Chapter 1 Common Measurements in Exercise Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Work is defined as
A) the ability to transform energy from one state to another. B) the ability to utilize oxygen. C) the product of force times distance. D) the product of distance times power output.
2)
Power is defined as
A) the ability to perform work. B) work divided by the amount of time required to perform the work. C) the product of work times force (Work × force). D) the product of force times distance (force × distance).
3)
The SI unit for work is the
A) joule. B) watt. C) kpm. D) kcal.
4) Direct calorimetry is a means of determining energy expenditure and involves the measurement of
A) oxygen consumption. B) heat production. C) ATP hydrolysis. D) carbon dioxide production.
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5)
The energy cost of horizontal running can be estimated accurately because
A) the VO 2 of running is always the same. B) the VO 2 of horizontal running is always 1 MET. C) the VO 2 increases linearly with running speed. D) none of these answers is correct.
6) The most common technique used to measure oxygen consumption in an exercise physiology laboratory is
A) closed-circuit spirometry. B) open-circuit spirometry. C) direct calorimetry. D) computer calorimetry.
7)
One MET is defined as a metabolic equivalent and is equal to
A) resting VO 2. B) 50% of resting VO 2. C) 200% of resting VO 2. D) VO 2 max.
8)
Net efficiency is defined as
A) work output/energy expended at rest multiplied by 100. B) work output/energy expended above rest multiplied by 100. C) work output/energy expended multiplied by 100. D) energy expended/work output multiplied by 100.
9)
Exercise efficiency is greater in subjects who
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A) possess a higher percentage of fast muscle fibers. B) possess a higher percentage of slow muscle fibers. C) possess 50% fast fibers and 50% slow fibers. D) None of these answers is correct.
10)
To achieve the highest efficiency during exercise, the optimum speed of movement
A) increases as the power output increases. B) decreases as the power output increases. C) remains constant as the power output increases. D) increases as the power output decreases.
11)
The SI units used to describe power are
A) Newtons. B) joules. C) watts. D) joules per second.
12)
Net efficiency
as work rate increases.
A) increases B) does not change C) decreases D) follows a sine wave pattern
13)
A kilocalorie is equal to
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A) 100 calories. B) 1,000 calories. C) 4,186 kilojoules. D) 4.186 joules.
14) In order to standardize terms for the measurement of energy, power, work, etc., scientists have developed a common system of terminology called
A) the English system. B) the metric system. C) system international units (SI). D) None of these answers is correct.
15) The incline of a treadmill is expressed in units called percent grade. Percent grade is defined as
A) the angle of the treadmill expressed in degrees. B) the amount of horizontal travel of the treadmill belt per minute. C) the hypotenuse divided by the vertical rise. D) the vertical rise per 100 units of belt travel.
16)
The term ergometry refers to
A) the measurement of heat production. B) the measurement of work output. C) the hypotenuse divided by the vertical rise. D) the vertical rise per 100 units of belt travel.
17) Calculating the work performed on a cycle ergometer requires that you know all of the following except
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A) subject's body weight. B) resistance against flywheel. C) pedaling speed (i.e., distance traveled). D) duration of exercise.
18) Compared to a highly economical runner, runners that exhibit poor running economy would require
A) a lower VO 2 at any given running speed. B) a higher VO 2 at any given running speed. C) the same VO 2 at any given running speed. D) None of these answers is correct.
19)
The treadmill angle (expressed in degrees) can be determined by
A) visual inspection of the angle of the treadmill. B) trigonometric computations. C) using a measurement device called an inclinometer. D) Both trigonometric computations and using a measurement device called an inclinometer answers are correct.
20) The measurement of oxygen consumption during exercise can provide an estimate of metabolic rate. The rationale behind the use of oxygen consumption to estimate metabolic rate is:
A) that measurement of oxygen consumption provides a direct estimate of how much carbohydrate is used a fuel source. B) that a direct relationship exists between oxygen consumed and the amount of heat produced in the body. C) that measurement of oxygen consumption provides a direct estimate of how much fat is used a fuel source. D) None of these answers is correct.
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21) During cycle ergometer exercise, net efficiency decreases as the work rate increases. The mechanism to explain this observation is
A) the relationship between energy expenditure and work rate is curvilinear rather than linear. B) the energy requirement of exercise decreases as work rate increases. C) that, independent of work rate, oxygen consumption during exercise always increases over time. D) None of these answers is correct.
22) Calculate the power output when an individual performs 700 joules of work in one minute.
A) 11.7 watts B) 117 watts C) 42,000 watts D) Power cannot be calculated with the information provided. 1 watt = 1 joule per second
23) A subject performing a 10-MET activity would have an oxygen consumption of approximately A) 10 ml•kg -1•min -1. B) 25 ml•kg -1•min -1. C) 35 ml•kg -1•min -1. D) 45 ml•kg -1•min -1.
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24) Calculate the total amount of work performed in 5 minutes of exercise on a cycle ergometer, given the following: Resistance on flywheel = 30 Newtons Cranking speed = 50 revolutions per minute Distance traveled per revolution = 6 meters 1 joule = 1 newton-meter
A) 9,000 joules B) 4500 joules C) 45,000 joules D) Total work performed cannot be calculated given the information above. 1 joule = 1 Newton-meter
25) Compute the power output (watts) during 60 seconds of treadmill exercise, given the following: Treadmill grade = 10% Horizontal speed = 100 meters per minute Subject's body weight = 60 kg (i.e., force = 588.6 Newtons) 1 joule = 1 newton-meter 1 watt = 1 joule per second 1 kcal = 426.8 kpm
A) 98.1 watts B) 981 watts C) 5886 watts D) Power output cannot be calculated given the information above.
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26)
Calculate net efficiency, given the following:
Resting VO 2 = 0.25 liters per minute Exercise VO 2 = 1.50 liters per minute Work rate = 100 watts (W) or 612 kilopond meters per minute 1 watt = 1 joule per second 1 kcal = 4186 joules 1 liter VO 2 = 5 kcal or 20,930 joules
A) approximately 19% B) approximately 20% C) approximately 23% D) approximately 28%
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_11e 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) C Version 1
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Chapter 2 Control of the Internal Environment MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The term homeostasis is defined as
A) a constant metabolic demand placed upon the body. B) the maintenance of a constant internal environment. C) a low metabolic rate. D) a change within the internal environment.
2)
Physiologists use the term steady state to denote
A) a steady and unchanging level of a physiological variable. B) a constant ambient environment. C) a changing internal environment. D) an increase in body heat storage.
3) A series of interconnected components that serve to maintain a physical or chemical parameter of the body near a constant value is called
A) homeostasis. B) steady state. C) a biological control system. D) a static system.
4)
The general components of a biological control system are the
A) receptor, control center, and organ. B) receptor, control center, and effector. C) effector, remote control, and stimulus. D) receptor and integrating center.
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5)
Most control systems of the body operate via
A) positive feedback. B) low-gain receptors. C) negative feedback. D) feed forward mechanisms.
6)
The gain of a biological control system can be thought of as the
A) precision with which the control system maintains homeostasis. B) amount of correction needed to maintain a constant internal environment. C) positive feedback needed to maintain homeostasis. D) stimulus that triggers the biological control system to bring the internal environment back to normal.
7)
Exercise training can improve homeostatic control via
A) an increase in positive feedback. B) an increase in negative feedback. C) a decrease in negative feedback. D) cellular adaptation.
8)
Cellular adaptation to environmental stress (i.e., hot environment) is called
A) acclimation. B) adaptation. C) homeostatic conversion. D) accommodation.
9) of
A chemical messenger is released from one cell and stimulates nearby cells is an example
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A) autocrine signaling. B) endocrine signaling. C) juxtacrine signaling. D) paracrine signaling.
10)
Endocrine signaling involves the release of
into the bloodstream.
A) heat shock proteins B) neurotransmitters C) hormones D) transcription factors
11)
The formation of mRNA in the cell is called
A) transcription. B) translation. C) transduction. D) transfection.
12)
Translation is the production of a protein from mRNA at the
A) nucleus. B) ribosome. C) mitochondria. D) Golgi apparatus.
13)
The cellular factor that "turns on" genes to promote the production of mRNA is called a
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A) myonuclei. B) mRNA transducer. C) transcriptional activator. D) DNA transcriber.
14)
Autocrine signaling occurs when a cell produces
A) and releases a chemical messenger into the extracellular fluid; this messenger then acts upon the cell that produced the messenger. B) a signal that acts upon cells at a distant location. C) chemical signals are released into the blood and carried throughout the body. D) a signal that acts within the cell that produced the signal.
15)
The term cell signaling refers to
A) depolarization of the cell. B) hyperpolarization of the cell. C) a system of communication between cells. D) None of these answers is correct.
16)
Hormesis refers to a biological process
A) that leads to cell death. B) in which low-to-moderate doses of a potentially harmful stress results in a beneficial adaptive effect. C) whereby cells decrease in size due to reduced rates of protein synthesis. D) None of these answers is correct.
17)
The relationship between hormesis/exercise intensity/duration is best described by
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A) a straight line. B) a curvilinear relationship. C) a sigmodal wave. D) None of these answers is correct.
18) Stress proteins (i.e., heat shock proteins) are manufactured by cells in response to exercise and other stresses. Importantly, increasing the cellular levels of heat shock proteins
A) can lead to an increased production of free radicals. B) can lead to further disruptions in homeostasis. C) can lead to an increased degree of cellular injury. D) can repair damaged cellular proteins and restore homeostasis.
19) During 60 minutes of constant-load submaximal exercise, the body temperature reaches a plateau after 35-45 minutes. This is an example of
A) homeostasis. B) effector. C) a steady state. D) changing internal environment.
20) In order to maintain blood glucose homeostasis, which of the following events would likely occur in response to a significant rise in blood glucose?
A) decreased insulin secretion from the pancreas B) increased uptake of glucose by cells C) release of blood glucose from the liver D) all of these answers are correct
21)
Which of the following physiological events is an example of positive feedback?
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A) regulation of blood glucose B) regulation of body temperature C) labor contractions during childbirth D) the cellular stress protein response
22)
In negative feedback, the response of the system is
A) to increase the gain of the receptor. B) to modify the receptor's response to the stimulus. C) opposite to that of the stimulus. D) to increase the stimulus.
23)
Some cells communicate by cell-to-cell contact. This type of signaling
A) is called intracrine signaling and requires that the cytoplasm of one cell makes contact with the cytoplasm of another cell. B) is called juxtacrine signaling and requires that the cytoplasm of one cell makes contact with the cytoplasm of another cell via a small junction connecting the cell membranes. C) is called autocrine signaling and requires that hormones be released by one cell. D) None of these answers is correct.
24) The most important control systems in the body are those systems that regulate a physiological variable that is required to sustain life. Which of the following control systems would likely have a large gain?
A) cardiovascular control system B) pulmonary control system C) temperature control system D) All of these answers are correct
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25) Negative feedback is an important class of biological control systems in the body that serves to restore normal values of a variable to maintain homeostasis. Which of the following examples illustrate a negative feedback control system of the body?
A) regulation of CO 2 concentrations in the blood B) control of body temperature C) regulation of blood glucose D) All of these answers are correct
26)
Which of the following statements about exercise-induced gene expression is correct?
A) Exercise training results in activation of cell signaling pathways in the active skeletal muscles B) Exercise training activates specific transcriptional activators C) Dissimilar modes of exercise (e.g., resistance vs. endurance) promote the expression of different genes D) All of these are correct
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_11e 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) D Version 1
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Chapter 3 Bioenergetics MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The metabolic process of converting foodstuffs into a biological usable form of energy is called
A) bioenergetics. B) metabolism. C) glycolysis. D) coupled reactions.
2)
By definition, an endergonic reaction is
A) a chemical reaction that requires energy to be added to the reactants before the reaction will take place. B) a chemical reaction that gives off energy. C) an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. D) a chemical reaction that results in products that are identical in structure.
3)
Coupled reactions are defined as
A) reactions that are linked together via the same enzyme. B) reactions that are linked together, with the liberation of free energy in one reaction being used to drive the second reaction. C) reactions that are not directly linked together but are require the same enzyme. D) reactions that are linked together because they act upon common substrates.
4)
Enzymes are catalysts that increase the rate of reactions by
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A) pulling two substrates together. B) lowering the energy of activation. C) binding to a substrate and producing energy. D) binding to a substrate and releasing protons.
5)
Enzymes called kinases are responsible for
A) removing electrons from substrates. B) adding hydrogens to substrates. C) adding phosphate groups (i.e., phosphorylation of substrates). D) transferring protons from one molecule to another.
6)
Stored polysaccharides in muscle and other tissues in animals are called
A) glucose. B) fructose. C) glycogen. D) cellulose.
7) The fats stored in muscle and adipose tissue that play an important role as an energy substrate are
A) phospholipids. B) cholesterol. C) triglycerides. D) lipoproteins.
8)
The immediate source of energy for muscular contraction is
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A) NAD. B) FAD. C) ATP. D) GTP.
9)
The simplest and most rapid method of producing ATP during exercise is through A) glycolysis. B) ATP-PC system. C) aerobic metabolism. D) glycogenolysis.
10) If muscle glycogen is the initial substrate, the net production of ATP resulting during glycolysis is
A) 2 molecules. B) 3 molecules. C) 32 molecules. D) 33 molecules.
11) are
The two most important hydrogen (electron) carriers in bioenergetic chemical reactions
A) NAD and ATP. B) FAD and ATP. C) NAD and FAD. D) NAD and LDH.
12)
The primary function of the Krebs cycle is to
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A) complete the oxidation of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins (i.e., form NADH and FADH). B) produce ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation. C) prime glycolysis for the production of ATP. D) produce H 2O and ATP.
13)
Aerobic production of ATP occurs in the
A) mitochondria in a process called glycolysis. B) mitochondria in a process called oxidative phosphorylation. C) mitochondria in a process called beta oxidation. D) cytoplasm.
14) Each pair of electrons passed through the electron transport chain from NADH to oxygen releases enough energy to produce a net production of
A) 1.5 ATP. B) 2.5 ATP. C) 5.0 ATP. D) 10.0 ATP.
15)
The total ATP tally from the aerobic breakdown of glucose is
A) 32 ATP. B) 36 ATP. C) 38 ATP. D) 39 ATP.
16)
The calculated efficiency for aerobic respiration is approximately
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A) 15%. B) 34%. C) 24%. D) 46%.
17)
The activity of creatine kinase is increased by a rise in
levels in the muscle fiber.
A) NAD B) ATP C) ADP D) lactate
18)
The rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis is
A) lactate dehydrogenase. B) hexokinase. C) phosphofructokinase. D) pyruvate kinase.
19)
The rate limiting enzyme in the Krebs cycle is
A) isocitrate dehydrogenase. B) hexokinase. C) succinate dehydrogenase. D) cytochrome oxidase.
20)
The rate-limiting enzyme in the electron transport chain is
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A) phosphofructokinase. B) isocitrate dehydrogenase. C) myosin ATPase. D) cytochrome oxidase.
21)
The process of beta-oxidation involves
A) breaking down stored triglycerides to FFA. B) the addition of oxygen to a fatty acid. C) the breakdown of a fatty acid to acetyl-CoA. D) none of these.
22)
The caloric (kcal) yield of one gram of protein is approximately
A) 4 kcal/g. B) 7 kcal/g. C) 9 kcal/g. D) the same as that of one gram of fat.
23) A high level of limiting enzyme.
in the muscle fiber would slow glycolysis by inhibiting its rate
A) ADP B) ATP C) P i D) none of these answers is correct
24)
Rate limiting enzymes are often located
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A) near the beginning of a metabolic pathway. B) near the end of a metabolic pathway. C) outside of the main metabolic pathway. D) None of these answers is correct.
25)
The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of lactate from pyruvate is
A) lactate dehydrogenase. B) lactate kinase. C) lactate hydrolase. D) pyruvate kinase.
26)
Triglycerides are comprised of
A) glycerol and cholesterol. B) FFA and glycerol. C) sterols and glycerol. D) None of these is correct.
27)
Skeletal muscles store carbohydrate in the form of glycogen rather than glucose because
A) glucose cannot directly enter glycolysis. B) storage of individual glucose molecules in the cell increases the osmotic pressure between the inside and outside of the cell. C) Both glucose cannot directly enter glycolysis and storage of individual glucose molecules in the cell increases the osmotic pressure between the inside and outside of the cell are correct. D) None of these answers is correct.
28) Elevated blood levels of lactate dehydrogenase can assist in the diagnosis of which medical condition?
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A) paget's disease B) pancreatitis C) muscular dystrophy D) myocardial infarction
29)
Which of the following statements about glycolysis is correct?
A) glycolysis occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. B) glycolysis involves the breakdown of glucose or glycogen into two molecules of pyruvate or lactate. C) glycolysis can start with the breakdown of fatty acids. D) glycolysis does NOT directly produce ATP.
30)
In general, the higher the intensity of exercise, the greater the contribution of
A) aerobic energy production. B) anaerobic energy production. C) the Krebs cycle to the production of ATP by substrate level phosphorylation. D) None of these answers is correct.
31)
The conversion of pyruvate to lactate requires
A) the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase. B) NADH + H +. C) Both the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase and NADH + H + are correct. D) None of these answers is correct.
32)
The term lactate refers to
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A) a potential end-product of glycolysis. B) the conjugate base of lactic acid. C) the salt of lactic acid. D) All of these answers are correct.
33) Body temperature increases during exercise. A 1-2ºC increase in muscle temperature during exercise would likely
A) increase enzyme activity. B) decrease enzyme activity. C) denatures enzymes. D) None of these answers is correct.
34)
The primary purpose of the Krebs cycle is to
A) complete the oxidation of foodstuffs using NAD and FAD as hydrogen (electron) carriers. B) catalyze the phosphorylation of ADP from creatine phosphate. C) oxidize foodstuffs and transfer those electrons to pyruvic acid. D) convert lactate to pyruvate.
35)
Which of the following statements is true concerning the electron transport chain?
A) The primary purpose of the electron transport chain is to complete the oxidation of carbohydrates. B) The primary purpose of the electron transport chain is to produce acetyl-CoA. C) The primary purpose of the electron transport chain is to harvest the energy from electrons moving down this pathway to produce ATP and water. D) The end-result of the electron transport chain is the formation of lactate.
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36) The actual net ATP yield from aerobic metabolism of one molecule of glucose is different from the theoretical yield because
A) the net production of ATP is higher than previously thought. B) it accounts for the fact that the energy provided by NADH and FADH is required not only for ATP production but also to transport ATP across the mitochondrial membrane. C) it eliminates the ATP derived from NADH. D) All of these answers are correct.
37) Three molecules of NADH are produced during one turn of the citric acid cycle. How many total ATP molecules can be produced from these three NADH molecules?
A) 1.5 ATP B) 2.5 ATP C) 5.0 ATP D) 7.5 ATP
38)
Compared to NADH, FADH produces less ATP because
A) FADH has a lower molecular mass than NADH. B) FADH enters the electron transport chain before NADH. C) the electrons from FADH enter the electron transport chain later than those by NADH. D) None of these answers is correct.
39) The first and second proton pumps in the electron transport chain transport + (H ) across mitochondrial inner membrane whereas the third proton pump moves (H +) across mitochondrial inner membrane.
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A) 4; 4 B) 4; 3 C) 3; 3 D) 4; 2
40)
In the hydrolytic model of oxidative phosphorylation, the four water tanks represent
A) muscle levels of ATP. B) rate of electron flow down the electron transport chain. C) the four energy pools in muscle. D) None of these is correct.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_11e 1) A 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) B Version 1
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27) B 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) C
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Chapter 4 Exercise Metabolism MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) At rest, the O 2 consumption of a 70-kg young adult is approximately
A) 250 ml/min. B) 0.25 L/min. C) 3.5 ml/kg/min. D) All of these answers are correct.
2) The bioenergetic pathway that first provides ATP for skeletal muscle at the onset of exercise is
A) glycolysis. B) the ATP-CP system. C) the Krebs cycle. D) the electron transport chain.
3)
The term oxygen deficit refers to the
A) lag in oxygen consumption at the beginning of exercise. B) excess oxygen consumption during recovery from exercise. C) amount of oxygen required to maintain a steady state during constant-load exercise. D) amount of oxygen utilized by the brain in the first few minutes of exercise.
4) The exercise intensity that promotes the highest amount of total fat oxidation is approximately
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A) 30% of VO 2 max. B) 60% of VO 2 max. C) 75% of VO 2 max. D) 90% of VO 2 max.
5) The lactate threshold is defined as the work rate or oxygen uptake at which there is a systematic
A) rise in blood levels of lactate dehydrogenase. B) rise in aerobic metabolism. C) decrease in blood lactic acid concentration. D) rise in blood levels of lactic acid.
6)
A respiratory quotient (RQ) of 0.95 during steady-state exercise is suggestive of a(n)
A) high rate of carbohydrate metabolism. B) high rate of fat metabolism. C) equal rate of fat/carbohydrate metabolism. D) high rate of protein metabolism.
7) Most of the carbohydrate (e.g., for a rested, well-fed athlete) used as a substrate during high-intensity exercise comes from
A) muscle glycogen stores. B) blood glucose. C) liver glycogen stores. D) glycogen stored in fat cells.
8)
The process of breaking down triglycerides into free fatty acids and glycerol is called
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A) beta oxidation. B) glycogenolysis. C) lipolysis. D) lipogenesis.
9) During the "rapid" portion of the excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC), the excess VO 2 is due to
A) high body temperature. B) gluconeogenesis. C) restoration of muscle CP and replacement of blood and muscle oxygen stores. D) elevated blood levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
10)
In general, very heavy exercise lasting 60 seconds utilizes energy production that is
A) 30% anaerobic/70% aerobic. B) 50% anaerobic/50% aerobic. C) 70% anaerobic/30% aerobic. D) 40% anaerobic/60% aerobic.
11) The slow rise in oxygen consumption over time during prolonged exercise (at a constant sub-maximal load) in a hot environment is due, in part, to
A) high blood levels of lactic acid. B) rising blood levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine. C) rising blood levels of insulin. D) a decrease in blood glucose levels.
12) As exercise intensity increases, there is a progressive increase in the reliance of carbohydrate metabolism in the exercising skeletal muscles. This fact has been described as the
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A) substrate shift phenomenon. B) RQ effect. C) crossover concept. D) glycolytic surge.
13)
The primary fuel source during high-intensity (85% VO 2 max) exercise is
A) muscle glycogen. B) blood glucose. C) muscle triglycerides. D) plasma FFA.
14)
Which of the following is true concerning VO
2 max?
A) It occurs at a lower intensity of exercise than the lactate threshold. B) It is the maximal volume of oxygen that can be moved into the lungs in one minute. C) It is a valid measure of cardiovascular fitness. D) It is the highest VO 2 achieved during prolonged steady-state exercise.
15) Which of the following exercise intensities would rely primarily on carbohydrate as a fuel source?
A) 30% of VO 2 max. B) 40% of VO 2 max. C) 55% of VO 2 max. D) 90% of VO 2 max.
16)
Which of the following factors are possible mechanisms to explain the lactate threshold?
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A) Accelerated rate of glycolysis due to epinephrine B) Recruitment of fast-twitch muscle fibers C) Reduced rate of lactate removal from the blood D) All of these answers are correct
17) After the first few minutes of constant-load, submaximal exercise, VO 2 reaches steady state, indicating that
A) the ATP demand is being met aerobically. B) levels of lactic acid in the blood are very high. C) the exercise can be continued indefinitely without fatigue. D) the oxygen uptake is not sufficient to meet the ATP demand.
18) Any factor that increases the amino acid pool in the muscle can enhance protein metabolism in the exercising muscle. Which of the following factors can increase the amino acid pool in the muscle?
A) Short-duration (i.e., 1-3 minutes) high intensity exercise. B) Prolonged exercise (>2 hours). C) High levels of lactate in the blood. D) None of these answers is correct.
19)
Energy to run a maximal 400-meter race (i.e., 50 to 60 seconds) comes from
A) aerobic metabolism exclusively. B) mostly aerobic metabolism with some anaerobic metabolism. C) a combination of aerobic/anaerobic metabolism, with most of the ATP coming from anaerobic sources. D) the ATP-CP system exclusively.
20)
Energy to run a 40-yard dash comes
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A) almost exclusively from the ATP-CP system. B) exclusively from glycolysis. C) almost exclusively from aerobic metabolism. D) from a combination of aerobic/anaerobic metabolism, with most of the ATP being produced aerobically.
21) The energy to perform long-term submaximal exercise (i.e., >30 minutes) comes primarily from
A) aerobic metabolism. B) a combination of aerobic/anaerobic metabolism, with anaerobic metabolism producing the bulk of the ATP. C) anaerobic metabolism. D) anaerobic metabolism, with the ATP-PC system producing the bulk of the ATP.
22) The oxygen debt is generally higher following heavy exercise when compared with light exercise because heavy exercise
A) produces more lactic acid. B) results in greater body heat gained, greater CP depleted, higher blood levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine, and higher blood lactate levels. C) results in a greater level of liver glycogen depletion. D) is of shorter duration than light exercise.
23)
Which of the following is true about VO 2 during exercise?
A) VO 2 increases linearly with work rate. B) VO 2 is an indicator of glycolytic ATP production. C) VO 2 drops sharply just prior to fatigue. D) None of these is true.
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24)
Removal of lactic acid following a bout of intense exercise is
A) more rapid if the subject rests, compared to performing light exercise. B) more rapid if the subject performs heavy exercise (>70% VO 2 max), compared to rest. C) more rapid if the subject performs light exercise (~30% VO 2 max), compared to rest. D) the same whether the subject rests or performs light exercise (~30% VO 2 max).
25)
Exercise trained individuals have a lower oxygen deficit; this may be due to
A) increased pulmonary lung capacity. B) increased levels of glycolytic enzymes in the trained muscle. C) a greater involvement of the ATP-CP energy system at the onset of exercise. D) having a better developed aerobic bioenergetic capacity.
26) The primary fuel source during prolonged (i.e., >120 minutes), light-intensity (40% VO 2 max) exercise is
A) muscle glycogen. B) blood glucose. C) muscle triglycerides. D) plasma FFA.
27) The carbohydrate fuel source that becomes most important after 3 hours of moderateintensity (~50% VO 2 max) exercise is
A) muscle glycogen. B) blood glucose. C) muscle triglycerides. D) plasma FFA.
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28) The measurement of VO 2 max is commonly performed during a graded exercise test on a treadmill. However, some subjects will voluntarily terminate an incremental exercise test without reaching VO 2 max. The primary (gold standard) criteria to determine if a subject reached their "true" VO 2 max during an exercise test is:
A) A blood lactate level exceeding 8 times resting levels B) A respiratory exchange ratio >1.15 C) A max heart rate within 20 beats of age-predicted max heart rate D) A plateau in oxygen uptake with an increase in work rate
29)
Which of the following is true of the Cori cycle?
A) This cycle can decrease blood lactate concentration by liver removal of lactate from the blood and converting this lactate into glucose. B) This cycle plays a role as part of the lactate shuttle. C) This cycle coverts lactate into glucose in the liver. D) All of these are true.
30)
During steady-state exercise, an RQ of 0.73 would indicate
A) a relatively high level of fat metabolism. B) a relatively high level of carbohydrate metabolism. C) a relatively high level of protein metabolism. D) None of these answers is correct.
31)
The RER can rise above 1.00
A) during high-intensity exercise. B) if VCO 2 > VO 2. C) when the buffering of lactic acid stimulates ventilation to eliminate CO 2. D) All of these answers are correct.
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32) Which of the following would NOT increase (whole body) oxygen consumption during recovery from exercise and increase excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
A) High intensity of exercise B) Elevated body temperature above normal C) High blood levels of hormones (i.e., epinephrine) D) None of these answers is true
33)
VO 2 max is determined by
A) the maximum ability of the cardiorespiratory system to deliver oxygen to the muscle. B) the ability of the muscle to take up and use oxygen to produce ATP. C) both the maximum ability of the cardiorespiratory system to deliver oxygen to the muscle and the ability of the muscle to take up and use oxygen to produce ATP are correct. D) None of these answers is correct.
34) Which of the following factors could explain the rise in blood lactic acid at the lactate threshold?
A) an increased rate of lactate production B) a decreased rate of removal of lactic acid from the blood C) both an increased rate of lactate production and a decreased rate of removal of lactic acid from the blood are correct D) None of these answers is correct
35) When using the RQ to estimate fuel usage during exercise, the role that protein plays as a fuel source is often ignored. Why?
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A) because protein generally plays a relatively small role as a fuel source during exercise. B) because protein cannot be used a fuel in skeletal muscle. C) because protein is only used as a fuel in muscle during short duration exercise lasting less than 20 seconds. D) None of these answers is correct.
36) Depletion of muscle carbohydrate stores during exercise can decrease the ability of the muscle to metabolize fat by
A) decreasing the rate of muscle lactic acid production. B) reducing the concentrations of citric acid cycle intermediates. C) increasing the rate of protein metabolism. D) reducing the rate of protein metabolism.
37) Which of the following factors causes the shift from fat to carbohydrate metabolism as exercise intensity increases during a graded exercise test?
A) Increase in the circulating levels of epinephrine B) Decrease in protein availability within the muscle C) Increase in the recruitment of fast muscle fibers D) All of these are true
38) One of the mechanism(s) responsible for activation of proteases during long-duration exercise is
A) a rise in muscle temperature. B) an increase in cytosolic calcium levels in the muscle. C) a rise in blood lactate levels. D) None of these is true.
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39) Carbohydrate used as a fuel source during exercise comes from both blood glucose and muscle glycogen. The relative contribution of these two sources of carbohydrate varies as a function of
A) exercise intensity. B) exercise duration. C) both exercise intensity and exercise duration are correct. D) None of these is true.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_11e 1) D 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) B 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) B 39) C
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Chapter 5 Cell Signaling and the Hormonal Responses to Exercise MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Steroid hormones exert their primary effect by
A) activating adenylate cyclase. B) regulating gene expression. C) blocking the effect of cyclic AMP. D) causing an inflammation response.
2)
Hormones are defined as:
A) chemical messengers located inside of muscle cells. B) chemical messengers located within the central nervous system. C) chemical messengers released into the blood. D) None of these answers is correct.
3) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the thyroid gland and plays a role in the regulation of plasma calcium levels?
A) thyroxine B) triiodothyronine C) calcitonin D) parathyroid hormone
4)
Which of the following hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla?
A) epinephrine B) aldosterone C) cortisol D) angiotensin II
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5) Which of the following hormones may be related to changes in mood and pain perception during or immediately following endurance exercise?
A) catecholamines B) glucocorticoids C) somatomedins D) endorphins
6) Given the importance of maintaining plasma glucose levels constant during exercise, insulin secretion would be expected to during exercise.
A) increase B) decrease C) remain the same D) decrease initially, followed by a rapid increase
7) A hormone that is released from the pancreas at a higher rate during exercise to mobilize liver glucose and adipose tissue fatty acids is
A) glucagon. B) somatostatin. C) insulin. D) None of these.
8) The term describing the cessation of the menstrual cycle resulting from lower estrogen levels in some female athletes is
A) dysmenorrhea. B) eumenorrhea. C) amenorrhea. D) menarche.
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9)
Muscle glycogen breakdown is under dual control by both A) catecholamines (e.g., epinephrine) and Ca ++/calmodulin. B) thyroid hormone and calmodulin. C) catecholamines and thyroid hormone. D) None of these answers is correct.
10) Which of the following hormones is believed to exert a "permissive" effect on the mobilization of glucose from the liver and FFA from adipose tissue?
A) epinephrine B) T 3 and T 4 C) insulin D) glucagon
11) Circulating levels of this hormone are increased significantly when plasma osmolality is high and plasma volume is diminished due to exercise.
A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) cortisol C) thyroid hormone D) None of these answers is correct
12) As a result of training, the sympathetic nervous system's response to a fixed submaximal work rate
A) is increased. B) is decreased. C) remains the same. D) None of these answers is correct.
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13) The mobilization of free fatty acids from adipose tissue and glucose from liver glycogen would be stimulated by
A) an increase in insulin and an increase in glucagon. B) a decrease in insulin and an increase in glucagon. C) an increase in insulin and a decrease in glucagon. D) a decrease in insulin and a decrease in glucagon.
14) Which of the following hormones is part of the General Adaptive Syndrome and is called the "stress" hormone?
A) epinephrine B) renin C) cortisol D) insulin
15)
Which of the following hormones is secreted from adipose tissue?
A) leptin B) adiponectin C) both leptin and adiponectin are correct D) none of these answers is correct
16)
Which of the following hormonal combinations are considered to be counter-regulatory?
A) ACTH and cortisol B) epinephrine and norepinephrine C) insulin and glucagon D) All of these are counter-regulatory hormone combinations
17)
Which of the following is true about plasma cortisol concentrations?
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A) plasma cortisol typically peaks in the early morning and drops throughout the day B) plasma cortisol concentrations increase proportional to increases in exercise intensity C) to accurately track the effects of exercise on plasma cortisol, one must first account for time-of-day effects on the hormone D) All of these are true statements about plasma cortisol concentrations
18)
While hormones circulate to all tissues, some affect only a few tissues. This is due to the
A) plasma concentration of the hormone. B) training state of the subject. C) type of receptor at the tissue. D) concentration of the hormone.
19) Plasma concentrations of growth hormone are elevated following bouts of short-duration, high intensity exercise. The primary effect of an increase in plasma concentrations of growth hormone is to
A) promote the increase in protein synthesis. B) promote long bone growth. C) increase the mobilization of FFA and reduce tissue use of blood glucose. D) None of these answers is correct.
20) When adenylate cyclase is activated by a hormone, the concentration of cyclic AMP increases in the cell even though the hormone does not enter the cell. This is an example of the mechanism of hormone action.
A) altering membrane transport B) altering activity of DNA C) second messenger D) All of these answers are correct
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If the thyroid gland does not produce a sufficient amount of T 3 or T 4, the resting 21) metabolic rate will
A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain the same. D) None of these answers is correct.
22) The decrease in plasma volume and the increase in the osmolality of the plasma during prolonged exercise results in in antidiuretic hormone.
A) an increase B) a decrease C) no change D) None of these answers is correct
23) by
During exercise, epinephrine and norepinephrine stimulate liver glycogenolysis indirectly
A) increasing glucagon secretion from the pancreas. B) increasing insulin secretion from the pancreas. C) increasing the uptake of FFA by muscle. D) lowering plasma cortisol concentration.
24) In response to maximal intensity exercise, trained and untrained individuals typically release concentrations of catecholamines.
A) higher B) lower C) identical D) unpredictable
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25) Which of the following hormonal concentrations decreases during exercise, whereas the concentrations of the other hormones will increase during exercise?
A) cortisol B) epinephrine C) growth hormone D) insulin
26)
Growth hormone
A) is released from the anterior pituitary. B) spares plasma glucose during exercise. C) increases gluconeogenesis in the liver. D) All of these are true.
27)
Insulin secretion would be highest
A) during prolonged exercise. B) as exercise intensity increases. C) after a meal high in carbohydrates. D) it would be equally high after all of these.
28) During exercise, blood glucose concentration is maintained fairly constant by all of the following factors EXCEPT ONE
A) elevated mobilization of FFA from adipose tissue. B) increased rate of gluconeogenesis. C) blocking entry of glucose into cells. D) elevated concentration of insulin.
29)
The concentration of a hormone can be increased by
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A) decreasing the rate at which it is metabolized and removed from the body. B) increasing the number of receptors. C) decreasing plasma volume. D) both decreasing the rate at which it is metabolized and removed from the body and decreasing plasma volume are correct.
During a bout of high intensity exercise (i.e., 10 minutes at 80% VO 2 max), the plasma 30) concentration of hormones that stimulate fatty acid mobilization from adipose tissue increase significantly. The plasma-free fatty acid concentration, however, actually decreases. Why does this occur?
A) Fatty acid supply is depleted. B) Hormones are ineffective in maximal work. C) Lactic acid interferes with fatty acid mobilization. D) High insulin levels secreted during maximal exercise interfere with fatty acid mobilization.
31) As a person becomes exercise trained, the amount of epinephrine released in response to an absolute amount of work (e.g., 100 watts of cycle ergometry) is when that person was untrained.
A) less than would have been released B) more than would have been released C) impossible to predict as compared to D) the same as
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_11e 1) B 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) C 28) D 29) D 30) C 31) A
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Chapter 6 Exercise and the Immune System MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The term immunity
A) relates to the fact that cell membranes protect against germs entering the cell. B) refers to all of the mechanisms used in the body to protect against foreign agents. C) describes the ability of physical barriers to protect against injury to the skin. D) None of these answers is correct.
2)
The innate immune system is comprised of
A) physical barriers only. B) cellular components only. C) complement proteins only. D) physical barrier, cellular components, and complement proteins.
3)
Which of the following immune cells are a component of the innate immune system?
A) killer T cells B) helper T cells C) natural killer cells D) B cells
4)
The first line of defense to protect the body against foreign invaders is
A) physical barriers. B) cellular components. C) white blood cells. D) natural killer cells.
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5)
Which of the following immune cells are classified as a leukocyte?
A) cytokines B) B-cells C) complement system D) neutrophils
6) The component of the immune system that destroys bacteria by creating holes in the surface of the bacterium is the
A) adaptive immune system. B) antigen-antibody system. C) inflammation system. D) complement system.
7)
The acquired immune system is often referred to as
A) the innate immune system. B) the evolving immune system. C) the adaptive immune system. D) None of these answers is correct.
8)
In the adaptive immune system, the primary role of B cells is to
A) produce antibodies. B) secrete cytokines to enhance the immune response. C) act as phagocytes. D) attack cancer cells.
9)
T cells are produced
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A) in the liver. B) in the thyroid gland. C) in both the liver and thyroid gland. D) in the bone marrow.
10)
The T cells that primarily attack virus-containing cells are
A) helper T cells. B) killer T cells. C) regulatory T cells. D) suppressor T cells.
11)
B-cells function as a key component of the immune system by
A) producing antibodies. B) acting as phagocytes to remove bacteria. C) acting as an antigen. D) producing proteins involved in the complement system.
12)
In acute inflammation, vasodilation results in
A) edema. B) increased blood flow to the damaged tissue. C) swelling. D) All of these answers are correct.
13)
Chronic, low grade inflammation has been linked to an increased risk of
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A) cancer B) diabetes C) heart disease D) All of these answers are correct
14) Immune function can be depressed following strenuous exercise due to high circulating levels of
A) cortisol. B) natural killer cells. C) neutrophil phagocytosis. D) B cell activity.
15)
Field studies suggest that living and exercising at high altitude
A) does not influence immune function. B) improves immune function by increasing killer cells. C) improves immune function by increasing the levels of circulating antibodies. D) depresses immune function and increases the risk of upper respiratory tract infection.
16)
Exercise should be avoided if cold symptoms
A) include a fever. B) are above the neck. C) include a runny nose or nasal congestion. D) All of these answers are correct.
17)
Immunoglobulins are also called
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A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) viruses. D) cytokines.
18) The J-shaped relationship between the intensity of exercise and the risk of URTI suggests that the risk URTI is lowest in people who
A) are sedentary. B) engage in moderate exercise. C) engage in vigorous exercise. D) None of these answers is correct.
19)
Immunosenescence is a decreased immune function in
A) children. B) athletes. C) sedentary adults. D) the elderly.
20)
A single bout of prolonged and/or high intensity exercise has been shown to
A) increase the risk of infection. B) decrease the risk of infection. C) have no influence on the risk of infection. D) None of these answers is correct.
21)
The most prevalent immune cell type in the blood circulation is
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A) B cells. B) T cells. C) monocytes. D) neutrophils.
22)
Which of the following cell type is not a lymphocyte?
A) B cell B) T cell C) natural killer cell D) neutrophil
23)
A single bout of exercise can reduce the risk of infection by increasing blood levels of
A) antibodies. B) natural killer cells. C) neutrophils. D) All of these answers are correct.
24)
An acute 30-minute bout of moderate intensity exercise performed in a hot environment
A) results in a depression of the acquired immune system. B) does not have a negative impact on the function of key cells involved in immune function. C) results in a depression of the innate immune system. D) both results in a depression of the acquired immune system and results in a depression of the innate immune system are correct.
25) An acute bout of prolonged and/or high intensity exercise may have a temporary depressive effect on the immune system. This response may be due to
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A) decreased blood levels of B-cells, T-cells, and natural killer cells. B) decreases in killer cell activity. C) decreases in nasal neutrophil phagocytosis. D) All of these answers are correct.
26)
Several life-style factors can have a negative impact on immune function; these include
A) inadequate nutrition. B) mental stress. C) poor sleep habits. D) All these answers are correct.
27) High circulating levels of cortisol can depress immune function in several ways including:
A) inhibit the function of cytokines. B) suppress natural killer cell function. C) depress the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines. D) both inhibit the function of cytokines and suppress natural killer cell function are correct.
28) During exercise recovery, why do some immune cells move from the blood to muscle tissue?
A) to survey potential damage to active skeletal muscle B) to promote an inflammatory response C) to recruit other immune cells through the release of cytokines D) All of these are correct
29)
The strategy of neutrophils to fight infection involves
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A) their function as killer cells in antibody dependent immune response. B) phagocytosis. C) release of chemical involved in inflammation. D) both phagocytosis and release of chemical involved in inflammation are correct.
30)
Key components of the innate immune system include
A) neutrophils, macrophages, and natural killer cells. B) neutrophils, T-cells, and natural killer cells. C) neutrophils, B-cells, and natural killer cells. D) neutrophils, T-cells, and T-lymphocytes.
31)
An important function of the acquired immune system is to assist the body in
A) recognizing and remembering specific pathogens (to protect against infection). B) mounting stronger attacks each time a repeating pathogen is encountered. C) removing bacteria by phagocytosis. D) both recognizing and remembering specific pathogens (to protect against infection) and mounting stronger attacks each time a repeating pathogen is encountered are correct.
32)
Macrophages can contribute to innate immunity in several important ways. These include
A) phagocytosis, production of platelets, and creation of cytokines. B) phagocytosis, production of antibodies, and creation of cytokines. C) phagocytosis, production of natural killer cells, and creation of cytokines. D) phagocytosis and production of cytokines.
33) A "J" shaped model exists to explain the relationship between varying amounts of exercise and the risk of upper respiratory tract infections. This curve suggests that the risk of infection .
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A) is lowest in sedentary individuals B) is lowest in individuals that engage in regular bouts of moderate exercise (i.e., moderate in both volume and intensity of exercise) C) is lowest in individuals that engage in regular bouts of high intensity and long duration exercise D) does not differ between sedentary and exercise trained individuals
34) Which of the following does not accurately support the "open window" theory that postexercise infection risk is increased following marathon type events?
A) there are fewer immune cells in blood circulation to fight a potential infection B) the immune cells that remain in circulation are immature by comparison to the immune cells that have relocated to damaged muscle tissue C) many circulating immune cells relocate to inactive muscle tissue leaving the body at risk of infection D) the infection fighting capacities of several immune cell types are depressed
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_11e 1) B 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) C
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Chapter 7 The Nervous System: Structure and Control of Movement MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Anatomically, the nervous system can be divided into two main parts:
A) afferent and efferent. B) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. C) sensory and motor. D) sympathetic and parasympathetic.
2)
Nerve fibers that conduct impulses away from the central nervous system are called
A) efferent. B) afferent. C) dendrites. D) sensory.
3)
Neurons can be divided into three basic components:
A) cell body, soma, and axon. B) soma, dendrites, and Schwann cells. C) cell body, dendrites, and axon. D) afferent, efferent, and dendrites.
4) Neurons are negatively charged on the inside of the cell with respect to the charge on the exterior of the cell. This electrical charge difference is called
A) irritability. B) conductivity. C) action potential. D) resting membrane potential.
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5)
The action potential is generated when an excitatory stimulus
A) opens sodium channels. B) opens voltage-gated potassium channels. C) causes the interior of the cell to become more negative. D) blocks the entry of sodium into the cell.
6)
Nerve fibers that carry impulses toward the central nervous system are called
A) efferent. B) dendrites. C) afferent. D) synapses.
7) The joint receptors that provide the central nervous system with information about body position are called
A) motor neurons. B) proprioceptors. C) extrafusal fibers. D) chemoreceptors.
8) The maintaining general equilibrium.
is an organ located in the inner ear and is responsible for
A) pacinian corpuscle B) Golgi tendon organ C) vestibular apparatus D) cerebellum
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9) A "movement plan" is first developed by the spinal centers for modification.
before being sent to
A) medulla oblongata B) cerebellum C) motor cortex D) sensory cortex
10)
The motor cortex is concerned with voluntary movement and is located within the
A) cerebellum. B) cerebrum. C) brain stem. D) hypothalamus.
11) The area of the brain that aids in control of movement and may initiate fast ballistic movements is the
A) cerebrum. B) motor cortex. C) brain stem. D) cerebellum.
12) The autonomic nervous system can be divided into two functional and anatomical divisions called
A) sympathetic and unsympathetic. B) sympathetic and parasympathetic. C) afferent and efferent. D) None of these answers is correct.
13)
The term kinesthesia refers to
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A) the study of movement. B) a lack of sensation in the muscles and joints. C) conscious recognition of the position of body parts with respect to each other. D) the transmission of a nerve impulse along the axon.
14) Higher brain centers are responsible for developing a general pattern of movement; the specific details of this movement are refined via a process known as .
A) reciprocal inhibition B) spinal tuning C) motor programming D) motor unit refinement
15)
Neurotransmitters that cause depolarization of membranes are called
A) inhibitory transmitters. B) receptors. C) excitatory transmitters. D) synaptic transmitters.
16) The summing of many excitatory post-synaptic potentials (EPSPs) from a single presynaptic neuron over a short time period is called
A) spatial summation. B) temporal summation. C) irritability. D) hyperpolarization.
17)
The ability of a neuron to respond to a stimulus is termed
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A) Irritability. B) Conductivity. C) Depolarization. D) Repolarization.
18)
The neurotransmitter used in the parasympathetic nervous system is
A) acetylcholine. B) norepinephrine. C) serotonin. D) dopamine.
19)
Muscle spindles provide sensory information relative to the
A) amount of force generated by muscle during a contraction. B) length of muscle. C) amount of energy expended during a muscle contraction. D) speed of muscle contraction.
20)
The thin muscle cells located within the muscle spindle are called
A) extrafusal fibers. B) gamma fibers. C) intrafusal fibers. D) satellite cells.
21)
The Golgi tendon organs monitor
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A) tension produced by muscular contraction. B) the length of muscle. C) the concentration of sodium ions in the sarcoplasm. D) the position of joints during movement.
22)
Equilibrium and balance require input from the
A) vestibular apparatus. B) eyes. C) joint, tendon, and muscle receptors. D) All of these answers are correct.
23)
Which of the following statements about neurons are NOT true?
A) The resting membrane potential is generally in the range of -40mv to -75mv. B) Maintaining resting membrane potential requires the use of energy from ATP. C) Neurons repolarize by opening chloride channels on the membrane. D) An action potential can occur when the neuron's sodium gates open.
24)
An excitatory neurotransmitter
A) results in graded depolarization of the dentrites and cell body. B) promotes excitatory postsynaptic potentials. C) promotes potassium entry into the neuron. D) both results in graded depolarization of the dentrites and cell body and promotes excitatory postsynaptic potentials are correct.
25)
Which of the following statements about multiple sclerosis (MS) are NOT true?
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A) MS results in damage to neurons within the basal ganglia. B) MS results in destruction of the myelin sheaths of axons in the central nervous system. C) MS results in general fatigue and muscle weakness. D) At present, no known cure exists for MS.
26)
Relative to brain health, regular aerobic exercise has been shown to
A) enhance learning and memory. B) improve brain blood flow. C) stimulate neuron formation. D) do all of these.
27) Repeated sport-related traumatic brain injuries (i.e., concussions) are associated with a higher risk of developing .
A) dementia B) Alzheimers diease C) impaired mental function D) All of these answers are correct
28) The mechanism responsible for the size principle is that compared to large motor neurons,
A) small motor neurons have a small surface area and are easier to depolarize. B) small motor neurons have a larger (more negative) membrane potential. C) small motor neurons do not respond to IPSPs. D) All of these answers are correct.
29)
The negative membrane potential in a resting neuron is primarily due to
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A) high levels of chloride ions in the cell. B) diffusion of potassium out of the cell. C) a higher permeability of the membrane for potassium compared to sodium. D) both diffusion of potassium out of the cell and a higher permeability of the membrane for potassium compared to sodium are correct.
30)
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy is associated with
A) neuronal death. B) loss of axons. C) chronic inflammation. D) All of these answers are correct.
31)
Which of the following statements are true about muscle chemoreceptors?
A) Muscle chemoreceptors send information to the central nervous system via group I and II fibers. B) Muscle chemoreceptors respond to changes in the concentration of hydrogen ions. C) Muscle chemoreceptors respond to changes in partial pressure of oxygen within the muscle fibers. D) All of these answers are correct.
32)
The resting membrane potential of neurons is determined by
A) the permeability of the cell membrane to various ions. B) the number of hydrogen ions located within the neuron. C) the difference in ion concentration between the intracellular and extracellular fluids. D) both the permeability of the cell membrane to various ions and the difference in ion concentration between the intracellular and extracellular fluids are correct.
33)
The sodium-potassium pump in neurons is an active transport pump that
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A) moves 2 molecules of sodium out of the cell and returns 3 molecules of potassium into the cell. B) moves 3 molecules of sodium out of the cell and returns 3 molecules of potassium into the cell. C) moves 3 molecules of sodium out of the cell and returns 2 molecules of potassium into the cell.
34)
A potential mechanism that could contribute to central fatigue includes
A) increases in excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain. B) depletion of excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain. C) a decrease in the excitability of the motor cortex. D) both depletion of excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain and a decrease in the excitability of the motor cortex are correct.
35) Endurance exercise training has been shown to improve brain function in numerous ways. Which of the following exercise-induced changes in the brain are NOT linked to exerciseinduced improvement in cognition?
A) production of new neurons B) increases in brain growth factors C) angiogenesis in the hippocampus D) angiogenesis in the cerebellum
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_11e 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) D
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Chapter 8 Skeletal Muscle: Structure and Function MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds the outside of skeletal muscle (i.e., just below the fascia) is called the
A) epimysium. B) perimysium. C) endomysium. D) basement membrane.
2)
The cell membrane around a muscle fiber is called the
A) soma. B) plasma membrane. C) mucous membrane. D) sarcolemma.
3)
The two major contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are
A) actin and troponin. B) actin and myosin. C) troponin and tropomyosin. D) myosin and tropomyosin.
4)
Calcium is stored in muscle within the
A) Golgi organs. B) H zone. C) sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) sarcolemma.
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5) The formation of cross-bridges that initiates the contractile process in skeletal muscle is triggered by
A) calcium binding to myosin. B) calcium binding to tropomyosin. C) calcium binding to troponin. D) ATP binding to the myosin cross-bridges.
6)
A muscular contraction that results in a movement of body parts is called a(n)
A) isometric contraction. B) static contraction. C) dynamic contraction. D) muscle twitch.
7)
Fast-twitch fibers (i.e., type IIx) contain a relatively
A) large number of mitochondria and high ATPase activity. B) small number of mitochondria and low ATPase activity. C) small number of mitochondria and high ATPase activity. D) moderate numbers of mitochondria and low ATPase activity.
8)
The motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a
.
A) motor junction B) motor unit C) motor end plate D) motor nerve
9)
The connecting point between a motor neuron and muscle fiber is called the
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A) end-plate potential. B) motor unit. C) sarcolemma. D) neuromuscular junction.
10)
The breakdown of ATP in muscle is accomplished via the enzyme
A) lactate dehydrogenase. B) succinate dehydrogenase. C) ATPase. D) phosphofructokinase.
11)
Skeletal muscle fibers that contain high numbers of mitochondria could be classified as
A) type I fibers. B) type IIb fibers. C) either type IIx or type IIb. D) type IIx.
12) A highly successful endurance athlete would likely have to a sedentary person.
compared
A) a higher percentage of type IIB fibers B) a higher percentage of type I fibers C) a higher percentage of type IIx fibers D) an equal percentage of type I and type IIx fibers
13)
Which type of muscle fiber has been shown to be the most efficient?
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A) type I. B) type IIa. C) type IIx. D) type I and type IIx have equal efficiency.
14)
Disease-related muscle wasting is termed
A) cachexia. B) proteolysis. C) myobiogenesis. D) None of these answers is correct.
15)
Postactivation potentiation is defined as
A) the increase in muscle force production that occurs following consumption of a high carbohydrate meal. B) the increase in muscle force production that occurs following a bout of non-fatiguing, submaximal contractions. C) the increase in muscle force production that occurs following a bout of fatiguing, maximal contractions. D) None of these answers is correct.
16)
The amount of force exerted during muscular contraction is dependent on the
A) type of motor units recruited ONLY. B) type of motor units recruited, the initial length of the muscle, and the nature of the neural stimulation. C) length of the muscle fibers ONLY. D) nature of the neural stimulation ONLY.
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17) The specific tension (i.e., force production per cross sectional area of the fiber) differs between fiber types. Which of the following answers is correct relative to specific force production?
A) type I is greater than type IIa and IIx. B) type IIx is greater than type I and IIa. C) type IIx is slightly greater than type IIa. D) both type IIx is greater than type I and IIa and type IIx is slightly greater than type IIa are correct.
18)
Which of the following events occurs first during a voluntary muscle contraction?
A) The T-tubules depolarize, causing calcium to be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) Tropomyosin moves, exposing the actin active sites. D) The innervating alpha-motor neuron reaches an action potential.
19)
Which of the following has been shown to cause muscle fatigue? A) the accumulation H + B) the accumulation of ATP C) the accumulation of inorganic phosphate D) both the accumulation H + and the accumulation of inorganic phosphate are correct
20)
Satellite cells
A) contribute to muscle growth by dividing and contributing nuclei to existing muscle fibers. B) reside above the sarcolemma. C) are undifferentiated cells that play a key role in muscle growth and repair. D) All of these answers are correct.
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21) The force velocity curve describes the relationship between speed of muscle shortening (i.e., velocity of movement) and muscle force production. Which of the following statements are true about the influence of muscle fiber type on the force velocity curve?
A) At any given velocity of movement, the peak power generated is greater in a muscle that contains a high percentage of fast fibers (i.e., type IIx) compared with a muscle that contains a high percentage of slow fibers (i.e., type I). B) At any given velocity of movement, the peak power generated is lower in a muscle that contains a high percentage of fast fibers (i.e., type IIx) compared with a muscle that contains a high percentage of slow fibers (i.e., type I). C) At low movement speeds, the peak power generated is greater in a muscle that contains a high percentage of slow fibers (i.e., type I) compared with a muscle that contains a high percentage of fast fibers (i.e., type IIx). D) None of these answers is correct.
22) The peak power generated by any skeletal muscle increases with increasing velocities of movement up to a movement speed of 200-300 degrees per second; at higher shortening velocities, the peak power output declines. Which of the following factors can explain this observation?
A) ATPase activity decreases as a function of the speed of muscle shortening. B) Myosin cross-bridges develop velocity-related increases in binding capacity. C) muscle ATP levels are depleted at shortening velocities above 300 degrees per second. D) muscle force production decreases with high shortening velocities because fewer cross-bridges are connected and therefore, less force is produced.
23) One of the proposed mechanisms to explain the positive impact of postactivation potential on muscle performance is that low intensity muscle contractions result in phosphorylation of myosin light chains (i.e., proteins located at the base of the myosin crossbridge). This increased phosphorylation can increase muscle force production by
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A) increasing the muscle's sensitivity to calcium. B) increasing the calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) promoting increased ATP availability in the muscle. D) None of these answers is correct.
24) A popular belief among some athletes is that exercise-induced muscle cramps in a single muscle (e.g., gastrocnemius) results from dehydration and blood electrolyte imbalance. Which of the following observations DO NOT support this position?
A) Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance would likely impact all skeletal muscles. B) Exercise-induced muscle cramps can occur without any change in blood electrolyte concentrations. C) Static stretching of the cramping muscle often relieves the cramp. D) All of these answers are correct.
25) Aging is associated with a loss of muscle mass; this is called sarcopenia. Which of the following statements about sarcopenia are correct?
A) Muscle mass begins to decline around age 25 B) The slow phase of age-related muscle decline ranges from age 25 to 50 years C) By age 80, 50% of the total muscle mass can be lost D) All of these are correct
26) Four categories (domains) of exercise intensity exist. Which of the following statements about exercise intensity domains are true?
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A) Moderate intensity exercise is below the lactate threshold and typically below 60% VO 2 max in untrained subjects B) Very heavy exercise exceeds both the lactate threshold and VO 2 max C) Heavy exercise is exercise above the lactate threshold and typically ranges between 60-75% VO 2 max D) Both Moderate intensity exercise is below the lactate threshold and typically below 60% VO 2 max in untrained subjects and Heavy exercise is exercise above the lactate threshold and typically ranges between 60-75% VO 2 max are correct
27)
Which of the following statements about the myonuclear domain are correct?
A) The myonuclear domain is the region of cytoplasm surrounding an individual nucleus. B) The is importance of the myonuclear domain is that a single nucleus is responsible for the gene expression for its surrounding cytoplasm. C) In response to resistance exercise, satellite cells become activated and divide to add additional nuclei to a muscle fiber. D) All of these are correct.
28)
Which of the following statements about muscle fatigue are true?
A) The cause of muscle fatigue during severe exercise is multifactorial and includes increases in phosphate ions and hydrogen ions within the active muscle fibers. B) The cause of muscle fatigue during prolonged moderate exercise is identical to the mechanisms responsible for fatigue during very heavy exercise. C) Increases in hydrogen ions in skeletal muscle contribute to fatigue because hydrogen ions bind to the calcium binding site on troponin. D) Both the cause of muscle fatigue during severe exercise is multifactorial and includes increases in phosphate ions and hydrogen ions within the active muscle fibers and Increases in hydrogen ions in skeletal muscle contribute to fatigue because hydrogen ions bind to the calcium binding site on troponin are true.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_11e 1) A 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) D
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Chapter 9 Circulatory Responses to Exercise MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The primary purpose of the cardiovascular system is to
A) maintain constant carbon dioxide levels in the body. B) deliver adequate levels of oxygen and remove wastes from body tissues. C) remove metabolic wastes from kidney during exercise. D) None of these answers is correct.
2) In order to meet the increased oxygen demands of muscle during exercise, two major adjustments in blood flow must be made:
A) an increase in heart rate and diastolic blood pressure. B) an increase in blood flow to both the gut and brain. C) an increase in cardiac output and a redistribution of blood flow from inactive tissues to skeletal muscles. D) an increase in muscle blood flow and an increase in blood flow to the liver.
3)
All gas exchange between the vascular system and tissues occurs in
A) venules. B) capillaries. C) arterioles. D) veins.
4)
Backflow of blood from the arteries into the heart ventricles is prevented by the
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A) semilunar valves. B) bicuspid valve. C) atrioventricular valves. D) coronary valves.
5)
The muscle of the heart is referred to as the
A) pericardium. B) myocardium. C) epicardium. D) endocardium.
6)
Electrical impulses are conducted between heart muscle cells by
A) intercalated discs. B) intermediate junctions. C) active transport of sodium between cells. D) Purkinje fibers.
7)
The contraction phase of the heart is called
A) diastole. B) atrial contraction. C) systole. D) the cardiac cycle.
8)
In a healthy heart, the time spent in systole is generally
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A) longer than B) equal to C) shorter than D) three times longer than
9)
During exercise, the time spent in diastole and systole
A) remains unchanged. B) is decreased equally. C) is decreased, with the greatest decrease occurring in diastole. D) is increased, with the greatest increase occurring in diastole.
10)
The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called the
A) pulse pressure. B) mean arterial blood pressure. C) brachial pressure. D) double product.
11)
The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
A) atrioventricular node. B) sinoatrial node. C) A-V node. D) S-V node.
12) The represents ventricular repolarization during a recording of the electrical activity (i.e., ECG) of the heart.
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A) P wave B) QRS complex C) T wave D) R wave
13)
Withdrawal of parasympathetic influence on the heart results in
A) an increase in HR. B) a decrease in HR. C) a small decrease in arterial blood pressure. D) a small decrease in arterial blood pressure followed by an increase in HR.
14)
The cardiovascular control center is located in the
A) medulla oblongata. B) carotid sinus. C) cerebrum. D) atria of the heart.
15) The fact that an increase in end-diastolic ventricular volume increases the stroke volume of the heart is an illustration of the
A) influence of the parasympathetic nervous system on cardiac output. B) Frank-Starling law of the heart. C) influence of atrioventricular node on cardiac output. D) influence of blood pressure on cardiac output.
16)
The increase in cardiac output that occurs during exercise is due to
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A) both an increase in mean arterial pressure and a decrease in vascular resistance. B) a decrease in vascular resistance only. C) an increase in mean arterial blood pressure only. D) an increase in heart rate and a decrease in mean arterial blood pressure.
17)
The most important variable that determines resistance to blood flow is
A) the viscosity of blood. B) the length of the blood vessel. C) the diameter of the blood vessel. D) blood pressure.
18)
The relationship between cardiac output and metabolic rate is
A) linear and negatively correlated. B) linear and positively correlated. C) curvilinear. D) exponential.
19) In most subjects, stroke volume continues to increase during incremental exercise up to approximately
A) 20% of VO 2 max. B) 40% of VO 2 max. C) 75% of VO 2 max. D) 90% of VO 2 max.
20) The age-dependent decrease in maximal heart rate can be estimated via the Karvonen formula
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A) HR max = 200 - age. B) HR max = 205 - age. C) HR max = 210 - age. D) HR max = 220 - age.
21)
Autoregulation of blood flow to contracting muscles during exercise is due to
A) the withdrawal of sympathetic impulses to arteries. B) an increase in parasympathetic outflow to arterioles. C) locally produced factors such as nitric oxide, prostaglandins, and adenosine. D) an increase in sympathetic impulses to arterioles.
22) Most of the increase in mean arterial blood pressure that occurs during dynamic (isotonic) incremental exercise is due to
A) an increase in diastolic blood pressure. B) the increase in systolic blood pressure. C) both an increase in diastolic and systolic blood pressure. D) an increase in systolic blood pressure combined with an equal drop in diastolic blood pressure.
23)
Sympatholysis refers to
A) local inhibition of parasympathetic-induced vasoconstriction. B) local inhibition of sympathetic-induced vasoconstriction. C) increased parasympathetic-induced vasodilation. D) increased sympathetic-induced vasodilation.
24)
A local increase in the nitric oxide concentration around arterioles would result in
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A) vasoconstriction. B) no change in vessel diameter. C) vasodilation. D) None of these answers is correct.
25)
The arterial-venous oxygen difference
A) increases as a function of exercise intensity. B) does not change during exercise. C) decreases as the exercise intensity increases. D) is highest during submaximal exercise.
26) The relationship between oxygen uptake, cardiac output, and the arterial-venous oxygen difference is described mathematically by the
A) Hill equation. B) Fenn equation. C) Fick equation. D) Frank-Starling law.
27)
The metabolic demand of the heart can be estimated by
A) the rate-pressure product. B) the double product. C) multiplying heart rate by systolic blood pressure. D) All of these.
28)
The greatest resistance to blood flow is in the
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A) veins. B) arterioles. C) aorta. D) capillaries.
29) The central command theory of cardiovascular control proposes that initial signal to the cardiovascular control center comes from
A) the cerebellum. B) the brainstem. C) higher brain centers. D) feedback loops coming from muscle receptors.
30) Which of the following is the correct order of events pertaining to contraction of the left ventricle?
A) The bundle branches depolarize, the ventricle contracts, the ventricular pressure increases, and blood exits the ventricle. B) The aortic volume increases, the ventricular pressure increases, the ventricle contracts, the bundle branches depolarize. C) The ventricular pressure increases, the bundle branches depolarize, the aortic volume increases, the ventricle contracts. D) The bundle branches depolarize, the ventricular pressure increases, the ventricle contracts, the aortic volume increases.
31) Which of the following most accurately describes changes in autonomic control of heart rate during incremental exercise (from rest to VO 2 max)?
A) PNS outflow is followed by SNS withdrawal B) PNS withdrawal is followed by SNS outflow C) PNS and SNS outflow D) PNS and SNS withdrawal
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32)
Which of the following factors can decrease blood pressure?
A) systemic vasodilation. B) an increase in blood viscosity. C) an increase in stroke volume. D) increased parasympathetic nervous system activity.
33)
Skeletal and cardiac muscle are similar in which of the following ways?
A) both muscles contain type I, IIa, and IIx fibers B) both muscles are under voluntary control C) both muscles contain fibers that are branched D) both muscles are composed of striated fibers containing actin and myosin
34) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for increasing venous return during exercise?
A) an increase in stroke volume B) venoconstriction C) skeletal muscle contractions D) rhythmic pattern of breathing provides a mechanical pump to increase venous return
35) Which of the following represents the correct order of events of the flow of blood after it leaves the left ventricle and before it returns to the right atrium?
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A) Blood flows through the aorta, oxygen moves out of the capillaries, blood flows though veins, blood enters the venules. B) Blood flows through the venules, blood flows through the veins, oxygen moves out of the capillaries, blood enters the aorta. C) Oxygen moves out of the capillaries, blood flows through the aorta, blood flows through the venules, blood enters the veins. D) Blood flows through the aorta, oxygen moves out of the capillaries, blood flows through the venules, blood enters the veins.
36) Atrial repolarization occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle as observed on an ECG?
A) the p wave B) the qrs complex C) the t wave D) the pr interval
37) According to the Fick equation, if cardiac output doubles during exercise and the arterialmixed venous oxygen difference remains constant, body oxygen consumption would
A) remain constant. B) decrease by 50%. C) increase by 100%. D) None of these answers is correct.
38)
Which of the following statements about beta-adrenergic blocking medications are true?
A) beta blocking drugs reduce heart rate during exercise. B) beta blockade reduces the vigor of ventricular contraction. C) beta blocking drugs compete with epinephrine and norepinephrine for betaadrenergic receptors in the heart. D) All of these answers are correct.
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39) Which of the following factors contribute to "fine-tuning" of cardiovascular control during exercise?
A) muscle chemoreceptors B) baroreceptors C) muscle mechanoreceptors D) All of these are correct
40) Which of the following factors has the greatest influence on blood flow to a skeletal muscle during exercise?
A) arterial pressure B) diameter of the arterial blood vessels leading to the muscle C) number of capillaries surrounding the muscle D) the viscosity of the blood
41)
Which of the following statements about heart rate variability (HRV) is NOT true?
A) HRV refers to the time interval between heart beats. B) Epidemiological studies suggest that a low HRV is an excellent predictor of mortality in some patient populations. C) HRV decreases in response to regular aerobic exercise training. D) HRV is influenced by the balance between the parasympathetic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.
42) If a person with ischemic heart disease experiences chest pain when their double product exceeds 20,000, which of the following combinations will produce angina?
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A) HR = 150, BP = 150/80 B) HR = 140, BP = 140/75 C) HR = 130, BP = 150/75 D) HR = 120, BP = 160/95
43)
Which of the following would not result in an increase in stroke volume during exercise?
A) an increase in end diastolic volume due to increased venous return B) a decreased end systolic volume due to increased cardiac contractility C) an increase in afterload D) All of these would result in an increase in stroke volume
44) In the transition from rest to exercise, what is the distribution of cardiac output to the heart?
A) the % of cardiac output is unchanged, but the volume of blood increases B) the % of cardiac output increases, and the volume of blood increases C) the % of cardiac output decreases, and the volume of blood increases D) the % of cardiac output is unchanged, and the volume of blood is unchanged
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_11e 1) B 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) C Version 1
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27) D 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) A
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Chapter 10 Respiration during Exercise MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The term ventilation refers to the
A) cooling of the airways by respiration. B) random movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration. C) mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungs. D) oxygenation of blood as it travels through the lungs.
2)
The most important muscle of inspiration is/are the
A) diaphragm. B) rectus abdominis. C) internal oblique. D) external intercostals.
3)
The volume of gas that reaches the gas-exchange zone of the lung is termed
A) anatomical dead space. B) minute ventilation. C) alveolar ventilation. D) tidal volume.
4) In the standing position, blood flow to the base of the lung is flow to the apex.
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A) less than B) the same as C) greater than D) none of these answers is correct
5)
Exercise-induced asthma could impair pulmonary gas exchange by
A) reducing blood flow to the lung. B) lowering the drive to breath. C) causing bronchodilation. D) increasing airway resistance.
6)
Most of the O 2 contained in the blood
A) exists in solution as a dissolved gas. B) is bound to hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin. C) is in the form of carboxyhemoglobin. D) is in the form of deoxyhemoglobin.
7)
Carbon dioxide is transported in arterial blood principally as
A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) dissolved CO 2 in solution in the blood. C) bicarbonate. D) carbon monoxide.
8) Studies reveal that ventilation drifts upward during constant-load submaximal exercise performed in a hot and humid environment. This is likely due to
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A) a lower arterial PO 2. B) a higher arterial PCO 2. C) a significant increase in body temperature. D) all of these answers are correct.
9) The exercise-induced hypoxemia that occurs in elite endurance athletes during heavy exercise is likely due to
A) chronic obstructive lung disease. B) impaired alveolar ventilation resulting in hypoventilation. C) asthma. D) a diffusion limitation secondary to a rapid red blood cell transit time.
10)
The respiratory control center is located in the
A) medulla oblongata. B) cerebrum. C) carotid bodies. D) cerebellum.
11) the
The central chemoreceptors that influence the control of breathing respond to changes in
A) H + of mixed venous blood. B) PCO 2 and H + of cerebral spinal fluid. C) PO 2, pH, and PCO 2 of arterial blood. D) PCO 2 and H + of mixed venous blood.
12)
A decline in arterial PO 2 to 70 mm Hg or below would likely result in
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A) a decrease in alveolar ventilation. B) an increase in alveolar ventilation. C) no change in alveolar ventilation. D) a prolonged breath hold.
13) Under normal conditions at sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli region of the lung is
A) 169 mm Hg. B) 159 mm Hg. C) 135 mm Hg. D) 100 mm Hg.
14) In healthy and untrained subjects, the alinear rise in minute ventilation observed during incremental exercise (i.e., ventilatory threshold) could be due to
A) a significant decline in arterial PO 2. B) an increase in arterial PCO 2. C) an increase in arterial pH. D) a decrease in arterial pH.
15)
Contraction of the rectus abdominis muscles would result in
A) active inspiration. B) passive inspiration. C) active expiration. D) passive expiration.
16) The right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve due to a rise in hydrogen ion concentration is called
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A) the Haldane effect. B) the Bohr effect. C) Haldane transformation. D) None of these is correct.
17) During exercise at sea level, young, healthy untrained subjects generally maintain exercise arterial PO 2 within
A) 1 mm Hg of resting values. B) 10-12 mm Hg of resting values. C) 20-25 mm Hg of resting values. D) 30-40 mm Hg of resting values.
18)
A significant increase in blood temperature (i.e. from 37 ºC to 39 ºC) would result in in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve.
A) a rightward shift B) a leftward shift C) no change in D) none of these answers is correct
19)
At a low PO
2, myoglobin has
affinity for O 2 than hemoglobin.
A) a higher B) a lower C) the same D) none of these answers is correct
20)
The amount of gas moved per breath is termed
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A) tidal volume. B) minute ventilation. C) vital capacity. D) minute volume.
21)
In a pulmonary function test, a FEV 1/FVC ratio of 0.60 is
A) considered normal. B) higher than normal. C) suggestive of airway obstruction. D) associated with a high VO 2 max.
Small increases in arterial PCO 22) compared to small decreases in PO 2.
2 have a
effect on ventilation
A) greater B) lesser C) the same D) none of these answers is correct
23)
The primary drive to increase ventilation during exercise is due to
A) input from peripheral chemoreceptors. B) input from central chemoreceptors. C) input from skeletal muscle mechanoreceptors. D) none of these answers is correct.
24)
Diffusion is defined as
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A) mechanical process of moving gas into the lungs. B) random movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to high concentration. C) random movement of molecules from area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration. D) movement of gases from the airways into alveolar ducts.
25)
Which of the following statements about sex differences in breathing are correct?
A) When matched for age and body weight, women have smaller airways compared to men. B) The energy requirement for breathing during exercise is higher for women compared to men. C) It is well established that the incidence of exercise-induced hypoxemia is greater in women compared to men. D) Both when matched for age and body weight, women have smaller airways compared to men and the energy requirement for breathing during exercise is higher for women compared to men are correct.
26)
Which of the following is NOT an important function of the pulmonary system?
A) to cool the airways. B) to provide an interface for gas exchange between the external environment and the body. C) regulation of acid base balance during exercise. D) None of these answers is correct.
27)
Gas exchange in the lungs occurs
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A) across approximately 300 million alveoli. B) in the conducting zone. C) in the respiratory zone. D) both across approximately 300 million alveoli and in the respiratory zone are correct answers.
28)
Which of the following statements about myoglobin are true?
A) myoglobin binds oxygen. B) myoglobin shuttles oxygen from the cell membrane to the mitochondria. C) myoglobin exists in relatively large quantities in slow-twitch muscle fibers. D) all of these answers are correct.
29)
The carotid bodies are chemoreceptors that are sensitive to changes in arterial
.
A) H + and K + concentrations B) pH, PCO 2, and PO 2 C) pH and K + concentrations D) PO 2 only
30)
A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) ratio of 0.64 would indicate
A) an ideal V/Q ratio for optimal gas exchange. B) that blood flow is higher than ventilation in this region of the lung. C) that ventilation is higher than blood flow in this region of the lung. D) none of these answers is correct.
31)
Which of the following statements about pulmonary physiology is correct?
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A) The PO 2 of inspired air at sea level is approximately 159 mm Hg. B) The percentage of CO 2 in the air is 0.0003. C) The percentage of O 2 in the air at sea level is the same as at high altitude. D) All of these answers are correct.
32) An increase in alveolar ventilation (at rest) resulting in hyperventilation will reduce arterial and increase .
A) PCO 2; pH B) O 2; pH C) pH; PCO 2 D) None of these questions is correct
33) According to Fick's law of diffusion, the rate of diffusion of a gas across a tissue is directly proportional to the
A) tissue area. B) diffusion coefficient of the gas. C) difference in partial pressure of the gas on the two sides of the tissue. D) all of these answers are correct.
34) In a healthy individual at sea level and at rest, which of following characteristics of arterial blood are correct?
A) PO 2 of approximately 100 mm Hg. B) oxyhemoglobin saturation of 97-98%. C) oxygen content of 20 ml O 2/100 ml blood. D) all of these answers are correct.
35)
Compared to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, the myoglobin dissociation curve .
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A) is much steeper at PO 2's below 20 mm Hg B) reaches a plateau at a much lower PO 2 C) both is much steeper at PO 2's below 20 mm Hg and reaches a plateau at a much lower PO 2 are correct D) none of these answers is correct
An increase in PCO 2 in the blood results in the formation of bicarbonate in the red 36) blood cell. Because bicarbonate carries a negative charge (anion), the removal of negatively charged molecule from the red blood cell is required to prevent an electrochemical imbalance across the cell membrane. This problem is avoided by
A) movement of sodium molecules out of the red blood cell. B) movement of chloride molecules out of the red blood cell. C) movement of chloride molecules into the red blood cell. D) both movement of sodium molecules out of the red blood cell and movement of chloride molecules into the red blood cell are correct.
37) During a graded exercise test, the increase in ventilation during the transition from rest to moderate exercise is achieved by
A) An increase in breathing frequency ONLY. B) An increase in tidal volume ONLY. C) An increase in both breathing frequency and tidal volume. D) None of these is correct.
38) Which of the following statements are true about the changes in ventilatory patterns during exercise?
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A) Changes in breathing patterns during exercise are important to ensure that optimal mechanics of breathing are realized during exercise B) Changes in breathing patterns during exercise are designed to reduce the risk of respiratory muscle fatigue C) Increasing tidal volume during exercise ensures that dead space ventilation remains small D) All of these are correct
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_11e 1) C 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) A Version 1
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27) D 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) D
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Chapter 11 Acid-Base Balance during Exercise MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Acids are defined as A) molecules that release hydroxyl ions (OH -). B) molecules that release hydrogen ions (H +). C) molecules that combine with hydrogen ions. D) substances that raise the bicarbonate ion concentration of the solution.
2)
Which of the following is true of the pH of arterial blood?
A) The normal pH is 7.0. B) A pH of 7.0 would be considered acidosis. C) A pH of 7.0 would be considered alkalosis. D) None of these answers is true.
3)
Acidosis can occur due to A) a decrease in the H + concentration. B) a loss of acids from the blood. C) an accumulation of bases in the blood. D) none of these.
4) is
The most common and strongest acid produced in skeletal muscle during heavy exercise acid.
A) phosphoric B) lactic C) acetoacetic D) citric
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5)
The first line of defense in protecting against pH change during exercise is
A) sodium bicarbonate levels in the blood. B) hemoglobin levels in the blood. C) intracellular buffers within muscle fibers. D) plasma bicarbonate.
6)
The most important of the blood buffers is/are
A) bicarbonate. B) blood proteins. C) hemoglobin. D) platelets.
7)
The respiratory system works in the regulation of acid-base balance by regulating
A) arterial PO 2. B) arterial PCO 2. C) blood levels of nitrogen. D) None of these answers is correct
8)
Muscle pH is generally
A) 0.4-0.6 pH units lower than arterial pH. B) 0.4-0.6 pH units higher than arterial pH. C) equal to blood pH. D) None of these answers is correct.
9) Sodium bicarbonate has been ingested by athletes before competition in an effort to improve performance by
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A) increasing blood buffering capacity. B) decreasing muscle lactate production. C) stimulating pulmonary ventilation to increase oxygen transport. D) increasing plasma volume.
10) Which of the following organs plays an important role in acid-base balance during exercise?
A) respiratory system B) kidneys C) liver D) None of these answers is correct
11)
Which of the extracellular buffers contributes the most to the cell's buffering capacity?
A) bicarbonate B) hemoglobin C) extracellular proteins D) all of these contribute equally
12) An increase in blood levels of carbon dioxide results in a decrease in blood pH because an increase in PCO 2 A) decreases H + ion levels in the plasma. B) promotes an increase in lactic acid production in the muscle. C) reacts with water to form carbonic acid, which dissociates to release H +. D) none of these answers is correct.
13)
Metabolic acidosis can result from the overproduction of ketoacids, which can occur
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A) during exercise. B) in uncontrolled diabetes. C) as a result of high levels of glucose metabolism. D) all of these answers are correct.
14) Which of the following track running events would have the greatest risk of acid-base disturbance?
A) marathon B) 100 meter sprint C) 800 meter run D) 10,000 meter run
15) Repeated bouts of high intensity exercise (e.g., interval training) can reduce arterial pH to levels as low as
A) 7.6. B) 7.5. C) 7.4. D) 6.8-7.0.
16)
The pH scale is a measure of
A) the number of lactic acid molecules in a solution. B) the level of pyruvate molecules produced during glycolysis. C) the relative concentration of hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions in a solution. D) None of these answers is correct.
Which of the following events occurs during exercise at work rates above 60-80% VO 2 17) max?
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A) a decrease in plasma bicarbonate concentration B) an increase in blood lactic acid concentration C) a decrease in blood pH D) All of these answers are correct
18) Which of the following events are not primary sources of hydrogen ions during rigorous exercise?
A) ATP breakdown and release of hydrogen ions B) Increased production of lactic acid C) Aerobic metabolism of glucose resulting in the production of carbon dioxide and subsequently, carbonic acid D) Production of 3-phosphoglucose during glycolysis
19)
At rest, voluntary hyperventilation can result in
due to
.
A) metabolic acidosis; increased blood levels of lactic acid B) respiratory acidosis; increasing blood levels of carbon dioxide C) respiratory alkalosis; decreased blood levels of carbon dioxide D) None of these answers is correct
20)
Which of the following statements about a buffer is correct?
A) a buffer resists pH change B) a buffer removes hydrogen ions from solution C) buffers often consist of a weak acid and its conjugate base D) All of these answers are correct
21) Which of the following conditions and/or diseases can result in metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?
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A) Uncontrolled diabetes B) Kidney diseases that result in a loss of acids C) Vomiting D) All of these are correct
22)
The ability of histidine to buffer hydrogen ions is because histidine contains
A) an ionizable group. B) a free carbon atom that accepts hydrogen ions. C) bicarbonate molecules. D) None of these answers is correct.
23) Which of the following transporters in skeletal muscles are responsible for moving hydrogen ions across the sarcolemma?
A) sodium-hydrogen exchanger B) monocarboxylate transporter C) NA/K transporter D) Both sodium-hydrogen exchanger and monocarboxylate transporter are correct
24)
Which of the following statements about hemoglobin's buffering capacity are true?
A) Hemoglobin has six times the buffering capacity of plasma proteins because of it's concentration. B) Oxyhemoglobin is a better buffer than deoxyhemoglobin. C) Deoxyhemoglobin is a better buffer than oxyhemoglobin. D) Both Hemoglobin has six times the buffering capacity of plasma proteins because of it's concentration and Deoxyhemoglobin is a better buffer than oxyhemoglobin are correct.
25) According to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the pH of a weak acid solution is determined by
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A) ratio of the concentration of the acid in solution to the concentration of the base. B) ratio of the concentration of the base in solution to the concentration of the acid. C) the dissociation constant of bicarbonate. D) All of these answers are correct.
26)
Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, calculate the pH of blood given:
pKa = 6.1 blood concentration of carbonic acid = 1.2 mEq/L blood concentration of bicarbonate = 24 mEq/L Your calculation reveals that the pH of blood is
A) 7.2 B) 7.3 C) 7.4 D) None of these answers is correct
27) Studies reveal that exercise training improves muscle buffering capacity. Which of the following exercise-induced changes is NOT responsible for training-induced improvements in muscle buffering capacity?
A) increased levels of carnosine in muscle fibers B) increased muscle levels of citrate synthase C) increased content of hydrogen ion transporters D) None of these answers is correct
28)
How do changes in muscle pH affect exercise performance?
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A) Increases in hydrogen ion concentrations in the muscle increases the ability to produce ATP by activating key enzymes involved in both glycolysis and aerobic production of ATP B) Hydrogen ions compete with calcium ions for binding sites on troponin, thereby hindering the contractile process C) Hydrogen ions impair breathing and limit the ability to move oxygen in/out of the lungs D) None of these answers is correct
29)
Which of the following statements about skeletal muscle buffer systems is correct?
A) Only one transporter exists (i.e., sodium-hydrogen exchanger) to move hydrogen ions across the sarcolemma B) Two monocarboxylate transporters exist in human skeletal muscle fibers C) High intensity exercise training has been reported to improve muscle buffer capacity by increasing both carnosine and hydrogen ion transporters in skeletal muscle D) Both Two monocarboxylate transporters exist in human skeletal muscle fibers and High intensity exercise training has been reported to improve muscle buffer capacity by increasing both carnosine and hydrogen ion transporters in skeletal muscle are correct
30) Athletes involved in sports that require high intensity exercise have experimented with numerous supplements to improve buffering capacity and enhance performance. Which of the following supplements has NOT been shown to improve muscle buffering capacity?
A) sodium bicarbonate B) sodium citrate C) Beta-alanine D) hydrogen peroxide
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_11e 1) B 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) C Version 1
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27) B 28) B 29) D 30) D
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Chapter 12 Temperature Regulation MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Humans and other animals that maintain a rather constant body core temperature are called
A) cold-blooded animals. B) homeotherms. C) poikilotherms. D) None of these answers is correct.
2)
The primary source of heat production during exercise is
A) the heart. B) the gastrointestinal tract. C) through the action of thyroxine and catecholamines. D) the contracting skeletal muscles.
3)
The body's thermostat is located in the
A) anterior thalamus. B) posterior hypothalamus. C) preoptic-anterior hypothalamus. D) posterior thalamus.
4) The principal means of heat loss (at rest) in a cool indoor environment (20°C/lowhumidity) is via
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A) radiation. B) conduction. C) evaporation. D) convection.
5) The transfer of heat from the body into molecules of cooler objects in contact with its surface is called
A) radiation. B) conduction. C) convection. D) evaporation.
6) Which of the following is a potential mechanism of heat gain on a hot and sunny day outside?
A) radiation B) conduction C) evaporation D) radio waves
7)
An increase in body core temperature typically results in A) cutaneous vasoconstriction. B) cutaneous vasodilation. C) sweating. D) Both cutaneous vasodilation and sweating are correct.
8)
The primary adaptations that occur during heat acclimatization are
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A) a decreased plasma volume, earlier onset of sweating, and higher sweat rate. B) an increased plasma volume and lower sweat rate. C) an increased plasma volume, earlier onset of sweating, and a higher sweat rate. D) a decreased plasma volume, earlier onset of sweating, and a lower sweat rate.
9)
To ensure adequate hydration, athletes should
A) monitor fluid loses during exercise. B) consume fluids (after exercise) equal to approximately 150% of weight loss. C) consume fluids every 15-20 minutes during exercise. D) All of these are correct.
10)
Heat acclimatization occurs generally within
A) 1 to 2 days. B) less than 7 days. C) 7 to 14 days. D) 15 to 30 days.
11)
Evaporation of one liter of sweat would result in the loss of
kcal of heat.
A) 100 B) 500 C) 540 D) 580
12)
The higher the relative humidity and air temperature, the
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A) higher the vapor pressure gradient between the skin and the environment B) lower the vapor pressure gradient between the skin and the environment C) lower the heat index D) None of these answers is correct
13)
During exercise
of energy produced is released as heat.
A) <10% B) 20-30% C) 50% D) 70-80%
14)
Compared to exercise in a cool environment, prolonged exercise in the heat
A) decreases the production of free radicals in the working muscles. B) increases muscle blood flow. C) decreases muscle lactate production. D) results in a more rapid onset of muscular fatigue.
15)
Heat production can be increased through
A) shivering. B) non-shivering thermogenesis. C) the action of thyroxine and catecholamines on cellular heat production. D) All of these answers are correct.
16)
Exercise in the heat is associated with accelerated fatigue due, in part, to
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A) decreased muscle glycogen utilization. B) increased free radical production in the active skeletal muscles. C) decreased lactate production. D) All of these answers are correct.
17)
Which of the following statements about body temperature homeostasis is correct?
A) Body temperature is a balance between heat loss and heat gain. B) Core temperature is constantly maintained at 34°C. C) Skin temperature is usually equal to core temperature. D) None of these statements is correct.
18)
Regulation of body core temperature is important because
A) cellular structures and metabolic pathways are affected by temperature. B) low temperatures can promote abnormal cardiac function (e.g., arrhythmias). C) high temperature can alter the structure and function of enzymes. D) All of these statements are correct.
19) At high environmental temperatures, which of the following variables impact the amount of heat loss by evaporation?
A) convective currents. B) ambient temperature and relative humidity. C) amount of exposed skin. D) All of these answers are correct.
20) In response to a decrease in body temperature, humans often exhibit response to cold.
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A) peripheral vasodilation B) peripheral vasoconstriction C) shivering D) both peripheral vasoconstriction and shivering are correct
21)
Cold acclimation results in which of the following physiological adaptations?
A) increased nonshivering thermogenesis. B) improved ability to prevent large decreases in skin temperature during cold exposure. C) improved ability to sleep in cold environments. D) All of these answers are correct.
22)
Which of the following statements are true about heat shock proteins?
A) Repeated bouts of exercise in warm or hot environments increase their synthesis in cells. B) They stabilize and refold damaged cellular proteins. C) They assist cells in tolerating heat stress. D) All of these answers are correct.
23) Calculate the total evaporation of sweat necessary to prevent heat gain in the body given the following information:
Total body energy expenditure = 250 Kcal Exercise efficacy = 20% Evaporation of 1000 ml of sweat results in 580 Kcal of heat loss Therefore, the total evaporation of sweat necessary to prevent body heat gain in these conditions is:
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A) 0.276 liters B) 0.344 liters C) 0.166 liters D) None of these answers is correct
24)
Which of the following conditions would result in the highest vapor pressure in the air?
A) 20°C, 100% relative humidity B) 30°C, 75% relative humidity C) 30°C, 50% relative humidity D) 25°C, 75% relative humidity
25) Endurance exercise performance is impaired in a hot and humid environment. Which of the following physiological factors does NOT have a negative impact on exercise performance in a hot and humid environment?
A) accelerated muscle fatigue B) cardiovascular dysfunction C) respiratory dysfunction D) central nervous system dysfunction
26) Prolonged exercise results in a significant increase in body core temperature. Calculate the increase in body core temperature during exercise given the following:
Total energy expenditure during exercise = 600 Kcal Exercise efficiency = 20% Total heat stored during exercise = 192 Kcal Subject body weight = 60 Kg Amount of heat required to increase body temperature by 1°C = 0.83 kcal/kg Therefore, the total increase in body temperature following exercise would be:
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A) 1.86°C B) 2.86°C C) 3.86°C D) 4.86°C
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_11e 1) B 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) D 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) C Version 1
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Chapter 13 The Physiology of Training: Effects of aerobic and anaerobic training MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The average VO 2 max value for the young (e.g., 21 years old) male sedentary population is approximately A) 22 ml • kg -1 • min -1. B) 35 ml • kg -1 • min -1. C) 45 ml • kg -1 • min -1. D) 83 ml • kg -1 • min -1.
2) Endurance exercise training programs (e.g., 3 days/week @ 60% VO 2 max for 12 weeks) typically results in a .
A) 1-5% improvement in VO 2 max B) 5-10% improvement in VO 2 max C) 15-25% improvement in VO 2 max D) 40-60% improvement in VO 2 max
3) Cross-sectional studies demonstrate that the physiological variable responsible for the large variation in VO 2 max across the normal (untrained) population is maximal
A) heart rate. B) stroke volume. C) arteriovenous O 2 difference. D) systolic blood pressure.
4) Heritability (i.e., genetics) determines approximately sedentary adults.
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A) 20 B) 30 C) 50 D) 90
5) Endurance training has been shown to reduce the oxygen deficit in subjects performing a bout of submaximal exercise. This is likely due to
A) an increased maximal cardiac output. B) increases in the number of mitochondria and capillaries. C) a decreased resting heart rate. D) a greater anaerobic capacity.
6) The heart rate and ventilatory responses to constant load submaximal exercise are lower (i.e., lower heart rate and lower minute ventilation) following an endurance training program. This training-induced adaptation is primarily due to changes in the
A) central nervous system. B) carotid bodies. C) trained skeletal muscles. D) lungs.
7) During the first four months of an endurance exercise training program, the initial increase in VO 2 max is primarily due to A) neural adaptations. B) increases in stroke volume. C) increases in maximal cardiac output. D) Both increases in stroke volume and increases in maximal cardiac output are correct.
8) Which of the following factors do not contribute to the endurance exercise traininginduced improvement in VO 2 max? Version 1
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A) increased maximal cardiac output B) increased maximal stroke volume C) increased maximal heart rate D) None of these answers is correct
9) Endurance training results in increased mitochondrial and capillary density in muscle but has no effect on muscle glycolytic capacity. This is an example of what training principle?
A) overload B) specificity C) reversibility D) none of these
10) High responders to endurance exercise training (i.e., individuals that achieve large increases in VO 2 max) can achieve up to % improvement in VO 2 max following a prolonged and intense training program.
A) 20 B) 35 C) 50 D) 90
11)
The removal of damaged mitochondria in skeletal muscle and other cells is called A) mitogenesis. B) mitophagy. C) mitochondria endocytosis. D) mitochondrial exocytosis.
12) Following several weeks of endurance exercise training, the capacity to transport glucose into skeletal muscle fibers is increased. Which of the following training-induced changes contribute to this training effect? Version 1
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A) an increase in mitochondria within muscle fibers B) the increase in the number of GLUT4 glucose transporters C) an increase in circulating catecholamines D) a decrease in circulating insulin
13) Four-to-ten weeks of anaerobic training (high intensity exercise lasting 10-30 seconds) can increase the peak anaerobic capacity by across individuals.
A) 3-25% B) 30-40% C) 50-60% D) 65-75%
14) The increase in VO 2 max that occurs following 16 months of endurance exercise training results from
A) an increase in the maximal a-vO 2 difference. B) an increase in maximal cardiac output. C) an increase in the maximal heart rate. D) both an increase in the maximal a-vO 2 difference and an increase in maximal cardiac output are correct.
15) Following an acute bout of endurance exercise training, the rise in the activity of calcinuneurin, calmodulin kinase, and AMP kinases occurs within following the exercise session.
A) seconds B) minutes C) hours D) days
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16) Following an acute bout of endurance exercise training, the increase in mitochondrial biogenesis occurs within following the completion of the exercise session.
A) seconds B) minutes C) hours D) days
17) Endurance exercise training results in an increase in mitochondria volume within skeletal muscle fibers. The process of synthesizing mitochondria in cells is called .
A) mitophagy B) mitochondrial biogenesis C) mitochondrial proteostasis D) none of these answers is correct
18) to
The principle of specificity of training refers to the fact that exercise training is specific
A) the muscles involved in the activity. B) the fiber types recruited. C) the principal energy system (i.e., aerobic vs. anaerobic) involved in the activity. D) all of these are correct.
19) Which of the following physiological factors does NOT contribute to the endurance exercise training-induced increase in the maximal a-vO 2 difference?
A) increased mitochondria volume in the muscle B) increased capillaries in the muscle C) increased hemoglobin in the blood D) increased muscle blood flow
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20)
The enhanced capacity of the trained muscle to use fatty acids as a fuel results in
A) increased uptake of fatty acids. B) decreased utilization of muscle glycogen. C) sparing of blood glucose. D) all of these answers are correct.
21) Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to the endurance exercise traininginduced improvement in stroke volume during exercise?
A) increased end-diastolic volume B) increased peripheral resistance C) increased cardiac contractility D) decrease in total peripheral resistance
22) Which of the following endurance training adaptations does NOT result in lower lactate production in the contracting muscles?
A) increased glycogen utilization B) increased H 4 form of LDH C) increased mitochondrial uptake of pyruvate D) decreased pyruvate formation
23) Which of the following training adaptations does NOT occur in skeletal muscles following 4-10 weeks of anaerobic exercise training?
A) increased muscle buffer capacity B) increased activities of myokinase and creatine phosphokinase C) increased activities of key glycolytic enzymes D) None of these answers is correct
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24) Which of the following factors DO NOT contribute to the decline in VO 2 observed during 84 days of detraining?
A) A decrease in maximal heart rate B) A decrease in the maximal arterial-venous O 2 difference C) A decrease in maximal stroke volume D) None of these is correct
25) Which of the following factors DO NOT contribute to the endurance exercise traininginduced increases in fat metabolism during exercise?
A) slower blood flow in muscle B) increased fat storage in the liver C) increased FFA transporters D) increased beta oxidation enzymes
26) Which of the following endurance training adaptations assist in maintaining acid-base balance during exercise?
A) increased mitochondrial volume in skeletal muscle B) increased M 4 form of LDH C) increased glycolytic capacity D) decreased beta oxidation capacity
27) Which of the following statements are true about the effect of endurance training or detraining on mitochondria volume in human skeletal muscle?
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A) Five weeks of endurance training can increase skeletal muscle mitochondrial volume by two times about normal. B) Seven days of detraining can reduce mitochondrial volume by 50% below the trained level. C) After a period of detraining, approximately 4 weeks of retraining is required to regain the lost mitochondrial volume. D) All of these are true.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_11e 1) C 2) C 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A Version 1
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27) D
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Chapter 14 The Physiology of Resistance Training MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Aging is associated with a decline in strength, with most of the decline occurring after age 50. The loss of strength is due, in part, to a loss of muscle mass; this age-related loss of muscle mass is termed
A) sarcopenia. B) muscle fiber hypotrophy. C) muscle fiber hyperplasia. D) None of these is correct.
2)
Which of the following statements about resistance training is NOT true?
A) Resistance training results in hypertrophy and strength gains in people aged 13-65 years old. B) Resistance training results in hypertrophy and strength gains in young men and women less than 39 years old. C) Resistance training results in hypertrophy and strength gains in people of all ages. D) Resistance training DOES NOT promote hypertrophy and strength gains in people greater than 65 years old.
3) Muscles receive a neural activation signal from motor neurons located in the spinal cord. This neural signal is referred to as .
A) motor learning B) efferent control C) neural drive D) motor endplate activation
4) A muscle (i.e., prime mover) that results in movement of a limb in the desired direction is labeled as .
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A) an antagonist B) an agonist C) a promoter D) none of these is correct
5) During the first 8 weeks of a resistance training program, the initial increase in muscular strength is primarily due to
A) neural adaptations. B) muscle fiber hypertrophy. C) muscle fiber hyperplasia. D) Both muscle fiber hypertrophy and muscle fiber hyperplasia are correct.
6) A single bout of resistance exercise training increases muscle protein synthesis by as much as % above resting levels?
A) 20-30 B) 35-45 C) 50-150 D) 200-300
7) Following a single bout of resistance exercise training, muscle protein synthesis can remain elevated above sedentary levels for as much as in both trained and untrained individuals.
A) 10-15 hours B) 15-20 hours C) 20-25 hours D) 35-50 hours
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8) A single bout of resistance exercise training results in an increase in skeletal muscle protein synthesis. This exercise-induced increase in muscle protein synthesis can occur within following the exercise session.
A) seconds B) minutes C) hours D) days
9)
The term cross-education refers to
.
A) the observation that if one limb engages in resistance training, muscular strength increases in the untrained (contralateral) limb B) the observation that if one limb engages in resistance training, muscular strength does NOT increase in the untrained (contralateral) limb C) the observation that if one limb engages in resistance training, muscular strength decreases in the untrained (contralateral) limb D) None of these is true
10)
Neural drive is defined as
.
A) the size of the motor units activated during muscular contraction B) the magnitude of the efferent neural output from the central nervous system to the motor units and the muscle fibers that they activate C) the amount of afferent feedback to the central nervous system during exercise D) the amplitude of the neural output from the cerebellum during exercise
11) An important physiological factor that may contribute to the inhibition of motor unit activation during resistance training is .
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A) the muscle spindle B) the inhibitory neurotransmitter acetylcholine C) the Golgi tendon organ D) both the muscle spindle and the Golgi tendon organ are correct
12)
Resistance training increases the specific force production of
.
A) type I muscle fibers B) type IIa muscle fibers C) type IIx muscle fibers D) all muscle fiber types
13)
The term hyperplasia refers to
.
A) muscle hypertrophy B) an increase in muscle plasticity C) an increase in the total number of muscle fibers D) None of these is correct
14)
Resistance training results in a
.
A) fast-to-slow shift in muscle fiber types B) slow-to-fast shift in muscle fiber types C) decrease in the number of slow muscle fibers D) None of these is correct
15) Resistance training results in an increase in the rate of contractile protein synthesis which is matched by .
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A) an increase in mitochondrial protein synthesis B) an increase in the expansion of the sarcoplasmic reticulum C) a decrease in synthesis of antioxidant enzymes D) an increase in the synthesis of collagen in tendons and ligaments
16)
A major regulator of protein synthesis and muscle size is
.
A) TSC2 B) the lysosome C) tyrosine D) mTOR
17) Growing evidence reveals that, independent of resistance exercise, activate mTOR and promote small increases in muscle protein synthesis.
can
A) the amino acid taurine B) the amino acid leucine C) an increase in the muscle levels of TSC2 D) all of these are correct
18)
Several hormones have the potential to increase muscle protein synthesis. These include:
A) testosterone, insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), and growth hormone B) testosterone, cortisol, and growth hormone C) insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), glucocorticoids, and growth hormone D) testosterone, insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), and parathyroid hormone
19) Research reveals that resistance training induced muscle hypertrophy is associated with an increase in myonuclei. The source of these additional myonuclei is .
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A) from circulating stem cells that attach to muscle fibers B) via the division of existing nuclei in the muscle fibers C) via hyperplasia resulting in the addition of new muscle fibers D) via satellite cell activation
20) It is estimated that % of the differences in muscle mass between individuals can be explained by genetic variation.
A) 30 B) 50 C) 80 D) 90
21) By comparison to the rate of detraining following endurance training, the rate of detraining (i.e., loss of muscular strength) following a resistance training program is
.
A) slower B) faster C) approximately equal D) extremely rapid with 90% of the strength loss occurring within the first 10 days of detraining
22) The phenomenon that previous strength training accelerates the re-acquisition of both muscular strength and hypertrophy is commonly referred to as .
A) motor learning B) the boomerang effect C) satellite cell phenomenon D) muscle memory
23)
Prolonged inactivity of skeletal muscle leads to rapid muscle atrophy; this occurs due to:
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A) a decrease in muscle protein synthesis B) increased protein breakdown in muscle fibers C) both a decrease in muscle protein synthesis and increased protein breakdown in muscle fibers are correct D) None of these is correct
24)
The addition of myonuclei to growing muscle fibers
.
A) appears to be essential for optimal muscle hypertrophy in response to resistance training B) is clearly NOT essential for optimal muscle hypertrophy in response to resistance training C) is likely required to maintain the high level of transcriptional capacity needed to synthesize muscle proteins and allow muscle fibers to grow during resistance training D) Both appears to be essential for optimal muscle hypertrophy in response to resistance training and is likely required to maintain the high level of transcriptional capacity needed to synthesize muscle proteins and allow muscle fibers to grow during resistance training are correct
25) In resting skeletal muscle fibers, Ras homologue enriched brain (Rheb) activation of mTOR is inhibited by .
A) phosphatidic acid B) tuberous sclerosis complex 2 (TSC2) C) IGF-1 D) none of these answers is correct
26) Increased production of radicals in skeletal muscles during periods of prolonged inactivity (prolonged bedrest) and promotes muscle atrophy because:
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A) oxidative stress activates proteases in muscle fibers B) oxidative stress decreases protein synthesis in muscle fibers C) oxidative stress prevents mTOR activation D) All of these are correct
27) Several factors contribute to neural drive. Which one of the following factors is NOT a contributor to neural drive?
A) total number of motor units activated B) the firing rate of the motor neuron C) activation of the Golgi tendon organ D) motor unit synchronization
28) It is established that resistance exercise training promotes an increase in muscle protein synthesis by activating the mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR) which results in increased protein synthesis. Recent evidence suggests that two signaling molecules interact to directly activate mTOR. These molecules are:
A) IGF-1 and Akt B) IGF-1 and phosphatidic acid C) IGF-1 and Ras homologue enriched brain (Rheb) D) phosphatidic acid and Ras homologue enriched brain (Rheb)
29) Several mechanisms have been proposed to explain why concurrent endurance and resistance (strength) training impedes strength development compared to strength training alone. Which of the following mechanisms have NOT been proposed to explain why concurrent training impedes strength development?
A) Neural factors B) Overtraining C) Depressed muscle protein synthesis D) none of these is correct
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30) In theory, concurrent resistance and endurance exercise training can impair muscle protein synthesis following a bout of resistance exercise. The proposed mechanism to explain this inhibition is .
A) AMP kinase activation of TSC2 B) AMP kinase activation of mTOR C) AMP kinase activation of PGC-1α D) p38 activation of TSC2
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_11e 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) D Version 1
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27) C 28) D 29) D 30) A
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Chapter 15 Physical Activity and Health MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Risk factors for chronic disease can be divided into three categories. These include .
A) inherited/biological, age, and gender B) inherited/biological, environmental, and gender C) inherited/biological, environmental, and behavioral D) inherited/biological, age, and behavioral
2)
Which of the following risk factors for coronary heart disease CANNOT be modified?
A) family history B) obesity C) sedentary lifestyle D) dyslipidemia
3) Physical inactivity is considered to be a(n) disease.
risk factor for coronary heart
A) interdependent B) co-dependent C) independent D) none of these answers is correct
4) The relative risk ratio (i.e., chance) of developing coronary heart disease due to physical inactivity is about .
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A) 1.0 B) 1.9 C) 2.9 D) 5.0
5)
Which of the following is an example of an environmental risk factor?
A) age B) socioeconomic factors C) poor nutrition D) inactivity
6)
Which of the following risk factors for coronary heart disease CAN be changed?
A) age B) family history C) hypertension D) All of these answers are correct
7) Which of the following health issues is NOT directly associated with the Metabolic Syndrome?
A) abdominal obesity B) high blood pressure C) skin cancer D) high fasting blood glucose
8)
Many heart attacks and strokes occur because of
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A) a gradual occlusion of an artery. B) a collection of red blood cells that block blood flow. C) a sudden rupture of plaque that triggers a blood clot. D) None of these answers is correct.
9)
Oxidative stress occurs when
A) free radicals accumulate and react with cellular components. B) oxygen reacts with hemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin saturation reaches 80%. D) None of these answers is correct.
10)
The metabolic syndrome describes connections between
A) oxidative stress, hypotension, and obesity. B) obesity, oxidative stress, and hyperglycemia. C) obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. D) None of these answers is correct.
11)
Which of the following blood pressure categories is NOT listed correctly below?
A) Normal = <120 mm Hg and <80 mm Hg B) Elevated = 120-129 mm Hg or 80-89 mm Hg C) Stage 1 Hypertension = 130-139 mm Hg or 80-89 mm Hg D) Stage 2 Hypertension = >140 mm Hg or >90 mm Hg
12) A drop in blood pressure in the minutes following a bout of steady state aerobic exercise is called:
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A) vasodilation B) post-exercise vasodilation C) hypotension D) post-exercise hypotension
13)
The clustering of two or more diseases is called:
A) a comorbidity B) cardiovascular disease C) risk factors D) a life-style related condition
14) Type I diabetes typically develops early in life and represents about with diabetes.
% of those
A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 25
15)
A condition that is regarded as a contributing cause of Type 2 diabetes is
A) obesity. B) too much sugar in the diet. C) a high-protein diet. D) extremely low body weight.
16) Type II diabetics often exhibit a number of risk factors for coronary heart disease including .
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A) hypertension and inactivity B) hypertension and obesity C) high blood cholesterol D) All of these answers are correct
17)
Post-exercise hypotension can be clinically problematic when
A) it produces symptoms such as lightheadedness and dizziness. B) systolic BP dips below 120 mm Hg. C) diastolic BP dips below 80 mm Hg. D) None of these answers is correct.
18) Which of the following statements are true regarding the impact of regular physical activity on health?
A) physically active people have lower rates of all-cause mortality B) a lower risk of breast cancer C) reduced falls in older adults D) All of these answers are correct
19) It is established that low-grade inflammation is linked to a wide variety of chronic diseases. Which of the following diseases is are directly or indirectly linked to chronic inflammation?
A) hypertension B) heart disease C) type 2 diabetes D) All of these answers are correct
20)
In response to an increase in inflammatory factors, the liver releases
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A) IL-6 B) adiponectin C) C-reactive protein D) Both IL-6 and adiponectin are correct answers
21) When an elevation in blood biomarkers highlight one's risk for chronic conditions such as cardiovascular disease, but are not directly diagnostic for those conditions, it is said that the risk factors are
A) modifiable. B) lifestyle related. C) heritable. D) sensitive but not specific for disease.
22) Several origins of the metabolic syndrome have been proposed. Which of the following causes is NOT considered a major cause of the metabolic syndrome?
A) hypertension B) free radicals and oxidative stress C) inflammation D) Both hypertension and free radicals and oxidative stress are correct answers
23) Which of the following are classified as an inflammatory cytokine and or a biomarker of inflammation?
A) TNF-α B) adiponectin C) C-reactive protein D) Both TNF-α and C-reactive protein are correct answers
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24) Atherosclerosis results in the deposition of plaque in the inner lining of an artery. The first steps that "trigger" the initial formation of atherosclerotic plaque include .
A) the formation of foam cells following by a fatty streak B) the formation of connective tissue followed by a fibrous cap over the fatty core of the plaque C) inflammation within the artery following by production of adhesion molecules and the attraction of monocytes D) None of these answers is correct
25) An oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is used to test the body's acute insulin response to a controlled amount of sugar ingestion. Which of the following does NOT correctly describe the OGTT response in various types of individuals?
A) Normal individuals experience an insulin spike within the first hour of the OGTT. B) Prediabetic individuals experience an extended duration insulin spike of several hours. C) Severe diabetics exhibit a small rise in insulin, but no spike in the hormone. D) All of these responses correctly describe the OGTT response in groups of diabetics and non-diabetics.
26) The relationship between regular physical activity and cancer prevention is best described by which of the following?
A) The strength of evidence to indicate that physical activity prevents many types of cancer is weak to moderate. B) Physically activity individuals can lower their changes of contracting many major forms of cancer by 12%-25%. C) There is little evidence of a dose response between the amount of physical activity someone performs and their likelihood of preventing many major forms of cancer. D) The relationship between physical activity and cancer prevention is too individualized to make generalized conclusions about disease occurrence.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_11e 1) C 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) B Version 1
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Chapter 16 Exercise Prescriptions for Health and Fitness MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The risk of cardiac complications during exercise is
A) directly related to the degree of pre-existing cardiac disease. B) higher in women compared to men. C) independent of the presence of heart disease. D) None of these answers is correct.
2)
Epidemiological studies confirm that regular physical activity
A) reduces the risk of developing coronary heart disease. B) lowers the risk of all-cause mortality. C) reduces the risk of heart disease in both smokers and hypertensive individuals. D) All of these answers are correct.
3)
According to the FITT principle, the letter "I" signifies
A) "interval" training. B) the "interval" or time between exercise sessions. C) the "intensity" of exercise. D) None of these answers is correct.
4) Regular exercise training provides numerous health-related benefits. The two healthrelated benefits that are the MOST responsive to exercise are
A) blood pressure and resting heart rate. B) blood pressure and capillary number. C) blood pressure and insulin sensitivity. D) blood pressure and lipid profile.
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5) The majority of epidemiological studies observe a greater reduction in the risk of developing cardiovascular disease with an aerobic exercise training intensity .
A) between 1-3 mets B) between 3-4 mets C) between 4-5 mets D) >6 mets
6)
In general, an optimal aerobic exercise training intensity to improve VO 2 max is .
A) 20-30% VO 2 max B) 30-45% VO 2 max C) 50-60 VO 2 max D) 60-80 VO 2 max
7) A 30-year-old woman achieves her target heart rate on a cool day by jogging at 6 mph. If she were to exercise on a very hot day, she would have to .
A) maintain the speed of her run to achieve her target heart rate B) decrease the speed of her run to achieve her target heart rate C) increase the speed of her run to achieve her target heart rate D) None of these answers is correct
8) Which of the following is not a method that is useful for prescribing the recommended intensity of exercise training?
A) %HRR. B) %VO 2R. C) RPE. D) the onset of sweating.
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9) In general, the risk of orthopedic and cardiac complications associated with exercise training increases at exercise intensities .
A) of 50-60% VO 2 max B) of 60-70% VO 2 max C) >80% VO 2 max D) None of these answers is correct
10)
Exercise is defined as
.
A) planned physical activity with the goal of improving or maintaining fitness B) any form of muscular activity C) any form of resistance exercise D) any form of physical activity
11) Which of the following individuals would gain the greatest health benefits from changing their level of physical activity?
A) a sedentary person who becomes moderately active B) a moderately active person who becomes more active C) both of these would experience the same health benefit D) None of these answers is correct
12)
Which of the following variables is the least sensitive to exercise (training)?
A) blood pressure B) heart rate C) VO 2 max D) high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
13)
The frequency of exercise can be best described in terms of
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A) number of minutes of exercise. B) number of days per week. C) total kilocalories (kcal) expended. D) total kcal expended per kilogram body weight.
14) When maximal strength gain is the principal goal of the strength training program, current evidence suggests that single-set protocols are
A) not effective in promoting increases in maximal strength. B) more effective than multiple-set protocols. C) less effective than multiple-set protocols. D) equally effective as multiple-set protocols.
15)
Physical activity is defined as
A) exercise that is associated with limited health benefits. B) daily activities below a 3 MET exercise intensity. C) exercise designed to improve cardiovascular fitness. D) any form of muscular activity.
16)
Which of the following physical activity intensity categories is listed incorrectly?
A) Low-intensity physical activity (LPA) = 1 + METs B) Moderate-intensity physical activity (MPA) = 3 - 5.9 METs C) Vigorous-intensity physical activity (VPA) = 6 + METs D) all of these are correct
17) Exercise guidelines indicate vigorous-intensity physical activity should be performed at least minutes/week, while moderate-intensity physical activity be performed at least minutes/week.
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A) 150; 75 B) 75; 150 C) 300; 150 D) 150; 300
18) It is recommended that MVPA should be performed for approximately min/week.
MET-
A) 75-150 B) 150-300 C) 300-500 D) 500-1000
19)
To realize health benefits of physical activity, adults should perform
.
A) 120-140 minutes of moderate physical activity per week B) 150-300 minutes of moderate physical activity per week C) 75-150 minutes of vigorous-intensity physical activity per week D) Both 150-300 minutes of moderate physical activity per week and 75-150 minutes of vigorous-intensity physical activity per week are correct
20) The Karvonen (or heart rate reserve) method of calculating the "heart rate reserve" is computed as .
A) maximal heart rate minus resting heart rate B) maximal heart rate minus 60 C) maximal heart rate minus resting heart rate, times 0.60 D) None of these is correct
21)
Exercise at high altitude (e.g., >7,000 feet above sea level) could result in
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A) reduced oxygen bound to hemoglobin. B) a decrease in resting heart rate. C) an increase in the heart rate response to a fixed level of exercise. D) Both reduced oxygen bound to hemoglobin and an increase in the heart rate response to a fixed level of exercise are correct.
22) in
When compared to resistance exercise training, aerobic exercise training generally results .
A) greater increases in both lean body mass and muscle mass B) greater improvements in both mitochondrial volume and muscular power C) greater improvements in the reduction of total body fat and muscular strength D) None of these answers is correct
23)
Using the FITT principle, the volume of exercise performed can be computed as .
A) exercise intensity × time B) mean exercise heart rate × time × frequency C) frequency × intensity × time D) None of these answers is correct
24) Which of the following general statements about step counts and physical activity in healthy adults is false?
A) 5,000 daily steps is an approximate threshold for being physically active B) 7,000 + daily steps appears to be associated with improved health C) 10,000 is a firm step count goal that all people should achieve on a daily basis D) vigorous-intensity physical activity is associated with a stepping cadence of 130 steps/minute
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25)
The reason that HR can be used to estimate aerobic exercise intensity is that
A) HR and the VO 2 cost of muscular activity are linearly related to workload. B) HR accurately reflects exercise workload once a person is approximately 20 years of age. C) most people do not understand the concept of RPE, so HR is the best option. D) All of these are correct statements about HR and aerobic exercise intensity estimations.
26)
For a given person, 80% of HRR is
to 80% HRmax.
A) a lower intensity as compared B) a higher intensity as compared C) an equal exercise intensity D) None of these is correct
27) Given: A 50-year-old man with a resting heart rate of 70 beats • min -1. What is the target heart rate range as determined by the heart rate reserve method? A) 102-144 beats • min -1 B) 120-140 beats • min -1 C) 130-150 beats • min -1 D) 140-155 beats • min -1
28) Given: A 50-year-old man with a resting heart rate of 70 beats • min -1. What is the target heart rate range as determined by the percentage of maximal heart rate method? A) 90-110 beats • min -1 B) 120-130 beats • min -1 C) 130-150 beats • min -1 D) 119-144 beats • min -1
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29)
The slope of the exercise "dose/response" curve provides information about .
A) the dose of exercise (i.e., minutes/week) required to promote health benefits B) the dose of exercise required to improve the lactate threshold C) the amount of exercise required to improve VO 2 max D) None of these answers is correct
30) Which of the following does NOT summarize a fitness variable that is improved by regularly performing both aerobic exercise and strength exercise?
A) insulin sensitivity and glucose control B) submaximal exercise rate pressure product and resting BP C) resting metabolic rate D) All of these answers are correct
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_11e 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) B Version 1
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27) C 28) D 29) A 30) D
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Chapter 17 Exercise for Special Populations MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Insulin shock is a serious medical condition in which a diabetic is
A) hyperglycemic. B) hypoglycemic. C) ketotic. D) normoglycemic.
2) Recommendations in someone with type I diabetes include which of the following to achieve blood glucose control during exercise?
A) manage dietary intake closely B) manage insulin dosing closely C) avoid carbohydrate intake just prior to exercise D) Both manage dietary intake closely and manage insulin dosing closely are correct
3) with
A generalized aerobic exercise prescription for those with type 2 diabetes often begins
A) lower intensities. B) longer durations. C) daily/near daily frequency. D) All of these are correct.
4)
An asthma attack that is brought on by exercise can often be prevented by
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A) taking a prescribed asthma medication prior to exercise. B) exercising at a very high intensity. C) breathing cool and dry air. D) hyperventilation.
5) Which of the following drugs is often used to prevent a heart attack or release chest pain associated with myocardial ischemia?
A) a beta 2 receptor agonist B) nitroglycerin C) cromolyn sodium D) statins
6)
Exercise training in elderly people should include all of the following EXCEPT
A) endurance exercise. B) strengthening exercise. C) flexibility exercise. D) exercise training for the elderly should include all of these.
7) Which of the following exercise modalities appears to blunt asthmatic symptoms as compared to the others?
A) running B) swimming C) walking D) these exercise modalities provoke asthma attacks at roughly equal rates
8)
A person would be considered to be pre-diabetic if his or her
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A) fasting plasma glucose value measured < 100 mg/dl. B) oral glucose tolerance value measured > 200 mg/dl. C) fasting blood glucose value measured 101-126 mg/dl. D) fasting blood glucose value measured >127 mg/dl.
9)
Ketosis is a condition of acidosis resulting from
A) low blood glucose. B) high insulin levels. C) excessive fat metabolism. D) eating sugar.
10)
Which of the following is used to treat patient during an asthma attack?
A) beta-2 receptor agonists. B) cromolyn sodium. C) immunotherapy. D) leukotriene inhibitors.
11) Those with COPD that want to exercise may need to negotiate which of the following conditions?
A) chronic asthma B) emphysema C) bronchitis D) All of these are chronic conditions linked to COPD
12)
Strength generally declines about
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A) 10% B) 15-20% C) 30-40% D) 40-50%
13) A primary and major risk factor for developing osteoporosis for women over 50 years of age is .
A) a loss of circulating estrogen B) a diet low in phosphorus C) a lack of exercise D) None of these answers is correct
14) Which of the following statements are TRUE about the recommendations for exercise during pregnancy?
A) The exercise intensity can be monitored by using the "talk test". B) The exercise intensity can be monitored by exercising at an RPE between 12-14 (original Borg scale). C) A pregnant woman should consult with her physician before starting a physical activity program. D) All of these answers are correct.
15) Which of the following statements are NOT recommendations to lower elevated blood pressure in individuals with hypertension?
A) Lose weight (if overweight) B) Perform moderate intensity exercise for at least 30 minutes on most days of the week C) Perform resistance training at 90-100% 1-RM D) Reduce sodium intake
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16) true?
Which of the following statements about patients in a cardiac rehab program is NOT
A) Cardiac rehab serves a variety of patients including those with angina pectoris, bypass surgery, and myocardial infarctions. B) Cardiac rehab patients are often using medications including nitroglycerin and betablockers. C) Exercise training programs often bring about large improvements in the functional capacity of cardiac rehab patients. D) Exercise tests for coronary disease patients typically do not involve the use of a 12lead ECG.
17) Asthma results in a decrease in airway diameter. In some patients, an allergen binds to IgE antibodies on the mast cell and promotes the release of inflammatory mediators including .
A) histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes B) histamine, bromine, and histidine C) prostaglandins, histidine, and glucocorticoids D) All of these answers are correct
18) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a potential cause of exercise-induced asthma?
A) cold air B) warm, moist air C) hypocapnia D) alkalosis
19)
When comparing sedentary to exercise trained individuals over the age of 60
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A) exercise trained individuals have more strength and a lower risk of falling accidents. B) exercise trained individuals are more fit, but cardiovascular disease risks are not changed. C) Uncontrolled diabetes may cause either heart or kidney disease. D) All of these are correct.
20) Which of the following descriptions is the best portrayal of a phase II cardiac rehab program?
A) Inpatient exercise used to assist the patients make the transition from the cardiac event to time of discharge from the hospital. B) An exercise program that begins soon after the discharge from the hospital. C) An exercise program away from the hospital that requires limited medical supervision with the exception of the ability to respond to an emergency. D) None of these answers is correct.
21) Which of the following is not a consideration when programming aerobic exercise intensity (e.g. HR range) for someone that is experiencing an uncomplicated pregnancy?
A) The person's age B) The person's fitness level C) The person's BMI D) The person's trimester
22) Which of the following is NOT a reason that prescribing exercise for a cancer patient/survivor can be challenging?
A) The type of cancer a person has and whether they've had treatment complications B) The person's exercise history and functional capacity prior to their diagnosis C) The stage/progression of the person's cancer D) All of these are correct
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23) If insulin levels are markedly decreased when a type I diabetic begins exercise, continuous aerobic exercise would result in .
A) no significant changes in blood glucose concentration B) an increase in blood glucose concentration C) a significant decrease in blood glucose concentration D) None of these answers is correct
24) If insulin levels are markedly increased above normal when a type I diabetic begins exercise, continuous aerobic exercise would result in .
A) no significant changes in blood glucose concentration B) an increase in blood glucose concentration C) a significant decrease in blood glucose concentration D) None of these answers is correct
25) An asthma attack is characterized by an early phase of allergic reactions. Which of the following reactions are involved in the early phase of an asthma attack?
A) Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle B) Vascular leakage (swelling) C) Mucus secretion D) All of these answers are correct
26)
Which of the following statements is TRUE about exercise-induced asthma?
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A) Exercise-induced asthma occurs most often during strenuous, long-duration exercise compared to short-term, moderate intensity exercise. B) Exercise-induced asthma occurs more often in elite swimmers compared to other sports. C) Exercise-induced asthma cannot be prevented by any medication. D) Both Exercise-induced asthma occurs most often during strenuous, long-duration exercise compared to short-term, moderate intensity exercise and Exercise-induced asthma occurs more often in elite swimmers compared to other sports are true.
27) Which of the following is NOT true about the metabolic and cardiac adaptations to pregnancy?
A) blood volume increases 40-50%. B) oxygen cost of activity is higher. C) heart rate is lower at rest and during submaximal exercise. D) there is a higher risk of arterial hypotension during the third trimester.
28) Which of the following is NOT part of the generalized exercise prescription recommendation for a cancer patient/survivor?
A) limit aerobic exercise frequency to 2-3 days per week until cured B) begin with light intensity aerobic exercise, <60%HRR C) start with several short sessions until the person can complete 30 minutes of continuous exercise D) perform flexibility and strength exercises at least 2 days/week
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_11e 1) B 2) D 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) C 28) A
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Chapter 18 Nutrition, body composition, and weight management MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Nutrients are defined as
A) foods that contain calories. B) substances needed for body function and essential for life. C) macronutrients required for energy. D) micronutrients including vitamins.
2)
Which of the following is a vital function of nutrients?
A) Provision of the energy required by cells B) Promotion of growth and development C) Regulation of metabolism D) All of these are correct
3)
Macronutrients include:
A) Fats, proteins, and vitamins B) Water, proteins, minerals, and carbohydrates C) Fats, proteins, water, and carbohydrates D) Fats, proteins, water, and trace elements
4)
Which of the following is NOT considered a micronutrient?
A) vitamins B) minerals C) water D) sodium
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5)
Which of the following carbohydrates is NOT considered to be a monosaccharide?
A) glucose B) sucrose C) fructose D) galactose
6)
Oligosaccharides are complex carbohydrates composed of
A) two or monosaccharides. B) 3-10 monosaccharides. C) 11 or more monosaccharides. D) None of these is correct.
7) Dietary is composed of long chains of monosaccharides connected by a chemical bond that cannot be degraded by human digestive enzymes.
A) fiber B) disaccharides C) starch D) monosaccharides
8) The body requires 20 different amino acids to form the proteins contained in cells. How many of these amino acids are labeled as essential amino acids?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 11
9)
The essential amino acid that is in the smallest supply in the diet is called
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A) the default amino acid. B) the deficit amino acid. C) the limiting amino acid. D) None of these is correct.
10)
Foods that are rich in essential amino acids are labeled as
A) Rich proteins. B) Complete proteins. C) High quality proteins. D) Both Complete proteins and High quality proteins are correct.
11)
Which of the following is not one of the three major classes of lipids?
A) triglycerides B) sterols C) trans-fat D) phospholipids
12)
Which of the following is NOT true about dietary cholesterol?
A) Cholesterol is an important body fuel source B) Cholesterol is a key component of cell membranes C) Cholesterol is required to synthesize vitamin D D) Cholesterol is required to synthesize the hormone cortisol
13) Depending upon body composition, water typically comprises mass.
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percent of body
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A) 20; 30 B) 30; 40 C) 50; 60 D) 70; 90
14) Compared to fat, lean body tissues contain significantly more water. The estimated percent of water in lean tissue is
A) 50%. B) 60%. C) 75%. D) 90%.
15)
To date, how many compounds meet the definition of a vitamin?
A) 20 B) 16 C) 13 D) 11
16)
Which of the following vitamins are important for bone health?
A) vitamin A B) vitamin K C) vitamin C D) all of these vitamins plays roles in bone health
17)
Which of the following vitamins contribute to the antioxidant defense system?
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A) vitamin K B) vitamin E C) vitamin B-6 D) Folate
18) An excessive consumption (due to supplementation) of toxicity.
can lead to
A) riboflavin B) fat soluble vitamins C) thiamin D) None of these answers is correct
19)
How many major minerals are considered to be essential?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10
20)
Which of the following elements is/are considered to be a major mineral?
A) calcium B) potassium C) iron D) Both calcium and potassium are correct
21)
Which of the following minerals play a key role in oxygen transport in the blood?
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A) manganese B) magnesium C) iron D) iodide
22) Which of the following Dietary Reference Intake standards represents the average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a particular group?
A) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) B) Adequate Intake (AI) C) Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) D) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
23) Which of the following Dietary Reference Intake standards represents the average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirement of nearly all (i.e., 97-98%) healthy individuals in a particular group?
A) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) B) Adequate Intake (AI) C) Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) D) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
24) Dietary Reference Intakes is a general term for a set of reference values used to plan nutrient intakes of healthy people. Which of the following values represents the highest maximal nutrient intake that is UNLIKELY to impose adverse health effects on almost all healthy individuals in the general population?
A) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) B) Adequate Intake (AI) C) Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) D) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
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25) The is a standard used in nutrition labeling to indicate how much of a nutrient is contained in a specific food product based on a 2000 calorie per day diet.
A) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) B) Adequate Intake (AI) C) Daily value (DV) D) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
26) According to the accepted macronutrient distribution range (AMDR), what percent of your total daily calorie intake should be derived from carbohydrates?
A) 45-65% calories from carbohydrates. B) 20-35% calories carbohydrates. C) 10-35% calories from carbohydrates. D) None of these ranges is recommended.
27)
The glycemic index is used to describe
.
A) the impact that a specific food has on the amount of glucose in the blood B) the influence of diet on the risk of cardiovascular disease C) the impact of high sugar diets on the risk of developing type II diabetes D) None of these answers is correct
28) According to the accepted macronutrient distribution range (AMDR), what percent of your total daily calorie intake should be derived from fats?
A) 55-70% of your total daily calories from carbohydrates. B) 20-35% of your total daily calories from fats. C) 10-15% of your total daily calories from carbohydrates. D) None of these ranges is recommended.
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29) heart disease.
is/are the class of serum lipid that is associated with a lower risk of
A) Total cholesterol B) HDL cholesterol C) LDL cholesterol D) Triglycerides
30)
The adult RDA for protein is
grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.
A) 0.5 B) 0.6 C) 0.7 D) 0.8
31)
The current adequate intake for water (food and beverage intake) is for men.
for women and
A) 1.7 liters/day; 2.7 liters/day B) 2.7 liters/day; 3.7 liters/day C) 3.7 liters/day; 4.7 liters/day D) 4.7 liters/day; 5.7 liters/day
32)
The dietary guidelines for Americans are
.
A) designed to provide up-to-date scientific information about nutrition B) designed to provide up-to-date scientific information about physical activity C) designed to provide up-to-date scientific information about healthy life-style choices D) All of these are correct
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33) Which of the following techniques of measuring body composition has the lowest error and provides an estimate of body composition that is within 0-1.8% of the "true value"?
A) Dual Energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) B) Sum of skinfolds C) Bioelectrical impedance analysis D) Air displacement plethysmography
34) The method of body composition assessment that measures body volume similar to underwater weighing, but in the air (as opposed to underwater) is
A) bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA). B) dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA). C) ultrasound. D) air displacement plethysmography.
35) Human fat tissue is predicted to have a density of skeletal muscle) is predicted to have a density of .
whereas fat-free tissue (i.e.,
A) 0.6 g/ml, 0.9 g/ml B) 0.7 g/ml, 1.0 g/ml C) 0.8 g/ml, 1.3 g/ml D) 0.9 g/ml, 1.1 g/ml
36) Which of the following is the currently most used technique to screen for overweight and obesity?
A) the Metropolitan Life Insurance height and weight tables B) body weight only C) body mass index (BMI) D) skinfold measurements
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37)
A male with a body mass index of 29 kg/m 2 would be classified as
A) normal weight. B) overweight. C) obesity class I. D) obesity class II.
38)
A healthy percent body fat for young adults (i.e., 18-44 years) is
.
A) men: 5-18%; women: 10-25% B) men: 8-22%; women: 20-35% C) men: 10-22%; women: 18-28% D) None of these is correct
39) The resting energy expenditure of a sedentary person is total energy expenditure.
percent of his or her
A) 25-30 B) 50-55 C) 75-80 D) 90-100
40) The physical activity/exercise energy expenditure of an active person is typically percent of his or her total energy expenditure. A) 10-15 B) 20-45 C) 50-60 D) 65-70
41)
The primary job of
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A) brown B) brite C) beige D) white
42)
The main factor that predicts weight loss in response to a low caloric diet is
.
A) the macronutrient content of the diet B) the protein content of the diet C) the carbohydrate makeup of the diet D) adherence to the diet plan
43)
Most studies investigating the impact of exercise on weight loss conclude that
A) any form of exercise training is highly effective in promoting weight loss. B) resistance training, independent of diet, promotes significant weight loss. C) exercise alone does not typically promote long-term weight loss. D) None of these is correct.
44)
Which of the following statements about dietary fiber is NOT true?
A) Fiber is composed of long chains of monosaccharides connected by a chemical bond that cannot be digested by humans. B) Common dietary fiber includes cellulose and gums. C) Fiber exists as both soluble and insoluble fiber. D) Soluble fiber is considered an essential nutrient.
45)
Which of the following is NOT a criteria for a compound to be classified as a vitamin?
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A) The body cannot synthesize the compound or make enough to maintain good health. B) The compound must occur naturally in foods. C) When the compound is missing from the diet, health problems occur. D) None of these is correct.
46)
According to the energy balance equation, body weight would increase if .
A) the rate of energy intake increases with no change in the rate of energy expenditure B) the rate of energy expenditure decreases with no change in the rate energy intake C) the rate of energy intake exceeds the rate of energy expenditure D) All of these answers are correct
47) The resting metabolic rate decreases in subjects that lose weight on a low-calorie diet. Which of the following factors are contributors to this weight loss-induced decline in resting metabolic rate?
A) the loss of fat free mass B) a decrease in circulating thyroid hormone C) reduced sympathetic nervous system activity D) all of these contribute to the decrease in resting metabolic rate
48) Physical activity constitutes the most variable part of energy expenditure side of the energy balance equation. In fact, energy expenditure from physical activity can account for of the total energy expenditure.
A) 15-45% B) 45-60% C) 65-75% D) None of these answers is correct
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49)
Body density is equal to
.
A) mass divided by volume B) volume of the body 2 C) mass 2 × volume D) None of these answers is correct
50) Calculate how much weight loss is required to achieve a body composition of 20% body fat given:
Current body weight = 162 pounds Current percent body fat = 30% Given the above information, this individual would need to lose body composition of 20% body fat.
pounds of fat to achieve a
A) 10.25 B) 15.25 C) 20.25 D) 30.25
51) Historically, it has been believed that a cumulative energy deficit of 3500 kcal results in a loss of 1 pound of fat. However, new research reveals that this "rule of thumb" does not precisely predict fat weight loss during weeks-to-months of a low-calorie diet. This failure of the "3500 kcal rule" to accurately predict weight loss is due to:
A) this rule does not take into account that numerous physiological changes in the body occur during weight loss. B) the 3500 kcal rule does not consider that weight loss results in a lower resting metabolic rate. C) 3500 kcal rule does not take into account that the energy cost of physical activity decreases following weight loss. D) all of these are correct.
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52) Exercise training combined with caloric restriction results in a greater weight loss than diet alone. The physiological explanation for this observation is that:
A) exercise increases the energy expenditure side of the energy balance equation. B) exercise training might promote the conversion of white fat cells to beige fat cells. C) exercise can preserve lean body mass resulting in protection against a decrease in resting energy expenditure. D) all of these are correct.
53) Low carbohydrate (CHO) diets have been proposed to promote weight loss over other popular diet plans. Arguments in favor of low CHO diets include:
A) high CHO meals increase insulin release and promote fat storage B) low carbohydrate diets promote muscle protein synthesis and increase metabolic rate C) low CHO diets are associated with keto acids which can lower appetite D) Both high CHO meals increase insulin release and promote fat storage and low CHO diets are associated with keto acids which can lower appetite are correct
54)
Research reveals that long-term weight loss:
A) is independent of the macronutrient composition of the diet. B) can occur with a positive calorie diet if the extra calories come from protein. C) can be achieved by exercise alone. D) Both is independent of the macronutrient composition of the diet and can be achieved by exercise alone are correct.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_11e 1) B 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) A Version 1
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27) A 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) C 44) D 45) D 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) A
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Chapter 19 Factors Affecting Performance MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Studies suggest that elevating the levels of in the brain can contribute to "central" fatigue during prolonged endurance events.
A) epinephrine B) serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) C) acetylcholine D) norepinephrine
2)
One disadvantage of studying muscle fatigue in vivo is that
.
A) these studies often produce correlative data and it is difficult to identify mechanisms B) these studies are not physiological C) these studies only allow the study of fatigue during endurance events D) None of these
When the intensity of exercise exceeds 75% of VO 2 max, which of the following fibers 3) are likely brought into play?
A) Type I B) Type IIa C) Type IIx D) Type Ix
4) What is the primary source of ATP production in ultra short-term (high intensity) exercise performances (i.e., exercise lasting less than 10 seconds)?
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A) oxidative phosphorylation B) phosphocreatine (i.e., ATP-PC system) C) equal ATP production is derived from glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation D) equal ATP production is derived from phosphocreatine and oxidative phosphorylation
5) In short-term performances (10-180 seconds) which of the following factors is the primary cause of muscle fatigue?
A) muscle glycogen depletion B) depressed plasma FFA C) hypoglycemia D) H + accumulation
6)
Carbohydrate supplementation during exercise is most important in performances lasting
A) less than 10 seconds. B) 30 to 180 seconds. C) 3 to 20 minutes. D) longer than 60 minutes.
7) Which of the following has been shown to interfere with cross-bridge "cycling" during exercise?
A) an accumulation of ATP B) an accumulation of H + C) a decrease in Na + D) a decrease in Pi (inorganic phosphate)
8)
Fatigue refers to
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A) the sensation of pain associated with repeated muscle contractions. B) an inability to maintain power output during repeated contractions. C) the feeling of sleepiness that occurs during repeated muscle contractions. D) an increased free radical production that occurs during repeated muscle contractions.
9) At three minutes of all-out high-intensity exercise, from aerobic sources.
of the ATP is derived
A) 10% B) 40% C) 60% D) 90%
10)
Free radicals can promote muscle fatigue in events lasting longer than 30 min minutes by
A) damaging contractile proteins and limiting the number of cross-bridges bound to actin. B) blocking action potential transmission across the neuromuscular junction. C) limiting ATP production. D) none of these answers is correct.
11)
Blood buffers would most likely improve performances lasting
A) less than 10 seconds. B) 30 to 180 seconds. C) 3 to 20 minutes. D) longer than 20 minutes.
12) max.
In events lasting 21 to 60 minutes, the athlete would typically work at
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A) <50 B) <60 C) <70 D) <90
13)
Having a high VO 2 max would be a primary factor for success in performances lasting
A) less than 10 seconds. B) 30 to 180 seconds. C) 3 to 20 minutes. D) >4 hours.
14) Which of the following durations of exercise would environmental factors play the largest role in determining performance?
A) events <10 seconds duration B) events 10-180 seconds duration C) events lasting 3-20 minutes duration D) events lasting 1-4 hours
15)
Which of the following are not potential mechanisms of peripheral fatigue? A) Ca ++ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) cross-bridge force production C) spinal cord activation D) transverse tubules and the sarcolemma
16) A subject, with eyes closed, repeatedly contracts a muscle until fatigue occurs. When the eyes are opened, the muscle's ability to produce force is improved. This experiment is a demonstration of fatigue being linked to which of the following sites?
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A) muscle B) central nervous system C) mitochondria D) peripheral nervous system
17) Compared to studying muscle function in vivo, using an isolated single muscle fiber to study muscle fatigue provides which of the following advantages?
A) measurements of ions and metabolites within fiber possible B) force production of the single fiber can be measured C) environment identical to in vivo conditions D) Both measurements of ions and metabolites within fiber possible and force production of the single fiber can be measured are correct
18) In examining the mechanisms for exercise-induced fatigue, the vast majority of the evidence points to the
A) central nervous system. B) the alpha motor neuron in the spinal cord. C) periphery (i.e., peripheral fatigue). D) Both central nervous system and the alpha motor neuron in the spinal cord are correct.
19)
Daily supplementation with high doses of the antioxidant vitamins C and E can
A) diminish muscle fatigue during prolonged exercise. B) provide limited protection against exercise-induced muscle fatigue. C) depress exercise-induced training adaptations in skeletal muscles. D) Both provide limited protection against exercise-induced muscle fatigue and depress exercise-induced training adaptations in skeletal muscles are correct.
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20)
What factor is essential for an athlete to complete a marathon in an elite time?
A) they must possess a superior VO 2 max B) they must exhibit a high lactate threshold (e.g., ~80% VO 2 max) C) they must have excellent running economy D) All of these are essential
21)
A high H + concentration can contribute to fatigue by
A) reducing the force generated per cross-bridge. B) interfering with Ca ++ binding to troponin. C) inhibiting Ca ++ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) All of these answers are correct.
22) Research indicates that following a series of voluntary contractions to produce skeletal muscle fatigue, electrical stimulation of the "fatigued" muscle group results in an increase in the maximal voluntary force production. This experiment suggests that:
A) exercise-induced muscle fatigue results from peripheral factors located within the muscle. B) exercise-induced muscle fatigue results from peripheral factors located at the neuromuscular junction. C) the upper limit of voluntary strength is psychologically set and that the central nervous system can limit performance. D) None of these answers is correct.
23) In aerobic performances lasting 3 to 20 minutes, which of the following factors do not contribute to performance?
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A) VO 2 max B) Maximal cardiac output C) depletion of muscle glycogen D) Fiber type
24) Which of the following are essential factors in the successful completion of an ultraendurance event?
A) having trained the body to markedly shift to fat oxidation to fuel the work performed during the ultra-endurance competition B) having a superior VO 2 max and high lactate threshold C) avoiding carbohydrate intake during the event D) All of these are essential
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_11e 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A
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Chapter 20 Training for Performance MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A cool-down period following heavy exercise is important in
A) preventing heat stroke. B) preventing muscle cramps. C) returning "pooled" blood from the exercising skeletal muscle back to central circulation. D) allowing the individual to reduce brain blood flow back to normal.
2) The term overload, when used in conjunction with a sport conditioning program, is defined as:
A) exercise performed above 90% VO 2 max. B) exercise training that stresses the cardiovascular system and/or skeletal muscles above a level to which it's accustomed. C) injury or damage a muscle group. D) exercise that results in emotional stress.
3)
A genetic predisposition for athletic talent
.
A) is not necessary for an individual to compete at a world-class level B) has limited impact on the individual's ultimate athletic potential C) is essential if an individual is to compete at a world-class level D) is important only in power events such as sprinting
4)
Intervals aimed at specific improvement of the ATP-CP system should generally last seconds.
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A) 5-10 B) 30-60 C) 90-180 D) >180
5)
Delayed onset of muscle soreness is likely due to
.
A) lactic acid buildup in muscles B) depletion of muscle glycogen C) microscopic tears in the muscle resulting in calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) muscle cramps
6)
Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of overtraining?
A) Decrease in performance B) Loss of body weight C) Chronic fatigue D) Decrease in the heart rate response to exercise
7) Many training injuries occur due to overtraining. A common sense guideline to avoid training-induced injuries is that training intensity or duration should not be increased more than per week.
A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%
8) Which of the following training intensities of exercise are likely to elicit the greatest percentage of improvement in VO 2 max?
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A) <50% VO 2 max B) 55-60% VO 2 max C) 65-70% VO 2 max D) 80-100% VO 2 max
9) When an athlete stops exercise training, the training effect is quickly lost. This illustrates the concept of .
A) overload B) specificity C) reversibility D) the "ten percent rule."
10)
HIIT training is advantageous for which of the following reasons?
A) training sessions are time-efficient B) workout variation options are plentiful C) the warm-up and cool-down are proportionately shorter than moderate intensity continuous training D) Both training sessions are time-efficient and workout variation options are plentiful are correct
11)
Most, if not all, of the increase in muscle size due to strength training is the result of .
A) hypertrophy B) hyperplasia C) both hypertrophy and hyperplasia contribute equally D) an increase in muscle water content
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12) The minimum number of sets required for strength gains in untrained, beginning weightlifters is set.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) >4
13) Which of the following is NOT an important factor that contributes to performance in endurance events?
A) high VO 2 max B) superior exercise efficiency/economy C) high anaerobic capacity D) high lactate threshold
14) Genetics influences the training response and exerts a significant influence on how much VO 2 max can be improved with training. "High responders" to endurance exercise training can improve their VO 2 max by as much as .
A) 25% B) 35% C) 50% D) 85%
15) Genetics influences the training response and exerts a significant influence on how much VO 2 max can be improved with training. "Low responders" to endurance exercise training may only improve their VO 2 max by .
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A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%
16) Training has been shown to improve exercise economy in both runners and cyclists by as much as over several years of training.
A) 1-5% B) 5-6% C) 8-15% D) 25%
17) Training has been shown to improve the lactate threshold in endurance athletes by as much as during 10 years of training.
A) 5% B) 10% C) 20% D) 30%
18)
Current evidence suggests that compression garments
.
A) increase VO 2 max B) reduce wind resistance during running C) may decrease swelling following exercise-induced muscle soreness D) improve performance in short-duration (i.e., events lasting <10 seconds) high intensity exercise
19) The "RICE" treatment is recommended to improve the recovery from delayed onset muscle soreness. RICE is an abbreviation for .
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A) rest, ice, compression, and elevation B) rest, intensity, cold, and elevation C) recovery, ice, compression, and elevation D) None of these answers is correct
20) Which of the following statements are TRUE about the use of non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NAIDS) for the treatment of delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)?
A) The specific drug, treatment program, and dosage of NAIDS to relieve DOMS pain is well established in the literature. B) The use of NAIDS does not reduce the pain associated with DOMS. C) The use of NAIDS increases the risk of stomach irritation. D) The use of NAIDS has been shown to completely eliminate the muscle damage associated with DOMS within a 12-hour period.
21) Which of the following is NOT a common laboratory test used to quantify endurance exercise potential?
A) lactate threshold test B) determination of ventilatory threshold C) tests of movement efficiency (e.g., running economy) D) All of these are correct
22) to:
Starting an endurance exercise training session with low glycogen levels has been shown
A) Promote protein synthesis in the active skeletal muscles B) Activate both AMP Kinase and p38 C) Increase the activation PGC-1α D) All of these answers are correct
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23) Providing high quality protein to athletes immediately prior to or after a training session has been shown to:
A) Increase the rate of muscle protein synthesis following both endurance and resistance training B) Accelerate gains in anaerobic power C) Increase the activation PGC-1α D) Both Increase the rate of muscle protein synthesis following both endurance and resistance training and Accelerate gains in anaerobic power are correct
24) to:
Supplementation with mega doses of the antioxidant vitamins C and E has been shown
A) Accelerate training adaptations in skeletal muscles B) Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are required to activate signal molecules C) Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are required to promote amino acid uptake in muscle fibers D) Both Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are required to activate signal molecules and Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are required to promote amino acid uptake in muscle fibers are correct
25)
The five-zone intensity scale to prescribe and monitor exercise
A) is based on the relationship between HR, %VO 2 max, and blood lactate for a given intensity. B) has identical training durations for the five zones. C) is an essential training technique for weight loss through exercise. D) All of these are correct.
26)
Training-based improvements in VO 2 max are typically greatest for
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A) a person that is already a competitive endurance athlete. B) someone who is active, but not particularly well trained for aerobic exercise. C) a sedentary individual that is beginning an aerobic exercise program. D) None of these is correct.
27) Which of the following theories has NOT been proposed to explain the repeated bout effect of protection against exercise-induced muscle soreness?
A) Neural theory B) Central nervous system theory C) Connective tissue theory D) Cellular theory
28) Preceding a static stretch with an isometric contraction of the muscle group to be stretched .
A) is called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation B) is effective in improving muscle relaxation C) can activate the Golgi tendon organ D) All of these answers are correct
29) Which of the following is NOT true about strength training comparisons between men and women?
A) Men and women generally exhibit the same absolute levels of strength. B) When muscle force production is normalized to cross-sectional area, men and women are similar. C) Men typically have more muscle mass than women. D) All of these answers are correct.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_11e 1) C 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1
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27) B 28) D 29) A
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Chapter 21 Training for the Female Athlete, Children, Special Populations, and the Masters Athlete MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The key to safe participation in sports conditioning for the person with type 1 diabetes is to
A) keep the intensity of the exercise low. B) perform only short-term, high-intensity exercise. C) learn to avoid hypoglycemic episodes during training. D) learn to avoid small increases in blood glucose during training.
2)
Children and adults with asthma can engage in physical conditioning and sports if they
A) are able to control or prevent exercise-induced bronchospasms. B) train with other asthmatics. C) engage only in low-intensity activities. D) learn to ignore breathing difficulties.
3)
At present, the recommendation for sports participation for people with epilepsy is that
A) the epileptic can participate in any sport when accompanied by a nonepileptic. B) individuals with only mild seizure problems and with the aid of medication can participate in most sports activities without harm. C) the individual should limit physical activity to low-intensity sports. D) epileptics should not participate in sports.
4)
Heavy endurance training in children has been shown to
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A) increase the risk of cardiovascular failure. B) decrease the risk of pulmonary disease. C) cause permanent musculoskeletal damage. D) improve maximal aerobic power comparable to adults if proper techniques of physical training are employed.
5)
The occurrence of irregular menses in female athletes is generally highest in
A) cyclists. B) swimmers. C) distance runners. D) the occurrence of irregular menses occurs equally in all female athletes.
6)
The incidence of anorexia nervosa in the U.S. is estimated to be approximately .
A) 1 out of 10 adolescent girls B) 1 out of 100 adolescent girls C) 1 out of 1000 adolescent girls D) 1 out of 10,000 adolescent girls
7)
Dysmenorrhea is defined as
A) an absence of menstruation. B) infrequent menstruation. C) painful menstruation. D) 2-3 menses per year.
8)
The female athlete triad includes
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A) amenorrhea, dysmenorrhea, and normenorrhea. B) bone mineral loss, dysmenorrhea, and eating disorders. C) amenorrhea, bone mineral loss, and eating disorders. D) eating disorders, bulimia, and normenorrhea.
9) Recently, investigators have suggested that the term "female athlete triad" should be replaced with the term .
A) athlete triad B) low energy triad C) relative energy deficiency syndrome D) None of these answers is correct
10)
The two major causes of bone mineral loss in female athletes are inadequate
A) calcium/vitamin D intake and high blood estrogen levels. B) calcium/vitamin D intake and low blood estrogen levels. C) phosphate intake and high blood testosterone. D) phosphate intake and high blood estrogen levels.
11)
Aquatic exercise is recommended for pregnant women. Why?
A) It relieves pressure on the fetus. B) It is associated with lower heart rate and perceived exertion. C) It accelerates heat loss to maintain a lower body temperature. D) All of these.
12)
Which of the following activities should people with asthma approach with caution?
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A) running B) swimming C) scuba diving D) cycling
13) Which of the following is a long-standing medical concern for children participating in intense endurance or resistance training?
A) skeletal muscles will grow faster than the bones B) that mechanical injury will cause premature closure of the growth plate C) that there will be permanent cardiopulmonary damage D) all of these
14) Growing evidence suggests that compared to sedentary children, those who participate in regular endurance exercise training results in
A) decreased bone mineral content. B) increased risk of knee injury. C) decreased risk of developing asthma. D) increased bone mineral content.
15) Compared to male athletes, female athletes who participate in jumping and cutting sports are at higher risk for knee injuries, most likely because of
A) dynamic neuromuscular imbalances. B) fluctuation in sex hormones. C) gender differences in knee anatomy. D) the female athlete triad.
16) People with type 1 diabetes should strenuous training days to avoid hypoglycemia.
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A) increase B) decrease C) double D) not alter
17) Which of the following factors are associated with increased risk of seizures during exercise in people with epilepsy?
A) hypoglycemia B) electrolyte imbalance C) hyperventilation D) All of these answers are correct
18)
The decline in muscle mass with age is due to
A) a decrease in muscle fiber size. B) a decrease in the number of muscle fibers. C) Both a decrease in muscle fiber size and a decrease in the number of muscle fibers are correct. D) None of these answers is correct.
19)
The age-related decline in VO 2 max is due to
A) decreased maximal heart rate. B) decreased maximal stroke volume. C) decreased maximal a-v O 2 difference. D) all of these answers are correct.
20)
The major factor that contributes to an age-related decline in endurance performance is:
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A) a decrease in the lactate threshold B) a decline in exercise economy C) a decline in VO 2 max D) All of these factors contribute equally to the age-related decline in performance
21) Low energy availability in female athletes is associated with which of the following results? A) “switching off” of the menstrual cycle B) altering the normal pattern of the release of luteinizing hormone C) reduced estrogen production D) All of these answers are correct
22)
Which of the following statements about age-related changes in VO 2 max are true?
A) Limited change in VO 2 max occurs until age 40 B) The age-related decline in VO 2 max is approximately 1% per year after age 40 C) The age-related decline in VO 2 max occurs due to impaired pulmonary gas exchange D) Both Limited change in VO 2 max occurs until age 40 and The age-related decline in VO 2 max is approximately 1% per year after age 40 are correct
23) A chronic state of low energy availability in athletes affects many physiological functions including:
A) metabolic rate B) bone health C) cellular protein synthesis D) All of these answers are correct
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VO 2 max is defined by the Fick equation as the product of maximal cardiac output 24) times the maximal arterial-venous oxygen difference. The age-related decline in VO 2 max occurs due to a:
A) decline in maximal heart rate B) decrease in maximal stroke volume C) decrease in maximal arterial-venous oxygen difference D) All of these answers are correct
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 21_11e 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) C 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) D
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Chapter 22 Nutrition, Body Composition, and Performance MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) During relatively high intensity exercise lasting less than one hour, the primary fuel for muscular work is
A) blood glucose. B) plasma FFA. C) muscle glycogen. D) amino acids.
2)
The term "supercompensation" refers to the
A) increase in muscle mass following heavy exercise. B) increase in muscle glycogen when exhaustive exercise is followed by a highcarbohydrate diet. C) procedures for replacing fat stores following exhaustive exercise studies. D) consumption of a high-protein diet following weight training to increase muscle mass.
3) The serious medical condition that can occur in ultra-endurance (4 + hours) events when water alone is used to replace fluid loss and blood levels of sodium become critically low is
A) hypernatremia. B) supercompensation. C) hyponatremia. D) glycosuria.
4)
The RDA for protein in healthy adults is
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A) 0.6 g/kg/day. B) 0.8 g/kg/day. C) 1.2 g/kg/day. D) 1.6 g/kg/day.
5) Which of the following dietary conditions increases the rate of amino acid utilization during prolonged exercise?
A) low-carbohydrate diet B) high-carbohydrate diet C) high-fat diet D) low-protein diet
6)
Which of the following statements is true, relative to fluids taken during exercise?
A) Cold drinks are absorbed faster than warm drinks. B) Small volumes (about 200 ml) are absorbed faster than large volumes (about 600 ml). C) A glucose concentration greater than 10% does not interfere with the absorption of water. D) Exercise, independent of intensity, has no effect on the absorption of H 2O.
7)
Which of the following nutrients should be included in a pregame meal?
A) large amounts of protein B) large amounts of complex carbohydrates C) large amounts of fat D) large amounts of simple sugars
8)
The optimum body fatness for male athletes is
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A) 6 percent. B) 8 percent. C) 12 percent. D) dependent on the sport and the individual.
9)
The risk of developing hyponatremia is greater if the marathon runner
A) finishes the race more quickly (i.e., <3 hours). B) consumes less fluid than the amount of sweat loss. C) consumes large amounts of hypotonic fluids. D) consumes snacks and fluids containing sodium.
10)
Which of the following diets is associated with the highest muscle glycogen levels?
A) high-carbohydrate diet B) mixed diet C) low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet D) All three diets are associated with similar muscle glycogen levels
11)
Muscle glycogen is replenished most rapidly when carbohydrates are consumed
A) during exercise. B) immediately following exercise. C) hours after exercise. D) at any time.
12) The recommended intake of protein for athletes who participate in high-intensity endurance exercise is
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A) 0.8 g/kg/day. B) 0.9 g/kg/day. C) 1.2-1.4 g/kg/day. D) 2.6-3.7 g/kg/day.
13) Which of the following is associated with adequate hydration during steady state aerobic exercise?
A) lower core temperature B) lower heart rate C) lower perceived exertion D) all of these
14) The recommended fluid/electrolyte intake during high-intensity events of one to three hours is
A) 500-1,000 ml water/hour without electrolytes. B) 500-1,000 ml water with NaCl and 6-8% carbohydrate/hour. C) 1200-1,600 ml water with NaCl and 6-8% carbohydrate/hour. D) None of these answers is correct.
15)
The best single "practical" indicator of salt and water balance is
A) monitoring body weight. B) urine color. C) measuring plasma volume. D) measuring plasma sodium.
16)
The term periodized nutrition refers to
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A) consuming liquid carbohydrate and/or protein periodically during athletic events. B) consuming non-liquid carbohydrate and/or protein periodically during athletic events. C) consuming any form of carbohydrate periodically during athletic events. D) improving athletic performance through a feeding and training regimen that maximizes muscle glycogen content.
17)
Vitamin supplementation is
A) required for all athletes. B) important for achieving a high VO 2 max. C) needed only when an athlete is clearly deficient. D) more important for male athletes.
18) Which of the following statements are true about carbohydrate intake during prolonged (i.e., >45 minutes) exercise?
A) Carbohydrate feeding during exercise delays fatigue. B) Carbohydrate feeding during exercise improves performance. C) Carbohydrate feeding during exercise does not impact the rate of muscle glycogen usage. D) All of these answers are correct.
19) Which of the following statements are TRUE about protein consumption for athletes engaged in heavy training sessions?
A) Athletes should NOT consume protein from red meats during training. B) The protein requirement for athletes does NOT exceed the RDA recommendation. C) The protein requirement for athletes likely exceeds the RDA recommendation. D) Both Athletes should NOT consume protein from red meats during training and the protein requirement for athletes likely exceeds the RDA recommendation are correct.
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20) Which of the following statements are true about protein consumption to optimize post exercise muscle protein synthesis?
A) Muscle protein synthesis is strongly activated when amino acids are supplied within one hour following the workout. B) The timing of post-exercise protein consumption is very important for older adults. C) Whey protein is digested more rapidly than casein protein. D) All of these answers are correct.
21) Which of the following is a true statement about providing supplemental dietary antioxidants to athletes and other individuals who routinely perform high intensity exercise?
A) The use of dietary antioxidant supplements may blunt some of the exercise adaptations. B) Dietary antioxidant supplements are generally thought to be a necessary intervention. C) Use of both water-soluble and fat-soluble dietary antioxidants are needed by training athletes. D) Both Dietary antioxidant supplements are generally thought to be a necessary intervention and Use of both water-soluble and fat-soluble dietary antioxidants are needed by training athletes are correct.
22) Which of the following statements are true about carbohydrate metabolism during exercise?
A) Gluconeogenesis can supply glucose at a rate of only 0.2-0.4 grams/minute. B) Exercising skeletal muscles can consume glucose at a rate of 1-2 grams/minute. C) Hypoglycemia can occur during prolonged exercise (i.e., 3.5 hours) at exercise intensities at 58% of VO 2 max. D) All of these answers are correct.
23) Research studies reveal that consumption of 75 grams of glucose 30 minutes before exercise results in:
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A) increased plasma glucose levels. B) increased plasma insulin levels. C) a decreased rate of muscle glycogen utilization during exercise. D) Both increased plasma glucose levels and increased plasma insulin levels are correct.
24) An endurance athlete that experiences frequent bout of fatigue and a decline in performance may
A) be suffering from anemia. B) need to examine the amount of iron intake in their diet. C) also be experiencing a drop in the rate of erythropoiesis. D) All of these are correct.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 22_11e 1) C 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) D
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Chapter 23 Exercise and the Environment MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The partial pressure of inspired oxygen (PO 2) decreases with increasing altitude because of the
A) lower percent of oxygen in the air. B) lower barometric pressure. C) higher percent of carbon dioxide in the air. D) higher percent of nitrogen in the air.
2) When track meets are held at altitude, the sprint performances are usually better than at sea level because of the
A) lower PO 2 of inspired oxygen. B) greater reliance on creatine phosphate for energy. C) greater reliance on anaerobic glycolysis for energy. D) lower air density.
3) Compared to competition at sea level, distance-running performances are generally not as good when conducted at high altitude. This is due to the
A) lower PO 2 in the inspired air. B) greater reliance on creatine phosphate for energy. C) greater reliance on anaerobic glycolysis for energy. D) lower air density.
4)
Maximal aerobic power decreases with high altitude due to the
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A) lower PO 2. B) lower percent of oxygen in the air. C) lower hemoglobin levels. D) increase in hemoglobin levels.
5) Compared to the heart rate value measured at sea level, when a subject works at the same work rate (e.g., 150 watts) at 3,000 meters altitude, the heart rate is
A) higher. B) lower. C) the same. D) dependent on the conditioning state of the subject.
6) Pulmonary ventilation is higher at altitude than at sea level for any work rate. During exercise at high exercise intensities, this could result in
A) hypoventilation. B) fatigue of the respiratory muscles (e.g., diaphragm). C) exercise-induced hypercapnia. D) None of these answers is correct.
7)
Natives who have resided at high altitude all their lives adapt to the altitude by
A) exercising regularly. B) decreasing maximal ventilation. C) increasing the environmental PO 2. D) producing more red blood cells.
8) Some highly trained athletes experience a larger-than-expected decrease in VO 2 max when tested at altitude. This is likely due to
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A) a large desaturation of hemoglobin. B) a greater decrease in maximal heart rate. C) a greater decrease in maximal stroke volume. D) poor mitochondrial function.
9)
When environmental air temperature exceeds skin temperature
A) heat gain can occur in the body through convection and/or radiation. B) the sweat rate decreases. C) heat is lost from the body via convection. D) None of these answers is correct.
10) To quantify the overall heat stress associated with any environment, the guide was developed.
A) dry bulb temperature B) black globe temperature C) wet bulb temperature D) None of these answers is correct
11)
The term that describes the potential loss of heat due to cold air and air movement is
A) hypothermia. B) frostbite. C) wind chill. D) None of these answers is correct.
12)
The thermal conductivity of water is about
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A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) 100
13)
Breathing carbon monoxide can decrease VO 2 max by
A) binding to hemoglobin to displace oxygen. B) reducing pulmonary ventilation. C) decreasing the number of red blood cells. D) decreasing the arterial PO 2 to half its normal value.
14)
The term that denotes an inspired PO 2 that is greater than that at sea level is
A) hypoxia. B) hyperoxia. C) normoxia. D) superoxia.
15)
Which of the following terms describes the most serious form of heat illnesses?
A) heat cramps B) heat exhaustion C) heat stroke D) heat syncope
16) Which of the following range of values represents "good" air quality as indicated by the Air Quality Index (AQI)?
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A) 0-50 B) 51-100 C) 101-150 D) 151-200
17) Which of the following pollutants is generated by the reaction of UV light and emissions from internal combustion engines?
A) carbon monoxide B) sulfur dioxide C) particulate matter D) ozone
18) is
The major factor causing a decrease in VO 2 max at moderate altitudes (~4000 meters)
A) lower maximal stroke. B) lower maximal heart rate. C) lower oxygen extraction by muscle. D) None of these answers is correct.
19) The most rapid and effective method of reducing body temperature in those with high body temperatures is
A) cold water immersion. B) rapid fluid replacement. C) moving the athlete to the shade. D) waiting; cooling is a slow process.
20)
The best protection against heat stroke and heat exhaustion is
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A) taking salt tablets. B) hydrating before exercise. C) wearing light-colored clothing. D) acclimatization.
21)
Evaporation of sweat is dependent upon environmental
A) temperature. B) wind speed. C) vapor pressure. D) All of these are correct.
22) One measurable environmental factor that is quantified to understand the air pollution dose that an individual receives is
A) particulate matter larger than 2.5 mm. B) particulate matter smaller than 2.5 μm. C) ultra violet light concentration. D) None of these is correct.
23) When Messner and Habeler first climbed Mount Everest without supplemental oxygen, the scientists had to reevaluate their calculations that VO 2 max at the peak of Everest was equal to resting metabolic rate (3.5 ml • kg -1 • min -1). They discovered that the
A) barometric pressure was higher than expected at the top of Everest. B) oxygen percentage was higher than expected at the top of Everest. C) air contained more oxygen than expected. D) hemoglobin levels increased suddenly at that altitude for those who didn't use supplemental oxygen.
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24) If athletes plan to use high altitude training, research suggests that the best way for an endurance athlete to take advantage of altitude-induced physiological adjustments is to live at altitude and train at altitude.
A) high; low B) high; high C) low; low D) low; high
25) Which of the following factors have the ability to impact the risk of developing heat injury during exercise?
A) wind B) hydration status C) acclimatization D) All of these answers are correct
26)
Which of the following would require the most clothing units in order to thermo regulate?
A) sleep B) very light work C) moderate work D) heavy work
27) Individuals who are successful climbing to high altitudes have a great capacity to hyperventilate. Hyperventilation results in .
A) higher PO 2 in the blood B) a decrease in arterial pH C) left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve D) All of these answers are correct
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28) Which of the following physiological factors would NOT be beneficial to a mountain climber during high altitude climbing?
A) higher PO 2 in the blood. B) an increase in arterial PCO 2. C) right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. D) Both an increase in arterial PCO 2 and right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve are correct.
29) One would expect that individual exposure to air pollution is increased during outdoor exercise because the dose of exposure is proportional to
A) the concentration of particulate in the air. B) the ventilatory rate. C) the elevation at which the exercise is performed. D) Both the concentration of particulate in the air and the ventilatory rate are correct.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 23_11e 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) A Version 1
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27) D 28) D 29) D
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Chapter 24 Ergogenic Aids MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A double-blind research design is one in which
A) the subject does not know which treatment he/she has been administered. B) both the subject and the investigator know what treatment had been administered. C) neither the subject nor the investigator knows what treatment had been administered. D) only the investigator knows what treatment has been administered.
2)
It is now well demonstrated that oxygen is an effective ergogenic aid when the O 2
A) can be breathed during endurance exercise. B) is used before endurance exercise. C) is used in recovery from endurance exercise. D) breathed prior to a football game (for example) or on the sideline between plays.
3)
Blood doping refers to
A) increasing or decreasing one's red blood cell count to improve exercise performance. B) secretly using supplemental oxygen during competition to increase muscular strength. C) secretly using supplemental oxygen during competition to increase endurance performance. D) an artificial increase in one's red blood cell count in order to increase O 2 carrying capacity.
4)
The term homologous transfusion means that the subject received
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A) his own blood. B) a matched donor's blood. C) artificial blood. D) None of these answers is correct.
5) How many units of blood are shown to have a positive effect when reinfused in a subject via blood doping?
A) 0.5 B) 1 C) 1.5 D) 2
6)
Blood buffers, used to improve anaerobic performances, exert their effect by
A) slowing the rate of decrease of creatine phosphate. B) slowing the rate of increase in plasma H + and thus, maintaining pH homeostasis. C) altering the rate at which oxygen leaves the hemoglobin. D) decreasing the rate at which H + leaves muscle.
7)
Amphetamines may improve endurance performance by
A) decreasing the use of plasma FFA as a fuel source. B) inhibiting the muscular fatigue process. C) decreasing arousal. D) increasing lactic acid removal.
8)
The ergogenic effect of caffeine
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A) is dose dependent (i.e., depends upon on the amount of caffeine ingested). B) does not vary between individuals. C) is influenced by gender. D) is due to a decrease in fat metabolism.
9) Which of the following changes would account for the greatest potential reduction in aerodynamic drag during a cycling competition?
A) using an aerodynamic bicycle frame B) switching to a flat-disc rear wheel C) adopting a lower riding position D) wearing Lycra shorts and jersey
10) is:
The recommended intensity of warm-up exercise (5-10 minutes) for endurance activities
A) 40%-50% VO 2 max. B) 60%-70% VO 2 max. C) at 90% race pace. D) at 100% race pace.
11)
Which of the following beverages contain the most caffeine?
A) energy drinks (e.g., Red Bull) B) tea C) drip coffee D) most soft drinks (e.g., colas)
12)
The ingestion of sodium bicarbonate has been shown to benefit
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A) exercise tasks lasting less than one minute in duration. B) high-intensity exercise tasks lasting longer than one hour. C) high-intensity exercise tasks lasting one to ten minutes. D) None of these answers is correct.
13)
Clenbuterol use by athletes may cause
A) a decrease in tremors. B) increased resistance to fatigue. C) muscle atrophy. D) cardiac arrhythmias.
14)
Including a placebo in a research design to study ergogenic aids helps control for
A) differences in the training state of the subjects. B) the gender of the subjects. C) investigator bias. D) the subject's belief that the substance tested is an ergogenic aid.
15) Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is claimed to increase muscle mass and strength because it
A) is a precursor to testosterone. B) is an antioxidant that reduces muscle damage during exercise training. C) enhances fat use. D) increases anaerobic power.
16) Although creatine monohydrate supplementation can increase creatine storage in muscles, a potential drawback of this supplementation is:
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A) Supplementation can promote muscle swelling. B) Phosphocreatine is not an important energy source during this type of exercise. C) Supplementation may result in water retention and weight gain. D) All of these answers are correct.
17)
The athlete biological passport is
A) a comprehensive fitness profile (% fat, VO 2 max, etc) that is measured immediately after an athlete wins a competition. B) a comprehensive fitness profile (% fat, VO 2 max, etc) that is measured repeatedly over time for a given athlete. C) a series of biological variables that is measured immediately after an athlete wins a competition. D) a series of biological variables that is measured repeatedly over time for a given athlete.
18)
High circulating levels of catecholamines can:
A) activate adenylate cyclase B) activate cyclic AMP C) inhibit phospodiesterase D) Both activate adenylate cyclase and activate cyclic AMP answers are correct
19) Ingestion of caffeine could improve exercise performance by several mechanisms. Which of the following are NOT likely mechanisms to explain the positive impact of caffeine on exercise performance?
A) Stimulation of the central nervous system B) Acting as an antioxidant to prevent radical mediated damage C) Increasing calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) Increasing immobilization of fat and glucose
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20) Which of the following is NOT a reason for using the athlete biological passport approach to identify competitors that may be using performance enhancing drugs?
A) With the biological passport, an athlete serves as their own control or point of comparison. B) The upward/downward trend in an athlete's biomarker profile is indicative of misbehavior. C) The biological passport approach focuses on a single, validated biomarkers for blood doping. D) Hematological, steroid profiles, and endocrinological markers are used to gauge potential misbehavior.
21) Use of recombinant erythropoietin would be expected to improve which of the following performances?
A) Maximal squat performance B) 100 m spring performance C) 10 km run performance D) Use of recombinant erythropoietin would improve all of these performances
22)
Caffeine can increase fatty acid mobilization by:
A) Increasing the formation of cyclic AMP B) Activating protein kinase C) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase D) All of these answers are correct
23) Which of the following are NOT a likely benefit of creatine monohydrate supplementation when it comes to potential improvements in athletic performance?
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A) Increased body mass due to a significant increase in muscle tissue. B) An increase in muscle creatine content for improved ATP production during high intensity muscular contractions. C) An increase in maximal strength due to an ability to train at a higher intensity. D) All of these answers are correct.
24) Which of the following is NOT a potential unintended outcome resulting from supplementation of cholesterol-based androgenic compounds like dehydroepiandrosterone or androstenedione?
A) An increase in blood levels of estrogen B) A decrease in high density lipoprotein cholesterol levels C) An enhancement in muscle testosterone levels D) All of these answers are correct
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 24_11e 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) C
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