TEST BANK for Radiologic Science for Technologists 12th Edition Physics, Biology, and Protection by

TEST BANK for Radiologic Science for Technologists 12th Edition Physics, Biology, and Protection by Stewart C. Bushong.

Chapter 01: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Matter is measured in ___________. a. kilograms b. joules c. electron volts d. rems ANS: A

Matter is measured in kilograms.

2. Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of ___________. a. energy b. radiation c. matter d. gravity ANS: C

Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of matter.

3. Ice and steam are examples of two forms of ___________. a. matter b. radiation c. energy d. work ANS: A

Ice and steam are examples of two forms of matter.

4. The formula E = mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of __________. a. x-rays b. electromagnetic radiation c. nuclear power d. cathode ray tubes ANS: C

The formula E = mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of nuclear power.

5. Radio waves, light, and x-rays are all examples of _________ energy. a. nuclear b. thermal c. electrical d. electromagnetic ANS: D

Electromagnetic energy includes radio waves, light, and x-rays as well as other parts of the spectrum.

6. A moving object has ____________ energy. a. potential b. kinetic c. nuclear d. electromagnetic ANS: B

A moving object has kinetic energy.

7. What is the removal of an electron from an atom called? a. Ionization b. Pair production c. Irradiation d. Electricity ANS: A

The removal of an electron from an atom is called ionization.

8. Ionizing radiation is capable of removing ____________ from atoms as it passes through the

matter. a. neutrons b. protons c. electrons d. ions ANS: C

Ionizing radiation is capable of removing electrons from atoms as it passes through the matter.

9. The energy of x-rays is ___________. a. thermal b. potential c. kinetic d. electromagnetic ANS: D

X-rays are a form of electromagnetic energy.

10. The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is

______________. a. atomic fallout b. diagnostic x-rays c. smoke detectors d. nuclear power plants ANS: B

Medical x-ray exposure is the biggest source of man-made radiation.

11. In the United States, we are exposed to _________ mSv/year of ionizing radiation from the

natural environment. a. 0 to 5 b. 5 to 20 c. 20 to 90

d. 100 to 300 ANS: A

We are exposed to about 3 mSv/yr of ionizing radiation from natural environmental sources in the United States.

12. ___________ is a special quantity of radiologic science. a. Mass b. Velocity c. Radioactivity d. Momentum ANS: C

Radioactivity is a special quantity of radiologic science.

13. Today, radiology is considered to be a(n) ___________ occupation. a. safe b. unsafe c. dangerous d. high-risk ANS: A

Today, radiology is considered to be a safe occupation because of effective radiation protection practices.

14. What does ALARA mean? a. All Level Alert Radiation Accident b. As Low As Reasonably Achievable c. Always Leave A Restricted Area d. As Low As Regulations Allow ANS: B

ALARA means As Low As Reasonably Achievable.

15. Computed tomography was developed in the ________. a. 1890s b. 1920s c. 1970s d. 1990s ANS: C

Computed tomography was developed in the 1970s.

16. Filtration is used to ____________________. a. absorb low-energy x-rays b. remove high-energy x-rays c. restrict the useful beam to the body part imaged d. fabricate gonadal shields ANS: A

Filtration is used to absorb low-energy x-rays.

TRUE/FALSE 1. Mass is the quantity of matter as described by its energy equivalence.

ANS: T

Mass is the quantity of matter as described by its energy equivalence.

2. Radiation is the removal of an electron from an atom.

ANS: F

Ionization is the removal of an electron from an atom.

3. Radiology emerged as a medical specialty because of the Snook transformer and the Crookes

x-ray tube.

ANS: F

Radiology emerged as a medical specialty because of the Snook transformer and the Coolidge x-ray tube.

Chapter 02: Basic Physics Primer Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The basic quantities measured in mechanics are ________, _________, and _________. a. volume; length; meters b. mass; length; time c. radioactivity; dose; exposure d. meters; kilos; seconds ANS: B

The basic quantities measured in mechanics are mass, length, and time.

2. An example of a derived quantity in mechanical physics is a ________. a. meter b. second c. dose d. volume ANS: D

Volume is a derived unit.

3. Exposure is measured in units of ___________. a. becquerel b. sieverts c. meters d. grays ANS: D

Exposure is measured in units of grays.

4. What is the decimal equivalent of the proper fraction 4/1000? a. 0004 b. 004 c. 04 d. 4 ANS: B

The decimal equivalent of the proper fraction 4/1000 is .004.

5. What is the decimal equivalent of the improper fraction 289/74? a. 390 b. 3.90 c. 39.0 d. 390.0 ANS: B

The decimal equivalent of the improper fraction 289/74 is 3.90.

6. The first step to expressing a number in scientific notation is to __________________. a. round up to the nearest 1000 b. round down to the nearest 1000 c. write the number in decimal form d. write the number as a fraction ANS: C

The first step to expressing a number in scientific notation is to write the number in decimal form.

7. What is 6080 in exponential form? a. 6080.0  104 b. 608.0  104 c. 6.080  103 d. 6080  103 ANS: C

The number 6080 in exponential form is 6.080  103 8. Graphs are typically based on two axes; a ________________ and a ________________. a. y-axis; z-axis b. oblique; horizontal c. x-axis; y-axis d. vertical; oblique ANS: C

Most graphs are based on two axes: a horizontal or x-axis and a vertical or y-axis.

9. In radiologic science, all of the following are special quantities, except: a. exposure. b. distance. c. dose.

d. effective dose.

ANS: B

In radiologic science, special quantities are those of exposure, dose, effective dose, and radioactivity.

10. Mass density should be reported in which units? a. Coulomb/kilogram b. Newtons per square meter c. Kilograms per cubic meter d. Kilograms per square meter ANS: C

Mass density should be reported with units of kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m3).

11. The SI unit of velocity is _____________________. a. meters per second b. miles per hour c. meters per millisecond d. kilometers per second ANS: C

Units of velocity in SI are meters per second (m/s).

12. An object at rest will _________________ if no outside forces are applied. a. stay at rest b. decrease mass c. increase velocity d. decrease velocity ANS: A

An object at rest will stay at rest if no outside forces are applied.

13. Which of the following explains the difference between speed and velocity? a. One has motion, and the other does not. b. One involves acceleration, and the other does not. c. One involves time, and the other does not. d. One has direction, and the other does not.

ANS: B

Velocity includes acceleration and speed does not. Speed is the rate at which an object covers distance.

14. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, this describes which Newton’s law? a. Newton’s first law of motion b. Newton’s second law of motion c. Newton’s third law of motion d. Newton’s law of inertia ANS: C

Newton's third law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

15. Work is the product of ________________ and distance. a. force b. gravity c. acceleration d. motion ANS: A

Work is the product of force and distance.

16. The transfer of heat by the emission of infrared radiation is ________________. a. electric radiation b. magnetic energy c. mechanical energy d. thermal radiation ANS: D

Thermal radiation is the transfer of heat by the emission of infrared radiation.

17. What heat transfer takes place when you burn your finger by touching a hot iron? a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. Electromagnetic ANS: A

Conduction is the transfer of heat through a material or by touching.

18. What heat transfer takes place when water is boiled? a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. Electromagnetic ANS: B

Convection is the mechanical transfer of ―hot‖ molecules in a gas or liquid from one place to another.

19. What are the two cryogens used in Magnetic resonance imaging with a superconducting

magnet? a. Gaseous helium and gaseous nitrogen b. Liquid helium and gaseous nitrogen c. Gaseous helium and liquid helium d. Liquid helium and liquid nitrogen ANS: D

Liquid nitrogen and liquid helium are the two cryogens that are used in magnetic resonance imaging with a superconducting magnet.

20. When you stretch a rubber band, you are storing _________________ energy. a. kinetic b. potential c. thermal

d. radiant ANS: B

Potential energy is the stored energy of position or configuration.

Chapter 03: The Structure of Matter Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The term ―atom‖ was first used by the ___________. a. Ethiopians b. British c. Greeks d. Romans ANS: C

The term ―atom‖ was first used by the Greeks.

2. The first person to describe an element as being composed of identical atoms was

__________. a. J. J. Thomson b. John Dalton c. Dmitri Mendeleev d. Niels Bohr ANS: B

The first person to describe an element as being composed of identical atoms was John Dalton.

3. The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is a(n) __________. a. neutron b. proton c. electron d. atom ANS: D

The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is an atom.

4. The periodic table of the elements was developed by __________ in the late 19th century. a. Bohr b. Rutherford c. Mendeleev d. Roentgen ANS: C

The Periodic Table was developed by Mendeleev.

5. Rutherford’s experiments in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of

_________________. a. electrons with well-defined orbits b. a nucleus with an electron cloud

c. electrified plum pudding d. a ball of hooks and eyes ANS: C

Rutherford’s experiments in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of a nucleus with an electron cloud.

6. A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined

orbits is the ___________ model of the atom. a. Bohr b. Thomson c. Rutherford d. Dalton ANS: A

A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits is the Bohr model of the atom.

7. What are the fundamental particles of an atom? a. Quark, positron, negatron b. Nucleon, electron, proton c. Proton, neutron, quark d. Proton, electron, neutron ANS: D

The fundamental particles of an atom are the proton, electron, and neutron.

8. The chemical element is determined by the number of __________ in the atom. a. protons b. electrons c. neutrons d. nucleons ANS: A

The chemical element is determined by the number of protons in the atom.

9. An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of _______. a. one b. zero c. positive d. negative ANS: B

An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of zero.

10. The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their ___________. a. atomic numbers b. atomic mass units c. shells d. isotopes ANS: C

The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their shells.

11. When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons,

it is called an __________. a. isomer b. isobar c. isotone d. isotope ANS: D

When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons, it is called an isotope.

12. When atoms of various elements combine, they form __________. a. isotopes b. compounds c. molecules d. ions ANS: C

When atoms of various elements combine, they form molecules.

13. An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is a(n) ________. a. ion b. molecule c. isotope d. isomer ANS: A

An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is an ion.

14. The maximum number of electrons that can exist in an electron shell is calculated with the

formula _____. a. 2n b. 2n2 c. 2/n d. 2/n2 ANS: B

The number of electrons in an electron shell is calculated with the formula 2n2.

15. A neutral atom has the same number of _________ and electrons. a. quarks b. neutrinos c. neutrons d. protons ANS: D

A neutral atom has the same number of protons and electrons.

16. The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter _____. a. J

b. K c. L d. M ANS: B

The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter K. 17. The shell number of an atom is called the ___________________. a. alpha particle b. chemical element c. principal quantum number d. half-life number ANS: C

The shell number of an atom is called the principal quantum number.

18. The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter _____. a. A b. X c. Z d. n ANS: C

The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter Z. 19. Aluminum has an atomic number of 13. How many protons does it have? a. 13 b. 26 c. 27 d. None of the options ANS: A

The atomic number equals the number of protons in an atom.

20. Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called ____________. a. isotopes b. isomers c. isotones d. isobars ANS: B

Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called isomers.

Chapter 04: Electromagnetic Energy Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The four properties of photons are ________, ________, ________ and ________. a. size; shape; spin; mass b. frequency; mass; amplitude; wavelength c. frequency; wavelength; velocity; amplitude

d. refraction; velocity; spin; amplitude ANS: C

The properties of photons are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude.

2. The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a(n) ________. a. photon b. electron c. neutrino d. quark ANS: A

The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a photon.

3. What is the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation? a. 8  103 m/s b. 2  108 m/s c. 3  108 m/s d. 4  103 m/s ANS: C

The velocity of all electromagnetic radiation is 3  108 m/s.

4. The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its __________. a. amplitude b. frequency c. wavelength d. velocity ANS: B

The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its frequency.

5. A hertz (Hz) is equal to _____ cycle(s) per second. a. 103 b. 102 c. 10 d. 1 ANS: D

A hertz is equal to 1 cycle per second.

6. What is the electromagnetic wave equation? a. c = f b. c = f/ c. c = fv d. c = f –  ANS: A

The wave equation is c = f.

7. The _________ of electromagnetic radiation is constant. a. amplitude

b. velocity c. frequency d. wavelength ANS: B

The velocity of electromagnetic radiation is constant.

8. If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its

frequency must ___________. a. double b. increase four times c. decrease by half d. remain constant ANS: C

If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its frequency must decrease by half.

9. The intensity of radiation _________ in _________ proportion to the square of the distance of

the object from the source. a. increases; direct b. decreases; direct c. increases; inverse d. decreases; inverse ANS: D

The intensity of radiation decreases in inverse proportion to the square of the distance of the object from the source.

10. The reduction of radiation intensity due to scattering and absorption is called _____. a. reflection b. refraction c. attenuation d. dispersion ANS: C

The reduction of radiation intensity due to scattering and absorption is called attenuation.

11. The intensity of radiation on an object is reduced with distance because the radiation

___________. a. reduces its velocity b. increases in wavelength c. loses its energy d. is spread out over a greater area ANS: D

The intensity of radiation on an object is reduced with distance because the radiation is spread out over a greater area.

12. If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet, what

will the intensity be at 6 feet? a. 0.4 millilumens

b. 1 millilumen c. 2 millilumens d. 16 millilumens ANS: B

If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet using the inverse square law, it will be 1 millilumen at 6 feet.

13. The diagnostic range of x-ray energy is _____________. a. 30 to 150 kVp b. 200 to 300 kVp c. 300 to 1000 kVp d. over 1 MV ANS: A

The diagnostic range of x-ray energy is 30 to 150 kVp. 14. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its ___________. a. amplitude b. frequency c. velocity d. wavelength ANS: B

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency.

15. The mass equivalent of a 100 KeV photon of radiation can be calculated using the _____. a. inverse square formula b. equivalent Planck equation c. relativity formula d. Planck quantum equation ANS: C

The mass equivalent of a 100 KeV photon of radiation can be calculated using the relativity formula.

16. X-rays are usually identified by their __________. a. energy b. velocity c. wavelength d. hertz ANS: A

X-rays are usually identified by their energy.

17. The lowest energy range of the electromagnetic spectrum is ____________. a. sound waves b. radio waves c. gamma rays d. microwaves ANS: B

The lowest energy range on the electromagnetic spectrum is radio waves.

18. Gamma rays are produced in the ___________ of the atom. a. outer electron shell b. inner electron shell c. nucleus d. K-shell ANS: C

Gamma rays are produced in the nucleus of the atom.

19. Photons tend to interact with matter __________ their wavelength. a. equal in size to b. larger in size than c. smaller in size than d. unequal in size to ANS: A

Photons tend to interact with matter equal in size to their wavelength.

20. Photons with the highest frequencies have the ____________. a. highest velocity b. lowest energy c. longest wavelengths d. shortest wavelengths ANS: D

Photons with the highest frequencies have the shortest wavelengths.

Chapter 05: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The smallest unit of electrical charge is the __________. a. electron b. proton c. neutron d. neutrino ANS: A

The smallest unit of electrical charge is the electron.

2. Electrification occurs through the movement of ___________. a. protons only b. protons and electrons c. electrons only d. electrons and neutrons ANS: C

Electrification occurs only through the movement of electrons.

3. Like charges _______ and unlike charges _______. a. repel; repel b. attract; attract c. attract; repel d. repel; attract ANS: D

Like charges repel and unlike charges attract.

4. Electrostatic force is _________ proportional to the distance between charges, and _______

proportional to the product of the charges. a. directly; inversely b. inversely; directly c. inversely; inversely d. directly; directly ANS: B

Electrostatic force is inversely proportional to the distance between charges, and directly proportional to the product of the charges.

5. The charges on an electrified object are distributed __________.

a. in the center of the object b. on the side nearest the charge c. on the topside of the object d. evenly throughout the object

ANS: D The charges on an electrified object are distributed evenly throughout.

6. On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the __________. a. top side b. underside c. sharpest curvatures d. smoothest curvatures

ANS: C On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the sharpest curvature.

7. A _________ is a source of direct current.

a. wall socket b. battery c. generator d. spark

ANS: B A battery is a source of direct current.

8. What is the unit of electric potential? a. Watt b. Amp c. Volt d. Ohm

ANS: C The unit of electric potential is the volt.

9. An electric potential applied to a conductor produces a(n)__________. a. electric current b. magnetic field c. electric insulator and conductor d. electric current and a magnetic field

ANS: D When an electric potential is applied to a conductor, both an electric current and a magnetic field are produced.

10. An alternating (AC) current is represented by a __________ line. a. sinusoidal b. horizontal

c. vertical d. descending

ANS: A An alternating (AC) current is represented by a sinusoidal line.

11. A ___________ uses direct current. a. hair dryer b. toaster c. microwave d. flashlight

ANS: D A flashlight is battery operated, and batteries use direct current.

12. Alternating current is produced by a ___________. a. battery b. generator c. capacitor d. semiconductor

ANS: B Alternating current is produced by a generator.

13. What is Ohm’s law? a. I = V/R b. V = I/R c. R = VI d. I = VR

ANS: A Ohm’s law is I = V/R.

14. A charged particle in motion creates a(n) ______________. a. negative charge b. positive charge c. magnetic field d. electrostatic charge

ANS: C A charged particle in motion creates a magnetic field.

15. Electrical power is measured in _____. a. coulombs b. amperes c. volts d. watts

ANS: D Electrical power is measured in watts.

16. Rubber and glass are ___________. a. semiconductors b. conductors c. insulators d. superconductors

ANS: C Rubber and glass are insulators because they are nonconductors.

17. The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called ____________. a. magnetic force b. electron spin c. unified field theory d. magnetic induction

ANS: B The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called electron spin.

18. When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create _________________. a. a magnetic domain b. paramagnetic material c. magnetic resonance d. a north pole

ANS: A When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create a magnetic domain.

19. In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every _____ second. a. 1/120 b. 1/100 c. 1/60 d. 1/30

ANS: C In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every 1/60 second.

20. What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength? a. Ampere

b. Tesla c. Dipole d. Ohm

ANS: B The SI unit of magnetic field strength is the tesla or gauss.

Chapter 06: The X-Ray Imaging System Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The three main parts of the x-ray imaging system are the x-ray tube, ____________, and ____________. a. protective barrier; tabletop b. operating console; high voltage generator c. rectification circuit; operating console d. crane assembly; tabletop

ANS: B The three main parts of the x-ray imaging system are the x-ray tube, operating console, and high voltage generator.

2. The operating console contains circuits that are ________________. a. both high voltage and low voltage b. high voltage only c. low voltage only d. non-voltage

ANS: C The operating console contains circuits that are low voltage only.

3. Variations in power distribution to the x-ray machine are corrected by the ____________. a. line voltage compensator b. high voltage autotransformer c. full-wave rectifier d. automatic exposure control

ANS: A Variations in power distribution to the x-ray machine are corrected by the line voltage compensator.

4. The first component to receive power in the x-ray circuit is the ______________. a. mA meter b. high voltage transformer c. rectifier d. autotransformer

ANS: D The first component in the x-ray circuit is the autotransformer.

5. The autotransformer has _____ winding(s). a. one b. two c. three d. four

ANS: A The autotransformer has one winding.

6. The _________ circuit provides electrons for the x-ray tube current.

a. rectifier b. autotransformer c. high voltage d. filament

ANS: D The filament circuit provides electrons for the x-ray tube current.

7. Thermionic emission at the filament determines the __________ across the x-ray tube during an exposure. a. kilovoltage b. milliamperage c. resistance d. magnetism

ANS: B Thermionic emission at the filament determines the milliamperage across the x-ray tube during an exposure.

8. A step-down transformer is located in the _______ circuit. a. tube b. timing c. filament d. rectifier

ANS: C A step-down transformer is located in the filament circuit.

9. The most accurate type of timer is the ________ timer. a. mechanical

b. electronic c. synchronous d. mAs

ANS: B The most accurate type of timer is the electronic timer.

10. The automatic exposure control (AEC) terminates the exposure when ________________. a. the set time is reached b. set radiation leaves the x-ray tube c. sufficient radiation reaches the image receptor d. the correct mAs is reached

ANS: C The automatic exposure control (AEC) terminates the exposure when sufficient radiation reaches the image receptor.

11. The mAs timer is usually set to give the __________ mA at the _________ time. a. highest; highest b. highest; shortest c. lowest; shortest d. lowest; highest

ANS: B The mAs timer is usually set to give the highest mA at the shortest time.

12. The step-up transformer increases voltage _________ times. a. 500 to 1000 b. 200 to 300 c. 60 to 120

d. 20 to 50

ANS: A The step-up transformer increases voltage 500 to 1000 times.

13. A diode allows electrons to flow from ___________. a. anode to cathode b. cathode to anode c. cathode to cathode d. anode to anode

ANS: B A diode allows electrons to flow from cathode to anode.

14. The high voltage generator contains the high voltage transformer, the __________, and the ___________. a. autotransformer; timer b. timer; rectifiers c. kVp meter; filament transformer d. filament transformer; rectifiers

ANS: B The high voltage generator contains the high voltage transformer, the filament transformer, and the rectifiers.

15. The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high voltage transformer is _________. a. frequency b. velocity c. amplitude

d. potential difference

ANS: C The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high voltage transformer is amplitude.

16. In modern imaging systems, the components for rectification are ____________. a. capacitor discharge generators b. high frequency transformers c. vacuum tubes d. solid state semiconductors

ANS: D In modern imaging systems, the components for rectification are solid state semiconductors.

17. With half-wave rectification, the current flows through the x-ray tube during the ________ part of the cycle. a. zero b. positive or negative c. positive d. negative

ANS: C With half-wave rectification, the current flows through the x-ray tube during the positive part of the cycle.

18. Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at _____ pulse(es) per second. a. 1 b. 60 c. 120

d. 360

ANS: D Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at 360 pulses per second.

19. Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with _________________. a. high frequency generators b. single-phase, half-wave rectification c. single-phase, full-wave rectification d. three-phase, full-wave rectification

ANS: A Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with high frequency generators.

20. Most mammography units operate with ___________ generators. a. capacitor discharge b. high frequency c. single-phase d. three-phase

ANS: B Most mammography units operate with high frequency generators.

Chapter 07: The X-Ray Tube Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the ______________. a. C-arm

b. floor-to-ceiling mount c. ceiling support system d. floor support system

ANS: C The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the ceiling support system.

2. The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective housing, and the ___________. a. anode b. cathode c. glass envelope d. focusing cup

ANS: C The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective housing, and the glass envelope.

3. As an x-ray tube ages, the inside can become coated with tungsten, which can cause _____ in the tube. a. convection b. anode pitting c. off-focus radiation d. arcing

ANS: D Tungsten coating within the tube can cause arcing.

4. The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the ________. a. filament

b. anode c. target d. rotor

ANS: A The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the filament.

5. What is the most common cause of tube failure? a. Cracked anode b. Loose bearings c. Pitted anode d. Tungsten vaporization

ANS: D The most common cause of tube failure is tungsten vaporization.

6. The filament is made of __________. a. graphite b. tungsten c. copper d. molybdenum

ANS: B The filament is made of tungsten.

7. Thermionic emission at the filament creates a __________. a. space charge b. grid control c. line focus d. heel effect

ANS: A Thermionic emission at the filament creates a space charge.

8. The rotating anode is turned by a ____________. a. thermal cushion b. rotating belt c. magnetic field d. mechanical pulley

ANS: C The induction motor works by electromagnetic induction.

9. When electrons bombard the target, ____% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 99

ANS: D When electrons bombard the target, 99% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat.

10. The target of the rotating anode is usually coated with a ___________ alloy. a. molybdenum b. graphite c. tungsten d. copper

ANS: C

The target of the rotating anode is usually coated with a tungsten alloy.

11. The ___________ is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube. a. filament b. focal spot c. focusing cup d. stator

ANS: B The focal spot is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube.

12. Because of the line focus principal, the effective focal spot size decreases with decreasing _____________. a. target angle b. rotor speed c. window thickness d. space charge

ANS: A The size of the effective focal spot decreases as the target angle decreases.

13. High capacity tube rotors revolve at ______ rpm. a. 2000 b. 3600 c. 6000 d. 10,000

ANS: D High capacity tube rotors revolve at 10,000 rpm.

14. The x-ray intensity is lower on the anode side of the tube because of the _________. a. line focus principle b. heel effect c. focusing cup d. filament length

ANS: B The heel effect causes x-ray intensity to be greater on the anode side of the tube.

15. The cathode side of the tube should be directed toward the _____ part of the patient. a. upper b. lower c. thicker d. thinner

ANS: C The cathode side of the tube should be directed toward the thicker part of the patient, because of the heel effect.

16. What is the formula for heat units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine? a. kVp  mA  seconds b. 1.35  kVp  mA  seconds c. 1.41  kVp  mA  seconds d. 1.66  kVp  mA  seconds

ANS: B The formula for heat units is units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine is 1.35  kVp  mA  seconds.

17. Tube failure can occur from _______________.

a. extrafocal radiation b. short exposure times c. high kVp techniques d. long exposure times

ANS: D Tube failure can occur from long exposure times.

18. The filament in an x-ray tube is about _____ cm in length. a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 4 c. 8 to 10 d. 10 to 20

ANS: A The filament in an x-ray tube is about 1 to 2 cm in length.

19. A dual focus tube has two _______. a. anodes b. filaments c. rotors d. stators

ANS: B The dual focus tube has two filaments.

20. Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show __________________. a. housing cooling times b. anode cooling times c. maximum exposure times

d. maximum patient doses

ANS: C Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show maximum exposure times.

Chapter 08: X-Ray Production Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Projectile electrons travel from ______________. a. anode to cathode b. cathode to anode c. target to patient d. inner shell to outer shell

ANS: B Projectile electrons travel from filament to target.

2. During an exposure, most of the ________ energy of the projectile electrons is converted to ________. a. kinetic; x-rays b. x-ray; kinetic c. kinetic; heat d. heat; kinetic

ANS: C During an exposure, most of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to heat.

3. At the target, the projectile electrons interact with ____________.

a. outer-shell electrons b. inner-shell electrons c. atomic nuclei d. inner-shell and outer-shell electrons

ANS: D The projectile electrons interact with both outer-shell and inner-shell electrons in the target.

4. The efficiency of x-ray production is ___________ the tube current. a. indirectly proportional to b. directly proportional to c. not affected by d. strongly affected by

ANS: C The efficiency of x-ray production is unrelated to tube current.

5. Most of the heat generated at the target is due to ___________. a. inner-shell ionization b. outer-shell excitation c. nucleus bombardment d. K x-rays

ANS: B Most of the heat generated at the target is due to outer-shell excitation.

6. The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to _________. a. rotor speed b. filament current c. kVp

d. tube current

ANS: D The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to tube current.

7. The efficiency of x-ray production increases as ______ increases. a. mA b. kVp c. time d. mA and kVp

ANS: B The efficiency of x-ray production increases as kVp increases.

8. Approximately _____ of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to x-rays at the target. a. 1% b. 10% c. 50% d. 99%

ANS: B Approximately 1% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted to x-rays at the target.

9. Electron interactions at the inner shell of the target atoms produce _____ radiation. a. gamma b. Bremsstrahlung c. characteristic d. alpha

ANS: C Electron interactions at the inner shell of the target atoms produce characteristic radiation.

10. The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are ___-shell x-rays. a. K b. L c. M d. N

ANS: A The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are K-shell x-rays.

11. Characteristic K-shell x-rays have an effective energy of _____ keV. a. 0.6 b. 3 c. 12 d. 69

ANS: D Characteristic K-shell x-rays have an effective energy of 69 keV.

12. Most of the x-rays produced at the target are _______________. a. bremsstrahlung b. characteristic c. gamma d. beta

ANS: A Most of the x-rays produced at the target are bremsstrahlung.

13. At 55 kVp, _____ of the x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung. a. 15% b. 80% c. 100% d. none

ANS: C At 55 kVp, 100% of the x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung.

14. Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by ______________ at the target. a. outer shell excitation b. slowing electrons c. K-shell interactions d. L-shell interactions

ANS: B Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by slowing electrons at the target.

15. Characteristic x-rays are produced by __________________. a. braking electrons b. excitation of outer shell electrons c. nuclear fragmentation d. released binding energy

ANS: D Characteristic x-rays are produced by released binding energy.

16. The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased _____. a. kVp

b. mAs c. filtration d. rotor speed

ANS: B The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased mAs.

17. An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have a continuous emission spectrum with a maximum energy of _____ keV. a. 30 b. 69 c. 100 d. 140

ANS: C An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have an emission spectrum with a maximum energy of 100 keV.

18. The ______________ of an x-ray beam is higher when the peak of the emission spectrum is further to the __________. a. quality; right b. quantity; right c. quality; left d. quantity; left

ANS: A The quality of an x-ray beam is higher when the emission spectrum is further to the right.

19. An increase in mAs would _________ the ______________ of the emission spectrum. a. increase; position alone

b. increase; amplitude alone c. increase; amplitude and position d. not affect; amplitude and position

ANS: B An increase in mAs would increase only the amplitude of the emission spectrum.

20. An increase in kVp would ________ the ______________ of the emission spectrum. a. increase; position alone b. increase; amplitude alone c. increase; amplitude and position d. not affect; amplitude and position

ANS: C An increase in kVp would increase the amplitude and position of the emission spectrum.

Chapter 09: X-Ray Emission Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Grays, or milligrays, in air are the measurement for x-ray _________. a. quantity and intensity b. exposure and quantity c. intensity and exposure d. quantity, exposure and intensity

ANS: D Grays are the measurement for x-ray quantity, exposure or intensity.

2. The number of x-rays in the useful beam defines x-ray ________.

a. kVp b. quality c. Intensity d. mAs

ANS: C The number of x-rays in the useful beam defines x-ray intensity.

3. Standard x-ray machines produce about _____ µGya/mAs at 70 kVp measured at 100 cm SID. a. 20 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200

ANS: B Standard x-ray machines produce about 50 µGya/mAs at 70 kVp measured at 100 cm SID. 4. X-ray intensity increases in direct proportion to increases in __________. a. mAs b. kVp c. distance d. filtration

ANS: A X-ray quantity increases in direct proportion to increases in mAs.

5. If the distance from the source to the image (SID) is reduced by half, how is the x-ray intensity at the image affected? a. It is increased 4 times. b. It is doubled.

c. It is reduced by 1/2. d. It is reduced by 1/4.

ANS: A If the SID is reduced by 1/2, the intensity at the image increases 4 times, because of the inverse square law.

6. If filter thickness is ________, then x-ray intensity is ________. a. reduced; reduced b. increased; reduced c. reduced; increased d. increased; reduced and reduced; increased

ANS: D If filter thickness is increased, then x-ray intensity is decreased and if filter thickness is decreased, then x-ray intensity is increased.

7. A 10% increase in kVp has ________ effect on x-ray intensity than/as a 10% increase in mAs. a. the same b. much greater c. less d. much less

ANS: B A 10% increase in kVp has much greater effect on x-ray intensity than a 10% increase in mAs.

8. If the quantity of electrons hitting the target is doubled, the x-ray intensity is __________. a. reduced by half b. just slightly increased

c. increased by a factor of two d. increased by a factor of four

ANS: C If x-ray quantity is doubled, the optical density on the finished radiograph will be increased by a factor of two.

9. If a technologist changes the technique from 70 kVp @ 200 mAs to 70 kVp @ 400 mAs, the x-ray intensity will _________. a. double b. remain the same c. decrease by half d. increase by

ANS: A If the technologist changes from 200 mAs to 400 mAs, the x-ray intensity will double.

10. The inverse square law has the same effect on x-ray ________ and x-ray _________. a. intensity; energy b. quantity; exposure c. intensity; quantity d. intensity; exposure

ANS: D The inverse square law has the same effect on x-ray intensity and x-ray exposure.

11. An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increasing mAs _____. a. 15% b. 30%

c. 50% d. 100%

ANS: D An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increasing mAs 100%.

12. If the intensity of a 70 kVp exposure at 20 mAs is 1.0 mGya, what would it be at 5 mAs? a. 0.25 mGya b. 0.5 mGya c. 2.0 mGya d. 4.0 mGya

ANS: A If the intensity of a 70 kVp exposure at 20 mAs is 1.0 mGya, it would be 0.25 mGya at 5 mAs because exposure is proportional to mAs.

13. If an exposure is 0.5 mGya at an SID of 40 inches, what would the exposure be at an SID of 60 inches? a. 0.222 mGya b. 0.333 mGya c. 0.75 mGya d. 1.125 mGya

ANS: A If an exposure is 0.5 mGya at an SID of 40 inches, it would be at 0.222 mGya at an SID of 60 inches because of the inverse square law.

14. X-ray intensity is proportional to ______. a. distance b. kVp

c. kVp2 d. filtration

ANS: C X-ray intensity is proportional to kVp2.

15. The penetrability of an x-ray beam is called x-ray ________. a. quantity b. quality c. intensity d. energy

ANS: B The penetrability of an x-ray beam is called x-ray quality.

16. An x-ray beam that could pass through dense tissue would have high _____. a. penetrability b. quality and quantity c. quantity d. penetrability and quality

ANS: D An x-ray that could pass through thick tissue would have high quality and penetrability.

17. A low-quality beam would also have low _____. a. penetrability b. quantity c. mAs d. intensity

ANS: A A low quality beam would also have low penetrability.

18. Beam energy is affected by ______________. a. mAs and distance b. kVp and mAs c. kVp and filtration d. filtration and mAs

ANS: C Beam quality is affected by kVp and filtration.

19. The half value layer (HVL) of an x-ray beam is a measurement of beam _______. a. intensity b. energy c. quantity d. exposure

ANS: B The half value layer (HVL) of an x-ray beam is a measurement of beam energy.

20. Image contrast is affected by ________. a. beam quality b. kVp c. mAs and kVp d. beam quality and kVp

ANS: D Image contrast is affected by beam quality and kVp.

Chapter 10: X-Ray Interaction with Matter Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are ________________. a. Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption b. Compton scattering and pair production c. photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering d. coherent scattering and Thompson scattering

ANS: A The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption.

2. An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during ______________. a. photoelectric absorption b. Compton scattering c. coherent scattering d. pair production

ANS: C An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during coherent scattering.

3. An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during _____________. a. photoelectric interactions b. Compton interactions c. coherent scattering d. pair production

ANS: B An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during Compton interactions.

4. Which x-ray interaction involves the ejection of the K-shell electron? a. Coherent scattering b. Compton interaction c. Pair production d. Photoelectric absorption

ANS: D Photoelectric absorption involves the ejection of the K-shell electron.

5. The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains _____ of the energy of the incident photon. a. none b. little c. most d. all

ANS: C The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains most of the energy of the incident photon.

6. Compton scatter is directed at _____ angle from the incident beam. a. a 180° b. a 90° c. a 0° d. any

ANS: D

Compton scatter is directed at any angle from the incident beam.

7. As kVp ___________, the probability of photoelectric absorption ______________. a. increases; remains the same b. increases; decreases c. decreases; decreases d. decreases; remains the same

ANS: B As kVp increases, the probability of photoelectric absorption decreases.

8. In ________________, there is complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon. a. photoelectric interaction b. Compton interaction c. pair production d. coherent scatter

ANS: A There is complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon in photoelectric interaction.

9. ___________ occurs only at the very high energies used in radiation therapy and in nuclear medicine P.E.T. imaging. a. Coherent scatter b. Compton scatter c. Photoelectric absorption d. Pair production

ANS: D Pair production occurs only at the very high energies used in radiation therapy and in nuclear medicine P.E.T. imaging.

10. Only at energies above 10 MeV can _______________ take place. a. photodisintegration b. pair production c. Compton scatter d. photoelectric absorption

ANS: A Only at energies above 10 MeV can photodisintegration take place.

11. When the mass density of the absorber is __________, it results in __________ Compton scatter. a. decreased; increased b. increased; increased c. increased; decreased d. decreased; decreased

ANS: B When the mass density of the absorber is increased, it results in increased Compton scatter.

12. K-shell binding energy increases with increasing ____________. a. mass density b. kVp c. atomic number d. mAs

ANS: C K-shell binding energy increases with increasing atomic number.

13. Which has the greatest mass density?

a. Fat b. Soft tissue c. Bone d. Air

ANS: C Bone has greater mass density than fat, soft tissue, or air.

14. Differential absorption in diagnostic imaging is primarily caused by ____________. a. photoelectric absorption b. Compton scatter c. pair production d. All of the options

ANS: C Differential absorption is primarily caused by the photoelectric effect.

15. Because of differential absorption, about _____% of the incident beam from the x-ray tube contributes to the finished image. a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 50 d. 95

ANS: B Because of differential absorption, about 0.5% of the incident beam from the x-ray tube contributes to the finished image.

16. Differential absorption is dependent on all of the following, except ________________. a. kVp of the exposure

b. atomic number of the absorber c. mass density of the absorber d. mAs of the exposure

ANS: D Differential absorption is dependent on the kVp of the exposure, the atomic number of the absorber, and the mass density of the absorber.

17. Attenuation is caused by ______________. a. absorption b. scattering c. transmission d. absorption and scattering

ANS: D Attenuation is caused by absorption and scattering.

18. Barium is a good contrast agent because of its __________________. a. low atomic number b. high atomic number c. light color d. low density

ANS: B Barium is a good contrast agent because of its high atomic number.

19. The use of contrast agents increases the amount of ________________. a. differential absorption b. Compton scatter c. photoelectric absorption

d. differential absorption, Compton scatter and photoelectric absorption

ANS: D The use of a contrast agent increases the amount of Compton scatter and photoelectric absorption, therefore increasing the amount of differential absorption.

20. A negative contrast agent is _________. a. air b. iodine c. barium d. water

ANS: A A negative contrast agent is air.

Chapter 11: Imaging Science Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The first generation of computers was run with ____________. a. vacuum tubes b. transistors c. integrated circuits d. large scale integration

ANS: A The first generation of computers was run with vacuum tubes.

2. Modern day computers use ___________ to store information.

a. transistors b. vacuum tubes c. silicon chips d. electric wires

ANS: C Modern day computers use silicon chips to store information.

3. The ________, developed in 1951, was the first commercially successful general-purpose stored-program electronic digital computer. a. ENIAC b. UNIVAC c. VLSI d. LSI

ANS: B The UNIVAC, developed in 1951, was the first commercially successful general-purpose stored-program electronic digital computer.

4. Computer hardware, categorized by its operation, includes all of the following, except __________. a. input processing b. memory c. storage d. computer programs

ANS: D Computer hardware includes any part of the computer that you can see and touch.

5. The ________ is an example of computer input software.

a. printer b. CPU c. mouse d. computer programs

ANS: D The software consists of the computer programs that tell the hardware what to do and how to store and manipulate data.

6. The __________________ controls data transfer between the main memory and the input and output hardware a. flat panel display b. central processing unit c. disk drive d. RAM chip

ANS: B The central processing unit controls data transfer between the main memory and the input and output hardware.

7. A CD, DVD, hard drive, flash drive, or cloud-based is used to _____________. a. archive files b. process data c. convert data d. perform calculations

ANS: A The most common types of secondary memory are CDs, DVDs, hard drives, flash drives, and cloud-based storage services such as Dropbox, Google Drive, and iCloud Drive.

8. The _____ represents zero or one. a. byte b. bit c. gigabyte d. terabyte

ANS: B The bit represents zero or one.

9. In computer language, a byte is _________. a. 2 bytes b. 8 bits c. 16 units d. 8 pixels

ANS: B Bits are grouped into bunches of eight called bytes.

10. MAC-OS and Windows are two different __________ systems. a. hardware b. printer c. operating d. output

ANS: C MAC-OS and Windows are two different operating systems.

11. A computer first uses its ________________ program when it is turned on. a. systems software b. applications

c. bootstrap d. C++

ANS: C A computer first uses its bootstrap program when it is turned on.

12. The oldest computer language for writing scientific and mathematical programs is ________. a. FORTRAN b. C++ c. COBOL d. Pascal

ANS: A The oldest computer language for writing scientific and mathematical programs is FORTRAN.

13. The ________ programming language was developed for coding business data. a. Pascal b. COBOL c. QuickBASIC d. Visual C++

ANS: B COBOL was developed for coding business data.

14. The official computer language used by the U.S. Department of Defense is ______. a. BASIC b. LOGO c. ALGOL d. ADA

ANS: D ADA is the official computer language used by the U.S. Department of Defense.

15. All of the below are examples of a type of computer storage except a. microprocessor. b. solid state drive. c. hard disk drive. d. flash drive.

ANS: A Microprocessors process information; they do not store data.

16. What is the form of radiology that allows for the transfer of images to remote sites for interpretation? a. Neuroradiology b. Interventional radiology c. Long distance radiology d. Teleradiology

ANS: D Teleradiology is the form of radiology that allows for the transfer of images to remote sites for interpretation.

17. The following computer component temporarily stores data for processing. a. Hard disk drive b. Microprocessor c. Solid state drive d. Main memory

ANS: D Main memory is the working storage of the computer.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Word, Excel, iTunes, and Spider Solitaire are application programs.

ANS: T Word, Excel, iTunes, and Spider Solitaire are application programs.

2. In computer language a single binary digit, 0 or 1, is called a byte.

ANS: F In computer language a single binary digit, 0 or 1, is called a bit.

3. The processor includes the circuitry for the actual computations and the memory that supports this function.

ANS: T The electronic circuitry that does the actual computations and the memory that supports this together are called the processor.

Chapter 12: Computed Radiography Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Digital radiography was first introduced by ______________. a. GE in 1998 b. Fuji in 1981 c. Kodak in 1975 d. DuPont in 1965

ANS: B Digital radiography was first introduced by Fuji in 1981.

2. Computed radiography screens respond to radiation with ______________________. a. fluorescence b. electron emission c. photostimulable luminescence d. biological phosphorescence

ANS: C Computed radiography screens respond to radiation with photostimulable luminescence.

3. A photostimulable phosphor in a metastable state will emit light ________________. a. immediately b. when stimulated by light c. immediately and when stimulated by light d. immediately, when stimulated by light, and over time

ANS: D A photostimulable phosphor in a metastable state will emit light immediately, when stimulated by light, and over time.

4. Europium is the ______________ of the photostimulable phosphor. a. image buffer b. scintillator c. phosphor d. activator

ANS: D

Europium is the activator of the photostimulable phosphor.

5. The computed radiography cassette is called a(n) ______________ receptor. a. optical b. imaging c. laser d. thermoluminescent

ANS: B The computed radiography cassette is called an imaging plate.

6. The photostimulable phosphor screen is handled in a ______________. a. reader b. darkroom c. daylight processor d. Direct capture

ANS: A The photostimulable phosphor screen is handled in a reader.

7. The computed radiography reader is made up of ______, _____, and _____ modules.

I. mechanical II. chemical III. optical IV. computer a. mechanical; chemical; optical b. chemical; optical; computer c. mechanical; optical; computer d. mechanical; chemical; computer

ANS: C The computed radiography reader is made up of mechanical, optical, and computer modules.

8. The four steps of creating an image with computed radiography are ______________. a. metastable state, stimulate, read, and erase b. erase, stimulate, metastable state, and read c. read, erase, stimulate, and metastable state d. metastable state, read, erase, and stimulate

ANS: A The four steps of creating an image with computed radiography are metastable state, stimulate, read, and erase.

9. Following the laser stimulation of the photostimulable phosphor, the excited electrons are _________________. a. completely stabilized b. mostly stabilized c. still excited d. completely removed

ANS: B Following the laser stimulation of the photostimulable phosphor, the electrons are mostly stabilized.

10. The laser is one of the ____________ features of the computed radiography reader. a. computer b. chemical c. mechanical d. optical

ANS: D The laser is one of the optical features of the computed radiography reader.

11. Optical filters are used to filter out the _______ light and allow the _______ light to reach the photodetector. a. stimulating; emitted b. emitted; stimulated c. emitted; monochromatic d. stimulating; monochromatic

ANS: A Optical filters are used to filter out the stimulating light and allow the emitted light to reach the photodetector.

12. The output signal from the photostimulable phosphor plate is converted from analog to digital by the ________________. a. optical system b. computer controls c. photodetector d. drive mechanism

ANS: B The output signal from the photostimulable phosphor plate is converted from analog to digital by the computer controls.

13. The principal source of noise in computed radiography is ____________________. a. scatter radiation b. background radiation c. computer noise d. phosphor scatter

ANS: A The principal source of noise in computed radiography is scatter radiation.

14. With computed radiography the contrast is _______________________________. a. controlled by kVp b. controlled by mAs c. constant regardless of radiation exposure d. impossible to change

ANS: C With computed radiography the contrast is constant regardless of radiation exposure.

15. The computed radiography image has _____________________. a. narrow exposure latitude b. wide exposure latitude c. improved contrast resolution d. wide exposure latitude and improved contrast resolution

ANS: D The computed radiography image has wide exposure latitude and improved contrast resolution.

16. The laser beam must be less than 100 µm in diameter in order to maintain ________. a. consistent beam shape b. smooth image edges c. high spatial resolution d. high speed

ANS: C

As the laser beam intensity increases, so does the intensity of the emitted signal. Small laser beam diameter is critical for ensuring high spatial resolution.

17. _____________ is prevented by flooding the erased imaging plate with bright light. a. Image fog b. Noise c. Overexposure d. Ghosting

ANS: D Ghosting is prevented by flooding the erased imaging plate with bright light.

18. Computed radiography imaging produces _____________ gray levels. a. 30 b. 100 c. 10,000 d. 1,000,000

ANS: C Computed radiography imaging produces 10,000 gray levels.

TRUE/FALSE

1. The digital imaging plate can sit for some time after the erase cycle.

ANS: F The digital imaging plate should be used soon after the erase cycle to prevent fog from background radiation.

2. IPs should be used soon after the erase cycle has been completed.

ANS: T IPs should be used soon after the erase cycle has been completed.

Chapter 13: Digital Radiography Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Digital radiography is best described by which three elements? a. Coupling, receptor, collection b. Capture, signal, receptor c. Collection, capture, receptor d. Capture, coupling, and collection

ANS: D Digital radiography is best described by the three elements—capture, coupling and collection.

2. In digital radiography, the visible image results when the _______________ is scanned by a laser beam. a. storage capacitor b. thin-film transistor (TFT) c. photostimulable phosphor (PSP) d. pixel detector

ANS: C The latent image is formed on the radiation detector for digital radiography.

3. In digital radiography, the brightness of the image is determined by _______________. a. pixel values b. Hounsfield units c. automatic brightness control

d. film contrast

ANS: A In digital radiography, the brightness of the image is determined by pixel values.

4. In CR, the capture element is the _____________. a. photostimulable phosphor (PSP) b. thin-film transistor (TFT) c. charge-coupled device (CCD) d. scintillation phosphor

ANS: A In CR, the capture element is the photostimulable phosphor (PSP).

5. Scanned projection radiography was developed as a complement to ______________. a. plain film radiography b. computed tomography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. nuclear medicine

ANS: B Scanned projection radiography was developed as a complement to computed tomography.

6. What is the most recent development in digital radiography image receptors? a. Fanned x-ray beams b. Linear array radiation detectors c. Photostimulable phosphors d. Direct capture solid state devices

ANS: D Direct capture solid state devices are the most recent development in digital radiography image receptors.

7. Digital radiography first began to be used in clinical settings in the _______. a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1990s

ANS: C Digital radiography first began to be used in clinical settings in the 1980s.

8. In digital radiography, spatial resolution is improved with increased _____________. a. field of view b. Hounsfield units c. pixel size d. matrix size

ANS: D Spatial resolution is improved with increased matrix size in digital radiography.

9. The dynamic range determines the degree of __________________ in the image. a. contrast resolution b. spatial resolution c. motion blur d. sensitivity

ANS: A The dynamic range determines the degree of contrast resolution in the image.

10. Spatial resolution is determined by the ratio of ________________ to ____________. a. matrix size; field of view b. field of view; matrix size c. bit depth; field of view d. field of view; dynamic range

ANS: B Spatial resolution is determined by the ratio of field of view to matrix size.

11. Scanned projection radiography differs from conventional radiography in the lack of ____________________________. a. patient motion b. spatial resolution c. contrast resolution d. scattered x-rays

ANS: D Scanned projection radiography differs from conventional radiography in the lack of scattered x-rays.

12. The primary limitation of fanned beam radiography is ______________________. a. reduced spatial resolution b. long scanning time c. low contrast resolution d. shortened dynamic range

ANS: B The primary limitation of fanned beam radiography is long scanning time.

13. Computed radiography uses (a) _____________________ for latent image formation. a. thin film transistors b. photosensitive silicon chips c. photostimulable phosphor d. semiconductor material

ANS: C Computed radiography uses a photostimulable phosphor for latent image formation.

14. Conventional x-ray tubes and image receptors are used with ________ radiography systems. a. computed b. scanned projection c. direct capture d. All of the options are correct

ANS: A Conventional x-ray tubes and cassettes are used with computed radiography systems.

15. One advantage of DR over scanned projection radiography is __________________________. a. rotating x-ray tube b. shorter exposure time c. rotating detector array d. fan x-ray beam

ANS: B This use of tiled CCDs receiving light from a scintillator allows the use of an area x-ray beam so that, in contrast to SPR, exposure time is short.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Digital radiography is best described by three elements—capture, archiving, and storage.

ANS: F Digital radiography is best described by three elements—capture, coupling, and collection.

2. The CCD has high sensitivity to x-ray exposure and a very narrow dynamic range.

ANS: F The CCD has high sensitivity to x-ray exposure and a very wide dynamic range.

3. CsI/CCD is an indirect DR process by which x-rays are converted first to light and then to an electronic signal.

ANS: T CsI/CCD is an indirect DR process by which x-rays are converted first to light and then to an electronic signal.

4. CsI/a-Si is an indirect DR process by which x-rays are converted first to light and then to an electronic signal.

ANS: T CsI/a-Si is an indirect DR process by which x-rays are converted first to light and then to an electronic signal.

5. Spatial resolution in DR is pixel unlimited.

ANS: F Spatial resolution in DR is pixel limited.

Chapter 14: Digital Radiographic Technique Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The two principal characteristics of a medical image are _______________________. a. spatial resolution and noise b. spatial resolution and contrast resolution c. contrast resolution and modular transfer function d. contrast resolution and dynamic range

ANS: B Spatial resolution and contrast resolution are the two principal characteristics of a medical image.

2. Spatial frequency is used to describe the quality of spatial resolution in terms of _____________. a. pixel size b. modular transfer function c. line pairs d. contrast resolution

ANS: C Spatial frequency relates to the number of line pairs in a given length, usually centimeters or milliliters.

3. In digital imaging, spatial resolution is ultimately limited by ___________________. a. focal spot size b. spatial frequency c. contrast resolution d. pixel size

ANS: D A digital imaging system cannot resolve anything smaller than one pixel.

4. What is the spatial frequency of a digital system that can resolve 100 µm? a. 5 lp/mm b. 10 lp/mm c. 50 lp/mm d. 100 lp/mm

ANS: B If a line is 100 µm, a line pair is 200 µm; therefore, 1 lp/200 µm = 1 lp/0.2 mm, which equals 20 lp/mm.

5. If a digital system has a spatial resolution of 4 lp/mm, it can resolve an object as small as _____ mm. a. 8 b. 4 c. 0.25 d. 0.125

ANS: D A spatial resolution of 4 lp/mm resolves 8 objects per mm, each object being 1/8 mm, or 0.125 mm.

6. As spatial frequency increases, the object size _____ and the spatial resolution _____. a. increases; increases b. decreases; decreases c. decreases; increases d. increases; decreases

ANS: C As spatial frequency increases, the object size decreases and the spatial resolution increases.

7. If a digital radiography imaging system has a spatial resolution of 10 lp/mm, what is the pixel size of that system? a. 0.05 mm b. 0.5 mm c. 0.1 mm d. 0.01 mm

ANS: A A system with a spatial resolution of 10 lp/mm resolves 20 pixels/mm; therefore, each pixel is 1/20 mm in size or 0.05 mm.

8. If there were such thing as a perfect imaging system, the MTF would be equal to ________. a. five b. one c. two d. four

ANS: B In a perfect system, the image size would equal the object size, and the MTF would therefore be equal to one.

9. A _______________ test tool is used to acquire data for an MTF curve. a. bar pattern b. post-processing c. signal-to-noise ratio d. contrast-detail curve

ANS: A A bar pattern test tool is used to acquire data for an MTF curve.

10. The use of two screens in imaging results in a higher _______. a. spatial frequency b. pixel size c. MTF d. spatial resolution

ANS: C The use of two screens increases the MTF because spatial resolution and spatial frequency are decreased. Pixel size is not affected by screens.

11. The human visual system can distinguish ________ shades of gray. a. 10 b. 30 c. 300 d. 1000

ANS: B The human visual system can distinguish no more than 30 shades of gray.

12. The number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce is called its ________________. a. spatial frequency b. contrast c. spatial resolution d. dynamic range

ANS: D The number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce is called its dynamic range.

13. Screen-film radiography has a dynamic range of __________. a. 10 b. 100 c. 1000 d. 10,000

ANS: C Screen-film radiography has a dynamic range of 1000.

14. The bit capacity of each pixel identifies the ___________ of a digital imaging system. a. dynamic range b. gray scale c. spatial frequency d. MTF

ANS: A The bit capacity of each pixel identifies the dynamic range of a digital imaging system.

15. The ________________ digital imaging system uses the highest dynamic range. a. computed tomography b. mammography c. magnetic resonance d. angiography

ANS: B The mammography digital imaging system uses the highest dynamic range.

16. The portion of useful image-forming x-rays is referred to as the ___________. a. frequency b. MTF

c. signal d. noise

ANS: C The portion of useful image-forming x-rays is referred to as the signal.

17. Recent studies have shown that denser breast tissue is best imaged with _____________________. a. xerography b. computed tomography c. screen-film mammography d. digital mammography

ANS: D Recent studies have shown that denser breast tissue is best imaged with digital mammography.

18. As mAs is increased the signal-to-noise ratio is ____________. a. decreased b. increased c. not affected d. doubled

ANS: B As mAs is increased the signal-to-noise ratio is increased.

19. Image detail is also called _______________________. a. spatial resolution b. spatial frequency c. signal-to-noise ratio

d. dynamic range

ANS: A Image detail is also called spatial resolution.

20. Of all radiographic imaging systems, _____________ has the best contrast resolution. a. digital radiography b. mammography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. computed tomography

ANS: D CT has the best contrast resolution of all x-ray imaging systems because of x-ray beam collimation and the resultant reduction in scatter radiation.

Chapter 15: Image Acquisition Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What are the prime exposure factors? a. kVp, mAs, filtration, and voltage ripple b. mA, time, distance, and filtration c. kVp, mAs, and SID d. mA, time, kVp controls, and focal spot size

ANS: C The primary exposure factors are kVp, mAs, time, and SID.

2. Changes in kVp affect all of the following, except _______________.

a. number of electrons boiled off the filament b. image receptor exposure c. beam penetrability d. x-ray beam energy

ANS: A Changes in kVp do not affect the number of electrons boiled off the filament

3. An increase in mAs causes ______________ in beam quality and ___________ in beam intensity. a. an increase; a decrease b. an increase; no change c. an increase; an increase d. no change; an increase

ANS: D An increase in mAs causes no change in beam quality and an increase in beam quantity.

4. There is a direct relationship between the quantity of x-rays and the _______________. a. milliamperage b. kilovolt peak c. filter thickness d. voltage ripple

ANS: A There is a direct relationship between the quantity of x-rays and the milliamperage.

5. If mAs is increased from 20 mAs to 40 mAs, the patient dose will _____________. a. not be affected b. increase slightly

c. be halved d. be doubled

ANS: D If mAs is increased from 20 mAs to 40 mAs the patient dose will be doubled.

6. Beam penetrability is increased if ________ is/are increased. a. mAs b. SID c. kVp d. OID

ANS: C Beam penetrability is increased if kVp is increased.

7. A _____% increase in kVp may be accompanied by a _______% reduction in mAs to produce the same image receptor response at a slightly reduced contrast scale. a. 5; 30 b. 15; 20 c. 15; 15 d. 5; 15

ANS: A An increase of 5% in kVp may be accompanied by a 30% reduction in mAs to produce the same image receptor response at a slightly reduced contrast scale = the 5% rule.

8. At least a _____% change in mAs is necessary to produce a visible change in the image. a. 10 b. 15 c. 30

d. 50

ANS: C At least a 30% change in mAs is necessary to produce a visible change in the image.

9. Which technique would give the highest patient dose? a. 90 kVp/200 mA @ 0.02 sec b. 87 kVp/400 mA @ 0.02 sec c. 74 kVp/400 mA @ 0.04 sec d. 65 kVp/300 mA @ 0.1 sec

ANS: D Patient dose increases are directly related to increases in mAs.

10. Patient thickness should be measured with the _______. a. caliper b. eyes c. hands d. SID tape

ANS: A Patient thickness should be measured with the caliper.

11. The small focal spot will provide a _______. a. higher quality x-rays beam b. greater quantity of x-rays c. finer detail of image d. decreased spatial resolution

ANS: C The small focal spot is used to provide a finer detail of image when less quantity of x-rays is needed.

12. Beam quantity is improved when the __________ is increased, but __________ has no effect on beam quantity. a. kilovoltage; filtration b. kilovoltage; milliamperage c. milliamperage; kilovoltage d. milliamperage; filtration

ANS: B Beam quantity is improved when the kilovoltage is increased, but milliamperage has no effect on beam quantity.

13. Both beam quality and beam quantity are increased by ______________. a. increasing kVp b. using 3-phase voltage c. increasing mAs d. increasing kVp and using a 3-phase generator

ANS: D Both voltage waveform and kVp affect beam quality and quantity.

14. Added filtration has the effect of __________ the beam quality and ________ patient dose. a. reducing; increasing b. reducing; reducing c. increasing; reducing d. increasing; increasing

ANS: C Added filtration has the effect of increasing the beam quality and reducing patient dose.

15. List the following tissues in order from the most radiolucent to the most radiopaque. a. Bone, muscle, fat, lung b. Lung, muscle, fat, bone c. Lung, fat, muscle, bone d. Fat, lung, muscle, bone

ANS: C Lung is the most radiolucent tissue in the body. Fat is more radiolucent than muscle and bone is the most radiopaque.

16. Which medical condition may require a lower technique? a. Atelectasis b. Emphysema c. Pneumonia d. Pleural effusion

ANS: B Emphysema makes the lungs more radiolucent, while the other conditions listed make the lungs more radiopaque.

17. When only the intensity needs to be changed, only the _______ should be adjusted. a. mAs b. kVp c. SID d. filtration

ANS: A

When only the intensity needs to be changed, only the mAs should be adjusted.

18. Sharpness of detail can be improved by increasing _________. a. SID b. OID c. focal spot size d. mAs

ANS: A Sharpness of detail can be improved by increasing SID.

19. Foreshortening is caused by a(n) _________________________________. a. angled beam when the body part is parallel the image receptor b. angled body part when the beam is perpendicular to the image receptor c. angled beam that is perpendicular to the body part d. perpendicular beam and the body part parallel to the image receptor

ANS: B Foreshortening is caused by an angled body part when the beam is perpendicular to the image receptor.

20. With automatic exposure techniques the exposure is terminated when the optimum _____ is reached. a. OD b. time c. mAs d. kVp

ANS: A

With automatic exposure control the exposure is terminated when the optimum optical density is reached.

Chapter 16: Patient-Image Optimization Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Patient factors include ___________________. a. anatomical thickness and body composition b. body composition and patient height c. anatomical thickness and patient gender d. patient height and patient gender

ANS: A Patient factors include anatomical thickness and body composition.

2. Which body habitus indicates an average patient? a. Hypersthenic b. Hyposthenic c. Sthenic d. Asthenic

ANS: C Sthenic—meaning ―strong, active‖—patients are average patients.

3. Which body habitus indicates a thin, but healthy appearing patient? a. Hypersthenic b. Hyposthenic c. Sthenic d. Asthenic

ANS: B Hyposthenic patients are thin but healthy appearing.

4. Patient thickness affects radiographic technique by affecting ____________. a. source to image receptor distance b. object to Image receptor distance c. source to object distance d. mAs and kVp settings

ANS: D Patient thickness affects radiographic technique by affecting mAs and kVp settings.

5. A high quality radiographic image should always demonstrate ____________. a. structures and tissues b. high contrast c. minimum magnification d. maximum distortion

ANS: A A high quality radiograph should always demonstrate structures and tissues.

6. Spatial resolution is limited to ____________________. a. brightness of the display monitor b. motion c. postprocessing d. pixel size

ANS: D Spatial resolution is limited to pixel size.

7. _________ is defined as the ability to image two separate objects and visually detect one from the other. a. Contrast b. Resolution c. Detail d. Noise

ANS: B Resolution is defined as the ability to image two separate objects and visually detect one from the other.

8. What is the formula for the magnification factor? a. MF = SID/SOD b. MF = SOD/SID c. MF = (SID/SOD)2 d. MF = SID2/SOD

ANS: A The formula for magnification factor is: MF = SID/SOD.

9. The best way to minimize magnification is to use a __________. a. long SID b. small OID c. large OID d. long SID and small OID

ANS: D The best way to minimize magnification is to use a long SID and small OID.

10. Subject contrast is affected by ___________. a. mAs b. focal spot size c. patient thickness d. voltage ripple

ANS: C Subject contrast is affected by patient thickness, tissue mass density, effective atomic number, and kilovolt peak.

11. Distortion can be reduced by ____________________________. a. placing the object plane perpendicular to the image plane b. placing the object plane parallel to the image plane c. directing the central ray 15° from the object plane d. increasing the SID and the OID

ANS: A Distortion can be reduced by placing the object plane perpendicular to the image plane.

12. Which of these body parts has the highest subject contrast? a. Abdomen b. Skull c. Chest d. Pelvis

ANS: C The chest has high subject contrast because of the wide differences in effective atomic number and tissue mass density between air and bone.

13. Radiographic image quality is improved when the __________ is increased.

a. source image distance b. focal spot size c. film speed d. screen speed

ANS: A Radiographic image quality is improved when source image distance is increased.

14. The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the __________. a. image receptor b. kilovoltage c. voltage ripple d. milliamperage

ANS: B The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the kilovoltage.

15. Sharpness of image detail is best measured by _________________. a. spatial resolution b. contrast resolution c. brightness d. visibility of detail

ANS: A Sharpness of image detail is best measured by spatial resolution.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Radiographic technique charts embedded in the operating console are based on hypersthenic patients.

ANS: F Radiographic technique charts embedded in the operating console are based on sthenic patients.

2. Patient thickness should not be guessed.

ANS: T Patient thickness should not be guessed.

3. Pathology can appear with increased radiolucency or radiopacity.

ANS: T Pathology can appear with increased radiolucency or radiopacity.

4. The visibility of image detail is best measured by spatial resolution.

ANS: F The visibility of image detail is best measured by contrast resolution.

5. Foreshortening of the image is when the anatomical part appears smaller than normal.

ANS: T Foreshortening of the image is when the anatomical part appears smaller than normal.

Chapter 17: Viewing the Medical Image Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The science of ______________ is the study of the response of the human eye to light. a. physiology b. optometry

c. photometry d. ophthalmology

ANS: C The science of photometry is the study of the response of the human eye to light.

2. What is the basic photometric unit? a. Lumen b. Candela c. Lux d. Nit

ANS: A The basic photometric unit is the lumen.

3. The cosine law is used to describe ___________________________. a. luminous intensity of a digital display device b. the strength of ambient light c. the fall off of luminous intensity d. the emitted light from a cathode ray tube

ANS: A The cosine law is used to describe luminous intensity of a digital display device.

4. The decreasing luminous intensity with increasing distance from the source of light follows _____________________. a. the law of gravity b. Murphy’s law c. cosine law d. the inverse square law

ANS: D The decreasing luminous intensity with increasing distance from the source of light follows the inverse square law.

5. A digital display monitor is best viewed ______________. a. straight on b. from above c. from below d. at a 30° angle

ANS: A A digital display monitor is best viewed straight on.

6. A liquid crystal is a material in a ______________________ state. a. solid b. state between a liquid and a solid c. liquid d. state between a liquid and a gaseous

ANS: B A liquid crystal is a material in a state between a liquid and a solid state.

7. Almost all digital images in medical imaging are viewed and interpreted on a __________________. a. view box b. CRT device c. digital display device d. television monitor

ANS: C Almost all digital images in medical imaging are viewed and interpreted on a digital display device.

8. Almost all medical flat panel digital display devices are _______________. a. color liquid crystal displays b. monochrome liquid crystal displays (LCDs) c. color CRTs d. monochrome CRTs

ANS: B Medical flat panel display devices are monochrome liquid crystal displays.

9. Medical flat panel display devices are identified by the ___________________. a. aperture ratio b. depth of the monitor c. size of the pixels d. number of pixels

ANS: D Medical flat panel display devices are identified by the number of pixels.

10. The ambient light at a digital image workstation should be ______________. a. daylight bright b. slightly dimmed c. near darkness d. complete darkness

ANS: C

The ambient light at a digital image workstation should be near darkness.

11. Preprocessing the digital image is done _____________, and post-processing is done ______________. a. automatically; manually b. manually; manually c. manually; automatically d. automatically; automatically

ANS: A Preprocessing the digital image is done automatically, and post-processing is done manually.

12. Flatfielding is accomplished through automatic calibration images called _____________ and _______________. a. magnification; edge enhancement b. offset images; gain images c. image flip; image lag d. image inversion; pixel shift

ANS: B Flatfielding is accomplished through automatic calibration images called offset images and gain images.

13. Reregistering an image to correct for patient motion is done with ________________. a. edge enhancement b. offset images c. pixel shift d. image inversion

ANS: C

Reregistering an image to correct for patient motion is done with pixel shift.

14. A computation of the mean pixel value within a region-of-interest is performed for ____________________. a. quantitative radiology b. edge enhancement c. image inversion d. window and level adjustment

ANS: A A computation of the mean pixel value within a region-of-interest is needed for quantitative radiology.

15. Post-processing includes all of the following except _________________. a. image inversion b. signal interpolation c. annotation d. pixel shift

ANS: B Signal interpolation is performed during preprocessing.

16. __________________ is corrected by the application of an offset voltage. a. Spatial resolution b. Line noise c. Image lag d. Misregistration

ANS: C Image lag is corrected by the application of an offset voltage.

17. Pre-processing includes all of the following except _________________. a. defective pixel b. image lag c. annotation d. line noise

ANS: C Annotation is performed during post-processing.

TRUE/FALSE

1. The purpose of image subtraction is to enhance contrast.

ANS: T The purpose of image subtraction is to enhance contrast.

2. The SI unit for luminance is candela per square meter.

ANS: F The SI unit for luminance is the nit.

3. Spatial resolution improves with the use of higher megapixel digital display devices.

ANS: T Spatial resolution improves with the use of higher megapixel digital display devices.

Chapter 18: Picture Archiving and Communication System Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. PACS stands for _______________________________________.

a. Processing, Applications, and Computer Storage b. Processing, Archiving, and Computer Storage c. Physician Applications and Communication Systems d. Picture Archiving and Communication Systems

ANS: D PACS stands for Picture Archiving and Communication Systems.

2. Which is not a part of PACS? a. Electronic medical record b. A display system c. A network d. Image acquisition

ANS: A PACS replaced film storage.

3. Radiology Information Systems (RIS) is used for which of the following? a. Schedules b. Protocol descriptors c. Diagnostic conclusions d. Schedules, protocol descriptors, and diagnostic conclusions

ANS: D The RIS deals with schedules, protocol descriptors, diagnostic conclusions, and billing.

4. The principal components of a PACS are the ________________. a. image acquisition system, display system, electronic medical record, and storage system b. storage systems, viewing stations, display system, network

c. image acquisition system, display system, network, and storage system d. network, storage system, display station, workstation

ANS: C The four principal components of a PACS are the image acquisition system, the display system, the network, and the storage system.

5. Within a PACS network the secretarial workstation and the viewing workstation would both be called ________________. a. mainframes b. remote devices c. clients d. DICOMs

ANS: C All of the devices in a PACS network are called clients.

6. The process of remote transmission and viewing of medical images is known as ________________. a. email b. teleradiology c. networking d. workstations

ANS: B The process of remote transmission and viewing of medical images is called teleradiology.

7. The national standard for image transmission in teleradiology is the ____________ format. a. RIS b. DICOM

c. MB d. PACS

ANS: B The national standard for image transmission in teleradiology is the DICOM format.

8. Text data and email are generated at a _____________________________ workstation in PACS. a. Radiology Information System (RIS) b. DICOM c. image acquisition d. archive retrieval

ANS: A Text data and email are generated at a Radiology Information System (RIS) workstation in PACS.

9. Image file size is determined by ________ size and grayscale bit depth. a. RIS b. DICOM c. matrix d. pixel

ANS: C Image file size is determined by matrix size and gray scale.

10. What is the file size of an image with a 1026  1026 matrix and a 2.5 byte grayscale depth? a. 2,565 bits b. 1,053 bits

c. 26 MB d. 2.6 MB

ANS: D File size is the matrix multiplied by the byte depth.

11. The term network is used to describe the _____________. a. manner many computers can be connected b. manner few computers can be connected c. your social media friends d. your professional contacts

ANS: A Computer scientists use the term network to describe the manner in which many computers can be connected to interact with one another.

12. What system became the standard for PACS in order to receive/read images? a. IHE and DICOM b. DICOM and HL7 c. IHE and HL7 d. CAD and DICOM

ANS: B The requirement for efficient communication among various computers and physical sites is managed by the Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine standard (DICOM) and the Health Level Seven standard (HL7).

13. What does DICOM stand for? a. Digital Informatics and Communications in Medical b. Digital Imaging and Capture in Medicine

c. Direct Imaging and Capture in Medicine d. Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine

ANS: D DICOM stands for Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine.

14. Which medical information organization is working to make patient radiation dose ALARA? a. ACR b. DICOM c. HL7 d. SIIM

ANS: A The ACR Dose Index Registry continually works to make patient radiation dose ALARA. 15. Which three organizations created the document, ―Technical Standard for Electronic Practice of Medical Imaging‖? a. ACR, ASRT, ARRT b. SIIM, ACR, AAPM c. SIIM, ASRT, ARRT d. ARRT, ACR, SIIM

ANS: B Three organizations—ACR (American College of Radiology), AAPM (American Association of Physicists in Medicine), SIIM (Society for Imaging Informatics in Medicine)—have joined to produce an important document ―Technical Standard for Electronic Practice of Medical Imaging‖.

TRUE/FALSE

1. PACS implements and speeds image processing, viewing, interpretation, storage, and recall.

ANS: T PACS implements and speeds image processing, viewing, interpretation, storage, and recall.

2. Teleradiology allows for intercontinental image interpretation.

ANS: T Teleradiology allows for intercontinental image interpretation.

3. The electronic medical record is incorporated into the Radiology Information System (RIS).

ANS: F The electronic medical record (EMR) is incorporated with a similar document, the Hospital Information System (HIS).

4. The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT codes), developed by the American Medical Association (AMA), created codes for a specific clinical situation.

ANS: T The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT codes), developed by the American Medical Association (AMA), created codes for a specific clinical situation.

5. The ARRT (American Registry of Radiologic Technologists) and the ACR (American College of Radiology) created the Technical Standard for Electronic Practice of Medical Imaging.

ANS: F Three organizations—ACR (American College of Radiology), AAPM (American Association of Physicists in Medicine), SIIM (Society for Imaging Informatics in Medicine) joined to produce ―Technical Standard for Electronic Practice of Medical Imaging.‖ Chapter 19: Image Perception Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Image perception is a scientific term for what we call visual ______________. a. search b. acuity c. sensitivity d. training

ANS: C Image perception is a scientific term for what we call visual sensitivity.

2. What is the basic illumination level unit? a. Lumen per square meter b. Candela c. Lux d. Lumen per square meter and lux

ANS: D Illumination levels are measured in units of lumen per square meter or lux.

3. The decreasing luminous intensity with increasing distance from the source of light follows _____________________. a. the law of gravity b. Murphy’s law c. cosine law d. the inverse square law

ANS: D

The decreasing luminous intensity with increasing distance from the source of light follows the inverse square law.

4. The ambient light levels in the reading area should be ______________. a. daylight bright b. slightly dimmed c. near darkness d. complete darkness

ANS: C The ambient light levels in the reading area should be near darkness.

5. The special demands of digital imaging are ________________ and _____________. a. preprocessing; image interpretation b. preprocessing; postprocessing c. postprocessing; numerical analysis d. numerical analysis; image interpretation

ANS: C The special demands of digital imaging are postprocessing and numerical analysis.

6. A principal advantage of digital imaging over analog imaging is ____________________. a. image brightness b. image manipulation c. image inversion d. window and level adjustment

ANS: A A principal advantage of digital imaging over the earlier analog imaging is image brightness.

7. Light incident on the eye must first pass through the _________________. a. lens b. cornea c. retina d. iris

ANS: B Light incident on the eye must first pass through the cornea, a transparent protective covering, and through the lens, where the light is focused onto the retina.

8. When light arrives at the retina, it is detected by the __________________. a. retina b. lens c. rods and cones d. pupil

ANS: C When light arrives at the retina, it is detected by the rods and the cones.

9. Photopic vision is used for ______________________. a. daylight vision b. night vision c. dim light situations d. bright light situations

ANS: A Consequently, cones are used primarily for daylight vision, called photopic vision, and rods are used for night vision, called scotopic vision.

10. The interpretation of a digital medical image by a radiologist is a two-step process; _________________ followed by ______________. a. global impression; visual search b. visual search; global impression c. global impression; interpretation d. visual search; interpretation

ANS: A The interpretation of a digital medical image by a radiologist can be considered a two-step process. First, the radiologist will glance at an image and quickly come to a global impression, then a visual search.

11. Receiver operating characteristic curves is a decision matrix used for ___________________. a. the quality assurance technologist b. plotting the quality of diagnostic images c. decision-making by the radiographer d. decision-making by the radiologist

ANS: D ROC (receiver operating characteristic) curve is used for decision-making by the radiologist.

12. All of the following are components of receiver operating characteristic curves, except __________. a. true positive b. false negative c. sensitivity index d. true negative

ANS: C

The four basic components of receiver operating characteristic curves are true positive, true negative, false positive, and false negative.

13. When the ROC analysis is completed, the data is evaluated using the metric, ___________________. a. slope of the bell curve b. area under the curve c. area above the curve d. area outside the curve

ANS: B When the ROC analysis is finally completed the data are evaluated using the single metric, AUC (area under the curve).

14. The process of matching any worker to the work environment to maximize efficiency is ______. a. body mechanics b. 20-20-20 rule c. ergonomics d. aesthetically pleasing

ANS: C The process of matching any worker to the work environment to maximize efficiency is ergonomics.

15. Digital radiography is superior to analog radiography because of __________________. a. image manipulation b. image storage c. image sharing d. image brightness

ANS: D A principal advantage of digital imaging over the earlier analog imaging is image brightness.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Visual accommodation is a term related to changes we make voluntarily and involuntarily in order to improve our image perception.

ANS: T Visual accommodation is a term related to changes we make voluntarily and involuntarily in order to improve our image perception.

2. Temporal accommodation restricts the frame rate for digital fluoroscopy to 2 images/s.

ANS: F This temporal accommodation, 200 ms, restricts the frame rate for digital fluoroscopy to 5 images/s (200 ms/image = 1 s/5 images).

3. Visual acuity is highest in the central portion of the retina.

ANS: T Visual acuity is highest in the central portion of the retina.

4. Higher object contrast is required for image perception under high illuminance.

ANS: F Higher object contrast is required for image perception under low illuminance.

5. The process of matching any worker to the work environment in order to maximize efficiency is ergonomics.

ANS: T

The process of matching any worker to the work environment in order to maximize efficiency is ergonomics.

Chapter 20: Digital Display Device Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. SMPTE stands for the _____________________________________. a. Standards of Medical Practice and Television Electronics b. Standards of Medical Practice and Technical Electronics c. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers d. Society of Medical Physicians and Technical Engineers

ANS: C SMPTE stands for the Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers.

2. A standard pattern made to measure the resolution of digital display systems is called the _______________________. a. VESA pattern b. SMPTE pattern c. Grayscale Display Function d. DICOM standard

ANS: B A standard pattern made to measure the resolution of digital display systems is called the SMPTE pattern.

3. Medical images are transferred using the ____________ standard. a. VESA b. SMPTE

c. DIN d. DICOM

ANS: D Medical images are transferred using the DICOM standard.

4. The standard for Digital Imaging and Communication was developed by a committee of the ______________. a. ACR and DIN b. DIN and NEMA c. ACR and NEMA d. ACR and VESA

ANS: C The standard for Digital Imaging and Communication was developed by a committee of the ACR and NEMA.

5. The consistent appearance of DICOM images on any compatible digital display device is achieved through ______________________. a. perceptual linearization b. SMPTE pattern c. specular reflection d. digital driving levels

ANS: A The consistent appearance of DICOM images on any compatible digital display device is achieved through perceptual linearization.

6. The quality control standard for flat panel displays was released by _______ in 1998. a. DIN

b. SMPTE c. NEMA d. VESA

ANS: D The quality control standard for flat panel displays was released by VESA in 1998.

7. The Task Group Report 18 is a procedure manual for _____________________. a. evaluating the Grayscale Display Function b. testing digital display devices c. evaluating the SMPTE pattern d. testing doing CT exams

ANS: B The Task Group Report 18 is a procedure manual for testing digital display devices.

8. There are _______ types of photometers commonly used. a. two b. four c. six d. eight

ANS: A There are two types of photometers commonly used.

9. A photometer is a _____________________. a. TG18 test device b. dosimeter c. luminescence meter d. illuminance meter

ANS: C A photometer is a luminescence meter.

10. A telescope photometer is used at __________. a. close proximity b. 1 meter c. a 35° angle d. a 50° angle

ANS: B A telescope photometer is used at 1 meter.

11. Digital display reflections and ambient light conditions are assessed with a(n) ________________. a. illuminance meter b. near-range photometer c. luminescence meter d. TG18 test device

ANS: A Digital display reflections and ambient light conditions are assessed with an illuminance meter.

12. Luminance response can be tested with a(n) _______________. a. near-range photometer b. telescope photometer c. illuminance meter d. near-range photometer or telescope photometer

ANS: D Luminance response can be tested with either a near-range photometer or a telescope photometer.

13. Most of the quality control testing of digital display devices is performed with the use of _______________ test patterns. a. SMPTE b. AAPM TG18 c. DIN d. VESA

ANS: B Most of the quality control testing of digital display devices is performed with the use of AAPM TG18 patterns.

14. The TG18-LPV/LPH test is used to evaluate _______________. a. display noise b. luminance response c. reflection d. geometric distortion

ANS: D The TG18-LPV/LPH test is used to evaluate geometric distortion.

15. When evaluating the test pattern for geometric distortion, all lines should appear ______________. a. blue b. dashed c. straight d. curved

ANS: C When evaluating the test pattern for geometric distortion, all lines should appear straight.

16. Specular reflection is reduced with the use of __________________. a. improved antireflective coating b. brighter ambient lighting c. color monitors d. larger monitors

ANS: A Specular reflection is reduced with the use of improved antireflective coating.

17. Specular reflection can be tested with the _______________.

I. TG18-AD pattern II. ambient light turned on III. ambient light turned off a. TG18-AD pattern b. ambient light turned on c. ambient light turned off d. TG18-AD pattern and ambient light turned on and off

ANS: D Specular reflection can be tested with the TG18-AD pattern and with ambient light turned on or off.

18. The qualitative evaluation of luminance response is measured with the ________ test tool. a. TG18-AD b. TG18-CT c. TG18-LPV/LPH

d. TG18-LN

ANS: B The qualitative evaluation of luminance response is measured with the TG18-CT test tool.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Specular reflection can be assessed by only turning off the monitor in ambient light.

ANS: T Specular reflection can be assessed by only turning off the monitor in ambient light.

2. Daily quality control testing is done by the medical physicist.

ANS: F Daily quality control testing is done by the radiologic technologist.

Chapter 21: Medical Image Descriptors Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A high-quality medical image should always demonstrate ____________. a. structures and tissues b. high contrast c. minimum magnification d. structures and tissues, high contrast, and minimum magnification

ANS: A A high-quality medical image should always demonstrate structures and tissues.

2. Spatial resolution improves with decreased

a. focal spot size. b. motion. c. pixel size. d. focal spot size, motion and pixel size.

ANS: D Spatial resolution improves with decreased screen blur, motion blur, and geometric blur.

3. _________ is defined as the ability to distinguish anatomical structures of similar subject contrast and visually detect one from the other. a. Contrast resolution b. Spatial resolution c. Detail d. Noise

ANS: A Contrast resolution is defined as the ability to image two separate objects and visually detect one from the other.

4. Radiographic __________ is random fluctuation of x-ray interaction on the image receptor. a. detail b. contrast c. noise d. resolution

ANS: C Radiographic noise is random fluctuation of x-ray interaction on the image receptor.

5. Which of the following is the principal contributor to image noise in radiographic and fluoroscopic imaging procedures?

a. Better resolution b. Quantum mottle c. Higher contrast d. Improved detail

ANS: B Quantum mottle is the principal contributor to image noise in radiographic and fluoroscopic imaging procedures.

6. Which of the following will reduce quantum mottle? a. High mAs b. Low kVp c. Slower image receptors d. High mAs, low kVp, and slower image receptors

ANS: D The use of high-mAs, low-kVp, and slower image receptors reduces quantum mottle.

7. Higher speed image receptors generally produce images with ____________________. a. better resolution b. increased noise c. higher contrast d. improved detail

ANS: B Higher speed image receptors generally produce images with increased noise.

8. The three primary geometric factors affecting image quality are ________________________. a. distortion, subject contrast, and mAs

b. patient thickness, distortion, and magnification c. magnification, distortion, and focal spot blur d. kVp, focal spot blur, and contrast

ANS: C The three primary geometric factors affecting image quality are magnification, distortion, and focal spot blur.

9. What is the formula for the magnification factor? a. MF = SID/SOD b. MF = SOD/SID c. MF = (SID/SOD)2 d. MF = SID2/SOD

ANS: A The formula for magnification factor is: MF = SID/SOD.

10. The best way to minimize magnification is to use a __________. a. long SID b. small OID c. large OID d. long SID and small OID

ANS: D The best way to minimize magnification is to use a long SID and small OID.

11. Focal spot blur can be reduced by using __________. a. a small focal spot b. a shorter SID c. a larger OID

d. a small focal spot, longer SID, larger OID

ANS: A Focal spot blur can be reduced by using a small focal spot, longer SID, and smaller OID.

12. Subject contrast is affected by ___________. a. mAs b. focal spot size c. patient thickness d. voltage ripple

ANS: C Subject contrast is affected by patient thickness, tissue mass density, effective atomic number, and kilovolt peak.

13. Distortion can be reduced by ____________________________. a. placing the object plane perpendicular to the image plane b. placing the object plane parallel to the image plane c. directing the central ray 15° from the object plane d. increasing the SID and the OID

ANS: A Distortion can be reduced by placing the object plane perpendicular to the image plane.

14. What is the formula for Radiographic contrast? a. Subject contrast/image receptor contrast b. Radiographic contrast

subject contrast

c. Image receptor contrast

subject contrast

d. image receptor contrast

radiographic contrast

ANS: C Radiographic contrast = Image receptor contrast

Subject contrast

15. Radiographic image quality is improved when the __________ is increased. a. source image distance b. focal spot size c. film speed d. screen speed

ANS: A Radiographic image quality is improved when source image distance is increased.

16. Patient thickness affects image quality by affecting ____________. a. magnification b. radiographic contrast c. focal spot blur d. magnification, radiographic contrast and focal spot blur

ANS: D Patient thickness affects image quality by affecting magnification, radiographic contrast, and focal spot blur.

17. The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the __________. a. image receptor b. kilovoltage c. voltage ripple d. milliamperage

ANS: B

The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the kilovoltage.

18. Focal-spot blur is small on ______________ side and large on the ___________ side of the image receptor. a. cathode; anode b. anode; cathode c. image intensifier; cathode d. image intensifier; anode

ANS: B The focal-spot blur is small on the anode side and large on the cathode side of the image receptor.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Magnification factor = image size/object size.

ANS: T Magnification factor = image size/object size.

2. MF = source-to-object distance (SOD)/source-to-image receptor distance (SID).

ANS: F MF = source-to-image receptor distance (SID)/source-to-object distance (SOD).

3. Distortion depends on object thickness.

ANS: T Distortion depends on object thickness.

4. Distortion depends on tube position.

ANS: F Distortion depends on object position.

5. Distortion depends on object shape.

ANS: T Distortion depends on object shape.

Chapter 22: Scatter Radiation Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Image-forming x-rays include those which have been _________________. a. transmitted without interaction b. scattered through Compton interaction c. absorbed through photoelectric interaction d. transmitted without interaction and scattered through Compton interaction

ANS: D Image-forming x-rays are those which have been transmitted without interaction and scattered through Compton interaction.

2. Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam? a. 90 kVp b. 75 kVp c. 60 kVp d. 50 kVp

ANS: A The percentage of Compton interaction increases as kVp increases.

3. Approximately _______% of the x-ray beam incident on the patient is transmitted through the patient without interaction to become part of the image-forming beam. a. 90% to 99 b. 20% to 299 c. 10% to 99 d. 1

ANS: D Approximately 1% of the x-ray beam incident on the patient is transmitted through the patient without interaction to become part of the image-forming beam.

4. The x-ray interaction that contributes to the clear parts of the image is _____________. a. coherent scatter b. Compton interaction c. photoelectric interaction d. pair production

ANS: C The x-ray interaction that contributes to the clear parts of the image is photoelectric interaction.

5. Compton scatter contributes to _____________. a. useful information b. image noise c. image contrast d. useful information, image noise and image contrast

ANS: B Compton scatter contributes only to image noise.

6. The three primary factors influencing the intensity of scatter in the image-forming beam are ___________________. a. mAs, kVp, and collimation b. mAs, filtration, and grids c. kVp, field size, and patient thickness d. filtration, patient thickness, and mAs

ANS: C The three primary factors influencing the intensity of scatter in the image-forming beam are kVp, field size, and patient thickness.

7. Decreasing the kVp will increase ___________. a. patient dose b. image noise c. Compton scatter d. optical density

ANS: A Decreasing the kVp will increase patient dose.

8. Photoelectric interactions increase when ___________ is decreased. a. mAs b. patient thickness c. filtration d. kVp

ANS: D Photoelectric interactions increase when kVp is decreased.

9. Scatter radiation increases as ___________________ increases.

a. photoelectric absorption b. field size c. filtration d. contrast

ANS: B Scatter radiation increases as field size increases.

10. The x-rays that are transmitted through the patient without interaction contribute to ______________. a. useful information b. scatter radiation c. image noise d. patient radiation dose

ANS: A The x-rays that are transmitted through the patient without interaction contribute to useful information.

11. Contrast resolution is improved by _____________. a. tight collimation b. lowering kVp c. patient compression d. tight collimation, lowering kVp and patient compression

ANS: D Contrast resolution is improved by tight collimation, lowering kVp, and patient compression.

12. A fixed aperture diaphragm should leave a _____ cm unexposed border on the film. a. 0.1

b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 2

ANS: C A fixed aperture diaphragm should leave a 1 cm unexposed border on the film.

13. The most commonly used beam restricting device is the ____________. a. extension cone b. variable collimator c. aperture diaphragm d. compression device

ANS: B The most commonly used beam restricting device is the variable collimator.

14. The use of a compression device will increase __________. a. film fog b. patient dose c. image contrast d. scatter

ANS: C The use of a compression device will increase contrast.

15. Lowering kVp ________ patient dose and _________ image contrast. a. lowers; decreases b. increases; decreases c. lowers; increases d. increases; increases

ANS: D Lowering kVp increases patient dose and increases image contrast.

16. The use of __________ improves contrast and reduces patient dose. a. collimation b. high kVp c. low kVp d. less filtration

ANS: A The use of collimation improves contrast and reduces patient dose.

17. The positive beam limiting device (PBL) assures that the x-ray beam is collimated to __________________. a. the exact part size b. 1 cm inside image receptor size c. the image receptor size d. 1 cm outside image receptor size

ANS: D The positive beam limiting device (PBL) assures that the x-ray beam is collimated to the image receptor size.

18. Federal regulations passed in _____ required that positive beam limiting devices be on all manufactured x-ray collimators. a. 1954 b. 1974 c. 1994 d. 2000

ANS: B Federal regulations passed in 1974 required that positive beam limiting devices be on all manufactured x-ray collimators.

19. Beam restriction with a(n) ____________ is only accurate at a fixed SID. a. aperture diaphragm b. cone c. collimator d. PBL device

ANS: A Beam restriction with an aperture diaphragm is only accurate at a fixed SID.

20. How can you improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose? a. Lower kVp and raise mAs. b. Use tight collimation. c. Raise kVp and lower mAs. d. lower kVp and raise mAs and use tight collimation

ANS: B You can improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose by using tight collimation.

Chapter 23: Radiographic Artifacts Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The three classifications of digital imaging artifacts are _______________________.

a. processing, exposure, and handling/storage b. processing, image receptor, and exposure c. image receptor, software, and object d. software, object, and exposure

ANS: C The three classifications of digital imaging artifacts are image receptor, software, and object.

2. A ghost image can occur in digital imaging because of ____________________. a. supernatural phenomena b. image blur c. incomplete erasure d. backscatter

ANS: C A ghost image can occur in digital imaging because of incomplete erasure.

3. During preprocessing, the digital output of the image receptor may need to be manipulated to correct for _________________. a. dead pixels b. image blur c. ghost images d. radiation fatigue

ANS: A During preprocessing the digital output of the image receptor may need to be manipulated to correct for dead pixels.

4. __________________ is done during preprocessing to correct for an irregular pattern over the image.

a. Lossy compression b. Signal erasure c. Partitioning d. Flatfielding

ANS: D Flatfielding is done during preprocessing to correct for an irregular pattern over the image.

5. The software correction that equalizes the response of each pixel to a uniform exposure of x-rays is called _______________. a. lossless compression b. flatfielding c. lossy compression d. histogram selection

ANS: B Flatfielding is the software correction that equalizes the response of each pixel to a uniform exposure of x-rays.

6. Which is/are done to the image during preprocessing?

I. Lossless compression II. Partitioning III. Flatfielding a. Lossless compression b. partitioning c. flatfielding d. Lossy compression

ANS: C

Partitioning is done during imaging, flatfielding is done during preprocessing, and lossless compression is done during post-processing.

7. Which modality produces the largest image files? a. Digital or computed radiography b. Computed tomography c. Nuclear medicine d. Digital mammography

ANS: D Digital mammography produces the largest file sizes of all digital imaging.

8. What size is the average CR or DR image file per image? a. 10 KB b. 100 KB c. 20 MB d. 200 MB

ANS: C The average size of a CR or DR image is 20 MB.

9. Computed radiography cassettes can sit for ____________ between exposures. a. a few hours b. a few days c. up to 1 year d. an unlimited time

ANS: B Computed radiography cassettes can sit for a few days between exposures.

10. The size and number of digital images have to be compressed to permit ___________. a. transmitting b. archiving c. viewing d. transmitting and archiving

ANS: D The size and number of digital images have to be compressed to permit transmitting and archiving.

11. Lossless compression reduces data files to as low as ______. a. 10:1 b. 50:1 c. 100:1 d. 1000:1

ANS: A Lossless compression reduces data files 10:1.

12. Lossy compression reduces data files greater than ______. a. 10:1 b. 50:1 c. 100:1 d. 1000:1

ANS: A Lossy compression reduces data files 10:1 and more.

13. Computer aided diagnosis (CAD) requires the use of ______________________. a. uncompressed images

b. lossy compression c. lossless compression d. lossy and lossless compression

ANS: A Computer aided diagnosis (CAD) requires the use of uncompressed images.

14. Object artifacts in digital imaging can occur from errors in ___________________. a. x-ray beam collimation b. histogram selection c. patient positioning d. x-ray beam collimation, histogram selection, and patient positioning

ANS: D Object artifacts can occur from errors in x-ray beam collimation, histogram selection, or patient positioning.

15. Backscatter radiation artifacts can occur more readily in digital imaging because of the ____________________. a. large data file sizes b. techniques used c. highly sensitive receptors d. partitioning errors

ANS: C Backscatter radiation artifacts can occur more readily in digital imaging because of the highly sensitive receptors.

16. A graph of the frequency of occurrence versus digital value intervals is called a(n) ________________.

a. histogram b. compression c. digitization d. algorithm

ANS: A A graph of the frequency of occurrence versus digital value interval is a histogram.

17. Each anatomical part has an image histogram with a(n) _______________ shape. a. identical b. characteristic c. S-curve d. round

ANS: B Each anatomical part has an image histogram with a characteristic shape.

18. Histogram selection is done ____________________________. a. automatically during each exposure b. automatically during post-processing c. by the radiographer before each exam d. by the radiographer during post-processing

ANS: C Histogram selection is done by the radiographer before each exam.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Artifacts are an acceptable part of digital imaging.

ANS: F Artifacts, like accidents, are avoidable.

2. It is a safe practice to keep CR cassettes in a ―radiation safe‖ area of an x-ray suite during exams.

ANS: F It is not a safe practice to keep CR cassettes in a ―radiation safe‖ area of an x-ray suite during exams because they are too sensitive to scatter radiation.

Chapter 24: Mammography Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Soft tissue radiography requires special techniques because of the low ____________. a. image receptor contrast b. subject contrast c. part thickness d. spatial resolution

ANS: B Soft tissue radiography is unique because of the low subject contrast.

2. When doing soft tissue radiography, the differential absorption between ________ and ______ must be enhanced. a. bone; muscle b. muscle; fluid c. muscle; fat d. fat; air

ANS: C

When doing soft tissue radiography, the differential absorption between muscle and fat must be enhanced.

3. In soft tissue radiography, all of the tissues being imaged have similar _____________. a. effective atomic numbers b. mass densities c. Compton interaction d. effective atomic numbers, mass densities, and Compton interaction

ANS: D In soft tissue radiography, all of the tissues being imaged have similar effective atomic numbers, mass densities, and Compton interaction.

4. The breast tissue tends to be increasingly _________ in older women. a. fatty b. dense c. glandular d. fibrous

ANS: A The breast tissue tends to be increasingly fatty in older women.

5. About 80% of breast cancer occurs in __________ tissue. a. epidermal b. adipose c. ductal d. connective

ANS: C About 80% of breast cancer occurs in ductal tissue.

6. A diagnostic mammogram must be able to demonstrate microcalcifications less than _____ in size. a. 5000 m b. 50 m c. 1000 m d. 500 m

ANS: D A diagnostic mammogram must be able to demonstrate microcalcifications less than 500 m in size.

7. The American Cancer Society recommends that all women _____ years of age and above have an annual screening mammogram. a. 45 b. 50 c. 55 d. 60

ANS: B The American Cancer Society recommends that all women 50 years of age and above have an annual screening mammogram.

8. The American Cancer Society recommends biannual screening mammograms for all women ____________. a. over age 65 b. age 30 to 39 c. age 50 to 59 d. age 40 to 49

ANS: D The American Cancer Society recommends biannual screening mammograms for all women age 40 to 49.

9. It is recommended that women obtain their first baseline mammogram before the age of _____. a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60

ANS: B It is recommended that women obtain their first baseline mammogram before the age of 40.

10. A dedicated mammography unit should have an automatic adjustable _____________ device. a. grid b. compression c. focal spot d. filter

ANS: B A dedicated mammography unit should have an automatic adjustable compression device.

11. Every dedicated mammography unit is equipped with a ________________. a. low ratio grid b. high ratio grid c. three-phase voltage generator d. tungsten filter

ANS: A

Every dedicated mammography unit is equipped with a low ratio grid.

12. A target of molybdenum or rhodium is preferable in mammography because it allows for a lower _____________. a. resolution b. kVp c. contrast d. motion

ANS: B A target of molybdenum or rhodium is preferable in mammography because it allows for a lower kVp setting.

13. Breast compression has the advantage of lowering _________________. a. patient dose b. motion blur c. superimpositions d. patient dose, motion blur, and superimpositions

ANS: D Breast compression has the advantage of lowering patient dose, motion blur, and superimpositions.

14. Breast compression is used to _______ patient dose and ________ focal spot blur. a. lower; reduce b. lower; increase c. raise; reduce d. raise; increase

ANS: A

Breast compression is used to lower patient dose and reduce focal spot blur.

15. Breast compression increases ________________. a. contrast resolution b. spatial resolution c. motion blur d. contrast resolution and spatial resolution

ANS: D Breast compression increases contrast resolution and spatial resolution.

16. Screening mammography requires _____ view(s) of each breast, whereas diagnostic mammography requires _____ views. a. one; two or more b. two; two or more c. three; three or more d. four; four or more

ANS: B Screening mammography requires two views of each breast, whereas diagnostic mammography requires two or more views.

17. Quality control procedures include measures of __________________. a. display devices b. repeat analysis c. image receptor function d. display devices, repeat analysis and image receptor function

ANS: D

Quality control procedures include measures of display devices, repeat analysis and image receptor, function.

18. The _____________________ is responsible for supervising quality control. a. chief radiologist b. mammographer c. department manager d. medical physicist

ANS: A The chief radiologist is responsible for supervising quality assurance.

19. The purpose of a quality control program is to maintain the maximum ___________ with the minimum _____________. a. equipment function; department costs b. patient satisfaction; exam time c. quality of mammograms; patient dose d. patient care; exam time

ANS: C The purpose of a quality assurance program is to maintain the quality of mammograms with the minimum patient dose.

20. The mammography quality control program is outlined by the ___________________. a. radiology department b. Mammography Quality Standards Act c. state governments d. Bureau of Radiation Health

ANS: B

The mammography quality control program is outlined by the Mammography Quality Standards Act. Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Fluoroscopy was developed so that radiologists could view ______________ images. a. static b. dynamic c. magnified d. darkened

ANS: B Fluoroscopy was developed so that radiologists could view dynamic images.

2. What is the milliamperage used during fluoroscopy? a. £100 mA b. £50 mA c. £5 mA d. £1 mA

ANS: C During fluoroscopy, the x-ray tube is operated at less than 5 mA.

3. The image intensifier improved fluoroscopy by increasing image _________________. a. brightness b. resolution c. magnification d. contrast

ANS: A The image intensifier improved fluoroscopy by increasing image brightness.

4. Image intensified fluoroscopy is performed at illumination levels similar to ________. a. star gazing b. darkened theaters c. night driving d. radiograph viewing

ANS: D Image intensified fluoroscopy is performed at illumination levels similar to radiograph viewing.

5. Visual acuity in the eye is greatest at the ___________, where _____ are concentrated. a. retinal periphery; cones b. fovea centralis; cones c. retinal periphery; rods d. fovea centralis; rods

ANS: B Visual acuity in the eye is greatest at the fovea centralis, where cones are concentrated.

6. The ability of the eye to detect differences in brightness levels is termed ___________. a. visual acuity b. scotopic vision c. photopic vision d. contrast perception

ANS: D

The ability of the eye to detect differences in brightness levels is termed contrast perception.

7. The _______ in the retina are stimulated by _______ light; the _______ are stimulated by _______ light. a. rods; bright; cones; low b. rods; low; cones; low c. rods; low; cones; bright d. rods; bright; cones; bright

ANS: C The rods in the retina are stimulated by low light; the cones are stimulated by bright light.

8. With image intensification the light level is raised to ___________ vision. a. photopic b. scotopic c. night d. twilight

ANS: A With image intensification the light level is raised to photopic vision.

9. X-rays that exit the patient and enter the image intensifier first interact with the _____. a. output phosphor b. input phosphor c. photocathode d. anode

ANS: B X-rays that exit the patient during fluoroscopy first interact with the input phosphor.

10. The output phosphor of the image intensifier is composed of ___________________. a. cesium iodide b. antimony c. zinc cadmium sulfide d. graphite

ANS: C The output phosphor of the image intensifier is composed of zinc cadmium sulfide.

11. The input phosphor converts _________ to _________. a. x-rays; electrons b. light; electrons c. electrons; light d. x-rays; light

ANS: D The input phosphor converts x-rays to light.

12. The ____________ in the image intensifier emits electrons when it is stimulated by light photons. a. input phosphor b. output phosphor c. photocathode d. electron gun

ANS: C The photocathode in the image intensifier emits electrons when it is stimulated by light photons.

13. The number of light photons emitted within the image intensifier is ____________ to the amount of x-ray photons exiting the patient. a. equal b. unrelated c. inversely proportional d. directly proportional

ANS: D The number of light photons emitted within the image intensifier is directly proportional to the amount of x-ray photons exiting the patient.

14. The kinetic energy of photoelectrons in the image intensifier is greatly increased by the _____________________. a. mAs of the exposure b. potential difference across the tube c. cesium iodide at the input phosphor d. zinc cadmium sulfide at the output phosphor

ANS: B The kinetic energy of photoelectrons in the image intensifier is greatly increased by the potential difference across the tube.

15. Light produced at the output phosphor of the image intensifier has been increased __________ times in intensity. a. 5 to 10 b. 20 to 35 c. 50 to 75 d. 100 to 300

ANS: C

Light produced at the output phosphor has been increased 50 to 75 times in intensity.

16. Electrons hit the _______________ after exiting the anode. a. output phosphor b. tube housing c. photocathode d. focusing lenses

ANS: A Electrons hit the output phosphor after exiting the anode.

17. The _______________ is the product of the minification gain and the flux gain. a. horizontal resolution b. brightness gain c. contrast resolution d. flux gain

ANS: B The brightness gain is the product of the minification gain and the flux gain.

18. The ratio of x-rays incident on the input phosphor to light photons exiting the output phosphor is called _______ gain. a. magnification b. minification c. brightness d. flux

ANS: D The ratio of x-rays incident on the input phosphor to light photons exiting the output phosphor is called flux gain.

19. The capability of an image intensifier to increase the illumination level of the image is called its _____________________. a. flux gain b. conversion factor c. brightness gain d. veiling glare

ANS: C The capability of the image intensifier to increase the illumination level of the image is called its brightness gain.

20. An image intensifier tube is identified by the diameter of its __________________. a. input phosphor b. glass housing c. output phosphor d. focusing lenses

ANS: A An image intensifier tube is identified by the diameter of its input phosphor.

Chapter 26: Interventional Radiology Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The 18-gauge hollow ____________ needle with a stylet, developed in 1953, is used to puncture the femoral artery. a. Judkins b. Seldinger c. Dotter

d. Jones

ANS: B The 18-gauge hollow Seldinger needle with a stylet, developed in 1953, is used to puncture the femoral artery.

2. The most common risk for the angiography patient is ________________. a. bleeding at the puncture site b. arterial puncture or tear c. drug reaction to contrast d. blood clot formation

ANS: A The most common risk for the angiography patient is bleeding at the puncture site.

3. During an interventional procedure, all of the following must be maintained on the patient, except a. pulse oximetry. b. blood pressure measurement. c. electrocardiography. d. current weight.

ANS: D During an interventional procedure, pulse oximetry, blood pressure measurement, and electrocardiography must be maintained on the patient.

4. The x-ray tube used for interventional radiologic procedures has a _____________. a. small diameter anode b. small target angle c. large focal spot

d. low power rating

ANS: B The x-ray tube used for interventional radiologic procedures has a small target angle.

5. Serial radiography requires x-ray equipment with a _________________. a. large target angle b. small anode disk c. low heat capacity d. high power rating

ANS: D Serial radiography requires x-ray equipment with a high power rating.

6. The focal spot used for magnification of small vessels cannot be larger than ____ mm. a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.7 d. 1.0

ANS: A The focal spot used for magnification of small vessels cannot be larger than 0.3 mm.

7. The size and construction of the _____________ determines the anode heat capacity. a. tube housing b. cathode wire c. bearing assembly d. anode disk

ANS: D The size and construction of the anode disk determines the anode heat capacity.

8. The power rating for an interventional radiography tube should be at least _____ kW. a. 20 b. 40 c. 80 d. 100

ANS: D The power rating for an interventional radiography tube should be at least 100 kW.

9. When imaging a flow of contrast from the abdomen to the feet, a ___________ is used. a. tilting table b. stepping table c. sliding tube d. cine camera

ANS: B When imaging a flow of contrast from abdomen to feet, a stepping table is used.

10. The patient table is moved with a floor switch to maintain a ______________. a. better motion control b. smooth movement c. low exposure rate d. sterile field

ANS: D The patient table is moved with a floor switch to maintain a sterile field.

11. The ___________ artery is the one most often accessed for arteriograms. a. pulmonary b. carotid c. femoral d. brachial

ANS: C The femoral artery is the one most often accessed for arteriograms.

12. A patient must have all of the following prior to having an angiography or interventional procedure, except a. a history and physical examination. b. orders for IV hydration. c. a diet of clear liquids. d. a chest x-ray.

ANS: D A patient must have a history and physical examination, orders for IV hydration, and a diet of clear liquids prior to having an angiography or interventional procedure.

13. The use of ______________ reduces the risk of a drug reaction during angiographic procedures. a. hydrophilic catheters b. ionic contrast c. nonionic contrast d. heparin coating

ANS: C The use of nonionic contrast reduces the risk of a drug reaction during interventional and angiographic procedures.

14. ______________ is an example of an interventional procedure. a. Cardiac catheterization b. Myelography c. Angioplasty d. Angiography

ANS: C Angioplasty is an example of an interventional procedure.

15. A technologist who passes the ARRT exam in cardiovascular and interventional radiography may add _____ after the RT (R). a. (VT) b. (CI) c. (IR) d. (CV)

ANS: D A technologist who passes the ARRT exam in cardiovascular and interventional radiography may add (CV) after the RT (R).

Chapter 27: Computed Tomography Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Each sweep of the source-detector around the body during CT is called a __________. a. rotation b. reconstruction c. translation d. projection

ANS: C Each sweep of the source-detector around the body during CT is called a translation.

2. Each CT projection records variations in _________________________. a. density and contrast b. motion and noise c. spatial resolution and contrast resolution d. mass density and effective atomic number

ANS: D Each CT projection records variations in mass density and effective atomic number.

3. Each CT projection is ______________________. a. displayed on the monitor b. stored on the computer c. printed on film d. saved on a disk

ANS: B Each CT projection is stored on the computer.

4. The cross-sectional anatomy is translated into ___________ during CT reconstruction. a. an intensity profile b. attenuation patterns c. a matrix of values d. effective atomic numbers

ANS: C The cross-sectional anatomy is translated into a matrix of values during CT reconstruction.

5. The first generation of computed tomography used ______ detector(s). a. one b. two c. three d. four

ANS: A The first generation of computed tomography used one detector.

6. The principal drawback of the first-generation CT scanner was the _______________. a. high patient dose b. long scanning time c. translate-rotate assembly d. degree of rotation

ANS: B The principal drawback of the first-generation CT scanner was the long scanning time.

7. The second-generation CT scanners had the disadvantage of increased ____________. a. beam scatter b. scanning time c. ring artifacts d. number of translations

ANS: A The second-generation CT scanners had the disadvantage of increased beam scatter.

8. The reduction in ____________ was the principal advantage of the second-generation CT scanners.

a. image noise b. patient dose c. scanning time d. scatter radiation

ANS: C The reduction in scanning time was the principal advantage of the second-generation CT scanners.

9. The third generation of CT scanners allowed for further reduction in ______________. a. scanning time b. scattered radiation c. fan-beam width d. scanning time and scattered radiation

ANS: D The third generation of CT scanners allowed for further reduction in scanning time and scattered radiation.

10. The __________ generation of CT scanners was the first to have the fan beam transect the entire patient at all times. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth

ANS: C The third generation of CT scanners was the first to have the fan beam transect the entire patient at all times.

11. What is the principal disadvantage of third-generation CT scanners? a. Slow speed b. Ring artifacts c. Patient dose d. Poor reconstruction

ANS: B The principal disadvantage of third-generation CT scanners is the occasional presence of ring artifacts.

12. The new development in the fourth-generation CT scanner is the ________________. a. stationary detector assembly b. fan beam c. reduced patient dose d. ring artifact

ANS: A The new development in the fourth-generation CT scanner is the stationary detector assembly.

13. Many CT x-ray tubes have the capacity for millions of _________ with each exam. a. heat units b. rotations c. volts d. Hertz

ANS: A Many CT x-ray tubes have the capacity for millions of heat units with each exam.

14. The concentration of scintillation detectors affects the ___________ of the CT image. a. spatial resolution

b. contrast resolution c. overall density d. motion artifact

ANS: A The concentration of scintillation detectors affects the spatial resolution of the CT image.

15. The patient dose in CT is determined by the ________________ collimator. a. predetector b. prepatient c. postpatient d. prepatient and predetector

ANS: B The patient dose in CT is determined by the prepatient collimator.

16. CT scanners operate on ________________ voltage generation. a. single-phase b. three-phase c. high-frequency d. 12-pulse

ANS: C CT scanners operate on high-frequency voltage generation.

17. The time from the end of CT imaging to image appearance is called the ______ time. a. reconstruction b. translation c. projection d. Hounsfield

ANS: A The time from the end of CT imaging to image appearance is called the reconstruction time.

18. Each pixel of information in the CT image contains numerical information in ___________ units. a. voxel b. reconstruction c. Hounsfield d. pixel

ANS: C Each pixel of information in the CT image contains numerical information in Hounsfield units.

19. The pixel size is reduced when the _______ size is increased and the _____________ size is fixed. a. field of view; matrix b. matrix; field of view c. Hounsfield unit; field of view d. field of view; Hounsfield unit

ANS: B The pixel size is reduced when the matrix size is increased and the field of view size is fixed.

20. Filtered back projection in CT refers to ___________________. a. spatial resolution b. prepatient collimation c. beam filtration d. image reconstruction

ANS: D Filtered back projection in CT refers to image reconstruction.

Image noise in CT scanning depends on kVp and filtration, pixel size, slice thickness, detector efficiency, and, ultimately, patient dose.

Chapter 28: Tomosynthesis Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The first digital radiographic tomosynthesis (DRT) appeared in which modality? a. Computed tomography b. Mammography c. Pain management d. Surgery

ANS: B The first digital radiographic tomosynthesis (DRT) appeared in digital mammography.

2. During digital radiographic tomosynthesis (DRT), what is the range of the sweep of the x-ray tube? a. +/– 0 to +/– 5 degrees b. +/– 5 to +/– 25 degrees c. +/– 25 to +/– 35 degrees d. +/– 35 to +/– 45 degrees

ANS: B The range of the sweep of the x-ray tube during digital radiographic tomosynthesis (DRT) is +/– 5 to +/– 25 degrees.

3. An advantage of DRT is to _______________. a. reduce or eliminate tissue superimposition b. decrease patient dose c. image thicker body parts d. improve image noise

ANS: A The principal advantage of DRT is to reduce or eliminate tissue superimposition.

4. During digital radiographic tomosynthesis (DRT), what is the range of the sweep angle of the x-ray tube? a. 0 to 5 degrees b. 5 to 25 degrees c. 10 to 25 degrees d. 10 to 50 degrees

ANS: D The range of the sweep angle of the x-ray tube during digital radiographic tomosynthesis (DRT) is 10–50 degrees.

5. Which of the following is an important sweep angle metric? a. Angle of sweep b. Scan time c. Number of projections d. Number of sweeps

ANS: B An important sweep angle metric is scan time. Short scan time increases patient throughput.

Perhaps more importantly short scan time minimizes patient motion blur.

6. DRT data projections are expressed in which units? a. Degree sweep per sweep angle b. Projections sampled per degree sweep c. Sweep angle per projections sampled d. Backprojection per projection

ANS: B The number of data projections that are sampled has a significant impact on any DRT examination. This characteristic is usually expressed as projections sampled per degree sweep angle.

7. Which two factors determine image receptor speed and patient radiation dose? a. Element thickness and pixel size b. Pixel size and atomic number c. Atomic number and element thickness d. Element thickness and image receptor

ANS: C The atomic number that determines the K-absorption edge energy and the capture element thickness both determine the detective quantum efficiency (DQE) and therefore image receptor speed and patient radiation dose.

8. What is the typical number of projections in DRT? a. 1 to 9 b. 10 to 25 c. 26 to 40 d. 41 to 60

ANS: B The typical number of projections in DRT is 9 to 25.

9. What is the typical source to image receptor distance in DRT? a. 20 to 40 cm b. 41 to 59 cm c. 60 to 100 cm d. 100 or more cm

ANS: C The typical source to image receptor distance in DRT is 60 to 100 cm.

10. What is the typical source to center of rotation distance in DRT? a. 20 to 40 cm b. 41 to 59 cm c. 60 to 100 cm d. 100 or more cm

ANS: C The typical source to center of rotation distance in DRT is 60 to 100 cm.

11. Filtered backprojection is useful for ________________ because of the shorter reconstruction time. a. screening examinations b. diagnostic examinations c. monitoring examinations d. follow-up examinations

ANS: A FBP is particularly useful for screening examinations because of the shorter reconstruction time.

12. The time from the end of CT imaging to image appearance is called the ______ time. a. reconstruction b. translation c. projection d. Hounsfield

ANS: C The time from the end of CT imaging to image appearance is called the reconstruction time.

13. Filtered back projection in DRT refers to ___________________. a. spatial resolution b. prepatient collimation c. beam filtration d. image reconstruction

ANS: D Filtered back projection in DRT refers to image reconstruction.

14. Blurred-ripple artifacts appear ______________. a. perpendicular to the sweep angle b. parallel to the sweep angle c. perpendicular to the x-ray tube sweep direction d. parallel to the x-ray tube sweep direction

ANS: C Blurred-ripple artifacts appear perpendicular to the x-ray tube sweep direction.

15. A quality control program should include all of the following, except ___________. a. spatial resolution b. patient dose

c. contrast resolution d. artifacts

ANS: B The degree of spatial resolution in any CT imaging system is limited to the size of the pixel.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Digital radiographic tomosynthesis (DRT) was not possible until the digital image receptor became available.

ANS: T Digital radiographic tomosynthesis (DRT) was not possible until the digital image receptor became available.

2. Computer aided detection (CAD) is not an early application of artificial intelligence (AI) in DRT.

ANS: F Computer aided detection (CAD) is an early application of artificial intelligence (AI) in DRT.

3. DMIST showed that contrast resolution is more important than spatial resolution for diagnostic efficacy.

ANS: T DMIST showed that contrast resolution is more important than spatial resolution for diagnostic efficacy.

4. Digital mammography has superior contrast resolution principally because of preprocessing.

ANS: F Digital mammography has superior contrast resolution principally because of postprocessing.

5. Digital radiographic tomosynthesis has its own artifacts—blurred ripple and truncation.

ANS: T Digital radiographic tomosynthesis has its own artifacts—blurred ripple and truncation.

Chapter 29: Human Biology Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The __________ is the basic functional unit of all plants and animals. a. DNA b. cell c. macromolecule d. lipid

ANS: B The cell is the basic functional unit of all plants and animals.

2. The human body is composed of about 80% ______________. a. carbohydrates b. protein c. nucleic acids d. water

ANS: D The human body is composed of about 80% water.

3. The ______________ in the body provide fuel for cell metabolism. a. protein

b. water c. carbohydrates d. hormones

ANS: C The carbohydrates in the body provide fuel for cell metabolism.

4. The endocrine glands produce ____________. a. hormones b. lipids c. antigens d. glycerol

ANS: A The endocrine glands produce hormones.

5. The _______________ in the cell are nucleic acids. a. DNA b. RNA c. lipids d. DNA and RNA

ANS: D The DNA and RNA in the cell are nucleic acids.

6. The most radiosensitive target molecule in the human cell is the _________. a. protein b. DNA c. hormone d. glucose

ANS: B The most radiosensitive target molecule in the human cell is the DNA.

7. DNA is located in the ____________ of the cell. a. nucleus b. cytoplasm c. wall d. nucleus and cytoplasm

ANS: A DNA is located in the nucleus of the cell.

8. The only principal molecules in the body which are simple molecules are __________ molecules. a. carbohydrate b. water c. lipid d. protein

ANS: B The only principal molecules in the body which are simple molecules are water molecules.

9. The metabolic process of building large molecules from smaller ones is called ______________. a. synthesis b. catabolism c. anabolism d. homeostasis

ANS: C The process of building large molecules from smaller ones is called anabolism.

10. All the hereditary information about an individual is contained in the _______ cells. a. germ b. brain c. blood d. skin

ANS: A All the hereditary information about an individual is contained in the germ cells.

11. The two major parts of the cell are the nucleus and the ________________. a. mitochondria b. cell wall c. nucleolus d. cytoplasm

ANS: D The two major parts of the cell are the nucleus and cytoplasm.

12. The cell ―engines‖ are the _________________. a. ribosomes b. lysosomes c. mitochondria d. nucleoli

ANS: C The cell ―engines‖ are the mitochondria.

13. The ______________ have the function of cleaning contaminants from the cell. a. mitochondria b. lysosomes c. ribosomes d. chromatids

ANS: B The lysosomes have the function of cleaning contaminants from the cell.

14. A codon is a _______________. a. protein molecule b. cell organelle c. genetic message d. somatic cell

ANS: C A codon is a genetic message.

15. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is located primarily in the _________________. a. cytoplasm b. nucleus c. cell wall d. ribosomes

ANS: A Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is located primarily in the cytoplasm.

16. Meiosis is the process of cell division for ___________ cells. a. muscle

b. skin c. somatic d. genetic

ANS: D Meiosis is the process of cell division for genetic cells.

17. A cell is in _____________ when it is not undergoing mitosis or meiosis. a. prophase b. anaphase c. interphase d. telophase

ANS: C A cell is in interphase when it is not undergoing mitosis or meiosis.

18. Any chromosome damage induced by radiation could be seen during the __________. a. metaphase b. telophase c. anaphase d. prophase

ANS: A Any chromosome damage induced by radiation could be seen during the metaphase.

19. During the ______ phase of cell life, each DNA molecule is replicated into two identical daughter DNA molecules. a. G1 b. G2 c. M

d. S

ANS: D During the S phase of cell life, each DNA molecule is replicated into two identical daughter DNA molecules.

20. The process of cell meiosis results in cells with _______ chromosomes each. a. 22 b. 23 c. 46 d. 48

ANS: B The process of cell meiosis results in cells with 23 chromosomes each.

Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The law of __________________ states that the radiosensitivity of living tissue is a function of the metabolism and maturation of that tissue. a. Watson and Crick b. Roentgen and Plank c. Hurter and Driffield d. Bergonie and Tribondeau

ANS: D The Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau states that the radiosensitivity of living tissue is a function of the metabolism and maturation of that tissue.

2. Tissues that are ____________ with a _______ metabolic rate are more radiosensitive. a. immature; low b. immature; high c. mature; low d. mature; high

ANS: B Tissues that are immature with a high metabolic rate are more radiosensitive.

3. _________ is a measure of the rate that energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to soft tissue. a. LET b. RBE c. MeV d. OER

ANS: A LET is a measure of the rate that energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to soft tissue.

4. As LET ____________, the RBE ______________. a. increases; remains the same b. decreases; remains the same c. increases; increases d. increases; decreases

ANS: C As LET increases, the RBE increases.

5. A protracted dose of radiation is given _______________. a. over a long period of time

b. all at one short exposure c. in a series of separate doses d. in two large doses

ANS: A A protracted dose of radiation is given over a long period of time.

6. A dose of 10 Gy given to a patient in 5 doses of 2 Gy per day is a ____________ dose. a. protracted b. fractionated c. diagnostic d. fatal

ANS: B A dose of 10 Gy given to a patient in 5 doses of 2 Gy per day is a fractionated dose.

7. The LET of diagnostic x-rays is _____ keV/m. a. 0.2 b. 0.3 c. 3.0 d. 50

ANS: C The LET of diagnostic x-rays is 3.0 keV/m.

8. The RBE of diagnostic x-rays is equal to _____. a. 20 b. 10 c. 5

d. 1

ANS: D The Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau states that the radiosensitivity of living tissue is a function of the metabolism and maturation of that tissue.

9. Tissue is _______ radiosensitive under high oxygen conditions and _________ radiosensitive under hypoxic conditions. a. less; equally b. less; more c. more; less d. more; equally

ANS: C Tissue is more radiosensitive under high oxygen conditions and less radiosensitive under hypoxic conditions.

10. Fractionation and protraction are used for radiation therapy because they allow the patient to ______________. a. recover between doses b. have higher total doses c. repair damaged tissues d. All of the options

ANS: D Fractionation and protraction are used for radiation therapy because they allow the patient to recover between doses, repair damaged tissues, and have higher total doses.

11. Humans are most radiosensitive during ________________. a. fetal stages

b. infancy c. adulthood d. old age

ANS: A Humans are most radiosensitive during fetal stages.

12. The human application of radioprotective agents would _____________________. a. double radiation damage b. be fatally toxic c. reduce radiation effects by half d. reduce radiation effects by one fourth

ANS: B The human application of radioprotective agents would be fatally toxic.

13. Human cells cannot recover from radiation damage after there is ________________. a. cellular repair b. cellular repopulation c. interphase death d. sublethal damage

ANS: C Human cells cannot recover from radiation damage after there is interphase death.

14. Studies of the effects of radiation show that low doses may stimulate the following ________________. a. reproductive system b. hair growth c. stimulate hormonal responses

d. endocrine response

ANS: C Studies of the effects of radiation show that low doses may stimulate the hormonal and immune system responses to toxins and extend the life span.

15. The possible beneficial effect of a small amount of radiation is called ____________. a. radiosensitizing b. hormesis c. radioprotection d. protraction

ANS: B The possible beneficial effect of a small amount of radiation is called hormesis.

16. A _________ response to radiation is directly proportional to the dose received. a. linear b. nonlinear c. curvilinear d. nonthreshold

ANS: A A linear response to radiation is directly proportional to the dose received.

17. If a response to radiation is expected, no matter how small the dose, then that dose-response is _________________. a. linear b. nonlinear c. nonthreshold d. threshold

ANS: C If a response to radiation is expected, no matter how small the dose, then that dose-response is nonthreshold.

18. Radiation induced genetic damage follows a ___________________ dose-response relationship. a. linear-nonthreshold b. linear-threshold c. nonlinear-nonthreshold d. nonlinear-threshold

ANS: A Radiation induced genetic damage follows a linear-nonthreshold dose-response relationship.

19. Which dose-response relationship can follow a sigmoid curve? a. Linear-nonthreshold b. Linear-threshold c. Nonlinear-nonthreshold d. Nonlinear-threshold

ANS: D A nonlinear-threshold dose response can follow a sigmoid curve.

20. The human dose-response relationship at low ranges of radiation is calculated using _______________________. a. known responses from low doses b. extrapolation from high ranges c. human experiments d. All of the options

ANS: B The human dose-response relationship at low ranges of radiation is calculated using extrapolation from high ranges.

Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. If a macromolecule has (a) _____________, it will break down into smaller molecules. a. main-chain scission b. point lesion c. cross-linking d. point mutation

ANS: A A main-chain scission of a macromolecule results in a breakdown into smaller molecules.

2. In vitro irradiation of macromolecules causes ___________ damage to macromolecules. a. repairable b. reversible c. irreversible d. repairable and reversible

ANS: D In vitro irradiation to macromolecules causes repairable and reversible damage to macromolecules.

3. The most radiosensitive macromolecule is ___________.

a. protein b. DNA c. mRNA d. tRNA

ANS: B The most radiosensitive macromolecule is DNA.

4. DNA is contained in the __________________ of the cell nucleus. a. proteins b. cytoplasm c. chromosomes d. RNA

ANS: C DNA is contained in the chromosomes of the cell nucleus.

5. A type of DNA damage that may not be reversible is a _________________. a. cross-linking b. base change or loss c. rung breakage d. severed side rail

ANS: B A type of DNA damage that may not be reversible is base change or loss.

6. Radiation damage to DNA can result in _________________. a. cell death b. malignant disease c. genetic changes

d. any of the options

ANS: D Radiation damage to DNA can result in malignant disease, genetic changes, or cell death.

7. Molecular lesions of DNA are called ________________. a. point mutations b. broken side rails c. cross-linking d. rung breaks

ANS: A Molecular lesions of DNA are called point mutations.

8. The principal radiation interaction within the human body is with _____________. a. DNA b. macromolecules c. water d. RNA

ANS: C The principal radiation interaction within the human body is with water.

9. The disassociation of water molecules following irradiation is termed _____________. a. radiolysis b. ionization c. cross-linking d. point mutation

ANS: A The disassociation of water molecules following irradiation is termed radiolysis.

10. When an atom of water is irradiated it first dissociates into _________________. a. two water atoms b. an ion pair c. free radicals d. hydrogen peroxide

ANS: B When an atom of water is irradiated it first dissociates into an ion pair.

11. Two OH* free radicals can join to form __________________ molecules. a. organic free radical b. hydroperoxyl c. hydrogen peroxide d. DNA

ANS: C Two OH* free radicals can join to form hydrogen peroxide molecules.

12. Free radicals can be damaging because they are _______________________. a. unstable b. highly reactive c. radioactive d. unstable and highly reactive

ANS: D Free radicals can be damaging because they are unstable and highly reactive.

13. An indirect effect from ionizing radiation occurs on a ___________ molecule. a. target b. DNA c. water d. free radical

ANS: C An indirect effect from ionizing radiation occurs on a water molecule.

14. Ionizing events from irradiation are considered to be direct effects if they occur with ___________ molecules. a. water b. DNA c. protein d. water and DNA

ANS: B Ionizing events from irradiation are considered to be direct effects if they occur with DNA molecules.

15. The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be ________________. a. indirect effects b. direct effects c. DNA damage d. cell destruction

ANS: A The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be indirect effects.

TRUE/FALSE

1. In vitro is irradiation within the cell or body.

ANS: F In vitro is irradiation outside of the cell or body.

2. Point lesions can result in the stochastic radiation effects observed at the whole-body level.

ANS: T Point lesions can result in the stochastic radiation effects observed at the whole-body level.

3. Metabolism consists of catabolism and anabolism.

ANS: T Metabolism consists of catabolism and anabolism.

4. DNA is the most radiosensitive molecule in the human body.

ANS: T DNA is the most radiosensitive molecule in the human body.

5. Cell death, malignant disease, and genetic effects result from irradiation of mRNA.

ANS: F Cell death, malignant disease, and genetic effects result from irradiation of DNA. Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Irradiation hits occur through ___________________.

a. indirect effects b. direct effects c. excitation events d. direct and indirect effects

ANS: D Irradiation hits occur through both indirect and direct effects.

2. According to target theory, the target molecule of a cell is _____________________. a. any molecule in the cell b. the DNA in the nucleus c. a water molecule d. a protein macromolecule

ANS: B According to target theory, the target molecule of a cell is the DNA in the nucleus.

3. A target molecule that is __________________ will always cause cell death. a. inactivated b. damaged c. hit d. ionized

ANS: A A target molecule that is inactivated will always cause cell death.

4. A hit to a cell target can occur from a(n) _________________ effect. a. indirect b. direct c. oxygen

d. indirect and direct

ANS: D A hit to a cell target can occur from an indirect or direct effect.

5. The probability of a hit is increased with ______ oxygen and ______ LET radiation. a. high; low b. low; low c. high; high d. low; high

ANS: C The probability of a hit is increased with high oxygen and high LET radiation.

6. The lethal effects of cell irradiation are measured by cell _______________. a. death b. survival c. damage d. mutation

ANS: B The lethal effects of cell irradiation are measured by cell survival.

7. The _______-target, ______-hit model of radiation-induced cell death applies to simple cells only. a. single; single b. multiple; multiple c. multiple; single d. single; multiple

ANS: A The single-target, single-hit model of radiation-induced cell death applies to simple cells only.

8. The DO represents the ______________ dose for human cells. a. mean survival b. mean lethal c. 50% survival d. 50% lethal

ANS: B The DO represents the mean lethal dose for human cells.

9. Human cells are most radiosensitive during the _________ phase of the cell cycle. a. gap2 b. gap1 c. mitosis d. synthesis

ANS: C Human cells are most radiosensitive during the mitosis phase of the cell cycle.

10. The DQ is the ____________ dose for irradiation of human cells. a. single-target b. multi-hit c. lethal d. threshold

ANS: D The DQ is the threshold dose for irradiation of human cells.

11. Which of the following types of radioactive particle has the highest LET? a. Alpha particle b. X-ray c. Gamma-ray d. Proton

ANS: A Alpha particles have the highest LET of any of the listed particles.

12. The mean lethal dose for high-LET radiation is _______ than after low-LET radiation. a. higher b. lower c. the same d. unknown

ANS: B Higher LET radiation is more lethal than lower LET radiation thus the mean lethal dose for high-LET radiation is lower than for low-LET radiation.

13. If oxygen is present during low-LET radiation the effect of radiation is __________. a. reduced b. minimal c. maximal d. the same

ANS: C Oxygen is well studied and its presence maximizes the effect of low-LET radiation.

14. If oxygen is present during high-LET radiation the effect of radiation is __________.

a. reduced b. minimal c. maximal d. the same

ANS: D Oxygen is well studied and its presence does not noticeably increase or decrease the effect of high-LET radiation.

15. The x-intercept of a low LET cell-survival curve is _______ than a similar high LET cell-survival curve. a. the same b. larger c. smaller d. None of the options

ANS: B Low LET cell-survival curves always have larger x-intercepts than high LET cell-survival curves.

TRUE/FALSE

1. DNA is the target molecule.

ANS: T DNA is the target molecule.

2. The lethal effects of radiation are determined by observing cell death.

ANS: F The lethal effects of radiation are determined by observing cell survival, not cell death.

3. A hit is an ionizing event that activates the target molecule.

ANS: F A hit is not simply an ionizing event but rather an ionization that inactivates the target molecule.

4. A large D0 indicates radioresistant cells.

ANS: T A large D0 indicates radioresistant cells.

5. G1 is the most time variable of cell phases.

ANS: T G1 is the most time variable of cell phases.

Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The minimum dose lethal to humans is _____ Gy to the whole body. a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4

ANS: C The minimum dose lethal to humans is 2 Gy to the whole body.

2. Some radiation victims of _______________ syndrome(s) may recover completely.

a. central nervous system b. gastrointestinal c. hematologic d. reproductive

ANS: C Some radiation victims of hematologic syndrome may recover completely.

3. The central nervous system syndrome occurs following a whole-body dose of _____ Gy or more. a. 50 b. 20 c. 10 d. 5

ANS: A The central nervous system syndrome occurs following a whole-body dose of 50 Gy or more.

4. Immediately following a whole-body dose of 10 Gy the victim would experience (a) ______________________. a. sudden death b. latent period c. prodromal symptoms d. hair loss

ANS: C Immediately following a whole-body dose of 10 Gy the victim would experience prodromal symptoms.

5. A dose of _____ Gy or more to a small area of the body can cause skin erythema.

a. 0.25 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 2

ANS: D A dose of 2 Gy or more to a small area of the body can cause skin erythema.

6. There is usually a _______________ before the symptoms of acute radiation syndromes appear. a. latent period b. recovery period c. prolonged illness d. loss of hair

ANS: A There is usually a latent period before the symptoms of acute radiation syndromes appear.

7. The destruction of ________ cells in the intestinal lining causes death from GI syndrome. a. muscle b. stem c. mature d. blood

ANS: B The destruction of stem cells in the intestinal lining causes death from GI syndrome.

8. A person subjected to 50 Gy to the whole body may survive for __________ before death occurs. a. 3 hours

b. 24 hours c. 3 days d. 2 weeks

ANS: C A person subjected to 50 Gy or more to the whole body may survive for 3 days before death occurs.

9. During the latent period, the radiation victim experiences _____________. a. hair loss b. nausea and vomiting c. skin erythema d. well-being

ANS: D During the latent period, the radiation victim experiences well-being.

10. A local dose of _____ mGyt or more can cause gonadal dysfunction. a. 10 b. 50 c. 100 d. 500

ANS: C A local dose of 10 rads or more can cause gonadal dysfunction.

11. What would be the most likely immediate response to a whole-body dose of 2 Gy? a. A sense of well-being b. Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting c. Convulsive seizures and edema

d. Increased strength

ANS: B The most likely immediate response to a whole-body dose of 2 Gy would be diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.

12. A subject would not experience ________________ following a dose high enough to cause CNS syndrome. a. hematologic syndrome b. gastrointestinal syndrome c. prodromal syndrome d. hematologic, gastrointestinal and prodromal

ANS: A A subject would not experience hematologic or gastrointestinal syndrome following a dose high enough to cause CNS syndrome.

13. The LD50/60 is the dose of radiation to the whole-body that will result in death within __________ to _____% of the irradiated population. a. 50 days; 60 b. 60 days; 50 c. 60 minutes; 50 d. 50 minutes; 60

ANS: B The LD50/60 is the dose of radiation to the whole-body that will result in death within 60 days to 50% of the irradiated population.

14. _____________ are among the most radioresistive species. a. Birds

b. Dogs c. Humans d. Cockroaches

ANS: D Cockroaches are among the most radioresistive species.

15. Death from acute radiation exposure follows a __________________ dose-response relationship. a. nonlinear, threshold b. linear, threshold c. linear, nonthreshold d. nonlinear, nonthreshold

ANS: A Death from acute radiation exposure follows a nonlinear, threshold dose-response relationship.

16. The LD50/60 for humans is approximately _____ Gy. a. 1 b. 2.5 c. 3.5 d. 10

ANS: C The LD50/60 for humans is approximately 3.5 rads.

17. High doses of radiation to a localized area can lead to ____________ of tissues and organs in that area. a. reduction in size

b. shrinkage c. total loss of function d. reduction in size, shrinkage, and total loss of function

ANS: D High doses of radiation to a localized area can lead to shrinkage, reduction in size, or total loss of function of tissues and organs in that area.

18. About half of the population will experience skin erythema following a localized dose of _____ Gy. a. 5 b. 3.5 c. 1 d. 0.5

ANS: A About half of the population will experience skin erythema following a localized dose of 5 Gy.

19. Skin effects from localized doses of radiation follow a _____________ dose-response relationship. a. linear, threshold b. nonlinear, nonthreshold c. nonlinear, threshold d. linear, nonthreshold

ANS: C Skin effects from localized doses of radiation follow a nonlinear, threshold dose-response relationship.

20. Localized doses of 7 Gy to the skin can cause _____________________. a. death b. permanent hair loss c. gastrointestinal syndrome d. All of the options

ANS: B Localized doses of 7 Gy to the skin can cause permanent hair loss.

Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Radiation protection guidelines are based on _______________________. a. stochastic effects of radiation b. deterministic effects of radiation c. lethal effects of radiation d. stochastic and deterministic effects of radiation

ANS: A Radiation protection guidelines are based on stochastic effects of radiation.

2. ____________ is a stochastic effect of radiation exposure. a. Erythema b. Epilation c. Cancer d. Nausea

ANS: C Cancer is a stochastic effect of radiation exposure.

3. An epidemiological study of the stochastic effects of very low doses of radiation requires a population of ____________ of people. a. millions b. thousands c. hundreds d. dozens

ANS: A An epidemiological study of the stochastic effects of very low doses of radiation requires a population of millions of people.

4. A __________ effect increases in incidence but not severity as the dose increases. a. nonstochastic b. stochastic c. deterministic d. localized

ANS: B A stochastic effect increases in incidence but not severity as the dose increases.

5. Low doses of radiation have been shown to cause ________________. a. chromosome damage b. loss of fertility c. cataracts d. radiodermatitis

ANS: A Low doses of radiation have been shown to cause chromosome damage.

6. Chronic low doses of radiation have ________ effect on fertility. a. no b. an increasing c. a strong d. a weak

ANS: A Chronic low doses of radiation have no effect on fertility.

7. Studies of A-bomb survivors indicate that leukemia has a ______________________ dose-response relationship to radiation. a. nonlinear, threshold b. linear, threshold c. linear, nonthreshold d. nonlinear, nonthreshold

ANS: C Studies of A-bomb survivors indicate that leukemia has a linear, nonthreshold dose-response relationship to radiation.

8. Radiation-induced leukemia has a latent period of _______ years. a. 1 to 2 b. 4 to 7 c. 5 to 10 d. 15 to 20

ANS: B Radiation-induced leukemia has a latent period of 4 to 7 years.

9. Ankylosing spondylitis patients treated with radiation showed an increased incidence of _____________. a. leukemia b. cancer c. early death d. infertility

ANS: A Ankylosing spondylitis patients treated with radiation showed an increased incidence of leukemia.

10. It is difficult to link cancer to radiation exposure because it occurs ___________ in the population. a. with severity b. very rarely c. in high proportion d. only in the elderly

ANS: C It is not possible to link cancer to radiation exposure because it occurs in high proportion in the population.

11. People who had radiation treatments to their thymus gland as children later showed excess risk for ____________. a. bone cancers b. skin cancers c. leukemia d. thyroid cancers

ANS: D

People who had radiation treatments to their thymus gland as children later developed thyroid cancers.

12. People who were employed painting radium watch dials later showed excess risk for ______________ cancer. a. bone b. stomach c. thyroid d. mouth

ANS: A People who were employed painting radium watch dials later showed excess risk for bone cancer.

13. Relative risk is _________________. a. expected cases/observed cases b. observed cases/expected cases c. observed cases—expected cases d. expected cases—observed cases

ANS: B Relative risk is observed cases/expected cases.

14. Radiation induced skin cancer in radiotherapy patients has occurred with _____________________. a. a threshold dose-response b. a nonthreshold dose-response c. 100% of the patients treated d. 50% of the patients treated

ANS: A Radiation induced skin cancer in radiotherapy patients has occurred with a threshold dose-response.

15. The theory of radiation hormesis suggests that radiation doses below 100 mGyt, are _____________. a. carcinogenic b. beneficial c. lethal d. harmful

ANS: B The theory of radiation hormesis suggests that radiation doses below 100 mGyt are beneficial.

16. A study of an irradiated population which showed a relative risk factor below 1.0 would indicate that the population had a ___________ risk. a. slight b. no c. reduced d. very high

ANS: C A study of an irradiated population which showed a relative risk factor below 1.0 would indicate that the population had a reduced risk.

17. The most radiosensitive period during pregnancy for radiation induced congenital abnormalities is during the _____________________. a. first 2 weeks b. first trimester c. second trimester d. third trimester

ANS: B The most radiosensitive period during pregnancy for radiation induced congenital abnormalities is during the first trimester.

18. Data showing radiation-induced human genetic abnormalities __________________. a. does not exist b. indicates responses to low doses c. indicates responses to high doses d. is being studied by the BEIR

ANS: A Data showing radiation-induced genetic abnormalities in humans does not exist.

19. Our information on the genetic effects of radiation has come from studies of ___________. a. mice b. fruit flies c. humans d. mice and fruit flies

ANS: D Our information on the genetic effects of radiation has come from studies of mice and fruit flies.

20. The threshold dose for cataract formation is known to be _____ mSv of acute exposure to the eyes. a. 2 b. 4 c. 10 d. 20

ANS: A The threshold dose for cataract formation is known to be 2 mSv of acute exposure to the eyes.

Chapter 35: Health Physics Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Health physics is concerned with minimizing radiation dose to ________________. a. radiation physicists b. radiation workers c. the public d. All of the options

ANS: D Health physics is concerned with providing occupational radiation protection and minimizing radiation dose to the public.

2. The first radiation health physicists worked with ___________________. a. the atom bomb b. x-ray tubes c. CT scanners d. nuclear medicine

ANS: A The first radiation health physicists worked with the atom bomb.

3. The three cardinal principals of radiation protection involve ____________________. a. dose, shielding, and exposure

b. exposure, shielding, and ALARA c. time, distance, and shielding d. ALARA, time, and distance

ANS: C The three cardinal principals of radiation protection involve time, distance, and shielding.

4. Exposure is measured by multiplying _________________ by ___________________. a. shielding thickness; exposure time b. exposure rate; exposure time c. exposure rate; shielding thickness d. exposure time; distance

ANS: B Exposure is measured by multiplying exposure rate by exposure time.

5. If a technologist is exposed to 4 mGyt/hr for 45 minutes during a fluoroscopy exam, what will be her total exposure? a. 1 mGyt b. 2 mGyt c. 3 mGyt d. 4 mGyt

ANS: C Exposure = exposure rate  exposure time; therefore, her total exposure is 4 mGyt/hr  3/4 hr, which equals 3 mGyt. 6. When using the inverse square law during fluoroscopy, the patient should be considered a(n) ____________ source of radiation.

a. area b. linear c. round d. point

ANS: D When using the inverse square law during fluoroscopy, the patient should be considered a point source of radiation.

7. If a technologist is receiving 2 mGyt/hr standing 1 foot from the patient during fluoroscopy, what is his rate of exposure when he steps back to a distance of 2 feet from the patient? a. 0.50 mGyt/hr b. 0.74 mGyt/hr c. 1 mGyt/hr d. 1.75 mGyt/hr

ANS: A Using the inverse square law, doubling the distance will reduce the dose rate to one fourth of what it was. His exposure rate at a distance of 2 feet will be 50 mR/hr.

8. A tenth-value layer is equal to ________ half-value layers. a. 1.2 b. 3.3 c. 5.5 d. 10.0

ANS: B A tenth-value layer is equal to 3.3 half-value layers.

9. If the HVL in a radiology department is 0.25 mm Pb, then how thick should a shield be to reduce the technologists’ exposure to one fourth the incident scatter? a. 0.125 mm Pb b. 0.25 mm Pb c. 0.5 mm Pb d. 1.0 mm Pb

ANS: C The shield should be 2 HVLs, or 0.5 mm Pb.

10. What is the NCRP? a. National Council of Radiation Protection b. National Council of Radiology Personnel c. National Committee on Radiation Prevention d. National Committee on Random Particles

ANS: A The NCRP is the National Council of Radiation Protection.

11. The NCRP makes _________________ regarding dose limits. a. laws b. recommendations c. requirements d. measurements

ANS: B The NCRP makes recommendations regarding dose limits.

12. The dose limits established by the NCRP are derived from _________________. a. government laws

b. newspaper articles c. NCRP research d. BEIR and NSC reports

ANS: D The dose limits established by the NCRP are derived from BEIR reports.

13. The NCRP publishes annual dose limits for _____________ exposure. a. public b. occupational c. prenatal d. Public, occupational and prenatal

ANS: D The NCRP publishes annual dose limits for public, occupational, and prenatal exposure.

14. Dose limits are based on a ________________ dose-response relationship to radiation. a. nonlinear, nonthreshold b. linear, nonthreshold c. linear, threshold d. nonlinear, threshold

ANS: B Dose limits are based on a linear, nonthreshold dose-response relationship to radiation.

15. The dose limit for the general public is _______ the dose limit for occupational exposure. a. 1/10 b. 1/5 c. 1/2 d. 3/4

ANS: A The dose limit for the general public is 1/10 the dose limit for occupational exposure.

16. The concept of effective dose accounts for the __________________. a. different types of radiation and RBE b. relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs c. the person’s distance from the source d. different types of radiation and RBE and relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs

ANS: D Effective dose accounts for the different types of radiation and relative radiosensitivity of tissues and organs.

17. What is the best approach to occupational radiation exposure? a. Maintain the annual dose limits. b. Follow the concept of ALARA. c. Reduce your exposure to half the NCRP dose limits. d. Wear protective apparel at all times.

ANS: B The best approach to occupational radiation exposure is to follow the concept of ALARA.

TRUE/FALSE 1. Exposure = Exposure rate  Exposure time

ANS: T Exposure = Exposure rate  Exposure time

2. One TVL is the thickness of absorber that reduces the radiation intensity to one-half its original value.

ANS: F One TVL is the thickness of absorber that reduces the radiation intensity to one-tenth its original value. HVL is one-half.

3. Effective dose is the equivalent whole-body dose following partial- body radiation exposure.

ANS: T Effective dose is the equivalent whole-body dose following partial- body radiation exposure.

Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The leakage radiation limit for x-ray tubes is less than _____ mGy/hr at 1 meter from the tube housing. a. 0.50 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

ANS: B The leakage radiation limit for x-ray tubes is less than 1 mGy/hr at 1 meter from the tube housing.

2. The x-ray control panel must show ____________. a. beam on time b. mAs used

c. positive beam limitation d. automatic exposure controls

ANS: A The x-ray console must show beam on time.

3. The collimator light must be accurate to within _____% of the SID. a. 10 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1

ANS: C The collimator light must be accurate to within 2% of the SID.

4. Positive beam limitation must be accurate to within _____% of the SID. a. 10 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1

ANS: C Positive beam limitation must be accurate to within 2% of the SID.

5. What is the minimum requirement for filtration on x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp? a. 1.5 mm Al equivalent b. 2.0 mm Al equivalent c. 2.5 mm Al equivalent d. 3.5 mm Al equivalent

ANS: C The minimum requirement for filtration on x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp is 2.5 mm Al equivalent.

6. The output intensities of reproduced exposures should not vary more than _____% from each other. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

ANS: A The output intensities of reproduced exposures should not vary more than 5% from each other.

7. Measuring the relationship between the output intensities of adjacent mA stations is a test of _________________. a. HVL b. beam limitation c. reproducibility d. linearity

ANS: D Measuring the relationship between the output intensities of adjacent mA stations is a test of linearity.

8. The source-to-skin distance must be no less than _____ cm on stationary fluoroscopes. a. 30 b. 38 c. 42

d. 48

ANS: B The source-to-skin distance must be no less than 38 cm on stationary fluoroscopes.

9. The ______________ is the primary protective barrier for the fluoroscopic x-ray tube. a. ceiling b. floor c. image receptor d. top

ANS: C The image receptor is the primary protective barrier for the fluoroscopic x-ray tube.

10. A fluoroscopy system with automatic collimation must provide an unexposed border around the image at ____________ above the tabletop. a. all heights b. 35 cm c. 25 cm d. 18 cm

ANS: A A fluoroscopy system with automatic collimation must provide an unexposed border around the image at all heights.

11. The fluoroscopic exposure control switch is always a(n) ___________ type. a. rheostat b. automatic c. deadman d. on-off

ANS: C The fluoroscopic exposure control switch is always a deadman type.

12. The Bucky slot opening in the side of the table must be automatically covered with _____ mm Pb during fluoroscopy. a. 1.25 b. 1.0 c. 0.5 d. 0.25

ANS: D The Bucky slot opening in the side of the table must be automatically covered with 0.25 mm Pb during fluoroscopy.

13. A cumulative timer is designed to _________________ of fluoroscopy beam-on time. a. make the radiologist aware b. turn off the radiation every 5 minutes c. prevent more than 10 minutes d. shut down the system after 15 minutes

ANS: A A cumulative timer is designed to make the radiologist aware of fluoroscopy beam-on time.

14. Primary radiation is ______________________. a. leakage radiation b. the scattered beam c. the useful beam d. All of the options

ANS: C Primary radiation is the useful beam.

15. The intensity of scatter radiation 1 m from the patient is approximately _____ of the intensity of the incident beam at the patient. a. 0.01% b. 0.1% c. 10% d. 50%

ANS: B The intensity of scatter radiation 1 m from the patient is approximately 0.1% of the intensity of the incident beam at the patient.

16. At the level of the tabletop, the intensity of the fluoroscopic beam should not exceed _______________ for each mA of operation at 80 kVp. a. 2 mGy/hr b. 0.2 mGy/hr c. 21 mGy/min d. 0.21 mGy/min

ANS: C At the level of the tabletop, the intensity of the fluoroscopic beam should not exceed 21 mGy/min for each mA of operation at 80 kVp.

17. A controlled area is one occupied primarily by ____________________. a. radiology personnel b. environmental services personnel c. the general public d. patient’s family members

ANS: A A controlled area is one occupied primarily by radiology personnel and patients.

18. A secondary barrier is designed to absorb ______________ radiation. a. leakage and scattered b. only scattered c. only leakage d. primary

ANS: A A secondary barrier is designed to absorb both leakage and scattered radiation.

19. A quantity that reflects both dose and volume of tissue irradiated is the ___________. a. estimated skin exposure b. dose area product c. proportional region d. rem

ANS: B A quantity that reflects both dose and volume of tissue irradiated is the dose area product.

20. The design of an uncontrolled area in radiology is based on the NCRP recommended limit of _____ mGy/yr for the public. a. 50 b. 10 c. 1 d. 0.5

ANS: C The design of an uncontrolled area in radiology is based on the NCRP recommended limit of 1 mGy/yr for the public.

Chapter 37: Radiography/Fluoroscopy Patient Radiation Dose Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Patient dose from diagnostic x-rays is most often reported in ____________________. a. bone marrow dose b. gonadal dose c. entrance skin dose d. reproductive organ dose

ANS: C Patient dose from diagnostic x-rays is most often reported in entrance skin dose.

2. Patient skin exposure can be measured indirectly by using a ________________. a. thermoluminescent dosimeter b. nomogram c. G-M counter d. stop watch

ANS: B Exposure can be measured indirectly by using a nomogram.

3. If the radiographic technique for a KUB calls for 40 mAs, what is the ESD when the output intensity is 0.075 mGy/mAs? a. 0.40 mGy b. 0.475 mGy

c. 3 mGy d. 30 mGy

ANS: C Entrance skin dose = output intensity  mAs; therefore, the ESE is 0.075 mGy/mAs  40 mAs, which equals 3 mGy.

4. Acute skin effects from radiation exposure have been reported following _____ exams. a. lumbar spine b. GI fluoro c. mammography d. angio/interventional

ANS: D Acute skin effects from radiation exposure have been reported following angio/interventional exams.

5. For the average fluoroscopy exam the ESE is a. 40 mGy/min. b. 80 mGy/min. c. 400 mGy/hr. d. 250 mGy/hr.

ANS: A The average ESE during fluoroscopy is 40 mGy/min.

6. An estimation of patient dose is reported as _______________. a. entrance skin exposure b. bone marrow dose

c. gonadal dose d. ESE, bone marrow dose and gonadal dose

ANS: D An estimation of patient dose is reported as entrance skin exposure, bone marrow dose, or gonadal dose.

7. Bone marrow dose is measured ______________________. a. directly from bone marrow b. as an estimate from ESE c. as an estimate from gonadal dose d. directly from the beam

ANS: B Bone marrow dose is measured as an estimate from ESE.

8. The most important variable in determining x-ray dose are the ______. a. receptor speed b. patient thickness c. technique used d. the technologist performing the exam

ANS: A The most important variables in determining x-ray dose are the receptor speed and the x-ray production efficiency.

9. The simplest way to measure patient dose is to measure the __________________. a. bone marrow dose b. gonadal dose c. entrance skin dose

d. genetically significant dose

ANS: C The simplest way to measure patient dose is to measure the entrance skin dose.

10. The radiation dose monitor most frequently used to measure patient exposure is the __________________________. a. film badge b. G-M meter c. nomogram d. thermoluminescent dosimeter

ANS: D The radiation dose monitor most frequently used to measure patient exposure is the thermoluminescent dosimeter.

11. If the output intensity of an x-ray machine is 0.064 mGy/mAs at 80 kVp, what is the patient’s ESE for an exam done at 20 mAs at 80 kVp? a. 1.6 mGy b. 1.28 mGy c. 0.64 mGy d. 0.064 mGy

ANS: B The ESE is the output intensity times the mAs.

12. The approximate average bone marrow dose to the population of the United States is _____ mGy/yr. a. 0.01 b. 0.1

c. 1 d. 10

ANS: C The approximate average bone marrow dose to the population of the United States is 1 mGy/yr.

13. The genetically significant dose for the general public is important because of the risk of _________________________. a. increasing skin cancer b. effects on the gene pool c. damage to the fetus d. reproductive dose

ANS: B The genetically significant dose for the general public is important because of the risk of effects on the gene pool.

14. The genetically significant dose (GSD) for the population of the United States is about a. 1.00 mSv. b. 0.80 mSv. c. 0.40 mSv. d. 0.20 mSv.

ANS: D The genetically significant dose (GSD) for the population of the United States is about 0.20 mSv.

15. The mean marrow dose from diagnostic x-ray examinations averaged over the entire population of the United States is about

a. 700 mrad/yr. b. 500 mrad/yr. c. 300 mrad/yr. d. 100 mrad/yr.

ANS: D The mean marrow dose from diagnostic x-ray examinations averaged over the entire population of the United States is about 100 mrad/yr.

16. The radiation dose absorbed by an organ such as bone marrow a. can be accurately measured by a direct method. b. cannot be measured by a direct method; it can only be estimated. c. is negligible for all diagnostic radiography examinations. d. can only be measured to a small degree by a direct method.

ANS: B The radiation dose absorbed by an organ such as bone marrow cannot be measured by a direct method; it can only be estimated.

17. Dose area product is expressed in which units? a. mGya/min b. mGya-cm2 c. mGyt-cm2 d. mSv/min2

ANS: B Dose area product is expressed in mGya-cm2.

18. Which of the following procedures has caused the most sentinel events? a. Fluoroscopy

b. Cardiac catheterization c. Surgery d. Spine imaging

ANS: B Cardiac catheterization has caused the most sentinel events.

19. The half-value layer (HVL) of projection x-rays in soft tissue is approximately how many centimeters? a. 2 cm b. 4 cm c. 6 cm d. 8 cm

ANS: B The half-value layer (HVL) of projection x-rays in soft tissue is approximately 4 cm.

20. Mean marrow dose (MMD) is defined as a. the average radiation dose to the entire active bone marrow. b. the average radiation dose to the entire body. c. the average radiation dose to the extremities. d. the average radiation dose to the trunk.

ANS: A Mean marrow dose (MMD) is defined as the average radiation dose to the entire active bone marrow.

Chapter 38: Computed Tomography Patient Radiation Dose Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. U.S. Public Health Service data suggests that CT examinations currently account for

approximately ________ of total patient effective dose. a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 70% ANS: D

U.S. Public Health Service data suggests that CT examinations currently account for approximately 70% of total patient effective dose.

2. CT tissue dose is approximately ____________ the average fluoroscopic dose. a. less than b. equal to c. greater than d. incomparable ANS: B

CT tissue dose is approximately equal to the average fluoroscopic dose.

3. Because CT uses a cone-shaped x-ray beam, scatter radiation is ______________, and

contrast resolution is ____________. a. reduced significantly; improved b. reduced significantly; decreased c. increased significantly; improved d. increased significantly; decreased ANS: A

Because CT uses a cone-shaped x-ray beam, scatter radiation is reduced significantly, and contrast resolution is improved.

4. In multislice helical CT, the dose profile tail is called ____________. a. umbra b. penumbra c. vignetting d. pin-cushion appearance ANS: B

In multislice helical CT, the dose profile tail is called penumbra.

5. During helical CT, at a pitch of 1.0, the patient radiation dose is approximately ____________

that of conventional CT. a. less than b. equal to c. greater than d. incomparable ANS: B

At a pitch of 1.0 the patient radiation dose is approximately the same.

6. In CT imaging, as with radiography, patient dose is ________________ to x-ray beam

intensity and ___________________ to the average beam energy.

a. b. c. d.

proportional; directly proportional not proportional; directly proportional proportional; indirectly proportional not proportional; indirectly proportional

ANS: A

In CT imaging, as with radiography, patient dose is proportional to x-ray beam intensity, and it is also directly proportional to the average beam energy.

7. Most modern CT scanners are _______________________ technology. a. first-generation b. second-generation c. third-generation d. fourth-generation ANS: C

Essentially all CT imaging systems today are third-generation technology.

8. The __________ collimators define the cone beam and the ________ collimators further

reject scatter radiation. a. prepatient; predetector b. predetector; prepatient c. prepatient; postpatient d. postpatient; predetector ANS: A

The prepatient collimators define the cone beam and the predetector collimators further reject scatter radiation, thereby improving image contrast.

9. The collimator that improves image contrast by limiting the amount of scatter radiation that

reaches the detector is the ____________________. a. prepatient collimator b. postpatient collimator c. prepatient and postpatient collimator d. the collimator does not serve a purpose in CT ANS: B

The collimator that improves image contrast by limiting the amount of scatter radiation that reaches the detector is the postpatient collimator.

10. Which of the following data needs to be known to determine effective dose in CT? a. Gender of the patient b. Original x-ray beam intensity c. The tissues irradiated d. Contrast media used ANS: C

Effective dose in CT depends on the various tissues irradiated.

11. Which two dimensions are measured to engage the Size-Specific Dose Estimate (SSDE)? a. Transverse and lateral b. Lateral and AP

c. AP and transverse d. AP and sagittal ANS: B

Lateral and AP dimensions from a representative transverse image are measured to engage the Size-Specific Dose Estimate (SSDE).

12. The combination of output radiation intensity and volume of tissue imaged is called

________________________. a. computed tomography dose index b. dose modulation c. dose length product d. effective diameter ANS: C

The combination of output radiation intensity and volume of tissue imaged is called dose length product.

13. A pitch of 1 indicates that with each rotation of the tube, the patient will move _________. a. 8 cm b. 16 cm c. 24 cm d. 32 cm ANS: B

A pitch of 1 indicates that with each rotation of the tube, the patient will move 16 cm.

14. Overranging occurs because of all of the following, except a. irradiated tissue overlapping b. the pitch is one c. the x-ray beam dose tail d. patient position ANS: D

Overranging occurs because of irradiated tissue overlapping, the pitch is one, and the x-ray beam dose tail.

15. Typical CT doses range from ___________________ during head imaging and from

__________ during body imaging. a. 20 to 40 mGyt (2000 to 4000 mrad); 20 to 40 mGyt (2000 to 4000 mrad) b. 20 to 40 mGyt (2000 to 4000 mrad); 30 to 50 mGyt (3000 to 5000 mrad) c. 30 to 50 mGyt (3000 to 5000 mrad); 20 to 40 mGyt (2000 to 4000 mrad) d. 30 to 50 mGyt (3000 to 5000 mrad), 30 to 50 mGyt (3000 to 5000 mrad) ANS: C

Typical CT doses range from 30 to 50 mGyt (3000 to 5000 mrad) during head imaging and from 20 to 40 mGyt (2000 to 4000 mrad) during body imaging.

TRUE/FALSE 1. The CT tissue dose is approximately equal to the average fluoroscopic dose.

ANS: T

The CT tissue dose is approximately equal to the average fluoroscopic dose.

2. It is not essential that CT collimators be monitored for proper adjustment.

ANS: F

It is essential that CT collimators be monitored periodically for proper adjustment.

3. The dose profile tail is called umbra.

ANS: F

The dose profile tail is called penumbra.

4. The higher the multislice value, the lower the patient radiation dose will be.

ANS: F

The higher the multislice value, the higher the patient radiation dose will be.

5. The penumbra beyond the nominal beam width contributes to patient radiation dose during

multislice helical CT. ANS: T

The penumbra beyond the nominal beam width contributes to patient radiation dose during multislice helical CT.

Chapter 39: Patient Radiation Dose Management Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Patient dose is usually estimated by conducting simulated x-ray examinations with

__________________________. a. human subjects b. laboratory animals c. human phantoms and test objects d. prisoners ANS: C

Patient dose is usually estimated by conducting simulated x-ray examinations with human phantoms and test objects.

2. What is the typical entrance skin exposure (ESE) for mammography? a. 2 mGya/view b. 4 mGya/view c. 6 mGya/view d. 8 mGya/view ANS: D

The typical entrance skin exposure (ESE) for mammography is 8 mGya/view.

3. Glandular dose from mammography is approximately _____ of the ESD. a. 5% b. 15% c. 100% d. 200% ANS: B

Glandular dose from mammography is approximately 15% of the ESD. 4. The period of major organogenesis is during the ________________ of pregnancy. a. first 2 weeks b. 2nd to 10th week c. 2nd trimester d. 3rd trimester ANS: B

The period of major organogenesis is during the 2nd to 10th week of pregnancy.

5. Performing routine x-ray exams without indication is acceptable for ______________. a. preemployment physicals b. all hospital admissions c. annual routine physicals d. not acceptable ANS: D

Performing routine x-ray exams without indication causes unnecessary radiation exposure.

6. Which exam does not have one of the highest repeat rates? a. Lumbar spine b. KUB c. Chest x-ray d. Thoracic spine ANS: C

The exams with the highest repeat rates are lumbar spine, thoracic spine, and KUB. 7. Patient dose can be reduced by using _____________________. a. increased distance b. decreased distance c. higher kVp d. repeating exposures ANS: C

Patient dose can be reduced by using higher kVp. 8. Breast dose from a scoliosis exam can be reduced by using the __________________. a. increased mAs b. multiple exposures for each view c. AP projection d. PA projection ANS: D

Patient dose to the breasts during a scoliosis exam can be reduced by using a PA projection.

9. During an imaging examination, which of the following combinations of technical exposure

factors and filtration reduce patient radiation dose? a. Lower kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration b. Higher kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration c. Higher kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration d. Lower kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration ANS: B

Increasing the kVp is always associated with a reduction in mAs to obtain an acceptable radiation exposure of the image receptor; this, in turn, results in reduced patient radiation dose. This dose reduction occurs because the patient radiation dose is linearly related to the mAs but is related to approximately the square of the kVp. 10. When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which of the following

practices will minimize radiation exposure? a. Selecting increased technical exposure factors that are appropriate for the part of the body to be radiographed b. Opening the x-ray beam collimator shutters as wide as possible to ensure complete coverage of the image receptor c. Precisely collimating the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest and shielding the lower abdomen and pelvis when this area does not need to be included in the area to be irradiated d. Image only the fetus ANS: C

Precisely collimating the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest and shielding the lower abdomen and pelvis when this area does not need to be included in the area to be irradiated will minimize radiation exposure.

11. During mammography, axillary projections should be done only on request of the a. ordering physician. b. patient. c. radiologist. d. technologist performing the examination.

ANS: C

The axillary view should not be done routinely and only when requested by the radiologist.

12. An entrance skin exposure (ESE) of approximately ________ is normal in mammography. a. 1 mGya/view b. 2 mGya/view c. 4 mGya/view d. 8 mGya/view ANS: D

An entrance skin exposure (ESE) of approximately 8 mGya/view is normal in mammography.

13. All of the following examinations are considered unnecessary examinations, except

________.

a. b. c. d.

general screening by chest x-ray for tuberculosis chest x-ray on hospital admission chest x-ray for possible pneumonia chest x-ray as part of a preemployment physical examination

ANS: C

A chest x-ray for possible pneumonia is a necessary examination.

14. Which technical factors can be utilized to reduce patient radiation dose? a. High kVp, high mAs b. High kVp, low mAs c. Low kVp, low mAs d. Low kVp, high mAs ANS: B

In general, the use of high-kVp technique results in reduced patient dose. Increasing the kVp is always associated with a reduction in mAs to obtain an acceptable radiation exposure of the image receptor; this, in turn, results in reduced patient radiation dose.

15. Specific area shielding devices are usually a formed ________contact shield. a. 1.0 mmAl b. 0.5 mmAl c. 1.0 mmPb d. 0.5 mmPb ANS: D

Specific area shielding devices are usually a formed 0.5 mmPb contact shield.

TRUE/FALSE 1. The frequency of x-ray examinations being performed is increasing in all age groups.

ANS: T

The frequency of x-ray examinations being performed is increasing in all age groups.

2. Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography.

ANS: T

Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography.

3. CT is considered a low-dose procedure.

ANS: F

CT is considered a high-dose procedure.

4. The dose in CT is lower if the multi-slice number is higher.

ANS: T

The dose in CT is lower if the multi-slice number is higher.

5. In mammography, Glandular dose is approximately 5% of the entrance skin exposure (ESE).

ANS: F

In mammography, Glandular dose is approximately 55% of the entrance skin exposure (ESE).

Chapter 40: Occupational Radiation Dose Management Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. For diagnostic x-ray personnel, the highest occupational exposure occurs during

___________________ exams. a. fluoroscopy b. mobile radiography c. spinal d. dental ANS: D

For diagnostic x-ray personnel, the highest occupational exposure occurs during fluoroscopy and mobile radiography.

2. Personnel working in interventional radiography should be provided with

______________________. a. collar monitoring only b. waist monitoring under the apron c. extremity monitoring d. gonadal monitoring ANS: C

Personnel working in interventional radiography should be provided with extremity monitoring.

3. The lens of the eye should never receive more than ____________ per year. a. 10 mSv (1 rem) b. 150 mSv (15 rem) c. 50 mSv (5 rem) d. 500 mSv (50 rem) ANS: B

The lens of the eye should never receive more than 150 mSv (15 rem) per year.

4. Dose limits are described as _______________________. a. exposure dose b. threshold dose c. effective dose d. dose equivalent ANS: C

Dose limits are described as effective dose.

5. Occupational dose is described as _________________. a. exposure dose b. threshold dose

c. effective dose d. dose equivalent ANS: D

Occupational dose is described as dose equivalent.

6. The tissue weighting factor has a higher value for tissues with more ______________. a. density b. thickness c. radiosensitivity d. radioresistance ANS: C

The tissue weighting factor has a higher value for tissues with more radiosensitivity.

7. For nursing personnel present during mobile x-ray imaging, a personnel monitoring device is

required _________________. a. at all times b. not at all c. during exposures d. only for C-arms ANS: B

For nursing personnel present during mobile x-ray imaging a personnel monitoring device is not required at all.

8. The dose limit to the extremities is ______________________. a. 5000 mSv/yr (500 rem/yr) b. 500 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr) c. 50 mSv/yr (5 rem/yr) d. 5 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr) ANS: B

The dose limit to the extremities is 500 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr).

9. The lowest occupational exposure of diagnostic x-ray personnel occurs during

_______________. a. surgery b. mammography c. fluoroscopy d. interventional ANS: B

The lowest occupational exposure of diagnostic x-ray personnel occurs during mammography.

10. The dose limit to the general public is _________________. a. 1 mSv/yr (100 mrem/yr) b. 10 mSv/yr (1000 mrem/yr) c. 100 mSv/yr (10 rem/yr) d. 1 Sv/yr (100 rem/yr) ANS: A

The dose limit to the general public is 1 mSv/yr (100 mrem/yr).

11. The best way for technologists to reduce occupational exposure is to follow the principles of

_________________________. a. ALARA b. Square law c. 30% rule d. Rotational scheduling ANS: A

The best way for technologists to reduce occupational exposure is to follow the principles of ALARA. 12. Occupational radiation monitoring is required if the individual may get _____ of the

recommended dose limit. a. 100% b. 50% c. 25% d. 10% ANS: D

Occupational radiation monitoring is required if the individual may get 10% of the recommended dose limit.

13. Optically stimulated luminescent (OSL) monitors are superior to the thermoluminescent

dosimeters in that they are ____________________. a. lighter weight b. less sensitive to moisture c. more sensitive to low exposure d. lighter weight and less sensitive to moisture ANS: C

Optically stimulated luminescent (OSL) monitors are superior to the thermoluminescent dosimeters in that they are more sensitive to low exposure.

14. During fluoroscopy the exposure to the collar is _____ times greater than exposure to the

trunk of the body under a protective apron. a. 50 b. 20 c. 10 d. 2 ANS: B

Exposure to the collar is 20 times greater than exposure to the trunk of the body under a protective apron.

15. The preferred way to hold patients who are unable to support themselves is to use a

_____________________. a. restraining device b. family member c. nurse

d. technologist ANS: A

The best way to hold patients who are unable to support themselves is to use a restraining device.

16. The dose limit for a technologist during pregnancy is __________________. a. 0.05 mSv/mo (5 mrem/mo) b. 0.5 mSv/mo (50 mrem/mo) c. 5 mSv/mo (500 mrem/mo) d. 50 mSv/mo (5000 mrem/mo) ANS: B

The dose limit for a technologist during pregnancy is 0.5 mSv/mo (50 mrem/mo).

17. Every radiology department should provide a radiation safety program that includes

___________________. a. CPR policy b. Code Red policy c. counseling during pregnancy d. Vacation policy ANS: C

Every radiology department should provide a radiation safety program that includes counseling during pregnancy.

TRUE/FALSE 1. Technologists working fluoroscopy should use the radiologist as shielding whenever possible

in addition to the apron and curtain.

ANS: T

Technologists working fluoroscopy should use the radiologist as shielding whenever possible in addition to the apron and curtain.

2. A protective apron with a thickness of 0.25 mm lead equivalent is the minimum required.

ANS: T

A protective apron with a thickness of 0.25 mm lead equivalent is the minimum required.

3. There are no circumstances under which a technologist should be given an involuntary leave

of absence due to pregnancy.

ANS: T

There are no circumstances under which a technologist should be given an involuntary leave of absence due to pregnancy.