TEST BANK for Medical Terminology in a Flash! 4th Edition A Multiple Learning Styles Approach by Lis

Chapter 1: Learning Styles Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Diagrams, shapes, and patterns are examples of which type of data?

A. Kinesthetic B. Visual C. Solitary D. Verbal 2. Which of the following statements regarding visual learners is true?

A. They can recall information by “seeing” it in their mind’s eye.

B. During conversations, they use visual words, such as “touch” and “feel.”

C. They like to “bounce things off” their friends.

D. They feel compelled to speak in order to think.

3. All of the following words of advice are appropriate for the global learner EXCEPT: A. You are a multitasker, so don’t be afraid to mix it up a bit to make your study efforts more lively and enjoyable.

B. Begin each study session by identifying the relationship between what you are currently studying and your future career ambitions.

C. Beware of your tendency to get stuck in analysis paralysis.

D. While reading, make note of terms or concepts that you skipped over, and take time to look them up later.

4. Oral discussions appeal to students with which learning style?

A. Verbal only B. Auditory only C. Social only D. Verbal, auditory, and social 5. All of the following statements regarding analytical learners are true EXCEPT: A. They approach problem-solving in a logical, methodical manner.

B. They need to see the big picture before knowing the details.

C. They like to group data into categories for further study.

D. They may get sidetracked by insignificant details.

6. All of the following self-care activities enhance memory EXCEPT: A. Regular, good-quality sleep B. Regular exercise C. Socialization activities D. Insufficient quantity of sleep

7. All of the following self-care activities enhance memory EXCEPT: A. Healthy nutrition B. Stress-reduction activities C. Cramming for exams D. Socialization activities 8. Which of the following factors decreases your ability to store information in long-term memory?

A. Extensive memorization of a large amount of data over a short period B. Rehearsal of the data over and over C. Consciously attending to and focusing on the data D. Relating the information being studied to strong emotions or significant events 9. Practicing a skill with a partner appeals to which type of learner?

A. Kinesthetic only B. Visual only C. Verbal only D. Kinesthetic and visual 10. Reading written words aloud can utilize which learning style?

A. Verbal only B. Visual only C. Kinesthetic only D. Verbal and visual 11. Colors, tables, and live demonstrations all appeal to which type of learners?

A. Visual B. Auditory C. Kinesthetic D. Verbal 12. Visual learners are most likely to make which of the following statements?

A. “That sounds like an experience I had.”

B. “This doesn’t feel right to me.”

C. “I see what you mean.”

D. “Let’s cooperate on this project.”

13. Which of the following is the best example of an auditory way to get information?

A. Reviewing flash cards B. Watching a PowerPoint presentation C. Listening to a lecture D. Asking a question 14. Jonathon loves music and is always humming, whistling, or singing something. In a recent conversation, he told his friend, “I hear you loud and clear.” Jonathon is most likely: A. A visual learner B. A social learner C. An auditory learner D. A kinesthetic learner 15. Brian fidgets in the classroom and struggles to get through lectures, yet when he is in the laboratory, he does very well and enjoys learning. His dominant learning style is most likely: A. Auditory B. Solitary

C. Kinesthetic D. Verbal 16. Which of the following is an example of an acronym?

A. “I before E except after C” B. FAQ—frequently asked questions C. The alphabet (ABC) song D. “On Old Olympus’ Tower Tops, A Finn And German Viewed Some Hops.”

17. All of the following statements regarding analytical learners are true EXCEPT: A. They are sometimes called “holistic learners.”

B. They like to take a methodical approach to studying.

C. They readily identify patterns and like to group data into categories for further study.

D. They create and follow agendas and make lists with items ranked by priority.

18. Which type of learner would benefit in a study group that is taking turns describing information aloud while performing a physical demonstration?

A. Kinesthetic only B. Verbal only C. Visual only D. Kinesthetic, verbal, visual, and auditory 19. Which of the following statements about using a multiple learning styles approach is not true?

A. It will help you identify study strategies that will be most effective for you and will allow you to make the most of limited study time.

B. It is too difficult and is not recommended.

C. It creates multiple pathways in the brain for retrieving information from your memory.

D. It will help you recognize your preferences for learning.

20. Which of the following statements about memory is true?

A. Sensory memory involves the first brief impression during which the brain registers sensory data, such as patterns, sounds, or smells.

B. Short-term memory allows you to retrieve data in a very short span of time, usually several seconds to several minutes.

C. Chunking is a technique that increases the number of items one can recall.

D. All of the statements are true.

21. Diagrams, shapes, and patterns are examples of which type of data?

A. Kinesthetic B. Visual C. Solitary D. Verbal 22. Using flash cards with a partner benefits which type of learner?

A. Visual learners only B. Auditory learners only C. Social learners only D. Verbal learners only E. Visual, auditory, social, and verbal learners 23. Which of the following statements regarding solitary learners is not true?

A. They can use all learning styles when studying.

B. They can participate in group study sessions.

C. They can focus and concentrate best when alone.

D. All of the statements are true.

24. Which of the following techniques may not appeal to visual learners?

A. Musical mnemonics B. Acronyms C. Group discussion D. Rhyming mnemonics 25. Oral discussions appeal to students with which learning style?

A. Verbal only B. Auditory only C. Social only D. Verbal, auditory, and social 26. Which of the following statements regarding global learners are true?

A. They are sometimes called “sequential learners.”

B. They like to analyze details.

C. They may overlook details.

D. They approach problem solving in a very logical manner.

27. All of the following words of advice are specifically appropriate for global learners EXCEPT: A. You are flexible, so don’t be afraid to mix it up a bit and make your study efforts more lively and enjoyable.

B. Begin each study session by identifying the relationship between what you are currently studying and your future career ambitions.

C. Beware of your tendency to get stuck in analysis paralysis.

D. While reading, make note of terms or concepts that you skipped over and later take time to look them up.

28. All of the following words of advice are appropriate for students working on a group project EXCEPT: A. Do not put global and analytical learners in the same group.

B. Divide tasks according to learning style preferences and strengths.

C. Practice communication and teamwork skills because this mirrors real life.

D. Share information with each other about strengths, flaws, and needs.

29. All of the following words of advice are specifically appropriate for analytical learners EXCEPT: A. Prioritize items of importance for studying.

B. Identify patterns within the material you are studying.

C. Give yourself permission to be illogical or even silly.

D. All of these are appropriate words of advice for analytical learners.

30. Which of the following statements about memory is true?

A. Most data move easily from short-term memory to long-term memory.

B. Emotions affect whether some information is stored in long-term memory.

C. Cramming is an effective method of transmitting data into long-term memory.

D. All of these statements are true.

Matching Match each word with the correct definition.

A. Visual

B. Auditory C. Verbal D. Kinesthetic E. Social F. Solitary 31. Prefer to study alone 32. Need to see data with their eyes 33. Need to speak in order to think 34. Need to hear the spoken word 35. Enjoy group synergy and lively discussions 36. Need to touch and manipulate things Match each memory term with the correct definition.

A. Attention B. Repetition C. Information-processing method D. Study effort E. Emotional relationship F. Connection G. Interference H. Cramming I. Chunking J. Sensory memory 37. The time and energy you devote; the greater your effort, the better your recall 38. Strategies used to analyze and remember data 39. Extensive memorization of a large amount of data over a short period 40. The extent to which you consciously attend to and focus on the data 41. The first brief impression during which your brain registers patterns, sounds, smells, or other sensory data 42. Clustering data into groups 43. Rehearsal of the data over and over 44. Relating new information to a prior experience or previously learned information 45. Stimuli that hamper your ability to attend to information as you learn 46. Relating the information being studied to strong emotions or significant events True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

47. “Cramming” for an exam will help you store information in your long-term memory, which enables you to pass your exam and recall the information later in your future career.

48. Making and listening to an audio recording of yourself as you read your notes aloud uses your visual, verbal, and auditory learning styles.

49. You are able to use all four learning styles if you participate in flash card games with a partner.

50. Making and watching a video of a classmate who is speaking aloud while practicing a skill uses your visual, verbal, auditory, and kinesthetic learning styles.

51. All people perceive, understand, and remember information in the same way.

52. By making and watching a video of yourself as you explain all of the components of a piece of equipment, you use your auditory, visual, verbal, and kinesthetic learning styles.

53. Mnemonics are memory aids that are useful when you need to remember lists or sequenced pieces of information.

54. Solitary learners may enjoy using online discussion boards and social media for group assignments.

55. Acronyms are abbreviations created by using the first letters or word parts in names or phrases.

56. Analytical learners generally see the big picture first and later pay more attention to the details.

57. Relating the information being studied to strong emotions or significant events decreases your ability to store the information in long-term memory.

58. Reading your textbook quietly to yourself only uses your visual learning style.

59. Most people have only one predominant learning style.

60. For visual learners, the more complex the data, the more important it is for them to see it.

61. Written text is an example of visual data.

62. Most auditory learners are also solitary learners.

63. Kelly enjoys meditation and traveling alone. She is a solitary learner.

64. Many learning styles are named according to the special senses.

65. Few people are strong visual learners.

66. Verbal learners need to listen as others speak.

67. Auditory and aural have similar meanings.

68. Kinesthetic learners like to touch and manipulate objects.

Chapter 1: Learning Styles Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

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PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

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ANS: D ANS: C ANS: H ANS: A ANS: J ANS: I ANS: B ANS: F ANS: G ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

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ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T

Chapter 2: Medical Word Elements Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following prefixes means three?

A. quadriB. triC. uniD. ultra2. Which of the following prefixes means new?

A. paraB. malC. neoD. eu3. The suffixes -ole and -ule mean: A. Stopping B. Softening C. Small D. Resembling 4. The suffix -logist means: A. Study of B. Specialist in the study of C. Measurement D. Condition 5. The suffix -megaly means: A. Measurement B. Movement C. Enlargement D. Nutrition 6. The suffix -phasia means: A. Speech B. Eating, swallowing C. Fear D. Feeling 7. The suffix -pexy means: A. Surgical fixation B. Digestion C. Slight or partial paralysis D. Deficiency 8. The suffix -trophy means: A. Crushing B. Nourishment C. Process of recording D. Hardening

9. Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. ambi-: against B. an-: with C. pan-: without D. bi-: two 10. The suffix -stenosis means: A. Visual examination B. Drooping, prolapse C. Narrowing, stricture D. Stopping 11. Which of the following prefixes means inadequate?

A. malB. euC. toxD. auto12. Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. infra-: above B. pro-: beyond C. re-: behind, back D. ultra-: after 13. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -phoria: fear B. -phobia: feeling C. -dynia: pain D. -algia: sound 14. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -paresis: pregnancy B. -partum: partial C. -plegia: pleural D. -pnea: breathing 15. Which of the following prefixes means all?

A. panB. ambiC. multiD. micro16. The prefix di- means: A. Same, equal B. Much C. Through D. Twice, two, double 17. Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. mono-: single B. multi-: twice C. a-: with

D. hemi-: whole 18. Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. ad-: away B. exo-: inside C. dia-: through D. brady-: fast 19. Which of the following prefixes means bad, painful, or difficult?

A. toxB. euC. dysD. neo20. The prefixes a-, an-, and in- all mean: A. Both, double B. Without, not, or absence of C. Many, much D. Together, with 21. The prefix auto- means: A. Self B. Bad C. New D. Normal 22. The suffix -ician means: A. Field of medicine B. Study of C. Specialist D. Physician 23. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. -lysis: flow, discharge B. -clasis: to form C. -kinesia: movement D. -uresis: eating, swallowing 24. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -pexy: surgical repair B. -tripsy: crushing C. -graphy: suturing D. -scopy: process of recording 25. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -iasis: illusion B. -necrosis: tissue death C. -oma: hernia D. -oxia: water 26. All of the following suffixes mean vision EXCEPT: A. -opsia B. -opsis

C. -opitis D. -opsy 27. Which of the following suffixes means vomiting?

A. -clast B. -emesis C. -genesis D. -clasis 28. Which prefix means much?

A. multiB. polyC. ultraD. extra29. Which prefix means above or upon?

A. epiB. ectoC. ambiD. endo30. Which prefix means around?

A. periB. supraC. diaD. circum31. Which prefix means between?

A. preB. interC. esoD. intra32. Which prefix means excessive or above?

A. hyperB. superC. supraD. a, b and c 33. Which prefix means against or opposite?

A. contraB. transC. adD. iso34. Which prefix means rapid?

A. bradyB. polyC. tachyD. ultra35. All of the following prefixes mean below or beneath EXCEPT: A. sub-

B. infraC. retroD. hypo36. All of the following prefixes mean in, within, or inner EXCEPT: A. conB. enC. inD. intra37. Which prefix means deficiency?

A. microB. oligoC. semiD. mal38. Which suffix means surgical repair?

A. -tomy B. -plasty C. -pexy D. -ectomy 39. Which suffix means sensation?

A. -esthesia B. -phoria C. -derma D. -kinesia 40. Which suffix means eating or swallowing?

A. -phasia B. -pepsia C. -trophy D. -phagia 41. Which suffix means softening?

A. -malacia B. -rrhagia C. -megaly D. -ectasis 42. Which suffix means destruction?

A. -lysis B. -stasis C. -necrosis D. -ptosis 43. Which suffix means disease?

A. -emia B. -itis C. -osis D. -pathy 44. Which suffix means narrowing or stricture?

A. B. C. D.

-sclerosis -stenosis -spasm -salpinx

45. Which suffix means recording instrument?

A. -graph B. -meter C. -scope D. -tome 46. Which suffix means mouth-like opening?

A. -cele B. -phonia C. -stomy D. -emesis 47. Which suffix means to break?

A. -lith B. -edema C. -stasis D. -clasis 48. Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. ambi-: against B. an-:with C. pan-: without D. bi-: two 49. The prefixes hemi- and semi- mean: A. Both, both sides B. Twice, two, double C. Half D. Whole 50. Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. infra-: above B. pro-: beyond C. re-: behind, back D. ultra-: after 51. Which of the following prefixes means bad or inadequate?

A. malB. euC. toxD. auto52. The prefix auto- means: A. New B. Poison C. Self D. None of these

53. The suffix -pexy means: A. Widening, stretching, expanding B. Surgical fixation C. Surgical puncture D. Measurement 54. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -phoria: fear B. -phobia: feeling C. -dynia: pain D. -algia: sound 55. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -edema: eating B. -lith: loosening C. -malacia: softening D. -megaly: measurement 56. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -paresis: pregnancy B. -partum: partial C. -plegia: pain D. -pnea: breathing 57. All of the following suffixes mean pertaining to EXCEPT: A. -ar B. -ory C. -itis D. -tic 58. All of the following prefixes mean without, not, or absence of EXCEPT: A. anB. inC. uniD. a59. Which of the following prefixes means all?

A. panB. ambiC. multiD. micro60. The prefix di- means: A. Diagonal B. Diagram C. Dilate D. None of these 61. The prefixes a-, an-, and in- all mean: A. Both, double B. Without, not, of C. Many, much D. None of these

62. Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. mono-: one, single B. multi-: twice C. a-: with D. hemi-: whole 63. Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. neo-: new B. eu-: good, normal C. dys-: bad, painful D. All of these 64. Which of the following prefixes means bad, painful, or difficult?

A. toxB. euC. dysD. neo65. The prefix neo- means: A. Self B. Bad C. New D. None of these 66. The suffix -ician means: A. Field of medicine B. Study of C. Specialist D. Physician 67. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -lysis: flow, discharge B. -cele: pregnant woman C. -kinesia: movement D. -uresis: eating, swallowing 68. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -ology: study of B. -opsy: vision, view of C. -cidal: destroying, killing D. All of these 69. Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition?

A. -iasis: illusion B. -necrosis: tissue death C. -oma: hernia D. -oxia: air 70. All of the following suffixes mean pain EXCEPT: A. -algesic B. -dynia C. -phobia

D. -algia 71. Which of the following terms has been correctly changed to the plural form?

A. thorax: thoraces B. diagnosis: diagnoses C. diverticulum: diverticula D. All of these 72. Which of the following prefixes means in, within, or inner?

A. endoB. contraC. superD. transCompletion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 02-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation or symbol on the line.

NARREND 73. 1° 74. NPO 75.  76. Dx 77.

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/

79. DNR 80. re: 81. Hx 82.

Matching Match each word part with the correct definition. Some definitions may be used more than once or not at all.

A. Two B. Slow C. Same D. Rapid

E. F. G. H. I. J.

Many Before, forward Beyond Beside, near Through, across After or following

83. bi84. brady85. tachy86. para87. periMatch each word part with the correct definition. Some definitions may be used more than once or not at all.

A. Three B. New C. Scanty D. Under, beneath E. One F. Same G. Much H. Excessive, above I. External J. Beyond 88. neo89. uni90. iso91. hyper92. ultraMatch each word part with the correct definition. Some definitions may be used more than once or not at all.

A. Dilation B. Softening C. Movement D. Measurement E. Thirst F. Cell G. Record H. Process of recording I. Pathological condition or state J. Condition 93. -dipsia 94. -iasis

95. -graphy 96. -ia 97. -ism Match each word part with the correct definition. Some definitions may be used more than once or not at all.

A. Drooping, prolapse B. Stopping C. Speech D. Urine E. Rupture F. Bursting forth G. Formation, growth H. Fear I. Paralysis J. Nutrition 98. -uria 99. -ptosis 100. -stasis 101. -rrhage 102. -plasia Choose the term that matches the description. Each term may be used more than once.

A. Suffix B. Prefix C. Combining form D. Word root E. Combining vowel F. Abbreviations G. Pathology terms H. Acronyms I. Symbols J. Documenting 103. Used to make the medical term easier to pronounce 104. Unrecognized and unapproved use of these may jeopardize patient well-being 105. A word part that comes at the end of the medical term 106. Writing in the patient’s chart 107. Created by joining a word root with a combining vowel 108. Letters used to save time and simplify the speaking, reading, and writing of medical terms 109. Abbreviations formed by using the first letter of each word 110. Does not include a prefix, suffix, or combining vowel

111. Is not used if the next word part begins with a vowel 112. A word part that comes at the beginning of the medical term 113. The main stem, or primary meaning, of the word 114. Nonletters used to save time and space in documentation and communication with other health-care professionals 115. Refer to diseases and disorders of all body systems 116. When deciphering medical terms, translate this word part first 117. The three-step deciphering process often does not work with these True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

118. The suffixes -acusia, -acusis, and -cusis mean pain.

119. The suffix -dipsia means feeling.

120. The suffixes -opia, -opsia, -opsis, and -opsy mean vision or view of.

121. The suffix -osmia means sound.

122. The suffix -esthesia means sensation.

123. The suffixes -algesia, -algesic, -algia, and -dynia mean pain.

124. The suffix -phobia means fear.

125. The suffixes -clast and -clasis mean cessation.

126. The suffix -pause means relaxation.

127. The suffix -phasia means eating or swallowing.

128. The suffix -lith means little.

129. The suffixes -ia and -ism mean condition.

130. The suffix -derma means down.

131. The suffix -megaly means motion.

132. The suffix -necrosis means tissue death.

133. The suffixes -partum and -tocia mean person.

134. The suffix -osis means oxygen.

135. The suffix -trophy means nourishment or growth.

136. The suffix -thorax means chest.

137. The suffix -rrhea means flow or discharge.

138. The suffixes -al, -ial, -tic, and -tous mean pertaining to.

139. The suffixes -ole and -ule mean pertaining to.

140. The suffixes -cyte and -cytic mean small.

141. The plural form of the word appendix is appendixes.

142. The plural form of the word diagnosis is diagnoses.

143. The suffixes -ac, -ar, -ory, and -ous mean pertaining to.

144. The plural form of the word thrombus is thrombuses.

145. The suffixes -y, -um, and -ex mean pertaining to.

146. The suffixes -ary, -ical, -ic, and -eal mean pertaining to.

147. The plural form of the word diverticulum is diverticula.

148. The prefix ambi- means half.

149. The prefix macro- means small.

150. The prefix iso- means same or equal.

151. The prefix pan- means none or zero.

152. The prefix tri- means three.

153. The prefixes bi- and di- mean three.

154. The prefix micro- means small.

155. The prefixes quadri- and tetra- mean two.

156. The prefix multi- means many.

157. The prefixes semi- and hemi- mean half.

158. The prefix anti- means against.

159. The prefix tachy- means rapid.

160. The prefixes re- and retro- mean behind or back.

161. The prefix epi- means below.

162. The prefix con- means together or with.

163. The prefix contra- means against or opposite.

164. The prefix eso- means outward.

165. The prefixes hyper-, super-, and supra- mean excessive or above.

166. The prefixes para- and peri- mean beside or near.

167. The prefix pro- means between.

168. The prefix mal- means against.

169. The prefix neo- means new.

170. The prefix tox- means try.

171. The prefix auto- means car.

172. The prefix dys- means self.

173. The suffix -graphy means measurement.

174. The suffix -dilation means widening, stretching, or expanding.

175. The suffix -plasty means surgical repair.

176. The suffix -therapy means treatment.

177. The suffix -ician means technician.

178. The suffix -pexy means pain.

179. The suffix -rrhaphy means suture or suturing.

180. The suffix -tomy means cutting into or incision.

181. The suffix -tripsy means treatment.

182. The suffix -centesis means centimeter.

Chapter 2: Medical Word Elements Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

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ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

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57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 73. ANS: Primary PTS: 1 NAR: 02-01 74. ANS: Nothing by mouth PTS: 1 75. ANS: Change

NAR: 02-01

PTS: 1 76. ANS: Diagnosis

NAR: 02-01

PTS: 1

NAR: 02-01

77. ANS: After PTS: 1 78. ANS: Per

NAR: 02-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 02-01 79. ANS: Do not resuscitate PTS: 1 80. ANS: Regarding

NAR: 02-01

PTS: 1 81. ANS: History

NAR: 02-01

PTS: 1 82. ANS: With

NAR: 02-01

PTS: 1

NAR: 02-01

MATCHING 83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: H ANS: H

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

ANS: B ANS: E ANS: F ANS: H ANS: J

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

ANS: E ANS: I ANS: H ANS: J ANS: J

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: F ANS: G

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

103. ANS: E 104. ANS: F 105. ANS: A

PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

117.

ANS: J ANS: C ANS: F ANS: H ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: I ANS: G ANS: A ANS: G

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

148.

ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F

149.

150.

151.

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

161.

162.

163.

164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.

173.

174.

175.

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

181.

182.

ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 3: Levels of Organization Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Arrangement of the human body is simple.

B. Chemistry courses typically study the body at the cellular level.

C. Cellular biology courses study the body at the chemical level.

D. Medical terminology courses generally study the body at the organ and organ system level.

2. Which of the following statements regarding cells is true?

A. They are composed of body tissues.

B. Their walls protect them by not allowing any substances to enter or leave.

C. The fluid within cells is called cytoplasm.

D. The nucleus is the smallest organelle.

3. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Squamous cells are cylindrical in shape.

B. Cuboidal cells are cube shaped.

C. Columnar cells are flat in shape.

D. All of the statements are true.

4. The abbreviation LUQ stands for: A. Left upper quadrant B. Last upper quadrant C. Lateral upper quadrant D. Left under quadrant 5. The patient who is standing in the anatomical position has: A. Arms at the side with palms facing forward B. Arms at the side with palms facing inward C. Arms at the side with palms facing posteriorly D. Arms at shoulder level with palms facing upward 6. Levels of the human body from smallest to largest are: A. Molecular, tissue, atomic, cellular, organ, organ system, human body B. Atomic, molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, human body C. Tissue, cellular, atomic, molecular, organ, organ system, human body D. Molecular, atomic, cellular, tissue, organ system, organ, human body 7. The body plane that divides the body into front and back portions is the A. Sagittal B. Frontal C. Transverse D. Dorsal 8. The abbreviation UE stands for: A. Upper exam B. Urinary exam C. Upper extremity

plane.

D. Universal exam 9. A person who is lying down, facing upward, is in the A. Supine B. Ventral C. Superior D. Anterior

position.

10. The abbreviation RLQ stands for: A. Right left quadrant B. Right longitudinal quadrant C. Right long quadrant D. Right lower quadrant 11. Movement away from the body is known as: A. Adduction B. Abduction C. Anterior D. Posterior 12. The abbreviation LAT stands for: A. Lower B. Lateralis C. Lateral D. Longitude 13. The abbreviation PA stands for: A. Posteroanterior B. Physical activity C. Posterior adduction D. Posterior abduction 14. Which term means rotation movement of the shoulder or hip away from the midline; external rotation?

A. Medial rotation B. Lateral rotation C. Inversion D. Pronation 15. Which term means rotation movement of the forearm to palm up; palm facing anterior?

A. Supination B. Radial deviation C. Pronation D. Eversion 16. Which term means movement of the ankle causing the bottom of the foot to face toward the midline or medially?

A. Protraction B. Abduction C. Inversion D. Horizontal adduction 17. Which term means front; anterior?

A. Flexion

B. Ventral C. Dorsal D. Superior 18. Which term means lying horizontally facing upward?

A. Prone B. Proximal C. Extension D. Supine 19. Which term means movement of the scapula away from the spinal column; scapular abduction?

A. Protraction B. Retraction C. Unilateral D. Ipsilateral 20. Which term means further into the body?

A. Deep B. Medial C. Dorsal D. Distal 21. Which term means movement of the arm away from midline, or posterior, when at shoulder level?

A. Horizontal adduction B. Eversion C. Extension D. Horizontal abduction 22. Which term means the same side?

A. Contralateral B. Bilateral C. Ipsilateral D. Unilateral 23. Which term means further from the axial body?

A. Radial deviation B. Proximal C. Distal D. Retraction 24. Levels of organization of the human body from smallest to largest are: A. Molecular, tissue, atomic, cellular, organ, organ system, human body B. Atomic, molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, human body C. Tissue, cellular, atomic, molecular, organ, organ system, human body D. None of these 25. All of the following are types of tissues in the human body EXCEPT: A. Staphylococci B. Connective tissue C. Nervous tissue D. Muscle tissue

Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 03-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 26. LE 27. RLQ 28. abd 29. R 30. ext 31. add 32. RUQ 33. ant 34. UE 35. AP 36. post 37. flex 38. LUQ 39. med 40. PA NARRBEGIN: 03-CO-1 Identify the body plane in which each motion occurs. Choose sagittal, frontal, or transverse.

NARREND 41. Horizontal adduction 42. Adduction 43. Inversion 44. Pronation

45. Radial deviation 46. Horizontal abduction 47. Abduction 48. Eversion 49. Medial rotation 50. Flexion 51. Supination 52. Ulnar deviation 53. Extension 54. Lateral rotation Matching Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Cells B. Organs C. Dorsal cavity D. Tissue E. Anatomical position F. Cranial cavity G. Epithelial tissue H. Midline I. Vertebral cavity J. Ventral cavity K. Simple squamous L. Axial body M. Thoracic cavity N. Simple cuboidal O. Appendicular body P. Abdominal cavity Q. Simple columnar R. Body planes S. Sagittal T. Retroperitoneal space U. Connective tissue V. Frontal W. Pelvic cavity X. Nervous tissue Y. Muscle tissue Z. Transverse

55. An imaginary line that runs from the head to the feet and divides the body into right and left halves 56. Cells that are cylindrical in shape 57. The plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions 58. Two or more types of tissues that perform specialized functions 59. The structural units that form all body tissues 60. The cavity that contains the lungs, heart, great vessels, trachea, and thymus 61. The plane that divides the body into front and back portions 62. A group of similar cells that perform a specific function 63. Points of reference which are imaginary slices or cuts through the body that divide it vertically or horizontally 64. The cavity that contains the spinal column 65. Acts to connect and support other body tissues 66. The cavity that contains the stomach, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and large and small intestines 67. The portion of the body that contains the head, neck, and trunk 68. Forms the top layer of skin 69. The cavity that contains the sigmoid colon, rectum, and bladder and, in females, contains the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries 70. Standing upright with toes and palms facing forward 71. The cavity that is located on the anterior, or front, side of the body 72. Cells that are flat in shape 73. The portion of the body comprising the arms and legs 74. The cavity that contains the brain 75. Comprises the brain, spinal cord, and nerves for the entire body 76. The space at the back of the abdomen just lateral to the spinal column 77. Composed of cells called contractile fibers 78. The cavity that is located on the posterior, or back, part of the body 79. The plane that divides the body into right and left halves 80. Cells that are cube shaped Choose the correct letter to match the combining form with the meaning.

A. medi/o B. infer/o C. anter/o D. dist/o E. super/o F. later/o

G. poster/o H. proxim/o 81. Away from the midline; toward the side 82. Nearer to the axial body 83. Toward or near the back; dorsal 84. Toward or near the head; cranial 85. Toward the midline; nearer to the middle 86. Toward or near the front; ventral 87. Further from the axial body 88. Toward or nearer to the feet; caudal Choose the correct letter to match the term with the meaning.

A. Horizontal adduction B. Medial C. Proximal D. Abduction E. Medial rotation F. Pronation G. Adduction H. Flexion I. Superior J. Deep K. Lateral L. Distal M. Ulnar deviation N. Eversion O. Inferior P. Posterior Q. Superficial R. Ipsilateral S. Extension T. Retraction 89. Rotation movement of the shoulder or hip toward the midline; internal rotation 90. Movement toward the side, toward the body 91. Movement of the wrist toward the ulna or toward the body; wrist adduction 92. The same side 93. Toward or near the back; dorsal 94. Away from the midline; toward the side 95. Further from the axial body 96. Movement toward the side, away from the body

97. Nearer to the surface of the body 98. Toward or nearer to the feet: caudal 99. Movement toward the back or posterior 100. Movement toward the front, or anterior 101. Toward the midline; nearer to the middle 102. Movement of the scapula toward the spinal column; scapular adduction 103. Further into the body 104. Toward or nearer to the head; cranial 105. Movement of the arm toward the midline, or anterior, when at shoulder level 106. Rotation movement of the forearm to palm down; palm facing posterior 107. Nearer to the axial body 108. Movement of the ankle causing the bottom of the foot to face toward the side or laterally

Chapter 3: Levels of Organization Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: 2. ANS: 3. ANS: 4. ANS: 5. ANS: 6. ANS: 7. ANS: 8. ANS: 9. ANS: 10. ANS: 11. ANS: 12. ANS: 13. ANS: 14. ANS: 15. ANS: 16. ANS: 17. ANS: 18. ANS: 19. ANS: 20. ANS: 21. ANS: 22. ANS: 23. ANS: 24. ANS: 25. ANS:

D C B A A B B C A D B C A B A C B D A A D C C B A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 26. ANS: Lower extremity PTS: 1 NAR: 03-01 27. ANS: Right lower quadrant PTS: 1 28. ANS: Abduction

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 29. ANS: Right

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 30. ANS: Extension

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 31. ANS: Adduction

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 03-01 32. ANS: Right upper quadrant PTS: 1 33. ANS: Anterior

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 03-01 34. ANS: Upper extremity PTS: 1 NAR: 03-01 35. ANS: Anteroposterior PTS: 1 36. ANS: Posterior

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 37. ANS: Flexion

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 03-01 38. ANS: Left upper quadrant PTS: 1 39. ANS: Medial

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 03-01 40. ANS: Posteroanterior PTS: 1 41. ANS: Transverse

NAR: 03-01

PTS: 1 42. ANS: Frontal

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 43. ANS: Frontal

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 44. ANS: Transverse

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 45. ANS: Frontal

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 46. ANS: Transverse

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 47. ANS: Frontal

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 48. ANS: Frontal

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 49. ANS: Transverse

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 50. ANS: Sagittal

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 51. ANS: Transverse

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 52. ANS: Frontal

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 53. ANS: Sagittal

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1 54. ANS: Transverse

NAR: 03-CO-1

PTS: 1

NAR: 03-CO-1

MATCHING 55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

ANS: H ANS: Q ANS: Z ANS: B ANS: C ANS: M ANS: V ANS: D ANS: R ANS: J ANS: U ANS: P ANS: L ANS: G ANS: W ANS: E ANS: J ANS: K ANS: O ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

ANS: X ANS: T ANS: Y ANS: C ANS: S ANS: N

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

ANS: F ANS: H ANS: G ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

ANS: E ANS: G ANS: M ANS: R ANS: P ANS: K ANS: L ANS: D ANS: Q ANS: O ANS: S ANS: H ANS: B ANS: T ANS: J ANS: I ANS: A ANS: F ANS: C ANS: N

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 4: Integumentary System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following terms means a tumor of fat?

A. Lipoma B. Adipoid C. Lipolysis D. Liponecrosis 2. Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of fungus?

A. Sclerosis B. Necrosis C. Mycosis D. Liposis 3. Which of the following terms means softening of the nail?

A. Trichomalacia B. Onychomalacia C. Dermomegaly D. Trichomycosis 4. Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of blueness?

A. Melanoma B. Cyanosis C. Erythematous D. Chromatic 5. Which of the following terms means white (blood) cell?

A. Erythrocyte B. Leukocyte C. Erythemocyte D. Xanthocyte 6. Which of the following terms means black tumor?

A. Xanthoma B. Cyanoma C. Melanoma D. Leukoma 7. Which of the following terms means specialist in the study of disease?

A. Pathologist B. Oncologist C. Gynecologist D. Dermatologist 8. Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of dead (tissue)?

A. Onychomycosis B. Sclerosis C. Trichopathy D. Necrosis

9. The term erythematous means: A. Dry B. Pertaining to redness C. Red blood cell D. Sweat 10. The term albinism means: A. Condition of whiteness B. Abnormal condition of redness C. White flow or discharge D. Condition of yellow skin 11. The term erythrocytopenia means: A. Deficiency of red blood cells B. An excessive number of red blood cells C. Abnormally small red blood cells D. Abnormally shaped red blood cells 12. The term subcutaneous means: A. Pertaining to above the skin B. Pertaining to beneath the skin C. Abnormal condition of the skin D. A condition of fat 13. The term hyperkeratosis means: A. Excessive development of scar tissue B. Abnormal condition of dry skin C. Abnormal condition of excessive keratinized tissue D. Excessive nutrition (growth or development) 14. The term xeroderma means: A. Absence of skin B. Wrinkled skin C. Yellow skin D. Dry skin 15. Which of the following terms means a type of thermal injury to the skin caused by a heat source?

A. Burn B. Bulla C. Bunion D. Basal cell carcinoma 16. Which of the following terms means a small sac beneath the skin surface that contains a thick, cheesy substance?

A. Epidermoid cyst B. Bulla C. Blister D. Bunion 17. Which of the following terms means scraping away of skin or mucous membranes?

A. Alopecia B. Contusion

C. Abrasion D. Ecchymosis 18. Which of the following terms means absence or loss of hair?

A. Cellulitis B. Alopecia C. Comedo D. Vitiligo 19. Which of the following terms means discoloration of the skin?

A. Impetigo B. Ecchymosis C. Comedo D. Scar 20. Which of the following abbreviations is matched with the correct definition?

A. SCC: subcutaneous B. Bx: treatment C. I&D: incision and drainage D. ung: ointment 21. Which of the following terms means a flat, discolored spot on the skin, such as a freckle?

A. Papule B. Eczema C. Cyst D. Macule 22. Which of the following terms means a small, cracklike break in the skin?

A. Fissure B. Laceration C. Contusion D. Vesicle 23. Which of the following terms means a skin infection marked by yellow to red crusted or pustular lesions?

A. Scabies B. Tinea C. Vitiligo D. Impetigo 24. Which of the following terms means a cut or tear in the flesh?

A. Laceration B. Fissure C. Abrasion D. Contusion 25. Which of the following terms means patchy loss of skin pigmentation?

A. Vitiligo B. Impetigo C. Scabies D. Alopecia 26. Which of the following abbreviations is matched with the correct definition?

A. PE: probable etiology

B. Sx: treatment C. FH: hair fungus D. MM: malignant melanoma 27. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. lip/o: skin B. eti/o: unknown C. hydr/o: sweat D. pil/o: hair 28. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. kerat/o: cyst B. dermat/o: skin C. path/o: papule D. scler/o: scales 29. Which of the following terms means a clear, fluid-filled lesion, such as a blister?

A. Vesicle B. Pustule C. Macule D. Papule 30. Which of the following terms means blackhead?

A. Cyst B. Eczema C. Comedo D. Vesicle 31. The correct definition of cellulitis is: A. Bacterial infection of the skin B. Flat, discolored spot on the skin, such as a freckle C. Contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite D. Any fungal skin disease occurring on various parts of the body, such as ringworm 32. The correct definition of contusion is: A. Small, pus-filled blister B. Bruise C. Hole or wound made by a sharp, pointed instrument D. Bacterial infection of the skin 33. The correct definition of papule is: A. Flat, discolored spot on the skin, such as a freckle B. Small, pus-filled blister C. Small, raised spot or bump on skin, such as a mole D. Bruise 34. The correct definition of eczema is: A. Cracklike break in the skin B. Inflammatory skin disease with redness, itching, and blisters C. Any fungal skin disease occurring on various parts of the body, such as ringworm D. Bruise 35. The correct definition of pustule is:

A. B. C. D.

Red, inflamed area of the skin Tiny hemorrhagic spot Small, raised spot or bump on skin, such as a wart Small, pus-filled blister

36. The correct definition of incision is: A. An area of skin that is excessively dry and flaky B. Surgical cut in the flesh C. A cut or tear in the flesh D. Scraping away of skin or mucous membranes 37. The correct definition of petechia is: A. Tiny, red or purple hemorrhagic spot B. Clear, fluid-filled lesion, such as a blister C. Fluid- or solid-containing pouch in or under the skin D. Hole or wound made by a sharp, pointed object or instrument 38. The correct definition of scabies is: A. Any fungal skin disease occurring on various parts of the body, such as ringworm B. An area of skin that is excessively dry and flaky C. Inflammatory skin disease with redness, itching, and blisters D. Contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite 39. The correct definition of tinea is: A. Any fungal skin disease occurring on various parts of the body, such as ringworm B. Contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite C. Small, raised spot or bump on skin, such as a wart D. Flat, discolored spot on the skin, such as a freckle 40. The correct definition of cyst is: A. Fluid- or solid-containing pouch in or under the skin B. Tiny hemorrhagic spot C. Small, cracklike break in the skin D. Flat, discolored spot on the skin, such as a freckle 41. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. Bx: biopsy B. FH: family history C. I&D: incision and drainage D. SubQ: subcutaneous 42. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. I&D: intradermal B. SubQ: subcutaneous C. Tx: treatment D. PE: physical examination 43. A patient is being treated by a dermatologist for eczema. Which of the following terms might the physician use to describe the patient’s skin lesions?

A. Erythematous B. Xanthoderma C. Necrotic D. Sclerosis

44. Which of the following terms might be used to describe an area of ecchymosis?

A. Adipoid B. Depilous C. Melanic D. Leukocyte 45. A patient is being treated in the emergency department for a wound sustained when someone stabbed him with an ice pick. His wound will most likely be described as a: A. Laceration B. Fissure C. Incision D. Puncture 46. A patient seeks treatment for her dry, scaly skin. She may be described as having: A. Cyanoderma B. Scabies C. Xeroderma D. Vitiligo 47. A patient with vitiligo has areas of A. Melanoma B. Leukoderma C. Xanthosis D. Cyanoderma

on his body.

48. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. adip/o: acne B. cutane/o: cell C. necr/o: dead D. myc/o: macule 49. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. seb/o: sweat B. son/o: shape C. cyan/o: cause D. xanth/o: yellow 50. A patient is most likely to visit a dermatologist to undergo dermaplaning for removal of which of the following?

A. Small scars B. Alopecia C. Carbuncle D. Cyst 51. Which of the following is a malignant condition?

A. Actinic keratosis B. Bulla C. Folliculitis D. Basal cell carcinoma 52. Which of the following means swelling?

A. Erythema

B. Melasma C. Paronychia D. Edema 53. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. dermat/o: dead B. cyt/o: cell C. idi/o: cause D. leuk/o: large 54. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. xer/o: white B. albin/o: hardening C. chromat/o: cornea D. erythr/o: red 55. Which of the following terms means the study of shapes?

A. Morphitis B. Morphology C. Morphemia D. Morphederma 56. All of the following skin problems are related to excess pressure EXCEPT: A. Corn B. Callus C. Fissure D. Decubitus ulcer 57. All of the following are caused by infection EXCEPT: A. Petechiae B. Furuncle C. Impetigo D. Lyme disease 58. All of the following procedures involve removal of tissue EXCEPT: A. Biopsy B. Dermaplaning C. Dermabrasion D. Botox 59. Which of the following helps remove fine lines and wrinkles?

A. Laser resurfacing B. Microdermabrasion C. Dermaplaning D. All of these 60. Which of the following is done to aid in diagnosis?

A. Microdermabrasion B. Botox C. Biopsy D. Chemical peel 61. Which combining form means cause?

A. B. C. D.

path/o idi/o eti/o morph/o

62. Which combining form means skin?

A. cutane/o B. lip/o C. kerat/o D. onych/o 63. Which combining form means yellow?

A. seb/o B. cirrh/o C. pil/o D. chromat/o 64. Which combining form means water?

A. hydr/o B. hidr/o C. son/o D. leuk/o 65. Which combining form means fungus?

A. myc/o B. onych/o C. cyan/o D. erythr/o 66. Which combining form means dry?

A. rhytid/o B. scler/o C. xer/o D. necr/o 67. Which combining form means cell?

A. dermat/o B. cyt/o C. albin/o D. seb/o 68. The term for a small, raised spot or bump on the skin, such as a mole is: A. Wheal B. Macule C. Papule D. Bulla 69. The term for a small, pus-filled blister is: A. Pustule B. Cyst C. Vesicle D. Sebaceous cyst

70. The term for a small, crack-like break in the skin is: A. Puncture B. Laceration C. Abrasion D. Fissure 71. Which of the following is a chronic, inflammatory skin disorder marked by the development of silvery-white scaly plaques or patches with sharply defined borders and reddened skin beneath?

A. Vitiligo B. Impetigo C. Psoriasis D. Eczema 72. Which of the following is an area of injury and tissue death caused by unrelieved pressure that impedes circulation in the skin and underlying tissues?

A. Decubitus ulcer B. Epidermoid cyst C. Sebaceous cyst D. Seborrheic keratosis 73. Which of the following is an infestation of head, body, or pubic lice, marked by itching, the appearance of lice on the body, and eggs (nits) attached to hair shafts?

A. Scabies B. Pediculosis C. Tinea D. Alopecia 74. Which of the following is a common type of skin cancer that typically appears as a small, shiny papule and eventually enlarges to form a whitish border around a central depression or ulcer that may bleed?

A. Malignant melanoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Lyme disease 75. Which of the following terms is NOT paired with the correct meaning?

A. erythr/o: red B. xanth/o: white C. melan/o: black D. cyan/o: blue 76. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT paired with the correct meaning?

A. Bx: biopsy B. Tx: treatment C. PE: physical examination D. FA: family history 77. Which of the following pathology terms is NOT paired with the correct meaning?

A. Abrasion: scraping away of skin or mucous membranes B. Contusion: bruise C. Macule: small, raised spot or bump on the skin D. Cellulitis: bacterial skin infection 78. Which of the following pathology terms is NOT paired with the correct meaning?

A. B. C. D.

Comedo: blackhead Cyst: fluid- or solid-containing pouch in or under the skin Pustule: small, pus-filled blister Fissure: surgical cut in the flesh

79. Which of the following pathology terms is NOT paired with the correct meaning?

A. Eczema: inflammatory skin disease with redness, itching, and blisters B. Scabies: contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite C. Impetigo: patchy loss of skin pigmentation D. Tinea: fungal skin disease occurring on various parts of the body 80. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. adip/o: acne B. cutane/o: cell C. necr/o: dead D. myc/o: macule 81. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. seb/o: sweat B. son/o: shape C. cyan/o: cause D. xanth/o: yellow 82. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. dermat/o: dead B. cyt/o: cell C. idi/o: cause D. leuk/o: large 83. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. xer/o: white B. albin/o: hardening C. chromat/o: cornea D. erythr/o: red 84. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. hidr/o: water B. morph/o: malignant C. onych/o: nail D. rhytid/o: hair 85. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. SCC: subcutaneous B. Bx: treatment C. ID: incision and drainage D. ung: ointment 86. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. cirrh/o: blue B. xer/o: dry C. melan/o: malignant D. trich/o: treatment

87. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. PE: probable etiology B. Sx: treatment C. FH: hair fungus D. MM: malignant melanoma 88. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. lip/o: skin B. eti/o: unknown C. hydr/o: sweat D. pil/o: hair 89. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. kerat/o: cyst B. dermat/o: skin C. path/o: papule D. scler/o: scales 90. Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of nail softening?

A. Cyanoderma B. Onychomycosis C. Hyperhidrosis D. None of these 91. The term rhytidoplasty means: A. Examination of the nasal passages B. Abnormal condition of excessive wrinkles C. Plastic surgery of the nose D. Elimination of wrinkles by plastic surgery 92. A patient is most likely to visit a dermatologist to undergo dermaplaning for which of the following disorders?

A. Acne B. Alopecia areata C. Carbuncle D. Cyst 93. Which of the following is a malignant condition?

A. Actinic keratosis B. Bulla C. Folliculitis D. Basal cell carcinoma 94. Which of the following is the result of accidental injury?

A. Callus B. Melasma C. Paronychia D. Abrasion 95. Which of the following is done to aid in diagnosis?

A. Microdermabrasion B. Botox C. Biopsy

D. None of these Matching Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Application of a chemical solution to the skin to remove blemishes B. Removal of a tissue sample for microscopic examination C. Use of short pulses of light to even out areas of uneven pigmentation 96. Biopsy 97. Chemical peel 98. Laser resurfacing Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Condition of whiteness B. Surgical removal of wrinkles C. Yellow skin D. Black tumor E. Abnormal condition of blueness 99. Xanthoderma 100. Albinism 101. Melanoma 102. Cyanosis 103. Rhytidectomy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Study of causes B. White flow or discharge C. Pertaining to redness D. Red (blood) cell E. Study of shapes 104. Erythematous 105. Erythrocyte 106. Leukorrhea 107. Morphology 108. Etiology Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Specialist in the study of disease B. Pertaining to color C. Dry skin D. Flow of sebum

E. Resembling fat 109. Pathologist 110. Adipoid 111. Chromatic 112. Xeroderma 113. Seborrhea Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Abnormal condition of hardening B. Tumor of fat C. Pertaining to absence of hair D. Water therapy E. Disease of the hair 114. Hydrotherapy 115. Sclerosis 116. Trichopathy 117. Apilous 118. Lipoma Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to the skin B. Specialist in the study of the skin C. Study of cells D. Incision into the cornea E. Surgical repair of the skin 119. Dermoplasty 120. Cytology 121. Cutaneous 122. Keratotomy 123. Dermatologist Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Abnormal condition of fungus B. Abnormal condition of dead (tissue) C. Softening of the nail D. Abnormal condition of yellowness E. Abnormal condition of sweat 124. Necrosis 125. Cirrhosis

126. Onychomalacia 127. Mycosis 128. Hidrosis Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Epidermis B. Skin C. Melanin D. Basement membrane E. Laceration F. Reflex G. Dermis H. Abrasion I. Hair shaft J. Subcutaneous layer K. Edema L. Hair follicle M. Sudoriferous glands N. Erythema O. Nailbed P. Sebaceous glands Q. Leukocytes R. Lunula S. Sebum T. Melanocytes 129. Area where skin has been scraped away 130. Sweat glands 131. Largest organ of the body with major functions of protection and temperature regulation 132. White blood cells 133. Pigment that gives skin its color 134. Part of the hair that you can see which functions to filter dust and debris from the air 135. Layer of skin that contains hair follicles, nerves, sweat glands, and sensory receptors 136. Redness 137. Action, or response, that happens so quickly that you do not have time to think about it 138. Layer of skin that contains fat and provides insulation for deeper structures 139. Nails slide slowly over this layer of epithelial tissue as they grow 140. Place where new, living epidermal cells are produced 141. Half-moon area at the base of the nail where new growth occurs 142. Substance secreted by oil glands 143. Swelling

144. Part of the hair that is buried in the skin 145. Thin, outer layer of the skin 146. Pigment-producing skin cells 147. Glands found at the base of hair follicles all over the body 148. Cut or tear in the flesh Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 04-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 149. IV 150. C&S 151. I&D 152. ung 153. STM 154. BCC 155. decub 156. Sx 157. ID 158. FH 159. SCC 160. OTC 161. bx 162. SubQ 163. MHP NARRBEGIN: 04-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms

NARREND 164. Cyanoderma 165. Sclerotic 166. Hyperkeratosis 167. Leukocytopenia 168. Hypodermic 169. Erythrocyte 170. Dermatology 171. Melanocyte 172. Trichomycosis 173. Hypertrophy 174. xeroderma 175. Xanthoma 176. Lipolysis 177. Adiposis 178. Onychoma NARRBEGIN: 04-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 179. Cyanoderma 180. Sclerotic 181. Hyperkeratosis 182. Leukocytopenia 183. Hypodermic 184. Erythrocyte 185. Dermatology

186. melanocyte 187. Trichomycosis 188. Hypertrophy 189. Xeroderma 190. Xanthoma 191. Lipolysis 192. Adiposis 193. Onychoma NARRBEGIN: 04-04 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 194. Hidrotic 195. Morphogenesis 196. Hydrous 197. Mycoid 198. Cirrhotic 199. Chromatogram 200. Leukorrhea 201. sonography 202. Rhytidoplasty 203. Cutaneous NARRBEGIN: 04-05 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 204. Hidrotic 205. Morphogenesis

206. Hydrous 207. Mycoid 208. Cirrhotic 209. Chromatogram 210. Leukorrhea 211. Sonography 212. Rhytidoplasty 213. Cutaneous

Chapter 4: Integumentary System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 96. ANS: B 97. ANS: A 98. ANS: C

PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

124. ANS: B 125. ANS: D

PTS: 1 PTS: 1

126. ANS: C 127. ANS: A 128. ANS: E

PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

148.

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

ANS: H ANS: M ANS: B ANS: Q ANS: C ANS: I ANS: G ANS: N ANS: F ANS: J ANS: O ANS: D ANS: R ANS: S ANS: K ANS: L ANS: A ANS: T ANS: P ANS: E

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 149. ANS: Intravenous PTS: 1 150. ANS: Culture and sensitivity PTS: 1 151. ANS: Incision and drainage PTS: 1 152. ANS: Ointment PTS: 1 153. ANS: Soft tissue mobilization (massage) Soft tissue mobilization Soft tissue massage PTS: 1 154. ANS: Basal cell carcinoma PTS: 1

155. ANS: Decubitus ulcer PTS: 1 156. ANS: Symptom(s) Symptom Symptoms PTS: 1 157. ANS: Intradermal (injection) Intradermal PTS: 1 158. ANS: Family history PTS: 1 159. ANS: Squamous cell carcinoma PTS: 1 160. ANS: Over-the-counter PTS: 1 161. ANS: Biopsy PTS: 1 162. ANS: Subcutaneous PTS: 1 163. ANS: Moist hot pack PTS: 1 164. ANS: Skin PTS: 1 165. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 166. ANS: Abnormal condition PTS: 1 167. ANS: Deficiency PTS: 1 168. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 169. ANS: Cell

PTS: 1 170. ANS: Study of PTS: 1 171. ANS: Cell PTS: 1 172. ANS: Abnormal condition PTS: 1 173. ANS: Nourishment growth PTS: 1 174. ANS: Skin PTS: 1 175. ANS: Tumor PTS: 1 176. ANS: destruction PTS: 1 177. ANS: Abnormal condition PTS: 1 178. ANS: Tumor PTS: 1 179. ANS: Blue PTS: 1 180. ANS: Hardening, sclera PTS: 1 181. ANS: Keratinized tissue, cornea PTS: 1 182. ANS: White and cell PTS: 1 183. ANS: Skin PTS: 1 184. ANS: Red PTS: 1 185. ANS: Skin

PTS: 1 186. ANS: black PTS: 1 187. ANS: Hair and fungus PTS: 1 188. ANS: No combining form; prefix and suffix only PTS: 1 189. ANS: Dry PTS: 1 190. ANS: Yellow PTS: 1 191. ANS: Fat PTS: 1 192. ANS: Fat PTS: 1 193. ANS: Nail PTS: 1 194. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 195. ANS: Creating, producing PTS: 1 196. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 197. ANS: Resembling PTS: 1 198. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 199. ANS: Record PTS: 1 200. ANS: Flow, discharge PTS: 1 201. ANS: process of recording

PTS: 1 202. ANS: Surgical repair PTS: 1 203. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 204. ANS: Sweat PTS: 1 205. ANS: Shape PTS: 1 206. ANS: Water PTS: 1 207. ANS: Fungus PTS: 1 208. ANS: Yellow PTS: 1 209. ANS: Color PTS: 1 210. ANS: White PTS: 1 211. ANS: Sound PTS: 1 212. ANS: Wrinkle PTS: 1 213. ANS: Skin PTS: 1

Chapter 5: Nervous System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following terms means traumatic bruising, crushing, or tearing of the spinal cord?

A. Spinal stenosis B. Subdural hematoma C. Spinal cord injury D. Transient ischemic attack 2. The term dysphasia means: A. Painful or difficult speech B. Painful or difficult swallowing C. Absence of speech D. Absence of swallowing 3. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. ALS: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. CNS: central nervous system C. CSF: central spinal fusion D. CT: computed tomography 4. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. CVA: cerebrovascular accident B. EEG: electroencephalography C. EMG: electromyogram D. LP: leg pain 5. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. MRI: magnetic resonance imaging B. MS: muscle spasms C. PNS: peripheral nervous system D. CT: computed tomography 6. The correct definition of epilepsy is: A. Brain disorder characterized by recurrent seizures B. A form of chronic, progressive dementia caused by atrophy of brain tissue C. Hereditary nervous disorder that leads to bizarre, involuntary movements and dementia D. Temporary strokelike symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood supply to a part of the brain 7. The correct definition of cerebrovascular accident is: A. A form of chronic, progressive dementia caused by atrophy of brain tissue B. Damage to or death of brain tissue caused by interruption of blood supply due to a clot or vessel rupture C. A form of facial paralysis affecting one or both sides of the face, which is usually temporary D. Temporary strokelike symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood supply to a part of the brain 8. The correct definition of transient ischemic attack is:

A. Temporary strokelike symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood supply to a part of the brain B. Damage to or death of brain tissue caused by interruption of blood supply due to a clot or vessel rupture; also known as stroke, apoplexy, or brain attack C. Occurrence of painful herpetic vesicles, usually on the trunk of the body along a peripheral nerve, caused by the herpes zoster virus D. Inflammation of the spinal cord by a virus, which may result in spinal and muscle deformity and paralysis 9. The correct definition of sciatica is: A. A form of facial paralysis, usually temporary, affecting one or both sides of the face B. Severe pain that radiates along the path of the sciatic nerve from the lower back C. Occurrence of painful herpetic vesicles, usually on the trunk of the body along a peripheral nerve, caused by the herpes zoster virus D. Inflammation of the spinal cord by a virus, which may result in spinal and muscle deformity and paralysis 10. The correct definition of shingles is: A. Incomplete closure of the spinal canal, which may result in protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges at birth and may cause paralysis B. Partial or complete loss of motor function resulting in paralysis C. Hereditary nervous disorder that leads to bizarre, involuntary movements and dementia D. Occurrence of painful herpetic vesicles, usually on the upper body along a peripheral nerve, caused by the herpes zoster virus 11. Which of the following terms means a progressive, degenerative disorder that results in tremors, gait changes, and occasionally dementia?

A. Palsy B. Spina bifida C. Parkinson’s disease D. Shingles 12. Which of the following terms means study of the brain and spinal cord using radiology and computer analysis?

A. Computed tomography B. Electrocerebrogram C. Electromyelography D. Magnetic resonance imaging 13. Which of the following terms means gluelike tumor?

A. Encephaloma B. Neuroma C. Glioma D. Meningioma 14. Which of the following terms means incomplete closure of the spinal canal, which may result in protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges at birth and may cause paralysis?

A. Spina bifida B. Epilepsy C. Shingles D. Huntington’s chorea 15. All of the following abbreviations indicate diagnostic procedures EXCEPT:

A. B. C. D.

CT EEG EMG PNS

16. Which of the following terms means brain tumor, or tumor of a ganglion?

A. Cephaloma B. Encephaloma C. Ganglioma D. Meningioma 17. Which of the following terms means seizure of sleep or stupor?

A. Narcolepsy B. Tonic C. Glial D. Neuralgia 18. The term radiculitis indicates inflammation of the: A. Ganglion B. Brain C. Thalamus D. Nerve root 19. Which of the following terms means a form of facial paralysis, usually temporary, affecting one or both sides of the face?

A. Huntington’s disease B. Bell’s palsy C. Shingles D. Sciatica 20. Which of the following terms means a form of chronic, progressive dementia caused by atrophy of brain tissue?

A. Spina bifida B. Bell’s palsy C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Shingles 21. Which of the following terms means hereditary nervous disorder that leads to bizarre, involuntary movements and dementia?

A. Spina bifida B. Bell’s palsy C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Huntington’s disease 22. Which of the following terms means a progressive, degenerative disorder affecting the part of the brain controlling movement, which results in tremors, gait changes, and, in some cases, dementia?

A. Parkinson’s disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Palsy D. Alzheimer’s disease 23. A patient with Bell’s palsy may be described as having which of the following facial symptoms?

A. Paraplegia

B. Quadriplegia C. Hemiplegia D. Multiplegia 24. A cerebrovascular accident is caused by which of the following?

A. Blood clot or vessel rupture B. Central neuropathy C. Brain cell hyperplasia D. Encephalomalacia 25. A patient who suffers continuing pain long after the shingles have healed might be said to have postherpetic: A. Spinal stenosis B. Meningitis C. Neuralgia D. Myelopathy 26. An infant born with spina bifida may be described as having: A. Shingles B. Meningomyelocele C. Spinoedema D. Neuroptosis 27. Meningitis is caused by: A. Infection, and inflammation of the meninges B. A fungus, and shrinkage of the meninges C. A virus, and bleeding of the meninges D. Bacteria, and collapsing of the meninges 28. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. cephal/o: brain B. gangli/o: glue or gluelike C. narc/o: nerve D. ton/o: tension 29. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. thalam/o: strength B. myel/o: meninges C. phas/o: speech D. cerebr/o: cranium 30. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. lex/o: word, phrase B. radicul/o: reflex C. mening/o: brain D. ventricul/o: vertebrae 31. Which disorder is caused by lesions or abnormalities of the brain arising in the early stages of development?

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) B. Bell’s palsy C. Huntington’s disease D. Cerebral palsy 32. Which of the following causes progressive confusion?

A. B. C. D.

Delirium Dementia Transient ischemic attack (TIA) Cerebral concussion

33. Which of the following causes an acute form of progressive paralysis?

A. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) B. Bell’s palsy C. Huntington’s disease D. Spinal stenosis 34. A chronic, progressive, degenerative neuromuscular disorder that destroys motor neurons of the body is called: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) B. Multiple sclerosis (MS) C. Parkinson’s disease D. Spina bifida 35. Which of the following causes sudden, temporary memory loss?

A. MS B. TIA C. TGA D. OCD 36. Delirium is: A. An acute, reversible state of agitated confusion marked by disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions B. A mood disorder marked by loss of interest or pleasure in living C. A progressive neurological disorder that causes irreversible decline in cognition due to disease or brain damage D. None of these 37. A collection of blood between the dura and the arachnoid is known as: A. Cerebral concussion B. Subdural hematoma C. Cerebral contusion D. Spina bifida 38. The term aphasia means: A. Painful or difficult speech B. Painful or difficult swallowing C. Absence of speech D. Absence of swallowing 39. The term quadriplegic means: A. A condition of paralysis of four (extremities) B. Paralysis of two (legs) C. Pertaining to paralysis of four (extremities) D. A condition of paralysis of two (legs) 40. The term cephalalgia means: A. Pain of the nerve B. Pain of the head

C. Absence of pain D. Absence of swelling 41. The term neuropathy means: A. Nerve inflammation B. Nerve pain C. Disease of the nerve D. Pain of the spinal cord 42. A serious disease associated with aspirin use by children with viral illnesses is called: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Tetanus C. Reye’s syndrome D. Cerebral palsy 43. Which of the following abbreviations refers to a diagnostic procedure?

A. CVA B. ICP C. LP D. LOC 44. A term that indicates a condition of absence of muscle strength is: A. Myasthenia B. Myalgia C. Myosclerosis D. Myotome 45. A term that indicates herniation of the brain is: A. Cerebroma B. Encephalotome C. Cephalodynia D. Encephalocele 46. A term that indicates inflammation of the meninges is: A. Cerebromeningitis B. Neuroencephalitis C. Cerebellitis D. Meningitis 47. Which of the following terms means tumor of a nerve cell?

A. Narcolepsy B. Thalamotomy C. Neurocytoma D. Aphasia 48. Which combining form means speech?

A. phas/o B. lex/o C. sthen/o D. spin/o 49. The term meaning a collection of blood between the dura and the arachnoid layer (middle or second layer of the meninges) is:

A. B. C. D.

Epidural hematoma Spinal cord injury Subdural hematoma Meningitis

50. Which of the following is a progressive neurological disorder, with numerous causes, in which an individual suffers an irreversible decline in cognition due to disease or brain damage; sometimes called senility?

A. Delirium B. Dementia C. Depression D. Transient global amnesia 51. The term meaning a familial disorder marked by episodes of severe throbbing pain that is commonly unilateral and sometimes disabling is: A. Epilepsy B. Cerebral concussion C. Sciatica D. Migraine headache 52. Which of the following is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neuromuscular disorder that destroys motor neurons of the body; also called Lou Gehrig’s disease?

A. Guillian-Barré syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Huntington’s disease D. Multiple sclerosis 53. Which of the following is a term meaning dysfunction of nerves that transmit information to and from the brain and spinal cord, characterized by pain, altered sensation, and muscle weakness?

A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Cerebral palsy C. Poliomyelitis D. Sciatica 54. Which of the following is a term meaning narrowing of an area of the spine that puts pressure on the spinal cord and spinal nerve roots?

A. Spinal stenosis B. Shingles C. Spinal cord injury D. Trigeminal neuralgia 55. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. cephal/o: brain B. gangli/o: glue, gluelike C. narc/o: nerve D. ton/o: tension 56. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. thalam/o: strength B. myel/o: meninges C. phas/o: speech D. cerebr/o: cranium 57. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. B. C. D.

lex/o: word, phrase radicul/o: reflex mening/o: brain ventricul/o: vertebrae

58. Which of the following terms means pertaining to a seizure (episode) of sleep or stupor?

A. narcoleptic B. tonic C. glial D. neuralgia 59. Which of the following terms means bad, painful, or difficult speech?

A. Dysphagia B. Aphasia C. Dysphasia D. Dysphonia 60. A term that indicates a condition of muscle weakness is: A. Myasthenia B. Myalgia C. Myosclerosis D. None of these 61. A term that indicates hardening of the brain is: A. Cerebroma B. Encephalotome C. Cephalodynia D. None of these 62. A term that indicates inflammation of the brain and meninges is: A. Cerebritis B. Neuroencephalitis C. Cerebellitis D. Encephalomeningitis 63. Mrs. Fritz was hospitalized with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). She is currently comatose and unresponsive. To determine whether she still has meaningful brain activity, the physician will most likely order: A. EMG B. LP C. CFS D. EEG 64. Ms. Yee suffered a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Because of this, she currently has diminished sensation and movement only on the right side of her body. Ms. Yee is experiencing: A. Quadriplegia B. Aphasia C. Hemiplegia D. Quadriparalysis 65. Mr. Stutzman is recovering from a stroke but still has difficulty speaking. The proper term for this is: A. Dysphasia B. Dysphagia

C. Dysphonia D. Aphagia 66. Mrs. Villanueva is recovering from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) but is still struggling with swallowing.

The proper term for this is: A. Dysphasia B. Dysphoria C. Euphagia D. Dysphagia 67. Mr. Washington was brought to the emergency department with a high fever, confusion, and a headache. The physician wants to obtain a specimen of cerebrospinal fluid to study it for the presence of blood, bacteria, or other abnormalities. What procedure is the physician most likely to perform?

A. MRI B. LP C. EMG D. CT Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 05-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 68. MRI 69. CNS 70. TBI 71. TIA 72. SCI 73. MVA 74. CP 75. ANS 76. LP 77. CSF 78. ALS 79. CVA

80. OCD 81. CT 82. EEG NARRBEGIN: 05-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 83. Cerebrospinal 84. Neuropathy 85. Myeloma 86. Meningitis 87. Encephalography 88. Gliocyte 89. Cerebrosclerosis 90. Hemiplegia 91. Paraplegic 92. Quadriparesis NARRBEGIN: 05-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 93. Cerebrospinal 94. Neuropathy 95. Myeloma 96. Meningitis 97. Encephalography 98. Gliocyte 99. Cerebrosclerosis 100. Hemiplegia

101. Paraplegic 102. Quadriparesis NARRBEGIN: 05-04 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 103. Myelomeningocele 104. Myelosclerosis 105. Cerebrospinal 106. Myasthenic 107. Cerebroventricular 108. Narcosis 109. Thalamotomy 110. Myelogram 111. Neurotomy 112. Gliocytic NARRBEGIN: 05-05 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 113. Myelomeningocele 114. Myelosclerosis 115. Cerebrospinal 116. Myasthenic 117. Cerebroventricular 118. Narcosis 119. Thalamotomy 120. Myelogram

121. Neurotomy 122. Gliocytic Matching Match each diagnostic abbreviation with the correct definition.

A. Collected from the area around the spinal cord, analyzed for blood, bacteria, or other abnormalities B. Study of brain and spinal cord using radiology and computer analysis C. Records electrical activity of the brain D. Record of muscle activity as a result of electrical stimulation E. Puncture of subarachnoid layer at fourth intervertebral space to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis F. Uses an electromagnetic field and radio waves to create visual images on a computer screen 123. LP 124. MRI 125. CSF 126. CT 127. EEG 128. EMG Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Homeostasis B. Glia C. Sensory nerves D. Corpus callosum E. Motor nerves F. Cell body G. Dermatomes H. Brainstem I. Myelin sheath J. Spinal cord K. Central nervous L. Sympathetic nervous system M. Peripheral nervous system N. Sensory impulses 129. A special protective layer on the axon 130. Support cells that carry nutrients to neurons 131. The essential pathway that conducts impulses between the brain and spinal cord 132. Areas of skin associated with specific spinal nerve roots 133. The state of dynamic equilibrium in the internal environment of the body

134. The system responsible for the physical changes of the fight-or-flight response 135. The pathway for sensory impulses going to the brain and motor impulses coming from the brain 136. Divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres 137. The system that includes nerves in the arms and legs 138. Houses all of the microscopic structures that keep the cell energized and functioning 139. Information from the rest of the body that travels to the brain 140. Nerves that control body movement 141. The brain and the spinal cord 142. Gather information from the skin, muscles, and joints Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Neuron B. Dendrites C. Myotomes D. Axon E. Cranium F. Referred pain G. Autonomic nervous system H. Motor impulses I. Parasympathetic nervous system J. Meninges K. Cortex L. Cerebrum M. Cerebellum 143. Deep folds and shallow grooves on the surface of the cerebrum which increase its surface area 144. The system that dominates during nonstressful times 145. The hard bones of the skull 146. A nerve cell 147. The system that controls involuntary functions 148. Receives information and brings it to the cell body 149. Pain that is felt at an area of the body away from the actual injury site 150. Groups of muscles associated with specific spinal nerve roots 151. The largest portion of the brain 152. Information from the brain that travels to the rest of the body 153. Three membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord 154. Sends electrical impulses and transmits signals to other cells 155. Responsible for posture, balance, and coordination

Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pain of the head B. Tumor of the meninges C. Cutting into or incision of the thalamus D. Gluelike tumor E. Pertaining to the brain and vessels 156. Cerebrovascular 157. Meningioma 158. Glioma 159. Cephalgia 160. Thalamotomy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Inflammation of the meninges B. Visual examination of a ventricle C. Inflammation of the cerebellum D. Process of recording the spinal cord or bone marrow E. Tumor of a nerve cell 161. Meningitis 162. Neurocytoma 163. Myelography 164. Cerebellitis 165. Ventriculoscopy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Measuring instrument for tension B. Bad, painful, or difficult words or phrases C. Tumor of a ganglion D. Seizure of sleep or stupor E. Disease of a nerve root 166. Dyslexia 167. Ganglioma 168. Tonometer 169. Narcolepsy 170. Radiculopathy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Condition of absence of muscle strength B. Hernia of the brain C. Absence of speech

D. Abnormal condition of narrowing or stricture of the spinal cord E. Field of medicine of the mind 171. Psychiatry 172. Spinal stenosis 173. Aphasia 174. Encephalocele 175. Myasthenia Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Much nerve inflammation B. Pertaining to positioned beneath the spine C. Herniation of the spinal cord and meninges D. Inflammation of the brain and meninges E. Pertaining to near the spine 176. Infraspinal, infraspinous 177. Paraspinal, paraspinous 178. Polyneuritis 179. Myelomeningocele 180. Encephalomeningitis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Tumor of nerve glue B. Pertaining to the same electricity C. Partial paralysis of half (the body) D. Paralysis of four (extremities) E. Paralysis of two (extremities) 181. Paraplegia 182. Quadriplegia 183. Hemiparesis 184. Isoelectric 185. Glioma

Chapter 5: Nervous System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 68. ANS: Magnetic resonance imaging PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 69. ANS: Central nervous system PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 70. ANS: traumatic brain injury PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 71. ANS: Transient ischemic attack PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 72. ANS: Spinal cord injury PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 73. ANS: Motor vehicle accident

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 74. ANS: Cerebral palsy PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 75. ANS: Autonomic nervous system PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 76. ANS: Lumbar puncture PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 77. ANS: Cerebrospinal fluid PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 78. ANS: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 79. ANS: Cerebrovascular accident PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 80. ANS: Obsessive-compulsive disorder PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 81. ANS: Computed tomography PTS: 1 NAR: 05-01 82. ANS: Electroencephalography PTS: 1 83. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 05-01

PTS: 1 84. ANS: Disease

NAR: 05-02

PTS: 1 85. ANS: Tumor

NAR: 05-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-02 86. ANS: Inflammation PTS: 1 NAR: 05-02 87. ANS: Process of recording PTS: 1 88. ANS: Cell

NAR: 05-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-02 89. ANS: Abnormal condition of hardening PTS: 1

NAR: 05-02

90. ANS: Paralysis PTS: 1 NAR: 05-02 91. ANS: Pertaining to paralysis PTS: 1 NAR: 05-02 92. ANS: Slight or partial paralysis PTS: 1 NAR: 05-02 93. ANS: Brain and spine PTS: 1 94. ANS: Nerve

NAR: 05-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-03 95. ANS: Spinal cord or bone marrow PTS: 1 96. ANS: Meninges

NAR: 05-03

PTS: 1 97. ANS: Brain

NAR: 05-03

PTS: 1 98. ANS: glue

NAR: 05-03

PTS: 1 99. ANS: Brain

NAR: 05-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-03 100. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 NAR: 05-03 101. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 NAR: 05-03 102. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 103. ANS: Hernia

NAR: 05-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-04 104. ANS: Abnormal condition of hardening PTS: 1 NAR: 05-04 105. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 NAR: 05-04 106. ANS: Pertaining to

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-04 107. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 NAR: 05-04 108. ANS: Abnormal condition PTS: 1 NAR: 05-04 109. ANS: Cutting into or incision PTS: 1 110. ANS: Record

NAR: 05-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-04 111. ANS: Cutting into or incision PTS: 1 112. ANS: Cell

NAR: 05-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-04 113. ANS: Spinal cord or bone marrow, meninges PTS: 1 NAR: 05-05 114. ANS: Spinal cord or bone marrow PTS: 1 NAR: 05-05 115. ANS: Brain and spine PTS: 1 NAR: 05-05 116. ANS: Muscle, strength PTS: 1 NAR: 05-05 117. ANS: Brain, ventricle PTS: 1 NAR: 05-05 118. ANS: Sleep or stupor PTS: 1 119. ANS: Thalamus

NAR: 05-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-05 120. ANS: Spinal cord or bone marrow PTS: 1 121. ANS: Nerve

NAR: 05-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 05-05 122. ANS: Glue or gluelike

PTS: 1

NAR: 05-05

MATCHING 123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

ANS: E ANS: F ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

ANS: I ANS: B ANS: H ANS: G ANS: A ANS: L ANS: J ANS: D ANS: M ANS: F ANS: N ANS: E ANS: K ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

148.

149.

150.

151.

152.

153.

154.

155.

ANS: K ANS: I ANS: E ANS: A ANS: G ANS: B ANS: F ANS: C ANS: L ANS: H ANS: J ANS: D ANS: M

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

161. ANS: A

PTS: 1

162.

163.

164.

165.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

171.

172.

173.

174.

175.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

181.

182.

183.

184.

185.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) most likely has which of the following symptoms?

A. Diarrhea B. Menorrhagia C. Dyspnea D. Euphagia 2. Which of the following is most likely to cause a stroke (by occlusion) or a heart attack (infarction)?

A. Bruit B. Varicose veins C. Embolus D. Mononucleosis 3. Which of the following abbreviations represents a test or procedure?

A. MRI B. INR C. bpm D. MVP 4. Which of the following abbreviations means heart attack?

A. HF B. LA C. RA D. MI 5. Which of the following abbreviations represents a type of heart disease?

A. DVT B. ASHD C. PT D. PVC 6. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Anemia: reduction in the mass of circulating red blood cells (RBCs) B. Bruit: soft blowing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in a vessel C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation: serious condition in which widespread, microvascular blood clotting occurs while the patient has symptoms of hemorrhage D. Raynaud’s disease: a chronic disorder marked by increased numbers and mass of all bone marrow cells, especially RBCs, with increased blood viscosity and the tendency to develop blood clots 7. Which of the following terms means rupture of a vein?

A. Venotomy B. Arteriectomy C. Phleborrhexis D. Phlebocentesis 8. Which of the following terms means mouthlike opening into a ventricle?

A. Ventriculostomy

B. Ventricular C. Venoplasty D. Ventrilithiasis 9. Which of the following terms means surgical fixation of an artery?

A. Atriokinesis B. Aortorrhea C. Arteriopexy D. Vasorrhexis 10. The term electrocardiography means: A. Recording of the heart B. Electrical movement of the heart C. Record of heart activity D. Process of recording electricity of the heart 11. Atherosclerosis would most likely lead to which of the following problems?

A. Lymphosarcoma B. Human immunodeficiency virus infection C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Coronary artery disease 12. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. angi/o: thick, fatty B. hem/o: heart C. arteri/o: aorta D. phleb/o: vein 13. Which of the following terms is matched to the correct definition?

A. atri/o: atria B. vascul/o: valve C. hem/o: thrombus D. ventricul/o: blood vessel 14. All of the following are matched correctly EXCEPT: A. aort/o: aorta B. cardi/o: heart C. hemat/o: blood D. vas/o: vascular 15. The term atrial means: A. Pertaining to the vessel B. Pertaining to the atria C. Pertaining to the aorta D. Pertaining to the artery 16. The term bradycardia means: A. A condition of a slow heart (beat) B. A condition of a rapid heart (beat) C. Swelling of a vessel D. Suturing of a vessel 17. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. B. C. D.

PTT: partial thromboplastin time EKG: electrocardiogram LV: left ventricle BP: bradypnea

18. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. CV: cardiovascular B. CABG: coronary artery bypass graft C. RA: respiratory arrest D. PVC: premature ventricular contraction 19. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. ASHD: arteriosclerotic heart disease B. CAD: coronary artery disease C. LA: lipid arteriogram D. PTCA: percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty 20. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. CHF: coronary heart fibrosis B. CPR: cardiopulmonary resuscitation C. MI: myocardial infarction D. RV: right ventricle 21. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. MI: muscle injury B. CP: chest pain C. CCU: coronary care unit D. CV: cardiovascular 22. The correct definition of murmur is: A. Blowing or swishing sound in the heart due to turbulent blood flow or backflow through a leaky valve B. Loss of a regular heart rhythm (irregular beat) C. Abnormal quivering of heart muscle fibers instead of an effective heartbeat D. Temporary reduction in blood supply to a localized area of tissue 23. The correct definition of embolus is: A. Abnormal quivering of heart muscle fibers instead of an effective heart beat B. Undissolved matter that floats in blood or lymph current until it occludes a small vessel, causing an infarct C. Death of brain cells due to loss of blood supply D. Abnormal blowing or swishing sound in the heart due to turbulent blood flow or backflow through a leaky valve 24. The correct definition of hypertension is: A. Blood pressure that is consistently higher than 140 mm Hg systolic, 90 mm Hg diastolic, or both B. Bulging, distended veins due to incompetent venous valves, usually in the legs C. Heart condition that results in lung congestion and dyspnea D. Temporary reduction in blood supply to a localized area of tissue 25. The correct definition of thromboangiitis obliterans is: A. Inflammation and clot formation within small vessels of the hands and feet

B. Loss of a regular heart rhythm (irregular beat) C. Death of brain cells due to loss of blood supply D. Death of heart muscle cells due to occlusion of a vessel 26. Which of the following terms means loss of a heart rhythm (irregularity)?

A. Bruit B. Murmur C. Embolus D. Arrhythmia 27. Which of the following terms means a condition in which the mitral valve fails to open properly?

A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral fibrillation C. Murmur D. Arrhythmia 28. Which of the following terms means abnormal quivering of heart muscle fibers instead of an effective heart beat?

A. Fibrillation B. Myocardial infarction C. Embolus D. Murmur 29. Which of the following terms means soft blowing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in a vessel?

A. Embolus B. Bruit C. Ischemia D. Deep vein thrombosis 30. Which of the following terms means bulging, distended veins due to incompetent venous valves, usually in the legs?

A. Varicose veins B. Lymphosarcoma C. Ischemia D. Hodgkin’s disease 31. Which of the following terms means heart condition that results in lung congestion and dyspnea?

A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Congestive heart failure C. Hodgkin’s disease D. Stroke 32. Which of the following abbreviations means development of a blood clot in a deep vein in the leg?

A. MI B. DVT C. CHF D. HTN 33. Which of the following abbreviations means death of heart muscle cells due to occlusion of a vessel?

A. MI B. DVT C. CHF D. HTN

34. A patient who has suffered a blood clot would most benefit from which of the following?

A. Thrombolysis B. Splenectomy C. Vasorrhaphy D. Venostasis 35. A patient who is suffering from a heart arrhythmia would most benefit from which of the following?

A. Electrocardiography B. Cardiectomy C. Arteriomalacia D. Lymphopexy 36. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Aneurysm: weakening and bulging of part of a vessel wall B. Angina: heart pain or other discomfort felt in the chest C. Cardiomyopathy: condition in which the heart becomes compressed from an excessive collection of fluid or blood between the pericardial membrane and the heart D. Endocarditis: an infection of the inner lining of the heart that may cause vegetations to form within one or more heart chambers or valves 37. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Embolus: undissolved matter floating in blood or lymph fluid B. Cor pulmonale: development of a blood clot in a deep vein, usually in the legs C. Arteriosclerosis: thickening, loss in elasticity, and loss in contractility of arterial walls; commonly called hardening of the arteries D. Ischemia: temporary reduction in blood supply to a localized area of tissue 38. Which of the following is a type of heart rhythm abnormality?

A. Cardiomyopathy B. Atrial fibrillation C. Murmur D. Thromboangiitis obliterans 39. Coronary artery disease includes which of the following components?

A. Murmur and bruit B. Atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis C. Heart failure and malignant hypertension D. Mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis 40. Which of the following is related to incompetent valves?

A. Hypertension B. Varicose veins C. Myocardial infarction D. Myocarditis 41. A surgeon performing a coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) will need to include which of the following?

A. An alternative route for blood flow B. A valve replacement C. Injection of dye D. Electrical restoration of heart rhythm

42. Dr. Emily Shu is studying a piece of paper with the patient’s heart rhythm strip on it. The paper she is studying is an: A. Electroencephaly B. Electrocardiogram C. Electrocardiograft D. Electrocardiogravida 43. The result of hypotension or low blood pressure that causes inadequate circulation is called: A. Thrombocytosis B. Shock C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Heart failure 44. Which of the following terms means bursting forth of blood?

A. Hemolysis B. Hemorrhage C. Hematoma D. Hematogenesis 45. An instrument used to cut the heart may be called a: A. Cardiotomy B. Cardiotome C. Cardiostomy D. Cardiectomy 46. The word ischemia means: A. Increase in blood supply to a localized area B. Decrease in blood supply to a localized area C. Increase in heart rate D. Decrease in heart rate 47. Radiography of the heart and blood vessels is called: A. coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) B. Angiography C. Arterioplasty D. Coronometry 48. The term meaning a blowing or swishing sound in the heart due to turbulent blood flow or backflow through a leaky valve is: A. Bruit B. Murmur C. Cardiac tamponade D. Mitral regurgitation 49. Which of the following is a condition in which the middle layer of the heart wall becomes inflamed?

A. Myocarditis B. Pericarditis C. Endocarditis D. Cardiomyopathy 50. The term meaning undissolved matter floating in blood or lymph fluid that may cause an occlusion and infarction is: A. Polycythemia vera

B. Thromboangiitis obliterans C. Embolus D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 51. Which of the following is a common irregular heart rhythm marked by uncontrolled atrial quivering and a rapid ventricular response?

A. Arrhythmia B. Fibrillation C. Shock D. Atrial fibrillation 52. The term meaning the inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the needs of the body, resulting in lung congestion and dyspnea is: A. Arteriosclerosis B. Ischemia C. Congestive heart failure D. Peripheral artery disease 53. Which of the following is a condition in which the mitral valve fails to open properly, thereby impeding normal blood flow and increasing pressure within the left atrium and lungs?

A. Mitral regurgitation B. Mitral stenosis C. Myocardial infarction D. Malignant hypertension 54. Which of the combining forms is matched with the correct definition?

A. angi/o: thick, fatty B. hem/o: heart C. arteri/o: aorta D. phleb/o: vein 55. Which of the combining forms is matched with the correct definition?

A. atri/o: atria B. vascul/o: valve C. hem/o: thrombus D. ventricul/o: blood vessel 56. All of the following combining forms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. aort/o: aorta B. cardi/o: heart C. hemat/o: blood D. vas/o: vascular 57. Which of the following abbreviations represents a test or procedure?

A. MRI B. INR C. bpm D. MVP 58. Which of the following abbreviations represents a type of heart disease?

A. DVT B. ASHD C. PT

D. PVC 59. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Anemia: reduction in the mass of circulating red blood cells (RBCs) B. Bruit: soft blowing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in a vessel C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation: serious condition in which widespread, microvascular blood clotting occurs while the patient has symptoms of hemorrhaging D. Raynaud’s disease: a chronic disorder marked by increased number and mass of all bone marrow cells, especially RBCs, with increased blood viscosity and a tendency to develop blood clots 60. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Aneurysm: weakening and bulging of part of a vessel wall B. Angina: heart pain or other discomfort felt in the chest C. Cardiomyopathy: condition in which the heart becomes compressed from an excessive collection of fluid or blood between the pericardial membrane and the heart D. Endocarditis: infection of the inner lining of the heart that may cause vegetation to form within one or more heart chambers or valves 61. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Embolus: undissolved matter floating in blood or lymph fluid B. Cor pulmonale: development of a blood clot in a deep vein, usually in the legs C. Arteriosclerosis: thickening, loss of elasticity, and loss of contractility of arterial walls; commonly called hardening of the arteries D. Ischemia: temporary reduction in blood supply to a localized area of tissue 62. Which of the following is a type of heart rhythm abnormality?

A. Cardiomyopathy B. Atrial fibrillation C. Murmur D. Thromboangiitis obliterans 63. Coronary artery disease includes which of the following components?

A. Murmur and bruit B. Atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis C. Heart failure and malignant hypertension D. Mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis 64. Which of the following is related to incompetent valves?

A. Hypertension B. Varicose veins C. Myocardial infarction D. Myocarditis 65. A surgeon performing coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) will need to include which of the following?

A. Angiorrhaphy B. Aortomalacia C. Valvuloplasty D. Hematemesis 66. Dr. Emily Shu is studying a piece of paper with the patient’s heart rhythm strip on it. The paper she is studying is an: A. Electrodiagnosis

B. Electrocardiogram C. Electrocardiograph D. Electrocardiophonography 67. The process of dissolving or destroying a blood clot is called: A. Thrombocytosis B. Thrombosclerosis C. Thrombolytic D. Thrombolysis 68. A term that indicates narrowing of a vein is: A. Phlebosclerosis B. Phleborrhexis C. Phleborrhagia D. Phlebostenosis 69. Which of the following terms means bursting forth of blood?

A. Hemolysis B. Hemorrhage C. Hematoma D. Hematogenesis 70. If an aortic aneurysm is not repaired, the following may occur: A. Aortomalacia B. Aortoclasia C. Aortocoronary D. Aortostenosis 71. A test to examine heart vessels is: A. CABG B. Angiography C. Arterioplasty D. CAD 72. Which of the following disorders does NOT involve an interference in blood flow?

A. Ischemia B. Myocardial infarction C. Mitral stenosis D. Arrhythmia 73. Which of the following does NOT involve the heart rhythm?

A. V-tach B. PAC C. V-fib D. TIA 74. Which of the following abbreviations stands for the name of a chamber of the heart?

A. BP B. EKG C. RA D. PCP 75. All of the following refer to a part of the heart EXCEPT:

A. B. C. D.

RA RV MI LV

76. Which of the following may cause temporary strokelike symptoms?

A. CHF B. TIA C. LA D. CPR Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 06-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 77. CABG 78. BP 79. CPR 80. MI 81. RBC 82. CAD 83. P 84. HTN 85. ASHD 86. ECHO 87. bpm 88. ECG 89. PVC 90. CHF 91. HR NAR: 06-01

NARRBEGIN: 06-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 92. Microcardia 93. Venule 94. Hemogram 95. Angiography 96. Aortoplasty 97. Arteriole 98. Atherocyte 99. Atriodynia 100. Electrocardiogram 101. Hematuria 102. Valvular 103. Phlebitis 104. Venostasis 105. Vasculopathy 106. Thrombolysis NARRBEGIN: 06-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 107. Microcardia 108. Venule 109. Hemogram 110. Angiography 111. Aortoplasty

112. Arteriole 113. Atherocyte 114. Atriodynia 115. Electrocardiogram 116. Hematuria 117. Valvular 118. Phlebitis 119. Venostasis 120. Vasculopathy 121. Thrombolysis NARRBEGIN: 06-04 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 122. Macrocardia 123. Ventriculoscopy 124. Vasotonic 125. Vasodilation 126. Cardiomyopathy 127. Phleborrhaphy 128. Thrombolysis 129. Hematologist 130. Arteriorrhexis 131. Vasoconstriction NARRBEGIN: 06-05 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 132. Macrocardia

133. Ventriculoscopy 134. Vasotonic 135. Vasodilation 136. Cardiomyopathy 137. Phleborrhaphy 138. Thrombolysis 139. Hematologist 140. Arteriorrhexis 141. Vasoconstriction Matching Match each diagnostic procedure or abbreviation with the correct definition.

A. Measures the time required for blood clot formation; used to determine therapeutic level of heparin B. Dye is injected through a catheter inserted into the heart via a large vein; allows evaluation of heart function (vessels and valves) C. A study of the heart using a probe that is passed through the mouth and into the esophagus D. Most accurate blood test to confirm diagnosis of a myocardial infarction (MI) E. Device that can trigger the mechanical contractions of the heart by emitting periodic electrical discharges F. Portable patient device that records heart rhythm 142. Troponin 143. Cardiac catheterization 144. TEE 145. PTT 146. Holter monitor 147. Pacemaker Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Capillaries B. Cholesterol C. Cardiac cycle D. Mediastinum E. Venae cavae F. Venules

G. Pericardial fluid H. Pericardium I. Auscultating J. Myocardium K. Arteries L. Ventricles M. Bicuspid N. Arterioles O. Sinoatrial node 148. The fibrous membrane that encloses the heart 149. The valve which exits the left atrium into the left ventricle 150. Tiny veins 151. The area slightly left of the center of the chest 152. Blood returns from the body to the right atrium through these inferior and superior structures.

153. The contraction and relaxation of the four heart chambers 154. A lubricant that reduces friction as the heart contracts and relaxes 155. Blood enters these after leaving the arterioles. Their walls are just one cell thick.

156. The natural pacemaker for the heart 157. The middle, muscular layer of the heart 158. A fatty, plaquelike substance that can narrow or block coronary vessels 159. The two lower chambers of the heart 160. They transport oxygen-rich blood to various parts of the body 161. Tiny arteries 162. The term that means “listening to” Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Occluded B. Epicardium C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve E. Endocardium F. Apex G. Apical pulse H. Atrioventricular node I. Atria J. Pulmonary arteries K. Systole L. Septum M. Pulmonary veins N. Diastole O. Tricuspid valve

P. Pulse points 163. The valve which exits the left ventricle into the aorta 164. The outer lining of the heart 165. Large arteries with a strong pulse that are easily palpated 166. The largest part of the heart; the lower left area 167. The thick layer of muscle tissue that divides the left and right sides of the heart 168. The “backup” pacemaker that transmits the sinoatrial (SA) node impulse to both ventricles 169. The lower blood pressure number which reflects the lowest pressure exerted against artery walls during ventricular relaxation 170. The inner lining of the heart 171. The valve which exits the right ventricle into the pulmonary arteries 172. The term that means “blocked” 173. The upper blood pressure number which reflects the highest pressure exerted against artery walls during ventricular contraction 174. The valve which exits the right atrium into the right ventricle 175. The two upper chambers of the heart 176. They lead to the lungs and transport oxygen-poor blood 177. Listening to this is considered the most accurate method of measuring heart rate Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Mouthlike opening into a ventricle B. Swelling of a vessel C. Condition of a rapid heart D. Cutting into or incision of a valve E. Record of electricity of the heart 178. Electrocardiogram 179. Ventriculostomy 180. Angioedema 181. Tachycardia 182. Valvotomy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Abnormal condition of hardening B. Rupture of a vein C. Suturing of a vessel D. Thick fatty tumor E. Vomiting of blood

183. Phleborrhexis 184. Atheroma 185. Hematemesis 186. Vasorrhaphy 187. Arteriosclerosis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Surgical repair of a valve B. Creation of a blood vessel C. Narrowing or stricture of the aorta D. Stopping of a vein E. Pertaining to the atria and the ventricles 188. Aortostenosis 189. Atrioventricular 190. Valvuloplasty 191. Vasculogenesis 192. Venostasis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Record of a vessel B. Pertaining to the aorta C. Process of recording an artery D. Abnormal condition of hardening of thick, fatty tissue E. Rupture of an artery 193. Angiogram 194. Aortic 195. Arteriography 196. Atherosclerosis 197. Arteriorrhexis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Condition of a slow heart B. Enlargement of the heart C. Condition of a rapid heart D. Record of heart electricity E. Specialist in the study of blood 198. Hematologist 199. Electrocardiogram 200. Tachycardia

201. Cardiomegaly 202. Bradycardia Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Incision into a valve B. Cutting into a vein C. Inflammation of a blood vessel D. Cell for clotting E. Surgical repair of a vessel 203. Phlebitis 204. Angioplasty 205. Phlebotomy 206. Valvotomy 207. Thrombocyte Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Hernia of a ventricle B. Measurement of the ventricle C. Condition of a small heart D. Rupturing of red blood cells E. Softening of the walls of the aorta 208. Ventriculocele 209. Aortomalacia 210. Ventriculometry 211. Hemolysis 212. Microcardia

Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 77. ANS: coronary artery bypass graft PTS: 1 NAR: 06-01 78. ANS: blood pressure PTS: 1 NAR: 06-01 79. ANS: cardiopulmonary resuscitation

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-01 80. ANS: myocardial infarction NAR: 06-01 PTS: 1 81. ANS: red blood cell NAR: 06-01 PTS: 1 82. ANS: coronary artery disease PTS: 1 83. ANS: pulse

NAR: 06-01

NAR: 06-01 PTS: 1 84. ANS: hypertension NAR: 06-01 PTS: 1 85. ANS: arteriosclerotic heart disease NAR: 06-01 PTS: 1 86. ANS: echocardiogram PTS: 1 NAR: 06-01 87. ANS: beats per minute NAR: 06-01 PTS: 1 88. ANS: electrocardiogram NAR: 06-01 PTS: 1 89. ANS: premature ventricular contraction NAR: 06-01 PTS: 1 90. ANS: congestive heart failure PTS: 1 91. ANS: heart rate

NAR: 06-01

PTS: 1 92. ANS: Condition PTS: 1 93. ANS: Small

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 94. ANS: Record

NAR: 06-02

NAR: 06-02 PTS: 1 95. ANS: Process of recording PTS: 1

NAR: 06-02

96. ANS: Surgical repair PTS: 1 97. ANS: Small

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 98. ANS: cell

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 99. ANS: Pain

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 100. ANS: Record

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 101. ANS: Urine

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-02 102. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 NAR: 06-02 103. ANS: Inflammation PTS: 1 NAR: 06-02 104. ANS: Cessation or stopping PTS: 1 105. ANS: Disease

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 106. ANS: Destruction

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 107. ANS: Heart

NAR: 06-02

PTS: 1 108. ANS: Vein

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 109. ANS: Blood

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 110. ANS: Vessel

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 111. ANS: Aorta

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 112. ANS: Artery

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-03 113. ANS: Thick or fatty PTS: 1 114. ANS: Atria

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-03 115. ANS: Electricity and heart PTS: 1 116. ANS: Blood

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 117. ANS: Valve

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 118. ANS: vein

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 119. ANS: Vein

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-03 120. ANS: Blood vessel PTS: 1 NAR: 06-03 121. ANS: Thrombus (clot) PTS: 1 122. ANS: Condition

NAR: 06-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-04 123. ANS: Visual examination PTS: 1 NAR: 06-04 124. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 NAR: 06-04 125. ANS: Widening or stretching or expanding PTS: 1 126. ANS: Disease

NAR: 06-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-04 127. ANS: Suture or suturing PTS: 1 128. ANS: Destruction

NAR: 06-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-04 129. ANS: Specialist in the study of PTS: 1 130. ANS: Rupture

NAR: 06-04

PTS: 1 131. ANS: Narrowing

NAR: 06-04

PTS: 1 132. ANS: Heart

NAR: 06-04

PTS: 1 133. ANS: Ventricle

NAR: 06-05

PTS: 1 134. ANS: Vessel

NAR: 06-05

PTS: 1 135. ANS: Vessel

NAR: 06-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-05 136. ANS: Heart and muscle PTS: 1 137. ANS: Vein

NAR: 06-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 06-05 138. ANS: Thrombus (clot) PTS: 1 139. ANS: Blood

NAR: 06-05

PTS: 1 140. ANS: Artery

NAR: 06-05

PTS: 1 141. ANS: Vessel

NAR: 06-05

PTS: 1

NAR: 06-05

MATCHING 142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

147. ANS: E

PTS: 1

148.

149.

150.

151.

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

161.

162.

ANS: H ANS: M ANS: F ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: G ANS: A ANS: O ANS: J ANS: B ANS: L ANS: K ANS: N ANS: I

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

163.

164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.

173.

174.

175.

176.

177.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: P ANS: F ANS: L ANS: H ANS: N ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A ANS: K ANS: O ANS: I ANS: J ANS: G

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

178.

179.

180.

181.

182.

ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

183.

184.

185.

186.

187.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

188. ANS: C

PTS: 1

189.

190.

191.

192.

ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

193.

194.

195.

196.

197.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

198.

199.

200.

201.

202.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

203.

204.

205.

206.

207.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

208.

209.

210.

211.

212.

ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

Chapter 7: Lymphatic-Immune System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following terms means tumor of lymphatic vessels?

A. Lymphangioma B. Lymphadenoma C. Lymphadenopathy D. Angiomyoma 2. Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of lymph cells (increased numbers)?

A. Lymphogenesis B. Lymphocytosis C. Adenopathy D. Lymphokinesis 3. Which of the following terms means tumor of bone marrow?

A. Myelostomy B. Myelomeningoma C. Myeloma D. Myelomalacia 4. Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition?

A. tox/o: disease B. angi/o: vessel C. path/o: poison D. aden/o: adenoid 5. Which of the following is also called mononucleosis?

A. EBV B. EIA C. ESR D. SLE 6. Which of the following abbreviations represents a test used to monitor disorders that cause inflammation in the body?

A. EBV B. EIA C. ESR D. SLE 7. Which of the following abbreviations represents a disorder that may affect transplant patients?

A. AIDS B. KS C. PCP D. GVHD 8. Which of the following abbreviations is related to cancer?

A. MET B. Ag C. EIA

D. Ab 9. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Sjögren syndrome: autoimmune disorder that causes dysfunction of salivary and lacrimal glands B. Anaphylaxis: life-threatening systemic allergic reaction C. Ankylosing spondylitis: inflammatory response that causes degenerative changes in the spinal vertebrae, sacroiliac joints, and other connective tissues D. Chronic fatigue syndrome: acute infection that causes sore throat, fever, fatigue, and enlarged lymph nodes 10. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis: group of disorders in which persistent or recurrent Candida fungal infections develop on the skin, nails, or mucous membranes B. Lymphosarcoma: cancer of lymphatic tissue not related to Hodgkin disease C. Pernicious anemia: group of disorders caused when the immune system misidentifies RBCs as foreign and creates auto-antibodies that attack them D. Phagocytosis: process in which specialized white blood cells engulf and destroy microorganisms, foreign antigens, and cell debris 11. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Graft-versus-host disease: complication of bone marrow transplantation in which lymphoid cells from donated tissue attack the recipient and cause damage to skin, liver, gastrointestinal tract, and other tissues.

B. Hodgkin’s disease: a type of lymphatic cancer; also called lymphoma C. Polymyositis: disorder that causes slow onset of muscle weakness and pain and progresses to affect muscles of the neck, shoulders, back, and hip D. Transplant rejection: antibodies present in transfused blood react to the red blood cells (RBCs) in the recipient’s blood, or antibodies in the recipient’s blood react to RBCs in the transfused blood 12. A chronic autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and degeneration of various connective tissues in the body, such as the skin, lungs, heart, joints, kidneys, blood, or nervous system, is: A. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Chronic fatigue syndrome D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura 13. The term for cancer of lymphatic tissue not related to Hodgkin's disease is: A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C. Lymphosarcoma D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma 14. The term for a group of chronic autoimmune diseases that cause inflammatory and fibrotic changes to skin, muscles, joints, tendons, cartilage, and other connective tissues is: A. Phagocytosis B. Polymyositis C. Chronic fatigue syndrome D. Scleroderma

15. Which of the following is a chronic autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and degeneration of various connective tissues and organs in the body, such as the skin, lungs, heart, joints, kidneys, blood, or nervous system?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Sjögren’s syndrome C. Scleroderma D. Ankylosing spondylitis 16. The term for a group of disorders caused when the immune system misidentifies red blood cells (RBCs) as foreign and creates autoantibodies that attack them is: A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Transfusion incompatibility reaction C. Anemia D. Pernicious anemia 17. Which of the following is a complication of bone marrow transplantation in which lymphoid cells from donated tissue attack the recipient and cause damage to skin, liver, gastrointestinal tract, and other tissues?

A. Transfusion incompatibility reaction B. Graft-versus-host disease C. Polymyositis D. Transplant rejection 18. Which of the following terms means creating disease?

A. Pathogenic B. Pathology C. Pathologist D. Pathogen 19. Which of the following is a type of cancer?

A. Hodgkin’s disease B. CHF C. DVT D. TIA 20. A disorder that causes the slow onset of muscle weakness and pain in muscles of the trunk and progresses to affect the muscles of the neck, shoulders, back, and hip is: A. Polymyositis B. Scleroderma C. Sjögren’s syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 21. Which of the following is responsible for causing acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

A. HIV B. RV C. CAD D. LV 22. Which of the following is related to a vitamin B deficit?

A. Pernicious anemia B. Hodgkin’s disease C. Polymyositis D. Graft-versus-host disease

23. Which of the following terms means pertaining to bone marrow cells?

A. Lymphocytic B. Myelogenous C. Myelocytic D. Osteoma 24. Which of the following terms means tumor of a lymphatic vessel?

A. Lymphangioma B. Lymphadenoma C. Lymphadenopathy D. Angiomyoma 25. Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of lymph cells?

A. Lymphogenesis B. Lymphocytosis C. Adenopathy D. Lymphokinesis 26. Which of the following terms means hernia of the spinal cord and meninges?

A. Myeloma B. Myelocystocele C. Myelomeningocele D. Myelomalacia 27. Which of the following combining forms is matched with the correct definition?

A. tox/o: disease B. angi/o: vessel C. path/o: poison D. aden/o: serum 28. All of the following combining forms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. vas/o: vessel B. ser/o: spleen C. myel/o: bone marrow D. lymphangi/o: lymphatic vessel 29. Which of the following is the virus that causes “the kissing disease”?

A. EBV B. EIA C. ESR D. SLE 30. Which of the following abbreviations stands for the name of a test used to monitor disorders that cause inflammation in the body?

A. EBV B. EIA C. ESR D. SLE 31. Which of the following abbreviations represents the name of a disorder that may affect transplant recipients?

A. AIDS B. KS C. PCP

D. GVHD 32. Which of the following abbreviations is related to cancer?

A. MET B. Ag C. EIA D. Ab 33. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Sjögren’s syndrome: autoimmune disorder that causes dysfunction of salivary and lacrimal glands B. Anaphylaxis: life-threatening systemic allergic reaction C. Ankylosing spondylitis: inflammatory response that causes degenerative changes in the spinal vertebrae, sacroiliac joints, and other connective tissues D. Chronic fatigue syndrome: acute infection that causes sore throat, fever, fatigue, and enlarged lymph nodes 34. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis: group of disorders in which persistent or recurrent Candida fungal infections develop on the skin, nails, or mucous membranes B. Lymphosarcoma: cancer of lymphatic tissue not related to Hodgkin’s disease C. Pernicious anemia: group of disorders caused when the immune system misidentifies red blood cells (RBCs) as foreign and creates autoantibodies that attack them D. Phagocytosis: process in which specialized white blood cells (WBCs) engulf and destroy microorganisms, foreign antigens, and cell debris 35. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Graft-versus-host disease: complication of bone-marrow transplantation in which lymphoid cells from donated tissue attack the recipient and cause damage to the skin, liver, gastrointestinal tract, and other tissues B. Hodgkin’s disease: type of lymphatic cancer; also called lymphoma C. Polymyositis: disorder that causes the slow onset of muscle weakness and pain in the trunk and progresses to affect the muscles of the neck, shoulders, back, and hip D. Transplant rejection: reaction of antibodies present in transfused blood to red blood cells (RBCs) in the recipient’s blood or of antibodies in the recipient’s blood to RBCs in the transfused blood 36. A chronic autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and degeneration of various connective tissues and organs in the body, such as the skin, lungs, heart, joints, kidneys, blood, or nervous system is: A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Chronic fatigue syndrome D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura 37. A disorder in which a deficiency of platelets results in abnormal blood clotting, marked by tiny purple bruises that form under the skin, is: A. ITP B. CFS C. SS D. SLE 38. A group of chronic autoimmune diseases that cause inflammatory and fibrotic changes to skin, muscles, joints, tendons, cartilage, and other connective tissues is:

A. B. C. D.

Sjögren’s syndrome Scleroderma Systemic lupus erythematosus Polymyositis

39. Which of the following terms means skin (disease caused by a) poison?

A. Toxicoderma B. Dermopathy C. Dermatomycosis D. Toxicopathy 40. Which of the following terms means suturing of the spleen?

A. Splenorrhexis B. Splenolysis C. Splenodynia D. Splenorrhaphy 41. Which of the following terms means condition of a good (healthy) thymus?

A. Dysthymic B. Euthymia C. Thymopathy D. Endothymic 42. Which of the following terms means study of serum?

A. Serologist B. Serous C. Serology D. Seroma Matching Match each medical term with the correct definition.

A. Fatty, glandular tumor B. Inflammation of the adenoids C. Swelling of a vessel D. Suturing of a vessel E. Destruction of bacteria F. Creating or producing immunity G. Dilation of a lymph gland H. Bursting forth (heavy flow) of lymph I. Tumor of lymphatic vessels J. Deficiency of lymph cells 43. Bactericidal 44. Lymphangioma 45. Adenoiditis 46. Vasorrhaphy 47. Lymphocytopenia

48. Adenolipoma 49. Immunogen 50. Lymphadenectasis 51. Lymphorrhagia 52. Angioedema Match each definition with the correct medical term.

A. Immunogenic B. Adenopathy C. Angiogram D. Angioplasty E. Toxicology F. Tonsillotomy G. Lymphatic H. Pathology I. Tonsillitis J. Myelogenic K. Splenomegaly L. Serous M. Bacteriology N. Thymosclerosis O. Euthymic 53. Record of a vessel 54. Study of bacteria 55. Creating immunity 56. Pertaining to serum 57. Study of poisons 58. Incision into the tonsil 59. Study of disease 60. Inflammation of the tonsils 61. Hardening of the thymus 62. Pertaining to the creation of bone marrow 63. Pertaining to lymph 64. Enlarged spleen 65. Surgical repair of a vessel 66. Pertaining to a good thymus 67. Disease of the glands

Match each medical term with the correct definition.

A. Study of serum B. Surgical removal of the thymus C. Pain in the vessel D. Process of recording a vessel E. Study of the immune system F. Pertaining to lymph cells G. Poisonous condition of the blood H. Creation of bone marrow I. Specialist in the study of disease J. Record of lymph vessels K. Destroying, killing bacteria L. Enlargement of the spleen M. Surgical removal of the tonsils N. Disease of the lymph glands O. Suture of a vessel 68. Pathologist 69. Lymphangiogram 70. Bactericidal 71. Angiography 72. Immunology 73. Lymphocytic 74. Toxemia 75. Myelogenous 76. Splenomegaly 77. Tonsillectomy 78. Lymphadenopathy 79. Vasorrhaphy 80. Serology 81. Thymectomy 82. Vasalgia Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Lymph B. Superior vena cava C. Urea D. Neck, axillae, groin, and abdomen E. Lymphatic vessels F. Tonsils and adenoids G. Lymph nodes H. Metastasized

I. Phagocytes J. Thymus gland K. Phagocytosis L. T lymphocytes M. Lymphatic system N. Spleen 83. Lymph enters the circulatory system and combines with blood here 84. Rich in specialized white blood cells; commonly called glands 85. A process in which white blood cells engulf and destroy microorganisms, cell debris, and blood cells that are damaged, old, or abnormal 86. Clear, colorless, alkaline tissue fluid made up mostly of water, along with some protein, fats, white blood cells, and urea 87. Located above the heart and plays a role in immunity and protecting our bodies from cancer 88. Found throughout the body alongside arteries, veins, and capillaries 89. High numbers of lymph nodes are found in these areas 90. A waste product of protein metabolism 91. Lymph nodes in the throat 92. White blood cells that are able to seek out and destroy abnormal cells 93. White blood cells that clean debris from lymph 94. A part of the immune system that collects excess tissue fluid and returns it to circulation 95. Creates white blood cells and antibodies; acts as a type of storage container for blood and platelets 96. Spread to another part of the body Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Hernia of a lymphatic vessel B. Absence of vessel strength C. Creating poison D. Enlargement of the spleen E. Tumor of the bone marrow 97. Toxicogenic 98. Myeloma 99. Angiasthenia 100. Splenomegaly 101. Lymphadenocele Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Dilation of a lymph vessel B. Abnormal condition of lymph cells

C. Inflammation of the tonsils D. Pertaining to serum E. Thymus cell 102. Serous 103. Lymphangiectasis 104. Tonsillitis 105. Lymphocytosis 106. Thymocyte Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Tumor of a gland B. Lymph tumor C. Study of immune disease D. A condition of bacteria in the blood E. Excision or surgical removal of an adenoid 107. Adenoma 108. Adenoidectomy 109. Immunopathology 110. Lymphoma 111. Bacteremia Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Record of a vessel B. Study of bacteria C. Creating immunity D. Pertaining to serum E. Study of poison 112. Serous 113. Angiogram 114. Immunogenic 115. Toxicology 116. Bacteriology Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Incision into the tonsil B. Study of disease C. Pertaining to around the tonsil D. Hardening of the thymus E. Produced by bone marrow 117. Tonsillotomy

118. Pathology 119. Thymosclerosis 120. Myelogenic 121. Peritonsillar Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Resembling lymph B. Enlarged spleen C. Surgical repair of a vessel D. Pertaining to a good thymus E. Disease of a gland 122. Splenomegaly 123. Adenopathy 124. Lymphoid 125. Angioplasty 126. Euthymic Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 07-01 Write the combining form for each meaning.

NARREND 127. Bacteria 128. Lymph gland 129. Immune 130. Lymphatic vessel 131. Bone marrow 132. Lymph cell 133. Thymus 134. Poison 135. Adenoid 136. Tonsil

137. Vessel 138. Lymph 139. Disease 140. Spleen 141. Serum NARRBEGIN: 07-02 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 142. ESR 143. AIDS 144. KS 145. GVHD 146. CA 147. PCP 148. met 149. HIV 150. Ab 151. EBV 152. Ig 153. EIA 154. SLE 155. Ag 156. Pathologist 157. Lymphangiogram 158. Bactericidal 159. Angiography

160. Immunology 161. Lymphocytic 162. Toxemia 163. Myelogenous 164. Splenodynia 165. Tonsillectomy 166. Lymphadenopathy 167. Vasorrhaphy 168. Serology 169. Thymotomy 170. Vasalgia NARRBEGIN: 07-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 171. Pathologist 172. Lymphangiogram 173. Bactericidal 174. Angiography 175. Immunology 176. Lymphocytic 177. Toxemia 178. Myelogenous 179. Splenodynia 180. Tonsillectomy 181. Lymphadenopathy

182. Vasorrhaphy 183. Serology 184. Thymotomy 185. Vasalgia 186. Immunogen NARRBEGIN: 07-04 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 187. Adenolipoma 188. Adenoiditis 189. Angioedema 190. Vasoconstriction 191. Myeloma 192. Lymphadenectasis 193. Lymphorrhagia 194. Lymphangioma 195. Lymphocytopenia NARRBEGIN: 07-05 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 196. Adenolipoma 197. Adenoiditis 198. Angioedema 199. Vasoconstriction 200. Myeloma 201. Immunogen 202. Lymphadenectasis

203. Lymphorrhagia 204. Lymphangioma 205. Lymphocytopenia

Chapter 7: Lymphatic-Immune System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41. ANS: B 42. ANS: C

PTS: 1 PTS: 1

MATCHING 43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

ANS: E ANS: I ANS: B ANS: D ANS: J ANS: A ANS: F ANS: G ANS: H ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

ANS: C ANS: M ANS: A ANS: L ANS: E ANS: F ANS: H ANS: I ANS: N ANS: J ANS: G ANS: K ANS: D ANS: O ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: I ANS: J ANS: K ANS: D ANS: E ANS: F ANS: G ANS: H ANS: L ANS: M ANS: N ANS: O ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

ANS: B ANS: G ANS: I ANS: A ANS: J ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: F ANS: L ANS: I ANS: M ANS: N ANS: H

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

122. ANS: B 123. ANS: E

PTS: 1 PTS: 1

124. ANS: A 125. ANS: C 126. ANS: D

PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

COMPLETION 127. ANS: bacteri/o PTS: 1 128. ANS: lymphaden/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 129. ANS: immun/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 130. ANS: lymphangi/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 131. ANS: myel/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 132. ANS: lymphocyt/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 133. ANS: thym/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-01 134. ANS: tox/o or toxic/o PTS: 1 135. ANS: adenoid/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 136. ANS: tonsill/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 137. ANS: angi/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 138. ANS: lymph/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 139. ANS: path/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 140. ANS: splen/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 141. ANS: ser/o

NAR: 07-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-01 142. ANS: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 143. ANS: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 144. ANS: Kaposi’s sarcoma PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 145. ANS: Graft-versus-host disease PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 146. ANS: Cancer or carcinoma PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 147. ANS: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, Pneumocystis pneumonia PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 148. ANS: Metastasis, metastasize PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 149. ANS: Human immunodeficiency virus PTS: 1 150. ANS: Antibody

NAR: 07-02

NAR: 07-02 PTS: 1 151. ANS: Epstein-Barr virus NAR: 07-02 PTS: 1 152. ANS: Immunoglobulin NAR: 07-02 PTS: 1 153. ANS: Enzyme immunosorbent assay NAR: 07-02 PTS: 1 154. ANS: Systemic lupus erythematosus PTS: 1 155. ANS: Antigen

NAR: 07-02

NAR: 07-02 PTS: 1 156. ANS: Specialist in the study of PTS: 1 157. ANS: Record

NAR: 07-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 158. ANS: Destroying or killing PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 159. ANS: Process of recording PTS: 1 160. ANS: Study of

NAR: 07-02

PTS: 1 161. ANS: Cell

NAR: 07-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 162. ANS: A condition of the blood PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 163. ANS: Creating or producing PTS: 1 164. ANS: Pain

NAR: 07-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 165. ANS: Excision or surgical removal PTS: 1 166. ANS: Disease

NAR: 07-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 167. ANS: Suture or suturing PTS: 1 168. ANS: Study of

NAR: 07-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-02 169. ANS: Cutting into or incision PTS: 1 170. ANS: Pain

NAR: 07-02

PTS: 1 171. ANS: Disease

NAR: 07-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-03 172. ANS: Lymph and vessel PTS: 1 173. ANS: Bacteria

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1

NAR: 07-03

174. ANS: Vessel PTS: 1 175. ANS: Immune

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 176. ANS: Lymph

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 177. ANS: Poison toxin

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 178. ANS: Bone marrow spinal cord

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 179. ANS: Spleen

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 180. ANS: Tonsil

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-03 181. ANS: Lymph and gland PTS: 1 182. ANS: Vessel

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 183. ANS: Serum

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 184. ANS: Thymus

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 185. ANS: Vessel

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 186. ANS: Creating producing

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 187. ANS: Tumor

NAR: 07-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-04 188. ANS: Inflammation

PTS: 1 189. ANS: Swelling

NAR: 07-04

PTS: 1 190. ANS: Narrowing

NAR: 07-04

PTS: 1 191. ANS: Tumor

NAR: 07-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-04 192. ANS: Dilation or expansion PTS: 1 NAR: 07-04 193. ANS: Bursting forth PTS: 1 194. ANS: Tumor

NAR: 07-04

PTS: 1 195. ANS: Deficiency

NAR: 07-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-04 196. ANS: Gland and fat PTS: 1 197. ANS: Adenoids

NAR: 07-05

PTS: 1 198. ANS: Vessel

NAR: 07-05

PTS: 1 199. ANS: Vessel

NAR: 07-05

PTS: 1 200. ANS: Bone marrow spinal cord

NAR: 07-05

PTS: 1 201. ANS: Immune

NAR: 07-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 07-05 202. ANS: Lymph and gland PTS: 1 203. ANS: Lymph

NAR: 07-05

PTS: 1

NAR: 07-05

204. ANS: Lymph and vessel PTS: 1 NAR: 07-05 205. ANS: Lymph and cell PTS: 1

NAR: 07-05

Chapter 8: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following might cause a person to belch more frequently?

A. Bronchitis B. Aerophagia C. Coniosis D. Dysphonia 2. Which of the following conditions is most likely to block a patient’s airway?

A. Pneumonitis B. Anthracosis C. Epiglottedema D. Thoracentesis 3. All of the following involve the collection of a substance within the intrapleural space EXCEPT: A. Hemothorax B. Pneumothorax C. Empyema D. Emphysema 4. Which of the following tests is most useful when the physician needs to evaluate circulation within the patient’s lungs?

A. Nebulizer B. Pulmonary angiography C. Vital capacity D. Thoracentesis 5. Which of the following terms means pain of the pleura?

A. Pulmonary B. Pleurodesis C. Pleurodynia D. Pharyngeal 6. Which of the following is most useful in measuring the patient’s lung capacity?

A. Pulmonary function tests B. Mantoux test C. Postural drainage D. Sputum analysis 7. Which of the following terms means pertaining to the lung?

A. Pulmonary B. Pulmonopathy C. Pneumonopexy D. Pneumonosis 8. The term epiglottitis means: A. Pertaining to the epiglottis B. Inflammation of the epiglottis C. A condition of the epiglottis

D. Surgical repair of the epiglottis 9. The term pharyngomalacia means: A. Pertaining to the pharynx B. Inflammation of the pharynx C. Softening of the pharynx D. Enlargement of the pharynx 10. The term sinusocentesis means: A. Inflammation of the sinus B. Resembling a sinus C. Enlargement of the sinus D. Surgical puncture of a sinus 11. The term tonsilledema means: A. Inflammation of the tonsils B. A condition of the tonsils C. Swelling of the tonsils D. Softening of the tonsils 12. The term peritonsillar means: A. Pertaining to near the tonsils B. Behind the tonsils C. Beyond the tonsils D. Pertaining to beneath the tonsils 13. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. ABGs: arterial blood gases B. ARDS: acute respiratory distress syndrome C. CO2: carbon monoxide D. O2: oxygen 14. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. COPD: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. CPR: cardiopulmonary resuscitation C. PND: pulmonary neodysplasia D. SIDS: sudden infant death syndrome 15. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. SOB: short of breath B. TB: tuberculosis C. URI: upper respiratory infection D. VC: virtual cytology 16. The correct definition of coryza is: A. An acute viral disease, usually in children, marked by a barking cough and respiratory distress B. A nosebleed C. A common cold D. Collection of air in the pleural cavity 17. Which of the following indicates a surgical procedure?

A. T&A

B. PPD C. PND D. MDI 18. All of the following terms represent abnormal breathing sounds EXCEPT: A. Crackles B. Stridor C. Orthopnea D. Wheezes 19. Which of the following terms indicates surgical removal of a lobe of a lung?

A. Pneumothorax B. Pleurocentesis C. Pneumotomy D. Lobectomy 20. If the surgeon places a drainage tube through the patient’s thorax, it may be described as: A. Pneumatic B. Transthoracic C. Intrapleural D. Lobar 21. Where is pleural fluid normally located?

A. Interpleural B. Endotracheal C. Contralateral D. Circumoral 22. A patient who has inflammation of the nose may be described as demonstrating: A. Hyperpnea B. Rhinitis C. Rhinodynia D. Tachypnea 23. An artificial opening in the neck that helps a person breathe is: A. Tracheostomy B. Tracheotomy C. Tracheotome D. Trachectomy 24. The correct definition of empyema is: A. Blood or bloody fluid collected in the pleural cavity B. Collection of infected fluid (pus) in the pleural cavity C. A coarse gurgly sound, heard in the lungs with a stethoscope, caused by secretions in the air passages D. Collection of air in the pleural cavity 25. The correct definition of epistaxis is: A. A high-pitched upper airway sound, heard without a stethoscope, indicating airway obstruction; a medical emergency B. Oxygen (O2) deficiency C. A common cold D. A nosebleed

26. The correct definition of rhonchi is: A. Somewhat musical sounds heard in the lungs, usually with a stethoscope, caused by partial airway obstruction B. Abnormal lung sounds, heard with a stethoscope, that sound like Rice Krispies C. Coarse, gurgly sounds heard in the lungs with a stethoscope, usually caused by secretions in the air passages D. High-pitched upper airway sounds, usually heard without a stethoscope, indicating airway obstruction; a medical emergency 27. The correct definition of hemothorax is: A. Blood or bloody fluid collected in the pleural cavity B. Collection of air in the pleural cavity C. A coarse, gurgly sound, heard in the lungs with a stethoscope, usually caused by secretions in the air passages D. Collection of infected fluid (pus) in the pleural cavity 28. Which of the following terms means a high-pitched upper airway sound, heard without a stethoscope, that indicates airway obstruction?

A. Stridor B. Hypoxia C. Croup D. Asthma 29. Which of the following terms means continuous, somewhat musical sounds, heard in the lungs, usually with a stethoscope, caused by partial airway obstruction?

A. Crackles B. Rhonchi C. Croup D. Wheezes 30. Which of the following terms means a group of diseases in which alveolar air sacs are destroyed, resulting in in chronic severe shortness of breath (SOB)?

A. Emphysema B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) D. Cystic fibrosis 31. Which of the following terms means a fatal genetic disease that causes frequent respiratory infections, increased airway secretions, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in children?

A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) C. Cystic fibrosis D. Croup 32. Which of the following terms means a disease that causes episodic narrowing and inflammation of the airways and produces the symptoms of wheezing, shortness of breath (SOB), and cough?

A. Asthma B. Croup C. Cystic fibrosis D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

33. Which of the following terms means acute, life-threatening condition of lung injury that develops secondary to some other lung trauma or disorder?

A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C. Cystic fibrosis D. Croup 34. Which of the following terms means a condition of oxygen deficiency?

A. Hypoxia B. Coryza C. Crackles D. Epistaxis 35. During an asthma attack, a patient would most likely have which of the following symptoms?

A. Crackles B. Epistaxis C. Rhonchi D. Wheezes 36. A patient suffering from a severe airway obstruction would most likely have which of the following symptoms?

A. Stridor B. Empyema C. Coryza D. Rhonchi 37. In which of the following conditions has pus accumulated in the pleural cavity?

A. Pleural effusion B. Pneumothorax C. Empyema D. Hemothorax 38. Which of the following disorders is characterized by coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract?

A. Cystic fibrosis B. Epistaxis C. Hemoptysis D. Coryza 39. Which of the following disorders is most common in children?

A. Atelectasis B. Cystic fibrosis C. Empyema D. Pleural effusion 40. Which of the following combining forms is matched with the correct definition?

A. coni/o: dust B. chondr/o: cancer C. phon/o: pharynx D. spir/o: sinus 41. All of the following combining forms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. chondr/o: cartilage B. rhin/o: nose

C. stomat/o: mouth D. pleur/o: lung 42. Which of the following is related to coryza?

A. TV B. URI C. AFB D. ARDS 43. Which of the following indicates a sense of urgency?

A. CPAP B. CXR C. Stat D. R 44. Which of the following conditions involves infection?

A. Hemothorax B. Empyema C. Epistaxis D. Hemoptysis 45. Which of the following involves rounded tissue growths?

A. Nasal polyps B. Histoplasmosis C. Pneumoconiosis D. Silicosis 46. Which of the following conditions involves birds?

A. Histoplasmosis B. Asbestosis C. Coryza D. Legionellosis 47. The term for acute inflammation of the nasal mucosa, the common cold, is: A. Acute bronchitis B. Allergic rhinitis C. Coryza D. Upper respiratory infection 48. Which of the following is a condition in which air collects in the intrapleural space, categorized as open, closed, spontaneous, or tension and commonly called collapsed lung?

A. Pneumothorax B. Pleurisy C. Pneumonia D. Pleural effusion 49. The term for a high-pitched upper-airway sound heard without a stethoscope, indicating airway obstruction, a medical emergency, is: A. Rhonchi B. Wheezes C. Croup D. Stridor

50. Which of the following is a disorder marked by abnormal increase in the size of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole and destruction of the alveolar walls, resulting in loss of normal elasticity and in progressive dyspnea?

A. Cystic fibrosis B. Emphysema C. Legionellosis D. Pulmonary tuberculosis 51. The term for the condition in which blood or bloody fluid has collected within the intrapleural space, causing lung compression and respiratory distress is: A. Pleurisy B. Hemothorax C. Hemoptysis D. Pleural effusion 52. Which of the following is an acute, life-threatening condition of lung injury that develops secondary to some other lung trauma or disorder?

A. Cystic fibrosis B. Coal-worker’s pneumoconiosis C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome 53. A coarse, gurgling sound heard with a stethoscope in the lungs, caused by secretions in the air passages, is known as: A. Crackles B. Stridor C. Rhonchi D. Wheezes 54. Which of the following tests provides an indirect measure of the level of arterial blood oxygen saturation?

A. Pulse oximetry B. Arterial blood gases C. Vital capacity D. Sputum analysis 55. Which of the following terms indicates a condition of low oxygen?

A. Apnea B. Hypoxia C. Dyspnea D. Eupnea 56. Which of the following terms means mouthlike opening in the trachea?

A. Tracheotomy B. Tracheotome C. Tracheostomy D. Tracheoscopy 57. Mrs. Yachinich sleeps propped up on three pillows so that she can breathe better. Which of the following terms best describes this condition?

A. Orthopnea B. Aerophagia C. Pneumonitis D. Aerophobia

58. A patient who is breathing normally may be described as demonstrating: A. Hyperpnea B. Eupnea C. Dyspnea D. Tachypnea 59. Which of the following is done to cause the two membranes covering the lungs to adhere to one another?

A. Oximetry B. Pleurodesis C. Angiography D. Sputum analysis Matching Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Radiographic examination of pulmonary circulation after injection of a contrast dye B. Indirect measure of arterial blood oxygen (O2) saturation level C. Measures levels of O2, carbon dioxide (CO2), and acid-base balance (pH) in arterial blood D. Sample of mucus or fluid coughed up from the lungs that is evaluated E. Measurement of volume of air that can be exhaled after maximum inspiration 60. VC 61. ABGs 62. Pulse oximetry 63. Sputum analysis 64. Pulmonary angiography Match the combining form with its meaning. Letters may be used more than once or not at all.

A. Dust B. Cartilage C. Nose D. Straight E. Breathing F. Lung G. Mouth, mouth-like opening H. Coal, coal dust I. Sound, voice J. Cancer 65. or/o 66. orth/o 67. pneum/o 68. anthrac/o 69. chondr/o 70. rhin/o

71. pnea 72. carcin/o 73. stomat/o 74. nas/o 75. spir/o 76. pulmon/o 77. phon/o 78. coni/o 79. pneumon/o Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Upper airway B. Sinus cavities C. Pleurae D. Nasopharynx E. Cilia F. Pleural fluid G. Oropharynx H. Epiglottis I. Recoil J. Nares K. Trachea L. Alveoli M. Nasal septum N. Larynx O. Inhalation P. Hard palate Q. Lower airway R. pH scale S. Lobes T. Exhalation 80. Air-filled spaces, named maxillary, frontal, ethmoidal, and sphenoidal 81. Separates the upper and lower airways 82. Back of the nose 83. Doorway to the trachea 84. Nostrils 85. Membranes covering the lungs 86. The mouth, nose, sinuses, and pharynx 87. Microscopic-sized air sacs

88. Inspiration 89. Back of the mouth 90. The bronchi and lungs 91. Divides the nasal passages into left and right sides 92. Division of the lungs; the right has three, and the left has two 93. The elastic quality that allows the lungs to expand and contract 94. Divides the nasal cavity from the mouth 95. Tiny hairs within the nasal cavity 96. A tool for measuring the acidity or alkalinity of a substance 97. Vibrates to create sound when we talk 98. Expiration 99. Fluid between the visceral and parietal pleurae that acts as a sort of lubricant Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Resembling mucus B. Inflammation of the tonsils C. Inflammation of the bronchus D. Dilation or expansion of the bronchus E. Pertaining to the epiglottis 100. Bronchitis 101. Epiglottal 102. Tonsillitis 103. Mucoid 104. Bronchiectasis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Eating or swallowing air B. Pertaining to the pharynx C. Surgical repair of the cartilage D. Breathing in the straight position E. Pertaining to the nose and stomach 105. Chondroplasty 106. Aerophagia 107. Pharyngeal 108. Orthopnea 109. Nasogastric

Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Cancerous tumor B. Pertaining to the mouth C. Condition of no oxygen D. Condition of the lung E. Inflammation of the nose 110. Oral 111. Pneumonia 112. Rhinitis 113. Anoxia 114. Carcinoma Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pain of the pleura B. Pertaining to the lung C. Resembling a sinus D. Surgical puncture of the thorax E. Excision or surgical removal of the lung 115. Pleurodynia 116. Thoracentesis 117. Pneumonectomy 118. Pulmonary 119. Sinusoid Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Cutting into or incision of the trachea B. Inflammation of the larynx C. Inflammation of the mouth D. Abnormal condition caused by (inhalation of) dust E. Excision or surgical removal of a lobe 120. Lobectomy 121. Stomatitis 122. Laryngitis 123. Tracheotomy 124. Coniosis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Inflammation of the alveoli B. Abnormal condition of coal (black lung) C. Hernia of the diaphragm D. Inflammation of the bronchiole

E. Measuring instrument for oxygen 125. Diaphragmatocele 126. Alveolitis 127. Bronchiolitis 128. Oximeter 129. Anthracosis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to the bronchus and lung B. Tumor of cartilage C. Creation of air D. Pertaining to mucus and skin E. Visual examination of the trachea and bronchus 130. Mucocutaneous 131. Aerogenesis 132. Tracheobronchoscopy 133. Chondroma 134. Bronchopulmonary Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Disease of the tonsil B. Softening of the trachea C. Inflammation of the epiglottis D. Pertaining to bad, painful, or difficult breathing E. Good or normal breathing 135. Tonsillopathy 136. Epiglottitis 137. Dyspneic 138. Traheomalacia 139. Eupnea Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Cutting into or incision of the thorax B. Fungal infection of the pharynx C. Pain of the pleura D. Surgical fixation of the lung E. Pertaining to the lung 140. Pharyngomycosis 141. Pneumopexy

142. Pulmonic 143. Thoracotomy 144. Pleurodynia Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Resembling the sinus B. Mouthlike opening in the trachea C. Pertaining to causing cancer D. Rapid breathing E. Visual examination of the larynx 145. Tachypnea 146. Sinusoid 147. Carcinogenic 148. Tracheostomy 149. Laryngoscopy Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 08-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 150. DOE 151. MDI 152. OSA 153. PFT 154. RA 155. VC 156. T&A 157. R 158. SOB 159. URI 160. CXR

161. ARDS 162. ABGs 163. SIDS 164. TB NARRBEGIN: 08-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 165. Laryngeal 166. Pleuralgia 167. Pneumatic 168. Pneumonia 169. Pulmonary 170. Sinusotomy 171. Thoracentesis 172. Tonsillectomy 173. Dyspnea 174. Hemothorax 175. Pneumothorax 176. Eupnea 177. Orthopnea 178. Rhinitis 179. Tracheostomy NARRBEGIN: 08-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 180. Laryngeal

181. Pleuralgia 182. Pneumatic 183. Pneumonia 184. Pulmonary 185. Sinusotomy 186. Thoracentesis 187. Tonsillectomy 188. Dyspnea 189. Hemothorax 190. Pneumothorax 191. Eupnea 192. Orthopnea 193. Rhinitis 194. Tracheostomy NARRBEGIN: 08-04 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 195. Aerophagia 196. Alveolar 197. Pharyngeal 198. Spirogram 199. Nasal 200. Anthracoid 201. Mucolysis 202. Phonophobia 203. Carcinoma

204. Oxygenic NARRBEGIN: 08-05 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 205. Aerophagia 206. Alveolar 207. Pharyngeal 208. Spirogram 209. Nasal 210. Anthracoid 211. Mucolysis 212. Phonophobia 213. Carcinoma 214. Oxygenic

Chapter 8: Respiratory System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

ANS: G ANS: D ANS: F ANS: H ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: J ANS: G ANS: C ANS: E ANS: F ANS: I ANS: A ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

80. ANS: B 81. ANS: K 82. ANS: D

PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

ANS: H ANS: J ANS: C ANS: A ANS: L ANS: O ANS: G ANS: Q ANS: M ANS: S ANS: I ANS: P ANS: E ANS: R ANS: N ANS: T ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

145.

146.

147.

148.

149.

ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 150. ANS: Dyspnea on exertion PTS: 1 NAR: 08-01 151. ANS: Metered dose inhaler PTS: 1 NAR: 08-01 152. ANS: Obstructive sleep apnea PTS: 1 NAR: 08-01 153. ANS: Pulmonary function test PTS: 1 154. ANS: Room air

NAR: 08-01

PTS: 1

NAR: 08-01

155. ANS: Vital capacity PTS: 1 NAR: 08-01 156. ANS: Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy PTS: 1 157. ANS: Respiration

NAR: 08-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 08-01 158. ANS: Short(ness) of breath PTS: 1 NAR: 08-01 159. ANS: Upper respiratory infection PTS: 1 160. ANS: Chest x-ray

NAR: 08-01

NAR: 08-01 PTS: 1 161. ANS: Acute respiratory distress syndrome NAR: 08-01 PTS: 1 162. ANS: Arterial blood gases NAR: 08-01 PTS: 1 163. ANS: Sudden infant death syndrome NAR: 08-01 PTS: 1 164. ANS: Tuberculosis NAR: 08-01 PTS: 1 165. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 166. ANS: Pain

NAR: 08-02

NAR: 08-02 PTS: 1 167. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 168. ANS: Condition

NAR: 08-02

NAR: 08-02 PTS: 1 169. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 170. ANS: Cutting into incision

NAR: 08-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 08-02 171. ANS: Surgical puncture PTS: 1 172. ANS: Excision surgical removal

NAR: 08-02

PTS: 1 173. ANS: No suffix

NAR: 08-02

PTS: 1 174. ANS: No suffix

NAR: 08-02

PTS: 1 175. ANS: No suffix

NAR: 08-02

PTS: 1 176. ANS: No suffix

NAR: 08-02

PTS: 1 177. ANS: No suffix

NAR: 08-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 08-02 178. ANS: Inflammation PTS: 1 NAR: 08-02 179. ANS: Mouthlike opening PTS: 1 180. ANS: Larynx

NAR: 08-02

PTS: 1 181. ANS: Pleura

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 182. ANS: Lung air

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 183. ANS: Lung air

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 184. ANS: Lung

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1

NAR: 08-03

185. ANS: Sinus PTS: 1 186. ANS: Thorax

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 187. ANS: Tonsil

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 188. ANS: Breathing

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 08-03 189. ANS: Blood and thorax PTS: 1 190. ANS: Lung air and thorax

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 191. ANS: Breathing

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 08-03 192. ANS: Straight and breathing PTS: 1 193. ANS: Nose

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 194. ANS: Trachea

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 195. ANS: Swallowing

NAR: 08-03

PTS: 1 196. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 197. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 198. ANS: Record

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 199. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 200. ANS: Resembling

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 201. ANS: Destruction

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 202. ANS: Fear

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 203. ANS: Tumor

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 08-04 204. ANS: Creating or producing PTS: 1 205. ANS: Air

NAR: 08-04

PTS: 1 206. ANS: Alveoli

NAR: 08-05

PTS: 1 207. ANS: Pharynx

NAR: 08-05

PTS: 1 208. ANS: Breathing

NAR: 08-05

PTS: 1 209. ANS: Nose

NAR: 08-05

PTS: 1 210. ANS: Coal coal dust

NAR: 08-05

PTS: 1 211. ANS: Mucus

NAR: 08-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 08-05 212. ANS: Sound or voice PTS: 1 213. ANS: Cancer

NAR: 08-05

PTS: 1 214. ANS: Oxygen

NAR: 08-05

PTS: 1

NAR: 08-05

Chapter 9: Digestive System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A patient suffering from irritable bowel syndrome would most likely have which of the following symptoms?

A. Nausea B. Hunger C. Diarrhea D. Weight gain 2. A key characteristic of Crohn’s disease is: A. Frequent liquid bloody stools B. Episodes of diarrhea C. Severe constipation D. Inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract 3. A peptic ulcer may be located in which parts of the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Mouth or esophagus B. Stomach or duodenum C. Jejunum or ileum D. Colon or rectum 4. Which of the following occurrences would most likely contribute to the formation of diverticulosis?

A. Decreased pressure B. Emesis C. Increased pressure D. Weight loss 5. Which of the following conditions most likely involves the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen?

A. Cirrhosis B. Ascites C. Volvulus D. Intussusception 6. Which of the following terms means surgical removal of the cecum?

A. Cecetomy B. Cecumcentesis C. Colitis D. Colisticitis 7. Which of the following terms means narrowing of the colon?

A. Colonostasis B. Colostenosis C. Colostomy D. Colonoscopy 8. Which of the following terms means surgical excision or removal of the appendix?

A. Appendectomy B. Appendotomy C. Appendostomy D. Appendoscopy

9. Which of the following terms means visual examination of the esophagus?

A. Esophagotomy B. Esophagotome C. Esophagoscopy D. Esophagoscope 10. Which of the following terms means instrument for cutting the stomach?

A. Gastrotomy B. Gastrotome C. Gastroscopy D. Gastroscope 11. Which of the following terms means visual examination of the rectum and anus?

A. Proctoscopy B. Anoscope C. Rectotomy D. Cholecystoscopy 12. Which of the following terms means inflammation of the pharynx?

A. Esophagitis B. Pharyngitis C. Cholecystitis D. Gastritis 13. Which of the following tests most accurately detects the cause of gastric ulcers?

A. Gastroccult test B. Helicobacter pylori test C. Laparoscopy D. Ultrasonography 14. To detect gastrointestinal bleeding, the physician may order which of the following?

A. Barium enema B. Lower endoscopy C. Stool culture D. Fecal occult test 15. Which of the following abbreviations refers to measurement of the patient’s pulse, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and temperature?

A. VS B. N&V C. CA D. LFT 16. Which of the following abbreviations involves the pancreas?

A. GERD B. BRP C. ERCP D. EGD 17. Which of the following abbreviations refers to a procedure?

A. IBS B. IBD

C. PUD D. UGI 18. Which of the following terms means drooping or prolapse of the pancreas?

A. Pancreatosis B. Pancreatography C. Pancreatopexy D. Pancreatoptosis 19. Which of the following terms means enlargement of the liver?

A. Hepatomalacia B. Hepatomegaly C. Hepatometer D. Hepatopenia 20. The term cholecystectomy means: A. Inflammation of the gallbladder B. Surgical excision of the pancreas C. Surgical excision of the gallbladder D. Cutting into the gallbladder 21. The term sigmoidorrhaphy means: A. Suturing of the sigmoid colon B. Rupture of the sigmoid colon C. Flow or discharge from the sigmoid colon D. Surgical repair of the sigmoid colon 22. The term jejunostomy means: A. Surgical removal of the jejunum B. Mouthlike opening into the jejunum C. An instrument used to cut the jejunum D. Visual examination of the jejunum 23. The term hepatoma means: A. Disease of the liver B. Condition of the liver C. Tumor of the liver D. Destruction of the liver 24. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct meaning?

A. CA: chronic allergy B. EGD: esophagogastroduodenoscopy C. Dx: diagnosis D. GI: gastrointestinal 25. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct meaning?

A. BM: bowel movement B. BRP: bathroom privileges C. LFT: left D. IBD: inflammatory bowel disease 26. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct meaning?

A. SBO: surgical bowel operation

B. GI: gastrointestinal C. NPO: nothing by mouth D. NG: nasogastric 27. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct meaning?

A. PUD: peptic ulcer disease B. PR: per rectum C. PO: postoperative D. N&V: nausea and vomiting 28. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct meaning?

A. BM: bowel measurement B. LFT: liver function test C. GERD: gastroesophageal reflux disease D. Abd: abdomen 29. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct meaning?

A. ERCP: endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography B. GERD: gastroesophageal reflux disease C. IBS: internal biopsy specimen D. LFTs: liver function tests 30. The correct definition of ascites is: A. The protrusion of a structure through the wall that normally contains it B. The slipping or telescoping of a portion of the bowel into itself C. Accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity D. A partial or complete blockage of the lumen of the small or large intestine 31. The correct definition of hernia is: A. A partial or complete blockage of the lumen of the small or large intestine B. The protrusion of a structure through the wall that normally contains it C. Accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity D. A condition in which small pouches in the intestinal wall form secondary to increased pressure 32. The correct definition of bowel obstruction is: A. A partial or complete blockage of the small or large intestine B. A chronic liver disease characterized by scarring and loss of normal structure C. The slipping or telescoping of a portion of the bowel into itself D. Inflammation of one or more diverticula 33. The correct definition of diverticulitis is: A. A chronic liver disease characterized by scarring and loss of normal structure B. Inflammation of one or more tiny pouches in the intestinal wall C. The slipping or telescoping of a portion of the bowel into itself D. The protrusion of a structure through the wall that normally contains it 34. The correct definition of intussusception is: A. A condition in which small pouches (diverticula) form in the intestinal wall secondary to increased pressure and become inflamed B. A partial or complete blockage of the lumen of the small or large intestine C. The slipping or telescoping of a portion of the bowel into itself D. A chronic liver disease characterized by scarring and loss of normal structure

35. Examination of the gallbladder by means of high frequency sound waves is a procedure known as a(n): A. Ultrasonography B. Upper endoscopy C. Computed tomography D. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) 36. Which of the following abbreviations indicates a route of medication administration?

A. PO B. c/o C. GI D. Q 37. Which of the following disorders involves dilation and expansion of the lower esophagus due to pressure from food accumulation?

A. Cholelithiasis B. Achalasia C. Esophageal varices D. Ascites 38. The definition of pseudomembranous enterocolitis is: A. Accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal (abdominal) cavity B. Inflammatory condition of both small and large bowel that results in severe watery diarrhea C. Disorder of inflammation and edema deep into the layers of the lining of any part of the gastrointestinal tract D. Chronic condition characterized by alternating episodes of constipation and diarrhea 39. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of bowel obstruction?

A. Volvulus B. Intussusception C. Adhesions D. Hernia 40. All of the following disorders involve the intestines EXCEPT: A. Cholelithiasis B. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Diverticulosis 41. The term enterobiliary means: A. Abnormal condition of the cheek and esophagus B. Pertaining to bile and small intestine C. Disease of the bowel D. Within the small intestine 42. The term gingivostomatitis means: A. Inflammation of the tongue and mouth B. Inflammation of teeth and gums C. Inflammation of the gums and mouth D. Inflammation of the cheeks and throat 43. Which of the following terms means instrument used to view inside the abdominal cavity?

A. B. C. D.

Pylorosplenotome Laparoscope Splenomalacia Hepatopexy

44. Which combining form means cheek?

A. bucc/o B. cec/o C. cheil/o D. chol/e 45. Which combining form means tongue?

A. gingiv/o B. gloss/o C. gastr/o D. or/o 46. Which combining form means digestion?

A. dent/o B. stomat/o C. phag/o D. pept/o 47. Which combining form means liver?

A. lingu/o B. hepat/o C. labi/o D. choledoch/o 48. Which combining form means small intestine?

A. jejun/o B. pylor/o C. enter/o D. steat/o 49. Which combining form means gallbladder?

A. cholecyst/o B. choledoch/o C. cholangi/o D. chol/e 50. Which combining form means teeth?

A. or/o B. gingiv/o C. lingu/o D. odont/o 51. Which combining form means eating or swallowing?

A. pharyng/o B. pept/o C. phag/o D. esophag/o

52. Which combining form means abdomen or abdominal wall?

A. lapar/o B. append/o C. rect/o D. gastr/o 53. Which combining form means rectum or anus?

A. col/o B. duoden/o C. colon/o D. proct/o 54. Which of the following is a nutritional deficiency due to inadequate intake or absorption of protein, vitamins, minerals, or other vital nutrients?

A. Malabsorption syndrome B. Malnutrition C. Short bowel syndrome D. Anorexia nervosa 55. The term for a twisting of the bowel upon itself, causing obstruction is: A. Small bowel obstruction B. Intussusception C. Volvulus D. Hiatal hernia 56. Which of the following is a disorder involving inflammation and edema deep into the layers of the lining of any part of the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Crohn’s disease B. Diverticulitis C. Celiac disease D. Cholecystitis 57. The term for dilation and expansion of the lower esophagus due to pressure from food accumulation is: A. Achalasia B. Esophageal varices C. Gastroesophageal reflux D. Esophagitis 58. Which of the following is inflammation of the stomach and intestines (often referred to as the stomach flu, although influenza is not the cause)?

A. Peritonitis B. Gastritis C. Salmonellosis D. Gastroenteritis 59. The term for an inflamed lesion in the gastric or duodenal lining is: A. Hemorrhoids B. Peptic ulcer C. Appendicitis D. Jaundice 60. Mr. Green is a 63-year-old man with heartburn (gastroesophageal reflux disease [GERD]). When it flares up, he experiences:

A. B. C. D.

Gastromegaly Esophagostenosis Esophagodynia Gastromalacia

61. Mr. Smith, a 36-year-old man, has come to the clinic complaining of symptoms that are consistent with heartburn (gastroesophageal reflux disease [GERD]). Which of the following will help accurately diagnose this condition?

A. Laparoscopy B. Upper endoscopy C. Esophagectomy D. Enteropathy 62. Ms. Diaz is a 47-year-old woman with a bowel obstruction caused by a portion of her bowel twisting upon itself. This condition is known as: A. Intussusception B. Ulcerative colitis C. Volvulus D. Cirrhosis 63. Which of the following combining forms is NOT related to a part of the small intestine?

A. duoden/o B. jejun/o C. colon/o D. ile/o 64. To obtain multiple three-dimensional images of a body structure, the physician will order: A. A barium swallow B. A computed tomography (CT) scan C. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) D. An upper gastrointestinal series (UGI) 65. Mr. Washington, a 27-year-old man, has a sore throat caused by inflammation. Which of the following is the correct medical term for this condition?

A. Pharyngitis B. Pharyngopathy C. Colitis D. Stomatitis 66. Which of the following terms means bad, difficult, or painful swallowing?

A. Dyspepsia B. Dysphagia C. Dysphasia D. Dyspnea 67. All of the following disorders involve the large intestine EXCEPT: A. Celiac disease B. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Diverticulosis 68. The term glossolabial means: A. Pertaining to gums and teeth

B. Pertaining to the gallbladder and liver C. Pertaining to the cheek and tongue D. Pertaining to the tongue and lips 69. Which of the following terms means inflammation of the salivary gland?

A. Steatitis B. Sialadenitis C. Stomatitis D. Lymphadenitis 70. Which of the following terms means enlargement of the liver and spleen?

A. Hepatosplenomegaly B. Splenolaparotomy C. Splenonephric D. Microlipolysis 71. Which of the following terms means suturing of the rectum?

A. Proctorrhaphy B. Rectostenosis C. Rectoplasty D. Sigmoid surgery 72. Which of the following terms means cutting instrument for the pharynx?

A. Pharyngoscopy B. Pharyngoscope C. Pharyngotome D. Pharyngotomy 73. Which of the following terms means cutting into or incision of the abdomen and spleen?

A. Pylorogastrectomy B. Laparosplenotomy C. Splenomalacia D. Hepatopexy Matching Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Visual examination of the contents of the abdomen using a scope B. Computerized collection and translation of multiple x-rays into a three-dimensional picture C. X-ray examination of the esophagus during and after the patient swallows barium D. Enema that contains barium, which shows up well under x-ray E. Radiographic examination of vessels that connect the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas to the duodenum 74. Barium enema 75. Barium swallow 76. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) 77. Laparoscopy

78. Computed tomography (CT) Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Visual examination of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from the rectum to the cecum B. Sample of feces examined for the presence of bacteria and other microorganisms C. Visual examination of the GI tract from the esophagus to the duodenum D. Ultra-high-frequency sound waves are used to outline the shape of structures in the body 79. Ultrasonography 80. Stool culture 81. Upper endoscopy 82. Lower endoscopy Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Oral Cavity B. Gastrointestinal (GI) system C. Oral or buccal cavity D. Ingestion E. Mechanical digestion F. Saliva G. Tongue H. Bolus I. Uvula J. Pharynx K. Esophagus L. Epiglottis M. Peristalsis N. Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) O. Abdominal cavity P. Peritoneum Q. Rugae R. Fundus, body, pyloris S. Gastric secretions T. Chyme 83. Soft tissue that hangs from the upper back of the mouth that prevents food from entering the nasal cavity as we eat 84. A muscular opening between the esophagus and the stomach that prevents backflow of gastric secretions 85. A fluid secreted by the salivary glands that contains a chemical that starts to break down starches 86. A long, tubelike structure that passes through the diaphragm and connects to the stomach 87. Very acidic fluids that continue to break down food, preparing it for absorption within the intestines 88. A rounded mass of chewed food that is ready to be swallowed 89. Folds that line the stomach allowing it to expand when we eat a large amount of food 90. All structures of the alimentary canal, from the mouth to the anus, and the accessory organs

91. A more-liquid material made up of chewed food, saliva, and digestive juices 92. Muscular contractions that move the food bolus downward into the stomach and move chyme through the small intestine 93. The upper, middle, and lower portions of the stomach 94. A small flap of cartilage at the top of the esophagus that keeps food from entering the respiratory tract 95. The mouth 96. Funnel-shaped tissue at the back of the mouth that extends down to the esophagus 97. A membrane that lines the abdominal cavity 98. The process in which food is broken down into smaller parts by teeth and the tongue 99. Allows us to taste food and helps to form chewed food into a bolus 100. Taking a bite of food Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Pyloric sphincter B. Intestines C. Small intestine D. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum E. Villi F. Ileocecal valve G. Cecum H. Appendix I. Colon J. Ascending colon K. Transverse colon L. Descending colon M. Sigmoid colon N. Feces O. Defecation P. Accessory Organs Q. Liver R. Gallbladder S. Pancreas 101. A structure that hangs from the cecum in which normal bacteria may be stored to repopulate the gastrointestinal (GI) tract 102. Fingerlike structures that increase the surface area of the small intestine 103. An organ that secretes substances that neutralize stomach acids and break down proteins, fats, and carbohydrates 104. The portion of the colon found along the left side of the abdomen 105. Upper, middle, and end portion of the small intestine 106. A valve through which products of digestion pass from the small intestine to the large intestine

107. The waste product that is excreted through the process of defecation 108. The largest glandular organ of the body 109. The portion of the colon that descends into the rectum 110. The first part of the large intestine 111. A very long, narrow, tubelike structure in which the majority of digestion is completed and most nutrients are absorbed 112. The structure that progresses upward from the cecum 113. Releases chyme from the pylorus into the small intestine a little at a time 114. A small sac found on the inner surface of the liver that acts as a storage pouch for bile 115. The process in which products of digestion move through the colon, the rectum, and the anus to be excreted as feces 116. The portion of the colon that passes horizontally across the uppermost part of the abdomen Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to the rectum B. Instrument used to view inside the abdominal cavity C. Pertaining to the mouth D. Pertaining to the pharynx E. Pertaining to the anus 117. Rectal 118. Oral 119. Laparoscope 120. Anal 121. Pharyngeal Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Narrowing or stricture of the esophagus B. Excision or surgical removal of the gallbladder C. Inflammation of the small intestine D. Mouthlike opening into the jejunum E. Visual examination of the colon 122. Colonoscopy 123. Enteritis 124. Esophagostenosis 125. Cholecystectomy 126. Jejunostomy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. B. C. D. E.

Pertaining to beneath the tongue Visual examination of the duodenum Cutting into or incision of the ileum Inflammation of the mouth Pain of the stomach

127. Stomatitis 128. Gastralgia 129. Sublingual 130. Duodenoscopy 131. Ileotomy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Inflammation of the liver B. Excision or surgical removal of the appendix C. Inflammation of the appendix D. Visual examination of the rectum and anus E. Excision or surgical removal of the colon 132. Appendectomy 133. Hepatitis 134. Appendicitis 135. Colectomy 136. Proctoscopy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to teeth B. Spasm of the tongue C. Inflammation of the pancreas D. Viewing instrument for the sigmoid colon E. Flow or discharge of fat (fatty stool) 137. Steatorrhea 138. Sigmoidoscope 139. Pancreatitis 140. Glossospasm 141. Dental Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to bile B. Pertaining to the cheeks and gums C. Stone of the common bile duct D. Pathological condition of a salivary-gland stone E. Excision or surgical removal of the cecum

142. Sialolithiasis 143. Cecectomy 144. Buccogingival 145. Biliary 146. Choledocholith Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Process of recording a bile duct B. Surgical repair of the lip C. Pain of teeth D. Pertaining to the lips and teeth E. Inflammation of the gums and tongue 147. Cholangiography 148. Cheiloplasty 149. Gingivoglossitis 150. Labiodental 151. Odontodynia Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to tongue movement B. Inflammation of the gallbladder C. Pertaining to digestion D. Eating cell (specialized type of WBC) E. Narrowing or stricture of the pylorus 152. Cholecystitis 153. Glossokinesthetic 154. Peptic 155. Pylorostenosis 156. Phagocyte Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Disease of the liver B. Inflammation of the esophagus C. Visual examination of the esophagus and stomach D. Pertaining to around the mouth E. Excision or surgical removal of the gallbladder 157. Esophagogastroscopy 158. Esophagitis 159. Cholecystectomy

160. Hepatopathy 161. Circumoral Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Enlargement of the stomach B. Pertaining to excessive colon C. Pertaining to near the anus D. Instrument used in examining the pharynx E. Tumor of the liver 162. Gastromegaly 163. Hypercolonic 164. Perianal 165. Pharyngoscopy 166. Hepatoma Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Inflammation of the appendix B. Excision or surgical removal of the appendix C. Cutting into or incision of the ileum D. Excessive vomiting E. Pertaining to teeth 167. Ileotomy 168. Appendicitis 169. Dental 170. Appendectomy 171. Hyperemesis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Inflammation of the gallbladder B. Pertaining to below or beneath the stomach C. Visual examination of the colon D. Bile stone E. Disease of the colon 172. Cholelith 173. Colonopathy 174. Hypogastric 175. Cholecystitis 176. Colonoscopy

Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 09-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 177. PR 178. N&V 179. GI 180. LFT 181. NG 182. GERD 183. PUD 184. BRP 185. CA 186. NPO 187. BM 188. PO 189. IBS 190. SBO 191. IBD NARRBEGIN: 09-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 192. Cholecystectomy 193. Enteritis 194. Proctoscopy 195. Gastroscope

196. Laparoscopy 197. Jejunoplasty 198. Pancreatolith 199. Sublingual 200. Pharyngitis 201. Gastroenterologist 202. Microgastric 203. Dyskinesia 204. Diarrhea 205. Gastroparesis 206. Dysphoria NARRBEGIN: 09-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 207. Cholecystectomy 208. Enteritis 209. Proctoscopy 210. Gastroscope 211. Laparoscopy 212. Jejunoplasty 213. Pancreatolith 214. Sublingual 215. Pharyngitis 216. Gastroenterologist 217. Microgastric 218. Dyskinesia

219. Diarrhea 220. Gastroparesis 221. Dysphoria NARRBEGIN: 09-04 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 222. Atrophy 223. Gingivostomatitis 224. Glossospasm 225. Proctology 226. Lithotripsy 227. Phagophobia 228. Dyspepsia 229. Labionasal 230. Odontectomy 231. Cecectomy NARRBEGIN: 09-05 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 232. Atrophy 233. Gingivostomatitis 234. Proctology 235. Glossospasm 236. Lithotripsy 237. Phagophobia 238. Dyspepsia

239. Labionasal 240. Odontectomy 241. Cecectomy

Chapter 9: Digestive System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

ANS: N ANS: I ANS: F ANS: K ANS: S ANS: H ANS: Q ANS: B ANS: T ANS: M ANS: R ANS: K ANS: C ANS: J ANS: P ANS: E ANS: G ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

ANS: H ANS: E ANS: S ANS: L ANS: D ANS: F ANS: N ANS: Q ANS: M ANS: G ANS: C ANS: J ANS: A ANS: R ANS: O ANS: K

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

147.

148.

149.

150.

151.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

157.

158.

159.

160.

161.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

162.

163.

164.

165.

166.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

172.

173.

174.

175.

176.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 177. ANS: Per rectum PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 178. ANS: nausea and vomiting PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 179. ANS: gastrointestinal PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 180. ANS: liver function test PTS: 1 181. ANS: nasogastric

NAR: 09-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 182. ANS: gastroesophageal reflux disease PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 183. ANS: peptic ulcer disease PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 184. ANS: bathroom privileges PTS: 1 185. ANS: cancer

NAR: 09-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 186. ANS: nothing by mouth PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 187. ANS: bowel movement PTS: 1

NAR: 09-01

188. ANS: by mouth PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 189. ANS: irritable bowel syndrome PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 190. ANS: small bowel obstruction PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 191. ANS: inflammatory bowel disease PTS: 1 NAR: 09-01 192. ANS: Excision/surgical removal NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 193. ANS: Inflammation NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 194. ANS: Visual examination NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 195. ANS: Viewing instrument NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 196. ANS: Visual examination NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 197. ANS: Surgical repair PTS: 1 198. ANS: Stone

NAR: 09-02

NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 199. ANS: Pertaining to NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 200. ANS: Inflammation NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 201. ANS: Specialist in the study of NAR: 09-02 PTS: 1 202. ANS: Pertaining to PTS: 1 203. ANS: Movement

NAR: 09-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-02 204. ANS: Flow/discharge

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-02 205. ANS: Slight or partial paralysis Slight paralysis partial paralysis PTS: 1 206. ANS: Feeling

NAR: 09-02

PTS: 1 207. ANS: Gallbladder

NAR: 09-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-03 208. ANS: Small intestine PTS: 1 209. ANS: Rectum anus

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 210. ANS: Stomach

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 211. ANS: Abdomen abdominal wall

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 212. ANS: Jejunum

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 213. ANS: Pancreas

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 214. ANS: Tongue

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 215. ANS: Pharynx

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-03 216. ANS: Stomach and small intestine PTS: 1 217. ANS: Stomach

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-03 218. ANS: No combining form

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-03 219. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 220. ANS: Stomach

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-03 221. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 222. ANS: Nourishment growth

NAR: 09-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-04 223. ANS: Inflammation PTS: 1 NAR: 09-04 224. ANS: Sudden involuntary contraction PTS: 1 225. ANS: Study of

NAR: 09-04

PTS: 1 226. ANS: Crushing

NAR: 09-04

PTS: 1 227. ANS: Fear

NAR: 09-04

PTS: 1 228. ANS: Digestion

NAR: 09-04

PTS: 1 229. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 09-04

PTS: 1 230. ANS: Excision surgical removal

NAR: 09-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-04 231. ANS: Excision or surgical removal PTS: 1 NAR: 09-04 232. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 NAR: 09-05 233. ANS: Gums and mouth

PTS: 1 234. ANS: Rectum anus

NAR: 09-05

PTS: 1 235. ANS: Tongue

NAR: 09-05

PTS: 1 236. ANS: Stone

NAR: 09-05

PTS: 1 237. ANS: Eating swallowing

NAR: 09-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 09-05 238. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 239. ANS: Lip and nose

NAR: 09-05

PTS: 1 240. ANS: Teeth

NAR: 09-05

PTS: 1 241. ANS: Cecum

NAR: 09-05

PTS: 1

NAR: 09-05

Chapter 10: Urinary System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following terms means pathological condition of kidney stones?

A. Nephrosis B. Pyelolithia C. Nephrolithiasis D. Pyelonephritis 2. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. ESRD: end-stage renal disease B. IVP: intravaginal prolapse C. KUB: kidney, ureter, bladder D. BPH: benign prostatic hypertrophy 3. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. RP: rectal prolapse B. TURP: transurethral resection of the prostate C. UA: urinalysis D. UTI: urinary tract infection 4. After a urine specimen was analyzed by the laboratory, a patient was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.

The laboratory analysis most likely noted: A. Fungal growth B. Nitrogen growth C. Bacterial growth D. Viral growth 5. A female patient has a history of dysuria, frequency, and urgency. After a normal urinary analysis (UA), she was referred to a urologist for further evaluation. The urologist examined her bladder with a scope and subsequently diagnosed her with interstitial cystitis. The type of examination done was most likely a: A. Cystotomy B. Vesicoplasty C. Urethropexy D. Cystoscopy 6. A patient diagnosed with a bladder infection is also said to have a: A. URI B. UTI C. KUB D. BPH 7. A 65-year-old man with a history of chronic inflammation of the penile foreskin was admitted to the day surgery unit to undergo a circumcision. The medical problem being corrected is most likely: A. Uremia B. Urethritis C. Phimosis D. Enuresis 8. Which of the following terms means visual examination of the bladder?

A. B. C. D.

Vesicotomy Cystotome Cystoscopy Vesicectomy

9. Which of the following terms means surgical fixation of the ureter?

A. Urethroplasty B. Ureteropexy C. Urorrhaphy D. Ureteromegaly 10. Which of the following terms means narrowing of the urethra?

A. Ureterosclerosis B. Urethrostenosis C. Urethroparesis D. Ureteroplasty 11. Which of the following terms means prolapse of the bladder?

A. Cystopexy B. Vesicoplasty C. Cystoptosis D. Nephromegaly 12. The term vesicoplasty means: A. Visual examination of the urethra B. Surgical fixation of the bladder C. Surgical repair of the bladder D. Prolapse of the bladder 13. The term glomerulopathy means: A. A condition of the glomerulus B. A disease of the glomerulus C. Hardening of the glomerulus D. Bacteria in the glomerulus 14. The term urinometer means: A. An instrument for measuring urine B. A record of urine C. A specialist in the study of urine D. Measurement of urine 15. The term pyelonephritis means: A. Specialist in the study of kidney disorders B. A condition of the kidneys C. Inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney D. Pain in the kidneys 16. The term peritoneal means: A. Pertaining to the peritoneum B. A condition of the peritoneum C. Inflammation of the peritoneum D. A disease of the peritoneum

17. The term nephrotomy means: A. Surgical removal of the kidneys B. A mouthlike opening into the kidneys C. Cutting into the kidneys D. Visual examination of the kidneys 18. The term anuric means: A. Pertaining to absence of urine B. Much production of urine C. Deficiency of urine D. Bacteria in urine 19. The term dysuria means: A. Deficient urine production B. Painful or difficult urination C. Blood in urine D. Pertaining to urination 20. The term polyuria means: A. Decreased urine production B. Blood in urine C. Pain in the urethra D. Much urine 21. A patient is suffering from congestive heart failure, which causes fluid to build up in her lungs. To help her condition by getting rid of the excess fluid, the physician will most likely order a medication that causes: A. Enuresis B. Glycosuria C. Urolysis D. Diuresis 22. A patient complains of lower back pain and dysuria. To diagnose his condition, the physician will most likely order which of the following first?

A. Urinalysis B. Intravenous pyelography C. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) D. Urolysis 23. A patient had a urine specimen sent for a culture and sensitivity test. When the patient asks the nurse about the purpose of this test, the nurse’s best response is: A. “It will tell us if you have a urinary tract infection.”

B. “It will tell us how your kidney, ureters, and bladder are functioning.”

C. “The results will help the physician know which antibiotic to prescribe for you.”

D. “It will tell us about the nitrogen levels in your urine.”

24. A patient with which of the following conditions will typically complain of pain?

A. Neurogenic bladder B. Renal colic C. Diuresis D. Enuresis 25. Which of the following conditions involve(s) inflammation or infection?

A. Bacterial cystitis

B. Pyelonephritis C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. All of these 26. All of the following abbreviations indicate a urinary tract disorder EXCEPT: A. ATN B. BUN C. VUR D. UTI 27. Which of the following procedures involves microscopic examination of urine?

A. AGN B. UA C. TURP D. PKD 28. A patient with kidney stones may benefit from which of the following tests or procedures?

A. Culture and sensitivity B. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy C. Urinary catheterization D. Voiding cystourethrography 29. Which of the following tests will most accurately help with the diagnosis of urinary retention?

A. Bladder ultrasonography B. Blood urea nitrogen C. Hemodialysis D. Intravenous pyelography 30. Which of the following terms means absence of urine production?

A. Oliguria B. Anuria C. Polyuria D. Nocturia 31. Which of the following terms means pertaining to the bladder and urethra?

A. Glomerulus B. Nephrolithiasis C. Glycosuria D. None of these 32. All of the following combining forms indicate sugar EXCEPT: A. gluc/o B. glyc/o C. glomerul/o D. glycos/o 33. Which of the following combining forms indicates pus?

A. pyel/o B. peritone/o C. py/o D. None of these 34. Which of the following combining forms indicates stone?

A. B. C. D.

lith/o azot/o cyst/o None of these

35. Which of the following combining forms indicates deficiency?

A. nephr/o B. vesic/o C. pyel/o D. olig/o 36. The term nocturia means: A. Absence of urine B. Urination at night C. Movement of urine D. Resembling urine 37. The term ureteroscope means: A. Visualization of the urethra B. Instrument used to view the ureter C. Mouthlike opening into the ureter D. None of these 38. Which of the following conditions involves obstruction of urine outflow?

A. Glycosuria B. Phimosis C. Hydronephrosis D. Wilm’s tumor 39. All of the following abbreviations indicate a procedure EXCEPT: A. HD B. IVP C. VCUG D. BNO 40. Which combining form indicates renal pelvis?

A. pelv/i B. pyel/o C. peritone/o D. py/o 41. Which combining form indicates kidney?

A. keton/o B. glomerul/o C. ur/o D. ren/o 42. Which combining form indicates nitrogenous compounds?

A. meat/o B. azot//o C. nephr/o D. vesic/o

43. Which combining form indicates bladder?

A. cyst/o B. ur/o C. urethr/o D. urin/o 44. Which combining form indicates stone?

A. keton/o B. peritone/o C. lith/o D. glomerul/o 45. Which combining form indicates night?

A. nephr/o B. noct/o C. ur/o D. olig/o 46. Which of the following is an inflammation of the bladder caused by bacterial infection, commonly coexisting with bacterial urethritis, both of which together constitute a urinary tract infection (UTI), sometimes referred to as bladder infection?

A. Bacterial cystitis B. Pyelonephritis C. Urinary tract infection D. Acute glomerulonephritis 47. The term for abnormal secretion of large amounts of urine is: A. Enuresis B. Uremia C. Diuresis D. Vesicoureteral reflux 48. Which of the following is a term for pathological changes in renal tissue that destroy nephrons and impair kidney function?

A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hydronephrosis C. Interstitial cystitis D. Interstitial nephritis 49. The term for the need to urinate more often than normal is: A. Urgency B. Neurogenic bladder C. Urinary incontinence D. Frequency 50. Which of the following is a condition in which the glomeruli suffer gradual, progressive, destructive changes, with resulting loss of kidney function?

A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. End-stage renal disease D. Renal failure

51. Which of the following is a condition in which the renal pelvis and calyces become distended and dilated and begin to atrophy due to urine outflow obstruction?

A. Hydronephrosis B. Renal calculus C. Tubular necrosis D. Renal colic 52. During her annual health check with her nurse practitioner, Mrs. Tran states that she has recently been experiencing involuntary leakage of urine when she laughs, coughs, or sneezes. Her symptoms are most consistent with which of the following disorders?

A. Enuresis B. Polyuria C. Stress incontinence D. Nocturia 53. Mrs. Fernandez tells her physician that she has been having pain in her abdomen and lower pelvic area. To gather further information, the physician orders a KUB, an x-ray procedure that specifically looks at the: A. Kidney, uterus, and bowel B. Kidney stones, urine, and blood C. Kyphosis, uremia, and bones D. Kidney, ureter, and bladder 54. Ms. Johansen has had chronic complaints of frequency, urgency, dysuria, and intermittent low-back and pelvic pain. She was initially treated with antibiotics for a presumed urinary tract infection (UTI), without any relief. Cystoscopy reveals that she has chronic inflammation of her bladder lining. This is most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

A. Urinary retention B. Interstitial cystitis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Uremia 55. Which of the following terms means involuntary urination during sleep?

A. Enuresis B. Diuresis C. Glycosuria D. Uremia 56. A patient with which of the following conditions will typically complain of pain?

A. Neurogenic bladder B. Renal colic C. Diuresis D. Enuresis 57. Which of the following conditions involves inflammation or infection?

A. Bacterial cystitis B. Pyelonephritis C. Glomerulonephritis D. All of these 58. Which of the following conditions involves disruption in urine flow?

A. Glomerulonephritis B. Phimosis C. Hydronephrosis

D. Wilms’ tumor 59. Which of the following procedures involves microscopic examination of urine?

A. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) B. Urinalysis (UA) C. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) D. Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) 60. A patient with kidney stones may benefit from which of the following tests or procedures?

A. Culture and sensitivity B. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy C. Urinary catheterization D. Voiding cystourethrography 61. Which of the following tests will most accurately help with the diagnosis of urinary retention?

A. Bladder ultrasonography B. Blood urea nitrogen C. Hemodialysis D. Intravenous pyelography 62. All of the following abbreviations indicate a urinary tract disorder EXCEPT: A. ATN B. BUN C. VUR D. UTI 63. Which of the following terms means blood in urine?

A. Bacteriuria B. Hematuria C. Pyuria D. Oliguria 64. Which of the following terms means sugar in blood?

A. Glycosuria B. Glucogenesis C. Glucosuria D. Glycemia 65. Which of the following terms means pertaining to the bladder and urethra?

A. Cystourethral B. Vesicourethral C. Cholecystic D. None of these 66. The term urostasis means: A. absence of urination B. cessation or stopping of urine C. movement of urine D. resembling urine 67. The term nephrocentesis means: A. Surgical puncture of the kidney B. Hernia of the kidney

C. Behind the kidney D. None of these Matching Match each term with the correct definition.

A. X-ray examination of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder after injection with contrast B. Visual and microscopic analysis of a urine specimen C. A laboratory value used to measure kidney function that is more specific than blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D. Testing microorganisms to determine which drugs most effectively kill them E. A laboratory value used to measure kidney function based on nitrogen levels in blood F. Total urine excreted over 24 hours that is collected for analysis 68. BUN 69. UA 70. IVP 71. Serum creatinine 72. 24-hour urine specimen 73. C&S Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to the peritoneum B. Urination at night C. Hernia of the bladder D. Sugar in blood E. Surgical fixation of the urethra 74. Vesicocele 75. Glycemia 76. Nocturia 77. Urethropexy 78. Peritoneal Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney B. Disease of the kidney C. Visual examination of the bladder D. Nitrogenous compounds in urine E. Specialist in the study of the kidneys 79. Glomerulopathy 80. Pyelonephritis 81. Cystoscopy

82. Azoturia 83. Nephrologist Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Narrowing or stricture of the ureter B. Study of disorders of the urinary tract C. Measuring instrument for urine D. Sugar in urine E. Ketone bodies in urine 84. Ketonuria 85. Urology 86. Glycosuria 87. Ureterostenosis 88. Urinometer Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Abnormal condition of kidney stones B. Inflammation of the kidney C. Pus in urine D. Pertaining to the kidneys E. Cutting (enlarging) instrument for a meatus 89. Nephrolithiasis 90. Nephritis 91. Pyuria 92. Renal 93. Meatotome Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Creation of glucose B. Bacteria in urine C. Deficiency of urine D. Disease of the glomerulus E. Inflammation of the bladder 94. Cystitis 95. Glomerulopathy 96. Oliguria 97. Bacteriuria 98. Glucogenesis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. B. C. D. E.

Absence of urination Much urination Pus in urine Bad, painful, or difficult urination Pertaining to deficient urination

99. Polyuria 100. Dysuria 101. Oliguria 102. Pyuria 103. Anuria Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pain of the urethra B. Visual examination of the bladder C. Blood in urine D. Condition of a kidney stone E. Urination at night 104. Nephrolithiasis 105. Hematuria 106. Urethralgia, urethrodynia 107. Cystoscopy 108. Nocturia Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Bacteria in urine B. Excision or surgical removal of a ureter C. Kidney infection D. Record of the urethra and bladder E. Pertaining to urine 109. Pyelonephritis 110. Ureterectomy 111. Uric, urinary 112. Bacteriuria 113. Cystourethrogram Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Surgical repair of the bladder B. Pertaining to the kidneys C. Inflammation of the glomerulus and kidney D. Nitrogenous compounds in urine E. Specialist in the study and treatment of urinary disorders

114. Glomerulonephritis 115. Cystoplasty 116. Renal 117. Urologist 118. Azoturia Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Kidneys B. Urine C. Micturition reflex D. Retroperitoneal space E. Medulla F. Urethra G. Electrolytes H. Blood pH I. Renal failure J. Nephrons K. pH scale L. Glucose M. Filtrate N. Ureters O. Hemodialysis P. Glomerulus Q. Bladder R. Peritoneal dialysis S. Renal pelvis T. Urinary system 119. Passageway for final urine elimination and emptying of the bladder 120. Microscopic structures located primarily within the outer cortex of the kidneys 121. Capillary cluster within Bowman’s capsule 122. The area where all of the calyces join 123. The urge to urinate 124. The key organs of the urinary system 125. A flexible, muscular container for urine 126. The acidity or alkalinity in blood 127. The innermost part of the kidney 128. Long, narrow tubes that drain urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder 129. A process by which blood is filtered through a special membrane in a machine to remove excess fluid and wastes 130. The kidneys produce an average of 1 to 2 liters of this each day

131. The kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra 132. Sugar 133. A process by which blood is filtered through the patient’s own membrane in the abdominal cavity to remove excess fluid and wastes 134. High blood pressure and type 2 diabetes are the most common causes 135. Fluid that has been filtered by the walls of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule 136. Used to measure the acid-base balance that ranges from 0 to 14 137. The ions in bodily fluids 138. Location in the back of the abdominal cavity Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 10-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 139. UTI 140. ESRD 141. BUN 142. ARF 143. I&O 144. C&S 145. KUB 146. UC 147. PKD 148. Cath 149. ATN 150. RP 151. SG 152. UA

153. UI NARRBEGIN: 10-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 154. Retroperitoneal 155. Meatorrhaphy 156. Cystourethropexy 157. Lithotripsy 158. Urogenic 159. Polyuresis 160. Urostasis 161. Ureterospasm 162. Cystocele 163. Nephromegaly 164. Renopathy 165. Urethropexy 166. Periurethral 167. Cystectomy 168. Nephrotomy 169. Ureterostomy 170. Glomerulonephritis 171. Polydipsia 172. Nephrectomy 173. Nocturia 174. Bacteriuria

175. Hematuria 176. Nephrolith 177. Anuric 178. Cystomegaly NARRBEGIN: 10-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 179. Retroperitoneal 180. Meatorrhaphy 181. Cystourethropexy 182. Lithotripsy 183. Urogenic 184. Urostasis 185. Polyuresis 186. Ureterospasm 187. Cystocele 188. Nephromegaly 189. Renopathy 190. Urethropexy 191. Periurethral 192. Cystectomy 193. Nephrotomy 194. Ureterostomy 195. Glomerulonephritis 196. Polydipsia 197. Nephrectomy

198. Nocturia 199. Bacteriuria 200. Hematuria 201. Nephrolith 202. Anuric 203. Cystomegaly

Chapter 10: Urinary System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: F ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

83. ANS: E

PTS: 1

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

119.

120.

121.

122.

ANS: F ANS: J ANS: P ANS: S

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: Q ANS: H ANS: E ANS: N ANS: O ANS: B ANS: T ANS: L ANS: R ANS: I ANS: M ANS: K ANS: G ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 139. ANS: Urinary tract infection PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 140. ANS: End-stage renal disease PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 141. ANS: Blood urea nitrogen PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 142. ANS: Acute renal failure PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 143. ANS: Intake and output PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 144. ANS: Culture and sensitivity PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 145. ANS: Kidney, ureter, and bladder NAR: 10-01 PTS: 1 146. ANS: Urine culture NAR: 10-01 PTS: 1 147. ANS: Polycystic kidney disease PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 148. ANS: Catheterization, catheter

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 149. ANS: Acute tubular necrosis PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 150. ANS: Retrograde pyelography PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 151. ANS: Specific gravity PTS: 1 152. ANS: Urinalysis

NAR: 10-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-01 153. ANS: Urinary incontinence PTS: 1 154. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 10-01

PTS: 1 155. ANS: Suture suturing

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-02 156. ANS: Surgical fixation PTS: 1 157. ANS: Crushing

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 158. ANS: Creating producing

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 159. ANS: Urination

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 160. ANS: Cessation stopping

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-02 161. ANS: Sudden involuntary contraction PTS: 1 162. ANS: Hernia

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1

NAR: 10-02

163. ANS: Enlargement PTS: 1 164. ANS: Disease

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-02 165. ANS: Surgical fixation PTS: 1 166. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 167. ANS: Excision surgical removal

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 168. ANS: Cutting into incision

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-02 169. ANS: Mouthlike opening PTS: 1 NAR: 10-02 170. ANS: Inflammation PTS: 1 171. ANS: Thirst

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 172. ANS: Excision surgical removal

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 173. ANS: Urine

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 174. ANS: Urine

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 175. ANS: Urine

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 176. ANS: Stone

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 177. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 178. ANS: Enlargement

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 179. ANS: Peritoneum

NAR: 10-02

PTS: 1 180. ANS: Meatus opening

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-03 181. ANS: Bladder and urethra PTS: 1 182. ANS: Stone

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 183. ANS: Urine

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 184. ANS: Urine

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-03 185. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 186. ANS: Ureter

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 187. ANS: Bladder

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 188. ANS: Kidney

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 189. ANS: Kidney

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 190. ANS: Urethra

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 191. ANS: Urethra

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 192. ANS: Bladder

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1

NAR: 10-03

193. ANS: Kidney PTS: 1 194. ANS: Ureter

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 10-03 195. ANS: Glomerulus and kidney PTS: 1 NAR: 10-03 196. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 197. ANS: Kidney

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 198. ANS: Night

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 199. ANS: Bacteria

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 200. ANS: Blood

NAR: 10-03

PTS: 1 201. ANS: Kidney

NAR: 10-03

NAR: 10-03 PTS: 1 202. ANS: No combining form NAR: 10-03 PTS: 1 203. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1

NAR: 10-03

Chapter 11: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. All of the following abbreviations indicate a type of procedure EXCEPT: A. AB B. TAH C. GU D. DRE 2. All of the following abbreviations indicate a type of disease or disorder EXCEPT: A. PID B. BPH C. STI D. OC 3. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Endometriosis: tissue growth in abnormal sites in lower abdominopelvic area B. Eclampsia: condition marked by severe hypertension, seizures, and possible coma C. Abruptio placentae: implantation of the placenta in the lower uterine segment rather than the central or upper portion of the uterine wall D. Uterine fibroids: benign, smooth tumors made of muscle and fat 4. All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Cryptorchidism: failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum B. Impotence: inability to produce offspring C. Varicocele: enlargement and dilation of veins of the spermatic cord D. Testicular torsion: condition in which the testicles become twisted and the spermatic cord, blood vessels, nerves, and vas deferens become strangled 5. Balanoposthitis is: A. Inflammation caused by blockage of one of one or both of the Bartholin glands B. Protrusion of the uterus through the vaginal opening C. Inflammation of the glans penis and foreskin covering D. Pain in the lower abdominal and pelvic area associated with menses 6. Which of the following procedures destroys the entire surface of the endometrium and superficial myometrium of the uterus?

A. Cryosurgery B. Uterine ablation C. Dilation and curettage D. Uterine prolapse 7. Which of the following procedures involves freezing of tissue?

A. Cryosurgery B. Needle biopsy C. Ablation D. Prostate-specific antigen 8. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. D&C: disease and cure

B. C-section: cesarean section C. Gyn: gynecology D. LMP: last menstrual period 9. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. IUD: intrauterine disease B. OC: oral contraceptive C. OB-GYN: obstetrics and gynecology D. Pap: Papanicolaou smear 10. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. IVF: in vitro fertilization B. PID: pelvic inflammatory disease C. TAH: total abdominal hysterectomy D. : symbol for male 11. Which of the following definitions means gestational diabetes?

A. Development of type 1 diabetes in a pregnant woman B. Development of glycosuria in a pregnant woman C. Development of type 2 diabetes in a pregnant woman who did not have diabetes before becoming pregnant D. Development of oliguria in a pregnant woman who did not have oliguria before becoming pregnant 12. Which of the following definitions means trichomoniasis?

A. Failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum B. Vaginal fungal infection that causes itching, burning, thick curdy discharge C. Benign uterine tumors D. Sexually transmitted disease caused by a parasite 13. Which of the following terms indicates a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the herpes simplex virus type 2?

A. Herpes genitalis B. Chlamydia C. Gonorrhea D. Syphilis 14. Which of the following terms indicates the inability of a man to achieve or maintain an erection?

A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) B. Impotence C. Cryptorchidism D. Sterility 15. Which of the following terms indicates inability to produce offspring?

A. Impotence B. Sterility C. Cryptorchidism D. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 16. Which of the following terms indicates noncancerous enlargement of the prostate gland?

A. Cryptorchidism B. Impotence C. Trichomoniasis

D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy 17. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be acquired through sexual contact?

A. Endometriosis B. Fibroids C. Trichomoniasis D. Cryptorchidism 18. Which of the following organisms is known to cause cervical cancer in women?

A. Human papillomavirus B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Herpes simplex virus type 2 19. Which of the following means acute or chronic inflammation or infection of the epididymis?

A. Epididostenosis B. Epididoptosis C. Epididymitis D. Epiditis 20. Which of the following abbreviations is most likely to be used in reference to a male patient?

A. LMP B. TAH C. OC D. BPH 21. The term tubal pregnancy also refers to: A. Hysteroptosis B. Episiostenosis C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Euphoria 22. The term android means: A. Resembling female B. Resembling amnion C. Resembling male D. Resembling male and female 23. The term salpingolysis means: A. Process of recording sound B. Pertaining to the destruction of sperm C. Destruction of a tube D. Surgical repair of a tube 24. The term uteropexy means: A. Surgical fixation of the uterus B. Suturing of the uterus C. Slight or partial paralysis of the uterus D. Prolapse of the uterus 25. Which of the following terms indicates a multistage sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum?

A. Chlamydia

B. Gonorrhea C. Syphilis D. Genital warts 26. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. BPH: benign prostatic hypertrophy B. TAH-BSO: total abdominal hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy C. TURP: transurethral resection of the prostate D. : symbol for female 27. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. GU: genitourinary B. STD: sexually transmitted disease C. VD: vaginal discharge D. TURP: transurethral resection of the prostate 28. The correct definition of candidiasis is: A. Tissue that grows in abnormal sites in lower abdominopelvic area; causes severe dysmenorrhea B. Benign uterine tumors C. Sexually transmitted disease (STD); key symptoms include skin lesions; eventually fatal unless treated D. Vaginal fungal infection that causes itching, burning, and thick, curdy discharge 29. The correct definition of gonorrhea is: A. Multistage sexually transmitted disease (STI) caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum B. STI caused by Trichomonas vaginalis C. STI that results in painful blisters of the genitalia D. STI caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae 30. Which of the following definitions means abortion?

A. Loss of pregnancy at less than 20 weeks B. Benign uterine tumors C. Sexually transmitted disease (STI) caused by human papillomavirus D. Malignant neoplasms of the uterus 31. Which of the following definitions means uterine prolapse?

A. Protrusion of uterus through the vaginal opening B. Benign uterine tumors C. Failure of the uterus to descend into the pelvic cavity D. Fertilization of an ovum outside of the uterus 32. The term balanic means: A. Condition of the penis B. Pertaining to the glans penis C. Disease of the prostate D. Pertaining to the prostate 33. The term sonography means: A. Process of recording sound B. A record of sound

C. Instrument used to record sound D. A picture of sound 34. All of the following abbreviations indicate a type of sexually transmitted infection EXCEPT: A. HPV B. GC C. Trich D. TSS 35. All of the following are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. LMP: last menstrual process B. PMS: premenstrual syndrome C. TSS: toxic shock syndrome D. ED: erectile dysfunction 36. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The abbreviations STI and STD are synonymous for the same set of conditions B. EDC is a type of contraceptive device C. The abbreviation OC stands for ovarian cyst D. The abbreviation FHR stands for female hormone 37. Which of the following abbreviations pertains to the male reproductive system?

A. TSE B. BSE C. D&C D. PID 38. Which of the following abbreviations pertains to the female reproductive system?

A. PSA B. HRT C. DRE D. TURP 39. Which of the following combining forms refers to sound?

A. salping/o B. son/o C. semin/o D. none of these 40. Which of the following combining forms refers to the vulva?

A. andr/o B. episi/o C. colp/o D. none of these 41. The combining form phall/i means: A. Hidden B. Amnion C. Fetus D. Penis 42. Ms. Andretti came to the clinic today complaining of severe menstrual pain and cramping. Which of the following medical terms best describes her complaint?

A. B. C. D.

Menostasis Vaginodynia Dysmenorrhea Cervicitis

43. Mrs. Ramirez had a painful ovarian cyst on her left side. The ovary and the cyst were surgically removed through her lower abdomen with a small endoscope. The proper name for this procedure is: A. Laparoscopic oophorectomy B. Colposcopic oophoretomy C. Vaginoscopic salpingo-oophorectomy D. Laparoscopic hysterectomy 44. Mr. Smyth had to be circumcised as a result of chronic balanitis. He had: A. A continual prostate infection B. Constant inflammation of his testes C. Constant inflammation of his glans penis D. Continual pain of his vas deferens 45. Mrs. Brown is 6 months pregnant and sees her physician each month for care. This type of care is known as: A. Prenatal care B. Perinatal care C. Postnatal care D. Circumnatal care 46. Which of the following combining forms does NOT refer to the testis?

A. test/o B. orchi/o C. orchid/o D. oophor/o Matching Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Sterilization procedure in which a small section of the vas deferens is removed B. Removal of tissue from the prostate gland with an endoscope C. Cells are removed from the cervix and studied for cancer or other abnormalities D. Ultrasound imaging of structures in female pelvis E. Cervix is dilated and endometrial lining of uterus is scraped 47. Pelvic sonography 48. D&C 49. Papanicolaou smear 50. Vasectomy 51. TURP Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Sterilization procedure in which fallopian tubes are cut and ligated (tied) B. Destruction of surface of endometrium and superficial myometrium C. Tissue or fluid is drawn through a large gauge needle for analysis

D. Blood test used to screen for prostate cancer 52. Uterine ablation 53. Needle biopsy 54. PSA 55. Tubal ligation Match each female reproductive system pathology term with the correct definition. All pathology terms will not be used.

A. Uterine prolapse B. Candidiasis C. Endometriosis D. Ovarian cyst E. Dysmenorrhea F. Pelvic inflammatory disease G. Toxic shock syndrome H. Amenorrhea 56. Growth of endometrial tissue in abnormal sites in the lower abdominopelvic area 57. Any acute or chronic infection of the female reproductive system, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries 58. Downward protrusion of the uterus into the vaginal opening 59. Absence of menses in a woman between ages 16 and 40 years 60. Pain in the lower abdominopelvic area and other discomfort associated with menses Match each male reproductive system pathology term with the correct definition. All pathology terms will not be used.

A. Varicocele B. Testicular torsion C. Prostatitis D. Cryptorchidism E. Epididymitis F. Orchitis G. Balanoposthitis H. Erectile dysfunction 61. Failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum 62. Inflammation of the glans penis and foreskin covering the glans penis 63. Condition in which the testicles become twisted and the spermatic cord, blood vessels, nerves, and vas deferens become strangled 64. Enlargement and dilation or herniation of the veins of the spermatic cord that drain the testis 65. Acute or chronic condition of inflammation of one or both testicles, caused by (usually viral) infection Match each combining form with the correct term. Each term may be used more than once.

A. Testis

B. Uterus C. Sperm D. Ovary E. Milk F. Breast 66. hyster/o 67. spermat/ 68. orchi/o 69. galact/o 70. testicul/o 71. semin/o 72. lact/o 73. orch/o 74. mast/o 75. sperm/o 76. metr/o 77. orchid/o 78. ovari/o 79. oophor/o 80. mamm/o 81. uter/o Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Resembling a penis B. Surgical removal of a testis C. Cutting into or incision of a vessel D. Pertaining to male and female E. Inflammation of the glans penis 82. Orchiectomy 83. Phalloid 84. Vasotomy 85. Balanitis 86. Androgynous Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Production of sperm B. Condition of hidden testes

C. Surgical fixation of a testis D. Inflammation of the epididymis E. Enlargement of a testis 87. Cryptorchidism 88. Orchidopexy 89. Testomegaly 90. Epididymitis 91. Spermatogenesis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Disease of a testis B. Surgical repair of the prostate C. Pertaining to the penis and scrotum D. Condition of no sperm E. Pertaining to the testes 92. Orchiopathy 93. Prostatoplasty 94. Aspermia 95. Testicular 96. Penoscrotal Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Surgical puncture of the amnion B. Prolapse of the ovary C. Pertaining to the embryo D. Pertaining to the cervix E. Poisonous to the fetus 97. Amniocentesis 98. Ovarioptosis 99. Embryonic 100. Fetotoxic 101. Cervical Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Surgical removal of an ovary B. Flow or discharge of milk C. Pertaining to the uterus D. Milk therapy E. Visual examination of the vagina 102. Colposcopy

103. Lactotherapy 104. Uterine 105. Galactorrhea 106. Oophorectomy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Surgical removal of a gonad B. Surgical repair of a breast C. Cancerous tumor of the uterus D. Bad, painful, or difficult menstrual flow E. Pertaining to the uterus and cervix 107. Uterocervical 108. Dysmenorrhea 109. Gonadectomy 110. Mammoplasty 111. Metrocarcinoma Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Cutting into or incision of the vulva (perineum) B. Creation of an ovum C. Pain of the vulva D. Drooping of the ovary E. Cutting into or incision of the uterus 112. Episiotomy 113. Ovogenesis 114. Vulvodynia 115. Ovarioptosis 116. Hysterotomy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Surgical repair of the perineum B. Visual examination of the abdomen C. Pertaining to the placenta D. Inflammation of a fallopian tube E. Surgical removal of a breast 117. Laparoscopy 118. Mastectomy 119. Placental 120. Perineoplasty

121. Salpingitis Choose the male or female reproductive system term that matches the description.

A. Testes B. Spermatogenesis C. Spermatocytes D. Scrotum E. Cremasters F. Epididymis, vas deferens, and ejaculatory duct G. Glans penis H. Foreskin I. Urethra J. Internal urinary sphincter K. Bulbourethral glands L. Seminal vesicles M. Prostaglandin N. Prostate gland O. Hormones 122. Lubricate the urethra and neutralize its acidic environment 123. The distal, rounded end of the penis 124. Composed of two internal compartments and structures designed to maintain optimal temperature for spermatogenesis 125. The exit passageway for both urine and semen 126. Secretes fructose, prostaglandin, and other nutrients for sperm cells 127. Located within the scrotum and contain the seminiferous tubules 128. Stimulates smooth muscle contractions in the female reproductive tract to help move sperm 129. Spermatocytes will exit the testes through these ducts that join with the urethra 130. Male reproductive cells 131. Secretes fluid that helps to create a more alkaline environment in the urethra 132. A muscle group that extends from the abdomen into the scrotum 133. Creation of sperm cells 134. Contracts to keep semen from entering the bladder and to keep urine from exiting the bladder 135. A fold of skin that covers the penis Choose the male or female reproductive system term that matches the description.

A. Hormones B. Ovaries C. Graafian follicles D. Mature ovum E. Estrogen F. Progesterone G. Fallopian tubes

H. Uterus I. Cervix J. Vagina K. Vulva L. Clitoris M. Labia N. Areola O. Nipple P. Lactation 136. Acts as the passageway for the penis during sexual intercourse and as the birth canal during the birth process 137. Chemicals secreted into the bloodstream that cause bodily reactions 138. Contains one-half of the necessary components of a new life and is produced by the ovaries every 28 days 139. Two of these extend approximately 4 inches from the sides of the uterus toward the ovaries 140. The narrowed section of the uterus that dilates during the birth process to allow delivery of the fetus 141. Two layers of tissue that cover and protect the clitoris, the urethral meatus, and the vaginal opening 142. A region of pigmented tissue at the center surface of each breast 143. The production of breast milk to nourish the newborn baby 144. Houses and protects the developing fetus; its muscular tissue can expand as the fetus grows 145. The oval-shaped structures on each side of the uterus that are the primary sex organs in females 146. A hormone that is responsible for changes in the uterine lining in preparation for implantation of a developing embryo 147. Are found within the ovaries and contain the immature ova, or eggs 148. The center of the areola 149. A hormone that prepares the uterus for a fertilized egg 150. Elongated erectile tissue located beneath the anterior portion of the labia 151. The external structures of the female reproductive system Choose the reproductive cycle, pregnancy, birth process, or menopause term that matches the description.

A. Menarche B. Menstruation C. Follicular phase D. Luteal phase E. Corpus luteum F. Conception G. Corpus albicans H. Menstrual phase I. Fertilization J. Zygote K. Placenta L. Umbilical cord

M. Gestation N. Trimesters O. Embryo P. Fetus Q. Braxton Hicks contractions R. Dilation S. Effacement T. Crowning U. Menopause 152. Organ of nutrition that begins forming early after conception and connects to the developing fetus through the umbilical cord 153. Fertilization of the ovum 154. The zygote becomes this as all of the tissues and organs develop during the first 9 weeks 155. A term for pregnancy 156. The second phase of the menstrual cycle in which the ovum is propelled toward the fallopian tube and conception may occur 157. A term for expansion or opening of the cervix 158. When one sperm penetrates an egg and forms a zygote 159. The top of the infant’s head appears at the cervical opening 160. Approximately every 28 days, the uterus sheds the layer of endometrial tissue that develops each month in preparation for pregnancy 161. The normal cessation of menses that occurs approximately 40 years after menarche 162. Three equal periods in a pregnancy 163. The corpus luteum atrophies into this mass of fibrous tissue if conception does not occur 164. At 9 weeks, the embryo is called this 165. The first phase of the menstrual cycle in which a woman is ovulating 166. A term for thinning of the cervix 167. Contains 23 chromosomes from the ovum and 23 chromosomes from the sperm and will develop into an embryo and then a fetus 168. Gentle contractions of the uterus at irregular intervals; also known as “false labor” 169. The remainder of the graafian follicle after ovulation 170. Contains two arteries, which supply oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, and one vein that removes carbon dioxide and wastes 171. The third phase of the menstrual cycle in which the uterus sheds the unneeded endometrial lining 172. Onset of menstruation Completion

Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 11-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 173. IUD 174. BPH 175. OC 176. DRE 177. ED 178. PID 179. PSA 180. LMP 181. TAH 182. IVF 183. ERT, HRT 184. HPV 185. GU 186. Pap 187. GYN NARRBEGIN: 11-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 188. Orchidorrhaphy 189. Cervicocolpitis 190. Multigravida 191. Gynecomastia 192. Menopause

193. Phallodynia 194. Hyperplasia 195. Spermolytic 196. Prostatocele 197. Cryptomenorrhea NARRBEGIN: 11-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 198. Orchidorrhaphy 199. Cervicocolpitis 200. Multigravida 201. Gynecomastia 202. Menopause 203. Phallodynia 204. Hyperplasia 205. Spermolytic 206. Prostatocele 207. Cryptomenorrhea

Chapter 11: Reproductive System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

ANS: C ANS: F ANS: A ANS: H ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

ANS: D ANS: G ANS: B ANS: A ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: F ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

81. ANS: B

PTS: 1

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

117.

118.

119.

120.

ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

121. ANS: D

PTS: 1

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

ANS: K ANS: G ANS: D ANS: I ANS: L ANS: A ANS: M ANS: F ANS: C ANS: N ANS: E ANS: B ANS: J ANS: H

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

148.

149.

150.

151.

ANS: I ANS: A ANS: D ANS: G ANS: I ANS: M ANS: N ANS: P ANS: H ANS: B ANS: F ANS: C ANS: O ANS: E ANS: L ANS: K

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

161.

162.

163.

164.

ANS: K ANS: F ANS: O ANS: M ANS: D ANS: R ANS: I ANS: T ANS: B ANS: U ANS: N ANS: G ANS: P

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

165.

166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.

ANS: C ANS: S ANS: J ANS: Q ANS: E ANS: L ANS: H ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 173. ANS: Intrauterine device PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 174. ANS: Benign prostatic hypertrophy PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 175. ANS: Oral contraceptive PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 176. ANS: Digital rectal examination PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 177. ANS: Erectile dysfunction PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 178. ANS: Pelvic inflammatory disease PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 179. ANS: Prostate-specific antigen PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 180. ANS: Last menstrual period PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 181. ANS: Total abdominal hysterectomy PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 182. ANS: In vitro fertilization PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 183. ANS: Estrogen replacement therapy, hormone replacement therapy PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 184. ANS: humAn papillomavirus PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 185. ANS: Genitourinary

PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 186. ANS: Papanicolaou smear PTS: 1 187. ANS: Gynecology

NAR: 11-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 11-01 188. ANS: Suture/suturing PTS: 1 NAR: 11-02 189. ANS: Inflammation PTS: 1 NAR: 11-02 190. ANS: Pregnant woman PTS: 1 191. ANS: Condition of

NAR: 11-02

PTS: 1 192. ANS: Cessation stopping

NAR: 11-02

PTS: 1 193. ANS: Pain

NAR: 11-02

PTS: 1 194. ANS: Formation growth

NAR: 11-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 11-02 195. ANS: Destruction and pertaining to PTS: 1 196. ANS: Hernia

NAR: 11-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 11-02 197. ANS: Flow/discharge PTS: 1 198. ANS: Testis

NAR: 11-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 11-03 199. ANS: Cervix and vagina PTS: 1 NAR: 11-03 200. ANS: No combining form

PTS: 1 201. ANS: Woman and breast Female and breast

NAR: 11-03

PTS: 1 202. ANS: Menses

NAR: 11-03

PTS: 1 203. ANS: Penis

NAR: 11-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 11-03 204. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 205. ANS: Sperm

NAR: 11-03

PTS: 1 206. ANS: Prostate

NAR: 11-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 11-03 207. ANS: Hidden and menses PTS: 1

NAR: 11-03

Chapter 12: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following terms means fear of water?

A. Hydrophobia B. Toxicophobia C. Hydrophagia D. Hydrophasia 2. Which of the following terms means process of recording the pancreas?

A. Pancreatogram B. Pancreatography C. Pancreotomy D. Pancreatitis 3. Which of the following terms means excessive calcium in blood?

A. Hypercalcemia B. Calcemia C. Hyperhydrosis D. Toxicosis 4. The term pancreatitis means: A. Disease of the pancreas B. Inflammation of the pancreas C. Excision of the pancreas D. Pain in the pancreas 5. The term glucometer means: A. Instrument for measuring glucose B. Recording of sugar C. Glucose record D. Study of glucose 6. The term hyperkalemia means: A. Excessive calcium in blood B. Excessive potassium in blood C. Excessive sodium in blood D. Excessive glucose in the blood 7. The term hyponatremia means: A. Low level of calcium in blood B. Low level of potassium in blood C. Low level of sodium in blood D. Low level of glucose in blood 8. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. K: kidney B. BS: blood sugar C. PTH: parathyroid hormone D. TSH: thyroid-stimulating hormone

9. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. FBS: finger stick blood sugar B. IDDM: insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus C. T3, T4: thyroid hormones D. GH: growth hormone 10. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. ADH: antidiuretic hormone B. Na: natural C. DM: diabetes mellitus D. Ca: calcium 11. The correct definition of cretinism is: A. Hyposecretion of growth hormone during childhood, resulting in an abnormally small-sized adult B. Arrested physical and mental development caused by insufficient thyroid secretion C. Excessive production of glucocorticoids caused by hypersecretion of adrenal gland D. Abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs 12. The correct definition of gigantism is: A. Arrested physical and mental development caused by insufficient thyroid secretion B. Hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood, resulting in an abnormally large-sized adult C. Advanced hypothyroidism that causes dry, waxy edema in various parts of the body D. Hyperthyroidism caused by an autoimmune response; may cause exophthalmos 13. The correct definition of myxedema is: A. Hyposecretion of growth hormone during childhood, resulting in an abnormally small-sized adult B. Abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs C. Disorder caused by hypersecretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal gland D. Advanced hypothyroidism that causes nonpitting edema in the connective tissue 14. The correct definition of exophthalmos is: A. Abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs B. Advanced hypothyroidism that causes dry, waxy edema in various parts of the body C. Chronic metabolic disorder in which the pancreas secretes insufficient amounts of insulin or insulin resistance D. Hyposecretion of growth hormone during childhood, resulting in an abnormally small-sized adult 15. The correct definition of Addison’s disease is: A. Hyperthyroidism caused by an autoimmune response; may cause exophthalmos B. Arrested physical and mental development caused by insufficient thyroid secretion C. Disorder caused by hyposecretion of steroid hormones by the adrenal gland D. Chronic metabolic disorder in which the pancreas secretes insufficient amounts of insulin or insulin resistance 16. The correct definition of dwarfism is: A. Hyposecretion of growth hormone during childhood, resulting in an abnormally small-sized adult B. Arrested physical and mental development caused by insufficient thyroid secretion

C. Chronic metabolic disorder in which the pancreas secretes insufficient amounts of insulin or insulin resistance D. Hyperthyroidism caused by an autoimmune response; may cause exophthalmos 17. Which of the following terms means a chronic metabolic disorder in which the pancreas secretes insufficient amounts of insulin or there is insulin resistance?

A. Diabetes mellitus B. Cretinism C. Dwarfism D. Myxedema 18. Which of the following is a disorder caused by hypersecretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland?

A. Cushing’s syndrome B. Graves’ disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Dwarfism 19. Which of the following terms means a form of hyperthyroidism caused by an autoimmune response, which may cause exophthalmos?

A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gigantism C. Graves’ disease D. Myxedema 20. Which of the following disorders affects body growth and development?

A. Retinopathy B. Myxedema C. Graves’ disease D. Cretinism 21. Which of the following is the excision or surgical removal of a parathyroid gland?

A. Parathyroidotomy B. Thyroidotomy C. Thyroidectomy D. Parathyroidectomy 22. A physician might prescribe potassium supplements for a patient with: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoglycemia D. Hypothyroidism 23. A patient with needs injections of insulin.

A. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) B. cretinism C. Non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) D. Graves’ disease 24. A patient with may have abnormal protrusion of the eyes, which creates the appearance of a startled expression.

A. Cushing’s disease B. Dwarfism C. Graves’ disease

D. Myxedema 25. Which of the following combining forms indicates poison?

A. thyr/o B. thym/o C. toxic/o D. thyroid/o 26. Which of the following combining forms indicates extremities?

A. kal/i B. calc/o C. acr/o D. aden/o 27. Which of the following combining forms indicates sodium?

A. natr/o B. kal/i C. acr/o D. calc/o 28. Which of the following combining forms indicates same/unchanging?

A. thym/o B. hydr/o C. aden/o D. home/o 29. Which of the following combining forms refers to the adrenal gland?

A. aden/o B. thyroid/o C. adren/o D. acr/o 30. Which of the following abbreviations is related to body size?

A. BMR B. BS C. BMI D. FBG 31. Which of the following abbreviations represents a certain type of hormone?

A. GH B. HRT C. DI D. DKA 32. All of the following abbreviations represent electrolytes EXCEPT: A. Na B. K C. T3 D. Ca 33. Which of the following tests might be done to measure a patient’s current blood sugar?

A. DM B. FSBS

C. TSH D. ADH 34. An individual suffering from a low hormone level may be administered: A. CA B. FBS C. HRT D. IDDM 35. Disease of a gland is called: A. Adenopathy B. Addison’s disease C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Hirsutism 36. A type of hyperpituitarism that causes abnormal growth of bones and tissues of the face and extremities is: A. Congenital hypothyroidism B. Hashimoto’s disease C. Acromegaly D. Dwarfism 37. A condition of severe hyperglycemia potentially leading to coma is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Diabetes insipidus C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Nondiabetic hypoglycemia 38. A tumor of the adrenal medulla that is usually benign but may cause fluctuation of stress hormones, such as adrenaline, is: A. Exophthalmos B. Pheochromocytoma C. Goiter D. Thyrotoxicosis 39. All of the following diagnostic tests are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: A. Glycosylated hemoglobin: reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 3 to 4 months B. Thyroid scan: radiographic evaluation of the thyroid after a radioactive substance is injected; identifies thyroid size, shape, position, and function C. Fasting blood glucose: blood glucose tested from a drop of capillary blood obtained by pricking the finger D. Thyroid function test: reflects thyroid function by measuring levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), triiodothyronine (T3), and thyroxine (T4).

40. Which of the following terms means creation of sugar?

A. Glycolysis B. Glucogenic C. Glycogenesis D. Glucokinesia 41. The term hydrolysis means: A. Destruction of water B. Water accumulation

C. Abnormal condition of a gland D. Destruction of cells 42. The term natremia means: A. Decreased blood sodium B. Condition of sodium in blood C. Excessive blood sodium D. Condition of potassium in blood 43. Tumor of the thymus is called: A. Thymectomy B. Thymoma C. Thymesa D. Thymemia 44. Which of the following is an illness characterized by gradual adrenal gland failure, resulting in insufficient production of steroid hormones and the need for hormone replacement therapy?

A. Cushing’s disease B. Hyperaldosteronism C. Addison’s disease D. Pheochromocytoma 45. The term for a severe form of hypothyroidism that develops in the older child or adult, causing nonpitting edema in connective tissue is: A. Hirsutism B. Myxedema C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Hypoparathyroidism 46. Which of the following is hyperthyroidism caused by an autoimmune response, which may cause exophthalmos?

A. Graves’ disease B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis C. Congenital hypothyroidism D. Thyrotoxicosis 47. The term for a type of hyperpituitarism in which an overactive pituitary gland after adulthood causes abnormal continued growth of bones and tissues of the face and extremities is: A. Dwarfism B. Acromegaly C. Pituitary dwarfism D. Gigantism 48. Which of the following is a condition of severe hyperglycemia?

A. Diabetes insipidus B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gestational diabetes D. Diabetic ketoacidosis 49. The term for abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs is: A. Exophthalmos B. Retinopathy C. Gigantism

D. Goiter 50. Annette Vizzetti has insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM). She is a regular patient at Valley Clinic and has come in today for a regular health check. The physician is interested in knowing what Ms. Vizzetti’s average blood glucose levels have been for the last 2 to 3 months. Which of the following tests is the physician most likely to order?

A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) B. Glucose tolerance test (GTT) C. Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) D. Fasting blood glucose 51. When Ms. Vizzetti was first diagnosed with IDDM, she complained to her physician of the three “polys,” the classic signs of diabetes. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

A. Polyphagia B. Polydipsia C. Polyphasia D. Polyuria 52. Normal blood glucose level is 60 to 99. When Ms. Vizzetti checks her glucose today, she notes that the result is 172. The correct medical term for this condition is: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypernatremia 53. Ms. Singh has been ill for the past 2 days with stomach flu. Her symptoms include diarrhea and vomiting. She has not been able to keep food or fluids down and has become moderately dehydrated. Because of her diarrhea and poor intake, her blood potassium level is below normal. The correct term for this is: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypoglycemia 54. Because Ms. Singh is dehydrated, her blood sodium level is higher than normal. The correct term for this is: A. Hypernatremia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperglycemia 55. Which of the following terms means excessive sensation in the extremities?

A. Acroanesthesia B. Adrenalodynia C. Anacusis D. Hyperacroesthesia 56. The term adenopathy means: A. Disease of a gland B. Pertaining to the adrenal gland C. Abnormal condition of a gland D. Pain in a gland 57. Breakdown of water molecules by the body may be called: A. Hydrogenesis

B. Hydrolysis C. Hydrokinesis D. Hydrophobia Matching Match each abbreviation with the correct definition.

A. Test that identifies thyroid size, shape, position, and function B. Blood glucose tested from a drop of capillary blood obtained by pricking the finger C. Measures blood glucose levels after a fast of 8 to 12 hours to test for diabetes D. Provides information about the average blood glucose level over the past 3 to 4 months E. Measures the ability of the thyroid gland to make thyroid hormone 58. FBG 59. FSBS 60. HbA1c 61. Thyroid scan 62. TSH Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Excision or surgical removal of a parathyroid gland B. Excision or surgical removal of an adrenal gland C. Disease of a gland D. Specialist in the study of toxins E. Condition of excessive calcium in blood 63. Adenopathy 64. Adrenalectomy 65. Hypercalcemia 66. Parathyroidectomy 67. Toxicologist Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Creation of glucose B. Tumor of the thymus C. Sugar in urine D. Pertaining to the adrenal gland E. Inflammation of the thyroid 68. Adrenal 69. Thyroiditis 70. Glycosuria 71. Thymoma

72. Glucogenesis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Process of recording the pancreas B. Unchanging, stopping (maintenance of equilibrium) C. Condition of excessive potassium in blood D. Condition of sodium in blood E. Abnormal condition of poison in the thyroid gland 73. Pancreatography 74. Hyperkalemia 75. Thyrotoxicosis 76. Natremia 77. Homeostasis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Abnormal condition of poison in the thyroid B. Tumor of a gland C. Below-normal parathyroid (hormone) D. Adrenal disease E. Condition of excessive calcium in blood 78. Adenoma 79. Thyrotoxicosis 80. Hypoparathyroid 81. Hypercalcemia 82. Adrenalopathy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Measuring instrument for glucose B. Water treatment C. Abnormal condition of blueness of the extremities D. Condition of excessive potassium in blood E. Inflammation of the pancreas 83. Acrocyanosis 84. Hyperkalemia 85. Pancreatitis 86. Glucometer 87. Hydrotherapy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to a good or normal thymus B. Condition of excessive thyroid

C. Inflammation of the skin of the extremities D. Condition of below-normal sodium in blood E. Excision or surgical removal of the thymus 88. Euthymic 89. Thymectomy 90. Hyperthyroidism 91. Hyponatremia 92. Acrodermatitis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Surgical puncture of the pancreas B. Prolapse of the pancreas C. Tumor of the thymus D. Enlargement of the thyroid E. Movement of the extremities 93. Thyromegaly 94. Pancreatoptosis 95. Pancreatocentesis 96. Thymoma 97. Acrokinesia Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Homeostasis B. Hormones C. Endocrine glands D. Pituitary gland E. Anterior lobe F. Posterior lobe G. Pineal gland H. Circadian rhythm I. Thyroid gland J. Parathyroid glands K. Adrenal glands L. Pancreas M. Diabetes mellitus N. Hyperglycemia O. Hypoglycemia P. Thymus gland Q. Reproductive glands R. Ovaries S. Testes T. Negative feedback system 98. Responsible for sexual maturation; plays a role in the metabolism of food and energy storage

99. Produces T lymphocytes that are necessary for the immune system 100. Located on top of each kidney; secrete the hormones epinephrine, aldosterone, cortisol and androgens 101. The state of dynamic equilibrium 102. Sleep–wake cycle 103. Secretes the hormones insulin and glucagon, which work cooperatively to maintain healthy blood glucose levels 104. The portion of the pituitary gland that secretes the hormones oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 105. Work in pairs to maintain a healthy balance to keep the body’s internal environment healthy 106. Secrete the hormones estrogen and progesterone 107. Produces the hormones triiodothyronine and thyroxine, which are responsible for growth throughout childhood and regulation of body metabolism 108. Low blood sugar 109. Located in the brain, above and behind the thalamus; produces the hormone melatonin 110. Secrete the hormone testosterone 111. The ovaries and testes; sometimes called gonads 112. The portion of the pituitary gland that secretes the hormones growth hormone (GH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), prolactin, and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) 113. High blood sugar 114. Structure attached to the lower surface of the hypothalamus in the brain; it controls all of the other glands in the body 115. Secretes the hormone parathormone (PTH), which helps regulate calcium and phosphorus levels in blood 116. A pathology in which blood sugar levels may fluctuate widely 117. Each gland produces a hormone that serves to oppose another substance; the gland may increase or decrease production of the hormone to stimulate a corresponding decrease or increase of that substance Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Growth hormone (GH) B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) D. Prolactin E. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) F. Oxytocin G. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) H. Melatonin I. Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) J. Calcitonin K. Parathormone (PTH) L. Epinephrine

M. Aldosterone N. Cortisol O. Androgens P. Insulin Q. Glucagon R. Estrogen S. Progesterone T. Testosterone 118. Acts on the liver to convert glycogen into glucose 119. Acts on the uterus to promote contractions during labor and delivery 120. Responsible for growth throughout childhood and regulation of body metabolism 121. Promotes the growth of body structures, such as bones 122. Produces sperm, deepening of the voice, growth of facial hair, and increased muscle development in the male 123. Influences the body’s natural circadian rhythm 124. Acts on the adrenal glands to secrete glucocorticoids, including cortisol 125. Enables the body to respond to stressful situations by converting glycogen into glucose for quick energy 126. Affects the growth and functioning of the thyroid gland 127. Regulates calcium and phosphorus levels in blood 128. Breaks carbohydrates down into glucose and stimulates cells to take up glucose from blood 129. Acts on the kidneys to increase the absorption of water 130. Plays a vital role in the menstrual cycle and is important in the prevention of osteoporosis 131. Act on the gonads to produce an ovum in the female and sperm in the male 132. Works to decrease inflammation 133. Plays a role in regulating and maintaining the body’s water, sodium, and electrolyte balance 134. Responsible for secondary sexual characteristics in females and males 135. Necessary to prepare and maintain the uterus for a fertilized ovum 136. Acts on the mammary glands to produce milk 137. Also called parathyroid hormone; helps regulate calcium and phosphorus levels in blood Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 12-01 Write the combining form for each meaning.

NARREND

138. Pancreas 139. Toxin, poison 140. Parathyroid 141. Thymus 142. Adrenal gland 143. Thyroid NARRBEGIN: 12-02 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 144. K 145. DM 146. TSH 147. Na 148. FSBS 149. CA 150. GH 151. HRT 152. DI 153. IDDM 154. T3, T4 155. FBG, FBS 156. PTH 157. GTT 158. NIDDM NARRBEGIN: 12-03 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND

159. Pancreatic 160. Acromicria 161. Homeotherapy 162. Adrenopathy 163. Hyperkalemia 164. Euglycemia 165. Dysthymic 166. Thyroidorrhexis 167. Adenopathy 168. Glucopenia 169. Hypoglycemia 170. Hypernatremia 171. Glycosuria 172. Toxicologist 173. Hydrophobia NARRBEGIN: 12-04 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 174. Pancreatic 175. Acromicria 176. Homeotherapy 177. Adrenopathy 178. Hyperkalemia 179. Euglycemia 180. Dysthymic

181. Thyroidorrhexis 182. Adenopathy 183. Glucopenia 184. Hypoglycemia 185. Hypernatremia 186. Glycosuria 187. Toxicologist 188. Hydrophobia NARRBEGIN: 12-05 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 189. Polyphagia 190. Thyrotoxicosis 191. Parathyroidectomy 192. Polydipsia 193. Glycolysis 194. Pancreatorrhexis 195. Hydrogenic 196. Polyuria 197. Pancreatopathy 198. Microthymus NARRBEGIN: 12-06 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 199. Polyphagia 200. Thyrotoxicosis 201. Parathyroidectomy

202. Polydipsia 203. Glycolysis 204. Pancreatorrhexis 205. Hydrogenic 206. Polyuria 207. Pancreatopathy 208. Microthymus

Chapter 12: Endocrine System Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

78. ANS: B 79. ANS: A 80. ANS: C

PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1

81. ANS: E 82. ANS: D

PTS: 1 PTS: 1

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

117.

ANS: C ANS: P ANS: K ANS: A ANS: H ANS: L ANS: F ANS: B ANS: R ANS: I ANS: O ANS: G ANS: S ANS: Q ANS: E ANS: N ANS: D ANS: J ANS: M ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

ANS: Q ANS: F ANS: I ANS: A ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

ANS: H ANS: E ANS: L ANS: B ANS: J ANS: P ANS: G ANS: R ANS: C ANS: N ANS: M ANS: O ANS: S ANS: D ANS: K

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 138. ANS: pancreat/o PTS: 1 139. ANS: toxic/o

NAR: 12-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-01 140. ANS: parathyroid/o PTS: 1 141. ANS: thym/o

NAR: 12-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-01 142. ANS: adren/o, adrenal/o PTS: 1 NAR: 12-01 143. ANS: thyr/o, thyroid/o PTS: 1 144. ANS: Potassium

NAR: 12-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 145. ANS: Diabetes mellitus PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 146. ANS: Thyroid-stimulating hormone PTS: 1 147. ANS: Sodium

NAR: 12-02

PTS: 1

NAR: 12-02

148. ANS: Finger stick blood sugar PTS: 1 149. ANS: Cancer

NAR: 12-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 150. ANS: Growth hormone PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 151. ANS: Hormone replacement therapy PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 152. ANS: Diabetes insipidus PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 153. ANS: Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1 diabetes) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus type 1 diabetes PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 154. ANS: Triiodothyronine, thyroxine (thyroid hormones) Triiodothyronine, thyroxine thyroid hormones PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 155. ANS: Fasting blood glucose fasting blood sugar PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 156. ANS: Parathyroid hormone PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 157. ANS: Glucose tolerance test PTS: 1 NAR: 12-02 158. ANS: Non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 2 diabetes) Non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus type 2 diabetes PTS: 1 159. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 12-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-03 160. ANS: Small and condition of PTS: 1

NAR: 12-03

161. ANS: Treatment PTS: 1 162. ANS: Disease

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 163. ANS: Condition

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-03 164. ANS: A condition of blood PTS: 1 165. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 166. ANS: Rupture

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 167. ANS: Disease

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 168. ANS: Deficiency

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-03 169. ANS: A condition of blood PTS: 1 NAR: 12-03 170. ANS: A condition of blood PTS: 1 171. ANS: Urine

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-03 172. ANS: Specialist in the study of PTS: 1 173. ANS: Fear

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 174. ANS: Pancreas

NAR: 12-03

PTS: 1 175. ANS: Extremities

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 176. ANS: Same unchanging

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-04 177. ANS: Adrenal gland PTS: 1 178. ANS: Potassium

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 179. ANS: Glucose sugar sweet

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 180. ANS: Thymus

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 181. ANS: Thyroid

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 182. ANS: Gland

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 183. ANS: Glucose sugar sweet

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 184. ANS: Glucose sugar sweet

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 185. ANS: Sodium

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 186. ANS: Glucose sugar sweet

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 187. ANS: Toxin poison

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 188. ANS: Water

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 189. ANS: Eating swallowing

NAR: 12-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-05 190. ANS: Abnormal condition PTS: 1 NAR: 12-05 191. ANS: Surgical removal PTS: 1 192. ANS: Thirst

NAR: 12-05

PTS: 1 193. ANS: Destruction

NAR: 12-05

PTS: 1 194. ANS: Rupture

NAR: 12-05

PTS: 1 195. ANS: Creating producing

NAR: 12-05

PTS: 1 196. ANS: Urine

NAR: 12-05

PTS: 1 197. ANS: Disease

NAR: 12-05

PTS: 1 198. ANS: No suffix

NAR: 12-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-05 199. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 NAR: 12-06 200. ANS: Thyroid and toxin/poison PTS: 1 201. ANS: Parathyroid

NAR: 12-06

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-06 202. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 203. ANS: Glucose

NAR: 12-06

sugar sweet PTS: 1 204. ANS: Pancreas

NAR: 12-06

PTS: 1 205. ANS: Water

NAR: 12-06

PTS: 1 NAR: 12-06 206. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 207. ANS: Pancreas

NAR: 12-06

PTS: 1 208. ANS: Thymus

NAR: 12-06

PTS: 1

NAR: 12-06

Chapter 13: Muscular and Skeletal Systems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following terms means instrument for cutting cartilage?

A. Chondrotomy B. Osteotripsy C. Costectomy D. Chondrotome 2. Which of the following terms means pertaining to muscle and skeleton?

A. Iliolumbar B. Myocardial C. Sternocostal D. None of these 3. Which of the following terms means pertaining to the sternum and ribs?

A. Sternocostal B. Fibular C. Tarso D. Antisternalcostal 4. The term lordoscoliosis indicates: A. Back pain B. Pathological condition of the back C. Abnormal condition of crookedness and backward bend D. Inflammation of the back 5. The term myeloplegia indicates: A. Condition of fungus B. Softening of the cartilage C. Herniated meniscus D. None of these 6. The term puboprostatic indicates: A. Pertaining to the back of the pelvis B. Pertaining to behind the patella C. Pertaining to the pubis and prostate D. Pertaining to disease of the prostate 7. The term scoliokyphosis indicates: A. Study of crooked movement B. Abnormal condition involving crookedness and a hump C. Condition of crooked movement D. Abnormal condition of a stiff joint 8. The term tibiometry means: A. Measurement of the tibia B. Tumor of the tibia C. Disease of the tibia D. Instrument for measuring the tibia

9. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. AKA: above-the-knee replacement B. AP: anteroposterior C. S2: second sacral vertebra D. RA: rheumatoid arthritis 10. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. L1: first lumbar vertebra B. THR: total hip replacement C. IM: intermediate D. DJD: degenerative joint disease 11. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. TKR: total knee replacement B. T12: twelfth thoracic vertebra C. ortho: straight D. Fx: family history 12. Which of the following abbreviations is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. BKA: below-the-knee amputation B. C4: fourth cervical vertebra C. TKR: total knee replacement D. AK: arthritis of the knee 13. The correct definition of contracture is: A. Compression of median nerve causing pain or numbness in wrist, hand, and fingers B. A grating sound from broken bones or a clicking or crackling sound from joints C. Abnormal increase in curvature of thoracic vertebrae causing hunchback D. Fibrosis of connective tissue that decreases mobility of a joint 14. The correct definition of strain is: A. Injury to muscle due to violent contraction or excessive forcible stretching B. Complete or incomplete tear in ligaments around a joint C. Herniation of the soft center of an intervertebral disk between two vertebrae D. Fibrosis of connective tissue, which decreases mobility of a joint 15. The correct definition of lordosis is: A. Hereditary form of arthritis characterized by uric acid accumulation in the joints, especially in the great toe B. Abnormal increase in curvature of lumbar vertebrae causing swayback C. Autoimmune motor disorder that causes progressive muscle fatigue and weakness D. Abnormal increase in curvature of thoracic vertebrae causing hunchback 16. The correct definition of sprain is: A. Injury to muscle due to violent contraction or excessive forcible stretching B. Autoimmune motor disorder that causes progressive muscle fatigue and weakness C. Complete or incomplete tear in ligaments around a joint D. Abnormal increase in curvature of lumbar vertebrae causing swayback 17. The correct definition of gout is: A. Hereditary from of arthritis characterized by uric acid accumulation in the joints, especially in the great toe

B. A grating sound from broken bones or a clicking or crackling sound from joints C. Autoimmune motor disorder that causes progressive muscle fatigue and weakness D. Abnormal increase in curvature of lumbar vertebrae causing swayback 18. Which of the following terms means a grating sound from broken bones or a clicking or crackling sound from joints?

A. Gout B. Crepitation C. Kyphosis D. Contracture 19. Which of the following terms means an autoimmune motor disorder that causes progressive muscle fatigue and weakness?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Herniated disk C. Myasthenia gravis D. Gout 20. Which of the following terms means abnormal increase in curvature of thoracic vertebrae causing hunchback?

A. Kyphosis B. Gout C. Lordosis D. Herniated disk 21. Which of the following terms means hereditary, progressive, terminal disease that causes muscle atrophy and death, usually by age 20 years?

A. Gout B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Muscular dystrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 22. Which of the following terms means compression of median nerve causing pain or numbness in wrist, hand, and fingers?

A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Crepitation C. Lordosis D. Gout 23. Which of the following conditions has the most negative impact on a person’s posture?

A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Gout C. Kyphosis D. Crepitation 24. Which of the following disorders affects the lumbar vertebrae?

A. Kyphosis B. Lordosis C. Muscular dystrophy D. Gout 25. Which of the following disorders may affect organ systems as well as joints?

A. Scoliosis

B. Osteoarthritis C. Muscular dystrophy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 26. A patient with would most likely complain of increasing fatigue and muscle weakness.

A. Scoliosis B. Osteoarthritis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Crepitation 27. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis would most likely suffer from which of the following symptoms?

A. Scoliosis B. Arthralgia C. Myostasis D. Osteopenia 28. The term costochondrosis indicates: A. Painful condition of the ribs B. Surgical puncture of the skin and ribs C. Cancer of the carpus D. Abnormal condition of the ribs and cartilage 29. Which of the following tests will most likely identify the presence of inflammation?

A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate B. Creatine kinase C. Electromyography D. Rheumatoid factor 30. Which of the following tests is most likely to identify osteoporosis?

A. Bone marrow aspiration B. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry C. Bone scan D. Arthrography 31. The term osteoarthropathy means: A. Disease of the bone and joint B. Abnormal condition of the bone and cartilage C. Swelling of the bone and joint D. Destruction of the bone and cartilage 32. The term parasternal means: A. Pain in the sternum B. Movement of the sternum C. Around the ribs D. Pertaining to near the sternum 33. The term osteomyelitis means: A. Bone and bone marrow infection B. Movement of the bone C. Sensation of the bone D. Abnormal condition of bone and bone marrow 34. Which of the following terms is NOT matched with the correct definition?

A. B. C. D.

Humeroma: tumor of the humerus Laminectomy: surgical excision of the lamina Phalangeal: pertaining to the phalanges Tendotome: cutting into the tendon

35. Which of the following conditions causes loss of range of motion in the shoulder?

A. Crepitation B. Hallux rigidus C. Adhesive capsulitis D. Osteitis deformans 36. All of the following disorders involve feet EXCEPT: A. Gout B. Plantar fasciitis C. Hallux valgus D. Ganglion cyst 37. All of the following disorders involve arms or shoulders EXCEPT: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Adhesive capsulitis C. Kyphosis D. Rotator cuff tear 38. Which of the following abbreviations indicates a location on the lower extremities?

A. AP B. AK C. BE D. AS 39. Which of the following abbreviations indicates an anatomical location?

A. DTR B. IM C. UE D. OT 40. All of the following abbreviations indicate a surgical procedure EXCEPT: A. TKR B. ADL C. AKA D. ORIF 41. All of the following abbreviations indicate a disease or disorder EXCEPT: A. ROM B. DJD C. HNP D. Fx 42. All of the following abbreviations pertain to a type of arthritis EXCEPT: A. OA B. RA C. JRA D. BKA

43. Which combining form indicates vertebrae?

A. spondyl/o B. sacr/o C. stern/o D. scoli/o 44. Which combining form indicates cartilage?

A. carp/o B. cost/o C. cervic/o D. chondr/o 45. Which combining form indicates movement?

A. kyph/o B. tars/o C. kinesi/o D. my/o 46. Which combining form indicates joint?

A. ankyl/o B. arthr/o C. orth/o D. burs/o 47. Which combining form indicates bent backward?

A. scoli/o B. lumb/o C. lamin/o D. lord/o 48. Which of the following is an injury to one of the stabilizing ligaments of the knee, which originates on the anterior portion of the femur?

A. Medial tibial syndrome B. Dislocation C. Anterior cruciate ligament tear D. Meniscal tear 49. The term for an acute or chronic infection within bone, most commonly affecting the legs, arms, pelvis, and spine is: A. Osteomalacia B. Osteomyelitis C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteoporosis 50. Which of the following is a condition in which the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint flexes dorsally while the other joints in the toe flex toward the sole?

A. Hammertoe B. Mallet toe C. Claw toe D. Hallux rigidus 51. The term for trauma to a muscle, and sometimes a tendon, due to violent contraction or excessive forcible stretching is:

A. B. C. D.

Scoliosis Tendinitis Sprain Strain

52. Which of the following is an abnormal increase in the curvature of the thoracic vertebrae, causing hunchback?

A. Kyphosis B. Lordosis C. Scoliosis D. Thoracic outlet syndrome 53. Which of the following is an autoimmune motor disorder that causes progressive muscle fatigue and weakness?

A. Muscular dystrophy B. Fibromyalgia C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Myasthenia gravis 54. Which of the following conditions is caused by compression of the median nerve, resulting in pain or numbness in the wrist, hand, and fingers?

A. Herniated disk B. Myasthenia gravis C. Gout D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 55. Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune motor disorder that causes progressive muscle fatigue and weakness?

A. Myasthenia gravis B. Gout C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Kyphosis 56. Martha Snyder has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. She most likely has which of the following complaints?

A. Arthralgia B. Osteopenia C. Arthrocentesis D. Arthoclasia 57. The application of cold, such as with ice compresses, to decrease inflammation and pain is known as: A. Arthrography B. Cryotherapy C. Dual-energy absorptiometry D. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation 58. Ilka Heidrick has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is she most likely to experience?

A. Increased energy level after exercise B. Progressive dementia C. Arthralgia D. Progressive fatigue 59. Which of the following terms means treatment (using) movement?

A. Kinesiotherapy

B. Kyphoplasty C. Tarsokinesia D. Tetrakinesis 60. Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of a backward bend in the vertebrae?

A. Stenosis B. Spondylosis C. Kyphosis D. Lordosis 61. Which of the following terms means drooping or prolapse of the tarsus?

A. Dystocia B. Tarsomegaly C. Thoracopexy D. Tarsoptosis 62. Which of the following terms means pertaining to muscle and skin?

A. Dermatomycosis B. Myelocutaneous C. Myoepithelium D. None of these 63. Which of the following terms means pertaining to the sternum and around the heart?

A. Sternopericardial B. Retrosternal C. Transcardiac D. Substernal 64. The term lordosis indicates: A. Pain of the lower back B. A pathological condition of the upper back C. An abnormal condition of the cervical and lumbar areas of the back D. Inflammation of the cervical and lumbar areas of the back 65. The term meniscocyte indicates: A. A fungal condition B. Softening of the cartilage C. Herniation of a meniscus D. None of these 66. Scoliokyphosis is: A. a pathological condition of back curvature B. an abnormal condition involving crookedness and a hump C. a condition of crooked movement D. none of these 67. The term costochondritis indicates: A. A painful condition of the ribs B. Surgical puncture of the skin and ribs C. Cancer of the carpus D. An abnormal condition of the ribs and cartilage

Matching Match each diagnostic procedure with the correct definition.

A. Bone marrow specimen removed from cortex of a flat bone for analysis B. Used to detect abnormalities in bone density C. Isoenzyme in skeletal and cardiac muscle released into blood when muscle cells are damaged D. Records electrical activity of skeletal muscles; used to diagnose neuromuscular disorders E. Rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube of unclotted blood; an elevated value indicates inflammation F. A blood test used to identify rheumatoid arthritis (RA) 68. Electromyography 69. ESR 70. Creatine kinase 71. Bone scan 72. Bone marrow aspiration 73. Rheumatoid factor Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to the tibia and the fibula B. Inflammation of the phalanges C. Surgical repair of a vertebra D. Surgical fixation of the patella E. Pain in a tendon 74. Vertebroplasty 75. Tenodynia 76. Phalangitis 77. Patellapexy 78. Tibiofibular Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to the femur and the tibia B. Cutting instrument for a tendon C. Pertaining to a tendon D. Paralysis of the spinal cord E. Pertaining to the destruction of bone 79. Tendinous 80. Femorotibial 81. Myeloplegia 82. Tendotome

83. Osteolytic Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Excision or surgical removal of a metacarpus B. Pertaining to the humerus C. Pertaining to the sternum and the ribs D. Measuring instrument for the pelvis E. Pertaining to the thorax and the lower back 84. Pelvimeter 85. Thoracolumbar 86. Metacarpectomy 87. Humeral 88. Sternocostal Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Breathing in the straight position B. Pertaining to heart muscle C. Surgical puncture of a joint D. Excision or surgical removal of a carpus E. Bad, painful, or difficult formation or growth of cartilage 89. Chondrodysplasia 90. Carpectomy 91. Arthrocentesis 92. Myocardial 93. Orthopnea Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Inflammation of the ribs and cartilage B. Pain of the neck C. Pertaining to the cranium and the brain D. Pertaining to the fibula E. Excision or surgical removal of a lamina 94. Cervicodynia 95. Costochondritis 96. Fibular 97. Craniocerebral 98. Laminectomy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to a joint B. Inflammation of a bursa

C. Binding or surgical fixation of a fascia D. Pertaining to the ilium and the lower back E. Abnormal condition of crookedness and backward bend 99. Iliolumbar 100. Bursitis 101. Lordoscoliosis 102. Fasciodesis 103. Articular Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Abnormal condition of a hump B. Pertaining to muscles and the skeleton C. Study of movement D. Measuring instrument for crookedness or bend E. Excision or surgical removal of a meniscus 104. Meniscectomy 105. Kyphosis 106. Kinesiology 107. Scoliometer 108. Musculoskeletal Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pain of the sacrum B. Pertaining to the ulna and the carpus C. Pain of the lower back D. Pertaining to the radius and the ulna E. Excision or surgical removal of a synovial membrane 109. Synovectomy 110. Lumbodynia 111. Ulnocarpal 112. Sacrodynia 113. Radioulnar Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Abnormal condition of a stiff joint B. Softening of a vertebra C. Pertaining to the pubis and the femur D. Pertaining to the ankle E. Tumor of a synovial membrane 114. Pubofemoral

115. Ankylosis 116. Tarsometatarsal 117. Synovioma 118. Spondylomalacia Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Bones B. Osteocytes C. Osteogenesis D. Skeletal system E. Vertebral column F. Thorax G. Hematopoiesis H. Essential minerals I. Synarthrosis J. Amphiarthrosis K. Diarthrosis L. Range of motion M. Goniometer N. Osteoporosis O. Tendons P. Aponeurosis Q. Ligaments R. Joints S. Muscles T. Fascia U. Striated muscle V. Hypertrophy W. Atrophy X. Gait Y. Smooth muscle 119. A disorder of decreased bone mass 120. An immovable joint 121. The sternum and the ribs 122. Attach muscles to bones 123. Connective tissues made up of contractile fibers 124. New bone cells 125. A freely movable joint 126. Functions include protection, blood production, and mineral regulation 127. Attach bones to other bones 128. The space where two bones meet and where movement occurs 129. Composed of dense connective tissue, including cells in a matrix of calcium and collagen fibers

130. Connective tissue arranged in sheets or bands which covers muscle tissue 131. Bones that protect the spinal cord 132. A device for measuring joint range of motion 133. Decrease in size 134. Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium 135. The production of red and white blood cells 136. Muscle that is not controlled by conscious thought and is not affected by exercise 137. Increase in size 138. A slightly movable joint 139. The amount of motion available at a joint 140. A tendon that resembles a ribbon and attaches to a larger area of bone 141. Creation of new bone cells 142. The manner and style in which a person walks 143. Considered voluntary muscle and is affected by exercise Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 13-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 144. UE 145. RA 146. MVA 147. Fx 148. DME 149. ROM 150. ORIF 151. HNP 152. NSAID

153. IM 154. ACL 155. OA 156. EMG 157. THA, THR 158. LE NARRBEGIN: 13-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 159. Paravertebral 160. Supratibial 161. Thoracic 162. Tendolysis 163. Sternotomy 164. Phalangeal 165. Patellofemoral 166. Osteotomy 167. Myopathy 168. Myelosclerosis 169. Lumbar 170. Laminotome 171. Radioulnar 172. Cranioplasty 173. Costochondritis NARRBEGIN: 13-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND

174. Paravertebral 175. Supratibial 176. Thoracic 177. Tendolysis 178. Sternotomy 179. Phalangeal 180. Patellofemoral 181. Osteotomy 182. Myopathy 183. Myelosclerosis 184. Lumbar 185. Laminotome 186. Radioulnar 187. Cranioplasty 188. Costochondritis NARRBEGIN: 13-04 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 189. Cervicitis 190. Metacarpophalangeal 191. Arthrodynia 192. Osteoclasis 193. Extratibial 194. Thoracolumbar 195. Kinesimeter

196. Meniscal 197. Muscular 198. Puborectal 199. Arthrodynia NARRBEGIN: 13-05 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 200. Cervicitis 201. Metacarpophalangeal 202. Osteoclasis 203. Extratibial 204. Thoracolumbar 205. Kinesimeter 206. Meniscal 207. Muscular 208. Puborectal

Chapter 13: Muscular and Skeletal Systems Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

83. ANS: E

PTS: 1

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

119.

120.

121.

122.

ANS: O ANS: S ANS: T ANS: T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

143.

ANS: M ANS: O ANS: D ANS: S ANS: L ANS: J ANS: B ANS: F ANS: V ANS: G ANS: A ANS: E ANS: H ANS: S ANS: H ANS: A ANS: R ANS: A ANS: O ANS: G ANS: S

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 144. ANS: Upper extremity PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 145. ANS: Rheumatoid arthritis PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 146. ANS: Motor vehicle accident PTS: 1 147. ANS: Fracture

NAR: 13-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 148. ANS: Durable medical equipment PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 149. ANS: Range of motion PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 150. ANS: Open reduction–internal fixation PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 151. ANS: Herniated nucleus pulposus PTS: 1

NAR: 13-01

152. ANS: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 153. ANS: Intramuscular PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 154. ANS: Anterior cruciate ligament PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 155. ANS: Osteoarthritis PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 156. ANS: Electromyography PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 157. ANS: Total hip arthroplasty, total hip replacement PTS: 1 NAR: 13-01 158. ANS: Lower extremity PTS: 1 159. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-01

PTS: 1 160. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 161. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 162. ANS: Destruction

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-02 163. ANS: Cutting into or incision PTS: 1 164. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 165. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 166. ANS: Cutting into incision

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 167. ANS: Disease

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 168. ANS: Hardening

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 169. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-02 170. ANS: Cutting instrument PTS: 1 171. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-02 172. ANS: Surgical repair PTS: 1 NAR: 13-02 173. ANS: Inflammation PTS: 1 174. ANS: Vertebrae

NAR: 13-02

PTS: 1 175. ANS: Tibia

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 176. ANS: Thorax

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 177. ANS: Tendon

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 178. ANS: Sternum

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 179. ANS: Phalanges

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-03 180. ANS: Patella and femur PTS: 1 181. ANS: Bone

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 182. ANS: Muscle

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 183. ANS: Bone marrow spinal cord

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 184. ANS: Lower back

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 185. ANS: Lamina

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-03 186. ANS: Radius and ulna PTS: 1 187. ANS: Cranium

NAR: 13-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-03 188. ANS: Ribs and cartilage PTS: 1 NAR: 13-03 189. ANS: Inflammation PTS: 1 190. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 191. ANS: Pain

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 192. ANS: Breaking

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 193. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 194. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-04 195. ANS: Measuring instrument PTS: 1 196. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 197. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 198. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 199. ANS: Joint

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 200. ANS: Neck

NAR: 13-04

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-05 201. ANS: Metacarpals and phalanges PTS: 1 202. ANS: Bone

NAR: 13-05

PTS: 1 203. ANS: Tibia

NAR: 13-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-05 204. ANS: Thorax and lower back PTS: 1 205. ANS: Motion

NAR: 13-05

PTS: 1 206. ANS: Meniscus

NAR: 13-05

PTS: 1 207. ANS: Muscle

NAR: 13-05

PTS: 1 NAR: 13-05 208. ANS: Pubis and rectum PTS: 1

NAR: 13-05

Chapter 14: Special Senses (Eyes and Ears) Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following terms means inflammation of the cornea?

A. Corneometer B. Keratalgia C. Corneitis D. Keratodynia 2. The term keratosis means: A. Disease of the eye B. Disease of the cornea C. Abnormal condition of the cornea D. A condition of the eye 3. The term ophthalmoscope means: A. Visual examination of the ears B. Instrument used to view the eyes C. Process of recording sound D. Instrument used to cut the ears and eyes 4. Which of the following disorders is most likely to result in hearing loss?

A. Strabismus B. Hordeolum C. Otosclerosis D. Astigmatism 5. Which of the following disorders may affect the iris, ciliary body, choroid, or other parts of the eye?

A. Cataract B. Uveitis C. Tinnitus D. Macular degeneration 6. Which of the following disorders is also called swimmer’s ear?

A. Otitis externa B. Anacusis C. Glaucoma D. Astigmatism 7. Which of the following terms means drooping of the eyelid?

A. Blepharoptosis B. Anacusia C. Anopia D. Visoptosis 8. Which of the following terms means incision of the iris?

A. Irectomy B. Irotomy C. Lacrimotomy D. Lacrimostomy

9. The correct abbreviation for extraocular movement is: A. EOM B. EM C. EXOM D. EXOMT 10. The phrase pupils are equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation is abbreviated as: A. PAERRTLAA B. PERRLA C. PERL D. PERLA 11. The correct definition of Meniere’s disease is: A. Vision loss caused by increased intraocular pressure B. Loss of vision caused by diabetes C. Disorder of the labyrinth of the inner ear that may lead to progressive hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus D. Middle ear infection 12. The disorder known as otosclerosis is: A. Progressive deafness caused by bone formation B. Ringing in the ears C. Loss of vision due to diabetes D. Cloudiness of the lens due to protein deposits 13. The correct definition of retinal detachment is: A. Vision loss caused by increased intraocular pressure B. Separation of the retina, which may result in blindness C. Breakdown of the macula, resulting in loss of central vision D. Abnormal curvature of the cornea that distorts the visual image 14. The correct definition of vertigo is: A. A feeling of spinning or moving in space B. Loss of hearing due to aging C. Middle ear infection D. Total deafness 15. The correct definition of tinnitus is: A. Loss of hearing due to aging B. Ringing in the ears C. Inflammation and swelling of one of the glands in the eyelid D. Vision loss caused by increased intraocular pressure 16. The correct definition of hordeolum is: A. Cloudiness of the lens due to protein deposits B. Total deafness C. Infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid D. Middle ear infection 17. Which of the following terms means middle ear infection?

A. Otitis media B. Strabismus

C. Presbycusis D. Anacusis 18. Which of the following terms means inflammation of the conjunctiva?

A. Conjunctivitis B. Astigmatism C. Cataract D. Hordeolum 19. Which of the following terms means vision loss caused by increased intraocular pressure?

A. Glaucoma B. Hordeolum C. Astigmatism D. Presbycusis 20. Which of the following terms means abnormal curvature of the cornea that distorts the visual image?

A. Astigmatism B. Cataract C. Hordeolum D. Strabismus 21. Which of the following terms means cloudiness of the lens due to protein deposits?

A. Hordeolum B. Macular degeneration C. Cataract D. Glaucoma 22. Which of the following terms means total deafness?

A. Presbycusis B. Anacusis C. Strabismus D. Macular degeneration 23. Which of the following terms means deviation or misalignment of the eyes?

A. Strabismus B. Conjunctivitis C. Hordeolum D. Anacusis 24. Which of the following disorders most affects the appearance of the eyes?

A. Astigmatism B. Glaucoma C. Anacusis D. Hypertropia 25. A patient with Meniere’s disease would most likely suffer from which of the following symptoms?

A. Vertigo B. Double vision C. Vision loss D. Sensitivity to light 26. The term salpingostenosis means: A. Hardening of the eustachian tubes

B. Stopping of the eustachian tubes C. Mouthlike opening in the eustachian tubes D. Narrowing of the eustachian tubes 27. Which of the following terms means sudden involuntary contraction of the eustachian tube?

A. Tympanostenosis B. Salpingospasm C. Myringosclerosis D. Irostomy 28. The patient who needs a visual examination will visit an: A. Ophthalmology B. Optician C. Ocular D. Otologist 29. The term oculomycosis means: A. Abnormal condition of eye caused by a fungus B. Double vision C. Disease of the eye D. Pertaining to eye infection 30. The term ophthalmorrhexis means: A. Much thirst B. Abnormal vision C. Rupture of the eye D. Infection of the ear 31. The term microblepharism means: A. Condition of being far sighted B. Abnormal condition of large eyes C. Having same/equal sized eyelids D. Condition of small eyelids 32. The term dacryoid means: A. Resembling double B. Resembling tears C. Resembling sound D. None of these 33. The term diplopia means: A. Near image B. Far view C. Double vision D. Two eyes 34. Which of the following terms means a condition in which a cyst develops in the middle ear?

A. Oculosclerosis B. Otostenosis C. Cholesteatoma D. Audiostasis 35. Which of the following terms means pertaining to hearing?

A. B. C. D.

Audiology Otic Acoustic Ophthalmic

36. Which of the following terms means discharge of pus in the tears?

A. Dacryoscopy B. Dacryopyorrhea C. Otoscope D. Ophthalmoscope 37. All of the following abbreviations pertain to conditions that cause vision loss or impairment EXCEPT: A. glc B. MD C. EOM D. RD 38. Which of the following abbreviations refers to a type of procedure that improves vision?

A. AS B. LASIK C. CAT D. VA 39. All of the following abbreviations refer to the eyes EXCEPT: A. ENT B. EM C. RK D. RD 40. Which of the following is a disorder in which the brain disregards images from a weaker eye and relies on those from the stronger eye?

A. Amblyopia B. Astigmatism C. Chalazion D. Ectropion 41. Which of the following is a term for inflammation of the eyelash follicles?

A. Blepharitis B. Keratitis C. Cholesteatoma D. Labyrinthitis 42. Which of the following is a condition in which the lower eyelid is turned outward?

A. Ectropion B. Tinnitus C. Otosclerosis D. Meniere’s disease 43. All of the following are errors in refraction EXCEPT: A. Myopia B. Hyperopia C. Presbyopia D. Hypopia

44. Glaucoma has which of the following effects on the eye?

A. Cloudiness of the lens B. Inflammation of the lid and eyelash follicles C. Increased intraocular pressure D. Loss of central vision 45. The term for inflammation of the cornea, usually associated with decreased visual acuity, which may, if untreated, result in blindness is: A. Hordeolum B. Uveitis C. Keratitis D. Labyrinthitis 46. Which of the following is the term for separation of the inner sensory layer of the retina from the outer pigment layer, caused by a break in the inner layer that permits vitreous fluid to leak under the retina and lift off its innermost layer; may cause blindness?

A. Macular degeneration B. Retinal detachment C. Diabetic retinopathy D. Central scotoma 47. The term for a condition in which the eyelid edges are turned inward and rub against the surface of the eye, usually affecting the lower eyelid is: A. Entropion B. Strabismus C. Ectropion D. Nystagmus 48. The term for a vision defect in which parallel rays focus behind the retina as a result of flattening of the globe of the eye or of an error in refraction; commonly called farsightedness is: A. Hyperopia B. Myopia C. Presbyopia D. Amblyopia 49. The term for cloudiness of the lens due to protein deposits as a result of aging, disease, or trauma or as a side effect of tobacco use or certain medications is: A. Glaucoma (acute) B. Astigmatism C. Glaucoma (chronic) D. Cataract 50. Which of the following is a chronic progressive deafness caused by spongy bone formation around the oval window with resulting ankylosis of the stapes?

A. Ménière’s disease B. Otitis externa C. Otosclerosis D. Otitis media 51. Which combining form indicates tear?

A. dacry/o B. ocul/o

C. dipl/o D. ot/o 52. Which combining form indicates lens?

A. corne/o B. retin/o C. optic/o D. phac/o 53. Which combining form indicates tympanic membrane?

A. myring/o B. audi/o C. salping/o D. lacrim/o 54. Which combining form indicates old age?

A. phak/o B. presby/o C. conjunctiv/o D. acous/o 55. Which combining form indicates eyelid?

A. scler/o B. irid/o C. blephar/o D. ir/o 56. Which of the following conditions does NOT result in vision loss?

A. Presbycusis B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Retinal detachment D. Glaucoma 57. Which of the following conditions results in an abnormal curvature of the cornea, distorting the visual image?

A. Presbycusis B. Astigmatism C. Cataract D. Hordeolum 58. Albert Mills is an older man who experiences diminished hearing because of advanced age. This condition is known as: A. Photophobia B. Glaucoma C. Presbycusis D. Hordeolum 59. A type of blindness caused by diabetes is known as diabetic A. Retinopathy B. Cataract C. Macular degeneration D. Ménière’s disease 60. Onset of blindness caused by increased intraocular pressure is known as:

.

A. B. C. D.

Cataract Macular degeneration Hordeolum Glaucoma

61. Which of the following terms means absence of smell or odor?

A. Anosmia B. Anacusia C. Anopia D. None of these 62. Which of the following terms means excision or surgical removal of the tear gland?

A. Cryoextraction B. Dacryoadenectomy C. Lacrimotomy D. Cryosurgery 63. Which of the following terms means disintegration of the lens?

A. Phakolysis B. Phacolysis C. Both A and B D. Phakomatosis 64. Which of the following terms means specialist in the study of sound?

A. Acoustic B. Audiology C. Audiometer D. None of these 65. Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of hardening of the eardrum?

A. Keratoscleritis B. Tympanosclerosis C. Phacosclerosis D. Otosclerosis 66. Which of the following terms means flow or discharge from the ear?

A. Salpingorrhaphy B. Dacryopyorrhea C. Otorrhea D. Iridorrhexis 67. The patient who needs a vision examination will visit an: A. Ophthalmologist B. Optician C. Ocularist D. Otologist 68. The term hemiopia means: A. Half vision B. Double vision C. Far or beyond vision D. Good or normal vision

69. The term dysopia means: A. Displacement in the position of the eyes B. Disturbance of sleep C. Distortion of smell perception D. Defective vision 70. The term dacryoadenalgia means: A. Pain in a lacrimal sac.

B. Pain in a lacrimal gland C. A herniated protrusion of a lacrimal sac D. Hardening of a lacrimal gland 71. Which of the following is an infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid?

A. Hordeolum B. Keratitis C. Cholesteatoma D. Labyrinthitis 72. Which of the following is a feeling of spinning or moving in space?

A. Vertigo B. Tinnitus C. Otosclerosis D. Ménière’s disease 73. An error in refraction is: A. Myopia B. Hypertropia C. Presbyopia D. Esotropia Matching Match each diagnostic procedure with the correct definition.

A. Measurement of the intraocular tension to detect glaucoma B. Vision screening tool that contains rows of letters in decreasing size C. A hearing test that evaluates bone conduction by using a tuning fork D. A hearing test that compares bone conduction to air conduction by using a tuning fork E. Detailed measurement of hearing using an audiometer 74. Weber test 75. Snellen eye chart 76. Audiometry 77. Tonometry 78. Rinne test Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Flow or discharge from the ear B. Rupture of the eye C. Abnormal condition of eye fungus

D. Hardening of the tympanic membrane E. Pertaining to hearing 79. Oculomycosis 80. Otorrhea 81. Tympanosclerosis 82. Ophthalmorrhexis 83. Acoustic Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Measurement of hearing B. Hernia of the cornea C. Surgical fixation of the retina D. Pertaining to the sclera E. Drooping or prolapse of the eyelid 84. Scleral 85. Keratocele 86. Retinopexy 87. Audiometry 88. Blepharoptosis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to the eustachian tube and pharynx B. Pertaining to the cornea C. Resembling double D. Surgical repair of the tympanic membrane E. Cutting into or incision of the iris 89. Irotomy 90. Myringoplasty 91. Diploid 92. Corneous 93. Salpingopharyngeal Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Cutting instrument for the iris B. Poisonous to the lens C. Inflammation of the conjunctiva D. Pertaining to the lacrimal glands E. Flow or discharge of pus in the tears 94. Lacrimal 95. Iridectome

96. Phacotoxic 97. Dacryopyorrhea 98. Conjunctivitis Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Pertaining to absence of hearing B. Pertaining to the eye C. Swelling of the eyelid D. Excessive vision or far vision E. Study of the eye 99. Anacoustic 100. Ocular, ophthalmic 101. Hyperopia 102. Ophthalmology 103. Blepharedema Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Inflammation of the cornea B. Double vision C. Cutting into or incision of the tympanic membrane D. Viewing instrument for the eye E. Disease of the retina 104. Diplopia 105. Ophthalmoscope, oculoscope 106. Myringotomy, tympanotomy 107. Keratitis 108. Retinopathy Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Surgical repair of the sclera B. Surgical repair of the eye C. Pertaining to the ear D. Pertaining to the lacrimal gland and nose E. Softening of the lens 109. Lacrimonasal 110. Oculoplasty, ophthalmoplasty 111. Scleroplasty 112. Otic 113. Phacomalacia

Match each term with the correct definition.

A. Abnormal condition of the retina B. Tumor of the conjunctiva C. Excision or surgical removal of the iris D. Measurement of hearing E. Paralysis of the eye 114. Iridectomy 115. Conjunctivoma 116. Audiometry 117. Ophthalmoplegia 118. Retinosis Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Eyeball B. Pupil C. Rods D. Sclera E. Ciliary body F. Cones G. Cornea H. Ciliary muscles I. Aqueous humor J. Conjunctiva K. Lens L. Schlemm’s canal M. Choroid N. Suspensory ligaments O. Vitreous humor P. Optic nerve Q. Accommodation R. Lacrimal glands S. Iris T. Retina U. Tears 119. Surrounds the pupil and gives eyes their color 120. Innermost layer of the eye containing two types of visual receptors 121. Fluid in the anterior chamber that provides nourishment for the lens and cornea and bends light rays to focus them sharply onto the retina 122. White, outermost layer that provides strength, structure, and shape to the eye 123. Cause the lens to change shape when they contract or expand 124. Small opening for drainage of aqueous humor

125. Fluid to bathe, moisten, and lubricate the eye; serve a protective role by killing bacteria and washing away foreign debris 126. Attached to the retina; transmits visual information to the brain 127. Dark blue middle layer that supplies blood to the entire eye 128. Attach the ciliary body and muscles to the lens 129. Globe-shaped organ that consists of three layers 130. Attached to the lens; includes several ciliary muscles 131. Transparent bulge of the sclera that allows light into the eye 132. Visual receptors in the retina that function in dim lighting to produce images in black and white 133. The process of rounding and flattening of the lens that enables focus in both near and far vision 134. Produce tears that flow over the eye’s surface 135. Dilates to allow more light to enter the eye; constricts to decrease the amount of light entering the eye 136. Jellylike substance in the posterior chamber that gives shape to the eye and bends light rays to focus them sharply onto the retina 137. Thin mucous membrane covering the outer surface of the eye that contains blood vessels and secretory glands 138. Clear, firm, transparent disc in the middle layer that can change shape to allow vision at different distances 139. Visual receptors in the retina that detect color and function in more brightly lit situations Choose the term that matches the description.

A. Ear B. Eustachian tube C. Semicircular canals D. Pinna E. Ossicles F. Vestibular system G. External auditory canal H. Labyrinth I. Vestibulocochlear (auditory) nerve J. Cerumen K. Cochlea L. Static equilibrium M. Tympanic membrane N. Perilymph O. Organ of Corti P. Dynamic equilibrium Q. Endolymph 140. Cochlea vibrations cause a disturbance of this pale, transparent fluid, which, in turn, disturb hair cells on the organ of Corti, transmitting impulses to the auditory nerve 141. Waxy substance in the external auditory canal that traps tiny foreign particles and prevents them from entering the deeper structures

142. Vibrations of the tympanic membrane cause these three tiny bones to move, which sends vibrations to the inner ear 143. Feeling a sense of balance when at rest or not moving 144. Slender tube that runs from the external ear to the middle ear 145. Translates sound vibrations into nerve impulses; controls both static and dynamic equilibrium 146. Connects the middle ear to the throat; allows air movement between the inner ear and the outer atmosphere 147. Pale, transparent fluid within the labyrinth that responds to changes in body position based on gravity 148. Made of cartilage covered with skin; collects sound waves and channels them into the external auditory canal 149. Complex, mazelike anatomy of the inner ear 150. Wall between the external and middle ear that is commonly known as the eardrum; vibrates in response to sound waves 151. Located behind the ossicles, the oval window, and the round window; contains perilymph and endolymph; part of the vestibular system 152. Sends nerve impulses to the brain 153. Responsible for hearing, balance, and equilibrium 154. Sense of balance when we are in motion 155. Snail-shaped structure of the inner ear lined with the organ of Corti and filled with perilymph; part of the vestibular system 156. Highly sensitive hearing structure lining the inner surface of the cochlea Completion Complete each statement.

NARRBEGIN: 14-01 Write the meaning of the abbreviation on the line.

NARREND 157. LASIK 158. EOM 159. MD 160. ENT 161. RK 162. CAT 163. EENT

164. EM, em 165. AS, ast 166. RD 167. AOM 168. V, VA 169. G, glc 170. PERRLA 171. TM NARRBEGIN: 14-02 Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 172. Keratoid 173. Neoplasia 174. Myringomycosis 175. Tympanometry 176. Retro-ocular 177. Ophthalmoplegia 178. Otoplasty 179. Oculonasal 180. Tympanic 181. Keratotomy 182. Blepharoptosis 183. Ophthalmorrhea 184. Intraocular 185. Lacrimotome

186. Phacosclerosis NARRBEGIN: 14-03 Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 187. Keratoid 188. Neoplasia 189. Myringomycosis 190. Tympanometry 191. Retro-ocular 192. Ophthalmoplegia 193. Otoplasty 194. Oculonasal 195. Tympanic 196. Keratotomy 197. Blepharoptosis 198. Ophthalmorrhea 199. Intraocular 200. Lacrimotome 201. Phacosclerosis NARRBEGIN: 14-02A Write the meaning of the suffix in each of the terms.

NARREND 202. Dacryohemorrhea 203. Iridomalacia 204. Lacrimotomy 205. Phacoid 206. Presbycusis

207. Retinopathy 208. Dacryadenalgia 209. Blepharospasm 210. Iridoplegia 211. Phakoma NARRBEGIN: 14-03A Write the meaning of the combining form(s) in each of the terms.

NARREND 212. Dacryohemorrhea 213. Iridomalacia 214. Lacrimotomy 215. Phacoid 216. Presbycusis 217. Retinopathy 218. Dacryadenalgia 219. Blepharospasm 220. Iridoplegia 221. Phakoma

Chapter 14: Special Senses (Eyes and Ears) Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

MATCHING 74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

79.

80.

81.

82.

ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

83. ANS: E

PTS: 1

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1

119.

120.

121.

122.

ANS: S ANS: T ANS: I ANS: D

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

ANS: H ANS: L ANS: U ANS: P ANS: M ANS: N ANS: A ANS: E ANS: G ANS: C ANS: Q ANS: R ANS: B ANS: O ANS: J ANS: K ANS: F

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

148.

149.

150.

151.

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

ANS: N ANS: J ANS: E ANS: L ANS: G ANS: F ANS: B ANS: Q ANS: D ANS: H ANS: M ANS: C ANS: I ANS: A ANS: P ANS: K ANS: O

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

COMPLETION 157. ANS: Laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 158. ANS: Extraocular movement PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 159. ANS: Macular degeneration PTS: 1

NAR: 14-01

160. ANS: Ears, nose, and throat PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 161. ANS: Radial keratotomy PTS: 1 162. ANS: Cataract

NAR: 14-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 163. ANS: Eyes, ears, nose, and throat PTS: 1 164. ANS: Emmetropia

NAR: 14-01

PTS: 1 165. ANS: Astigmatism

NAR: 14-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 166. ANS: Retinal detachment PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 167. ANS: Acute otitis media PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 168. ANS: Visual acuity PTS: 1 169. ANS: Glaucoma

NAR: 14-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 170. ANS: Pupils are equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation PTS: 1 NAR: 14-01 171. ANS: Tympanic membrane PTS: 1 172. ANS: Resembling

NAR: 14-01

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 173. ANS: Formation or growth PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 174. ANS: Abnormal condition PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 175. ANS: Measurement PTS: 1 176. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 14-02

PTS: 1 177. ANS: Paralysis

NAR: 14-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 178. ANS: Surgical repair PTS: 1 179. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 14-02

PTS: 1 180. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 14-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 181. ANS: Cutting into or incision PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 182. ANS: Drooping or prolapse PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 183. ANS: Flow or discharge PTS: 1 184. ANS: Pertaining to

NAR: 14-02

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 185. ANS: Cutting instrument PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 186. ANS: Abnormal condition of hardening PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02 187. ANS: Cornea or keratinized tissue PTS: 1 NAR: 14-03 188. ANS: No combining form PTS: 1 NAR: 14-03 189. ANS: Tympanic membrane and fungus PTS: 1 NAR: 14-03 190. ANS: Tympanic membrane PTS: 1 191. ANS: Eye

NAR: 14-03

PTS: 1 192. ANS: Eye

NAR: 14-03

PTS: 1 193. ANS: Ear

NAR: 14-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-03 194. ANS: Eyes and nose PTS: 1 NAR: 14-03 195. ANS: Tympanic membrane PTS: 1 NAR: 14-03 196. ANS: Cornea or keratinized tissue PTS: 1 197. ANS: Eyelid

NAR: 14-03

PTS: 1 198. ANS: Eye

NAR: 14-03

PTS: 1 199. ANS: Eye

NAR: 14-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-03 200. ANS: Lacrimal gland PTS: 1 201. ANS: Lens

NAR: 14-03

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-03 202. ANS: Flow or discharge PTS: 1 203. ANS: Softening

NAR: 14-02A

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02A 204. ANS: Cutting into or incision PTS: 1 205. ANS: Resembling

NAR: 14-02A

PTS: 1 206. ANS: Hearing

NAR: 14-02A

PTS: 1 207. ANS: Disease

NAR: 14-02A

PTS: 1 208. ANS: Pain

NAR: 14-02A

PTS: 1

NAR: 14-02A

209. ANS: Sudden involuntary contraction PTS: 1 210. ANS: Paralysis

NAR: 14-02A

PTS: 1 211. ANS: Tumor

NAR: 14-02A

PTS: 1 NAR: 14-02A 212. ANS: Tears and blood PTS: 1 213. ANS: Iris

NAR: 14-03A

NAR: 14-03A PTS: 1 214. ANS: Lacrimal gland PTS: 1 215. ANS: Lens

NAR: 14-03A

PTS: 1 216. ANS: Old-age

NAR: 14-03A

PTS: 1 217. ANS: Retina

NAR: 14-03A

NAR: 14-03A PTS: 1 218. ANS: Tear and gland PTS: 1 219. ANS: Eyelid

NAR: 14-03A

PTS: 1 220. ANS: Iris

NAR: 14-03A

PTS: 1 221. ANS: Lens

NAR: 14-03A

PTS: 1

NAR: 14-03A