Chapter 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Emotional health can best be described as being able to A) think clearly, without emotional influence. B) maintain satisfying interpersonal relationships. C) feel and express emotions appropriately. D) adapt to various social situations.
1)
2) Manuela joined a group exercise class. Her instructor, who was formerly inactive and overweight, participates with the class and also shares personal fitness strategies. In class, Manuela tries to emulate her instructor's moves, and she has also become more physically active as part of her daily routine. Which technique is Manuela using to reach her goal of becoming more fit? A) modeling B) shaping C) reinforcement D) visualization
2)
3) Young adults (ages 15-24) are most likely to die from A) accidents. B) homicide. C) cancer.
3) D) heart disease.
4) Life expectancy in the early 1900s was largely determined by a person's A) susceptibility to infectious disease. B) occupation and location. C) family history. D) hygiene habits.
4)
5) The ever-changing process of achieving individual potential in the physical, social, emotional, intellectual, spiritual, and environmental dimensions is the definition of A) fitness. B) health. C) recovery. D) satisfaction.
5)
6) The model of health that is concerned with curing disease affecting a particular tissue or organ is the A) surgical model. B) holistic model. C) public health model. D) medical model.
6)
7) The contemporary definition of wellness is A) the absence of ongoing symptoms or chronic disease. B) the achievement of the highest level of health possible in each of several dimensions. C) the ability to move about freely without pain. D) living longer than one's parents.
7)
8) Because it increases one's susceptibility to negative health outcomes, alcohol abuse is an example of which type of behavior? A) influential B) risk C) predetermined D) reinforcing
8)
9) Missy is motivated to lose weight. She has begun taking a 30-minute walk every morning, has worked with a nutrition counselor to design a new diet, and on Monday will begin following new eating plan. According to the transtheoretical model of behavior change, Missy is in a stage of A) maintenance. B) contemplation. C) precontemplation. D) action.
9)
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10) Gavin downloads a new workout song every time he completes his week's exercise goal. This action is an example of A) an intrinsic reward. B) countering. C) shaping. D) positive reinforcement.
10)
11) Differences in cancer mortality among specific populations are an example of A) health disparities. B) risk behaviors. C) biological determinants. D) medical malpractice.
11)
12) Brenda is going on a ski trip over spring break and has 12 weeks to get in shape. She purchased an elliptical trainer and started working out on it for 10 minutes each day. Each week, she will increase her workout by 10 minutes until she can exercise for one hour. If she finds that is too rigorous, she will only add 5 minutes to her workout each week. Which of the following behavior-change techniques is Brenda using to get in shape for her trip? A) modeling B) shaping C) self-talk D) visualization
12)
13) Observing a friend's successful attempt to quit smoking and trying some of the same tactics to quit yourself is an example of A) modeling. B) envy. C) conforming. D) shaping.
13)
14) Jason is frustrated because he has three projects due at the same time next week and he doesn't believe it's possible to get all three finished. His solution is to forget about the projects and meet up with friends for a night out. Jason has A) self-confidence. B) an internal locus of control. C) an external locus of control. D) self-efficacy.
14)
15) Katherine is an energetic, confident student who is not afraid to stand up in front of the class and read her essay aloud. She trusts that even if others don't agree with her point of view, they will still value her as a person and a friend. These traits best demonstrate Katherine's positive A) social health. B) physical health. C) emotional health. D) intellectual health.
15)
16) All of the following are basic mindfulness skills EXCEPT A) cultivating compassion for a friend with financial problems. B) tuning out a noisy student in the library. C) acknowledging your disappointment at a poor grade. D) acknowledging that you are not perfect.
16)
17) Which of the following contributed to increased life expectancy in the early twentieth century? A) vaccinations and antibiotics B) advances in genetic testing C) more doctors in metropolitan areas D) advances in heart and brain surgery
17)
18) According to the transtheoretical model, a person in the precontemplation stage A) is aware of the problem and is already taking action to implement change. B) is aware of the problem and is making preparations for change. C) has no current intention to change or believes there is no need to change. D) is aware of the problem but is greatly afraid of change.
18)
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19) An adolescent smoker might think lung cancer happens only to old people. This is an example of which factor of the health belief model? A) perceived susceptibility B) perceived barriers C) perceived benefits D) perceived seriousness
19)
20) Which of the following statements about mindfulness is true? A) Research linking mindfulness to improved health is inconclusive. B) The practice of mindfulness emerged in the United States in the 1970s. C) Mindfulness is a religious practice in which the individual contemplates the divine. D) An essential component of mindfulness is awareness of oneself and one's environment.
20)
21) Having unprotected sex is considered a A) risk behavior. C) medical treatment.
21) B) health promotion. D) health disparities.
22) Which type of costs are related to higher insurance premiums and increased disability payments due to obesity-related health conditions? A) Medicaid costs B) indirect medical costs C) Medicare costs D) direct medical costs
22)
23) Once you have identified a target behavior that needs to change, your next step is to A) see a counselor to help you work out a plan. B) consider the possible negative outcomes before proceeding. C) learn more about the behavior, its effects, and possible obstacles. D) commit to changing all negative behaviors at the same time.
23)
24) An appraisal of the relationship between an object, action, or idea and some attribute related to it is a(n) A) analysis. B) belief. C) motivation. D) attitude.
24)
25) Which of the following were cited by college students in a national survey as major impediments to performing well academically? A) substance abuse B) repeated strep infections C) stress, anxiety, and sleep difficulties D) carrying a too-heavy course load
25)
26) Judy is confident in her ability to meet her weight-loss goal. When she notices herself overeating, she makes a plan and takes action to get her diet back on track. Judy A) relies on social support. B) has self-control. C) is in a state of readiness to change. D) exhibits self-efficacy.
26)
27) Mindy wants to lose weight. The fact that her parents engage in regular exercise is a(n) A) predisposing factor. B) motivational factor. C) enabling factor. D) reinforcing factor.
27)
28) The thought, "I don't have enough time!" is an example of A) shaping. B) enabling. C) self-talk.
28)
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D) punishment.
29) Jim was successful at meeting his exercise goal and rewarded himself by taking a three-day vacation at a golf resort. This is an example of a A) manipulative behavior. B) reinforcing behavior. C) negative behavior. D) covert behavior.
29)
30) Studies associate mindfulness with A) improvements in memory. C) increased religious belief.
30) B) social isolation. D) increased blood pressure.
31) A disease that begins slowly, progresses over a period of time, and may resist treatment is a(n) A) chronic disease. B) hereditary disease. C) acute disease. D) behavioral disease.
31)
32) A trait or behavior that a person can actively control, such as eating habits, is a(n) A) modifiable determinant. B) environmental influence. C) social determinant. D) biological determinant.
32)
33) Overall, the leading cause of death for Americans is A) respiratory disease. C) accidents.
33) B) heart disease. D) cancer.
34) Mrs. J. is trying to get her third-grade students to remember to have their homework signed by a parent before bringing it to class. Students who remember every day for a month receive a gift card from a local bookstore. This is an example of a(n) A) manipulative reinforcer. B) possessional reinforcer. C) activity reinforcer. D) consumable reinforcer.
34)
35) Beth works part-time as a waitress and receives no health insurance benefits from her employer. She purchased insurance under the Affordable Care Act, but the policy has a $5,000 annual deductible. Beth A) is overinsured. B) has equitable access to health services. C) is likely to delay care that she needs. D) is uninsured.
35)
36) Which health model views treating disease through medications and surgery as the surest way to improve health? A) social model B) medical model C) public health model D) environmental model
36)
37) A person's bone structure is an example of a(n) A) nonmodifiable determinant. C) epigenetic factor.
37) B) behavioral choice. D) environmental influence.
38) Jill has many friends, is respected by her coworkers, and maintains a great relationship with her boyfriend. Her ability to interact with others is an example of which dimension of health? A) emotional B) physical C) social D) intellectual
38)
39) The science that views negative health events as resulting from individuals' interactions with their physical or social environment is A) disease prevention. B) public health. C) medicine. D) immunology.
39)
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40) All the following causes of death are linked to modifiable lifestyle behaviors EXCEPT A) heart disease. B) genetic diseases. C) diabetes. D) cancer.
40)
41) Not allowing yourself to think about stage fright and focusing only on the content of your speech when preparing for a presentation is an example of A) blocking and stopping. B) positive reinforcement. C) a situational reinforcer. D) countering.
41)
42) Which strategy is used by many athletes to visualize the attainment of goals? A) imagined rehearsal B) coaching C) athletic imagery D) vicarious performance
42)
43) Based on a recent cholesterol screening, Marlon decided that he has to stop eating so much fast food and get more exercise. Between work and school, his free time is limited, but he is determined to lower his cholesterol level and improve his overall health. The best way for Marlon to stay motivated to improve his diet and work out regularly is to A) set an ambitious goal and chart daily and weekly progress using online tools. B) make weekly resolutions for how many times to work out and chastise himself if he hasn't accomplished his planned goal. C) depend on his friends to keep him away from his favorite fast-food restaurants. D) set reasonable short- and long-term goals and reward himself for meeting them.
43)
44) Washing your hands before eating is an example of disease A) prevention. B) screening. C) treatment.
44) D) intervention.
45) Which of the following is an essential prerequisite for changing a behavior? A) changing environmental obstacles B) deciding on several rewards for making the change C) asking friends for advice D) wanting to change
45)
46) The change model based on three factors (social environment, thoughts and feelings, and behaviors) in interaction with each other is known as the A) transtheoretical model. B) social cognitive model. C) behavior modification model. D) health belief model.
46)
47) Changing your seat in class to one closer to the front to help change your habit of napping during the lecture is an example of A) negative reinforcement. B) an activity reinforcer. C) situational inducement. D) social reinforcement.
47)
48) Healthy People 2020 is a plan designed to A) improve the quality of life and years of life for all Americans. B) update FDA regulations on the manufacture and sale of drugs in the United States. C) increase payments to doctors who serve Medicaid and Medicare patients. D) extend health insurance coverage to millions more Americans.
48)
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49) Which change model was created to illustrate how firmly held ideas affect behavior change? A) transtheoretical model B) shaping model C) social cognitive model D) health belief model
49)
50) A sedentary lifestyle, overuse of caffeine, and risky sexual practices are examples of A) modifiable determinants of health. B) nonmodifiable determinants of health. C) voluntary determinants of health. D) involuntary determinants of health.
50)
51) Rafael is committed to his study of ecology and the effects of climate change. Additionally, he tries to show respect for all living things. Which of the following statements best describes Rafael? A) He demonstrates social health. B) He demonstrates intellectual health. C) He demonstrates spiritual health. D) He demonstrates emotional health.
51)
52) The process of taking small individual steps toward a behavior change goal is A) action. B) shaping. C) preparation.
52) D) journaling.
53) One of the most important goals of Healthy People 2020 is to A) reduce health care costs for all Americans. B) increase funding for research on certain diseases such as cancer and diabetes. C) increase the number of public health departments in every state. D) eliminate health disparities and improve the health of all population groups.
53)
54) Which behavior change model involves six distinct stages and is also known as the stages of change model? A) social cognitive model B) health belief model C) shaping model D) transtheoretical model
54)
55) People with an internal locus of control believe that events turn out as they do based on A) environmental factors. B) fate and luck. C) previous disappointments. D) their own actions.
55)
56) The achievement of the highest level of health possible in each of several dimensions is A) motivation. B) fitness. C) wellness. D) recovery.
56)
57) Health promotion A) includes policies, programs, and financial support for initiatives that promote health. B) focuses on curing the most prevalent diseases. C) involves social justice efforts aimed at achieving health care for all Americans. D) refers to fundraising campaigns for health-related organizations.
57)
58) Jane is sedentary and obese. What effect, if any, do these factors have on her health? A) They affect her physical health only. B) They impede her progress toward high-level wellness. C) They affect her physical and emotional health only. D) They affect her health only if she has a family history of health problems related to obesity.
58)
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59) The science of epigenetics studies A) patterns of inheritance. B) how genes influence an individual's behavioral choices. C) the structure of our genes. D) how behavioral choices influence our cells' ability to use genes.
59)
60) The six dimensions of health A) seldom influence one another. C) interact continuously.
60) B) affect either the mind or the body. D) affect health independently of each other.
61) Spiritual health can best be described as A) holding to religious beliefs learned in childhood. B) having a sense of meaning and purpose in one's life. C) establishing and maintaining fulfilling relationships. D) not as important as other factors to overall wellness.
61)
62) The expected number of years of life remaining at a given age, such as at birth, is known as A) population control. B) morbidity. C) mortality. D) life expectancy.
62)
63) Major public health achievements of the twentieth century include A) mental health counseling. B) workplace safety. C) lower birth rates. D) pharmaceutical products.
63)
64) Which of the following is an example of a SMART goal? A) Reduce my weekend alcohol consumption from 4 or more drinks per night to no more than 3 drinks per night. B) Drink less alcohol. C) Reduce my weekend alcohol consumption from 6 or more drinks per night to 1 drink per night. D) Stop drinking alcohol.
64)
65) Effective health promotion programs A) don't attempt to change individual attitudes about health. B) focus on improving selected negative behaviors. C) focus on encouraging behaviors known to support good health. D) have the most measurable results when implemented in schools.
65)
66) Going out for dinner at your favorite restaurant as a reward for finishing a big project is an example of a A) social reinforcer. B) consumable reinforcer. C) manipulative reinforcer. D) possessional reinforcer.
66)
67) To successfully change a behavior, a person must recognize that change is a(n) A) isolated event. B) process that occurs in stages. C) stressful situation. D) chance to wipe out past mistakes.
67)
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68) The ability to think clearly, analyze information, and use one's mental capacity to meet life's challenges is known as A) physical health. B) intellectual health. C) emotional health. D) social health.
68)
69) Determinants of health are a range of factors in a person's life that A) influence his or her genes. B) influence his or her health status. C) predispose him or her to a particular set of diseases. D) influence his or her response to medical treatment.
69)
70) The dimension of physical health encompasses the ability to A) protect yourself from hazards in your environment. B) perform activities of daily living. C) analyze information. D) reason objectively.
70)
71) Paul studies mortality rates in infants of various ethnicities. He studies their A) accident rates. B) chronic disease rates. C) death rates. D) illness rates.
71)
72) The positive aspects of a person's life, such being satisfied with life in general and having positive emotions, determines one's sense of
72)
A) change.
B) health.
C) progress.
D) well-being.
73) Education and policies aimed at reducing distracted driving within a given population exemplify A) medical treatment. B) health disparities. C) risk behavior. D) health promotion.
73)
74) Health and wellness are best described as A) static. C) determined by the environment.
74) B) determined by genes. D) dynamic.
75) Eve is always upset about something, and it seems that she is never really happy. Her mental outlook is likely to adversely affect A) mainly her physical health. B) all six dimensions of her health. C) mainly her social health. D) mainly her emotional health.
75)
76) Support from others to change a behavior is an example of a(n) A) predisposing factor. B) contributing factor. C) enabling factor. D) reinforcing factor.
76)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 77) Social factors, biology and genetics, individual behavior, health services, and policymaking all combine to determine a person's health status.
77)
78) Studies associate mindfulness with pain relief.
78)
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79) One of the goals of the Healthy People 2020 public health initiative is to create social and physical environments that promote health.
79)
80) Healthy life expectancy is another term for life span.
80)
81) A disabled person can never achieve the highest level of wellness.
81)
82) When trying to drive less aggressively, Bekka observed her family and friends' more careful driving, reflected on what she observed, and changed her driving accordingly. This is an example of the social cognitive model of behavior change.
82)
83) Emotional health is the same as intellectual health.
83)
84) For a low-income individual without dental insurance, cost can be a perceived barrier to obtaining necessary dental care.
84)
85) Atheists cannot effectively practice mindfulness.
85)
86) The wellness continuum ranges from a low point of beginning to experience some type of symptom to a high point of optimal health and well-being.
86)
87) The acronym SMART stands for Serious, Measurable, Adaptable, Realistic, and Time-Oriented.
87)
88) Being able to perform activities of daily living is an aspect of physical health.
88)
89) Health-related quality of life describes the impact of an individual's health on his or her daily functioning.
89)
90) Define health-related quality of life.
90)
91) Excessive drug and alcohol consumption and poor sleep habits are the primary modifiable determinants related to chronic diseases.
91)
92) The absence of disease or illness is the optimal description of health.
92)
93) The development of self-esteem is an important part of intellectual health.
93)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 94) List the six dimensions of health and provide a brief description for each. Briefly describe a plan for improving one dimension of health in your own life. 95) Explain why one of the most popular definitions of mindfulness in contemporary culture is "Keeping your feet in the now." 96) How can an individual develop a greater internal locus of control?
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97) Identify the five categories of determinants of health, and give an example of one determinant from each category that might influence our current epidemic of opioid abuse and overdose deaths in the United States. 98) Compare life expectancy and healthy life expectancy. 99) Compare the World Health Organization (WHO) 1947 definition of health and the definition advanced by biologist and philosopher René Dubos in 1968, identifying a key distinction critical to our current understanding of health. 100) What considerations does the Health Belief Model (HBM) identify as important for an individual who wants to quit smoking? What considerations does the Social Cognitive Model (SCM) identify as important? 101) Think of a health-related behavior you would like to change. List at least three resources that you will use to help you make a plan for change and explain why you selected these resources. 102) Jean drinks at least eight cans of soda each day. She knows that she should drink water, but the soda is much more satisfying because she loves its sweet taste. She has decided that she is going to stop drinking so much soda Sunday through Friday; she will reward herself by drinking soda on Saturday, and not making herself drink any water that day. She is confident that by the end of eight weeks, she will successfully overcome her soda habit and learn to like drinking water. Do you think Jean will successfully reach her goal by following her plan? Critique her plan and propose an alternate series of steps for her to follow to achieve her goal.
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Answer Key Testname: CH 1
1) C 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) D 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) D 50) A 11
Answer Key Testname: CH 1
51) C 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) D 56) C 57) A 58) B 59) D 60) C 61) B 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) C 66) B 67) B 68) B 69) B 70) B 71) C 72) D 73) D 74) D 75) B 76) D 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) • Physical: body size and composition, fitness, and susceptibility to disease • Social: ability to maintain satisfying relationships with others • Intellectual: clear thinking, objective reasoning, and responsible decision making • Emotional: ability to both express and control emotions appropriately • Spiritual: having a sense of meaning or purpose • Environmental: understanding the effects of, protecting yourself from, and improving the conditions in your environment 12
Answer Key Testname: CH 1
95) An essential component of mindfulness is bringing one's complete attention to the present moment, including thoughts, feelings, and sensations arising from one's environment. 96) First, a person must acknowledge feelings of disempowerment, a tendency to blame problems on external factors, and a willingness to give up in the face of difficult circumstances. Following the behavior-change steps described in this chapter, from setting SMART goals to countering to changing self-talk, can help the person begin to develop an internal locus of control. 97) The five categories of determinants of health are: individual behavior; biology and genetics; social factors; access to health services; and policymaking. Examples will vary, but suggested answers might include: individual choice of drug abuse for chronic pain rather than consultation with a physician; biological or genetic factors that increase an individual's susceptibility to drug abuse and/or addiction; social environment in which drug abuse is acceptable; poor access to quality health services; and federal, state, or local policies that limit the availability of drug treatment services or fail to effectively control physician prescription of opioids. 98) Life expectancy refers to the number of years a person at a given age can expect to remain alive. Healthy life expectancy refers to the number of years a person at a given age can expect to live in full health, without chronic diseases or disabilities. 99) Whereas the WHO acknowledged physical, social, and mental dimensions of health, Dubos a dded spiritual and emotional dimensions. Moreover, whereas the WHO defined health as a state of complete physical, social, and mental well-being, Dubos saw health as a state of fitness resulting from adaptability to one's environment. This concept of adaptability is key to our current understanding of health. 100) The HBM emphasizes the role of an individual's beliefs; namely, beliefs related to the seriousness of the health consequences of smoking, the susceptibility to those consequences, the benefits of quitting, and the barriers to quitting. The HBM also considers cues to action, such as chronic coughing or other symptoms, a lung disease diagnosis in a loved one, or a warning from a healthcare provider about the seriousness of tobacco use. In contrast, the SCM emphasizes the importance of role models in the individual's environment, including people who smoke and people who do not, and the thoughts an individual has regarding the effects of these choices on health. The SCM proposes that the individual regulates his or her behavior as a result of this process of observation and reflection, and that his or her successful behavior change then provides a model for others to observe. 101) Resources may be selected from those listed in the Tech & Health section on page 15, those listed at the end of the chapter, or others that students locate on their own. Responses will vary and should include a well-thought-out explanation of why the resources were selected and how they will be used in planning and carrying out a behavior change. 102) Jean is unlikely to reach her goal. Her goal is not specific enough and is probably unrealistic. Also, she is trying to change two behaviors at once: reducing her soda intake and increasing her water intake. She should focus on changing one behavior at a time: either cut back to a specific number of cans of soda per day or drink a specific amount of water per day. Her reward needs to be more meaningful and less like the behavior she is actually trying to change.
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Chapter 1a Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In the United States, the initiative that has had the greatest effect on increasing access to health care for all population groups in the 21st century has been A) Healthy People 2020. C) the war on cancer.
1)
B) the Affordable Care Act. D) the National School Lunch Program.
2) In the United States, the decades since 1980 have been characterized by A) the disappearance of the upper class. B) a broad sharing of income gains across all segments of society. C) a widening gap between the richest and the poorest Americans. D) an increase in the size of the middle class as affluent Americans faced higher taxes and lower returns on investments, and poor Americans made income gains.
2)
3) Public health experts have proposed increasing the numbers of minority health care providers in order to A) communicate across differences. B) expand access to health insurance. C) achieve a more equitable distribution of health care. D) eliminate health disparities.
3)
4) Eitan is 19 years old, Jewish, transgender, overweight, and lives with his single mother. Which of the following statements about Eitan is true? A) Eitan is a unique individual. B) Eitan smokes. C) Eitan almost certainly suffers from clinical depression and has a low sense of self-esteem. D) Health statistics from the U.S. Centers for Disease Control indicate that Eitan is at high risk for suicide.
4)
5) Which of the following statements about educational attainment in the United States is true? A) Educational attainment increases access to jobs with higher wages, better working conditions, health care insurance, and sick leave. B) As compared to the most affluent Americans, the poorest Americans have twice the rate of noncompletion of high school. C) Educational attainment increases with increasing poverty. D) The fact that low-income neighborhoods may have lower-performing schools is not thought to have any influence on levels of educational attainment within the community.
5)
6) Which of the following statements about diversity in America is true? A) The percentage of Millennials identifying as LGBT declined slightly between 2000 and 2017. B) Between 2014 and 2060, the population of Americans under age 18 is expected to increase much more sharply than the population age 65 or older. C) More than one-third of young Millennials are religiously unaffiliated. D) Fewer than 1 in 10,000 Americans is Muslim.
6)
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7) A society characterized by health disparities A) distributes social resources equally among population groups. B) has attained the highest level of health for all. C) distributes health risks equally among population groups. D) is fundamentally unjust.
7)
8) Which of the following statements about national health disparities initiatives is true? A) Although multiple federal agencies have set goals for reducing health disparities, accountability and funding have been inadequate and little progress has been made. B) The Healthy People Initiative was launched by the Institute of Medicine in 1999. C) As a direct result of the establishment of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Task Force on Black and Minority Health, health disparities have been significantly reduced throughout the United States. D) The National Institutes of Health has primary responsibility for reducing health disparities in the United States.
8)
9) One of the key recommendations of the U.S Surgeon General's 2014 National Prevention Strategy for eliminating health disparities was to A) limit alcohol consumption to no more than two drinks a day for men and one drink for women. B) follow a healthy eating pattern. C) increase genetic screening of newborns. D) increase access to health care.
9)
10) In communicating across difference, aiming for full disclosure allows you to A) say exactly how you feel about the other person without worrying about hurting his or her feelings. B) pay attention to what the other person is actually saying, without being triggered by the way he or she is saying it. C) speak as freely and as long as you wish because the other person is not allowed to interrupt. D) acknowledge the contribution of your age, gender, family background, and countless other factors to who you are in this moment.
10)
11) Under the Affordable Care Act, between 2013 and 2015, the percentage of poor Americans who are uninsured A) increased from 18 to 19 percent. B) showed no statistically significant change. C) dropped from 27 to 17 percent. D) dropped from 27 to 23 percent.
11)
12) The minority-stress theory attempts to explain A) the contribution of stress to low socioeconomic status in minority groups. B) the link between frequent exposure to discrimination and stress levels that reduce health. C) why non-Hispanic black Americans have higher rates of stress than any other racial/ethnic group in the United States. D) why members of racial/ethnic minority groups report higher levels of stress than non-Hispanic white Americans.
12)
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13) Which of the following statements about the built environment is FALSE? A) Multiple studies have shown that rural environments enjoy increased opportunities for physical activity as compared to urban and suburban environments. B) A community's level of violence is an aspect of the built environment. C) A community's level of air pollution from traffic and industry is an aspect of the built environment. D) Municipal water systems in several low-income communities across the United States have been found to be contaminated with lead.
13)
14) Populations with low health literacy A) have a lower mortality rate. B) are more likely to access preventive care. C) are at increased risk for medication errors. D) are typically able to obtain, process, and understand health information and services, but need assistance to make appropriate health-related decisions.
14)
15) A society characterized by health equity A) works to prevent or reverse conditions that undermine health. B) has a lower life expectancy among certain social groups than among others. C) views health as a valuable individual characteristic, not a public good. D) establishes policies that benefit certain social groups at the expense of others.
15)
16) State, county, and local initiatives to reduce health disparities include all of the following EXCEPT A) changes to zoning ordinances to avoid the release of industrial pollutants within a reasonable distance of residential areas. B) increased funding for drug treatment programs. C) increased funding for public transportation. D) U.S. Department of Agriculture surveys of food consumption patterns.
16)
17) The Miller household is food insecure. This means that A) all household members are hungry at numerous times throughout the year. B) the household is located in a food desert. C) the household income is below the U.S. poverty line. D) the household lacks access to sufficient food for all household members.
17)
18) All of the following characterize "health for all" EXCEPT A) freedom from discrimination. B) behavioral choices that increase physical activity and diet quality. C) jobs that pay living wages. D) access to safe and affordable housing.
18)
19) Antoine's income is in the lowest 10 percent of United States income. His boss' income is in the highest 10 percent. Which of the following is true? A) Antoine's boss is more likely than Antoine to develop a chronic disease, but Antoine is more likely to die from it. B) Antoine's life expectancy is 14 years lower than that of his boss. C) Antoine's boss will outlive Antoine by at least 14 years. D) Antoine's boss enjoys an income nearly 7 times size of Antoine's income.
19)
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20) Studies indicate that mindfulness can help contribute to a more equitable society by A) reducing the brain's activation of automatic negative associations. B) increasing the participants' ability to relax. C) increasing the brain's ability to perceive difference. D) reducing participants' awareness of their biases.
20)
21) Strategies to reduce health disparities by changing the physical environment include all of the following EXCEPT A) offering diversity training to health care providers B) increasing neighborhood walkability. C) establishing health literacy centers in libraries. D) construction of quality affordable housing.
21)
22) By the year 2060, the population of the United States will be A) about 20% Asian American. B) more than 25% Hispanic. C) about 20% non-Hispanic Black. D) more than 60% non-Hispanic white.
22)
23) A highly effective way to examine your assumptions, perceptions, and biases is to A) consider how comfortable you are seeking out people who differ from you in significant ways. B) affirm to yourself several times daily that you are not biased. C) remind yourself of all of the times that you have been kind to others. D) list all the ways in which you are just like your parents and siblings.
23)
24) The costs to society of health disparities A) increase when a community lacks drug treatment programs and individuals with substance abuse disorders leave the workforce. B) are estimated to amount to nearly $1 billion annually. C) are unavoidable. D) increase when individuals have high-quality health insurance that covers preventive care.
24)
25) According to the majority-minority crossover predicted for the United States, after the year 2044 A) adults age 65 or older will make up more than 50 percent of the population. B) Americans who identify as Christian will make up less than 50 percent of the population. C) non-Hispanic whites will make up less than 50 percent of the population. D) non-Hispanic blacks will make up more than 50 percent of the population.
25)
26) Crystal, who maintains a slender body weight by limiting her food intake and exercising daily, assumes that people who are obese have no willpower. This assumption is an example of A) a stereotype. B) discrimination. C) othering. D) a health disparity.
26)
27) To become your own advocate, it's helpful to A) ask family members or friends to confront the individual who has treated you unfairly. B) accept the situation and move on. C) accept the fact that negative messages have at least some validity. D) keep in mind that you are helping others by speaking out.
27)
4
28) Luz immigrated to the United States from Columbia when she was sixteen. She last visited a physician three years ago. The physician told her that her blood pressure was high and prescribed medication. Since then, Luz has avoided doctors because she works full-time for a small housekeeping service that does not offer health insurance. Which of the following statements about Luz is true? A) Luz almost certainly has access to free health care at a community health clinic in her area. B) Luz is at risk for a health crisis that would likely require treatment far more costly to society than the cost of primary care visits and medication. C) Luz could afford to purchase her own health insurance if she really wanted it. D) Luz' ethnicity is a much more powerful determinant of her high blood pressure than is her socioeconomic status.
28)
29) Marnie is 83 years old, poor, and disabled by chronic respiratory disease. According to the American Psychological Association, Marnie faces an increased risk for A) medication errors. B) social isolation. C) low educational attainment. D) discrimination.
29)
30) All of the following are social determinants of health EXCEPT A) economic stability. B) the built environment. C) educational attainment. D) federal, state, and local policymaking.
30)
31) A mobile van offering health screenings, vaccinations, and other services within neighborhoods is A) recommended by public health experts for all underserved communities throughout the United States. B) an example of a systemic measure to improve health equity. C) a biological determinant of health. D) an example of a community strategy for increasing access to health care.
31)
32) In one study, participants who engaged in mindfulness training A) tended to adopt more of an "us" versus "them" approach to interactions with others. B) increased their understanding of the unconscious aspects of other people's behavior. C) demonstrated no statistically significant change in either racial or age biases. D) were more willing to consider the possibility that other people were discriminating against them.
32)
33) A community college in a region of the country with a high level of poverty might increase health equity among its students by A) requiring that all students present proof of health insurance coverage prior to registering for classes. B) offering students free passes to the local art museum. C) establishing a food pantry for student use. D) offering convenience stores within residence halls.
33)
34) Our ability to recognize difference A) is based on intimate knowledge of another's life history and current experiences. B) is highly evolved and broadly accurate. C) is largely dictated by society. D) helps prevent us from engaging in false assumptions about others.
34)
5
35) In the context of health disparities, the term privilege is best defined as A) a rare opportunity or honor. B) resources and rights, often unearned, that are available only to some members of a society. C) superiority in culture, race/ethnicity, socioeconomic status, education, or other factors. D) the right to take a desired action without incurring the risk of consequences.
35)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 36) The Affordable Care Act was fully implemented in 2010.
36)
37) Interacting with people who are different as if they were intrinsically inferior is known as stereotyping.
37)
38) The United States consistently ranks highest in health equity among the world's eleven wealthiest industrialized nations.
38)
39) A single parent with two children working full-time at the federal minimum wage earns an annual income well below the U.S. poverty line.
39)
40) When communicating across differences, it helps to begin by committing to mutual civility and respect.
40)
41) Children born to low-income parents who value and nurture them have resources that support health.
41)
42) About 4.3 million Americans live in poverty.
42)
43) The Surgeon General's National Prevention Strategy explains that all initiatives to address health disparities must arise from within local communities.
43)
44) You can contribute to health equity by advocating for yourself.
44)
45) More than one out of every four people living in the United States today is an immigrant.
45)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 46) Identify the role of valuing in a society's level of health equity and health disparities. 47) Identify at least three benefits of campus diversity to college students. 48) Identify four key ways that public health experts propose for increasing access to health care within at-risk populations. 49) Discuss multiple links between poverty and poor health. 50) Define health equity.
6
Answer Key Testname: CH 1A
1) B 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) A 27) D 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) FALSE 37) FALSE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) Health disparities, such as higher rates of depression and suicide among LGBT people or reduced life expectancy in low-income populations, arise within a society that does not value individuals equally. This inequity in valuing allows unequal distribution of health resources and health risks, decreasing certain populations' access to resources and increasing their exposure to risks. 7
Answer Key Testname: CH 1A
47) Interacting every day with other people who are different from you challenges your assumptions and exposes you to new ideas, values, and experiences. The skills you develop in working across difference are likely to help you academically as well as in your career. Exposure to diversity also helps you discover more about yourself. Building relationships with others who are different can also expose you to new experiences, foods, art, music, etc., thereby generally expanding your world. 48) 1. Increase the number of minority health care providers by providing incentives for minority Americans to pursue care health care. 2. Require all health care providers to undergo diversity training. 3. Increase community-wide partnerships to offer free or low-cost preventive services such as vaccinations, dental care health screenings within underserved communities. 4. Expand access to health insurance throughout the United States. 49) Poverty reduces access to nourishing foods, which promote and maintain health. By limiting choice of housing, poverty can decrease a family's access to healthy food stores, parks, walking trails, quality libraries, health clinics, and other community services, and increase their exposure to pollution, violence, and other health risks. Poverty also limits educational attainment, from lower-quality early childhood education through reduced ability to afford higher education. Finally, poverty is a chronic stressor that can contribute to physical and mental health problems from childhood through adulthood and reduce overall life expectancy. 50) Health equity is a condition characterized by an absence of avoidable or remediable differences in health and the attainment of optimal health for all.
8
Chapter 2 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Celia spends a good deal of her time feeling on edge, is easily fatigued, and often has difficulty concentrating and getting enough sleep. Her symptoms may characterize A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) panic disorder.
1)
2) Although he is often dispirited, exhausted, and pessimistic, for the last few days Jirou has been studying, working out, and socializing with so much energy and enthusiasm that he has not had more than two or three hours of sleep each night. Jirou might be suffering from A) a personality disorder. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) panic disorder. D) bipolar disorder.
2)
3) Interpersonal therapy focuses on A) the therapist-patient relationship as a window into other relationship patterns. B) the impact of thoughts and ideas on feelings and behavior. C) social roles and relationships. D) the psychological roots of emotional problems.
3)
4) A person's realistic sense of self-respect or self-worth is referred to as A) self-esteem. B) introversion. C) conscientiousness. D) assertiveness.
4)
5) Which of the following is TRUE about major depression? A) People can snap out of it if they choose. B) Sadness is not actually a common symptom of depression. C) It is about the same as feeling down after a bad experience. D) Symptoms include feeling hopeless and difficulty concentrating.
5)
6) Lisa has a strong sense of purpose and meaning to her life. Lisa is demonstrating A) spiritual health. B) emotional health. C) religiosity. D) social support.
6)
7) A treatment for depression that involves correcting consistently pessimistic or faulty thought patterns is A) cognitive therapy. B) psychodynamic therapy. C) interpersonal therapy. D) behavioral therapy.
7)
8) Keisha has a negative attitude about life and puts herself down all the time. Keisha is displaying A) low self-esteem. B) low self-efficacy. C) poor self-control. D) clinical depression.
8)
9) Marie's parents have given her money for a down payment on a new car; they are providing her with A) social support. B) tangible support. C) intangible support. D) obligatory support.
9)
1
10) Melody has been experiencing severe mood swings, feeling highly energized for a period and then experiencing extreme depression. These symptoms are most closely associated with A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) seasonal affective disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) borderline personality disorder.
10)
11) Anxiety disorders are A) the most common mental health problem in the United States. B) characterized by deep and persistent fears of specific objects, activities, or situations. C) most prevalent among adults over the age of 65. D) the least costly of mental health disorders to treat.
11)
12) The general term for a disorder that disrupts thoughts, feelings, moods, and behavior to the extent that it impairs functioning in daily life is A) cognitive disorder. B) neuroticism. C) neurological impairment. D) mental illness.
12)
13) Which of the following living environments would likely increase your chances of suffering from seasonal affective disorder (SAD)? A) a region close to the equator with little seasonal variation B) a southern state that experiences hot, humid summers C) a desert region in California D) a northern state that experiences long winter nights
13)
14) A term used to encompass mental, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions of health is A) holistic. B) socioemotional. C) psychiatric. D) psychological.
14)
15) Most commonly, a person diagnosed with social anxiety disorder has a fear of A) public events and gatherings. B) spending time alone. C) contracting an infection from others. D) leaving his or her room.
15)
16) Spiritually healthy people believe A) in an afterlife. B) in a god or other higher power. C) that they are part of a something larger than the purely physical or personal dimensions of existence. D) that it is important to give up control over their lives.
16)
17) Recently, Kevin has been spending a lot of time playing online poker. Last weekend, he decided on a whim to fly to Las Vegas to try his hand at "the real thing." He lost over $5,000. This behavior indicates that Kevin may have A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) borderline personality disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) bipolar disorder.
17)
18) Which of the following is TRUE about positive psychology? A) It is the scientific study of the interactions between happiness and immunity. B) It described mental health as the absence of negative feelings. C) It was founded by psychologists Peter Salavey and John Mayer. D) Its interventions have proven effective in reducing disability and increasing longevity.
18)
2
19) Which of the following represents the primary difference between emotional health and mental health? A) Emotional health deals specifically with thought processes rather than feelings. B) Mental health deals with complex patterns of feelings whereas emotional health deals with the feelings themselves. C) Mental health does not include the ability to learn, whereas emotional health does. D) Emotional health deals with feelings rather than thought processes.
19)
20) Sharon has lost two jobs in the past year. She blames her coworkers, who she says didn't like her. She claims that they were purposely trying to sabotage her and that she did absolutely nothing wrong. From her behavior, it is likely that Sharon has developed A) narcissism. B) low self-esteem. C) learned helplessness. D) learned optimism.
20)
21) People who have experienced repeated failures may develop a pattern of response in which they give up and fail to take any positive action. This is called A) learned helplessness. B) learned optimism. C) resistance. D) laziness.
21)
22) Suicide prevention techniques include A) keeping all conversations with the person confidential. B) reassuring a person that nothing could be so bad as to make suicide an option. C) asking directly if the person intends to hurt himself or herself. D) downplaying a person's statement that they'd like to die.
22)
23) An awareness of what others might be going through is called A) openness. B) extroversion. C) empathy.
23) D) self-awareness.
24) The mental health professional whose treatment is most likely to be based on Freud's theories is a A) psychiatrist. B) psychoanalyst. C) clinical psychologist. D) social worker.
24)
25) Jake is being treated for depression by a medical doctor who provides talk therapy and has also prescribed medication for his condition. Which type of mental health professional is Jake seeing? A) psychiatrist B) licensed marriage and family therapist C) social worker D) psychologist
25)
26) A collective term for several positive states in which individuals actively embrace the world around them is A) happiness. B) satisfaction. C) conscientiousness. D) openness.
26)
27) Which of the following statements about suicide is true? A) People are at increased risk for suicide if they identify as LGBT. B) Globally, the highest rates of suicide are among people age 15 to 24. C) Globally, about as many men as women commit suicide. D) College students are at higher risk of suicide than people of the same age who are not in college.
27)
3
28) At the end of each day, Anne writes down five positive affirmations about herself to block out any negative thoughts. Anne is demonstrating A) learned optimism. B) brainwashing. C) optimism. D) magical thinking.
28)
29) Loneliness is A) best defined as the experience of being alone. B) rare among college students but becomes common after graduation. C) unlikely in people who have lots of followers on social media. D) a risk factor for depression and substance abuse.
29)
30) Which of the following is TRUE of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A) A self-actualized person has met basic needs but has not fully reached his or her potential. B) Failure to meet a lower-level need will interfere with fulfilling higher-level needs. C) Esteem needs are more basic than survival needs. D) Social needs are the most basic and essential needs.
30)
31) Obsessive-compulsive disorder is A) highly treatable. B) diagnosed in about 5 percent of American adults. C) essentially the same as being a perfectionist. D) a type of personality disorder.
31)
32) A person who experiences flashbacks after a violent mugging might be suffering from A) schizophrenia. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) a phobia. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
32)
33) A network of people and services with which we share ties and which provide support is A) community support. B) psychological support. C) social support. D) emotional support.
33)
34) Marcella has a persistent fear of social situations; she is suffering from A) schizophrenia. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) a phobia. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
34)
35) After breaking up with his girlfriend, Lucas has been unable to move on. He is afraid of rejection and doesn't think that women find him attractive. He is probably suffering from A) low self-efficacy. B) failure to self-regulate. C) low self-esteem. D) a victim complex.
35)
36) Mindfulness-based therapy A) emphasize deep reflection on past traumas and other negative life events. B) has been shown in multiple studies to be significantly more effective than traditional psychotherapy in relieving anxiety and depression. C) is unlikely to be helpful for individuals who do not respond to psychoactive medications. D) may be less expensive and easier to implement than traditional psychotherapy.
36)
4
37) According to Maslow's hierarchy, individuals who have satisfied their basic needs and have attained their full potential are A) self-actualized. B) emotionally healthy. C) self-aware. D) mature.
37)
38) A mentally healthy student who gets a bad grade on an exam would respond by A) learning from the situation and improving study habits. B) becoming withdrawn and avoiding friends. C) getting angry at the professor. D) drinking for distraction and to relieve tension.
38)
39) Intense feelings or patterns of feelings that people experience are A) needs. B) dreams. C) desires.
39) D) emotions.
40) Warning signs of suicide include all of the following EXCEPT A) compulsion to repeatedly perform rituals. B) giving away prized possessions. C) unexplained demonstration of happiness following a period of depression. D) preoccupation with themes of death.
40)
41) Psychologically healthy people A) never think a negative thought. C) engage in vengeful acts.
41) B) feel comfortable interacting with others. D) make time for others but not themselves.
42) Evan washes his hands more than 50 times a day because of an ongoing fixation on germs; he is most likely suffering from A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) schizophrenia. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) a phobia.
42)
43) Which of the following is TRUE of psychologically healthy people? A) They value human diversity. B) They frequently experience guilt. C) They are uncomfortable when put in new social situations. D) They avoid new experiences.
43)
44) Which of the following statements about self-esteem is FALSE? A) Some research suggests that it may be possible to have too much self-esteem. B) Self-efficacy and self-esteem are not synonyms. C) Protecting children from failure may boost their ability to persist in the face of difficulties. D) Learning to lose can be valuable in developing a realistic sense of self-esteem.
44)
45) The five-factor model classifies curiosity, independence, and imagination as A) agreeableness. B) extroversion. C) openness. D) conscientiousness.
45)
46) Paulo cannot recall a time when he did not feel terrified of spiders. He could be experiencing a(n) A) hysteria. B) phobia. C) compulsion. D) obsession.
46)
5
47) Treatment for schizophrenia includes hospitalization and a combination of A) psychotherapy and electroconvulsive therapy. B) medication and light therapy. C) medication and psychotherapy. D) light therapy and electroconvulsive therapy.
47)
48) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is associated with A) too much external stimuli. C) a lack of social interaction.
48) B) reduced exposure to sunlight. D) malfunction of the thyroid gland.
49) Which of the following statements about schizophrenia is TRUE? A) Schizophrenia is a mental illness with biological origins. B) Symptoms most commonly appear in early childhood. C) Schizophrenia can be treated but not cured. D) Schizophrenia is caused by childhood trauma.
49)
50) Which of the following is TRUE about major depression in college students? A) About 2-3 percent of college students report having been diagnosed with or treated for depression in an average year. B) About one-fourth of all college students feel overwhelmed by their responsibilities. C) Depression among college students is typically a temporary issue and not a major barrier to academic success. D) International students are especially vulnerable to depression.
50)
51) Psychological health is best described as encompassing A) memories, emotions, and interpretations of life experiences. B) personal experiences and thoughts of future events. C) thinking, feeling, relating, and being. D) thoughts, including beliefs, relating to the past, present, and future.
51)
52) A type of mental illness that involves inflexible patterns of thought that, in many cases, lead to socially distressing behavior is a(n) A) bipolar disorder. B) anxiety disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) personality disorder.
52)
53) Together, self-awareness, self-management, internal motivation, empathy, and social skills are MOST closely associated with A) psychoneuroimmunology. B) emotional intelligence. C) intellectual health. D) happiness.
53)
54) Alicia has been experiencing persistent sadness, despair, and hopelessness. She is displaying symptoms of A) an anxiety disorder. B) an eating disorder. C) a personality disorder. D) a chronic mood disorder.
54)
55) A researcher observes that stage actors frequently come down with a cold after the close of a long run of a show. This type of study would best be classified as A) psychoneuroimmunology. B) a motivational study . C) social psychology. D) positive psychology.
55)
6
56) An acute anxiety attack that brings on intense physical symptoms is a(n) A) flashback. B) obsessive-compulsive symptom. C) panic attack. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
56)
57) A psychologically healthy person is A) introverted. B) athletic.
57) C) cynical.
D) resilient.
58) Jose's belief that he can successfully pass his biology midterm is an example of A) self-efficacy. B) self-satisfaction. C) self-esteem. D) self-reliance.
58)
59) Being flexible in making plans with friends demonstrates A) agreeableness. B) self-esteem. C) self-efficacy.
59) D) optimism.
60) All of the following are common side effects of psychotropic drugs EXCEPT A) sexual dysfunction. B) nausea. C) weight loss. D) headaches.
60)
61) You can expect a psychodynamic therapist to A) employ the concepts of stimulus, response, and reinforcement. B) tell you what to do and how to behave. C) encourage you to engage in self-reflection and self-examination. D) offer to medicate you.
61)
62) Research suggests that anxiety disorders A) are most prevalent among adults age 65 or older. B) can develop as a learned response to a recurrent stress-inducing situation. C) are highly resistant to treatment. D) have essentially no biological basis.
62)
63) Which of the following is NOT a common sign of major depression? A) weight loss or gain B) memory lapses C) feeling highly energetic D) oversleeping or insomnia
63)
64) A dysfunctional family is defined as a family in which A) one or both parents engage in illicit drug use or other criminal behavior. B) the physical or mental illness of one or more family members frequently overwhelms the family's capacity to cope. C) there is violence; physical, emotional, or sexual abuse; significant discord; or other negative family interactions.
64)
D) one or both parents intentionally attempt to undermine children's sense of self-confidence. 65) The personality trait that involves the ability to adapt to a social situation and demonstrate assertiveness is known as A) emotional stability. B) resiliency. C) conscientiousness. D) extroversion.
7
65)
66) According to the PERMA model, which of the following strategies is most likely to enhance your well-being? A) Vent to all your friends on a regular basis to remind them of what you are going through. B) Indulge in unhealthy foods once in a while to reward and calm yourself. C) Set realistic goals and pursue them with effort. D) Start seeing a therapist who can help you recall early traumas that may be blocking your personal growth.
66)
67) Warren often has difficulty writing sentences with the words in the correct order. Warrenn may have a learning disorder known as A) dyscalculia. B) Asperger syndrome. C) dysgraphia. D) autism spectrum disorder.
67)
68) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to attention-deficit (hyperactivity) disorder (ADD/ADHD)? A) It causes people to be very organized. B) It is only diagnosed in children. C) It tends to disrupt relationships. D) It is classified as an impairment in brain development.
68)
69) Which of the following is TRUE about persistent depressive disorder? A) It is linked with a specific genetic variant. B) It is a version of bipolar disorder. C) It affects more people than major depression. D) It is a mild but chronic form of depression.
69)
70) Which of the following is TRUE about panic attacks? A) They typically come on gradually. B) About 2 percent of college students report having been diagnosed or treated for panic attacks. C) They can lead to social isolation. D) They typically last for 5 to 10 minutes.
70)
71) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning emotional health? A) An emotionally healthy person responds appropriately to upsetting events most of the time. B) Emotional health interacts with other aspects of an individual's health. C) An emotionally healthy person keeps feelings inside to avoid burdening others. D) Emotional health is the subjective side of psychological health.
71)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 72) Cutting or self-mutilation can be a sign of borderline personality disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, depression, or an anxiety disorder.
72)
73) Keeping in touch with your best friend from high school is one way of enhancing your social health.
73)
74) Our personalities can be altered through behavior change.
74)
75) Changes in biochemistry due to drug abuse can trigger mental disturbances.
75)
8
76) Nearly 15 percent of all violent acts are attributed to people with serious mental illness.
76)
77) Psychologically healthy people take time to enjoy and appreciate their surroundings.
77)
78) Psychoneuroimmunology studies the effects of disease on emotional health.
78)
79) Behavioral therapy focuses on changing a person's habitual attitudes to become more positive and productive.
79)
80) Current research suggests that being happy or unhappy has no direct effect on mortality.
80)
81) Children raised in dysfunctional families who have experienced violence or abuse may have a harder time adjusting to life and run an increased risk of psychological problems.
81)
82) People with major depression experience physical effects such as sleep disturbance as well as persistent sadness and despair.
82)
83) A leading personality theory called the five-factor model proposes that, in most people, personality is influenced by five key factors, including genetics, parenting, and level of education.
83)
84) Defense mechanisms are strategies we use to distort our present reality in order to avoid anxiety.
84)
85) The term social health is often used interchangeably with mental health.
85)
86) Any one dimension of psychological health can affect the others.
86)
87) In the PERMA acronym, the letter M stands for meaning.
87)
88) Nearly 2 percent of all college students report that they had attempted to kill themselves in the past year.
88)
89) People with bipolar disorder display a limited range of emotions.
89)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 90) Do you believe that there is a stigma attached to mental illness? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 91) What stressors or circumstances do you believe contribute the most to depression among college students? Provide information from the chapter and reflect on your own experiences to support your answer. 92) LGBT youth are more likely to attempt suicide than are their heterosexual peers. Propose at least two reasons that you think this might be so. Also list at least five actions you could take to prevent suicide. 93) Why do you think anxiety disorders have become the number one mental health problem in the United States? Provide information from the chapter and reflect on your own experiences to support your answer. 94) Identify five characteristics of an individual with high emotional intelligence.
9
Answer Key Testname: CH 2
1) A 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) D 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 2
51) C 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) A 56) C 57) D 58) A 59) A 60) C 61) C 62) B 63) C 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) C 68) C 69) D 70) C 71) C 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) Yes, there is a stigma towards mental illness; many college students will not see a counselor for treatment of mental health issues because of the stigma attached and a fear that they will be criticized, made fun of, or ostracized by peers. 91) Answers will vary. Weak communication skills, unrealistic expectations, anxiety over relationships, pressure to get good grades, striving to win social acceptance, poor diet, abuse of alcohol and other drugs, and lack of sleep are factors.
11
Answer Key Testname: CH 2
92) Answers will vary. Reasons might include the fact that some LGBT youth have been rejected by their families or peers, or have been teased or bullied in school. They may struggle with low self-esteem if, as children, they were taught to view homosexuality, bisexuality, and transgenderism as unnatural, abhorrent, or sinful. In general, they face a more difficult social environment than do their heterosexual peers. And they may be more likely to experience mino rity stress due to discrimination in housing, employment, health care, and other domains. Actions that may help prevent suicide include: • Monitoring the warning signals. • Taking threats seriously. • Letting the person know how much you care. • Asking directly if the person is contemplating suicide. • Taking action by removing any firearms or other objects that could be used for suicide. • Helping the person think about alternatives to suicide. • Telling others of your suspicions. In addition, the person needs immediate and effective medical and mental health care. 93) Answers will vary. There are many proposed explanations for anxiety disorders, which include environmental factors, biology, and social and cultural roles. Weakening social ties, changing cultural roles and responsibilities, and growing inequality may cause the excess stress, concern, and worry that give rise to these disorders. It is also possible that increased public awareness and physician diagnosis of anxiety disorders contribute. 94) An individual with high emotional intelligence is self-aware, able to recognize his or her own emotions, moods, and reactions and how other people perceive him or her. The individual is able to self-regulate, controlling impulses and expressing him- or herself appropriately. The individual is internally motivated, with a drive for learning and a stability and trustworthiness. He or she has empathy, an awareness of what others might be going through. He or she has mature social skills, including the ability to listen and respond appropriately, and to work with others for the common good.
12
Chapter 2a Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The definition of spirituality for an individual is A) determined by the religious community of the family. B) a set of religious symbols and rituals. C) more formal and behavioral than the definition of religion. D) a sense of peace, purpose, connection to others, and meaning in life.
1)
2) Spiritual health is one of the six key dimensions of A) emotional health. C) social health.
2) B) overall health. D) success in life.
3) Religion is distinguished from spirituality by its A) subjective format. C) lack of doctrine.
B) informality. D) focus on behavior and outward practices.
3)
4) Which of the following is a key component of healthy relationships? A) having strong values B) seeking out friends with similar interests C) having lots of friends D) treating others with respect
4)
5) Which of the following is an example of failing to live according to one's values? A) valuing friendships but having to mend a quarrel with a friend B) enjoying alone time but having a roommate C) loving animals but not owning a pet D) valuing honesty but cheating on a test
5)
6) Giving of oneself out of genuine concern for others is A) stewardship. B) patriotism. C) altruism.
6) D) spirituality.
7) Listing twenty things you're grateful for is an exercise in A) compassion-meditation. B) nonjudgmental observation. C) prayer. D) contemplation.
7)
8) In the practice of yoga, physical poses, which can be restful or strenuous, are called A) chakras. B) mantras. C) asanas. D) meditations.
8)
9) Working to become a better friend to others and consciously developing a meaningful philosophy of life are indicators of a person's A) social health. B) resiliency. C) sense of beauty. D) spirituality.
9)
10) Jill wants to enhance her spirituality. Which of the following practices would be most helpful in accomplishing her goal? A) spending more time on social network sites B) joining an on-campus meditation group C) spending more time studying D) experimenting with hallucinogenic substances
10)
1
11) A system of beliefs, practices, rituals, and symbols whose purpose is to bring people closer to the sacred or divine is A) doctrine. B) spirituality. C) orthodoxy. D) religion.
11)
12) A state of alignment with one's own inner wisdom, values, and vision that serves as a guide in finding a moral and ethical path through life is A) purpose. B) spiritual intelligence. C) stewardship. D) religious belief.
12)
13) The three facets of human spirituality are A) contemplation, relation, and selfless service. B) relationships, values, and purpose in life. C) cultural norms, family traditions, and values. D) gratitude, service, and purpose in life.
13)
14) The spiritual practice that involves focused, nonjudgmental observation and the ability to be fully present in the moment is A) contemplation. B) mindfulness. C) meditation. D) forgiveness.
14)
15) Ricardo finds that when he tries to relax and enjoy nature by taking a quiet walk, a constant stream of thoughts and worries distracts him. To help him focus on the beauty of his surroundings, Ricardo could use which ancient spiritual practice? A) meditation B) prayer C) contemplation D) mindfulness
15)
16) During meditation, Madhvi finds that thoughts pop up and distract her. When this happens she should A) release the thought and return to meditating. B) get up and move around and then try again. C) realize that she is not well-suited for meditation. D) stop meditating until she can refocus.
16)
17) Which of the following activities slows respiratory rate and blood pressure, and over time changes the structure of the brain? A) inhaling pleasing fragrances B) listening to classical music C) walking briskly for at least 30 minutes D) meditation
17)
18) Dera belongs to a group of women who meet for brunch on Sundays to talk together about their relationships, values, and the meaning and purpose of their lives. This group would most accurately be characterized as A) group therapy. B) a brunch club. C) a social club. D) a spiritual community.
18)
19) A number of studies have shown a positive relationship between spiritual health and A) physical health. B) high blood pressure. C) self-control. D) academic performance.
19)
20) A single word repeated silently or aloud as part of meditation is a A) symbol. B) jingle. C) name for God.
20)
2
D) mantra.
21) Spiritual health contributes to a reduction in A) social support. C) disputes with others.
21) B) psychological health. D) stress levels.
22) What role does religion play in spirituality? A) Spirituality may or may not include participation in organized religion. B) Religion is the only parameter to determine a person's level of spirituality. C) Religion is the same as spirituality. D) Spirituality and religion do not share any common elements.
22)
23) Acknowledging your discomfort when, walking on a beach, you notice plastic trash washed up on the shoreline could be viewed as an exercise in A) contemplation. B) meditation. C) altruism. D) mindfulness.
23)
24) Which of the following is an example of altruism? A) volunteering at an animal shelter C) thanking someone who helped you
24) B) having faith in a higher power D) being environmentally conscientious
25) In a recent survey, what percentage of first-year college students reported that they are not affiliated with a particular religion? A) 29.5 percent B) 38.5 percent C) 7.5 percent D) 16.5 percent
25)
26) Nancy practices the hatha style of a form of mind/body training, which emphasizes flexibility and deep breathing. Which type of practice is she engaged in? A) tai chi B) yoga C) mindfulness D) qigong
26)
27) Jordan is concerned that his interest in material goods is selfish and does nothing to help others. Which of the following would BEST take Jordan's focus off materialism and encourage altruism? A) enjoying a quiet hour communing with nature B) participating in a yoga class C) going out with friends D) volunteering to serve meals at a homeless shelter
27)
28) In many cultures, breath, or the force that animates life, is synonymous with A) spirit. B) heart. C) faith.
28) D) energy.
29) Which spiritual practice is Maria engaging in when she takes some quiet time to think about the ethical issues involved in human trafficking? A) prayer B) mindfulness C) contemplation D) meditation
29)
30) Spiritual intelligence can be described as the ability to A) resolve conflicts between our values and our desires. B) maintain mindfulness throughout most of one's daily life. C) access meanings, values, and purposes to live a richer life. D) understand complex religious teachings.
30)
31) Studies have shown that experienced meditators have an increased capacity for A) expanding the lungs. B) analyzing data quickly. C) empathy. D) falling asleep.
31)
3
32) People engage in prayer in order to A) communicate with a transcendent presence or higher power. B) contemplate difficult issues. C) empty the mind and find stillness. D) send wishes of kindness or forgiveness to other people.
32)
33) According to the National Cancer Institute, spiritual well-being improves the quality of life of individuals suffering from an illness by A) increasing the ability to cope with disease and medical treatments. B) preventing the need for psychological or religious counseling. C) using meditation to lower respiratory and heart rates. D) bringing them closer to family members.
33)
34) Principles that guide the choices individuals make in their lives are A) beliefs. B) traditions. C) values.
34) D) rules.
35) Meditation involves A) progressively tensing then relaxing the muscles. B) imagining yourself in a peaceful setting. C) concentration on a point of focus such as a sound, breath, or attention itself. D) praying for divine guidance or aid.
35)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 36) Claiming to value nature but tossing litter on the side of the road is an example of behavior not following one's declared values.
36)
37) Having spiritual intelligence means that a person knows all the characteristics of spirituality.
37)
38) The three facets of spirituality are relationships, values, and chosen occupation.
38)
39) A recent study found that increased social capital is linked to increased financial capital.
39)
40) Religion and spirituality are synonymous.
40)
41) Engaging all the physical senses detracts from spirituality.
41)
42) Studies have shown a connection between spirituality and both physical and psychological health.
42)
43) Various forms of regular exercise, such as swimming or biking, that enhance energy and mental focus can contribute to spiritual health.
43)
44) Contemplating one's purpose in life is part of developing spiritual health.
44)
45) More than 15 percent of the world's population is religiously unaffiliated.
45)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 46) Compare and contrast religion and spirituality.
4
47) How does the National Cancer Institute (NCI) contend that spiritual health contributes to physical health? 48) As compared to hatha yoga, ashtanga yoga is more focused on developing tranquility. 49) What are some ways to improve spirituality by training the body? 50) Carlita is graduating soon and considering career options. What are some aspects she should consider if she wants her career choice to be in alignment with her values and what she sees as her purpose in life?
5
Answer Key Testname: CH 2A
1) D 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) C 30) C 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) FALSE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE
6
Answer Key Testname: CH 2A
46) Religion can be a component of spirituality, and the two share some commonalities, but they are not the same. Religion is observable, measurable, and objective; spirituality is less measurable and more subjective. Religion is systematic, orthodox, and organized; spirituality is less orthodox and not formal. Religion is behavior-oriented and prescribes specific outward practices; spirituality is emotionally oriented with individually chosen outward and inward practices. Religion is authoritarian; spirituality is not authoritarian. Religion is doctrine-oriented; spirituality is not doctrine-oriented. 47) The NCI contends that when we get sick, spiritual health may help restore our health and improve our quality of life in several ways: by decreasing blood pressure and the risk of cardiovascular disease, decreasing anxiety and depression, decreasing alcohol and drug abuse, improving the ability to cope with illness and medical treatments, and increasing feelings of optimism and hope. 48) FALSE 49) Certain forms of yoga, especially those that emphasize controlled breathing, chanting, and meditation, have been a part of spiritual practice for centuries and can be practiced today; classes are available at yoga centers and many other fitness locations. Various forms of Eastern meditative movement techniques, such as tai chi and qigong, and exercise in general can energize the body and sharpen mental focus, thus contributing to spiritual health. 50) She should clarify and articulate her values. She should ask herself what she might like to do that would be aligned with these values, feel meaningful to her, and make a difference in the lives of others. She should then seek a career that is compatible with her values and purpose.
7
Chapter 3 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Eleanor comes from a low-income family and struggles to pay for her tuition, room, board, and school supplies. The other students in her major all seem to have no trouble purchasing everything they need, as well as new clothes, meals off campus, concert tickets, and the latest technology. Lately, Eleanor has been struggling with feelings of inferiority, low self-esteem, and doubt that may be due in part to A) relative deprivation. B) background distressors. C) hassles. D) discrimination.
1)
2) The part of the brain involved in controlling the body's overall reaction to stress is the A) pituitary gland. B) frontal lobe. C) cerebral cortex. D) hypothalamus.
2)
3) Melanie grew up in extreme poverty, but won a full scholarship to a top liberal arts college. There, her sociology professor, who also comes from a poor family, has been helping Melanie to take a proactive approach to her current stressors and to focus on the future. These strategies are best classified as A) coping and hoping. B) self-advocacy and self-efficacy. C) shifting and persisting. D) hardiness and grit.
3)
4) To replenish vital energy stores, which of the following would be particularly helpful? A) increasing alcohol intake to promote relaxation B) getting more sleep and "down time" C) a regimen of "energy-boosting" supplements D) broadening one's social support system
4)
5) Which of the following is a useful strategy to prevent explosive anger? A) Have a couple of beers and watch TV to take your mind off the issue. B) Develop realistic expectations of yourself and others. C) Avoid all situations that provoke anger. D) Pound on something soft, like a pillow.
5)
6) Hakim walked into his house one summer day and discovered that the air conditioning was not working. He did not get upset because the last time this happened, he found a great repair company that was fast and affordable; he also had a couple of fans that he used to keep cool until the AC was restored. Hakim did not experience excessive stress because A) he has low self-esteem and knew he could not fix the AC himself. B) he had a plan in place due to his last experience with the repair company. C) he has a Type A personality. D) his appraisal of the stressor told him he could cope with it.
6)
7) Chronic stress may cause structural degeneration and impaired function of the brain, increasing the risk for all of the following EXCEPT A) dementia B) depression C) meningitis D) Alzheimer's disease
7)
1
8) Which of the following forms of stress management originated as a form of self-defense? A) tai chi B) Taekwondo C) yoga D) qigong
8)
9) Cortisol is secreted by the A) thymus.
9) B) pituitary gland.
C) thyroid gland.
D) adrenal glands.
10) Tyler wants to win the trumpet soloist competition this year. His practice time always ends up being the same time his friends are going out to party. Tyler always goes along for the party because he figures he can squeeze in a few minutes of practice somewhere in his schedule. It is competition week and Tyler has come down with a terrible stomach bug. Tyler's illness may be related to A) overload. B) behavior that is inconsistent with his goals. C) a consistent pattern of not eating healthy food. D) outward conflict.
10)
11) Stress caused by not being able to accomplish all tasks and obligations in the time available is known as A) overload. B) pressure. C) acute stress. D) chronic stress.
11)
12) The immune system's ability to respond to assaults is known as A) immunity. B) adaptation. C) defense. D) immunocompetence.
12)
13) Because of a heavy course load and a demanding job, Olivia has been under severe stress this academic year. Which of the following hormones might play a role in increasing Olivia's level of abdominal fat? A) epinephrine B) estrogen C) testosterone D) cortisol
13)
14) Emily is experiencing an allostatic load due to a dysfunctional relationship, credit card debt, and a challenging course load. Which of the following defines the term allostatic load? A) the long-term wear and tear on the body caused by the stress response B) the increased magnitude of a stressor required to cause a response C) the magnitude of the body's response to a stressor D) the ability of the immune system to respond to assaults
14)
15) Which of the following has been recommended as a method for managing stress? A) using mind-altering drugs to induce a sense of peace B) engaging in demanding or competitive physical activity C) keeping a journal to track your stressors, worries, and options D) practicing dichotomous thinking
15)
16) Hearing a piercing scream late at night while walking on a campus path would likely trigger which phase of the general adaptation syndrome? A) resistance B) recovery C) exhaustion D) alarm
16)
17) Which of the following categories describes the small stressors, frustrations, and petty annoyances that collectively can add up to a higher level of stress? A) hassles B) adjustments C) choices D) pressures
17)
2
18) The physiological state in which all body systems are in balance and functioning normally is A) eustress. B) homeostasis. C) adaptation. D) recovery.
18)
19) After his girlfriend breaks up with him, Ian tells himself that all women are cruel and self-centered and that, since he'll never find a loving relationship, he should just stop looking. Ian is indulging in a form of self-talk known as A) unilateral coping. B) dichotomous thinking. C) cognitive restructuring. D) perfectionism.
19)
20) Of the following choices, the source of stress experienced by the greatest percentage of American adults is A) relationships. B) personal health concerns. C) money. D) family responsibilities.
20)
21) Tessa is dreading her chemistry final. When she finds herself thinking that she's going to fail the exam, she tells herself, "No, I might not ace it, but I've been studying and I'm definitely going to pass." Tessa is engaging in a process referred to as A) cognitive restructuring. B) affirmations. C) meditation. D) stress inoculation.
21)
22) Among the following, the group most likely to struggle with stress are A) older adult females. B) older adult males. C) young adult females. D) young adult males.
22)
23) Rudy lives behind a train depot. The train runs from 5AM until midnight, and causes significant noise and pollution. Rudy gets quite a few upper respiratory infections, which are likely due to A) low-quality housing. B) technostress. C) background distressors. D) a major immune disorder.
23)
24) The gland that secretes ACTH is the A) thyroid. B) adrenal.
24) C) pituitary.
D) thymus.
25) Eating healthy foods helps in managing stress, A) because food is comforting and eating can distract one from problems. B) especially if they contain sympathomimetics. C) although the precise reasons are not fully understood. D) because they are easier on the digestive system than junk foods.
25)
26) Downshifting refers to the process of A) deliberately completing tasks at a slower pace. B) taking steps to simplify one's life. C) allowing passivity to take over as a result of stress. D) using meditation to combat the stress response.
26)
27) Makoto has a disability affecting his movement. Throughout high school, he has been rejected, teased, and bullied. Makoto has been experiencing A) transactional stress. B) homeostasis. C) adaptive stress. D) minority stress.
27)
3
28) Jo has been seeing a stress-management counselor since she moved to a new city to attend college. Which of the following is the most likely recommendation of the counselor? A) Drop one of more classes or extracurricular activities to open up more time to relax. B) Keep reminding yourself that you should be able to handle this. C) Work to maintain healthy relationships with family members and old friends, while also cultivating new sources of social support. D) Treat yourself to a favorite meal or dessert when you're feeling particularly stressed.
28)
29) Ken is the new pastor at a local church. He is both nervous and excited about his new post and is looking forward to meeting all the members of his new congregation. This process will take some time and effort, but he is convinced that it will help him learn how to serve them better. Ken's situation is an example of A) anticipation. B) eustress. C) reactivity. D) distress.
29)
30) Suicidal ideation is significantly associated with A) broken heart syndrome. C) hostility.
30) B) a Type D personality. D) high stress and low self-esteem.
31) Stress management consists of A) eliminating all sources of stress. B) firmly controlling reactions to stress. C) finding balance and developing coping strategies. D) learning to juggle as many tasks as possible.
31)
32) Catrina just missed hitting a deer as she was driving along a dark, curving road. She felt her racing heart finally slow down after she pulled off the road and took a few deep breaths. This is an example of a(n) A) adaptive response. B) fight-or-flight response. C) challenge. D) state of overload.
32)
33) Which of the following is a key time management strategy that can reduce stress? A) Multitask. B) Stack your mail in one place and go through it once a week. C) Only clean up clutter when you have enough time to get to all of it. D) Set clear implementation intentions toward a specific end.
33)
34) You have learned how to intentionally slow your heart rate to calm yourself during an exam. Which method are you using to manage stress? A) biofeedback B) meditation C) downshifting D) stress inoculation
34)
35) The anxiety Phoebe experienced before her French test actually sharpened her ability to focus. This response is explained by the A) general adaptation syndrome. B) theory of resistance. C) transactional model of stress and coping. D) Yerkes-Dodson law of arousal.
35)
4
36) Jake is an excellent student and seems pretty resilient. He is passionate about becoming a pediatrician someday, and perseveres despite a high stress level due to his heavy course load and tight finances. Which of the following traits does Jake demonstrate? A) the typical Type B personality B) the typical Type A personality C) shifting D) grit
36)
37) When acute stress bombards your brain with stress chemicals, A) you are likely to experience euphoria. B) your memory may be impaired. C) you are more likely to be able to concentrate in class. D) your ability to make sound decisions is enhanced.
37)
38) You really want to buy an expensive software program to help you with coursework, but your credit cards are maxed out and the rent is due next week. Which type of stressor is this? A) money B) academic C) hassle D) work
38)
39) Research has shown that laughter results in all of the following EXCEPT A) decreased stress levels. B) increased risk of heart disease. C) pain reduction. D) increased levels of oxygen in the blood.
39)
40) An ongoing state of physiological arousal in response to stressors is known as A) traumatic stress. B) acute stress. C) acute episodic stress. D) chronic stress.
40)
41) A pop quiz in class is an example of A) eustress. B) a frustration.
41) C) a stressor.
D) chronic stress.
42) David woke up in the middle of the night because he smelled smoke. This most likely caused him to experience A) the resistance response. B) the flight-or-fight response. C) insomnia. D) the adaptation syndrome.
42)
43) As part of the stress response, the hormone that makes stored nutrients available for energy is A) thyroxine. B) cortisol. C) epinephrine. D) testosterone.
43)
44) Jeff knows the midterm chemistry exam is going to be tough. He is trying to prepare for it by taking a practice test every night before he goes out with his buddies. Jeff is A) restructuring his thinking patterns. B) increasing his level of stress before the test. C) using alcohol as a coping mechanism to relax. D) using the technique of stress inoculation.
44)
45) After weeks of arguments, Riley and Schaeffer break up. They both spend most of the following weekend sleeping, eating, and watching TV. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome are they now in? A) denial B) resistance C) exhaustion D) alarm
45)
5
46) Relationships can cause stress in all the following ways EXCEPT A) jobs with high expectations and low control. B) aspiring to be the best one can be. C) competition and conflicts with work colleagues. D) excitement and eustress in the early stages of a new relationship.
46)
47) To manage stress, the first step is to A) determine which stressors can be reduced or eliminated. B) control your emotional responses. C) choose to ignore the stressors in your life. D) identify and assess the stressors in your life.
47)
48) The sum of exposure to stressors, including complex traumas, is known as A) allostatic load. B) cumulative adversity. C) chronic stress. D) overload.
48)
49) Which of the following BEST describes a Type C personality? A) hostile B) relaxed C) stoic
49) D) distressed
50) The transactional model of stress and coping proposes that our stress response is determined by A) the precise stressor and our past history of encounters with that stressor. B) our perception of whether or not the stressor poses a threat. C) our perception of the stressor, our coping ability, and our environment. D) the nature of the stressor.
50)
51) Which of the following forms of stress management also improves strength and flexibility? A) yoga B) visualization C) deep breathing D) biofeedback
51)
52) Chronic stress has a strong connection to all of the following medical conditions EXCEPT A) hearing loss. B) heart disease. C) diabetes. D) migraines.
52)
53) Jade's heart races and she cannot think of anything to say when the cute guy in class sits next to her. This is an example of A) the overreactive response. B) homeostasis. C) hyperventilation. D) the stress response.
53)
54) After Julia discovers a suggestive e-mail her boyfriend sent to another woman, she considers how to confront him about it. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome applies to this situation? A) alarm B) denial C) exhaustion D) resistance
54)
55) Mariah is behind on her coursework because of training for the upcoming tryouts for the swim team. On top of that, she broke up with her boyfriend last week. Monica, her twin sister, does not participate on a sports team and has plenty of time to get her homework done before her boyfriend visits most evenings. Compared to Monica, Mariah is likely to experience A) less joint pain. B) better sleep. C) fewer incidences of cold-related symptoms. D) more upper respiratory illness.
55)
6
56) The strategy of reframing appraisals of stressors more positively and working toward future goals is known as A) psychological resilience. B) shift and persist. C) downshifting. D) stress inoculation.
56)
57) The feeling that you are overextended and that it's not possible for you to meet all the demands being placed up on you is known as A) overload. B) pressure. C) frustration. D) homeostasis.
57)
58) Your roommate just ate the last of your trail mix without asking. Which type of stressor is this? A) change B) conflict C) pressure D) hassle
58)
59) All of the following are techniques used in the Chinese art of feng shui EXCEPT A) using sheer curtains that let in as much light as possible. B) picking up clutter daily. C) coordinating the colors of your walls and your bed linens. D) positioning your bed so that it is not aligned with the door.
59)
60) Chronic secretion of cortisol increases the risk for diabetes by A) affecting blood glucose levels. B) suppressing appetite. C) increasing immunocompetence. D) triggering vomiting and diarrhea.
60)
61) The stress hormone cortisol plays a major role during the stress response in A) relieving pain. B) mobilizing nutrients to meet energy needs. C) increasing heart and respiratory rates. D) decreasing appetite and thirst.
61)
62) Brian is considered a Type A personality by his friends because of his history of "road rage" and extreme competitiveness. All the following put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease EXCEPT A) bouts of anger ranging from irritation to rage. B) his upbeat, glass-half-full approach to life. C) his negative beliefs and hostile attitudes toward others. D) his actions that often harm others verbally or physically.
62)
63) Peter recently ended a relationship when he found out his partner was cheating on him. This probably caused A) eustress. B) episodic stress. C) traumatic stress. D) distress.
63)
64) The body's attempt to restore homeostasis in the aftermath of a stress response is a(n) _ response. A) biological B) fight-or-flight C) sympathetic D) adaptive
64)
65) Which of the following is NOT an indicator that a person's sympathetic nervous system has been activated? A) increased blood pressure B) increased heart rate C) increased salivation D) increased respiration
65)
7
66) As Joe prepares to spar with a Taekwondo opponent, his heart rate and respiration rate increase. These are indicators that which branch of the nervous system has been activated? A) parasympathetic B) episodic C) central D) sympathetic
66)
67) The primary hormone responsible for physiological stress responses such as increased heart and breathing rates is A) epinephrine. B) insulin. C) thyroxin. D) cortisol.
67)
68) Nathan's piano teacher is insisting that he practice more, while at the same time he is overloaded with assignments in his academic classes, worried about how he's going to make the final payments on this semester's tuition bill, and having trouble sleeping. Nathan is at high risk for A) episodic acute stress B) burnout C) posttraumatic stress disorder D) dementia
68)
69) All of the following are likely to influence your response to stressors EXCEPT A) your general health status. B) your age. C) your past experiences. D) your friend's level of stress.
69)
70) Which of the following statements regarding stress and hair loss is NOT true? A) Stress may cause hair to fall out in clumps. B) Stress-induced hair loss occurs when colonies of hair are pushed into an active phase. C) Stress-related hair loss can occur in both men and women. D) The most common type of stress-induced hair loss is telogen effluvium.
70)
71) Stress has been associated with increased blood pressure and inflammatory responses. These are most closely associated with an increased risk for A) cardiovascular disease. B) insomnia. C) blood cancers such as leukemia. D) mood disorders.
71)
72) Exercise reduces stress primarily by A) expanding aerobic capacity. B) increasing endorphins and reducing levels of stress hormones. C) providing a therapeutic way to reduce or eliminate pain. D) suppressing endocrine function.
72)
73) Which of the following is most likely to cause eustress instead of distress? A) failing a test B) the death of a grandparent C) losing your job D) an impending promotion
73)
74) Which of the following situations might contribute to impaired immune function? A) Your grandmother moves in with your family after being hospitalized due to a stroke. B) You keep changing the diet, vitamin, and exercise regimen you follow to see faster results. C) You have a fairly calm demeanor and life rarely "stresses you out." D) You purchase a new car when you get your first job offer.
74)
8
75) Which of the following characteristics of a Type A personality have been determined to most increase the risk for heart disease? A) being time-driven and perfectionistic B) being highly competitive C) having a tendency toward anger, distrust, and cynicism D) having a hard-driving approach to tasks and life in general
75)
76) Which of the following statements about the graduating class of 2016 is true? A) Experts estimate that about 5 percent of these graduates will default on their student loans. B) Nearly two-thirds reported that they were moving back in with their parents to save money. C) The graduates' average debt was about $17,000. D) More than 70 percent of these students graduated with significant debt.
76)
77) One reason the validity of the Type A personality theory has been debated is that A) most people have either Type A or Type B personalities. B) far more people have been found to have Type C or D personality rather than Type A or B. C) the early research had serious methodological flaws. D) not all Type A people experience negative health consequences.
77)
78) Julia is extremely upset to discover a suggestive e-mail her boyfriend has sent to another woman. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome applies to this situation? A) alarm B) denial C) exhaustion D) resistance
78)
79) Meditation has been proven effective in managing stress. Which of the following is NOT true about meditation? A) Meditation allows the body to relax while the mind is focused. B) There is only one meditation style that is considered effective. C) Meditation involves some method of calming and focusing the mind. D) It usually takes some effort and patience to learn to meditate.
79)
80) Luci has worked as a customer service representative for two years. She believes that this job has improved her ability to cope with a variety of stressful situations and is confident in her ability to do so. Luci is exhibiting which of the following personality traits? A) low self-esteem B) Type A C) self-efficacy D) Type B
80)
81) Which of the following is TRUE about stress? A) Stress is only produced by externally imposed factors and is always negative. B) Stress does not affect a person's general health. C) Stress is a mental and physical response to real or perceived changes and challenges. D) It is possible to eliminate all stressors in our lives if we try hard enough.
81)
82) You have been a successful doctor of internal medicine for many years. You recently gave up your large practice in the city to join the staff of a small-town clinic where you will work four days a week. Which method are you using to manage stress? A) downshifting B) biofeedback C) stress inoculation D) meditation
82)
83) A sense of being overwhelmed by perceived obligations to stay connected online is A) cyberstress. B) media stress. C) technostress. D) wikistress.
83)
9
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 84) According to a recent survey, health concerns are the number-one stressor reported by Americans.
84)
85) Some research suggests that chronic stress can suppress the amygdala, causing the individual to become passive and apathetic.
85)
86) Deep breathing is a technique used in yoga but not in other mind-body practices.
86)
87) Women are more likely than men to "tend and befriend" in response to stress.
87)
88) Self-efficacy is the same as self-esteem.
88)
89) Stress can have positive health effects.
89)
90) A personality trait characterized by control, commitment, and the willingness to embrace new challenges is known as psychological hardiness.
90)
91) Acute stress is significant, long-term stress that can produce negative effects on multiple body systems.
91)
92) Psychoneuroimmunology is the scientific study of the interrelationships of mind and body on the immune system.
92)
93) Laughter may increase endorphin levels.
93)
94) People with high levels of stress are less likely to develop upper respiratory infections.
94)
95) No valid research exists on the effects of massage therapy on mental health.
95)
96) Even a full year after a tornado struck their town, community residents were at increased risk for traumatic stress.
96)
97) The three phases of the general adaptation syndrome are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
97)
98) Stress is thought to be related to an increased risk for type 2 diabetes.
98)
99) Cardiovascular disease has been identified as a health consequence of chronic stress.
99)
100) Multitasking is an effective time-management strategy.
100)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 101) Explain why, according to the Yerkes-Dodson law of arousal, our performance during stressful events can be depicted as a bell-shaped curve. In your answer, use the example of taking a difficult exam. 102) When does having a Type A personality increase a person's risk for cardiovascular disease?
10
103) Explain what research has indicated about the psychological effects of stress. 104) Explain how learning to manage excess or prolonged stress can help prevent overweight and obesity. 105) Identify the three main approaches to dealing with anger, and at least three specific strategies that you feel would be effective to keep your anger at bay. 106) Distinguish between tangible and intangible stressors, and give an example of each. 107) Identify the negative consequences associated with technostress and iDisorders. Devise and list at least three strategies to reduce the problems.
11
Answer Key Testname: CH 3
1) A 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) C 12
Answer Key Testname: CH 3
51) A 52) A 53) D 54) D 55) D 56) B 57) A 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) B 63) D 64) D 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) B 71) A 72) B 73) D 74) A 75) C 76) D 77) D 78) A 79) B 80) C 81) C 82) A 83) C 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 13
Answer Key Testname: CH 3
101) The Yerkes-Dodson law of arousal states that, as our stress increases to a certain peak level, our performance increases as well. Thus, the moderate stress we feel when taking an exam for which we are well prepared boosts our performance on that exam. However, stress beyond that peak level will cause no further improvement in performance and can cause performance to drop precipitously. Thus, being completely stressed out about an exam can interfere with our ability to think clearly, recall information, and so forth, thereby reducing our performance. 102) When people with Type A personalities have a "toxic core" with a cynical attitude and disproportionate anger, they are considered hostile. This component of Type A increases their risk for CVD. 103) Stress is potentially one of the greatest contributors to mental illness and emotional dysfunction in industrialized nations. Studies have linked chronic stress to both structural and functional impairments in the brain, and correspondingly higher than average levels of depression, dementia, and violence. 104) Stress causes the release of cortisol. Cortisol can cause increased hunger, which leads to consumption of excess calories. Cortisol also activates fat-storing enzymes and may increase craving for salty and sweet foods. In addition, it appears to play a role in laying down extra belly fat. A person who learns to effectively manage stress will have lower levels of circulating cortisol, and is therefore less likely to engage in stress-related consumption of excess calories or experience the storage of excess fat. 105) The three main approaches to dealing with anger are to express it, suppress it, and calm it. Strategies to keep anger at bay will vary; however, students should include at least three of the following: Identifying your personal anger style; keeping track of your anger responses throughout one week; and exploring ways to calm yourself, such as counting to ten, taking deep breaths, etc. When conflict arises, state your needs using "I" statements. Consider taking an anger management class. Plan ahead to minimize situations such as traffic jams that can provoke anger. Talk about your anger with your friends. Try to maintain realistic expectations of yourself and others. Instead of complaining about someone, talk with that person, asking for what you need. Let go of past incidents that caused you anger. Focus on the present moment. 106) Answers should include the following information; however, examples will vary. Tangible stressors are specific and actual things or events that induce stress; for example, an illness, a failing grade, a phone call from a collection agency, an argument with a loved one, or being passed over for a promotion at work. Intangible stressors are not material or specific and are thus more difficult to identify; for example, living in an environment that favors heterosexuals could be an intangible stressor for an LGBT individual, and the anticipation of trying to find a job after graduation could be an intangible stressor for a college senior. 107) Technostress is caused by a dependence on technology and a constant need to be connected via texting or online activity. The negative consequences include reduced energy, sleep disorders, damaged relationships, and poor grades. Any number of stress-reduction techniques can help. Suggested answers include at least three of the following: 1. Schedule your technology usage. Set time limits, and stick to them. Remember that you don't always have to answer phone or respond to a text or e-mail immediately. (Consider screening contacts and only responding at certain times, si there is no need to respond immediately in most situations.) 2. Limit the number of people you interact with online. Unfriend people who post or message you with annoying or off messages. 3. Spend more time in face-to-face interactions with people you care about than in scrolling through their Facebook posts. (You might log time spent in virtual interactions for three days and face-to-face interactions for three days, then compare the two.) 4. Be mindful of when you're the one who actually initiates electronic communication, and recognize that you can choos postpone the conversation until you see the person face-to-face. 5. Take breaks when working with technology for long periods of time. 6. Avoid sharing intimate details online. 7. Leave devices at home or turn them off when out with family or friends, in class, at work, in bed, or on vacation.
14
Chapter 4 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Sean becomes very sleepy by late afternoon most days and thinks he should make time to fit in a nap. Before including a daily nap in his schedule, he should consider which of the following to ensure that he actually benefits from it? A) his accumulated sleep debt B) his body weight and tendency to snore C) his need for caffeine in the afternoon D) the time of day and length of the nap
1)
2) The disruption of which factor results in jet lag? A) natural light C) blood glucose level
2) B) circadian rhythm D) blood pressure
3) Which of the following statements about the role of gender in sleep is true? A) As compared to women, men are less likely to seek help for sleep disorders. B) Sleep problems in women are thought to be primarily due to worries about children. C) Testosterone levels rise at night in men, but not in women. D) As compared to women, men are twice as likely to suffer from sleep problems.
3)
4) Obstructive sleep apnea increases a person's risk for all of the following EXCEPT A) stroke. B) irregular heartbeats. C) asthma. D) high blood pressure.
4)
5) Adequate sleep may enhance intellectual health in all the following ways EXCEPT by A) synthesizing learning. B) consolidating memories. C) expending energy. D) clearing the brain of daily minutia.
5)
6) During a sleep study, a person spends the night in a sleep lab, and his or her body functions are monitored by A) full-time sleep specialists. B) sensors and electrodes. C) nurses on the night shift. D) imaging equipment.
6)
7) The American Academy of Sleep Medicine identifies more than 80 distinct types of A) dyssomnia. B) insomnia. C) hypersomnia. D) sleep apnea.
7)
8) Which of the following factors influences a person's sleep needs? A) alcohol intake B) gender C) caffeine intake
8) D) time zone
9) Which of the following statements about caffeine is true? A) Although caffeine is widely thought to increase alertness, it does not actually have this effect. B) Caffeine consumption among college students has declined steadily in the past decade. C) The sleep-impairing effects of caffeine can last for 7.7 hours or more. D) A cup of drip coffee and a double espresso have about the same amount of caffeine.
9)
10) The hormone released by the pineal gland that causes drowsiness is A) growth hormone. B) melanin. C) melatonin. D) insulin.
10)
1
11) After working on a class project all week and only sleeping about four hours per night, Courtney is A) getting an adequate amount of sleep for her body needs. B) improving her productivity. C) compromising her immunity. D) increasing her ability to handle sleep deprivation.
11)
12) Non-REM sleep is called slow-wave sleep because A) it is the stage during which dreams occur. B) this is the deepest stage of sleep. C) there is slow eye movement during this stage. D) the brain generates theta and delta waves.
12)
13) Maria has difficulty falling asleep quickly, and many morning she wakes feeling unrefreshed. Maria most likely has A) hypersomnolence. B) restless legs syndrome. C) insomnia. D) sleep apnea.
13)
14) Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) commonly results in A) frequent night waking. C) reduced snoring.
14) B) deep breathing. D) restful sleep.
15) REM sleep is named for which physiological activity that occurs while dreaming? A) rapidly energized metabolism B) rapid eye movements C) restless energized movements D) raised and elevated melatonin
15)
16) Students who begin to doze off during a lecture are usually in which stage of sleep? A) 4 B) 3 C) 1 D) 2
16)
17) Which of the following groups of Americans is most likely to unintentionally fall asleep during the day? A) those between the ages of 25 and 35 B) those between the ages of 45 and 55 C) those between the ages of 35 and 45 D) those between the ages of 18 and 25
17)
18) How does sleep deprivation affect drivers? A) impairs motor skills C) increases hunger
18) B) increases thirst D) improves response time
19) All of the following medications can cause drowsiness EXCEPT A) stimulants. B) muscle relaxants. C) antihistamines. D) antidepressants.
19)
20) Gene occasionally has difficulty falling asleep but has never been diagnosed with a sleep disorder. Which strategy can he use to help him fall asleep faster? A) eating his largest meal within two hours of bedtime so he won't be hungry B) practicing deep breathing or meditation before bedtime C) working on the computer later in the evening to keep his mind occupied D) drinking a lot of fluids in the evening to stay hydrated
20)
21) The sleep disorder in which breathing is interrupted many times during sleep is A) insomnia. B) sleep inertia. C) narcolepsy. D) sleep apnea.
21)
2
22) Of the following countries, in which do citizens, on average, get the most sleep? A) UK B) USA C) Japan D) Mexico
22)
23) Due to her job, Jessica sleeps 5 to 6 hours per night on weekends. Which of the following is the BEST strategy for her to resolve her sleep debt? A) She can't make up for her lost sleep. B) She can readjust her circadian rhythm by sleeping 5 to 6 hours every night. C) She can sleep 8 to 9 hours per night Monday through Friday. D) She can sleep 12 hours on Monday nights.
23)
24) The restful, restorative period of sleep is A) rapid-wave sleep. C) REM sleep.
24) B) alternating-wave sleep. D) non-REM sleep.
25) During which stage of sleep does a person disengage from the environment? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3
25) D) 4
26) The most commonly prescribed therapy for obstructive sleep apnea is A) continuous positive airway pressure. B) an implantable upper airway stimulator. C) surgical removal of tissue in the upper airway. D) a prescription sedative.
26)
27) Zack was diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). His doctor may include diet and exercise as part of his treatment regimen because A) greater physical endurance will help in fighting his condition. B) he will have more energy during the day to combat his usual sleepiness. C) losing weight will decrease his risk of developing central sleep apnea. D) losing weight may reduce his OSA symptoms.
27)
28) The condition that causes people to fall asleep involuntarily during the day is A) insomnia. B) sleep inertia. C) sleep apnea.
28) D) narcolepsy.
29) Justin often engages in binge drinking on the weekends. This behavior puts him at risk for a dangerous sleep disorder in which the brain and the respiratory muscles do not communicate properly. It's known as A) delta sleep. B) narcolepsy. C) central sleep apnea. D) obstructive sleep apnea.
29)
30) Sleepwalking sometimes occurs during A) NREM stage 1. B) NREM stage 2.
30) C) NREM stage 4.
D) NREM stage 3.
31) According to research, immune function is increased in adolescents who A) get 9 hours of sleep a night. B) get 7 hours of sleep a night. C) get more than 9 hours of sleep a night. D) get 8 hours of sleep a night.
3
31)
32) Anabelle has been having trouble getting off to sleep. If she tries a sleeping pill, she is likely to A) have better results with a melatonin supplement than a prescription sleep aid. B) boost her duration of sleep by at least a full hour. C) experience daytime drowsiness. D) be able to fall asleep immediately.
32)
33) During non-REM sleep A) body temperature and energy use drop. C) vivid dreams occur.
33) B) digestive processes come to a halt. D) heart rate increases.
34) According to a major U.S. consensus statement, most adults should get how many hours of sleep per night for optimal health? A) 6 or more B) 7 or more C) 8 or more D) 9 or more
34)
35) Which of the following is TRUE about the effect of exercise on your quality of sleep? A) Exercising strenuously in the morning or afternoon boosts sleep quality. B) Aerobic exercise improves sleep more than aerobic exercise combined with stretching. C) Exercising strenuously heats up your body and thereby helps you to fall asleep. D) Exercising a couple of hours before sleep improves sleep more than exercising in the morning.
35)
36) What percentage of the world's population lacks adequate sleep? A) about 45 percent B) about 55 percent C) about 35 percent D) about 25 percent
36)
37) Howard is 88 years old and in excellent health. All his life, he has thrived on just 5 hours of sleep a night. The most likely explanation for Howard's good health despite his lifelong short sleep habit is that he A) has a genetic variant affecting his circadian rhythm. B) is inaccurate in recalling how much sleep he gets. C) has a unipolar mood disorder that decreases his sleep needs. D) drinks four or more caffeinated beverages per day.
37)
38) The difference between hours of sleep needed and actual hours slept is A) sleep pattern. B) sleep debt. C) sleep ratio.
38) D) sleep inertia.
39) Insomnia is often characterized by A) waking up frequently during the night. B) temporary lapses in breathing while asleep. C) nightmares. D) chronic joint pain upon lying down.
39)
40) How much sleep do newborns need daily? A) 16 to 18 hours. B) 10 to 12 hours.
40) C) 13 to 15 hours.
D) 19 to 21 hours.
41) Carol believes that she sleeps reasonably well at night, yet she feels chronically sluggish and frequently nods off during classes. Carol is most likely experiencing A) insomnia. B) secondary somnolence. C) excessive daytime sleepiness. D) clinical depression.
4
41)
42) Bedwetting, snoring, sleepwalking, and sleep-related eating disorder are all examples of A) REM sleep disorders. B) disorders of sleep hygiene. C) major somnipathies. D) parasomnias.
42)
43) Chronic short sleep A) decreases tobacco use. C) decreases blood pressure.
43) B) increases fertility. D) increases risk for stroke.
44) Two parts of your brain that are critical to regulating circadian rhythm are the hypothalamus and the A) amygdala. B) pineal body. C) cerebellum. D) brain stem.
44)
45) The most common sleep disorder is A) sleep apnea. B) insomnia.
45) C) narcolepsy.
D) sleepwalking.
46) During REM sleep A) muscles contract and relax. B) body temperature drops. C) the body moves around a lot. D) the brain processes and consolidates information.
46)
47) The sleep disorder in which a person experiences unpleasant sensations in the legs and an uncontrollable urge to move to relieve the sensations is A) narcolepsy. B) sleepwalking. C) restless legs syndrome. D) central sleep apnea.
47)
48) In preparation for his exam, Juan plans to stay up all night studying. According to research, this strategy will likely result in A) a higher grade on his exam. B) increased short-term memory only. C) improved memory in general. D) reduced cognitive ability.
48)
49) What role does exposure to sunlight during the day play in improving sleep? A) It discourages napping during the day. B) It helps a person absorb vitamins. C) It helps to regulate the circadian rhythm. D) It prevents depression.
49)
50) All of the following negatively affect the quality of sleep EXCEPT A) getting lots of exercise during the day. B) drinking alcohol at night. C) needing to get out of bed to go to the bathroom. D) drinking caffeine at night.
50)
51) Sleep disorders can be diagnosed through a(n) A) clinical sleep study. C) evaluation of all daily activities.
51) B) survey of sleep habits. D) physical exam and blood tests.
5
52) Which of the following statements about the amino acid tryptophan is true? A) Foods high in tryptophan should not be eaten on an empty stomach. B) Foods high in tryptophan are associated with poor sleep. C) Peanut butter, bananas, milk, yogurt, and eggs are among the foods high in tryptophan. D) A meal containing foods high in tyramine and low in tryptophan should be eaten within an hour of bedtime to encourage sleep.
52)
53) Which of the following is a major contributor to college students' lack of sleep? A) having to get up early for morning classes B) eating spicy food C) electronic devices D) failing grades
53)
54) Vijay often tosses and turns, unable to sleep for an hour or more after he goes to bed. Which of the following will help change this pattern and allow him to fall asleep faster? A) staying in bed and using his laptop to check out his friends' Facebook updates B) getting up after 20 minutes and doing something relaxing until he feels sleepy C) staying in bed and checking the clock every 15 minutes D) getting out of bed, exercising vigorously, and taking a warm shower
54)
55) During stage 4, a sleeping person's pituitary gland releases which of the following hormones? A) melanin B) insulin C) melatonin D) growth hormone
55)
56) One factor contributing to narcolepsy appears to be A) bacterial. B) viral.
56) C) environmental.
D) genetic.
57) Using electronic devices before bed may disrupt sleep patterns for all of the following reasons EXCEPT the A) increased alertness they can cause. B) blue light they give off. C) beeping sounds they sometimes produce. D) sleep-inducing hormone they suppress.
57)
58) Sleep-deprived individuals may be at greater risk of overweight and obesity because A) sleeping less is associated with smoking more. B) sleeping less is associated with earning more. C) sleeping less is associated with exercising more. D) sleeping less is associated with eating more.
58)
59) When Marlon gets adequate sleep the night before his intramural basketball games, he has more energy and can run faster and perform better. This can be attributed to A) increased body temperature and caloric expenditure during sleep. B) cognitive ability being restored during sleep. C) conservation of body energy during sleep. D) increased brain activity during sleep.
59)
60) Light traveling through the retina of the eye is a key factor in the regulation of A) dreams. B) melatonin. C) stage 1 sleep.
60)
6
D) metabolism.
61) The results from an American College Health Association study indicate that most college students A) sleep an average of only three hours per night. B) feel tired or sleepy three or more days a week. C) get enough sleep to feel well-rested at least five days a week. D) sleep more hours per night than students of their parents' generation.
61)
62) Which of the following actions helps maintain a sleep-promoting environment? A) Warmth: Set the thermostat in your bedroom to 68-70 degrees Fahrenheit. B) Comfort: Keep your cell phone, TV, laptop, and/or other devices by your bed so that you know you can reach them easily should you need them. C) Cleanliness: Wash your sheets and other bedding regularly, and get rid of clutter. D) Light: Keep the bedroom brightly lit until you are ready to go to sleep.
62)
63) Some researchers believe that chronic sleep deficiencies can A) increase testicular size. B) increase sperm motility. C) increase the risk for type 2 diabetes. D) regulate blood glucose levels.
63)
64) André has a job in international affairs that requires him to travel frequently across multiple time zones. André is at increased risk for A) night terrors. B) sleepwalking. C) narcolepsy. D) circadian rhythm disorder.
64)
65) When you feel groggy and disoriented after a long nap, you are experiencing A) narcolepsy. B) sleep apnea. C) insomnia.
65) D) sleep inertia.
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 66) Actions you take to wash your sheets, clear clutter from your bedroom, and otherwise clean your sleeping area are collectively known as sleep hygiene.
66)
67) Short-duration sleep lowers a person's risk for cardiovascular disease.
67)
68) The longer you sleep, the more time you spend in REM sleep.
68)
69) Having to get up frequently during the night to urinate is known as nocturia.
69)
70) Cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia can help people having trouble falling asleep.
70)
71) Lack of sleep can have a detrimental effect on academic performance.
71)
72) Somnolence is a synonym for sleep deprivation.
72)
73) Getting enough sleep may reduce a person's susceptibility to colds.
73)
74) The shortest stage of sleep is stage 2.
74)
75) Seasonal affective disorder is much more common in the summer than in the winter.
75)
76) In the United States, about 20 percent of the population suffers from excessive daytime sleepiness.
76)
7
77) Sleep deficiencies have been linked to seven of the fifteen leading causes of death in the United States.
77)
78) The only reliable treatment for insomnia is prescription sleeping pills.
78)
79) Most adults need only 5 to 6 hours of sleep per night, provided it is high-quality sleep.
79)
80) Sleep helps the body to conserve energy.
80)
81) During NREM sleep, body temperature and energy use drop.
81)
82) REM sleep restores the body.
82)
83) Jane stayed up all night taking care of her sick child. She will need to sleep more than average the next few nights to make up for the hours of lost sleep.
83)
84) The majority of nighttime sleep is spent in REM sleep.
84)
85) Jet lag occurs because travelers take frequent naps while flying.
85)
86) Apnea is a pause in breathing that lasts at least 3 seconds.
86)
87) Restless leg syndrome is an extremely rare disorder, affecting less than 0.5 percent of the U.S. population.
87)
88) A sleep-deprived driver is as impaired as an intoxicated driver.
88)
89) Naps are most effective for improving alertness if they are longer than 30 minutes.
89)
90) Some scientists believe that REM sleep enhances memorization and learning.
90)
91) Nicotine and alcohol improve sleep by inducing relaxation.
91)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 92) Identify at least three steps you can take to evoke the relaxation response as you prepare yourself for sleep. 93) Tracy pulls "all-nighters" during finals week. Explain why this could negatively impact her grades, including information on the role of REM sleep. 94) Explain the increased risk of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) seen in people who are significantly overweight. 95) Explain the four stages of NREM sleep. 96) Explain the risk between shift work and an increased risk for unintentional injury. 97) Ty works two jobs and attends college part-time. He averages 5 hours of sleep per night most nights of the week. What are the health risks of his sleep deprivation?
8
Answer Key Testname: CH 4
1) D 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) D 29) C 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) D 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) A 9
Answer Key Testname: CH 4
51) A 52) C 53) C 54) B 55) D 56) D 57) C 58) D 59) C 60) B 61) B 62) C 63) C 64) D 65) D 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) Focus on something calming, such as words like quiet or relax, or an imaginary scene that is peaceful. Slowly release tension from the muscles in your body one area at a time. Hold a nonjudgmental world view. R elax and try to experience the present moment. Instead of trying to think of ways to fix others or situations, let them be. Trust yourself. 93) Restricting sleep can cause neurological problems. She may have lapses of attention, slowed or poor memory, reduced cognitive ability, difficulty concentrating, and difficulty engaging in creative thinking. Moreover, the longer you sleep, the more REM sleep you get, and REM sleep stabilizes consolidated memory; thus, with less REM sleep, short-term memory may suffer. 94) OSA occurs when a person's throat muscles and tongue relax during sleep and block the airway. People who are overweight are more likely to have sagging tissue within the throat, increasing their risk for OSA. 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 4
95) Stage 1 is the lightest stage of sleep. It lasts only a few minutes. Stage 2 lasts 5-15 minutes and is deeper than stage 1. Stages 3 and 4 are delta-wave sleep. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration slow. These are the deepest stages. Growth hormone is released during stage 4, and sometimes people sleepwalk, cook, clean, or even drive in this stage, particularly if they are taking sleep medications. 96) Work shifts that change frequently or include night shifts can disrupt circadian rhythms and lead to insomnia. This in turn increases the risk for on-the-job errors that could result in unintentional injury, as well as drowsy driving either to or from work. Shift workers have a higher risk of motor vehicle crashes in the 30 minutes after they get off their shift. 97) Sleep deficiency affects the immune system, leaving a person more at risk for infection and other ailments, along with an overall disruption of immune functioning. It increases the risk of high blood pressure and cardiovascular disease. It also slows down the metabolism and raises the risk of overweight and obesity, and possibly the development of type 2 diabetes. Sleep is also important for neurological functioning, motor tasks, including driving, and stress management.
11
Chapter 5 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) An act that causes harm or potential harm to a child is A) neglect. B) abandonment. C) assault.
1) D) child abuse.
2) Which of the following statements about road safety is true? A) Alcohol plays a significant role in bicycle fatalities. B) While driving, the rear bumper of the car ahead of you should be at least 7 seconds' worth of distance away. C) You should avoid driving with your headlights on during daylight hours. D) Bicyclists should ride against the flow of traffic.
2)
3) Which phase of the cycle of violence is called the "honeymoon period" because the batterer may act apologetic and promise to change? A) acute battering B) tension building C) remorse/reconciliation D) retaliation
3)
4) Violet suffered multiple fractures after her car was hit by a truck driven by a drowsy driver on his way home from a night shift. Violet experienced A) unintentional injury. B) violence. C) crime. D) primary aggression.
4)
5) Driving while drowsy is a form of A) careless driving. C) impaired driving.
5) B) distracted driving. D) risky driving.
6) Social and cultural factors that increase the likelihood of violence include all of the following EXCEPT A) political differences. B) social support. C) inadequate social services. D) poverty.
6)
7) The willful, repeated, and malicious following, harassing, or threatening of another person is A) terrorism. B) aggression. C) stalking. D) violence.
7)
8) Which of the following is TRUE about the cycle of intimate partner violence? A) In the remorse/reconciliation phase, the batterer tries to teach the partner a lesson by inflicting severe pain. B) Women who have experienced the cycle more than once tend to develop battered woman syndrome. C) The cycle involves a tension-building phase during which the worst battering occurs. D) During the acute attack, the abuser typically harms him- or herself as well.
8)
9) Falls are the most common cause of A) head injury. C) death from unintentional injury.
9) B) dementia. D) musculoskeletal pain.
1
10) Which of the following requires institutions of higher education to collect and report data about sexual crimes on their campuses? A) Clery Act B) "It's on Us" program C) Campus Violence Elimination Act D) Ramstad Act
10)
11) Allen visits his aunt every month the day after her Social Security check arrives and badgers her until she writes him a check for $100. This is an example of A) neglect. B) elder abuse. C) intimate partner violence. D) a bias-motivated crime.
11)
12) Which of the following would NOT be considered a hate crime? A) burning a church for reasons of religious bias B) assaulting a person because of his sexual orientation C) beating up a teenager because she is Hispanic D) shooting a bank employee during an armed robbery
12)
13) The use of force to control and maintain power over another person in the home environment is A) spousal violence. B) intimate partner violence. C) intentional violence. D) domestic violence.
13)
14) Sexual penetration without the victim's consent constitutes A) rape. B) aggravated rape. C) sexual assault. D) sexual harassment.
14)
15) The leading cause of accidental death in the United States is A) drug overdose. B) fires. C) motor vehicle crashes. D) drowning.
15)
16) Which of the following is TRUE about the term acquaintance rape? A) It is synonymous with the term simple rape. B) It is not used for rapes involving incidental contact at a party. C) It has largely replaced the term date rape. D) It is used only when the victim has known the perpetrator for a length of time.
16)
17) A bias-motivated crime is A) intimate partner abuse. B) a hate crime. C) a crime that was not reported to the police. D) a crime committed by a stranger.
17)
18) A woman often remains a victim of intimate partner violence because A) she is financially independent. B) she believes the situation will never change. C) her cultural or religious beliefs allow divorce. D) she fears retaliation against herself or her children.
18)
2
19) Which of the following was a major contributor to the 626 boating fatalities that occurred in 2015? A) operator overconfidence B) failure to check the weather before setting out C) failure to wear a personal flotation device D) collision with another craft
19)
20) Which of the following is TRUE about marital rape? A) It is not a crime. B) Several states may treat marital rape as a lesser crime. C) It rarely occurs in women who are pregnant. D) It is usually an isolated occurrence that happens once.
20)
21) Violence against people or property that is rooted in political or social objectives and intended to intimidate is A) stalking. B) aggression. C) terrorism. D) violence.
21)
22) The World Health Organization defines violence as A) the intentional use of physical force or power against oneself or another person or group. B) injuries caused accidentally without intent to harm. C) a premeditated crime against another person, usually involving a weapon. D) a repeated implied or verbal threat against another person.
22)
23) Which phase of the cycle of violence includes physical acts intended to inflict pain? A) acute battering B) tension building C) remorse/reconciliation D) retaliation
23)
24) Assault, homicide, and suicide are all examples of A) criminal acts. C) intentional injuries.
24) B) reported injuries. D) unintentional injuries.
25) There have been recent reports of date rape drugs being used at campus parties. What should female students do to protect themselves from being the victim of drug-facilitated crimes? A) Only attend parties given by friends; do not party at a bar or club. B) Always attend and leave parties alone. C) Don't accept open or unsealed drinks and don't leave drinks unattended. D) Don't trust their intuition.
25)
26) Violence directed at others and based on prejudice and discrimination is A) bias. B) ethnoviolence. C) harassment.
26) D) assault.
27) Breakdowns in the criminal justice system contribute to violence when A) sentences in various jurisdictions range from lenient to excessive. B) there are too many prisons. C) prisoners serve their full sentences and complete training programs while incarcerated. D) prisons are overcrowded and mental health services are inadequate.
27)
28) Violence that occurs between two people in a current or former marriage or sexual or dating relationship is A) intimate partner violence. B) domestic violence. C) intentional violence. D) spousal violence.
28)
3
29) Of the 85 fatal fires that occurred from 2000 to 2015 on college campuses, A) nearly half involved the use of incense. B) 63 percent involved candles. C) 58 percent involved missing or disconnected smoke alarms. D) all but three involved alcohol.
29)
30) Research examining the relationship between substance abuse and violence indicates that A) substance abuse can elevate a person's mood and thereby prevent a potential crime. B) chronic drinkers are less likely than others to have histories of violent behavior. C) alcohol consumption is a major factor in domestic violence at all levels. D) substance abuse markedly decreases the risk of both homicide and suicide.
30)
31) California's "yes means yes" law requires that A) people who were intoxicated during an alleged assault have a corroborating witness before bringing charges. B) schools that receive state funding expel any student accused of rape. C) consent to engage in sexual activity include an affirmative, conscious, and voluntary agreement. D) consent to engage in sexual activity include the precise word, "Yes."
31)
32) Cultural beliefs that can be considered societal causes of violence include A) empowering women. B) encouraging men to be respectful of women. C) objectifying women. D) promoting open communication between men and women.
32)
33) Which of the following is TRUE about reactive aggression? A) It is a goal-directed, hostile form of self-assertion. B) It is defined as occasional or rare behavior. C) It is often related to substance abuse. D) It is most often an emotional reaction to frustrating life experiences.
33)
34) Children who have experienced sexual abuse are at increased risk for A) sleepwalking. B) depression, but not anxiety disorders. C) anxiety disorders, but not depression. D) anxiety disorders, depression, and suicide attempts.
34)
35) Which of the following statements about crime in the United States is true? A) The U.S. Public Health Service has sole authority for tracking and reporting crime in the United States. B) More than half of all violent victimizations that occur in the United States are not reported to police. C) Homicide is the leading cause of death in Americans age 15 to 34. D) Overall, crime in the United States has been increasing dramatically over the past thirty years.
35)
4
36) Which of the following statements about child sexual abuse in the United States is true? A) Children are much more likely to be sexually abused by strangers than by family members. B) An estimated one in four girls and one in six boys is sexually abused before age 18. C) Girls who have been sexually abused have ten times the rate of teen pregnancy as girls who have not. D) People with a history of child sexual abuse are no more likely than others to abuse their own children.
36)
37) Which of the following is TRUE about ethnoviolence and hate crimes? A) Ethnoviolence is based on prejudice, but hate crimes are not. B) Hate crimes are based on prejudice, but ethnoviolence is not. C) Ethnoviolence is always more brutal than hate crimes. D) Prejudice and discrimination are always at the base of hate crimes and ethnoviolence.
37)
38) Vivienne is seven years old. Her parents fail to send her to school and do not homeschool her. This is an example of A) family discipline. B) physical abuse. C) domestic violence. D) neglect.
38)
39) Jane is being harassed by a coworker. You should tell her to A) confront the person when alone. B) find a way to take revenge on the coworker. C) ignore the person. D) tell her boss.
39)
40) What is a common reason that victims of elder abuse do not report it? A) They want the caregiver to admit to the abuse first. B) They are convinced that no one will believe them. C) They are afraid that the abuser will retaliate by putting them in a nursing home or increasing the abuse. D) They believe the abuse will stop once their health improves.
40)
41) The Russian hacking of polling software during the 2016 U.S. elections is an example of A) ethnoviolence. B) cybercrime. C) bias crime. D) terrorism.
41)
42) Cecily occasionally sends a "quick text" while driving. All of the following are true EXCEPT A) Cecily's texting is considered a form of impaired driving. B) Cecily's texting is more dangerous than drunk driving. C) Cecily's "quick text" is estimated to take her eyes off the road for long enough–at 55 miles per hour–to cross a tennis court. D) Cecily's texting is against the law in 46 out of 50 states.
42)
43) Bernard is a strong swimmer, so it's fine for him to A) swim alone. B) have a beer before he goes for a swim. C) swim parallel to shore in a rip current. D) swim in a river with a strong, swift current.
43)
5
44) Of the following, which factor is NOT a reason people become involved in gangs? A) to get away from controlling parents B) to gain greater financial security C) for excitement D) for companionship
44)
45) Which of the following statements about media and violence is true? A) Research has demonstrated overwhelmingly that spending excessive time online instead of in face-to-face communication increases the risk for violent crime. B) Research has not demonstrated a clear link between exposure to violent media and a propensity to engage in violent acts. C) There is no reliable research evidence supporting a link between playing violent games and increased risk of aggression. D) Today's young people have been exposed to less media violence than the previous generation, yet their rates of violent crime have skyrocketed.
45)
46) Which of the following is TRUE about primary aggression? A) It will not result in the bodily harm of others. B) It results from frustration with minor, daily life experiences. C) It is goal-directed, hostile self-assertion that is destructive in nature. D) Aggressive behavior does not necessarily result in violent interactions.
46)
47) Which of the following is TRUE about intimate partner violence? A) Homicide by a current or former intimate partner is the leading cause of death among pregnant women in the United States. B) Battered woman syndrome is considered to be a type of generalized anxiety disorder. C) Intimate partner violence includes violence between parent and child. D) Victims of intimate partner violence commonly report the crime.
47)
48) Campus law enforcement officers now have A) increased authority to carry weapons. B) more staff and increased authority to prosecute offenders. C) been relieved of the responsibility for emergency responses. D) the ability to enforce laws in classrooms but not in student living quarters.
48)
49) Your friend confides that her coworker is always making sexually explicit comments to her and telling lewd jokes. You explain to her that this is A) sexual harassment. B) sexual coercion. C) sexual assault. D) sexual invasion.
49)
50) If someone you know has been raped, one of the most important steps to take is to A) go with him or her to confront the perpetrator. B) help him or her wash up and change clothes. C) ask him or her to tell you what led to the assault. D) encourage him or her to see a doctor immediately.
50)
51) A growing risk of violent incidents on college campuses has caused colleges to respond by A) enacting more restrictive admissions policies. B) decreasing ways to notify students and faculty of immediate risk. C) doing more extensive background checks on students and faculty. D) implementing new prevention and emergency response strategies.
51)
6
52) The term terrorism is correctly applied to situations in which A) one country attacks another in a state of war. B) violence is used to achieve political aims. C) workers organize for political and economic rights. D) students demonstrate peacefully against their government.
52)
53) A factor commonly seen in women who become victims of intimate partner violence is A) infertility. B) low self-esteem. C) a higher level of education than their abuser. D) a higher income than their abuser.
53)
54) A key defense against assault when you're outside alone is to A) talk on your cell phone. B) take shortcuts so you can stay away from other people. C) keep your head down and avoid eye contact. D) stay aware of your surroundings.
54)
55) Which phase of the cycle of violence is typically characterized by anger, abusive language, and psychological aggression? A) acute battering B) tension building C) remorse/reconciliation D) retaliation
55)
56) Which of the following statements about campus violence is true? A) More male than female college students report having been stalked. B) Almost 2 percent of college males report having been in a physically abusive relationship. C) Mass shootings are the most common form of violence on college campuses. D) Nearly one in twenty undergraduate females report having been sexually assaulted since entering college.
56)
57) Which of the following is TRUE regarding homicides in the United States? A) Homicides are among the five leading causes of death for persons aged 1 to 44. B) Homicide rates are about the same among all ethnic groups. C) Nearly 90 percent of all homicides occur among people who know one another. D) Homicides rates increase each year in the United States.
57)
58) A tendency toward anger may be A) both physiological and related to family background. B) a learned response to over-protective parenting. C) a trait of emotionally mature people. D) simply a mood that will pass.
58)
59) Pearl confides that, at a frat party, she was forced to have sex and did not consent; this is an example of A) sexual assault. B) neglect. C) intimate partner violence. D) abuse.
59)
7
60) Successful community strategies for preventing violence include all of the following EXCEPT A) helping community members develop self-esteem. B) discouraging family planning programs. C) promoting tolerance and acceptance. D) improving community-based support and treatment for victims.
60)
61) The vast majority of stalkers are A) reported to the authorities. C) teenagers or young adults.
61) B) known to their victims. D) lacking in social skills.
62) Any form of unwanted sexual conduct is A) sexual harassment. C) innuendo.
B) flirting. D) sexual assault.
62)
63) Which of the following is a social contributor to sexual violence? A) overdramatization of the situation B) women sharing in the planning and cost of dates C) showing compassion for victims D) blaming the victim
63)
64) What proportion of murder-suicides in the United States involve an intimate partner? A) about one-third B) about three-fourths C) about one-half D) about one-fourth
64)
65) Doing some type of activity, such as texting or eating, while driving can cause accidents and is known as A) risky driving. B) impaired driving. C) careless driving. D) distracted driving.
65)
66) A common ploy used by rapists is to A) pose as a police officer or other authority figure. B) pose as a friend or employee. C) offer to purchase an expensive item for the victim. D) engage in an initial e-mail exchange.
66)
67) James lost his job and was unable to pay his rent. His frustration built to the point that he initiated a physical fight with a friend. James is displaying A) spontaneous rage. B) primary aggression. C) reactive aggression. D) negativity.
67)
68) Which of the following statements about guns in America is true? A) Knives, blunt objects, and fists kill more Americans each year than do firearms. B) Assault rifles are responsible for more murders than any other type of weapon. C) The presence of a gun in the home nearly doubles the risk that a suicide will occur in that home. D) Some researchers believe that there are more guns in the United States than there are people.
68)
69) Rape that involves a stranger is classified as A) aggravated rape. C) simple rape.
69) B) sexual harassment. D) sexual assault.
8
70) Which of the following is TRUE about stalking? A) College students are less likely to be stalked than adults not in college. B) It is does not include threats. C) Males are almost never victims of stalking. D) It can occur online.
70)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 71) Substance abuse decreases the risk of both homicide and suicide.
71)
72) An unintentional injury is one in which the injury happens due to circumstances, without a deliberate intent to inflict harm.
72)
73) In the United States, there are huge disparities in crime rates based on sex, socioeconomic status, and race/ethnicity.
73)
74) If you return home to find that your residence has been broken into, you should check every room to see what is missing before calling the police.
74)
75) There is a strong association between abuse of pets and abuse of family members.
75)
76) Sexual harassment is carried out only by people who are in positions of power.
76)
77) In most cases, the perpetrators of child abuse are members of the child's family.
77)
78) Aggression is more likely to occur during times of acute stress.
78)
79) Sexual jokes, suggestive comments, and sexual innuendo are forms of sexual harassment.
79)
80) Hate crimes sometimes occur because the perpetrator is retaliating for a perceived insult, unfairness, or slight.
80)
81) Emotional and psychological violence can cause as much harm as physical blows or injuries.
81)
82) The media are to blame for the perpetuation of violence in our society.
82)
83) The most common cause of hip fractures is falling.
83)
84) Experts advise that, if you are approached by a potential assailant, you should not make eye contact.
84)
85) Child sexual abuse occurs in as many as 2 out of every 100 children.
85)
86) Women who are ill are at greater than average risk of marital rape.
86)
87) The U.S. Public Health Service categorizes injuries resulting from violence as either intentional or accidental.
87)
9
88) Over 1 million people in the United States are members of gangs.
88)
89) If your state doesn't mandate bike or motorcycle helmets, you don't need to bother wearing them to prevent injuries.
89)
90) Differences in political beliefs do not appear to be a factor that contributes to violence.
90)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 91) Select two causes of violence from the chapter and provide an argument explaining why you believe each one contributes to the violence in the United States. Support your arguments with examples. 92) Identify at least seven strategies for decreasing your risk for a motor vehicle accident while driving. 93) Do you think violence should be regarded as a chronic disease? Support your answer with information from the chapter. 94) How do you think the socialization of males contributes to sexual assaults against women? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 95) Do you think that college campuses are safer than they were a decade ago, or less safe? Provide information to support your response. 96) The 2016 mass murder at the Pulse Nightclub in Orlando, Florida, targeted members of the LGBT community, many of whom were Latino. It was committed by an American who had professed a hatred of members of the LGBT and Latino communities, and had professed allegiance to the terrorist group ISIS. Was the shooting a hate crime, an act of terrorism, or both? Defend your answer.
10
Answer Key Testname: CH 5
1) D 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) B 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) C 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) D 11
Answer Key Testname: CH 5
51) D 52) B 53) B 54) D 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) B 61) B 62) A 63) D 64) B 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) D 69) A 70) D 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE
12
Answer Key Testname: CH 5
91) (Any two of the following; examples will differ.) 1. Poverty: can give rise to hopelessness and lead people to view violence as the only way to get what they want. 2. Unemployment: can cause people to become frustrated and more violent. 3. Cultural beliefs: can objectify women and empower men to be more aggressive. 4. Parental and peer influence: Children raised in violent homes are more likely to become violent as adults; peers with delinquency rates exert influence. 5. The media: depicts violence. 6. Discrimination or oppression: can cause violence against a specific group because of beliefs that the group is inferior. 7. Religious beliefs and differences: can cause violence because people think violence against others is justified by religi doctrine. 8. Political differences: can cause civil unrest and violent acts. 9. Breakdowns in the criminal justice system: can result in inadequate treatment/training for prisoners and early release that pose risks for society. 10. Stress: can cause anger and more reactive behavior. 92) (Any seven of the following; choices will differ.) 1. Avoid driving under the influence of alcohol or illicit drugs, or medications (prescribed or over-the-counter) that ma a sedative or mind-altering effect. 2. Avoid driving while drowsy. 3. Avoid using any kind of electronic device while driving. 4. Avoid eating while driving. 5. Wear a safety belt. 6. Keep up with your vehicle's regular schedule of maintenance. 7. Do not tailgate. 8. Do not drive over the speed limit. 9. Obey all traffic laws, and avoid aggressive driving. 10. Drive defensively, and with your low-beam headlights on, day and night. 93) Yes, it is appropriate to see violence as a chronic disease because it is a leading and persistent public health problem that contributes significantly to death and disability rates. It is prevalent in all levels of American society. The U.S. Public Health Service has recognized violence as a chronic disease for decades because it is a pervasive threat to our society. 94) Men are exposed to social factors, such as peer pressure to be macho or aggressive, and messages in society, such as the belief that women who dress scantily are "asking for it" or that "sowing their wild oats" is simply a normal part of male development. They may also be influenced by societal norms that portray women as the passive targets of male aggression, or by peer pressure to be "macho" by engaging in predatory behavior. 95) Overall, colleges are probably safer than they were a decade ago because they have taken specific measures to improve student safety. For example, there are more emergency response drills and new messaging systems, the presence of law enforcement personnel has increased on campuses, and there are more prevention efforts, such as workshops on campus safety and rape awareness, better lighting, improved parking lot security, and emergency call boxes. 96) Answers will vary but should include some of the following information: A hate crime is a crime targeted against a particular societal group and motivated by bias against that group. Terrorism is the use of violence to intimidate or coerce a population in furtherance of a political or social agenda. The Pulse Nightclub shooting included aspects of both. The shooting targeted members of the LGBT community, many of whom were Latino, and the killer had expressed hatred for the LGBT community and for Latinos. In addition, during the shooting he swore allegiance to the terrorist group ISIS. Thus, it can be inferred that the killer was motivated by both bias against particular societal groups and a desire to intimidate Americans and further the political and social agenda of a terrorist organization.
13
Chapter 6 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Anthropologist Helen Fisher and other scientists have described attraction as A) feelings of elation and euphoria produced by neurochemicals. B) a peaceful feeling due to the release of oxytocin. C) the degree of commitment in a relationship. D) emotional reactions triggered by past experiences.
1)
2) The first hint that a relationship may be in trouble is often A) an escalation in the frequency of arguments. B) that one partner stops respecting the other's sexual boundaries. C) physical assault. D) a change in communication.
2)
3) Relationships characterized by behavioral interdependence, need fulfillment, emotional attachment, and emotional availability are A) functional family relationships. B) intimate relationships. C) family of origin relationships. D) monogamous relationships.
3)
4) Which of the following statements about marriage is TRUE? A) Recent research suggests that the divorce rate has been increasing since the 1980s. B) Married couples are less likely to get adequate sleep than people who are divorced. C) Rates of smoking and alcohol abuse are lower in married couples. D) About 10 percent of couples who cohabitate eventually marry.
4)
5) Through our relationships with others, we fulfill our needs for A) independence, social integration, and self-actualization. B) intimacy, social integration, and nurturance. C) autonomy, intimacy, and connection. D) communication, nurturance, and achievement.
5)
6) Which of the following traits is important in relationships and involves having a realistic appreciation of one's own worth and ability?
6)
A) self-awareness
B) self-nurturance
C) self-expression
D) self-sufficiency
7) Hedda and Kate have been sharing an apartment for two months, but they're both frustrated. Hedda is tired of nagging Kate about cleaning up after herself, and Kate is tired of being nagged every time she leaves an unwashed coffee cup in the sink. Which of the following strategies might help them resolve their conflict? A) They should use "you" messages that clearly tell the listener what she is doing wrong. B) They should avoid talking about the problem until they have thought of a workable solution for solving it. C) After agreeing to a solution, they should permanently drop the subject. D) They should use "I" messages that clearly state how the speaker feels and what she wants.
1
7)
8) Which of the following is TRUE about appropriate self-disclosure? A) It is synonymous with story telling. B) It is a key element in unhealthy communication. C) It involves sharing secrets and gossip about friends and acquaintances. D) It involves sharing feelings and information as a means of getting to know a person.
8)
9) When Hiro confessed to Mina that he was attracted to her intelligence, sense of humor, and concern for others, Mina told him that she admired the same qualities in him. This is an example of A) companionship. B) infatuation. C) "opposites attract." D) reciprocity.
9)
10) What is social media screening? A) a course you can take to help you learn about managing your privacy settings B) an illegal practice C) something practiced by some U.S. employers in order to find information about job applicants D) a technique in which you compare the quality of a variety of social networking sites
10)
11) All of the following are true about cohabitation EXCEPT that A) it can offer love, companionship, and sex. B) after a number of years, it can constitute a common-law marriage. C) it may become legally binding. D) it is a predictor for divorce.
11)
12) Brett and Melissa have a very strong relationship in which they are able to give and receive emotionally without a fear of rejection or being hurt. This example demonstrates that they A) have an ability to remain emotionally detached. B) have strong intimate bonds. C) are dependent on each other's emotions and feelings. D) are emotionally available in their relationship.
12)
13) In a healthy relationship, A) you often find yourself making excuses for the other person. B) you need to be willing to share nearly everything with your partner. C) it's natural to feel stifled, trapped, and stagnant. D) you're honest with yourself and each other.
13)
14) Which of the following statements about hooking up is TRUE? A) A recent study found that only 25 percent of college students used a condom during their last hookup. B) Steinberg's triangular theory of love would place hooking up in the infatuation category. C) College students today are having sex with a greater number of partners than their counterparts two and three decades ago. D) College students today are more likely to engage in a hookup than to have sex with a romantic partner.
14)
15) When two partners in an intimate relationship live together without being married, this is A) cohabitation. B) an informal relationship. C) an open relationship. D) common-law marriage.
15)
2
16) Relational connectedness is MOST likely to be enhanced by A) meeting a friend for lunch. B) sending a friend a birthday card. C) phoning a friend to invite him to a party. D) texting a friend to say you're running late.
16)
17) Sam and Kris have entered a relationship and are very preoccupied with each other. They constantly want to be with or talk to each other. This example demonstrates that they are A) sexually open with each other. B) advocates for each other. C) fascinated by each other. D) in an exclusive relationship.
17)
18) In a relationship, commitment means that A) the partners agree to shared decision making on all concerns involving the couple. B) both partners in a relationship agree to practice monogamy. C) each partner intends to act over time in a way that perpetuates the well-being of the other. D) couples agree to remain married no matter what.
18)
19) A likely reason that people may be meaner online than in person is that A) rudeness on social media sites is common and acceptable. B) their name is attached to the messages they post. C) they would like to increase their number of followers. D) users cannot see the person with whom they are communicating.
19)
20) Which of the following is TRUE about your family of origin? A) It includes the people who were living in the house during your first years of life. B) It includes any immediate family members, such as siblings, who were not living in the house during your first years of life. C) It includes your grandparents or other extended relatives who were living in another state during your first years of life. D) It includes cousins and relatives who were living in the same town during your first years of life.
20)
21) A hormone referred to as a "cuddle chemical" that boosts feelings of satisfaction and attachment is A) dopamine3 B) adrenaline. C) oxytocin. D) cortisol.
21)
22) All of the following are true about intimate relationships EXCEPT that A) they may be spiritually intimate. B) they may share emotional intimacy without being sexual. C) they may include sexual relationships. D) they may lack emotional availability.
22)
23) Greg and Kate always support each other's interests, hoping to ensure that the other will succeed. This BEST demonstrates that they are A) fascinated by each other. B) practicing serial monogamy. C) advocates for each other. D) intimately exclusive.
23)
3
24) Julio wants to strengthen his relationship with LaVonne by sharing personal information with her. To get over his fear of disclosing his feelings, Julio can do all of the following EXCEPT A) be open to discussing his sexual past. B) select a safe, comfortable place for the conversation. C) blame his parents for his imperfections. D) learn to accept his imperfections.
24)
25) Predictability is a fundamental element of A) faith. B) jealousy.
25) C) power.
D) trust.
26) In troubled relationships, an example of criticism would be A) "Stop acting like a two-year old!" B) "I don't see anything to get upset about." C) "You're the one who chose this lousy restaurant, not me!" D) "You're the most self-centered person I've ever met!"
26)
27) What is social capital? A) the collective value of all of the people in your social network and the likelihood of them providing social support B) a level of support built not by strengthening existing ties, but by seeking out new relationships C) a collective term for all of the people you know, including distant acquaintances and even people you don't like D) the value of all of the cash, savings, investments, and equity owned by every member of your family, yourself included
27)
28) Daniel has been involved in four sexually exclusive relationships over the past six years. This is an example of A) infidelity. B) serial monogamy. C) open relationships. D) cohabitation.
28)
29) In face-to-face conversations, A) men frown more often than women, and women smile more often than men. B) women provide less feedback via body language than men. C) men are more likely to ask for help than women, but men and women are equally likely to offer help. D) women interrupt more often than men.
29)
30) Which of the following is the BEST example of emotional support? A) Eduardo tells his sister that a majority of relationships don't work out. B) Eduardo listens to his sister as she describes to him how her boyfriend broke up with her. C) Eduardo reminds his sister how quickly she bounced back from her last break-up. D) Eduardo hands his sister a tissue as she tearfully informs their mother that she and her boyfriend have broken up.
30)
31) When Marcy moved into her dorm, her parents and her best friend helped. This example BEST illustrates A) informational support. B) appraisal support. C) instrumental support. D) emotional support.
31)
4
32) By deciding that he didn't have time to vote in the last election, Derrick missed an opportunity to build A) his level of emotional support. B) collective connectedness. C) relational connectedness. D) collective competition.
32)
33) Steve and Janelle are friends. When they meet weekly for coffee, they greet each other with a hug. This hug is an example of A) nonverbal communication. B) betrayal of their partners. C) physical compatibility. D) sexual intimacy.
33)
34) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, the most complete, ideal type of love is A) intimacy. B) passion. C) consummate love. D) sexual compatibility.
34)
35) Which of the following statements about connectedness is TRUE? A) According to research, the quantity of our friendships is more strongly associated with good health than the quality of our friendships. B) Feeling connected to your community has very little connection to improved health. C) The average number of confidants reported by Americans is on the rise. D) Nearly 25 percent of Americans report that they have no one to turn to for discussing important matters.
35)
36) Kendra has decided to break up with her boyfriend. Which of the following actions should she take? A) break up with him via a text so that she doesn't have to speak to him B) change the passwords she'd shared with him to her online accounts and pages C) log onto his social networking accounts so that she can see what he has been saying about her to his friends D) share on her social networking pages details of the conversations and interactions that caused her to decide to break up.
36)
37) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding same-sex couples? A) They can legally marry in nearly all countries of the world. B) About 10 percent of same-sex couples in the United States are legally married. C) The number of gay and lesbian households has decreased over the past 10 years. D) They seek the same things in primary relationships that heterosexuals do.
37)
38) Which of the following is TRUE about power in relationships? A) In relationships, power is the ability to make and implement decisions. B) In relationships, power is the ability to make more money than one's partner. C) Over the last century, the power dynamics between men and women have remained largely the same. D) The increased divorce rate in the past century was largely due to men feeling uncomfortable sharing power.
38)
39) People who frequently use social networking sites A) don't need to be concerned about self-disclosure. B) become more and more isolated the longer they use them. C) have larger social networks than non-users, including offline. D) score lower in social support than people who have never used them.
39)
5
40) After stubbing his toe, Tom told Connie that he was in agonizing pain. Connie said she believed him, but rolled her eyes. Tom most likely A) decided that Connie had not heard him. B) would feel comfortable sharing more of his feelings with Connie. C) felt that Connie was being supportive. D) believed that Connie felt he was exaggerating his pain.
40)
41) Both Ben and Betty see themselves as responsible for their own choices, decisions, and actions in their relationship, thus demonstrating their A) communication skills. B) interdependence. C) accountability. D) independence.
41)
42) Jealousy can be based on all of the following EXCEPT A) a person's irrational fears. B) intense devotion. C) possessiveness. D) a person's low self-esteem.
42)
43) Which of the following is TRUE about conflict? A) It is inevitable when people live or work together. B) It is an intellectual state. C) It is always bad. D) It is a deliberate attempt to sabotage another person's success or happiness.
43)
44) Which of the following is TRUE about being single in the United States? A) The number of adults electing to remain single is increasing. B) Nearly one-third of young adults age 20 to 34 are single. C) Nearly 15 percent of adults never marry. D) Singles have trouble achieving intimacy with others.
44)
45) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, which type of love combines commitment and intimacy? A) romantic B) fatuous C) companionate D) infatuation
45)
46) Which of the following is TRUE about intimate relationships? A) They are relationships between romantic partners only. B) They do not include relationships with family members. C) They can include relationships with family, friends, and romantic partners. D) They can include relationships with family and friends, but not romantic partners.
46)
47) Emily and Rosa are close friends who are able to share their feelings freely, providing support and reassurance. This example demonstrates their A) emotional availability. B) codependence. C) ability to provide objective feedback. D) low self-esteem.
47)
48) Which factor would reduce the likelihood of your choosing a particular person as a partner? A) Your beliefs, attitudes, and values are significantly different. B) You are physically attracted to each other. C) You have similar values, interests, and socioeconomic status. D) You live in close proximity to each other.
48)
6
49) When romance lasts beyond the four-year mark, what natural opiates give partners a sense of security, peace, and calm? A) dopamine and norepinephrine B) endorphins C) amphetamines D) oxytocin and PEA
49)
50) Which of the following is TRUE about communication patterns between men and women? A) Women tend to be more task-oriented. B) Men are more likely to share their innermost thoughts. C) Women tend to be more expressive. D) Men often believe that it is acceptable to show emotion.
50)
51) The definition of the term family A) is determined by the family's religious beliefs. B) changes over time. C) doesn't change over time. D) is determined by the local community.
51)
52) A healthy marriage contributes to reducing stress by A) limiting the support network to only the immediate family. B) contributing to less-than-optimal personal behaviors. C) reducing the need to impress others. D) increasing financial stability and expanding support networks.
52)
53) The growth of Internet dating has made it easier to A) give the utmost. C) maintain exclusivity.
53) B) commit. D) meet people outside your proximity.
54) The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates that, on a typical day, A) over 90 percent of women do household chores like laundry. B) over two-thirds of men cook and clean up after meals. C) over 90 percent of men do household chores like laundry. D) over two-thirds of women cook and clean up after meals.
54)
55) Jealousy is more likely when A) one partner has an unusually high sense of self-esteem. B) a couple is over the age of 65. C) one partner fears that he or she is losing control over the other. D) both partners have many social ties.
55)
56) Social support may BEST help reduce stress by A) increasing our social commitments, which can distract us from our problems. B) making challenges look less forbidding. C) increasing the body's release of cortisol. D) providing role models of others facing stressors.
56)
57) Lengthy cohabitation that is considered legally binding in some states is A) an informal relationship. B) an open relationship. C) cohabitation. D) common-law marriage.
57)
7
58) In relationships, the process of resolving differences peacefully and creatively is A) anger management. B) conflict resolution. C) intimacy. D) self-disclosure.
58)
59) You are most likely to listen BEST when A) you believe the speaker is saying something you can relate to. B) you are distracted by a project that is due the next day. C) you believe the speaker's message does not concern you. D) you are worried.
59)
60) Which of the following statements about marital status in the United States is TRUE? A) The percentage of males who have never married is higher than that of females. B) The percentage of males who are divorced is higher than that of females. C) The percentage of males who are widowed is higher than that of females. D) Nearly 77% of U.S. adults are married.
60)
61) Rico and Chris are close friends and classmates. Each day they are an important influence on each other's actions. This example BEST demonstrates their A) availability for each other. B) behavioral interdependence. C) need for social fulfillment. D) detachment in regard to one another's feelings.
61)
62) Which one of the following is characteristic of intimate relationships? A) They involve behavioral independence. B) They involve emotional detachment. C) They involve a lack of emotional availability. D) They involve need fulfillment.
62)
63) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, love involves A) friendship, reliability, and commitment. B) passion, impulsiveness, and sexual desire. C) intimacy, similar interests, and social status. D) intimacy, passion, and commitment.
63)
64) Anthropologist Helen Fisher and other scientists propose that the feeling that the excitement and passion is gone from a relationship is due to A) a decrease in chemicals such as dopamine. B) familiarity and daily stresses. C) developmental incompatibility. D) a drop in oxytocin levels.
64)
65) Angel broke up with her boyfriend of two years. In order to cope with the failed relationship, she should A) seek another relationship as soon as possible to get over the failed one. B) spend a lot of time analyzing the negative aspects of the relationship. C) reach out to trusted friends and share her feelings with them. D) put a positive spin on the breakup and act as if nothing is wrong.
65)
8
66) The U.S. Supreme Court's ruling in Obergefell v. Hodges A) recognized the right of interracial couples to marry. B) made same-sex marriage legal in all fifty states. C) recognized common-law marriages as legally binding. D) gave couples in the United States the right to divorce.
66)
67) A relationship in which the partners are sexually involved only with each other is A) consensual. B) monogamous. C) open. D) intimate.
67)
68) Jeff and Dana have been married for two years. Their relationship involves exclusive sexual involvement with each other. This demonstrates A) cohabitation. B) a monogamous relationship. C) an open relationship. D) serial monogamy.
68)
69) Self-disclosure can be a double-edged sword because A) you might find out more about the other person than you really wish to know. B) you risk hurting the other person. C) it allows you to tell stories about others without their knowledge or consent. D) you risk the possibility that the other person will reject you.
69)
70) Friendships A) are usually characterized by exclusivity. B) are typically the first relationships we form. C) usually begin by "friending" someone on Facebook. D) require time, effort, and commitment.
70)
71) Our neighbors and coworkers are members of our A) constellation of confidants. C) social capital.
71) B) support team. D) social network.
72) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, which type of love combines intimacy and passion? A) fatuous B) romantic C) companionate D) infatuation
72)
73) Jake and Kate have been dating for two years and have a close relationship. They feel that they have someone to care for who also cares for them. This example BEST demonstrates what aspect of Jake and Kate's need fulfillment? A) affirmation B) social integration C) nurturance D) intimacy
73)
74) Amelia and Geoff married when Amelia was 20 years old and Geoff was 23. Presuming that their marriage reflects population statistics, A) they are more likely than not to have an open relationship. B) they are much more likely to divorce within ten years than to remain married. C) they most likely married around the year 2015. D) they most likely married around the year 1960.
74)
9
75) Javier wants to talk with Stephan about his frustration related to Stephan's excessive spending, but as he is speaking, Stephan keeps texting on his cell phone. This is an example of what pattern common in troubled relationships? A) criticism B) stonewalling C) defensiveness D) contempt
75)
76) Family consists of A) a group of people who share the same interests. B) a network of people that provides support, security, love, and a sense of belonging. C) people related by blood who share a few main characteristics. D) blood relatives with whom we grew up.
76)
77) Which of the following statements about intimate relationships is TRUE? A) The only intimate relationship known to be good for our health is marriage. B) People in supportive intimate relationships tend to have higher than normal blood pressure. C) Supportive intimate relationships are associated with a longer life span. D) Having strong intimate ties increases the risk for depression.
77)
78) Lisa and Abby are sisters and best friends. Both feel they can share their worries and concerns with one another. This example demonstrates A) emotional distinction. B) spiritual independence. C) emotional detachment. D) social integration.
78)
79) Chris and Robin have been romantic partners for almost a decade, and have lived together unmarried for the last four years. Their relationship is considered A) cohabitation. B) a prelude to marriage. C) a common-law marriage. D) a religious sacrament.
79)
80) As the end of the term approached, Hakim became increasingly anxious about failing calculus and losing his scholarship. His best friend, who had taken the class the semester before, reminded Hakim that he'd aced every exam thus far, told him that the final would cover the same topics, and suggested that Hakim closely review his prior exams. This example BEST illustrates A) instrumental support. B) informational support. C) appraisal support. D) emotional support.
80)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 81) Feeling that you have to share everything with your partner is a sign of a healthy relationship.
81)
82) The need for intimacy means the need for someone with whom we can share our feelings freely.
82)
83) The U.S. divorce rate has increased over the past several decades.
83)
84) Challenges to successful gay and lesbian relationships often include discrimination.
84)
85) Intimacy is unlikely in relationships lacking self-disclosure.
85)
86) All types of close relationships, not just marriage, are good for our health.
86)
10
87) Brenda believes in ghosts. When her friend Manami told her about an investigation showing that a supposed haunting of a local theatre was due to natural phenomena, Brenda tuned out. Brenda was engaging in passive listening.
87)
88) Social isolation increases the risks for several factors associated with heart disease and cancer.
88)
89) Serial monogamy means that partners have sexual involvement outside their primary relationship.
89)
90) Some research suggests that evolution and genetics both contribute to romantic reactions.
90)
91) The new etiquette of relationships established under social media has made it perfectly acceptable to break up with someone online.
91)
92) A relationship is intimate only if sex is involved.
92)
93) Men and women often communicate in gender-specific ways, both in their speech patterns and in their body language.
93)
94) The meta-message is the message underlying the words that the speaker is trying to convey.
94)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 95) Why do you think that many people agree you must love yourself before you can love someone else, and what two personal qualities are especially important to be able to bring to relationships? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 96) Identify the three elements that, according to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, are characteristic of loving relationships, and their association with consummate love. 97) Identify and describe three types of listening, and explain the effect of each on strengthening or undermining relationships. 98) Do you think jealousy is present in a healthy relationship? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 99) Why do you think that a great majority of adults age 20 to 34 in the United States, and 25 percent of adults age 25 and older have never been married, as compared to just 10 percent of Americans of all ages historically? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 100) Distinguish between relational connectedness and collective connectedness and give an example of an action that would exemplify each.
11
Answer Key Testname: CH 6
1) A 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) C 12
Answer Key Testname: CH 6
51) B 52) D 53) D 54) D 55) C 56) B 57) D 58) B 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) A 65) C 66) B 67) B 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) B 76) B 77) C 78) D 79) A 80) B 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE
13
Answer Key Testname: CH 6
95) Knowing yourself–for example, knowing how the strengths and challenges of your family history and personality affect the choices you make and how you respond to life emotionally–is key. Without this self-knowledge in place, you are more likely to make decisions and to react to experiences in ways that are not conscious and that may be harmful to the relationship. Another key is the ability to nurture yourself, because if you cannot meet your own needs, you're likely to make unreasonable demands on your partner, or alternatively, to nurture your partner to the exclusion of your own needs, a behavior that tends to build resentment. Self-nurturance is therefore one of the two personal qualities especially important in relationships. The other is accountability–taking responsibility for your own actions. 96) The three elements common to loving relationships are intimacy, passion, and commitment. Consummate love combines a high level of these three elements in balance. 97) 1. Selective listening occurs when we are listening only for information that supports what we already believe; otherwis tune out. It is characterized by a stronger desire to explain our own point of view than to understand someone else's. Th of listening undermines relationships by impeding our grasp of our partner's information, experiences, and concerns 2. Passive listening is characterized by a failure to provide feedback that ensures the speaker that his or her message is b received. This type of listening undermines relationships by causing the speaker to question whether the listener has tru heard, understood, and cares about the speaker's concerns. 3. Active listening is characterized by an attempt not only to hear the speaker's words, but also to understand the speak message. The listener confirms understanding by restating or paraphrasing the message before responding. This type of listening shows the speaker that the listener has understood the message and cares about what the speaker is thinking and feeling. 98) A certain amount of jealousy can occur in any loving relationship; it doesn't have to threaten a relationship as long as partners communicate openly about it. However, jealousy can indicate underlying problems such as insecurity or possessiveness or fear of losing control, any of which may prove to be a significant barrier to a healthy, intimate relationship if not talked about, and may lead to dangerous consequences. 99) Many community organizations support the single lifestyle, providing opportunities for single people to lead rich, rewarding lives and maintain a supportive network of friends as well as family. Moreover, cohabitation has become an increasingly common choice for Americans, and the great majority of couples now cohabitate before marriage. In addition, more and more young Americans are delaying marriage because of concern over finances. People who have "never married" are not necessarily people who are not in an intimate relationship. Finally, many people enjoy the self-sufficiency and time to pursue their interests that singlehood allows. 100) Examples will vary. Relational connectedness requires face-to-face contact with people within our social network. Actions such as throwing a bridal shower for a family member or making dinner for a friend who is sick exemplify relational connectedness. Collective connectedness is a feeling of connection to a group beyond your immediate social network. Actions such as volunteering for a homeless shelter or raising money for a political candidate you support or attending a lecture about a social problem you're interested in all exemplify collective connectedness.
14
Chapter 6a Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is TRUE about androgyny? A) An androgynous person has a combination of both traditional masculine and feminine traits. B) An androgynous person has feminine traits but tries to be a male. C) An androgynous person follows traditional sexual roles. D) An androgynous person has masculine traits but tries to be a female.
1)
2) In which stage of the human sexual response does vasocongestion occur? A) excitement/arousal B) plateau C) resolution D) orgasmic
2)
3) Connie, who is analytical and independent, is pressured by her parents to be more nurturing. This is an example of A) traditionalization. B) discrimination. C) gender role stereotyping. D) sexual identification.
3)
4) In which stage of the human sexual response does the penis secrete preejaculatory fluid? A) plateau B) resolution C) orgasmic D) excitement/arousal
4)
5) The lining of the uterus is the A) vulva. B) cervix.
5) C) mons pubis.
6) The system of tubules atop the testes where sperm reach maturity is the A) endometrium. B) vulva. C) scrotum.
D) endometrium. 6) D) epididymis.
7) Three days after her period began, Roxanne began to feel as if she had a flu-like illness. Which of the following was the MOST likely cause of her high fever, dizziness, and rash? A) ovulation B) pregnancy C) premenstrual dysphoric disorder D) toxic shock syndrome
7)
8) Anthony frequently experiences ejaculation within the first few minutes of sexual contact, leaving both him and his partner unsatisfied. Which type of sexual dysfunction does he have? A) a desire disorder B) an arousal disorder C) an excitation disorder D) an orgasmic disorder
8)
9) All of the following are considered variant sexual behaviors EXCEPT A) voyeurism. B) masochism. C) masturbation.
9)
1
D) group sex.
10) Which of the following is TRUE about intersexuality? A) It may occur in as many as 1 out of 100 live births. B) The person does not exhibit exclusively male or female sexual anatomy. C) The reproductive anatomy is clearly either male or female, but the secondary sex characteristics are ambiguous. D) The sex chromosomes are XX but the person clearly has male reproductive anatomy, or the sex chromosomes are XY but the person clearly has female anatomy.
10)
11) The sac that contains the testes is the A) vas deferens. B) epididymis.
11) C) scrotum.
D) prostate gland.
12) Dysmenorrhea occurs when A) a surge in estrogen levels promotes uterine muscle contraction. B) prostaglandins released during the menstrual cycle promote uterine muscle contraction. C) luteinizing hormone signals the ovaries to produce progesterone. D) the woman experiences pain during intercourse.
12)
13) Gavin and Todd have discovered that their application for an apartment rental was refused solely because of their sexual orientation. This is an example of A) gender preference. B) housing fraud. C) socioeconomic discrimination. D) sexual prejudice.
13)
14) Ovulation typically occurs A) in the first 1-3 days of a woman's menstrual cycle. B) about halfway through a woman's menstrual cycle. C) only if a woman is pregnant. D) in the final 1-3 days of a woman's menstrual cycle.
14)
15) The external female genitalia are collectively referred to as the A) vulva. B) endometrium. C) epididymis.
D) scrotum.
15)
16) How long is the average menstrual cycle? A) 31 days B) 21 days
D) 28 days
16) C) 24 days
17) Which of the following statements about drugs and sex is TRUE? A) If drugs are a necessary prelude to desire/arousal, it is likely that partners are being dishonest about their feelings for each other. B) In an individual intoxicated with alcohol, the body may be willing and able to have sex, but the mind may not. C) Date-rape drugs are the substances most commonly associated with sexual assaults. D) Alcohol consumption tends to make most people feel less desirable.
17)
18) Which menstrual problem involves the common symptoms of breast tenderness, fatigue, food cravings, irritability, and depression? A) hormone deficiency B) dysmenorrhea C) premenstrual syndrome D) premenstrual dysphoric disorder
18)
2
19) At the time of puberty, gonadotropins A) prompt the production of female ova (eggs) and male sperm. B) stimulate the testes and ovaries to produce sex hormones. C) trigger the formation of the gonads. D) travel to the glands and hair follicles of the skin, where they trigger acne and the growth of pubic and underarm hair and–in males–facial hair.
19)
20) The permanent cessation of menstrual periods is A) menarche. B) menopause.
20) C) menstruation.
21) The testes manufacture A) semen and progesterone. C) sperm and testosterone.
B) sperm and Graafian follicles. D) urine and semen.
D) fertility. 21)
22) During sex, recreational use of drugs intended to treat erectile dysfunction is thought to A) boost performance and satisfaction. B) have decreased among U.S. males age 30 and under during the past decade. C) have only a placebo effect. D) increase performance when used in conjunction with alcohol.
22)
23) The onset of the first menstrual period is A) menstruation. B) menopause.
23) C) fertility.
24) Abstention from any type of sexual activity is known as A) autoerotic. B) celibacy. C) monogamy.
D) menarche. 24) D) sexual freedom.
25) Which of the following BEST describes gender identity? A) the manner in which we express masculinity or femininity on a daily basis B) our personal awareness of being masculine or feminine C) the practice of behaving in a masculine or feminine way D) interactions with others that teach us certain behaviors
25)
26) Andrew and Andrea share the most common standards for sexual behavior in Western culture today. Which of the following are they MOST likely to accept as true? A) The purpose of sexual interaction is conception. B) Sex is to be experienced between two and only two people. C) It's okay if sexual interaction doesn't always lead to orgasm. D) Sex should only take place within marriage.
26)
27) Circumcision is the surgical removal of the A) glans penis. B) foreskin.
27) C) prostate.
D) testes.
28) In her early twenties, Piper had a healthy sex life, but then she was raped by a trusted friend. Since then, she has experienced anxiety and even fear at the thought of sexual contact. Which of the following types of disorders is Piper MOST likely experiencing? A) a pain disorder B) an orgasmic disorder C) a desire disorder D) an arousal disorder
28)
29) A variant sexual behavior in which couples swap partners is A) exhibitionism. B) voyeurism. C) swinging.
29)
3
D) fetishism.
30) Coitus is a synonym for A) vaginal intercourse. B) any form of sexual contact involving the genitals. C) anal intercourse. D) oral sex. 31) Menstrual flow is actually sloughed off A) cervical mucus. B) uterine lining.
30)
31) C) fertilized eggs.
D) corpus luteum.
32) In which type of sexual dysfunction does an individual experience pain during or after sex? A) inhibited sexual desire B) dyspareunia C) female orgasmic disorder D) vaginismus
32)
33) Sexual orientation is based on which of the following factors? A) psychological, familial, and environmental B) emotional, social, and socioenvironmental C) biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental D) biological, social, and religious
33)
34) During ejaculation, A) semen is ejaculated from the seminal vesicles while urine is ejaculated from the urethra. B) urine typically mixes with semen in the urethra. C) urine sometimes mixes with semen in the urethra, but only if the man's bladder is full. D) urine and semen do not come into contact with each other.
34)
35) Kissing and erotic touching are examples of A) self-stimulation. C) nonverbal sexual communication.
35) B) cunnilingus. D) fellatio.
36) Having a gender identity that does not match one's biological sex is known as being A) transgender. B) transsexual. C) transvestite. D) bisexual.
36)
37) Alison has had a few boyfriends, but she often feels romantic and sexual attraction to women as well. Alison is A) heterosexual. B) asexual. C) bisexual. D) homosexual.
37)
38) Areas of the body that, when touched, lead to sexual arousal are known as A) external genitals. B) internal genitals. C) arousal spots. D) erogenous zones.
38)
39) Which of the following is TRUE about sexual identity? A) It is based solely on genetic factors. B) The biological father determines the sexual identity of a child. C) It is based on biological sex at birth, social and cultural influences on gender, and sexual orientation. D) The biological mother determines the sexual identity of a child.
39)
40) All of the following are true about celibacy EXCEPT that A) it is lonely for some people. B) it can be the result of illness. C) it may be a result of religious beliefs. D) it is the same as abstinence.
40)
4
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 41) Sexual identity begins at birth.
41)
42) Sexually transmitted infection can occur during unprotected oral-genital stimulation.
42)
43) Masturbation is a common sexual practice across the life span.
43)
44) An intact hymen is proof of virginity.
44)
45) Testosterone is the hormone responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics.
45)
46) The majority of males and females experience a refractory period after sex.
46)
47) The term gay refers only to male homosexuals.
47)
48) An egg released from a woman's ovary travels to the uterus through a fallopian tube.
48)
49) According to surveys, about 1 in 100 American adults admit to having taken a look at their phones during sex.
49)
50) Tessa's fantasy of having sex with her physics professor means that she actually wants to have sex with her professor.
50)
51) A primary role of the prostate gland is to contribute fluids to semen that enhance the motility and potency of sperm.
51)
52) The first sign of puberty in females is the beginning of breast development.
52)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 53) Identify three key reasons that it is important to understand your body's sexual anatomy and your own sexual responses. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 54) Differentiate between sexual identity and gender identity. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 55) Identify the pathway that sperm take from their development through ejaculation, mentioning all of the following structures: ejaculatory ducts, epididymis, glans of penis, prostate gland, shaft of penis, testes, urethra, vas deferens. 56) Do you think that inhibited sexual desire always or nearly always has a biological cause? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 57) Identify the five components of the CERTS Model for Healthy Sexuality. Why is this model potentially more healthful than blanket adoption of the contemporary Western standards for sexual behavior? 58) List and discuss four key factors that contribute to healthy and responsible sexuality. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer.
5
59) With which explanations proposed by researchers for a person's sexual orientation do you agree? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer.
6
Answer Key Testname: CH 6A
1) A 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 7
Answer Key Testname: CH 6A
51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) If you understand your sexual anatomy and your responses, you will be better able to give yourself sexual pleasure and to communicate to your partner how best to give you pleasure. Also, you will understand the most effective ways to prevent–or achieve–pregnancy, and to prevent a sexually transmitted infection. Finally, you'll be able to recognize sexual dysfunction and take action to address the problem. 54) Sexual identity is determined by a complex composite of biological (genetic, physiological, etc.) characteristics; gender identity and gender roles, which are socially and culturally influenced; and sexual orientation. The beginning of a person's sexual identity occurs at conception with the combining of chromosomes that determine the baby's sex. Gender identity refers to a personal sense of awareness of being masculine or feminine, male or female. 55) Sperm develop in the testes. While still immature, they are released into the epididymis, where they reach maturation. From the tubules of the epididymis, sperm move into the vas deferens, which lead to the ejaculatory ducts that pass through the prostate gland and empty into the urethra, which runs through the shaft and into the glans of the penis. 56) Answers will vary. Causes of any form of sexual dysfunction are varied. Although the reproductive system can malfunction just as any body system can, biological problems are not solely responsible for all cases. Other common causative or contributing factors include substance abuse, stress, performance pressure, medical factors such as symptoms of illness, relationship tensions, and poor communication. 57) The CERTS Model for Healthy Sexuality includes: Consent– which is freely given and can be withdrawn at any timeEquality– both partners share equal power in the relationship Respect–for both oneself and one's partner Trust–both partners feel that they can trust the other physically and emotionally Safety– from sexually transmitted infections, unintended pregnancy, and violence The CERTS Model is potentially more healthful than blanket adoption of Western standards, which are more narrow an prescriptive, and may not be relevant to some people. 58) Answers will include the following: 1) Good communication as the foundation 2) Acknowledging that you are a sexual person 3) Understanding sexual structures and their functions 4) Accepting and embracing your gender identity and your sexual orientation 59) Student opinions will vary. Biological explanations focus on research into genetics, hormones, and differences in brain anatomy. Psychological and socioenvironmental explanations examine parent-child interactions, sex roles, and early sexual and interpersonal interactions. Most researchers today support a multifactorial model incorporating biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental factors. Current research does not, however, support the claim that sexual orientation is a choice.
8
Chapter 7 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Noor just found out that she is pregnant. Noor will need A) to consume about 300 additional calories a day. B) to gain about 10-15 pounds during pregnancy, and about 20-25 pounds if they are carrying twins. C) to avoid consuming foods high in iron. D) to refrain from alcohol consumption after the first trimester of pregnancy.
1)
2) A fetus is the term used to describe a conception as of A) 6 weeks of pregnancy. B) the first month of pregnancy. C) the third month of pregnancy. D) 10 weeks of pregnancy.
2)
3) A false negative pregnancy test may result from A) high sodium in the diet. B) high protein in the diet. C) taking the test too early in the morning. D) taking the pregnancy test too early in the pregnancy.
3)
4) Jade is pregnant. During a regular medical check-up, her physician discusses alcohol consumption. The physician will likely advise that she A) abstain from alcohol during pregnancy. B) limit her intake to two glasses per day. C) have only an occasional glass of wine with dinner. D) limit her intake to one glass per day.
4)
5) Which of the following is TRUE about teratogenic effects? A) The fetus cannot develop an addiction to the drugs the mother is using. B) These effects can be caused by environmental chemical exposure. C) The fetus is most susceptible to birth defects during the last three months of pregnancy. D) A rubella infection in the mother is not associated with teratogenic effects.
5)
6) A birth defect caused by the mother's alcohol intake during pregnancy is A) rubella. B) FAS. C) spina bifida. D) Down syndrome.
6)
7) Which form of contraception involves implanting a small object in a woman's uterus? A) NuvaRing B) intrauterine device C) cervical cap D) contraceptive implant
7)
8) Avery and Gregory have agreed to adopt the newborn of a 16-year-old mother who has decided to relinquish her baby. The identity of the father is unknown, and Avery and Gregory have been given very little information about the birth mother except for essential health data. This is an example of A) an international adoption. B) foster parenting. C) a confidential adoption. D) an open adoption.
8)
1
9) Which of the following is NOT true about male condoms? A) They help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections. B) They are reliable against pregnancy when used consistently. C) They can be purchased with a spermicide. D) They can be used with baby oil and body lotions as lubricants.
9)
10) Diaphragms A) have a low effectiveness rate. B) are effective even without spermicides. C) must be removed within two hours following intercourse. D) create a physical and chemical barrier to sperm.
10)
11) The most common cause of female infertility in the United States is A) endometriosis. B) gonorrhea. C) pelvic inflammatory disease. D) polycystic ovary syndrome.
11)
12) Which of the following lubricants is safe to use with a condom? A) petroleum jelly B) baby oil C) hand lotion D) contraceptive foam
12)
13) Which of the following is a female sterilization procedure that involves tying off or cauterizing certain structures of the reproductive system? A) suction curettage B) tubal ligation C) hysterectomy D) vasectomy
13)
14) Which of the following is NOT true about the FemCap cervical cap? A) It must be fitted by a medical practitioner. B) It must be kept in place at least 12 hours after intercourse. C) It can be removed, cleaned, and reinserted immediately. D) It is made of silicone and fits snugly over the cervix.
14)
15) Which form of birth control involves alteration of sexual behavior during certain times of the month? A) fertility awareness B) withdrawal C) outercourse D) abstinence
15)
16) Chaz and Jessamine are healthy and in their late 20s. They have been trying to conceive a child for the past six months without success. Chaz and Jessamine A) should ask Jessamine's physician to prescribe fertility drugs. B) are experiencing a form of infertility due to factors involving both partners. C) are not considered infertile. D) should consult an adoption agency about their options for adopting a child.
16)
17) Surgical abortions in the first trimester are typically done by A) intact dilation and extraction. B) induction abortion. C) dilation and evacuation. D) suction curettage.
17)
18) The typical-use failure rate for a contraception method takes into account which of the following? A) human error B) familiarity with the method C) perfect use D) daily use
18)
2
19) The surgical procedure that involves removal of the uterus is a(n) A) tubal ligation. B) endoscopy. C) vasectomy.
19) D) hysterectomy.
20) The difference between surgical and medical abortions is that A) medical abortions can be performed further into the pregnancy than surgical abortions. B) medical abortions are performed without entering the uterus. C) surgical abortions require more steps than medical abortions. D) medical abortions are much more common in the U.S. than surgical abortions.
20)
21) Which of the following is TRUE about the third trimester of pregnancy? A) The fetus grows the least during this trimester. B) It is the period during which the embryo differentiates and develops its various organ systems. C) The fetus needs large amounts of calcium, iron, and protein from the mother's diet. D) It is the period during which the placenta becomes well established.
21)
22) Which of the following circumstances can cause a miscarriage? A) having a strong cervix B) maternal infection or hormone imbalance C) too much caffeine D) consuming a vegetarian diet
22)
23) Leaving a diaphragm, tampon, or cervical cap in for an extended period of time increases the risk for A) AIDS. B) toxic shock syndrome. C) hypertension. D) HPV.
23)
24) Which of the following is NOT true about male infertility? A) There are normally about 1 million sperm per milliliter of semen. B) Exposure of the scrotum to radiation can cause infertility in men. C) Male infertility problems account for only 10 percent of infertility cases. D) Low sperm count can be caused by wearing excessively tight underwear.
24)
25) Women who use oral contraceptives and also smoke are at a higher risk of A) pneumonia and lung cancer. B) blood clots and hypertension. C) pregnancy. D) weight gain.
25)
26) Postpartum depression A) is caused by the nutritional demands of breast-feeding. B) frequently occurs just before childbirth. C) can lead to bipolar disorder. D) is characterized by lack of energy, depression, and mood swings.
26)
27) The network of blood vessels that provides nourishment to the fetus is the A) placenta. B) amniotic sac. C) uterus.
27) D) endometrium.
28) When a pregnant woman's water breaks, what is actually happening is that A) the baby enters the birth canal. B) the cervix dilates. C) the amniotic sac breaks. D) the placental barrier breaks.
3
28)
29) A disorder that occurs more frequently in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 is A) blindness. B) Down syndrome. C) spina bifida. D) deafness.
29)
30) Fertility awareness methods of birth control include all of the following EXCEPT A) the body temperature method. B) abstinence. C) the calendar method. D) the cervical mucus method.
30)
31) Fertility is a person's ability to A) reproduce. C) produce viable sperm.
31) B) have a normal delivery. D) prevent conception.
32) Which form of hormonal birth control works transdermally? A) Mirena B) Xulane C) Depo-Provera 33) Fertility drugs A) guarantee a successful pregnancy. C) can cause hypertension.
32) D) NuvaRing 33)
B) increase the chances of multiple births. D) reduce the risk of ovarian cysts.
34) The various methods used to prevent conception are known as A) ovulation. B) implantation. C) contraception. D) barrier methods.
34)
35) A rise in a woman's basal body temperature signals A) that fertilization has occurred. C) that ovulation has occurred.
35) B) the end of the current menstrual period. D) the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
36) Which of the following is TRUE about emergency contraceptive pills? A) All brands require a prescription and are subject to age restrictions. B) They will cause an abortion if the woman is already pregnant. C) They are 100 percent effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse. D) Multiple brands are available over-the-counter with no age restrictions.
36)
37) Which diagnostic procedure is a maternal blood test that can detect the potential for a birth defect or genetic abnormality? A) amniocentesis B) triple marker screen C) laboratory pregnancy test D) chorionic villus sampling
37)
38) Oral contraceptive pills are A) most commonly used by women who have had at least one child. B) about 91 percent effective at preventing pregnancy with typical use. C) effective protection against STIs. D) an effective barrier contraceptive method.
38)
39) Which of the following is TRUE about preeclampsia? A) Fluid retention and sudden weight gain are common signs. B) It usually occurs in the first trimester. C) The incidence of preeclampsia is higher for second- and third-time mothers. D) It is never a life-threatening condition for the fetus.
39)
4
40) Which assisted reproductive technology process involves the fertilization of a woman's egg outside of her body and the transfer of the fertilized egg to her uterus? A) alternative insemination B) nonsurgical embryo transfer C) in vitro fertilization D) embryo transfer
40)
41) The two contraceptive methods most commonly used by college students are A) male condoms and birth control pills. B) birth control pills and withdrawal. C) male condoms and withdrawal. D) birth control pills and Depo-Provera shots.
41)
42) Which of the following is TRUE about nutrition and exercise during pregnancy? A) Exercise can be beneficial, but the woman should consult with her physician first. B) All exercise should be avoided because it is harmful to the developing fetus. C) Vitamin supplements can make up for a less-than-balanced diet. D) Weight gain during pregnancy is unhealthy for the baby.
42)
43) Which form of birth control is injected every three months to remain effective? A) Xulane B) Depo-Provera C) Mirena
43) D) NuvaRing
44) Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because of the A) long recovery period required. B) major surgery involved. C) general anesthetic used. D) fear of decreased sexual performance.
44)
45) The relatively ineffective method of birth control known as coitus interruptus is also called the A) withdrawal method. B) calendar method. C) body temperature method. D) outercourse method.
45)
46) Which of the following is NOT an example of a barrier method of birth control? A) condoms B) spermicides C) diaphragms D) oral contraceptives
46)
47) Breast-fed infants A) have a decreased incidence of illness. B) are more prone to allergies. C) recover from illness more slowly than formula-fed infants. D) are more likely to be obese.
47)
48) To ensure its effectiveness, the BEST place to store a condom would be in A) a wallet. B) the freezer. C) the glove box of a locked car. D) a bathroom storage drawer away from sharp objects.
48)
49) A primary advantage of the contraceptive sponge is that A) it does not require a fitting from a doctor. B) protection lasts for 4 to 6 hours. C) it eliminates the risk of STIs. D) it does not use the spermicide nonoxynol-9.
49)
5
50) By federal law, when can women elect to have an abortion without legal restrictions? A) through the second trimester B) in the first trimester C) at no time without restrictions D) through the third trimester
50)
51) A surgical sterilization procedure that involves cutting the vas deferens is a(n) A) tubal ligation. B) hysterectomy. C) vasectomy.
51) D) endoscopy.
52) The transition stage of birth is characterized by A) the placenta detaching from the uterus. B) the baby's head moving into the birth canal. C) the baby exiting from the birth canal. D) the initial dilation of the cervix.
52)
53) A three-month segment of a pregnancy during which certain developmental changes occur in the embryo or fetus is a A) gestation period. B) cycle. C) phase. D) trimester.
53)
54) The first widely used birth control method for women was A) the IUD. B) the diaphragm. C) the pill. D) spermicidal foams and jellies.
54)
55) An IUD A) offers protection from pregnancy for 3 to 12 years. B) causes a long delay in the return of fertility. C) is nearly 95% effective with typical use. D) offers protection from sexually transmitted infections.
55)
56) The implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus, usually in a fallopian tube, is called A) ambiguous pregnancy. B) ectopic pregnancy. C) preeclampsia. D) miscarriage.
56)
57) Which of the following is not a reason cesarean sections may be performed? A) The baby is in physiological distress. B) The mother has used pain medication. C) Labor lasts too long. D) The baby is about the exit the uterus any way but headfirst.
57)
58) Which of the following procedures performed during pregnancy can determine the size and position of the fetus and detect birth defects in the nervous and digestive systems? A) triple marker screen B) ultrasound C) chorionic villus sampling D) amniocentesis
58)
59) Amniocentesis A) can identify genetic abnormalities present in the fetus. B) is strongly recommended for pregnant women under the age of 25. C) is entirely risk-free. D) involves snipping tissue from the developing fetal sac.
59)
6
60) During her pregnancy, Emily should avoid all of the following EXCEPT A) pesticides and other lawn chemicals. B) drinking tap water. C) x-rays. D) cleaning her cat's litter box.
60)
61) The fluid-filled, protective pouch surrounding the fetus is the A) uterus. B) endometrium. C) placenta.
61) D) amniotic sac.
62) Michael and Jill live together and are planning to marry once they graduate from college. They also would both like to have children–but not right away. Michael has a history of genital herpes and is concerned about not transmitting this infection to Jill. Of the following methods of contraception, which might be the BEST choice for them? A) a fertility awareness method B) female or male sterilization C) withdrawal D) female condoms
62)
63) During pregnancy, a woman could increase her folic acid intake by eating A) dark leafy greens, citrus fruits, and beans. B) low-fat milk and yogurt. C) chicken and turkey. D) steak and pork.
63)
64) Which of the following is TRUE about sterilization? A) Hysterectomy is the only sterilization method available for females. B) Sterilization is a permanent form of birth control achieved through surgical means. C) A tubal ligation is a high-risk procedure only used if other methods are not possible. D) There are age limits on sterilization procedures.
64)
65) Which of the following statements is TRUE about NuvaRing? A) It is left in place for three months. B) It exposes the user to a lower dose of estrogen than the combination pill. C) Even when used properly, it is much less effective than oral contraceptives. D) It requires the use of spermicide.
65)
66) To reduce the risk of her child having spina bifida, a pregnant woman should consume an adequate amount of which nutrient? A) vitamin B12 B) vitamin D C) biotin D) folic acid
66)
67) An infection during pregnancy that can cause visual or hearing disorders in the infant is A) Down syndrome. B) rubella. C) FAS. D) spina bifida.
67)
68) Preconception health involves all of the following EXCEPT A) monitoring prescription drug use. B) stopping tobacco and alcohol use. C) avoiding food containing folic acid. D) avoiding environmental chemicals.
68)
69) Which U.S. Supreme Court decision in 1973 gave women the legal right to an abortion? A) Roe v. Wade B) Roe v. Smith C) Smith v. Thomas D) Wade v. Thomas
69)
70) Substances designed to kill sperm are known as A) teratogens. B) progestins.
70) C) spermicides.
7
D) fungicides.
71) A cause of infertility in which uterine tissue is implanted outside the uterus and blocks the fallopian tubes is A) pelvic inflammatory disease. B) ovarian cancer. C) endometriosis. D) toxoplasmosis.
71)
72) The fertilization of an ovum by a sperm is A) ovulation. B) contraception.
72) C) implantation.
D) conception.
73) Genevieve was born via gestational surrogacy. Which of the following is true? A) Genevieve's biological mother relinquished her for adoption six months after her birth. B) A woman was hired to carry the embryo of Genevieve's mother and father to term. C) Genevieve's mother used artificial insemination because Genevieve's father is infertile. D) A woman was hired to be artificially inseminated with Genevieve's father's sperm and carry the pregnancy to term, after which she relinquished Genevieve to her parents.
73)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 74) One in four new mothers experience postpartum depression.
74)
75) Most research into birth control methods is focused on men.
75)
76) One advantage of the female condom is that it can be used multiple times.
76)
77) Overseas adoptions can cost $20,000 or more.
77)
78) Medical abortion performed early in the pregnancy is over 99% effective.
78)
79) The most common cause of male infertility is low sperm count.
79)
80) Emergency contraceptive pills have been used by almost 10% of sexually active college students or their partners.
80)
81) All spermicides are effective in preventing sexually transmitted infections.
81)
82) The sponge is inconvenient because it requires a trip to the doctor for fitting.
82)
83) Most types of diaphragms can be purchased over the counter wherever condoms are sold.
83)
84) The correct term for the uterus in a pregnant woman is the placenta.
84)
85) If a woman has a urinary tract infection and takes a pregnancy test, a false positive may result.
85)
86) Sterilization has become the leading method of contraception for women of all ages.
86)
87) The abortion method known as "partial birth abortion" is illegal in the United States.
87)
88) Contraceptive implants are more effective at preventing pregnancy than oral contraceptives.
88)
8
89) The Lamaze method is the most popular method of childbirth preparation in the United States.
89)
90) In the United States, 45% of all pregnancies are unintended.
90)
91) Outercourse is 100 percent effective against STIs.
91)
92) About two-thirds of U.S. abortions are performed before the 9th week of pregnancy.
92)
93) Some intrauterine contraceptives release small amounts of hormones.
93)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 94) Explain the difference between abstinence and outercourse and the pros and cons of each. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 95) Do you think it is important for men to take similar health precautions as women when trying to conceive? Should they consider their age? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 96) What factors do you think should be taken into consideration when planning a pregnancy? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 97) For a couple that strongly wishes to avoid pregnancy, at least for the next few years, which contraceptive methods would be most desirable and why? 98) Discuss the current research consensus on the effects of having had an abortion on a woman's emotional health. 99) Identify the three conditions necessary for conception, and at least three methods of contraception, identifying the necessary condition that each of these methods disrupts. 100) Why do you think sterilization is a common method of contraception for women of all ages in the United States?
9
Answer Key Testname: CH 7
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) B 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 7
51) C 52) B 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) B 57) B 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) D 62) D 63) A 64) B 65) B 66) D 67) B 68) C 69) A 70) C 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) Abstinence means to deliberately avoid intercourse, but can include engaging in kissing, massage, and solitary masturbation. Abstinence is 100 percent effective as birth control and in preventing STIs. Outercourse means engaging in activities such as oral-genital sex and mutual masturbation. Outercourse can be 100 percent effective for birth control but is not 100 percent effective against STIs.
11
Answer Key Testname: CH 7
95) Research suggests that a man's exposure to chemicals influences the health of his future child. Some disorders can be traced to sperm damaged by chemicals. Sperm are naturally vulnerable to toxic chemicals and genetic damage. Moreover, the father's age can play a role in the health of his offspring. Children born to older fathers appear to have an increased risk for autism, ADHD, bipolar disorder, and schizophrenia. 96) Couples should consider why they want to have a child. They should discuss whether they are ready to make the sacrifices necessary to bear and raise a child. In addition, they should examine whether they can financially afford a child. Both should consider the effect of their age, since the mother's and the father's age can affect the health of the child. Finally, the partners should assess their health status and health behaviors, and both parents-to-be should practice healthy habits such as avoiding smoking and substance abuse. 97) Couples who strongly wish to avoid pregnancy, yet want to preserve their fertility for the future, should make effectiveness a primary consideration in their choice of contraceptive. As shown in Table 7.1, IUDs and contraceptive implants (Nexplanon) are more than 99% effective with typical use. Other hormonal contraceptives are highly effective with typical use, but do not match the effectiveness of IUDs and implants. Other considerations, such as protection against sexually transmitted infections, cost, health concerns, etc., may be important for couples to consider as well. 98) A range of emotional responses, from happiness and relief to sadness and regret, are possible following an abortion. However, research does not suggest that abortion causes an increase in anxiety, depression, or thoughts of suicide. Research does suggest that the best predictor of a woman's emotional health following abortion is her emotional health prior to the abortion. Moreover, having to hide an abortion from others, fearing being stigmatized because of it, having a low level of social support, or having a low sense of self-esteem all increase the risk that the woman will have negative psychological consequences. 99) Conception requires: (1) a viable egg; (2) a viable sperm; and (3) access to the egg by the sperm. Examples of methods o contraception and the necessary condition they disrupt would include: • Hormonal birth control methods that suppress ovulation are effective in altering condition (1), the viable egg. Moreov fertility awareness methods attempt to ensure that a viable egg is not present in the woman's reproductive tract at the s time as viable sperm. • Although many conditions-such as exposure to heat or certain medications–can alter the health, number, and motility sperm, no reliable method of contraception currently exists to safely and effectively oppose condition (2), the viable spe • Male sterilization prevents sperm from entering the ejaculatory duct. Female sterilization, withdrawal, and barrier me such as male and female condoms and spermicide all prevent an encounter between viable sperm and viable egg. These methods alter condition (3), access. In addition, IUDs are thought to block fertilization by affecting the movement of egg and sperm. 100) As opposed to other methods of contraception, sterilization is permanent. It can be an excellent method of contraception for committed, mutually monogamous couples, as it prevents unplanned pregnancies among couples that do not want any children or any more children, but does not prevent STIs.
12
Chapter 8 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) All of the following drugs are used to treat opioid addiction EXCEPT A) methamphetamine. B) naltrexone (Trexan). C) buprenorphine (Temgesic). D) methadone.
1)
2) Which of the following is TRUE about over-the-counter drugs? A) They can be abused. B) Some require a prescription. C) They cannot be abused. D) They are monitored under the care of a physician.
2)
3) Over-the-counter drugs commonly abused by teens and young adults include A) cough and cold medicines and diet and sleep aids. B) antacids, pain relievers, and diet aids. C) pain relievers, muscle relaxants, and sleep aids. D) diuretics, vitamins, and herbal supplements.
3)
4) Lisa is aware that her best friend, Kim, has a drinking problem. Lisa continually makes excuses for her and often completes Kim's homework to protect her from flunking out of school. Lisa's behavior is an example of A) compulsion. B) intervening. C) reinforcing. D) enabling.
4)
5) The fastest-acting method of drug administration is A) intramuscular. B) suppositories.
5) C) inhalation.
D) oral ingestion.
6) Opioids are also called A) hallucinogens.
C) narcotics.
D) depressants.
6) B) stimulants.
7) In a synergistic drug interaction A) one drug blocks the action of another drug. B) an individual develops a tolerance to one drug that increases his or her tolerance to another drug. C) two or more drugs combine to produce extremely uncomfortable reactions. D) two drugs multiply each other's effects.
7)
8) Therapeutic communities are a type of A) individual therapy. C) outpatient behavioral treatment.
8) B) residential treatment. D) 12-step program.
9) Compulsive buying disorder is often associated with A) eating. B) financial problems. C) exercise. D) lying.
1
9)
10) The most popular form of LSD is A) a powder that is snorted. C) blotter acid that is swallowed or chewed.
10) B) a liquid that is injected into the veins. D) a pill that is swallowed.
11) People with a physiological dependence on a substance, such as an addictive drug, will experience A) withdrawal but not tolerance. B) neither tolerance nor withdrawal. C) both tolerance and withdrawal. D) tolerance but not withdrawal.
11)
12) Marijuana use presents clear dangers to those driving motor vehicles (as well as others on the road) because it A) is a known carcinogen. B) may cause seizures. C) negatively affects night vision. D) slows reaction time and impedes decision making.
12)
13) Diet pills contain ingredients such as caffeine, and can therefore act in what way on the body? A) as a hallucinogen B) as a stimulant C) as a narcotic D) as a depressant
13)
14) Colby has been prescribed a drug called Ativan for anxiety and insomnia. Colby is taking a A) benzodiazepine. B) barbiturate. C) narcotic. D) psychedelic.
14)
15) All of the following are true about suppositories EXCEPT that A) they enable a drug to be released into the bloodstream. B) they are designed to melt at body temperature. C) they are inserted into the vagina or anus. D) they have a short life span and become inactive within an hour.
15)
16) According to research, A) painkillers are the most commonly abused prescription drugs on campus. B) approximately 17% of college students report using prescription stimulants not prescribed to them. C) friends are the most common source of misused prescription drugs. D) students who misuse prescription stimulants primarily do so to boost their mood.
16)
17) Which of the following is NOT true about PCP? A) It can cause nausea and vomiting and reduce heart and respiratory rate. B) It is still used for surgery in some states. C) It was first used as an anesthetic. D) Its effects are unpredictable.
17)
18) Jason doesn't see that his addiction to heroin is self-destructive. He is experiencing A) obsession. B) loss of control. C) compulsion. D) denial.
18)
2
19) All of the following statements about the effects of chronic marijuana use are true EXCEPT: A) Marijuana use during pregnancy causes subtle brain changes that increase the risk for memory and attention problems in offspring. B) Vaping marijuana is associated with fewer adverse effects on the lungs than smoking marijuana. C) The lungs of marijuana smokers are exposed to more tar per breath than the lungs of tobacco smokers. D) Men who use marijuana weekly or more often have about twice the risk for testicular cancer as men who do not use marijuana.
19)
20) Rob is a chief executive officer at a technology company. He is overweight and has borderline high blood pressure. When his physician advises regular physical activity, Rob replies that he is too busy to exercise. Of the following addictions, which is Rob MOST likely experiencing? A) technology addiction B) exercise addiction C) work addiction D) Internet addiction
20)
21) Heroin has a A) high potential for addiction and limited medical use. B) high potential for addiction and no medical use. C) high potential for addiction and medical use. D) low potential for addiction and no medical use.
21)
22) Using a drug for a purpose other than that for which it is intended is A) drug use. B) drug abuse. C) drug misuse.
22) D) drug tolerance.
23) Marijuana is administered therapeutically for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) to reduce appetite for weight control. B) to forestall loss of lean muscle mass due to AIDS-wasting syndrome. C) to reduce the muscle pain and spasticity caused by multiple sclerosis. D) to control side effects of chemotherapy such as nausea and vomiting.
23)
24) Mikail is attempting to reduce his caffeine consumption. Assuming an 8-ounce serving, which of the following drinks that he consumes daily has the highest amount of caffeine? A) regular cola B) black tea C) energy drink D) gourmet coffee
24)
25) Stimulants such as Ritalin or Adderall are commonly prescribed to treat A) hypertension. B) insomnia. C) anxiety.
25) D) ADHD.
26) The excessive use of a drug is A) dependence. B) tolerance.
D) misuse.
26) C) abuse.
27) A substance intended to affect the structure or function of the body or mind through chemical action is A) a prescription drug. B) a synergistic drug. C) a drug. D) an illicit drug.
3
27)
28) Derrick frequently takes an over-the-counter stimulant weight loss drug just before heading to the gym for a workout, during which he typically consumes a 16-ounce energy drink. The interaction of the drugs in these products is MOST likely to be A) an intolerance. B) antagonistic. C) a cross-tolerance. D) synergistic.
28)
29) Which of the following statements about Internet addiction is true? A) A majority of college students report that Internet use and computer games have interfered with their academic performance. B) People with Internet addiction tend to have lower grades and poorer job performance than others who are not addicted. C) An estimated 2% of Internet users experience Internet addiction. D) Middle-age adults are more likely to become addicted to the Internet than young adults.
29)
30) Which of the following is an example of a process addiction? A) alcoholism B) a disciplined exercise routine C) regular Internet use D) compulsive gambling
30)
31) Which of the following is TRUE about psilocybin? A) Its physical effects wear off in 1-2 hours. B) It can cause hallucinations. C) It is the active chemical in a type of grass. D) It is similar to marijuana in its physical effects.
31)
32) The process of freeing the body from an addictive substance is known as A) detoxification. B) counseling. C) rehabilitation. 33) A large dose of cocaine can cause A) decreased heart rate and blood pressure. C) increased appetite and fatigue.
32) D) mainlining. 33)
B) a sustained high. D) increased heart rate and blood pressure.
34) Which of the following is a sign of codependent behavior? A) joining an addict in a destructive behavior, such as regularly getting drunk at parties B) having a history of substance abuse during the teen years C) striving to meet an addicted person's needs in an unhealthy way D) trying to encourage an addicted family member or friend to get help
34)
35) Addictive substances and behaviors A) have the potential to produce a positive mood change. B) do not necessarily have negative consequences. C) eventually lose their hold on a person over time. D) involve some type of substance abuse.
35)
36) Which of the following is true about drug abuse treatment? A) In most cases, an addiction to drugs or alcohol can be considered cured once detoxification has been achieved. B) One out of every 100 Americans age 12 or older needed treatment for drug or alcohol abuse in 2015. C) Treating drug and alcohol abuse is much more costly in the long run than not treating. D) Only 10% of Americans addicted to drugs or alcohol receive treatment.
36)
4
37) Ecstasy is a stimulant and a(n) A) mild hallucinogen. C) anesthetic.
37) B) antidepressant. D) narcotic.
38) The interaction of two or more drugs at the same receptor site in which one blocks the action of the other is A) cross-tolerance. B) synergism. C) antagonism. D) intolerance.
38)
39) Which of the following is TRUE about steroids? A) Adverse effects include mood swings, elevated cholesterol levels, acne, and hypertension. B) They are used to produce a lean and streamlined physique and to enhance aerobic capacity. C) They are used more by women than men. D) Use in intercollegiate sports has been increasing over the past two decades.
39)
40) According to research, each of the following factors increases the risk of substance abuse among students EXCEPT A) substance use in high school. B) participation in college sports. C) genetics and family history of addiction. D) fraternity or sorority membership.
40)
41) The so-called pleasure circuit A) includes the central nervous system, the endocrine system, and the immune system. B) spans the brain, sensory receptors in the skin, and motor neurons attached to muscles. C) is activated when the pituitary gland releases hormones related to pleasure into the bloodstream. D) is also known as the mesolimbic dopamine system.
41)
42) David spends four hours a day lifting weights and is at the point of obsession about his fitness routine to the extent that he will miss classes and outings with friends so he can go to the gym. He most likely suffers from which of the following disorders? A) bulimia B) anorexia nervosa C) exercise addiction D) bipolar disorder
42)
43) Marijuana today is A) not subject to state or federal drug laws. C) legal for medical purposes in 28 states.
43) B) not able to be orally ingested. D) less of a health risk than it used to be.
44) Mescaline A) is a depressant. B) is derived from a cactus. C) has few side effects. D) is usually dried, crushed to a powder, and smoked.
44)
45) Which type of drug is defined as having the potential to alter a person's mood or behavior? A) psychoactive drug B) illicit drug C) over-the-counter drug D) recreational drug
45)
5
46) Psychoactive drugs have which type of effect on the body? A) They speed up energy metabolism and body movements. B) They depress or slow all body functions. C) They enhance, suppress, or interfere with the actions of neurotransmitters. D) They potentiate the effect of other drugs on the nervous system.
46)
47) When drugs activate the brain's pleasure circuit, what neurotransmitter is involved? A) dopamine B) melamine C) ketamine D) amphetamine
47)
48) Among American adults, the second most commonly abused type of drug, after marijuana, is A) ergogenic drugs. B) over-the-counter drugs. C) inhalants. D) prescription drugs.
48)
49) Which of the following is TRUE about inhalants? A) The effects last for days. B) Doses are difficult to control because of individual lung capacities. C) The products used are illegal for purchase by minors. D) They reach the bloodstream 10 minutes after inhalation.
49)
50) Treatment approaches for college students who develop drug addictions include all of the following approaches EXCEPT A) group therapy. B) nutrition counseling. C) extrasensory perception therapy. D) private therapy.
50)
51) Which of the following statements is TRUE of cocaine? A) It is sometimes prescribed in moderation as an antidepressant. B) It is available in only one form. C) It is an anesthetic and a stimulant. D) It is a central nervous system depressant.
51)
52) Using a nicotine patch for smoking cessation is an example of which route of administration? A) inhalation B) oral ingestion C) transdermal D) injection
52)
53) Bath salts A) can produce anxiety, agitation, hallucinations, and paranoia when used at high doses. B) can cause a rapid drop in blood pressure and heart rate when ingested, snorted, or injected. C) are powders that release an intoxicating fragrance when poured into hot water. D) are a relatively new form of MDMA.
53)
54) Anabolic steroids are a type of A) hallucinogenic drug. C) ergogenic drug.
54) B) testosterone-reducing drug. D) anti-psychotic drug.
55) College students who become addicted to gambling face an increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT A) psychological difficulties. B) failing grades. C) smoking. D) serious debt.
6
55)
56) Which of the following is TRUE about gambling addictions? A) Gambling problems do not tend to become worse over time. B) Most compulsive gamblers seek a high from the excitement even more than from money. C) People with a compulsive gambling disorder and people who abuse drugs have entirely different cravings and highs. D) Gambling problems are greater among individuals with high socioeconomic status.
56)
57) Which of the following is TRUE about routes of drug administration? A) The least effective route of administration is by inhalation. B) Drugs can't be absorbed through the skin. C) Intravenous injection is the most dangerous method of administration. D) Drugs taken orally reach the bloodstream faster than drugs taken by inhalation.
57)
58) Morphine, codeine, and heroin are all A) amphetamines. C) opioids.
58) B) available over the counter. D) available by prescription.
59) James is no longer able to feel the same effect from his drug of choice with his regular dose; he needs to increase the amount of the drug to feel the desired effect. This demonstrates A) adjustment. B) tolerance. C) withdrawal. D) intolerance.
59)
60) Chelsea occasionally takes aspirin to relieve a headache. Chelsea is A) engaging in drug abuse. B) using a transdermal drug. C) likely to develop cross-tolerance. D) using an over-the-counter (OTC) drug.
60)
61) Terence takes several vitamin supplements as well as a prescribed cholesterol medication and an over-the-counter pain reliever for his arthritis. Terence is exhibiting A) drug abuse. B) reuptake. C) polydrug use. D) potentiation.
61)
62) To help him fight his addiction to alcohol, Andy's physician has prescribed a drug that will make him feel intensely uncomfortable if he drinks alcohol. This type of response is called A) antagonism. B) synergism. C) cross-tolerance. D) intolerance.
62)
63) Which of the following is NOT true of methamphetamine? A) It can be snorted, smoked, injected, or orally ingested. B) It destroys dopamine receptors. C) It takes long-term use to develop tolerance. D) It can produce a high lasting over 8 hours when smoked.
63)
64) Stimulants act by increasing the activity of the A) peripheral nervous system. C) parasympathetic nervous system.
64) B) autonomic nervous system. D) central nervous system.
65) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that prescription drug abuse is so common? A) Prescription drugs have few side effects. B) People perceive prescription drugs as safer than illicit drugs. C) Prescription drugs are easily accessible. D) Prescription drugs are relatively inexpensive.
7
65)
66) Chemical vapors in household products such as varnish, glues, and gasoline are examples of A) inhalants. B) stimulants. C) over-the-counter drugs. D) club drugs.
66)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 67) A characteristic of addiction is loss of control, which typically leads directly to negative consequences.
67)
68) A synergistic drug interaction can be dangerous or even deadly.
68)
69) Although Martha drinks an herbal tea at night formulated to support healthy sleep, the botanicals in this tea would not meet the definition of a drug.
69)
70) Almost all psychoactive drugs work by increasing the brain's production of neurotransmitters.
70)
71) Substance abuse disorders can be easily identified through brief screenings in clinical settings.
71)
72) Exercise addicts turn to exercise in an attempt to meet needs for nurturance, self-esteem, etc.
72)
73) College students tend to underestimate the extent of drug use on campus.
73)
74) Psychological dependence, which involves feelings of well-being or euphoria, is completely separate from physiological dependence on a substance.
74)
75) One reason that methadone maintenance is controversial is that it can be addictive.
75)
76) In the United States, help is available for anyone who truly wants to overcome an addiction.
76)
77) Depressants speed up neuromuscular activity and can increase focus and alertness.
77)
78) About 36% of college students report having used marijuana in the past year.
78)
79) Endorphins are hormones that act as "the body's own opioids" in their ability to reduce pain and produce feelings of well-being.
79)
80) Prescription drug abuse has increased dramatically among college students over the past 10 years.
80)
81) Withdrawal and tolerance are key aspects of addiction.
81)
82) Marijuana use may forestall the loss of lean muscle mass associated with AIDS.
82)
83) GHB is a safe alternative to steroids.
83)
84) Many people who engage in compulsive sexual behavior have a history of physical, emotional, or sexual abuse.
84)
8
85) Mescaline, in the form of dried peyote buttons, has long been used for religious purposes by people native to the southwestern United States and Latin America.
85)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 86) How would you recognize technology addiction in a friend or family member? Provide information from the chapter to support your response. 87) How would you recognize it if a friend or family member displayed an addictive behavior? Provide information from the chapter to support your response. 88) Do you think marijuana should be used for medicinal purposes? Provide information from the chapter to support your response. 89) Savannah's best friend on campus has a prescription for Adderall to treat her ADHD. She tells Savannah that she has more pills than she needs, and offers some to Savannah for free to help "get her through mid-terms." Identify at least three questions Savannah should ask herself before doing so. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 90) In addition to prescription and over-the-counter drugs, identify four other categories of drugs and give one example of each. 91) Distinguish between drug misuse and abuse. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. 92) Using material from the chapter, discuss the role of social support in addiction recovery.
9
Answer Key Testname: CH 8
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) C 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) C 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 8
51) C 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) B 57) C 58) C 59) B 60) D 61) C 62) D 63) C 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) A technology addict consistently spends hours online or texting instead of eating, sleeping, studying, or interacting with friends in person. Signs of addiction include sleep deprivation, a disregard for personal health, and neglecting responsibilities and family and friends. They may only feel good when they are connected and are moody or uncomfortable otherwise. 87) An addicted person displays symptoms that include compulsion or excessive preoccupation with a particular behavior and an overwhelming need to perform it; a loss of control; negative consequences such as physical damage, legal trouble, financial problems, or academic failure; and denial or an inability to perceive that the behavior is self-destructive. The person also exhibits an inability to abstain from the behavior. 88) Answers will vary. It can help control the nausea and vomiting that are common side effects of chemotherapy for cancer patients, it improves appetite, and forestalls the loss of lean muscle mass associated with AIDS -wasting syndrome. It can reduce muscle pain caused by diseases such as multiple sclerosis. However, opponents assert that there are many FDA-approved medications that are just as effective in treating the same health problems. Moreover, marijuana can also have negative medical effects, such as lung disorders, immunosuppression, negative effects on memory, and an increased risk for motor vehicle accidents. 11
Answer Key Testname: CH 8
89) Answers will vary. Savannah should ask herself why she might consider accepting the drugs. Does she believe that, by accepting her friend's offer, she'll impress or fit in better with her peers? If so, what does that say about her and about her peers? She should also ask herself how she expects taking the drugs will cause her to feel, and what effect the drugs might have on her behavior. She also needs to think about the wider consequences of using the drugs, especially if she begins to rely on them for "successful studying" or even becomes addicted to them, or if she is caught using them. Could she be expelled, risk her current or a future job, or shift the relationship she might have with family members and other friends? 90) (Examples may vary.) In addition to prescription and over-the-counter drugs, four categories of drugs are recreational drugs such as alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine; herbal preparations such as chamomile tea, St. John's wort, and garlic capsules; illicit drugs such as heroin, LSD, cocaine, and others discussed in section 8.5; and commercial drugs such as chemicals found in paints, glues, and pesticides. 91) Drug misuse is the use of a drug for a purpose for which it was not intended, such as taking a friend's prescription painkiller for your headache. Drug abuse is excessive use of any drug that may result in serious harm. Both may lead to addiction. 92) (Answers will vary.) Social support includes community support via a formal group such as a 12-step program, which helps individuals work toward personal recovery. Recovery coaches, a newer option in social support, help people being discharged from treatment programs to connect with community resources and provide emotional support, informational support, help in accessing health and social services, and in finding health social connections and recreational activities. Social and recreational programs for people in recovery include cafes, clubhouses, sports leagues, and music and arts groups. Finally, social media can provide support for people in recovery, reducing isolation and promoting friendships.
12
Chapter 9 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following statements about college drinking is TRUE? A) Female college students' alcohol consumption is close to that of male college students. B) Three-quarters of college students are classified as heavy episodic drinkers. C) The majority of college students drink alcohol on a daily basis. D) Few students experience negative consequences as a result of alcohol consumption.
1)
2) An NIAAA approach to reducing alcohol consumption on campus is A) efforts to change the perceived frequency of drinking on campus. B) motivational speakers with recovery messages. C) the Alcohol e-Check Up to Go (e-Chug). D) Brief Alcohol Screening and Intervention for College Students.
2)
3) Which of the following is TRUE about environmental tobacco smoke (ETS)? A) Whereas mainstream smoke is the smoke exhaled by smokers, sidestream smoke is the smoke emitted from the end of a burning cigarette. B) Between 1988 and 2008, detectable levels of nicotine exposure in nonsmokers decreased. C) As of 2016, all workplaces throughout the United States are required to be 100 percent smoke-free. D) ETS has far fewer carcinogens, tar, and nicotine than mainstream smoke.
3)
4) Colleges have implemented programs to reduce alcohol use that include a nonjudgmental approach to working with students known as A) detoxification centers. B) 12-step programs. C) motivational interviewing. D) pharmacological therapy.
4)
5) Which of the following is NOT true about a hangover? A) Irritation of the stomach lining from increased production of hydrochloric acid can prompt nausea. B) Toxic forms of alcohol known as congeners may be a contributing factor. C) Hangover signs and symptoms can include diarrhea and depression. D) It usually takes 1-2 hours to recover from a hangover.
5)
6) What substance in cigarettes is a highly addictive stimulant? A) menthol B) carbon monoxide C) tar D) nicotine
6)
7) Which of the following statements about hookas is true? A) Hookah use has not been associated with lung cancer or other respiratory disease. B) A hookah is a type of pipe that uses smokeless tobacco. C) Hookah use originated in Africa. D) Hookah use has been linked to an increased risk for periodontal disease.
7)
1
8) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to the health effects of smoking? A) Smoking can cause erectile dysfunction in men, but not impotence. B) Nicotine slows the body's use and elimination of medications, increasing their effects. C) Women can smoke occasionally during pregnancy without ill effects. D) Women who smoke are more likely to have fertility problems than non-smokers.
8)
9) What is the percentage of alcohol in 100 proof whiskey? A) 80 percent B) 50 percent C) 20 percent
9) D) 40 percent
10) Before leaving for a party, Kristina took two "100% percent pure caffeine" pills containing 200 mg caffeine each. Which of the following is likely to happen at the party? A) Kristina is likely to drink much more heavily than she would have if she had not taken the caffeine pills. B) Kristina is likely to feel exhausted and leave the party early. C) Kristina is likely to experience an intolerance reaction of nausea and vomiting prompted by her consumption of both caffeine pills and alcohol. D) Kristina is likely to pass out after having only two or three drinks.
10)
11) Approximately what percentage of Americans consume alcoholic beverages regularly? A) 75 percent B) 10 percent C) 50 percent D) 25 percent
11)
12) Long-term alcohol abusers can develop a chronic and dangerous inflammation of the liver known as A) cirrhosis. B) hepatic amyloidosis. C) fibrosis. D) alcoholic hepatitis.
12)
13) Risk for developing lung cancer varies among smokers due to all of the following EXCEPT A) amount of inhalation of cigarette smoke. B) age of onset of smoking. C) frequency of smoking. D) tolerance to nicotine.
13)
14) Which of the following is NOT true about alcohol absorption? A) Carbonated alcoholic beverages are absorbed less rapidly than those containing no sparkling additives. B) Almost 80 percent of alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine. C) Alcohol can be diffused from the stomach lining into the bloodstream. D) The alcohol in wine is absorbed more slowly than the alcohol in a shot of whiskey.
14)
15) If you know you will be at an event where alcohol will be served, what can you do to drink responsibly? A) Attend with friends who drink more than you do. B) Eat shortly before you go and alternate alcoholic and nonalcoholic drinks. C) Make sure that someone else has volunteered to be a designated driver. D) Don't eat for several hours before the event.
15)
16) Factors affecting alcohol absorption include all of the following EXCEPT A) the drinker's weight and body mass. B) the time of day the alcohol is consumed. C) the drinker's mood. D) the type of drink.
16)
2
17) Which of the following statements about nicotine replacement products is true? A) Nicotine inhalers deliver an unsaturated dose of nicotine to the lungs. B) A nicotine patch requires a prescription. C) A piece of nicotine gum delivers about twice the nicotine in a cigarette. D) It is easy to overdose with the nasal spray.
17)
18) A form of alcohol that metabolizes slowly and produces toxic byproducts is a(n) A) congener. B) intoxicator. C) ethyl alcohol product. D) distilled alcohol product.
18)
19) An addictive drug produced by fermentation is A) dehydrogenase. B) acetaldehyde.
19) C) congener.
20) The ratio of alcohol to total blood volume is the A) ethyl alcohol density. C) complete blood count.
B) blood alcohol concentration. D) red blood cell volume.
D) ethyl alcohol. 20)
21) One standard drink equals A) 10 ounces of wine or 1 ounce of 80 proof liquor. B) 6 ounces of malt liquor or 8 ounces of beer. C) 12 ounces of beer or 1.5 ounces of 80 proof liquor. D) 16 ounces of beer or wine.
21)
22) Marketing of tobacco products currently targets all of the following EXCEPT A) affluent citizens through community-based events. B) low-income groups through billboards and posters. C) college students through music festivals and other targeted events. D) men through ads implying masculinity and ruggedness.
22)
23) The action of nicotine on the cilia of upper respiratory passages prevents them from A) cleaning out foreign matter. B) participating in gas exchange. C) producing mucus. D) stimulating the cough reflex.
23)
24) What substance in certain cigarettes numbs the throat to allow for deeper inhalation? A) menthol B) nicotine C) tar D) carbon monoxide
24)
25) The water that is pulled out of the body when someone drinks heavily is taken from A) cerebral tissue. B) cerebrospinal fluid. C) fat stores. D) skeletal muscle.
25)
26) A disease associated with smoking in which alveoli are destroyed is known as A) emphysema. B) alveolitis. C) hepatitis. D) chronic bronchitis.
26)
27) When personal and health problems related to alcohol use have become severe and a person suffers withdrawal symptoms if they don't drink, they have reached the point of alcoholism or A) tolerance. B) binge drinking. C) alcohol dependence. D) inebriation.
27)
3
28) Which of the following is FALSE about smokeless tobacco? A) Young people's use of smokeless tobacco has been declining steadily since 1999. B) Snus is a stringy form of chewing tobacco. C) It is just as addictive as smoking. D) It contains more nicotine than cigarettes.
28)
29) What percentage of Americans abstain from drinking alcohol? A) 41 percent B) 31 percent C) 11 percent
29) D) 21 percent
30) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to global health and alcohol use? A) Alcohol is a factor in 30 types of diseases and injuries. B) Almost 4 percent of all deaths worldwide are attributed to alcohol. C) The highest consumption levels can be found in the developing world. D) At the same consumption level, men are more likely than women to develop cancer.
30)
31) What substance in cigarettes is a thick, brownish sludge containing carcinogens? A) tar B) menthol C) carbon monoxide D) nicotine
31)
32) One reason that the effects of alcohol are different for women and men is that A) women are not affected by congeners. B) men are not affected by congeners. C) women have lower levels of body fat than men. D) women have less water in their tissues than men.
32)
33) What effect does carbon monoxide have on the body? A) It irritates nasal passages and lung tissue. B) It binds with dopamine receptors to produce the pleasurable effects associated with smoking. C) It diminishes hormone production. D) It diminishes the oxygen-carrying capacity of the red blood cells.
33)
34) Which of the following is a smoking cessation medication? A) Zyban B) Concerta C) Ambien
34) D) Vicodin
35) Which of the following occurs within 24 hours of quitting smoking? A) Cilia regrow in the lungs. B) Circulation improves. C) Coughing and shortness of breath decrease. D) Chance of heart attack decreases.
35)
36) Jeff has been drinking a lot over the past few months, including frequent binges. His friends are concerned that this behavior puts him at risk for a condition that involves a potentially lethal blood alcohol concentration. Which condition is this? A) coronary artery disease B) cirrhosis C) alcohol poisoning D) alcoholic hepatitis
36)
4
37) Eating food when drinking alcohol A) decreases the absorption of nutrients in food. B) increases the absorption of nutrients in food. C) slows alcohol absorption. D) speeds up alcohol absorption.
37)
38) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of alcohol poisoning? A) yellowish tint to the skin B) weak, rapid pulse C) inability to be roused D) irregular breathing patterns
38)
39) How long does it take for the average adult to metabolize four 12-ounce beers? A) 4 hours B) 5 hours C) 2 hours D) 3 hours
39)
40) A standard rum and cola will be absorbed faster than a 5-ounce glass of wine because A) a rum and cola has more alcohol than the glass of wine. B) carbonation causes the pyloric valve to relax. C) carbonated beverages have less alcohol. D) distilled beverages are absorbed more slowly than nondistilled.
40)
41) Bidis are becoming increasingly popular because they are viewed as safer than regular cigarettes. Research shows that bidis A) decrease the smoker's exposure to carbon monoxide as compared to cigarettes. B) produce five times less tar than cigarettes. C) produce 20 percent less tar than cigarettes. D) produce three times more nicotine than cigarettes.
41)
42) Which of the following is TRUE of drinking and driving? A) Twenty percent of all traffic fatalities are alcohol-related. B) More than 50 percent of college students report that they have driven after consuming alcohol. C) The majority of alcohol-impaired driving fatalities occur in the 16- to 20-year-old age group. D) Over the last 20 years, the percentage of intoxicated drivers involved in fatal crashes has decreased.
42)
43) Drinking games result in the consumption of large quantities of alcohol in a short period of time and have been associated with A) death from alcohol poisoning. B) muscle and joint disorders. C) developing respiratory problems. D) paranoid behavior.
43)
44) Which of the following statements about college students and tobacco use is true? A) In 2016, about 20 percent of college students reported smoking within the past 30 days. B) College students who identify themselves as social smokers are unlikely to suffer negative health consequences of their behavior. C) College women have higher smoking rates than college men. D) Smoking has decreased among college students during the past decade.
44)
5
45) Binge drinking is defined for the typical adult as A) 4 or more drinks for females or 5 or more drinks for males in about two hours. B) 3 or more drinks for females or 4 or more drinks for males in about two hours. C) 5 or more drinks for both females and males in about two hours. D) 5 or more drinks for females or 6 or more drinks for males in about two hours.
45)
46) The toxic chemical byproduct of alcohol metabolism that causes nausea and vomiting is called A) acetate. B) alcohol dehydrogenase. C) transacetate. D) acetaldehyde.
46)
47) The reduction in alcohol-related driving fatalities since the 1980s is due to A) less restrictive enforcement of laws in some states. B) an increased number of rehabilitation facilities. C) a decreased drinking age in many states. D) zero tolerance laws and increased drinking age.
47)
48) A driver is always impaired when he or she has a blood alcohol concentration of A) 0.10 percent or higher. B) 0.03 percent or higher. C) 0.05 percent or higher. D) 0.08 percent or higher.
48)
49) The last stage of liver disease that can result from years of heavy drinking is A) hepatic amyloidosis. B) alcoholic hepatitis. C) fibrosis. D) cirrhosis.
49)
50) Symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include all of the following EXCEPT A) restlessness. B) weakness in the limbs. C) nausea and vomiting. D) irritability.
50)
51) A driver is "usually impaired" at a blood alcohol concentration of A) 0.01 to 0.04 percent. B) 0.08 to 0.14 percent. C) 0.15 to 0.24 percent. D) 0.05 to 0.07 percent.
51)
52) The main site of alcohol metabolism is the A) colon. B) spleen.
52) C) liver.
D) kidney.
53) Urinating frequently after alcohol consumption occurs because A) alcohol filters through the kidneys faster than water. B) alcohol can be a gastrointestinal irritant. C) alcohol is a diuretic. D) alcohol shrinks the bladder.
53)
54) Which statement BEST summarizes what happens when particulate matter condenses in the lungs? A) It causes delirium tremens. B) It forms carbon monoxide. C) It paralyzes the cilia for up to an hour. D) It forms tar, which is a thick, brownish sludge.
54)
6
55) Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can cause significant brain damage and other impairments in the fetus; this condition is known as A) fetal cirrhosis. B) teratogenic paralysis. C) alcoholic hepatitis. D) fetal alcohol syndrome.
55)
56) Scott spends most of his weekends either drinking or recovering from drinking, and as a result is unable to keep up with his studying and assignments. Scott A) is alcohol dependent. B) has an alcohol use disorder. C) has drunkorexia. D) is a functional alcoholic.
56)
57) Which nicotine replacement product requires a prescription? A) nicotine patch B) nicotine lozenges C) nicotine nasal spray D) nicotine gum
57)
58) After a night of heavy drinking, John still appears sober while his friends are obviously intoxicated. It is likely that John has developed A) nonalcoholic personality. B) alcohol consumption tolerance. C) alcoholic acceptance. D) learned behavioral tolerance.
58)
59) When alcohol is inhaled rather than swallowed, A) it takes about 30 minutes longer to enter the bloodstream. B) it stimulates the gag reflex. C) it is not metabolized prior to entering the bloodstream. D) the risk for alcohol toxicity is reduced.
59)
60) How many Americans suffer from health disorders caused by tobacco? A) half a million B) 7 million C) 16 million
60) D) 2 million
61) Smoking contributes to heart disease by doing all of the following EXCEPT A) thinning the plaque in the major blood vessels. B) decreasing HDL ("good") cholesterol. C) increasing platelet adhesiveness. D) weakening tissues.
61)
62) Smokeless tobacco users A) generally develop cancer after first use more slowly than smokers. B) rarely "graduate" to cigarette smoking. C) have an easier time quitting than cigarette smokers. D) are significantly more likely to develop oral cancers than nonusers.
62)
63) Which of the following is TRUE about women and alcoholism? A) Married women are at the highest risk for alcoholism among females. B) Women get addicted faster with less alcohol use than men. C) Alcoholism death rates are lower for women than for men. D) As opposed to men with alcoholism, women with alcoholism have a lower risk for cirrhosis.
63)
64) The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome include A) passive and calm behavior. C) abnormally large head size.
64) B) Down's syndrome. D) mental retardation.
7
65) The process by which addicts get an addictive substance out of their system as part of ending their dependence on it is A) detoxification. B) intervention. C) confrontation. D) resistance.
65)
66) Which of the following statements about nicotine is TRUE? A) It is a powerful central nervous system stimulant. B) It decreases production of adrenaline. C) It is mildly addictive. D) It causes a drop in blood pressure.
66)
67) Chewing tobacco can lead to a condition characterized by leathery white patches inside the mouth known as A) alcoholic hepatitis. B) leukemia. C) oral cancer. D) leukoplakia.
67)
68) Which of the following is a TRUE statement? A) Tobacco is the second leading cause of preventable death in the United States. B) Tobacco is known to cause about 20 diseases. C) Twenty-five percent of all regular smokers die of smoking-related diseases. D) More deaths are due to illegal drug use than are due to tobacco use.
68)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 69) Alcohol intoxication increases the risk of having unprotected sex.
69)
70) Alcohol and tobacco result in more deaths each year than all illicit drugs combined.
70)
71) People who breathe tobacco smoke from another person's cigarette are known as sidestream smokers.
71)
72) Consumption of alcohol is the number-one cause of preventable death among U.S. college students.
72)
73) Cigarettes made with ground cloves deliver lower levels of tar and carbon monoxide than regular cigarettes.
73)
74) If a friend passes out and cannot be roused after drinking heavily for hours, you should call 9-1-1.
74)
75) Smoking increases the risk for one of the most common causes of blindness in older adults.
75)
76) Mixing alcohol with energy drinks reduces the level of alcohol impairment.
76)
77) Geneticists have now identified a specific "alcoholism gene" that causes alcohol addiction.
77)
78) Most people who are withdrawing from alcohol addiction experience delirium tremens.
78)
79) Advertising for cigarettes targets specific groups in society.
79)
80) More than half of U.S. smokers make a serious attempt to quit each year.
80)
8
81) Cigars are less of a health risk than cigarettes.
81)
82) College students who smoke are more likely to have lower levels of perceived stress than nonsmokers.
82)
83) Drunkorexia is a term used to describe behavior that combines heavy drinking and disordered eating.
83)
84) Even 15 years after smoking, the risk of death from lung cancer is twice the risk of people who never smoked.
84)
85) Worrying about an upcoming test would be likely to increase the alcohol absorption rate in the body.
85)
86) An alcoholic beverage that is 80 proof would be 20 percent alcohol by volume.
86)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 87) List six reasons why college students seem particularly susceptible to alcohol-related problems. What steps can you take to reduce your risk of having these problems? 88) Identify at least two health-related concerns associated with e-cigarettes. 89) How does tobacco use affect the local, state, and national economy? 90) Ida has smoked for twenty years. She wakes each morning breathless and coughing persistently. Identify the respiratory diseases other than lung cancer that Ida is at greatest risk for, identifying her increase in mortality risk over that of nonsmokers. 91) Identify three reasons that alcohol consumption increases an individual's risk for suicide. 92) Explain why any individual, male or female, weighing 140 pounds or less who has had an alcoholic beverage within the last thirty minutes should not get behind the wheel of a car. 93) Domenic is attempting to quit smoking. When the urge to smoke hits, what "four Ds" can help him overcome it? 94) Give two examples of how the tobacco industry Master's Settlement Agreement funds are to be used. Do you think this use is appropriate? What other productive ways could these funds be spent? 95) What treatment options are available for an individual who has a drinking problem? 96) List and describe three possible long-term effects of alcohol intake.
9
Answer Key Testname: CH 9
1) A 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) D 48) D 49) D 50) B 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 9
51) D 52) C 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) B 57) C 58) D 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) D 68) B 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) • Alcohol exacerbates the already high rate for suicide, crashes, and falls. • Norms and traditions in college encourage dangerous patterns of alcohol use. • University campuses are a target for alcohol advertising. • Beer and other drink specials enable students to consume large amounts of alcohol cheaply. • College students are particularly vulnerable to peer influences. • College administrators often deny that alcohol problems exist on their campuses. Steps to reduce risk include setting a limit for consumption, using a designated driver, and avoiding parties where you heavy drinking. 88) Answers will vary but should include two or more of the following: • No reliable research evidence yet exists on the health effects of the chemicals present in the aerosolized vapors emitte e-cigarettes. • Carcinogenic chemicals have been found in secondhand e-cigarette vapors. • The health effects of e-cigarettes are not fully understood. • The nicotine in e-cigarettes is as addictive as the nicotine in traditional cigarettes. 11
Answer Key Testname: CH 9
89) Tobacco production benefits economies in tobacco-growing states, and cigarette taxes benefit local, state, and federal governments. However, the diseases associated with tobacco use are so numerous and so severe that they impose a staggering financial burden–between $289 and $333 billion–in costs of medical treatment and lost productivity. These costs far exceed the revenues from taxes on tobacco products. 90) Ida is up to 25 times more likely to die of respiratory disease than nonsmokers. The respiratory diseases other than lung cancer she is most at risk for are chronic bronchitis, which is characterized by lung inflammation and a persistent cough, and emphysema, in which the alveoli (tiny air sacs) of the lungs are destroyed and breathing becomes difficult. 91) Alcohol is theorized to increase suicide risk by causing an increase in the intensity of depressive thoughts; by lowering an individual's inhibitions to harm himself or herself; and by impairing an individual's ability to think through the future consequences of his or her actions. 92) Males and females weighing 140 pounds or less who have had even one drink in the past hour are sometimes impaired, and women who weigh 100 pounds or less are usually impaired. Moreover, many variables can affect blood alcohol concentration and level of impairment, including the amount of food eaten, the volume of alcohol in the drink consumed, the individual's level of body fat and body water, and more. 93) Domenic should: • Take a deep breath. • Drink water. • Do something else, such as chewing a piece of gum or carrot stick, calling a friend, or going for a walk. • Delay; that is, wait ten minutes. 94) Smoking cessation education and advertising; research to determine the effect of smoking cessation strategies; reduce tobacco industry promotions and advertising directed at youth. Answers to the questions will vary based on student opinion. 95) There are support groups such as Alcoholics Anonymous, private treatment facilities, hospitals, and community mental health facilities. Psychologists can also provide therapy (group, individual, or family) aimed at examining the underlying causes of addiction and providing positive coping strategies. 96) (Any three of the following) • Nervous system: Even moderate drinking can cause shrinkage in brain size and weight and loss of some degree of int ability. • Cardiovascular system: Moderate consumption may reduce coronary artery disease by increasing HDL ("good") chole and reducing inflammation. However, heavy alcohol use contributes to high blood pressure, increasing the risk of heart and stroke. • Liver disease: Cirrhosis or inflammation of the liver can be fatal. • Cancer: Alcohol use is linked to cancers of the esophagus, stomach, mouth, liver, colon, rectum, and breast. Alcohol c considered carcinogenic. • Other: inflammation of pancreas; inhibits enzyme production and affects nutrient metabolism; blocks absorption of ca thereby affecting bone development; decreased immunity.
12
Chapter 10 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The updated Nutrition Facts panel adds information about amount of which of the following in a serving of food? A) vitamin C B) added sugars C) vitamin A D) calories from fat
1)
2) Which of the following could be included in a vegan diet? A) eggs B) raw milk C) apples
2)
3) What percentage of fruits and vegetables is water? A) 20 to 25 percent C) 8 to 10 percent
D) fish 3)
B) about 50 percent D) 80 to 95 percent
4) The following are all tips for mindful eating EXCEPT: A) Take small bites, and chew slowly. B) Finish all of the food on your plate. C) Enjoy the aroma, taste, and texture of your meals. D) Eat at the table.
4)
5) According to the criteria set by the USDA, which of the following would be an appropriate label for an apple grown without toxic and persistent pesticides or fertilizers? A) organic B) 100 percent organic C) some organic ingredients D) made with organic ingredients
5)
6) Which of the following is a good tip for simple, healthy eating while going to college? A) Eat as much as possible when you can to avoid getting hungry later. B) Buy packaged foods to save money. C) Bring along snacks such as dried fruit, nuts, or a banana. D) Make sure half of what you eat is protein.
6)
7) Minerals that the body needs in very small amounts are A) microminerals. B) major minerals. C) trace minerals. D) minor minerals.
7)
8) Molecules that are the building blocks of protein are A) minerals. B) amino acids.
8) C) fatty acids.
D) starches.
9) The MyPlate graphic encourages Americans to make which of the following food groups the largest portion of their plate at each meal? A) grains B) fruits C) protein foods D) vegetables
1
9)
10) What substance is not soluble in water, is derived from animal-based foods and synthesized by the body, and while circulating in the blood, can accumulate on the inner walls of arteries and restrict blood flow? A) triglycerides B) cholesterol C) saturated fat D) high-density lipoproteins
10)
11) The science that studies food and nourishment, including food composition and the physiological effects of food on the body, is A) medicine. B) nutrition. C) biology. D) genetics.
11)
12) Which of the following foods is the most nutrient-dense? A) ice cream B) low-fat milk C) butter
12) D) frozen yogurt
13) Common food allergens include all of the following EXCEPT A) milk. B) peanuts. C) eggs.
D) oats.
13)
14) A person who avoids all foods and food products of animal origin, including dairy and eggs, is a A) pesco-vegetarian. B) vegetarian. C) lacto-ovo-vegetarian. D) vegan.
14)
15) The physiological need to eat to sustain life is A) nutrition. B) craving.
15) C) hunger.
16) The mineral necessary for the regulation of blood and body fluids is A) copper. B) sodium. C) zinc.
D) appetite. 16) D) iodine.
17) Over the past five decades, daily calorie consumption by Americans has A) remained about the same. B) primarily come from junk foods. C) increased significantly. D) decreased slightly.
17)
18) The ideal cholesterol ratio for an individual would include A) low HDL and high LDL. B) high HDL and high LDL. C) low HDL and low LDL. D) high HDL and low LDL.
18)
19) As a student seeking a healthy diet, which of the following tips is NOT recommended when eating fast food? A) Try baked "fries" rather than traditional french fries. B) Ask for nutritional analyses of food items. C) Eat salads and add all available food options. D) Avoid giant-size portions of food or drink.
19)
20) Which type of fiber combines with water to form a gel-like substance and can be digested by bacteria in the colon? A) soluble B) insoluble C) composite D) complex
20)
21) When liquid oils are hydrogenated, A) HDLs are produced. C) LDLs are produced.
21) B) cholesterol is produced. D) trans fatty acids are produced.
2
22) Which of the following BEST describes appetite? A) It is not triggered by smells or taste. B) It is the same as hunger. C) It is the social meaning attached to food. D) It is more psychological than physiological.
22)
23) All the following are good sources of complex carbohydrates EXCEPT A) milk. B) oatmeal. C) spinach.
D) carrots.
23)
24) Which of the following has the most saturated fat? A) olive oil B) palm kernel oil
D) peanut oil
24) C) coconut oil
25) Dietary fats that are solid at room temperature are made up mostly of A) polyunsaturated fatty acids. B) monounsaturated fatty acids. C) essential fatty acids. D) saturated fatty acids.
25)
26) Which of the following statements is TRUE about organic foods as compared to traditionally grown foods? A) They have better nutrient quality. B) They are always locally grown and produced. C) They are likely to have lower pesticide residues. D) They are declining in sales and market share.
26)
27) Nutrients are A) units of measure that indicate the amount of energy in a particular food. B) made up of three basic food groups: proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. C) the constituents in food that the body requires to function properly. D) the healthful compounds found in vitamins and minerals.
27)
28) When Cheri was grocery shopping, she noticed a shelf label with three stars beneath a can of low-sodium vegetable and bean soup. This shelf label is an example of A) a point-of-sale consumer support system. B) a Nutrition Facts panel. C) a Facts Up Front label. D) a nutrition rating system.
28)
29) Carbohydrates are used by the body primarily for A) antioxidants. C) tissue growth and healing.
29) B) short-term energy. D) sustained energy.
30) Kurt, who is a vegetarian, had a cheese omelet for lunch. He is a A) pesco-vegetarian. B) lacto-ovo-vegetarian. C) semivegetarian. D) lacto-vegetarian.
30)
31) In the United States, which of the following factors does NOT affect most people's choices about dietary intake? A) cultural traditions B) finances C) advertising D) limited food supply
31)
3
32) On a food product label, the amount shown as % Daily Value shows A) the number of calories in a serving. B) how much of an average adult's allowance for a nutrient is in one serving. C) the food's nutrient-density score. D) how many servings are in the package.
32)
33) Melinda baked a piece of salmon for dinner. On the side, she had a large mixed-green salad topped with toasted walnuts. This meal is rich in A) pro-oxidants B) omega-3 fatty acids C) probiotics D) partially hydrogenated oils
33)
34) What percentage of a person's body weight is water? A) 70 to 90 percent B) 50 to 70 percent C) 30 to 50 percent
34) D) 10 to 30 percent
35) Which of the following provides a ready source of energy for daily activities? A) proteins B) vitamins C) carbohydrates
D) water
35)
36) Which of the following foods is an example of a complete protein? A) whole-grain bread B) chicken breast C) peanuts D) pinto beans
36)
37) The purpose of hydrogenating unsaturated fats is to A) make them more solid at room temperature. B) reduce the amount of cholesterol. C) increase the levels of protein. D) make them more liquid at room temperature.
37)
38) Which of the following nutrients is the major component of blood? A) carbohydrate B) protein C) fat
38) D) water
39) All of the following points about the Dietary Guidelines for Americans are true EXCEPT that A) they provide specific recipes to facilitate meal preparation. B) they are a set of recommendations for healthy eating. C) they form the basis for the MyPlate food guidance system. D) they are updated every five years.
39)
40) How can you eat well and save money when living as a student on a tight budget? A) Buy large amounts of produce at one time. B) Buy and eat fruit and vegetables when they are in season. C) Buy prewashed and precut vegetables to save time. D) Snack on crackers or muffins rather than bananas or carrots because produce is too expensive for snacks.
40)
41) Silvio wants to eat a healthy lunch in the college dining hall. Which of the following choices is the BEST thing he can order? A) apple and a donut B) baked potato with salsa C) salad made up of lettuce and creamy dressing D) fried chicken in mushroom sauce
41)
4
42) Which of the following vitamins is readily excreted from the body in urine and unlikely to develop to toxic levels? A) vitamin E B) vitamin D C) vitamin A D) vitamin C
42)
43) Alicia doesn't eat meat, fish, milk, yogurt, cheese, or eggs. She is making her shopping list for the week and wants to make sure that she buys beans, nuts, grains, and seeds to meet her protein needs. Combining two or more of these plant sources in a meal will provide her with A) complementary proteins. B) resistant proteins. C) simple carbohydrates. D) omega-3 fats.
43)
44) Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is true? A) Supplements are best stored in the bathroom medicine cabinet. B) The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends that Americans take multivitamin-mineral supplements to prevent cardiovascular disease and cancer. C) A majority of Americans takes at least one dietary supplement. D) The FDA evaluates the safety of dietary supplements before they can be put on the market.
44)
45) A grain that contains the bran, germ, and endosperm is a A) raw grain. B) milled grain. C) refined grain.
45) D) whole grain.
46) Which of the following is TRUE about calories? A) All nutrients provide calories. B) Calories are one of the basic nutrient groups. C) Caloric needs stay about the same during various life stages. D) Calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food.
46)
47) One of the keys to eating well in college is to A) never eat meals out. C) avoid all fats.
47) B) eat a complete breakfast. D) only eat salad.
48) High blood levels of this type of cholesterol appear to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, or cholesterol-clogged arteries. A) HDL B) triglycerides C) ADL D) LDL
48)
49) Taking a large amount of this vitamin can be toxic because excess amounts can accumulate in the liver. A) folate B) D C) C D) B6
49)
50) The body converts all forms of simple sugars into which of the following substances to provide energy to cells? A) glucose B) starch C) maltose D) glycogen
50)
51) Which is NOT a good source of folate? A) bread B) breakfast cereal
51) C) spinach
D) fish
52) One medium fruit serving is about the size of a(n) A) egg. B) checkbook.
C) golf ball.
D) fist.
52)
5
53) Multivitamin-mineral supplements are generally NOT recommended for which of the following groups of people? A) people on low-calorie weight loss diets B) pregnant women C) patients with malabsorption problems or other significant health issues D) healthy individuals wanting to boost their energy levels
53)
54) Which of the following is the most energy-dense source of calories in the human diet? A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) fats D) water
54)
55) Which of the following play a role in developing and repairing bone, muscle, skin, and blood cells? A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) fats D) water
55)
56) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is A) calcium deficiency. B) sodium deficiency. C) iron deficiency. D) potassium deficiency.
56)
57) To ensure safety, leftovers that have been properly wrapped and refrigerated should be eaten within A) three days. B) two days. C) four days. D) one day.
57)
58) An increase in the spread of foodborne illness could be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT A) insufficient education about food safety. B) increased consumption of locally grown or raised food. C) the globalization of the food supply. D) uncoordinated and underfunded federal agencies.
58)
59) What type of proteins contain all nine essential amino acids? A) complete B) incomplete C) complementary
59) D) plant-source
60) Tomi cooked a vegetarian stir-fry for dinner. He included slices of shallots, red pepper, carrots, spinach, and brown rice. This meal is rich in A) saturated fats. B) calcium. C) legumes. D) phytochemicals.
60)
61) Which of the following statements is TRUE about gluten-free diets? A) Some whole grains, such as whole oats and brown rice, are naturally gluten-free. B) According to a recent survey, one in every fourteen Americans actively avoids gluten. C) A gluten-free diet is likely to be more healthful for anyone–not only people with celiac disease–than a diet that includes gluten. D) Gluten-free breads are likely to be higher in fiber and micronutrients than whole-grain breads containing gluten.
61)
6
62) Which of the following is TRUE about Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs)? A) They are the recommended average daily intake by healthy people when the research is limited. B) They are the highest amount of a particular nutrient that can be safely consumed on a daily basis. C) They are the reference standard for intake levels necessary to meet the needs of most healthy individuals. D) They are the amount of intake needed to prevent chronic disease.
62)
63) The form of a sugar that is stored in the liver and muscles and broken down when the body requires a burst of energy is A) galactose. B) glucose. C) glucagon. D) glycogen.
63)
64) The chief function of this mineral in the body is to make teeth resistant to decay and bones resistant to mineral loss. A) fluoride B) phosphorus C) magnesium D) calcium
64)
65) Calories from saturated fats and/or added sugars in foods that have little or no nutritional value, such as sausages and ice cream, are called A) non-nutritive calories. B) nutrient-dense calories. C) soluble calories. D) empty calories.
65)
66) Which controversial process is used by some agricultural corporations to create high-yield crops or disease- or insect-resistant plants? A) soil rejuvenation B) crop rotation C) cross pollination D) genetic modification
66)
67) High-fiber diets may help decrease the risk of all of the following EXCEPT A) heart disease. B) obesity. C) colon cancer.
67) D) fibromyalgia.
68) Foods believed to have additional health benefits beyond the basic nutrition they provide are known as A) health foods. B) curative foods. C) organic foods. D) functional foods.
68)
69) The safest way to thaw frozen food is A) on the kitchen counter. C) in sunlight.
69) B) in the refrigerator. D) in warm water.
70) According to the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, when planning meals, we should focus on all of the following EXCEPT A) variety B) nutrient density C) amount D) functionality
7
70)
71) What is the difference between a portion and a serving? A) A serving is the recommended amount to be consumed, and a portion is the amount you choose to eat. B) A serving is the amount you choose to eat, and a portion is the recommended amount to be consumed. C) A serving amount is twice the size of a portion. D) A serving amount is half the size of a portion.
71)
72) Potent and essential organic compounds that promote growth and help to maintain life and health are A) vitamins. B) minerals. C) nutrients. D) additives.
72)
73) The milk sugar that some people can't digest properly is A) glucose. B) lactose. C) sucrose.
73) D) fructose.
74) Which of the following is FALSE about fiber? A) It helps move foods through the digestive system. B) It softens stools by absorbing water. C) It adds bulk and roughage to the diet. D) It is the digestible portion of plant foods.
74)
75) Which substances protect against oxidative stress and the resultant cell damage? A) antioxidants B) proteins C) hormones D) enzymes
75)
76) A condition in which a person experiences a depletion of body fluids is A) dehydration. B) desalination. C) hyponatremia.
76) D) anemia.
77) Which form of fat poses high risks for heart disease and cardiac-related death? A) trans fats B) omega-3 fats C) monounsaturated fats D) omega-6 fats
77)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 78) Since 1960, Americans have increased their consumption of dietary fiber.
78)
79) Most fast food chains do not offer nutritional analyses of their food.
79)
80) Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by feeling tired and run down.
80)
81) A product with the label claim natural is required by the FDA to be free of food additives.
81)
82) Dietary supplements are not regulated like other food and drug products.
82)
83) Nutritional supplements would not be advised for alcohol-dependent individuals.
83)
84) Fats should make up less than 10 percent of daily calories consumed.
84)
85) A locavore is someone who makes a point of eating out in his or her own neighborhood.
85)
8
86) Some vitamins and minerals are antioxidants.
86)
87) Food allergy and food intolerance mean the same thing.
87)
88) Individuals need more protein if they are pregnant, fighting off a serious infection, or recovering from surgery or burns.
88)
89) The data on the Facts Up Front panel on a food package is derived from the product's Nutrition Facts label.
89)
90) Eating yogurt provides probiotics that are thought to reduce the risk of certain gastrointestinal disorders.
90)
91) One of MyPlate's key messages is to consume seafood once a week.
91)
92) It costs more to eat a nutrient-dense diet than to eat a nutrient-poor diet.
92)
93) Simple sugars provide short-term energy.
93)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 94) Compare and contrast the three types of claims the FDA allows on food labels. 95) Explain why vitamin D may be low in a vegan diet. 96) Summarize the five recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and the four key messages of the MyPlate food guidance system for healthy eating. 97) Explain what fiber is, discuss its benefits in a healthy diet, and list food groups that tend to be high in fiber. 98) Explain the difference between a food allergy and a food intolerance. Give examples of each and distinguish between a gluten intolerance and celiac disease.
9
Answer Key Testname: CH 10
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) A 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 10
51) D 52) D 53) D 54) C 55) B 56) C 57) A 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) A 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) D 66) D 67) D 68) D 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) A 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) A 77) A 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE
11
Answer Key Testname: CH 10
94) The three types of claims the FDA allows on food labels are: Health claims. These identify a relationship between a food component and a health effect, such as "As part of a healthy diet, whole-grains foods may reduce the risk of heart disease." These claims are supported by significant scientific agre and are regulated and approved by the FDA. Nutrient content claims. The identify a level of a nutrient present in a food, such as "High in fiber." These claims are als regulated and approved by the FDA. Structure and function claims. These describe the effect that a component of the food has on the body, such as "Calcium builds strong bones." The FDA does not regulate these claims. 95) The best food sources of vitamin D are fatty fish and fortified cow's milk. These foods are not included in a vegan diet. Thus, the vegan has to consume adequate vitamin D from fortified milk alternatives, other fortified foods and beverages, and/or dietary supplements. Although the body can synthesize adequate levels of vitamin D provided that the person has sufficient exposure to sunlight, most people, especially in northern latitudes, cannot rely on skin synthesis. 96) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans and the MyPlate system are provided by the U.S. Department of Health and Hu Services (HHS) and the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA). The Dietary Guidelines for Americans contain the follo five recommendations: 1. Follow a healthy eating pattern across the lifespan. 2. Focus on variety, nutrient density, and amount. 3. Limit calories from added sugars and saturated fats, and reduce sodium intake. 4. Shift to healthier food and beverage choices. 5. Support healthy eating patterns for all. The four key messages of the MyPlate food guidance system are: 1. Eat nutrient-dense foods. 2. Eat seafood twice a week. 3. Avoid empty calories. 4. Engage in physical activity. 97) Fiber, sometimes referred to as "bulk" or "roughage," is the indigestible portion of plant foods that helps move foods through the digestive system, slows absorption of nutrients, and softens stools by absorbing water. A high-fiber diet is important for healthy bowel functioning and is thought to reduce the risk for obesity, heart disease, constipation, and possibly even colon and rectal cancers and type 2 diabetes. Foods high in fiber include many fruits, legumes and other vegetables, whole grains, and nuts and seeds. 98) A food allergy is an immune hypersensitivity–an overreaction by the immune system–to a protein in a food. It can produce discomfort such as a rash or abdominal cramps, or more serious symptoms, such as impaired breathing or even life-threatening, body-wide inflammation and cardiovascular problems known as anaphylaxis. Common food all are milk, peanuts, eggs, wheat, soy, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish. Food intolerance is not due to an immune hypersensitivity. Rather, it reflects the body's inability to digest some compon food. Although it may produce physical symptoms of digestive upset, they tend to be temporary and resolve as soon as food has passed through the gastrointestinal tract. The most common food intolerance is to the lactose disaccharide in milk. Many people believe that they have an intolerance to gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, and barley. Gluten intolerance is not the same as celiac disease, which is a serious immune disorder in which an affected person's immune system produces an inflammatory response in the small intestine whenever the person consumes gluten. The immune response degrades the lining of the small intestine, reducing nutrient absorption, and leading to weight loss, pain, and other signs and symptoms.
12
Chapter 11 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Obesity is responsible for A) a greater global economic burden than armed violence, war, and terrorism combined. B) more preventable deaths in the U.S. than smoking. C) 16 more days of missed work per year as compared to non-obese workers. D) more than 40% higher healthcare costs as compared to non-obese populations.
1)
2) Keith is having a complete fitness evaluation done at a health center. One of the measurements being taken is how much energy he expends while jogging on a treadmill, which is his A) exercise metabolic rate. B) resting metabolic rate. C) calorie intake. D) basal metabolic rate.
2)
3) Which type of weight loss surgery involves a procedure that injects microscopic beads that block ghrelin production? A) bariatric arterial embolization B) sleeve gastrectomy C) biliopancreatic diversion D) gastric bypass
3)
4) The minimum amount of energy the body uses to maintain vital functions is known as the A) basal metabolic rate. B) energy balance. C) metabolic balance. D) resting metabolic rate.
4)
5) One problem with the BMI measurement is that it A) takes too long to calculate. B) cannot be used for children. C) does not account for varying levels of muscle mass. D) requires the use of special laboratory equipment.
5)
6) Gastric bypass A) is a restrictive and malabsorption surgery. B) is an elimination surgery. C) results in gradual loss of modest amounts of weight over several years' time. D) is one of the least common types of weight-loss surgery.
6)
7) Aaron is trying to lose weight but he still wants a beverage while he is studying. A good choice might be A) a glass of wine. B) an energy drink. C) a cup of low-sodium broth. D) a glass of cranberry juice cocktail.
7)
8) A high waist circumference-to-hip ratio would indicate that you A) have an increased risk for cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes. B) have excessive fat stored in your hips and thighs. C) have excessive fat stored in your upper body. D) have a reduced risk for cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes.
8)
1
9) A measurement based on the relationship between a person's height and weight that is highly correlated to the amount of body fat is the A) obesity index. B) body fat index. C) body mass index. D) body composition index.
9)
10) The high rate of overweight and obesity among Americans is due to A) increased income inequality. B) basal metabolism and an obesogenic environment. C) increased inheritance of the FTO gene. D) biology, environment, and lifestyle.
10)
11) One dangerous consequence of very-low-calorie diets is that they increase the individual's risk for a condition in which the blood levels become acidic. This is known as A) anemia. B) ketoacidosis. C) stenosis. D) hypertension.
11)
12) Which of the following is an FDA-approved prescription weight loss drug? A) Alli B) hoodia C) St. John's wort
12) D) Contrave
13) Glenna is trying to determine her healthy weight. She should assess A) how her weight compares to that of her friends. B) her percentage of body fat and how her weight is distributed. C) how often her weight fluctuates up and down and in what increments. D) how her clothes fit. 14) Luke plays football. His team physician calculated his BMI as 24. Luke is A) underweight. B) normal weight. C) obese.
13)
14) D) overweight.
15) Kevin wants to lose 5 pounds of fat. He finds it difficult to cut back on his eating, so he decides that he will walk an hour each day to burn more calories. How many extra calories must he expend to lose a pound of fat? A) 4,500 B) 3,500 C) 2,000 D) 3,000
15)
16) A person with a body weight that is 15% higher than recommended is considered A) normal weight. B) overweight. C) morbidly obese. D) obese.
16)
17) Problems associated with severe caloric restriction include all of the following EXCEPT A) increased tolerance for cold. B) it does not teach the individual healthy eating. C) fatigue. D) blood sugar imbalance.
17)
18) The process that occurs when fat cells swell and enlarge is A) hyperbole. B) dystrophy. C) hyperthyroidism. D) hypertrophy.
18)
19) A 20-year-old female with a BMI of 34 would be categorized as A) morbidly obese. B) healthy. C) obese. D) athletic.
19)
2
20) The surge in obesity rates around the world has become known as A) global overnourishment. B) globesity. C) third-world obesity. D) the obesogenic world syndrome.
20)
21) Which of the following waist measurements indicates an increased health risk? A) 33 inches in a female B) 38 inches in a female C) 33 inches in a male D) 38 inches in a male
21)
22) Which theory holds that some people have a genetic disposition toward fat storage and retaining weight? A) set point theory B) thrifty gene theory C) adaptive thermogenesis theory D) hormone adjustment theory
22)
23) What percentage of adult Americans engage in aerobic physical activity that meets the national guidelines? A) about 25 percent B) just over 50 percent. C) fewer than 15 percent D) about 40 percent
23)
24) Middle-age weight gain is attributed to all of the following factors EXCEPT A) slower BMR. B) less physical activity. C) age-related appetite increase. D) age-related muscle loss.
24)
25) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to genetics and obesity? A) A healthy lifestyle cannot override obesity genes. B) In non-obese people, the FTO gene serves as an adipostat that signals satiety. C) People with a spendthrift metabolism are at increased risk for obesity. D) Certain genes might influence obesity by altering regulation of a hormone called ghrelin.
25)
26) Sunil weighs 150 pounds and would like to lose a little weight by replacing his sugary beverages with water or black tea and adding brisk walking to his normally sedentary life. If these measures decreased his former calorie intake by 250 calories a day and increased his energy expenditure by 250 calories a day, how long would it take Sunil to lose about one pound? A) four days B) two weeks C) two days D) one week
26)
27) The concept of adaptive thermogenesis attempts to explain how A) metabolic rate slows down as we age. B) people's bodies conserve calories in very hot and very cold environments. C) genetics influences childhood obesity. D) people trying to lose weight can reach a plateau even though they continue to restrict calories.
27)
28) Which environmental factor encourages us to increase our food consumption? A) increasing number of regulations that apply to food labeling B) increasing use of texting for cell phone communication C) social encouragement to work out and be active D) easy access to high-calorie foods in stores and restaurants
28)
29) An average adult has A) 250 to 350 million fat cells. C) 25 to 35 million fat cells.
29) B) 250 to 350 billion fat cells. D) 25 to 35 billion fat cells.
3
30) Which of the following people would be most likely to notice the effects of an age-related decline in metabolic rate? A) 30-year-old computer programmer B) 30-year-old pregnant woman C) 20-year-old truck driver D) 20-year-old student
30)
31) All of the following are scientific methods for determining body composition EXCEPT A) hydrostatic measures. B) skinfold measures. C) height and weight tables. D) bioelectrical impedance analysis.
31)
32) When a clinician measures a person's body fat by pinching folds of skin at various locations on the body, the process being used is the A) DXA method. B) skinfold method. C) hydrostatic method. D) BIA method.
32)
33) A condition in which a person has an excessive number of fat cells is A) anaplastic obesity. B) hyperplastic obesity. C) dysplastic obesity. D) hyperglycemia.
33)
34) Jorge went for a run after his morning classes. He hadn't eaten breakfast and now he is feeling lightheaded and has a gnawing feeling in his stomach. Jorge is experiencing A) a surge in leptin levels. B) satiety. C) hunger. D) adaptive thermogenesis.
34)
35) Sharon is a gymnast. A personal trainer cautioned her that her extremely low body fat might cause health problems, including an increased risk of A) bone fractures. B) excessively heavy menstrual periods. C) osteoarthritis. D) sleep apnea.
35)
36) Emotions or situations that cause a person to make unhealthy eating choices are A) pressures. B) feelings. C) triggers. D) behaviors.
36)
37) Which of the following populations in the United States has the highest prevalence of overweight or obesity? A) non-Hispanic white women B) non-Hispanic black men C) non-Hispanic black women D) Asian American men
37)
38) John underwent a body composition test that involved being submerged to compare his underwater weight with land weight to determine his level of body fat. This method of assessment is known as a A) bioelectrical impedance analysis. B) skinfold measure. C) Bod Pod test. D) hydrostatic weighing.
38)
39) Since 1980, the percentage of the global population that is obese has A) increased by 50 percent. B) doubled. C) increased by 25 percent. D) more than doubled.
39)
40) Over-the-counter weight loss aids and supplements typically contain A) narcotics. B) vitamins. C) antidepressants. D) diuretics.
40)
4
41) The method of body composition measurement that sends a small current through the body to measure the resistance based on percentage of body water is A) soft tissue roentgenogram. B) electrical conductivity test. C) bioelectrical impedance analysis. D) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry.
41)
42) Paula maintained her normal weight during her freshman year in college. During her sophomore year, she moved into an apartment with two friends who are overweight. The three regularly enjoy high-calorie meals together, and Paula has gained more than twenty pounds. She wants to lose weight, but it seems as if, whenever she plans to prepare a healthful, low-calorie meal, her roommates come home with a box of pizza or take-out burgers and fries. What type of influence are her friends having on her behavior? A) social undermining B) emotional encouragement C) informal persuasion D) moral support
42)
43) A 26-year-old male would be considered obese if he A) has a body mass index of 30 or higher. B) has a body mass index of 22-24. C) is 10 percent heavier than his ideal weight. D) has a body fat percentage of 20 percent.
43)
44) Foods consumed to meet emotional needs or reduce emotional insecurities are called A) social foods. B) junk foods. C) convenience foods. D) comfort foods.
44)
45) When blood levels of the hormone leptin rise, A) you can consume large amounts of food without gaining weight. B) appetite levels increase. C) you feel like exercising. D) appetite levels decrease.
45)
46) A good way to control portion sizes when you eat out is to A) chew slowly, talk to friends, and put down your fork between bites. B) eat restaurant leftovers several times a week. C) order the largest portion available so you won't be hungry later. D) choose a buffet style restaurant.
46)
47) Liposuction is used to A) reroute the passage of food through the body. B) decrease levels of leptin. C) spot reduce or contour body shape. D) restrict the calories absorbed by the body.
47)
48) Benefits of weight-loss surgery include the potential to reverse A) malabsorption syndrome. B) dumping syndrome. C) infections. D) type 2 diabetes.
48)
5
49) To lose weight and reduce her risk for high blood pressure, Ingrid has been following an eating plan that has been rated the number-one best overall diet. It emphasizes intake of fruits and vegetables, lean protein, whole grains, and low-fat dairy. Ingrid is most likely following A) the DASH Diet. B) a high-protein, low-carb diet. C) the Atkins 40 Diet. D) a vegan diet.
49)
50) A person's exercise metabolic rate (EMR) will increase if he or she A) performs light daily activities instead of structured exercise routines. B) decreases the activity level from moderate to light. C) decreases the time spent exercising. D) increases the activity level from light to moderate.
50)
51) Over the last twenty years, the Americans' calorie intake has increased. This is due in part to A) increased consumption of organic food. B) increased consumption of fat. C) the increase in genetically modified foods. D) increased availability of extremely large serving sizes of foods.
51)
52) A hormone produced in the stomach that is referred to as the "hunger hormone" is A) adrenaline. B) ghrelin. C) leptin. D) insulin.
52)
53) Allen has just eaten a large meal and pushes his plate away, unable to eat any more. He is experiencing A) adaptive thermogenesis. B) hunger. C) satiety. D) appetite.
53)
54) The body naturally experiences an increased metabolic rate A) as we age. B) during sleep. C) during pregnancy. D) when we adopt a reduced-calorie diet.
54)
55) Which of the following statements about the health effects of obesity is true? A) Obesity increases the risk for cancer of the colon, esophagus, and pancreas. B) Nearly 98% of obese adolescents will remain obese as adults. C) As compared to average life expectancy for people who are not obese, obesity reduces average life expectancy by 18 to 20 years. D) Obesity helps speed up wound healing.
55)
56) In working to improve your eating habits, one important step to take is to A) go on an all-liquid diet for the first two weeks to cleanse your system. B) read the best-selling diet books and choose a diet to follow. C) eat more slowly and stop when you begin to feel full. D) hire a nutritional life coach.
56)
57) Which theory holds that our bodies fight to maintain our weight within a particular narrow range? A) thrifty gene theory B) hormone adjustment theory C) set point theory D) adaptive thermogenesis theory
57)
58) Theodore's BMI is 18.0. Theodore is A) underweight. B) obese.
58) C) normal weight.
6
D) overweight.
59) What percentage of adult Americans are obese? A) more than 20 percent but less than 30 percent B) more than 30 percent but less than 40 percent C) more than 40 percent D) more than 10 percent but less than 20 percent
59)
60) The over-the-counter version of the drug orlistat, marketed as Alli, has a number of unpleasant side effects but works to promote weight loss by A) increasing water loss. B) inhibiting the digestion of fat. C) increasing resting metabolic rate. D) suppressing appetite.
60)
61) Which of the following is FALSE about weight management? A) Review studies suggest that use of diet pills is typically followed by weight regain. B) Very low-calorie diets often result in regained weight. C) Careful attention to portions is a key factor in sustained weight loss. D) Short-term diets are as effective as long-term behavior modification.
61)
62) When an individual's body increases its metabolic rate to compensate for an increased food intake, this is the process known as A) digestion. B) enhanced metabolism. C) ketogenesis. D) adaptive thermogenesis.
62)
63) Cassie is morbidly obese, and is now following a medically supervised diet on which she consumes 500 calories a day in the form of a powdered supplement. What kind of diet is Cassie following? A) low-carbohydrate diet B) very-low-calorie diet C) fasting D) yo-yo diet
63)
64) When Dirk gets home from a long day of classes, he typically microwaves a frozen meal, eats it in front of the television, and, when he finishes his meal, can't remember having tasted it. Which of the following is most likely true? A) When Dirk notices that he's full, he continues eating. B) Dirk has ageusia, a loss of the sense of taste. C) Dirk is triggered to eat when he turns on the television. D) Dirk is engaging in mindless eating.
64)
65) River has been on and off four different diets in the past year, losing and then regaining weight. She now weighs more than she did when she began dieting a year ago. River is engaging in A) compulsively dieting. B) feast-fast dieting. C) yo-yo dieting. D) set-point dieting.
65)
66) When eating a very-low-calorie diet for prolonged periods, the body may begin to obtain fuel from A) glycogen stored in the brain. B) protein in lean body tissue. C) minerals stored in bone. D) fluid reabsorption by the kidneys.
66)
67) The measure of energy expended while a person is engaged in sedentary activities, such as sitting on a sofa or digesting food, is the A) calorie intake. B) resting metabolic rate. C) basal metabolic rate. D) exercise metabolic rate.
67)
7
68) When a clinician measures a person's body fat by using x-rays to differentiate between bone, lean, and fat tissue, the process being used is the A) DXA method. B) skinfold method. C) BIA method. D) hydrostatic method.
68)
69) An individual whose BMI is 42 would be classified as A) super obese. B) morbidly obese. C) overweight. D) obese.
69)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 70) Your risk of becoming obese increases by at least one-third if your partner, spouse, sibling, or close friend is obese.
70)
71) A 160-pound male with a high percentage of body fat burns the same number of calories walking the same distance as a 160-pound male with a high percentage of muscle mass.
71)
72) Research suggests that regular exercise can override genetic influences on BMI.
72)
73) Research suggests that overweight and obese children who are bullied because of their weight are likely to eat less as a result.
73)
74) Socioeconomic status can have a significant effect on risk for obesity.
74)
75) The average cost of gastric weight-loss surgery is $1,500.
75)
76) Basal metabolic rate is relatively stable throughout life.
76)
77) Obesity is associated with an increased risk of some forms of cancer.
77)
78) Dietary supplements containing ephedra have dangerous side effects, but are effective in helping people lose weight and keep it off.
78)
79) As body mass index decreases below 18.5, an adult's overall health risk increases.
79)
80) About one-third of people who undergo gastric weight-loss surgery with remission of diabetic symptoms relapse within five years.
80)
81) Just six states in the United States have an obesity rate below 20% of the population.
81)
82) Very-low-calorie diets are associated with significant health risks and must be medically supervised.
82)
83) Extreme underweight can contribute to loss of menstrual period in women.
83)
84) The waist-circumference-to-height formula suggests that a male who is six feet tall (72 inches) should have a waist circumference of no more than 32 inches.
84)
85) The prevalence of obesity is consistent across all subpopulations in the United States.
85)
8
86) Two males of equal size and leanness but different ages will burn the same number of calories at rest.
86)
87) The exercise metabolic rate would be lower for walking versus jogging.
87)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 88) Identify at least three environmental factors that you believe have contributed to the increase in obesity in the U.S. in the last 50 years and explain how. 89) Discuss several potential triggers that can cause a person to overeat, as well as strategies for dealing with those triggers. 90) Give at least two reasons that it is entirely possible for an individual with a BMI of 26 to be more fit and have lower health risks than an individual with a BMI of 24. 91) Obesity increases an individual's risk for numerous physical health problems. Identify at least two of the non-physical health risks associated with obesity. 92) Identify the three factors that determine how many calories a person expends during physical activity. 93) Identify the primary concern associated with eating out at restaurants and at least three strategies that you can use to combat overeating when eating out.
9
Answer Key Testname: CH 11
1) D 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) D 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) D 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) D 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 11
51) D 52) B 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) C 58) A 59) B 60) B 61) D 62) D 63) B 64) D 65) C 66) B 67) B 68) A 69) B 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) Answers will vary, but should include any three of the following: • More food product advertising in all forms of media. • Increased production of low-cost foods with empty calories. • Increased use of convenience foods and fast food meals; many more options for fast food are available; people have le to have family meals together because of busy lifestyle. • Busy lifestyles mean Americans are sleeping less, and recent research links sleep deprivation to an increased risk for o • Sedentary nature of many jobs. • Use of automated equipment, digital technologies, and labor saving devices has reduced the physical activity require complete daily tasks. • Recreational time spent in front of the television, computer, or other electronic devices; more sedentary options are av than ever before, including video games. • Decline of physical education in schools. 11
Answer Key Testname: CH 11
89) Answers will vary. Examples include: • Stress: Develop effective coping strategies and stress management techniques to practice daily. • Emotions: Analyze emotions and look for a way to deal with them that doesn't involve food. • Boredom or tiredness: Take needed breaks and substitute activities to combat boredom. • Sight and smell of food: Avoid buying or coming into contact with high-calorie treats and put tempting snacks out of • Eating out of habit: Establish a new routine and constructive ways to occupy your time. • Watching TV: Find something to do with your hands or body while watching to avoid reaching for food (e.g., ride an bike, do yoga stretches, knit, do a craft, etc.). 90) (Answers will vary but should include two of the following points): • A critical health-related consideration is where in the body an individual is carrying stored fat. Fat stores in the abdo area are associated with a higher health risk than fat stores in the hips or in the body overall. • Another consideration is ratio of fat to lean tissue overall: Muscle weighs more than fat, and an individual who is hig muscular and very healthy may have a higher BMI than someone who is sedentary and has low muscle mass. • Similarly, an individual with a large bone structure may have a higher BMI as a result, yet be more fit than an individ smaller bones and a lower BMI. • Another consideration is age: BMI is not considered highly accurate in older adults. • Finally, BMI is not considered highly accurate in individuals under 5 feet tall. 91) (At least two of the following) Obesity increases an individual's risk for depression and anxiety disorders as well as psychosocial health problems, incl social isolation, bullying, social stigmatization, and discrimination. Obesity also increases the risk for functional limitati as an inability to engage in activities of daily living like shopping or climbing stairs. Finally, obesity poses a risk to fina health: people who are obese have higher healthcare costs, miss more work days, have higher transportation costs, and are likely to be charged more for their health insurance. This amounts to a so-called "obesity penalty" equivalent to 16 percent lower earnings than people of normal weight. 92) The three factors that determine how many calories are burned during an activity are: 1. The number and proportion of muscles used 2. The amount of weight being moved 3. The amount of time spent performing the activity 93) (Answers will vary): The primary concern associated with eating out at restaurants is portion size. Portion sizes in restaurants are considerab than those in past decades, and some researchers believe that Americans no longer recognize a reasonable portion size. To combat the potential for overeating, you can share an entrée with a friend or consider having a protein-rich appetize the main meal. Consider choosing an item from a "happy hour" menu, which may be smaller tha n a standard dinner item. You can eat half of your entrée and take the rest home to eat on another day. Avoid buffet restaurants, but if you do dine at a buffet, use a small plate and fill it with lean protein foods and vegetables. Skip or share desserts. Ask for dressings or gravies on the side. Be aware of the speed at which you are eating and try to take your time. Talk to your dining companions and put down your fork between bites. Read the calorie and nutrition information on the restaurant menu.
12
Chapter 11a Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A person with disordered eating may do all of the following EXCEPT A) go to extremes to reduce calorie intake. B) attempt to follow the latest diet fad. C) punish themselves if they gain weight. D) reward themselves if they gain weight.
1)
2) The physical "flaw" that most individuals associate with negative body image is A) facial blemishes. B) overweight. C) short stature. D) hair loss.
2)
3) People with anorexia nervosa are at increased risk of death from A) muscle loss. B) kidney failure. C) colon cancer.
3) D) type 2 diabetes.
4) Of the following factors, the one that exerts the MOST significant influence on our development of a body image is A) the media and popular culture. B) our bone structure. C) our race/ethnicity. D) characters we read about in books.
4)
5) An individual who periodically consumes excessively large amounts of food without engaging in compensatory behavior would be classified as having A) bulimia nervosa. B) binge-eating disorder. C) night-eating syndrome. D) anorexia nervosa.
5)
6) If you want to help a friend whom you suspect has an eating disorder, you should do all of the following EXCEPT A) gather information on the disorder. B) reassure your friend that all he or she needs to do is make a few simple changes to his or her diet. C) compliment your friend's personality and achievements. D) share your concerns with someone else even if your friend's condition doesn't seem life-threatening.
6)
7) Individuals who practice extreme food restriction motivated by an intense fear of gaining weight have the eating disorder known as A) OSFED. B) amenorrhea. C) bulimia nervosa. D) anorexia nervosa.
7)
8) An eating disorder that may lead to the erosion of tooth enamel due to frequent purging is A) anorexia nervosa. B) night-eating syndrome. C) binge-eating disorder. D) bulimia nervosa.
8)
9) Darren was not able to exercise today because of his hectic schedule. An inappropriate compensatory behavior for Darren would be to A) skip dinner to make up for his failure to exercise. B) work out the next morning to make up for today's lack of exercise. C) restructure his schedule so that he can avoid this problem in the future. D) consume extra helpings at dinner because he is hungry.
9)
1
10) Which of the following is NOT one of the eating disorders defined by the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM- 5)? A) bulimia nervosa B) binge-eating disorder C) OSFED D) orthorexia nervosa
10)
11) Common myths that contribute to negative body image include all of the following EXCEPT A) your life will be so much better after you achieve your ideal body. B) eating healthy and staying active is an effective weight loss strategy. C) anyone can be slender if they work at it hard enough. D) how you look is more important than who you are.
11)
12) The body image continuum developed by researchers at the University of Arizona A) only identifies behaviors associated with a negative body image. B) represents a range of behaviors and attitudes indicative of body image. C) identifies distinct stages associated with progress toward body satisfaction. D) identifies stages of readiness toward developing a more positive body image.
12)
13) Sven was teased throughout childhood for his "puny" physique. Although he is now of average height and weight, eats a healthful diet, and works out regularly to stay fit, he recognizes that he still struggles with a negative body image. All of the following actions would help Sven develop a more positive body image EXCEPT A) volunteer for an organization that helps less fortunate people. B) wear comfortable clothes that make him feel good about his body. C) avoid looking in the mirror or at photos of himself until he has gained more muscle mass. D) consciously critique media images of buff males and notice how they affect him.
13)
14) Having a negative body image can lead to all of the following EXCEPT A) increased sense of empowerment. B) illness. C) disrupted relationships. D) failure to achieve goals.
14)
15) All of the following are true of bulimia nervosa EXCEPT A) it is thought to be due to both genetic and environmental factors. B) it can cause electrolyte imbalances that can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. C) prevalence among males and females is about the same. D) bulimics engage in recurrent episodes of binge eating.
15)
16) Which of the following disorders falls under the category of other specified feeding or eating disorders (OSFED)? A) night eating syndrome B) binge-eating disorder C) bulimia nervosa D) anorexia nervosa
16)
17) One of the health problems associated with the female athlete triad is amenorrhea, which is a lack of A) fertility. B) calcium. C) iron. D) menstrual periods.
17)
2
18) Compensatory behaviors such as vomiting or using laxatives to rid the body of food that has been consumed A) have no potential negative health consequences. B) indicate a healthy body image. C) attempt to balance out a previous behavior. D) have obvious health benefits.
18)
19) After drastic weight loss, an anorexic individual will A) be cured of anorexia nervosa. B) feel satisfied with their body image. C) feel that they can afford to regain some of the weight. D) feel that they are still too fat.
19)
20) Karen is a figure skater who regularly performs in public. She is extremely dissatisfied with her appearance and has gone through three cosmetic surgeries to alter her facial structure. Karen is most likely suffering from A) muscle dysmorphia. B) anorexia nervosa. C) body dysmorphic disorder. D) the female athlete triad.
20)
21) The BEST definition of body image is A) your impression of what others think about your appearance. B) your feelings and beliefs about your appearance. C) whether or not you like certain features of your body. D) how you view yourself when you compare yourself to a celebrity.
21)
22) The decrease in estrogen seen with the female athlete triad contributes to A) increased appetite. B) low energy intake. C) decreased bone mineral density. D) insomnia.
22)
23) Chronic dieting is an example of A) disordered eating. C) binge-and-purge cycles.
23) B) OSFED. D) a clinical eating disorder.
24) Tina suffers from anorexia nervosa. She is depressed, lacks self-confidence, and has strained relationships with family members and friends. Though she is extremely thin, she continues to lose weight at a rapid rate. The most important first step in treating Tina's condition would be to A) stabilize her weight. B) involve family and friends. C) teach her the basic principles of a healthy diet. D) provide counseling to deal with Tina's self-esteem issues.
24)
25) Raye is a 20-year-old woman who is about 10 pounds over her ideal weight but is in good health. She works out regularly to stay fit and to try to drop a few of those extra pounds. She appreciates her curvy body and shops for clothes in bright colors that make her feel attractive and cheerful. Raye's attitudes and behavior demonstrate A) disordered body image. B) body preoccupation. C) variable body image. D) body acceptance.
25)
3
26) Unlike regular exercise, compulsive exercise is A) associated with lower risk of injury. C) only performed by athletes.
26) B) used to prevent guilt and anxiety. D) planned in advance.
27) A disorder that typically occurs in men and is characterized by extreme measures to change body shape and a belief that the body is insufficiently lean or muscular is A) muscular dystrophy. B) muscle dysmorphia. C) muscle atrophy. D) muscle hyperplasia.
27)
28) A person suffering from body dysmorphic disorder would likely A) have high self-esteem. B) take extreme measures to alter certain physical features. C) be realistic about the flaws in their appearance. D) have no obsessive tendencies.
28)
29) An individual with an eating disorder commonly may also have A) a sense of empowerment. B) impulsive behavior. C) high self-esteem. D) another psychiatric disorder.
29)
30) Recent neurological studies have linked body image disorders to A) family eating patterns. B) poor neurotransmitter regulation. C) impairments in the brain's auditory processing region. D) poor emotional control and certain learning disabilities.
30)
31) Tiffany is going through puberty and is concerned about her appearance. Her father assures her that she is growing into a strong, healthy, and beautiful young woman and that he is very proud of her. His reaction to Tiffany will likely cause her to A) have a negative body image. B) have feelings of discomfort around members of the opposite sex. C) be ashamed of her body. D) be more accepting of her body.
31)
32) The Health at Every Size philosophy posits that A) every body weight is a healthy weight. B) everyone, no matter what their body weight, can enjoy full health and wellness if they live mindfully. C) our society should fund nutrition counseling and other services to help all Americans achieve and maintain a healthy body weight. D) self-acceptance, healthy eating, and exercise are more important than BMI.
32)
33) Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the relationship between body image and culture? A) Media images have little influence over what we find attractive. B) Today's ideal body image is very similar to the typical American body. C) In the U.S., white females experience greater rates of body dissatisfaction than females from other racial/ethnic groups. D) The ideal body image for women has always been thin and willowy.
33)
4
34) Jasmine is always complaining that she doesn't like the way she looks. She tells her friend Amber that she thinks her thighs are too big and that she feels fat. Amber assures Jasmine that she isn't fat, but Jasmine won't listen. It is likely that Jasmine may be suffering from A) a negative body image. B) anxiety. C) depression. D) peer pressure.
34)
35) Treena is so passionate about environmentally conscious food choices that she has adopted a vegan, raw foods diet consisting only of locally grown foods. As a result, she has begun to develop deficiencies of several micronutrients, including vitamin B 12 and iron. Treena is MOST likely
35)
suffering from A) purging disorder. C) orthorexia nervosa.
B) anorexia nervosa. D) bulimia nervosa.
36) All of the following are characteristic of anorexia nervosa EXCEPT A) restricting food intake to the point of self-starvation. B) having intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat. C) disturbance in the way in which body weight or shape is experienced. D) maintaining a body weight above a minimally normal weight for age and height.
36)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 37) Individuals who are perfectionists are at an increased risk for eating disorders.
37)
38) An individual's body image is largely determined by genetics.
38)
39) Anorexia athletica is a disorder characterized by a compulsion to exercise.
39)
40) The biological, behavioral, and social underpinnings of eating disorders are clear and easy to understand.
40)
41) Anorexia nervosa is not a life-threatening disorder.
41)
42) Most Americans suffer from a true body image disorder.
42)
43) Eating disorders affect people of all ages.
43)
44) Nearly all people who suffer from disordered eating eventually progress to a clinical eating disorder.
44)
45) The term orthorexia means "correct appetite."
45)
46) The concept of the ideal body image changes as popular culture evolves.
46)
47) Americans typically receive messages through various media that lead them to believe that their body is very different from what it should be.
47)
48) The three problems comprising the female athlete triad are compulsive exercise, inadequate energy intake, and infertility.
48)
5
49) Individuals suffering from bulimia nervosa tend to be underweight.
49)
50) Bulimia nervosa is more likely to lead to weight gain than binge-eating disorder.
50)
51) Studies indicate that most adults are satisfied with their body image.
51)
52) Friends are more influential in body image development than our parents.
52)
53) Eating disorders affect men and women equally.
53)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 54) Compare and contrast compulsive exercise and the female athlete triad. 55) Many people believe that clinical eating disorders cannot be cured. What do you think is behind this claim, and is it true or false? Explain your answer. 56) Explain how the media–including social media and "thinspiration" sites–influence body image. 57) What are some of the myths surrounding body image and how can you challenge them? 58) How would you recognize someone with each of the three clinical eating disorders discussed in this chapter? Include examples of observable behaviors or actions that would indicate that an individual may have a problem.
6
Answer Key Testname: CH 11A
1) D 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 7
Answer Key Testname: CH 11A
51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) Answers will vary. Both compulsive exercise and the female athlete triad may represent a perfectionist attitude and a self-worth that is ext focused. Compulsive exercise increases the risk of a variety of injuries and can be associated with psychological and eating disorders. The female athlete triad is characterized by low intake of calories and a loss of body fat stores adequate to maintain levels of the female reproductive hormone estrogen. Low energy intake and low estrogen together result in menstrual dysfunction and low bone density, with an increased risk of fractures. The female athlete triad is more common in athletes who participate in highly competitive individual sports, whereas compulsive exercise is not associated with a sport. In women, compulsive exercise combined with low energy intake could lead to the female athlete triad as body fat decreases and vitamins and minerals are depleted. 55) Clinical eating disorders can be cured. However, they are thought to be caused by a complex combination of factors, including neurological and psychological factors, relationship characteristics, sociocultural factors, and even genetic susceptibility, and therefore they are not easy to cure. Treatment must address the variety of factors contributing to an individual's case. With appropriate treatment, 44 to 76 percent of people with anorexia nervosa will fully recover, and 50 to 70 percent of people with bulimia nervosa will fully recover. 56) The media sets standards for what we find attractive. It can mislead people into thinking that the images portrayed are achievable by everyone, when actually they are unrealistic. Photo and design technology are routinely used to manipulate images to change the appearance of models or celebrities, often to make them look thinner or to erase imperfections. Those who do not fit these idealized media-generated images often get the message that they are inadequate or inferior. Social media sites promoting unrealistic and unhealthy body images are also common, and "thinspiration" sites include photos and text meant to inspire visitors to attempt to achieve an unrealistically and even dangerously low body weight. 57) 1. Myth: How you look is more important than who you are. Keep a realistic perspective and develop a strong sense of identity based on inner characteristics. 2. Myth: Anyone can be as slender and attractive as a celebrity if they work at it hard enough. Remember that there are different body types based on genetic makeup. We are predisposed to have certain characteris make us unique, and not everyone has the genes to be slender, muscular, tall, etc. While it is a good idea to eat wisely a exercise to stay healthy, we cannot eat or exercise our way to a precise body shape. 3. Myth: Extreme dieting is an effective weight-loss strategy. Extreme dieting alters and can actually slow metabolism, resulting in less-efficient burning of calories. It is also unsusta and potentially dangerous. The key to weight loss is a healthy diet and regular exercise to build lean body tissue, which higher metabolic rate than fat tissue. 4. Myth: Things will go better for you if you achieve the perfect body. Attaining an idealized body is not the key to happiness or success. Embrace the diversity of body types and unique phy features and keep a realistic perspective on what attractiveness can and cannot bring. Focus on building healthy relationships and achieving your life goals, two strategies that can, in fact, increase happiness. 58) Answers will vary. Anorexia nervosa: continued dieting or self-starvation despite being thin; refuses to eat around others or in public plac critical of appearance; expresses feeling of being fat when actually they are underweight; uses laxatives or diuretics; co exercising. Bulimia nervosa: doesn't exhibit control over eating; eating large amounts of food with no obvious gain in weight; use o laxatives; going to bathroom after meals; discolored teeth; fluctuations in weight. Binge eating disorder: lack of control over eating; large weight gain; eating unusually large amounts of food; emotional eating at unusual times.
8
Chapter 12
Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Tasha is 23 years old. Her MAXIMAL heart rate is A) 201 beats per minute. C) 194 beats per minute.
1) B) 191 beats per minute. D) 197 beats per minute.
2) General pain that occurs below the knee and above the ankle is called A) shin fasciitis. B) shin splints. C) plantar fasciitis. D) tendon inflammation.
2)
3) In a fitness program, lifting an amount of weight that is moderately greater than what you are accustomed to is an example of A) overloading. B) the specificity principle. C) endurance exercise. D) repetition.
3)
4) Miranda plays on the lacrosse team and knows that increasing her aerobic capacity will help her on the field. To determine her current aerobic capacity, the team's trainer will conduct a test in which Miranda will run on a treadmill for a designated time while measurements are taken. What will the measure of her aerobic capacity show? A) her rate of respiration while under stress B) the volume of oxygen her muscles consume during exercise C) the capacity her lungs have for expansion if she trains harder D) the electrical activity in her heart while exercising
4)
5) Which of the following is the most serious form of heat-stress illness? A) heat cramps B) heatstroke C) heat exhaustion
5) D) heat response
6) Which of the following is defined as planned, structured, and repetitive body movement? A) strength training B) flexibility training C) aerobic activity D) exercise
6)
7) A person with strong core muscles has a more stable center of gravity and A) the ability to lift free weights. B) reduced chance of injury. C) reduced training time. D) enhanced cardiovascular fitness.
7)
8) It is wise to deal with being outdoors in cold temperatures by A) restricting the intake of fluids before going out. B) being out on a day with low humidity. C) wearing layered clothing and keeping hydrated. D) wearing lightweight clothing to aid air circulation.
8)
1
9) Bryan enjoys going for a 5-mile run as a way to wind down after his last class. Bryan should A) drink a "performance-enhancing" protein shake immediately before he heads out for his run. B) eat a small carbohydrate-rich snack about an hour before he heads out for his run. C) eat a large meal providing carbs, fats, and proteins about an hour before he heads out for his run. D) eat nothing for at least 3 hours before he heads out for his run.
9)
10) Which form of exercise helps develop core strength by combining stretching with movement against resistance, often involving the use of devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands? A) Pilates B) weight training C) yoga D) static stretching
10)
11) According to cancer experts, up to what percentage of some cancers could be prevented by engaging in regular physical activity and eating a healthy diet? A) 30 percent B) 20 percent C) 10 percent D) 5 percent
11)
12) Except for physical education classes in elementary and high school, Jayleen has been sedentary all her life. Motivated by her mother's recent diagnosis of high blood pressure, Jayleen, now a junior in college, wants to improve her physical fitness. Her first step should be to A) sign up for an aerobics class. B) consult a Registered Dietitian Nutritionist. C) get her primary healthcare provider's clearance for exercise. D) hire a personal trainer.
12)
13) Regular aerobic exercise improves the A) range of motion at the body's joints. B) ability of the muscles to sustain a contraction. C) body's level of hydration. D) heart, lungs, and blood vessels.
13)
14) Exercise can reduce the risk of heart disease by all of the following EXCEPT A) strengthening the heart. B) improving blood flow. C) increasing LDL levels. D) improving dyslipidemia.
14)
15) In strength training, which of the following represents the amount of weight or resistance that can be moved only once? A) one static stretch (1 SS) B) one repetition maximum (1 RM) C) one set (1 S) D) one resistance maximum (1 RM)
15)
16) Cynthia tends to sweat profusely during her 75-minute "power aerobics" class. Cynthia should A) urge her instructor to turn up the air conditioning in the room. B) drink a sports beverage periodically throughout the class. C) drink plain water periodically throughout the class. D) switch to a shorter or less vigorous aerobics class.
16)
17) A swimmer trying to improve her stroke performance concentrates mainly on upper body weight training; her training program is an example of A) tension training. B) specificity. C) isolation. D) isometric training.
17)
2
18) An example of a SMART goal is A) I'm going to get fit by exercising more. B) I plan to get my high blood pressure into the normal range by next month. C) I want to lose twenty pounds. D) I'll sign up for the strength-training class and try to increase the weight I can lift by 20% by the end of the term.
18)
19) All of the following are ways to measure the intensity of cardiovascular exercise EXCEPT A) talk test. B) rating of perceived exertion. C) blood gas analysis. D) target heart rate.
19)
20) When doing some form of aerobic exercise, you are at a moderate level of intensity when you are A) unable to speak and barely able to catch your breath. B) able to converse with someone. C) able to talk in short fragments only. D) able to sing clearly.
20)
21) The amount of effort needed during a workout to improve some aspect of fitness is exercise A) flexibility. B) intensity. C) resistance. D) duration.
21)
22) Which statement about heat exhaustion is TRUE? A) It is the least serious heat-related illness. C) It is a mild form of shock.
22) B) It is irreversible. D) It has a high mortality rate.
23) In hypothermia, death usually occurs when body core temperature drops to A) 75-80°F. B) 87-90°F. C) below 95°F.
23) D) 81-84°F.
24) Regular aerobic exercise can reduce which type of cholesterol, known as "bad cholesterol"? A) HDLs B) essential fatty acids C) LDLs D) triglycerides
24)
25) All of the following are part of the RICE formula for treating sports- and fitness-related injuries EXCEPT A) elevate the injured extremity. B) rest the injured body part. C) compress the injury with an elastic bandage. D) apply heat at the injury site.
25)
26) Reputable certifications for fitness professionals require A) both state and national licensure. B) coursework in nutrition, fitness, psychology, and exercise physiology. C) continuing education to maintain the certification. D) at least a master's degree.
26)
27) The body's core muscles are the muscles of the A) back, abdomen, and hips. C) chest, abdomen, and arms.
27) B) chest, abdomen, and legs. D) back, hips, and legs.
3
28) Which of the following statements is TRUE about tai chi? A) Tai chi increases flexibility through the use of asanas (poses). B) Tai chi combines stretching and movement against resistance, which is aided by devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands. C) Tai chi is an ancient Chinese form of exercise that promotes balance, coordination, and meditation. D) Tai chi originated in India about 5,000 years ago.
28)
29) Vic is taking five classes and working 20 hours a week. He wants to get back into his former running program, but feels too pressed for time. Which of the following strategies might BEST help him overcome this obstacle? A) He could read a textbook or listen to a lecture on his MP3 player while jogging on a treadmill. B) He could watch a motivational film about Olympic runners. C) He could invite his partner to go for a run with him on Sundays. D) He could reward himself with dessert after dinner on days when he manages to exercise.
29)
30) The amount of force that a muscle is capable of exerting is referred to as A) overload. B) muscular strength. C) muscular endurance. D) aerobic capacity.
30)
31) Which type of exercise is BEST for improving cardiorespiratory fitness? A) anaerobic B) resistance C) aerobic
31) D) flexibility
32) Which of the following forms of exercise focuses attention on controlled breathing and employs strengthening postures known as asanas? A) tai chi B) spinning C) Pilates D) yoga
32)
33) The relative proportions and distribution of fat and lean tissue throughout the body is its A) composition. B) weight. C) flexibility. D) risk of disease.
33)
34) Which exercise technique involves working to slowly and gradually lengthen a muscle or group of muscles? A) strength training B) reflex building C) static stretching D) endurance training
34)
35) An example of an exercise to build core strength would be A) abdominal curl-ups. B) jogging. C) toe touches. D) hip stretches.
35)
36) Jeannette is 82-years old, but participates in balance training that reduces her risk of falls. This balance training increases what component of Jeannette's physical fitness? A) muscular strength. B) body composition C) cardiorespiratory D) skill-related fitness
36)
37) Which of the following would NOT be good advice for someone who is purchasing running shoes? A) Make sure the shoes have good shock absorption. B) Make sure the shoes are made specifically for running. C) Make sure there is no extra room in the toe box. D) Make sure to try them on later in the day when feet have expanded.
37)
4
38) Which of the following would assess muscular endurance? A) counting number of repeated sit-ups B) performing one repetition maximum test C) measuring time on a 0.5-mile run D) measuring range-of-motion in sitting and reaching forward
38)
39) When developing a strength-training program, if you want to increase muscular strength, you need A) lower intensity and a higher number of repetitions and sets. B) a consistent number of repetitions and sets. C) a varied exercise selection. D) higher intensity and fewer repetitions and sets.
39)
40) Two hours in to a six-hour hike on a cool fall day, it begins to rain. Helena has no rain jacket or poncho, and is wearing only lightweight clothing. Helena is at increased risk for A) frostbite. B) hyperthermia. C) hypothermia. D) water intoxication.
40)
41) The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommend what minimum amount of moderate-intensity exercise for adults? A) 150 minutes per week B) 200 minutes per week C) 100 minutes per week D) 250 minutes per week
41)
42) As part of her fitness program, Shayna runs ten times up and down the stone steps in her campus' quad. Shayna is engaging in A) multi-tasking. B) green exercise. C) initial conditioning. D) active transportation.
42)
43) Training for muscular resistance can be done using any of the following three methods: A) weight machines, distance running, or joint goniometry. B) free weights, weight machines, or your own body weight. C) free weights, weight machines, or stationary bikes, treadmills, and stair climbers. D) free weights, your own body weight, or hatha yoga.
43)
44) Good advice to someone who wants to exercise in hot weather would include all of the following EXCEPT A) exercise in early morning or evening, when temperatures are cooler. B) restrict the intake of fluids before working out. C) avoid dehydration. D) wear appropriate clothing.
44)
45) Working in his yard on a very hot summer day, Eugene begins to experience nausea, headache, dizziness, and faintness. Despite sweating and feeling hot, he notices that his skin is cool and he has the chills. Eugene could be suffering from A) heat fatigue. B) heatstroke. C) heat exhaustion. D) heat cramps.
45)
46) What are the components of the FITT principle that apply to all types of exercise? A) fitness, intensity, tension, and time B) fitness, involvement, time, and type C) frequency, information, time, and tempo D) frequency, intensity, time, and type
46)
5
47) Which statement BEST summarizes the association between exercise and improved immunity? A) Moderate-intensity exercise temporarily increases the number of white blood cells, thereby boosting immunity. B) Long-term, heavy exercisers get the most gain in immunity versus those who exercise only moderately. C) The most significant improvements in immunity are seen when a moderate exerciser begins a more intense exercise program. D) Regular exercise does not have any correlation to a healthy immune system.
47)
48) Regular exercise A) deprives the brain of nutrients. C) reduces the flow of oxygen to the brain.
48) B) increases stress. D) improves concentration.
49) To check your pulse and determine your heart rate during aerobic exercise, it is best to place your index and middle fingers on arteries located A) on the side of neck or inside the wrist. B) inside the wrist or behind the knee. C) over the heart or inside the elbow. D) on the temple or side of the neck.
49)
50) The least serious form of heat-related illness is A) heat cramps. C) heat exhaustion.
50) B) hypothermia. D) heatstroke.
51) Which of the following is NOT a major health-related component of physical fitness? A) muscular strength and endurance B) body composition C) body image D) cardiorespiratory fitness
51)
52) Breaking a leg during a football game is an example of which type of injury? A) overuse B) stress-related C) repetitive
52) D) traumatic
53) The range of motion that a joint or series of joints can achieve is A) strength. B) endurance. C) extension.
D) flexibility.
54) A muscle's ability to perform contractions for a length of time is muscle A) endurance. B) flexibility. C) strength.
D) extension.
53)
54)
55) For marathon runners, drinking plain water without replacing electrolytes increases the risk for A) heat exhaustion. B) hyponatremia. C) dehydration. D) plantar fasciitis.
55)
56) Which of the following components of an exercise session prepares the body physically and mentally? A) cool-down B) warm-up C) transition D) preparedness
56)
57) The principle of fitness training that holds that the body should be gradually required to do more than it is used to doing is A) overload. B) duration. C) specificity. D) tension.
57)
58) Which form of exercise involves techniques that slowly and gradually lengthen a muscle or group of muscles and the associated tendons? A) static stretching B) Pilates C) tai chi D) yoga
58)
6
59) Walking to class or up a flight of stairs would be examples of A) exercise. B) physical fitness. C) endurance. D) physical activity.
59)
60) Regular physical activity has been linked to all of the following EXCEPT A) improved bone mass. B) lower life expectancy. C) lower risk for diabetes. D) reduction in hypertension.
60)
61) Which of the following statement about sports-related injuries is true? A) Nearly half of all sports-related eye injuries could be prevented by wearing appropriate eye protection.
61)
B) The risk for eye injury is higher in contact sports such as football than in racquet sports. C) Over 99 percent of cases of tennis elbow are caused by failure to wear an elbow brace. D) More than two-thirds of head injuries among cyclists could be prevented by wearing a helmet. 62) In a fitness program, the slogan "use it or lose it" applies to which principle? A) overload B) reversibility C) flexibility
62) D) specificity
63) A sprained ankle should be iced A) three times a day for the first 24 to 72 hours. B) every hour for the first 24 hours. C) for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 to 72 hours. D) every two hours for the first 24 hours.
63)
64) How long does it take for a person's body to become accustomed to exercising in the heat? A) about 2 weeks B) about a week C) at least 2 months D) 4-5 days
64)
65) If you can perform regular moderate to vigorous levels of physical activity without excessive fatigue, you are considered to be A) flexible. B) agile. C) athletic. D) physically fit.
65)
66) Exercise can improve mental health by A) boosting self-esteem. B) decreasing endorphin production after exercise. C) straining the muscles and joints. D) burning off the byproducts of metabolism.
66)
67) For an aerobic exercise such as a Latin dance class, which measurement would you use to confirm that you are working at 64 percent to 96 percent of your maximal heart rate for improved cardiorespiratory fitness? A) target respiratory rate B) perceived exertion C) target heart rate D) number of repetitions
67)
7
68) After warming up, Ling alternates two minutes of moderate jogging with one minute of running as fast as she can, five times. She then cools down. The type of fitness routine Ling is engaging in is known as A) high-intensity interval training. B) FITT-training. C) variable-resistance training. D) cross-training.
68)
69) Which of the following is TRUE about target heart rate? A) It is the heart rate at which one cannot talk and exercise comfortably. B) The calculation of target heart rate varies by a person's body weight. C) It is a percentage of your maximum heart rate. D) It is a measure of the heart rate after 20 minutes of exercise.
69)
70) Exercise helps with weight control by increasing the body's A) resistance to infection. B) metabolic rate. C) blood pressure. D) heart rate.
70)
71) All of the following are overuse injuries EXCEPT A) plantar fasciitis. C) runner's knee.
71) B) ligament sprain. D) shin splints.
72) Which of the following is FALSE about hypothermia? A) It may produce poor judgment, apathy, and amnesia. B) It is a potentially fatal condition from abnormally low body temperature. C) In early stages it causes shivering. D) It is caused by prolonged exposure to temperatures below 32 degrees Fahrenheit.
72)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 73) Many studies suggest that regular exercise improves cognitive function.
73)
74) Commutes of 3 to 5 miles are usually as fast by bike as they are by car.
74)
75) If you strain a muscle during exercise, you should put heat packs on it when you get home to ease the pain and promote healing.
75)
76) People who exercise regularly experience physical benefits but not psychological benefits.
76)
77) Regular physical activity decreases both HDL and LDL levels in the blood.
77)
78) Cardiorespiratory exercise should be performed 3 to 5 days a week, and muscular fitness and flexibility exercise should be performed 2 to 3 days a week.
78)
79) A vigorous workout raises a person's metabolic rate during exercise and for several hours afterward.
79)
80) Stefano engages in cardiorespiratory and resistance training in the same session. He should perform the cardiorespiratory component first.
80)
81) Agility and balance are examples of skill-related components of physical fitness.
81)
8
82) It's wise to eat a little protein after a workout to replenish muscle and liver glycogen stores.
82)
83) In general, the lower the intensity of activity, the longer the duration of exercise should be.
83)
84) It is not physiologically possible to drink too much water.
84)
85) Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of muscles in the lower back.
85)
86) Athletes who engage in very extreme or intense physical activities, such as marathons, have been shown to be at an increased risk for upper respiratory tract infections.
86)
87) A warm-up prior to exercise after you've finished a long day of sedentary work should last longer than a warm-up after you've walked to the fitness center.
87)
88) Only 45% of American adults meet national guidelines for both cardiorespiratory and muscular fitness.
88)
89) A woman who does weight-bearing exercise will likely have higher bone mass and bone density than a woman who doesn't.
89)
90) Overuse injuries are those that occur suddenly and violently.
90)
91) During the initial conditioning stage of a fitness program, it is important to exercise at high intensity to get in shape more quickly.
91)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 92) Compare and contrast muscular strength and muscular endurance and give an example of each. 93) Nanette wants to increase her cardiorespiratory fitness. She loves roller skating and dancing. Identify at least three ways that she could take advantage of social support and community-based opportunities to increase her engagement in aerobic activity. 94) How does regular exercise physiologically lower the risk of cardiovascular disease? 95) Identify the three most important characteristics of a successful physical activity program. 96) You want to train for a 10K race being held in July, which means you'll have to train in the heat of summer. Describe your plan to avoid heat-related illness. 97) Applying the FITT principle, create a jogging and weight training program for a healthy college student who wants to stay fit and increase muscle strength. 98) Compare and contrast the health risks of the following two people: Suki is a 25-year-old recreational runner. She runs for 30 minutes at least 4 days a week and weight trains at a fitness center for 30 minutes 3 days a week. She also makes sure she stretches after her workouts. Marla is a 25-year-old graduate student who does not exercise regularly. She will occasionally take a jog with friends, but is often out of breath and too sore the next day to be motivated to do it regularly.
9
Answer Key Testname: CH 12
1) B 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) A 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 12
51) C 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) A 59) D 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) A 69) C 70) B 71) B 72) D 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) (Answers will vary): Muscular strength is the amount of force an individual muscle or group of muscles can generate in one contraction. In contrast, muscular endurance is the ability of an individual muscle or group of muscles to generate force repeatedly or to sustain force without fatigue. Thus, both concepts are associated with muscular force, but whereas muscle strength might help you lift a heavy box, muscle endurance would help you carry the box from your car to your apartment. 93) (Answers will vary but should include some of the following ideas): Nanette could invite her friends and family members to dance or go roller-skating with her. She could join a dance class. She could offer to teach dance or roller-skating to children in her community. She could go dancing or roller-skating on dates. She could find a role model to support her efforts. 11
Answer Key Testname: CH 12
94) Exercise makes both the cardiovascular and respiratory system more efficient. The heart becomes stronger and able to pump more blood with each beat, increasing the blood supply and delivery of oxygen and fuel to working muscles. Exercise reduces triglycerides, total cholesterol, and LDLs and boosts HDLs. These factors reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease. Moreover, exercise can prevent or reduce hypertension, a form of cardiovascular disease. Exercise also reduces the risk for metabolic syndrome and type 2 diabetes, two other risk factors for cardiovascular disease. 95) A successful physical activity program is one that you enjoy, that is realistic, and that is specific to your skill level and needs. 96) Allow your body to adjust to working out in the heat by gradually increasing activity performed in hot weather. Be sure to stay well hydrated. During exercise sessions lasting longer than 60 minutes, drink a sports beverage instead of plain water to replace electrolytes lost in sweat. Exercise during cooler times of day, and wear appropriate clothes. 97) The program should consist of jogging for 20-30+ minutes 3-5 days a week, at 64-96 percent of maximal heart rate. He or she should also weight train 2-3 days a week, skipping days in between, doing exercises that use all the major muscle groups. The weight training should be at a resistance of at least 60 percent of 1 RM to obtain improvements in strength. 98) Suki has fewer health risks because she exercises regularly. Her heart and lungs are stronger and she probably has normal blood pressure and higher HDL than Marla. She is more likely to be of normal body weight than Marla. Suki will also have better immune responses and be at a lower risk of some cancers than Marla. Marla will most likely have lower bone density and may have a shorter lifespan than Suki if she does not change her sedentary behaviors. Marla is also at increased risk for injury when she does exercise.
12
Chapter 13 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) An adult with a damaged sinoatrial node A) does not usually have any significant health problems. B) must take medication to control the heartbeat. C) must have a heart transplant to survive. D) must have a pacemaker implanted to control the heart rhythm.
1)
2) Testicular cancer is A) declining among males in the United States. B) increasing the most among men over 65. C) a form of cancer that exhibits no visible signs. D) one of the most curable forms of cancer.
2)
3) Which of the following blood cholesterol profiles is most healthful? A) total cholesterol = 240; LDL cholesterol = 180 B) total cholesterol = 200; HDL cholesterol = 30 C) HDL cholesterol = 50; LDL cholesterol = 130 D) total cholesterol = 170; HDL cholesterol = 70
3)
4) Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in the blood-forming parts of the body, particularly the bone marrow and spleen? A) lymphoma B) carcinoma C) sarcoma D) leukemia
4)
5) The absence of clinical indicators of cardiovascular disease and the presence of certain behavioral and health factor metrics is known as A) cardiovascular fitness. B) heart-related quality of life. C) cardiorespiratory fitness. D) ideal cardiovascular health.
5)
6) Vessels that carry blood to the heart are the A) arteries. B) arterioles.
6) C) veins.
D) capillaries.
7) Nonmodifiable risk factors for CVD include all of the following EXCEPT A) blood cholesterol levels. B) race. C) heredity. D) gender. 8) Consistently elevated blood pressure is the condition known as A) angina pectoris. B) arrhythmia. C) ischemia.
7)
8) D) hypertension.
9) Sexually transmitted diseases have the greatest impact on increasing the incidence of which type of cancer? A) testicular B) prostate C) ovarian D) cervical
9)
10) Thin-walled vessels that are involved in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide are A) chambers. B) veins. C) capillaries. D) arteries.
10)
1
11) All of the following are warning signs of melanoma EXCEPT A) a uniform brown color. B) asymmetrical shape. C) edges that are uneven or scalloped. D) a diameter larger than a pea.
11)
12) Metabolic syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A) insulin resistance. B) low blood pressure. C) elevated triglycerides. D) fat deposits in the abdomen.
12)
13) Aspirin is sometimes recommended for reducing the risk of a hear attack because it A) increases the body's excretion of sodium. B) is part of thrombolysis therapy. C) reduces the risk of clot formation. D) increases the absorption of nutrients in cardiac muscle.
13)
14) Which blood pressure measurement is the upper number that represents the amount of pressure on arterial walls when the heart contracts? A) diastolic B) systolic C) aortic D) ischemic
14)
15) Which of the following is TRUE about radiation and cancer? A) Ultraviolet radiation exposure does not increase cancer risk. B) Exposure to radon has not been shown to increase the risk of cancer. C) Ionizing radiation is the only form of radiation proven to cause cancer. D) Ionizing radiation has been proven safe.
15)
16) If caught early, the prognosis for colon cancer is good because A) treatment can be delayed. B) treatments are so advanced. C) it can be cured with diet. D) the disease progresses slowly.
16)
17) Jeremy was told that his leukemia could not be treated with radiotherapy and must be treated with chemotherapy. This is probably because the cancer is A) in situ. B) in remission. C) localized. D) not localized.
17)
18) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to tumors? A) A malignant tumor is usually encapsulated and cannot metastasize. B) A benign tumor can invade surrounding tissue, producing mutant cells. C) A benign tumor is always harmless, whereas a malignant tumor can be fatal. D) A malignant tumor can invade surrounding tissue, produce mutant cells, and metastasize.
18)
19) In the United States, the 5-year survival rate for cancer overall is currently A) lower than it was about thirty years ago. B) better for cancers of the lung and pancreas than for cancers of the oral cavity and stomach. C) higher for whites than for blacks. D) about 10 percent.
19)
20) The two upper chambers of the heart that receive blood are the A) venules. B) ventricles. C) arterioles.
20) D) atria.
21) Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in epithelial tissues? A) lymphoma B) carcinoma C) sarcoma
D) leukemia
2
21)
22) Which of the following represents the most serious type of heart arrhythmia? A) fibrillation B) bradycardia C) preventricular contraction D) tachycardia
22)
23) Which of the following can help prevent cardiovascular disease? A) consuming a moderate level of trans fats B) raising LDL levels C) avoiding tobacco D) living a sedentary life
23)
24) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of blood flow as it travels through the heart? A) left ventricle, left atrium, aorta, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs B) venae cavae, both atria, both ventricles, aorta C) right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta D) aorta, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle
24)
25) Which of the following is a leading cause of disability affecting the extremities, especially in Americans over the age of 65? A) angina pectoris B) peripheral artery disease C) coronary heart disease D) heart failure
25)
26) Which of the following behaviors would most likely increase the risk of developing cancer? A) increasing your BMI by using weight training to build muscle B) taking a stress management class C) eating a diet high in empty calories D) training and participating in a 10K race
26)
27) Which blood pressure measurement is the lower number that represents the amount of pressure on arterial walls when the heart relaxes? A) aortic B) diastolic C) ischemic D) systolic
27)
28) A construction company used asbestos on many job sites over the years. Asbestos is a(n) A) radioactive material. B) pesticide. C) environmental carcinogen. D) widely used dye.
28)
29) A biopsy reveals that a woman who has had breast cancer now has cancer in her bones. The process of cancer spreading from one organ or body area to others is A) transvergence. B) malignance. C) transference. D) metastasis.
29)
30) The small veins are the A) ventricles.
30) B) venules.
C) capillaries.
D) vena cava.
31) One reason exercise might decrease breast cancer risk is that A) it involves social support. B) it increases self-esteem. C) it increases appetite. D) it typically decreases body fat.
31)
32) Of the following states, the two with the greatest prevalence of death due to cardiovascular disease are A) California and Oregon. B) Maine and New Hampshire. C) Arkansas and Louisiana. D) Arizona and New Mexico.
32)
3
33) Rather than removing her tumor with traditional surgery, Eva's medical team decides to target it with a dose of radiation that destroys tumor cells with pinpoint accuracy. Eva will receive what type of treatment? A) immunotherapy B) stereotactic radiosurgery C) computed tomography D) gene therapy
33)
34) The human heart is about the size of a(n) A) adult's fist. B) golf ball.
34) C) small plum.
D) grapefruit.
35) The BEST time for a man to perform a testicular self-exam is A) after strenuous exercise. B) after a hot shower. C) before he goes to sleep at night. D) when he first wakes up in the morning.
35)
36) What happens during a heart attack? A) Blood supply to some area of the brain is interrupted. B) Blood supply is blocked to some area of the heart. C) The heart pumps at an excessively rapid rate. D) Blood pools in the lower extremities.
36)
37) Which of the following is NOT a technique used to diagnose heart disease? A) positron emission tomography B) angioplasty C) ultrafast computed tomography D) electrocardiogram
37)
38) How many adult Americans suffer from some type of cardiovascular disease? A) one out of two B) one out of five C) one out of four
38) D) one out of three
39) Prostate cancer risk A) increases dramatically with age. B) has no correlation to family history. C) is highest among Latino men. D) is increased in people who consume a diet high in lycopene.
39)
40) All of the following occur as part of congestive heart failure EXCEPT A) the heart becomes enlarged and less efficient. B) the circulation of blood through the body becomes sluggish. C) shortness of breath. D) fluids cannot reach the legs, ankles, or feet.
40)
41) The two lower chambers of the heart that pump blood out are the A) ventricles. B) atria. C) arterioles.
41) D) venules.
42) Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the genetic risk of cancer? A) Hodgkin's disease is directly caused by exposure to radiation and is not linked to heredity. B) An individual's risk of developing cancer is influenced by genetic as well as environmental and lifestyle factors. C) Women who inherit the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes will develop breast cancer by age 50. D) Scientists think that the majority of cancer types are hereditary.
42)
43) Gwen received the HPV vaccination in her early teens. Doing so decreased her risk for A) ovarian cancer. B) cervical cancer. C) breast cancer. D) leukemia.
43)
4
44) A new growth of tissue that serves no physiological purpose is a A) scar tissue. B) neoplasm. C) malignant tumor. D) benign cyst.
44)
45) Which diagnostic test records the electrical activity of the heart? A) magnetic resonance imaging B) cardiac calcium score C) angiogram D) electrocardiogram
45)
46) Which of the following characteristics would be consistent with a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome in an adult female? A) fasting blood glucose of 80 mg/dL B) HDL of 60 C) blood pressure of 155/90 D) waist measurement of 30 inches
46)
47) A woman with a large malignant tumor in her left breast and spread of the malignancy to three nearby lymph nodes but not to other organs most likely has A) stage IV cancer. B) stage III cancer. C) stage I cancer. D) cancer in situ.
47)
48) The blood level of which type of protein rises during an inflammatory reaction? A) collagen B) polypeptides C) C-reactive protein D) amino acids
48)
49) The most lethal form of skin cancer is A) metastatic sarcoma. C) basal cell carcinoma.
49) B) malignant melanoma. D) squamous cell carcinoma.
50) Which diagnostic test produces a three-dimensional image of the heart as blood flows through it? A) computed tomography B) angiography C) positron emission tomography D) magnetic resonance imaging
50)
51) A man asks his office-mate to call 911 because he is experiencing tightness in his chest, pain in his left arm and shoulder, shortness of breath, and dizziness. Which condition is he likely experiencing? A) stroke B) peripheral artery disease C) heart attack D) heart failure
51)
52) What happens in coronary artery disease? A) Blood clots form throughout the body. B) Blood supply to some area of the brain is interrupted. C) Plaque forms in blood vessels that supply blood to the heart. D) Blood supply is blocked to one or more extremities.
52)
53) All of the following are methods of reducing risk for CVD EXCEPT A) quitting smoking. B) increasing triglycerides in your blood. C) achieving and maintaining a healthy weight. D) increasing exercise.
53)
54) Which of the following should be consumed daily as part of a heart-healthy diet? A) red meats B) plant sterols C) fried foods D) coffee
54)
5
55) Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in bones, muscles, and/or connective tissue? A) lymphoma B) carcinoma C) sarcoma D) leukemia
55)
56) A Pap test is used to screen women for A) ovarian cancer. C) cervical cancer.
56) B) breast cancer. D) sexually transmitted diseases.
57) A woman goes to the emergency room. She tells the nurse that after carrying several loads of laundry up a flight of stairs she is having chest pain and a sensation she describes as her heart being crushed. Which condition is she likely experiencing? A) angina pectoris B) stroke C) hypertension D) peripheral artery disease
57)
58) In the ABCD rule for the warning signs of melanoma, the B stands for A) bleeding. B) beyond localized. C) border irregularity. D) basal carcinoma.
58)
59) Vessels that carry blood away from the heart are the A) arteries. B) venules.
C) capillaries.
D) veins.
59)
60) An irregularity in the heartbeat is known as A) arrhythmia. B) ischemia.
C) hypertension.
D) angina pectoris.
60)
61) Patrick is going to begin chemotherapy to treat a type of lymphoma. Which of the following side effects is he most likely to experience? A) rapid heartbeat B) persistent hunger and insomnia C) lowered risk of infection D) nausea, fatigue, and hair loss
61)
62) Of the following lifestyle choices, the MOST helpful for reducing cardiovascular disease risk is to A) engage in regular exercise. B) eat a small amount of chocolate once a day. C) increase your intake of dietary protein. D) reduce the amount of cholesterol in your diet.
62)
63) A reduction in the oxygen supply to a part of the body or an organ such as the heart is known as A) atherosclerosis. B) ischemia. C) myocardial infarction. D) angina pectoris.
63)
64) "Mini-strokes" that cause only temporary impairment and that can indicate an impending stroke are A) transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). B) cerebrovascular accidents (CVAs). C) preventricular contractions (PVCs). D) aneurysms.
64)
65) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for colorectal cancer? A) type 2 diabetes B) obesity C) family history
65) D) regular exercise
66) What percentage of human cancers have been traced to infectious agents, primarily viruses, worldwide? A) between 10 and 15 percent B) between 5 and 10 percent C) as many as 5 percent D) between 15 and 20 percent
6
66)
67) To reduce their risk for prostate cancer, men over 40 are encouraged to have A) a one-time genetic test. B) an annual digital rectal examination. C) an annual fecal occult blood test. D) an annual PSA test.
67)
68) The average healthy adult heart beats 70-80 beats per minute. A lower heart rate of 60 might indicate that A) the individual is very fit. B) a heart valve is malfunctioning. C) the individual is in cardiac arrest. D) the individual is stressed.
68)
69) Which of the following is TRUE in regard to atherosclerosis? A) It is characterized by a buildup of substances within the arteries that form plaque. B) It only starts to develop after the age of 50. C) It is easily reversed with medication and exercise. D) It causes thinning and softening of the arteries.
69)
70) Which of the following body shapes represents a higher risk for heart disease? A) pear B) hourglass C) apple
70) D) pencil
71) Which diagnostic test is used to identify heart muscle damage caused by a heart attack? A) angiography B) positron emission tomography C) magnetic resonance imaging D) computed tomography
71)
72) The common name for a myocardial infarction is A) a heart attack. B) CHF.
72) C) a seizure.
D) a stroke.
73) All of the following are well-documented risk factors for breast cancer EXCEPT A) weight gain after age 18. B) having your first child before the age of 20. C) early onset of menstruation and/or late menopause. D) having a family history of breast cancer.
73)
74) Which of the following strategies may lower the risk for ovarian cancer? A) having a mother with a history of breast cancer B) taking fertility drugs C) not having children D) maintaining a healthy weight
74)
75) Removal and microscopic examination of a tissue sample to determine if cancer is present is a(n) A) colonoscopy. B) PSA test. C) biopsy. D) endoscopy.
75)
76) An individual would most likely suffer from angina pectoris when A) sleeping. B) working at a computer. C) watching television. D) walking up a flight of stairs.
76)
77) Cardiovascular disease A) causes nearly 25 percent more deaths each year than it did a decade ago. B) occurs in nearly 25 percent of African Americans. C) is second only to cancer as a leading cause of death among Americans. D) has been the leading cause of death in the U.S. for 100 years.
77)
7
78) What happens during a stroke? A) Blood pools in the lower extremities. B) Blood supply to some area of the brain is interrupted. C) Blood supply is blocked to some area of the heart. D) The heart pumps at an excessively rapid rate.
78)
79) Homocysteine is an amino acid that when found at high levels in the blood may indicate an increased risk of A) Parkinson's disease. B) Alzheimer's disease. C) cardiovascular disease. D) cancer.
79)
80) Cardiometabolic risks are A) the cardiovascular and metabolic factors that together increase the risk for cognitive decline. B) risk factors that affect both cardiovascular functions and the body's metabolic processes. C) a measurement of a given individual's risk for coronary artery disease and/or type 2 diabetes. D) a group of five conditions occurring together that increase the risk for cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes.
80)
81) Which of the following groups has the highest incidence of hypertension? A) middle-aged Asian American females B) women over 40 who have a high-school diploma but did not attend college C) older African American males D) college-educated men under the age of 55
81)
82) The small arterial branches are the A) arterioles. B) aorta.
82) C) atria.
D) venules.
83) A period during which cancer has responded to treatment and appears to be under control is called A) retraction. B) relapse. C) reversion. D) remission.
83)
84) The hepatitis B and C viruses are believed to promote liver cancer by A) reducing the liver's ability to synthesize bile. B) blocking the ability of liver cells to mount an immune response. C) causing chronic inflammation of liver tissues. D) impairing the liver's ability to store glycogen.
84)
85) Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in the infection-fighting regions of the body? A) lymphoma B) carcinoma C) sarcoma D) leukemia
85)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 86) A stroke is also known as a cerebrovascular accident.
86)
87) In a stress test, a patient receives an injection of a stimulant, and an ECG records the heart's response to the drug.
87)
88) The CT scan is a noninvasive procedure that uses x-rays to determine the shape and location of tumors.
88)
89) Blood that has picked up oxygen in the lungs travels through the pulmonary vein back to the heart.
89)
8
90) Disability-adjusted life years is a measure of the difference between age at premature death and average life expectancy.
90)
91) An individual's lifestyle does not play a role in the development of cancer.
91)
92) A woman whose fat deposits are primarily in her abdominal area is at less risk for heart disease than her friend who carries more fat on her hips and thighs.
92)
93) Pancreatic cancer has an especially high mortality rate.
93)
94) Arrhythmias can be triggered by lifestyle factors.
94)
95) The majority of heart arrhythmias result in death.
95)
96) Inflammation may play a role in heart disease development.
96)
97) In the last decade, cardiovascular disease mortality rates have improved by just 3%.
97)
98) Stroke fatality rates have declined by nearly one-third since 2004.
98)
99) A majority of Americans who are diagnosed with cancer are dead within five years.
99)
100) A male's lifetime risk for cancer is nearly 1 in 4.
100)
101) Lung cancer is the only form of cancer conclusively linked to smoking.
101)
102) A family history of heart disease has a much greater influence on heart-disease risk than factors such as an unhealthful diet, smoking, a sedentary lifestyle, obesity, and a high stress level.
102)
103) Having a father or brother with prostate cancer more than doubles a man's risk of getting the disease.
103)
104) All forms of dietary fat raise blood cholesterol.
104)
105) An aneurysm in the brain can cause a stroke.
105)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 106) Identify the four behaviors and three health factor metrics that the American Heart Association links to ideal cardiovascular health. 107) List five risk factors for breast cancer and describe tools for early detection. Also describe why early detection is important. 108) Explain why an American male's 2% lifetime risk for cancer and an American female's 33% lifetime risk for cancer may or may not apply to you.
9
109) Describe the journey that an oxygen-depleted drop of blood would take from a capillary bed in your toes to your lungs. 110) List four characteristics of individuals at greatest risk for skin cancer and describe what a suspicious mole might look like. 111) Should you be concerned about your cholesterol intake? Why or why not? 112) Briefly describe what occurs when a person has a stroke, including basic effects on the brain and on physical and mental abilities.
10
Answer Key Testname: CH 13
1) D 2) D 3) D 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) D 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) C 49) B 50) C 11
Answer Key Testname: CH 13
51) C 52) C 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) D 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) D 66) D 67) B 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) C 72) A 73) B 74) D 75) C 76) D 77) D 78) B 79) C 80) B 81) C 82) A 83) D 84) C 85) A 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 12
Answer Key Testname: CH 13
101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) The four behaviors linked to ideal cardiovascular health are: not smoking; sufficient physical activity; a healthy diet; and an appropriate energy balance and normal body weight. The three health factors linked to ideal cardiovascular health are: optimal total cholesterol without medication; optimal blood pressure without medication; and optimal fasting blood glucose without medication. 107) (Any five of the following) • Age • Family history of breast cancer • BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutation • Weight gain after age 18 • Never having children or having the first child after 30 • Consuming two or more alcoholic drinks per day • Physical inactivity • Having had early menarche and/or late menopause • Recent use of oral contraceptives or postmenopausal hormone therapy • Obesity after menopause Screening mammograms, including a new 3D mammogram, and a new type of MRI can detect a lump that is still too s be palpated. They can therefore contribute to early diagnosis and may improve effectiveness of treatment and survival 108) Lifetime risk for a population of males or females represents the statistical average. Included in this calculation are certain percentages of people with genetic, behavioral, social, and environmental risk factors you might or might not share. More accurate is your relative risk, which assesses your risk for cancer given your precise heredity, lifestyle choices, environmental exposures, and other factors. If, for example, you do not have known genetic risks, do not smoke, maintain a healthy body weight, eat a nourishing diet, engage in regular physical activity, avoid excessive alcohol consumption, practice safe sex, have recommended cancer screenings, and avoid environmental and other carcinogens to the extent possible, then your relative risk for cancer is likely to be significantly lower than the average lifetime risk for your sex. 109) Oxygen-depleted blood in the capillary beds enters a venule, which carries it to a vein, from which it travels to the inferior vena cava, which releases it into the right atrium, which releases it into the right ventricle. The right ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary arteries, which take it to the lungs. 110) (Any four of the following) • Have traits such as fair skin; blonde, red, or light brown hair; blue, green, or gray eyes • Always burn before tanning; don't tan easily • Spend a lot of time outdoors • Burn easily and peel readily • Have been previously treated or have a family history of skin cancer • Have experienced severe sunburns as a child • Use no sunscreen or outdates or low-SPF sunscreen and don't use enough A suspicious mole may have sides that look different (asymmetry) and an irregular border (scalloped edges); the color vary within the mole (color); and the diameter is larger than a pea. The characteristics change (evolve) over time. The su mole can have one or more of these characteristics.
13
Answer Key Testname: CH 13
111) Answers will vary. Your body can synthesize all of the cholesterol you need, so technically speaking, you don't have to consume any cholesterol in your diet. If you eat animal products containing cholesterol, such as red meat, eggs, and cheese, you consume cholesterol. Until recently, public health guidelines such as the Dietary Guidelines for Americans advised limiting cholesterol intake. However, recommendations are changing to emphasize consumption of heart-healthy unsaturated fats from a plant-based diet including fatty fish, and to avoid consuming any trans fats at all. In short, there is no convincing evidence that consumption of dietary cholesterol, for most people, increases the risk for cardiovascular disease. 112) A stroke occurs when the blood supply is cut off by plaque formation or a blood clot within a cerebral artery (an artery serving the brain). It can also occur when an artery in the brain ruptures, often because of an aneurysm. Either event deprives the affected brain region of oxygen and nutrients, resulting in the death of brain cells and subsequent speech impairments, memory loss, and loss of motor control.
14
Chapter 13a
Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Miguel was tested for diabetes. His oral glucose tolerance test showed a level of 120 mg/dL. This indicates that A) Miguel has prediabetes. B) Miguel has normal blood glucose levels. C) Miguel's test results must be confirmed with a fasting plasma glucose test. D) Miguel has diabetes.
1)
2) Hermione is morbidly obese (BMI 30) and has type 2 diabetes. Which of the following treatment options is Hermione's physician LEAST likely to advise? A) oral insulin administration B) adoption of a reduced-calorie, healthy diet C) increased physical activity D) bariatric surgery
2)
3) A test that gives the average value of a patient's glucose over the past 2 to 3 months is the A) oral blood glucose test. B) red blood cell count. C) hemoglobin A1C test. D) fasting plasma tolerance test.
3)
4) Uncontrolled diabetes can increase the risk of A) brain tumors. B) blindness.
4) C) liver cancer.
D) skin cancer.
5) Diabetics should check their own blood glucose level A) once a week. B) several times a month. C) once a day. D) several times a day.
5)
6) The monthly cost of medical care for an individual with type 2 diabetes averages 6) A) $350-1,000 B) $100-200 C) $1,000-1,2000 D) $200-350 7) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to prediabetes? A) It is most common in college students. B) It is one of the conditions linked to metabolic syndrome. C) The symptoms typically range from mild to moderate. D) An estimated 49 million Americans age 20 or older have it. 8) The organ that stores glycogen that has been converted from glucose is the A) kidney. B) pancreas. C) liver.
7)
8) D) spleen.
9) Conditions that increase the risk for developing type 2 diabetes include all of the following EXCEPT A) prediabetes. B) metabolic syndrome. C) gestational diabetes. D) regular exercise and a healthy diet.
1
9)
10) Randy is an overweight 22-year-old whose doctor is concerned about his risk of diabetes. The doctor ordered a test that requires Randy to drink a concentrated glucose solution and then have blood drawn two hours later. The test Randy will undergo is the A) hemoglobin A1C test. B) glucose meter test. C) fasting plasma glucose test. D) oral glucose tolerance test.
10)
11) The primary action of insulin is to A) stimulate transporters to take up glucose from the bloodstream and carry it into the cell. B) increase the liver's breakdown of glycogen into glucose. C) metabolize glucose to energy. D) stimulate cells to release glucose into the bloodstream so that it can travel to the liver for storage.
11)
12) Nerve damage associated with diabetes can cause numbness and tingling in the A) hands and feet. B) feet. C) hands. D) neck.
12)
13) The organ that filters excess glucose from the blood is the A) kidney. B) spleen. C) pancreas.
13) D) liver.
14) The recommended diet for individuals at risk of developing diabetes includes all of the following foods EXCEPT A) red meat. B) fatty fish. C) whole grains. D) high-fiber foods.
14)
15) Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with diabetes? A) agitation and excessive energy B) excessive urination C) weight loss D) excessive thirst
15)
16) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) estimates that approximately how many Americans have diabetes? A) nearly 1 million B) nearly 30 million C) nearly 10 million D) nearly 90 million
16)
17) During the past few decades, the incidence of type 2 diabetes in children and teens has A) increased. B) remained stable. C) decreased by 10 percent. D) become more prevalent than type 1 diabetes.
17)
18) Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to all of the following EXCEPT A) coma. B) kidney disease. C) heart disease. D) pancreatic cancer.
18)
19) Type 1 diabetes A) is also called non-insulin-dependent diabetes. B) results in an enhanced immune system. C) is more prevalent than type 2 diabetes. D) most often appears during childhood or adolescence.
19)
2
20) Which hormone is required by the body's cells for the uptake of glucose? A) glycogen B) insulin C) estrogen
20) D) cortisol
21) In which form of diabetes does the immune system destroy the body's insulin-producing cells? A) type 1 diabetes B) prediabetes C) type 2 diabetes D) gestational diabetes
21)
22) The body organ that secretes the hormone insulin is the A) kidney. B) liver. C) spleen.
22) D) pancreas.
23) Diabetes can result in hunger and weight loss because A) so many calories are lost in the glucose that passes into the urine. B) a diabetic burns more calories during a given activity. C) appetite is suppressed due to high blood sugar. D) excessive urination means loss of water weight.
23)
24) Which of the following individuals would have the highest risk for developing type 2 diabetes? A) a normal-weight black female with a history of depression B) a white male with a waist circumference of 34 inches C) an Asian American female with high blood pressure D) a Native American male with a BMI of 30
24)
25) If cells cannot utilize glucose for energy, the body will break down fat, which produces acidic molecules called A) ketones. B) glycogen. C) proteins. D) lipids.
25)
26) Which of the following would NOT put an individual at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes? A) physical activity B) sedentary lifestyle C) inadequate sleep D) stress
26)
27) About what percentage of the American population over the age of 20 has symptoms of prediabetes? A) 37 percent B) 13 percent C) 51 percent D) 26 percent
27)
28) Carrying an excessive amount of body fat around the waist, which is a risk factor for diabetes, is a condition known as A) central cellulite storage. B) gastrointestinal adiposity. C) central adiposity. D) dorsal obesity.
28)
29) Which of the following is TRUE in regard to the use of glucose by body cells? A) Glucose is the least preferred energy source for red blood cells. B) Glucose easily diffuses across cell membranes. C) The uptake of glucose by body cells is signaled by a hormone secreted by the pancreas. D) Glucose decreases energy availability for body cells.
29)
30) Research suggests that individuals with prediabetes may avoid progressing to diabetes if they lose what percentage of current body weight? A) as little as 5 to 7 percent B) as little as 7 to 9 percent C) as little as 9 to 11 percent D) as little as 3 to 5 percent
30)
3
31) Which of the following occurs as a result of gestational diabetes? A) The mother has significantly reduced risk of progressing to type 2 diabetes after giving birth. B) Changing hormone levels reduce metabolic stress. C) The growth of the fetus is limited. D) There is a higher risk of birth-related complications.
31)
32) John has not been feeling well. He is constantly tired and feels bloated. His blood pressure is low and at times his vision is blurred. Which two symptoms does John have that are characteristic of diabetes? A) low blood pressure and bloating B) bloating and blurred vision C) fatigue and blurred vision D) low blood pressure and fatigue
32)
33) In a state of diabetic ketoacidosis, A) kidney function will increase. B) the brain must rely on glucose as a source of energy. C) blood acidity falls extremely low. D) levels of acidic molecules in the blood rise dangerously high.
33)
34) Kara was tested for diabetes. Her fasting plasma glucose test showed a level of 120 mg/dL. This indicates that A) Kara has normal blood glucose levels. B) Kara has diabetes. C) Kara has prediabetes. D) Kara's test results must be confirmed with an oral glucose tolerance test.
34)
35) Which of the following factors contributes to a diabetes-related amputation? A) pneumonia or flu B) kidney failure C) low blood pressure D) impaired immune response
35)
36) A state in which the body's cells fail to respond to the effects of insulin is A) hyperglycemia. B) hypoglycemia. C) diabetic coma. D) insulin resistance.
36)
37) Which form of diabetes develops slowly and occurs when the body either loses its ability to produce enough insulin or cannot respond to the insulin that is available? A) gestational diabetes B) type 1 diabetes C) type 2 diabetes D) insulin-dependent diabetes
37)
38) Carbohydrates that have been ingested are broken down into the form of sugar known as A) glycogen. B) lactose. C) fructose. D) glucose.
38)
39) Diabetes mellitus is a disease characterized by A) high blood glucose. C) low blood pressure.
39) B) high blood proteins. D) high blood fats.
40) A state of elevated blood glucose is A) hyperglycemia. C) glycemic load.
B) hypoglycemia. D) insulin resistance.
40)
4
41) The condition of elevated blood glucose levels during pregnancy is called A) fetal diabetes. B) prediabetes. C) type 1 diabetes. D) gestational diabetes.
41)
42) A cluster of conditions that strongly increases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes is known as A) central adiposity. B) prediabetes. C) metabolic syndrome. D) cardiovascular disease.
42)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 43) Diabetes kills more Americans each year than heart disease and cancer combined.
43)
44) The increase in type 2 diabetes in the United States is thought to be primarily due to genetic factors.
44)
45) A diabetic who has gastric bypass surgery may eliminate the symptoms of diabetes.
45)
46) People with diabetes generally do self-checks to monitor blood sugar throughout the day.
46)
47) The primary reason that diabetes increases the risk for blindness is that high blood glucose blocks tiny ducts that cleanse and lubricate the eye.
47)
48) Experts predict that more than 1 in 3 Americans will have diabetes by the year 2050.
48)
49) Medications for treating diabetes tend to become less effective over time.
49)
50) All people with type 2 diabetes can control it with lifestyle changes and will never need to take insulin.
50)
51) Diabetes can contribute to gum disease.
51)
52) In a healthy person, an increase in blood glucose following a carbohydrate-containing meal or snack will result in increased secretion of insulin.
52)
53) An oral glucose tolerance test result of 150 mg/dL indicates that the individual has diabetes.
53)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 54) Explain why people with diabetes that is poorly managed are at increased risk for amputations, especially of the toes and feet. 55) Identify the main risks of gestational diabetes to the mother and to the fetus. 56) What steps can an individual take to lower the risk of diabetes? 57) Explain the primary differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes.
5
Answer Key Testname: CH 13A
1) B 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) D 36) D 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 6
Answer Key Testname: CH 13A
51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) Tissue damage from trauma and infections, especially in the feet, are a frequent threat to people with diabetes. At the same time, nerve damage reduces sensation in the extremities, allowing people with diabetes to be unaware of traumatic or infectious tissue damage until it has progressed. Moreover, high blood glucose damages blood vessels serving the limbs and impairs delivery of nutrients to assist in wound healing; thus, amputations are often necessary. 55) Women with gestational diabetes have an increased risk of high blood pressure, high blood acidity, infection, and death. They also have a higher risk for developing type 2 diabetes in the decade following the birth. The fetus of a woman with gestational diabetes may become excessively large, with an increased risk for birth trauma; malformations of the heart, nervous system, and bones; respiratory distress; and fetal death. Even after an uncomplicated birth, the newborn is at risk for high insulin levels and fluctuations in blood glucose. 56) Lose weight or maintain a healthy weight; eat right (decrease saturated fats, trans fats, and added sugars, reduce portion sizes, and focus on fruit and vegetables, whole grains and fiber, low-fat dairy, nuts, and fatty fish); increase physical fitness, including by adding a few minutes of movement during every period of sitting; avoid smoking; limit or stop drinking alcohol; get adequate sleep; find ways to reduce stress; have regular medical check-ups. 57) Type 1 is a genetic autoimmune disorder in which the body's immune system attacks the insulin-making cells of the pancreas. This results in a rapid decrease in–or total cessation of–insulin production. Type 2 diabetes develops slowly over time and is related to genetics and biology, age, ethnicity, and lifestyle factors, especially overweight and obesity, low levels of physical activity, a poor diet, inadequate sleep, and stress. Over time, although production of insulin may be increased, cells become resistant to its effects. Hyperproduction of insulin damages the pancreas and insulin output eventually declines, causing a persistent rise in blood glucose. A person with type 1 diabetes must take insulin injections. A person with type 2 can sometimes control it through lifestyle changes and, if necessary, oral medications. In some cases, they must inject insulin.
7
Chapter 14 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Walter removed a tick embedded in his calf the evening after a long hike in the woods. Walter is now at increased risk for all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT A) babesiosis. B) Lyme disease. C) candidiasis. D) ehrlichiosis.
1)
2) All of the following must happen for a disease to occur EXCEPT A) the host must be susceptible. B) the host must never have had the disease before. C) an agent must transmit a disease. D) the environment must promote it.
2)
3) Disease-causing agents are called A) pathogens. C) antibodies.
3) B) infectious microorganisms. D) carcinogens.
4) Two weeks ago your nephew came down with the chickenpox while visiting. Now you have itchy, crusted spots on your arms and you feel terrible. You probably were infected with the chickenpox virus when your nephew was there but did not get sick until now because of the A) inoculation period. B) antibody activity. C) immune response. D) incubation period.
4)
5) Influenza outbreaks that affect 5-20% of the United States population each year are an example of a(n) A) epidemic. B) plague. C) trauma. D) pandemic.
5)
6) Vincent contracted genital herpes many years ago, and has been taking famciclovir since beginning a new sexual relationship. Which of the following is true? A) Famciclovir stops the herpes virus from shedding. B) Taking famciclovir reduces the risk that Vincent will transmit the herpes virus to his partner. C) Famciclovir destroys the herpes virus. D) Taking famciclovir increases the risk that Vincent will transmit the herpes virus to his partner.
6)
7) When the body is invaded by antigens, the immune system forms substances called A) lymphocytes. B) antibodies. C) macrophages. D) helper cells.
7)
8) Trichomoniasis is which type of infection? A) protozoan B) fungal
8) C) bacterial
9) Which of the following is TRUE about avian influenza? A) It has not yet mutated into a form highly infectious to humans. B) It has already developed into a major pandemic. C) It appears to have originated in Africa. D) It is a bacterial disease.
1
D) viral 9)
10) The largest type of pathogen is A) protozoa. C) fungi.
10) B) parasitic worms. D) bacteria.
11) You want to decrease your risk of developing an infectious disease. Which of the following factors is within your individual control? A) heredity B) age C) nutritional status D) environmental conditions
11)
12) The stage of syphilis that is characterized by a bacteria-filled chancre is A) secondary syphilis. B) latent syphilis. C) primary syphilis. D) tertiary syphilis.
12)
13) Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies develop in response to exposure to antigens encountered in the course of daily life? A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity
13)
14) All of the following points about E. coli 0157:H7 are true EXCEPT that A) a typical symptom of infection is diarrhea. B) it can be contracted from various foods. C) infection can be serious but is not known to cause deaths. D) it is a bacterial disease.
14)
15) Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies pass from mother to fetus via placenta or from mother to baby via breast milk? A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity
15)
16) Which of the following statements about the common cold is true? A) The majority of colds are caused by a variety of bacterial species. B) The common cold is endemic in the United States. C) Adults have, on average, one cold each year. D) The majority of colds are transmitted by airborne droplets caused by sneezing into the air.
16)
17) Sierra, now 31, has been trying to get pregnant since she got married 4 years ago. Her doctor suspects that their infertility problem was likely caused by her history of PID from the most commonly reported STI. During her early 20s, Sierra had contracted A) gonorrhea. B) HIV/AIDS. C) herpes simplex. D) chlamydia.
17)
18) All of the following statements about methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are true EXCEPT A) although it can be acquired in health-care facilities, they are not a common source. B) the MRSA bacteria do not respond to the class of antibiotics commonly used for Staphylococcus infections. C) it can invade the heart, lungs, and bones. D) community-acquired MRSA is on the rise.
18)
2
19) Delay in seeking medical care for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) increases the risk of permanent damage and scarring that can lead to A) painful urination. B) painful intercourse. C) infertility and other complications. D) bleeding between periods.
19)
20) What portion of the world's population is infected with tuberculosis (TB)? A) one-fourth B) one-third C) one-fifth
20) D) one-half
21) The common cold is which type of infection? A) viral B) staphylococcal
D) protozoan
21) C) fungal
22) A rise in body temperature that occurs when invading pathogens secrete toxins is a(n) A) fever. B) autoimmune disease. C) allergic reaction. D) sign of hypertension.
22)
23) Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies develop in response to a vaccine? A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity
23)
24) All of the following behaviors will compromise your immune system's ability to fight infections EXCEPT A) exercising regularly. B) eating junk food. C) excessive alcohol consumption. D) not getting enough sleep.
24)
25) Which of the following is typically due to a staphylococcal infection? A) acne B) Lyme disease C) pneumonia
25) D) scarlet fever
26) All of the following are true about viruses EXCEPT A) they are composed of protein and either RNA or DNA. B) they can reproduce outside of cells. C) drug treatment is limited. D) there are hundreds of viruses that cause disease.
26)
27) Which of the following is a small form of toxin-producing bacteria carried by ticks that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A) rickettsia B) tuberculosis C) ehrlichiosis D) Lyme disease
27)
28) After a relaxing week of backpacking and camping in the woods, during which you enjoyed drinking cool water from a creek, you have returned to school. Since you got back, you are experiencing abdominal cramps that won't go away. This condition is probably not the result of schoolwork overload, but rather something you picked up during your camping trip. You likely have A) malaria. B) valley fever. C) giardiasis. D) trichomoniasis.
28)
29) All of the following are recommended for avoiding contracting or spreading a respiratory infection EXCEPT A) coughing or sneezing into a tissue or your sleeve. B) keeping your hands away from your face. C) washing hands often with hot, soapy water. D) going to work while sick as long as you take medication.
29)
3
30) Candi was mortified when her doctor told her that she had a protozoal STI. She probably had A) parasitic worms. B) rickettsia. C) candidiasis. D) trichomoniasis.
30)
31) While in the hospital, Daniel's grandmother developed an inflammatory condition that involved a build-up of fluid in her lungs. His grandmother was suffering from A) pneumonia. B) influenza. C) tuberculosis. D) emphysema.
31)
32) Ray went on a missionary trip to a developing country. While there, he enjoyed a wide range of locally prepared foods. He had to return home when he contracted hepatitis. Ray most likely has A) hepatitis A. B) hepatitis B. C) hepatitis C. D) hepatitis D.
32)
33) Francisco just found out his HIV test is positive. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) As he is unaware of having experienced any particular symptoms of HIV infection, it is likely that he was infected within the past six months. B) New drug therapies should allow Francisco to significantly slow progression of the disease. C) Francisco's wife does not need to worry about getting infected since she is a heterosexual female. D) Francisco's positive HIV test means that he has AIDS.
33)
34) A substance that triggers an immune response is a(n) A) antigen. B) pathogen. C) antibody.
34) D) toxin.
35) Edna lives in a nursing home. She has been taking antibiotics for both pneumonia and recurring urinary tract infections. This morning she awoke with a fever, watery diarrhea, and nausea. Which of the following infectious diseases is Edna MOST likely to have? A) Powassan virus B) Clostridium difficile C) variant Creutzfeld-Jakob disease D) necrotizing fasciitis
35)
36) The virus responsible for causing genital warts is A) HPV. B) syphilis.
36) C) chlamydia.
D) hepatitis B.
37) Bethany is 39 years old and has just been diagnosed with cervical cancer. It is probably related to an infection she had during her college years, which was A) chlamydia. B) hepatitis A. C) human papillomavirus (HPV). D) syphilis.
37)
38) While hospitalized for severe malnutrition and a debilitating respiratory infection, an elderly patient developed a urinary tract infection. This is an example of a(n) A) endemic infection. B) airborne infection. C) perinatal infection. D) opportunistic infection.
38)
39) When Maria's boyfriend returned from the health clinic, he told her he had been diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Maria should go to the clinic to get tested for gonorrhea and treated if she has it. B) Maria should limit sexual activity with her boyfriend to oral sex until his treatment is finished and a follow-up test shows that he is free of the infection. C) Maria should take lots of vitamins and eat a healthy diet to prevent infection. D) Maria does not need to worry because she does not have any gonorrhea symptoms.
39)
4
40) Which bacterial infection affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord and is more common among college students living in dormitories than in other populations? A) pneumonia B) tuberculosis C) meningitis D) influenza
40)
41) Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between getting a chill and contracting a cold? A) Getting a chill has no relationship whatsoever to contracting a cold. B) A chill may indirectly increase a person's risk for getting a cold by lowering the immune system's resistance. C) Getting a chill may actually decrease the incidence, duration, and severity of a cold. D) Getting a chill will cause a person to get a cold.
41)
42) Which of the following is caused by an increased production of a fungus normally resident in smaller numbers in the vagina? A) trichomoniasis B) candidiasis C) gonorrhea D) HPV
42)
43) A key reason for the resurgence of measles and mumps infections is A) an increased mosquito population. B) poor sanitation and hygiene in certain areas. C) the rise of the HIV/AIDS epidemic. D) a public backlash against vaccinations.
43)
44) STI pathogens prefer A) light and cold. C) light and heat.
44) B) darkness and dryness. D) darkness and moisture.
45) The CDC recommends HPV vaccination for A) girls beginning at age 13. B) boys beginning at age 13. C) both boys and girls beginning at age 11. D) all teens and adults, within six months of becoming sexually active.
45)
46) When bacteria establish themselves in or on a host without causing an infection, this is known as A) infestation. B) colonization. C) globalization. D) foundation.
46)
47) The bubonic plague is an example of A) an autoimmune disease. C) an epidemic.
47) B) a pandemic. D) an endemic disease.
48) After Willie was bitten by a rabid dog, his physician administered postexposure rabies treatment. The mode of disease transmission in this case is best described as A) endemic indirect contact transmission. B) vector-borne direct contact transmission. C) interspecies zoonotic transmission. D) autoinoculation.
48)
49) A self-replicating protein-based agent that is thought to cause mad cow disease is a type of A) virus. B) fungi. C) prion. D) protozoan.
49)
50) Key factors in mounting an immune response include all of the following EXCEPT A) antibodies. B) macrophages. C) red blood cells. D) lymphocytes.
50)
5
51) Garrett became very ill with an E.coli infection while living on his grandfather's dairy farm last summer. He could have been infected in all of the following ways EXCEPT A) eating undercooked ground beef. B) a mosquito bite. C) drinking unpasteurized milk. D) swimming in a sewage-contaminated creek.
51)
52) HIV can potentially be transmitted through all of the following EXCEPT A) sharing food utensils with an infected person. B) a condom breaking during vaginal intercourse. C) sharing a razor with an infected person. D) receiving a blood transfusion prior to 1985.
52)
53) On a business trip, an executive engages in unprotected sex with a prostitute. A week later, he worries that he might have been infected with HIV and visits his healthcare provider for testing. His provider recommends a new combo fourth-generation test that detects antibodies and antigens to HIV more quickly than the standard antibody test. How soon can the executive be tested? A) 18 days after he engaged in unprotected sex B) 84 days after he engaged in unprotected sex C) immediately D) 42 days after he engaged in unprotected sex
53)
54) Every time you eat something that contains yellow dye, you wheeze and get a rash. The dye must be an A) antigen. B) enzyme. C) immunoglobulin. D) antibody.
54)
55) Sexually transmitted infections disproportionately affect A) males and young people age 15 to 24. B) males and adults age 25 and older. C) females and young people age 15 to 24. D) females and adults age 25 and older.
55)
56) Which of the following is NOT a bacterial infection or caused by a bacterial infection? A) Lyme disease B) tuberculosis C) meningitis D) influenza
56)
57) Symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following EXCEPT A) fever and headache. B) dark yellow urine. C) excessive hunger. D) nausea and vomiting.
57)
58) A couple in Central America were dismayed when their baby was born with microcephaly. This birth defect might have resulted from infection with which of the following pathogens? A) Powassan virus B) the Zika virus C) West Nile Virus D) prions
58)
59) Candidiasis is which type of infection? A) bacterial B) fungal
59) C) protozoan
D) viral
60) Which STI occurs in stages over a period of years? A) chlamydia B) gonorrhea
C) syphilis
D) HPV
60)
6
61) You woke up this morning with the worst headache of your life, and you feel nauseated. Your neck feels so stiff that you can hardly nod your head. Your roommate says your skin is very hot and you probably have a fever. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) You are experiencing an aura associated with a migraine headache and your roommate should allow you to turn off all the lights. B) You studied so much last night that you developed a tension headache. Your roommate should let you rest. C) You drank too much and your roommate should make you quit whining and get out of bed. D) You have signs of meningitis. Both you and your roommate should go to the health clinic immediately.
61)
62) Hepatitis B can lead to A) heart disease.
62) B) skin cancer.
C) kidney disease.
D) liver cancer.
63) Greg frequently gets cold sores (caused by HSV-1). He recently noticed that his left eye had a painful lesion, and he immediately made an appointment with his doctor. Greg's eye most likely became infected with the herpes virus when he touched his mouth and shortly afterward rubbed his eye, which is transmission via A) autoinoculation. B) indirect contact. C) irritation. D) direct contact.
63)
64) Which immune system malfunction occurs when the body develops antibodies that attack its own tissues? A) autoimmunity B) aggressive immunity C) active immunity D) passive immunity
64)
65) You cannot believe that you seem to have come down with the flu while vacationing at a peaceful resort on a lake. The only downside to the beautiful location is having to constantly apply mosquito repellant to fend off the annoying bugs. The illness you most likely have is A) tuberculosis. B) Ebola hemorrhagic fever. C) hantavirus. D) West Nile virus.
65)
66) The most well-known symptom of mumps is A) a high fever. C) swollen salivary glands.
66) B) aching joints. D) an itchy red rash.
67) Which of the following plays a major role in the cell-mediated immune response? A) hepatocytes B) lymphocytes C) erythrocytes D) myocytes
67)
68) An effective way to protect yourself from STIs is to A) get the HIV vaccine. B) wash your hands before sex. C) have sex only with a partner who has tested negative for STIs. D) have oral sex instead of vaginal or anal sex.
68)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 69) Amy contracted the flu. Getting a flu shot now is wise, because it will enable her body to attack and eliminate the flu virus in her system.
7
69)
70) Interspecies transmission of infectious disease does not occur.
70)
71) Research links climate change to increased rates of vector-borne infectious disease.
71)
72) Two high-risk behaviors associated with the development of HIV/AIDS are having unprotected sex and sharing needles.
72)
73) An antibody is a pathogen capable of triggering an immune response.
73)
74) The human variant of mad cow disease can develop in a person who has eaten meat from infected cows.
74)
75) Pubic lice are protozoa transmitted through sexual contact.
75)
76) The human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination protects against all types of HPV.
76)
77) The primary reason for the decline in C. difficile infections is more widespread use of antibiotics.
77)
78) Herpes can be cured in its early stages with proper antibiotic treatment.
78)
79) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) occurs in both males and females as a result of certain STIs.
79)
80) The terms HIV and AIDS are synonymous and can be used interchangeably.
80)
81) You cannot contract HIV through casual contact.
81)
82) Treatment for influenza is only palliative.
82)
83) More than 25 million people in Africa are infected with HIV.
83)
84) Proper use of a condom during sexual activity does not guarantee protection against STIs.
84)
85) HIV can be transmitted through vaginal, anal, or oral sex.
85)
86) Oral sex carries no risk for STIs.
86)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 87) If pathogenic microorganisms are all around us, including in the air, on surfaces, and even on our own skin, explain why we don't all develop new infectious diseases every day. 88) Mark sliced his hand picking up a piece of broken glass, and failed to clean the wound thoroughly. As a result, he has developed an infection. Identify the signs and symptoms Mark is most likely experiencing. 89) Discuss three factors that are contributing to the development of multidrug-resistant organisms and what you can do to slow the growth of resistant organisms. 90) State two reasons that early detection of HIV infection is critical.
8
91) Compare and discuss factors you can control and factors you cannot control to prevent the onset of infectious disease. 92) Discuss three common reasons used to explain the current high rates of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
9
Answer Key Testname: CH 14
1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) A 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) B 43) D 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) C 50) C 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 14
51) B 52) A 53) D 54) A 55) C 56) D 57) C 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) D 63) A 64) A 65) D 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) Three conditions must be present at the same time to develop disease from exposure to a microorganism. 1) There must be contact–through broken skin, inhalation, and so forth–between the pathogen and the interior of the hu body. Skin, for example, is the body's first defense: pathogens can gain entry to the body via cut or burned skin, but are to gain entry in a person with intact skin. Moreover, the pathogen must be virulent enough to overcome the body's defe and sustain itself long enough to cause infectious disease. 2) The host must be susceptible; that is, vulnerable in some way to the infection. Most obviously, the host's body temper chemistry, and cellular make-up must be hospitable to the pathogen involved. This explains why, for example, a certai type of microorganism that is pathogenic in dogs may not be pathogenic in humans. Moreover, within any given community, some people have a strong immune system, whereas others–including the very young, the very old, pregnant women, and people who are ill–have a compromised immune system unable to destroy the pathogen before i replicates to cause disease. 3) The environment must allow for the pathogen's survival. Factors such as temperature, light, and moisture must be ho to the pathogen. Pathogenic microorganisms in contaminated foods cannot reproduce in your freezer, for example, but replicate quickly in the same food left out on your kitchen counter. 11
Answer Key Testname: CH 14
88) The infection has likely produced the four cardinal signs of inflammation: As the pathogen damages cells and tissues in the region, and the immune system floods the region with immune cells and chemicals, swelling, redness, and heat occur. Swelling exerts pressure on nerve endings, causing pain. Mark will also experience a fever as his immune system responds to the infection. 89) (Any three of the following) • Antibiotics are widely used in food production. Many people believe antibiotics in our food supply are leading to the development of resistant organisms. An individual may try to avoid or limit their ingestion of antibiotic -rich substances. The individual's contribution in this way is made more difficult if proper and complete labeling of food pro not required. • Incorrect use of antibiotics aids the development of resistant organisms. Individuals can do their part by taking antibi directed (i.e., do not skip doses and continue to take the drug until the regimen is complete even if symptoms are gone). • People often want and expect their health care provider to prescribe antibiotics for virtually any illness. Many health c providers continue to prescribe antibiotics for illnesses not caused by bacteria. An individual can do their part by modif their own expectations of their health care provider and by asking if the prescribed antibiotic is necessary to treat their p illness. • Incorrect disposal of antibiotics in the toilet or in household waste leads to contamination of waterways and soils. Fini entire amount of the drug as prescribed. • Many soaps and cleaning products are antibacterial which, combined with inadequate hand-washing, may lead to growth of resistant organisms. Individuals should not use antibacterial soap products for routine hand-washing and should wash their hands at least 20 seconds with regular soap and rinse well with warm water. 90) The earlier HIV infection is diagnosed, the earlier it can be treated, and treatment can slow the progression of HIV to AIDS. Moreover, early detection is critical to avoid transmitting the infection to others, whether via shared contaminated needles or exchange of bodily fluids. 91) Heredity cannot be controlled; once you are conceived, your genetic composition and family history have been determin Likewise, you cannot control your age. The majority of our environmental conditions are beyond our control, such as global warming and natural disasters (altho we can control our response to these factors by being aware and prepared). The development of resistant organisms is beyond our control. We can reduce our personal risk by taking antibiotics only necessary (not for viral infections) and by completing all antibiotic therapies as directed. The factors we can control have the greatest impact on our risk for infectious disease. These behaviors include the follo • Control stress. We cannot eliminate stressors, but we can control our responses to stressors, thus decreasing the effects chronic stress such as obesity, heart disease, and decreased immunity. • Eat a healthy diet, be physically fit, and get adequate sleep. • Avoid high- risk behaviors such as smoking, misuse and abuse of alcohol and other drugs, and having unprotected sex. • Practice good personal hygiene, including good hand-washing practices. 92) (Any three of the following) • Shame and embarrassment may prevent infected people from seeking diagnosis and treatment. They may continue to sexually active, thus infecting their partners. • People may not be comfortable communicating with partners about using condoms. • Many people have casual attitudes about sex without consideration of the consequences. • In spite of massive educational efforts, there is still ignorance about infections, transmission of those infections, and the asymptomatic nature of many STIs.
12
Chapter 14a Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Omar is experiencing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Doctors consider all of the following to be possible triggers for his problem EXCEPT A) disruptions in signaling between the brain and the gut. B) an immune response to the gluten in his diet. C) stress and depression. D) changes in hormone levels.
1)
2) Kari has an inflammatory disease of her small intestine that causes her to experience abdominal pain, joint pain, and watery diarrhea. Her diagnosis is A) Crohn's disease. B) chronic intestinal disease. C) ulcerative colitis. D) irritable bowel syndrome.
2)
3) Which of the following conditions involves inflammation and eventual scarring of the lining of the bronchial tubes? A) bronchitis B) emphysema C) asthma D) pneumonia
3)
4) What percentage of Americans with low back pain become permanently disabled? A) about 2 percent B) about 42 percent C) about 12 percent D) about 32 percent
4)
5) Once a month Jason experiences a headache that is severe, lasts 6-12 hours, and is accompanied by vomiting and extreme sensitivity to light. He most likely has which type of headache? A) cluster B) tension C) sinus D) migraine
5)
6) Asthma is A) somewhat rare among adults, affecting about 1.5 percent of Americans over age 18. B) a form of COPD. C) a serious but not potentially fatal disorder. D) the most common chronic disease of childhood.
6)
7) In about one-third of cases, a sensory warning sign precedes a migraine. This warning sign is called a(n) A) prelude. B) indicator. C) halo. D) aura.
7)
8) All of the following are considered repetitive motion disorders EXCEPT A) tendonitis. B) ganglion cysts. C) arthritis.
8)
9) Which of the following is TRUE about emphysema? A) It is most common in people under age 45. B) A person with emphysema finds it difficult to exhale. C) The lung damage it causes is reversible. D) It is a "man's disease."
1
D) bursitis. 9)
10) The disease characterized by inflammation of airways that causes spasms and blocks air flow is A) emphysema. B) asthma. C) dyspnea. D) epilepsy.
10)
11) Experts suspect that ulcerative colitis may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT A) stress. B) smoking. C) irritable bowel syndrome. D) genetics.
11)
12) Emphysema is an irreversible respiratory disease in which A) excess mucus is produced. B) the lungs become more elastic. C) there is inflammation and constriction of the bronchial tubes. D) the alveoli are destroyed.
12)
13) Emphysema may be categorized as a(n) A) autoimmune disease. C) secondary breathing disorder.
13) B) allergy. D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
14) The three major types of headaches include all of the following EXCEPT A) tension headaches. B) sinus headaches. C) migraine headaches. D) cluster headaches.
14)
15) What percentage of Americans will experience low back pain at some point in their life? A) around 25 to 30 percent B) around 45 to 50 percent C) around 85 to 90 percent D) around 65 to 70 percent
15)
16) You wake up in the middle of the night with excruciating pain behind your left eye. After about 90 minutes, it disappears. You most likely have experienced A) a tension headache. B) a seizure. C) a cluster headache. D) a migraine headache.
16)
17) Joshua has a disease in which the walls of his large intestine have become painfully inflamed. His diagnosis is A) ulcerative colitis. B) irritable bowel syndrome. C) Crohn's disease. D) chronic intestinal disease.
17)
18) Seizure disorders are A) caused by a variant in a single gene. B) not treatable. C) caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. D) classified as chronic degenerative disorders of cognition and movement.
18)
19) Vimala suffers from chronic low back pain. Her doctor will most likely prescribe all of the following treatments EXCEPT A) heat. B) opioid pain relievers. C) massage. D) gentle exercise.
19)
2
20) Ulcerative colitis A) is also known as Crohn's disease. B) is more common in black populations than in white populations. C) may increase the risk for colon cancer. D) often arises for the first time after age 50.
20)
21) You suffer from hay fever. Typical over-the-counter medications to treat your symptoms contain A) antacids. B) aspirin. C) analgesics. D) antihistamines.
21)
22) An allergic response begins with exposure to a(n) A) antigen. B) toxin.
22) C) pathogen.
D) antibody.
23) Kendra is a computer animation major and spends several hours every day creating images on a computer screen. Now a junior, she has begun to notice persistent tingling in her hands and fingers and pain moving her wrists. Kendra probably has A) osteoarthritis. B) carpal tunnel syndrome. C) frozen shoulder. D) injured her lower back.
23)
24) A major risk factor for chronic bronchitis is A) cigarette smoking. C) dust and pollen in the air.
24) B) Hispanic ethnicity. D) a history of allergies.
25) Irritable bowel syndrome A) presents characteristic symptoms that make it easy to diagnose. B) is classified as an autoimmune disorder. C) can cause either constipation or diarrhea. D) affects twice as many men as women.
25)
26) You have a tension headache. Possible causes include all the following EXCEPT A) muscle contractions in your head and neck from sitting at your desk. B) clenching your jaw for hours while studying. C) an allergic reaction to milk in the ice cream you ate last night. D) drinking red wine and not getting enough sleep.
26)
27) Which of the following is TRUE concerning asthma? A) Asthma mortality has increased in young people over the last several years. B) It is essentially hay fever affecting the lungs. C) It is not influenced by genetics or family history. D) It is more common among males both in childhood and adulthood.
27)
28) Adelaide was rushed into surgery after a scan revealed perforation of her small intestine and internal bleeding. Her diagnosis is most likely A) colon cancer. B) Crohn's disease. C) ulcerative colitis. D) irritable bowel syndrome.
28)
29) Symptoms of asthma include all of the following EXCEPT A) sneezing. B) shortness of breath. C) wheezing. D) coughing.
29)
3
30) Chen has the most common type of asthma, which is A) aspirin-induced asthma. B) extrinsic (allergic) asthma. C) stress-induced asthma. D) intrinsic (nonallergic) asthma.
30)
31) Adam's nose runs and his eyes itch whenever the pollen count is high. Adam most likely is experiencing A) seasonal respiratory syndrome. B) influenza. C) asthma. D) hay fever.
31)
32) A type of headache experienced occasionally by up to 80 percent of the population is the A) sinus headache. B) migraine headache. C) tension headache. D) cluster headache.
32)
33) Risk factors for chronic lower respiratory disease include all of the following EXCEPT A) exposure to air pollution. B) exposure to severe heat. C) smoking. D) eating disorders.
33)
34) A hypersensitivity reaction in which the body produces antibodies to a normally harmless substance is a(n) A) intolerance. B) overexposure. C) allergy. D) chronic condition.
34)
35) Two lung conditions referred to as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are A) acute bronchitis and smoker's cough. B) chronic bronchitis and emphysema. C) chronic bronchitis and asthma. D) asthma and emphysema.
35)
36) Carpal tunnel syndrome is one of the most common A) repetitive motion disorders. C) types of back injury.
36) B) types of arthritis. D) gastrointestinal disorders.
37) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a(n) A) condition of improper bowel function. C) inflammatory bowel disease.
B) bowel disorder caused by bacteria. D) bowel disorder caused by a virus.
37)
38) A musculoskeletal disorder in which the immune system attacks the joints and other tissues is known as A) degenerative joint disease. B) osteoporosis. C) rheumatoid arthritis. D) osteoarthritis.
38)
39) An allergic reaction can trigger the release of which substance that produces allergy symptoms? A) histamine B) epinephrine C) antibodies D) antihistamine
39)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 40) Allergies result from an inadequate immune system response.
40)
41) Tall, lanky people have an increased risk of low back pain.
41)
42) Lung function can be damaged by a single exposure to a toxic chemical or severe heat.
42)
4
43) In asthma, the flow of air through the bronchial tubes is impaired by both inflammation and mucus.
43)
44) Certain medications can trigger an episode of asthma.
44)
45) Headaches are usually indicators of a serious medical condition.
45)
46) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is an inflammatory bowel disease.
46)
47) Crohn's disease may cause intestinal bleeding and anemia.
47)
48) The pain of cluster headaches is more localized than that of tension headaches.
48)
49) A lung disease is any disorder in which lung function is impaired.
49)
50) Histamine production can cause increased production of mucus in the airways.
50)
51) COPD includes all chronic lung diseases, including asthma.
51)
52) Intrinsic asthma may be triggered by anything EXCEPT an allergy.
52)
53) A "smoker's cough" that has persisted for two or more years is a classic sign of acute bronchitis.
53)
54) In irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there is structural damage to the nerves serving the large intestine.
54)
55) Migraines are considered an inherited neurological disorder.
55)
56) Emphysema involves difficulty fully exhaling stale air from the lungs.
56)
57) People age 50 and up have the highest risk for low back pain.
57)
58) Nearly one-quarter of all Americans have arthritis.
58)
59) Another term for hay fever is allergic rhinitis.
59)
60) Essential oils are an eco-friendly alternative to commercial air fresheners.
60)
61) Genetics may play a role in asthma development.
61)
62) Asthma is an allergic reaction to specific types of pollen.
62)
63) The majority of people with arthritis are over age 65.
63)
64) Hay fever is usually considered a seasonal disorder.
64)
5
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 65) Explain how an allergy affects the body. 66) Propose a mechanism by which chronic, persistent irritable bowel syndrome could result in significant weight loss and malnutrition. 67) You share an apartment with someone who is asthmatic. List and discuss at least four things you can do at home to help prevent asthma attacks. 68) Explain carpal tunnel syndrome and its most common causes. 69) Describe an aura and explain how it might help to predict and reduce the severity of a migraine headache. 70) Discuss at least three strategies to protect yourself from back pain and injury. 71) Explain why weight loss is recommended for people with osteoarthritis who are overweight or obese. 72) Explain what happens in the body during an asthma attack.
6
Answer Key Testname: CH 14A
1) B 2) A 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 7
Answer Key Testname: CH 14A
51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) An allergy is a hypersensitivity reaction in which the body produces antibodies in response to the presence of a normally harmless substance in the environment. Antibody production triggers the release of histamine, which dilates blood vessels, increases the production of mucus, and may cause tissue swelling, rashes, difficulty breathing, and even anaphylaxis. 66) A common characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome is diarrhea, which occurs when food moves through the gastrointestinal tract too quickly. In an individual suffering chronic, persistent diarrhea, absorption of nutrients is impaired. Thus, the person can experience significant weight loss and malnutrition. 67) (At least four of the following) • Purchase a good air filter for your home, and clean filters regularly. If a fireplace or wood-burning stove is present in apartment, check it to ensure it is not spewing smoke or particulate matter. • Avoid cigarette, cigar, and pipe smoke. Don't vape. • Wash sofa cushions, pillows, and sheets regularly, and vacuum regularly. Use pillow and mattress protectors. • If you choose to have a pet but animal dander is a problem, try a non-shedding breed of dog or cat. Keep pets off the • Keep your home clean and pest free; cockroaches and other vermin may trigger allergic reactions. • Make sure that you and your apartment-mate always know the location of asthma medications and that you know how to help if your apartment-mate has an attack. 68) Carpal tunnel syndrome is an irritation of the median nerve in the wrist, which results in pain, numbness, or tingling sensations in the fingers and hands. It is often caused by repetitive motion while using computers or performing other tasks that require repeated hand and wrist movements. 69) Among people who suffer migraines, about one third experience an aura, an unusual sensation such as flashes of light, flickering vision, blind spots, tingling in the arms or legs, or an unusual odor or taste. The aura typically precedes the migraine and therefore can act as a warning sign, allowing the person to take medication or otherwise follow their physician's advice to reduce the severity of the episode. 70) (Any three or more of the following) • Consciously maintain good posture. Poor posture can cause muscle strain and pain. When sitting for long periods, us with good lumbar support. • Maintain a healthy body weight to avoid extra strain on your knees, hips, and back. • Maintain your strength and fitness. Exercise regularly and include exercises which strengthen core abdominal muscle stretch the back muscles. • Lift objects using your legs, not your back. That is, do not bend from the waist to lift heavy objects; instead, bend your while keeping your back straight. 71) Arthritis is a degenerative joint disease. Reducing body weight reduces the load that joints are required to move, and therefore the pressure, thereby reducing pain. 72) Air enters the respiratory system via the nose and mouth and travels through the bronchial tubes. During an asthma attack, the muscles of the bronchial tubes constrict, and the air passages become inflamed and clogged with mucus. This makes it difficult for the person to breathe. The person may experience wheezing and coughing. 8
Chapter 15 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Before the Affordable Care Act, if you had a history of back problems and needed health insurance, it was unlikely that your new insurance plan would cover any treatment related to your back problems until the policy had been in effect for a period of time. Your back problem was considered a(n) A) prior diagnosis. B) preexisting condition. C) untreatable condition. D) lifestyle risk.
1)
2) The 2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) was designed to do all of the following EXCEPT A) increase access to health care. B) establish a national single-payer health care system. C) improve the overall quality of health care. D) address the cost of health care.
2)
3) In a 2016 survey, what percentage of college students said they had no health insurance? A) 3.4 percent B) 9.2 percent C) 21.8 percent D) 15.5 percent
3)
4) Before receiving any care, patients must be made aware of the treatment plan and any potential risks involved. This is known as the right A) to receive care. B) of informed consent. C) to access medical records. D) to privacy.
4)
5) One of the advantages of a single-payer health care system is that it A) encourages people to commit to lifestyle choices that reduce their risk for chronic diseases. B) can achieve lower cost through economies of scale. C) provides a higher quality of health care. D) rations health care services.
5)
6) Your father was laid off six months ago but recently started a new job. He was able to keep his health insurance during the transition through A) Medicare. B) Social Security. C) Medicaid. D) COBRA.
6)
7) You should seek expert medical care if you experience A) unexplained sudden weight loss. B) a runny nose. C) a bout of diarrhea. D) dizziness upon standing.
7)
8) Capitation refers to A) care received from salaried practitioners at a specific health care facility, such as a hospital or clinic. B) a one-time fee that is paid to health care providers from insurance companies if the patient enrolls in an HMO. C) administrators and stockholders in a proprietary hospital determining the fee schedule for a given fiscal year. D) payment of a fixed monthly amount to a health-care provider per enrolled patient, regardless of the type or number of services provided.
8)
1
9) Approximately what percentage of Americans currently uses one or more prescription drugs? A) nearly 50 percent B) nearly 30 percent C) nearly 70 percent D) nearly 10 percent
9)
10) Due to the differences in training, an osteopathic physician would probably have more experience dealing with which condition than a medical doctor? A) kidney failure B) cancer C) heart disease D) low back pain
10)
11) Your primary care provider suspects that you may have an unusual infection in your eyes. To whom would he or she refer you? A) optician B) ophthalmologist C) physician assistant D) optometrist
11)
12) You should consult a physician A) to learn new relaxation techniques. B) if you vomit after dining out. C) to check blood pressure and temperature. D) to treat swelling and dizziness in reaction to an insect bite.
12)
13) A group of physicians in private practice who negotiate fees for medical care only for patients who are members of their organization is called a(n) A) preferred provider organization. B) independent practice association. C) point of service plan. D) health maintenance organization.
13)
14) The legal term for improper or negligent treatment of a patient by a health care provider that results in loss or harm to the patient is A) abandonment. B) malpractice. C) incompetence. D) malfunction.
14)
15) Of the following types of health care expenditures, the United States spends the most on A) drugs and medical products. B) government administration and research. C) hospital care. D) health insurance.
15)
16) If you have moved to a new town and want to find a provider you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n) A) primary care practitioner. B) in-network practitioner. C) homeopathic practitioner. D) internal medicine practitioner.
16)
17) A set fee that an insurance plan requires that patients pay at the time of service (per office visit or prescription) is the A) coinsurance. B) copayment. C) deductible. D) premium.
17)
18) Drugs that can be purchased without a prescription as part of self-care are A) brand-name drugs. B) formulary drugs. C) over-the-counter drugs. D) generic drugs.
18)
19) Treating a minor health problem yourself without seeking professional help is A) self-care. B) emergency care. C) urgent care. D) non-urgent care.
19)
2
20) The federally funded health insurance program that covers 99 percent of the U.S. population age 65 and older is A) Social Security. B) COBRA. C) Medicaid. D) Medicare.
20)
21) If you are concerned about the costs of health care, which of the following practices should you avoid? A) obtaining recommended health screenings B) exercising regularly C) using the emergency room for your routine health care D) maintaining a healthy weight
21)
22) Which of the following statements is NOT true about costs in the U.S. health care system? A) Overtreatment is an issue. B) The U.S. spends more on health care than any other nation. C) Growing rates of obesity are pushing costs higher. D) New technologies are lowering costs.
22)
23) Your doctor works at a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission. This type of accreditation indicates that A) all physicians must be trained in both traditional and alternative medicine. B) only specialists can practice there. C) only generalists can practice there. D) all practitioner education, licensing, and training qualifications have been verified.
23)
24) Originally health insurance covered only hospital expenses. This coverage was then expanded to physician services and medications and other treatments. What effect did this type of coverage have on the medical system? A) It discouraged hospitals from investing in expensive medical equipment and facilities. B) It encouraged doctors to provide more medical procedures for patients. C) It encouraged patients to improve their lifestyle choices to prevent disease. D) It helped contain costs.
24)
25) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to health care spending accounts (FSAs or HSAs)? A) They provide funds that help employers finance company health plans. B) They allow people to save money tax-free for health care costs. C) They are only available to low-income individuals. D) They provide affordable health care coverage.
25)
26) Concerns about HMOs include all of the following EXCEPT A) the high cost of copayments. B) questions about care allocation. C) questions about access to services. D) profit-motivated medical decision making.
26)
27) Most private health insurance plans require the patient to a pay a certain amount each year toward health care expenses before the plan benefits begin; this amount is the A) copayment. B) coinsurance. C) deductible. D) premium.
27)
3
28) All of the following are true with respect to generic drugs EXCEPT that they A) contain the same active ingredients as their brand name counterpart. B) are sold under a chemical name instead of a brand name. C) are generally less expensive than brand name drugs. D) have the same inactive ingredients as their brand name counterpart.
28)
29) Categories established by the federal government to determine how much a hospital will be reimbursed for the care of a patient with a particular condition or multiple conditions are A) fee schedules. B) formulary tiers. C) diagnostic codes. D) diagnosis-related groups.
29)
30) Shortly before his 65th birthday, Stan's physician started him on medications to reduce his blood pressure and improve his blood lipid profile. When he enrolls in Medicare, what type of additional health insurance plan should Stan strongly consider purchasing? A) a CHIP plan B) a Medigap plan C) a managed care plan D) Medicaid
30)
31) Approximately what percentage of Americans age 25 to 34 have no health insurance? A) 36 percent B) 6 percent C) 26 percent D) 16 percent
31)
32) What do preferred provider organizations (PPOs) and point of service (POS) plans have in common? A) Both provide service from in-network medical providers. B) Both are designed to coordinate a patient's care across various providers. C) Both allow patients to seek outside care but require patients to pay an extra cost. D) Both provide care from networks of independent doctors and hospitals.
32)
33) Over-the-counter drugs are commonly used for all of the following EXCEPT A) diabetes. B) allergies. C) sleep problems.
33) D) weight loss.
34) When choosing a health care provider, you should examine all of the following EXCEPT A) their membership in local organizations such as country clubs or service clubs. B) their affiliations with accredited medical facilities. C) how their methods of treatment compare to established medical practices. D) their education and training.
34)
35) Physician assistants A) are not licensed by state boards of medicine. B) are the same as physicians, but with fewer years of experience. C) are competently able to treat 100 percent of those seeking primary care. D) can provide treatment and write prescriptions when supervised by a physician.
35)
36) By the year 2025, approximately what percentage of gross domestic product (GDP) will the United States be spending on health care? A) 30 percent B) 5 percent C) 20 percent D) 10 percent
36)
37) Managed care is based on A) coordination of health care. C) doctors setting their own rates.
37) B) few administrative rules. D) emergency health care.
4
38) Which type of health insurance plan involves a contracted provider network and a focus on wellness, preventive care, early intervention, and cost control? A) indemnity B) hospital-owned C) managed care D) fee-for-service
38)
39) All of the following statements are true about traditional Western medical practice EXCEPT A) it can be practiced by a wide range of specialists and health professionals. B) treatments may change dramatically as new advances replace older practices. C) practitioners complete rigorous education and clinical training programs. D) all treatments have had the benefit of extensive clinical trials.
39)
40) In a clinical trial for a new pain medication, Hayden was given an inactive substance instead of an actual drug. After taking it, however, his headache improved. This resulted from the A) ingredients in the inactive pills. B) analgesic effect. C) placebo effect. D) passage of time.
40)
41) The conventional health care delivered in the United States is known as A) naturopathic medicine. B) homeopathic medicine. C) allopathic medicine. D) holistic medicine.
41)
42) One way the ACA is intended to improve the quality of health care is by emphasizing A) surgical care. B) preventative care. C) emergency care. D) rationed care.
42)
43) Which of the following health professionals is least likely to be a primary health care provider? A) obstetrician-gynecologist B) family practitioner C) internist D) allergist
43)
44) A 70-year-old American would be eligible for health insurance coverage through A) Medicare. B) Medicaid. C) Social Security. D) COBRA.
44)
45) Self-care involves all of the following EXCEPT A) diagnosing conditions like the common cold that occur frequently and do not require medical treatment. B) paying attention to body signals. C) avoiding medication and taking a "tough it out" approach to illness. D) eating a nourishing diet.
45)
46) Taking responsibility for your health care includes all of the following EXCEPT A) being knowledgeable about the benefits and limits of self-care. B) using over-the-counter medications to treat a sudden, serious illness. C) checking a health care providers education, training, and credentials. D) learning how to navigate the health care system.
46)
47) The primary care practitioner in your campus health clinic has a master's degree and is authorized to perform exams, conduct diagnostic tests, and in some states may also prescribe medications. He is a A) licensed practical nurse. B) registered nurse. C) vocational nurse. D) nurse practitioner.
47)
5
48) The primary difference between a board certified and board eligible physician is that a board A) certified physician has demonstrated competency in a given specialty. B) certified physician is associated with an accredited health care facility. C) eligible physician practices alternative medicine. D) eligible physician has failed the board exam.
48)
49) The health insurance program jointly funded by the states and the federal government that provides coverage for low-income individuals and families is A) Social Security. B) Medicaid. C) COBRA. D) Medicare.
49)
50) All of the following are provisions of the Affordable Care Act (ACA) EXCEPT coverage for A) certain preventive services. B) prescription medications. C) young adults on a parent's plan through age 30. D) preexisting conditions.
50)
51) Communication with health care providers can be improved by all of the following EXCEPT A) writing down information so that you remember it accurately. B) knowing your family history. C) relying on your health care provider for all information on health care issues. D) seeking a second opinion when you have doubts about the provider's recommendations.
51)
52) If an insurance policy covers 90 percent of your total medical bills, the remaining 10 percent that you must pay is your A) coinsurance amount. B) copayment amount. C) deductible amount. D) premium amount.
52)
53) A payment made to an insurance company, usually on a monthly basis, to cover the cost of an insurance policy is the A) waiting period. B) lifetime limit. C) premium. D) deductible.
53)
54) Which of the following symptoms probably does NOT warrant professional medical advice? A) You get a tingling sensation in your arm and your speech is slurred. B) Your throat is swelling after taking a new medication. C) You develop a low-grade fever and sore throat. D) You notice that your lips and nail beds are bluish in color.
54)
55) Medical decision making based on clinical expertise, patient values, and data from scientific research is known as A) allopathic medicine. B) evidence-based medicine. C) primary care. D) conventional medical care.
55)
56) The term defensive medicine refers to actions taken to A) slow the progress of chronic diseases. B) protect against infectious disease. C) ensure that patients are informed about medical choices. D) avoid malpractice claims.
56)
6
57) Self-care can include A) treating infections. C) diagnosing acute symptoms.
57) B) self-diagnosing cancer. D) checking your blood pressure.
58) An optometrist A) prescribes medications to treat eye illnesses. B) treats skeletal and muscular problems. C) performs eye exams and prescribes and fits lenses. D) fits individuals for prosthetic limbs.
58)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 59) Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), an insurer can impose an annual limit on coverage.
59)
60) Health insurance is based on the idea that policyholders pay affordable premiums so they never have to face catastrophic medical bills.
60)
61) The labels of over-the-counter medications are not required to identify the purpose of the drug or the active ingredient.
61)
62) An optometrist holds a medical degree and can perform eye surgery.
62)
63) In theory, allopathic medicine is based on scientifically validated methods and procedures.
63)
64) The placebo effect is the disappearance of symptoms without any apparent reason or treatment.
64)
65) The United States has the third highest life expectancy of any country in the world.
65)
66) Rigorous research has shown that drug studies funded by the pharmaceutical industry are more likely to find the drug beneficial than studies funded by outside sources.
66)
67) All U.S. patients have the legal right to access their medical records.
67)
68) All physicians are required by law to accept Medicare patients.
68)
69) A periodontist is a dentist who specializes in alignment of the teeth.
69)
70) The right to medical care is recognized by the United Nations Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
70)
71) Requesting an x-ray when it is unnecessary but the patient demands it would be considered defensive medicine.
71)
72) Regular self-care should include learning about health from reliable health care publications, including websites.
72)
73) The United States has a shortage of primary care physicians.
73)
7
74) Cost sharing is one of the mechanisms private health care insurers use to help patients afford coverage.
74)
75) An osteopath (D.O) does not complete the same level of training as a physician who is an M.D.
75)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 76) Identify at least four factors involved in the high cost of health care in the United States. 77) Are you in favor of a national single-payer health insurance program in the United States? Support your answer with reasons why or why not. 78) Andy has been taking a prescription antidepressant for 10 weeks and reports feeling less depressed since he began taking the medication. How can Andy be certain that his response isn't attributable to the placebo effect? Can he? And if not, what could he do to increase his understanding of his drug response? 79) Distinguish between nurse practitioners (NPs), registered nurses (RNs), and licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs), comparing training and responsibilities. 80) Identify four common forms of self-care. 81) List and discuss five key provisions of the Affordable Care Act (ACA). 82) List and explain the various mechanisms private insurance companies are still allowed to use, under the Affordable Care Act, to limit potential losses. 83) List and discuss five points that will help you communicate well with health care providers.
8
Answer Key Testname: CH 15
1) B 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) C 9
Answer Key Testname: CH 15
51) C 52) A 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) D 57) D 58) C 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) (Any four of the following) • Excessive administrative costs • Lack of uniformity preventing bulk purchasing at reduced cost • Lack of competition in private insurance market • Duplication of services • Aging population • Increasing rates of obesity and inactivity • Demand for new diagnostic and treatment technologies • Emphasis on crisis-oriented care rather than prevention • Physician overtreatment • Inappropriate use of health care services by consumers
10
Answer Key Testname: CH 15
77) Answers will vary. Students may make arguments similar to the following: Yes; everyone should have access to affordable health care as a basic human right. Many other countries have successfu programs that are cost effective. Currently, uninsured individuals increase system-wide costs by waiting to seek care u they are critically ill and foregoing expensive prescription drugs that they cannot afford. They would be more likely to seek preventive care if it were covered, and earlier intervention would cut costs and save lives. Healthy individuals contribute to society in multiple ways that individuals struggling with chronic illness cannot. In our current system, insured individuals end up paying higher prices for health care since the industry tries to offset costs incurred by treating uninsured or underinsured individuals. Moreover, considerable savings would be achieved by reducing administrative costs currently incurred by the thousands of different health insurance plans, as well as office costs for providers who must bill a variety of insurance companies, payments, etc. A single-payer plan could also purchase medical devices, medications, etc., in bulk, reducing the average costs. No; health care is not a right, as it is not covered by the Bill of Rights in the U.S. Constitution. Rather, it is an individual responsibility. Many individuals do not take care of their health. Moreover, many individuals can afford health coverag choose–and have a right–to decline it. A single-payer system would have to be funded through higher taxes or through cuts in defense spending or other federal spending. The oversight of the health care system should be left up to the free market. 78) Answer will vary. Students may discuss concepts similar to the following: He cannot be certain. Researchers agree that expectations do influence human physiology. Not only mood, but pain and observable physical signs such as tremor respond to the placebo effect. Andy could conduct some research into the drug is taking, reading the published clinical studies or at least the abstracts of the studies. He could also ask his prescriber fo more thorough information about the evidence for the effectiveness of the drug. 79) Nurse practitioners are registered nurses who obtain additional training and certification, typically through a master's degree program or specialized NP program. They may conduct or order diagnostic tests and, in many states, prescribe medication. Registered nurses typically have either a 4-year bachelor of science in nursing or a 2-year associate's degree in nursing. They must then pass a national certification exam in nursing. Licensed practical/vocational nurses typically have completed a 1-year or 2-year training program, often at a community college or in a large hospital, and have passed a licensing exam. 80) (Any four of the following) • Diagnosing symptoms or conditions that occur frequently but may not require physician visits (e.g., common colds or abrasions) • Performing first aid for common, uncomplicated injuries and conditions • Using over-the-counter medications to treat minor ailments or injuries • Having periodic checks for blood pressure, blood glucose, blood lipids, etc. • Using reliable self-help books, tapes, websites, and videos • Engaging in meditation or other stress-management techniques • Eating a healthful diet, getting adequate sleep, and exercising regularly 81) (Any five of the following) • Insurers are required to cover preventive services, such as screenings for cancer, mammograms and colonoscopies, te blood glucose and blood pressure, and other services. • Insurers must offer coverage to young adults on a parent's plan through age 26. • Coverage for prescription medications is required. • Americans cannot be denied coverage because of preexisting conditions. • No annual and lifetime limits on benefits are allowed. • An online insurance marketplace helps consumers shop for and enroll in plans and apply for subsidies to help pay fo • Small businesses receive special tax credits to help fund insurance plans.
11
Answer Key Testname: CH 15
82) • Deductibles–payments you must make before your insurance company starts paying • Coinsurance–the percentage of the bill you must pay • Copayments–a set amount you must pay at the time of service • Limits on covered services–conditions or treatments not covered by a particular policy (for example, a plan may or m cover eyeglasses, dental care, etc.) • Waiting periods–a period of time (not to exceed 90 days) during which a person is enrolled and paying premiums but before coverage begins; does not apply to plans purchased by individuals 83) (Any five of the following) • Know your personal and family medical history. • Research your condition–causes, effect, possible treatments, etc. Don't rely solely on your provider for information. • Write out your questions in advance. • Bring someone with you to appointments to listen and ask questions. If you go alone, take notes. • Ask the practitioner to explain the problem and possible tests, treatments, and medications. If you don't understand a ask for explanations in simpler language. • If the provider prescribes medication, ask whether you can take a generic version. • Ask for a written summary of the results of your visit and any lab tests. • Seek a second opinion about important tests or treatment recommendations. • After an appointment, write down an account of what happened and what was said. • When filling prescriptions, make sure the pharmacist provides you with information about the drugs and their possib interactions, and read it.
12
Chapter 15a Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Naturopathy refers to a practice that A) attempts to remove blockages in the flow of the body's vital energy. B) emphasizes the body's innate ability to maintain and restore health. C) is based on manipulation of the spinal column and other structures. D) is based on the principle of "like cures like."
1)
2) Natasha has not had much luck receiving help from her regular doctor to alleviate her PMS symptoms and overall fatigue. The medication that was prescribed made her dizzy, so Natasha stopped taking it. She decided to find a new doctor who was more focused on treating her and not her individual symptoms. Her next step is to make an appointment with a A) gynecologist. B) holistic practitioner. C) pain specialist. D) chiropractor.
2)
3) Traditional Chinese medicine is an example of A) a manipulative practice. C) movement therapy.
3) B) a complementary medical system. D) mind-body medicine.
4)
4) A) is effective in providing temporary relief of musculoskeletal pain. B) is not effective for any physical disorders, but may be somewhat effective for anxiety and depression. C) is effective in limited studies probably because of the therapeutic relationship established between the client and the practitioner. D) is an effective cure for chronic low back pain.
5) Which system focuses on balancing qi through acupuncture, massage, energy therapies, and herbal treatments? A) traditional Chinese medicine B) Ayurvedic medicine C) energy medicine D) homeopathy
5)
6) Which supplement is used as a treatment for dementia and cognitive decline but has not been shown to have any health benefits? A) flaxseed B) ginseng C) ginkgo biloba D) Echinacea
6)
7) Which complementary health approach focuses on the manipulation of biofields? A) homeopathy B) Ayurvedic medicine C) naturopathy D) energy therapies
7)
8) Chiropractors A) offer treatment for low back pain that research suggests is as effective as pain relief medications. B) is still unlicensed and unregulated in some states. C) offer treatment for migraine headaches that has been shown to be more effective than medications. D) attend a training program that requires three years of intensive courses.
8)
1
9) Which form of energy medicine is derived from the Japanese words representing "universal" and "vital energy"? A) shiatsu B) reiki C) qigong D) tai chi
9)
10) The limited body of research into the effectiveness of acupuncture A) suggests that acupuncture is highly effective for musculoskeletal and gastrointestinal disorders. B) suggests that findings of effectiveness can be attributed to the placebo effect. C) has found no evidence of effectiveness as compared to sham acupuncture for any disorders. D) is inconclusive.
10)
11) A soft-tissue manipulation approach used for relaxation, stress relief, pain management, and injury recovery is A) yoga. B) massage. C) meditation. D) naturopathy.
11)
12) Olivia has experienced multiple symptoms, including fatigue and depression, for which her doctor has not been of much help. She decides to attend a healing retreat during which a practitioner holds her hands just above Olivia's body. This treatment is an example of A) osteopathic medicine. B) acupressure. C) therapeutic or healing touch. D) qigong.
12)
13) For licensure in many states, a massage therapist needs A) a minimum one-year apprenticeship with a licensed massage therapist. B) a minimum of 500 hours of training. C) an associate's degree in human biology. D) an affiliation with a hospital or medical practice.
13)
14) Claire wants to avoid taking medication for her chronic tension headaches, so she decides to try a form of traditional Chinese medicine that involves the insertion of fine needles at specific points along the body's energy channels. This complementary health approach is A) reiki. B) acupuncture. C) tai chi. D) acupressure.
14)
15) The complementary therapy that many Americans rely on for treatment of musculoskeletal problems and that many insurance companies now cover is A) chiropractic medicine. B) energy medicine. C) homeopathy. D) the Alexander technique.
15)
16) Lou is becoming increasingly concerned about his lapses in memory, and fears that, at age 69, he might be developing Alzheimer's disease. To improve his memory, he is considering trying A) zinc. B) flaxseed. C) Echinacea. D) ginkgo biloba.
16)
17) Chiropractic medicine is based on the principle that A) health is defined as having the proper balance of vital energy or life force. B) equal emphasis on body, mind, and spirit is essential to restore harmony. C) soft-tissue manipulation can be used for a wide variety of healing purposes. D) energy flows through the nervous system, and if the spine is not properly aligned the energy flow is disrupted.
17)
2
18) Which therapeutic system is based on administration of extremely diluted doses of natural agents that would produce symptoms of illness in large doses but are believed to produce a cure when given in minute doses? A) chiropractic B) naturopathic C) herbal D) homeopathic
18)
19) Which of the following practices is a mind-body technique practiced by about 8 percent of Americans and included within both Ayurveda and qigong? A) healing touch B) chiropractic C) Pilates D) meditation
19)
20) Ayurveda refers to a A) holistic treatment approach considered a "science of life." B) system that emphasizes the power of natural healing processes. C) practice based on the principle of "like cures like." D) practice based on manipulation of the spinal column and other structures.
20)
21) Which organization in the U.S. currently certifies the quality of dietary supplements? A) USP B) FDA C) NIH D) NCCIH
21)
22) A movement therapy that attempts to retrain the client's nervous system is A) osteopathy. B) the Feldenkrais method. C) yoga. D) Reiki.
22)
23) People who have been treated with acupuncture typically report that they A) experienced a worsening of their symptoms. B) were satisfied with the treatment and their improvement. C) experienced little or no improvement. D) found the treatment uncomfortable and even painful.
23)
24) Which of the following is the most commonly used complementary therapy among U.S. adults? A) natural products B) massage C) yoga D) meditation
24)
25) Rich lives in close quarters with 30 fraternity brothers, so which supplement might be helpful for him to take to prevent getting sick from a cold or the flu? A) green tea B) Echinacea C) flaxseed D) ginkgo biloba
25)
26) Which supplement is used to treat constipation and lower blood cholesterol? A) ginkgo biloba B) Echinacea C) flaxseed
26) D) ginseng
27) In traditional Chinese medicine, the vital energy force that courses through the body is A) qi. B) yang. C) tai chi. D) qigong.
27)
28) A form of traditional Chinese medicine that is based on knowledge of the body's energy channels but does not involve the insertion of needles is A) reiki. B) acupressure. C) tai chi. D) acupuncture.
28)
3
29) The National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health serves as an information clearinghouse and conducts research and educational programs. The Center is part of which federal agency? A) Department of Health and Human Services B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention C) National Institutes of Health D) Food and Drug Administration
29)
30) A person who administers minute doses of natural substances to cure ailments is which type of CAM practitioner? A) naturopath B) Chinese medicine practitioner C) homeopath D) Ayurvedic practitioner
30)
31) You are seeking to harmonize your body, mind, and spirit and balance your body's three vital energies through diet, exercise, herbs, meditation, massage, improved sleep patterns, and controlled breathing. Your plan is to consult with a practitioner of A) homeopathic medicine. B) naturopathic medicine. C) traditional Chinese medicine. D) Ayurvedic medicine.
31)
32) Prior to taking an herbal supplement that claims to increase muscle mass, Jermaine should consult all the following EXCEPT A) his primary health care provider. B) the NCCIH website. C) the National Library of Medicine's PubMed database. D) his personal trainer at the gym.
32)
33) In Ayurvedic medicine, patients are diagnosed according to vital energies, which determine the treatments that are likely to work best. These vital energies are known as A) auras. B) doshas. C) meridians. D) chakras.
33)
34) Which of the following therapies is most likely to be covered by health insurance? A) chiropractic B) Alexander technique C) dietary supplements D) acupressure
34)
35) The use of functional foods and dietary supplements for therapeutic purposes is A) tightly regulated by the state and federal government. B) one of the most controversial complementary health approaches. C) safe if prescribed by a nutritionist. D) thoroughly investigated and based in sound science.
35)
36) All of the following are true of herbal remedies EXCEPT that A) the active ingredients have not been standardized. B) they are not regulated by the FDA in the same manner as other medications. C) they cannot harm humans because they are in a natural plant form. D) they can interact with other medications in a way that could be dangerous.
36)
4
37) All of the following are true about dietary supplements EXCEPT that A) they come in the form of pills, capsules, powder, or liquids. B) they are taken to enhance mood, prevent disease, and improve health. C) they may contain vitamins, minerals, and/or amino acids. D) they are tightly regulated and safe to consume.
37)
38) Which term describes health approaches that are outside the realm of traditional Western medicine but are used in conjunction with conventional treatments? A) functional B) contradictory C) alternative D) complementary
38)
39) Which term identifies a type of medical practice that combines conventional medicine with complementary health approaches in a coordinated way? A) combination B) blended C) integrative D) naturopathic
39)
40) Research evidence links mindfulness meditation to increased academic success. One mechanism thought to contribute to this effect is that A) mindfulness meditation shrinks the prefrontal cortex of the brain. B) mindfulness meditation enlarges the amygdala of the brain. C) mindfulness meditation enhances the connectivity between nerve cells in the white matter of the brain. D) mindfulness meditation enhances the connectivity between nerve cells of the amygdala and other regions of the brain.
40)
41) Which term describes health approaches that are outside the realm of traditional Western medicine and are used in place of conventional treatments? A) contradictory B) complementary C) alternative D) functional
41)
42) In 2017, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recalled weight-loss supplements containing ephedra because A) ephedra has been linked to heart attack, stroke, and sudden death. B) the supplements were contaminated with pollen and other allergens. C) the supplements were contaminated with mercury. D) ephedra has been proven ineffective for weight loss.
42)
43) Which supplement is claimed to boost the immune system and slow aging? A) ginseng B) ginkgo biloba C) green tea
43) D) flaxseed
44) Before considering an alternative medical treatment, a wise consumer will do all of the following EXCEPT A) consult with his or her primary health care provider. B) thoroughly evaluate the risks of the CAM product or service. C) take practitioners' claims at face value. D) consult reliable resources to determine the scientific basis of claimed benefits.
44)
45) Several traditional Chinese medicine therapies are based on the idea that energy flows through the body through channels or A) meridians. B) doshas. C) chakras. D) auras.
45)
5
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 46) Although dietary supplements are not tightly regulated by the FDA, you can at least be sure that they contain the herb or other active ingredient identified on the label.
46)
47) The existence of biofields has been experimentally proven.
47)
48) About one-third of American adults age 18 to 44 have used some form of CAM.
48)
49) Use of true alternative medicine is rare in the United States.
49)
50) Echinacea can cause an allergic reaction in some individuals.
50)
51) Natural products include functional foods and dietary supplements.
51)
52) Naturopathic practitioners have completed a 4-year graduate degree as well as a 4-year bachelor's degree.
52)
53) Massage therapy was practiced in ancient Greece, India, and Japan.
53)
54) Complementary health approaches are never used alongside conventional medicine.
54)
55) Because herbs are natural products, they will not interfere with how prescription drugs work within the body.
55)
56) If a product is labeled "natural," you may assume that it is safe.
56)
57) Naturopathic practitioners use foods, herbs, color, and aromas as therapies, but not homeopathic medicines, acupuncture or acupressure, or spinal manipulation.
57)
58) A practitioner of traditional Chinese medicine believes that an imbalance of qi results in disease.
58)
59) Homeopathy is one of the world's oldest medical systems.
59)
60) Naturopathic physicians do not earn a recognized degree.
60)
61) Acupressure is considered a manipulative therapy.
61)
62) Chiropractic medicine has been practiced for more than 1,000 years.
62)
63) Complementary health approaches are considered a subtype of conventional medicine.
63)
64) Some homeopathic remedies are derived from substances that are toxic.
64)
65) People who turn to complementary health approaches are often seeking a more invasive, aggressive form of healing.
65)
6
66) More people turn to special diets as a complementary health approach than to dietary supplements and other natural products.
66)
67) In some homeopathic dilutions, not a single molecule of the originally toxic substance remains.
67)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 68) Explain what is meant by the statement that, with homeopathic remedies, like cures like, and contrast the approach with that of conventional pharmaceuticals. 69) If you were to experience chronic low back pain, would you be more likely to consider qigong or therapeutic touch, and why? 70) Define the three major domains of complementary health approaches discussed in this chapter, and provide examples of each. 71) Compare and contrast complementary and alternative health approaches. 72) Identify at least three situations in which it is particularly important for patients to consult their primary health care provider before using a dietary supplement.
7
Answer Key Testname: CH 15A
1) B 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 8
Answer Key Testname: CH 15A
51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) "Like cures like" means that pain or other symptoms can be reduced by taking a substance that would prompt the same symptoms, but in a dose much too dilute to actually harm the person. This minute dose is nevertheless theorized to prompt the immune system to respond, and in doing so, heal the patient's original–and similar–symptoms. For example, a homeopathic remedy to treat inflammation would be a highly diluted toxin that–in a larger dose–would provoke inflammation. In contrast, conventional pharmaceuticals treat symptoms by opposing them; thus, for example, inflammation is treated with a drug that has an anti-inflammatory effect. 69) Answers will vary, but should include some of the following concepts: Qigong combines movement, meditation, and regulation of breathing to increase the flow of qi and improve health. A 2 systematic review of meta-analyses found that it was associated with statistically significant improvements in pain management, including for people with low back pain. Therapeutic touch is a non-touch energy therapy in which the practitioner holds the hands above the patient's body and attempts to balance the patient's healing energies. Research has found at least a partial response to therapeutic touch, but is inconclusive as to whether or not the positive response is due to the placebo effect. Because the research evidence supporting the use of qigong for low back pain is more rigorous, and because qigong includes self-help measures such as movement, meditation, and regulation of breathing, whereas therapeutic touch requires manipulation of energy fields by a practitioner, qigong is a more sensible choice. 70) • Complementary medical systems: These approaches reflect specific theories of physiology, health, and disease that ha developed outside the influence of conventional medicine. Examples are traditional Chinese medicine, Ayurveda, hom and naturopathy. • Mind and body practices: This is a large and diverse group of complementary health approaches administered or tau trained practitioner or teacher. They include manipulative therapies such as chiropractic and massage therapy, movem therapies such as the Alexander technique and the Feldenkrais method, and energy therapies such as acupuncture and acupressure, qigong, Reiki, and therapeutic touch. • Natural products: These are substances found in nature, such as functional foods like probiotics and plants with antio phytochemicals; and herbal remedies and other types of dietary supplements. 71) Complementary health approaches are used along with conventional medicine as part of the integrative-medicine approach. Alternative approaches are traditionally used in place of conventional medicine, as when a person with cancer adopts a macrobiotic diet and rejects the treatment path outlined by his conventional medical team. However, the NCCIH reports that such cases are rare in the U.S. Some complementary health approaches, such as massage and chiropractic, have built up enough evidence of effectiveness that they are now commonly used in conjunction with conventional treatments. 72) Any three of the following: It is particularly important for patients to consult their primary health care provider before using a dietary supplement if they are (1)pregnant or nursing; (2) are currently taking any prescription drug; (3) have a chronic medical condition; or (4) are planning to have surgery. 9
Chapter 16 Name
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The greenhouse effect is A) an essential mechanism for keeping the planet cool enough to sustain life. B) a natural phenomenon. C) the shift in seasonal temperatures and patterns of rainfall that has occurred in the last century. D) responsible for increasing the average temperature of the earth by about 8°F over the last century.
1)
2) Which of the following statements about the 1980 Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act is TRUE? A) It established legal liability for industries that knowingly deposit hazardous wastes into the environment. B) It established a Superfund to clean up hazardous waste sites throughout the United States. C) It established financial incentives to encourage American farmers who chose to switch from traditional to organic methods of agricultural production. D) It authorized the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to develop mechanisms for monitoring pollution levels in soil and groundwater.
2)
3) Motor vehicle exhaust and kerosene- and wood-burning stoves are sources of which odorless, colorless gas that also contributes to the formation of smog? A) carbon dioxide B) lead C) sulfur dioxide D) carbon monoxide
3)
4) Climate scientists project that Earth's average temperature could rise by a maximum of how much in the next 100 years? A) 11.5°F B) 2.5°F C) 8.5°F D) 5.5°F
4)
5) When trying to ensure clean air in your home, sources of pollution to look for include all of the following EXCEPT A) formaldehyde. B) nitroglycerine. C) tobacco smoke. D) radon.
5)
6) Air pollutants regulated by the Clean Air Act include all of the following EXCEPT A) sulfur dioxide. B) particulates. C) carbon dioxide. D) carbon monoxide.
6)
7) Which of the following statements about acid deposition is TRUE? A) Mercury and lead are the main components. B) Eye exposure can result in blindness, and skin exposure can result in a second-degree burn. C) It was formerly referred to as smog. D) It causes lakes and ponds to turn a crystal-clear deep blue.
7)
8) An example of a nonpoint source water pollutant is A) industrial waste from a chemical plant. B) outflow from a sewage treatment plant. C) drugs from a pharmaceutical company's waste pipe. D) pesticide runoff from a farm.
8)
1
9) Smog is MOST likely to form in areas that experience A) high rainfall. B) acid deposition. C) temperature inversions. D) dry conditions.
9)
10) The ozone layer is A) in the stratosphere and protects the planet from UVB radiation. B) a layer of toxic gas produced by the discharge of aerosols, refrigerants, and solvents high into the earth's stratosphere. C) a harmful chemical compound that is produced when oxygen interacts with water. D) close to Earth and consists mainly of chlorofluorocarbons.
10)
11) Approximately 50 percent of the radiation to which humans are exposed comes from A) irradiated foods. B) dental x-rays. C) natural sources. D) cell phones.
11)
12) Which of the six major outdoor air pollutants is a metallic element that is also a significant concern indoors? A) formaldehyde B) dioxin C) lead D) sulfur
12)
13) The human body does not excrete polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) but instead stores them in the A) liver. B) kidneys. C) lungs. D) muscles.
13)
14) The term for an environmental contaminant that causes potential harm to living organisms is A) pollutant. B) compound. C) hazard. D) runoff.
14)
15) Seth has a sensitivity to mold. When he visits his grandparents and spends time in their damp basement, he likely experiences all of the following EXCEPT A) dizziness. B) nasal congestion. C) migraine headaches. D) difficulty breathing.
15)
16) An Air Quality Index of 50 indicates that the air quality is A) unhealthy for everyone. B) good. C) hazardous. D) unhealthy for sensitive people.
16)
17) An example of a point source water pollutant is A) weed-killer used on lawns. C) outflow from a sewage treatment plant.
17) B) runoff from a construction site. D) leakage from a septic tank.
18) All of the following are consequences of population growth EXCEPT A) natural resources being depleted. B) decreased availability of clean water. C) animal habitats being destroyed. D) higher carrying capacity of the earth.
18)
19) Smog is sometimes called A) sulfur dioxide pollution. C) carbon monoxide pollution.
19) B) particulate pollution. D) ozone pollution.
20) The accident that results when the temperature in the core of a nuclear reactor increases enough to melt the fuel and breach the containment vessel is called a nuclear A) fire. B) explosion. C) breach. D) meltdown.
2
20)
21) According to experts, up to what percentage of trash is recyclable? A) 90 percent B) 75 percent C) 35 percent
21) D) 50 percent
22) A measure of how clean or polluted the air in a given region is on a particular day is the A) air quality index. B) carbon footprint. C) carbon level. D) smog level.
22)
23) Increases in the planet's temperature over the past few decades can be attributed to A) excess carbon monoxide. B) the enhanced greenhouse effect. C) acid rain. D) the increased use of chlorofluorocarbons.
23)
24) You have been looking at numerous newly built homes. The headaches and fatigue you are attributing to the stress of buying a new house may actually be due to exposure to A) dust mites. B) carbon monoxide. C) household cleaners. D) formaldehyde.
24)
25) Which compound that was formerly used in building materials such as insulation has been found to be the cause of certain cancers and lung diseases? A) lead B) asbestos C) radon D) PCBs
25)
26) The primary greenhouse gas in the atmosphere is A) hydrochlorazine. C) nitrous oxide.
26) B) carbon dioxide. D) methane.
27) Reasons for continued population growth in many developing nations include all of the following circumstances for women EXCEPT A) no access to birth control. B) lack of education. C) little control over reproductive choices. D) rising economic status.
27)
28) As compared to today, by the year 2050, the world's population is expected to A) stay about the same. B) increase by 2 to 3 billion people. C) nearly double. D) decline by about 100 million people.
28)
29) Chemicals used to kill weeds and other vegetation are A) herbicides. B) PCBs. C) solvents.
29) D) pesticides.
30) Cap and trade policies A) are financial rewards paid to industrial farms that limit their gallons of water used per day. B) limit the amount of electricity communities are allowed to purchase from coal-fired power plants before they must begin to purchase electricity from solar or wind sources. C) provide incentives to industrial polluters to limit their carbon emissions. D) were first implemented by the city of Boulder, Colorado and have now spread to many other cities in the United States.
30)
31) Earth's average temperature has risen by how much in the past 100 years? A) 2.5°F B) 3.5°F C) 1.5°F
31)
3
D) 0.5°F
32) An important strategy for avoiding mold is to A) use a dehumidifier in damp rooms. B) lay down carpeting in bathrooms and basements. C) keep the humidity in your home between 60 and 80 percent. D) make sure you keep the doors and windows in your home tightly sealed.
32)
33) Marta collects kitchen scraps and yard clippings in a bin outside of her home to use in her garden. She is A) recycling. B) composting. C) source reducing. D) combusting.
33)
34) A measure of the amount of greenhouse gases produced, shown as units of carbon dioxide emissions, is the A) air quality index. B) carbon footprint. C) carbon level. D) smog level.
34)
35) All of the following are examples of resources that reduce carbon emissions EXCEPT A) solar. B) bioenergy. C) coal. D) wind.
35)
36) Climate change is evidenced by which of the following? A) increasingly extreme swings in precipitation levels over the last three decades B) a shift in solar output C) the occurrence of a catastrophic hurricane D) the warmest winter on record in the Northeastern U.S.
36)
37) Fossil fuels are A) a significant source of carbon emissions. B) renewable. C) metals and other inorganic substances from which nuclear energy is derived. D) increasingly less important as nations transition from poverty to an industrialized economy.
37)
38) Which inexpensive device can be attached to faucets to reduce water consumption? A) aerator B) pump C) gasket D) filter
38)
39) Chemicals used to kill insects, rodents, weeds, and certain microorganisms are called A) solvents. B) herbicides. C) dioxins. D) pesticides.
39)
40) Which of the following statements about U.S. water consumption is TRUE? A) Gallons per capita per day (GPCD) water usage in the U.S. increased steadily during the past century. B) Water-saving toilets and other devices have contributed to a decline in residential water usage n the U.S. over the past few decades. C) Minor water leaks in homes across the U.S. waste about 1 million gallons of water annually. D) The greatest percentage of Americans' daily water use is due to taking showers.
40)
41) The two general types of water pollution are described as A) acid and nonacid. B) point source and nonpoint source. C) runoff and nonrunoff. D) toxic and nontoxic.
41)
4
42) Climate change is A) a shift in patterns of temperature, precipitation, and frequency of catastrophic storms. B) synonymous with global warming. C) due to a rise in global sea levels and solar output as well as changes in the earth's orbit. D) due to sustainable development.
42)
43) Most experts agree that a key step in slowing climate change is to A) eliminate mass transportation. B) repeal all industrial waste laws. C) make cars larger and more efficient. D) reduce consumption of fossil fuels.
43)
44) Radiation exposure is measured in which of the following units (also called roentgens)? A) radiation frequency units B) radiation ionized units C) radiation exposed doses D) radiation absorbed doses
44)
45) All of the following statements regarding cell phones are true EXCEPT A) for the highest level of safety, it is best to use a hands-free device. B) radio frequency energy from cell phones can penetrate your body. C) cell phone use has been proven to pose a clear risk of human tissue damage. D) the global burden of e-waste from cell phones has skyrocketed in recent years.
45)
46) In which of the following regions is smog most likely to be a concern? A) in the San Fernando Valley B) along the Florida coastline C) over an industrial farm in Nebraska D) at the top of Mount Rainier
46)
47) The release of particles and electromagnetic rays from atomic nuclei during the normal process of disintegration produces A) ionizing radiation. B) microwave radiation. C) nonionizing radiation. D) cell phone radiation.
47)
48) Economic development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of future generations is called A) sustainable development. B) ecological development. C) environmental development. D) progressive development.
48)
49) Experts analyze the carrying capacity of the earth to figure out A) how the earth's population will grow over the next century. B) how to ration resources for the existing population. C) how to increase available resources. D) the maximum population the earth can support.
49)
50) Which naturally occurring odorless, colorless gas seeps into homes and is a leading cause of lung cancer? A) asbestos B) mold C) radon D) lead
50)
51) A colorless gas that dissolves in water vapor to form acid and is emitted from coal-fired power plants is A) nitrogen dioxide. B) carbon monoxide. C) sulfur dioxide. D) carbon dioxide.
51)
5
52) Countries with the largest per capita "ecological footprint" A) are uniformly those countries with the largest populations. B) tend to have the highest fertility rates. C) tend to be among the world's poorest. D) include the United States.
52)
53) All of the following statements about particulates are true EXCEPT A) they impair visibility. B) they are tiny particles suspended in the air. C) they have few health effects. D) diesel engines emit particulates.
53)
54) Which of the following is a concern in regard to overpopulation? A) increased use of alternative fuels B) increased amount of land used for agricultural purposes C) increased levels of prosperity in developed nations D) increased fish stocks
54)
55) Which of the following countries has the largest population? A) India B) Nigeria C) China
55) D) Indonesia
56) The compound originally contained in aerosol propellants that is thought to have contributed to the depletion of the ozone layer is A) fluorohydrochlorides. B) carbon oxides. C) chlorofluorocarbons. D) nitrous oxide.
56)
57) The average number of births a female in a given population has during her reproductive years is the A) conception rate. B) fertility rate. C) reproductive rate. D) birth rate.
57)
58) Which of the following statements about food waste is TRUE? A) Research suggests that most Americans do not realize they waste food. B) Between 10 and 20 percent of the food produced worldwide never makes it into anyone's mouth. C) Americans waste nearly 25 percent of all edible food. D) Food waste is the largest source of U.S. municipal solid waste.
58)
59) The average person in the United States generates how many pounds of municipal solid waste each day? A) about 6.5 B) about 8.5 C) about 1.5 D) about 4.5
59)
60) Gases that accumulate in the atmosphere and contribute to global warming by trapping heat near Earth's surface are A) ionizing gases. B) hydrocarbons. C) stratospheric gases. D) greenhouse gases.
60)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 61) Smog does not form at night.
61)
6
62) Most solid municipal waste is recycled.
62)
63) Oil, coal, and natural gas are examples of fossil fuels, which are carbon-based fuels.
63)
64) Over 97 percent of scientists agree that the Earth is warming, driven largely by human activities such as the burning of fossil fuels.
64)
65) Mrs. Smith is an only child. She has three daughters. If all three have three daughters, and each daughter has three daughters, then Mrs. Smith will have 27 great-granddaughters.
65)
66) Over half of the global population faces a shortage of clean water.
66)
67) Approximately 45% of the radiation that Americans are exposed to is ionizing radiation from human-made sources.
67)
68) In 2017, the United States became the only country in the world to opt out of the Paris Agreement to reduce net greenhouse gas emissions.
68)
69) Runoff from a parking lot is considered nonpoint source pollution.
69)
70) Evidence suggests that pollution levels within homes and other buildings can be 2 to 5 times higher than in outdoor air.
70)
71) All forms of radiation pose a threat to human health.
71)
72) About 10-12 percent of the Earth's water is suitable for human consumption.
72)
73) The federal government established Superfund to provide money for water conservation efforts in certain communities.
73)
74) Hazardous waste in landfills and dump sites can harm the environment but has little impact on human health.
74)
75) A sixth mass extinction of living creatures is threatened because of population growth and changes in the Earth's ecosystems.
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76) Global sea levels have risen nearly 2.3 inches in the last 100 years.
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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 77) Distinguish between the greenhouse effect and the enhanced greenhouse effect. 78) Discuss three ways you can reduce the waste you generate at home. 79) Discuss the three main areas of focus in preventing indoor air pollution. 80) Identify at least three potential problems that could result from the Earth's increasing shortage of clean water.
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81) Explain the concept of an ecological footprint and identify the source contributing most greatly to humanity's ecological footprint. 82) Explain why slowing the world's population growth is a critical environmental challenge today.
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Answer Key Testname: CH 16
1) B 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) B 27) D 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) C 9
Answer Key Testname: CH 16
51) C 52) D 53) C 54) B 55) C 56) C 57) B 58) D 59) D 60) D 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon in which atmospheric gases keep some solar heat close to Earth's surface, thereby keeping the planet's air, oceans, and land masses warm enough to sustain life. In contrast, the enhanced greenhouse effect is not a natural phenomenon, but results from human activities such as the burning of fossil fuels that release excessive levels of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. These cause global warming by trapping excessive levels of solar heat. 78) (Any three of the following) • Reduce your consumption to prevent waste from being generated in the first place. For example, buy only the food yo use by the expiration date, and food with less packaging. Before you buy a new cell phone, pair of shoes, or any other it yourself if you really need it. • Recycle as much packaging and as many used items as possible, from electronic devices to clothing and furniture. • Compost your kitchen and yard trash. • Wash and reuse dishes, cups, utensils, kitchen towels, napkins, and containers instead of using disposable items. 79) 1. Source control–eliminating or reducing individual contaminants, such as tobacco smoke 2. Ventilation improvements – increasing the amount of outdoor air coming indoors 3. Air cleanliness– removing particulates from the air by using devices that clean and filter the air 80) Answers will vary but should include some of the following information: In addition to threatening a population's supply of drinking water, water shortages threaten the food supply when water for irrigation of crops is limited. Water scarcity threatens the survival of a region's animal populations as well. As water becomes more scarce, increasing competition for the limited supply can lead to regional conflict. Moreover, people who lack clean water may turn to water sources that may be contaminated, increasing the population's risk for waterborne infectious disease. 81) An ecological footprint is a measure of the biologically productive land and water area an individual, population, or activity occupies and utilizes. More than half of the world's ecological footprint is derived from the emission of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, expressed in equivalent tons of carbon dioxide emissions. This is known as our carbon footprint. 10
Answer Key Testname: CH 16
82) Overpopulation is taxing the capacity of the earth and its natural resources to provide adequate food, water, and energy for the human population. Safe disposal of waste is becoming equally difficult, and our supply of fresh water is declining. Land is being lost to overdevelopment and contamination. Many plant and animal species and entire ecosystems are being lost or harmed by the development and overconsumption of resources that occurs with overpopulation. Moreover, overpopulation plus industrialization increases the burning of fossil fuels and the release of greenhouse gases.
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