. blocking serotonin reuptake. d. preventing absorption of fats. ANS: D OBJ: 5
185.
serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.
DIF: factual
REF: Eating Disorders
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Eating Disorders
If someone with extreme obesity fails to respond to other treatments an option is part of the stomach is removed or sewed off so that food cannot enter. a. fen-phen b. sibutramine c. gastric bypass surgery d. orlistat ANS: C OBJ: 5
188.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Eating Disorders
Sibutramine affects weight gain by: a. stimulating dopamine release. b. inhibiting dopamine release. c. blocking reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. d. inhibiting serotonin and norepinephrine. ANS: C OBJ: 5
187.
DIF: factual
"Fen-Phen", an appetite suppressant drug, acts by a. stimulating release of b. blocking reuptake of c. blocking receptors for d. breaking down ANS: B OBJ: 5
186.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
The majority of people with are a. bulimia; men b. anorexia; middle-aged men c. bulimia; young women d. bulimia; middle-aged women ANS: C OBJ: 6
413
in which
DIF: factual KEY: NEW
REF: Eating Disorders
DIF: factual KEY: NEW
REF: Eating Disorders
.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
The Major Issues
189.
On average, people with bulimia show a variety of biochemical abnormalities, including increased production of . a. insulin b. ghrelin c. dopamine d. orlistat ANS: B OBJ: 5
190.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual MSC: www
REF: Eating Disorders
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 10.3 Hunger - Eating Disorders
REF: 312
Research on rats has demonstrated similarities between bulimia and: a. Parkinson's disease. b. drug addiction. c. bipolar disorder. d. epilepsy. ANS: B OBJ: 5
193.
REF: Eating Disorders
Abnormal levels of which neurotransmitter often have been found in bulimics? a. lower-than-normal levels of peptide YY b. lower-than-normal levels of CCK c. higher-than-normal levels of serotonin d. increased receptor sensitivity for serotonin ANS: B OBJ: 10
192.
DIF: conceptual
A cycle of food-deprivation following by overeating characterizes: a. anorexia. b. bulimia. c. bipolar disorder. d. obesity. ANS: B OBJ: 6
191.
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: factual
REF: Eating Disorders
What does the eating cycle of bulimia have in common with addictive drugs? a. Both activate the brain's reinforcement areas. b. Starvation decreases their cravings. c. Both can be relieved with morphine. d. There is nothing in common. ANS: A OBJ: 5
414
PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: conceptual
Chapter 1
REF: Eating Disorders
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe three mechanisms we have for increasing our body temperature. ANS: Find a warmer place. Put on more clothing. Fluff out your fur. Become more active. Shiver. Increase metabolism. Huddle or cuddle with others. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
REF: Controlling Body Temperature
OBJ: 1
2. Describe the different causes and mechanisms of osmotic thirst. ANS: Osmotic thirst is caused by an increased concentration of solutes in the extracellular fluid, either by increased salt intake, or water loss. Osmotic thirst is detected by neurons in the OVLT that cause increased release of vasopressin (which decreases urine output and raises blood pressure) and increased activity in the LPO to initiate drinking, preferably of pure water. PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: conceptual KEY: NEW
REF: Osmotic ThirstOBJ: 2
3. Describe the different causes and mechanisms of hypovolemic thirst. ANS: Hypovolemic thirst is caused by low blood volume. The kidneys release renin, which initiates the process of converting angiotensin into angiotensin II. Angiotensin II stimulates the OVLT and SFO to induce drinking. Aldosterone released by the adrenal glands and angiotensin II alter taste preference for sodium. The end result is restoring both water and salt. PTS: 1 Hunger
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 2
REF: Hypovolemic Thirst and Sodium-Specific TOP: 10.2 Thirst
4. How does cholecystokinin limit meal size? ANS: It constricts the sphincter muscle between the stomach and duodenum, causing the stomach to hold its contents and fill more quickly than usual. It also stimulates the vagus nerve to send signals to the hypothalamus, causing cells there to release a neurotransmitter that is a shorter version of the cholecystokinin molecule itself. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
415
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: The Stomach and Intestines KEY: NEW
The Major Issues
5. Briefly describe the function of the lateral hypothalamus. ANS: The lateral hypothalamus controls insulin secretion, alters taste responsiveness, and facilitates feeding in other ways. PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: conceptual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
OBJ:
3
ESSAY 1. Describe the brain mechanisms involved in shivering, sweating, and changes in blood flow to the skin. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Controlling Body Temperature TOP: 10.1 Temperature Regulation
2. Describe the different causes and mechanisms of osmotic and hypovolemic thirst. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: 10.2 Thirst
DIF: conceptual MSC: www
REF: Osmotic ThirstOBJ: 1
3. Describe how the digestive system influences food selection. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual TOP: 10.3 Hunger
REF: Digestion and Food Selection
4. Describe the major brain mechanisms of eating and hunger. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
416
DIF: conceptual
REF: Brain Mechanisms
Chapter 1
OBJ:
3
5. Describe how bulimia nervosa resembles drug addiction. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: 10.3 Hunger
DIF: conceptual MSC: www
REF: Eating Disorders
OBJ:
6
Chapter 11: Reproductive Behaviors TRUE/FALSE 1. The sex hormones include the estrogens, progesterone, and the androgens. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
2. Hormones are capable of inducing long-lasting changes throughout the body. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction MSC: www
3. Estrogens are present only in females. ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
4. Progesterone prepares the uterus for the implantation of a fertilized ovum and promotes the maintenance of pregnancy. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
5. Organizing effects of hormones usually occur early in development. ANS: T Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
6. Activating effects can occur at any time in life when a hormone temporarily activates a particular response. ANS: T Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
7. Estrogen production by the ovary causes the male Wolffian system to degenerate in females. ANS: F OBJ: 1
417
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
The Major Issues
REF: Introduction
8. Nature's "default setting" is to make every mammal a female in its external anatomy. ANS: T Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
9. Estradiol does not contribute to female development. ANS: F Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
10. The sexually dimorphic nucleus is larger in females than males. ANS: F Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
11. In humans, testosterone produces its organizing effects on the hypothalamus by itself. ANS: T Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
12. During the early sensitive period, immature mammals have a protein called alpha-fetoprotein, which is also present in adults. ANS: F Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
13. Stimulation of the medial preoptic area increases sexual activity in rodents. ANS: T Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
14. Testosterone levels continue to increase throughout a human male's lifetime. ANS: F Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
15. Drugs that reduce testosterone levels in males will most likely reduce their sexual behavior. ANS: T Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
16. High levels of estrogen and progesterone will prevent ovulation. ANS: T Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
17. The changes in estrogen levels just before menstruation are the cause of PMS.
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Chapter 1
ANS: F Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
18. Birth-control pills prevent pregnancy by interfering with the usual feedback cycle between the ovaries and the pituitary. ANS: T Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
19. Hormones produced by the ovaries are required for proper maternal behavior in rats. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Parental Behavior
20. In general, men are more jealous of sexual infidelity than women. ANS: T PTS: 1 Interpretations of Mating Behavior Behavior MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Evolutionary TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
21. Girls with CAH are more likely to participate in “tomboyish” activities. ANS: T PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behaviors Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
22. Androgen insensitivity syndrome leads to a genetic male with a female external appearance of the genitals. ANS: T PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behaviors Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
23. There are obvious differences in external anatomy of homosexual humans compared to heterosexual humans. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation MSC: www
24. The difference in the size of the INAH3 in homosexual and heterosexual men is mainly because of a difference in the number of neurons. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
25. Brains of male homosexuals are completely identical to brains of female heterosexuals. ANS: F OBJ: 3
419
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
The Major Issues
REF: Sexual Orientation
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Although harmful in excessive amounts, the synthesis of steroids depends on: a. heavy metals. b. cholesterol. c. ethanol. d. insulin. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction MSC: www
2. Two major classes of sex hormones are: a. luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone. b. dopamine and serotonin. c. steroids and thyroid hormones. d. androgens and estrogens. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction MSC: www
3. Steroid hormones produce their effects by: a. disrupting cell membranes. b. opening ion channels. c. increasing cholesterol levels. d. entering cells and affecting gene expression. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
4. Which of the following is true of androgens and estrogens? a. Only males have androgens. b. Both sexes have both types of hormones. c. They are produced by the pituitary. d. They have opposite effects in males and females. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
5. "Male hormones" are referred to as: a. activating hormones. b. SRY. c. androgens. d. estrogens. ANS: C
420
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Introduction
OBJ: 1
TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
6. "Female hormones" are referred to as: a. activating hormones. b. SRY. c. androgens. d. estrogens. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
7. Which hormone(s) is/are likely to be found more abundantly in females than in males? a. Peptide hormones b. Androgens c. Progesterone d. Estrogens ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
8. Which hormone(s) is/are likely to be found more abundantly in males than in females? a. Peptide hormones b. Androgens c. Progesterone d. Estrogens ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
9. Which is true of androgens and estrogens? a. Only males have androgens; only females have estrogens. b. Only males have estrogens; only females have androgens. c. Males and females have androgens and estrogens in similar amounts. d. Males and females both have androgens and estrogens, but in different amounts. ANS: D OBJ: 1 10. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
prepares the uterus for pregnancy. Testosterone Androgen Progesterone Estradiol
ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
11. The hormone that prepares the uterus for pregnancy is: a. testosterone. b. androgen. c. progesterone. d. estradiol.
421
The Major Issues
REF: Introduction
ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
12. All of the following hormones affect the brain and the genitals EXCEPT: a. testosterone. b. androgen. c. aromatase. d. estradiol. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
13. Some differences in males and females depend directly on control by the hormones. a. X chromosome b. Y chromosome c. X and Y chromosomes d. hormones ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
independently of
REF: Introduction KEY: NEW
14. Genes on the produce(s) sex differences in addition to those that we can trace to androgens and estrogens. a. Y chromosome b. X chromosome c. hormones d. X and Y chromosomes ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction KEY: NEW
15. When do the organizing effects of sex hormones occur in humans? a. well before birth b. shortly before and after birth c. during childhood d. during adolescence ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
16. When do the organizing effects of sex hormones occur in rats? a. well before birth b. shortly before and after birth c. during their juvenile period d. at approximately two months of age ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
17. In general, when do hormones produce "organizing effects"? a. whenever the levels of some other hormone have decreased b. during early stages in development
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c. during adulthood d. temporarily at any time in life ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
18. An organizing effect differs from an activating effect of a hormone in that an organizing effect: a. inhibits the effects of another hormone. b. lasts only briefly. c. activates excitatory receptors. d. produces more long-lasting effects. ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
19. Which of the following is most likely an example of the organizing effects of sex hormones? a. increased heart rate during exercise b. determination of genetic sex c. masculinization of the brain d. nest building ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
20. In comparison to activating effects, organizing effects of hormones take place: a. later in life and produce more long-lasting effects. b. later in life and produce more temporary effects. c. earlier in life and produce more long-lasting effects. d. earlier in life and produce more temporary effects. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
21. Which of the following depends on an organizing effect of hormones? a. whether an organism develops as male or female b. the degree of sexual activity at any time c. the timing of migration or hibernation d. current metabolic rate ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of Sex Hormones OBJ: 2 TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones 22. One important difference between organizing effects and activating effects of hormones is that activating effects: a. are shorter-term. b. take place mostly during an early sensitive period. c. cause the pituitary gland to release another hormone. d. control only the peripheral nervous system. ANS: A Sex Hormones
423
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
The Major Issues
23. Sexual differentiation begins with: a. Wolffian ducts b. chromosomes c. Müllerian ducts d. Hormones ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of Sex Hormones OBJ: 2 TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones 24. Which of the following is unique to genetic males early in development? a. Wolffian ducts b. primitive gonads c. Müllerian ducts d. Müllerian inhibiting hormone ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
25. Müllerian ducts are found in: a. genetic female fetuses only. b. genetic male fetuses only. c. female and male fetuses early in development. d. female and male fetuses until shortly before birth. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
26. Wolffian ducts are found in: a. genetic female fetuses only. b. genetic male fetuses only. c. female and male fetuses early in development. d. female and male fetuses until shortly before birth. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction MSC: www
27. What causes the primitive gonads to develop into masculine structures? a. the X chromosome b. the sex region Y (SRY) gene c. the sexually dimorphic nucleus d. Müllerian inhibiting hormone ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
28. What develops from the Wolffian ducts? a. the bladder and urethra b. peripheral nerves controlling the genitals c. female reproductive structures d. male reproductive structures ANS: D OBJ: 2
424
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
Chapter 1
REF: Introduction
29. What determines whether a mammal develops male or female external genitals? a. the amount of testosterone during prenatal development b. the amount of estrogens during prenatal development c. the difference (subtraction) between testosterone and estrogen levels in prenatal development d. the ratio (division) between testosterone and estrogen levels in prenatal development ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW
30. What develops from the Müllerian ducts? a. the bladder and urethra b. peripheral nerves controlling the genitals c. female reproductive structures d. male reproductive structures ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Introduction
31. The result of all the testosterone-induced changes during sexual differentiation is: a. the bladder and urethra b. peripheral nerves controlling the genitals c. female reproductive structures d. male reproductive structures ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
32. Genitals for males and females develop from ; internal reproductive structures develop from . a. a single unisex structure; separate structures b. separate structures; a single unisex structure c. a single unisex structure; a single unisex structure d. separate structures; separate structures ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
33. What would cause a genetic female mammal to develop an anatomical appearance resembling a male's? a. a lack of estradiol b. moderate levels of estradiol during an early stage of development c. a high level of testosterone during an early stage of development d. a high level of testosterone during the late part of puberty ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
34. Why is it impossible for an individual to develop a complete, normal set of external female genitalia AND a complete, normal set of external male genitalia? a. An individual has either estradiol or testosterone, but not both.
425
The Major Issues
b. Both types of external genitalia develop from the same fetal structure. c. Development of the external genitalia is not influenced by early hormonal levels. d. The female genitals reach maturity earlier than the male genitals. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
35. How does the development of external genitalia differ from the development of the internal reproductive structures? a. Reproductive structures are influenced by hormone levels; genitals are not. b. Reproductive structures for males and females develop from a single unisex structure; genitals develop from separate Wolffian and Müllerian structures. c. Genitals for males and females develop from a single unisex structure; reproductive structures develop from separate Wolffian and Müllerian structures. d. Genital development is controlled by estrogen; the reproductive structures are controlled by androgen. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
36. A sensitive period is: a. any time in an organism's life when it is sensitive to hormones released by the sexually dimorphic nucleus. b. an early period when a hormone has a long lasting effect. c. an early period when a hormone has an intense, but brief, effect. d. a period of time, usually once a month, when hormones are released. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
37. The sensitive period for human genital formation is approximately: a. the first three weeks of gestation. b. the third and fourth months of gestation. c. the last trimester of gestation. d. shortly after birth. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
38. During an early sensitive period, a mammal is exposed to only low levels of both androgens (such as testosterone) and estrogens (such as estradiol). How will its external genital anatomy appear? a. about like that of a normal male b. intermediate between male and female c. about like that of a normal female d. either, depending on the presence or absence of a Y chromosome ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW
39. During an early sensitive period, a mammal is exposed to high levels of both androgens (such as testosterone) and estrogens (such as estradiol). How will its external genital anatomy appear? a. about like that of a normal male
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b. intermediate between male and female c. about like that of a normal female d. either, depending on the presence or absence of a Y chromosome ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW
40. If a female rat is injected with testosterone during the last few days before being born or the first few days afterward, at maturity her: a. pituitary and ovaries will not produce their hormones. b. ovaries will no longer produce hormones, although her pituitary will. c. pituitary and ovaries will produce steady levels of hormones instead of cyclic levels of hormones. d. pituitary and ovaries will produce cyclic levels of hormones instead of steady levels. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
41. Genetic males with testicular feminization (androgen insensitivity) develop looking and acting female. This condition develops because of a genetic mutation that has which effect? a. It decreases the production of cortisol. b. It prevents the production of testosterone. c. It causes a conversion of testosterone into estradiol within certain cells. d. It prevents testosterone from having its usual effects. ANS: D Gender KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
42. What would cause a young mammal's external genitals to have an appearance intermediate between a male and a female? a. normal levels of estrogen in a genetic female b. high levels of both testosterone and estrogen in a genetic male c. more testosterone than other females in a genetic female d. extra estrogen production in a genetic male ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
43. What would cause a male mammal to develop an anatomy that looks like a female's? a. a deficit of testosterone during puberty b. a deficit of testosterone during an early stage of development c. exposure to a high level of estradiol during puberty d. exposure to a high level of estradiol during an early stage of development ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
44. What would cause a mammal to develop the anatomy of a male, regardless of its chromosomes? a. exposure to high levels of testosterone during an early stage of development b. deprivation of estradiol during an early stage of development c. exposure to neither testosterone nor estradiol during an early stage of development
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d. an infusion of testosterone at puberty ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
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45. Alcohol, marijuana, and haloperidol tend to have a(n) a. aromatic b. defeminizing c. masculinizing d. demasculinizing ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
effect on prenatal sexual development.
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
46. The overall mechanism of early sexual differentiation has been described by saying that nature’s “default setting” is to make every mammal: a. male. b. female. c. intermediate between male and female. d. fully both male and female. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
47. Nature's "default setting" is to make every mammal's external anatomy: a. male. b. female. c. intermediate between male and female. d. fully both male and female. ANS: B Sex Hormones 48. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
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contributes to female development, including some aspects of brain differentiation. Testosterone Estradiol Androgen Estrogen
ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
49. If you inject a male rat with estrogen shortly after birth, it will: a. still develop into a male. b. still develop into a male, but will act very much like a female. c. develop into something intermediate between female and male. d. develop into a female. ANS: A Sex Hormones
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Chapter 1
50. The sexually dimorphic nucleus is located in the: a. thalamus. b. Wolffian ducts. c. anterior hypothalamus. d. male brain, only. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
51. The sexually dimorphic nucleus is part of the: a. thalamus. b. Wolffian ducts. c. anterior hypothalamus. d. male brain, only. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
52. The difference between males and females in the sexually dimorphic nucleus is that it is: a. larger in males than in females. b. larger in females than in males. c. present in males, absent in females. d. present in females, absent in males. ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
53. What anatomical difference, other than sex organs, is reliably seen between males and females, even at an early age? a. complexity of the cerebral cortex b. size of the pituitary c. organization of the brain stem d. size of parts of the hypothalamus ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
54. Parts of the hypothalamus can generate a cyclic pattern of hormone release in: a. females only. b. males only. c. females and males. d. females during childhood and males during adolescence. ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
55. If you expose a female to testosterone early in life, it will cause her hypothalamus to: a. decrease in size. b. develop a cyclic pattern of hormone release. c. develop more like a typical male hypothalamus (noncyclic). d. become inactive.
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ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
56. Because of the effects of hormones during early development, the female hypothalamus, UNLIKE the male hypothalamus, is capable of: a. producing and releasing both leptin and insulin. b. controlling cycles of release of hormones by the gonads. c. suppressing the release of stress hormones by the adrenal glands. d. increasing the release of melatonin by the pineal gland. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
57. According to rodent studies, testosterone exerts a major part of its effect on: a. alpha-fetoprotein. b. the sex region Y gene. c. the thalamus. d. the hypothalamus. ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
58. In rodents, testosterone is converted to a. cortisol b. androgen c. progesterone d. estradiol ANS: D Sex Hormones 59. The process of a. aromatization b. transmutation c. methylation d. alchemy ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www in the hypothalamus.
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
changes testosterone into estradiol.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
61. The following are true about drugs that prevent testosterone from being aromatized to estradiol EXCEPT that? a. they block some of the organizing effects of testosterone. b. they impair male sexual behavior. c. they block some of the activating effects of testosterone. d. they impair male fertility. ANS: C Sex Hormones
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Chapter 1
62. In rodent brain cells, is aromatized into a. steroid; peptide b. peptide; steroid c. testosterone; estradiol d. estradiol; testosterone ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
.
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
63. Before testosterone can masculinize the development of the hypothalamus of an infant mammal, it must first be converted into: a. estradiol. b. epinephrine. c. ACTH. d. dopamine. ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
64. Drugs which prevent testosterone from being aromatized to estradiol will: a. increase the organizing effects of testosterone on sexual development of the brain. b. block the organizing effects of testosterone on sexual development of the brain. c. increase heart rate and blood pressure. d. decrease heart rate and blood pressure. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
65. Estradiol normally found in the bloodstream of a female rat fetus neither masculinizes nor feminizes its development because it is: a. chemically converted to testosterone. b. bound to alpha-fetoprotein. c. dissolved in the fat supplies of the fetus. d. not effective on cells even if it did enter them. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
66. The estradiol normally found in the bloodstream of a female rat fetus neither masculinizes nor feminizes its development because it: a. is chemically converted to testosterone. b. is prevented from entering the developing cells. c. is chemically unstable at the body temperature of a fetus. d. would have no effect on cells even if it did enter them. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
67. During the early sensitive period, immature mammals have a protein called present in adults. a. gamma-fetoprotein
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, which is not
b. delta-fetoprotein c. beta-fetoprotein d. alpha-fetoprotein ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
68. If a female rat fetus developed without any alpha-fetoprotein, her hypothalamus would: a. fail to develop beyond its early, immature state. b. develop like that of a normal female. c. develop in an exaggerated female manner. d. develop in a partly masculinized manner. ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
69. One function served by alpha-fetoprotein in the developing rat fetus is to: a. prevent estradiol from entering cells. b. help estradiol to cross the blood-brain barrier. c. help testosterone to cross the blood-brain barrier. d. prevent either testosterone or estradiol from being converted into aromatase. ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
70. An injection of testosterone in a castrated male rat: a. has no effect. b. elicits typical female sexual behavior. c. restores male sexual behavior. d. diminishes male sexual behavior. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
71. The most effective way to stimulate sexual behavior in a female rodent is to inject her with: a. prolactin followed by estradiol. b. progesterone following by parathyroid hormone. c. alpha fetoprotein followed by cholecystokinin. d. a combination of estradiol and progesterone. ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Organizing Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
72. One way that estrogen increases sexual responsiveness is by: a. synchronizing activity between the hypothalamus of the left and right hemispheres. b. suppressing the release of competing hormones such as testosterone. c. decreasing the rate of overall body activity. d. increasing the sensitivity of nerves in the pubic area. ANS: D Sex Hormones
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Chapter 1
73. Male sexual behavior depends heavily on neurons in the medial preoptic area of the hypothalamus releasing which substance? a. testosterone b. dopamine c. estrogen d. luteinizing hormone ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
74. Neurons in the medial preoptic area of the hypothalamus release behavior. a. testosterone b. dopamine c. estrogen d. luteinizing hormone ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
,which impacts male sexual
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
75. In normal male rats, the medial preoptic area neurons strongly release which of the following during sexual activity? a. dopamine b. testosterone c. glutamate d. estradiol ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
76. Damage to the medial preoptic area of the hypothalamus in rats would most likely result in: a. decreased sexual activity. b. increased sexual activity. c. a change in partner preference. d. excessive testosterone levels. ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
77. In castrated male rats, the medial preoptic area: a. does not have as much dopamine as other rats. b. has normal levels of dopamine released in the presence of a receptive female. c. has as much dopamine as normal rats, but the presence of a receptive female does not evoke much release of it. d. releases the same level of dopamine, but not testosterone, as a normal rat. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
78. In normal female rats, release of dopamine in the medial preoptic area activity is primed by: a. serotonin. b. testosterone.
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c. a combination of testosterone and estrogen. d. estradiol. ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
79. Dopamine stimulation of D2 receptors facilitates: a. arousal. b. orgasm. c. erection of the penis. d. sexually receptive postures in the female. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
80. Sexual behavior is most likely to occur when sex hormones (testosterone and estradiol) prime the neurons in the hypothalamus to release the neurotransmitter: a. serotonin. b. norepinephrine. c. dopamine. d. acetylcholine. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
81. Both sexual arousal and orgasm depend on the release of which neurotransmitter from the
medial preoptic area neurons? A GABA B Serotonin C Acetylcholine D Dopamine ANS: D Sex Hormones KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
82. Whereas dopamine stimulates sexual activity, the neurotransmitter blocking dopamine release. a. testosterone b. estrogen c. serotonin d. estradiol ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW
83. Female rats find sex reinforcing only if they: a. are submissive b. get to decide when it occurs c. let the male take the lead
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Chapter 1
d. are placed in a controlled setting ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW
84. By blocking dopamine release, some antidepressant drugs that increase serotonin levels also: a. increase sexual activity. b. decrease sexual activity. c. cause permanent organizational defects. d. shrink the SDN. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
85. A female rat is more likely to develop a preference for a cage where sexual activity with a male rat occurs if: a. the male is castrated. b. pheromones are present. c. she is given testosterone. d. she can control the timing of sexual activity. ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
86. Estrogens directly stimulate parts of the prefrontal cortex that are important for: a. sexual behavior b. working memory c. blood circulation d. critical thinking ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW
87. What hormone more than triples in concentration in the blood of human males during orgasm, and has been tentatively linked to sexual pleasure? a. insulin b. aldosterone c. melatonin d. oxytocin ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
88. Sildenafil (Viagra) works by: a. increasing sensitivity to female's pheromones. b. increasing release of nitric oxide in the hypothalamus and penis. c. decreasing dopamine release in the hypothalamus. d. blocking pain receptors in the spinal cord. ANS: B
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The Major Issues
REF: Activating Effects of
Sex Hormones
OBJ: 3
TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
MSC: www
89. Viagra facilitates sexual arousal in males by: a. increasing sexual fantasies. b. blocking dopamine receptors. c. prolonging the effects of nitric oxide. d. increasing testosterone levels. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
90. A means of controlling sex offenders has involved reducing: a. testosterone levels. b. estrogen levels. c. prolactin. d. the alpha-fetoprotein level in their blood. ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
91. Drugs that, in some cases, have reduced the frequency of sexual offenders work by: a. reducing testosterone levels. b. increasing estrogen levels. c. inducing high but equal levels of testosterone and estrogen. d. mimicking the effects of alpha-fetoprotein. ANS: A Sex Hormones 92. Decreases in a. estrogen b. oxytocin c. testosterone d. estradiol ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
levels generally decrease male sexual activity.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
93. The relationship between a. Estrogen b. Oxytocin c. Testosterone d. Estradiol ANS: C Sex Hormones
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW and sexual interest may go in both directions.
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW
94. When women think about sex or anticipate having sex, their a. estradiol b. estrogen c. testosterone d. oxytocin
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levels increase temporarily.
ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones KEY: NEW
95. A woman's hypothalamus and pituitary interact with the a. pineal gland b. ovaries c. thyroid d. adrenal glands ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
to produce the menstrual cycle.
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
96. In women, which hormone stimulates the growth of a follicle in the ovary? a. FSH b. ACTH c. TSH d. prolactin ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
97. Follicle-stimulating hormone is released by the: a. pineal gland. b. anterior pituitary. c. thyroid. d. ovum. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
98. Toward the middle of the menstrual cycle, the follicle produces increasing amounts of: a. TSH. b. ACTH. c. testosterone. d. estradiol. ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
99. In the middle of the menstrual cycle, an increased release of estradiol causes a(n): a. decrease in the release of FSH. b. decrease in the release of LH. c. sudden surge in the release of luteinizing hormone. d. increase in the release of testosterone. ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
100. The hormones LH, FSH, and estradiol reach a peak: a. in the first month of pregnancy. b. at the start of the menstrual period. c. at the end of the menstrual period. d. around the time of ovulation.
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ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
101. During the menstrual cycle, estradiol and progesterone levels increase and decrease under the influence of hormones released by which gland? a. pineal b. adrenal c. thyroid d. pituitary ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
102. At the end of the menstrual cycle in women, the levels of LH and FSH and progesterone . a. decrease; increase b. increase; decrease c. increase; increase d. decrease; decrease ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
; the levels of estradiol
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
103. Pregnant women often experience nausea because of the heightened activity of the a. serotonin 3 b. progesterone c. estradiol d. dopamine 2 ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
receptor.
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
104. The most widely used and most effective birth control pill is one that contains which hormone(s)? a. luteinizing hormone b. androgen, but not estrogen c. both estrogen and androgen d. both estrogen and progesterone ANS: D Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
105. Birth control pills prevent pregnancy by: a. increasing the release of estrogen. b. increasing the release of FSH. c. interfering with the feedback cycle between the ovaries and the pituitary. d. inactivating both ovaries. ANS: C Sex Hormones
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Chapter 1
106. Women are more likely to initiate sexual activity when: a. testosterone levels are low. b. estrogen levels are low. c. estrogen levels are high. d. estrogen levels are intermediate. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of Sex Hormones OBJ: 4 TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones 107. At what point in the menstrual cycle, if any, are women who are not on birth-control pills most likely to initiate sexual activity? a. at any point in the menstrual cycle b. just after the end of menstruation c. about midway between two menstrual periods d. just before the next menstrual period ANS: C Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
108. Which of the following time points would women most likely initiate sexual activity? a. periovulatory period b. luteal phase c. menstruation d. when they stop taking contraceptives ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
109. In one study, women in the follicular phase, when the probability of becoming pregnant is greatest, preferred male faces that were: a. more masculine in appearance. b. somewhat feminine. c. about halfway between feminized and masculinized. d. larger than normal. ANS: A Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
110. People typically experience a state of complete relaxation shortly after orgasm; this occurs due to the release of: a. testosterone. b. oxytocin. c. prolactin. d. progesterone. ANS: B Sex Hormones
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
111. Many female mammals become very attentive after delivering their babies largely because of a sudden: a. drop in testosterone levels. b. surge of prolactin and oxytocin.
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c. decrease of prolactin and increase of oxytocin. d. increase of prolactin and decrease of oxytocin. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
112. Unlike male prairie voles, male meadow voles show which he has just mated. a. increased b. Decreased c. No d. Alternating ANS: C OBJ: 5
REF: Parental Behavior MSC: www
preference to sitting near a female with
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Parental Behavior
113. Male meadow voles can be genetically altered to remain with a female he mated with by increasing levels. a. vasopressin b. renin c. testosterone d. estradiol ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Parental Behavior
114. If a never pregnant female rat is left for 5-10 days with a litter of babies, she will: a. most likely kill them. b. initially ignore them, but eventually will become more attentive. c. initially be attentive, but eventually will ignore them. d. immediately respond to them as though she gave birth to them. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Parental Behavior
115. Hormones are most essential to which aspect of mammalian parental behavior? a. care for newborns during the first few days b. continuation of care after the first few days c. the parental care sometimes shown by males d. all aspects equally ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
116. The first few days of rat parental care are to a. experience; hormones b. hormones; experience c. females; males d. males; females ANS: B OBJ: 5
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as later days are to
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
Chapter 1
.
REF: Parental Behavior
117. Pheromones of newborn rats: a. inhibit maternal behavior. b. stimulate maternal behaviors directly. c. stimulate the release of hormones that affect maternal behaviors. d. stimulate paternal behaviors, but not maternal behaviors. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
118. Research suggests that a. vasopressin b. progesterone c. oxytocin d. estradiol ANS: C OBJ: 5
REF: Parental Behavior
levels correlate with several aspects of motherly attention to an infant.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Parental Behavior
119. One objection to the use of the one-mate strategy in women is that: a. in some cases, having multiple sex partners can result in more offspring. b. women are more jealous than men. c. women can't be sure that their mate is the father. d. there are no men who share this strategy. ANS: A PTS: 1 Interpretations of Mating Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Evolutionary TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
120. Which of the following tends to be more important for women than men in choosing a mate? a. health b. earning potential c. physical attractiveness d. Intelligence ANS: B PTS: 1 Interpretations of Mating Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Evolutionary TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
121. Which of the following mate-selection preferences is stronger for men than for women? a. acceptable odor b. likelihood of being a good provider c. youthfulness d. intelligence ANS: C PTS: 1 Interpretations of Mating Behavior Behavior
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The Major Issues
REF: Evolutionary TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
122. In hypothetical situations, women are more upset than men by a. genetic b. cultural c. emotional d. sexual ANS: C PTS: 1 Interpretations of Mating Behavior Behavior 123. In real life situations, men are upset a. more than b. less than c. about the same as ANS: C PTS: 1 Interpretations of Mating Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
infidelity.
REF: Evolutionary TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
women by emotional infidelity.
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Evolutionary TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
124. At this point, the conclusions of studies on the evolutionary interpretations of mating behavior suggest that these behaviors are: a. primarily inherited. b. primarily learned from cultural influence. c. used to justify our behaviors. d. lacking the scientific studies to allow us to draw a conclusion about them. ANS: D PTS: 1 Interpretations of Mating Behavior Behavior
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 1
REF: Evolutionary TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
125. What does a coral goby fish do if its mate dies after eggs have been laid? a. A male will abandon the eggs and find a new mate. b. A female will care for her young and then die. c. Either sex will care for the eggs and, if necessary, change sex to form a new mating pair. d. Either sex will abandon the eggs to find a new mate. ANS: C PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
126. Gender identity can be defined as: a. the pattern of sex chromosomes one has. b. the sex one identifies with and calls oneself. c. sexual awareness present in almost all mammalian species. d. the set of activities presumed to be common for one sex or another in a society. ANS: B PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
442
Chapter 1
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
127. Sex differences are to a. anatomy; behaviors b. adults; children c. excitation; inhibition d. scientists; the public
as gender differences are to
ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
.
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
128. Some XX females have either an ovary and a testis, or two testes, or a mixture of testis and ovary tissue on each side as a result of: a. a translocated SRY gene. b. low body temperature during prenatal development. c. too much testosterone. d. too much estrogen. ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
129. Some XY males have poorly developed genitals as a result of: a. a mutation in the SRY gene. b. low body temperature during prenatal development. c. too much testosterone. d. too much estrogen. ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
130. What would cause a genetic female to develop a partly masculinized anatomy? a. excessive levels of alpha-fetoprotein in her blood b. exposure of her mother to stressful experiences late in pregnancy c. exposure to less than the usual amount of estrogen during an early sensitive period d. exposure to more than the usual amount of testosterone during an early sensitive period ANS: D PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: 331 OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
131. Some genetic males (XY) develop a female anatomy. Why?
A High levels of estrogens during prenatal development B Lack of a receptor that enables testosterone to affect cells C Low levels of alpha feto-protein in early development D High levels of alpha feto-protein in early development ANS: B PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior KEY: NEW
443
DIF: 331 OBJ: 2
The Major Issues
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
132. What happens to a female human fetus exposed to excess testosterone during the sensitive period for genital development? a. She is unaffected, since she has no receptors for testosterone. b. She will often develop without any sexual organs. c. She will often develop with genitals that have an intermediate appearance. d. She will often develop a complete, functioning, set of male reproductive organs. ANS: C PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
133. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia would most likely have the greatest effect on the sexual appearance of: a. young males. b. adult males. c. adult females. d. newborn females. ANS: D PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
134. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) occurs because the adrenal gland releases:
A too much cortisol B too little cortisol C too little estrogen D too much insulin ANS: B PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 2 MSC: www
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
135. Congenital adrenal hypertrophy is most likely to have which of these effects?
A Genetic male develops looking partly feminized. B Genetic male develops a homosexual orientation. C Genetic female develops looking partly masculinized. D Genetic female develops excessive appetite. ANS: C PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
136. In congenital adrenal hypertrophy, the hypothalamus directs the pituitary to increase
production of a hormone that in turn causes the adrenal gland to: A decrease production of cortisol B decrease production of insulin C increase production of testosterone D increase production of alpha feto-protein
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Chapter 1
ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
137. A hermaphrodite is an individual: a. who dresses and lives as the opposite sex. b. whose genitals do not match the usual development for their genetic sex. c. with no sex drive. d. with too much testosterone. ANS: B PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
138. People whose sexual development is intermediate or ambiguous are called: a. intersexes. b. hermaphrodites. c. hyperplasias. d. hermasexses. ANS: B PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
139. Which of the following would probably develop as an intersex? a. a genetic female exposed to more testosterone than normal during early development b. a genetic male exposed to more estradiol than normal during early development c. a genetic female deprived of her normal amount of estradiol during early development d. a genetic male exposed to a larger than normal amount of testosterone during early development ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
140. Congenital adrenal hypertrophy, the most common cause of the intersex condition, occurs
when the adrenal gland releases than average levels of the hormone cortisol, causing the hypothalamus and pituitary to release than average levels of ACTH. A more; more B more; less C less; more D less; less ANS: B PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior MSC: www
445
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
The Major Issues
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
141. A "true hermaphrodite" is someone who: a. has both XX and XY chromosome patterns. b. has one testis and one ovary. c. is female, but has sexual interest only in other females. d. dresses up as the opposite gender. ANS: B PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
142. Girls who are exposed to higher than normal androgen levels during prenatal development tend to: a. choose more typically masculine toys to play with. b. be more aggressive. c. be more verbal. d. develop lower than normal intelligence. ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
143. In comparison to other girls, girls who are exposed to higher than normal androgen levels during prenatal development tend to: a. spend more time with boys’ toys. b. develop sex urges at an earlier age. c. be more verbal. d. develop lower than normal intelligence. ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
144. Girls who were exposed to higher-than-average levels of testosterone during prenatal development tend to show the following difference as compared to other girls: a. greater interest in playing with boys’ toys. b. lower performance on tests of spatial relationships. c. greater interest in infants. d. increased preference for spicy foods. ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
145. Which of the following would cause a genetic male to develop a mostly feminine anatomy? a. exposure to more than the usual amount of estrogen during an early sensitive period b. exposure to more than the usual amount of testosterone during an early sensitive period c. a condition that prevents androgens from exerting their effects d. excessive levels of alpha-fetoprotein in his blood ANS: C PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
446
Chapter 1
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
146. Someone with androgen insensitivity is genetically: a. female, but looks intermediate between male and female. b. female, but fails to show any changes at puberty. c. male, looks like a normal male, but behaves more like a female. d. male, but develops looking more like a female. ANS: D PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
147. Certain individuals with an XY chromosome pattern have the genital appearance of a female. This condition is known as: a. androgen insensitivity. b. cortisol insensitivity. c. intersex. d. adrenal hyperplasia. ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
148. A genetic male who has low levels of testosterone or low responsiveness to it: a. will develop normally. b. is predisposed to become a sex offender. c. may develop characteristics that are intermediate between a female and a male. d. will have a nonfunctional SRY gene. ANS: C PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
149. Someone with testicular feminization: a. does not produce enough testosterone. b. produces too much estrogen. c. has cells which are insensitive to androgens. d. looks like a male but is infertile. ANS: C PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behavior
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
150. In what way are people with androgen insensitivity most like a normal male? a. in appearance b. genetically c. in gender identity d. in rearing ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: 333 OBJ: 7 TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior - Gender Identity and Gender-Differentiated Behavior
447
The Major Issues
151. When a newborn baby is found to be intersexed, how have most authorities over the past few decades recommended raising the child? a. Raise the child according to whether the chromosomes are male or female. b. Wait until later and let the child decide whether to be called male or female. c. When in doubt, call the child male. d. When in doubt, call the child female. ANS: D PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behaviors MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 2
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
152. In the Dominican Republic, certain genetic males who were regarded in early childhood as girls have developed into boys at puberty. What happened to their gender identity? a. Most adopted a clear male gender identity. b. Most retained a clear female gender identity. c. About half developed a clear male identity; the other half developed a clear female identity. d. Most developed a confused gender identity. ANS: A PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behaviors MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
153. Certain genetic males in the Dominican Republic were born with low levels of the enzyme that converts testosterone into dihydrotestosterone. This resulted in: a. breast development. b. lack of pubic hair. c. minimal penis growth early in life. d. extreme shortness until the age of 30 or so. ANS: C PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behaviors
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
154. What conclusion can be drawn from the unusual gender identity cases from the Dominican Republic? a. The environment has no affect on gender identity. b. If given the necessary hormones at puberty, any girl can become a boy. c. Early child-rearing experiences are not the sole determinant of gender identity. d. Chromosomes are the determining factor in gender identity. ANS: C PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behaviors
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 3
448
Chapter 1
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
155. Genetic males whose penis is damaged or removed shortly after birth and are then reared as females: a. are happily reared as females. b. often ask to be reassigned as males. c. randomly develop a clear gender identity. d. are often able to regrow a penis. ANS: B PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behaviors
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
156. The result of the sex reassignment in the case of the infant whose penis was accidentally removed was that: a. he developed a normal female gender identity. b. he developed a neutral gender identity with no sexual interest. c. he only experienced difficulties during adulthood. d. he decided to adopt a male gender identity during adolescence. ANS: D PTS: 1 Gender-Differentiated Behavior Behaviors
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Gender Identity and TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual
157. On the average, homosexual and heterosexual people: a. do not differ anatomically. b. differ anatomically in many subtle ways. c. differ anatomically in many drastic ways. d. differ very little anatomically. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
158. The frequency of homosexuality in men is highest if: a. a sister is homosexual. b. an adopted brother is homosexual. c. a dizygotic twin brother is homosexual. d. a monozygotic twin brother is homosexual. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
159. When examining the data on sexual orientation of twins and other siblings, what seems to be the most reasonable conclusion? a. Genetic factors completely determine sexual orientation. b. Genetic factors play no role in sexual orientation. c. Sexual orientation is determined by genetics as well as other factors. d. Genetic factors determine sexual orientation in men, but do not seem to play a role for women. ANS: C OBJ: 3
449
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
The Major Issues
REF: Sexual Orientation MSC: www
160. Sexual orientation has been linked to all of the following EXCEPT: a. prenatal stress. b. mother’s immune system. c. genetics. d. adult hormone levels. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation MSC: www
161. Which hypothesis is LEAST plausible as a biological explanation for why some men have a homosexual orientation and others have a heterosexual orientation? a. Genetics b. effects of prenatal hormones or stress c. different structures within the hypothalamus d. different levels of sex hormones in adulthood ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
162. Most homosexual men, as compared to heterosexual men, have: a. lower levels of testosterone. b. testosterone levels within the same range. c. higher levels of testosterone. d. higher levels of estrogen. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation MSC: www
163. Some studies have linked male homosexuality to having a greater number of: a. older sisters. b. younger sisters. c. older brothers. d. younger brothers. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
164. Of the various hypotheses based on hormone levels, which is the most plausible explanation for male homosexuality? a. adult testosterone levels are low b. adult estrogen levels are high c. prenatal testosterone levels were low during some sensitive period d. prenatal estrogen levels were high during some sensitive period ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
165. If a female rat is exposed to highly stressful experiences late in pregnancy, what happens to the sexual development of her offspring? a. The genetic males become responsive to male partners. b. The genetic females become responsive to female partners. c. Both male and female offspring become unresponsive to all sexual partners. d. Both male and female offspring become highly aggressive in their sexual behaviors.
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ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
166. Exposure of a female rat to highly stressful experiences late in pregnancy has what effect on the development of her male offspring? a. They develop a female anatomy, although their behavior is the same as other males. b. They respond sexually to male partners, although their anatomy is the same as other males. c. Their sexual anatomy and behavior are typically male, but their nonsexual behaviors resemble females. d. They resemble females in all regards, including anatomy, sexual and nonsexual behaviors. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
167. What has been found in studies that relate male homosexuality in humans to prenatal stressors? a. Prenatal stress is consistently related to homosexuality in men. b. There has been no evidence linking prenatal stress to homosexuality in men. c. Stress during delivery is weakly related to homosexuality in men. d. The findings are inconclusive. ANS: D Orientation OBJ: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
R REF:
Sexual
MSC: www
168. The anterior commissure, on the average, is: a. smaller in heterosexual women than heterosexual men. b. larger in heterosexual women than heterosexual men. c. smaller in homosexual men than heterosexual men. d. larger in heterosexual men than homosexual men. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
169. What measurable differences are apparently related to homosexual versus heterosexual orientation in adult men? a. their testosterone levels b. their estrogen levels c. the size of certain parts of their hypothalamus d. the pattern of dendritic branching in their cerebral cortex ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
170. On average, the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex are of nearly equal size in females, whereas the right hemisphere is a few percent larger in males. a. homosexual, heterosexual b. hetereosexual, homosexual c. homosexual, homosexual d. hetereosexual, hetereosexual
451
The Major Issues
ANS: D OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation KEY: NEW
171. The interstitial nucleus 3 of the anterior hypothalamus is known to be more than: a. twice as large in heterosexual women as in men. b. three times as large in heterosexual women as in men. c. twice as large in heterosexual men as in women. d. twice as large in homosexual men as in heterosexual men. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
172. A more recent study on differences in the INAH3 suggests that compared to heterosexual men, homosexual men have: a. a larger INAH3. b. smaller INAH3 neurons, but a comparable number. c. fewer INAH3 neurons, but they are larger in size. d. a comparable number and size of INAH3 neurons. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
173. When Simon LeVay examined interstitial nucleus 3 in 41 people who had died, he found that in the homosexual males in his sample, this nucleus was: a. larger, but only in those who had died of AIDS. b. comparable in size to the heterosexual males who had died of AIDS. c. comparable in size to the whole group of heterosexual males. d. comparable in size to the heterosexual females. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
174. When Simon LeVay examined interstitial nucleus 3 in 41 people who had died, he found that it was: a. the same size in male heterosexuals, female heterosexuals, and male homosexuals. b. larger in female heterosexuals than either male heterosexuals or male homosexuals. c. larger in male homosexuals than either male heterosexuals or female heterosexuals. d. larger in male heterosexuals than either female heterosexuals or male homosexuals. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
175. Data gathered by studies such as the LeVay study suggest that: a. the hypothalamus determines sexual orientation. b. the suprachiasmatic nucleus determines sexual orientation. c. on average, differences in the hypothalamus can be found between individuals of different sexual orientations. d. there is only a small probability that the brain has anything to do with sexual orientation. ANS: C OBJ: 3
452
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
Chapter 1
REF: Sexual Orientation
176. LeVay's studies indicate a correlation between a man's sexual orientation (homosexuality vs. heterosexuality) and the: a. amount of testosterone in the blood. b. amount of estradiol in the blood. c. size of one nucleus of the hypothalamus. d. size of one nucleus of the medulla. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
177. Some researchers found that the was slightly larger in heterosexual than homosexual men. a. amount of testosterone in the blood. b. amount of estradiol in the blood. c. size of one nucleus of the hypothalamus. d. size of one nucleus of the medulla. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the steps in the normal prenatal development of the female reproductive structures. ANS: Gonads develop into ovaries. Müllerian ducts develop into internal reproductive organs. Wolffian ducts degenerate. External genitalia develop into female appearance. All of these events occur naturally by default and do not require the presence of any hormones. PTS: 1 DIF: factual OBJ: 2 TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Organizing Effects of Sex Hormones
2. How does the development of external genitalia differ from the development of the internal reproductive structures? ANS: Genitals for males and females develop from a single unisex structure; reproductive structures develop from separate Wolffian and Müllerian structures. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual OBJ: 2 TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Organizing Effects of Sex Hormones
3. Describe the steps in the normal prenatal development of the male reproductive structures. ANS: SRY gene causes gonads to develop into testes. Testes secrete MIH to cause degeneration of Müllerian ducts. Testes secrete testosterone to promote development of external genitalia and Wolffian system.
453
The Major Issues
PTS: 1 DIF: factual OBJ: 2 TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
REF: Organizing Effects of Sex Hormones
4. Briefly describe the role of the sex hormone oxytocin. ANS: It is important for reproductive behavior. Oxytocin stimulates contractions of the uterus during delivery of a baby, and it stimulates the mammary gland to release milk. It also induces state of complete relaxation shortly after orgasm. PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: Activating Effects of Sex Hormones TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
5. Describe how the mother’s immune system may exert prenatal effects on sexual orientation. ANS: A mother’s immune system sometimes reacts against a protein in a son and then attacks subsequent sons enough to alter their development. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation
OBJ:
3
ESSAY 1. Describe organizing effects of sex hormones and give specific examples. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of Sex Hormones TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones
2. Describe activating effects of sex hormones and give specific examples. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 3TOP:
DIF: conceptual REF: Activating Effects of Sex Hormones 11.1 Sex and Hormones
3. Give some examples of evolutionary interpretations of mating behavior. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 Behavior
454
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 1
REF: Evolutionary Interpretations of Mating TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
Chapter 1
4. Describe some of the evidence that genetic factors may influence sexual orientation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Organizing Effects of Sex Hormones TOP: 11.1 Sex and Hormones MSC: www
5. Describe some of the evidence that brain anatomy may differ as a function of sexual orientation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 11.2 Variations in Sexual Behavior
REF: Sexual Orientation MSC: www
OBJ:
2
Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors TRUE/FALSE 1. Psychologists typically define emotion in terms of three components. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
REF: Introduction MSC: www
2. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, we experience physiological changes first and then label these changes as an emotion. ANS: T PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
3. The pattern of physiological reactions for each emotion is easily distinguishable by the person who is experiencing them. ANS: F PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
4. In people with an uncommon condition called pure autonomic failure, output from the autonomic nervous system to the body fails, either completely or almost completely. ANS: T PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory MSC: www
455
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
The Major Issues
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
5. The more important contributions to emotions come from the effects of the autonomic nervous system, not muscle activity. ANS: T PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
6. The limbic system—the forebrain areas surrounding the thalamus—has been regarded as noncritical for emotion. ANS: F with Emotion MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
7. The insula is strongly activated if you see a disgusting picture. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated with Emotion OBJ: 2 TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion? 8. The right hemisphere seems to be more responsive to emotional stimuli than the left hemisphere. ANS: T with Emotion MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
9. Emotions are important for decision making. ANS: T Emotions
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
10. Prefrontal cortex damage always results in poor decisions. ANS: F Emotions MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
11. People with damage to either the prefrontal cortex or the amygdala show difficulties processing emotional information. ANS: T Emotions
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
12. Most of the vigorous emotional behaviors we observe in animals fall into the categories of attack and escape. ANS: T OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
13. Low serotonin turnover is associated with reduced aggression.
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REF: Introduction
ANS: F OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
14. Increasing the amount of phenylalanine in the diet may interfere with the synthesis of serotonin. ANS: T OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
15. The amygdala is one of the main areas for integrating both environmental and genetic influences, and then regulating the current level of anxiety. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
16. Individuals with posttraumatic stress disorder are more likely to have a suppressed startle reflex.
ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
17. Amygdala damage will result in the complete loss of the startle response. ANS: F OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
18. The amygdala is important only for the expression of fear. ANS: F OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
19. Activity in the amygdala can change without the person being consciously aware of an emotional stimulus. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
20. The most commonly used anti-anxiety drugs are the benzodiazepines. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
21. Benzodiazepines bind to the GABAC receptor. ANS: F OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
22. Activation of the HPA axis occurs during prolonged stress.
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The Major Issues
REF: Anxiety Disorders
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the 2
23. Direct injections of cytokines into the brain would increase appetite. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the 2
24. Brief activation of the sympathetic nervous system can enhance activity of the immune system. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the 2
25. Temporary increases in cortisol can enhance immune function. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health MSC: www
REF: Stress and the 3
26. Prolonged high cortisol levels are associated with increased hippocampal damage. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the 3
27. Individuals with PTSD usually have a smaller than average hippocampus. ANS: T Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Psychologists typically define emotion in terms of the following three components: a. actions, cognitions, and emotions b. feelings, actions, and emotions c. cognitions, actions, and emotions d. cognitions, feelings, and actions ANS: D OBJ: 1TOP:
PTS: 1 DIF: factual 12.1 What is Emotion? MSC: www
REF: Introduction
2. The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts; the nervous system (which prepares the body for emergency action), and the nervous system (which calms the body). a. sympathetic; parasympathetic b. parasympathetic; sympathetic
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c. somatic; craniosacral d. craniosacral; somatic ANS: A PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
3. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for preparing the body for intense, vigorous, emergency activity is the: a. somatic nervous system. b. craniosacral nervous system. c. sympathetic nervous system. d. parasympathetic nervous system. ANS: C PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
4. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for preparing the body for fight or flight behaviors is called the: a. parasympathetic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. craniosacral nervous system. ANS: B PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory 5. The sympathetic nervous system is to a. fight; flight b. emergencies; relaxation c. assertiveness; aggressiveness d. striated muscles; smooth muscles ANS: B PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
as the parasympathetic nervous system is to
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 1
.
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
6. A scientist would be most likely to use which of the following when attempting to obtain an objective measure of emotion? a. a self report b. ratings by independent observers c. measures of sympathetic nervous system responses d. measures of parasympathetic nervous system responses ANS: C PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory 7. According to the a. Lange-Jung b. Lange-Papez c. James-Jung d. James-Lange
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DIF: conceptual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
theory, we experience emotion after we experience autonomic arousal.
The Major Issues
ANS: D PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
8. According to the James-Lange theory, we experience emotion: a. first, then come our actions. b. and act upon that emotion, simultaneously. c. after we experience autonomic arousal. d. and must label it before we can act on it. ANS: C PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
9. In the revised James-Lange theory of emotion, what occurs first? a. cognitive appraisal b. actions c. physiological changes d. feeling ANS: A PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
10. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion: a. only sympathetic arousal is important. b. emotional intensity is a function of physiological responses. c. we experience emotion first, and then our autonomic nervous system produces the appropriate changes. d. we attack because we are angry. ANS: B PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
11. Which evidence is most detrimental to the James-Lange theory? a. Patients with pure autonomic failure experience emotions. b. Sometimes people have trouble reporting what they are feeling. c. Changes in arousal are reported as changes in emotions. d. Some people feel stronger emotions than others do. ANS: A PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory MSC: www
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
12. Individuals with pure autonomic failure: a. experience no emotion at all. b. have diminished intensity of emotion, but still report cognitive aspects of it. c. die from low blood pressure. d. lose all output to the muscles. ANS: B PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
13. Individuals with pure autonomic failure: a. do not experience emotions. b. are paralyzed.
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REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
c. are always fearful. d. do not experience much intensity of emotion. ANS: D PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
14. Findings from people with pure autonomic failure suggest that: a. autonomic output is important for experiencing emotion. b. the James-Lange theory is incorrect. c. feelings are the same thing as emotions. d. lack of physiological feedback makes us happy. ANS: A PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
15. People with pure autonomic failure have changes in their heart rate and other organ responses; they usually report intensity of emotions. a. increased, increased b. increased, decreased c. decreased, increased d. decreased, decreased ANS: D PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
16. Which of the following is characterized by extreme sympathetic nervous system arousal? a. locked-in syndrome b. pure autonomic failure c. panic attack d. prosopagnosia ANS: C PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory KEY: NEW MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
17. Which of the following is characterized by extreme physiological arousal? a. locked-in syndrome b. pure autonomic failure c. panic attack d. prosopagnosia ANS: C PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
18. When people were forced to smile, by clenching a pen between their teeth, how did they rate a cartoon they were reading? a. funnier than if they were not forced to smile b. just as funny as when they were frowning c. not as funny as when they were holding a pen between their lips d. as frightening
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The Major Issues
ANS: A PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory 19. Children with a rare condition called a. Lange syndrome b. Möbius syndrome c. James syndrome d. Fregoli syndrome ANS: B PTS: 1 Arousal, and the James-Lange Theory
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
are unable to move their facial muscles to make a smile.
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Emotions, Autonomic TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
20. A group of forebrain structures that appear to be critical for emotion are known as the: a. pyramidal system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. parasympathetic nervous system. d. limbic system. ANS: D with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
21. The amygdala is part of the: a. pyramidal system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. parasympathetic nervous system. d. limbic system. ANS: D with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
22. The limbic system consists of structures that are believed to be important for which kind of responses? a. reflexes b. fine motor control c. spatial orientation d. emotional ANS: D with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
23. A search for the happiness center in the brain is unlikely to be successful because: a. brain areas associated with particular emotions vary considerably. b. happiness is only an epiphenomenon. c. fear activates the identical brain areas as happiness does. d. no one has been able to define happiness. ANS: A with Emotion
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
Chapter 1
24. The challenge in identifying specific brain areas that are associated with specific emotions is that: a. all emotions activate all parts of the brain. b. the procedures used to measure emotions vary considerably. c. we don’t have techniques to view activity in the brain. d. the area of the brain responsible for a particular emotion varies over time. ANS: B with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
25. The area that is activated by feeling disgusted is the same area of the brain responsible for: a. sight. b. smell. c. taste. d. hearing. ANS: C with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
26. Damage to the insular cortex impairs the sense of taste and the ability to recognize: A fear. B sadness. C happiness. D disgust. ANS: D with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
27. Damage to the results in a diminished ability to experience and recognize disgust. a. temporal cortex b. insular cortex c. hippocampus d. frontal cortex ANS: B with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
28. Which of the following problems is most likely to result in an increased ability to identify the emotional expression of people viewing pleasant and unpleasant pictures? a. locked in syndrome b. damage to the left hemisphere c. panic disorder d. damage to the right hemisphere ANS: B with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
29. Activity in the left hemisphere is associated with: a. decreased emotional experiences. b. fear, but not other emotions. c. behavioral activation. d. behavioral inhibition.
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The Major Issues
ANS: C with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
30. The Behavioral Activation System is associated with: a. low to moderate arousal, tendency to approach new objects, and pleasant mood. b. maximum arousal, increased fear, and negative mood. c. lack of arousal, decreased action, and pleasant mood. d. increased attention and arousal, decreased action, and fear or disgust. ANS: A with Emotion MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
31. The Behavioral Inhibition System is associated with: a. low to moderate arousal, tendency to approach new objects, and pleasant mood. b. maximum arousal, increased fear, and negative mood. c. lack of arousal, decreased action, and pleasant mood. d. increased attention and arousal, decreased action, and fear or disgust. ANS: D with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
32. Increased activity of the frontal and temporal lobes of the right hemisphere is associated with the: a. Behavioral Inhibition System. b. Behavioral Activation System. c. Behavioral Attenuation System. d. Behavioral Attraction System. ANS: A with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
33. Which of the following systems is most likely to be active when moderate physiological arousal occurs while approaching a member of the opposite sex? a. Behavioral Inhibition System b. Behavioral Activation System c. Behavioral Attenuation System d. Behavioral Attraction System ANS: B with Emotion
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Areas Associated TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
34. Stimuli that are below the level of conscious detection: a. have no effect on our autonomic system activity. b. may produce changes in autonomic responses that account for "gut feelings." c. are easily detected if we attend to them. d. produce memory loss. ANS: B Emotions
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
Chapter 1
35. People are given moral dilemmas, such as whether it is all right to kill one person in order to save five others. The people most likely to make the “cold, calculating” decision that these acts are okay are people who have suffered brain damage that impairs which of these? A Memory B Emotions C Vision D Activity level ANS: B Emotions
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion? KEY: NEW
36. Investigators have found that individuals who suffer prefrontal cortex damage: a. often make bad decisions. b. become more logical than usual in their reasoning. c. become excessively inhibited in their dealings with others. d. perform poorly on IQ tests. ANS: A Emotions
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
37. Historically, the most famous case of a person with prefrontal damage is that of: a. John Limbic. b. James Papez. c. Antonio Damasio. d. Phineas Gage. ANS: D Emotions
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
38. Impulsive behavior and poor decisions are common symptoms of: a. parietal damage. b. prefrontal damage. c. occipital damage. d. temporal damage. ANS: B Emotions MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
39. Why do individuals with prefrontal cortex damage often make bad decisions? A They can't understand complexly worded questions. B They don't anticipate the unpleasantness of likely outcomes. C They conform readily to whatever other people are doing. D They can’t predict the consequences of one decision or another. ANS: B Emotions
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: The Functions of TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion?
The Major Issues
40. Some cats "play" with a mouse before killing it. How can this kind of behavior best be explained? a. the cat's perverse pleasure in prolonging the mouse's pain b. an instinctive need for additional pursuit behaviors prior to eating c. a conflict between attack and escape behaviors d. regression to infantile patterns of activity in the hippocampus ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
DIF: factual
REF: Introduction
41. If a hamster in its home territory attacks an intruder, what will the hamster do if a second intruder arrives shortly after the first intruder leaves? a. Withdraw from the second intruder. b. Play with the second intruder. c. Attack the second intruder quickly and vigorously. d. Attack the second intruder but less vigorously than the first. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
42. If a hamster is primed for a fight, increased activity will most likely be found: a. in the corticomedial amygdala. b. all over the cortex. c. all over the temporal lobe. d. in the occipital lobe. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
43. Directly stimulating the of a hamster results in priming it to attack, even without the previous experience of fighting. a. corticomedial amygdala. b. cortex. c. temporal lobe. d. occipital lobe. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
45. Studies of aggressive and criminal behaviors in adulthood have found that: a. there doesn't appear to be a genetic link. b. there appears to be more aggression by twins than non-twins. c. monozygotic twins resemble each other more closely than dizygotic twins. d. dizygotic twins resemble each other more closely than monozygotic twins. ANS: C OBJ: 1
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
Chapter 1
REF: Attack Behaviors
46. Under what circumstances do the criminal behaviors of monozygotic twins resemble each other more than dizygotic twins? a. when the monozygotic twins have been raised apart b. when the dizygotic twins have been raised together c. in adulthood d. in childhood ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
47. Several studies have found that is particularly enhanced in people with both a genetic predisposition and a troubled early environment. a. anxiety b. emotion c. violence d. trust ANS: C OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors KEY: NEW
48. Not all children who are abused become violently aggressive in adolescence or adulthood. Of the following, which has been demonstrated to influence violence by these people? A genes regulating testosterone receptors B genes regulating the suprachiasmatic nucleus C genes regulating secretion of aldosterone D genes regulating monoamine oxidase ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors KEY: NEW
49. A research study linked different genes for the enzyme MAO-A to the probability of antisocial behavior. The effect of the gene varied from small to great, depending on what? A whether the person lived in a large or small town B whether the person lived alone or with others C whether the person was maltreated during childhood D whether the person’s diet was high or low in fats and carbohydrates ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
50. Male aggressive behavior depends heavily on: a. acetylcholine. b. estrogen. c. testosterone. d. dopamine.
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The Major Issues
REF: Attack Behaviors KEY: NEW
ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
51. Of the following choices, the most likely explanation for how testosterone may be associated with violent behavior is that it: a. may induce greater attention to situations of aggression and conflict. b. creates greater muscle mass. c. reduces inhibitions. d. inhibits cells in the amygdala. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
52. A study administering testosterone to women found which of these effects? A Testosterone increased their violent dreams. B Testosterone decreased their ability to recognize facial expressions of emotion. C Testosterone caused them to report feeling angry for no apparent reason. D Testosterone made them want to play pool, drink beer, and spit. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors KEY: NEW
53. If a monkey with low serotonin turnover survives, they are more likely to: a. be extremely fearful. b. be submissive. c. have fewer offspring. d. have dominant status. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
54. What potential advantage does a moderately aggressive monkey possess? a. They are more likely to get mates and food. b. They have better memories of other monkeys they have defeated. c. They are less depressed. d. Their immune system becomes stronger with each fight. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
55. In a study of serotonin turnover in male monkeys, it was found that those with: a. low levels were most submissive. b. high levels had the most scars. c. high levels were the most aggressive. d. low levels were usually dead by age six. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
56. The term "serotonin turnover" refers to the amount of serotonin that is:
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Chapter 1
a. b. c. d.
released at synapses and resynthesized. currently present in the brain. radioactively labeled. converted into another transmitter.
ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors MSC: www
57. The concentration of 5-HIAA in the blood, cerebrospinal fluid, or urine provides an estimate of: a. serotonin stores. b. serotonin turnover. c. dopamine stores. d. dopamine turnover. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
58. To estimate the amount of serotonin turnover in the brain, investigators measure the amount of in the blood or cerebrospinal fluid. a. COMT b. MPTP c. 5-HIAA d. MAO ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
59. According to a number of animal studies, under which of the following conditions is the probability of violent behavior greatest? a. low acetylcholine turnover b. high acetylcholine turnover c. low serotonin turnover d. high serotonin turnover ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors MSC: www
60. One explanation for why having genes for low serotonin turnover may be beneficial in monkeys is that: a. a low level of aggression is best for survival. b. an intermediate level of aggression prevents them from being too fearful or too violent. c. most highly aggressive monkeys get everything they want. d. serotonin causes cancer. ANS: B OBJ: 2 61.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
Many studies have found that violent criminals and arsonists released from prison had a greater probability of committing other violent crimes if they: a. underwent surgical removal of the amygdala. b. ate diets low in corn. c. had lower than normal serotonin turnover.
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The Major Issues
d. had higher than normal serotonin turnover. ANS: C OBJ: 2 62.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
Blood and urine levels of which chemicals are related to a history of violent suicide attempts? a. high amount of serotonin turnover b. low amount of serotonin turnover c. high levels of L-dopa d. low levels of L-dopa ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
63. Which of the following has been associated with an increased probability of suicide attempts? a. high dopamine turnover b. high GABA turnover c. low serotonin turnover d. low substance-P turnover ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
64. The precursor for the synthesis of serotonin is: a. tryptophan. b. phenylalanine. c. monoamine. d. norepinephrine. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
65. Tryptophan hydroxylase is the enzyme that converts a. serotonin, 5-HIAA b. 5-HIAA, serotonin c. serotonin, tryptophan d. tryptophan, serotonin ANS: D OBJ: 2
into
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
.
REF: Attack Behaviors
66. One study found that many young men showed an increase in aggressive behavior a few hours after eating a diet: a. high in tryptophan. b. high in both tryptophan and phenylalanine. c. low in tryptophan and high in phenylalanine. d. low in both tryptophan and phenylalanine. ANS: C OBJ: 2
470
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
Chapter 1
REF: Attack Behaviors
67. Why do certain people suspect that a diet high in corn may lead to an increase in aggressive behavior? a. Corn is low in tryptophan and high in phenylalanine. b. Corn contains a chemical similar to testosterone. c. Corn is deficient in thiamine and other B vitamins. d. Corn is high in fats and contains no proteins or amino acids. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
68. Phenylalanine might affect the probability of aggressive behavior by: a. converting to testosterone in the body. b. converting to L-dopa in the body. c. interfering with the production of serotonin. d. interfering with the production of GABA. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
69. High levels of phenylalanine in the diet impair the synthesis of serotonin because it: a. causes the breakdown of serotonin in the vesicles. b. competes with an active transport mechanism shared by tryptophan. c. interferes with the enzyme that synthesizes serotonin. d. prevents the reuptake of serotonin. ANS: B OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors KEY: NEW
70. Suppose you want to DECREASE the aggressive behavior of an animal, and all you are allowed to use is a nutritional supplement. Which might be a good choice? a. increase tryptophan b. increase phenylalanine c. decrease thiamine d. decrease lecithin ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
++
71. People with less active forms of aggression. a. monoamine oxidase b. dopamine c. serotonin d. tryptophan hydroxylase ANS: D OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
72. Depression is linked to a. low; low
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are more likely than average to report frequent anger and
REF: Attack Behaviors
serotonin and aggressive behavior is linked to
The Major Issues
serotonin.
b. low; high c. high; low d. high; high ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
73. A person with a history of depression would most likely react to a diet low in tryptophan by becoming: a. susceptible to a drug craving. b. angry. c. depressed. d. violent. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
74. A person with a history of violence would most likely react to a diet low in tryptophan by becoming: a. susceptible to a drug craving. b. angry. c. depressed. d. violent. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
75. If a treatment suddenly lowered your serotonin level: a. you would experience depression. b. you would become violent. c. you would become both depressed and violent. d. we could not predict how and when your behavior would change. ANS: D OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
76. According to one hypothesis, if serotonin is released during aggressive behavior, then individuals with low serotonin release are more aggressive because of: a. increased depression. b. decreased serotonin synthesis. c. increased serotonin receptor sensitivity. d. decreased serotonin receptor sensitivity. ANS: C OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors MSC: www
77. A startle reflex occurs in response to: a. grief. b. depression. c. anxiety. d. an unexpected loud noise. ANS: D
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PTS: 1
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Fear and Anxiety
OBJ: 3
TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
78. After a loud noise, information travels from the medulla to the a. pons b. caudate nucleus c. cochlear nucleus d. hypothalamus ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
, and then to the neck muscles.
REF: Fear and Anxiety
79. The common measure of fear or anxiety that is popular because it can be used with non-humans as well as humans is: a. facial expressions. b. the startle response. c. spontaneous muscle twitches. d. hyperventilation. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
80. What is a common measure of fear or anxiety that is popular because it can be used with nonhumans as well as humans? a. facial expressions b. spontaneous muscle twitches c. the startle response d. hyperventilation ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
81. To measure fear or anxiety in both humans and nonhumans, researchers measure variations in an individual’s: a. rate of eyelid blinking. b. attention to a flickering light. c. salivary reflex. d. startle reflex. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
82. Information reaches the pons within 3 to 8 ms after a than two-tenths of a second. a. loud noise. b. puff of air directed at your eye. c. bright light. d. pinch on the foot.
473
REF: Fear and Anxiety
, and the full startle reflex occurs in less
The Major Issues
ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
83. It is possible to predict (with moderate accuracy) people’s political attitudes toward the use of the military, the death penalty, and so forth by monitoring which of the following? A differences in fMRI response between the left and right hemispheres B size of the hippocampus C amygdala responses to a sudden loud noise D fluctuations in testosterone levels between morning and evening ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety KEY: NEW
84. Startle responses are greater when a person is: a. depressed. b. anxious. c. violent. d. aggressive. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
85. In people suffering from posttraumatic stress disorder, the startle response is: a. generally absent. b. generally weaker than in other people. c. the same as in other people. d. generally stronger than in other people. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
86. The startle response to a loud noise is increased in the presence of a stimulus that has been paired with: a. something fearful. b. something pleasant. c. something neutral. d. soft noises. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
87. What area of the brain seems to be a key area for learned fears? a. occipital cortex b. somatosensory cortex c. corpus callosum d. amygdala ANS: D OBJ: 3
474
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
Chapter 1
REF: Fear and Anxiety
88. Many cells in the amygdala get input from sensory modalities, especially the a. basolateral and central b. lateral and medial c. hypothalamic d. brain stem ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
nuclei.
REF: Fear and Anxiety
89. Damage to the amygdala impairs: a. motor coordination. b. circadian rhythms. c. learned fears. d. language comprehension. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
90. Approach and avoidance responses are modified by output from the amygdala to the: a. brain stem b. hypothalamus c. prefrontal cortex d. basolateral nuclei ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
91. Output from the amygdala to the a. brain stem b. hypothalamus c. prefrontal cortex d. basolateral nuclei ANS: C OBJ: 3
REF: Fear and Anxiety
modifies approach and avoidance responses.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety MSC: www
92. The receives axons from the amygdala and sends axons to the pons to control the startle response. a. midbrain b. caudate nucleus c. cingulate gyrus d. pineal gland ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
93. The amygdala send axons to the reflex. a. midbrain b. caudate nucleus c. cingulate gyrus d. pineal gland
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, which in turn sends axons to the pons to control the startle
The Major Issues
ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
94. People with amygdala damage have trouble identifying fear expressions. How could we improve their ability to recognize fear? a. Give drugs that suppress serotonin synapses. b. Change where they focus their eyes. c. Test at a different time of day. d. Display the expressions in black and white photos. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
95. After damage to the amygdala, what happens to a rat’s startle reflex? A The rat shows no startle reflex. B The rat’s startle reflex does not vary from one situation to another. C The rat shows an exaggerated startle reflex. D The rat shows a startle reflex only when in the presence of danger signals. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety KEY: NEW
96. The parasite Toxoplasma gondii is able to reinfect cats when the cats: a. come into close contact with other infected cats. b. are bitten by scared rats. c. eat fearless infected rats. d. are bitten by mosquitos carrying the parasite. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
97. Which of the following effects would result from damage to the amygdala? a. lack of a startle response b. a normal startle response, but absence of learned fears c. an enhanced startle response and an enhanced response to learned fears d. a fear response to any novel stimulus ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
98. Animals with damage to the amygdala: a. neither learn new fears nor retain previously learned fears. b. fail to show a startle response to any stimulus. c. become extremely aggressive and emotional. d. are unable to store new memories of any kind. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
99. The most likely result of an amygdala lesion in the most dominant monkey in a group would be:
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a. b. c. d.
increased aggression. lack of any emotions. avoidance of all socialization. lowered social status in the hierarchy.
ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
100. Looking at a picture of people showing emotional expressions causes the greatest activity in the: a. frontal lobe. b. hippocampus. c. fornix. d. amygdala. ANS: D OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
101. Human amygdala activity was found to be greatest when looking at a picture of: a. people showing emotional expressions. b. people with neutral expressions. c. a puppy or kitten. d. an infant. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
102. Recognition of an angry expression is faster when the face is directed expression is faster if it is directed . a. toward you, to the side b. to the side, toward you c. toward you, toward you d. to the side, to the side ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
, and a fearful
REF: Fear and Anxiety
103. According to research, the human amygdala responds most strongly when people are looking at: a. scenes that depict or imply movement. b. emotional expressions. c. familiar, recognizable faces. d. pictures than can be interpreted in more than one way. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
104. Amygdala activation to angry and fearful expressions suggests that the amygdala responds most strongly: a. to fearful faces directed to the viewer. b. when emotional interpretation is unclear. c. to happy faces. d. to neutral faces.
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ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
105. When asked to draw pictures expressing different emotions, which emotion would cause the most difficulty for a person with Urbach-Wiethe disease? a. happiness b. disgust c. sadness d. fear ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
106. When asked to identify different emotional expressions, people with Urbach-Wiethe disease had the most difficulty identifying: a. surprise. b. anger. c. fear. d. joy. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
107. Which of the following social behaviors can result from damage to the amygdala? a. standing closer than usual to someone during a conversation b. tendency to trust almost no one c. impairment at remembering people’s names d. loss of sexual responsiveness ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety KEY: NEW
108. Across studies involving amygdala damage, the general conclusion seems to be that the amygdala is important for: a. focusing attention on emotional stimuli. b. only the expression of emotion. c. only the interpretation of emotion. d. the normal startle response. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
109. One explanation for the difficulty that people with amygdala damage have with recognizing fearful faces is that they: a. can’t see very well. b. don’t remember what fear looks like. c. focus their attention on the eyes of faces instead of the nose and mouth. d. focus their attention on the nose and mouth of faces instead of the eyes. ANS: D
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REF: Fear and Anxiety
OBJ: 3
TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
110. Increased fear, anxiety, or panic is related to increased activity of . a. CCK; GABA b. acetylcholine; glutamate c. dopamine; norepinephrine d. serotonin; NPY ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
and decreased activity of
REF: Anxiety Disorders
111. One could reduce anxiety by: a. decreasing GABA. b. increasing CCK. c. blocking CCK. d. blocking dopamine. ANS: C OBJ: 4 112. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
decrease(s) the responses in a rat’s brain to the smell of a cat. Orexin Cholecystokinin Benzodiazepines Chloride ions
ANS: C OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders KEY: NEW
113. The enhanced startle reflex in the presence of a feared stimulus would be reduced by all of the following methods EXCEPT: a. stimulating GABA-A receptors. b. opening chloride channels. c. damaging the amygdala. d. stimulating CCK receptors in the amygdala. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
114. Most tranquilizers reduce anxiety by: a. decreasing GABA. b. increasing GABA. c. blocking dopamine. d. increasing CCK. ANS: B OBJ: 4
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REF: Anxiety Disorders
115. Benzodiazepines relieve anxiety by a. facilitating; dopamine b. inhibiting; serotonin c. facilitating; GABA d. inhibiting; norepinephrine ANS: C OBJ: 4
transmission at
synapses.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
116. Benzodiazepine tranquilizers affect GABA synapses by: a. stimulating GABA receptors. b. facilitating binding of GABA to its receptors. c. inhibiting GABA receptors. d. decreasing binding of GABA to its receptors. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
117. Which of the following conditions most resembles the effects of amygdala damage? a. injecting CCK in the brain b. taking tranquilizers c. taking endozepines d. blocking GABA receptors ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
118. A drug that facilitates transmission at GABA-A synapses has what effect on behavior? a. increases anxiety b. decreases anxiety c. increases overall arousal d. decreases aggressiveness ANS: B OBJ: 4 119. The flow of a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. chloride ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
ions across the membrane is controlled by the GABA-A complex.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
120. The GABA-A receptor complex controls the flow of which ion across the membrane? a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. chloride ANS: D OBJ: 4
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Chapter 1
REF: Anxiety Disorders
121. A benzodiazepine molecule attaches to its receptor and affects the cell by: a. increasing receptor response to GABA. b. blocking the sodium gates in the membrane. c. increasing the flow of potassium. d. temporarily decreasing serotonin turnover. ANS: A OBJ: 4
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REF: Anxiety Disorders
122. A variety of studies indicate that anxiety is increased by the transmitters a. alprazolam, orexin b. cholecystokinin, orexin c. orexin, diazepam d. alprazolam, cholecystokinin ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
and
.
REF: Anxiety Disorders KEY: NEW
123. At the center of the GABAᴀ receptor is a: a. benzodiazepine b. neurotransmitter c. chloride channel d. transmitter channel ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders KEY: NEW
124. Benzodiazepines produce a variety of effects, including the possibility of: a. fear b. anxiety c. anger d. addiction ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders KEY: NEW
125. Which of the following decreases anxiety? a. benzodiazepines b. barbiturates c. alcohol d. endozepines ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders KEY: NEW
126. A person who has developed a tolerance to alcohol is likely to show a cross-tolerance to: a. lithium. b. amphetamines. c. benzodiazepines. d. antidepressants. ANS: C OBJ: 4
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
Chapter 1
REF: Anxiety Disorders
127. Alcohol decreases anxiety by: a. promoting chloride flow at the GABA-A receptor complex. b. inhibiting chloride flow at the GABA-A receptor complex. c. promoting sodium flow at serotonin synapses. d. inhibiting sodium flow at serotonin synapses. ANS: A OBJ: 7
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders MSC: www
128. A combination of benzodiazepines and alcohol should be avoided because: a. each magnifies the effects of the other. b. each cancels the effects of the other. c. they react with each other chemically to form a new compound. d. the combination produces excessive anxiety. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
129. Someone who had developed a tolerance to alcohol is likely to show a cross-tolerance to: a. benzodiazepines. b. amphetamines. c. lithium. d. antidepressants. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
130. An experimental drug, Ro15-4513, has been shown to block the behavioral effects of: a. tricyclics. b. amphetamines. c. alcohol. d. endozepines. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
131. The field of study that would be most concerned with the effects of smoking, diet, exercise, and stress on health is: a. behavioral medicine. b. neurology. c. dietetics. d. psychology. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
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REF: Introduction
132. Hans Selye's defined stress in terms of: a. the duration of troubling events. b. an increase in worry. c. the nonspecific response of the body to any demand. d. the amount of homework to be done. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Concepts of Stress MSC: www
133. A nonspecific response of the body to any demand made upon it is a definition of: a. emotion. b. feeling. c. stress. d. psychosomatic illness. ANS: C OBJ: 8
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 366 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health - Concepts of Stress
134. Selye inferred that any threat to the body, in addition to its specific effects, activated a generalized response to stress, which he called the: a. general stress syndrome. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. general activation syndrome. d. general limbic syndrome. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Concepts of Stress
135. Stress activates two systems. One is the: a. HPA axis, which reacts more quickly than the other. b. HPA axis, which becomes increasingly important with prolonged stressors. c. autonomic nervous system which secretes the hormone ACTH. d. autonomic nervous system which secretes the hormone cortisol. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 2 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
136. In Selye’s general adaptation syndrome, the release of cortisol occurs during the a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion d. promotional ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 2 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
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stage.
REF: Stress and the
137. Which of the following hormones is released by the adrenal gland during stress? a. cortisol b. ACTH c. CRH d. NPY ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 2 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
138. Leukocytes identify intruder cells by their: a. shape. b. chromosomal pattern. c. rate of cell division. d. surface proteins. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 2 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
139. A leukocyte attacks when it finds a cell with foreign: a. antigens. b. contours. c. chromosomes. d. neurotransmitters. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 2 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the MSC: www
140. Which type of leukocyte attaches to an intruder and produces a specific antibody to attack the intruder's antigen? a. Macrophage b. B cell c. T cell d. A cell ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
141. Which type of leukocyte matures in the bone marrow? a. Antigen b. Macrophage c. B cell d. T cell ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
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REF: Stress and the
142. Proteins that circulate in the blood, specifically attaching to one kind of antigen are: a. macrophages. b. B cells. c. T cells. d. antibodies. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
143. What type of leukocyte matures in the thymus gland? a. natural killer cell b. macrophage c. B cell d. T cell ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
144. Which type of leukocyte matures in the bone marrow and produces antibodies to attack specific targets? a. B cells b. Y cells c. T cells d. natural killer cells ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
145. Blood cells that attach to types of tumor cells and cells infected with viruses are known as: a. B cells. b. T cells. c. cytotoxic T cells. d. natural killer cells. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
146. Which type of leukocyte destroys tumor cells and cells infected with viruses? a. T cells b. B cells c. Schwann cells d. natural killer cells ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
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REF: Stress and the MSC: www
147. One of the main differences between natural killer cells and T cells is that natural killer cells: a. attack normal tissue. b. attack several kinds of intruders. c. are cancer cells. d. are more specific in their targets. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
148. Chemicals released by the immune system that attack infections and communicate with the brain to elicit anti-illness behaviors are: a. macrophages. b. cytotoxic cells. c. cytokines. d. natural killer cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
149. The immune system's way of telling the brain that the body is ill is by way of: a. macrophages. b. cytotoxic cells. c. cytokines. d. natural killer cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
150. Information from cytokines is relayed to the brain, specifically to the: a. hypothalamus. b. cerebellum. c. pineal gland. d. locus coeruleus. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the MSC: www
151. The classical illness behaviors such as fever, sleepiness, and lack of appetite are caused by: a. decreased brain activity. b. toxins released by pathogens. c. the immune system's production of cytokines. d. antibody production. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
152. Why do humans suffer from sleepiness, decreased muscle activity, and decreased sex drive during illness?
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A B C D
The illness suppresses nearly all brain activity. The virus saps the organism's energy and uses it to attack the body. They are useful ways of conserving energy while the body is attacking the illness. An illness decreases blood flow to the brain and muscles.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the KEY: NEW
153. The field of study concerned with how the nervous system interacts with the immune system is known as: a. endocrinology b. immunopsychology. c. psychoneuroimmunology. d. neurobiology. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
154. Occasional brief periods of stress: a. are harmful to an organism. b. are harmful if the emotion is anger. c. boost the activity of the immune system. d. direct energy away from the synthesis of proteins. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
155. What did researchers find in Antarctic research scientists who spent a 9-month period of social isolation in the cold and dark? a. T cell functioning increased by about 50% b. T cell functioning decreased by about half c. leukocytes stopped functioning d. an outbreak of autoimmune diseases ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
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REF: Stress and the
156. Which is more characteristic of the body's response to chronic stress than the response to shortterm stress? a. sympathetic nervous system involvement b. elevated heart rate c. a sudden burst of activity ("fight or flight" response) d. secretions of cortisol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
157. Chronically high cortisol levels can be harmful to an individual by: a. increasing the vulnerability of the hippocampus. b. killing off natural killer cells. c. increasing metabolism. d. elevating fevers. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
158. High cortisol levels increase the likelihood that hippocampal cells will be: a. responsive to new learning. b. capable of generating a circadian rhythm. c. synchronized to sensory stimulation. d. vulnerable to damage by toxins. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the MSC: www
159. Aged people with the highest cortisol levels tend to be those with the: a. largest hippocampus. b. greatest memory problems. c. greatest amount of social support. d. most cellulose in the diet. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis OBJ: 3 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the
160. Recurring nightmares, exaggerated startle response, and avoidance behavior are common symptoms of: a. autoimmune disorders. b. schizophrenia. c. alcoholism. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANS: D Disorder
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DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
The Major Issues
161. Experiencing nightmares about a traumatic event, avoiding reminders of it, and exaggerated startle response are symptoms of: a. major depression. b. mild depression. c. PTSD. d. schizophrenia. ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
162. PTSD victims tend to have a a. larger, higher b. larger, lower c. smaller, higher d. smaller, lower ANS: D Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health hippocampus and
cortisol levels.
DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
163. What is the relationship between PTSD and size of the hippocampus? a. PTSD causes a decrease in the number of neurons in the hippocampus. b. PTSD causes a decrease in the size of neurons in the hippocampus. c. People with a smaller than average hippocampus are more likely than others to develop PTSD. d. People with a larger than average hippocampus are more likely than others to develop PTSD. ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
164. One surprising feature about people with posttraumatic stress disorder is that, on the average, they have: a. lower than normal cortisol levels. b. a larger than normal hippocampus. c. a stronger, healthier immune system than most people. d. a weaker than normal startle response to a loud noise. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 369 OBJ: 11 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health - Stress and the Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal Cortex Axis 165. Among people who had been in severe automobile accidents, the ones who develop PTSD are more likely to have: a. more severe head injury. b. a smaller than average hippocampus. c. longer recovery times. d. larger cortisol responses. ANS: B Disorder MSC: www
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DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
Chapter 1
166. Among identical twins, if one of them has PTSD, then the other is also likely to have a: a. small hippocampus. b. large hippocampus. c. large adrenal gland. d. small adrenal gland. ANS: A Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
167. Having a small hippocampus may increase one’s vulnerability to: a. PTSD. b. bipolar disorder. c. Urbach-Wiethe disease. d. Kluver-Bucy syndrome. ANS: A Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
168. Which brain area is essential for the extreme emotional impact that produces PTSD? A corpus callosum B substantia nigra C dorsolateral prefrontal cortex D amygdala ANS: D Disorder KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Posttraumatic Stress TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
SHORT ANSWER 1. Briefly describe the James-Lange Theory of Emotion. ANS: The autonomic arousal and skeletal actions come first. What we experience as an emotion is the label we give to our responses: I am afraid because I run away; I am angry because I attack. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Emotions, Autonomic Arousal, and the JamesLange Theory OBJ: 1 TOP: 12.1 What is Emotion? MSC: www
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The Major Issues
2. Briefly describe the role of the left and right hemispheres contribution to emotions according to Jeffrey Gray. ANS: Activity of the left hemisphere, especially its frontal and temporal lobes, relates to what is called the Behavioral Activation System (BAS), marked by low to moderate autonomic arousal, and a tendency to approach, which could characterize either happiness or anger. Increased activity of the frontal and temporal lobes of the right hemisphere is associated with the Behavioral Inhibition System (BIS), which increases attention and arousal, inhibits action, and stimulates emotions such as fear and disgust. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2TOP:
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Areas Associated with Emotion 12.1 What is Emotion?
3. Briefly describe the startle reflex. ANS: The rapid response to an unexpected loud noise. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety MSC: www
OBJ:
3
4. Briefly describe how benzodiazepines work in the brain. ANS: Benzodiazepines bind to the GABAA receptor, which includes a site that binds GABA as well as sites that modify the sensitivity of the GABA site. When a benzodiazepine molecule attaches, it neither opens nor closes the chloride channel but twists the receptor so that the GABA binds more easily. Benzodiazepines thus facilitate the effects of GABA. Benzodiazepines exert their anti-anxiety effects in the amygdala, hypothalamus, midbrain, and several other areas. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Anxiety Disorders
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OBJ:
4
5. Briefly describe the role of the HPA axis and the autonomic nervous system (ANS) in the stress response. ANS: The ANS reacts very quickly to prepare the body for "fight or flight" by increasing heart rate, blood pressure, decreasing stomach secretions, etc. The HPA axis reacts more slowly, resulting in the release of cortisol from the adrenal gland. Cortisol helps the body mobilize energy. However, prolonged HPA activation can lead to immune suppression and deterioration of the hippocampus, resulting in impaired memory. PTS: 1 Cortex Axis
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 2
REF: Stress and the Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
ESSAY 1. Describe the role of heredity and environment of violent behavior.. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
OBJ:
1
OBJ:
2
OBJ:
3
2. Describe the role of serotonin synapses in aggressive behavior. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Attack Behaviors
3. Describe the role of the human amygdala in emotions. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 12.2 Attack and Escape Behaviors
REF: Fear and Anxiety
4. Describe the action of the HPA axis during stress. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Cortex Axis OBJ: 2 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
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The Major Issues
5. Discuss some of the effects of stress on the immune system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Cortex Axis OBJ: 2 TOP: 12.3 Stress and Health
REF: Stress and the Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal
Chapter 13: The Biology of Learning and Memory TRUE/FALSE 1. The UCR and the CR are always the same. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
2. In operant conditioning, an individual’s response leads to a reinforcer or punishment. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
REF: Localized
3. Punishment makes it less likely for a behavior to occur again in the future. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
4. In searching for the engram, Karl Lashley found that removal of larger areas of cortex resulted in the greatest impairment of memory. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
5. Lashley was able to determine that the frontal lobe cortex is more important for memories than the parietal lobe cortex. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www 6. Eye-blink conditioning depends on the lateral interpositus nucleus.
494
Chapter 1
REF: Localized
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
495
The Major Issues
REF: Localized
7. The lateral interpositus nucleus in the cerebellum is essential for learning. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
8. Information in short term memory is lost more easily than long term memory. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
9. To replace the concept of short-term memory, A. D. Baddeley and G. J. Hitch introduced the term delayed memory to refer to the way we store information while we are working at it. ANS: F OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
10. A common test of working memory is the delayed response task. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
11. H.M. was unable to form any kind of new memories after his surgery. ANS: F OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
12. H. M. had particularly severe impairment of episodic memories, or memories of single events. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
13. Procedural memory deals with the ability to state a memory in words. ANS: F OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
14. Hippocampal damage impairs spatial memory. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
15. Thiamine is necessary for the proper metabolism of glucose. ANS: T OBJ: 5
496
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
16. Korsakoff's patients perform better on tasks of implicit memory than explicit memory. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
17. A distinctive symptom of Korsakoff’s syndrome is confabulation, in which patients guess to fill in memory gaps. ANS: T OBJ: 5 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
18. Alzheimer's patients have better explicit memory than implicit memory. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
19. The genes controlling early-onset Alzheimer’s disease cause a protein called amyloid-𝗉. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
20. Impaired arousal and attention in Alzheimer's patients is largely due to damage to the basal forebrain. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
21. Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly and accompanied by no change in other stimuli. ANS: T PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Change OBJ: Nervous System
DIF: factual 1 TOP:
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms 13.2 Storing Information in the
DIF: factual 1 TOP:
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms 13.2 Storing Information in the
22. Sensitization is the opposite of habituation. ANS: T PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Change OBJ: Nervous System
23. After LTP is established, NMDA receptors are not required to maintain it. ANS: T in Vertebrates System MSC: www
497
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
The Major Issues
24. Drugs used to treat Alzheimer's disease affect activity of the cortex by enhancing the effects of acetylcholine. ANS: T OBJ: 5 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In Pavlov's experiments he presented a sound followed by meat. Gradually the sound came to elicit salivation. The sound in this experiment would be considered the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
2. In Pavlov's experiments, he presented a sound followed by meat. Gradually the sound came to elicit salivation. The meat in this experiment was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
3. In Pavlov's experiments, he presented a sound followed by meat. Gradually the sound came to elicit salivation. The salivation to the meat in this experiment was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
4. In Pavlov's experiments, he presented a sound followed by meat. Gradually the sound came to elicit salivation. The salivation to the sound in this experiment was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANS: D
498
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Localized
Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning 5. What should be the usual relationship between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus in classical conditioning? a. The conditioned stimulus should be presented first. b. The unconditioned stimulus should be presented first. c. They should be presented simultaneously. d. It depends on what each stimulus is. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
6. In operant conditioning, reinforcement is: a. any food that the organism likes. b. a stimulus that produces a reflexive response. c. an event that decreases the future probability of a response. d. an event that increases the future probability of a response. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
7. Giving a dolphin a treat when it does a summersault would be considered a(n): a. reinforcement. b. punishment. c. unconditioned response. d. conditioned response. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
8. In operant conditioning, punishment is: a. a stimulus that produces a reflexive response. b. an event that decreases the future probability of a response. c. an event that increases the future probability of a response. d. an event that prevents a response. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
REF: Localized
10. Which of the following is hardest to classify as classical or operant conditioning? a. pressing a lever to get food b. pressing a lever to escape shock c. salivating after a sound previously paired with food d. song learning by male birds
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The Major Issues
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning 11. Operant conditioning is to as classical conditioning is to a. reinforcement; punishment b. CS; UCS c. association; consequences d. consequences; association ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
.
REF: Localized
12. Pavlov believed that classical conditioning reflected a strengthened connection between two brain areas that were activated by: a. reinforcement and punishment. b. the response and a consequence. c. the UCS and UCR. d. the CS and UCS. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
13. In his search for the engram, Lashley was testing: a. Pavlov's view of classical conditioning. b. Skinner's view of operant conditioning. c. Garcia's view of taste aversion learning. d. Bandura's view of social learning. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
14. Lashley's term "engram" refers to: a. a drug that facilitates learning. b. the physical representation of learning. c. a procedure that improved memory. d. an automatic response to a sensory stimulus. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning 15. Karl Lashley called the physical basis of learning a(n): a. amyloid. b. engram. c. plaque. d. synapse.
500
Chapter 1
REF: Localized
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
REF: Localized
16. Lashley trained rats on a variety of mazes, then made deep cuts in their cortexes. He found that the cuts produced: a. a temporary impairment. b. a permanent impairment. c. day-to-day fluctuations in performance. d. little apparent effect. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
17. Lashley found that a deep cut in a rat's cerebral cortex completely eliminated the effects of learning under what circumstances, if any? a. if the cut was made after the learning b. if the learned task was simple c. if the learned task was complex d. under none of the circumstances he studied ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
18. Lashley found that when he removed parts of the brain: a. only the removal of frontal lobe tissue disrupted performance. b. only the removal of parietal lobe tissue disrupted performance. c. the amount of tissue removed was more important than its location. d. he found no loss of memories at all. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
19. "All parts of the cortex contribute equally to complex behaviors such as learning" defines: a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. equipotentiality. d. mass action. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
20. The cortex works as a whole, and the more cortex the better, defines: a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. equipotentiality. d. mass action.
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The Major Issues
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
21. Recent researchers have felt that Lashley's conclusions about the results of his search for the engram reflected some inappropriate assumptions. One of those assumptions was that: A memory involves a physical change in the nervous system. B all kinds of memory are physiologically the same. C more than one kind of memory exists. D different memories change different sets of neurons.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Localized Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY: NEW 22. Recent researchers have felt that Lashley's conclusions about the results of his search for the engram reflected some inappropriate assumptions. One of those assumptions was that: a. memory involves a physical change in the nervous system. b. that all kinds of memory are physiologically the same. c. more than one kind of memory exists. d. different memories involve different sets of neurons. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Localized Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY: NEW 23. Which of the following is one of the reasons that Lashley failed at finding the engram? a. He used poor surgical methods. b. Some memories do not depend on the cortex. c. The engram is continually changing location in the cortex. d. Classical conditioning had not been discovered yet. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
24. Which of the following is one of the reasons that Lashley failed at finding the engram? a. He used poor surgical methods. b. Not all memories are physiologically the same. c. The engram is continually changing location in the cortex. d. Classical conditioning had not been discovered yet. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
502
Chapter 1
REF: Localized
25. Lashley's conclusions from his engram research were based on certain unnecessary assumptions, which later psychologists have discarded. One of those assumptions was that the: A cerebral cortex is the best or only place to search for an engram. B left hemisphere of the brain is simply the mirror image of the right hemisphere. C physiological mechanisms of learning in rats are similar to those in humans. D hippocampus is more important for storage than it is for retrieval. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Localized Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY: NEW 26. Lashley's conclusions from his engram research were based on certain unnecessary assumptions, which later psychologists have discarded. One of those assumptions was that the: a. brain treats all kinds of memory the same way. b. left hemisphere of the brain is simply the mirror image of the right hemisphere. c. physiological mechanisms of learning in rats are similar to those in humans. d. hippocampus is more important for storage than it is for retrieval. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 376 OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning - Localized Representations 27. In studies that paired a tone with an air puff to the cornea of rabbits, learning was found to depend on one nucleus of the: a. cerebellum. b. hypothalamus. c. thalamus. d. hippocampus. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
REF: Localized
28. In studies of eyelid conditioning in rabbits, Thompson and his colleagues have demonstrated that learning for this conditioned response takes place in the: a. red nucleus of the midbrain. b. temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex. c. lateral interpositus nucleus of the cerebellum. d. ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
503
The Major Issues
REF: Localized
29. While studying classical conditioning of the eyelid response in rabbits, investigators suppress the activity of the red nucleus. What results will occur? A That procedure will not interfere with learning. B Learning will not occur. C The response will not occur, but later testing will reveal that learning occurred. D The rabbit will show immediate evidence of learning, but it will forget rapidly.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
30. Research indicates that the red nucleus is necessary for: a. the learning of a conditioned response. b. the performance of a conditioned response. c. the learning AND performance of a conditioned response. d. suppression of the conditioned response. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www 31. Preventing learning is to as suppressing a response is to a. classical conditioning; operant conditioning b. operant conditioning; classical conditioning c. the red nucleus; the lateral interpositus nucleus d. the lateral interpositus nucleus; the red nucleus
.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning 32. Thompson identified one nucleus of the cerebellum, the a. anterior nucleus b. fastigial nucleus c. red nucleus d. lateral interpositus nucleus
REF: Localized
REF: Localized
, as essential for learning.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
33. If the lateral interpositus nucleus is temporarily suppressed during classical conditioning of the eyeblink response, what happens? A After the nucleus recovers, the animal remembers the training fully. B Future conditioning occurs as if the animal had no previous training. C After the nucleus recovers, the animal learns more slowly than usual. D Future conditioning occurs rapidly, but the animal also forgets rapidly.
504
Chapter 1
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
34. The cerebellum's role in memories may be limited to what kind of learning or memory? a. language learning b. imprinting c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
35. A person with damage to their cerebellum may experience several problems, including: a. poor eyesight. b. inability to be classically conditioned. c. weakened conditioned eye blinks. d. exaggerated eye blinking. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
36. Donald Hebb (1949) distinguished between two types of memory that he called A implicit and explicit. B declarative and procedural. C short-term and long-term. D repressed and unrepressed.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 377 OBJ: 3 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning - Types of Memory KEY: NEW 37. Short-term memory may be characterized as: a. having a limited capacity. b. having an unlimited capacity. c. elaborative in nature. d. rehearsal free. ANS: A OBJ: 3
505
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
38. Hebb believed that short-term memory: a. should not be distinguished from long-term memory. b. was a temporary holding station on the way to long-term memory. c. was more important than long-term memory. d. was low-level memory. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
40. Donald Hebb distinguished between two kinds of memory because he could not imagine how a single kind of brain change could be both: A axonal and synaptic. B cognitive and muscular. C positive and negative. D quick and permanent.
ANS: D OBJ: 3 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY:
41. Researchers proposed that all information initially entered a short-term storage, where it stayed until the brain had time to it into long-term memory. a. transpose b. rehearse c. consolidate d. transfer ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
42. The general function of working memory is to: a. hold information until it has time to get to long-term storage. b. store memories of life events permanently. c. attend to and operate on current information. d. store information related to repetitious motor movements. ANS: C OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
43. According to Baddeley and Hitch, a common test of working memory is the: a. delayed response task b. reconsolidation task c. consolidation task d. working memory task ANS: A OBJ: 3
506
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
44. The delayed response task requires responding to something that you saw or heard a. in the distant past b. a short while ago c. right at that time d. in a meaningful way
.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 379 OBJ: 3 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning - Types of Memory NEW
KEY:
45. Which brain area is active in monkeys during a delay when they have to remember the location of a light and look there only after a several-second delay? a. cerebellum b. the prefrontal cortex c. the occipital lobes d. ventromedial hypothalamus ANS: B OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
46. Compared to young adults, aging humans with poor working memory have activity in the prefrontal cortex and aging humans with intact working memory have activity in the prefrontal cortex. a. decreased, decreased b. increased, increased c. increased, decreased d. decreased, increased ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
47. Which of the following drug types is most promising for treating people with failing memory? a. Tranquilizers b. Endorphins c. Depressants d. Stimulants ANS: D OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
48. Studies on help clarify the distinctions among different kinds of memory and enable us to explore the mechanisms of memory. a. dementia b. amnesia c. epilepsy d. stroke ANS: B
507
PTS: 1
DIF: conceptual
The Major Issues
REF: The Hippocampus
OBJ: 4
TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
49. One would most accurately describe H.M.'s memory problems as the inability to form: A short-term memories. B new implicit memories. C new episodic memories. D new procedural memories. ANS: C OBJ: 4 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY:
50. The patient H.M. suffered severe memory disorders following a surgical operation that removed the: a. corpus callosum. b. hippocampus. c. lateral interpositus nucleus and hypothalamus. d. prefrontal cortex and dorsomedial thalamus. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
51. Anterograde amnesia is to as retrograde amnesia is to . a. storing new memories; memories of the past b. memories just prior to the damage; memories from childhood c. short-term memory; long-term memory d. emotional memories; non-emotional memories ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
52. Retrograde amnesia is to as anterograde amnesia is to . a. temporary loss of memory; permanent loss of memory b. loss of short-term memory; loss of long-term memory c. inability to form new memories; loss of memory for old events d. loss of memory for old events; inability to form new memories ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
53. The inability to form memories for events that happened after brain damage is a characteristic of amnesia. a. retrograde b. anterograde c. proactive d. procedural ANS: B OBJ: 4
508
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
54. Forgetting events prior to the time of brain damage is a characteristic of a. retrograde b. anterograde c. proactive d. procedural ANS: A OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
amnesia.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
55. The patient H.M., who had major surgery for severe epilepsy in 1953, suffered a severe difficulty in remembering events: a. in working memory. b. during or after 1953. c. long before 1953. d. of his childhood. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
56. After his surgery, H.M. had the most difficulty with: a. learning new procedural tasks. b. remembering events long before the surgery. c. being able to define new English words. d. IQ tests. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 379 OBJ: 4 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning - The Hippocampus and Amnesia 57. H.M. was able to learn and remember: a. people's names. b. how to find his way to a new residence. c. skills like mazes and puzzles. d. events in recent history. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
58. A peculiarity of the memory of the neurological patient H.M. was that he was able to: a. retain new skills but not remember having learned them. b. form new long-term memories but not short-term memories. c. find his way to a new residence. d. remember people's names but not which name went with which person. ANS: A OBJ: 4 MSC: www
509
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
59. Deliberate recall of information that one recognizes as a memory is termed: a. priming. b. explicit memory. c. procedural memory. d. declarative memory. ANS: B OBJ: 4 60.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
is an influence of recent experience on behavior, even if one does not recognize that influence. a. Priming. b. Explicit memory. c. Procedural memory. d. Implicit memory ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
61. Individuals with amnesia who play video games such as Tetris: a. remember playing the game, but do not improve performance. b. don't remember playing the game, but improve their performance. c. never get any better. d. are more likely to do better on spatial rotation tasks. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
62. The memory for the development of motor skills is termed: a. priming. b. explicit memory. c. procedural memory. d. declarative memory. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
63. The ability to state a memory in words is termed: a. procedural memory. b. declarative memory. c. implicit memory. d. short term memory. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
64. Which of these types of memory is MOST impaired by damage to the hippocampus? A short-term memory B implicit memory C episodic memory D procedural memory
510
Chapter 1
ANS: C OBJ: 4 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY:
65. Which of the following accurately describes H.M.'s memory problems? a. impaired short-term memory, but not long-term memory b. impaired procedural memory, but not declarative memory c. impaired explicit memory, but not implicit memory d. impaired personal memories, but not impersonal memories ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
66. One ironic but interesting finding is that people with amnesia will improve on no memory with respect to the task. a. procedural; explicit b. explicit; procedural c. declarative; implicit d. implicit; procedural ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
67. Procedural memory is to as declarative memory is to a. jogging; walking b. reading; writing c. carrying on a conversation; listening to the radio d. juggling; explaining the sequence of moves in juggling ANS: D OBJ: 4
tasks, but have
.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
68. The delayed matching-to-sample task is considered to be an example of: a. declarative memory. b. procedural memory. c. the Morris search task. d. Korsakoff's syndrome. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
69. Damage to the impairs performance on the delayed matching-to-sample and delayed nonmatching-to-sample tasks. a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. hippocampus d. parietal cortex ANS: C OBJ: 4
511
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The Major Issues
70. Hippocampal damage has the greatest effect on: a. the delayed match-to-sample task when the same two objects are used over and over again. b. the delayed match-to-sample task when the two objects are continuously changed. c. the delayed nonmatch-to-sample task when the same two objects are used over and over again. d. procedural memory. ANS: B OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
71. If a researcher makes minor changes to the procedure of the delayed matching-to-sample and delayed nonmatching-to-sample tasks, monkeys with hippocampal damage: a. perform well, regardless of the procedure. b. perform poorly, regardless of the procedure. c. perform differently, depending on the procedure. d. improve temporarily, regardless of procedure, and then return to their normal level of performance. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
72. What area of the brain is particularly important for coding spatial information? a. hippocampus b. hypothalamus c. pons d. reticular formation ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
73. A study with London taxi drivers found that answering than answering . a. nonspatial questions; spatial questions b. spatial questions; nonspatial questions c. long questions; short questions d. short questions; long questions ANS: B OBJ: 4
activated their hippocampus more
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
74. A rat is placed in a radial maze in which it has already been trained for many trials. As compared to rats without damage to their hippocampus, rats with damage are more likely to: a. enter an alley at random. b. fail to eat the food they find. c. enter one of the correct alleys repeatedly. d. enter an alley that is never correct. ANS: C OBJ: 4
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Chapter 1
75. A a. b. c. d.
has eight or more arms, some of which have a bit of food or other reinforcer at the end. radial maze Morris maze Thompson maze spatial maze
ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
76. A rat must swim through murky water to find a rest platform that is just under the surface in the: a. radial maze. b. Morris search task. c. configurable learning task. d. delayed matching-to-sample task. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
77. In the Morris search task, a rat with hippocampal damage will: a. not be able to find the platform. b. easily be able to find the platform regardless of where it is. c. gradually learn the route if the starting and ending point are the same. d. find the platform, but never remember where it was. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
78. A rat with hippocampal damage has difficulty with the Morris search task because it: a. loses its motivation to find the platform. b. cannot remember how to swim. c. has difficulty remembering where the platform is from trial to trial. d. develops a water phobia. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
79. Which of the following experiments would be a reasonable test of whether an animal has suffered damage to its hippocampus? a. Does it reenter a single arm before entering all the other appropriate arms in a radial maze? b. Does it sometimes enter an arm in a radial maze that is never correct? c. Can it learn to climb along a thin wire without losing its balance? d. Can it learn to turn one direction when it hears a loud tone and a different direction when it hears a soft tone? ANS: A OBJ: 4
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The Major Issues
80. There is compelling evidence for the role of the hippocampus in a. short term b. implicit c. spatial d. auditory ANS: C OBJ: 4
memory.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
81. A number of species of birds differ in the size of their hippocampus. The species with the largest hippocampus performs best on tasks of: a. spatial memory. b. color memory. c. auditory memory. d. implicit memory. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
82. Researchers have found that different species of birds differ in terms of how much they depend on food they have stored to get through the winter. What factor is related to depending on and finding stored food? a. overall brain size b. relative size of the cortex c. relative size of the amygdala d. relative size of the hippocampus ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
83. The hippocampus is especially important for which kind of memory? A procedural B episodic C short-term D implicit ANS: B OBJ: 4 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY:
84. The hippocampus is more important for remembering the remembering the . A gist; contextual details B contextual details; gist C visual aspects; auditory aspects D auditory aspects; visual aspects ANS: B OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
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of memory and less necessary for
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
85. As time passes, memory becomes less detailed, less dependent on the hippocampus, and more dependent on the: a. basal ganglia b. Amygdala c. cerebral cortex d. Thalamus ANS: C OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
86. What type of deficiency causes Korsakoff's syndrome? a. Thiamine b. Protein c. Sodium d. Calcium ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
87. Who is most likely to develop Korsakoff's syndrome? a. those exposed to chronic stress b. chronic alcoholics c. certain ethnic groups d. vegetarians ANS: B OBJ: 5 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
88. Most Korsakoff's victims have a loss or shrinkage of neurons throughout the brain, especially in the: a. cingulate gyrus. b. occipital lobe. c. dorsomedial thalamus. d. cerebellum. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
89. Korsakoff's syndrome is a disorder most often associated with damage to the: a. dorsomedial thalamus and mamillary bodies. b. anterior thalamus and fornix. c. dorsomedial thalamus and hippocampus d. anterior thalamus and mamillary bodies. ANS: A OBJ: 5
515
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The Major Issues
90. A disorder most often associated with damage to the dorsomedial thalamus and mamillary bodies is: a. Alzheimer's disease. b. Korsakoff's syndrome. c. phenylketonuria. d. Down syndrome. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
91. A distinctive symptom of Korsakoff’s syndrome is: a. tremors. b. dementia. c. memory loss. d. confabulation. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
92. Damage to the produces symptoms similar to Korsakoff's syndrome. a. prefrontal cortex b. basal ganglia c. occipital cortex d. precentral gyrus ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
93. What memory impairments are found in patients with Korsakoff's syndrome? a. only anterograde amnesia b. only retrograde amnesia c. anterograde and retrograde amnesia d. neither anterograde nor retrograde amnesia ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
94. Individuals with Korsakoff's syndrome are similar to people with damage to the: a. amygdala. b. prefrontal cortex. c. hippocampus. d. hypothalamus. ANS: B OBJ: 5 95.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
People with Korsakoff's syndrome show: a. better implicit than explicit memory. b. better explicit than implicit memory. c. better declarative than procedural memory. d. memory for the order of events, but not memory for colors of common objects.
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ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
96. When prompted with cues, Korsakoff's victims can often produce words from lists they saw but claim to have never seen. This exemplifies what kind of memory? a. reference b. procedural c. implicit d. explicit ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
97. When Korsakoff's syndrome patients read over a list of words, what evidence of memory, if any, do they demonstrate? a. None at all. b. They remember the first word and the last word only. c. They remember reading a list, although they cannot remember any of the words. d. They say many of the correct words if they are given the first three letters. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
98. What memory task would a typical patient with Korsakoff's syndrome be able to do without difficulty? a. recall the temporal order of events b. remember someone he or she met in the past week c. an implicit memory task d. an explicit memory task ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
99. Confusing a made-up answer as a memory of an actual experience is referred to as: a. procedural memory. b. declarative memory. c. configuration. d. confabulation. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
100. What is confabulation? a. confusing a made-up answer as a memory of an actual experience b. having the two sides of the body working antagonistically c. confusing procedural memory for declarative memory d. remembering names, but being unable to put them with a face ANS: A OBJ: 5
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The Major Issues
101. Korsakoff's patients best remember a list of short sentences by: a. reading and rereading them. b. testing themselves on each sentence before going on to the next. c. creating an elaborate story integrating the content of the sentences. d. relating each sentence to a past personal experience. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
102. As with Korsakoff's patients, Alzheimer's patients have impairments in relatively unimpaired in memory. a. short-term; long-term b. implicit; explicit c. procedural; declarative d. declarative; procedural ANS: D OBJ: 5
memory, but are
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
103. Alzheimer's patients are relatively unimpaired in: a. declarative memory. b. procedural memory. c. short-term memory. d. implicit and explicit memory. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
104. Someone with a mild to moderate case of Alzheimer's disease would be most likely to remember which of the following? a. how to drive a car b. what make of car he or she drives c. where he or she parked the car d. the time he or she most recently drove a car ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
105. Korsakoff's patients and Alzheimer's patients are most successful at learning and remembering: a. facts. b. skills. c. names of people. d. words. ANS: B OBJ: 5
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Chapter 1
106. Korsakoff's patients and Alzheimer's patients have better memory for: a. recent events than events of the remote past. b. what is happening at a given moment than general principles. c. skills than facts. d. verbal information than visual information. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
107. Restlessness, depression, hallucinations and loss of appetite all accompany: a. Korsakoff's syndrome. b. Alzheimer's disease. c. confabulation. d. Aplysia. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
108. If people with Down syndrome live long enough, they almost invariably develop: a. Korsakoff's syndrome. b. Parkinson's disease. c. Huntington's disease. d. Alzheimer's disease. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
109. Researchers begin to look for clues to the genetics of Alzheimer's by investigating the chromosome related to: a. Korsakoff's disease. b. Down syndrome. c. epilepsy. d. alcoholism. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
110. In some cases of Alzheimer's disease that run in families, the cause of the disease appears to involve which gene(s)? a. a gene on the X chromosome b. a gene on the Y chromosome c. a series of genes on chromosome 4 d. genes on several different chromosomes ANS: D OBJ: 5
519
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The Major Issues
111. Alzheimer's leads to the accumulation of a. glucose b. amyloid deposits c. arachidonic acid d. serotonin ANS: B OBJ: 5
in the brain.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
112. The genes related to Alzheimer's lead to the accumulation, in the brain, of: a. glucose. b. amyloid deposits. c. arachidonic acid. d. serotonin. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
113. Structures formed from degenerating axons and dendrites are referred to as: a. tau proteins. b. amyloid beta proteins. c. confabulations. d. plaques. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
114. The most likely cause of the brain damage typical of Alzheimer's disease is due to a: a. deficit of thiamine. b. excess of neurotrophins. c. increase in amyloid-𝗉 proteins. d. excess of acetylcholine. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
115. Alzheimer's is associated with brain damage as a result of: a. loss of the fibers connecting the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia. b. loss of cell bodies in the dorsomedial thalamus. c. tangles and plaques in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus. d. an epileptic focus in the temporal lobe of the cortex. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
116. Plaques and tangles in the cerebral cortex are characteristic of people with: a. retrograde amnesia. b. anterograde amnesia. c. Korsakoff's syndrome. d. Alzheimer's disease. ANS: D OBJ: 5
520
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Chapter 1
117. What is believed to be the likely cause of plaques? a. a relative deficit of thiamine b. increased pressure from cerebrospinal fluid c. amyloid deposits in the brain d. a relative deficit of acetylcholine ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
118. Most researchers now believe that the accumulation of amyloid and tau protein: a. is a result of the Alzheimer's disease. b. are partly the cause of Alzheimer's disease. c. are byproducts of acetylcholine. d. are byproducts of dying glial cells. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
119. Structures formed from degenerating neuronal cell bodies are called: a. tau proteins. b. amyloid beta proteins. c. tangles. d. confabulations. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
120. Amyloid is to , as tau is to a. plaques, tangles b. tangles, plaques c. neurons, glia d. glia, neurons ANS: A OBJ: 5
.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
121. The most common treatment for Alzheimer’s disease is to give drugs that stimulate: a. dopamine receptors. b. acetylcholine receptors. c. tau receptors. d. GABA receptors. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
122. In studies with mice, the antioxidant curcumin reduced: a. blood pressure. b. amyloid levels and plaques. c. acetylcholine release. d. glutamate levels.
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The Major Issues
ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
123. A possible treatment for Alzheimer's is the administration of drugs that: a. stimulate acetylcholine receptors. b. inhibit the basal forebrain. c. inhibit acetylcholine release. d. increase Aß42 production. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
124. Research with rats suggests that the risk for Alzheimer's disease can be reduced by eating a diet rich in: a. protein. b. carbohydrates. c. thiamine. d. antioxidants. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
125. The study of amnesic patients leads us to the conclusion that people have and that memory depends on of the brain. a. one; one specific location b. one; different parts c. more than one; one specific location d. more than one; different parts ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
126. Altered tau protein cannot bind to its usual targets within axons, and so it a. stops spreading into the cell body and dendrites b. stops spreading into the cell body only c. starts spreading into the cell body only d. starts spreading into the cell body and dendrites ANS: D OBJ: 5 KEY: NEW
kind of memory,
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
127. A study of patients with amnesia reveals that people: a. lose all aspects of memory equally b. have predictable memory loss c. can be categorized into distinct forms of memory loss d. do not lose all aspects of memory equally ANS: D OBJ: 5 KEY: NEW
522
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
Chapter 1
128. People with parietal lobe damage the process of a. remembering names b. associating one event with another c. episodic memory d. Speech ANS: B Memory Functioning
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5 KEY: NEW
is damaged.
DIF: factual REF: Other Brain Areas in TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain
129. People with damage in the anterior and inferior regions of the temporal lobe suffer: a. cingulate dementia. b. implicit dementia. c. lexical dementia. d. semantic dementia. ANS: D Memory Functioning
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: Other Brain Areas in TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain
130. Parts of the are important for learning about rewards and punishments. a. Hypothalamus b. Fornix c. prefrontal cortex d. temporal cortex ANS: C Memory Functioning
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: Other Brain Areas in TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain
131. When Penfield stimulated the temporal cortex of alert and awake brain surgery patients, he found that they: a. went into spastic convulsions. b. remembered specific events from earlier in their lives in great detail. c. lost all memory for events during and shortly preceding the stimulation. d. had a dream-like experience. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
REF: Introduction
132. Recent interpretation of Walter Penfield's brain stimulation studies suggests that brain stimulation: a. produces dreamlike experiences. b. results in memory of motor skills. c. is better for recovering lost memories. d. has no effect. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
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REF: Introduction
133. One line of research that initially appeared promising, but has since faded, was to study learning in decapitated: a. fish. b. rats. c. monkeys. d. cockroaches. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
REF: Introduction
134. Why did some experimenters in the 1960's and 1970's grind up the brains of some rats and inject extracts into other rats? a. It was believed that the extra neurotransmitter would speed up learning. b. It was believed that memories could be transferred in this way. c. They were interested in brain transplants, and wanted to see if the material would be rejected. d. Studies of human cannibals had found extraordinary memory abilities. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
REF: Introduction
135. What is the current status of research on transfer of training through brain extracts? a. It is generally accepted that this works under a variety of conditions. b. Transfer succeeds only in planaria: it has never worked with any other species. c. It has been revealed that claims of such a phenomenon were based on fraud. d. Research ended without a conclusion because the phenomenon was difficult to replicate. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
REF: Introduction
136. A "Hebbian" synapse is one in which: a. activity at that synapse strengthens the response of the postsynaptic neuron to all of its synapses. b. repeated use of the synapse over a limited period of time leads to habituation. c. calcium flows into the cell while magnesium flows out of the cell. d. activity of the synapse, paired with an action potential in the postsynaptic cell, strengthens that synapse. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Learning and the Hebbian Synapse TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System 137. It is believed that Hebbian synapses may be critical for: a. associative learning. b. reflexes. c. loudness perception. d. color vision. ANS: A Hebbian Synapse
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Chapter 1
138. What is a major advantage of Aplysia for studies on the physiology of learning? a. Their memories are more permanent than those of vertebrates. b. There are no differences between one neuron and another. c. There is great similarity of nervous system anatomy from one individual to another. d. They have only one type of learning. ANS: C PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
139. Why is the Aplysia such a popular animal for single-cell studies of learning? a. Individual cells identified in one animal can be recognized in another. b. Aplysia have greater learning abilities than other invertebrates. c. Aplysia have short-term learning but not long-term learning. d. Aplysia have only two neurotransmitters, one excitatory and one inhibitory. ANS: A PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
140. If a stimulus is presented repeatedly, followed by no other stimulus, the animal will gradually stop responding. This is known as: a. sensitization. b. habituation. c. classical conditioning. d. imprinting. ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
141. If a jet of water is repeatedly squirted at the gills of an Aplysia, a. sensitization b. habituation c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
occurs.
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
142. If you stimulate the gills of an Aplysia by squirting them with a brief jet of seawater, at first it will: a. ignore the water. b. withdraw its gills. c. take in the water through the gills. d. squirt the water in the direction of the source. ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
525
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
The Major Issues
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
143. Habituation of the gill withdrawal response in Aplysia depends on: a. muscle fatigue. b. a decreased response by the sensory nerve to the stimulus. c. a change in the synapse between the sensory neuron and the motor neuron. d. an increase in the inhibitory impulses from sources other than the sensory nerve. ANS: C PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
144. During habituation of the gill-withdrawal reflex in Aplysia, the change in the nervous system takes place at the: a. axon hillock of the sensory receptor. b. axon of the motor neuron. c. synapse between the sensory neuron and the motor neuron. d. inhibitory neurons that connect to the motor neuron. ANS: C PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
145. Which of the following is an example of sensitization? a. Following a series of electrical shocks, a person overresponds to noises. b. Following a series of loud noises, a person is no longer aroused by additional noises. c. After repeated pairings of a noise with shock, a person is aroused less than usual by any mild stimulus. d. After repeated pairings of a noise with shock, a person is aroused less than usual only by the noise. ANS: A PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
146. After a series of electrical shocks, a person becomes overresponsive to lights and noises. This exemplifies: a. habituation. b. sensitization. c. operant conditioning. d. classical conditioning. ANS: B PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
147. Habituation and sensitization differ depending upon whether: a. the effect is retroactive or proactive. b. the response grows weaker or stronger. c. the animal's behavior changes or fails to change. d. it occurs in all species or just mammals.
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ANS: B PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
148. Strong stimulation anywhere on the skin of an Aplysia excites axons that release: a. substance P. b. serotonin. c. neuropeptide Y. d. dopamine. ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
149. Strong stimulation anywhere on the skin of an Aplysia excites axons that attach to receptors and: a. open potassium channels in the membrane. b. close potassium channels in the membrane. c. opens sodium channels in the membrane. d. close sodium channels in the membrane. ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
150. Which of the following would most likely interfere with sensitization in the Aplysia? a. increasing serotonin levels b. decreasing serotonin levels c. pinching the skin d. blocking GABA receptors ANS: B PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
151. Following a certain kind of experience in Aplysia, a facilitating interneuron causes changes that block the potassium channels at the end of the axon of the sensory neuron, leading to: a. sensitization. b. habituation. c. both sensitization and habituation. d. death of the individual sensory neuron. ANS: A PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
152. In Aplysia, sensitization has been found to depend on a series of events that: a. block sodium channels in the motor neuron. b. decrease calcium concentration in the area surrounding the sensory neuron. c. open chloride channels in the motor neuron. d. block potassium channels in the sensory neuron.
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The Major Issues
ANS: D PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
153. Research on Aplysia shows us that at least one physiological basis for learning involves which of the following? a. changes in RNA molecules b. presynaptic changes c. increased dendrite branching d. changes in glia ANS: B PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
154. How does one produce long-term potentiation of cells in the mammalian nervous system? a. a burst of many stimuli within a few seconds b. many stimuli spaced at exactly equal intervals over a period of minutes c. minutes of uninterrupted inhibitory stimulation d. a simultaneous pairing of an excitatory stimulus and an inhibitory stimulus ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
155. If there is a burst of intense stimulation to a dendrite by one or more axons connected to it in a rapid series, it is known as: a. long-term potentiation of the cell's response to stimuli. b. long-term inhibition of the cell's response to stimuli. c. potentiation of the cell's response to stimuli for a few seconds. d. inhibition of the cell's response to stimuli for a few seconds. ANS: A in Vertebrates System MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
156. It is hoped that long-term potentiation (LTP) will help to explain: a. Alzheimer's disease. b. Korsakoff's syndrome. c. learning and memory. d. inherited intelligence. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
528
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
Chapter 1
157. If some of the synapses onto a cell have been highly active and others have not, only the active ones become strengthened. This is known as the property of: a. specificity. b. cooperativity. c. associativity. d. NMDA. ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
158. Nearly simultaneous stimulation by two or more axons produces LTP, whereas stimulation by just one produces it weakly, if at all. This is known as the property of: a. specificity. b. cooperativity. c. associativity. d. LTD. ANS: B in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
159. Pairing a weak input with a strong input enhances later responses to the weak input. This is known as the property of: a. specificity. b. cooperativity c. associativity. d. LTD. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
160. A long-term depression (LTD) in a neuron is a decreased response at synapses that occurs when: a. axons fire rapidly. b. axons fire slowly. c. an excitatory synapse and an inhibitory synapse fire together. d. an axon excites a synaptic receptor distant from its usual site. ANS: B in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
161. At many hippocampal synapses, long-term potentiation depends on the activation of NMDA receptors, which are responsive to: a. GABA. b. glutamate. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine.
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The Major Issues
ANS: B in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
162. Long-term potentiation produces a long-term enhancement of glutamate responses at A AMPA synapses. B NMDA synapses. C both AMPA and NMDA synapses. D neither AMPA nor NMDA synapses. ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous MSC: www
163. At many hippocampal synapses, long-term potentiation depends on the activation of which type of receptor? a. Nicotinic b. Muscarinic c. NMDA d. GABA ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
164. In addition to the neurotransmitter glutamate, in order to activate the NMDA receptors, the neuron requires: a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. increased release of magnesium ions from the presynaptic neuron. d. removal of magnesium ions from sodium and calcium channels. ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
165. Under most conditions, NMDA receptors do NOT respond to their neurotransmitter because: a. magnesium ions block the passage of calcium through the receptor's channel. b. too many sodium ions enter through the AMPA channels. c. any recent depolarization of the membrane inactivates the NMDA receptors. d. the channel can open only when the potassium concentration inside the neuron exceeds a certain high level. ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
166. The NMDA receptor responds to its transmitters when: a. magnesium is present in the membrane. b. enough sodium ions exit through AMPA channels. c. the membrane is already at least partly depolarized. d. the dendrite is depolarized enough to produce an action potential.
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ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
167. What is known to be critical for long-term potentiation? a. high levels of magnesium b. only one axon being active at a time c. the absence of NMDA receptors d. a massive inflow of calcium ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
168. When glutamate massively stimulates AMPA receptors, the resulting depolarization: a. keeps glutamate from stimulating nearby NMDA receptors. b. keeps calcium from entering the cell. c. enables glutamate to stimulate nearby NMDA receptors. d. inhibits the dendrite's responsiveness to glutamate. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
169. CaMKII is directly activated by: a. calcium b. sodium c. GABA d. potassium ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
170. A diet low in calcium could possible interfere with learning by preventing: a. the sodium potassium pump from working. b. dendrite migration. c. NMDA receptor production. d. activation of CaMKII. ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
171. Which of the following is NOT a way in which CaMKII facilitates LTP? a. Dendrites build more AMPA receptors. b. Neurons produce more NMDA receptors. c. Individual AMPA receptors become more active. d. Neurons decrease dendritic branching.
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ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
172. Once LTP has been established: a. it remains dependent on NMDA synapses. b. it fades quickly. c. AMPA receptors convert into NMDA receptors. d. the AMPA receptors are more responsive to glutamate. ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
173. Blocking NMDA synapses has what effect, if any, on LTP? a. There is no effect on LTP. b. It enhances the establishment of LTP. c. It prevents the establishment of LTP. d. In prevents the maintenance of previously established LTP. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
174. Drugs that block NMDA synapses: a. interfere with the maintenance of LTP. b. prevent the establishment of LTP. c. facilitate the maintenance of LTP. d. facilitate the establishment of LTP. ANS: B in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
175. Retrograde transmitters: a. are produced in the axon terminals. b. inhibit the postsynaptic cell. c. are broken down before they are released. d. are released by the postsynaptic cell. ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
176. The most enduring forms of LTP depend on changes in the: a. presynaptic neuron only. b. postsynaptic neuron only. c. pre and postsynaptic neurons. d. dendritic branching. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
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DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
Chapter 1
177. Some memory-enhancing supplements appear to act in common by: a. increasing blood flow to the brain. b. blocking LTP. c. decreasing calcium levels. d. stimulating acetylcholine receptors. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Improving Memory TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
178. Researchers have found several drugs, including a. gingko biloba b. prozac c. propanolol d. clozapine ANS: C OBJ: 2
, which weaken memories of recent events.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Improving Memory TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the difference between declarative and procedural memory. ANS: Declarative memory is the ability to state a memory in words. Procedural memory is the development of motor skills and habits. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
4
2. Describe the delayed matching-to-sample task. ANS: In the delayed matching-to-sample task, an animal sees an object (the sample) and then, after a delay, gets a choice between two objects, from which it must choose the one that matches the sample. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
OBJ:
4
3. What is Korsakoff’s syndrome? ANS: Korsakoff’s syndrome is brain damage caused by prolonged thiamine deficiency which occurs mostly in chronic alcoholics.
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The Major Issues
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
OBJ:
5
4. What is habituation as it relates to memory research? ANS: Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly and accompanied by no change in other stimuli. PTS: 1 Behavior Change System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms of Invertebrate TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
5. What is sensitization as it relates to memory research? ANS: Sensitization is an increase in response to mild stimuli as a result of exposure to more intense stimuli. Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly and accompanied by no change in other stimuli. PTS: 1 Behavior Change System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms of Invertebrate TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
6. Briefly describe how LTP occurs, including how glutamate and its receptors are involved. ANS: LTP begins with the rapid stimulation of a dendrite, for several seconds. Release of glutamate stimulates AMPA receptors that depolarize the membrane. Then, NMDA receptors become responsive to glutamate and calcium enters the cell to activate CaMKII, which produces a series of cellular changes that maintain LTP. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation in Vertebrates TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
ESSAY 1. Describe Lashley’s concept of an Engram. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
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DIF: conceptual REF: Localized Representations of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
2. Describe the types of memory problems displayed by Patient H.M. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
4
3. Describe the some of the experiments testing the hippocampus’s role in spatial memory. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
4
4. Describe the brain pathology of Alzheimer’s disease. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
5
5. Describe the role of the other brain areas besides the hippocampus in memory function. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
Chapter 13: The Biology of Learning and Memory TRUE/FALSE 1. The UCR and the CR are always the same. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
2. In operant conditioning, an individual’s response leads to a reinforcer or punishment. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
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The Major Issues
REF: Localized
5
3. Punishment makes it less likely for a behavior to occur again in the future. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
4. In searching for the engram, Karl Lashley found that removal of larger areas of cortex resulted in the greatest impairment of memory. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
5. Lashley was able to determine that the frontal lobe cortex is more important for memories than the parietal lobe cortex. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
REF: Localized
6. Eye-blink conditioning depends on the lateral interpositus nucleus. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
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REF: Localized
7. The lateral interpositus nucleus in the cerebellum is essential for learning. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
8. Information in short term memory is lost more easily than long term memory. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
9. To replace the concept of short-term memory, A. D. Baddeley and G. J. Hitch introduced the term delayed memory to refer to the way we store information while we are working at it. ANS: F OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
10. A common test of working memory is the delayed response task. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
11. H.M. was unable to form any kind of new memories after his surgery. ANS: F OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
12. H. M. had particularly severe impairment of episodic memories, or memories of single events. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
13. Procedural memory deals with the ability to state a memory in words. ANS: F OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
14. Hippocampal damage impairs spatial memory. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
15. Thiamine is necessary for the proper metabolism of glucose. ANS: T OBJ: 5
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
16. Korsakoff's patients perform better on tasks of implicit memory than explicit memory. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
17. A distinctive symptom of Korsakoff’s syndrome is confabulation, in which patients guess to fill in memory gaps. ANS: T OBJ: 5 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
18. Alzheimer's patients have better explicit memory than implicit memory. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
19. The genes controlling early-onset Alzheimer’s disease cause a protein called amyloid-𝗉. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
20. Impaired arousal and attention in Alzheimer's patients is largely due to damage to the basal forebrain. ANS: T OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
21. Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly and accompanied by no change in other stimuli. ANS: T PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Change OBJ: Nervous System
DIF: factual 1 TOP:
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms 13.2 Storing Information in the
DIF: factual 1 TOP:
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms 13.2 Storing Information in the
22. Sensitization is the opposite of habituation. ANS: T PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Change OBJ: Nervous System
23. After LTP is established, NMDA receptors are not required to maintain it. ANS: T in Vertebrates System MSC: www
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
Chapter 1
24. Drugs used to treat Alzheimer's disease affect activity of the cortex by enhancing the effects of acetylcholine. ANS: T OBJ: 5 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In Pavlov's experiments he presented a sound followed by meat. Gradually the sound came to elicit salivation. The sound in this experiment would be considered the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
2. In Pavlov's experiments, he presented a sound followed by meat. Gradually the sound came to elicit salivation. The meat in this experiment was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
3. In Pavlov's experiments, he presented a sound followed by meat. Gradually the sound came to elicit salivation. The salivation to the meat in this experiment was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
4. In Pavlov's experiments, he presented a sound followed by meat. Gradually the sound came to elicit salivation. The salivation to the sound in this experiment was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANS: D
539
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Localized
Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning 5. What should be the usual relationship between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus in classical conditioning? a. The conditioned stimulus should be presented first. b. The unconditioned stimulus should be presented first. c. They should be presented simultaneously. d. It depends on what each stimulus is. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
6. In operant conditioning, reinforcement is: a. any food that the organism likes. b. a stimulus that produces a reflexive response. c. an event that decreases the future probability of a response. d. an event that increases the future probability of a response. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
7. Giving a dolphin a treat when it does a summersault would be considered a(n): a. reinforcement. b. punishment. c. unconditioned response. d. conditioned response. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
8. In operant conditioning, punishment is: a. a stimulus that produces a reflexive response. b. an event that decreases the future probability of a response. c. an event that increases the future probability of a response. d. an event that prevents a response. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
REF: Localized
10. Which of the following is hardest to classify as classical or operant conditioning? a. pressing a lever to get food b. pressing a lever to escape shock c. salivating after a sound previously paired with food d. song learning by male birds
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning 11. Operant conditioning is to as classical conditioning is to a. reinforcement; punishment b. CS; UCS c. association; consequences d. consequences; association ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
.
REF: Localized
12. Pavlov believed that classical conditioning reflected a strengthened connection between two brain areas that were activated by: a. reinforcement and punishment. b. the response and a consequence. c. the UCS and UCR. d. the CS and UCS. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
13. In his search for the engram, Lashley was testing: a. Pavlov's view of classical conditioning. b. Skinner's view of operant conditioning. c. Garcia's view of taste aversion learning. d. Bandura's view of social learning. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
14. Lashley's term "engram" refers to: a. a drug that facilitates learning. b. the physical representation of learning. c. a procedure that improved memory. d. an automatic response to a sensory stimulus. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning 15. Karl Lashley called the physical basis of learning a(n): a. amyloid. b. engram. c. plaque. d. synapse.
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REF: Localized
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
REF: Localized
16. Lashley trained rats on a variety of mazes, then made deep cuts in their cortexes. He found that the cuts produced: a. a temporary impairment. b. a permanent impairment. c. day-to-day fluctuations in performance. d. little apparent effect. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
17. Lashley found that a deep cut in a rat's cerebral cortex completely eliminated the effects of learning under what circumstances, if any? a. if the cut was made after the learning b. if the learned task was simple c. if the learned task was complex d. under none of the circumstances he studied ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
18. Lashley found that when he removed parts of the brain: a. only the removal of frontal lobe tissue disrupted performance. b. only the removal of parietal lobe tissue disrupted performance. c. the amount of tissue removed was more important than its location. d. he found no loss of memories at all. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
19. "All parts of the cortex contribute equally to complex behaviors such as learning" defines: a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. equipotentiality. d. mass action. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
20. The cortex works as a whole, and the more cortex the better, defines: a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. equipotentiality. d. mass action.
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
21. Recent researchers have felt that Lashley's conclusions about the results of his search for the engram reflected some inappropriate assumptions. One of those assumptions was that: A memory involves a physical change in the nervous system. B all kinds of memory are physiologically the same. C more than one kind of memory exists. D different memories change different sets of neurons.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Localized Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY: NEW 22. Recent researchers have felt that Lashley's conclusions about the results of his search for the engram reflected some inappropriate assumptions. One of those assumptions was that: a. memory involves a physical change in the nervous system. b. that all kinds of memory are physiologically the same. c. more than one kind of memory exists. d. different memories involve different sets of neurons. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Localized Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY: NEW 23. Which of the following is one of the reasons that Lashley failed at finding the engram? a. He used poor surgical methods. b. Some memories do not depend on the cortex. c. The engram is continually changing location in the cortex. d. Classical conditioning had not been discovered yet. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
24. Which of the following is one of the reasons that Lashley failed at finding the engram? a. He used poor surgical methods. b. Not all memories are physiologically the same. c. The engram is continually changing location in the cortex. d. Classical conditioning had not been discovered yet. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
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The Major Issues
REF: Localized
25. Lashley's conclusions from his engram research were based on certain unnecessary assumptions, which later psychologists have discarded. One of those assumptions was that the: A cerebral cortex is the best or only place to search for an engram. B left hemisphere of the brain is simply the mirror image of the right hemisphere. C physiological mechanisms of learning in rats are similar to those in humans. D hippocampus is more important for storage than it is for retrieval. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Localized Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY: NEW 26. Lashley's conclusions from his engram research were based on certain unnecessary assumptions, which later psychologists have discarded. One of those assumptions was that the: a. brain treats all kinds of memory the same way. b. left hemisphere of the brain is simply the mirror image of the right hemisphere. c. physiological mechanisms of learning in rats are similar to those in humans. d. hippocampus is more important for storage than it is for retrieval. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 376 OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning - Localized Representations 27. In studies that paired a tone with an air puff to the cornea of rabbits, learning was found to depend on one nucleus of the: a. cerebellum. b. hypothalamus. c. thalamus. d. hippocampus. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
REF: Localized
28. In studies of eyelid conditioning in rabbits, Thompson and his colleagues have demonstrated that learning for this conditioned response takes place in the: a. red nucleus of the midbrain. b. temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex. c. lateral interpositus nucleus of the cerebellum. d. ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
544
Chapter 1
REF: Localized
29. While studying classical conditioning of the eyelid response in rabbits, investigators suppress the activity of the red nucleus. What results will occur? A That procedure will not interfere with learning. B Learning will not occur. C The response will not occur, but later testing will reveal that learning occurred. D The rabbit will show immediate evidence of learning, but it will forget rapidly.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
30. Research indicates that the red nucleus is necessary for: a. the learning of a conditioned response. b. the performance of a conditioned response. c. the learning AND performance of a conditioned response. d. suppression of the conditioned response. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www 31. Preventing learning is to as suppressing a response is to a. classical conditioning; operant conditioning b. operant conditioning; classical conditioning c. the red nucleus; the lateral interpositus nucleus d. the lateral interpositus nucleus; the red nucleus
.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning 32. Thompson identified one nucleus of the cerebellum, the a. anterior nucleus b. fastigial nucleus c. red nucleus d. lateral interpositus nucleus
REF: Localized
REF: Localized
, as essential for learning.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
33. If the lateral interpositus nucleus is temporarily suppressed during classical conditioning of the eyeblink response, what happens? A After the nucleus recovers, the animal remembers the training fully. B Future conditioning occurs as if the animal had no previous training. C After the nucleus recovers, the animal learns more slowly than usual. D Future conditioning occurs rapidly, but the animal also forgets rapidly.
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The Major Issues
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
34. The cerebellum's role in memories may be limited to what kind of learning or memory? a. language learning b. imprinting c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
35. A person with damage to their cerebellum may experience several problems, including: a. poor eyesight. b. inability to be classically conditioned. c. weakened conditioned eye blinks. d. exaggerated eye blinking. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual Representations of Memory OBJ: 2 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
REF: Localized
36. Donald Hebb (1949) distinguished between two types of memory that he called A implicit and explicit. B declarative and procedural. C short-term and long-term. D repressed and unrepressed.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 377 OBJ: 3 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning - Types of Memory KEY: NEW 37. Short-term memory may be characterized as: a. having a limited capacity. b. having an unlimited capacity. c. elaborative in nature. d. rehearsal free. ANS: A OBJ: 3
546
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
38. Hebb believed that short-term memory: a. should not be distinguished from long-term memory. b. was a temporary holding station on the way to long-term memory. c. was more important than long-term memory. d. was low-level memory. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
40. Donald Hebb distinguished between two kinds of memory because he could not imagine how a single kind of brain change could be both: A axonal and synaptic. B cognitive and muscular. C positive and negative. D quick and permanent.
ANS: D OBJ: 3 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY:
41. Researchers proposed that all information initially entered a short-term storage, where it stayed until the brain had time to it into long-term memory. a. transpose b. rehearse c. consolidate d. transfer ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
42. The general function of working memory is to: a. hold information until it has time to get to long-term storage. b. store memories of life events permanently. c. attend to and operate on current information. d. store information related to repetitious motor movements. ANS: C OBJ: 3 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
43. According to Baddeley and Hitch, a common test of working memory is the: a. delayed response task b. reconsolidation task c. consolidation task d. working memory task ANS: A OBJ: 3
547
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
44. The delayed response task requires responding to something that you saw or heard a. in the distant past b. a short while ago c. right at that time d. in a meaningful way
.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 379 OBJ: 3 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning - Types of Memory NEW
KEY:
45. Which brain area is active in monkeys during a delay when they have to remember the location of a light and look there only after a several-second delay? a. cerebellum b. the prefrontal cortex c. the occipital lobes d. ventromedial hypothalamus ANS: B OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
46. Compared to young adults, aging humans with poor working memory have activity in the prefrontal cortex and aging humans with intact working memory have activity in the prefrontal cortex. a. decreased, decreased b. increased, increased c. increased, decreased d. decreased, increased ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
47. Which of the following drug types is most promising for treating people with failing memory? a. Tranquilizers b. Endorphins c. Depressants d. Stimulants ANS: D OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Types of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
48. Studies on help clarify the distinctions among different kinds of memory and enable us to explore the mechanisms of memory. a. dementia b. amnesia c. epilepsy d. stroke ANS: B
548
PTS: 1
DIF: conceptual
Chapter 1
REF: The Hippocampus
OBJ: 4
TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
49. One would most accurately describe H.M.'s memory problems as the inability to form: A short-term memories. B new implicit memories. C new episodic memories. D new procedural memories. ANS: C OBJ: 4 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY:
50. The patient H.M. suffered severe memory disorders following a surgical operation that removed the: a. corpus callosum. b. hippocampus. c. lateral interpositus nucleus and hypothalamus. d. prefrontal cortex and dorsomedial thalamus. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
51. Anterograde amnesia is to as retrograde amnesia is to . a. storing new memories; memories of the past b. memories just prior to the damage; memories from childhood c. short-term memory; long-term memory d. emotional memories; non-emotional memories ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
52. Retrograde amnesia is to as anterograde amnesia is to . a. temporary loss of memory; permanent loss of memory b. loss of short-term memory; loss of long-term memory c. inability to form new memories; loss of memory for old events d. loss of memory for old events; inability to form new memories ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
53. The inability to form memories for events that happened after brain damage is a characteristic of amnesia. a. retrograde b. anterograde c. proactive d. procedural ANS: B OBJ: 4
549
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
54. Forgetting events prior to the time of brain damage is a characteristic of a. retrograde b. anterograde c. proactive d. procedural ANS: A OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
amnesia.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
55. The patient H.M., who had major surgery for severe epilepsy in 1953, suffered a severe difficulty in remembering events: a. in working memory. b. during or after 1953. c. long before 1953. d. of his childhood. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
56. After his surgery, H.M. had the most difficulty with: a. learning new procedural tasks. b. remembering events long before the surgery. c. being able to define new English words. d. IQ tests. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: 379 OBJ: 4 TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning - The Hippocampus and Amnesia 57. H.M. was able to learn and remember: a. people's names. b. how to find his way to a new residence. c. skills like mazes and puzzles. d. events in recent history. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
58. A peculiarity of the memory of the neurological patient H.M. was that he was able to: a. retain new skills but not remember having learned them. b. form new long-term memories but not short-term memories. c. find his way to a new residence. d. remember people's names but not which name went with which person. ANS: A OBJ: 4 MSC: www
550
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
59. Deliberate recall of information that one recognizes as a memory is termed: a. priming. b. explicit memory. c. procedural memory. d. declarative memory. ANS: B OBJ: 4 60.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
is an influence of recent experience on behavior, even if one does not recognize that influence. a. Priming. b. Explicit memory. c. Procedural memory. d. Implicit memory ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
61. Individuals with amnesia who play video games such as Tetris: a. remember playing the game, but do not improve performance. b. don't remember playing the game, but improve their performance. c. never get any better. d. are more likely to do better on spatial rotation tasks. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
62. The memory for the development of motor skills is termed: a. priming. b. explicit memory. c. procedural memory. d. declarative memory. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
63. The ability to state a memory in words is termed: a. procedural memory. b. declarative memory. c. implicit memory. d. short term memory. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
64. Which of these types of memory is MOST impaired by damage to the hippocampus? A short-term memory B implicit memory C episodic memory D procedural memory
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The Major Issues
ANS: C OBJ: 4 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY:
65. Which of the following accurately describes H.M.'s memory problems? a. impaired short-term memory, but not long-term memory b. impaired procedural memory, but not declarative memory c. impaired explicit memory, but not implicit memory d. impaired personal memories, but not impersonal memories ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
66. One ironic but interesting finding is that people with amnesia will improve on no memory with respect to the task. a. procedural; explicit b. explicit; procedural c. declarative; implicit d. implicit; procedural ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
67. Procedural memory is to as declarative memory is to a. jogging; walking b. reading; writing c. carrying on a conversation; listening to the radio d. juggling; explaining the sequence of moves in juggling ANS: D OBJ: 4
tasks, but have
.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
68. The delayed matching-to-sample task is considered to be an example of: a. declarative memory. b. procedural memory. c. the Morris search task. d. Korsakoff's syndrome. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
69. Damage to the impairs performance on the delayed matching-to-sample and delayed nonmatching-to-sample tasks. a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. hippocampus d. parietal cortex ANS: C OBJ: 4
552
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
70. Hippocampal damage has the greatest effect on: a. the delayed match-to-sample task when the same two objects are used over and over again. b. the delayed match-to-sample task when the two objects are continuously changed. c. the delayed nonmatch-to-sample task when the same two objects are used over and over again. d. procedural memory. ANS: B OBJ: 4 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
71. If a researcher makes minor changes to the procedure of the delayed matching-to-sample and delayed nonmatching-to-sample tasks, monkeys with hippocampal damage: a. perform well, regardless of the procedure. b. perform poorly, regardless of the procedure. c. perform differently, depending on the procedure. d. improve temporarily, regardless of procedure, and then return to their normal level of performance. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
72. What area of the brain is particularly important for coding spatial information? a. hippocampus b. hypothalamus c. pons d. reticular formation ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
73. A study with London taxi drivers found that answering than answering . a. nonspatial questions; spatial questions b. spatial questions; nonspatial questions c. long questions; short questions d. short questions; long questions ANS: B OBJ: 4
activated their hippocampus more
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
74. A rat is placed in a radial maze in which it has already been trained for many trials. As compared to rats without damage to their hippocampus, rats with damage are more likely to: a. enter an alley at random. b. fail to eat the food they find. c. enter one of the correct alleys repeatedly. d. enter an alley that is never correct. ANS: C OBJ: 4
553
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
75. A a. b. c. d.
has eight or more arms, some of which have a bit of food or other reinforcer at the end. radial maze Morris maze Thompson maze spatial maze
ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
76. A rat must swim through murky water to find a rest platform that is just under the surface in the: a. radial maze. b. Morris search task. c. configurable learning task. d. delayed matching-to-sample task. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
77. In the Morris search task, a rat with hippocampal damage will: a. not be able to find the platform. b. easily be able to find the platform regardless of where it is. c. gradually learn the route if the starting and ending point are the same. d. find the platform, but never remember where it was. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
78. A rat with hippocampal damage has difficulty with the Morris search task because it: a. loses its motivation to find the platform. b. cannot remember how to swim. c. has difficulty remembering where the platform is from trial to trial. d. develops a water phobia. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
79. Which of the following experiments would be a reasonable test of whether an animal has suffered damage to its hippocampus? a. Does it reenter a single arm before entering all the other appropriate arms in a radial maze? b. Does it sometimes enter an arm in a radial maze that is never correct? c. Can it learn to climb along a thin wire without losing its balance? d. Can it learn to turn one direction when it hears a loud tone and a different direction when it hears a soft tone? ANS: A OBJ: 4
554
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
80. There is compelling evidence for the role of the hippocampus in a. short term b. implicit c. spatial d. auditory ANS: C OBJ: 4
memory.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
81. A number of species of birds differ in the size of their hippocampus. The species with the largest hippocampus performs best on tasks of: a. spatial memory. b. color memory. c. auditory memory. d. implicit memory. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
82. Researchers have found that different species of birds differ in terms of how much they depend on food they have stored to get through the winter. What factor is related to depending on and finding stored food? a. overall brain size b. relative size of the cortex c. relative size of the amygdala d. relative size of the hippocampus ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
83. The hippocampus is especially important for which kind of memory? A procedural B episodic C short-term D implicit ANS: B OBJ: 4 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning KEY:
84. The hippocampus is more important for remembering the remembering the . A gist; contextual details B contextual details; gist C visual aspects; auditory aspects D auditory aspects; visual aspects ANS: B OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
555
of memory and less necessary for
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
85. As time passes, memory becomes less detailed, less dependent on the hippocampus, and more dependent on the: a. basal ganglia b. Amygdala c. cerebral cortex d. Thalamus ANS: C OBJ: 4 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
86. What type of deficiency causes Korsakoff's syndrome? a. Thiamine b. Protein c. Sodium d. Calcium ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
87. Who is most likely to develop Korsakoff's syndrome? a. those exposed to chronic stress b. chronic alcoholics c. certain ethnic groups d. vegetarians ANS: B OBJ: 5 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
88. Most Korsakoff's victims have a loss or shrinkage of neurons throughout the brain, especially in the: a. cingulate gyrus. b. occipital lobe. c. dorsomedial thalamus. d. cerebellum. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
89. Korsakoff's syndrome is a disorder most often associated with damage to the: a. dorsomedial thalamus and mamillary bodies. b. anterior thalamus and fornix. c. dorsomedial thalamus and hippocampus d. anterior thalamus and mamillary bodies. ANS: A OBJ: 5
556
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
90. A disorder most often associated with damage to the dorsomedial thalamus and mamillary bodies is: a. Alzheimer's disease. b. Korsakoff's syndrome. c. phenylketonuria. d. Down syndrome. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
91. A distinctive symptom of Korsakoff’s syndrome is: a. tremors. b. dementia. c. memory loss. d. confabulation. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
92. Damage to the produces symptoms similar to Korsakoff's syndrome. a. prefrontal cortex b. basal ganglia c. occipital cortex d. precentral gyrus ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
93. What memory impairments are found in patients with Korsakoff's syndrome? a. only anterograde amnesia b. only retrograde amnesia c. anterograde and retrograde amnesia d. neither anterograde nor retrograde amnesia ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
94. Individuals with Korsakoff's syndrome are similar to people with damage to the: a. amygdala. b. prefrontal cortex. c. hippocampus. d. hypothalamus. ANS: B OBJ: 5 95.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
People with Korsakoff's syndrome show: a. better implicit than explicit memory. b. better explicit than implicit memory. c. better declarative than procedural memory. d. memory for the order of events, but not memory for colors of common objects.
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The Major Issues
ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
96. When prompted with cues, Korsakoff's victims can often produce words from lists they saw but claim to have never seen. This exemplifies what kind of memory? a. reference b. procedural c. implicit d. explicit ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
97. When Korsakoff's syndrome patients read over a list of words, what evidence of memory, if any, do they demonstrate? a. None at all. b. They remember the first word and the last word only. c. They remember reading a list, although they cannot remember any of the words. d. They say many of the correct words if they are given the first three letters. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
98. What memory task would a typical patient with Korsakoff's syndrome be able to do without difficulty? a. recall the temporal order of events b. remember someone he or she met in the past week c. an implicit memory task d. an explicit memory task ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
99. Confusing a made-up answer as a memory of an actual experience is referred to as: a. procedural memory. b. declarative memory. c. configuration. d. confabulation. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
100. What is confabulation? a. confusing a made-up answer as a memory of an actual experience b. having the two sides of the body working antagonistically c. confusing procedural memory for declarative memory d. remembering names, but being unable to put them with a face ANS: A OBJ: 5
558
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
101. Korsakoff's patients best remember a list of short sentences by: a. reading and rereading them. b. testing themselves on each sentence before going on to the next. c. creating an elaborate story integrating the content of the sentences. d. relating each sentence to a past personal experience. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
102. As with Korsakoff's patients, Alzheimer's patients have impairments in relatively unimpaired in memory. a. short-term; long-term b. implicit; explicit c. procedural; declarative d. declarative; procedural ANS: D OBJ: 5
memory, but are
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
103. Alzheimer's patients are relatively unimpaired in: a. declarative memory. b. procedural memory. c. short-term memory. d. implicit and explicit memory. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
104. Someone with a mild to moderate case of Alzheimer's disease would be most likely to remember which of the following? a. how to drive a car b. what make of car he or she drives c. where he or she parked the car d. the time he or she most recently drove a car ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
105. Korsakoff's patients and Alzheimer's patients are most successful at learning and remembering: a. facts. b. skills. c. names of people. d. words. ANS: B OBJ: 5
559
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
106. Korsakoff's patients and Alzheimer's patients have better memory for: a. recent events than events of the remote past. b. what is happening at a given moment than general principles. c. skills than facts. d. verbal information than visual information. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
107. Restlessness, depression, hallucinations and loss of appetite all accompany: a. Korsakoff's syndrome. b. Alzheimer's disease. c. confabulation. d. Aplysia. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
108. If people with Down syndrome live long enough, they almost invariably develop: a. Korsakoff's syndrome. b. Parkinson's disease. c. Huntington's disease. d. Alzheimer's disease. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
109. Researchers begin to look for clues to the genetics of Alzheimer's by investigating the chromosome related to: a. Korsakoff's disease. b. Down syndrome. c. epilepsy. d. alcoholism. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
110. In some cases of Alzheimer's disease that run in families, the cause of the disease appears to involve which gene(s)? a. a gene on the X chromosome b. a gene on the Y chromosome c. a series of genes on chromosome 4 d. genes on several different chromosomes ANS: D OBJ: 5
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PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
Chapter 1
111. Alzheimer's leads to the accumulation of a. glucose b. amyloid deposits c. arachidonic acid d. serotonin ANS: B OBJ: 5
in the brain.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
112. The genes related to Alzheimer's lead to the accumulation, in the brain, of: a. glucose. b. amyloid deposits. c. arachidonic acid. d. serotonin. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
113. Structures formed from degenerating axons and dendrites are referred to as: a. tau proteins. b. amyloid beta proteins. c. confabulations. d. plaques. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
114. The most likely cause of the brain damage typical of Alzheimer's disease is due to a: a. deficit of thiamine. b. excess of neurotrophins. c. increase in amyloid-𝗉 proteins. d. excess of acetylcholine. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
115. Alzheimer's is associated with brain damage as a result of: a. loss of the fibers connecting the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia. b. loss of cell bodies in the dorsomedial thalamus. c. tangles and plaques in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus. d. an epileptic focus in the temporal lobe of the cortex. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
116. Plaques and tangles in the cerebral cortex are characteristic of people with: a. retrograde amnesia. b. anterograde amnesia. c. Korsakoff's syndrome. d. Alzheimer's disease. ANS: D OBJ: 5
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The Major Issues
117. What is believed to be the likely cause of plaques? a. a relative deficit of thiamine b. increased pressure from cerebrospinal fluid c. amyloid deposits in the brain d. a relative deficit of acetylcholine ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
118. Most researchers now believe that the accumulation of amyloid and tau protein: a. is a result of the Alzheimer's disease. b. are partly the cause of Alzheimer's disease. c. are byproducts of acetylcholine. d. are byproducts of dying glial cells. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
119. Structures formed from degenerating neuronal cell bodies are called: a. tau proteins. b. amyloid beta proteins. c. tangles. d. confabulations. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
120. Amyloid is to , as tau is to a. plaques, tangles b. tangles, plaques c. neurons, glia d. glia, neurons ANS: A OBJ: 5
.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
121. The most common treatment for Alzheimer’s disease is to give drugs that stimulate: a. dopamine receptors. b. acetylcholine receptors. c. tau receptors. d. GABA receptors. ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
122. In studies with mice, the antioxidant curcumin reduced: a. blood pressure. b. amyloid levels and plaques. c. acetylcholine release. d. glutamate levels.
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ANS: B OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
123. A possible treatment for Alzheimer's is the administration of drugs that: a. stimulate acetylcholine receptors. b. inhibit the basal forebrain. c. inhibit acetylcholine release. d. increase Aß42 production. ANS: A OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
124. Research with rats suggests that the risk for Alzheimer's disease can be reduced by eating a diet rich in: a. protein. b. carbohydrates. c. thiamine. d. antioxidants. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
125. The study of amnesic patients leads us to the conclusion that people have and that memory depends on of the brain. a. one; one specific location b. one; different parts c. more than one; one specific location d. more than one; different parts ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
126. Altered tau protein cannot bind to its usual targets within axons, and so it a. stops spreading into the cell body and dendrites b. stops spreading into the cell body only c. starts spreading into the cell body only d. starts spreading into the cell body and dendrites ANS: D OBJ: 5 KEY: NEW
kind of memory,
.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
127. A study of patients with amnesia reveals that people: a. lose all aspects of memory equally b. have predictable memory loss c. can be categorized into distinct forms of memory loss d. do not lose all aspects of memory equally ANS: D OBJ: 5 KEY: NEW
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The Major Issues
128. People with parietal lobe damage the process of a. remembering names b. associating one event with another c. episodic memory d. Speech ANS: B Memory Functioning
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5 KEY: NEW
is damaged.
DIF: factual REF: Other Brain Areas in TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain
129. People with damage in the anterior and inferior regions of the temporal lobe suffer: a. cingulate dementia. b. implicit dementia. c. lexical dementia. d. semantic dementia. ANS: D Memory Functioning
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: Other Brain Areas in TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain
130. Parts of the are important for learning about rewards and punishments. a. Hypothalamus b. Fornix c. prefrontal cortex d. temporal cortex ANS: C Memory Functioning
PTS: 1 OBJ: 5
DIF: factual REF: Other Brain Areas in TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain
131. When Penfield stimulated the temporal cortex of alert and awake brain surgery patients, he found that they: a. went into spastic convulsions. b. remembered specific events from earlier in their lives in great detail. c. lost all memory for events during and shortly preceding the stimulation. d. had a dream-like experience. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
REF: Introduction
132. Recent interpretation of Walter Penfield's brain stimulation studies suggests that brain stimulation: a. produces dreamlike experiences. b. results in memory of motor skills. c. is better for recovering lost memories. d. has no effect. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
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REF: Introduction
133. One line of research that initially appeared promising, but has since faded, was to study learning in decapitated: a. fish. b. rats. c. monkeys. d. cockroaches. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
REF: Introduction
134. Why did some experimenters in the 1960's and 1970's grind up the brains of some rats and inject extracts into other rats? a. It was believed that the extra neurotransmitter would speed up learning. b. It was believed that memories could be transferred in this way. c. They were interested in brain transplants, and wanted to see if the material would be rejected. d. Studies of human cannibals had found extraordinary memory abilities. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
REF: Introduction
135. What is the current status of research on transfer of training through brain extracts? a. It is generally accepted that this works under a variety of conditions. b. Transfer succeeds only in planaria: it has never worked with any other species. c. It has been revealed that claims of such a phenomenon were based on fraud. d. Research ended without a conclusion because the phenomenon was difficult to replicate. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
REF: Introduction
136. A "Hebbian" synapse is one in which: a. activity at that synapse strengthens the response of the postsynaptic neuron to all of its synapses. b. repeated use of the synapse over a limited period of time leads to habituation. c. calcium flows into the cell while magnesium flows out of the cell. d. activity of the synapse, paired with an action potential in the postsynaptic cell, strengthens that synapse. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Learning and the Hebbian Synapse TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System 137. It is believed that Hebbian synapses may be critical for: a. associative learning. b. reflexes. c. loudness perception. d. color vision. ANS: A Hebbian Synapse
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Learning and the TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
The Major Issues
138. What is a major advantage of Aplysia for studies on the physiology of learning? a. Their memories are more permanent than those of vertebrates. b. There are no differences between one neuron and another. c. There is great similarity of nervous system anatomy from one individual to another. d. They have only one type of learning. ANS: C PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
139. Why is the Aplysia such a popular animal for single-cell studies of learning? a. Individual cells identified in one animal can be recognized in another. b. Aplysia have greater learning abilities than other invertebrates. c. Aplysia have short-term learning but not long-term learning. d. Aplysia have only two neurotransmitters, one excitatory and one inhibitory. ANS: A PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
140. If a stimulus is presented repeatedly, followed by no other stimulus, the animal will gradually stop responding. This is known as: a. sensitization. b. habituation. c. classical conditioning. d. imprinting. ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
141. If a jet of water is repeatedly squirted at the gills of an Aplysia, a. sensitization b. habituation c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
occurs.
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
142. If you stimulate the gills of an Aplysia by squirting them with a brief jet of seawater, at first it will: a. ignore the water. b. withdraw its gills. c. take in the water through the gills. d. squirt the water in the direction of the source. ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
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REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
143. Habituation of the gill withdrawal response in Aplysia depends on: a. muscle fatigue. b. a decreased response by the sensory nerve to the stimulus. c. a change in the synapse between the sensory neuron and the motor neuron. d. an increase in the inhibitory impulses from sources other than the sensory nerve. ANS: C PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
144. During habituation of the gill-withdrawal reflex in Aplysia, the change in the nervous system takes place at the: a. axon hillock of the sensory receptor. b. axon of the motor neuron. c. synapse between the sensory neuron and the motor neuron. d. inhibitory neurons that connect to the motor neuron. ANS: C PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
145. Which of the following is an example of sensitization? a. Following a series of electrical shocks, a person overresponds to noises. b. Following a series of loud noises, a person is no longer aroused by additional noises. c. After repeated pairings of a noise with shock, a person is aroused less than usual by any mild stimulus. d. After repeated pairings of a noise with shock, a person is aroused less than usual only by the noise. ANS: A PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
146. After a series of electrical shocks, a person becomes overresponsive to lights and noises. This exemplifies: a. habituation. b. sensitization. c. operant conditioning. d. classical conditioning. ANS: B PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
147. Habituation and sensitization differ depending upon whether: a. the effect is retroactive or proactive. b. the response grows weaker or stronger. c. the animal's behavior changes or fails to change. d. it occurs in all species or just mammals.
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The Major Issues
ANS: B PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
148. Strong stimulation anywhere on the skin of an Aplysia excites axons that release: a. substance P. b. serotonin. c. neuropeptide Y. d. dopamine. ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
149. Strong stimulation anywhere on the skin of an Aplysia excites axons that attach to receptors and: a. open potassium channels in the membrane. b. close potassium channels in the membrane. c. opens sodium channels in the membrane. d. close sodium channels in the membrane. ANS: B PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
150. Which of the following would most likely interfere with sensitization in the Aplysia? a. increasing serotonin levels b. decreasing serotonin levels c. pinching the skin d. blocking GABA receptors ANS: B PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
151. Following a certain kind of experience in Aplysia, a facilitating interneuron causes changes that block the potassium channels at the end of the axon of the sensory neuron, leading to: a. sensitization. b. habituation. c. both sensitization and habituation. d. death of the individual sensory neuron. ANS: A PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
152. In Aplysia, sensitization has been found to depend on a series of events that: a. block sodium channels in the motor neuron. b. decrease calcium concentration in the area surrounding the sensory neuron. c. open chloride channels in the motor neuron. d. block potassium channels in the sensory neuron.
568
Chapter 1
ANS: D PTS: 1 of Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
153. Research on Aplysia shows us that at least one physiological basis for learning involves which of the following? a. changes in RNA molecules b. presynaptic changes c. increased dendrite branching d. changes in glia ANS: B PTS: 1 Invertebrate Behavior Change in the Nervous System
DIF: conceptual REF: Single-Cell Mechanismsof OBJ: 1 TOP: 13.2 Storing Information
154. How does one produce long-term potentiation of cells in the mammalian nervous system? a. a burst of many stimuli within a few seconds b. many stimuli spaced at exactly equal intervals over a period of minutes c. minutes of uninterrupted inhibitory stimulation d. a simultaneous pairing of an excitatory stimulus and an inhibitory stimulus ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
155. If there is a burst of intense stimulation to a dendrite by one or more axons connected to it in a rapid series, it is known as: a. long-term potentiation of the cell's response to stimuli. b. long-term inhibition of the cell's response to stimuli. c. potentiation of the cell's response to stimuli for a few seconds. d. inhibition of the cell's response to stimuli for a few seconds. ANS: A in Vertebrates System MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
156. It is hoped that long-term potentiation (LTP) will help to explain: a. Alzheimer's disease. b. Korsakoff's syndrome. c. learning and memory. d. inherited intelligence. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
The Major Issues
157. If some of the synapses onto a cell have been highly active and others have not, only the active ones become strengthened. This is known as the property of: a. specificity. b. cooperativity. c. associativity. d. NMDA. ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
158. Nearly simultaneous stimulation by two or more axons produces LTP, whereas stimulation by just one produces it weakly, if at all. This is known as the property of: a. specificity. b. cooperativity. c. associativity. d. LTD. ANS: B in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
159. Pairing a weak input with a strong input enhances later responses to the weak input. This is known as the property of: a. specificity. b. cooperativity c. associativity. d. LTD. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
160. A long-term depression (LTD) in a neuron is a decreased response at synapses that occurs when: a. axons fire rapidly. b. axons fire slowly. c. an excitatory synapse and an inhibitory synapse fire together. d. an axon excites a synaptic receptor distant from its usual site. ANS: B in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
161. At many hippocampal synapses, long-term potentiation depends on the activation of NMDA receptors, which are responsive to: a. GABA. b. glutamate. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine.
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ANS: B in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
162. Long-term potentiation produces a long-term enhancement of glutamate responses at A AMPA synapses. B NMDA synapses. C both AMPA and NMDA synapses. D neither AMPA nor NMDA synapses. ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous MSC: www
163. At many hippocampal synapses, long-term potentiation depends on the activation of which type of receptor? a. Nicotinic b. Muscarinic c. NMDA d. GABA ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
164. In addition to the neurotransmitter glutamate, in order to activate the NMDA receptors, the neuron requires: a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. increased release of magnesium ions from the presynaptic neuron. d. removal of magnesium ions from sodium and calcium channels. ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
165. Under most conditions, NMDA receptors do NOT respond to their neurotransmitter because: a. magnesium ions block the passage of calcium through the receptor's channel. b. too many sodium ions enter through the AMPA channels. c. any recent depolarization of the membrane inactivates the NMDA receptors. d. the channel can open only when the potassium concentration inside the neuron exceeds a certain high level. ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
166. The NMDA receptor responds to its transmitters when: a. magnesium is present in the membrane. b. enough sodium ions exit through AMPA channels. c. the membrane is already at least partly depolarized. d. the dendrite is depolarized enough to produce an action potential.
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The Major Issues
ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
167. What is known to be critical for long-term potentiation? a. high levels of magnesium b. only one axon being active at a time c. the absence of NMDA receptors d. a massive inflow of calcium ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
168. When glutamate massively stimulates AMPA receptors, the resulting depolarization: a. keeps glutamate from stimulating nearby NMDA receptors. b. keeps calcium from entering the cell. c. enables glutamate to stimulate nearby NMDA receptors. d. inhibits the dendrite's responsiveness to glutamate. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
169. CaMKII is directly activated by: a. calcium b. sodium c. GABA d. potassium ANS: A in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
170. A diet low in calcium could possible interfere with learning by preventing: a. the sodium potassium pump from working. b. dendrite migration. c. NMDA receptor production. d. activation of CaMKII. ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
171. Which of the following is NOT a way in which CaMKII facilitates LTP? a. Dendrites build more AMPA receptors. b. Neurons produce more NMDA receptors. c. Individual AMPA receptors become more active. d. Neurons decrease dendritic branching.
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ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
172. Once LTP has been established: a. it remains dependent on NMDA synapses. b. it fades quickly. c. AMPA receptors convert into NMDA receptors. d. the AMPA receptors are more responsive to glutamate. ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
173. Blocking NMDA synapses has what effect, if any, on LTP? a. There is no effect on LTP. b. It enhances the establishment of LTP. c. It prevents the establishment of LTP. d. In prevents the maintenance of previously established LTP. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
174. Drugs that block NMDA synapses: a. interfere with the maintenance of LTP. b. prevent the establishment of LTP. c. facilitate the maintenance of LTP. d. facilitate the establishment of LTP. ANS: B in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3 MSC: www
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
175. Retrograde transmitters: a. are produced in the axon terminals. b. inhibit the postsynaptic cell. c. are broken down before they are released. d. are released by the postsynaptic cell. ANS: D in Vertebrates System
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
176. The most enduring forms of LTP depend on changes in the: a. presynaptic neuron only. b. postsynaptic neuron only. c. pre and postsynaptic neurons. d. dendritic branching. ANS: C in Vertebrates System
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PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
The Major Issues
177. Some memory-enhancing supplements appear to act in common by: a. increasing blood flow to the brain. b. blocking LTP. c. decreasing calcium levels. d. stimulating acetylcholine receptors. ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Improving Memory TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
178. Researchers have found several drugs, including a. gingko biloba b. prozac c. propanolol d. clozapine ANS: C OBJ: 2
, which weaken memories of recent events.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Improving Memory TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the difference between declarative and procedural memory. ANS: Declarative memory is the ability to state a memory in words. Procedural memory is the development of motor skills and habits. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
4
2. Describe the delayed matching-to-sample task. ANS: In the delayed matching-to-sample task, an animal sees an object (the sample) and then, after a delay, gets a choice between two objects, from which it must choose the one that matches the sample. PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
OBJ:
4
3. What is Korsakoff’s syndrome? ANS: Korsakoff’s syndrome is brain damage caused by prolonged thiamine deficiency which occurs mostly in chronic alcoholics.
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Chapter 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning MSC: www
OBJ:
5
4. What is habituation as it relates to memory research? ANS: Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly and accompanied by no change in other stimuli. PTS: 1 Behavior Change System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms of Invertebrate TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
5. What is sensitization as it relates to memory research? ANS: Sensitization is an increase in response to mild stimuli as a result of exposure to more intense stimuli. Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly and accompanied by no change in other stimuli. PTS: 1 Behavior Change System
DIF: factual OBJ: 1
REF: Single-Cell Mechanisms of Invertebrate TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous
6. Briefly describe how LTP occurs, including how glutamate and its receptors are involved. ANS: LTP begins with the rapid stimulation of a dendrite, for several seconds. Release of glutamate stimulates AMPA receptors that depolarize the membrane. Then, NMDA receptors become responsive to glutamate and calcium enters the cell to activate CaMKII, which produces a series of cellular changes that maintain LTP. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Long-Term Potentiation in Vertebrates TOP: 13.2 Storing Information in the Nervous System
ESSAY 1. Describe Lashley’s concept of an Engram. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
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DIF: conceptual REF: Localized Representations of Memory TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
The Major Issues
2. Describe the types of memory problems displayed by Patient H.M. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
4
3. Describe the some of the experiments testing the hippocampus’s role in spatial memory. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: The Hippocampus TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
4
4. Describe the brain pathology of Alzheimer’s disease. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
5
5. Describe the role of the other brain areas besides the hippocampus in memory function. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Other Types of Amnesia TOP: 13.1 Learning, Memory, Amnesia, and Brain Functioning
OBJ:
5
Chapter 14: Cognitive Functions TRUE/FALSE 1. The left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is connected to skin receptors and muscles mainly on the right side of the body. ANS: T Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
2. Trunk and facial muscles are controlled by both hemispheres of the brain. ANS: T Hemispheres MSC: www
576
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Chapter 1
3. The left and right hemispheres exchange information through a set of axons called the corpus callosum. ANS: T Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
4. Information from the left half of the visual field is processed in the right hemisphere. ANS: T Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
5. After surgery, split-brain patients have impaired intellect and motivation. ANS: F Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
6. In most people, the right hemisphere is dominant for speech. ANS: F Callosum www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function MSC:
7. Normally, a split-brain patient should be able to name an object flashed to the left visual field. ANS: F Callosum
577
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
The Major Issues
8. The right hemisphere is dominant for recognizing both pleasant and unpleasant emotions in others. ANS: T Callosum MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
9. Recognition of happy or sad faces will occur most rapidly if presented to the right hemisphere. ANS: T Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
10. The planum temporale is usually larger in the right hemisphere. ANS: F PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
11. The left hemisphere appears to be specialized for language before language develops. ANS: T PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
12. People born without a corpus callosum can perform many tasks in which split-brain patients fail. ANS: T PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
13. For more than 95% of right-handed people, the left hemisphere is strongly dominant for speech. ANS: T PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
14. Most left-handers have left-hemisphere dominance for speech. ANS: T PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
15. Most people use only one hemisphere for most tasks. ANS: F Overstatements
578
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Avoiding TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Chapter 1
16. Language studies with bonobos suggest that they can understand more than they can produce. ANS: T Language of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual TOP:
REF: Nonhuman Precursors of 14.2 Evolution and Physiology
17. One of the main problems in determining if nonhuman species have language is being able to accurately define what language is. ANS: T Language of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1 MSC: www
DIF: factual TOP:
REF: Nonhuman Precursors of 14.2 Evolution and Physiology
18. It is possible for language to be impaired without an associated impairment of intelligence. ANS: T Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
19. Observations of Williams syndrome indicate that language is not simply a by-product of overall intelligence. ANS: T Evolve Language? MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
20. The critical period for learning a second language is shorter than for learning a first language. ANS: F Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
21. Patients with Broca's aphasia have a problem with speech production, but not speech comprehension. ANS: F Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
22. Wernicke's aphasia is primarily a problem of speech production. ANS: F Language of Language
579
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4 MSC: www
DIF: factual TOP:
The Major Issues
REF: Brain Damage and 14.2 Evolution and Physiology
23. The parallels between language and music are sufficient to suggest that they arose together. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Music and Language TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language MSC: www
24. Dyslexia is a problem with producing speech. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
25. Spatial neglect is more common after damage to the left hemisphere than the right hemisphere. ANS: F OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Neglect TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention
26. Damage in the left hemisphere often produces significant neglect of the right side. ANS: F OBJ: 1 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Neglect TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The brain has a. ipsilateral b. contralateral c. bilateral d. no ANS: C Hemispheres 2. The brain has a. ipsilateral b. contralateral c. bilateral d. no ANS: C Hemispheres
control of the facial muscles.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
control of the trunk muscles.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
3. The left hemisphere is connected to skin receptors mainly on the controls muscles mainly on the side of the body. a. left; right b. left; left c. right; left d. right; right ANS: D Hemispheres
580
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
half of the body, and
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Chapter 1
4. Which of the following senses sends input only to the ipsilateral hemisphere? a. hearing b. vision c. smell d. touch ANS: C Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
5. Auditory information is sent to the: a. ipsilateral hemisphere only. b. contralateral hemisphere only. c. ipsilateral and contralateral hemispheres equally. d. contralateral hemisphere more than the ipsilateral hemisphere. ANS: D Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
6. Most of the information passing from one hemisphere to the other does so by passing through which structure? a. cerebellum b. inferior colliculus c. corpus callosum d. massa intermedia ANS: C Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
7. In most humans, control of language is centered in the: a. left hemisphere. b. right hemisphere. c. corpus callosum. d. cerebellum. ANS: A Hemispheres MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
8. What is the name given to the function between the two hemispheres? a. hemispherectomy b. lateralization c. polarization d. symmetry ANS: B Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
9. Lateralization refers to the: a. formation of the sulci and gyri in the cortex. b. functional asymmetries of the brain. c. slow rate of maturation in forebrain structures. d. physical changes that occur in neurons as learning takes place.
581
The Major Issues
ANS: B Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
10. Damage to the corpus callosum (or to one hemisphere) results in clear evidence of : a. hemispherectomy. b. lateralization. c. polarization. d. symmetry. ANS: B Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
11. You see the effects of lateralization more readily than normal after damage to: a. the suprachiasmatic nucleus. b. the corpus callosum. c. one or the other eye. d. the pineal gland. ANS: B Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
12. In species like rabbits that have their eyes far to the side of the head, which of the following is true? a. Their left and right eyes send input only to the ipsilateral hemisphere. b. Their left and right eyes send input only to the opposite hemisphere. c. Both eyes send input to both hemispheres almost equally. d. They can only see out of one eye at a time. ANS: B Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
13. The left hemisphere of the human brain sees the: a. left visual field. b. right visual field. c. left visual field of the left eye and right visual field of the right eye. d. right visual field of the left eye and left visual field of the right eye. ANS: B Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
14. Damage to the human left optic nerve before it crosses the optic chiasm would result in the loss of vision in the: a. left eye. b. right eye. c. right visual field. d. left visual field. ANS: A Hemispheres
582
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Chapter 1
15. Damage to the optic nerve after it had crossed in the optic chiasm would result in the loss of vision in the: a. contralateral eye. b. ipsilateral eye. c. contralateral visual field. d. ipsilateral visual field. ANS: C Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
16. The right hemisphere of the human brain receives visual input from the: a. retina of the left eye. b. retina of the right eye. c. left half of each retina. d. right half of each retina. ANS: D Hemispheres MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
17. The left hemisphere of the human brain receives visual input from the: a. retina of the left eye. b. retina of the right eye. c. left half of each retina. d. right half of each retina. ANS: C Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
18. Visual stimuli in the right visual field stimulate: a. the right half of each retina. b. the left half of each retina. c. the right hemisphere. d. both hemispheres. ANS: B Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
19. Visual stimuli in the left visual field stimulate: a. the right half of each retina. b. the left half of each retina. c. the right hemisphere. d. both hemispheres. ANS: A Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
20. Someone who suffered damage to the visual cortex of the left hemisphere would probably have impaired vision in the: a. left eye. b. right eye. c. left visual field. d. right visual field.
583
The Major Issues
ANS: D Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
21. A small vertical strip down the center of each retina connects to: a. the right hemisphere. b. the left hemisphere. c. both hemispheres. d. neither hemisphere. ANS: C Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
22. Some of the axons from the two eyes: a. cross at the corpus callosum. b. cross at the optic chiasm. c. cross at the anterior commissure. d. do not cross in humans. ANS: B Hemispheres
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: The Left and Right TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
23. A condition in which brain neurons have repeated episodes of excessive, synchronized activity is called: a. dyslexia. b. epilepsy. c. hippocampal commissure. d. Broca's aphasia. ANS: B Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
24. The causes of epilepsy: a. include genetics, trauma, and infections. b. are limited to infections of the brain. c. are limited to genetic abnormalities. d. are limited to emotional stress. ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
25. Genes that cause epilepsy do so by altering: a. GABA receptors. b. acetylcholine levels. c. the arrangement of blood vessels in the brain. d. the shapes of astroglia cells. ANS: A Callosum
584
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Chapter 1
26. Epilepsy is caused by genes that alter: a. the arrangement of blood vessels in the brain. b. acetylcholine levels. c. GABA receptors. d. the shapes of astroglia cells. ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
27. Generally speaking, drugs used to treat epilepsy work by: a. enhancing the effects of GABA. b. causing apoptosis. c. preventing the sodium-potassium pump from working. d. relaxing the cell membrane. ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
28. In general, drugs that treat epilepsy work by: a. enhancing the effects of GABA. b. causing apoptosis. c. preventing the sodium-potassium pump from working. d. relaxing the cell membrane. ANS: A Callosum MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
29. Some drugs that treat epilepsy work by: a. relaxing the cell membrane. b. causing apoptosis. c. preventing the sodium-potassium pump from working. d. blocking sodium flow across the membrane. ANS: D Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
30. The point of origin of an epileptic seizure is called the: a. scope. b. target. c. focus. d. heart. ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
31. Damage to the corpus callosum prevents: a. hallucinations. b. release of pituitary hormones. c. the exchange of information between the two hemispheres. d. the exchange of information between pre- and postsynaptic membranes.
585
The Major Issues
ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
32. Several patients have had their corpus callosum cut surgically as a treatment for severe cases of: a. schizophrenia. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. epilepsy. d. dyslexia. ANS: C Callosum MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
33. A split-brain patient is someone who has had their: a. corpus callosum severed. b. cerebellum severed. c. frontal lobe separated from the rest of the cortex. d. cerebral cortex separated from the rest of the brain. ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
34. Split-brain patients suffer: a. little or no impairment of overall intellectual performance. b. a lack of motor control. c. sensation deficits. d. memory deficits. ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
35. Roger Sperry conducted important research in what field of study? a. epilepsy b. the physiological effects of addictive drugs c. split-brain patients d. language training for chimpanzees ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
36. A split-brain patient sees something in her left visual field, and must reach behind a screen and select the object from a group of objects. She will select the object correctly with: a. the left hand. b. the right hand. c. either hand. d. neither hand. ANS: A Callosum
586
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Chapter 1
37. The difficulty that people normally have with being able to perform separate tasks with each hand simultaneously is largely due to: a. problems with the corpus callosum. b. difficulty planning two actions at once. c. inability of the muscles in the left and right hand to work at the same time. d. epilepsy. ANS: B Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
38. Which of the following tasks would split-brain patients be able to perform better than other people? a. tying their shoes b. unfamiliar tasks c. completing an intelligence test d. using both hands simultaneously to draw separate shapes ANS: D Callosum MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
39. People with damage in parts of a. both hemispheres b. the left hemisphere. c. the right hemisphere. d. neither hemisphere. ANS: C Callosum NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
speak in a monotone voice.
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function KEY:
40. In order for a split-brain patient to name something, he must see it: a. with the left eye. b. with the right eye. c. in the left visual field. d. in the right visual field. ANS: D Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
41. A typical split-brain patient who stares straight ahead CANNOT name something seen: a. in the right visual field. b. in the left visual field. c. with the right eye. d. with the left eye. ANS: B Callosum
587
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
The Major Issues
42. A split-brain patient that was briefly shown an apple in the left visual field and a banana in the right visual field would report having seen: a. an apple. b. a banana. c. neither. d. both. ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
43. A split-brain patient who sees something in his left visual field can point to it with the: a. left hand but cannot name it. b. right hand but cannot name it. c. left hand and can name it. d. right hand and can name it. ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
44. A split-brain patient who sees something in one visual field and later can point to it with the left hand must: a. have seen it in the right visual field. b. have seen it in the left visual field. c. be able to say what it was. d. be able to point to it with the right hand, also. ANS: B Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
45. A patient who can name objects only after seeing them in the right visual field but can point out objects she saw in the left visual field has probably suffered damage to: a. Wernicke's area. b. Broca's area. c. the visual cortex in the right hemisphere. d. the corpus callosum. ANS: D Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
46. Which self-contradiction occurs in people who have had their corpus callosum cut? a. saying they are not hungry while eating b. saying they do not know the answer while pointing it out with the left hand c. writing with one hand but not being able to write with the other d. suddenly changing from a manic state to depression ANS: B Callosum
588
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Chapter 1
47. Several months after split-brain surgery, the number of incidents of conflicts between the two hemispheres diminishes because: a. portions of the corpus callosum grow back. b. the right hemisphere begins to control all body muscles. c. the hemispheres learn ways of cooperating with each other. d. the cerebellum assumes the former functions of the corpus callosum. ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
48. Several months after split-brain surgery, the number of incidents of conflicts between the two hemispheres: a. diminishes. b. is unchanged from shortly after the surgery. c. increases dramatically. d. increases and then experiences a sharp drop. ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
49. Conflicts between the two hemispheres eventually diminish because: a. brain swelling decreases. b. the callosum partly reconnects. c. the left hemisphere suppresses the right hemisphere's interference. d. the right hemisphere simply takes control for some situations. ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
50. If a split-brain patient sees the word “sky” in his left visual field and the word “scraper” in his right visual field, which picture will he draw with the left hand? a. the sky only. b. the scraper only. c. a sky and a scraper, separately. d. a skyscraper. ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
51. In the typical split-brain person, the left hand is to a. picking up objects; pointing at objects b. pointing at objects; picking up objects c. writing word; drawing objects d. drawing objects; writing words ANS: D Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
as the right hand is to
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
52. Researchers believe that the right hemisphere is: a. the mirror image of the left hemisphere, with the same functions. b. subordinate to the left hemisphere for all functions. c. in control of speech. d. specialized in functions that differ from the left.
589
.
The Major Issues
ANS: D Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
53. Control of the emotional content of speech depends on: a. the right hemisphere. b. the left hemisphere. c. both hemispheres equally. d. the corpus callosum. ANS: A Callosum MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
54. People who speak with little inflection or expression usually have suffered damage to the: a. ventromedial spinal pathway. b. left hemisphere. c. right hemisphere. d. corpus callosum. ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
55. The right hemisphere appears to contribute more than the left hemisphere to the a. emotional content b. semantic content c. grammatical structure d. volume ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
of speech.
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
56. Damage to the left hemisphere is more likely than right hemisphere damage to impair which ability? a. understanding the meaning of language b. understanding that someone is joking when they speak c. producing facial expressions of emotion d. understanding other people's facial expressions ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
57. After damage to the right hemisphere, many people suffer what kind of loss? a. control of the muscles on the right side of the body b. hunger and thirst c. ability to remember the names of objects d. ability to recognize emotional facial expressions ANS: D Callosum
590
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Chapter 1
58. Which of the following would most likely be able to accurately detect facial expression of emotions? a. patients with left-hemisphere damage b. patients with prefrontal cortex damage c. patients with right-hemisphere damage d. patients with damage to the amygdala ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
59. Following damage to the , a patient has a decrease in facial expressions of emotion and decreased understanding of the emotional content of other people's speech. a. hypothalamus b. left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex c. right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex d. occipital lobe on both sides ANS: C Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
60. If you were advising the make-up artist for a movie involving a character with a facial disfigurement, where would you suggest the disfigurement be located for the maximum emotional impact on the audience? a. the upper part of the face b. the lower part of the face c. the right side of the face (viewer's left) d. the left side of the face (viewer's right) ANS: C Callosum 61.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
Right-hemisphere damage results in deficits with tasks that require: a. understanding sentences with a complex grammatical structure. b. memory of recent events. c. control of the right hand. d. spatial processing. ANS: D Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
62. People with right-hemisphere damage have particular trouble with tasks that require: a. understanding sentences with a complex grammatical structure. b. spatial processing. c. control of the right hand. d. memory of recent events. ANS: B Callosum
591
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
The Major Issues
63. Brain-intact people are more likely to have increased activity in the hemisphere when identifying the small letters (A) and increased activity in the when identifying the overall pattern (X). A A AA A A A A A a. left; right b. right; left c. left; left d. right; right ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
64. A person with left hemispheric dominance for language is asked to tap her index finger as fast as possible for one minute. What difference, if any, would it make if she were talking during the task? a. Talking would decrease tapping in the right hand more than in the left hand. b. Talking would decrease tapping in the left hand more than in the right hand. c. Talking would decrease tapping in both hands equally. d. Talking typically would not affect the tapping rate of either hand. ANS: A Callosum
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
65. For a majority of humans, one part of the on the opposite side. a. temporal; right b. temporal; left c. occipital; right d. occipital; left ANS: B PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function cortex is larger on the
side of the brain than
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
ANS: C PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
592
Chapter 1
66. The planum temporale is located in the: a. frontal lobe. b. parietal lobe. c. temporal lobe. d. occipital lobe.
67.
The planum temporale is larger in the: a. right hemisphere for most people. b. left hemisphere for most people. c. right hemisphere but only for newborns. d. left hemisphere but only for newborns. ANS: B PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
68. Which of the following tasks would children with the highest ratio of left to right planum temporale perform better than children with an equal ratio? a. composing music b. doing a puzzle c. writing a play d. riding a bicycle ANS: C PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 3
69. The corpus callosum matures sufficiently between ages of stimuli between the two hands. a. 1,3 b. 8,10 c. 3,5 d. 5,6 ANS: C PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function KEY: NEW
and
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
to facilitate the comparison
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
70. One study using an Etch-A-Sketch toy indicated that children younger than just as fast with two hands as with one. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 ANS: B PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
71. The corpus callosum matures gradually over the first a. 2 b. 20 c. 10 d. 4 ANS: C PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
593
years respond
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
years of human life.
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
The Major Issues
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
72. Axons in the corpus callosum will survive to maturity if they make connections with cells in the hemisphere with functions. a. contralateral; similar b. contralateral; different c. ipsilateral; similar d. ipsilateral; different ANS: A PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
73. A 9-week-old child does not reach with the right hand toward an object in the left visual field: a. until connections are mature enough between the right eye and the brain. b. because the child cannot maintain balance when the center of gravity moves to one side. c. until the visual cortex is mature. d. because the corpus callosum is not yet mature. ANS: D PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
74. Children are asked to feel two fabrics and to determine whether they are the same or different. This is more difficult for children who have to feel the fabrics with . a. younger; the same hand b. younger; different hands c. older; the same hand d. older; different hands ANS: B PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
75. A similarity between a young child and a split-brain patient is that both: a. show frequent spontaneous changes in personality. b. have trouble describing what they see through the left eye. c. have a greater than normal number of back-and-forth eye movements. d. have trouble comparing what they feel with the two hands at one time. ANS: D PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
76. UNLIKE adults who have had their corpus callosum cut, children born without a corpus callosum are generally able to: a. move their hands with better than normal speed and coordination. b. learn foreign languages more rapidly than intact people can. c. verbally describe what they feel with the left hand. d. verbally describe what they feel with the right hand. ANS: C PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 3
594
Chapter 1
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
77. People born without a corpus callosum are a. more common than b. almost similar c. the same as d. not like ANS: D PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
people who have it cut later in life
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
78. People born without a corpus callosum can perform some tasks as do people with a corpus callosum. They can perform these tasks because the: a. corpus callosum eventually does grow, to a degree. b. brain's other commissures become larger than usual. c. two hemispheres communicate magnetically. d. two hemispheres communicate through the exchange of hormones. ANS: B PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
79. The connects the anterior parts of the cerebral cortex. a. posterior commissure b. anterior commissure c. hippocampal commissure d. fornix ANS: B PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
80. People born without a corpus callosum can compensate for a lack of corpus callosum because of the extra development of the: a. commissures b. thalamus c. brainstem d. fornix ANS: A PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
81. Which of the following is true regarding left-handed individuals? a. They are more likely to learn sign-language. b. They are less likely to be left-hemisphere dominant for speech production. c. They use both hemispheres equally well for speech production. d. They are more likely to stutter. ANS: B PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function
595
DIF: factual OBJ: 3
The Major Issues
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
82. On average, right-handers turned mostly to the left, and a. left-handers, left b. right-handers, right c. right-handers, left d. left-handers, right ANS: D PTS: 1 Lateralization and Handedness Function MSC: www
DIF: factual OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
turn mostly to the
.
REF: Development of TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of
83. Early studies taught chimpanzees to use symbols to communicate with a computer and each other. Which of the following does NOT characterize their use of symbols? a. They consistently used the same symbol patterns. b. They frequently made requests. c. They learned to type messages to other chimps. d. They frequently used new and original combinations. ANS: D Language MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
84. Language studies with bonobo chimpanzees suggest that they: a. can't learn language as well as common chimpanzees. b. use symbols in the wild to communicate with each other. c. comprehend spoken language comparable to that of a 2 year old child. d. can write as well as a 2 year old child. ANS: C Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
85. The has made the most spectacular progress toward learning to communicate by an approximation of human language. a. common chimpanzee b. bonobo chimpanzee c. gorilla d. dolphin ANS: B Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
86. The nonhuman species that has made the most spectacular progress toward learning to communicate by an approximation of human language is the: a. common chimpanzee. b. bonobo chimpanzee. c. gorilla. d. dolphin. ANS: B Language
596
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Chapter 1
87. The training of Kanzi differed from the earlier language studies using other chimpanzees in that Kanzi: a. observed his mother being trained while he was an infant. b. was given food reinforcements for associating arbitrary symbols with meanings. c. was given only verbal praise. d. was raised from birth in a human family, in total isolation from other animals. ANS: A Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
88. All of the following are explanations for Kanzi and Mulika's language abilities EXCEPT that? a. their species may be more adapted to learning language. b. learning through imitation is more effective than learning with rewards. c. they began learning at an earlier age. d. they were given a special diet. ANS: D Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
89. What distinguished Kanzi and Mulika from other chimpanzees used in earlier studies was that Kanzi and Mulika: a. used only symbols to make requests. b. received larger reinforcements. c. were unable to communicate with natural chimpanzee sounds. d. occasionally used symbols to relate events of the past. ANS: D Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
90. What is NOT a possible explanation for Kanzi and Mulika's language abilities? a. Their species may be more adapted to learning language. b. Learning through imitation is more effective than learning with rewards. c. They began learning at an earlier age. d. They were given a special diet. ANS: D Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
91. The famous parrot Alex was a? a. Scarlet Macaw. b. African Gray parrot. c. Yellow-headed parrot. d. Sun Conure parrot. ANS: B Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
92. Which of the following, if any, is impossible for the parrot Alex? a. Form concepts. b. Count. c. Name colors. d. All of the other choices are possible for Alex to do.
597
The Major Issues
ANS: D Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
93. Studies of nonhuman language abilities call attention to the: a. ability of many species to learn language. b. close relationship between language and classical conditioning. c. difficulty of defining language. d. close relationship between language and brain size. ANS: C Language MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
94. What can we learn about human language abilities from the studies of nonhuman language abilities? a. Language is totally limited to humans. b. The only important language advantage of humans is in our vocal apparatus. c. We may gain some insights into how best to teach language to those who do not learn it easily. d. Language is indistinguishable from the forms of communication that other species use. ANS: C Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
95. Studies of nonhuman language abilities seem to indicate that human language may have evolved from a precursor that was probably: a. present only in human ancestors. b. a byproduct of total brain size. c. present in the ancient ancestor from which humans and bonobos evolved. d. a single gene mutation. ANS: C Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
96. People with full sized brains and normal intelligence: a. always have normal language. b. usually have normal language, but may not. c. have the greatest brain to IQ ratio. d. have the largest index fingers. ANS: B Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
97. People in one family have a gene that seriously impairs language without decreasing overall intelligence. This observation argues AGAINST the theory that: a. language learning is based on a "language acquisition device." b. intelligence consists of a series of more or less separate "modules." c. language evolved from a precursor ability present in other primates. d. language evolved as a byproduct of selection for overall intelligence. ANS: D Evolve Language?
598
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Chapter 1
98. Children with Williams syndrome are characterized by: a. good language abilities despite low overall intelligence. b. loss of language abilities at approximately four years of age. c. problems creating grammatical sentences. d. a specific impairment of vocabulary. ANS: A Evolve Language? MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
99. A paradoxical characteristic of children with Williams syndrome is that they: a. seem retarded during childhood but develop into normal or even bright adults. b. can write, but cannot read what they just finished writing. c. show a better memory after a delay than they show immediately after an event has occurred. d. have very large vocabularies, but cannot learn simple skills. ANS: D Evolve Language? 100.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
One characteristic of the brains of people with Williams syndrome is: a. a larger than normal right hemisphere, but smaller than normal left hemisphere. b. a larger than normal left hemisphere, but smaller than normal right hemisphere. c. less than normal overall mass in the cerebral cortex. d. a greatly diminished limbic system. ANS: C Evolve Language?
102.
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Which of the following is a rare condition in which people are retarded in many ways, but yet are remarkably skilled in their use of language? a. Williams syndrome b. dyslexia c. Wernicke's aphasia d. anomia ANS: A Evolve Language?
101.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
The language of children with Williams syndrome is: a. comparable to children with other forms of mental retardation. b. a byproduct of their intelligence. c. comparable to that of a normal adult's second language. d. impossible to understand. ANS: C Evolve Language? MSC: www
599
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
The Major Issues
103.
Which of the following tasks would people with Williams syndrome perform normally? a. estimating the length of a bus b. imagining the bus route to school c. drawing a bus d. singing “wheels on the bus” ANS: D Evolve Language?
104.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
continues to be
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
The inborn mechanism for learning language is called the: a. language acquisition device. b. poverty of the stimulus argument. c. speech synthesizer. d. grammatical articulation device. ANS: A Evolve Language?
108.
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
What is the apparent relationship between language abilities and other intellectual abilities? a. Impairments in either results in impairments in the other. b. It is possible to have good language and poor intelligence, but not the reverse. c. It is possible to have good intelligence and poor language, but not the reverse. d. Either can be impaired independently of the other. ANS: D Evolve Language?
107.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
People with Williams syndrome develop language slowly at first, and their odd, like that of someone who learned a second language late in life. a. prosody b. grammar c. semantics d. phonology ANS: B Evolve Language?
106.
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
People with Williams syndrome tend to do as well as normal people on tasks that involve: a. copying pictures. b. adding numbers. c. verbal descriptions. d. naming unfamiliar objects. ANS: C Evolve Language?
105.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Noam Chomsky and Steven Pinker proposed that humans have a: a. language synthesizer. b. language stimulus apparatus. c. language acquisition device. d. grammatical articulation device.
600
Chapter 1
ANS: C Evolve Language? 109.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Noam Chomsky and other advocates of the language acquisition device argue that humans: a. are incapable of learning language. b. are born with language. c. learn language through classical conditioning. d. are no different in language capabilities than gorillas. ANS: B Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
110. One way to test the hypothesis that people are biologically adapted to learn best during a critical period is to: a. compare the vocabularies of children and adults. b. determine whether people learn a second language better than a first language. c. determine whether people learn a second language if they start at various ages. d. compare the grammar use of children and adults. ANS: C Evolve Language? MSC: www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
111. The major differences that exist between adults and children in learning a second language are that adults are: a. better at the vocabulary, but worse at pronunciation. b. better at the pronunciation, but worse at the vocabulary. c. better at both pronunciation and vocabulary. d. worse than children in all aspects of language. ANS: A Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
112. The major differences that exist between adults and children in learning a second language are that children are: a. better at the vocabulary, but worse at pronunciation. b. better at the pronunciation, but worse at the vocabulary. c. better at both pronunciation and vocabulary. d. worse than adults in all aspects of language. ANS: B Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
113. The strongest evidence for a critical period for human language development is the: a. exceptional language abilities of children with Williams syndrome. b. different lateralization of first language and second language. c. differences in language between Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia. d. difficulty deaf children have learning sign language if they start late. ANS: D Evolve Language?
601
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
The Major Issues
114. Deaf children who do not learn any language by the time they enter school: a. can still learn English, but not sign language. b. can still learn sign language, but not English. c. will never develop much skill at any language. d. can master any language at any time. ANS: C Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: factual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
115. Research with deaf children suggests that it is essential to: a. learn any language when you are young if you do not want to be forever disadvantaged. b. learn language through reinforcements for correct usage. c. be able to hear language if you are to learn sign language. d. learn spoken language before sign language. ANS: A Evolve Language?
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
116. The first to publish a detailed description linking a specific part of the brain to a loss of speech was: a. Roger Sperry. b. Jerre Levy. c. David and Ann Premack. d. Paul Broca. ANS: D Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
117. Broca's area is located in the: a. left parietal lobe. b. left frontal lobe. c. right temporal lobe. d. right occipital lobe. ANS: B Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
118. A loss of language ability, in general, is referred to as: a. apraxia. b. dyslexia. c. aphasia. d. anomia. ANS: C Language
602
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Chapter 1
119. Someone with Broca's aphasia has the greatest difficulty: a. understanding spoken language. b. understanding written language. c. remembering the names of objects. d. speaking. ANS: D Language MSC: 120.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
People with Broca's aphasia cannot read aloud "To be or not to be" because they: a. cannot control the muscles of their throat. b. have difficulty with words that have no clear meaning out of context. c. cannot pronounce those sounds. d. cannot read. ANS: B Language
123.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
People with Broca's aphasia speak meaningfully but: a. do so without feeling. b. do so in a monotone. c. omit pronouns, tense and number endings. d. omit nouns and verbs. ANS: C Language
122.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Nonfluent aphasia, in which the victim is unable to speak fluently, is due to brain damage that includes: a. Broca's area. b. the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. c. Wernicke's area. d. the corpus callosum. ANS: A Language
121.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4 www
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Prepositions, conjunctions, helping verbs, and so forth are known as the forms. a. fluent class b. fixed class c. open class d. closed class ANS: D Language
603
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
of grammatical
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
The Major Issues
124.
Broca’s aphasia is most likely to affect use of the a. open b. closed c. novel d. noun ANS: B Language
125.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
A stroke patient speaks in short, inarticulate but meaningful phrases such as "Weather hot" and "Dog bite man." This person is probably suffering from: a. Broca's aphasia. b. Wernicke's aphasia. c. Williams syndrome. d. apraxia. ANS: A Language
128.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
A person with Broca's aphasia would have the most difficulty saying which of the following phrases? a. The boy is chasing a tall girl. b. No ifs, ands, or buts. c. The general commands the army. d. Two bee oar knot two bee. ANS: B Language
127.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Someone with Broca's aphasia is least likely to use: a. prepositions and conjunctions. b. adjectives and adverbs. c. nouns. d. verbs. ANS: A Language MSC: www
126.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
class of words.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
When does someone with Broca’s aphasia have most difficulty understanding language? A if someone speaks at a normal or faster than normal pace B if the sentence includes uncommon nouns or verbs C if the sentence is longer than seven words D if the meaning depends on complex grammar ANS: D Language
604
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Chapter 1
129.
Language comprehension in people with Broca's aphasia resembles that of someone who is: a. shy about speaking in public. b. suffering from bipolar disorder c. highly distracted. d. starting to learn a foreign language ANS: C Language KEY: NEW
130.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
A person with Broca's aphasia: a. has lost total knowledge of grammar. b. has lost total knowledge of use of verbs. c. recognizes that something is wrong with grammatically incorrect sentences. d. insists that his or her utterances are grammatically correct and that other people are wrong. ANS: C Language
133.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
A person who has a great deal of trouble understanding a sentence if its meaning depends on word order is a: a. split-brain patient. b. patient with damage to Wernicke's area. c. patient with damage to Broca's area. d. patient suffering from apraxia. ANS: C Language
132.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
The comprehension of language in people with Broca's aphasia is: a. completely normal. b. poor for nouns, but fine for prepositions and conjunctions. c. similar to that of normal people who are just highly distracted. d. better than average. ANS: C Language
131.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Someone suffering from Wernicke's aphasia has difficulty: a. articulating speech. b. reading aloud. c. understanding speech. d. using prepositions and conjunctions. ANS: C Language MSC: www
605
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
The Major Issues
134.
135.
Wernicke discovered that damage to the a. right temporal b. left temporal c. right frontal d. left frontal
cortex produced language impairment.
ANS: B Language
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Fluent aphasia, in which the victim has difficulty comprehending language but is still able to speak smoothly, is due to damage that includes: a. Broca's area. b. Wernicke's area. c. the prefrontal cortex. d. the corpus callosum. ANS: B Language
136.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
, as nouns and verbs are to
.
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
A person with anomia would have the most difficulty with: a. reaching out to touch objects. b. understanding written, as opposed to spoken, language. c. remembering the names of objects. d. speaking rapidly and fluently. ANS: C Language MSC:
139.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Anomia involves difficulty: a. using prepositions and conjunctions. b. understanding written, as opposed to spoken, language. c. remembering the names of objects. d. speaking rapidly and fluently. ANS: C Language
138.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
Prepositions, word endings, and grammar are to a. Broca's aphasia; Wernicke's aphasia b. Wernicke's aphasia; Broca's aphasia c. dyslexia; anomia d. anomia; Wernicke's aphasia ANS: A Language
137.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4 www
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
As compared to a person with Broca's aphasia, a person with Wernicke's aphasia can: a. remember the names of objects. b. understand written language. c. understand spoken language. d. speak fluently and rapidly.
606
Chapter 1
ANS: D Language 140.
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
A specific impairment of reading in a person with adequate vision and adequate skills in other academic areas is referred to as: a. Broca's aphasia. b. Wernicke's aphasia. c. Williams' syndrome. d. dyslexia. ANS: D OBJ: 6
145.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
.
A person with Wernicke's aphasia: a. can't produce speech. b. can't recognize musical notes. c. resembles a student in a foreign language class that hasn't studied the vocabulary list very well. d. similar to that of normal people who are just highly distracted. ANS: C Language
144.
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
A person who is acting like they are forced to speak faster than they can come up with the words most closely resembles a person with: a. Broca's aphasia. b. Wernicke's aphasia. c. dyslexia. d. agraphia. ANS: B Language
143.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
Wernicke's aphasia is to as Broca's aphasia is to a. parietal lobe; temporal lobe b. nouns; verbs c. spoken language; sign language d. understanding; speaking ANS: D Language MSC: www
142.
DIF: factual REF: Brain Damage and TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Wernicke's aphasia is also known as: a. production aphasia. b. fluent aphasia. c. spoken aphasia. d. nonfluent aphasia. ANS: B Language
141.
PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Dyslexia is more common among languages that:
607
The Major Issues
a. b. c. d.
are phonetically based. have many odd spellings. are tonal in nature. use masculine and feminine nouns.
ANS: B OBJ: 6 146.
Which of the following is more likely to be present in people with dyslexia? a. weak eye muscles b. larger than normal corpus callosum c. stuttering d. bilateral symmetry in the cortex ANS: D OBJ: 6
147.
151.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Dyseidetic dyslexics have the most difficulty with: a. recognizing whole words. b. hearing words. c. guessing word meaning based on context. d. sounding out words. ANS: A OBJ: 6
150.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language MSC: www
Dysphonetic dyslexics have the most difficulty with: a. recognizing whole words. b. hearing words. c. guessing word meaning based on context. d. sounding out words. ANS: D OBJ: 6
149.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
More typical of dyslexic people than of other people is: a. a planum temporale that is larger in the left hemisphere than the right hemisphere. b. a bilaterally symmetrical cerebral cortex. c. damage to the posterior portion of the corpus callosum. d. an overresponsive magnocellular pathway in the visual system. ANS: B OBJ: 6
148.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
Dysphonetic dyslexics have trouble , while dyseidetic dyslexics have trouble a. seeing words as a whole; sounding out words b. sounding out words; seeing words as a whole c. reading; writing d. speaking; writing ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia OBJ: 6 TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language People with dyslexia have problems.
608
Chapter 1
.
a. b. c. d.
sensory motor visual auditory
ANS: D OBJ: 6 152.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Dyslexia TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
In the phenomenon of binocular rivalry, when one eye sees one pattern and the other eye sees another, what do you perceive? a. one pattern superimposed on top of the other b. temporary alternation between one pattern and the other c. a compromise that doesn’t match either pattern d. whatever the dominant eye sees ANS: B PTS: 1 Associated with Consciousness Unconscious Processes and Attention
153.
DIF: factual OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
REF: Brain Activity TOP: 14.3 Conscious and
Suppose you are conscious of what you see in the right eye and not the left. Now a word slowly fades into view in the left eye. What happens? a. Your attention lingers even longer than usual on the right eye. b. Your attention shifts to the left eye at the same speed as it would without the word. c. The word grabs your attention at a certain speed regardless of its meaning. d. The word grabs your attention faster if it is meaningful. ANS: D PTS: 1 Associated with Consciousness Unconscious Processes and Attention
155.
REF: Brain Activity TOP: 14.3 Conscious and
A single visual pattern is presented under two conditions. Under one condition, the viewer is conscious of it, and under the other, the viewer is not. How does the activity differ in the brain, if at all? a. Conscious activity is in the cortex. Unconscious activity is in subcortical areas. b. Activity is more intense and spreads more widely during conscious perception. c. Conscious activity is in the left hemisphere. Unconscious is in the right hemisphere. d. The brain activity is the same in both cases. ANS: B PTS: 1 Associated with Consciousness Unconscious Processes and Attention
154.
DIF: factual OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
DIF: factual OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
REF: Brain Activity TOP: 14.3 Conscious and
During binocular rivalry, what do people ordinarily perceive? a. one eye’s view superimposed on that of the other b. a compromise, half way between one eye’s view and that of the other c. rapidly oscillating static images d. alternation of one eye’s view and then the other’s ANS: D
609
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Brain Activity
Associated with Consciousness Unconscious Processes and Attention 156.
DIF: factual OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
REF: Brain Activity TOP: 14.3 Conscious and
DIF: factual OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
REF: Brain Activity TOP: 14.3 Conscious and
Spatial neglect is generally associated with damage to the: a. postcentral gyrus. b. precentral gyrus. c. fusiform gyrus. d. parietal cortex. ANS: D OBJ: 2
160.
REF: Brain Activity TOP: 14.3 Conscious and
What is the “phi” phenomenon? a. When one stationary object alternates with another, we see movement. b. People who know each other well are likely to think the same thing at the same time. c. The more times one has been depressed, the easier it is to become depressed again. d. A sound heard at the same time as a visual stimulus seems to come from that object. ANS: A PTS: 1 Associated with Consciousness Unconscious Processes and Attention
159.
DIF: factual OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
Research on binocular rivalry has supported which of these conclusions? a. With weak stimuli, people often report being “partly” conscious of something. b. Visual consciousness occurs only in humans. c. Certain areas of the cortex are conscious and certain others are not. d. Even when you are unconscious of something, the brain sees whether it is meaningful. ANS: D PTS: 1 Associated with Consciousness Unconscious Processes and Attention
158.
TOP: 14.3 Conscious and
Experimenters present stimuli very briefly under conditions where people sometimes perceive them consciously and sometimes not. How, if at all, do the brain responses differ? A When something is conscious, its representation spreads to much of the cortex. B When something is conscious, it evokes a release of pituitary hormones. C When something is conscious, it produces PGO waves. D Brain responses do not differ between conscious and unconscious items. ANS: A PTS: 1 Associated with Consciousness Unconscious Processes and Attention
157.
OBJ: 1 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Attention TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention
A symptom of right-hemisphere parietal lobe damage is the tendency to ignore the:
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Chapter 1
a. b. c. d.
right side of the body dorsal areas of the body. left side of the body. ventral areas of the body.
ANS: C OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW 161.
In what way, if any, is it possible to decrease spatial neglect? A Redirect the person’s attention. B Give the person certain muscle exercises. C Increase the person’s relaxation. D It is not possible. ANS: A OBJ: 2 NEW
162.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Attention TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Attention TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention
A person with spatial neglect is more likely to notice an object placed in the left hand if: a. they cross their left hand over to the right side of their body. b. they cross their right hand over to the left side of their body. c. look to the right. d. you touch their right hand. ANS: A OBJ: 2
165.
KEY:
Which of the following would most likely improve attention of patients with spatial neglect? a. Tell the person to look to the right. b. Keep their hands from crossing over each other. c. Stimulate the left superior temporal gyrus. d. Tell the person to look to the left. ANS: D OBJ: 2
164.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Attention TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention
Spatial neglect occurs after damage in the: a. anterior cortex. b. posterior cortex. c. left hemisphere. d. right hemisphere. ANS: D OBJ: 2 KEY: NEW
163.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Attention TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Attention TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention
In many instances, spatial neglect appears to be linked to a. cognitive b. motor c. attention d. sensory
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The Major Issues
problems.
ANS: A OBJ: 2 MSC: www
PTS: 1 DIF: factual REF: Attention TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention
SHORT ANSWER 1. Neurologically, severe epilepsy is a condition characterized by what activity? ANS: Severe epilepsy is a condition characterized by repeated episodes of excessive synchronized neural activity, mainly because of decreased release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus Callosum TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
2. A child born without a corpus callosum can name something felt with the left hand, but an adult who suffered damage to the corpus callosum cannot. What are two likely explanations? ANS: In children born without a corpus callosum, the left hemisphere develops more than the usual connections with the left hand, and the anterior commissure and other commissures grow larger than usual. PTS: 1 Handedness
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 4
REF: Development of Lateralization and TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
3. Name two reasons why Kanzi and Mulika have developed much greater language capabilities than other chimpanzees. ANS: 1. Species difference between bonobos and common chimpanzees may allow bonobos to have greater language potential. 2. They began language training at an early age. 3. Learning by observation and imitation may be more effective than reward-based learning. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of Language TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
4. Briefly discuss the concept of a language acquisition device. ANS: Is a built-in mechanism for acquiring language. The main supporting evidence is the ease with which most children develop language, so perhaps they are born with language and a special language module in the brain.
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Chapter 1
PTS: 1 OBJ: 3
DIF: conceptual REF: How Did Humans Evolve Language? TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
5. What is Broca’s apahsia? ANS: Impairment in the production and comprehension of speech usually resulting from brain damage to the inferior part of the left frontal lobe (Broca’s area). PTS: 1 OBJ: 4
DIF: conceptual REF: Brain Damage and Language TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
ESSAY 1. Discuss some of the research conducted in split-brain patients. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus Callosum TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function
2. Describe the hemispheric specializations in the intact brain. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Cutting the Corpus Callosum TOP: 14.1 Lateralization of Function MSC: www
3. Describe some of the research conducted in nonhuman’s dealing with language. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of Language TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
4. Describe some of the evidence that language did not develop as an accidental by-product of intelligence. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Nonhuman Precursors of Language TOP: 14.2 Evolution and Physiology of Language
5. Provide a detailed description of spatial neglect.
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The Major Issues
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual REF: Attention OBJ: 3 TOP: 14.3 Conscious and Unconscious Processes and Attention MSC: www
Chapter 15: Mood Disorders and Schizophrenia TRUE/FALSE 1. A study found that depressed people showed an increased response to facial expressions of fear and a decreased response to happy expressions. ANS: T Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders MSC: www
2. Depression is more common in men than women. ANS: F Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders MSC: www
3. Several genes have been found to increase the risk of depression. ANS: T Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
4. Postpartum depression usually occurs right after a women finds out she is pregnant. ANS: F Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
5. Most depressed people have decreased activity in the left and increased activity in the right prefrontal cortex. ANS: T Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders MSC: www
6. The tricyclics operate by blocking the transporter proteins that reabsorb serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine into the presynaptic neuron after their release. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
7. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors normally inhibit reuptake of serotonin. ANS: F OBJ: 3
614
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
Chapter 1
REF: Antidepressant Drugs MSC: www
8. St. John's wort acts by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
9. Antidepressant drugs have effects at the synapse within hours, but may take weeks to change behavior. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs MSC: www
10. A combination of both antidepressants and psychotherapy benefits only a slightly higher percentage of people than either treatment alone. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
11. Antidepressant drugs produce their effects on catecholamine and serotonin synapses within hours, but people need to take the drugs for two or more weeks before they experience any mood elevation. ANS: T OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
12. Combining sleep alteration with drug therapies can provide long-lasting benefits. ANS: T OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
13. Bipolar II disorder is a more severe form of mania than bipolar I disorder. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder MSC: www
14. Lithium is generally more effective for people with bipolar II disorder. ANS: F OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
15. Exposure to bright lights is one effective treatment for SAD. ANS: T Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 7
DIF: factual REF: Seasonal Affective TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
16. Schizophrenia is the same as dissociative identity disorder. ANS: F OBJ: 1
615
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The Major Issues
REF: Diagnosis
17. Many people with schizophrenia have a characteristic body odor. ANS: T OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
18. A single gene has been identified that accounts for all cases of schizophrenia. ANS: F OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
19. The ventricles are larger than normal in people with schizophrenia. ANS: T PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
20. Schizophrenia is often viewed as a problem with excess activity at dopamine synapses. ANS: T OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
21. Generally speaking, dopamine and glutamate have opposite effects in the prefrontal cortex. ANS: T OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments MSC: www
22. PCP can induce both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. ANS: T OBJ: 7
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
23. Atypical antipsychotics are effective in treating only the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. ANS: F OBJ: 7
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments MSC: www
24. Schizophrenia is a one-gene disorder and a one-neurotransmitter disorder. ANS: F OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments MSC: www
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The differences between ordinary and major depression depend on: a. when they occur in one's lifetime. b. intensity and duration. c. geographic location and gender. d. society and diet. ANS: B
616
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Major Depressive
Disorder
OBJ: 1
TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
MSC: www
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of depression? a. impulsiveness b. sleep disorders c. inactivity d. suicidal tendencies ANS: A Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
3. Compared to non-depressed people, which of the following is true regarding depressed individuals? a. They have greater unpleasant events. b. They react worse to unpleasant events. c. They have fewer pleasant experiences. d. They react more to pleasant experiences. ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
4. Major depression is diagnosed about a. four times as often b. the same c. three times as often d. twice as often ANS: D Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders in women as in men.
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
5. Which is true when considering the role of genetics in depression? a. Late-onset depression has higher heritability than early-onset depression. b. Depression in males runs in families, depression in females does not. c. Adopted children who become depressed are more likely to have depressed biological relatives than depressed adoptive relatives. d. Adopted children who become depressed are more likely to have depressed adoptive relatives than depressed biological relatives. ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: conceptual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
6. If someone has major depression, what is probably true of that person’s relatives? a. They have an increased risk of depression, but not of any other disorder. b. They have an increased risk of many other disorders. c. They have a decreased risk of both depression and other disorders. d. They are neither more nor less likely than average to have depression or other disorders. ANS: B
617
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Major Depressive
Disorder
OBJ: 1
TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
KEY: NEW
7. On average, those with the short form of the transporter gene and a history of stressful experiences reported more than average symptoms of depression. a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. serotonin d. calcium ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders MSC: www
8. The most severe episodes of depression generally occur: a. after a traumatic experience. b. in the summer. c. in women just before they give birth. d. when hormone levels are high. ANS: A Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
9. Which of the following is true of depression? a. A single gene has been identified that causes depression. b. Men are more likely to be depressed than women. c. The influence of traumatic events during young adulthood depends on particular genes for serotonin. d. Female hormone levels are strongly correlated with depression. ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
10. A few cases of depression are linked to a. viral infections b. tumors c. cysts d. bacterial infections ANS: A Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 1
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders such as Borna disease.
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
11. The hormonal changes associated with giving birth most often affect depression by: a. decreasing the probability of a woman becoming depressed. b. temporarily decreasing the severity of an episode of depression. c. triggering or aggravating a depressive episode. d. causing temporary episodes of depression even in women who have no history of depression. ANS: C Disorder
618
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: conceptual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
Chapter 1
12. About one woman in a thousand enters a serious, long-lasting depression following the birth of a child. What is generally true about these women? a. They are predisposed to depression prior to the birth of their child. b. They are less likely than other women to have experienced depression prior to the birth. c. They show elevated activity levels in the left hemisphere of their brains. d. They fail to respond to tricyclic antidepressants. ANS: A Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
13. Which of the following conditions in an adolescent predicts that the person will develop depression later? A low body temperature B increased appetite C sleep disorder D slurred speech ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders KEY: NEW
14. People with late-onset depression are more likely than other people to have relatives with which of these types of disorder? a. diabetes b. circulatory problems c. mental retardation d. skin diseases ANS: B Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders KEY: NEW
15. Which of the following MOST strongly increases your risk of depression? a. relatives with early-onset depression b. relatives with late-onset depression c. spending time with a depressed person (regardless of being related) d. living in South America ANS: A Disorder KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders MSC: www
16. Studies of normal people have found a fairly strong relationship between: a. happy mood and increased activity in the left prefrontal cortex. b. happy mood and decreased activity in the left prefrontal cortex. c. happy mood and increased activity in the right occipital cortex. d. sadness and increased activity in the left occipital cortex. ANS: A
619
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
The Major Issues
REF: Major Depressive
Disorder
OBJ: 2
17. Most depressed people show a. increased; left b. decreased; left c. decreased; right d. increased; right and left ANS: B Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
activity in the
prefrontal cortex.
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
18. People with late-onset depression are more likely than average to have relatives with: a. allergies b. circulatory problems c. brain cancer d. eczema and other skin problems ANS: B Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders KEY: NEW
19. Several lines of evidence suggest that depressed people have lower than normal levels of activity in the: a. parietal lobes. b. occipital lobes. c. right hemisphere. d. left hemisphere. ANS: D Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
20. Which category of antidepressant drugs operates by preventing the presynaptic neuron from reabsorbing serotonin and catecholamines after releasing them? a. tricyclics b. MAOIs c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. atypical antidepressants ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
21. Tricyclic drugs work by: a. blocking the release of catecholamines. b. preventing the presynaptic cell from reabsorbing catecholamines. c. directly stimulating the postsynaptic cell's catecholamine receptors. d. increasing the rate of synthesis of catecholamines. ANS: B OBJ: 3
620
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
Chapter 1
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
22. An antidepressant drug operates by blocking reuptake of serotonin and catecholamines, but also blocks histamine receptors, acetylcholine receptors, and certain sodium channels. This drug would most likely be classified as a(n): a. tricyclic. b. MAOI. c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. d. atypical antidepressant. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
23. Which of the following are the most likely side effects of tricyclic antidepressants? a. increased reaction to eating cheese b. nausea and headaches c. drowsiness and dry mouth d. cramping and diarrhea ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
24. Which of the following would be considered a tricyclics antidepressant? a. fluoxetine (Prozac) b. imipramine (Tofranil) c. disulfiram (Antabuse) d. chlorpromazine (Thorazine) ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
25. SSRIs work similarly to: a. tricyclics. b. MAOIs. c. Antabuse. d. L-Dopa. ANS: A OBJ: 3 KEY: NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs MSC: www
26. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors operate similarly to: a. tricyclics. b. MAOIs. c. Antabuse. d. L-Dopa. ANS: A OBJ:
PTS: 1 3 TOP:
DIF: factual REF: Antidepressant Drugs 15.1 Mood Disorders
27. In contrast to tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs): a. block reuptake of both catecholamines and serotonin.
621
The Major Issues
b. increase action potential velocity. c. block the reuptake of only serotonin. d. act on the left hemisphere while tricyclics act on the right. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs MSC: www
28. Which of the following would be considered a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant? a. fluoxetine (Prozac) b. imipramine (Tofranil) c. disulfiram (Antabuse) d. chlorpromazine (Thorazine) ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
29. Which category of antidepressant drugs operates by blocking the enzyme that metabolizes catecholamines and serotonin into inactive forms? a. tricyclics b. MAOIs c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. atypical antidepressants ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
30. MAOIs block the activity of the enzyme that: a. synthesizes catecholamines. b. synthesizes GABA. c. breaks down catecholamines. d. breaks down GABA. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
31. Which of the following classes of antidepressants is most likely to raise blood pressure when a person eats tyramine-rich foods such as cheese? a. SSRIs b. atypical antidepressants c. tricyclics d. MAOIs ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
32. Tricyclic drugs and MAOIs both: a. block potassium channels in the membrane. b. decrease the rate of synthesis of catecholamines. c. effectively increase the amount of catecholamines in the synapse. d. directly stimulate catecholamine and serotonin receptors. ANS: C
622
PTS: 1
DIF: conceptual
Chapter 1
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
OBJ: 3
TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
33. MAOIs, tricyclics, and SSRIs all produce which effect on neurons?
A equalized release of glutamate and GABA B increased or prolonged serotonin or dopamine in synapses C blockage of dopamine receptors D increased amplitude and velocity of action potentials ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
34. St. John's wort appears to act in the same way as: a. SSRIs. b. atypical antidepressants. c. tricyclics. d. antipsychotics. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
35. One potentially dangerous side effect of St. John's wort is that it: a. increases the effectiveness of other medications the person may be taking. b. decreases the effectiveness of other medications the person may be taking. c. prevents the reuptake of serotonin. d. raises blood pressure after the person eats tyramine-rich food. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
36. St. John’s wort works the same way as the: a. iproniazids. b. tricyclics. c. MAOIs d. SSRIs. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
37. For which of the following is the drug treatment generally only a little better than a
placebo? a. Parkinson’s disease b. schizophrenia c. epilepsy d. mild to moderate depression ANS: D OBJ: 3
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
The Major Issues
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
38. Recent research discourages the use of antidepressant drugs, for which reason?
The drugs’ side effects grow worse and worse after repeated use. To get benefits, a person must find exactly the right dose to take. The most effective drugs are the most expensive ones. Placebos produce practically the same benefits as the drugs in mild to moderate depression.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
39. Which of the following, if any, is significantly more effective than the others in relieving
depression? a. MAOIs b. tricyclics c. SSRIs d. There is no significant difference. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
40. Prolonged use of antidepressants not only increases the availability of neurotransmitters in the synapse but also: a. dilates blood vessels in the right hemisphere. b. increases the release of neurotrophins. c. decreases the threshold for producing action potentials in axons. d. increases the flow of glucose across the blood-brain barrier. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
41. The main advantage of psychotherapy over drug-therapy in the treatment of depression is that psychotherapy: A shows benefits more quickly. B is usually less expensive. C has no effect on the brain. D produces longer-lasting effects. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
42. With long term use of antidepressants, there is increased production of brain-derived neurotrophin factor in the: a. hippocampus. b. suprachiasmatic nucleus. c. superior colliculus. d. hypothalamus.
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Chapter 1
ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
43. Long term use of antidepressants increases the proliferation of new neurons in the: A hippocampus. B suprachiasmatic nucleus. C superior colliculus. D hypothalamus. ANS: A OBJ: 3 44. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
is a treatment for depression that electrically induces a seizure. Electromagnetic therapy
Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation Electroconvulsive shock therapy
Transcranial magnetic stimulation
ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
45. The original impetus for the use of electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) for people with psychological disorders came from the observation that: a. an increase in epileptic symptoms was associated with a decrease in schizophrenic symptoms. b. damage to the prefrontal cortex often leads to a decrease in overall activity. c. levels of glucose metabolism vary as a patient switches between depression and mania. d. depressed people often show memory deficits not found in healthy people. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
46. When ECT proved to be ineffective for schizophrenia, it was: a. abandoned as a means of treatment for psychiatric disorders. b. used to enhance memory. c. used to stimulate the immune system. d. used to treat other mental illnesses. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs MSC: www
47. The use of electroconvulsive shock declined in the 1950's because: a. it was outlawed. b. a new theory of depression arose. c. antidepressant drugs became available. d. a federal report concluded that it was almost never effective. ANS: C OBJ: 4
625
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
The Major Issues
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
48. Of the following treatments for depression - psychotherapy, drug therapy, and ECT - the one with the fastest benefits is and the one with the longest lasting benefits is . a. psychotherapy; drug therapy b. drug therapy; ECT c. ECT; psychotherapy d. drug therapy; psychotherapy ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
49. Electroconvulsive shock therapy is sometimes recommended for patients with strong suicidal tendencies because it: a. produces its benefits faster. b. does not impair memory. c. produces permanent, not temporary, relief. d. is based on a theory, not just trial and error discoveries. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
50. One advantage of electroconvulsive shock therapy over antidepressant drugs is that shock treatment: a. produces its benefits faster. b. does not impair memory. c. produces permanent, not temporary, relief. d. is based on a theory, not just trial and error discoveries. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
51. The most common side effect of electroconvulsive shock therapy is: a. dry mouth and blurred vision. b. damage to the frontal lobes. c. memory loss. d. high probability of broken bones during the treatment. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
52. If ECT is administered to the right hemisphere only: a. depression is not alleviated as well as when administered to the left hemisphere. b. depression is alleviated more quickly. c. antidepressant effects occur with memory impairment. d. antidepressant effects occur without memory impairment. ANS: D OBJ: 4
626
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
Chapter 1
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
53. Electroconvulsive shock therapy is most likely to be used with patients: a. with seasonal affective disorder. b. with brief or mild episodes of depression. c. with bipolar disorder. d. who have not responded to drug therapy. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
54. One serious drawback of using ECT to treat depression is the: a. high risk of brain damage. b. high risk of relapse. c. slow onset of benefits. d. likelihood of substituting schizophrenia for depression. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
55. After ECT has relieved depression, the usual strategy to try to prevent a relapse includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. drug therapy. b. psychotherapy. c. periodic ECT treatments. d. periodic transcranial magnetic stimulation. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
56. ECT increases the proliferation of new neurons in the: a. thalamus. b. hippocampus. c. fornix. d. cingulate. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
57. Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation is similar to ECT in that: a. both deal with magnetic stimulation. b. both increase the frequency of action potentials. c. both are effective in alleviating depression and no one knows why. d. neither requires patient consent. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
58. In certain cases, it is possible to relieve depression by changing a person's: a. sleeping schedule. b. eating schedule. c. exercise schedule.
627
The Major Issues
d. self-grooming habits. ANS: A OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
59. Of these treatments for depression--drugs, psychotherapy, and electroshock--which one (if any) usually produces benefits FASTEST? a. drugs b. psychotherapy c. electroshock d. There is no difference. ANS: C OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
60. Of these treatments for depression--drugs, psychotherapy, electroshock--which one (if
any) usually produces the most long-lasting benefits? a. drugs b. psychotherapy c. electroshock d. There is no difference. ANS: B OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs KEY: NEW
61. The cheapest and simplest antidepressant procedure is: a. sleep deprivation. b. food deprivation. c. massage. d. regular nonstrenuous exercise. ANS: D OBJ: 4
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs MSC: www
62. People with unipolar disorder are characterized by: a. obsessions and compulsions. b. variations between depression and mania. c. variations between depression and a normal mood. d. chemical imbalances in one half of their brains. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
63. A restless, impulsive person whose speech rambles from one idea to another may fit which of these categories? a. autistic b. depressed c. manic d. narcoleptic ANS: C
628
PTS: 1
DIF: factual
Chapter 1
REF: Bipolar Disorder
OBJ: 5
TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
64. Bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder differ with regard to: a. how many relatives also have the condition. b. how rapidly the cycles occur. c. whether they include full-blown manic phases. d. whether they develop suddenly at an early age or gradually at a later age. ANS: C OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
65. Someone with bipolar disorder alternates between: a. schizophrenia and normal. b. mania and normal. c. depression and dementia. d. mania and depression. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder MSC: www
66. Which of the following characterizes total brain activity, as measured by the rate of glucose metabolism, in those suffering from mood disorders? a. high in both mania and depression b. low in both mania and depression c. low in mania and high in depression d. high in mania and low in depression ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
67. The highest correlation for bipolar disorder exists: a. between children and their adoptive parents. b. among siblings. c. between dizygotic twins. d. between monozygotic twins. ANS: D OBJ: 5
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
68. In what ways do genetics contribute to bipolar disorder? a. There are genes on several chromosomes, although no specific gene has been found to be a major cause. b. A recessive gene has been found to cause bipolar disorder. c. There has been no evidence of a genetic connection. d. The genes responsible are only passed from father to son. ANS: A OBJ: 5
629
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
The Major Issues
REF: Bipolar Disorder
69. Lithium is most commonly prescribed for which disorder? a. seasonal affective disorder b. endogenous depression c. reactive depression d. bipolar disorder ANS: D OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder MSC: www
70. Physicians must carefully monitor the dose of lithium they give to bipolar patients because: a. people develop a tolerance to the drug and must gradually increase their dosage. b. people develop a sensitivity to the drug and must gradually decrease their dosage. c. the amount of drug needed to achieve a good effect varies from one time of year to another. d. the most beneficial dosage is just less than the dosage that is toxic. ANS: D OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
71. Lithium prevents a relapse into: a. mania only. b. depression only. c. either mania or depression. d. schizophrenia. ANS: C OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
72. What do the drugs valproate and carbamazepine share in common with lithium? a. They are used to treat schizophrenia. b. They block the synthesis of arachidonic acid. c. They inhibit GABA. d. They are 100% effective in treating bipolar disorder. ANS: B OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
73. Lithium, valproate, and carbamazapine are common treatments for which condition?
A bipolar disorder B schizophrenia C seasonal affective disorder D Parkinson’s disease ANS: A OBJ: 6
630
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
Chapter 1
REF: Bipolar Disorder KEY: NEW
74. What would you most strongly recommend that a person with bipolar disorder eat to reduce the effects of arachidonic acid? a. carrots b. seafood c. beef d. chocolate ANS: B OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
75. Bipolar patients show an increased expression of genes associated with: a. inflammation. b. memory loss. c. proliferation. d. insomnia. ANS: A OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
76. Similar to depressed patients, bipolar patients may benefit from a change in their: a. work schedule. b. roommates. c. sleep schedule. d. exercise routine. ANS: C OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
77. People suffering from seasonal affective disorder are most likely become depressed in the: a. days after any holiday. b. fall. c. winter. d. spring. ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 7
DIF: factual REF: Seasonal Affective TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders MSC: www
78. Where is seasonal affective disorder most common? a. in large cities b. in small towns and rural areas c. in tropical areas d. near the poles ANS: D Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 7
DIF: factual REF: Seasonal Affective TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
79. Concerning temperature cycles, SAD patients are to a. phase-delayed cycles; normal cycles b. normal cycles; phase-advanced cycles c. phase-delayed cycles; phase-advanced cycles
631
as other depressed patients are to
The Major Issues
.
d. phase-advanced cycles; phase-delayed cycles ANS: C Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 7
DIF: factual REF: Seasonal Affective TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
80. What is one of the best treatments for seasonal affective disorder? a. bright light b. electroconvulsive shock therapy c. adrenal hormones d. dietary changes ANS: A Disorder
632
PTS: 1 OBJ: 7
DIF: factual REF: Seasonal Affective TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
Chapter 1
81. An advantage of bright light therapy for SAD, as compared to other antidepressant treatments, is that bright light therapy: a. is highly effective without apparent side effects. b. produces a permanent cure after one or two treatments. c. is well understood theoretically. d. is financially supported by several drug companies. ANS: A Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 7
DIF: factual REF: Seasonal Affective TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
82. Traumatic experiences greatly increase the risk of depression in some people, and only slightly increase it in others, depending on a. the density of neurons in the occipital cortex. b. the density of neurons in the parietal cortex. c. a gene that controls myelin formation. d. a gene that controls serotonin receptors. ANS: D Disorder
PTS: 1 OBJ: 2
DIF: factual REF: Major Depressive TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
83. A disorder characterized by deteriorating ability to function in everyday life and some combination of hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder, movement disorder and inappropriate emotional expressions is: a. bipolar disorder. b. hypomania. c. multiple personality. d. schizophrenia. ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
84. Someone with deterioration of everyday functioning and hallucinations or delusions or thought disorders would likely be classified as having which disorder? a. schizophrenia b. bipolar disorder c. attention deficit disorder d. Klinefelter's syndrome ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
85. Which of the following behaviors most closely meets the definition of schizophrenia? a. alternation between one personality and another b. outbursts of unprovoked violent behavior toward strangers c. deterioration of daily functioning, hallucinations, and thought disorders d. episodes of being unable to remember certain events of one's past ANS: C OBJ: 1
633
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The Major Issues
REF: Diagnosis
86. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of schizophrenia? a. deterioration of everyday functioning b. delusions c. impaired understanding of abstract concepts d. alternation between one personality and another ANS: D OBJ: 1 87. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis MSC: www
was originally called dementia praecox. bipolar disorder schizophrenia dissociative identity disorder Huntington’s disease
ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia KEY: NEW
REF: Diagnosis
88. Dissociative identity disorder was previously known as: a. multiple personality disorder b. schizophrenia c. borderline personality disorder d. bipolar disorder ANS: A OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia KEY: NEW
REF: Diagnosis
89. Schizophrenia was originally called: a. dissociative identity disorder. b. dementia praecox. c. multiple personality disorder. d. frontal dementia. ANS: B OBJ: 2
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
90. Schizophrenia is Greek for: a. multiple personality. b. hallucinations. c. split mind. d. premature deterioration of the mind. ANS: C OBJ: 2
634
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Chapter 1
REF: Diagnosis
91. An example of a "negative symptom" of schizophrenia is: a. hallucinations. b. poor emotional expression. c. delusions. d. thought disorder. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis MSC: www
92. A schizophrenic patient whose main symptoms are lack of emotional expression, lack of social interaction, and lack of speech is suffering from: a. positive symptoms. b. negative symptoms. c. thought disorders. d. delusions. ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
93. One of the main problems with schizophrenia is that result from abnormal interactions between the cortex and the thalamus and cerebellum. a. speech problem b. absent signs of emotion c. disordered thoughts d. delusions ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia KEY: NEW
REF: Diagnosis
94. What is the difference between positive and negative schizophrenic symptoms? a. beneficial behaviors versus harmful behaviors b. behaviors that are present versus behaviors that are absent c. behaviors that are related to abnormal brain functioning versus those that are not d. behaviors shown by one personality versus behaviors shown by another ANS: B OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
95. Hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorder are classified as which kind of symptoms? A positive symptoms B neutral symptoms C negative symptoms D ambiguous symptoms ANS: A OBJ: 1
635
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The Major Issues
REF: Diagnosis
96. The belief that outer space aliens are trying to control one's behavior is classified as a: a. delusion. b. hallucination. c. negative symptom. d. disorganized positive symptom. ANS: A OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
97. A delusion is a(n): a. sensory experience that does not correspond to reality. b. inability to understand abstract concepts. c. unfounded belief. d. loss of memory for part of one's past. ANS: C OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
98. What Bleuler meant by schizophrenia was a split between a. emotional, behavioral b. emotional, realistic c. intellectual, behavioral d. emotional, intellectual ANS: D OBJ: 1
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia KEY:
REF: Diagnosis
and
aspects of experience.
REF: Diagnosis NEW
99. Inappropriate emotions, bizarre behaviors, and thought disorders represent the: a. disorganized cluster of positive symptoms. b. psychotic cluster of positive symptoms. c. disorganized cluster of negative symptoms. d. psychotic cluster of negative symptoms. ANS: A OBJ: 1 100.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
What is the most common thought disorder of schizophrenia? a. obsessive concentration on a single thought b. alternating between one personality and another c. excessive anxiety when thinking about one particular topic d. impaired understanding of abstract concepts ANS: D OBJ: 1
636
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Chapter 1
REF: Diagnosis
101.
Nancy Andreasen, one of the leading investigators of schizophrenia, considers the main problem to be: a. bizarre movements. b. hallucinations. c. disordered thoughts. d. depression. ANS: C OBJ: 1
102.
REF: Diagnosis
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
Which of the following factors is one explanation for the difference in the prevalence of schizophrenia across cultures? a. amount of time spent outdoors b. life expectancy c. amount of aluminum exposure d. record keeping differences ANS: D OBJ: 2
105.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
In making a differential diagnosis of schizophrenia, it is most important to know: a. if other medical conditions may account for their symptoms. b. how many of their relatives have schizophrenia. c. where they are employed. d. which hand is dominant. ANS: A OBJ: 2
104.
REF: Diagnosis
Lesions or tumors to the temporal or prefrontal cortex can produce symptoms resembling: a. depression. b. schizophrenia. c. spatial neglect. d. aphasia. ANS: B OBJ: 2
103.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
Which is NOT true about the incidence of schizophrenia? a. It is commonly estimated to occur in 10-15% of the population. b. It is reported more often in the United States than in Third World countries. c. It is slightly more severe in men than women. d. It is slightly more common in men than women. ANS: A OBJ: 2
637
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The Major Issues
REF: Diagnosis
106.
A first diagnosis of schizophrenia is usually made for a person in which age range? A preteens B 20s C 30s or 40s D 50s or beyond ANS: B OBJ: 2
107.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The concordance rate for schizophrenia is around a. 0 b. 10 c. 50 d. 90 ANS: C OBJ: 3
109.
REF: Diagnosis MSC: www KEY: NEW
The concordance rate of schizophrenia among twins is: a. higher in dizygotic than monozygotic twins. b. higher in monozygotic than dizygotic twins. c. equally high in monozygotic and dizygotic twins. d. very difficult to determine. ANS: B OBJ: 3
108.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics
percent for monozygotic twins.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics
Of the following individuals, the concordance rate for schizophrenia is highest for: a. monozygotic twins. b. dizygotic twins. c. dizygotic twins who were raised as though they were monozygotic twins. d. dizygotic twins who were adopted by schizophrenics. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics
110. Which of the following statements about the genetic basis of schizophrenia is FALSE? a. Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than dizygotic twins. b. Twins are more likely to resemble each other if they think they are monozygotic than if they actually are. c. Schizophrenia is more common in the biological relatives of an adopted schizophrenic child than in the adoptive relatives. d. The prevalence of schizophrenia has been declining worldwide. ANS: B OBJ: 3
638
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Chapter 1
REF: Genetics
111. When an adopted child develops schizophrenia, the disease is significantly more probable among the: a. adopting relatives than the biological relatives. b. biological relatives than the adopting relatives. c. siblings than the parents. d. fathers than the mothers. ANS: B OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics
112. One important factor to consider when making judgments about the relative influence of genetics on schizophrenia is: a. the role of evolution. b. the age of the mother. c. the size of school they attend. d. the mother’s prenatal environment. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics
113. Research appears to indicate that schizophrenia is most likely: a. a single-gene disorder like Huntington's disease. b. controlled only by environmental experiences. c. not genetic. d. influenced in some way by several genes. ANS: D OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics
114. Genetic studies of schizophrenia have found that: a. there are probably several possible genes that increase a person's risk for schizophrenia. b. a single gene on the X chromosome accounts for most cases of schizophrenia. c. schizophrenia has about the same heritability as Huntington's disease. d. dizygotic twins are more concordant for schizophrenia than monozygotic twins. ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics
115. Childhood-onset schizophrenia is: a. quite common. b. associated with identifiable genetic abnormalities. c. just like schizophrenia in adults. d. usually of brief duration. ANS: B OBJ: 3
639
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The Major Issues
REF: Genetics
116. One gene of interest in schizophrenia is DISC1. This gene especially if another gene PDE4B is . a. increases; present b. decreases; absent c. increases; absent d. decreases; present ANS: A OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
the risk for schizophrenia,
REF: Genetics
117. Researchers have had trouble replicating studies that found a particular gene linked to
schizophrenia. According to one recent hypothesis, . a. genes in fact have nothing to do with schizophrenia. b. the same genes responsible for schizophrenia also produce Huntington’s disease. c. spontaneous mutations in any of hundreds of genes can cause schizophrenia. d. most genetic researchers fail to examine the X and Y chromosomes. ANS: C OBJ: 3
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia KEY: NEW
REF: Genetics
118. Which of the following increases the probability that someone will develop
schizophrenia? a. Having an older than average father. b. Having at least one older brother. c. Being the only child in the family. d. Having a mother who is older than the father. ANS: A OBJ: 3 NEW
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics MSC: www
KEY:
119. Of the following hypotheses about the genetics of schizophrenia, which one do current
researchers favor best? a. Schizophrenia is often caused by new gene mutations or inactivations. b. Schizophrenia depends on a recessive gene on the X chromosome. c. Schizophrenia depends on a dominant gene on chromosome 4. d. Genes make almost no contribution to schizophrenia. ANS: A OBJ: 3 120.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia KEY: NEW
REF: Genetics
Concerning the genetics of schizophrenia, which of these currently seems most likely? a. Most cases can be traced to a single gene, which has been identified. b. Most cases are due to a single gene, but researchers have not yet found that gene. c. Schizophrenia requires a combination of two uncommon genes. d. Schizophrenia often results from a new microdeletion of part of a chromosome. ANS: D OBJ: 4 NEW
640
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Chapter 1
REF: Genetics MSC: www
KEY:
121.
As compared to the general population, twice the usual probability of schizophrenia has been correlated with: a. Rh-negative mothers and Rh-positive baby girls. b. Rh-positive mothers and Rh-negative baby girls. c. Rh-negative mothers and Rh-positive baby boys. d. Rh-positive mothers and Rh-negative baby boys. ANS: C PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
122.
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Which of the following is sometimes taken as evidence that schizophrenia might be caused by a virus or bacteria? a. the age at which symptoms appear b. the high concordance between paternal half-siblings c. the season-of-birth effect d. the relationship between schizophrenia and stressful experiences ANS: C PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
125.
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
Which of the following increases the probability that someone will develop schizophrenia? a. being born in winter b. eating a high-protein diet c. living in a low-income country d. spending time with other people who have schizophrenia ANS: A PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis KEY: NEW
124.
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
What is one factor in prenatal development that has been found to be related to increased incidences of schizophrenia later in life? a. excess sex hormones during the third trimester b. Rh-negative mothers who have had several Rh-positive babies c. lack of exercise by the mother early in pregnancy d. episodes of maternal depression ANS: B PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
123.
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The season-of-birth effect is sometimes taken as evidence that schizophrenia is caused by: a. genetics. b. viruses. c. stressful experiences. d. vitamin deficiencies. ANS: B PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
641
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
The Major Issues
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
126.
It is believed that a virus contracted by a pregnant woman might increase the incidence of schizophrenia in her child because: a. a mother's fever can adversely affect fetal brain development. b. increases in the resulting stress hormones in the mother affect fetal hormone levels. c. viruses are able to cross the placenta and affect the fetus directly. d. viral infections will harm the umbilical cord hampering the delivery of nutrients to the fetus. ANS: A PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
127.
The planum temporale is slightly most other people. a. deformed; left b. larger; left c. larger; right d. smaller; right ANS: C PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
130.
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Brain damage common to schizophrenia includes: a. larger than normal cerebral ventricles. b. a proliferation of glial cells. c. loss of axons between the substantia nigra and the basal ganglia. d. a heavier forebrain. ANS: A PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis MSC: www
129.
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Because of possible exposure to the parasite Toxoplasma gondii, some studies suggest that people who own a are more likely to have children who become schizophrenic. a. rat b. snake c. cat d. dog ANS: C PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
128.
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
in the
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
temporal lobe of schizophrenics, compared to
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The areas with the most consistent signs of abnormality in schizophrenics include the: a. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. b. medulla. c. occipital lobes. d. parietal lobes. ANS: A PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
642
Chapter 1
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131.
The problems that schizophrenics have with memory and attention are most likely related to an increased tendency of having brain damage in the: a. cerebellum. b. prefrontal cortex. c. occipital cortex. d. medulla. ANS: B PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
132.
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
People with schizophrenia have lower than normal overall activity in the: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. left hemisphere. d. right hemisphere. ANS: C PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
135.
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
Cell bodies in schizophrenics' brains are especially smaller than normal in the: a. hippocampus and hypothalamus. b. thalamus and hypothalamus. c. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex. d. medulla and pons. ANS: C PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
134.
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Of these brain areas, which is most likely to show abnormalities in schizophrenia? A prefrontal cortex B corpus callosum C lateral hypothalamus D lateral geniculate ANS: A PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis KEY: NEW
133.
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Research suggests that the brain abnormalities of schizophrenics develop: a. early and progressively get worse. b. early and then remain fairly steady. c. late in life and progressively get worse. d. late in life and remain fairly steady. ANS: B PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
643
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 4
The Major Issues
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
136.
If the brain is affected prenatally or neonatally, it could be that it takes many years before the symptoms of schizophrenia are evident because the: a. affected areas are among the slowest to mature. b. behavioral deficits often look like normal behavior in children. c. associated toxins do not have widespread effects until they have reached high levels. d. deficits are learned from imitation of other schizophrenic people. ANS: A PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
137.
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Prior to the 1950's, few schizophrenic patients who entered a mental hospital ever left. The discovery most responsible for alleviating that situation was the discovery of: a. chlorpromazine. b. the prefrontal lobotomy. c. electroconvulsive therapy. d. MAOIs. ANS: A PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
140.
DIF: conceptual OBJ: 4
The , an area that shows consistent signs of deficit in schizophrenia, matures slowly, not reaching full competence until the late teens. a. medulla b. occipital cortex c. thalamus d. prefrontal cortex ANS: D PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
139.
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
With respect to progressive brain damage in schizophrenia, results suggest that: a. there is no clear consensus. b. brain abnormalities get much worse with age. c. there is no change in brain structure once diagnosed. d. brain abnormalities improve significantly. ANS: A PTS: 1 Neurodevelopmental Hypothesis
138.
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
DIF: factual OBJ: 4
REF: The TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Another term for antipsychotic drugs is: a. benzodiazepines. b. neuroleptics. c. tricyclics. d. stimulants. ANS: B OBJ: 7
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Chapter 1
REF: Treatments
141.
The two chemical families to which most antipsychotic drugs belong are: a. phenothiazines and butyrophenones. b. tricyclics and MAOIs. c. nitrates and glucocorticoids. d. benzodiazepines and antihistamines. ANS: A OBJ: 7
142.
REF: Treatments
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia KEY: NEW
REF: Treatments
The doses of various drugs that are typically prescribed for schizophrenia are closely related to the strength of what effect? a. elevated alpha waves on an EEG b. blockage of dopamine receptors c. delays in the onset of REM sleep d. increases in the rate of dopamine synthesis ANS: B OBJ: 7
145.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Which of the following is an effect of most antipsychotic drugs? a. increased release of acetylcholine b. decreased reuptake of serotonin c. increased synthesis of norepinephrine d. blockage of dopamine receptors ANS: D OBJ: 7
144.
REF: Treatments
All of the following are antipsychotic drugs EXCEPT: a. chlorpromazine. b. Haldol. c. L-Dopa. d. Thorazine. ANS: C OBJ: 7
143.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
According to the dopamine hypothesis, what causes schizophrenia? a. excessive activity at dopamine synapses b. deficient activity at dopamine synapses c. an unusual point of origin for dopamine fibers in the brain d. an unusual course and destination of dopamine fibers in the brain ANS: A OBJ: 5
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The Major Issues
REF: Treatments MSC: www
146.
Repeated use of large doses of amphetamine or cocaine can lead to a behavioral condition similar to: a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder. c. attention deficit disorder. d. depression. ANS: A OBJ: 5
147.
REF: Treatments
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
Measuring the number of dopamine receptors occupied by a radioactive drug in people with schizophrenia led to the finding that: a. the dopamine hypothesis is incorrect. b. dopamine D2 receptor levels were low. c. excessive dopamine release occupies a greater number of D2 receptors. d. the primary problem is supersensitive D2 receptors. ANS: C OBJ: 5
150.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Nearly all of the drugs that can produce a psychosis resembling schizophrenia: a. increase the stimulation of GABA synapses. b. increase the stimulation of dopamine synapses. c. decrease the stimulation of serotonin synapses. d. decrease the stimulation of acetylcholine synapses. ANS: B OBJ: 5
149.
REF: Treatments
Someone shows symptoms resembling schizophrenia, especially the positive symptoms, but is not schizophrenic. Which of the following disorders is most likely? a. seasonal affective disorder b. bipolar disorder c. substance-induced psychotic disorder d. Korsakoff's syndrome ANS: C OBJ: 5
148.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
Why is blocking dopamine synapses to relieve schizophrenic symptoms not a strong clue about the underlying problem? a. It only works for about 10-15% of all patients. b. It takes 2-3 weeks to affect a behavioral change. c. It only works for about 2-3 weeks. d. Schizophrenics produce too much dopamine. ANS: B OBJ: 5
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151.
An alternative to the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia is the proposal that schizophrenia may be due to a deficiency of activity of synapses. a. serotonin b. glutamate c. substance P d. acetylcholine ANS: B OBJ: 6
152.
REF: Treatments MSC: www
Recent research findings suggest that compared to normal people, people with schizophrenia have: a. a greater amount of glutamate release. b. more glutamate receptors. c. fewer dopamine receptors. d. fewer glutamate receptors. ANS: D OBJ: 6
153.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
Researchers have found that the brains of schizophrenics release: a. too little dopamine. b. too much GABA. c. too little serotonin. d. too little glutamate. ANS: D OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
154. Phencyclidine (PCP), which can produce psychotic symptoms resembling schizophrenia, has which effect at synapses? a. It interferes with transmission at dopamine synapses. b. It interferes with transmission at glutamate synapses. c. It prolongs or increases activity at serotonin synapses. d. It directly stimulates acetylcholine receptors. ANS: A OBJ: 6 155.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia KEY: NEW
REF: Treatments
Which of the following drugs most closely imitates the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia? a. Prozac b. PCP c. cocaine d. amphetamine ANS: B OBJ: 6
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The Major Issues
REF: Treatments
156.
What is curious about the psychotic effects of phencyclidine (angel dust)? a. The hallucinations tend to be auditory. b. The hallucinations are more intense in females. c. Consuming alcohol lessens the psychotic experiences. d. The effects are minor or absent in preadolescents. ANS: D OBJ: 6
157.
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PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
Researchers have found that the amino acid glycine: a. competes with the effects of glutamate and, therefore, blocks those synapses. b. can be converted into dopamine or serotonin in different brain areas. c. increases the effectiveness of other antipsychotic drugs. d. directly stimulates nicotinic-type acetylcholine synapses. ANS: C OBJ: 6
160.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The amino acid, glycine, provides a possible co-treatment for schizophrenia because it: a. can be chemically converted into dopamine. b. increases the effectiveness of glutamate. c. decreases the effectiveness of glutamate. d. increases the growth and division of glia cells. ANS: B OBJ: 6
159.
REF: Treatments
For someone who has recovered from schizophrenia, PCP: a. induces a long-lasting recovery. b. induces a long-lasting relapse. c. is quite ineffective in inducing behavioral changes. d. produces depression instead. ANS: B OBJ: 6
158.
PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a complex disorder in which both a. dopamine; GABA b. serotonin; GABA c. glutamate; serotonin d. dopamine; glutamate ANS: D OBJ: 6
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and
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
Chapter 1
REF: Treatments
play important roles.
REF: Treatments
161.
For schizophrenics, atypical antipsychotics are more effective than typical antipsychotics in: a. reducing positive symptoms. b. reducing negative symptoms. c. increasing negative symptoms. d. blocking glutamate receptors. ANS: B OBJ: 6
162.
REF: Treatments
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments MSC: www
The symptoms of tardive dyskinesia are: a. anterograde and retrograde amnesia. b. tremors and other involuntary movements. c. outbursts of unprovoked violent behavior. d. attacks of anxiety that prevent active behavior. ANS: B OBJ: 6
165.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
A serious side effect that develops in some people after prolonged use of neuroleptic drugs is: a. tardive dyskinesia. b. attention deficit disorder. c. saccadic eye movements. d. seasonal affective disorder. ANS: A OBJ: 6
164.
REF: Treatments
The dopamine system apparently responsible for the symptoms of schizophrenia projects from the to the . a. midbrain tegmentum; limbic system b. limbic system; midbrain tegmentum c. limbic system; hippocampus d. midbrain tegmentum; basal ganglia ANS: A OBJ: 6
163.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
What kind of drug alleviates schizophrenia with little risk of producing tardive dyskinesia? a. neuroleptics b. atypical antipsychotics c. monoamine oxidase inhibitors d. lithium ANS: B OBJ: 6
649
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
The Major Issues
REF: Treatments MSC: www
166.
What happens when schizophrenics stop taking neuroleptic drugs? a. They usually stop having auditory hallucinations. b. Schizophrenic symptoms return within hours, often worse than ever. c. Tardive dyskinesia may continue. d. Memory problems become more apparent. ANS: C OBJ: 6
167.
REF: Treatments
Atypical antipsychotic drugs alleviate schizophrenia with fewer side effects than other drugs because they: a. stimulate dopamine synapses instead of blocking them. b. act at acetylcholine synapses instead of dopamine synapses. c. block dopamine synapses for only minutes per day. d. are better at blocking certain serotonin synapses. ANS: D OBJ: 6
168.
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
Atypical antipsychotic drugs differ from standard neuroleptics like chlorpromazine in terms of: a. the blood pH they require for effectiveness. b. which set of dopamine synapses they affect. c. how quickly they take effect. d. how long their effects last. ANS: B OBJ: 6
PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Treatments
SHORT ANSWER 1. Define major depression. ANS: People with a major depression feel sad and helpless every day for weeks at a time. They have little energy, feel worthless, contemplate suicide, have trouble sleeping, cannot concentrate, find little pleasure, and can hardly even imagine being happy again. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Major Depressive Disorder
OBJ:
1
2. Briefly describe some of the abnormalities of hemispheric dominance in the brains of depressed people. ANS:
Most depressed people have decreased activity in the left and increased activity in the right prefrontal cortex. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Major Depressive Disorder
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Chapter 1
OBJ:
1
3. List the four major categories of antidepressant drugs. ANS: Antidepressant drugs fall into four major categories: tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAOIs, and atypical antidepressants. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
OBJ:
3
4. Briefly describe how MAOIs function. ANS: MAOIs block the enzyme monoamine oxidase (MAO), a presynaptic terminal enzyme that metabolizes catecholamines and serotonin into inactive forms. When MAOIs block this enzyme, the presynaptic terminal has more of its transmitter available for release. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
OBJ:
3
5. Describe the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and give some examples of each. ANS: Positive symptoms: Behaviors that are present that should be absent, such as delusions (unfounded beliefs), hallucinations (abnormal sensory experiences), inappropriate emotional displays, bizarre behaviors, and thought disorder. Negative symptoms: Behaviors that are absent that should be present, such as weak social interactions, emotional expression, speech, and working memory. PTS: 1 DIF: factual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Diagnosis
OBJ: 1
ESSAY 1. Describe the mechanisms of the three major types of antidepressant drugs. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
651
REF: Major Depressive Disorder MSC: www
The Major Issues
OBJ:
1
2. Describe some of the alternate treatments for depression. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Antidepressant Drugs
OBJ:
3
3. Describe bipolar disorder including discussions of the role of genetics and possible treatments. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.1 Mood Disorders
REF: Bipolar Disorder
OBJ:
4. Discuss the research dealing with the genetics of schizophrenia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics
OBJ: 3
5. Discuss some of the leading theories on the neural causes of schizophrenia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: conceptual TOP: 15.2 Schizophrenia
REF: Genetics MSC: www
652
Chapter 1
OBJ: 3
6