HEALTH THE BASICS 14TH EDITION BY REBECCA J. DONATELL TEST BANK by QuentinAxel

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 1 Health: Getting There—Staying There! 1) Which of the following were cited by college students in a national survey as major impediments to performing well academically? A) substance abuse B) stress, anxiety, and sleep problems C) repeated strep infections D) carrying a too-heavy course load Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 2) Life expectancy in the early 1900s was largely determined by a person's A) hygiene habits. B) susceptibility to infectious disease. C) occupation and location. D) family history. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 3) Which of the following contributed to increased life expectancy in the early twentieth century? A) advances in genetic testing B) advances in heart and brain surgery C) vaccinations and antibiotics D) more doctors in metropolitan areas Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1

4) The expected number of years of life remaining at a given age, such as at birth, is known as A) life expectancy. B) population control. C) mortality. D) morbidity. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 5) Paul studies mortality rates in infants of various ethnicities. He studies their A) illness rates. B) accident rates. C) chronic disease rates. D) death rates. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 6) A disease that begins slowly, progresses over a period of time, and may resist treatment is a(n) A) acute disease. B) chronic disease. C) behavioral disease. D) hereditary disease. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 7) Young adults (ages 15-24) are most likely to die from A) heart disease. B) cancer. C) accidents. D) homicide. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1

8) The positive aspects of a person's life, such being satisfied with life in general and having positive emotions, determines one's sense of A) progress. B) well-being. C) change. D) health. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 9) Which of the following choices best exemplifies an aspect of health-related quality of life? A) ability to maintain supportive social relationships B) eligibility for federal food assistance C) a blood pressure reading in the normal range D) a life expectancy of 77.3 years Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 10) Overall, the leading cause of death for Americans is A) accidents. B) cancer. C) heart disease. D) respiratory disease. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 11) Jane is sedentary and obese. What effect, if any, do these factors have on her health? A) They affect her physical health only. B) They affect her physical and emotional health only. C) They impede her progress toward high-level wellness. D) They affect her health only if she has a family history of health problems related to obesity. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2

12) The contemporary definition of wellness is A) the ability to move about freely without pain. B) the absence of ongoing symptoms or chronic disease. C) living longer than one's parents. D) the achievement of the highest level of health possible in each of several dimensions. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 13) Health and wellness are best described as A) static. B) dynamic. C) determined by genes. D) determined by the environment. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 14) Eve is always upset about something, and it seems that she is never really happy. Her mental outlook is likely to adversely affect A) mainly her social health. B) mainly her emotional health. C) mainly her physical health. D) all six dimensions of her health. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 15) A holistic view of health A) considers an individual's environment the most significant factor influencing their health. B) emphasizes the balanced integration of body, mind, and spirit. C) recognizes that the various dimensions of health seldom influence one another. D) discourages the use of vaccines, antibiotics, and other conventional Western pharmaceutical therapies. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2

16) The dimension of physical health encompasses the ability to A) perform activities of daily living. B) reason objectively. C) analyze information. D) protect yourself from hazards in your environment. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 17) Jill has many friends, is respected by her coworkers, and maintains a great relationship with her boyfriend. Her ability to interact with others is an example of which dimension of health? A) social B) intellectual C) emotional D) physical Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 18) Emotional health can best be described as being able to A) feel and express emotions appropriately. B) think clearly, without emotional influence. C) maintain satisfying interpersonal relationships. D) adapt to various social situations. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 19) Katherine is an energetic, confident student who is not afraid to stand up in front of the class and read her essay aloud. She trusts that even if others don't agree with her point of view, they will still value her as a person and a friend. These traits best demonstrate Katherine's positive A) social health. B) intellectual health. C) physical health. D) emotional health. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Spiritual health can best be described as A) holding to religious beliefs learned in childhood. B) not as important as other factors to overall wellness. C) having a sense of meaning and purpose in one's life. D) establishing and maintaining fulfilling relationships. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 21) Rafael is committed to his study of ecology and the effects of climate change. Additionally, he tries to show respect for all living things. Which of the following statements best describes Rafael? A) He demonstrates intellectual health. B) He demonstrates social health. C) He demonstrates emotional health. D) He demonstrates spiritual health. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 22) The ability to think clearly, analyze information, and use one's mental capacity to meet life's challenges is known as A) social health. B) intellectual health. C) physical health. D) emotional health. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 23) Health promotion A) involves social justice efforts aimed at achieving health care for all Americans. B) refers to fundraising campaigns for health-related organizations. C) includes policies, programs, and financial support for initiatives that promote health. D) focuses on curing the most prevalent diseases. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 6 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Effective health promotion programs A) focus on improving selected negative behaviors. B) have the most measurable results when implemented in schools. C) focus on developing knowledge, attitudes, and skills known to support good health. D) don't attempt to change individual attitudes about health. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 25) The model of health that is concerned with curing disease affecting a particular tissue or organ is the A) medical model. B) surgical model. C) public health model. D) holistic model. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 26) Wearing a face mask when traveling on a crowded bus is a behavior associated with disease A) intervention. B) prevention. C) screening. D) treatment. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 27) The science that views negative health events as resulting from individuals' interactions with their physical or social environment is A) medicine. B) immunology. C) public health. D) disease prevention. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2

28) Nina has a cancerous tumor in her breast. Her physician recommends surgery followed by chemotherapy. Which model of health is Nina's physician following? A) environmental model B) public health model C) social model D) medical model Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 29) Major public health achievements of the twentieth century include A) mental health counseling. B) pharmaceutical products. C) lower birth rates. D) workplace safety. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 30) Education and policies aimed at reducing distracted driving within a given population exemplify A) risk behavior. B) health promotion. C) health disparities. D) medical treatment. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 31) Having unprotected sex is considered a A) risk behavior. B) health promotion. C) health disparities. D) medical treatment. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2

32) The achievement of the highest level of health possible in each of several dimensions is A) recovery. B) wellness. C) fitness. D) motivation. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 33) The ever-changing process of achieving individual potential in the physical, social, emotional, intellectual, spiritual, and environmental dimensions is the definition of A) health. B) satisfaction. C) fitness. D) recovery. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 34) Because it increases one's susceptibility to negative health outcomes, alcohol abuse is an example of which type of behavior? A) reinforcing B) predetermined C) risk D) influential Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 35) Healthy People is the U.S. Surgeon General's plan designed to A) improve the quality of life and years of life for all Americans. B) update FDA regulations on the manufacture and sale of drugs in the United States. C) extend health insurance coverage to millions more Americans. D) increase payments to doctors who serve Medicaid and Medicare patients. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3

36) One of the most important goals of Healthy People 2030 is to A) reduce health care costs for all Americans. B) eliminate health disparities and improve the health of all population groups. C) increase funding for research on certain diseases such as cancer and diabetes. D) increase the number of public health departments in every state. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 37) The science of epigenetics studies A) the structure of our genes. B) patterns of inheritance. C) how behavioral choices influence our cells' ability to use genes. D) how genes influence an individual's behavioral choices. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 38) Beth works part-time as a waitress and receives no health insurance benefits from her employer. She purchased insurance under the Affordable Care Act, but the policy has a $7,500 annual deductible. Beth A) is uninsured. B) is overinsured. C) is likely to delay care that she needs. D) has equitable access to health services. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 39) All the following causes of death are linked to modifiable lifestyle behaviors EXCEPT A) genetic diseases. B) heart disease. C) diabetes. D) cancer. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3

40) Determinants of health are a range of factors in a person's life that A) predispose him or her to a particular set of diseases. B) influence his or her genes. C) influence his or her health status. D) influence his or her response to medical treatment. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 41) A high level of COVID-19 in a geographic area is an example of a A) behavioral determinant of health. B) biological determinant of health. C) social determinant of health. D) nonmodifiable determinant of health. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 42) A person's bone structure is an example of a(n) A) behavioral choice. B) nonmodifiable determinant. C) epigenetic factor. D) environmental influence. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 43) Alvin is a nonsmoker, but all winter, he is exposed to tobacco smoke because the friends with whom he shares an apartment refuse to smoke outdoors. His exposure to tobacco smoke is an example of a A) modifiable determinant. B) social determinant. C) biological determinant. D) health disparity. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3

44) American Indians/Alaska Natives have a higher rate of diabetes than any other U.S. population group. This difference in diabetes rates is an example of a A) policymaking determinant of health. B) biological determinant of health. C) health disparity. D) medical model of health. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 45) Which of the following statements about mindfulness is TRUE? A) The practice of mindfulness emerged in the United States in the 1970s. B) Mindfulness is a religious practice in which the individual contemplates the divine. C) Research linking mindfulness to improved health is inconclusive. D) An essential component of mindfulness is awareness of oneself and one's environment. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Does Mindfulness Influence Health? Learning Outcome: 1.4 46) Which of the following is a basic mindfulness skill? A) calculating the number of calories in a meal you order for lunch B) acknowledging your disappointment at a poor grade C) tuning out a noisy student in the library D) procrastinating Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Does Mindfulness Influence Health? Learning Outcome: 1.4 47) Studies associate mindfulness with A) increased blood pressure. B) improvements in memory. C) increased religious belief. D) social isolation. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Does Mindfulness Influence Health? Learning Outcome: 1.4

48) Missy is motivated to lose weight. She has begun taking a 30-minute walk every morning, has worked with a nutrition counselor to design a new diet, and on Monday will begin following a new eating plan. According to the transtheoretical model of behavior change, Missy is in a stage of A) precontemplation. B) contemplation. C) action. D) maintenance. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 49) According to the transtheoretical model, a person in the precontemplation stage A) has no current intention to change or believes there is no need to change. B) is aware of the problem and is making preparations for change. C) is aware of the problem but is greatly afraid of change. D) is aware of the problem and is already taking action to implement change. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 50) Gary, who is 23 years old, turns down his employer's offer of a flu vaccine because he believes the flu is harmful only to old people. This is an example of which factor of the health belief model? A) perceived seriousness B) perceived susceptibility C) perceived benefits D) cue to action Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5

51) An appraisal of the relationship between an object, action, or idea and some attribute related to it is a(n) A) belief. B) attitude. C) motivation. D) analysis. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 52) The change model based on three factors (social environment, thoughts and feelings, and behaviors) in interaction with each other is known as the A) behavior modification model. B) transtheoretical model. C) health belief model. D) social cognitive model. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 53) Which behavior change model involves six distinct stages and is also known as the stages of change model? A) health belief model B) transtheoretical model C) social cognitive model D) shaping model Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 54) Which change model was created to illustrate how firmly held ideas affect behavior change? A) health belief model B) transtheoretical model C) social cognitive model D) shaping model Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) Gianna recently reached her goal of losing 20 pounds and dropping one dress size. Now, she is motivated to begin training for a 5K race for her favorite charity. Which model of health best predicts Gianna's decision to begin training? A) transtheoretical model B) health belief model C) self-confidence model. D) social cognitive model Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 56) Mindy wants to lose weight. The fact that her parents engage in regular exercise is a(n) A) enabling factor. B) reinforcing factor. C) motivational factor. D) predisposing factor. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 57) After meeting his goal of not engaging in binge drinking for six months, Burhan rewarded himself by taking a three-day vacation at a golf resort. This is an example of A) a possessional reinforcer. B) positive reinforcement. C) manipulative behavior. D) shaping. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 58) Judy is confident in her ability to meet her weight-loss goal. When she notices herself overeating, she makes a plan and takes action to get her diet back on track. Judy A) has self-control. B) exhibits self-efficacy. C) is in a state of readiness to change. D) relies on social support. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

59) Hyun's grandfather died of colon cancer at age 48, and his father had surgery and chemotherapy for colon cancer at age 45. Hyun has therefore resigned himself to the idea that he, too, will develop colon cancer. In this situation, Hyun is demonstrating A) readiness to change. B) self-efficacy. C) countering. D) an external locus of control. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 60) People with an internal locus of control believe that events turn out as they do based on A) environmental factors. B) previous disappointments. C) their own actions. D) fate and luck. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 61) Manuela joined a group exercise class. Her instructor, who was formerly inactive and overweight, participates with the class and also shares personal fitness strategies. In class, Manuela tries to emulate her instructor's moves, and she has also become more physically active as part of her daily routine. Which technique is Manuela using to reach her goal of becoming more fit? A) shaping B) modeling C) visualization D) reinforcement Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6

62) Brenda is going on a ski trip over spring break and has 12 weeks to get in shape. She purchased an elliptical trainer and started working out on it for 10 minutes each day. Each week, she will increase her workout by 10 minutes until she can exercise for one hour. If she finds that is too rigorous, she will only add 5 minutes to her workout each week. Which of the following behavior-change techniques is Brenda using to get in shape for her trip? A) shaping B) visualization C) modeling D) self-talk Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 63) Which of the following is an example of a SMART goal? A) Stop drinking alcohol. B) Drink less alcohol. C) Reduce my weekend alcohol consumption from 6 or more drinks per night to 1 drink per night. D) Reduce my weekend alcohol consumption from 4 or more drinks per night to no more than 3 drinks per night. Answer: D Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 64) Which strategy is used by many athletes to visualize the attainment of goals? A) coaching B) imagined rehearsal C) athletic imagery D) vicarious performance Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6

65) Observing a friend's successful attempt to quit smoking and trying some of the same tactics to quit yourself is an example of A) conforming. B) shaping. C) envy. D) modeling. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 66) Changing your seat in class to one closer to the front to help change your habit of napping during the lecture is an example of A) an activity reinforcer. B) situational inducement. C) negative reinforcement. D) social reinforcement. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 67) Going out for dinner at your favorite restaurant as a reward for finishing a big project is an example of a A) possessional reinforcer. B) manipulative reinforcer. C) consumable reinforcer. D) social reinforcer. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6

68) Mrs. J. is trying to get her third-grade students to remember to have their homework signed by a parent before bringing it to class. Students who remember every day for a month receive a gift card from a local bookstore. This is an example of a(n) A) consumable reinforcer. B) activity reinforcer. C) manipulative reinforcer. D) possessional reinforcer. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 69) The thought, "I don't have enough time!" is an example of A) shaping. B) self-talk. C) punishment. D) enabling. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 70) Not allowing yourself to think about stage fright and focusing only on the content of your speech when preparing for a presentation is an example of A) positive reinforcement. B) blocking and stopping. C) a situational reinforcer. D) countering. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 71) Once you have identified a target behavior that needs to change, your next step is to A) learn more about the behavior, its effects, and possible obstacles. B) commit to changing all negative behaviors at the same time. C) see a counselor to help you work out a plan. D) consider the possible negative outcomes before proceeding. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 19 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

72) Which of the following is an essential prerequisite for changing a behavior? A) deciding on several rewards for making the change B) wanting to change C) asking friends for advice D) changing environmental obstacles Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 73) Based on a recent cholesterol screening, Marlon decided that he has to stop eating so much fast food and get more exercise. Between work and school, his free time is limited, but he is determined to lower his cholesterol level and improve his overall health. The best way for Marlon to stay motivated to improve his diet and work out regularly is to A) make weekly resolutions for how many times to work out and chastise himself if he hasn't accomplished his planned goal. B) depend on his friends to keep him away from his favorite fast-food restaurants. C) set reasonable short- and long-term goals and reward himself for meeting them. D) set an ambitious goal and chart daily and weekly progress using online tools. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 74) Life skills such as conscientiousness and optimism are A) nonmodifiable. B) internal reinforcers. C) key factors influencing longevity and health. D) factors that can increase the risk of relapse. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 75) The process of taking small individual steps toward a behavior change goal is A) action. B) journaling. C) preparation. D) shaping. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 20 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

76) Gavin recognizes that he never engages in binge drinking when he is alone. The episodes always occur when he hangs out with a particular group of friends. Gavin's decision to hang out with these friends is best described as A) positive reinforcement. B) an antecedent that cues Gavin to binge drink. C) a situational inducement that helps Gavin avoid binge drinking. D) an imagined rehearsal. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6 77) Life expectancy in the United States in 2020 was lower than in 2019. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 78) Healthy life expectancy is another term for life span. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 79) The absence of disease or illness is the optimal description of health. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 80) The development of vaccines is considered one of the ten greatest public health achievements of the twentieth century. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2

81) Being able to perform activities of daily living is an aspect of physical health. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 82) The development of self-esteem is an important part of intellectual health. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 83) A disabled person can never achieve the highest level of wellness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 84) The wellness continuum ranges from a low point of beginning to experience some type of symptom to a high point of optimal health and well-being. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 85) One of the goals of the Healthy People public health initiative is to create social and physical environments that promote health. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 86) Social factors, biology and genetics, individual behavior, health services, and policymaking all combine to determine a person's health status. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3

87) Excessive drug and alcohol consumption and poor sleep habits are the primary modifiable determinants related to chronic diseases. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 88) Because mindfulness involves being present in the here and now, popular practices such as jotting down your intentions for the day ahead are discouraged. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Mindfulness Influence Health? Learning Outcome: 1.4 89) Atheists cannot effectively practice mindfulness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Does Mindfulness Influence Health? Learning Outcome: 1.4 90) For a low-income individual without dental insurance, cost can be a perceived barrier to obtaining necessary dental care. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 91) When trying to drive less aggressively, Bekka observed her family and friends' more careful driving, reflected on what she observed, and changed her driving accordingly. This is an example of the social cognitive model of behavior change. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 92) The acronym SMART stands for Serious, Measurable, Adaptable, Realistic, and TimeOriented. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.6 23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

93) Identify a key factor influencing life expectancy in the United States in both the year 2020 and the year 1900. Answer: Infectious disease was a key factor influencing U.S. life expectancy in the year 1900. Vaccines and antibiotics had not yet been developed, and more than 30 percent of all children died before the age of five. In 2020, infectious disease–specifically COVID-19–again reduced U.S. life expectancy. COVID-19 continued to claim hundreds of thousands of lives in 2021, but the effect was modified by the development and administration of a variety of vaccines and treatments. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 94) Compare life expectancy and healthy life expectancy. Answer: Life expectancy refers to the number of years a person at a given age can expect to remain alive. Healthy life expectancy refers to the number of years a person at a given age can expect to live in full health, without chronic diseases or disabilities. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Why Health, Why Now? Learning Outcome: 1.1 95) List the six dimensions of health and provide a brief description for each. Briefly describe a plan for improving one dimension of health in your own life. Answer: • Physical: body size and composition, fitness, and susceptibility to disease • Social: ability to maintain satisfying relationships with others • Intellectual: clear thinking, objective reasoning, and responsible decision making • Emotional: ability to both express and control emotions appropriately • Spiritual: having a sense of meaning or purpose • Environmental: understanding the effects of, protecting yourself from, and improving the conditions in your environment Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2

96) Compare the World Health Organization (WHO) 1947 definition of health and the definition advanced by biologist and philosopher René Dubos in 1968, identifying a key distinction critical to our current understanding of health. Answer: Whereas the WHO acknowledged physical, social, and mental dimensions of health, Dubos added spiritual and emotional dimensions. Moreover, whereas the WHO defined health as a state of complete physical, social, and mental well-being, Dubos saw health as a state of fitness resulting from adaptability to one's environment. This concept of adaptability is key to our current understanding of health. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Health? Learning Outcome: 1.2 97) Identify the five categories of determinants of health, and give an example of one determinant from each category that might influence the current epidemic of opioid abuse and overdose deaths in the United States. Answer: The five categories of determinants of health are: individual behavior; biology and genetics; social factors; access to health services; and policymaking. Examples will vary, but suggested answers might include: individual choice of drug abuse for chronic pain rather than consultation with a physician; biological or genetic factors that increase an individual's susceptibility to drug abuse and/or addiction; social environment in which drug abuse is acceptable; poor access to quality health services; and federal, state, or local policies that limit the availability of drug treatment services or fail to effectively control physician prescription of opioids. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3 98) Individual behaviors are a powerful determinant of health. Give at least four examples of how individual behaviors might affect an individual's risk for infection, hospitalization, and death from COVID-19. Answer: Answers will vary, but might include four or more of the following: frequent handwashing; decision to wear a mask in public; type of mask worn (cloth, surgical, N95, double, etc.); frequency and extent of physical distancing; travel to regions with higher or lower rates of COVID-19; vaccination; health behaviors such as smoking, overeating, sedentary lifestyle, etc., that contribute to obesity, heart disease, and type 2 diabetes, all of which are risk factors for more severe outcomes of COVID-19. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Influences Your Health? Learning Outcome: 1.3

99) Explain why one of the most popular definitions of mindfulness in contemporary culture is "Keeping your feet in the now." Answer: An essential component of mindfulness is bringing one's complete attention to the present moment, including thoughts, feelings, and sensations arising from one's environment. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Does Mindfulness Influence Health? Learning Outcome: 1.4 100) What considerations does the Health Belief Model (HBM) identify as important for an individual who wants to quit smoking? What considerations does the Social Cognitive Model (SCM) identify as important? Answer: The HBM emphasizes the role of an individual's beliefs; namely, beliefs related to the seriousness of the health consequences of smoking, the susceptibility to those consequences, the benefits of quitting, and the barriers to quitting. The HBM also considers cues to action, such as chronic coughing or other symptoms, a lung disease diagnosis in a loved one, or a warning from a healthcare provider about the seriousness of tobacco use. In contrast, the SCM emphasizes the importance of role models in the individual's environment, including people who smoke and people who do not, and the thoughts an individual has regarding the effects of these choices on health. The SCM proposes that the individual regulates his or her behavior as a result of this process of observation and reflection, and that his or her successful behavior change then provides a model for others to observe. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Does Behavior Change Occur? Learning Outcome: 1.5 101) Think of a health-related behavior you would like to change. Identify three individuals in your life whom you might enlist as change agents and explain how each of these individuals might support you. Answer: Change agents selected might include loving family members who are dedicated to their own and the student's health and well-being; friends who could encourage or join in the behavior-change effort; and professionals such as health care providers, counselors, coaches, nutrition or fitness instructors, and others willing to support the change. Responses will vary and should include a well-thought-out explanation of why the change agents were selected and how they might help the student in planning and carrying out a behavior change. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6

102) Jean drinks at least eight cans of soda each day. She knows that she should drink water, but the soda is much more satisfying because she loves its sweet taste. She has decided that she is going to stop drinking so much soda Sunday through Friday; she will reward herself by drinking soda on Saturday, and not making herself drink any water that day. She is confident that by the end of eight weeks, she will successfully overcome her soda habit and learn to like drinking water. Do you think Jean will successfully reach her goal by following her plan? Critique her plan and propose an alternate series of steps for her to follow to achieve her goal. Answer: Jean is unlikely to reach her goal. Her goal is not specific enough and is probably unrealistic. Also, she is trying to change two behaviors at once: reducing her soda intake and increasing her water intake. She should focus on changing one behavior at a time: either cut back to a specific number of cans of soda per day or drink a specific amount of water per day. Her reward needs to be more meaningful and less like the behavior she is actually trying to change. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can You Improve Your Health Behaviors? Learning Outcome: 1.6

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 1a Focus On: Difference, Disparity, and Health: Achieving Health Equity 1) A society characterized by health equity A) has a lower life expectancy among certain social groups than among others. B) views health as a valuable individual characteristic, not a public good. C) establishes policies that benefit certain social groups at the expense of others. D) works to prevent or reverse conditions that undermine health. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 2) A society characterized by health disparities A) distributes health risks equally among population groups. B) distributes social resources equally among population groups. C) is fundamentally unjust. D) has attained the highest level of health for all. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 3) By the year 2060, the population of the United States will be A) more than 60% non-Hispanic white. B) more than 25% Hispanic. C) about 20% Black or African American. D) about 20% Asian American. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 4) Crystal, who maintains a slender body weight by limiting her food intake and exercising daily, assumes that people who are obese have no willpower. This assumption is an example of A) a stereotype. B) othering. C) discrimination. D) a health disparity. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following statements about diversity in America is TRUE? A) Between 2016 and 2060, the population of Americans under age 18 is expected to increase much more sharply than the population age 65 or older. B) The percentage of Americans identifying as LGBT declined slightly between 2012 and 2020. C) About 40 percent of Americans age 23 to 38 are religiously unaffiliated. D) In 2019, about 75 percent of Americans identified as Christian. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 6) Our ability to recognize difference A) is highly evolved and broadly accurate. B) is largely dictated by society. C) is based on intimate knowledge of another's life history and current experiences. D) helps prevent us from engaging in false assumptions about others. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 7) Eitan is 19 years old, Jewish, transgender, overweight, and lives with his single mother. Which of the following statements about Eitan is TRUE? A) Eitan smokes. B) Eitan almost certainly suffers from clinical depression and has a low sense of self-esteem. C) Eitan is a unique individual. D) Health statistics from the U.S. Centers for Disease Control indicate that Eitan is at high risk for suicide. Answer: C Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1

8) The costs to society of health disparities A) increase when individuals have high-quality health insurance that covers preventive care. B) increase when a community lacks drug treatment programs and individuals with substance abuse disorders leave the workforce. C) are estimated to amount to nearly $1 billion annually. D) are unavoidable. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 9) Luz immigrated to the United States from Columbia when she was sixteen. She last visited a physician three years ago. The physician told her that her blood pressure was high and prescribed medication. Since then, Luz has avoided doctors because she works full-time for a small housekeeping service that does not offer health insurance. Which of the following statements about Luz is TRUE? A) Luz is at risk for a health crisis that would likely require treatment far more costly to society than the cost of primary care visits and medication. B) Luz' ethnicity is a much more powerful determinant of her high blood pressure than is her socioeconomic status. C) Luz could afford to purchase her own health insurance if she really wanted it. D) Luz almost certainly has access to free health care at a community health clinic in her area. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 10) Which of the following choices best exemplifies stereotyping? A) referring to someone with dark skin as a "person of color" B) excluding someone with obesity from a community softball team C) accommodating an employee with a vision impairment by providing a larger computer monitor D) anticipating that an individual who is in their mid-seventies will be forgetful because "all older people are forgetful" Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1

11) Which of the following statements about poverty in the United States is TRUE? A) More males than females live in poverty. B) Women who identify as heterosexual and cisgender have higher poverty rates than women who identify as LGBTQ. C) Males have greater student loan debt than females. D) Females earn about $0.82 for every $1.00 that males earn. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 12) All of the following are social determinants of health EXCEPT A) federal, state, and local policymaking. B) educational attainment. C) the built environment. D) economic stability. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 13) The Miller household is food insecure. This means that A) the household is located in a food desert. B) the household income is below the U.S. poverty line. C) all household members are hungry at numerous times throughout the year. D) the household lacks reliable access to sufficient food for all household members. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2

14) Which of the following statements about educational attainment in the United States is TRUE? A) Educational attainment increases access to jobs with higher wages, better working conditions, health care insurance, and sick leave. B) As compared to the most affluent Americans, the poorest Americans have twice the rate of noncompletion of high school. C) The fact that low-income neighborhoods may have lower-performing schools is not thought to have any influence on levels of educational attainment within the community. D) Educational attainment increases with increasing poverty. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 15) The minority-stress theory attempts to explain A) why non-Hispanic black Americans have higher rates of stress than any other racial/ethnic group in the United States. B) the link between frequent exposure to discrimination and stress levels that reduce health. C) the contribution of stress to low socioeconomic status in minority groups. D) why members of racial/ethnic minority groups report higher levels of stress than nonHispanic white Americans. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 16) People with low health literacy A) are at increased risk for medication errors. B) are more likely to access preventive care. C) are typically able to obtain, process, and understand health information and services, but need assistance to make appropriate health-related decisions. D) have a lower mortality rate. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2

17) Which of the following statements about the built environment is FALSE? A) Municipal water systems in several low-income communities across the United States have been found to be contaminated with lead. B) A community's level of violence is an aspect of the built environment. C) A community's level of air pollution from traffic and industry is an aspect of the built environment. D) Multiple studies have shown that residents in rural environments enjoy increased opportunities for physical activity as compared to urban and suburban environments and have a lower risk for obesity. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 18) Antoine's income is in the lowest 10 percent of United States income. His boss' income is in the highest 10 percent. Which of the following is TRUE? A) Antoine's boss enjoys an income nearly 7 times size of Antoine's income. B) Antoine's boss will outlive Antoine by at least 14 years. C) Antoine's life expectancy is 14 years lower than that of his boss. D) Antoine's boss is more likely than Antoine to develop a chronic disease, but Antoine is more likely to die from it. Answer: C Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 19) Marnie is 83 years old, poor, and disabled by chronic respiratory disease. Marnie faces an increased risk for A) incarceration. B) social isolation. C) discrimination. D) low educational attainment. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2

20) Which of the following statements about culture is TRUE? A) Culture rarely influences people's beliefs about what causes disease. B) Culture is transmitted by individual behavioral choices and not by rituals and other shared practices. C) All of an individual's behaviors are culturally determined. D) Culture is a widely acknowledged determinant of health. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 21) Studies indicate that mindfulness can help contribute to a more equitable society by A) increasing the brain's ability to perceive difference. B) reducing participants' awareness of their biases. C) reducing the brain's activation of automatic associations. D) increasing the participants' ability to relax. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can Your Actions Contribute to Health Equity? Learning Outcome: 1a.3 22) In communicating across difference, aiming for candor allows you to A) say exactly how you feel about the other person without worrying about hurting his or her feelings. B) acknowledge the contribution of your age, gender, family background, and countless other factors to who you are in this moment. C) speak as freely and as long as you wish because the other person is not allowed to interrupt. D) pay attention to what the other person is actually saying, without being triggered by the way he or she is saying it. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Your Actions Contribute to Health Equity? Learning Outcome: 1a.3 23) To become your own advocate, it's helpful to A) accept the fact that negative messages have at least some validity. B) accept the situation and move on. C) ask family members or friends to confront the individual who has treated you unfairly. D) keep in mind that you are helping others by speaking out. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Your Actions Contribute to Health Equity? Learning Outcome: 1a.3 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Which of the following statements about power differentials is TRUE? A) A power differential is unlikely to exist between an instructor and their students. B) Power differentials do not exist between peers. C) Bringing power differentials into the open is the first step in mitigating them. D) Power differentials can be defined as feelings of inferiority shared by two or more people in a conversation. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can Your Actions Contribute to Health Equity? Learning Outcome: 1a.3 25) In one study, participants who engaged in mindfulness training A) tended to adopt more of an "us" versus "them" approach to interactions with others. B) increased their understanding of the unconscious aspects of other people's behavior. C) were more willing to consider the possibility that other people were discriminating against them. D) demonstrated no statistically significant change in either racial or age biases. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can Your Actions Contribute to Health Equity? Learning Outcome: 1a.3 26) All of the following characterize "health for all" EXCEPT A) jobs that pay living wages. B) freedom from discrimination. C) access to safe and affordable housing. D) behavioral choices that increase physical activity and diet quality. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 27) One of the key objectives of the U.S Surgeon General's Healthy People 2030 is to A) increase access to health care. B) increase the U.S. COVID-19 vaccination rate. C) discourage alcohol consumption. D) increase genetic screening of newborns. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Public health experts have proposed increasing the numbers of minority health care providers in order to A) expand access to health insurance. B) achieve a more equitable distribution of health care. C) communicate across differences. D) eliminate health disparities. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 29) In the United States, the initiative that has had the greatest effect on increasing access to health care for all population groups in the 21st century has been A) the National School Lunch Program. B) the war on cancer. C) the Affordable Care Act. D) Healthy People 2030. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 30) Strategies to reduce health disparities by changing the physical environment include all of the following EXCEPT A) construction of quality affordable housing. B) offering diversity training to health care providers. C) increasing neighborhood walkability. D) establishing health literacy centers in libraries. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4

31) Which of the following statements about federal health disparities initiatives is TRUE? A) The Healthy People Initiative was launched by the Institute of Medicine in 1999. B) The National Institutes of Health has primary responsibility for reducing health disparities in the United States. C) As a direct result of the establishment of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Task Force on Black and Minority Health, health disparities have been significantly reduced throughout the United States. D) Although multiple federal agencies have set goals for reducing health disparities, accountability and funding have been inadequate and little progress has been made. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 32) State, county, and local initiatives to reduce health disparities include all of the following EXCEPT A) U.S. Department of Agriculture surveys of food consumption patterns. B) changes to zoning ordinances to avoid the release of industrial pollutants within a reasonable distance of residential areas. C) increased funding for drug treatment programs. D) increased funding for public transportation. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 33) A community college in a region of the country with a high level of poverty might increase health equity among its students by A) offering students free passes to the local art museum. B) establishing a food pantry for student use. C) requiring that all students present proof of health insurance coverage prior to registering for classes. D) offering convenience stores within residence halls. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4

34) A mobile van offering health screenings, vaccinations, and other services within neighborhoods is A) an example of a systemic measure to improve health equity. B) a biological determinant of health. C) recommended by public health experts for all underserved communities throughout the United States. D) an example of a community strategy for increasing access to health care. Answer: D Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 35) Under the Affordable Care Act, between 2010 and 2020, the number of Americans who are uninsured dropped from 48 million A) to 32 million. B) to 23 million. C) to 14 million. D) to 6 million. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 36) The United States consistently ranks highest in health equity among the world's eleven wealthiest industrialized nations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 37) By the year 2060, more than 6 percent of Americans will be of mixed race. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 38) Interacting with people who are different as if they were intrinsically inferior is known as stereotyping. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) About 4.3 million Americans live in poverty. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 40) A single parent with two children working full-time at the federal minimum wage earns an annual income well below the U.S. poverty line. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 41) Between 1980 and 2020, the income gap between the richest and poorest Americans has narrowed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 42) When communicating across differences, it helps to begin by committing to mutual civility and respect. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Your Actions Contribute to Health Equity? Learning Outcome: 1a.3 43) You can contribute to health equity by advocating for yourself. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Your Actions Contribute to Health Equity? Learning Outcome: 1a.3 44) The Affordable Care Act was fully implemented in 2010. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4

45) In 2021, financial subsidies to help low- and middle-income Americans afford health insurance under the Affordable Care Act were reduced. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4 46) Define health equity. Answer: Health equity is a condition characterized by an absence of avoidable or remediable differences in health and the attainment of optimal health for all. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Why Has Health Equity Become a Critical Issue in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.1 47) Define health literacy and identify several ways that low health literacy might influence an individual's health. Answer: Health literacy is the ability to obtain, process, and understand health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions. An individual with low health literacy might find it difficult to understand medication instructions, health education brochures, instructions from health care providers, and insurance and consent forms. They might also have difficulty communicating with providers and making informed health care decisions, and be more vulnerable to health-related misinformation. As a result, they may fail to obtain recommended vaccinations, cancer screenings, and other preventive care; may make medication errors; may suffer complications from poor disease management; and may be at increased risk for hospitalization and premature death. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2 48) Discuss multiple links between poverty and poor health. Answer: Poverty reduces access to nourishing foods, which promote and maintain health. By limiting choice of housing, poverty can decrease a family's access to healthy food stores, parks, walking trails, quality libraries, health clinics, and other community services, and increase their exposure to pollution, violence, and other health risks. Poverty also limits educational attainment, from lower-quality early childhood education through reduced ability to afford higher education. Finally, poverty is a chronic stressor that can contribute to physical and mental health problems from childhood through adulthood and reduce overall life expectancy. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Do the Social Determinants of Health Influence Health Disparities in America? Learning Outcome: 1a.2

49) Identify at least three benefits of campus diversity to college students. Answer: Interacting every day with other people who are different from you challenges your assumptions and exposes you to new ideas, values, and experiences. The skills you develop in working across difference are likely to help you academically as well as in your career. Exposure to diversity also helps you discover more about yourself. Building relationships with others who are different can also expose you to new experiences, foods, art, music, etc., thereby generally expanding your world. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can Your Actions Contribute to Health Equity? Learning Outcome: 1a.3 50) Identify four key ways that public health experts propose for increasing access to health care within at-risk populations. Answer: 1. Increase the number of minority health care providers by providing incentives for minority Americans to pursue careers in health care. 2. Require all health care providers to undergo diversity training. 3. Increase community-wide partnerships to offer free or low-cost preventive services such as vaccinations, dental care, and health screenings within underserved communities. 4. Expand access to health insurance throughout the United States. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can Systemic Change Lead to Health for All? Learning Outcome: 1a.4

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 2 Promoting and Preserving Your Psychological Health 1) A term used to encompass mental, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions of health is A) socioemotional. B) holistic. C) psychiatric. D) psychological. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 2) Which of the following is TRUE of psychologically healthy people? A) They frequently experience guilt. B) They avoid new experiences. C) They value human diversity. D) They are uncomfortable when put in new social situations. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 3) A mentally healthy student who gets a bad grade on an exam would respond by A) becoming withdrawn and avoiding friends. B) getting angry at the professor. C) drinking for distraction and to relieve tension. D) learning from their mistakes and improving their study habits. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 4) Psychological health is best described as encompassing A) personal experiences and thoughts of future events. B) memories, emotions, and interpretations of life experiences. C) thoughts, including beliefs, relating to the past, present, and future. D) thinking, feeling, relating, and being. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) A psychologically healthy person is A) cynical. B) introverted. C) athletic. D) resilient. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 6) The Psychodynamic Diagnostic Manual provides information about A) mental illnesses. B) the influence of social determinants of health on mental health. C) the dynamic interplay between physical and emotional health. D) characteristics of psychological health and functioning. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 7) Which of the following represents the primary difference between emotional health and mental health? A) Emotional health deals with feelings rather than thought processes. B) Mental health deals with complex patterns of feelings whereas emotional health deals with the feelings themselves. C) Mental health does not include the ability to learn, whereas emotional health does. D) Emotional health deals specifically with thought processes rather than feelings. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 8) A dysfunctional family is defined as a family in which A) one or both parents intentionally attempt to undermine children's sense of self-confidence. B) one or both parents engage in illicit drug use or other criminal behavior. C) the physical or mental illness of one or more family members frequently overwhelms the family's capacity to cope. D) there is violence; physical, emotional, or sexual abuse; significant discord; or other negative family interactions. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 2 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Marie's parents have given her money for a down payment on a new car; they are providing her with A) obligatory support. B) social support. C) tangible support. D) intangible support. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 10) Purnima has a strong sense of purpose and meaning to her life. She is demonstrating A) spiritual health. B) social support. C) religiosity. D) emotional health. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 11) Spiritually healthy people believe A) that it is important to give up control over their lives. B) in a god or other higher power. C) that they are part of a something larger than the purely physical or personal dimensions of existence. D) in an afterlife. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 12) Which of the following statements about loneliness is TRUE? A) The current prevalence of loneliness in the United States can largely be explained by the social isolation that occurred as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic. B) Older adults are significantly more likely to report loneliness than younger adults. C) Nearly one quarter of all college students report feelings of loneliness. D) Men are more likely to report loneliness than women. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) Which of the following is TRUE of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A) Failure to meet a lower-level need will interfere with fulfilling higher-level needs. B) Social needs are the most basic and essential needs. C) A self-actualized person has met basic needs but has not fully reached his or her potential. D) Esteem needs are more basic than survival needs. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 14) A network of people and services with which we share ties and which provide support is A) psychological support. B) emotional support. C) social support. D) community support. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 15) A mindfulness strategy that can help heal feelings of loneliness and isolation is to A) look in the mirror; notice any negative thoughts that arise about your appearance; and write down all the things you would like to change. B) watch television shows or films about loving families or close friends. C) acknowledge the people in your life who have supported you. D) avoid looking at strangers when in public. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 16) Intense feelings or patterns of feelings that people experience are A) emotions. B) dreams. C) desires. D) needs. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1

17) Loneliness is A) rare among college students but becomes common after graduation. B) best defined as the experience of being alone. C) unlikely in people who have lots of followers on social media. D) a risk factor for depression and substance abuse. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 18) Keisha has a negative attitude about life and puts herself down all the time. Keisha is displaying A) low self-efficacy. B) low self-esteem. C) poor self-control. D) clinical depression. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 19) Jose's belief that he can successfully pass his biology midterm is an example of A) self-satisfaction. B) self-esteem. C) self-reliance. D) self-efficacy. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 20) At the end of each day, Halide writes down five positive affirmations about herself to block out any negative thoughts. Halide is demonstrating A) magical thinking. B) social skills. C) learned optimism. D) brainwashing. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2

21) After breaking up with his girlfriend, Lucas has been unable to move on. He is afraid of rejection and doesn't think that women find him attractive. He is probably suffering from A) lack of empathy. B) low self-esteem. C) failure to self-regulate. D) a victim complex. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 22) Research suggests that laughter A) is more effective than diet and exercise for weight loss. B) can increase blood sugar levels. C) can boost the body's immune response. D) is superior to conventional medication for many chronic diseases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 23) Tu is able to identify, understand, and manage his own feelings and those of others. Tu is demonstrating A) extroversion. B) learned optimism. C) emotional intelligence. D) self-efficacy. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 24) Sharon has lost two jobs in the past year. She blames her coworkers, who she says didn't like her. She has filed for unemployment and is reluctant to begin to look for a new job. From her behavior, it is likely that Sharon has developed A) learned optimism. B) learned helplessness. C) low self-esteem. D) narcissism. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 6 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Which of the following is TRUE about positive psychology? A) It was founded by psychologists Peter Salavey and John Mayer. B) Its interventions have proven effective in reducing disability and increasing longevity. C) It is the scientific study of the interactions between happiness and immunity. D) It describes mental health as the absence of negative feelings. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 26) Together, self-awareness, self-management, internal motivation, empathy, and social skills are MOST closely associated with A) intellectual health. B) emotional intelligence. C) psychoneuroimmunology. D) happiness. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 27) The five-factor model classifies curiosity, independence, and imagination as A) openness. B) agreeableness. C) conscientiousness. D) extroversion. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 28) An awareness of what others might be going through is called A) self-awareness. B) openness. C) extroversion. D) empathy. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2

29) People who have experienced repeated failures may develop a pattern of response in which they give up and fail to take any positive action. This is called A) resistance. B) learned helplessness. C) learned optimism. D) laziness. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 30) Yona trusts her friends and, if they need to change plans at the last minute, tries to be flexible and accommodating. Yona demonstrates a trait known as A) optimism. B) conscientiousness. C) agreeableness. D) self-awareness. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 31) A researcher observes that stage actors frequently come down with a cold after the close of a long run of a show. This type of study would best be classified as A) a motivational study. B) social psychology. C) positive psychology. D) psychoneuroimmunology. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 32) The personality trait that involves the ability to adapt to a social situation and demonstrate assertiveness is known as A) emotional stability. B) resiliency. C) extroversion. D) conscientiousness. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) According to the PERMA model, which of the following strategies is most likely to enhance your well-being? A) Start seeing a therapist who can help you recall early traumas that may be blocking your personal growth. B) Set realistic goals and pursue them with effort. C) Vent to all your friends on a regular basis to remind them of what you are going through. D) Indulge in comfort foods once in a while to reward and calm yourself. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 34) A collective term for several positive states in which individuals actively embrace the world around them is A) happiness. B) satisfaction. C) openness. D) conscientiousness. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 35) Recently, Kevin has been spending a lot of time playing online poker. Last weekend, he decided on a whim to fly to Las Vegas to try his hand at "the real thing." He lost over $5,000. This behavior indicates that Kevin may have A) bipolar disorder. B) borderline personality disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) generalized anxiety disorder. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3

36) Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of major depression? A) memory lapses B) oversleeping or insomnia C) indecisiveness D) feeling highly energetic Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 37) Alicia has been experiencing persistent sadness, despair, and hopelessness. She is displaying symptoms of A) an anxiety disorder. B) a personality disorder. C) an eating disorder. D) a chronic mood disorder. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 38) Which of the following is TRUE about major depression? A) Major depression affects about 2-3 percent of U.S. adults age 18 to 25. B) Major depression is also known as persistent depressive disorder (PDD). C) Key symptoms of major depression include feelings of hopelessness and ever-present sadness. D) Major depression is typically caused by a reduction in exposure to sunlight in late autumn and early winter. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 39) The increased risks for homelessness, incarceration, substance abuse, and other problems that people with mental illness face in their families and communities are collectively known as A) learned helplessness. B) the ripple effect of mental illness. C) the hidden costs of mental illness. D) the five-factor model of mental illness. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) Which of the following is TRUE about persistent depressive disorder? A) It is a mild but chronic form of depression. B) It is a version of bipolar disorder. C) It affects more people than major depression. D) It is linked with a specific genetic variant. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 41) Anxiety disorders are A) the most common mental health problem in the United States. B) the least costly of mental health disorders to treat. C) characterized by deep and persistent fears of specific objects, activities, or situations. D) most prevalent among adults over the age of 65. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 42) Melody has been experiencing severe mood swings, feeling highly energized for a period and then experiencing extreme depression. These symptoms are most closely associated with A) borderline personality disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) seasonal affective disorder. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 43) Which of the following is TRUE about panic attacks? A) They typically last for about 20 to 30 minutes. B) They typically come on gradually. C) They typically leave the person feeling irritable and manic. D) They can lead to social isolation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3

44) Celia spends a good deal of her time feeling on edge, is easily fatigued, and often has difficulty concentrating and getting enough sleep. Her symptoms may characterize A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) panic disorder. D) bipolar disorder. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 45) Paulo cannot recall a time when he did not feel terrified of spiders. He could be experiencing a(n) A) obsession. B) compulsion. C) phobia. D) hysteria. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 46) Most commonly, a person diagnosed with social anxiety disorder has a fear of A) leaving his or her room. B) public events and gatherings. C) spending time alone. D) contracting an infection from others. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 47) Nadiya is self-absorbed, needy, and demanding, and constantly expects others to acknowledge how exceptional she is. These traits are most closely indicative of A) schizophrenia. B) a social phobia. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) narcissistic personality disorder. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) Which of the following living environments would likely increase your chances of suffering from seasonal affective disorder (SAD)? A) a northern state that experiences long winter nights B) a desert region in California C) a region close to the equator with little seasonal variation D) a southern state that experiences hot, humid summers Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 49) Which of the following statements about schizophrenia is TRUE? A) Schizophrenia is caused by childhood trauma. B) Schizophrenia is a mental illness with biological origins. C) People with schizophrenia can never live a normal life. D) Symptoms most commonly appear in early childhood. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 50) Treatment for schizophrenia includes hospitalization and a combination of A) medication and psychotherapy. B) medication and light therapy. C) light therapy and electroconvulsive therapy. D) psychotherapy and electroconvulsive therapy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 51) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to attention-deficit (hyperactivity) disorder (ADD/ADHD)? A) It causes people to be very organized. B) It affects about 5 percent of college students. C) It is only diagnosed in children. D) It tends to disrupt relationships. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3

52) Warren often has difficulty writing sentences with the words in the correct order. Warren may have a learning disorder known as A) dysgraphia. B) autism spectrum disorder. C) dyscalculia. D) Asperger syndrome. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 53) A person who experiences flashbacks after a violent mugging might be suffering from A) a phobia. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) schizophrenia. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 54) Marcella has a persistent fear of social situations; she is suffering from A) a phobia. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) schizophrenia. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 55) Evan washes his hands more than 50 times a day because of an ongoing fixation on germs; he is most likely suffering from A) a phobia. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) schizophrenia. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3

56) A type of autism spectrum disorder in which the individual is highly functioning–often able to succeed academically and professionally–is known as A) dyscalculia. B) attention-deficit (hyperactivity) disorder. C) borderline personality disorder. D) Asperger syndrome. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 57) Research suggests that anxiety disorders A) are highly resistant to treatment. B) have essentially no biological basis. C) can develop as a learned response to a recurrent stress-inducing situation. D) are most prevalent among adults age 65 or older. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 58) Although he is often dispirited, exhausted, and pessimistic, for the last few days Jirou has been studying, working out, and socializing with so much energy and enthusiasm that he has not had more than two or three hours of sleep each night. Jirou might be suffering from A) a personality disorder. B) panic disorder. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) bipolar disorder. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3

59) A student in one of your classes has multiple healing cuts and burns on his forearms that he attempts to conceal by wearing long-sleeve shirts. The most likely explanation for these facts is that this student A) has a social anxiety disorder. B) has been engaging in self-injury. C) is being abused by a family member or intimate partner. D) is accident-prone. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 60) Obsessive-compulsive disorder is A) diagnosed in about 5 percent of American adults. B) essentially the same as being a perfectionist. C) a type of personality disorder. D) highly treatable. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 61) A type of mental illness that involves inflexible patterns of thought that, in many cases, lead to socially distressing behavior is a(n) A) bipolar disorder. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) personality disorder. D) anxiety disorder. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 62) Warning signs of suicide include all of the following EXCEPT A) unexplained demonstration of happiness following a period of depression. B) preoccupation with themes of death. C) giving away prized possessions. D) compulsion to repeatedly perform rituals. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Suicide: Giving Up on Life Learning Outcome: 2.4 16 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

63) Which of the following statements about suicide is TRUE? A) The highest rates of suicide are among people age 15 to 24. B) People are at increased risk for suicide if they identify as LGBT. C) About as many men as women commit suicide. D) College students are at higher risk of suicide than people of the same age who are not in college. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Suicide: Giving Up on Life Learning Outcome: 2.4 64) Suicide prevention techniques include A) downplaying a person's statement that they'd like to die. B) asking directly if the person intends to hurt himself or herself. C) reassuring a person that nothing could be so bad as to make suicide an option. D) keeping all conversations with the person confidential. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Suicide: Giving Up on Life Learning Outcome: 2.4 65) Jake is being treated for depression by a medical doctor who provides talk therapy and has also prescribed medication for his condition. Which type of mental health professional is Jake seeing? A) psychiatrist B) social worker C) psychologist D) licensed marriage and family therapist Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 66) The mental health professional whose treatment is most likely to be based on Freud's theories is a A) clinical psychologist. B) psychoanalyst. C) social worker. D) psychiatrist. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 17 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

67) Which of the following statements about homelessness is TRUE? A) The precise extent of homelessness in the United States is difficult to determine because people who are homeless often avoid social services and shelters. B) Most colleges in the United States have long recognized the problem of homelessness among their students and have established programs have addressing the problem. C) Research indicates that homelessness occurs among community college students, but is not found at four-year colleges and universities. D) The overwhelming majority of homeless people have one or more mental illnesses. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 68) A treatment for depression that involves correcting consistently pessimistic or faulty thought patterns is A) cognitive therapy. B) behavioral therapy. C) psychodynamic therapy. D) interpersonal therapy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 69) All of the following are common side effects of psychoactive drugs EXCEPT A) nausea. B) weight loss. C) headaches. D) sexual dysfunction. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5

70) Interpersonal therapy focuses on A) social roles and relationships. B) the psychological roots of emotional problems. C) the impact of thoughts and ideas on feelings and behavior. D) the therapist-patient relationship as a window into other relationship patterns. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 71) Mindfulness-based therapy A) has been shown in multiple studies to be significantly more effective than traditional psychotherapy in relieving anxiety and depression. B) is unlikely to be helpful for individuals who do not respond to psychoactive medications. C) may be less expensive and easier to implement than traditional psychotherapy. D) emphasize deep reflection on past traumas and other negative life events. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 72) Good mental health can be defined as the absence of mental illness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 73) Any one dimension of psychological health can affect the others. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 74) Keeping in touch with your best friend from high school is one way of enhancing your social health. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1

75) The term social health is often used interchangeably with mental health. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 76) A mother who consistently listens when her daughter needs to talk about her stressful life is providing intangible support. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Psychological Health? Learning Outcome: 2.1 77) Current research suggests that being happy significantly reduces the risk of premature mortality. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 78) A leading personality theory called the five-factor model proposes that, in most people, personality is influenced by five key factors, including genetics, parenting, and level of education. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 79) In the PERMA acronym, the letter M stands for meaning. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 80) Competence–the knowledge of and ability to learn new skills–is a key characteristic of happy people. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 20 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

81) Psychoneuroimmunology studies the effects of disease on emotional health. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 82) Defense mechanisms are strategies we use to distort our present reality in order to avoid anxiety. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 83) People with major depression experience physical effects such as sleep disturbance as well as persistent sadness and despair. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 84) Cutting or self-mutilation can be a sign of borderline personality disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, depression, or an anxiety disorder. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 85) People with bipolar disorder display a limited range of emotions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3 86) Changes in biochemistry due to drug abuse can trigger mental disturbances. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3

87) A recent loss increases an individual's risk for suicide. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Suicide: Giving Up on Life Learning Outcome: 2.4 88) Nearly 15 percent of all violent acts are attributed to people with serious mental illness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 89) Behavioral therapy focuses on changing a person's habitual attitudes to become more positive and productive. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 90) Nearly one-third of college students received psychological or mental health services in the past year. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 91) Although the stigma of mental illness is difficult to bear, the illness itself is always more disabling. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5 92) A majority of adults in the United States live with at least one mental illness. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5

93) Why do you think anxiety disorders have become the number one mental health problem in the United States? Provide information from the chapter and reflect on your own experiences to support your answer. Answer: Answers will vary. There are many proposed explanations for anxiety disorders, which include environmental factors, biology, and social and cultural roles. Weakening social ties, changing cultural roles and responsibilities, and growing inequality may cause the excess stress, concern, and worry that give rise to these disorders. It is also possible that increased public awareness and physician diagnosis of anxiety disorders contribute. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: What Is Psychological Health? and When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.1 and 2.3 94) Identify five characteristics of an individual with high emotional intelligence. Answer: An individual with high emotional intelligence is self-aware, able to recognize his or her own emotions, moods, and reactions and how other people perceive him or her. The individual is able to self-regulate, controlling impulses and expressing him- or herself appropriately. The individual is internally motivated, with a drive for learning and a stability and trustworthiness. He or she has empathy, an awareness of what others might be going through. He or she has mature social skills, including the ability to listen and respond appropriately, and to work with others for the common good. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Keys to Enhancing Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 2.2 95) What stressors or circumstances do you believe contribute the most to depression among college students? Provide information from the chapter and reflect on your own experiences to support your answer. Answer: Answers will vary. Genetic and biological factors, a recent loss, difficult relationships, financial problems, pressure to get good grades, striving to win social acceptance, abuse of alcohol and other drugs, and lack of sleep are some of the factors that students might identify. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: When Psychological Health Deteriorates Learning Outcome: 2.3

96) LGBT youth are more likely to attempt suicide than are their heterosexual peers. Propose at least two reasons that you think this might be so. Also list at least five actions you could take to prevent suicide. Answer: Answers will vary. Reasons might include the fact that some LGBT youth have been rejected by their families or peers, or have been teased or bullied in school. They may struggle with low self-esteem if, as children, they were taught to view homosexuality, bisexuality, and transgenderism as unnatural, abhorrent, or sinful. In general, they face a more difficult social environment than do their heterosexual peers. And they may be more likely to experience minority stress due to discrimination in housing, employment, health care, and other domains. Actions that may help prevent suicide include: • Monitoring the warning signals. • Taking threats seriously. • Letting the person know how much you care. • Asking directly if the person is contemplating suicide. • Taking action by removing any firearms or other objects that could be used for suicide. • Helping the person think about alternatives to suicide. • Telling others of your suspicions. In addition, the person needs immediate and effective medical and mental health care. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Suicide: Giving Up on Life Learning Outcome: 2.4 97) Do you believe that there is a stigma attached to mental illness? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Yes, there is a stigma towards mental illness; many college students will not see a counselor for treatment of mental health issues because of the stigma attached and a fear that they will be criticized, made fun of, or ostracized by peers. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Seeking Professional Help Learning Outcome: 2.5

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 2a Focus On: Cultivating Your Spiritual Health 1) The practice that involves focused, nonjudgmental observation and the ability to be fully present in the moment is A) contemplation. B) forgiveness. C) meditation. D) mindfulness. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 2) What role does religion play in spirituality? A) Spirituality may or may not include participation in organized religion. B) Religion is the same as spirituality. C) Religion is the only parameter to determine a person's level of spirituality. D) Spirituality and religion do not share any common elements. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 3) The definition of spirituality for an individual is A) a sense of peace, purpose, connection to others, and meaning in life. B) a set of religious symbols and rituals. C) determined by the religious community of the family. D) more formal and behavioral than the definition of religion. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1

4) In a recent survey, what percentage of first-year college students reported attending a religious service within the past year? A) 33 percent B) 45 percent C) 66 percent D) 75 percent Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 5) The three facets of human spirituality are A) contemplation, relation, and selfless service. B) cultural norms, family traditions, and values. C) relationships, values, and purpose in life. D) gratitude, service, and purpose in life. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 6) Emery tries to accept that their plans for their future are likely to keep changing and avoid getting too focused on meeting one specific career goal. Which of the following terms best identifies the characteristic Emery is demonstrating? A) intention B) nonattachment C) compassion D) gratitude Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 7) Which of the following is an example of failing to live according to one's values? A) valuing friendships but having to mend a quarrel with a friend B) loving animals but not owning a pet C) valuing honesty but cheating on a test D) enjoying alone time but having a roommate Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 2 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Several months after Qamar's home was destroyed in a wildfire, he sent flowers and a donation to the organization whose volunteers provided food, clothing, shelter, and comfort. Which of the following terms best identifies the characteristic Qamar was demonstrating? A) intention B) nonattachment C) compassion D) gratitude Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 9) A system of beliefs, practices, rituals, and symbols whose purpose is to bring people closer to the sacred or divine is A) doctrine. B) religion. C) spirituality. D) orthodoxy. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 10) Religion is distinguished from spirituality by its A) focus on symbols and outward practices. B) informality. C) lack of doctrine. D) subjective format. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 11) In many cultures, breath, or the force that animates life, is synonymous with A) faith. B) energy. C) heart. D) spirit. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Spiritual health is one of the six key dimensions of A) emotional health. B) success in life. C) overall health. D) social health. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 13) As a child, Raven was treated for a serious disease by a physician with expertise and caring. Now Raven wants to give back by becoming a pediatrician. Raven is demonstrating A) spirituality in action. B) stewardship. C) religious belief. D) nonattachment. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 14) Principles that guide the choices individuals make in their lives are A) rules. B) values. C) beliefs. D) traditions. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 15) A number of studies have shown a positive relationship between strengthening spiritual wellbeing and increasing A) physical health. B) financial security. C) self-control. D) blood pressure. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spiritual Well-Being, and Health Learning Outcome: 2a.2

16) Spiritual well-being is A) a feeling of peace and equanimity. B) an active process. C) a belief in a divine being. D) characterized by religiosity. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spiritual Well-Being, and Health Learning Outcome: 2a.2 17) Spiritual well-being contributes to a reduction in A) disputes with others. B) stress levels. C) social support. D) psychological health. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spiritual Well-Being, and Health Learning Outcome: 2a.2 18) Dera belongs to a group of women who meet for brunch on Sundays to talk together about their relationships, values, and the meaning and purpose of their lives. This group would most accurately be characterized as A) a brunch club. B) group therapy. C) a social club. D) a spiritual community. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Mindfulness, Spiritual Well-Being, and Health Learning Outcome: 2a.2 19) Jordan is concerned that his interest in material goods is selfish and does nothing to help others. Which of the following would BEST take Jordan's focus off materialism and encourage altruism? A) enjoying a quiet hour communing with nature B) going out with friends C) volunteering to serve meals at a homeless shelter D) participating in a yoga class Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) In the practice of yoga, physical poses, which can be restful or strenuous, are called A) asanas. B) mantras. C) chakras. D) meditations. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 21) Jill wants to enhance her spiritual well-being. Which of the following practices would be most helpful in accomplishing her goal? A) spending more time studying B) spending more time on social network sites C) joining an on-campus meditation group D) experimenting with hallucinogenic substances Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 22) Which of the following activities slows respiratory rate and blood pressure, and over time changes the structure of the brain? A) meditation B) inhaling pleasing fragrances C) walking briskly for at least 30 minutes D) listening to classical music Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 23) Which of the following is a practice involving meditative movement with roots in Chinese medicine? A) ashtanga yoga B) qi gong C) walking contemplation D) tai chi Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Cultivating Your Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 6 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Ricardo finds that when he tries to relax and enjoy nature by taking a quiet walk, a constant stream of thoughts and worries distracts him. To help him focus on the beauty of his surroundings, Ricardo could use which ancient spiritual practice? A) mindfulness B) meditation C) contemplation D) prayer Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 25) Meditation involves A) praying for divine guidance or aid. B) imagining yourself in a peaceful setting. C) concentration on a point of focus such as a sound, breath, or attention itself. D) progressively tensing then relaxing the muscles. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 26) Studies have shown that experienced meditators have an increased capacity for A) empathy. B) falling asleep. C) analyzing data quickly. D) expanding the lungs. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 27) A single word repeated silently or aloud as part of meditation is a A) mantra. B) jingle. C) symbol. D) name for God. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) During meditation, Madhvi finds that thoughts pop up and distract her. When this happens she should A) stop meditating until she can refocus. B) release the thought and return to meditating. C) realize that she is not well-suited for meditation. D) get up and move around and then try again. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 29) People engage in prayer in order to A) empty the mind and find stillness. B) send wishes of kindness or forgiveness to other people. C) communicate with a transcendent presence or higher power. D) contemplate difficult issues. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 30) Which of the following is an example of altruism? A) volunteering at an animal shelter B) thanking someone who helped you C) being environmentally conscientious D) having faith in a higher power Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 31) Acknowledging your discomfort when, walking on a beach, you notice plastic trash washed up on the shoreline could be viewed as an exercise in A) meditation. B) mindfulness. C) contemplation. D) altruism. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3

32) Listing twenty things you're grateful for is an exercise in A) compassion-meditation. B) nonjudgmental observation. C) contemplation. D) prayer. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 33) Giving of oneself out of genuine concern for others is A) patriotism. B) altruism. C) spirituality. D) stewardship. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 34) Which spiritual practice is Maria engaging in when she takes some quiet time to think about the ethical issues involved in human trafficking? A) prayer B) meditation C) contemplation D) mindfulness Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 35) Nancy practices the hatha style of a form of mind/body training, which emphasizes flexibility and deep breathing. Which type of practice is she engaged in? A) yoga B) tai chi C) qigong D) mindfulness Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3

36) More than 20 percent of the U.S. population is religiously unaffiliated. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 37) Religion and spirituality are synonymous. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 38) Contemplating one's purpose in life is part of developing spiritual well-being. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 39) The three facets of spirituality are relationships, values, and chosen occupation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 40) Claiming to value nature but tossing litter on the side of the road is an example of behavior not following one's declared values. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 41) Older Americans are much more likely than younger Americans to report that spirituality is important. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1

42) Studies have shown a connection between spiritual well-being and both physical and psychological health. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spiritual Well-Being, and Health Learning Outcome: 2a.2 43) Spiritual well-being increases longevity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spiritual Well-Being, and Health Learning Outcome: 2a.2 44) People who exhibit spiritual well-being tend to spend more time on exercise, eating a nutritious diet, and other forms of self-care. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Mindfulness, Spiritual Well-Being, and Health Learning Outcome: 2a.2 45) The term Atman refers to the Hindu god of health. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 46) As compared to hatha yoga, ashtanga yoga is more focused on developing tranquility. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3 47) Identify at least three components of mindfulness. Answer: The components of mindfulness include acceptance of things as they are, nonjudgment, present-moment awareness, nonattachment, openness to experience, compassion, connection, intention, gratitude, and peace and equanimity. Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1

48) Carlita is graduating soon and considering career options. What are some aspects she should consider if she wants her career choice to be in alignment with her values and what she sees as her purpose in life? Answer: She should clarify and articulate her values. She should ask herself what she might like to do that would be aligned with these values, feel meaningful to her, and make a difference in the lives of others. She should then seek a career that is compatible with her values and purpose. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Mindfulness, Spirituality, and Religion Learning Outcome: 2a.1 49) For someone experiencing a terminal illness, why might a holistic approach to care, rather than a strictly medical approach, be helpful? Answer: Answers will vary, but should include some of the following concepts: An approach that fosters spiritual well-being may help improve quality of life in a person who is terminally ill in several ways: by increasing their pain tolerance, pain control, and sleep quality; by fostering feelings of connection and self-compassion; by helping the person connect to their values and beliefs; by decreasing their anxiety and depression; and by increasing their feelings of optimism and hope. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Mindfulness, Spiritual Well-Being, and Health Learning Outcome: 2a.2 50) What are some ways to improve spiritual well-being by training the body? Answer: Certain forms of yoga, especially those that emphasize controlled breathing, chanting, and meditation, have been a part of spiritual practice for centuries and can be practiced today; classes are available at yoga centers and many other fitness locations. The meditative movement technique called tai chi, as well as exercise in general, can energize the body and sharpen mental focus, thus contributing to spiritual well-being. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Cultivating Spiritual Well-Being Learning Outcome: 2a.3

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 3 Managing Stress and Coping with Life's Challenges 1) Which of the following is TRUE about stress? A) Stress is only produced by externally imposed factors and is always negative. B) Stress is a mental and physical response to real or perceived threats to well-being. C) It is possible to eliminate all stressors in our lives if we try hard enough. D) Stress does not affect a person's general health. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 2) A pop quiz in class is an example of A) chronic stress. B) a stressor. C) a frustration. D) eustress. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 3) All of the following are likely to influence your response to stressors EXCEPT A) your past experiences. B) your age. C) your friend's level of stress. D) your general health status. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 4) Which of the following is most likely to cause eustress instead of distress? A) failing a test B) losing your job C) the death of a grandparent D) an impending promotion Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Ken is the new pastor at a local church. He is both nervous and excited about his new post and is looking forward to meeting all the members of his new congregation. This process will take some time and effort, but he is convinced that it will help him learn how to serve them better. Ken's situation is an example of A) distress. B) anticipation. C) eustress. D) reactivity. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 6) An ongoing state of physiological arousal in response to stressors is known as A) acute stress. B) acute episodic stress. C) chronic stress. D) traumatic stress. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 7) In 2020, which of the following U.S. age groups experienced the highest levels of stress? A) Gen Z adults (ages 18 to 23) B) Millennials (ages 24 to 41) C) Gen X adults (ages 42 to 55) D) Boomers (ages 56 to 74) Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 8) By the two-year anniversary of the outbreak of the COVID-19 pandemic, many people worldwide were experiencing A) tangible eustress. B) chronic distress. C) acute distress. D) a stress-related illness known as general adaptation syndrome. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 2 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) David woke up in the middle of the night because he smelled smoke. This most likely caused him to experience A) insomnia. B) the flight-or-fight response. C) allostatic overload. D) the resistance response. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 10) The physiological state in which all body systems are in balance and functioning normally is A) adaptation. B) eustress. C) homeostasis. D) recovery. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 11) Catrina just missed hitting a deer as she was driving along a dark, curving road. She felt her racing heart finally slow down after she pulled off the road and took a few deep breaths. This is an example of a(n) A) challenge. B) adaptive response. C) fight-or-flight response. D) sympathetic nervous system response. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2

12) Hearing a piercing scream late at night while walking on a campus path would likely trigger which phase of the general adaptation syndrome? A) resistance B) exhaustion C) recovery D) alarm Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 13) As Joe prepares to spar with a Taekwondo opponent, his heart rate and respiration rate increase. These are indicators that which branch of the nervous system has been activated? A) parasympathetic B) episodic C) sympathetic D) central Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 14) Which of the following is NOT an indicator that a person's sympathetic nervous system has been activated? A) increased heart rate B) increased respiration C) increased salivation D) increased blood pressure Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 15) The body's attempt to restore homeostasis in the aftermath of a stress response is a(n) ________ response. A) fight-or-flight B) biological C) sympathetic D) adaptive Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) The transactional model of stress and coping proposes that our stress response is determined by A) the nature of the stressor. B) our perception of the stressor, our coping ability, and our environment. C) the precise stressor and our past history of encounters with that stressor. D) our perception of whether or not the stressor poses a threat. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 17) The primary hormone responsible for physiological stress responses such as increased heart and breathing rates is A) epinephrine. B) cortisol. C) thyroxin. D) insulin. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 18) The stress hormone cortisol plays a major role during the stress response in A) increasing heart and respiratory rates. B) decreasing appetite and thirst. C) mobilizing nutrients to meet energy needs. D) relieving pain. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 19) Emily is experiencing an allostatic load due to a dysfunctional relationship, credit card debt, and a challenging course load. Which of the following defines the term allostatic load? A) the long-term wear and tear on the body caused by the stress response B) an excessive response to a stressor C) an ability to improve performance despite increased stress D) a stress-induced inability of the immune system to respond to threats such as infections Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) The immune system's ability to respond to assaults is known as A) immunocompetence. B) adaptation. C) immunity. D) defense. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 21) Julia is extremely upset to discover a suggestive e-mail her boyfriend has sent to another woman. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome applies to this situation? A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) denial Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 22) After Julia discovers a suggestive e-mail her boyfriend sent to another woman, she considers how to confront him about it. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome applies to this situation? A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) denial Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2

23) After weeks of arguments, Riley and Schaeffer break up. They both spend most of the following weekend sleeping, eating, and watching TV. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome are they now in? A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) denial Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 24) As part of the stress response, the hormone that makes stored nutrients available for energy is A) epinephrine. B) cortisol. C) testosterone. D) thyroxine. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 25) Makoto has a disability affecting his movement. Throughout high school, he has been rejected, teased, and bullied. Makoto has been experiencing A) homeostasis. B) adaptive stress. C) minority stress. D) transactional stress. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 26) The part of the brain involved in controlling the body's overall reaction to stress is the A) pituitary gland. B) cerebral cortex. C) frontal lobe. D) hypothalamus. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) The gland that secretes ACTH is the A) adrenal. B) pituitary. C) thyroid. D) thymus. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 28) Cortisol is secreted by the A) adrenal glands. B) pituitary gland. C) thyroid gland. D) thymus. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 29) The anxiety Phoebe experienced before her French test actually sharpened her ability to focus. This response is explained by the A) transactional model of stress and coping. B) Yerkes-Dodson law of arousal. C) general adaptation syndrome. D) theory of resistance. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 30) The sum of exposure to stressors, including complex traumas, is known as A) allostatic load. B) chronic stress. C) cumulative adversity. D) overload. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3

31) Chronic stress has a strong connection to all of the following medical conditions EXCEPT A) migraines. B) heart disease. C) diabetes. D) hearing loss. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 32) As a result of the COVID-19 pandemic, many Americans faced job/work strain, caregiving strain, anxiety, sleeplessness, bereavement, and/or social isolation. Multiple ongoing stressors such as these are particularly associated with an increased risk for A) weight loss. B) genetic disorders. C) cardiovascular disease. D) food poisoning. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 33) Stress has been associated with increased blood pressure and inflammatory responses. These are most closely associated with an increased risk for A) cardiovascular disease. B) blood cancers such as leukemia. C) mood disorders. D) insomnia. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 34) Which of the following situations might contribute to impaired immune function? A) You purchase a new car when you get your first job offer. B) Your grandmother moves in with your family after being hospitalized due to a stroke. C) You begin taking a new weight loss supplement to see faster results. D) You have a fairly calm demeanor and life rarely "stresses you out." Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Mariah is behind on her coursework because of training for the upcoming tryouts for the swim team. On top of that, she broke up with her boyfriend last week. Monica, her twin sister, does not participate on a sports team and has plenty of time to get her homework done before her boyfriend visits most evenings. Compared to Monica, Mariah is likely to experience A) fewer incidences of cold-related symptoms. B) more upper respiratory illness. C) less joint pain. D) better sleep. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 36) Which of the following statements regarding stress and hair loss is NOT true? A) Stress may cause hair to fall out in clumps. B) Stress-related hair loss can occur in both men and women. C) The most common type of stress-induced hair loss is telogen effluvium. D) Stress-induced hair loss occurs when colonies of hair are pushed into an active phase. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 37) Chronic stress increases the risk for diabetes by A) triggering vomiting and diarrhea. B) affecting sleep, eating patterns, alcohol use, and other behavioral factors. C) increasing sugar cravings. D) suppressing appetite. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 38) When acute stress bombards your brain with stress chemicals, A) your risk for relative deprivation increases. B) the hippocampus of your brain may swell. C) you are likely to experience euphoria. D) your memory may be impaired. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Overwhelm Strikes: Threats to Intellectual, Social, and Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 3.4 10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Chronic stress may cause structural degeneration and impaired function of the brain, increasing the risk for all of the following EXCEPT A) depression. B) impaired cognitive functioning. C) meningitis. D) Alzheimer's disease. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: When Overwhelm Strikes: Threats to Intellectual, Social, and Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 3.4 40) Which of the following categories describes the small stressors, frustrations, and petty annoyances that collectively can add up to a higher level of stress? A) adjustments B) hassles C) pressures D) choices Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 41) All of the following examples are ways that conflicts can cause stress EXCEPT A) deciding between partying over spring break or studying. B) holding a job with lots of challenges and high expectations for success. C) trying to satisfy a parent who wants you to major in business when you want to major in anthropology. D) maintaining a peaceful relationship with a roommate who's on the opposite end of the political spectrum. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5

42) Tyler wants to win the trumpet soloist competition this year. His practice time always ends up being the same time his friends are going out to party. Tyler always goes along for the party because he figures he can squeeze in a few minutes of practice somewhere in his schedule. It is competition week and Tyler has come down with a terrible stomach bug. Tyler's illness may be related to A) outward conflict. B) behavior that is inconsistent with his goals. C) a consistent pattern of not eating healthy food. D) overload. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 43) Of the following choices, the source of stress experienced by the greatest percentage of American adults in the year 2020 was A) fear of getting COVID-19. B) the future of the United States. C) the economy. D) work. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 44) During the COVID-19 pandemic, how much time did Americans spend, on average, staring at a digital screen? A) nearly 3 hours a day B) 4 to 6 hours a day C) 7 to 9 hours a day D) more than 10 hours a day Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5

45) Rudy lives behind a train depot. The train runs from 5AM until midnight, and causes significant noise and pollution. Rudy gets quite a few upper respiratory infections, which are likely due to A) a major immune disorder. B) background distressors. C) low-quality housing. D) technostress. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 46) Nathan's piano teacher is insisting that he practice more, while at the same time he is overloaded with assignments in his academic classes, worried about how he's going to make the final payments on this semester's tuition bill, and having trouble sleeping. Nathan is at high risk for A) episodic acute stress. B) posttraumatic stress disorder. C) dementia. D) burnout. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 47) Your roommate just ate the last of your trail mix without asking. Which type of stressor is this? A) pressure B) change C) conflict D) hassle Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5

48) Eleanor comes from a low-income family and struggles to pay for her tuition, room, board, and school supplies. The other students in her major all seem to have no trouble purchasing everything they need, as well as new clothes, meals off campus, concert tickets, and the latest technology. Lately, Eleanor has been struggling with feelings of inferiority, low self-esteem, and doubt that may be due in part to A) discrimination. B) hassles. C) background distressors. D) relative deprivation. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 49) Sachiko is sleep-deprived because she refuses to silence her phone at night and wakes and checks it whenever it sounds. Sachiko is experiencing a form of A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) technology-deprivation phobia. C) technology addiction. D) social media harassment. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 50) The feeling that you are overextended and that it's not possible for you to meet all the demands being placed up on you is known as A) pressure. B) frustration. C) homeostasis. D) overload. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5

51) Which of the following statements about stress and money is TRUE? A) The average U.S. college student graduates with less than $5,000 in debt. B) Nearly 40 percent of American adults report feeling stressed about money. C) More than 50 percent of American adults report feeling that finances control their lives. D) Although a majority of Americans say they worry about money, only about 20 percent of Americans say they are concerned about the U.S. economy. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 52) A sense of being overwhelmed by perceived obligations to stay connected online is A) media stress. B) wikistress. C) technostress. D) cyberstress. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 53) Which of the following is NOT a major stressor among first-semester college students? A) experiencing burnout B) moving away from home C) trying to make new friends D) adjusting to living in shared housing Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5 54) Brian has a history of "road rage" and extreme competitiveness, as well as a high level of distrust and a cynical approach to life. Stress researchers would most likely identify Brian as having what type of personality? A) distressed Type D B) passionate Type B C) thriving Type A D) toxic Type A Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) Luci has worked as a customer service representative for two years. She believes that this job has improved her ability to cope with a variety of stressful situations and is confident in her ability to do so. Luci is exhibiting which of the following personality traits? A) self-efficacy B) Type A C) Type B D) low self-esteem Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 56) Which of the following BEST describes a Type C personality? A) relaxed B) hostile C) stoic D) distressed Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 57) Hakim walked into his house one summer day and discovered that the air conditioning was not working. He did not get upset because the last time this happened, he found a great repair company that was fast and affordable; he also had a couple of fans that he used to keep cool until the AC was restored. Hakim did not experience excessive stress because A) his appraisal of the stressor told him he could cope with it. B) he had a plan in place due to his last experience with the repair company. C) he has low self-esteem and knew he could not fix the AC himself. D) he has a Type A personality. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6

58) Suicidal ideation is significantly associated with A) hostility. B) broken heart syndrome. C) a Type D personality. D) high stress and low self-esteem. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 59) Jake is an excellent student and seems resilient. He is passionate about becoming a pediatrician someday, and perseveres despite a high stress level due to his heavy course load and tight finances. Which of the following traits does Jake demonstrate? A) the typical Type A personality B) the typical Type B personality C) grit D) shifting Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 60) One reason the validity of the Type A personality theory has been debated is that A) the early research had serious methodological flaws. B) most people have either Type A or Type B personalities. C) not all Type A people experience negative health consequences. D) far more people have been found to have Type C or D personality rather than Type A or B. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 61) Which of the following characteristics of a Type A personality have been determined to most increase the risk for heart disease? A) perfectionism B) having a hard-driving approach to tasks and life in general C) competitiveness D) hostility Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 17 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

62) The strategy of reframing appraisals of stressors more positively and working toward future goals is known as A) shift and persist. B) downshifting. C) psychological resilience. D) stress inoculation. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 63) Melanie grew up in extreme poverty, but won a full scholarship to a top liberal arts college. There, her sociology professor, who also comes from a poor family, has been helping Melanie to take a proactive approach to her current stressors and to focus on the future. These strategies are best classified as A) coping and hoping. B) shifting and persisting. C) hardiness and grit. D) self-advocacy and self-efficacy. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 64) Which of the following forms of stress management originated as a form of self-defense? A) yoga B) tai chi C) qigong D) Taekwondo Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 65) Which of the following forms of stress management also improves strength and flexibility? A) yoga B) deep breathing C) biofeedback D) visualization Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

66) Jo has been seeing a stress-management counselor since she moved to a new city to attend college. Which of the following is the most likely recommendation of the counselor? A) Keep reminding yourself that you should be able to handle this. B) Work to maintain healthy relationships with family members and old friends, while also cultivating new sources of social support. C) Drop one of more classes or extracurricular activities to open up more time to relax. D) Treat yourself to a favorite meal or dessert when you're feeling particularly stressed. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 67) After he has an argument with his girlfriend, Ian feels as if he's going to explode. Which of the following is a mind-body technique that would most help him manage this feeling? A) cognitive restructuring B) suppressing his anger C) taking a few stress breaths D) calling his girlfriend and letting himself scream at her Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 68) To replenish vital energy stores, which of the following would be particularly helpful? A) getting more sleep B) taking energy-boosting supplements C) increasing alcohol intake to promote relaxation D) broadening one's social support system Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 69) Stress management consists of A) finding balance and developing coping strategies. B) eliminating all sources of stress. C) learning to juggle as many tasks as possible. D) firmly controlling reactions to stress. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 19 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

70) To manage stress, the first step is to A) control your emotional responses. B) identify three ways you can reduce each of the stressors in your life. C) determine which stressors can be reduced or eliminated. D) identify and assess the stressors in your life. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 71) Jeff knows the midterm chemistry exam is going to be tough. He is trying to prepare for it by taking a practice test every night before he goes out with his buddies. Jeff is A) using the technique of stress inoculation. B) restructuring his thinking patterns. C) increasing his level of stress before the test. D) using alcohol as a coping mechanism to relax. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 72) Downshifting refers to the process of A) using meditation to combat the stress response. B) taking steps to simplify one's life. C) deliberately completing tasks at a slower pace. D) allowing passivity to take over as a result of stress. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 73) Tessa is dreading her chemistry final. When she finds herself thinking that she's going to fail the exam, she tells herself, "No, I might not ace it, but I've been studying and I'm definitely going to pass." Tessa is engaging in a process referred to as A) affirmations. B) meditation. C) cognitive restructuring. D) stress inoculation. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 20 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) Preliminary research suggests that laughter can contribute to all of the following EXCEPT A) decreased stress levels. B) increased levels of oxygen in the blood. C) pain reduction. D) cure cardiovascular disease. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 75) Which of the following is a useful strategy to prevent explosive anger? A) Have a couple of beers and watch TV to take your mind off the issue. B) Avoid all situations that provoke anger. C) Pound on something soft, like a pillow. D) Develop realistic expectations of yourself and others. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 76) Exercise reduces stress primarily by A) suppressing endocrine function. B) raising levels of endorphins and lowering levels of stress hormones. C) providing a therapeutic way to reduce or eliminate pain. D) expanding aerobic capacity. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 77) Eating healthy foods helps in managing stress, A) because they are easier on the digestive system than junk foods. B) especially if they contain sympathomimetics. C) although the precise reasons are not fully understood. D) because food is comforting and eating can distract one from problems. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7

78) Which of the following is a key time-management strategy that can reduce stress? A) Stack your mail in one place and go through it once a week. B) Set clear implementation intentions toward a specific end. C) Multitask. D) Only clean up clutter when you have enough time to get to all of it. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 79) Meditation has been proven effective in managing stress. Which of the following is NOT true about meditation? A) There is only one meditation style that is considered effective. B) Meditation allows the body to relax while the mind is focused. C) Meditation involves some method of calming and focusing the mind. D) Meditation typically involves sitting quietly for 15 to 20 minutes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 80) Which of the following has been recommended as a method for managing stress? A) engaging in demanding or competitive physical activity B) keeping a journal to track your stressors, worries, and options C) practicing dichotomous thinking D) using mind-altering drugs to induce a sense of peace Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 81) You have been a successful doctor of internal medicine for many years. You recently gave up your large practice in the city to join the staff of a small-town clinic where you will work four days a week. Which method are you using to manage stress? A) meditation B) downshifting C) biofeedback D) stress inoculation Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 22 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

82) You have learned how to intentionally slow your heart rate to calm yourself during an exam. Which method are you using to manage stress? A) meditation B) downshifting C) biofeedback D) stress inoculation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 83) All of the following are techniques used in the Chinese art of feng shui EXCEPT A) positioning your bed so that it is not aligned with the door. B) picking up clutter daily. C) coordinating the colors of your walls and your bed linens. D) using sheer curtains that let in as much light as possible. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 84) Stress that results from language barriers, prejudices, and reluctance to seek support in a new environment is most precisely referred to as A) background distress. B) hindrance stress. C) acculturation stress. D) minority stress. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 85) Stress can have positive health effects. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1

86) Acute stress is significant, long-term stress that can produce negative effects on multiple body systems. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 87) Even a full year after a tornado struck their town, community residents were at increased risk for traumatic stress. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 88) In a recent survey, more than 40 percent of college students said that stress was the factor that most affected their academic progress. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 89) The three phases of the general adaptation syndrome are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 90) Women are more likely than men to "tend and befriend" in response to stress. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2 91) People with high levels of stress are less likely to develop upper respiratory infections. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3

92) Stress is thought to be related to an increased risk for type 2 diabetes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 93) Cardiovascular disease has been identified as a health consequence of chronic stress. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 94) Psychoneuroimmunology is the scientific study of the interrelationships of mind and body on the immune system. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 95) A demeaning boss, a highly competitive workplace, and a lack of control over one's work are all examples of challenge stressors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: When Overwhelm Strikes: Threats to Intellectual, Social, and Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 3.4 96) On average, members of the class of 2021 owed more than $37,000 in student loans by the time they graduated from college. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: When Overwhelm Strikes: Threats to Intellectual, Social, and Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 3.4 97) According to a recent survey, relationship concerns are the number-one stressor reported by Americans. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5

98) A personality trait characterized by control, commitment, and the willingness to embrace new challenges is known as psychological hardiness. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 99) Self-efficacy is the same as self-esteem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 100) People who are psychologically resilient tend to perceive that they lack significant social support and understand that they must go it alone. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 101) Deep breathing is a technique used in yoga but not in other mind-body practices. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 102) Massage is relaxing, but research into the health effects of massage therapy is preliminary or conflicting. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 103) Laughter may increase endorphin levels. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7

104) Multitasking is an effective time-management strategy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 105) In the United States, international students are at greater risk of stress-related illness than American students. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7 106) Distinguish between tangible and intangible stressors, and give an example of each. Answer: Answers should include the following information; however, examples will vary. Tangible stressors are specific and actual things or events that induce stress; for example, an illness diagnosis, a failing grade, a phone call from a collection agency, an argument with a loved one, or being passed over for a promotion at work. Intangible stressors are not material or specific and are thus more difficult to identify; for example, living in an environment that favors heterosexuals could be an intangible stressor for an LGBT individual, and the anticipation of trying to find a job after graduation could be an intangible stressor for a college senior. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: What Is Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.1 107) Explain why, according to the Yerkes-Dodson law of arousal, our performance during stressful events can be depicted as a bell-shaped curve. In your answer, use the example of taking a difficult exam. Answer: The Yerkes-Dodson law of arousal states that, as our stress increases to a certain peak level, our performance increases as well. Thus, the moderate stress we feel when taking an exam for which we are well prepared boosts our performance on that exam. However, stress beyond that peak level will cause no further improvement in performance and can cause performance to drop precipitously. Thus, being completely stressed out about an exam can interfere with our ability to think clearly, recall information, and so forth, thereby reducing our performance. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Your Body's Stress Response: What Really Happens? Learning Outcome: 3.2

108) Explain the link between public health recommendations issued in response to the COVID19 pandemic, stress, and weight gain among Americans. Answer: Public health recommendations during the COVID-19 pandemic included stay-athome orders, as well as closure of schools, fitness centers, gyms, skating rinks, and other public places where people typically engage in physical activity. At the same time, increased stress caused many people to engage in stress-related eating and alcohol consumption. These factors together led to weight gain for many Americans. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Physical Effects of Stress Learning Outcome: 3.3 109) Explain what research has indicated about the ways in which stress affects grades. Answer: Stress hormones are thought to impair cognitive functioning, concentration, and memory, affecting the way we think, make decisions, and respond. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: When Overwhelm Strikes: Threats to Intellectual, Social, and Psychological Health Learning Outcome: 3.4 110) Identify at least three of the negative consequences associated with technostress and iDisorders. List at least three strategies to reduce the problems. Answer: Technostress is caused by a dependence on technology and a constant need to be connected via texting or online activity. The negative consequences include reduced energy, sleep disorders, damaged relationships, high levels of anxiety, reduced satisfaction with life, increased risk of suicide, increased maladaptive behaviors, and poor grades. Any number of stress-reduction techniques can help. Suggested answers include at least three of the following: 1. Schedule your technology usage. Set time limits, and stick to them. Remember that you don't always have to answer your phone or respond to a text or e-mail immediately. (Consider screening contacts and only responding at certain times, since there is no need to respond immediately in most situations.) 2. Limit the number of people you interact with online. Unfriend people who post or message you with annoying or offensive messages. 3. Spend more time in face-to-face interactions with people you care about than in scrolling through their Facebook posts. When having a conversation or meal with a friend, put your phone away. 4. Take breaks when working with technology for long periods of time. 5. Leave devices at home or turn them off when out with family or friends, in class, at work, in bed, or on vacation. Diff: 6 Skill: Creating Section: What Causes Stress? Learning Outcome: 3.5

111) When does having a Type A personality increase a person's risk for cardiovascular disease? Answer: When people with Type A personalities have a "toxic core" with a cynical attitude and disproportionate anger, they are considered hostile. This component of Type A increases their risk for CVD. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Individual Factors That Affect Your Stress Response Learning Outcome: 3.6 112) Identify the three main approaches to dealing with anger, and at least three specific strategies that you feel would be effective to keep your anger at bay. Answer: The three main approaches to dealing with anger are to express it, suppress it, and calm it. Of these three, expressing it is considered the most healthful, if done assertively and not aggressively. Strategies to keep anger at bay will vary; however, students should include at least three of the following: Identifying your personal anger style; learning to recognize patterns in your anger responses by keeping track of them throughout one week; exploring ways to calm yourself, such as counting to ten, taking deep breaths, etc.; stating your needs and feelings using "I" statements; planning ahead to minimize exposure to anger-provoking situations such as traffic jams; venting to friends; developing realistic expectations of yourself and others; turning complaints into requests; and letting go of past incidents that caused you anger. Focus on the present moment. Another possible strategy is to take an anger management class. Diff: 6 Skill: Creating Section: Managing Stress in College: Dealing with Overwhelm Learning Outcome: 3.7

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 4 Improving Your Sleep 1) The results from an American College Health Association study indicate that most college students A) get enough sleep to feel well-rested at least six days a week. B) feel tired or sleepy three or more days a week. C) sleep more hours per night than students of their parents' generation. D) sleep an average of only three to four hours per night. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 2) Which of the following is a major contributor to college students' lack of sleep? A) electronic devices B) nighttime physical activity C) eating spicy food D) having to get up early for morning classes Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 3) What percentage of the world's population experiences poor sleep? A) about 25 percent B) about 35 percent C) about 45 percent D) about 55 percent Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 4) Along with nutrition and exercise, sleep is considered a A) social determinant of health. B) pillar of health. C) metabolic risk factor. D) nonmodifiable risk factor. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Sleep deprivation related to COVID-19 is referred to as A) Coronasomnia. B) COVID insomnia. C) COVID-induced sleep deprivation (CISD). D) pandemic-shortened sleep (PSS). Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 6) Using electronic devices before bed may disrupt sleep patterns for all of the following reasons EXCEPT the A) blue light they give off. B) sleep-inducing hormone they suppress. C) beeping sounds they sometimes produce. D) increased stimulation they can cause. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 7) Which of the following statements about the role of gender in sleep is TRUE? A) As compared to women, men are twice as likely to suffer from sleep problems. B) Sleep problems in women are thought to be primarily due to worries about children. C) As compared to women, men are less likely to seek help for sleep problems. D) Testosterone levels rise at night in men, but not in women. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 8) All of the following medications can cause drowsiness EXCEPT A) antihistamines. B) antidepressants. C) muscle relaxants. D) stimulants. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1

9) Carol believes that she sleeps reasonably well at night, yet she feels chronically sluggish and frequently nods off during classes. Carol is most likely experiencing A) insomnia. B) excessive daytime sleepiness. C) clinical depression. D) secondary somnolence. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 10) According to research, the risk for obesity is increased in adolescents who A) exercise 3 or more hours before bedtime. B) watch video games at night. C) get 8 or more hours of sleep a night. D) are short sleepers. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 11) When Marlon gets adequate sleep the night before his intramural basketball games, he has more energy and can run faster and perform better. This can be attributed to A) cognitive ability being restored during sleep. B) increased body temperature and caloric expenditure during sleep. C) increased brain activity during sleep. D) conservation of body energy during sleep. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 12) Adequate sleep may enhance intellectual health in all the following ways EXCEPT by A) clearing the brain of daily minutia. B) synthesizing learning. C) consolidating memories. D) expending energy. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2

13) After working on a class project all week and only sleeping about four hours per night, Courtney is A) compromising her immunity. B) improving her productivity. C) getting an adequate amount of sleep for her body needs. D) increasing her ability to handle sleep deprivation. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 14) Sleep-deprived individuals may be at greater risk of overweight and obesity because A) sleeping less is associated with smoking more. B) sleeping less is associated with eating more. C) sleeping less is associated with exercising more. D) sleeping less is associated with earning more. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 15) Throughout the semester, Juan has been staying up well past midnight studying and getting up before dawn to be on time for his opening shift at a campus café. According to research, this strategy will likely result in A) improved attention and retention. B) reduced cognitive ability. C) increased short-term memory. D) a higher grade in his courses. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 16) How does adequate sleep improve an individual's driving? A) It increases the driver's hunger. B) It has a restorative effect on motor tasks. C) It reduces the metabolism of caffeine. D) It reduces testosterone levels and thereby reduces aggressive driving. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) Some researchers believe that chronic sleep deficiencies can A) regulate blood glucose levels. B) increase testicular size. C) increase sperm motility. D) increase the risk for type 2 diabetes. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 18) Chronic short sleep A) increases risk for stroke. B) disrupts cholesterol metabolism. C) decreases tobacco use. D) decreases blood pressure. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 19) Two parts of your brain that are critical to regulating circadian rhythm are the hypothalamus and the A) pineal body. B) amygdala. C) cerebellum. D) brain stem. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 20) REM sleep is named for which physiological activity that occurs while dreaming? A) raised and elevated melatonin B) rapidly energized metabolism C) rapid eye movements D) restless energized movements Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

21) The disruption of which factor results in jet lag? A) blood pressure B) natural light C) circadian rhythm D) blood glucose level Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 22) The hormone released by the pineal gland that causes drowsiness is A) growth hormone. B) melatonin. C) melanin. D) insulin. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 23) During REM sleep A) the body moves around a lot. B) the brain processes and consolidates information. C) body temperature drops. D) muscles contract and relax. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 24) Students who begin to doze off during a lecture are usually in which stage of sleep? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

25) During NREM sleep A) heart rate increases. B) digestive processes come to a halt. C) vivid dreams occur. D) body temperature and energy use drop. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 26) During which stage of sleep does a person disengage from the environment? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 27) During stage 4, a sleeping person's pituitary gland releases which of the following hormones? A) melatonin B) melanin C) insulin D) growth hormone Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 28) NREM sleep is called slow-wave sleep because during this stage A) there is slow eye movement. B) brain-wave activity is similar to that of wakefulness. C) the brain generates theta and delta waves. D) dreams occur. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

29) Cosimo normally sleeps 7 hours a night. Lately, worry about his finances has caused him to lose sleep. For the last ten days, he has been averaging just 5 hours of sleep a night. What is his current sleep debt? A) 5 hours B) 10 hours C) 15 hours D) 20 hours Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 30) Because of her job, Jessica sleeps 5 to 6 hours per night on weekends. Which of the following is the BEST strategy for her to resolve her sleep debt? A) She can't make up for her lost sleep. B) She can sleep 12 hours on Monday nights. C) She can readjust her circadian rhythm by sleeping 5 to 6 hours every night. D) She can sleep 8 to 9 hours per night Monday through Friday. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 31) By some estimates, it may take how many days of normal sleep to make up for 1 hour of lost sleep? A) one B) two C) four D) seven Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

32) Sean becomes very sleepy by late afternoon most days and thinks he should make time to fit in a nap. Before including a daily nap in his schedule, he should consider which of the following to ensure that he actually benefits from it? A) the time of day and length of the nap B) his need for caffeine in the afternoon C) his accumulated sleep debt D) his body weight and tendency to snore Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 33) Sleepwalking sometimes occurs during A) NREM stage 4. B) NREM stage 3. C) NREM stage 2. D) NREM stage 1. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 34) When you feel groggy and disoriented after a long nap, you are experiencing A) sleep apnea. B) narcolepsy. C) insomnia. D) sleep inertia. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 35) Light traveling through the retina of the eye is a key factor in the regulation of A) dreams. B) metabolism. C) melatonin. D) stage 1 sleep. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

36) The restful, restorative period of sleep is A) NREM sleep. B) REM sleep. C) alternating-wave sleep. D) rapid-wave sleep. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 37) Howard is 88 years old and in excellent health. All his life, he has thrived on just 5 hours of sleep a night. The most likely explanation for Howard's good health despite his lifelong shortsleep habit is that he A) has a unipolar mood disorder that decreases his sleep needs. B) has a genetic variant making him a natural short sleeper. C) drinks four or more caffeinated beverages per day. D) is inaccurate in recalling how much sleep he gets. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 38) The difference between hours of sleep needed and actual hours slept is A) sleep ratio. B) sleep debt. C) sleep pattern. D) sleep inertia. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 39) Which region of the brain keeps you immobilized during REM sleep? A) pineal body B) hypothalamus C) pons D) pituitary gland Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

40) Sleep disorders can be diagnosed through a(n) A) clinical sleep study. B) physical exam and blood tests. C) survey of sleep habits. D) evaluation of all daily activities. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 41) The most common sleep complaint is A) narcolepsy. B) insomnia. C) sleep apnea. D) sleepwalking. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 42) Maria typically tosses and turns for an hour or two before falling asleep, and many mornings she wakes feeling unrefreshed. Maria most likely has A) sleep apnea. B) hypersomnolence. C) restless legs syndrome. D) insomnia. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 43) Insomnia is often characterized by A) chronic joint pain upon lying down. B) waking up frequently during the night. C) temporary lapses in breathing while asleep. D) nightmares. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4

44) Justin often engages in binge drinking on the weekends. This behavior puts him at risk for a dangerous sleep disorder in which the brain and the respiratory muscles do not communicate properly. It's known as A) central sleep apnea. B) obstructive sleep apnea. C) narcolepsy. D) delta sleep. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 45) Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) commonly results in A) reduced snoring. B) frequent night waking. C) deep breathing. D) restful sleep. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 46) Zack was diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). His doctor may include diet and exercise as part of his treatment regimen because A) greater physical endurance will help in fighting his condition. B) losing weight will decrease his risk of developing central sleep apnea. C) losing weight may reduce his OSA symptoms. D) he will have more energy during the day to combat his usual sleepiness. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 47) Obstructive sleep apnea increases a person's risk for all of the following EXCEPT A) high blood pressure. B) stroke. C) irregular heartbeats. D) asthma. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) While watching television in the evenings, as well as when trying to sleep, Ronald experiences burning sensations in his legs and an uncontrollable urge to get up and move. He is most likely experiencing A) Parkinson's disease. B) restless legs syndrome. C) peripheral neuropathy. D) narcolepsy. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 49) One factor thought to play a role in narcolepsy appears to be A) viral. B) genetic. C) bacterial. D) environmental. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 50) Anabelle has been having trouble getting off to sleep. She visits a therapist who teaches her a variety of strategies such as thought blocking, refocusing, and meditation, which help Annabelle fall asleep more quickly. This therapist is most likely using a therapy known as A) cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia. B) interpersonal therapy for improved sleep. C) psychoanalytic sleep therapy. D) rapid eye movement therapy. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 51) The condition that causes people to fall asleep involuntarily during the day is A) sleep apnea. B) narcolepsy. C) insomnia. D) sleep inertia. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) The sleep disorder in which breathing is interrupted many times during sleep is A) sleep apnea. B) narcolepsy. C) insomnia. D) sleep inertia. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 53) André has a job in international affairs that requires him to travel frequently across multiple time zones. André is at increased risk for A) sleepwalking. B) night terrors. C) narcolepsy. D) circadian rhythm disorder. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 54) During a sleep study, a person spends the night in a sleep lab, and his or her body functions are monitored by A) full-time sleep specialists. B) nurses on the night shift. C) sensors and electrodes. D) imaging equipment. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 55) The American Academy of Sleep Medicine identifies more than 80 distinct types of A) hypersomnia. B) insomnia. C) dyssomnia. D) sleep apnea. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

56) The most commonly prescribed therapy for obstructive sleep apnea is A) a prescription sedative. B) continuous positive airway pressure. C) an implantable upper airway stimulator. D) surgical removal of tissue in the upper airway. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 57) Bedwetting, snoring, sleepwalking, and sleep-related eating disorder are all examples of A) parasomnias. B) major somnipathies. C) disorders of sleep hygiene. D) REM sleep disorders. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 58) Which of the following statements about caffeine is TRUE? A) Although caffeine is widely thought to increase alertness, it does not actually have this effect. B) Coffee accounts for more than 75 percent of caffeine consumption in the world, with tea a distant second. C) A cup of drip coffee and a double espresso have about the same amount of caffeine. D) Half the amount of caffeine in a cup of coffee will still be in the body 3 to 5 hours later. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 59) All of the following negatively affect the quality of sleep EXCEPT A) getting lots of exercise during the day. B) drinking alcohol at night. C) drinking caffeine at night. D) needing to get out of bed to go to the bathroom. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5

60) What role does exposure to sunlight during the day play in improving sleep? A) It prevents depression. B) It helps a person absorb vitamins. C) It helps to regulate the sleep-wake cycle. D) It discourages napping during the day. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 61) Which of the following is TRUE about the effect of exercise on your quality of sleep? A) Exercising strenuously in the morning or afternoon boosts sleep quality. B) Exercising strenuously heats up your body and thereby helps you to fall asleep. C) Exercising a couple of hours before sleep improves sleep more than exercising in the morning. D) Aerobic exercise improves sleep more than aerobic exercise combined with stretching. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 62) Vijay often tosses and turns, unable to sleep for an hour or more after he goes to bed. Which of the following will help change this pattern and allow him to fall asleep faster? A) getting out of bed, exercising vigorously, and taking a warm shower B) staying in bed and checking the clock every 15 minutes C) staying in bed and using his laptop to check out his friends' Facebook updates D) getting up after 20 minutes and doing something relaxing until he feels sleepy Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 63) Gene occasionally has difficulty falling asleep but has never been diagnosed with a sleep disorder. Which strategy can he use to help him fall asleep faster? A) working on the computer later in the evening to keep his mind occupied B) eating his largest meal within two hours of bedtime so he won't be hungry C) practicing deep breathing or meditation before bedtime D) drinking a lot of fluids in the evening to stay hydrated Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 16 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

64) Which of the following actions helps maintain a sleep-promoting environment? A) Warmth: Set the thermostat in your bedroom to 68-70 degrees Fahrenheit. B) Light: Keep the bedroom brightly lit until you are ready to go to sleep. C) Cleanliness: Wash your sheets and other bedding regularly, and get rid of clutter. D) Comfort: Keep your cell phone, TV, laptop, and/or other devices by your bed so that you know you can reach them easily should you need them. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 65) Which of the following statements about the amino acid tryptophan is TRUE? A) Foods high in tryptophan are associated with poor sleep. B) Peanut butter, bananas, milk, yogurt, and eggs are among the foods high in tryptophan. C) Foods high in tryptophan should not be eaten on an empty stomach. D) A meal containing foods high in tyramine and low in tryptophan should be eaten within an hour of bedtime to encourage sleep. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 66) Short-term sleep loss can actually cause loss of some brain cells. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 67) Somnolence is a synonym for sleep deprivation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 68) Short sleep has been linked to seven of the fifteen leading causes of death in the United States. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1

69) Chronic sleep loss in males can reduce sperm count. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 70) Sleep helps the body to conserve energy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 71) Getting enough sleep may reduce a person's susceptibility to colds. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 72) Short-duration sleep lowers a person's risk for cardiovascular disease. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 73) A sleep-deprived driver is as impaired as an intoxicated driver. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 74) Jet lag occurs because travelers take frequent naps while flying. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

75) The majority of nighttime sleep is spent in REM sleep. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 76) The longer you sleep, the more time you spend in REM sleep. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 77) REM sleep restores the body. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 78) During NREM sleep, body temperature and energy use drop. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 79) At the moment you wake up, you are most likely to be in stage 4 NREM sleep. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 80) Some scientists believe that REM sleep enhances memorization and learning. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

81) Most adults need only 5 to 6 hours of sleep per night, provided it is high-quality sleep. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 82) Jane stayed up all night taking care of her sick child. She will need to sleep more than average the next few nights to make up for the hours of lost sleep. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 83) Naps are most effective for improving alertness if they are longer than 30 minutes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 84) The only reliable treatment for insomnia is prescription sleeping pills. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 85) Cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia can help people having trouble falling asleep. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 86) Apnea is a pause in breathing that lasts at least 3 seconds. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4

87) Restless leg syndrome is an extremely rare disorder, affecting less than 0.5 percent of the U.S. population. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 88) Night terrors most often occur during REM sleep. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 89) Using melatonin before bedtime increases sleep duration by an average of about 30 minutes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 90) Sexual impairment is a common side effect of many sleep medications. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 91) Sleep hygiene includes activities such as washing your sheets, clearing clutter from your bedroom, and otherwise cleaning your sleeping area. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 92) Nicotine and alcohol improve sleep by inducing relaxation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5

93) Having to get up frequently during the night to urinate is known as nocturia. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 94) Seasonal affective disorder is much more common in the summer than in the winter. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 95) Explain the risk between shift work and an increased risk for unintentional injury. Answer: Work shifts that change frequently or include night shifts can disrupt circadian rhythms and lead to insomnia. This in turn increases the risk for on-the-job errors that could result in unintentional injury, as well as drowsy driving either to or from work. Shift workers have a higher risk of motor vehicle crashes in the 30 minutes after they get off their shift. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1 96) Identify at least three steps you can take to reduce your risk for drowsy driving. Answer: Students should identify three or more of the following: • Avoid driving if you have had less than seven hours of sleep the previous night. • Drive at times of day when you know you are most awake. • If you have to drive near or after midnight on a Saturday night, stay hypervigilant. • Don't drink and drive, especially if you are already tired. • On long journeys, share the driving or stop and nap every two hours. • Drive a car with safety features such as drowsy-driver alerts. • Don't rely on caffeine or other stimulants to keep you alert. They take time to have an effect and are not effective in everyone. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sleepless in America Learning Outcome: 4.1

97) Ty works two jobs and attends college part-time. He averages 5 hours of sleep per night most nights of the week. What are the health risks of his sleep deprivation? Answer: Sleep deficiency affects the immune system, leaving a person more vulnerable to infectious and inflammatory diseases. It increases the risk of high blood pressure and cardiovascular disease. It also slows metabolism and raises the risk of overweight and obesity, as well as sleep apnea, all of which in turn increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Sleep is also important for neurological functioning, motor tasks, including driving, and stress management. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Importance of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 98) Tracy pulls "all-nighters" during finals week. Explain why this could negatively impact her grades, including information on the role of REM sleep. Answer: Restricting sleep can cause neurological problems. Tracy may have lapses of attention, slowed or poor memory, reduced cognitive ability, difficulty concentrating, and difficulty engaging in creative thinking. Moreover, the longer you sleep, the more REM sleep you get, and REM sleep stabilizes consolidated memory; thus, with less REM sleep, short-term memory may suffer. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Importance of Sleep and The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.2 and 4.3 99) Explain the four stages of NREM sleep. Answer: Stage 1 is the lightest stage of sleep. It lasts only a few minutes. Your brain begins to produce slow brain waves called theta waves. Stage 2 is deeper than stage 1. Your eyes close, your body movements slow, and you disengage from your environment. Stages 3 and 4 are deltawave sleep. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration slow. These are the deepest stages. Growth hormone is released during stage 4, and sometimes people sleepwalk, cook, clean, or even drive in this stage, particularly if they are taking sleep medications. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3

100) Evgeniya thrives on 7 hours of sleep, but got only 5 hours on Thursday and Friday nights. Now it's the weekend. Identify at least two sensible ways they could try to catch up on their sleep. Answer: Evgeniya could take a 20-minute nap both Saturday and Sunday afternoons. They could go to bed a little earlier than they normally do on both Saturday and Sunday night. They could sleep in on both Saturday and Sunday mornings–getting up no more than 2 hours later than they normally do. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Processes of Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.3 101) Explain the increased risk of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) seen in people who are significantly overweight. Answer: OSA occurs when a person's throat muscles and tongue relax during sleep and block the airway. People who are overweight are more likely to have sagging tissue within the throat, increasing their risk for OSA. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sleep Disorders Learning Outcome: 4.4 102) Identify at least three steps you can take to evoke the relaxation response as you prepare yourself for sleep. Answer: Focus on something calming, such as words like quiet or relax, or an imaginary scene that is peaceful. Slowly release tension from the muscles in your body one area at a time. Hold a nonjudgmental world view. Relax and try to experience the present moment. Instead of trying to think of ways to fix others or situations, let them be. Trust yourself. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5 103) How might journaling before bedtime help improve your sleep? Answer: If you find yourself struggling to quiet unpleasant thoughts–such as anger, anxiety, or sadness–as you're trying to sleep, pulling out your journal and writing about the feelings can help get them out of your head and enable you to set them aside for the night. Promising yourself that you'll explore the thoughts and feelings more deeply the next day can also help you let go. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Getting a Good Night's Sleep Learning Outcome: 4.5

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 5 Preventing Violence and Injury 1) The World Health Organization defines violence as A) injuries caused accidentally without intent to harm. B) a repeated implied or verbal threat against another person. C) a premeditated crime against another person, usually involving a weapon. D) the intentional use of physical force or power against oneself or another person or group. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 2) Assault, homicide, and suicide are all examples of A) intentional injuries. B) unintentional injuries. C) reported injuries. D) criminal acts. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 3) Violet suffered multiple fractures after her car was hit by a truck driven by a drowsy driver on his way home from a night shift. Violet experienced A) primary aggression. B) unintentional injury. C) crime. D) violence. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1

4) Which of the following statements about crime in the United States is TRUE? A) Overall, violent crime has been increasing steadily over the past thirty years. B) Most violent crimes are reported to police, and most crimes that are reported are solved. C) During the first six months of 2020, while the COVID-19 pandemic spread throughout the United States, rates of rape, burglary, and robbery decreased. D) The wealthier you are, the more likely you are to be the victim of violent crime. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 5) Which of the following statements about campus violence is TRUE? A) Only about half of all rapes on campus are ever reported to authorities. B) Mass shootings are the most prevalent form of violence on college campuses. C) More male than female college students report having been stalked. D) Almost as many college males as females report having been in a physically abusive relationship. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 6) Social and cultural factors that increase the likelihood of violence include all of the following EXCEPT A) poverty. B) inadequate social services. C) social support. D) political differences. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 7) Societal factors contributing to violence include A) wealth disparities. B) alcohol abuse. C) empowerment of women. D) participation in contact sports. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 2 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Breakdowns in the criminal justice system contribute to violence when A) there are too many prisons. B) sentences in various jurisdictions range from lenient to excessive. C) prisoners serve their full sentences and complete training programs while incarcerated. D) prisons are overcrowded and mental health services are inadequate. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 9) Which of the following is TRUE about primary aggression? A) It will not result in the bodily harm of others. B) It is goal-directed, hostile self-assertion that is destructive in nature. C) It results from frustration with minor, daily life experiences. D) Aggressive behavior does not necessarily result in violent interactions. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 10) A tendency toward aggressive behavior may be A) simply a mood that will pass. B) both neurobiological and environmental. C) a learned response to over-protective parenting. D) a trait of emotionally mature people. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 11) Which of the following is TRUE about reactive aggression? A) It is most often an emotional reaction to frustrating life experiences. B) It is a goal-directed, hostile form of self-assertion. C) It is defined as occasional or rare behavior. D) It is often related to substance abuse. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2

12) Research examining the relationship between substance abuse and violence indicates that A) chronic drinkers are less likely than others to have histories of violent behavior. B) alcohol consumption is a major factor in domestic violence at all levels. C) substance abuse can elevate a person's mood and thereby prevent a potential crime. D) substance abuse markedly decreases the risk of both homicide and suicide. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 13) James lost his job and was unable to pay his rent. His frustration built to the point that he initiated a physical fight with a friend. James is displaying A) primary aggression. B) reactive aggression. C) spontaneous rage. D) negativity. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 14) Which of the following statements about media and violence is TRUE? A) Today's young people have been exposed to less media violence than the previous generation, yet their rates of violent crime have skyrocketed. B) Research has demonstrated overwhelmingly that spending excessive time online instead of in face-to-face communication increases the risk for violent crime. C) There is no reliable research evidence supporting a link between playing violent games and increased risk of aggression. D) Research has not demonstrated a clear link between exposure to violent media and a propensity to engage in violent acts. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2

15) Which of the following is TRUE regarding homicides in the United States? A) Homicides rates decreased more than 10 percent in the United States during the first six months of the COVID-19 pandemic. B) Homicides are among the five leading causes of death for persons aged 1 to 44. C) Homicides are typically a case of a person of one race acting against a person of another. D) More than 90 percent of all homicides occur among people who know one another. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 16) Which of the following would NOT be considered a hate crime? A) beating up a teenager because she is Hispanic B) burning a church for reasons of religious bias C) assaulting a person because of his sexual orientation D) shooting a bank employee during an armed robbery Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 17) Of the following, which factor is NOT a reason people become involved in gangs? A) for companionship B) to get away from controlling parents C) for excitement D) to gain greater financial security Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 18) The term terrorism is correctly applied to situations in which A) workers organize for political and economic rights. B) one country attacks another in a state of war. C) students demonstrate in the streets against their government. D) violence is used to achieve political aims. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3

19) A bias-motivated crime is A) a hate crime. B) intimate partner abuse. C) a crime committed by a stranger. D) a crime that was not reported to the police. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 20) A woman often remains a victim of intimate partner violence because A) she fears retaliation against herself or her children. B) she is financially independent. C) she believes the situation will never change. D) her cultural or religious beliefs allow divorce. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 21) Sexism that causes injustice in the workplace is an example of A) structural violence. B) ethnoviolence. C) a hate crime. D) retaliatory violence. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 22) Which of the following is TRUE about the cycle of intimate partner violence? A) In the remorse/reconciliation phase, the batterer tries to teach the partner a lesson by inflicting severe pain. B) During the acute attack, the abuser typically harms him- or herself as well. C) The cycle involves a tension-building phase during which the worst battering occurs. D) Women who have experienced the cycle more than once tend to develop battered woman syndrome. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3

23) Which of the following statements about gun violence in the United States is TRUE? A) Guns are second to knives as the weapon most frequently used in attacks on American campuses. B) Allowing guns in student housing does not appear to influence the rate of homicides, suicides, or gun injuries. C) The presence of a gun in the home doubles the risk of suicide in that location. D) More than half of all deaths due to gun violence in 2020 were suicides. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 24) A factor commonly seen in women who become victims of intimate partner violence is A) a higher income than their abuser. B) social isolation. C) a higher level of education than their abuser. D) infertility. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 25) Allen visits his aunt every month the day after her Social Security check arrives and badgers her until she writes him a check for $100. This is an example of A) intimate partner violence. B) a bias-motivated crime. C) neglect. D) elder abuse. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 26) Vivienne is seven years old. Her parents fail to send her to school and do not homeschool her. This is an example of A) physical abuse. B) neglect. C) family discipline. D) domestic violence. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) Violence directed at others and based on prejudice and discrimination is A) bias. B) harassment. C) ethnoviolence. D) assault. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 28) The use of force to control and maintain power over another person in the home environment is A) domestic violence. B) spousal violence. C) intentional violence. D) intimate partner violence. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 29) What is a common reason that victims of elder abuse do not report it? A) They believe the abuse will stop once their health improves. B) They are convinced that no one will believe them. C) They want the caregiver to admit to the abuse first. D) They are afraid that the abuser will retaliate by putting them in a nursing home or increasing the abuse. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 30) Violence that occurs between two people in a current or former marriage or sexual or dating relationship is A) domestic violence. B) spousal violence. C) intentional violence. D) intimate partner violence. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) Which of the following is TRUE about intimate partner violence? A) Homicide by a current or former intimate partner is the leading cause of death among pregnant women in the United States. B) Intimate partner violence includes violence between parent and child. C) Victims of intimate partner violence commonly report the crime. D) Battered woman syndrome is considered to be a type of generalized anxiety disorder. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 32) Violence against people or property that is rooted in political or social objectives and intended to intimidate is A) aggression. B) violence. C) stalking. D) terrorism. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 33) Which phase of the cycle of violence includes physical acts intended to inflict pain? A) acute battering B) tension building C) remorse/reconciliation D) retaliation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 34) Which phase of the cycle of violence is called the "honeymoon period" because the batterer may act apologetic and promise to change? A) acute battering B) tension building C) remorse/reconciliation D) retaliation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Which phase of the cycle of violence is typically characterized by anger, abusive language, and psychological aggression? A) acute battering B) tension building C) remorse/reconciliation D) retaliation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 36) The Russian hacking of polling software during the 2016 U.S. elections is an example of A) ethnoviolence. B) cybercrime. C) terrorism. D) bias crime. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 37) An act that causes harm or potential harm to a child is A) assault. B) child abuse. C) neglect. D) abandonment. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 38) Which of the following statements about guns on American campuses is TRUE? A) No U.S. state currently allows guns inside of campus buildings. B) National surveys indicate that a majority of college faculty, staff, and students support concealed carry on campuses. C) Eleven states permit concealed carry on college campuses. D) The most common inciting incident for campus gun violence is receiving a failing grade from an instructor. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Pearl confides that, at a frat party, a fraternity member she was acquainted with forced her to have sex. She did not consent. This is an example of A) abuse. B) sexual assault. C) intimate partner violence. D) aggravated rape. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 40) Which of the following is TRUE about the term acquaintance rape? A) It is synonymous with the term simple rape. B) It is not used for rapes involving incidental contact at a party. C) It is used only when the victim has known the perpetrator for a length of time. D) It has largely replaced the term date rape. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 41) Which of the following is TRUE about marital rape? A) In all U.S. states, it is considered a misdemeanor, not a crime. B) By definition, the perpetrator and victim are spouses. C) It is less likely to occur in households where one or more members engage in substance abuse. D) It is thought to be underreported. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 42) Sexual penetration without the victim's consent constitutes A) sexual harassment. B) aggravated rape. C) sexual assault. D) rape. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) Children who have experienced sexual abuse are at increased risk for A) depression, but not anxiety disorders. B) anxiety disorders, but not depression. C) anxiety disorders, depression, and suicide attempts. D) sleepwalking. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 44) Rape that involves a stranger is classified as A) sexual harassment. B) aggravated rape. C) sexual assault. D) simple rape. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 45) State "YES means YES" policies allow that A) saying "yes" to sexual activity does not constitute consent if the individual was intoxicated at the time. B) using the precise word "yes" by definition constitutes consent to engage in sexual activity. C) defendants cannot be found guilty of rape if the alleged victim said "yes." D) people who were intoxicated during an alleged assault must have a corroborating witness before bringing charges. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 46) Unwanted sexual attention from an instructor to one of their students would be considered A) sexual harassment. B) stalking. C) sexual assault. D) coercive control. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4

47) Your friend confides that her coworker is always making sexually explicit comments to her and telling lewd jokes. You explain to her that this is A) sexual assault. B) sexual coercion. C) sexual harassment. D) sexual invasion. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 48) Which of the following is TRUE about stalking? A) It can occur online. B) Males are almost never victims of stalking. C) Typically, the victim does not know the perpetrator. D) College students are less likely to be stalked than adults not in college. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 49) A 2020 survey of students at 33 colleges and universities found that A) men are sexually assaulted at higher rates than women. B) about one in ten stalkers are the victim's previous partner. C) students overall are reluctant to report sexual assault. D) nearly 25 percent of undergraduates have been sexually harassed by other students. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 50) Jane is being harassed by a coworker. You should tell her to A) ignore the person. B) tell her boss. C) confront the person when alone. D) find a way to take revenge on the coworker. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4

51) There have been recent reports of date rape drugs being used at campus parties. What should female students do to protect themselves from being the victim of drug-facilitated crimes? A) Always attend and leave parties alone. B) Don't trust their intuition. C) Don't accept open or unsealed drinks and don't leave drinks unattended. D) Only attend parties given by friends; do not party at a bar or club. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 52) Which of the following is a social contributor to sexual violence? A) overdramatization of the situation B) showing compassion for victims C) blaming the victim D) women sharing in the planning and cost of dates Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 53) The willful, repeated, and malicious following, harassing, or threatening of another person is A) aggression. B) violence. C) stalking. D) terrorism. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 54) Which of the following requires institutions of higher education to collect and report data about sexual crimes on their campuses? A) Campus Violence Elimination Act B) Ramstad Act C) Clery Act D) "It's on Us" program Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4

55) Which of the following statements about child sexual abuse in the United States is TRUE? A) Children are much more likely to be sexually abused by strangers than by family members. B) An estimated one in four girls and one in six boys is sexually abused before age 18. C) People with a history of child sexual abuse are no more likely than others to experience anxiety and depression. D) Girls who have been sexually abused have ten times the rate of teen pregnancy as girls who have not. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 56) A key defense against assault when you're outside alone is to A) talk on your cell phone. B) stay aware of your surroundings. C) take shortcuts so you can stay away from other people. D) keep your head down and avoid eye contact. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5 57) Successful community strategies for preventing violence include all of the following EXCEPT A) helping community members develop self-esteem. B) improving community-based support and treatment for victims. C) promoting tolerance and acceptance. D) discouraging family planning programs. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5 58) A growing risk of violent incidents on college campuses has caused colleges to respond by A) enacting more restrictive admissions policies. B) implementing new prevention and emergency response strategies. C) doing more extensive background checks on students and faculty. D) decreasing ways to notify students and faculty of immediate risk. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5 15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

59) On many campuses, law enforcement officers now have A) increased authority to carry weapons. B) been relieved of the responsibility for emergency responses. C) the ability to determine students' locations immediately after receiving notification that they are under threat. D) the ability to enforce laws in classrooms but not in student living quarters. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5 60) A common ploy used by rapists is to A) pose as a friend or co-worker. B) pose as a repair person. C) engage in an initial e-mail exchange. D) offer to purchase an expensive item for the victim. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5 61) If someone you know has been raped, one of the most important steps to take is to A) ask him or her to tell you what led to the assault. B) help him or her wash up and change clothes. C) encourage him or her to see a doctor immediately. D) go with him or her to confront the perpetrator. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5 62) Doing some type of activity, such as texting or eating, while driving can cause accidents and is known as A) risky driving. B) careless driving. C) impaired driving. D) distracted driving. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6

63) Driving while drowsy is a form of A) risky driving. B) careless driving. C) impaired driving. D) distracted driving. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 64) Which of the following statements about road safety is TRUE? A) Alcohol plays a significant role in bicycle fatalities. B) You should avoid driving with your headlights on during daylight hours. C) While driving, never change lanes. D) Bicyclists should ride against the flow of traffic. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 65) Which of the following was the leading factor in the 658 boating fatalities that occurred in 2018? A) alcohol consumption B) operator overconfidence C) failure to check the weather before setting out D) mechanical failure Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 66) The leading cause of impaired driving in the United States is A) distractions. B) drowsiness. C) prescription drug abuse. D) alcohol abuse. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6

67) What two factors contributed to a majority of fires in 2019? A) cigarette smoking and alcohol B) missing or disconnected smoke alarms and alcohol C) missing or disconnected smoke alarms and use of candles D) cigarette smoking and missing or nonfunctioning fire extinguishers Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 68) Which of the following statements about falls is TRUE? A) Falls are the third most common cause of death in the United States. B) Fatal falls occur most commonly among children under age 12. C) Falls are a common cause of serious injuries resulting in hip fracture. D) In 2019, 3,943 people in the United States died from injuries sustained during a fall. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 69) Bernard is a strong swimmer, so it's fine for him to A) have a beer before he goes for a swim. B) swim alone. C) swim in a river with a strong, swift current. D) swim parallel to shore in a rip current. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 70) Cecily occasionally sends a "quick text" while driving. All of the following are true EXCEPT A) Cecily's texting is against the law in 48 out of 50 states. B) Cecily's texting is more dangerous than drunk driving. C) Cecily's "quick text" is estimated to take her eyes off the road for long enough—at 55 miles per hour—to cross a tennis court. D) Cecily's texting is considered a form of impaired driving. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6

71) Experts in violence and injury tend to categorize injuries resulting from violence as either intentional or accidental. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 72) Emotional and psychological violence can cause as much harm as physical blows or injuries. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 73) An unintentional injury is an injury that occurs because of a variety of circumstances, without a deliberate intent to inflict harm. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 74) In the United States, there are huge disparities in crime rates based on sex, socioeconomic status, and race/ethnicity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 75) A thorough review of the research supports the conclusion that the media are to blame for the perpetuation of violence in our society. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 76) Differences in political beliefs do not appear to be a factor that contributes to violence. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2

77) Aggression is more likely to occur during times of acute stress. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 78) Substance abuse decreases the risk of both homicide and suicide. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 79) Hate crimes sometimes occur because the perpetrator is retaliating for a perceived insult, unfairness, or slight. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 80) There is a strong association between abuse of pets and abuse of family members. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 81) A threat to lock up a health care system's computer network unless a ransom is paid is an example of a cybercrime. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 82) Sexual harassment is carried out only by people who are in positions of power. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4

83) Sexual jokes, suggestive comments, and sexual innuendo are forms of sexual harassment. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 84) Child sexual abuse occurs in as many as 2 out of every 100 children. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 85) In most cases, the perpetrators of child abuse are members of the child's family. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 86) Women in cultures characterized by male dominance are at greater than average risk of marital rape. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4 87) If you return home to find that your residence has been broken into, you should check every room to see what is missing before calling the police. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5 88) Experts advise that, if you are approached by a potential assailant, you should not make eye contact. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5

89) In 2019, U.S. drug overdose deaths reached the highest recorded number in recent history. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 90) If your state doesn't mandate bike or motorcycle helmets, you don't need to bother wearing them to prevent injuries. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 91) About 65 percent of drowning deaths are among females. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6 92) Do you think violence should be regarded as a chronic disease? Support your answer with information from the chapter. Answer: Yes, it is appropriate to see violence as a chronic disease because it is a leading and persistent public health problem that contributes significantly to death and disability rates. It is prevalent in all levels of American society. The U.S. Public Health Service has recognized violence as a chronic disease for decades because it is a pervasive threat to our society. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 93) Identify how COVID-19 affected rates of violent crime in the United States in the first half of 2020, and propose an explanation for why the pandemic might have affected crime rates in this way. Answer: In the first six months of 2020, U.S. rates of homicide, aggravated assault, motor vehicle theft, and arson increased significantly, while rates of rape, burglary, and robbery decreased significantly. Although research into this phenomenon is ongoing, the so-called COVID-19 effect of increased fear, anxiety, and uncertainty may have contributed to the increased number of homicides and assaults at the same time that closures of campuses, bars, restaurants, and nightclubs, stay-at-home orders, and social distancing might have reduced opportunities for rape, burglary, and robbery. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Violence? Learning Outcome: 5.1 22 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

94) Select two causes of violence from the chapter and provide an argument explaining why you believe each one contributes to the violence in the United States. Support your arguments with examples. Answer: (Any two of the following; examples will differ.) 1. Poverty: can give rise to hopelessness and lead people to view violence as the only way to get what they want. 2. Unemployment: can cause people to become frustrated and more violent. 3. Cultural beliefs: can objectify women and empower men to be more aggressive. 4. Parental and peer influence: Children raised in violent homes are more likely to become violent as adults; peers with high delinquency rates exert influence. 5. The media: depicts violence. 6. Discrimination or oppression: can cause violence against a specific group because of beliefs that the group is inferior. 7. Religious beliefs and differences: can cause violence because people think violence against others is justified by religious doctrine. 8. Political differences: can cause civil unrest and violent acts. 9. Breakdowns in the criminal justice system: can result in inadequate treatment/training for prisoners and early release policies that pose risks for society. 10. Stress: can cause anger and more reactive behavior. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2 95) Identify at least three mindfulness strategies that have been shown to help reduce feelings of anger. Answer: Any three of the following: 1. Focus on what anger is doing to your body, such as heart rate, breathing rate, tight muscles, etc. 2. Close your eyes and take ten rhythmic breaths. 3. Focus on your thoughts and accept them without judgment. 4. Try to let the thoughts go. If they return, release them again. 5. Let the other person know what bothered you, how it made you feel, and what you would like to see change in the future. 6. Relax and try to change the dynamics with the individual but consider alternative options if the behavior pattern that triggered your anger continues. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Violence Learning Outcome: 5.2

96) The 2016 mass murder at the Pulse Nightclub in Orlando, Florida, targeted members of the LGBT community, many of whom were Latino. It was committed by an American who had professed a hatred of members of the LGBT and Latino communities, and had professed allegiance to the terrorist group ISIS. Was the shooting a hate crime, an act of terrorism, or both? Defend your answer. Answer: Answers will vary but should include some of the following information: A hate crime is a crime targeted against a particular societal group and motivated by bias against that group. Terrorism is the use of violence to intimidate or coerce a population in furtherance of a political or social agenda. The Pulse Nightclub shooting included aspects of both. The shooting targeted members of the LGBT community, many of whom were Latino, and the killer had expressed hatred for the LGBT community and for Latinos. In addition, during the shooting he swore allegiance to the terrorist group ISIS. Thus, it can be inferred that the killer was motivated by both bias against particular societal groups and a desire to intimidate Americans and further the political and social agenda of a terrorist organization. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 97) Explain why the term child abuse does not account for all types of harm or potential harm against children by their parents or caregivers. Answer: The term child abuse refers to acts of commission, which are intentional acts that cause actual, potential, or threatened harm to a child. It is narrower than the term child maltreatment, which includes not only acts of commission but also acts of omission, which are failures to provide for a child's basic physical, emotional, or educational needs or to protect a child from harm or potential harm. For example, refusing to feed a child a nourishing diet despite being able to afford nourishing foods is considered neglect, which is one type of child maltreatment by omission. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Interpersonal, Collective, and Structural Violence Learning Outcome: 5.3 98) How do you think the socialization of males contributes to sexual assaults against women? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Men are exposed to social factors, such as peer pressure to be macho or aggressive, and messages in society, such as the belief that women who dress scantily are "asking for it" or that "sowing their wild oats" is simply a normal part of male development. They may also be influenced by societal norms that portray women as the passive targets of male aggression, or by peer pressure to be "macho" by engaging in predatory behavior. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual Violence Learning Outcome: 5.4

99) Do you think that college campuses are safer than they were a decade ago, or less safe? Provide information to support your response. Answer: Overall, colleges are probably safer than they were a decade ago because they have taken specific measures to improve student safety. For example, there are more emergency response drills and new messaging, alert, and location systems; the presence of law enforcement personnel has increased on campuses; and there are more prevention efforts, such as workshops on campus safety and rape awareness, better lighting, improved parking lot security, and emergency call boxes. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Preventing Violence Learning Outcome: 5.5 100) Identify at least seven strategies for decreasing your risk for a motor vehicle accident while driving. Answer: (Any seven of the following; choices will differ.) 1. Avoid driving under the influence of alcohol or illicit drugs, or medications (prescribed or over-the-counter) that may have a sedative or mind-altering effect. 2. Avoid driving while drowsy. 3. Avoid using any kind of electronic device while driving. 4. Avoid eating while driving. 5. Wear a safety belt. 6. Keep up with your vehicle's regular schedule of maintenance. 7. Keep your eyes on the road. Scan the road ahead and to the sides. 8. Keep your mind on the road. Don't drive while highly stressed, worried, or emotional. 9. Avoid aggressive driving, including speeding, unnecessary lane changing, running red lights, tailgating, etc. 10. Obey all traffic laws. 11. Drive defensively, and with your low-beam headlights on, day and night. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Unintentional Injuries Learning Outcome: 5.6

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 6 Connecting and Communicating in the Modern World 1) Which of the following statements about loneliness is TRUE? A) The only intimate relationship known to reliably reduce loneliness is marriage. B) Studies on loneliness suggest that it is as harmful to health as smoking. C) An individual's risk for loneliness decreases as the number of their friends and acquaintances increases. D) Nearly 2 percent of Americans reports regularly feeling lonely. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 2) When Marcy moved into her dorm, her parents and her best friend helped. This example BEST illustrates A) emotional support. B) instrumental support. C) informational support. D) appraisal support. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 3) As the end of the term approached, Hakim became increasingly anxious about failing calculus and losing his scholarship. His best friend, who had taken the class the semester before, reminded Hakim that he'd aced every exam thus far, told him that the final would cover the same topics, and suggested that Hakim closely review his prior exams. This example BEST illustrates A) emotional support. B) instrumental support. C) informational support. D) appraisal support. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1

4) Our neighbors, classmates, and coworkers are members of our A) social network. B) social capital. C) constellation of confidants. D) support team. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 5) By deciding that he didn't have time to vote in the last election, Derrick missed an opportunity to build A) his level of emotional support. B) relational connectedness. C) collective connectedness. D) collective competition. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 6) Relational connectedness is MOST likely to be enhanced by A) sending a friend a birthday card. B) meeting a friend for lunch. C) texting a friend to say you're thinking of them. D) phoning a friend to invite him to a party. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 7) Which of the following individuals is most likely to feel lonely? A) a 77-year-old widowed female B) a 52-year-old married male C) a 34-year-old single female D) a 23-year-old single male Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1

8) What is social capital? A) the value of all the cash, savings, investments, and equity owned by every member of your family, yourself included B) a collective term for all the people you know, including distant acquaintances and even people you don't like C) the collective value of all the people in your social network and the likelihood of them providing social support D) a level of support built not by strengthening existing ties, but by seeking out new relationships Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 9) Which of the following is the BEST example of emotional support? A) Eduardo hands his sister a tissue as she tearfully informs their mother that she and her boyfriend have broken up. B) Eduardo listens to his sister as she describes to him how her boyfriend broke up with her. C) Eduardo tells his sister that a majority of relationships don't work out. D) Eduardo reminds his sister how quickly she bounced back from her last break-up. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 10) Social support may BEST help reduce stress by A) making challenges look less forbidding. B) increasing the body's release of cortisol. C) providing role models of others facing stressors. D) increasing our social commitments, which can distract us from our problems. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1

11) Which of the following is TRUE about your family of origin? A) It includes the people who were living in the home during your first years of life. B) It includes cousins and relatives who were living in the same town during your first years of life. C) It includes your grandparents or other extended relatives who were living in another state during your first years of life. D) It includes any immediate family members, such as parents and siblings, whether or not they were not in the same home during your first years of life. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 12) Which one of the following is characteristic of intimate relationships? A) They involve behavioral independence. B) They involve a lack of emotional availability. C) They involve emotional detachment. D) They involve need fulfillment. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 13) The definition of the term family A) is any group of people related by blood or adoption. B) changes over time. C) is determined by the local community. D) is determined by the family's religious beliefs. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2

14) Which of the following is TRUE about intimate relationships? A) They are relationships between people who experience mutual sexual or romantic attraction. B) People who have experienced intense trauma may find them especially challenging to experience. C) They help us fulfill our needs for financial security. D) They can be defined as any relationship in which the people involved are able to share their feelings freely. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 15) Rico and Chris are close friends and classmates. Each day they are an important influence on each other's actions. This example BEST demonstrates their A) need for social fulfillment. B) detachment in regard to one another's feelings. C) behavioral interdependence. D) availability for each other. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 16) Emily and Rosa are close friends who are able to share their feelings freely, providing support and reassurance. This example demonstrates their A) codependence. B) emotional availability. C) ability to provide objective feedback. D) low self-esteem. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 17) All of the following are true about intimate relationships EXCEPT that A) they may include sexual relationships. B) they may share emotional intimacy without being sexual. C) they may be spiritually intimate. D) they may lack emotional availability. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Relationships characterized by behavioral interdependence, need fulfillment, emotional attachment, and emotional availability are A) functional family relationships. B) family of origin relationships. C) intimate relationships. D) monogamous relationships. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 19) Two important factors that help you maintain healthy relationships are your A) exclusivity and desirability. B) degree of social integration and social availability. C) self-concept and self-esteem. D) popularity and altruism. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 20) Jake and Kate have been dating for two years and have a close relationship. They feel that they have someone to care for who also cares for them. This example BEST demonstrates what aspect of Jake and Kate's need fulfillment? A) intimacy B) social integration C) nurturance D) affirmation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2

21) Both Ben and Betty see themselves as responsible for their own choices, decisions, and actions in their relationship, thus demonstrating their A) communication skills. B) interdependence. C) independence. D) accountability. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 22) Which factor would reduce the likelihood of your choosing a particular person as a partner? A) Your education, attitudes, and values are significantly different. B) You live in close proximity to each other. C) You have similar values, interests, and socioeconomic status. D) You are physically attracted to each other. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 23) When lovers experience attachment, what natural opiates give them a sense of security, peace, and calm? A) amphetamines B) endorphins C) dopamine and norepinephrine D) oxytocin and PEA Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 24) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, love involves A) intimacy, similar interests, and social status. B) passion, impulsiveness, and sexual desire. C) intimacy, passion, and commitment. D) friendship, reliability, and commitment. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2

25) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, the most complete, ideal type of love is A) consummate love. B) intimacy. C) sexual compatibility. D) passion. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 26) Anthropologist Helen Fisher and other scientists have described attraction as A) a peaceful feeling due to the release of oxytocin. B) the degree of commitment in a relationship. C) feelings of elation and euphoria produced by neurochemicals. D) emotional reactions triggered by past experiences. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 27) Which of the following factors increases in importance as romantic relationships evolve? A) physical attractiveness B) affluence C) personality D) passion Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 28) Greg and Kate always support each other's interests, hoping to ensure that the other will succeed. This BEST demonstrates that they are A) practicing serial monogamy. B) intimately exclusive. C) fascinated by each other. D) advocates for each other. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2

29) Sam and Kris have entered a relationship and are very preoccupied with each other. They constantly want to be with or talk to each other. This example demonstrates that they are A) in an exclusive relationship. B) fascinated by each other. C) sexually open with each other. D) advocates for each other. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 30) Lisa and Abby are sisters and best friends. Both feel they can share their worries and concerns with one another. This example demonstrates A) social integration. B) emotional detachment. C) spiritual independence. D) emotional distinction. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 31) Through our relationships with others, we fulfill our needs for A) intimacy, social integration, and nurturance. B) independence, social integration, and self-actualization. C) autonomy, intimacy, and connection. D) communication, nurturance, and achievement. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 32) Brett and Melissa have a very strong relationship in which they are able to give and receive emotionally without a fear of rejection or being hurt. This example demonstrates that they A) have strong intimate bonds. B) are dependent on each other's emotions and feelings. C) are emotionally available in their relationship. D) have an ability to remain emotionally detached. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) Which of the following traits is important in relationships and involves having a realistic appreciation of one's own worth and ability? A) self-awareness B) self-expression C) self-nurturance D) self-sufficiency Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 34) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, which type of love combines commitment and intimacy? A) romantic B) infatuation C) fatuous D) companionate Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 35) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, which type of love combines intimacy and passion? A) romantic B) infatuation C) fatuous D) companionate Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 36) The growth of Internet dating has made it easier to A) give the utmost. B) maintain exclusivity. C) meet people outside your proximity. D) commit. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) A hormone referred to as a "cuddle chemical" that boosts feelings of satisfaction and attachment is A) oxytocin. B) adrenaline. C) cortisol. D) dopamine3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 38) Friendships A) are typically the first relationships we form. B) require time, effort, and commitment. C) are usually characterized by exclusivity. D) usually begin by "friending" someone on Facebook. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 39) Which of the following statements about hooking up is TRUE? A) A majority of both males and females agree that the ideal outcome of a hookup is a romantic relationship. B) A recent study found that only 25 percent of college students used a condom during their last hookup. C) Steinberg's triangular theory of love would place hooking up in the infatuation category. D) A recent study found that nearly one-third of college students who have engaged in hooking up experienced regret. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2

40) When Hiro confessed to Mina that he was attracted to her intelligence, sense of humor, and concern for others, Mina told him that she admired the same qualities in him. This is an example of A) companionship. B) infatuation. C) reciprocity. D) "opposites attract." Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 41) Which of the following is a nonverbal cue that indicates romantic interest? A) displaying a tie sign B) looking at the person's mouth C) avoiding cues of immediacy D) speaking quickly Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 42) Which of the following is TRUE about appropriate self-disclosure? A) It is synonymous with storytelling. B) It involves sharing secrets and gossip about friends and acquaintances. C) It involves sharing feelings and information as a means of getting to know a person. D) It is a key element in unhealthy communication. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 43) Julio wants to strengthen his relationship with LaVonne by sharing personal information with her. To get over his fear of disclosing his feelings, Julio can do all of the following EXCEPT A) learn to accept his imperfections. B) be open to discussing his sexual past. C) select a safe, comfortable place for the conversation. D) blame his parents for his imperfections. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) You are most likely to listen BEST when A) you are worried. B) you believe the speaker's message does not concern you. C) you are distracted by a project that is due the next day. D) you believe the speaker is saying something you can relate to. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 45) Steve and Janelle are friends. When they meet weekly for coffee, they greet each other with a hug. This hug is an example of A) betrayal of their partners. B) nonverbal communication. C) physical compatibility. D) sexual intimacy. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 46) In relationships, the process of resolving differences peacefully and creatively is A) anger management. B) conflict resolution. C) self-disclosure. D) intimacy. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3

47) Kendra has decided to break up with her boyfriend. Which of the following actions should she take? A) share on her social networking pages details of the conversations and interactions that caused her to decide to break up B) log onto his social networking accounts so that she can see what he has been saying about her to his friends C) change the passwords she'd shared with him to her online accounts and pages D) break up with him via a text so that she doesn't have to speak to him Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 48) Self-disclosure can be a double-edged sword because A) you risk hurting the other person. B) you risk the possibility that the other person will reject you. C) you might find out more about the other person than you really wish to know. D) it allows you to tell stories about others without their knowledge or consent. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 49) Your mom wants to talk with you about something important. Putting your phone away and controlling your urge to interrupt are both aspects of A) selective listening. B) assertive listening. C) mindful listening. D) active listening. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3

50) After stubbing his toe, Tom told Connie that he was in agonizing pain. Connie said she believed him, but rolled her eyes. Tom most likely A) felt that Connie was being supportive. B) believed that Connie felt he was exaggerating his pain. C) would feel comfortable sharing more of his feelings with Connie. D) decided that Connie had not heard him. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 51) The feeling that you need to continually check your phone is one example of a phenomenon called A) relational connectedness. B) social networking stress (SNS). C) multitasking. D) online vigilance. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 52) A likely reason that people may be meaner online than in person is that A) rudeness on social media sites is common and acceptable. B) their name is attached to the messages they post. C) users cannot see the person with whom they are communicating. D) they would like to increase their number of followers. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3

53) Hedda and Kate have been sharing an apartment for two months, but they're both frustrated. Hedda is tired of nagging Kate about cleaning up after herself, and Kate is tired of being nagged every time she leaves an unwashed coffee cup in the sink. Which of the following strategies might help them resolve their conflict? A) They should use "you" messages that clearly tell the listener what she is doing wrong. B) They should use "I" messages that clearly state how the speaker feels and what she wants. C) They should avoid talking about the problem until they have thought of a workable solution for solving it. D) After agreeing to a solution, they should permanently drop the subject. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 54) Which of the following is TRUE about conflict? A) It is an intellectual state. B) It is always bad. C) It is a deliberate attempt to sabotage another person's success or happiness. D) It is inevitable when people live or work together. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 55) When attempting to resolve a conflict, it is helpful to A) generate and evaluate more than one possible solution. B) keep feelings out of the conversation. C) focus on getting the other person to understand your side. D) evaluate potential solutions as soon as they are proposed. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 56) Jealousy can be based on all of the following EXCEPT A) insecurity. B) a personal history of loss. C) possessiveness. D) intense devotion. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 16 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) Reese broke up with their partner of two years. In order to cope with the failed relationship, they should A) spend a lot of time analyzing the negative aspects of the relationship. B) seek another relationship as soon as possible to get over the failed one. C) put a positive spin on the breakup and act as if nothing is wrong. D) reach out to trusted friends and share their feelings with them. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 58) In troubled relationships, an example of criticism would be A) "You're the most self-centered person I've ever met!" B) "Stop acting like a two-year old!" C) "You're the one who chose this lousy restaurant, not me!" D) "I don't see anything to get upset about." Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 59) Javier wants to talk with Stephan about his frustration related to Stephan's excessive spending, but as he is speaking, Stephan keeps texting on his cell phone. This is an example of what pattern common in troubled relationships? A) criticism B) defensiveness C) stonewalling D) contempt Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4

60) Which of the following is TRUE about power in relationships? A) In relationships, power is the ability to make more money than one's partner. B) In relationships, power is the ability to make and implement decisions. C) Over the last century, the power dynamics between men and women have remained largely the same. D) The increased divorce rate in the past century was largely due to men feeling uncomfortable sharing power. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 61) The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates that, on a typical day, A) over 90 percent of men do household chores like laundry. B) over 90 percent of women do household chores like laundry. C) over two-thirds of men cook and clean up after meals. D) over two-thirds of women cook and clean up after meals. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 62) In a healthy relationship, A) you need to be willing to share nearly everything with your partner. B) you often find yourself making excuses for the other person. C) it's natural to feel stifled, trapped, and stagnant. D) you're honest with yourself and each other. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 63) Predictability is a fundamental element of A) trust. B) faith. C) power. D) jealousy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4

64) The first hint that a relationship may be in trouble is often A) a change in communication. B) that one partner stops respecting the other's sexual boundaries. C) an escalation in the frequency of arguments. D) physical assault. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 65) Jealousy is more likely when A) one partner has an unusually high sense of self-esteem. B) one partner fears that they are losing control over the other. C) a couple is over the age of 65. D) both partners have many social ties. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 66) Daniel has been involved in four sexually exclusive relationships over the past six years. This is an example of A) infidelity. B) open relationships. C) cohabitation. D) serial monogamy. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 67) Jeff and Dana have been married for two years. Their relationship involves exclusive sexual involvement with each other. This demonstrates A) an open relationship. B) a monogamous relationship. C) serial monogamy. D) cohabitation. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5

68) A key reason that U.S. divorce rates are declining is that A) spouses are increasingly willing to seek marriage counseling. B) spouses are increasingly choosing open marriages. C) the number of couples who cohabit instead of marrying has increased. D) the age at which couples first marry has decreased. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 69) In explaining the Supreme Court's 2015 ruling on same-sex marriage, Justice Anthony Kennedy stated that A) people in same-sex couples respect marriage so deeply that they seek it for themselves. B) marriage is of very little importance to truly committed couples. C) marriage has long been a keystone of financial security. D) since same-sex partners can legally marry in nearly all other countries of the world, they should be allowed to marry in the United States. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 70) All of the following are true about cohabitation EXCEPT that A) after a number of years, it can constitute a common-law marriage. B) it can offer love, companionship, and sex. C) it is acceptable to a majority of Americans. D) it is known to be a predictor for divorce. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 71) Which of the following is TRUE about being single in the United States? A) The number of adults electing to remain single is increasing. B) Over a lifetime, more women than men remain single. C) Nearly one-third of young adults age 20 to 34 are single. D) Nearly 15 percent of adults have never married. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5

72) A relationship in which the partners are sexually involved only with each other is A) consensual. B) open. C) intimate. D) monogamous. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 73) When two partners in an intimate relationship live together without being married, this is A) cohabitation. B) common-law marriage. C) an open relationship. D) an informal relationship. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 74) Lengthy cohabitation that is considered legally binding in some states is A) cohabitation. B) common-law marriage. C) an open relationship. D) an informal relationship. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 75) Which of the following statements about marital status in the United States is TRUE? A) The percentage of males who are married is higher than that of females. B) The percentage of males who are widowed is higher than that of females. C) The percentage of males who are divorced is higher than that of females. D) In 2020, about 72 percent of U.S. adults were married. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5

76) Which of the following statements about marriage is TRUE? A) Recent research suggests that the divorce rate has been increasing since the 1980s. B) About 20 percent of couples who cohabitate will marry within 5 years. C) Rates of cancer are lower in married people than in unmarried people. D) Marriage confers several health benefits, but is not linked to improved economic well-being. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 77) Amelia and Geoff married when Amelia was 20 years old and Geoff was 23. Presuming that their marriage reflects population statistics, A) they most likely married around the year 2020. B) they most likely married around the year 1960. C) they are much more likely to divorce within ten years than to remain married. D) they are more likely than not to have an open relationship. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 78) In a relationship, commitment means that A) both partners in a relationship agree to practice monogamy. B) couples agree to remain married no matter what. C) the partners agree to shared decision making on all concerns involving the couple. D) each partner intends to act over time in a way that perpetuates the well-being of the other. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 79) Chris and Robin have been romantic partners for almost a decade, and have lived together unmarried for the last four years. Their relationship is considered A) a religious sacrament. B) a common-law marriage. C) cohabitation. D) a prelude to marriage. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5

80) The U.S. Supreme Court's ruling in Obergefell v. Hodges A) gave couples in the United States the right to divorce. B) recognized common-law marriages as legally binding. C) made same-sex marriage legal in all fifty states. D) recognized the right of interracial couples to marry. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 81) Social isolation increases the risks for high blood pressure and poor immune function. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 82) All types of close relationships, not just marriage, are good for our health. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 83) The need for intimacy means the need for someone with whom we can share our feelings freely. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 84) A relationship is intimate only if sex is involved. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 85) Some research suggests that evolution and genetics both contribute to romantic reactions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

86) Checking out your partner's email messages without their permission is a breach of trust. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 87) The new etiquette of relationships established under social media has made it perfectly acceptable to break up with someone online. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 88) Intimacy is unlikely in relationships lacking self-disclosure. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 89) The meta-message is the message underlying the words that the speaker is trying to convey. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 90) Brenda believes in ghosts. When her friend Manami told her about an investigation showing that a supposed haunting of a local theatre was due to natural phenomena, Brenda tuned out. Brenda was engaging in passive listening. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 91) The first step toward conflict resolution is to generate a number of possible solutions to the problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3

92) The final step in conflict resolution is to implement the solution. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 93) Contempt is the biggest predictor of divorce. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 94) Feeling that you have to share everything with your partner is a sign of a healthy relationship. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 95) The absence of nonverbal cues when texting actually helps partners in a relationship communicate with less misunderstanding. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 96) Same-sex marriage became legal in all fifty U.S. states in the year 2005. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 97) Serial monogamy means that partners have sexual involvement outside their primary relationship. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5

98) Over a lifetime, more than 3 out of 10 Americans remain single. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5 99) Distinguish between relational connectedness and collective connectedness and give an example of an action that would exemplify each. Answer: Examples will vary. Relational connectedness requires face-to-face contact with people within our social network. Actions such as throwing a bridal shower for a family member or making dinner for a friend who is sick exemplify relational connectedness. Collective connectedness is a feeling of connection to a group beyond your immediate social network. Actions such as volunteering for a homeless shelter or raising money for a political candidate you support or attending a lecture about a social problem you're interested in all exemplify collective connectedness. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Value of Relationships Learning Outcome: 6.1 100) Why do you think it is important to know and nurture yourself before seeking to build intimate relationships, and what two personal qualities are especially important to be able to bring to relationships? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Knowing yourself—for example, knowing how the strengths and challenges of your family history and personality affect the choices you make and how you respond to life emotionally—is important because, without this self-knowledge in place, you are more likely to make decisions and react to experiences in ways that are not conscious and that may be harmful to a relationship. Nurturing yourself is important because, if you cannot meet your own needs, you're likely to make unreasonable demands on your partner, or alternatively, to nurture your partner to the exclusion of your own needs, a behavior that tends to build resentment. Selfnurturance is therefore one of the two personal qualities especially important in relationships. The other is accountability—taking responsibility for your own actions. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 101) Identify the three elements that, according to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, are characteristic of loving relationships, and their association with consummate love. Answer: The three elements common to loving relationships are intimacy, passion, and commitment. Consummate love combines a high level of these three elements in balance. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Intimate Relationships: When Connecting Gets Personal Learning Outcome: 6.2 26 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

102) Identify and describe three types of listening, and explain the effect of each on strengthening or undermining relationships. Answer: 1. Selective listening occurs when we are listening only for information that supports what we already believe; otherwise, we tune out. It is characterized by a stronger desire to explain our own point of view than to understand someone else's. This type of listening undermines relationships by impeding our grasp of our partner's information, experiences, and concerns. 2. Passive listening is characterized by a failure to provide feedback that ensures the speaker that his or her message is being received. This type of listening undermines relationships by causing the speaker to question whether the listener has truly heard, understood, and cares about the speaker's concerns. 3. Active listening is characterized by an attempt not only to hear the speaker's words, but also to understand the speaker's message. The listener confirms understanding by restating or paraphrasing the message before responding. This type of listening shows the speaker that the listener has understood the message and cares about what the speaker is thinking and feeling. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Building Communication Skills Learning Outcome: 6.3 103) Do you think jealousy is present in a healthy relationship? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: A certain amount of jealousy can occur in any loving relationship; it doesn't have to threaten a relationship as long as partners communicate openly about it. However, jealousy can indicate underlying problems such as insecurity or possessiveness or fear of losing control, any of which may prove to be a significant barrier to a healthy, intimate relationship if not talked about, and may lead to dangerous consequences. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4 104) Explain why it is so important to a healthy relationship to communicate your expectations. Answer: We all have expectations of our relationships, including how and how often we'll spend time together, what decisions we'll share, how we'll express our love and desire, and how we'll grow as a couple. Between any two people, these expectations are likely to differ. No one can guess another person's expectations. If we fail to communicate them clearly, we set ourselves up for disappointment, anger, and hurt. When we communicate them, explore how they differ, and agree on mutual expectations as a couple, we help the relationship to thrive. We also establish a baseline for our behavior as a couple, and can refer to that baseline if conflict arises because one partner has failed to act according to the couple's expectations. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Relationships: For Better and Worse Learning Outcome: 6.4

105) Why do you think that a great majority of adults age 20 to 34 in the United States, and a significant percentage of adults overall, have never been married? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Contemporary society provides significant support for the single lifestyle, allowing single people to lead rich, rewarding lives and maintain a supportive network of friends as well as family. Moreover, cohabitation has become an increasingly common choice for Americans, and the great majority of couples now cohabitate before marriage. In addition, more and more young Americans are delaying marriage. People who have never married are not necessarily people who are not in an intimate relationship. Finally, many people enjoy the self-sufficiency and time to pursue their interests that singlehood allows. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Partnering and Singlehood Learning Outcome: 6.5

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 6a Focus On: Understanding Your Sexuality 1) Which of the following is TRUE about sexual identity? A) It is based solely on genetic factors. B) The biological mother determines the sexual identity of a child. C) The biological father determines the sexual identity of a child. D) It is based on biological sex characteristics, gender identity, and sexual orientation. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 2) Which of the following is TRUE about intersexuality? A) The reproductive anatomy is clearly either male or female, but the secondary sex characteristics are ambiguous. B) The sex chromosomes are XX but the person clearly has male reproductive anatomy, or the sex chromosomes are XY but the person clearly has female anatomy. C) The person does not exhibit exclusively male or female sexual anatomy. D) It may occur in as many as 1 out of 100 live births. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 3) Which of the following BEST describes gender identity? A) the practice of behaving in a masculine or feminine way B) interactions with others that teach us certain behaviors C) the manner in which we express masculinity or femininity on a daily basis D) our personal awareness of being masculine or feminine Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1

4) Which of the following is TRUE about androgyny? A) An androgynous person does not fulfill traditional sexual roles and expectations. B) An androgynous person has feminine traits but tries to be a male. C) An androgynous person has a combination of both traditional masculine and feminine traits. D) An androgynous person has masculine traits but tries to be a female. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 5) Having a gender identity that does not match one's biological sex is known as being A) transsexual. B) transgender. C) transvestite. D) bisexual. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 6) Connie, who is analytical and independent, is pressured by her parents to be more nurturing. This is an example of A) discrimination. B) gender role stereotyping. C) traditionalization. D) sexual identification. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 7) Sexual orientation is based on which of the following factors? A) biological, social, and religious B) psychological, familial, and environmental C) biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental D) emotional, social, and socioenvironmental Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1

8) Gavin and Todd have discovered that their application for an apartment rental was refused solely because of their sexual orientation. This is an example of A) sexual prejudice. B) gender preference. C) socioeconomic discrimination. D) housing fraud. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 9) Alison has had a few boyfriends, but she often feels romantic and sexual attraction to women as well. Alison is A) heterosexual. B) homosexual. C) bisexual. D) asexual. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 10) Jin was assigned female at birth but identifies and lives as a male. It is best to A) refer to Jin as MTF. B) refer to Jin as they/them. C) ask for Jin's preferred pronouns. D) ask how Jin would like to be referred to. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 11) Menstrual flow is actually sloughed off A) fertilized eggs. B) uterine lining. C) cervical mucus. D) corpus luteum. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2

12) How long is the average menstrual cycle? A) 21 days B) 24 days C) 28 days D) 31 days Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 13) The onset of the first menstrual period is A) fertility. B) menopause. C) menstruation. D) menarche. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 14) The permanent cessation of menstrual periods is A) fertility. B) menopause. C) menstruation. D) menarche. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 15) Which menstrual problem involves the common symptoms of breast tenderness, bloating, fatigue, irritability, and depression? A) premenstrual syndrome B) premenstrual dysphoric disorder C) dysmenorrhea D) hormone deficiency Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2

16) The system of tubules atop the testes where sperm reach maturity is the A) vulva. B) endometrium. C) scrotum. D) epididymis. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 17) The external female genitalia are collectively referred to as the A) vulva. B) endometrium. C) scrotum. D) epididymis. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 18) The lining of the uterus is the A) vulva. B) endometrium. C) cervix. D) mons pubis. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 19) The sac that contains the testes is the A) prostate gland. B) vas deferens. C) scrotum. D) epididymis. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2

20) The testes manufacture A) sperm and testosterone. B) semen and progesterone. C) urine and semen. D) sperm and Graafian follicles. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 21) Nida has been diagnosed with dysmenorrhea. Her physician has prescribed low-dose contraceptives to reduce Nida's symptoms. Low-dose contraceptives have this effect because they A) contribute to the production of endorphins that play a role in pain relief. B) suppress ovulation, thereby reducing production of prostaglandins that promote uterine muscle contraction. C) trigger a surge in human chorionic gonadotropin, which signals the pituitary gland to suppress menstruation. D) contribute to inflammation, which prevents a fertilized egg from implanting in the endometrium. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 22) Roxanne uses a diaphragm to avoid pregnancy. A few days after her menstrual period began, she suddenly experienced a high fever, muscle aches, and a sunburn-like rash. Which of the following was the MOST likely cause of her illness? A) pregnancy B) premenstrual dysphoric disorder C) miscarriage (pregnancy loss) D) toxic shock syndrome Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2

23) Ovulation typically occurs A) in the first 1-3 days of a woman's menstrual cycle. B) about halfway through a woman's menstrual cycle. C) in the final 1-3 days of a woman's menstrual cycle. D) only if a woman is pregnant. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 24) During ejaculation, A) urine sometimes mixes with semen in the urethra, but only if the man's bladder is full. B) urine typically mixes with semen in the urethra. C) urine and semen do not come into contact with each other. D) semen is ejaculated from the seminal vesicles while urine is ejaculated from the urethra. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 25) Circumcision is the surgical removal of the A) glans penis. B) foreskin. C) testes. D) prostate. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 26) Anthony frequently experiences ejaculation within the first few minutes of sexual contact, leaving both him and his partner unsatisfied. Which type of sexual dysfunction does he have? A) an orgasmic disorder B) an arousal disorder C) an excitation disorder D) a desire disorder Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Human Sexual Response Learning Outcome: 6a.3

27) In which type of sexual dysfunction does an individual experience pain during or after sex? A) inhibited sexual desire B) vaginismus C) female orgasmic disorder D) dyspareunia Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Human Sexual Response Learning Outcome: 6a.3 28) In which stage of the human sexual response does vasocongestion occur? A) excitement/arousal B) plateau C) orgasmic D) resolution Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Human Sexual Response Learning Outcome: 6a.3 29) In which stage of the human sexual response does the penis secrete preejaculatory fluid? A) excitement/arousal B) plateau C) orgasmic D) resolution Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Human Sexual Response Learning Outcome: 6a.3 30) In her early twenties, Piper had a healthy sex life, but then she was raped by a trusted friend. Since then, she has experienced anxiety and even fear at the thought of sexual contact. Which of the following types of disorders is Piper MOST likely experiencing? A) an arousal disorder B) a desire disorder C) an orgasmic disorder D) a pain disorder Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Human Sexual Response Learning Outcome: 6a.3

31) A variant sexual behavior in which couples swap partners is A) fetishism. B) swinging. C) voyeurism. D) exhibitionism. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 32) Which of the following statements about sexual fantasies is TRUE? A) They are considered one type of autoerotic behavior. B) By definition, they occur only during masturbation. C) The fantasized behaviors are ones that the individual actually wants to experience, but has not. D) They stem from a subconscious desire to engage in behavior that the individual recognizes is harmful. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 33) Kissing and erotic touching are examples of A) cunnilingus. B) self-stimulation. C) fellatio. D) nonverbal sexual communication. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 34) All of the following are true about celibacy EXCEPT that A) it is lonely for some people. B) it may be a result of religious beliefs. C) it can be the result of illness. D) it is the same as abstinence. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4

35) All of the following are considered variant sexual behaviors EXCEPT A) group sex. B) voyeurism. C) masochism. D) masturbation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 36) During sex, recreational use of drugs intended to treat erectile dysfunction has been shown to A) boost performance and satisfaction. B) increase performance when used in conjunction with alcohol. C) have only a placebo effect. D) trigger euphoria and arousal. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 37) Which of the following statements about drugs and sex is TRUE? A) Date-rape drugs are used to induce the victim to consent to sex. B) In an individual intoxicated with alcohol, the body may be willing and able to have sex, but the mind may not. C) If drugs are a necessary prelude to desire/arousal, partners might not be as attracted to each other as they say. D) Supplements sold to boost sexual performance never contain pharmaceutical drugs. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 38) Coitus is a synonym for A) penile-vaginal intercourse. B) anal intercourse. C) oral sex. D) any form of sexual contact involving the genitals. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4

39) Andrew and Andrea share the most common standards for sexual behavior in Western culture today. Which of the following are they MOST likely to accept as TRUE? A) It's okay if sexual interaction doesn't always lead to orgasm. B) Sex is to be experienced between two and only two people. C) The purpose of sexual interaction is conception. D) Sex should only take place within marriage. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 40) Areas of the body that, when touched, lead to sexual arousal are known as A) external genitals. B) internal genitals. C) erogenous zones. D) arousal spots. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 41) Sexual identity begins at birth. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 42) Testosterone is the hormone responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 43) The term sexual preference is more appropriate than the term sexual orientation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1

44) The first sign of puberty in females is the beginning of breast development. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 45) An intact hymen is proof of virginity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 46) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends routine circumcision of male newborns. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 47) A primary role of the prostate gland is to contribute fluids to semen that enhance the motility and potency of sperm. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 48) The majority of males and females experience a refractory period after sex. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Human Sexual Response Learning Outcome: 6a.3 49) According to surveys, about 1 in 100 American adults admit to having taken a look at their phones during sex. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Human Sexual Response Learning Outcome: 6a.3

50) Exhibitionism is illegal in the United States. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 51) Sexually transmitted infection can occur during unprotected oral-genital stimulation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 52) For many women, orgasm is more likely to be achieved through manual stimulation than through penile-vaginal intercourse. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 53) Differentiate between sexual identity and gender identity. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Sexual identity is one's recognition of oneself as a sexual being. It is a complex composite of biological (genetic, physiological, etc.) characteristics; gender identity and gender roles, which are socially and culturally influenced; and sexual orientation. The beginning of a person's sexual identity occurs at conception with the combining of chromosomes that determine the embryo's sex. Gender identity refers to an inner sense of being masculine or feminine, both, or neither. This inner concept influences how people see themselves in the world and is expressed through appearance and other aspects of behavior. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1

54) With which explanations proposed by researchers for a person's sexual orientation do you agree? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Student opinions will vary. Biological explanations focus on research into genetics, hormones, and differences in brain anatomy. Psychological and socioenvironmental explanations examine parent-child interactions, sex roles, and early sexual and interpersonal interactions. Most researchers today support a multifactorial model incorporating biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental factors. Current research does not, however, support the claim that sexual orientation is a choice. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Your Sexual Identity Learning Outcome: 6a.1 55) Identify the pathway that sperm take from their development through ejaculation, mentioning all of the following structures: ejaculatory ducts, epididymis, glans of penis, prostate gland, shaft of penis, testes, urethra, vas deferens. Answer: Sperm develop in the testes. While still immature, they are released into the epididymis, where they reach maturation. From the tubules of the epididymis, sperm move into the vas deferens, which lead to the ejaculatory ducts that pass through the prostate gland and empty into the urethra, which runs through the shaft and into the glans of the penis. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 56) Identify three self-care strategies for managing the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). Answer: Self-care strategies include: eating a nourishing diet rich in whole grains, fruits, and vegetables and low in salt and caffeine; exercising regularly; and taking measures to reduce stress. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexual and Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Learning Outcome: 6a.2 57) Do you think that sexual dysfunction always or nearly always has a biological cause? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Answers will vary. Causes of any form of sexual dysfunction are varied. Although the reproductive system can malfunction just as any body system can, biological problems are not solely responsible for all cases. Other common causative or contributing factors include medical factors such as symptoms of illness or medication side effects, substance abuse, stress, performance pressure, relationship tensions, and poor communication. The individual may also have a history of sexual abuse or other violence. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Human Sexual Response Learning Outcome: 6a.3 14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) List and discuss at least three factors that contribute to healthy and responsible sexuality. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Answers will vary, but should include any three of the following: 1) Open and honest communication as the foundation 2) Ability to acknowledge that you are a sexual person 3) Ability to discriminate between life-enhancing sexual behaviors and those that are harmful 4) Understanding of the anatomical structures involved in sex and reproduction, and their functions 5) Knowledge and practice of methods of safer sex 6) Ability to accept and embrace your sexuality, gender identity, and sexual orientation Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 59) Identify three key reasons that it is important to understand your body's sexual anatomy and your own sexual responses. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: If you understand your sexual anatomy and your responses, you will be better able to give yourself sexual pleasure and to communicate to your partner how best to give you pleasure. Also, you will understand the most effective ways to prevent—or achieve—pregnancy, and to prevent a sexually transmitted infection. Finally, you'll be able to recognize sexual dysfunction and take action to address the problem. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4 60) Identify the five components of the CERTS Model for Healthy Sexuality. Why is this model potentially more healthful than blanket adoption of the contemporary Western standards for sexual behavior? Answer: The CERTS Model for Healthy Sexuality includes: Consent—which is freely given and can be withdrawn at any time Equality—both partners share equal power in the relationship Respect—for both oneself and one's partner Trust—both partners feel that they can trust the other physically and emotionally Safety—from sexually transmitted infections, unintended pregnancy, and violence The CERTS Model is potentially more healthful than blanket adoption of Western standards, which are more narrow and prescriptive, and may not be relevant to some people. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexual Expression and Behavior Learning Outcome: 6a.4

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 7 Considering Your Reproductive Choices 1) Fertility is a person's ability to A) produce viable sperm. B) reproduce. C) have a normal delivery. D) prevent conception. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Basic Principles of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.1 2) The typical-use failure rate for a contraception method takes into account which of the following? A) daily use B) human error C) perfect use D) familiarity with the method Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.1 3) Which of the following conditions is NOT necessary for conception to occur? A) viable egg B) viable sperm C) access to egg by sperm D) avoidance of birth control Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Basic Principles of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.1 4) The fertilization of an ovum by a sperm is A) implantation. B) conception. C) ovulation. D) contraception. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The various methods used to prevent conception are known as A) implantation. B) barrier methods. C) ovulation. D) contraception. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.1 6) Which of the following is NOT true about external condoms? A) They can be used with baby oil and body lotions as lubricants. B) They can be purchased with a spermicide. C) They help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections. D) They are reliable against pregnancy when used consistently. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 7) To ensure its effectiveness, the BEST place to store a condom would be in A) a night table drawer. B) a wallet. C) the glove box of a locked car. D) the pocket of your jacket or jeans. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 8) Which of the following statements about external and internal condoms is TRUE? A) Both types protect against genital herpes and many other sexually transmitted infections. B) For greater protection, both types can be used simultaneously. C) Effectiveness with typical use is significantly higher for internal condoms than for external condoms. D) Loss of sensation is greater with the external condom than with the internal condom. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2

9) The first widely used birth control method for women was A) the pill. B) spermicidal foams and jellies. C) the diaphragm. D) the IUD. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 10) Diaphragms A) are effective even without spermicides. B) can be inserted up to two hours before intercourse. C) must be removed within two hours following intercourse. D) have a low effectiveness rate. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 11) Leaving a diaphragm, tampon, or cervical cap in for an extended period of time increases the risk for A) AIDS. B) hypertension. C) HPV. D) toxic shock syndrome. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 12) Which of the following is NOT true about the FemCap cervical cap? A) It is made of silicone and fits snugly over the cervix. B) It must be fitted by a medical practitioner. C) It must be kept in place for at least 12 hours after intercourse. D) It can be removed, cleaned, and reinserted immediately. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2

13) A primary advantage of the contraceptive sponge is that A) it does not use the spermicide nonoxynol-9. B) protection lasts for 4 to 6 hours. C) it does not require a fitting from a doctor. D) it can be used during menstruation. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 14) Oral contraceptive pills are A) an effective barrier contraceptive method. B) about 91 percent effective at preventing pregnancy with typical use. C) not associated with any negative side effects. D) effective protection against STIs. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 15) Which of the following statements is TRUE about contraceptive rings? A) They are left in place for three months. B) They must be fitted by a health care provider. C) They expose the user to a lower dose of estrogen than the combination pill or patch. D) They require the use of spermicide. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 16) An IUD A) offers protection from sexually transmitted infections. B) is nearly 95% effective with typical use. C) offers protection from pregnancy for 3 to 12 years. D) causes a long delay in the return of fertility. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2

17) Fertility awareness methods of birth control include all of the following EXCEPT A) the calendar method. B) the body temperature method. C) the cervical mucus method. D) abstinence. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 18) A rise in a woman's basal body temperature signals A) that ovulation has occurred. B) the beginning of the menstrual cycle. C) that fertilization has occurred. D) the end of the current menstrual period. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 19) Which of the following is TRUE about emergency contraceptive pills? A) They will cause an abortion if the woman is already pregnant. B) Multiple brands are available over-the-counter with no age restrictions. C) All brands require a prescription and are subject to age restrictions. D) They are 100 percent effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 20) Which of the following is TRUE about sterilization? A) Hysterectomy is the only sterilization method available for females. B) Sterilization is a permanent form of birth control achieved through surgical means. C) There are age limits on sterilization procedures. D) A tubal ligation is a high-risk procedure only used if other methods are not possible. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2

21) Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because of the A) major surgery involved. B) general anesthetic used. C) long recovery period required. D) fear of decreased sexual performance. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 22) Michael and Jill live together and are planning to marry once they graduate from college. They would like to have children—but not right away. Michael has a history of genital herpes and is concerned about not transmitting this infection to Jill. Of the following methods of contraception, which might be the BEST choice for them? A) a fertility awareness method B) external condoms C) internal condoms D) an IUD Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 23) Which form of hormonal birth control works transdermally? A) Mirena B) Twirla C) NuvaRing D) Depo-Provera Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 24) Hera visits her health care provider for a contraceptive injection every 12 weeks. Which form of birth control is she most likely using? A) Kyleena B) Annovera C) Phexxi D) Depo-Provera Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 6 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Laxmi and her partner do not have penile-vaginal intercourse for 10 to 12 days in the middle of Laxmi's menstrual cycle. Which form of birth control are they most likely using? A) withdrawal B) fertility awareness method C) abstinence D) internal condoms Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 26) Which of the following is a female sterilization procedure that involves tying off or cauterizing certain structures of the reproductive system? A) tubal ligation B) vasectomy C) hysterectomy D) suction curettage Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 27) A surgical sterilization procedure that involves cutting the vas deferens is a(n) A) endoscopy. B) tubal ligation. C) hysterectomy. D) vasectomy. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 28) The surgical procedure that involves removal of the uterus is a(n) A) endoscopy. B) tubal ligation. C) hysterectomy. D) vasectomy. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

29) Momoko takes birth control pills every day for one full year, and does not menstruate during this time. Which of the following is Momoko most likely using? A) Amethyst B) Slynd C) Seasonale D) Quasense Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 30) The relatively ineffective method of birth control known as coitus interruptus is also called the A) body temperature method. B) calendar method. C) outercourse method. D) withdrawal method. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 31) Women who use oral contraceptives and also smoke are at a higher risk of A) toxic shock syndrome. B) blood clots and hypertension. C) pneumonia and lung cancer. D) pregnancy. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 32) Which form of contraception involves implanting a small object in a woman's uterus? A) cervical cap B) contraceptive implant C) NuvaRing D) intrauterine device Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2

33) The two contraceptive methods most commonly used by college students are A) birth control pills and withdrawal. B) external condoms and birth control pills. C) birth control pills and Depo-Provera shots. D) external condoms and withdrawal. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Choosing a Method of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.3 34) The difference between surgical and medication abortions is that A) medication abortions can be performed further into the pregnancy than surgical abortions. B) surgical abortions require more steps than medical abortions. C) medication abortions are performed without entering the uterus. D) medication abortions are much more common in the U.S. than surgical abortions. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Abortion Learning Outcome: 7.4 35) Which U.S. Supreme Court decision in 1973 gave women the legal right to an abortion? A) Wade v. Thomas B) Roe v. Smith C) Smith v. Thomas D) Roe v. Wade Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Abortion Learning Outcome: 7.4 36) By federal law, when can women elect to have an abortion without legal restrictions? A) in the first trimester B) through the second trimester C) through the third trimester D) at no time without restrictions Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Abortion Learning Outcome: 7.4

37) Surgical abortions in the first trimester are typically done by A) dilation and evacuation. B) induction abortion. C) suction curettage. D) intact dilation and extraction. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Abortion Learning Outcome: 7.4 38) Preconception health involves all of the following EXCEPT A) monitoring prescription drug use. B) avoiding environmental chemicals. C) stopping tobacco and alcohol use. D) avoiding food containing folic acid. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 39) Which of the following is TRUE about nutrition and exercise during pregnancy? A) Vitamin supplements can make up for a less-than-balanced diet. B) Weight gain during pregnancy is unhealthy for the baby. C) Exercise can be beneficial, but the woman should consult with her physician first. D) All exercise should be avoided because it is harmful to the developing fetus. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 40) Which of the following is TRUE about teratogenic effects? A) The fetus is most susceptible to birth defects during the last three months of pregnancy. B) These effects can be caused by environmental chemical exposure. C) The fetus cannot develop an addiction to the drugs the mother is using. D) Over-the-counter drugs are not associated with teratogenic effects. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5

41) Jade is pregnant. During a regular medical check-up, her physician discusses alcohol consumption. The physician will MOST likely advise that she A) limit her intake to one glass per day. B) limit her intake to two glasses per day. C) abstain from alcohol during pregnancy. D) have only an occasional glass of wine with dinner. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 42) During her pregnancy, Emily should avoid all of the following EXCEPT A) x-rays. B) cleaning her cat's litter box. C) pesticides and other lawn chemicals. D) drinking tap water. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 43) During pregnancy, a woman could increase her folic acid intake by eating A) steak and pork. B) chicken and turkey. C) low-fat milk and yogurt. D) dark leafy greens, citrus fruits, and beans. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 44) A false negative pregnancy test may result from A) taking the pregnancy test too early in the pregnancy. B) high sodium in the diet. C) high protein in the diet. D) taking the test too early in the morning. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5

45) A disorder that occurs more frequently in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 is A) blindness. B) deafness. C) spina bifida. D) Down syndrome. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 46) A fetus is the term used to describe a conception as of A) the first month of pregnancy. B) 6 weeks of pregnancy. C) the third month of pregnancy. D) 10 weeks of pregnancy. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 47) Tova is normal weight before she becomes pregnant. She is carrying one fetus. Her health care provider recommends that she gain a total of how many pounds by the end of her pregnancy? A) 11 to 20 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 35 to 45 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 48) Which of the following is TRUE about the third trimester of pregnancy? A) It is the period during which the placenta becomes well established. B) The fetus grows the least during this trimester. C) The fetus needs large amounts of calcium, iron, and protein from the mother's diet. D) It is the period during which the embryo differentiates and develops its various organ systems. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) Amniocentesis A) involves snipping tissue from the developing fetal sac. B) is strongly recommended for pregnant women under the age of 25. C) can identify genetic abnormalities present in the fetus. D) must be performed before the end of the first trimester. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 50) Which of the following procedures performed during pregnancy can determine the size and position of the fetus and detect birth defects in the nervous and digestive systems? A) amniocentesis B) ultrasound C) triple marker screen D) chorionic villus sampling Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 51) Noor just found out that she is pregnant. Noor will need A) to begin prenatal health care appointments by the 26th week of pregnancy. B) to avoid consuming foods high in iron. C) to refrain from alcohol consumption after the first trimester of pregnancy. D) to consume about 300 additional calories a day. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 52) The network of blood vessels that provides nourishment to the fetus is the A) amniotic sac. B) uterus. C) placenta. D) endometrium. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5

53) The fluid-filled, protective pouch surrounding the fetus is the A) amniotic sac. B) uterus. C) placenta. D) endometrium. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 54) A birth defect caused by the mother's alcohol intake during pregnancy is A) rubella. B) spina bifida. C) FAS. D) Down syndrome. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 55) An infection during pregnancy that can cause visual or hearing disorders in the infant is A) rubella. B) spina bifida. C) FAS. D) Down syndrome. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 56) A three-month segment of a pregnancy during which certain developmental changes occur in the embryo or fetus is a A) gestation period. B) cycle. C) trimester. D) phase. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5

57) Olympia gained 67 pounds during her recent pregnancy, and although her infant is now six months old, she is still more than 40 pounds heavier than before pregnancy. Olympia's weight increases her risk for which of the following conditions? A) hypertension B) toxoplasmosis C) pelvic inflammatory disease D) low bone density Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 58) When a pregnant woman's water breaks, what is actually happening is that A) the placental barrier breaks. B) the cervix dilates. C) the baby enters the birth canal. D) the amniotic sac breaks. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 59) The transition stage of birth is characterized by A) the baby's head moving into the birth canal. B) the baby exiting from the birth canal. C) the initial dilation of the cervix. D) the placenta detaching from the uterus. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 60) Which of the following is NOT a reason cesarean sections may be performed? A) Labor lasts too long. B) The baby is in physiological distress. C) The baby is about the exit the uterus any way but headfirst. D) The mother has used pain medication. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6

61) Which of the following circumstances can cause a miscarriage? A) maternal infection or hormone imbalance B) too much caffeine C) consuming a vegetarian diet D) having a strong cervix Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 62) Postpartum depression A) frequently begins just before childbirth. B) can lead to bipolar disorder. C) is characterized by lack of energy, depression, and mood swings. D) is caused by the nutritional demands of breast-feeding. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 63) Which of the following is TRUE about preeclampsia? A) It usually occurs in the first trimester. B) It is never a life-threatening condition for the fetus. C) Fluid retention and sudden weight gain are common signs. D) The incidence of preeclampsia is higher for second- and third-time mothers. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 64) Breast-fed infants A) recover from illness more slowly than formula-fed infants. B) are more prone to allergies. C) have a decreased incidence of illness. D) are more likely to be obese. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6

65) The implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus, usually in a fallopian tube, is called A) ambiguous pregnancy. B) ectopic pregnancy. C) miscarriage. D) preeclampsia. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 66) One of the most common causes of female infertility in the United States is A) chlamydia. B) gonorrhea. C) polycystic ovary syndrome. D) endometriosis. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7 67) Fertility drugs A) increase the chances of multiple births. B) reduce the risk of ovarian cysts. C) can cause hypertension. D) guarantee a successful pregnancy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7 68) Which of the following is TRUE about male infertility? A) Low sperm count can be caused by wearing excessively tight underwear. B) At least 100 viable sperm directly participate in fertilizing an ovum. C) There are normally about 1 million sperm per milliliter of semen. D) Male infertility problems account for about 10 percent of infertility cases. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7

69) A cause of infertility in which uterine tissue is implanted outside the uterus and blocks the fallopian tubes is A) toxoplasmosis. B) endometriosis. C) pelvic inflammatory disease. D) ovarian cancer. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7 70) Which assisted reproductive technology process involves the fertilization of a woman's eggs outside of her body and the transfer of the fertilized eggs to her uterus? A) embryo transfer B) alternative insemination C) in vitro fertilization D) nonsurgical embryo transfer Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7 71) Genevieve was born via gestational surrogacy. Which of the following is TRUE? A) Genevieve's biological mother relinquished her for adoption six months after her birth. B) Genevieve's mother used artificial insemination because Genevieve's father is infertile. C) A woman was hired to carry the embryo of Genevieve's mother and father to term. D) A woman was hired to be artificially inseminated with Genevieve's father's sperm and carry the pregnancy to term, after which she relinquished Genevieve to her parents. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7

72) Avery and Gregory have agreed to adopt the newborn of a 16-year-old mother who has decided to relinquish her baby. The identity of the father is unknown, and Avery and Gregory have been given very little information about the birth mother except for essential health data. This is an example of A) an international adoption. B) a confidential adoption. C) an open adoption. D) foster parenting. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7 73) Chaz and Jessamine are healthy and in their late 20s. They have been trying to conceive a child for the past six months without success. Chaz and Jessamine A) should ask Jessamine's physician to prescribe fertility drugs. B) should consult an adoption agency about their options for adopting a child. C) are experiencing a form of infertility due to factors involving both partners. D) are not considered infertile. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7 74) In the United States, 45% of all pregnancies are unintended. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Basic Principles of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.1 75) Most types of diaphragms can be purchased over the counter wherever condoms are sold. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 76) All spermicides are effective in preventing sexually transmitted infections. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 19 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

77) One advantage of condoms is that they can be used multiple times. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 78) For women with a 28-day menstrual cycle who want to avoid pregnancy using the calendar method, 22 days of the cycle are relatively safe for unprotected intercourse. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 79) Contraceptive implants are more effective at preventing pregnancy than oral contraceptives. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 80) Some intrauterine contraceptives release small amounts of hormones. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 81) Outercourse is 100 percent effective against STIs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 82) Emergency contraceptive pills have been used by about one in five sexually active college students or their partners. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2

83) Sterilization is the most popular method of contraception for women of all ages combined. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 84) Most research into birth control methods is focused on men. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Choosing a Method of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.3 85) The abortion method known as "partial birth abortion" is illegal in the United States. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Abortion Learning Outcome: 7.4 86) Medication abortion performed early in the pregnancy is over 94% effective. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Abortion Learning Outcome: 7.4 87) About two-thirds of U.S. abortions are performed before the 9th week of pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Abortion Learning Outcome: 7.4 88) If a woman has a urinary tract infection and takes a pregnancy test, a false positive may result. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5

89) The correct term for the uterus in a pregnant woman is the placenta. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 90) The very first sign of pregnancy is usually a missed menstrual period. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 91) Most miscarriages occur during the first trimester. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 92) One in four new mothers experience postpartum depression. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 93) The Lamaze method is the most popular method of childbirth preparation in the United States. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 94) An underlying birth defect is often a contributing factor in stillbirth. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6

95) One common factor contributing to low sperm count is overweight and obesity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7 96) Approximately 2 percent of U.S. children are adopted. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7 97) Identify the three conditions necessary for conception, and at least three methods of contraception, identifying the necessary condition that each of these methods disrupts. Answer: Conception requires: (1) a viable egg; (2) a viable sperm; and (3) access to the egg by the sperm. Examples of methods of contraception and the necessary condition they disrupt would include: • Hormonal birth control methods that suppress ovulation are effective in altering condition (1), the viable egg. Moreover, fertility awareness methods attempt to ensure that a viable egg is not present in the woman's reproductive tract at the same time as viable sperm. • Although many conditions-such as exposure to heat or certain medications—can alter the health, number, and motility of sperm, no reliable method of contraception currently exists to safely and effectively oppose condition (2), the viable sperm. • Male sterilization prevents sperm from entering the ejaculatory duct. Female sterilization, withdrawal, and barrier methods such as external and internal condoms and spermicide all prevent an encounter between viable sperm and viable egg. These methods alter condition (3), access. In addition, IUDs are thought to block fertilization by affecting the movement of egg and sperm. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Basic Principles of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.1 and 7.2 98) Explain the difference between abstinence and outercourse and the pros and cons of each. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Abstinence means to deliberately avoid oral, vaginal, or anal sex, but can include engaging in kissing, massage, and solitary masturbation. Abstinence is 100 percent effective as birth control and in preventing STIs. Outercourse means engaging in activities such as oralgenital sex and mutual masturbation. Outercourse can be 100 percent effective for birth control but is not 100 percent effective against STIs. Both abstinence and outercourse require discipline and commitment to sustain over time. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

99) Why do you think sterilization is a common method of contraception for men and women of all ages in the United States? Answer: As opposed to other methods of contraception, sterilization is permanent. It can be an excellent method of contraception for anyone who does not want any children or any more children, but should be considered permanent, as it often cannot be reversed. Sterilization also does not prevent STIs. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Contraceptive Methods Learning Outcome: 7.2 100) For a couple that strongly wishes to avoid pregnancy, at least for the next few years, which contraceptive methods would be most desirable and why? Answer: Couples who strongly wish to avoid pregnancy, yet want to preserve their fertility for the future, should make effectiveness a primary consideration in their choice of contraceptive. As shown in Table 7.1, IUDs and contraceptive implants (Nexplanon) are more than 99% effective with typical use. Other hormonal contraceptives are highly effective with typical use, but do not match the effectiveness of IUDs and implants. Other considerations, such as protection against sexually transmitted infections, cost, health concerns, etc., may be important for couples to consider as well. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Choosing a Method of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.3 101) Before choosing a method of contraception, Mariel and Paul decide they want to avoid any method that could reduce their chance of having a successful pregnancy in the future. List at least three other questions they should ask themselves to help them make their decision. Answer: Other questions that might help them make their decision include the following: • How comfortable would we be using this particular method? • Will this method be convenient for us? • Does this method provide protection against STIs? • How would an unplanned pregnancy affect our lives? • What are our religious and moral values? • How much does this method cost? • Do we have any health conditions that could limit our choice? • What, if any, additional benefits would we like from the contraceptive we choose? Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Choosing a Method of Contraception Learning Outcome: 7.3

102) Discuss the current research consensus on the effects of having had an abortion on a woman's emotional health. Answer: A range of emotional responses, from happiness and relief to sadness and regret, are possible following an abortion. However, research does not suggest that abortion causes an increase in anxiety, depression, or thoughts of suicide. Research does suggest that the best predictor of a woman's emotional health following abortion is her emotional health prior to the abortion. Moreover, having to hide an abortion from others, fearing being stigmatized because of it, having a low level of social support, or having a low sense of self-esteem all increase the risk that the woman will have negative psychological consequences. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Abortion Learning Outcome: 7.4 103) What factors do you think should be taken into consideration when planning a pregnancy? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Couples should consider why they want to have a child. They should discuss whether they are ready to make the sacrifices necessary to bear and raise a child. In addition, they should examine whether they can financially afford a child. Both should consider the effect of their age, since the mother's and the father's age can affect the health of the child. Finally, the partners should assess their health status and health behaviors, and both parents-to-be should practice healthy habits such as avoiding smoking and substance abuse. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5 104) Do you think it is important for men to take similar health precautions as women when trying to conceive? Should they consider their age? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Research suggests that a man's exposure to chemicals influences the health of his future child. Some disorders can be traced to sperm damaged by chemicals. Sperm are naturally vulnerable to toxic chemicals and genetic damage. Moreover, the father's age can play a role in the health of his offspring. Children born to older fathers appear to have an increased risk for autism, ADHD, bipolar disorder, and schizophrenia. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Pregnancy Learning Outcome: 7.5

105) Identify at least three actions parents can take to reduce their infant's risk of SIDS. Answer: SIDS, or sudden infant death syndrome, is the leading cause of death among infants in the United States. To reduce their infant's risk of SIDS, parents can put infants on their back to sleep, and remove all soft bedding either under or on top of the infant. Mothers can breastfeed their infant, and both parents can avoid exposing the infant to tobacco smoke. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Childbirth Learning Outcome: 7.6 106) Discuss at least three options for infertile couples who cannot conceive despite treatment. Answer: Infertile couples who cannot conceive despite treatment may decide to remain childless, perhaps working or volunteering to help children in their community. Alternatively, they may decide to pursue surrogate motherhood using a fertilized ovum from the parents, or ova or sperm from either parent. They could also consider adoption, whether within the United States or overseas. Finally, they could consider acting as foster parents for an older child within the United States foster care system. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Infertility Learning Outcome: 7.7

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 8 Recognizing and Avoiding Addiction and Drug Abuse 1) People with a physiological dependence on a substance, such as an addictive drug, will experience A) withdrawal but not tolerance. B) tolerance but not withdrawal. C) neither tolerance nor withdrawal. D) both tolerance and withdrawal. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 2) James is no longer able to feel the same effect from his drug of choice with his regular dose; he needs to increase the amount of the drug to feel the desired effect. This demonstrates A) withdrawal. B) tolerance. C) adjustment. D) intolerance. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 3) Addictive substances and behaviors A) have the potential to produce a positive mood change. B) eventually lose their hold on a person over time. C) do not necessarily have negative consequences. D) involve some type of substance abuse. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1

4) Dayson doesn't see that their addiction to heroin is self-destructive. They are experiencing A) obsession. B) compulsion. C) loss of control. D) denial. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 5) The cycle of psychological addiction typically A) begins when a person experiences a sense of loss of control. B) evolves very quickly–within a few hours to days. C) ends once the person experiences depression, shame, or guilt over the behavior. D) involves nurturing through avoidance. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 6) The biopsychosocial model of addiction allows that A) about 80 percent of a person's risk for addiction can be attributed to their genes. B) metabolism, an external locus of control, and media messages that glamorize drug abuse can all increase the risk for addiction. C) an individual's risk for addiction is influenced mostly by their biology, secondarily by their psychological make-up, and thirdly by society. D) social learning rarely influences an individual's risk for addiction. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 7) Which of the following is an example of a process addiction? A) compulsive gambling B) regular Internet use C) alcoholism D) a disciplined exercise routine Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2

8) David spends four hours a day cycling and lifting weights and will miss classes and outings with friends so he can go to the gym. He most likely suffers from which of the following disorders? A) bipolar disorder B) anorexia nervosa C) exercise addiction D) bulimia Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2 9) Which of the following is TRUE about gambling disorder? A) Gambling problems do not tend to become worse over time. B) The American Psychological Association does not classify gambling disorder as an addictive disorder. C) Most compulsive gamblers seek a high from the excitement even more than from money. D) People with a compulsive gambling disorder and people who abuse drugs have entirely different cravings and highs. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2 10) College students who become addicted to gambling face an increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT A) failing grades. B) serious debt. C) smoking. D) psychological difficulties. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2

11) Compulsive buying disorder is often associated with A) eating. B) exercise. C) lying. D) financial problems. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2 12) Which of the following statements about Internet addiction is TRUE? A) People with Internet addiction tend to be sleep deprived and have a general disregard for their health. B) An estimated 1 in 56 Internet users is thought to have Internet addiction. C) Online shopping and social media use are the Internet activities most commonly associated with addiction. D) A majority of young adults age 18 to 29 say they are online almost constantly. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2 13) Rob is a chief executive officer at a technology company. He is overweight and has borderline high blood pressure. When his physician advises regular physical activity, Rob replies that he is too busy to exercise. Of the following addictions, which is Rob MOST likely experiencing? A) exercise addiction B) work addiction C) technology addiction D) Internet addiction Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2

14) Chelsea occasionally takes aspirin to relieve a headache. Chelsea is A) unlikely to feel an effect for as long as thirty minutes. B) taking a psychoactive drug. C) likely to develop cross-tolerance. D) using a transdermal drug. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 15) A substance intended to affect the structure or function of the body or mind through chemical action is A) an illicit drug. B) a prescription drug. C) a synergistic drug. D) a drug. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 16) Which of the following is TRUE about routes of administration of psychoactive drugs? A) Psychoactive drugs can't be absorbed through the skin. B) Intravenous injection is the most dangerous method of administration. C) The least effective route of administration is by inhalation. D) Psychoactive drugs taken orally reach the bloodstream faster than those taken by inhalation. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 17) The fastest-acting method of drug administration is A) oral ingestion. B) intramuscular. C) inhalation. D) suppositories. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3

18) Using a nicotine patch for smoking cessation is an example of which route of administration? A) injection B) oral ingestion C) transdermal D) inhalation Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 19) All of the following are true about suppositories EXCEPT that A) they are designed to melt at body temperature. B) they are inserted into the vagina or anus. C) they enable a drug to be released into the bloodstream. D) their route of administration is transdermal. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 20) Psychoactive drugs have which type of effect on the body? A) They potentiate the effect of other drugs on the nervous system. B) They enhance, suppress, or interfere with neurotransmission. C) They speed up energy metabolism and body movements. D) They depress or slow all body functions. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 21) The so-called pleasure circuit A) is activated when the pituitary gland releases hormones related to pleasure into the bloodstream. B) includes the central nervous system, the endocrine system, and the immune system. C) spans the brain, sensory receptors in the skin, and motor neurons attached to muscles. D) is also known as the mesolimbic dopamine system. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3

22) Which type of drug is defined as having the potential to alter a person's mood or behavior? A) over-the-counter drug B) illicit drug C) psychoactive drug D) recreational drug Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 23) When drugs activate the brain's pleasure circuit, what neurotransmitter is involved? A) dopamine B) ketamine C) melamine D) amphetamine Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 24) Which of the following is TRUE about over-the-counter drugs? A) Some require a prescription. B) They are monitored under the care of a physician. C) They can be misused. D) They increase costs to the U.S. health care system. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4 25) In a synergistic drug interaction A) one drug blocks the action of another drug. B) two drugs multiply each other's effects. C) two or more drugs combine to produce extremely uncomfortable reactions. D) an individual develops a tolerance to one drug that increases his or her tolerance to another drug. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4

26) To help him fight his addiction to alcohol, Andy's physician has prescribed a drug that will make him feel intensely uncomfortable if he drinks alcohol. This type of response is called A) antagonism. B) synergism. C) intolerance. D) cross-tolerance. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4 27) The interaction of two or more drugs at the same receptor site in which one blocks the action of the other is A) antagonism. B) synergism. C) intolerance. D) cross-tolerance. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4 28) Derrick frequently takes an over-the-counter stimulant weight loss drug just before heading to the gym for a workout, during which he typically consumes a 16-ounce energy drink. The interaction of the drugs in these products is MOST likely to be A) antagonistic. B) synergistic. C) an intolerance. D) a cross-tolerance. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4

29) Terence takes several vitamin supplements as well as a prescribed cholesterol medication and an over-the-counter pain reliever for his arthritis. He also typically drinks two beers each evening. Terence is exhibiting A) reuptake. B) potentiation. C) drug abuse. D) polydrug use. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4 30) The excessive use of a drug is A) abuse. B) dependence. C) tolerance. D) misuse. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 31) Using a drug for a purpose other than that for which it is intended is A) drug abuse. B) drug use. C) drug misuse. D) drug tolerance. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 32) One long-term consequence associated with illicit drug use in college is A) vandalism. B) engaging in a physical fight. C) dismissal from a college sports team. D) increased risk of unemployment after college. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5

33) According to research, A) painkillers are the most commonly abused prescription drugs on campus. B) addiction to prescription painkillers typically takes many years to develop. C) approximately 24 percent of college students report misusing prescription drugs in the previous three months. D) friends are the most common source of misused prescription drugs. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 34) Students most commonly misuse the stimulant Adderall in order to A) help them sleep. B) boost their ability to study. C) help them lose weight. D) relieve their anxiety. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 35) Over-the-counter drugs commonly subject to misuse and abuse include A) melatonin, aspirin, and pseudoephedrine. B) diuretics, multivitamins, and herbal supplements. C) cold medicines, diet pills, and sleep aids. D) antacids, pain relievers, and diet pills. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 36) Diet pills contain ingredients such as caffeine, and can therefore act in what way on the body? A) as a hallucinogen B) as a stimulant C) as a depressant D) as a narcotic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5

37) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that prescription drug abuse is so common? A) People perceive prescription drugs as safer than illicit drugs. B) Prescription drugs are easily accessible. C) Prescription drugs have few side effects. D) Prescription drugs are relatively inexpensive. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 38) Among American adults, the second most commonly abused type of drug, after marijuana, is A) inhalants. B) ergogenic drugs. C) over-the-counter drugs. D) prescription drugs. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 39) Mikail is attempting to reduce his caffeine consumption. Assuming an 8-ounce serving, which of the following drinks that he consumes daily has the highest amount of caffeine? A) black tea B) regular cola C) energy drink D) coffee Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 40) Heroin has a A) high potential for addiction and limited medical use. B) high potential for addiction and no medical use. C) low potential for addiction and no medical use. D) high potential for addiction and medical use. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6

41) A large dose of cocaine can cause A) convulsions. B) decreased heart rate and blood pressure. C) increased appetite and fatigue. D) a sustained high. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 42) Research indicates that cannabidiol (CBD) A) may be a useful treatment for infertility in males. B) can reduce the perception of pain. C) is present in significant amounts in hulled help seed and hemp seed oil. D) can trigger seizures. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 43) Which of the following is NOT true of methamphetamine? A) It can produce a high lasting over 8 hours when smoked. B) It destroys dopamine receptors. C) It takes long-term use to develop tolerance. D) It can be snorted, smoked, injected, or orally ingested. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 44) Opioids are also called A) depressants. B) stimulants. C) narcotics. D) hallucinogens. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6

45) Marijuana today is A) not subject to state or federal drug laws. B) not able to be orally ingested. C) less of a health risk than it used to be. D) legal for medical purposes in 36 states. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 46) All of the following statements about the effects of chronic marijuana use are true EXCEPT: A) Vaping marijuana is associated with fewer adverse effects on the lungs than smoking marijuana. B) Marijuana use during pregnancy causes subtle brain changes that increase the risk for memory and attention problems in offspring. C) The lungs of marijuana smokers are exposed to more tar per breath than the lungs of tobacco smokers. D) Males who use marijuana frequently and persistently during adolescence have an increased risk for testicular cancer as young adults. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 47) Marijuana is administered therapeutically for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) to reduce the muscle pain and spasticity caused by multiple sclerosis. B) to control side effects of chemotherapy such as nausea and vomiting. C) to forestall loss of lean muscle mass due to AIDS-wasting syndrome. D) to suppress appetite for weight control. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6

48) Which of the following statements about marijuana and driving is TRUE? A) The risk of being involved in a motor vehicle accident increases by nearly 30 percent when a driver is under the influence of marijuana. B) There is a direct correlation between increased blood THC concentration and decreased driving ability. C) Typically, marijuana users who get behind the wheel recognize that they are impaired, but make the decision to drive anyway. D) The deficits in perception and performance associated with marijuana use typically resolve as soon as the high subsides. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 49) Morphine, codeine, and heroin are all A) available over the counter. B) opioids. C) amphetamines. D) available by prescription. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 50) Which of the following statements about LSD is TRUE? A) Anthropological evidence suggests that it has been used as a hallucinogen for at least three thousand years. B) It may cause suppressed memories to resurface. C) It commonly decreases both heart rate and temperature, resulting in characteristic chills. D) It is highly addictive. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6

51) Mescaline A) is derived from a cactus. B) has few side effects. C) is a depressant. D) is usually dried, crushed to a powder, and smoked. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 52) Which of the following is TRUE about psilocybin? A) It is the active chemical in a type of grass. B) Its physical effects wear off in 1-2 hours. C) It can cause hallucinations. D) Its use is criminalized in all 50 U.S. states. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 53) Which of the following statements about PCP is TRUE? A) It is commonly referred to as acid. B) It was first used as an inhaled sedative prior to surgery. C) It can produce either euphoria or dysphoria. D) It is still used for surgery in some states. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 54) Ecstasy is a stimulant and a(n) A) mild hallucinogen. B) antidepressant. C) narcotic. D) anesthetic. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6

55) Which of the following is TRUE about inhalants? A) The products used are illegal for purchase by minors. B) They reach the bloodstream 10 minutes after inhalation. C) Doses are difficult to control because of individual lung capacities. D) The effects last for days. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 56) Anabolic steroids are a type of A) hallucinogenic drug. B) anti-psychotic drug. C) ergogenic drug. D) testosterone-reducing drug. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 57) Fentanyl is A) almost as potent as morphine. B) responsible for nearly one-fourth of all opioid-related overdose deaths. C) classified as a tranquilizer. D) used medically to relieve severe pain. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 58) Chemical vapors in household products such as varnish, glues, and gasoline are examples of A) club drugs. B) inhalants. C) stimulants. D) over-the-counter drugs. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6

59) Bath salts A) are powders that release an intoxicating fragrance when poured into hot water. B) can cause a rapid drop in blood pressure and heart rate when ingested, snorted, or injected. C) can produce anxiety, agitation, hallucinations, and paranoia when used at high doses. D) are a relatively new form of MDMA. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 60) The drug naloxone is A) used synergistically to boost the effects of opioids. B) available at many pharmacies without a prescription. C) metabolized slowly in the body and therefore can be effective for as long as twelve hours. D) also referred to as Jackpot. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 61) Colby has been prescribed a drug called Ativan for anxiety and insomnia. Colby is taking a A) narcotic. B) psychedelic. C) benzodiazepine. D) barbiturate. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 62) Lisa is aware that her best friend, Kim, has a drinking problem. Lisa continually makes excuses for her and often completes Kim's homework to protect her from flunking out of school. Lisa's behavior is an example of A) enabling. B) reinforcing. C) intervening. D) compulsion. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Impacts of Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.7

63) Which of the following is a sign of codependent behavior? A) joining an addict in a destructive behavior, such as regularly getting drunk at parties B) having a childhood history of parent or other caregiver addiction C) trying to encourage an addicted family member or friend to get help D) striving to meet an addicted person's needs in a way that encourages their addictive behavior Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Impacts of Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.7 64) A majority of Americans who abuse illicit drugs A) are homeless. B) are unemployed. C) receive the treatment they need. D) will steal from their employer to support their habit. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Impacts of Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.7 65) A set of practical strategies, from safer drug use to abstinence, aimed at reducing drug use consequences is known as A) the war on drugs. B) harm reduction. C) addiction intervention. D) enabling recovery in place. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Impacts of Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.7 66) All of the following drugs are used to treat opioid addiction EXCEPT A) methadone. B) naltrexone (Trexan). C) buprenorphine (Temgesic). D) methamphetamine. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8

67) The process of freeing the body physically and cognitively from an addictive substance is known as A) mainlining. B) counseling. C) detoxification. D) rehabilitation. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8 68) Treatment approaches for college students who develop drug addictions include all of the following approaches EXCEPT A) cognitive training. B) group therapy. C) extrasensory perception therapy. D) nutrition counseling. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8 69) Therapeutic communities are a type of A) outpatient behavioral treatment. B) long-term residential treatment. C) individual therapy. D) 12-step program. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8

70) Which of the following statements about drug abuse treatment is TRUE? A) Several vaccines that block addictive drugs from reaching the brain have recently received FDA approval. B) The individuals involved in an intervention are not health care providers or law enforcement agents, but family members and friends. C) In most cases, an addiction to drugs or alcohol can be considered cured once detoxification has been achieved. D) Treating drug and alcohol abuse is much more costly in the long run than not treating. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8 71) Withdrawal and tolerance are key aspects of addiction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 72) Psychological dependence, which involves feelings of well-being or euphoria, is completely distinct from physiological dependence on a substance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 73) A characteristic of addiction is loss of control, which typically leads directly to negative consequences. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 74) Working passionately for long hours is a key characteristic associated with work addiction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2

75) Many people who engage in compulsive sexual behavior have a history of physical, emotional, or sexual abuse. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2 76) Almost all psychoactive drugs work by increasing the brain's production of neurotransmitters. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3 77) A synergistic drug interaction can be dangerous or even deadly. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4 78) Although Martha drinks an herbal tea at night formulated to support healthy sleep, the botanicals in this tea would not meet the definition of a drug. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4 79) One result of the coronavirus pandemic was an increase in drug abuse that in turn led to an increase in overdose deaths. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 80) College students tend to underestimate the extent of drug use on campus. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5

81) In contrast to prescription sleep medications, over-the-counter sleep aids are not associated with tolerance or dependence. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 82) Endorphins are hormones that act as "the body's own opioids" in their ability to reduce pain and produce feelings of well-being. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 83) More than 40 percent of college students report having used marijuana in the past year. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 84) Depressants speed up neuromuscular activity and can increase focus and alertness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 85) Marijuana use may forestall the loss of lean muscle mass associated with AIDS. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 86) Mescaline, in the form of dried peyote buttons, has long been used for religious purposes by people native to the southwestern United States and Latin America. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6

87) GHB is a safe alternative to steroids. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 88) In the United States, help is available for anyone who truly wants to overcome an addiction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Impacts of Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.7 89) Compulsive eating is common among people trying to overcome drug addiction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Impacts of Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.7 90) During the first year of the coronavirus pandemic, drug overdose deaths plummeted. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Impacts of Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.7 91) One reason that methadone maintenance is controversial is that it can be addictive. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8 92) Treatment and recovery from any addiction typically begin with abstinence. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8

93) Relapse is a defining characteristic of addiction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8 94) How would you recognize it if a friend or family member displayed an addictive behavior? Provide information from the chapter to support your response. Answer: An addicted person displays symptoms that include compulsion or excessive preoccupation with a particular behavior and an overwhelming need to perform it; a loss of control; negative consequences such as physical damage, legal trouble, financial problems, or academic failure; and denial or an inability to perceive that the behavior is self-destructive. The person also exhibits an inability to abstain from the behavior. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Does Addiction Develop? Learning Outcome: 8.1 95) How would you recognize technology addiction in a friend or family member? Provide information from the chapter to support your response. Answer: Individuals with a technology addiction consistently spend hours online or texting instead of eating, sleeping, studying, exercising, or interacting with friends in person. They feel a sense of euphoria when online, and are moody or uncomfortable offline. Other signs of addiction include sleep deprivation, a disregard for personal health, poor job performance, low grades, and neglecting family and friends. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Addictive Behaviors Learning Outcome: 8.2 96) Focusing on the role of dopamine, explain the normal process of neural communication at a brain synapse, and how a drug like cocaine can disrupt this process. Answer: As part of the process by which one neuron communicates with another, dopamine, a neurotransmitter, is released into the synapse between the neurons. It temporarily binds with receptors on the receiving neuron; then, the transmitting neuron takes up the dopamine again through a transporter. Drugs like cocaine exert their effects by attaching to these dopamine transporters, thereby blocking the reuptake of dopamine into the transmitting neuron. This leaves excessive amounts of dopamine active in the synapse, creating feelings of excitement and euphoria while the drug is in effect, and a subsequent "crash" as the drug wears off. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Drug Actions and Administration Learning Outcome: 8.3

97) In addition to prescription and over-the-counter drugs, identify four other categories of drugs and give one example of each. Answer: (Examples may vary.) In addition to prescription and over-the-counter drugs, four categories of drugs are recreational drugs such as alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine; herbal preparations such as chamomile tea, St. John's wort, and garlic capsules; illicit drugs such as heroin, LSD, cocaine, and others discussed in section 8.6; and commercial drugs such as chemicals found in paints, glues, inks, dyes, and pesticides. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Drug Categories and Interactions Learning Outcome: 8.4 98) Distinguish between drug misuse and abuse. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Drug misuse is the use of a drug for a purpose for which it was not intended, such as taking a friend's prescription painkiller for your headache. Drug abuse is excessive use of any drug that may result in serious harm. Both may lead to addiction. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5 99) Savannah's best friend on campus has a prescription for Adderall to treat her ADHD. She tells Savannah that she has more pills than she needs, and offers some to Savannah for free to help "get her through mid-terms." Identify at least three questions Savannah should ask herself before accepting her friend's offer. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer. Answer: Answers will vary. Savannah should ask herself why she might consider accepting the drugs. Does she believe that, by accepting her friend's offer, she'll impress or fit in better with her peers? If so, what does that say about her and about her peers? She should also ask herself how she expects taking the drugs will cause her to feel, and what effect the drugs might have on her behavior. She also needs to think about the wider consequences of using the drugs, especially if she begins to rely on them for "successful studying" or even becomes addicted to them, or if she is caught using them. One survey found that more than 10 percent of college students who used prescription stimulants in the previous three months experienced health, social, legal, or financial consequences. Could Savannah be expelled, risk her current or a future job, shift the relationship she might have with family members and other friends, or even experience reduced self-esteem? Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Drug Misuse and Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.5

100) Do you think marijuana should be used for medicinal purposes? Provide information from the chapter to support your response. Answer: Answers will vary. It can help control the nausea and vomiting that are common side effects of chemotherapy for cancer patients, it improves appetite, and it forestalls the loss of lean muscle mass associated with AIDS-wasting syndrome. It can reduce muscle pain caused by diseases such as multiple sclerosis. Currently, it is legal for medical use in 36 states in the United States, and the FDA has approved several THC-containing medications for such uses. Legalization allows for state regulation of marijuana and encourages standardized and responsible growth. It also saves money in law enforcement. However, opponents assert that there are many FDA-approved medications that are just as effective in treating the same health problems. Moreover, marijuana can also have negative health effects, such as lung disorders, immunosuppression, negative effects on memory, and an increased risk for motor vehicle accidents. Opponents also claim that marijuana has potential as a "gateway drug" leading to more serious substance abuse. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Common Drugs of Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.6 101) Discuss the success of President Nixon's 1971 "War on Drugs" and the legal and publichealth strategies many states now use for responding to illicit drug use. Answer: Answers will vary, but should include three points. (1) The "War on Drugs" was largely unsuccessful in either stopping the flow of drugs into the United States or significantly reducing rates of drug abuse. Moreover, the implementation of the campaign raises issues of social and racial justice. (2) Currently, most states have lowered penalties and reduced or eliminated mandatory sentencing for nonviolent drug crimes. (3) At the same time, many states have adopted prevention strategies to help individuals and communities pursue healthy alternatives to drug use, and some have adopted harm reduction strategies to reduce the harmful consequences of drug use, including infections, overdoses, and fatalities. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Impacts of Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.7

102) Using material from the chapter, discuss the role of social support in addiction recovery. Answer: (Answers will vary.) Social support is a powerful aid to recovery. The ability to connect with others for social interaction, support, and friendship helps to reduce the isolation that those in recovery can otherwise experience. Social support includes community support via a formal group such as a 12-step program, which helps individuals work toward personal recovery, as well as support from friends, family members, coworkers, and community members. Recovery coaches, a newer option in social support, help people being discharged from treatment programs to connect with community resources and provide emotional support, informational support, help in accessing health and social services, and in finding health social connections and recreational activities. Social and recreational programs for people in recovery include cafes, clubhouses, sports leagues, and music and arts groups. Finally, social media can provide support for people in recovery, reducing isolation and promoting friendships. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Recovery from Addiction and Drug Abuse Learning Outcome: 8.8

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 9 Drinking Alcohol Responsibly and Ending Tobacco Use 1) Approximately what percentage of Americans consume alcoholic beverages regularly? A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 2) Moderate and responsible alcohol consumption A) may reduce an individual's risk for cancer. B) may reduce an individual's risk for cardiovascular disease. C) is defined as no more than 3 drinks per day. D) is known to enhance overall physical and mental health as well as self-confidence and social connections. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 3) Eating food when drinking alcohol A) slows alcohol absorption. B) speeds up alcohol absorption. C) decreases the absorption of nutrients in food. D) increases the absorption of nutrients in food. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 4) What is the percentage of alcohol in 100 proof whiskey? A) 80 percent B) 40 percent C) 50 percent D) 20 percent Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The main site of alcohol metabolism is the A) spleen. B) liver. C) colon. D) kidney. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 6) Factors affecting alcohol absorption include all of the following EXCEPT A) the drinker's weight and body mass. B) the drinker's mood. C) the type of drink. D) the time of day the alcohol is consumed. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 7) Which of the following statements about alcohol absorption is FALSE? A) Alcohol can be diffused from the stomach lining into the bloodstream. B) Almost 80 percent of alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine. C) The alcohol in wine is absorbed more slowly than the alcohol in a shot of whiskey. D) Carbonated alcoholic beverages are absorbed less rapidly than those containing no sparkling additives. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 8) One standard drink equals A) 12 ounces of beer or 1.5 ounces of 80 proof liquor. B) 10 ounces of wine or 1 ounce of 80 proof liquor. C) 16 ounces of beer or wine. D) 6 ounces of malt liquor or 8 ounces of beer. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1

9) How long does it take for the average adult to metabolize four 12-ounce beers? A) 2 hours B) 3 hours C) 4 hours D) 5 hours Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 10) Shortly before leaving for a party, Kristina drank two cans of an energy drink containing 200 mg caffeine each. Which of the following is likely to happen at the party? A) Kristina is likely to pass out after having only two or three drinks. B) Kristina is likely to drink much more heavily than she would have if she had not had the energy drinks. C) Kristina is likely to experience an intolerance reaction of nausea and vomiting prompted by her consumption of both the energy drinks and the alcohol. D) Kristina is likely to feel exhausted and leave the party early. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 11) A standard rum and cola will be absorbed faster than a 5-ounce glass of wine because A) carbonation causes the pyloric valve to relax. B) carbonated beverages have less alcohol. C) a rum and cola has more sugar than the glass of wine. D) distilled beverages are absorbed more slowly than nondistilled. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 12) A driver is "usually impaired" at a blood alcohol concentration of A) 0.01 to 0.04 percent. B) 0.05 to 0.07 percent. C) 0.08 to 0.14 percent. D) 0.15 to 0.24 percent. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) After a night of heavy drinking, John still appears sober while his friends are obviously intoxicated. It is likely that John has developed A) alcoholic acceptance. B) nonalcoholic personality. C) learned behavioral tolerance. D) sobriety syndrome. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 14) Metabolism of alcohol by the liver produces a toxic chemical called A) acetaldehyde. B) acetate. C) alcohol dehydrogenase. D) transacetate. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 15) One reason that the effects of alcohol are different for women and men is that A) women have lower levels of body fat than men. B) women have less water in their tissues than men. C) women are not affected by congeners. D) men are not affected by congeners. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 16) The ratio of alcohol to total blood volume is the A) complete blood count. B) red blood cell volume. C) blood alcohol concentration. D) ethyl alcohol density. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1

17) An addictive drug produced by fermentation is A) ethyl alcohol. B) congener. C) acetaldehyde. D) dehydrogenase. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 18) What happens to alcohol after it is ingested and absorbed, but not yet metabolized? A) It is converted to lipids and stored as body fat. B) It is stored in liver cells. C) It circulates in the bloodstream. D) It circulates in the lymphatic system. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 19) Which of the following statements about a hangover is TRUE? A) Toxic forms of alcohol known as congeners may be a contributing factor. B) Irritation of the stomach lining from decreased production of hydrochloric acid can prompt nausea. C) It usually develops within 1 to 2 hours of heavy drinking. D) It usually takes 1 to 2 hours to recover from a hangover. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 20) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of alcohol poisoning? A) inability to be roused B) weak, rapid pulse C) yellowish tint to the skin D) irregular breathing patterns Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2

21) Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can cause significant brain damage and other impairments in the fetus; this condition is known as A) fetal cirrhosis. B) alcoholic hepatitis. C) fetal alcohol syndrome. D) teratogenic paralysis. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 22) The overall reduction in alcohol-related driving fatalities since the 1980s is due in part to A) an increased number of alcohol rehabilitation facilities. B) zero tolerance laws and increased drinking age. C) less restrictive enforcement of laws in some states. D) a decreased drinking age in many states. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 23) Urinating frequently after alcohol consumption occurs because A) alcohol is a diuretic. B) alcohol filters through the kidneys faster than water. C) alcohol shrinks the bladder. D) alcohol can be a gastrointestinal irritant. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 24) The water that is pulled out of the body when someone drinks heavily is taken from A) fat stores. B) cerebrospinal fluid. C) skeletal muscle. D) cerebral tissue. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2

25) Jeff has been binge-drinking a lot over the past few months. His friends are concerned that this behavior puts him at risk for a condition that involves a potentially lethal blood alcohol concentration. Which condition is this? A) fatty liver disease B) alcohol poisoning C) cirrhosis D) alcoholic hepatitis Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 26) The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome include A) intellectual disability. B) abnormally large head size. C) Down's syndrome. D) passive and calm behavior. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 27) Which of the following is TRUE of drinking and driving? A) Fifteen percent of all traffic fatalities are alcohol-related. B) The likelihood of a driver being involved in a motor vehicle crash increases significantly at a BAC of 0.02 percent. C) Alcohol-related fatal motor vehicle crashes are more common on weekend nights than on nights during the week. D) During the first year of the coronavirus pandemic, motor vehicle fatalities dropped dramatically. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2

28) In the United States, alcohol consumption is involved in A) nearly one in ten suicide attempts. B) more than 60 percent of sexual assaults or unwanted sexual contacts. C) about 17 percent of boating and swimming fatalities. D) about 1,500 motor-vehicle fatalities each year. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 29) The last stage of liver disease that can result from years of heavy drinking is A) alcoholic hepatitis. B) hepatic amyloidosis. C) fibrosis. D) cirrhosis. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 30) Long-term alcohol abusers can develop a chronic and dangerous inflammation of the liver known as A) alcoholic hepatitis. B) hepatic amyloidosis. C) fibrosis. D) cirrhosis. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 31) Which of the following statements about college drinking is TRUE? A) Three-quarters of college students are classified as binge drinkers. B) About 44 percent of college students have never drunk alcohol. C) Few students experience negative consequences as a result of alcohol consumption. D) Female college students' alcohol consumption is close to that of male college students. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3

32) Binge drinking is defined for the typical adult as A) 3 or more drinks for females or 4 or more drinks for males in about two hours. B) 4 or more drinks for females or 5 or more drinks for males in about two hours. C) 5 or more drinks for females or 6 or more drinks for males in about two hours. D) 5 or more drinks for both females and males in about two hours. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3 33) Drinking games result in the consumption of large quantities of alcohol in a short period of time and have been associated with A) paranoid behavior. B) binge eating. C) muscle and joint disorders. D) death from alcohol poisoning. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3 34) An NIAAA approach to reducing alcohol consumption on campus is called A) pregaming. B) Alcohol EDU. C) Brief Alcohol Screening and Intervention for College Students. D) the Alcohol e-Check Up to Go (e-Chug). Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3 35) Colleges have implemented programs to reduce alcohol use that include a nonjudgmental approach to working with students known as A) motivational interviewing. B) 12-step programs. C) detoxification centers. D) pharmacological therapy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3

36) If you know you will be at an event where alcohol will be served, what can you do to drink responsibly? A) Attend with friends who drink more than you do. B) Make sure that someone else has volunteered to be a designated driver. C) Don't eat for several hours before the event. D) Eat shortly before you go and alternate alcoholic and nonalcoholic drinks. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3 37) When alcohol is inhaled rather than swallowed, A) it takes about 30 minutes longer to enter the bloodstream. B) it stimulates the gag reflex. C) the risk for alcohol toxicity is reduced. D) it is not metabolized prior to entering the bloodstream. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3 38) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to global health and alcohol use? A) Almost 4 percent of all deaths worldwide are attributed to alcohol. B) The highest consumption levels can be found in the developing world. C) Alcohol is a factor in 30 types of diseases and injuries. D) At the same consumption level, men are more likely than women to develop cancer. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4 39) Which of the following is TRUE about women and alcoholism? A) As opposed to men with alcoholism, women with alcoholism have a lower risk for cirrhosis. B) Women get addicted faster with less alcohol use than men. C) Alcoholism death rates are lower for women than for men. D) Married women are at the highest risk for alcoholism among females. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4

40) The process by which addicts get an addictive substance out of their system as part of ending their dependence on it is A) intervention. B) detoxification. C) confrontation. D) resistance. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4 41) The greatest risk from drug mixing occurs when alcohol is combined with A) aspirin, ibuprofen, or another nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. B) birth control pills. C) antibiotics. D) prescription painkillers. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4 42) Scott spends most of his weekends either drinking or recovering from drinking, and as a result is unable to keep up with his studying and assignments. Scott A) has drunkorexia. B) has an alcohol use disorder. C) is alcohol dependent. D) is a functional alcoholic. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4 43) How many Americans suffer from health disorders caused by tobacco? A) half a million B) 2 million C) 7 million D) 16 million Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5

44) Which of the following is a TRUE statement? A) In 2020, 9 percent of all Americans smoked. B) Half of all regular smokers die of smoking-related diseases. C) Tobacco is the second leading cause of preventable death in the United States. D) More deaths are due to illegal drug use than are due to tobacco use. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5 45) Marketing of tobacco products currently targets all of the following EXCEPT A) low-income groups through billboards and posters. B) college students through music festivals and other targeted events. C) men through ads implying masculinity and ruggedness. D) affluent citizens through academic and corporate events. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5 46) Which of the following statements about college students and tobacco use is TRUE? A) College students who identify themselves as social smokers are unlikely to suffer negative health consequences of their behavior. B) College women have higher smoking rates than college men. C) Smoking has decreased among college students during the past decade. D) In 2021, about 20 percent of college students reported smoking within the past 30 days. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5 47) Which statement BEST summarizes what happens when particulate matter condenses in the lungs? A) It competes with oxygen for cell receptor sites. B) It paralyzes the cilia for up to an hour. C) It forms carbon monoxide. D) It forms tar, which is a thick, brownish sludge. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6

48) Which of the following statements about nicotine is TRUE? A) It is a powerful central nervous system stimulant. B) It is mildly addictive. C) It causes a drop in blood pressure. D) Tolerance to it develops after only a few weeks of smoking. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 49) What effect does carbon monoxide have on the body? A) It binds with dopamine receptors to produce the pleasurable effects associated with smoking. B) It diminishes the oxygen-carrying capacity of the red blood cells. C) It diminishes hormone production. D) It irritates nasal passages and lung tissue. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 50) Bidis are becoming increasingly popular because they are viewed as safer than regular cigarettes. Research shows that bidis A) produce at least three times as much nicotine as cigarettes. B) produce 20 percent less tar than cigarettes. C) decrease the smoker's exposure to carbon monoxide as compared to cigarettes. D) require less forceful inhalation to keep them lit. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 51) Which of the following is FALSE about smokeless tobacco? A) It is just as addictive as smoking. B) It contains more nicotine than cigarettes. C) Snus is a sachet of smokeless tobacco that is sucked. D) Young people's use of smokeless tobacco has been declining steadily since 2000. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6

52) Which of the following statements about hookas is TRUE? A) Hookah use originated in Africa. B) Hookah use has not been associated with lung cancer or other respiratory disease. C) Hookah use has been linked to an increased risk for periodontal disease. D) A hookah is a type of pipe that uses smokeless tobacco. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 53) Which of the following is a sign or symptom identified by the American Psychiatric Association as diagnostic of tobacco use disorder? A) use of tobacco for at least one month B) use of tobacco by a minor C) lack of desire or intention to quit tobacco use D) persistent tobacco use in hazardous situations, such as smoking in bed Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 54) The action of nicotine on the cilia of upper respiratory passages prevents them from A) participating in gas exchange. B) producing mucus. C) cleaning out foreign matter. D) stimulating the cough reflex. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 55) Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that regular smokers continue to smoke? A) They enjoy the nicotine buzz. B) The physical and mental effects of quitting are so challenging. C) They believe that smoking helps them socialize. D) They believe that the harmful effects of smoking don't apply to them. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6

56) What substance in certain cigarettes numbs the throat to allow for deeper inhalation? A) menthol B) tar C) carbon monoxide D) nicotine Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 57) If you smoke, your risk for developing lung cancer depends MOST IMPORTANTLY on A) the amount you smoke each day. B) whether or not you also drink alcohol. C) the type of cigarette, cigar, or pipe you smoke. D) whether or not you are also exposed to environmental tobacco smoke. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 58) Smokeless tobacco users A) generally develop cancer after first use more slowly than smokers. B) rarely "graduate" to cigarette smoking. C) are significantly more likely to develop oral cancers than nonusers. D) have an easier time quitting than cigarette smokers. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 59) Which of the following is TRUE about environmental tobacco smoke (ETS)? A) Whereas mainstream smoke is the smoke exhaled by smokers, sidestream smoke is the smoke emitted from the end of a burning cigarette. B) As of 2021, all workplaces throughout the United States are required to be 100 percent smoke-free. C) It is responsible for more than 7,000 U.S. lung cancer deaths in an average year. D) Between 1988 and 2008, detectable levels of nicotine exposure in nonsmoking Americans increased. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) A disease associated with smoking in which alveoli are destroyed is known as A) chronic bronchitis. B) emphysema. C) alveolitis. D) asthma. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 61) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to the health effects of smoking? A) Smoking can cause erectile dysfunction in men, but not impotence. B) Women who smoke are more likely to have fertility problems than non-smokers. C) Nicotine slows the body's use and elimination of medications, increasing their effects. D) Smokers are twice as likely as nonsmokers to suffer a stroke. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 62) Smoking contributes to heart disease by doing all of the following EXCEPT A) weakening tissues. B) increasing platelet adhesiveness. C) decreasing HDL ("good") cholesterol. D) thinning the plaque in the major blood vessels. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 63) Chewing tobacco can lead to a condition characterized by leathery white patches inside the mouth known as A) oral cancer. B) alcoholic hepatitis. C) leukoplakia. D) leukemia. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7

64) Symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include all of the following EXCEPT A) irritability. B) weakness in the limbs. C) nausea and vomiting. D) restlessness. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8 65) Which nicotine replacement product requires a prescription? A) nicotine nasal spray B) nicotine lozenges C) nicotine patch D) nicotine gum Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8 66) Which of the following statements about nicotine replacement products is TRUE? A) The nicotine delivered from inhalers is absorbed into the body much more quickly than the nicotine from cigarettes. B) It is easy to overdose with the nasal spray. C) A piece of nicotine gum delivers about twice the nicotine in a cigarette. D) A nicotine patch requires a prescription. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8 67) Which of the following is a smoking cessation medication? A) Vicodin B) Concerta C) Ambien D) Zyban Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8

68) Which of the following occurs within 24 hours of quitting smoking? A) Chance of heart attack decreases. B) Coughing and shortness of breath decrease. C) Circulation improves. D) Cilia regrow in the lungs. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8 69) A woman who weighs 100 pounds is likely to be unable to drive safely after a single drink. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 70) Alcoholic beverages do not typically contribute to weight gain because the calories are lost in urine. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 71) Alcohol and tobacco result in more deaths each year than all illicit drugs combined. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 72) Stressing out about an upcoming test could increase the alcohol absorption rate in your body. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 73) Alcohol intoxication increases the risk of having unprotected sex. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) If a friend passes out and cannot be roused after drinking heavily for hours, you should call 9-1-1. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 75) Alcohol is a known carcinogen. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 76) Despite myths to the contrary, alcohol has no protective effect on the cardiovascular system. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 77) Drunkorexia is a term used to describe behavior that combines heavy drinking and disordered eating. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3 78) Consumption of alcohol is the number-one cause of preventable death among U.S. college students. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3 79) Most people who are withdrawing from alcohol addiction experience delirium tremens. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4

80) Geneticists have now identified a specific "alcoholism gene" that causes alcohol addiction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4 81) In the first year of recovery from an alcohol use disorder, a majority of patients will experience relapse. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4 82) Currently, about 2,000 U.S. college campuses are smoke-free. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5 83) Advertising for cigarettes targets specific groups in society. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5 84) College students who smoke are more likely to have lower levels of perceived stress than nonsmokers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5 85) Pipes are less of a health risk than cigarettes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6

86) Cigars have higher levels of carcinogens and toxins than cigarettes do. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 87) Cigarettes made with ground cloves deliver lower levels of tar and carbon monoxide than regular cigarettes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 88) People who breathe tobacco smoke from another person's cigarette are known as sidestream smokers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 89) Smoking increases the risk for one of the most common causes of blindness in older adults. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 90) About half of all cases of emphysema are due to cigarette smoking. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 91) More than half of U.S. smokers make a serious attempt to quit each year. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8

92) A pack-a-day smoker who pays the median price per pack of cigarettes in the United States will spend about $3,000 on cigarettes during one year. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8 93) Most people who succeed at quitting smoking do it by going "cold turkey," meaning they simply decide to stop, and they do. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8 94) Explain why any individual, male or female, weighing 140 pounds or less who has had an alcoholic beverage within the last thirty minutes should not get behind the wheel of a car. Answer: Males and females weighing 140 pounds or less who have had even one drink in the past hour are sometimes impaired, and women who weigh 100 pounds or less are usually impaired. Moreover, many variables can affect blood alcohol concentration and level of impairment, including the amount of food eaten, the volume of alcohol in the drink consumed, the individual's level of body fat and body water, and more. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Alcohol: An Overview Learning Outcome: 9.1 95) Identify three reasons that alcohol consumption increases an individual's risk for suicide. Answer: Alcohol is theorized to increase suicide risk by causing an increase in the intensity of depressive thoughts; by lowering an individual's inhibitions to harm himself or herself; and by impairing an individual's ability to think through the future consequences of his or her actions. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2

96) List and describe three possible long-term effects of alcohol intake. Answer: (Any three of the following) • Nervous system: Over the long term, even moderate drinking can cause shrinkage in brain size and weight and loss of some degree of memory and intellectual ability. • Cardiovascular system: Moderate consumption may reduce risk for coronary artery disease by increasing HDL ("good") cholesterol and reducing inflammation. However, heavy alcohol use weakens the heart muscle and contributes to high blood pressure, increasing the risk of heart attack and stroke. • Liver: Fatty liver disease, alcoholic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and increased risk of liver cancer. • Cancer: Alcohol use is linked to cancers of the esophagus, stomach, mouth, liver, colon, rectum, and breast. Alcohol is carcinogenic. • Other: inflammation of pancreas; inhibits enzyme production and affects nutrient metabolism; blocks absorption of calcium, thereby affecting bone development; decreased immunity; menstrual irregularities in females and impotence and testicular atrophy in males. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol and Your Health Learning Outcome: 9.2 97) List six reasons why college students seem particularly susceptible to alcohol-related problems. What steps can you take to reduce your risk of having these problems? Answer: • Alcohol exacerbates the already high rate for suicide, crashes, and falls. • Norms and traditions in college encourage dangerous patterns of alcohol use. • University campuses are a target for alcohol advertising. • Beer and other drink specials enable students to consume large amounts of alcohol cheaply. • College students are particularly vulnerable to peer influences. • College administrators often deny that alcohol problems exist on their campuses. Steps to reduce risk include setting a limit for consumption; using a designated driver; eating before and while you drink; avoiding drinking when you are angry, anxious, or depressed; and avoiding pregaming, drinking games, and parties where you expect heavy drinking. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Alcohol Use in College Learning Outcome: 9.3 98) Alcohol-related costs to society are estimated to be well over $249 billion per year. Explain where these costs come from. Answer: The costs of alcohol to society include those related to: lost productivity; increased health insurance; criminal justice; treatment of alcohol use disorders; health care for those involved in alcohol-related motor vehicle accidents and other traumatic injuries; property damage following vandalism; and many others. Other mental, emotional, and physical costs are impossible to estimate. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4 23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

99) What treatment options are available for an individual who has a drinking problem? Answer: There are support groups such as Alcoholics Anonymous, private treatment facilities, hospitals, and community mental health facilities. Psychologists can also provide therapy (group, individual, or family) aimed at examining the underlying causes of addiction and providing positive coping strategies. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Learning Outcome: 9.4 100) Give two examples of how the tobacco industry Master's Settlement Agreement funds are to be used. Do you think this use is appropriate? What other productive ways could these funds be spent? Answer: Smoking cessation education and advertising; research to determine the effect of smoking cessation strategies; reduce tobacco industry promotions and advertising directed at youth. Answers to the questions will vary based on student opinion. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5 101) How does tobacco use affect the local, state, and national economy? Answer: Tobacco production benefits economies in tobacco-growing states, and cigarette taxes benefit local, state, and federal governments. However, the diseases associated with tobacco use are so numerous and so severe that they impose a staggering financial burden— more than $300 billion—in costs of medical treatment and lost productivity. These costs far exceed the revenues from taxes on tobacco products. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Tobacco Use in the United States Learning Outcome: 9.5 102) Identify at least two health-related concerns associated with e-cigarettes. Answer: Answers will vary but should include two or more of the following: • No reliable research evidence yet exists on the health effects of the chemicals present in the aerosolized vapors emitted from e-cigarettes. • Users of e-cigarettes are exposed to nicotine, carbonyl compounds, and volatile organic compounds, and other solvents and toxins harmful to human health. • The nicotine in e-cigarettes is no less addictive than the nicotine in traditional cigarettes. • The devices themselves contain toxic heavy metals. • The health effects of e-cigarette use are not fully understood. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Tobacco and Its Effects Learning Outcome: 9.6 24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

103) Ida has smoked for twenty years. She wakes each morning breathless and coughing persistently. Identify the respiratory diseases other than lung cancer that Ida is at greatest risk for, and her increase in mortality risk over that of nonsmokers. Answer: Ida is up to 25 times more likely to die of respiratory disease than nonsmokers. The respiratory diseases other than lung cancer she is most at risk for are chronic bronchitis, which is characterized by lung inflammation and a persistent cough, and emphysema, in which the alveoli (tiny air sacs) of the lungs are destroyed and breathing becomes difficult. She is also at increased risk for respiratory infections such as colds, influenza, and pneumonia. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Health Hazards of Tobacco Products Learning Outcome: 9.7 104) Domenic is attempting to quit smoking. When the urge to smoke hits, what "four Ds" can help him overcome it? Answer: Domenic should: • Take a deep breath. • Drink water. • Do something else, such as chewing a piece of gum or carrot stick, calling a friend, or going for a walk. • Delay; that is, wait ten minutes. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8 105) A mindfulness strategy for quitting smoking uses the acronym RAIN to help people manage their nicotine cravings. Identify the four steps in the RAIN strategy. Answer: Recognize the craving that is occurring, and Relax with it. Accept the moment. Pay attention to how your body is feeling. Investigate the experience. Ask yourself what is happening to your body in this moment. Note what is happening. Acknowledge your feelings, but remind yourself that they will pass. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Quitting Smoking Learning Outcome: 9.8

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 10 Nutrition: Eating for a Healthier You 1) Which of the following BEST describes appetite? A) It is the social meaning attached to food. B) It is the same as hunger. C) It is more psychological than physiological. D) It is not triggered by smells or taste. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) Which of the following is classified as a micronutrient? A) water B) fiber C) DHA D) calcium Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 3) Which of the following is TRUE about calories? A) Calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food. B) Calories are one of the basic nutrient groups. C) All nutrients provide calories. D) Caloric needs stay about the same during various life stages. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 4) What type of proteins contain all nine essential amino acids? A) incomplete B) complete C) plant-source D) complementary Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) What substance is not soluble in water, is derived from animal-based foods and synthesized by the body, and while circulating in the blood, can accumulate on the inner walls of arteries and restrict blood flow? A) cholesterol B) simple carbohydrates C) triglycerides D) polyphenols Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 6) Nutrients are A) the constituents in food that the body requires to function properly. B) units of measure that indicate the amount of energy in a particular food. C) made up of three basic food groups: proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. D) naturally occurring plant chemicals believed to have healthful effects. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 7) Which of the following vitamins is readily excreted from the body in urine and unlikely to develop to toxic levels? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin D D) vitamin E Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 8) What percentage of a person's body weight is water? A) 10 to 30 percent B) 30 to 50 percent C) 50 to 70 percent D) 70 to 90 percent Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 2 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Molecules that are the building blocks of protein are A) minerals. B) monosaccharides. C) amino acids. D) fatty acids. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 10) Which of the following statements about fiber is TRUE? A) It speeds up the absorption of cholesterol from the intestinal tract. B) Eating foods high in fiber can help you feel full longer. C) It is abundant in breads and cereals made from refined carbohydrates. D) It is a digestible type of starch. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 11) Which of the following foods is an example of a complete protein? A) pinto beans B) chicken breast C) walnuts D) whole-grain bread Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 12) High-fiber diets may help decrease the risk of all of the following EXCEPT A) colon cancer. B) heart disease. C) obesity. D) fibromyalgia. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1

13) Dietary fats that are solid at room temperature are made up mostly of A) essential fatty acids. B) polyunsaturated fatty acids. C) saturated fatty acids. D) monounsaturated fatty acids. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 14) The form of a sugar that is stored in the liver and muscles and broken down when the body requires a burst of energy is A) glucagon. B) galactose. C) glucose. D) glycogen. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 15) Which type of fiber combines with water to form a gel-like substance and can be digested by bacteria in the colon? A) soluble B) complex C) insoluble D) composite Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 16) Potent and essential organic compounds that promote growth and help to maintain life and health are A) minerals. B) nutrients. C) vitamins. D) additives. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) Omega-6 fatty acids are A) found abundantly in oily fish. B) classified as incomplete fatty acids. C) synthesized by the body. D) polyunsaturated. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 18) High blood levels of this type of cholesterol appear to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, or cholesterol-clogged arteries. A) LDL B) HDL C) triglycerides D) ADL Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 19) The ideal cholesterol ratio for an individual would include A) high HDL and high LDL. B) low HDL and low LDL. C) low HDL and high LDL. D) high HDL and low LDL. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 20) A key reason that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration declared partially hydrogenated oils unsafe for consumption is that A) they are known carcinogens. B) they have been associated with multiple outbreaks of foodborne illness. C) they have been linked to an increased risk for cardiovascular disease. D) they tend to make foods go rancid more quickly. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1

21) When plant oils are hydrogenated, A) LDLs are produced. B) trans fatty acids are produced. C) HDLs are produced. D) cholesterol is produced. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 22) Which of the following has the most saturated fat? A) coconut oil B) palm oil C) butter D) lard Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 23) Taking a large amount of this vitamin can be toxic because excess amounts can accumulate in the liver. A) D B) B6 C) C D) folate Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 24) Minerals that the body needs in very small amounts are A) major minerals. B) minor minerals. C) trace minerals. D) microminerals. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1

25) The mineral necessary for the regulation of blood and body fluids is A) zinc. B) sodium. C) iodine. D) copper. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 26) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is A) iron deficiency. B) sodium deficiency. C) calcium deficiency. D) potassium deficiency. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 27) Which of the following statements about vitamin D is TRUE? A) To preserve their health, all people must consume at least the RDA daily. B) It contributes to the body's absorption of calcium. C) It is classified as a water-soluble vitamin. D) It is abundant in legumes and leafy green vegetables. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 28) Which is NOT a good source of folate? A) spinach B) enriched breads and cereals C) legumes D) fish Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1

29) Which substances protect against oxidative stress and the resultant cell damage? A) hormones B) enzymes C) proteins D) antioxidants Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 30) Which of the following is TRUE about Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs)? A) They are the reference standard for intake levels necessary to meet the needs of most healthy individuals. B) They are the highest amount of a particular nutrient that can be safely consumed on a daily basis. C) They are the recommended average daily intake by healthy people when the research is limited. D) They are the amount of intake needed to prevent chronic disease. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 31) The physiological need to eat to sustain life is A) craving. B) appetite. C) nutrition. D) hunger. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 32) The science that studies food and nourishment, including food composition and the physiological effects of food on the body, is A) biology. B) genetics. C) nutrition. D) medicine. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) Which of the following provides a ready source of energy for daily activities? A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) vitamins D) water Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 34) Which of the following play a role in developing and repairing bone, muscle, skin, and blood cells? A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) fats D) water Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 35) Which of the following is the most energy-dense source of calories in the human diet? A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) fats D) water Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 36) Which of the following nutrients is the major component of blood? A) iron B) protein C) sodium D) water Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1

37) The body converts all forms of simple sugars into which of the following substances to provide energy to cells? A) maltose B) glucose C) starch D) glycogen Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 38) Carbohydrates are used by the body primarily for A) antioxidants. B) short-term energy. C) sustained energy. D) tissue growth and healing. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 39) A condition in which a person experiences a depletion of body fluids is A) dehydration. B) hyponatremia. C) anemia. D) desalination. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 40) What percentage of fruits and vegetables is water? A) 8 to 10 percent B) 20 to 25 percent C) about 50 percent D) 80 to 95 percent Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1

41) Alicia doesn't eat meat, fish, milk, yogurt, cheese, or eggs. She is making her shopping list for the week and wants to make sure that she buys beans, nuts, grains, and seeds to meet her protein needs. Combining two or more of these plant sources in a meal will provide her with A) complex proteins. B) complementary proteins. C) resistant proteins. D) high-density proteins. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 42) A grain that contains the bran, germ, and endosperm is a A) milled grain. B) refined grain. C) whole grain. D) raw grain. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 43) Which of the following vegetables is the BEST source of calcium? A) spinach B) beet greens C) chard D) broccoli Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 44) Foods believed to have additional health benefits beyond the basic nutrition they provide are known as A) health foods. B) functional foods. C) curative foods. D) organic foods. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

45) Tomi cooked a vegetarian stir-fry for dinner. They included slices of shallots, red pepper, carrots, spinach, and brown rice. This meal is rich in A) calcium. B) saturated fats. C) phytochemicals. D) legumes. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 46) Melinda baked a piece of salmon for dinner. On the side, she had a large mixed-green salad topped with toasted walnuts. This meal is rich in A) omega-3 fatty acids. B) partially hydrogenated oils. C) pro-oxidants. D) probiotics. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 47) All of the following points about the Dietary Guidelines for Americans are true EXCEPT that A) they are a set of recommendations for healthy eating. B) they form the basis for the MyPlate food guidance system. C) they provide specific recipes to facilitate meal preparation. D) they are updated every five years. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2 48) The 2020—2025 Dietary Guidelines for Americans suggest that calories from added sugars and saturated fats be limited to no more than what percentage of your daily calorie intake? A) 2 percent B) 10 percent C) 20 percent D) 25 percent Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) Most Americans are meeting the 2020—2025 Dietary Guidelines for Americans' recommended intake of A) fruits. B) vegetables. C) dairy. D) grains. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2 50) Which of the following toppings would BEST meet the MyPlate recommendation to replace saturated with unsaturated fats? A) cream cheese B) mashed avocado C) butter D) grape jelly Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2 51) The MyPlate graphic encourages Americans to make which of the following food groups the largest portion of their plate at each meal? A) fruits B) vegetables C) grains D) protein foods Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2

52) According to MyPlate, when choosing foods and beverages, we should focus on all of the following EXCEPT A) drinking sugary drinks instead of alcohol. B) drinking low-fat or fat-free milk. C) limiting our sodium intake to no more than 2,300 mg/day. D) including beans, peas, and lentils among our protein choices. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2 53) What is the difference between a portion and a serving? A) A serving is the amount you choose to eat, and a portion is the recommended amount to be consumed. B) A serving is the recommended amount to be consumed, and a portion is the amount you choose to eat. C) A serving amount is twice the size of a portion. D) A serving amount is half the size of a portion. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 54) One medium fruit serving is about the size of a(n) A) checkbook. B) golf ball. C) fist. D) egg. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 55) Which of the following could be included in a vegan diet? A) eggs B) raw milk C) fish D) apples Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

56) Kurt, who is a vegetarian, had a cheese omelet for lunch. He is a A) pesco-vegetarian. B) lacto-vegetarian. C) lacto-ovo-vegetarian. D) semivegetarian. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 57) A person who avoids all foods and food products of animal origin, including dairy and eggs, is a A) lacto-ovo-vegetarian. B) vegetarian. C) vegan. D) pesco-vegetarian. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 58) On a food product label, the amount shown as % Daily Value shows A) how many servings are in the package. B) the number of calories in a serving. C) how much of an average adult's allowance for a nutrient is in one serving. D) the food's nutrient-density score. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 59) One of the keys to eating well in college is to A) eat a complete breakfast. B) never eat meals out. C) only eat salad. D) avoid all fats. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3

60) As a student seeking a healthy diet, which of the following tips is NOT recommended when eating fast food? A) Ask for nutritional analyses of food items. B) Eat salads and add all available food options. C) Try baked "fries" rather than traditional french fries. D) Avoid giant-size portions of food or drink. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 61) Silvio wants to eat a healthy lunch in the college dining hall. Which of the following choices is the BEST thing he can order? A) salad made up of lettuce and creamy dressing B) fried chicken in mushroom sauce C) baked potato with salsa D) apple and a donut Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 62) Which of the following is a good tip for simple, healthy eating while going to college? A) Buy packaged foods to save money. B) Make sure half of what you eat is protein. C) Eat as much as possible when you can to avoid getting hungry later. D) Bring along snacks such as dried fruit, nuts, or a banana. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 63) How can you eat well and save money when living as a student on a tight budget? A) On each shopping trip, buy as large an amount of fresh produce as you can afford. B) Avoid canned and frozen foods. C) Buy fruits and vegetables when they are in season. D) Snack on crackers or muffins rather than bananas or carrots because produce is too expensive for snacks. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 16 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

64) Multivitamin-mineral supplements are generally NOT recommended for which of the following groups of people? A) pregnant women B) people on very low-calorie weight loss diets C) healthy individuals wanting to boost their energy levels D) patients with malabsorption problems or other significant health issues Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 65) The following are all tips for mindful eating EXCEPT: A) Eat at the table. B) Take small bites, and chew slowly. C) Enjoy the aroma, taste, and texture of your meals. D) Finish all of the food on your plate. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 66) Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is TRUE? A) The FDA evaluates the safety of dietary supplements before they can be put on the market. B) A majority of Americans takes at least one dietary supplement. C) The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends that Americans take multivitaminmineral supplements to prevent cardiovascular disease and cancer. D) Supplements are best stored in the bathroom medicine cabinet. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 67) The updated Nutrition Facts panel includes information about amount of which of the following in a serving of food? A) added sugars B) vitamin A C) vitamin C D) calories from fat Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 17 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

68) When Cheri was grocery shopping, she noticed a shelf label with three stars beneath a can of low-sodium vegetable and bean soup. This shelf label is an example of A) a Nutrition Facts panel. B) a Facts Up Front label. C) a nutrition rating system. D) a point-of-sale consumer support system. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 69) The disaccharide in dairy products that some people can't digest properly is A) lactose. B) glucose. C) sucrose. D) fructose. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 70) To ensure safety, leftovers that have been properly wrapped and refrigerated should be eaten within A) one day. B) two days. C) three days. D) four days. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4

71) After purchasing fresh meats, if you don't plan to eat them within the next two days, you should A) place them on the top shelf of the refrigerator. B) place them in the freezer. C) remove them from their packaging, wash them, and place them in the vegetable drawer of the refrigerator. D) cook them in the microwave on the high setting for five minutes, and then place them in the refrigerator. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 72) The safest way to thaw frozen food is A) in warm water. B) in the refrigerator. C) in sunlight. D) on the kitchen counter. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 73) According to the criteria set by the USDA, which of the following would be an appropriate label for an apple grown without toxic and persistent pesticides or fertilizers? A) natural B) 100 percent organic C) made with organic ingredients D) some organic ingredients Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 74) Common food allergens include all of the following EXCEPT A) oats. B) peanuts. C) milk. D) eggs. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 19 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

75) Which controversial process is used by some agricultural corporations to create high-yield crops or disease- or insect-resistant plants? A) cross pollination B) genetic modification C) crop rotation D) soil rejuvenation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 76) Which of the following statements is TRUE about organic foods as compared to traditionally grown foods? A) They have better nutrient quality. B) They are likely to have lower pesticide residues. C) They are declining in sales and market share. D) They are always locally grown and produced. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 77) Which of the following statements is TRUE about genetically modified foods? A) They are not tested for safety, and there have been hundreds of substantiated claims of digestive illnesses following their consumption. B) They have the potential to reduce global hunger. C) No research evidence supports the claim that they could cause an allergic reaction. D) They typically grow more slowly than conventional crops. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 78) Individuals need more protein if they are pregnant, fighting off a serious infection, or recovering from surgery or burns. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1

79) Simple sugars provide short-term energy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 80) Fats should make up less than 10 percent of daily calories consumed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 81) Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by feeling tired and run down. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 82) Some vitamins and minerals are antioxidants. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 83) Suddenly increasing your intake of dietary fiber can cause cramping or bloating. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 84) In 1970, Americans did not eat recommended amounts of grains, but in 2018, Americans slightly exceeded recommended grain intake. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2

85) One of MyPlate's key messages is to consume seafood once a week. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2 86) To receive a Heart Check rating, a food cannot contain cholesterol. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 87) Dietary supplements are not regulated like other food and drug products. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 88) Even without monitoring their amino acid intake, vegans can get adequate amounts of protein by eating a variety of plant-based foods throughout the day. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 89) Most fast food chains do not offer nutritional analyses of their food. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 90) Energy bars that provide at least 350 calories and 2 grams of dietary fiber can be a nutritious choice for a snack. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3

91) A locavore is someone who makes a point of eating out in his or her own neighborhood. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 92) A product with the label claim natural is required by the FDA to be free of food additives. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 93) Food allergy and food intolerance mean the same thing. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 94) A majority of U.S. states have laws requiring that foods with GM ingredients display a label identifying them as genetically modified. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4 95) Explain what fiber is, discuss its benefits in a healthy diet, and list food groups that tend to be high in fiber. Answer: Fiber, sometimes referred to as "bulk" or "roughage," is the indigestible portion of plant foods that helps move foods through the digestive system, slows absorption of nutrients, and softens stools by absorbing water. A high-fiber diet is important for healthy bowel functioning and is thought to reduce the risk for obesity, heart disease, constipation, and possibly even colon and rectal cancers and type 2 diabetes. Foods high in fiber include many fruits, legumes and other vegetables, whole grains, and nuts and seeds. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1

96) Explain how you can obtain complete proteins from plant-based foods. Answer: Only two plant-based foods–soy and quinoa–contain all essential amino acids and are therefore considered complete proteins. Other plant-based foods are typically high in many amino acids but limited in one or more. However, by combining two or three foods with complementary proteins–proteins that each supply amino acids missing from the others–you can create a meal that provides you with all essential amino acids. For example, the amino acids missing from beans can be supplied by rice and green leafy vegetables. Note that complementary amino acids do not have to be consumed in the same meal. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Essential Nutrients for Health Learning Outcome: 10.1 97) The 2020—2025 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend following a healthy eating pattern at every life stage. Name at least four of the six components of a healthful dietary pattern they identify. Answer: At least four of the following: • A variety of vegetables of different types and colors, including legumes • Fruits, especially whole fruits • Grains, at least half of which are whole grains • Fat-free or low-fat dairy choices • A variety of lean-protein foods, including seafood, lean meats and poultry, eggs, legumes, soy products, and nuts and seeds • Oils Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Nutritional Guidelines Learning Outcome: 10.2 98) Explain why it can be risky to take dietary supplements. Answer: The FDA does not evaluate the safety and efficacy of supplements before they go onto the market. Supplements manufacturers are responsible for monitoring the safety and efficacy of their products, and the efficacy of many is unproven. Moreover, supplements often do not contain the ingredients listed on the label, and often are contaminated with allergens, drugs, and other ingredients that may be harmful to the consumer. Finally, supplements can interact with prescription and over-the-counter medications, causing health problems. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3

99) Compare and contrast the three types of claims the FDA allows on food labels. Answer: The three types of claims the FDA allows on food labels are: Health claims. These identify a relationship between a food component and a health effect, such as "As part of a healthy, low-fat diet, whole-grains foods may reduce the risk of heart disease." These claims are supported by significant scientific agreement and are regulated and approved by the FDA. Nutrient content claims. The identify a level of a nutrient present in a food, such as "High in fiber." These claims are also regulated and approved by the FDA. Structure and function claims. These describe the effect that a component of the food has on the body, such as "Calcium builds strong bones." The FDA does not regulate these claims. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: How Can I Eat More Mindfully and Healthfully? Learning Outcome: 10.3 100) Explain the difference between a food allergy and a food intolerance. Give examples of each and distinguish between a gluten intolerance and celiac disease. Answer: A food allergy is an immune hypersensitivity—an overreaction by the immune system—to a protein in a food. It can produce discomfort such as a rash or abdominal cramps, or more serious symptoms, such as impaired breathing or even life-threatening, body-wide inflammation and cardiovascular problems known as anaphylaxis. Common food allergens are milk, peanuts, eggs, wheat, soy, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish. Food intolerance is not due to an immune hypersensitivity. Rather, it reflects the body's inability to digest some component of a food. Although it may produce physical symptoms of digestive upset, they tend to be temporary and resolve as soon as the food has passed through the gastrointestinal tract. The most common food intolerance is to the lactose disaccharide in milk. However, many people believe that they have an intolerance to gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, and barley. Like any intolerance, gluten intolerance provokes a temporary episode of digestive discomfort. It is not the same as celiac disease, which is a serious and chronic disorder in which an affected person's immune system produces an inflammatory response in the small intestine whenever the person consumes gluten. The immune response degrades the lining of the small intestine, reducing nutrient absorption, and leading to weight loss, pain, and other signs and symptoms. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Food Safety: A Growing Concern Learning Outcome: 10.4

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 11 Reaching and Maintaining a Healthy Weight 1) What percentage of Americans age 20 and over are obese? A) more than 10 percent but less than 20 percent B) more than 20 percent but less than 30 percent C) more than 30 percent but less than 40 percent D) more than 40 percent Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 2) Which of the following populations in the United States has the highest prevalence of overweight or obesity? A) Hispanic or Latino population B) non-Hispanic White population C) Asian American population D) non-Hispanic Black population Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 3) The surge in obesity rates around the world has become known as A) the obesogenic world syndrome. B) globesity. C) global overnourishment. D) third-world obesity. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1

4) Which of the following statements about the health effects of obesity is TRUE? A) As compared to average life expectancy for people who are not obese, obesity reduces average life expectancy by just over 20 years. B) Obesity increases the risk for many types of cancer. C) Obesity helps speed up wound healing. D) Nearly 98% of obese adolescents will remain obese as adults. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 5) Since 1975, the percentage of the global population that is obese has A) increased by 25 percent. B) increased by 50 percent. C) nearly doubled. D) nearly tripled. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 6) A person with a body weight more than 10% above a recommended healthy weight is considered A) normal weight. B) overweight. C) obese. D) morbidly obese. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 7) Obesity is responsible for A) more than 40% higher healthcare costs as compared to non-obese populations. B) more preventable deaths in the U.S. than smoking. C) a greater global economic burden than armed violence, war, and terrorism combined. D) 16 more days of missed work per year as compared to non-obese workers. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1

8) Larissa nailed her audition song for her high school's annual musical. That evening, however, one of her friends told her not to get her hopes up because he'd overheard the director make a disparaging comment about her weight and the "impossibility" of casting her. Public health researchers refer to this kind of experience as A) weight stress. B) obesity othering. C) weight stigma. D) weight-based trauma. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 9) Three factors that contributed to Americans' weight gain during the first year of the COVID19 pandemic included A) eating out more often, exercising less, and sleeping more. B) increased stress, ready availability of ample food, and restrictions on physical activity. C) increased stress, high consumption of takeout foods high in saturated fat and calories, and increased alcohol consumption. D) mask wearing, social distancing, and sleeping more. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 10) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to genetics and obesity? A) A healthy lifestyle cannot override obesity genes. B) People with a spendthrift metabolism are at increased risk for obesity. C) Certain genes might influence obesity by altering regulation of a hormone called ghrelin. D) In non-obese people, the FTO gene serves as an adipostat that signals satiety. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2

11) When blood levels of the hormone leptin rise, A) appetite levels increase. B) you feel like exercising. C) appetite levels decrease. D) you can consume large amounts of food without gaining weight. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 12) What percentage of adult Americans engage in aerobic physical activity that meets the national guidelines? A) fewer than 15 percent B) about 25 percent C) about 40 percent D) about 50 percent Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 13) The minimum amount of energy the body uses to maintain vital functions is known as the A) resting metabolic rate. B) basal metabolic rate. C) adaptive thermogenic rate. D) set rate. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 14) Obesity researchers believe that undernutrition during fetal development alters the expression of the PTN gene. This results in A) an increase in ghrelin levels after food intake. B) an increased tendency to store excess calories as fat. C) a decrease in hormones that contribute to feelings of satiety. D) an increased tendency to seek out foods high in saturated fat and added sugars. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2

15) The gut microbiome is thought to play a role in obesity risk by A) influencing the harvesting of calories from food within the gastrointestinal tract. B) increasing the body's excretion of dietary fat. C) manufacturing vitamins essential to energy metabolism. D) sustaining feelings of satiety after meals. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 16) The term infectobesity identifies a process by which A) an infection such as hepatitis or COVID-19 directly triggers the onset of obesity. B) people who are obese are at increased risk for hospitalization and death from infections such as COVID-19. C) people who are obese are more likely to become infected with a variety of pathogens. D) infections trigger the release of inflammatory chemicals that promote fat storage. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 17) Which of the following people would be most likely to notice the effects of an age-related decline in metabolic rate? A) 20-year-old student B) 20-year-old truck driver C) 30-year-old computer programmer D) 30-year-old pregnant woman Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 18) The concept of adaptive thermogenesis attempts to explain how A) genetics influences childhood obesity. B) people trying to lose weight can reach a plateau even though they continue to restrict calories. C) people's bodies conserve calories in very hot and very cold environments. D) metabolic rate slows down as we age. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2

19) An average adult of normal body weight has about A) 25 to 35 million fat cells. B) 250 to 350 million fat cells. C) 25 to 35 billion fat cells. D) 250 to 350 billion fat cells. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 20) The high rate of overweight and obesity among Americans is due to A) increased inheritance of the FTO gene. B) biology, environment, and lifestyle. C) basal metabolism and an obesogenic environment. D) increased income inequality. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 21) A person's exercise metabolic rate (EMR) will increase if he or she A) decreases the time spent exercising. B) performs light daily activities instead of structured exercise routines. C) increases the activity level from light to moderate. D) decreases the activity level from moderate to light. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 22) The body naturally experiences an increased metabolic rate A) when we adopt a reduced-calorie diet. B) as we age. C) during pregnancy. D) during sleep. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2

23) Research has shown that inadequate sleep A) decreases food intake. B) increases feelings of satiety following meals. C) decreases leptin levels. D) decreases ghrelin levels. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 24) Allen has just eaten a large meal and pushes his plate away, unable to eat any more. He is experiencing A) adaptive thermogenesis. B) an increase in ghrelin levels. C) portion distortion. D) satiety. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 25) As compared to 1970, Americans are now consuming A) about 750 more calories, a majority of which are from added sugars. B) about 450 more calories, a majority of which are from fats and oils. C) about 250 more calories, a majority of which are from sugar-sweetened beverages. D) a greater percentage of dietary carbohydrate, but about the same number of calories. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 26) The process by which an individual's body increases its metabolic rate to compensate for an increased food intake is known as A) adaptive thermogenesis. B) ketogenesis. C) digestion. D) enhanced metabolism. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2

27) Keith is having a complete fitness evaluation done at a health center. One of the measurements being taken is how much energy he expends while jogging on a treadmill, which is his A) calorie intake. B) basal metabolic rate. C) exercise metabolic rate. D) resting metabolic rate. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 28) The measure of energy expended while a person is engaged in sedentary activities, such as sitting on a sofa or digesting food, is the A) calorie intake. B) basal metabolic rate. C) exercise metabolic rate. D) resting metabolic rate. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 29) Which theory holds that our bodies fight to maintain our weight within a particular narrow range? A) hormone adjustment theory B) set point theory C) thrifty gene theory D) adaptive thermogenesis theory Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2

30) Which theory holds that some people have a genetic disposition toward fat storage and retaining weight? A) hormone adjustment theory B) set point theory C) thrifty gene theory D) adaptive thermogenesis theory Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 31) River has been on and off four different diets in the past year, losing and then regaining weight. They now weigh more than they did when they began dieting a year ago. River is engaging in A) yo-yo dieting. B) set-point dieting. C) compulsively dieting. D) feast-fast dieting. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 32) A condition in which a person has an excessive number of fat cells is A) hyperglycemia. B) dysplastic obesity. C) anaplastic obesity. D) hyperplastic obesity. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 33) The process that occurs when fat cells swell and enlarge is referred to as A) dystrophy. B) hypertrophy. C) hyperthyroidism. D) hyperbole. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

34) Paula maintained her normal weight during her freshman year in college. During her sophomore year, she moved into an apartment with two friends who are overweight. The three regularly enjoy high-calorie meals together, and Paula has gained more than twenty pounds. She wants to lose weight, but it seems as if, whenever she plans to prepare a healthful, low-calorie meal, her roommates come home with a box of pizza or take-out burgers and fries. What type of influence are her friends having on her behavior? A) moral support B) emotional encouragement C) social undermining D) informal persuasion Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 35) Glenna is trying to determine her healthy weight. She should assess A) how her weight compares to that of her friends. B) how often her weight fluctuates up and down and in what increments. C) her percentage of body fat and how that fat is distributed. D) how her clothes fit. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 36) A 26-year-old male would be diagnosed with obesity if he A) had a body mass index of 30 or higher. B) was 10 percent heavier than his ideal weight. C) had a body fat percentage of 20 percent. D) had a body mass index of 22-24. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3

37) Luke plays football. His team physician calculated his BMI as 24. Luke is A) underweight. B) normal weight. C) overweight. D) obese. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 38) Sharon has a BMI of 17.5. Her physician cautioned her that her extremely low body fat might cause health problems, including A) low bone density. B) sleep apnea. C) osteoarthritis. D) excessively heavy menstrual periods. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 39) Raoul, who has a BMI of 50.5, would BEST be described as having A) overweight. B) class 1 obesity. C) class 2 obesity. D) super obesity. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 40) One problem with the BMI measurement is that it A) does not account for varying levels of muscle mass. B) requires the use of special laboratory equipment. C) takes too long to calculate. D) cannot be used for children. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3

41) John underwent a body composition test that involved being submerged to compare his underwater weight with land weight to determine his level of body fat. This method of assessment is known as a A) skinfold measure. B) hydrostatic weighing. C) bioelectrical impedance analysis. D) Bod Pod test. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 42) Which of the following statements about body weight in children is TRUE? A) Unlike BMI measures for adults, BMI measures for children are weight- and sex-specific. B) Today, nearly 20 percent of U.S. children have class 3 obesity. C) A child with obesity has a body weight greater than 80 percent of children of the same age and sex. D) Because children are growing, health experts do not consider measures of pediatric body weight clinically useful. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 43) All of the following are scientific methods for determining body composition EXCEPT A) height and weight tables. B) bioelectrical impedance analysis. C) skinfold measures. D) hydrostatic measures. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 44) Which of the following waist measurements indicates an increased health risk? A) 33 inches in a male B) 33 inches in a female C) 38 inches in a male D) 38 inches in a female Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

45) The method of body composition measurement that sends a small current through the body to measure the resistance based on percentage of body water is A) electrical conductivity test. B) bioelectrical impedance analysis. C) soft tissue roentgenogram. D) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 46) A high waist circumference-to-hip ratio would indicate that you A) have excessive fat stored in your hips and thighs. B) have an increased risk for heart disease and stroke. C) have excessive fat stored in your upper body. D) have a reduced risk for heart disease and stroke. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 47) A measurement based on the relationship between a person's height and weight that is highly correlated to the amount of body fat is the A) body composition index. B) obesity index. C) body fat index. D) body mass index. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 48) An individual whose BMI is 42 would be classified as A) overweight. B) obese. C) morbidly obese. D) super obese. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) When a clinician measures a person's body fat by pinching folds of skin at various locations on the body, the process being used is the A) skinfold method. B) DXA method. C) hydrostatic method. D) BIA method. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 50) When a clinician measures a person's body fat by using x-rays to differentiate between bone, lean, and fat tissue, the process being used is the A) skinfold method. B) DXA method. C) hydrostatic method. D) BIA method. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 51) Kevin wants to lose 5 pounds of fat. He finds it difficult to cut back on his eating, so he decides that he will walk an hour each day to burn more calories. How many extra calories must he expend to lose a pound of fat? A) 2,000 B) 3,000 C) 3,500 D) 4,500 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4

52) Which of the following is FALSE about weight management? A) Very low-calorie diets are medically supervised. B) Careful attention to portions is a key factor in sustained weight loss. C) Short-term diets are as effective as long-term behavior modification. D) Studies suggest that weight loss achieved from use of stimulant weight-loss supplements is typically followed by weight regain. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 53) Aaron is trying to lose weight but he still wants a beverage while he is studying. A good choice might be A) a cup of low-sodium broth. B) an energy drink. C) a glass of cranberry juice cocktail. D) a glass of wine. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 54) To lose weight and reduce her risk for high blood pressure, Ingrid has been following an eating plan that has been rated the number-one best overall diet. It emphasizes intake of fruits and vegetables, fish, whole grains, and low-fat dairy. Ingrid is most likely following A) a vegan diet. B) a high-protein, low-carb diet. C) the Mediterranean Diet. D) the Atkins 40 Diet. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4

55) One dangerous risk of following a medically unsupervised very-low-calorie diet is that it could increase the individual's risk for a condition in which the blood levels become acidic. This is known as A) anemia. B) ketoacidosis. C) hypertension. D) stenosis. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 56) Which of the following statements about Wegovy (semaglutide), a prescription weight-loss drug approved in 2021, is TRUE? A) It has been approved for use in anyone with a BMI of 25.0 or higher. B) It is taken by mouth once daily, first thing in the morning. C) It works by improving glucose regulation and suppressing appetite. D) It is not associated with any significant side effects. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 57) One recent study suggests that, in order to lose weight, people should not only reduce their calorie intake, but also exercise long enough to burn at least how many calories a week? A) 500 B) 1,000 C) 1,500 D) 3,000 Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4

58) Sunil weighs 150 pounds and would like to lose a little weight by replacing his sugary beverages with water or black tea and adding brisk walking to his normally sedentary life. If these measures decreased his former calorie intake by 250 calories a day and increased his energy expenditure by 250 calories a day, how long would it take Sunil to lose about one pound? A) two days B) four days C) one week D) two weeks Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 59) The over-the-counter version of the drug orlistat, marketed as Alli, has a number of unpleasant side effects but works to promote weight loss by A) increasing resting metabolic rate. B) inhibiting the digestion of fat. C) suppressing appetite. D) increasing water loss. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 60) Which of the following is an FDA-approved prescription weight loss drug that combines an antidepressant with a drug used to block the effects of opioid overdose? A) Belviq B) Alli C) hoodia D) Contrave Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4

61) Over-the-counter weight loss aids and supplements typically contain A) diuretics. B) sodium. C) antidepressants. D) narcotics. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 62) Gastric bypass A) results in gradual loss of modest amounts of weight over several years' time. B) reduces the size of both the stomach and intestine. C) partitions off part of the stomach with an inflatable band. D) has a mortality risk of 3.5 percent. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 63) Benefits of weight-loss surgery include the potential to reverse A) dumping syndrome. B) type 2 diabetes. C) infections. D) malabsorption syndrome. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 64) Liposuction is used to A) restrict the calories absorbed by the body. B) spot reduce or contour body shape. C) decrease levels of leptin. D) reroute the passage of food through the body. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4

65) Cassie is morbidly obese, and is now following a medically supervised diet on which she consumes 500 calories a day in the form of a powdered supplement. What kind of diet is Cassie following? A) yo-yo diet B) low-carbohydrate diet C) very-low-calorie diet D) fasting Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 66) Emotions or situations that cause a person to make unhealthy eating choices are commonly referred to as A) triggers. B) pressures. C) behaviors. D) feelings. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 67) In working to improve your eating habits, one important step to take is to A) hire a nutritional life coach. B) eat more slowly and stop when you begin to feel full. C) read the best-selling diet books and choose a diet to follow. D) go on an all-liquid diet for the first two weeks to cleanse your system. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 68) Which type of weight loss surgery involves a procedure that injects microscopic beads that block ghrelin production? A) biliopancreatic diversion B) sleeve gastrectomy C) bariatric arterial embolization D) gastric bypass Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 19 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

69) When Dirk gets home from a long day of classes, he typically microwaves a frozen meal, eats it in front of the television, and, when he finishes his meal, can't remember having tasted it. Which of the following is most likely TRUE? A) Dirk has ageusia, a loss of the sense of taste. B) Dirk is triggered to eat when he turns on the television. C) When Dirk notices that he's full, he continues eating. D) Dirk is engaging in mindless eating. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 70) For people who want to gain weight, a first priority is to A) modestly increase their intake of saturated fats. B) eat breakfast daily. C) continue eating at mealtimes past the point at which they feel full. D) determine why they are underweight, and take steps to address this factor. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 71) Obesity is associated with an increased risk of some forms of cancer. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 72) Just six states in the United States have an obesity rate below 20% of the population. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 73) An individual with class 3 obesity has a body weight 100 percent or more above their recommended weight. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 20 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) The American Medical Association recognizes obesity as a disease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 75) In the United States, individuals with obesity have an average of nearly $900 in excess medical costs per person per year. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1 76) Socioeconomic status can have a significant effect on risk for obesity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 77) The prevalence of obesity is consistent across all subpopulations in the United States. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 78) Research suggests that regular exercise can moderate genetic influences on body weight. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 79) Basal metabolic rate is relatively stable throughout life. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2

80) The exercise metabolic rate would be lower for walking versus jogging. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 81) Two males of equal size and leanness but different ages will burn the same number of calories at rest. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 82) Your risk of becoming obese increases by at least one-third if your partner, spouse, sibling, or close friend is obese. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 83) Extreme underweight can contribute to loss of menstrual period in women. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 84) As body mass index decreases below 18.5, an adult's mortality risk increases. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 85) Body fat necessary for maintenance of life and reproduction is classified as storage fat. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3

86) The waist-circumference-to-height formula suggests that a male who is six feet tall (72 inches) should have a waist circumference of no more than 32 inches. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 87) The prevalence of obesity among U.S. children has more than tripled since the 1970s. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 88) A BMI between 18.5 and 24.9 is the range of lowest statistical health risk. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 89) A 160-pound male with a high percentage of body fat burns the same number of calories walking the same distance as a 160-pound male with a high percentage of muscle mass. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 90) The energy balance equation is a rudimentary tool for understanding weight gain and loss, but does not apply to all people in all circumstances over time. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 91) Any diet plan that asks you to make radical behavior changes is likely to succeed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4

92) Very-low-calorie diets are precisely balanced and must be medically supervised. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 93) A sleeve gastrectomy is a type of weight-loss surgery that dramatically reduces the size of the stomach but does not involve the intestine. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 94) The average cost of gastric weight-loss surgery is $1,500. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 95) Obesity increases an individual's risk for numerous physical health problems. Identify at least two of the non-physical health risks associated with obesity. Answer: (At least two of the following) Obesity increases an individual's risk for depression and anxiety disorders as well as psychosocial health problems, including social isolation, bullying, social stigmatization, and discrimination. Obesity also increases the risk for functional limitations, such as an inability to engage in activities of daily living like shopping or climbing stairs. People who are obese also have a reduced average life expectancy. Finally, obesity poses a risk to financial health: people who are obese have higher healthcare costs, miss more work days, and are likely to be charged more for their health insurance. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overweight and Obesity: A Growing Health Threat Learning Outcome: 11.1

96) Identify the primary concern associated with eating out at restaurants and at least three strategies that you can use to combat overeating when eating out. Answer: (Answers will vary): The primary concern associated with eating out at restaurants is portion size. Portion sizes in restaurants are considerably larger than those in past decades, and some researchers believe that Americans no longer recognize a reasonable portion size. To combat the potential for overeating, you can share an entrée with a friend or consider having a protein-rich appetizer for the main meal. Consider choosing an item from a "happy hour" menu, which may be smaller than a standard dinner item. You can eat half of your entrée and take the rest home to eat on another day. Avoid buffet restaurants, but if you do dine at a buffet, use a small plate and fill it with lean protein foods and vegetables. Skip or share desserts. Ask for dressings or gravies on the side. Be aware of the speed at which you are eating and try to take your time. Talk to your dining companions and put down your fork between bites. Read the calorie and nutrition information on the restaurant menu. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2 97) Identify at least three environmental factors that you believe have contributed to the increase in obesity in the U.S. in the last 50 years and explain how. Answer: Answers will vary, but should include any three of the following: • More food product advertising in all forms of media. • Increased production of low-cost foods with empty calories. • Increased use of convenience foods and fast-food meals; many more options for fast food are available; people have less time to have family meals together because of busy lifestyle. • Busy lifestyles mean Americans are sleeping less, and recent research links sleep deprivation to an increased risk for obesity. • Sedentary nature of many jobs. • Use of automated equipment, digital technologies, and labor-saving devices has reduced the physical activity required to complete daily tasks. • Recreational time spent in front of the television, computer, or other electronic devices; more sedentary options are available than ever before, including video games. • Decline of physical education in schools. • Reduced opportunities for physical activity as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic. • Increased exposure to environmental toxins such as pesticides and other toxic chemicals. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Factors Contributing to Overweight and Obesity Learning Outcome: 11.2

98) Give at least two reasons that it is entirely possible for an individual with a BMI of 26 to be more fit and have lower health risks than an individual with a BMI of 24. Answer: (Answers will vary but should include two of the following points): • A critical health-related consideration is where in the body an individual is carrying stored fat. Fat stores in the abdominal area are associated with a higher health risk than fat stores in the hips or in the body overall. • Another consideration is ratio of fat to lean tissue overall: Muscle weighs more than fat, and an individual who is highly muscular and very healthy may have a higher BMI than someone who is sedentary and has low muscle mass. • Similarly, an individual with a large bone structure may have a higher BMI as a result, yet be more fit than an individual with smaller bones and a lower BMI. • Another consideration is age: BMI is not considered highly accurate in older adults. • Finally, BMI is not considered highly accurate in individuals under 5 feet tall. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Assessing Body Weight and Body Composition Learning Outcome: 11.3 99) Identify the three factors that determine how many calories a person expends during physical activity. Answer: The three factors that determine how many calories are burned during an activity are: 1. The number and proportion of muscles used 2. The amount of weight being moved 3. The amount of time spent performing the activity Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4 100) Discuss several potential triggers that can cause a person to overeat, as well as strategies for dealing with those triggers. Answer: Answers will vary. Examples include: • Stress: Develop effective coping strategies and stress management techniques to practice daily. • Emotions: Analyze emotions and look for a way to deal with them that doesn't involve food. • Boredom or tiredness: Take needed breaks and substitute activities to combat boredom. • Sight and smell of food: Avoid buying or coming into contact with high-calorie treats and put tempting snacks out of sight. • Eating out of habit: Establish a new routine and constructive ways to occupy your time. • Watching TV: Find something to do with your hands or body while watching to avoid reaching for food (e.g., ride an exercise bike, do yoga stretches, knit, do a craft, etc.). Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Managing Your Weight Learning Outcome: 11.4

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 11a Focus On: Enhancing Your Body Image 1) The most commonly reported reason that children are bullied in school is that A) they are perceived as the teacher's pet. B) they are a member of a low-income family. C) they are shorter and smaller than the majority of their classmates. D) they are overweight. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 2) The BEST definition of body image is A) your overall appreciation for certain features of your body. B) your impression of what others think about your appearance. C) your feelings and beliefs about your appearance. D) how you view yourself when you compare yourself to a celebrity. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 3) Jasmine is always complaining that she doesn't like the way she looks. She tells her friend Amber that she thinks her thighs are too big and that she feels fat. Amber assures Jasmine that she isn't fat, but Jasmine won't listen. It is likely that Jasmine may be suffering from A) peer pressure. B) a negative body image. C) anxiety. D) depression. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1

4) The body image continuum developed by researchers at the University of Arizona A) identifies distinct stages associated with progress toward body satisfaction. B) identifies only behaviors associated with a negative body image. C) represents a range of behaviors and attitudes indicative of body image. D) identifies stages of readiness toward developing a more positive body image. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 5) Of the following factors, the one that exerts the MOST significant influence on our development of a body image is A) characters we read about in books. B) our bone structure. C) our race/ethnicity. D) the media and popular culture. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 6) Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the relationship between body image and culture? A) Media images have little influence over what we find attractive. B) Social media messages often encourage healthful eating while showing images of underweight people. C) The ideal body image for women has always been thin and willowy. D) Today's ideal body image is very similar to the typical American body. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1

7) Tiffany is going through puberty and is concerned about her appearance. Her father assures her that she is growing into a strong, healthy, and beautiful young woman and that he is very proud of her. His reaction to Tiffany will likely cause her to A) be more accepting of her body. B) have feelings of discomfort around members of the opposite sex. C) be ashamed of her body. D) have a negative body image. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 8) Recent neurological studies have linked body image disorders to A) inadequate uptake of certain pituitary hormones. B) poor neurotransmitter regulation. C) poor emotional control and certain learning disabilities. D) impairments in the brain's auditory processing region. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 9) Common myths that contribute to negative body image include all of the following EXCEPT A) how you look is more important than who you are. B) your life will be so much better after you achieve your ideal body. C) eating healthy and staying active is an effective weight loss strategy. D) anyone can be slender if they work at it hard enough. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 10) A person suffering from body dysmorphic disorder would likely A) have high self-esteem. B) suffer from narcissistic personality disorder. C) have no obsessive tendencies. D) take extreme measures to alter certain physical features. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1

11) Karen is a figure skater who regularly performs in public. She is extremely dissatisfied with her appearance and has gone through three cosmetic surgeries to alter her facial structure. Karen is most likely suffering from A) the female athlete triad. B) anorexia nervosa. C) body dysmorphic disorder. D) muscle dysmorphia. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 12) Raye is a 20-year-old woman who is about 10 pounds over her ideal weight but is in good health. She works out regularly to stay fit and to try to drop a few of those extra pounds. She appreciates her curvy body and shops for clothes in bright colors that make her feel attractive and cheerful. Raye's attitudes and behavior demonstrate A) body acceptance. B) body preoccupation. C) variable body image. D) disordered body image. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 13) Which of the following statements about body dysmorphic disorder is TRUE? A) It is an extremely common disorder among teens and young adults in the United States. B) It is diagnosed in people with an unusual level of dissatisfaction with some aspect of their appearance, even if the dissatisfaction doesn't affect their academic, professional, or social functioning. C) Nearly one-third of people who undergo cosmetic surgery meet the criteria for body dysmorphic disorder. D) The cause of body dysmorphic disorder is unknown. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1

14) An eating disorder that may lead to the erosion of tooth enamel as a result of frequent vomiting is A) binge-eating disorder. B) anorexia nervosa. C) bulimia nervosa. D) night-eating syndrome. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 15) The physical "flaw" that most individuals associate with negative body image is A) overweight. B) short stature. C) hair loss. D) facial blemishes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 16) Which of the following characteristics exemplifies someone with disordered eating but not someone with a clinical eating disorder? A) eating sporadically and irregularly B) chronically restricting food intake to one piece of fruit, one vegetable, and one cup of nonfat milk a day C) enjoying overeating D) going on and off a variety of fad diets Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 17) Which of the following is NOT one of the eating disorders defined by the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)? A) bulimia nervosa B) orthorexia nervosa C) binge-eating disorder D) OSFED Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) An individual with an eating disorder commonly may also have A) an anxiety disorder. B) impulsive behavior. C) a sense of empowerment. D) high self-esteem. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 19) Individuals who practice extreme food restriction motivated by an intense fear of gaining weight have the eating disorder known as A) amenorrhea. B) anorexia nervosa. C) bulimia nervosa. D) OSFED. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 20) After drastic weight loss, an anorexic individual will A) feel satisfied with their body image. B) feel that they are still too fat. C) feel that they can afford to regain some of the weight. D) be cured of anorexia nervosa. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 21) Which of the following behaviors is MOST characteristic of anorexia nervosa? A) reducing intake of foods high in saturated fat and added sugars B) undergoing cosmetic surgery to remove fat from the hips and thighs C) restricting food intake to the point of self-starvation D) working out for 60 minutes a day, six days a week Answer: C Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2

22) Compensatory behaviors such as vomiting or using laxatives to rid the body of food that has been consumed A) have obvious health benefits. B) attempt to balance out a previous behavior. C) indicate a healthy body image. D) have no potential negative health consequences. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 23) Darren was not able to exercise today because of his hectic schedule. An inappropriate compensatory behavior for Darren would be to A) work out the next morning to make up for today's lack of exercise. B) restructure his schedule so that he can avoid this problem in the future. C) skip dinner to make up for his failure to exercise. D) consume an extra helping of food at dinner because he is hungry. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 24) All of the following are true of bulimia nervosa EXCEPT A) bulimics engage in recurrent episodes of binge eating. B) it is thought to be due to both genetic and environmental factors. C) it can alter brain chemistry. D) prevalence among teens and adults of all ages is about the same. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 25) Which of the following disorders falls under the category of other specified feeding or eating disorders (OSFED)? A) binge-eating disorder B) yo-yo dieting C) bulimia nervosa D) atypical anorexia nervosa Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) An individual who periodically consumes excessively large amounts of food without engaging in compensatory behavior would be classified as having A) bulimia nervosa. B) anorexia nervosa. C) binge-eating disorder. D) night-eating syndrome. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 27) Tina suffers from anorexia nervosa. She is depressed, lacks self-confidence, and has strained relationships with family members and friends. Though she is extremely thin, she continues to lose weight at a rapid rate. The most important first step in treating Tina's condition would be to A) stabilize her weight. B) involve family and friends. C) provide counseling to deal with Tina's self-esteem issues. D) teach her the basic principles of a healthy diet. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 28) If you want to help a friend whom you suspect has an eating disorder, which of the following tactics would be MOST helpful? A) Gather information on eating disorders. B) Promise that you'll keep their behavior confidential as long as they don't continue to lose weight. C) Reassure your friend that all they need to do is make a few simple changes to their eating and exercise patterns. D) Tell your friend that you will stop spending time with them if they don't get professional help. Answer: A Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2

29) Chronic dieting is an example of A) OSFED. B) binge-and-purge cycles. C) disordered eating. D) a clinical eating disorder. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 30) People with anorexia nervosa are at increased risk of death from A) colon cancer. B) kidney failure. C) type 2 diabetes. D) altered levels of neurotransmitters. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 31) Treena is so passionate about environmentally conscious food choices that she has adopted a vegan, raw foods diet consisting only of locally grown foods. As a result, she has begun to develop deficiencies of several micronutrients, including vitamin B12 and iron. Treena is MOST likely suffering from A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) orthorexia nervosa. D) purging disorder. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 32) A female athlete who trains vigorously and fails to consume adequate energy is at increased risk of amenorrhea, which is A) a cessation of menstrual periods. B) low bone density. C) a form of sports anemia. D) a muscle-wasting disease. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Can Too Much Exercise Be Unhealthy? Learning Outcome: 11a.3 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) Unlike regular exercise, compulsive exercise is A) planned in advance. B) used to prevent guilt and anxiety. C) associated with lower risk of injury. D) only performed by athletes. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Can Too Much Exercise Be Unhealthy? Learning Outcome: 11a.3 34) The decrease in estrogen seen with the female athlete triad contributes to A) insomnia. B) low energy intake. C) increased appetite. D) decreased bone mineral density. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Can Too Much Exercise Be Unhealthy? Learning Outcome: 11a.3 35) A disorder that typically occurs in men and is characterized by extreme measures to change body shape and a belief that the body is insufficiently lean or muscular is A) muscle atrophy. B) muscular dystrophy. C) muscle hyperplasia. D) muscle dysmorphia. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Can Too Much Exercise Be Unhealthy? Learning Outcome: 11a.3 36) The Health at Every Size philosophy posits that A) every body weight is a healthy weight. B) everyone, no matter what their body weight, can enjoy full health and wellness if they live mindfully. C) self-acceptance, healthy eating, and exercise are more important than BMI. D) our society should fund nutrition counseling and other services to help all Americans achieve and maintain a healthy body weight. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Can Too Much Exercise Be Unhealthy? Learning Outcome: 11a.3 10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) Studies indicate that most adults are satisfied with how their body looks. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 38) Models who in the past were referred to as "plus-sized" are now more commonly referred to as "real-sized." Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 39) The concept of the ideal body image changes as popular culture changes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 40) A belief that you would be more attractive if you were more muscular is strongly indicative of body dysmorphic disorder. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 41) Friends are more influential in body image development than our parents. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 42) A person who admits to weighing themselves "a lot" is almost certainly experiencing body hate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1

43) A majority of people who suffer from disordered eating eventually progress to a clinical eating disorder. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 44) Eating disorders affect people of all ages. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 45) Individuals who are perfectionists are at an increased risk for eating disorders. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 46) Bulimia nervosa is more likely to lead to weight gain than binge-eating disorder. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 47) Individuals suffering from bulimia nervosa tend to be underweight. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 48) Eating disorders affect men and women equally. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2

49) Nearly half of all people with a clinical eating disorder will die as a result, even with treatment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 50) A good example of being firm with a friend who has an eating disorder is informing them that they are responsible for the pain their condition is causing you. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 51) The term orthorexia means "correct appetite." Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 52) Anorexia athletica is a disorder characterized by a compulsion to exercise. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Can Too Much Exercise Be Unhealthy? Learning Outcome: 11a.3 53) A chronic pattern of intensive exercise or physical training along with inadequate energy intake can alter normal bodily functions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Can Too Much Exercise Be Unhealthy? Learning Outcome: 11a.3

54) Explain how the media—including social media and "thinspiration" sites—influence body image. Answer: The media sets standards for what we find attractive. It can mislead people into thinking that the images portrayed are achievable by everyone, when actually they are unrealistic. Photo and design technology are routinely used to manipulate images to change the appearance of models or celebrities, often to make them look thinner or to erase imperfections. Those who do not fit these idealized media-generated images often get the message that they are inadequate or inferior. Social media sites promoting unrealistic and unhealthy body images are also common, and "thinspiration" sites include photos and text meant to inspire visitors to attempt to achieve an unrealistically and even dangerously low body weight. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1 55) What are some of the myths surrounding body image and how can you challenge them? Answer: 1. Myth: How you look is more important than who you are. Keep a realistic perspective and develop a strong sense of identity based on inner characteristics. 2. Myth: Anyone can be as slender and attractive as a celebrity if they work at it hard enough. Remember that there are different body types based on genetic makeup. We are predisposed to have certain characteristics that make us unique, and not everyone has the genes to be slender, muscular, tall, etc. While it is a good idea to eat wisely and exercise to stay healthy, we cannot eat or exercise our way to a precise body shape. Moreover, celebrities often have personal trainers, wardrobe consultants, hairdressers, and other assistants most people cannot afford to retain, and even with such assistance, their images are often altered with computer software. 3. Myth: Extreme dieting is an effective weight-loss strategy. Extreme dieting alters and can actually slow metabolism, resulting in less-efficient burning of calories. It is also unsustainable and potentially dangerous. The key to weight loss is a healthy diet and regular exercise to build lean body tissue, which has a higher metabolic rate than fat tissue. 4. Myth: Things will go better for you if you achieve the perfect body. Attaining an idealized body is not the key to happiness or success. Embrace the diversity of body types and unique physical features and keep a realistic perspective on what attractiveness can and cannot bring. Focus on building healthy relationships and achieving your life goals, two strategies that can, in fact, increase happiness. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Body Image? Learning Outcome: 11a.1

56) How would you recognize someone with each of the three clinical eating disorders discussed in this chapter? Include examples of observable behaviors, actions, or characteristics that would indicate that an individual may have a problem. Answer: Answers will vary. Anorexia nervosa: continued dieting or self-starvation despite being thin; refuses to eat around others or in public places; critical of appearance; expresses feeling of being fat when actually they are underweight; uses laxatives or diuretics; compulsive exercising; extreme underweight; possible hair loss. Bulimia nervosa: doesn't exhibit control over eating; eating large amounts of food with no obvious gain in weight; use of laxatives; going to bathroom after meals; discolored teeth; swollen glands; fluctuations in weight. Binge eating disorder: lack of control over eating; large weight gain; eating unusually large amounts of food; emotional eating; eating at unusual times. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 57) Many people believe that clinical eating disorders cannot be cured. What do you think is behind this claim, and is it true or false? Explain your answer. Answer: Clinical eating disorders can be cured. However, they are thought to be caused by a complex combination of factors, including neurological and psychological factors, relationship characteristics, sociocultural factors, and even genetic susceptibility, and therefore they are not easy to cure. Treatment must address the variety of factors contributing to an individual's case. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Disordered Eating and Eating Disorders Learning Outcome: 11a.2 58) What is the philosophy of the Health at Every Size (HAES) movement, and do you share it? Why or why not? Answer: Answers will vary, but should include some of the following points. HAES posits that well-being and healthy eating and exercise habits are more important than a number on a scale. Therefore, no matter our size, we should practice self-acceptance. When we do, we can adopt healthful habits of eating and activity without the guilt, compulsion, or selfpunishing that might otherwise accompany our efforts. Human bodies come in a variety of shapes and sizes. While we work toward improving our health, we are deserving of love and respect, no matter our size. Diff: 6 Skill: Creating Section: Can Too Much Exercise Be Unhealthy? Learning Outcome: 11a.3

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 12 Improving Your Personal Fitness 1) Walking to class or up a flight of stairs would be examples of A) exercise. B) physical fitness. C) physical activity. D) endurance. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 2) An adult weighing 125 to 195 pounds will burn 29 to 44 calories per hour while sitting. While walking, the number of calories expended will increase by approximately what rate? A) It will double. B) It will triple. C) It will be four times greater. D) It will be five times greater. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 3) Which statement BEST summarizes the association between exercise and improved immunity? A) Long-term, heavy exercisers get the most gain in immunity versus those who exercise only moderately. B) Moderate-intensity exercise temporarily decreases inflammation and strengthens immunity. C) Regular exercise does not have any correlation to a healthy immune system. D) The most significant improvements in immunity are seen when a moderate exerciser begins a more intense exercise program. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1

4) Exercise can reduce the risk of heart disease by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT A) improving blood flow. B) increasing LDL levels. C) strengthening the heart. D) improving dyslipidemia. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 5) How many minutes of moderate to vigorous exercise daily for children is recommended by The 2018 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans? A) 90 B) 60 C) 45 D) 30 Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 6) Which of the following is defined as planned, structured, and repetitive body movement? A) exercise B) strength training C) aerobic activity D) flexibility training Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 7) Regular exercise A) reduces the flow of oxygen to the brain. B) deprives the brain of nutrients. C) improves concentration. D) disrupts sleep. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1

8) Exercise can improve mental health by A) boosting self-esteem. B) decreasing endorphin production after exercise. C) preventing, though not reducing, depression. D) straining the muscles and joints. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 9) Exercise helps with weight control by increasing the body's A) blood pressure. B) heart rate. C) expenditure of energy. D) resistance to infection. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 10) The 2018 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommend what minimum amount of moderate-intensity exercise for adults? A) 100 minutes per week B) 150 minutes per week C) 200 minutes per week D) 250 minutes per week Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 11) According to cancer experts, up to what percentage of some cancers could be prevented by engaging in regular physical activity and eating a healthy diet? A) 5 percent B) 15 percent C) 25 percent D) 33 percent Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1

12) Which of the following is NOT a major health-related component of physical fitness? A) cardiorespiratory fitness B) muscular strength and endurance C) body composition D) body image Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 13) Regular aerobic exercise improves the A) ability of the muscles to sustain a contraction. B) range of motion at the body's joints. C) body's level of hydration. D) heart, lungs, and blood vessels. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 14) The amount of force that a muscle is capable of exerting is referred to as A) muscular endurance. B) muscular strength. C) aerobic capacity. D) overload. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 15) If you can perform regular moderate to vigorous levels of physical activity without excessive fatigue, you are considered to be A) athletic. B) flexible. C) agile. D) physically fit. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2

16) Which of the following would assess muscular endurance? A) counting number of repeated sit-ups B) performing one repetition maximum test C) measuring range-of-motion in sitting and reaching forward D) measuring time on a 0.5-mile run Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 17) Which type of exercise is BEST for improving cardiorespiratory fitness? A) flexibility B) resistance C) anaerobic D) aerobic Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 18) Miranda plays on the lacrosse team and knows that increasing her aerobic capacity will help her on the field. To determine her current aerobic capacity, the team's trainer will conduct a test in which Miranda will run on a treadmill for a designated time while measurements are taken. What will the measure of her aerobic capacity show? A) the volume of oxygen her muscles consume during exercise B) her rate of respiration while under stress C) the electrical activity in her heart while exercising D) the capacity her lungs have for expansion if she trains harder Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 19) A muscle's ability to perform contractions for a length of time is muscle A) flexibility. B) strength. C) endurance. D) extension. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Jeannette is 82-years old, but participates in balance training that reduces her risk of falls. This balance training increases what component of Jeannette's physical fitness? A) cardiorespiratory fitness B) age-related fitness C) disability-prevention fitness D) skill-related fitness Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 21) The range of motion that a joint or series of joints can achieve is A) flexibility. B) strength. C) endurance. D) extension. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 22) The relative proportions and distribution of fat and lean tissue throughout the body is its A) flexibility. B) risk of disease. C) weight. D) composition. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 23) In strength training, which of the following represents the amount of weight or resistance that can be moved only once? A) one set (1 S) B) one repetition maximum (1 RM) C) one resistance maximum (1 RM) D) one static stretch (1 SS) Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2

24) In a fitness program, lifting an amount of weight that is moderately greater than what you are accustomed to is an example of A) the specificity principle. B) overloading. C) repetition. D) endurance exercise. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 25) All of the following are ways to measure the intensity of cardiovascular exercise EXCEPT A) target heart rate. B) talk test. C) blood gas analysis. D) rating of perceived exertion. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 26) Which of the following is TRUE about target heart rate? A) It is a measure of the heart rate after 20 minutes of exercise. B) It is a percentage of your maximum heart rate. C) It is the heart rate at which one cannot talk and exercise comfortably. D) The calculation of target heart rate varies by a person's body weight. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 27) Tasha is 23 years old. Her MAXIMAL heart rate is A) 201 beats per minute. B) 197 beats per minute. C) 194 beats per minute. D) 191 beats per minute. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3

28) In a fitness program, the slogan "use it or lose it" applies to which principle? A) specificity B) overload C) reversibility D) flexibility Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 29) The principle of fitness training that holds that the body should be gradually required to do more than it is used to doing is A) specificity. B) tension. C) overload. D) duration. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 30) An example of a SMART goal is A) I want to lose twenty pounds. B) I'm going to get fit by exercising more. C) I plan to get my high blood pressure into the normal range by next month. D) I'll sign up for the strength-training class and try to increase the weight I can lift by 20% by the end of the term. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 31) What are the components of the FITT principle that apply to all types of exercise? A) frequency, intensity, time, and type B) fitness, intensity, tension, and time C) frequency, information, time, and tempo D) fitness, involvement, time, and type Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3

32) When doing some form of aerobic exercise, you are at a moderate level of intensity when you are A) unable to speak and barely able to catch your breath. B) able to sing clearly. C) able to converse with someone. D) able to talk in short fragments only. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 33) Training for muscular resistance can be done using any of the following three methods: A) free weights, weight machines, or stationary bikes, treadmills, and stair climbers. B) weight machines, distance running, or joint goniometry. C) free weights, your own body weight, or hatha yoga. D) free weights, weight machines, or your own body weight. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 34) Astrid is a swimmer. She is trying to improve her stroke performance by concentrating mainly on upper body weight training. Her training program is an example of A) isometric training. B) specificity. C) tension training. D) isolation. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 35) When developing a strength-training program, if you want to increase muscular strength, you need A) a varied exercise selection. B) a consistent number of repetitions and sets. C) lower intensity and a higher number of repetitions and sets. D) higher intensity and fewer repetitions and sets. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) Which exercise technique involves working to slowly and gradually lengthen a muscle or group of muscles? A) strength training B) static stretching C) reflex building D) endurance training Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 37) The amount of effort needed during a workout to improve some aspect of fitness is exercise A) flexibility. B) intensity. C) duration. D) resistance. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 38) For an aerobic exercise such as a Latin dance class, which measurement would you use to confirm that you are working at 64 percent to 96 percent of your maximal heart rate for improved cardiorespiratory fitness? A) perceived exertion B) number of repetitions C) target heart rate D) target respiratory rate Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 39) To check your pulse and determine your heart rate during aerobic exercise, it is best to place your index and middle fingers on arteries located A) on the side of neck or inside the wrist. B) inside the wrist or behind the knee. C) on the temple or side of the neck. D) over the heart or inside the elbow. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) During his workout today, Hassan wants to work all of his major muscle groups in the most safe and effective order. Which of the following would you recommend? A) He should work smaller muscle groups before larger muscle groups. B) He should perform single-joint exercises before exercises involving multiple joints. C) He should perform higher-intensity exercises before lower-intensity exercises. D) He should perform exercises involving single joints as warm-ups before all other types of exercises. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 41) After warming up, Ling alternates two minutes of moderate jogging with one minute of running as fast as she can, five times. She then cools down. The type of fitness routine Ling is engaging in is known as A) cross-training. B) high-intensity interval training. C) FITT-training. D) variable-resistance training. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 42) Except for physical education classes in elementary and high school, Jayleen has been sedentary all her life. Motivated by her mother's recent diagnosis of high blood pressure, Jayleen, now a junior in college, wants to improve her physical fitness. Her first step should be to A) consult a Registered Dietitian Nutritionist. B) hire a personal trainer. C) get her primary healthcare provider's clearance for exercise. D) sign up for an aerobics class. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4

43) Vic is taking five classes and working 20 hours a week. He wants to get back into his former running program, but feels too pressed for time. Which of the following strategies might BEST help him overcome this obstacle? A) He could invite his partner to go for a run with him on Sundays. B) He could read a textbook or listen to a lecture on his MP3 player while jogging on a treadmill. C) He could watch a motivational film about Olympic runners. D) He could reward himself with dessert after dinner on days when he manages to exercise. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 44) As part of her fitness program, Shayna runs ten times up and down the stone steps in her campus' quad. Shayna is engaging in A) green exercise. B) initial conditioning. C) active transportation. D) multi-tasking. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 45) Which of the following statements is TRUE about tai chi? A) Tai chi increases flexibility through the use of asanas (poses). B) Tai chi originated in India about 5,000 years ago. C) Tai chi combines stretching and movement against resistance, which is aided by devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands. D) Tai chi is an ancient Chinese form of exercise that promotes balance, coordination, and meditation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4

46) Which of the following forms of exercise focuses attention on controlled breathing and employs strengthening postures known as asanas? A) yoga B) tai chi C) spinning D) Pilates Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 47) A person with strong core muscles has a more stable center of gravity and A) reduced chance of injury. B) enhanced cardiovascular fitness. C) the ability to lift free weights. D) reduced training time. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 48) The body's core muscles are the muscles of the A) back, abdomen, and hips. B) chest, abdomen, and legs. C) back, hips, and legs. D) chest, abdomen, and arms. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 49) Which of the following statements about activity trackers is TRUE? A) They are highly accurate. B) For continuous monitoring of your activity, your phone is your best option. C) They are strongly correlated with increased motivation to exercise, increased frequency and duration of exercise, and increased cardiorespiratory fitness. D) Only the more expensive trackers have behavior-change features. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4

50) Which form of exercise helps develop core strength by combining stretching with movement against resistance, often involving the use of devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands? A) weight training B) yoga C) static stretching D) Pilates Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 51) Which of the following components of an exercise session prepares the body physically and mentally? A) warm-up B) transition C) preparedness D) cool-down Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 52) Which of the following is the MOST effective way to cool-down following a vigorous exercise session? A) resting for a few minutes B) engaging in a few minutes of lower-intensity activity followed by a few minutes of stretching C) engaging in a few minutes of dynamic stretching followed by a few minutes of rest D) taking a shower in lukewarm to cool water Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4

53) Bryan enjoys going for a 5-mile run as a way to wind down after his last class. Bryan should A) eat a large meal providing carbs, fats, and proteins about an hour before he heads out for his run. B) eat a small carbohydrate-rich snack about an hour before he heads out for his run. C) drink a "performance-enhancing" protein shake immediately before he heads out for his run. D) eat nothing for at least 4 to 5 hours before he heads out for his run. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking in Proper Nutrition for Exercise Learning Outcome: 12.5 54) Cynthia tends to sweat profusely during her 75-minute "power aerobics" class. Cynthia should A) switch to a shorter or less vigorous aerobics class. B) urge her instructor to turn up the air conditioning in the room. C) drink plain water periodically throughout the class. D) drink a sports beverage periodically throughout the class. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking in Proper Nutrition for Exercise Learning Outcome: 12.5 55) For marathon runners, drinking plain water without replacing electrolytes increases the risk for A) plantar fasciitis. B) hyponatremia. C) dehydration. D) heat exhaustion. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Taking in Proper Nutrition for Exercise Learning Outcome: 12.5 56) The least serious form of heat-related illness is A) heatstroke. B) heat exhaustion. C) heat cramps. D) hypothermia. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) All of the following are overuse injuries EXCEPT A) shin splints. B) runner's knee. C) plantar fasciitis. D) torn ligament. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 58) All of the following are part of the RICE formula for treating sports- and fitness-related injuries EXCEPT A) rest the injured body part. B) elevate the injured extremity. C) compress the injury with an elastic bandage. D) apply heat at the injury site. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 59) Which of the following is the most serious form of heat-stress illness? A) heat cramps B) heat exhaustion C) heat response D) heatstroke Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 60) How long does it take for a person's body to become accustomed to exercising in the heat? A) 4-5 days B) about a week C) about 2 weeks D) at least 2 months Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6

61) Which of the following is FALSE about hypothermia? A) It is a potentially fatal condition from abnormally low body temperature. B) In early stages it causes shivering. C) It may produce poor judgment, apathy, and amnesia. D) It is caused by prolonged exposure to temperatures below 32 degrees Fahrenheit. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 62) Which of the following would NOT be good advice for someone who is purchasing running shoes? A) Make sure to try them on later in the day when feet have expanded. B) Make sure the shoes are made specifically for running. C) Make sure the shoes have good shock absorption. D) Make sure there is no extra room in the toe box. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 63) General pain that occurs below the knee and above the ankle is called A) shin fasciitis. B) plantar fasciitis. C) runner's calf. D) shin splints. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 64) One of the MOST important functions of a good athletic shoe is to A) prevent corns and bunions. B) absorb shock. C) increase the athlete's speed and agility. D) allow the athlete to work out in comfort. Answer: B Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6

65) Following an injury to their wrist, Blake applied a compression bandage; however, they soon experienced pain and throbbing. This probably means that A) they are overusing the wrist and need to rest it more. B) the injury has become infected. C) the wrap is too tight and is interfering with normal blood flow. D) the wrap is too loose and is not appropriately suppressing the inflammation. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 66) In hypothermia, death usually occurs when body core temperature drops to A) 75-80°F. B) 81-84°F. C) 87-90°F. D) below 95°F. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 67) A sprained ankle should be iced A) every two hours for the first 24 hours. B) three times a day for the first 24 to 72 hours. C) for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 to 72 hours. D) every hour for the first 24 hours. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 68) Working in his yard on a very hot summer day, Eugene begins to experience nausea, headache, dizziness, and faintness. Despite sweating and feeling hot, he notices that his skin is cool and he has the chills. Eugene could be suffering from A) heat cramps. B) heat exhaustion. C) heatstroke. D) heat fatigue. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

69) Two hours in to a six-hour hike on a cool fall day, it begins to rain. Helena has no rain jacket or poncho, and is wearing only lightweight clothing. Helena is at increased risk for A) hypothermia. B) hyperthermia. C) water intoxication. D) frostbite. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 70) Which statement about heat exhaustion is TRUE? A) It is the least serious heat-related illness. B) It is a mild form of shock. C) It has a high mortality rate. D) It is irreversible. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 71) It is wise to deal with being outdoors in cold temperatures by A) wearing lightweight clothing to aid air circulation. B) being out on a day with low humidity. C) wearing layered clothing and keeping hydrated. D) restricting the intake of fluids before going out. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 72) Which of the following statement about sports-related injuries is TRUE? A) Nearly half of all sports-related eye injuries could be prevented by wearing appropriate eye protection. B) Bicycle helmets should be replaced at least every 5 years. C) In a bicycle accident, wearing a helmet reduces your chance of traumatic brain injury by about 33 percent. D) The risk for eye injury is higher in contact sports such as football than in racquet sports. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 19 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

73) Regular physical activity decreases both HDL and LDL levels in the blood. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 74) A woman who does weight-bearing exercise will likely have higher bone mass and bone density than a woman who doesn't. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 75) Studies suggest that every 500-calorie increase in exercise energy expenditure leads to a 10 percent decrease in the risk of dementia. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 76) A vigorous workout temporarily increases heart rate but decreases blood pressure when the person is at rest. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 77) Exercise is a physical stressor. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 78) Athletes who engage in very extreme or intense physical activities, such as marathons, experience a decrease in immunity during recovery. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1

79) Agility and balance are examples of skill-related components of physical fitness. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 80) Swimming laps is an example of aerobic exercise. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 81) In general, the lower the intensity of cardiorespiratory-fitness activities, the longer the duration of the activities should be. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 82) Cardiorespiratory exercise should be performed 3 to 5 days a week, and muscular fitness and flexibility exercise should be performed 2 to 3 days a week. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 83) During the initial conditioning stage of a fitness program, it is important to exercise at high intensity to get in shape more quickly. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 84) Commutes of 3 to 5 miles are usually as fast by bike as they are by car. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4

85) A warm-up prior to exercise after you've finished a long day of sedentary work should last longer than a warm-up after you've walked to the fitness center. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 86) Stefano engages in cardiorespiratory and resistance training in the same session. He should perform the cardiorespiratory component first. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 87) Sports medicine experts recommend consuming at least 24 to 48 ounces of fluid several hours before exercising. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking in Proper Nutrition for Exercise Learning Outcome: 12.5 88) It's wise to eat a little protein after a workout to replenish muscle and liver glycogen stores. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Taking in Proper Nutrition for Exercise Learning Outcome: 12.5 89) Overuse injuries are those that occur suddenly and violently. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 90) The best way to ice an injury is to apply the cold pack directly to your skin, then wrap it with a length of cloth bandage to hold it in place. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6

91) Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of muscles in the lower back. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6 92) How does regular exercise physiologically lower the risk of cardiovascular disease? Answer: Exercise makes both the cardiovascular and respiratory system more efficient. The heart becomes stronger and able to pump more blood with each beat, increasing the blood supply and delivery of oxygen and fuel to working muscles. Exercise reduces triglycerides, total cholesterol, and LDLs and boosts HDLs. These factors reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease. Moreover, exercise can prevent or reduce hypertension, a form of cardiovascular disease. Exercise also reduces the risk for metabolic syndrome and type 2 diabetes, two other risk factors for cardiovascular disease. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1 93) Compare and contrast the health risks of the following two people: Suki is a 25-year-old recreational runner. She runs for 30 minutes at least 4 days a week and weight trains at a fitness center for 30 minutes 3 days a week. She also makes sure she stretches after her workouts. Marla is a 25-year-old graduate student who does not exercise regularly. She will occasionally take a jog with friends, but is often out of breath and too sore the next day to be motivated to do it regularly. Answer: Suki has fewer health risks because she exercises regularly. Her heart and lungs are stronger and she probably has normal blood pressure and higher HDL than Marla. She is more likely to be of normal body weight than Marla. Suki will also have better immune responses and be at a lower risk of some cancers than Marla. Marla will most likely have lower bone density and may have an increased risk for cognitive decline and a shorter lifespan than Suki if she does not change her sedentary behaviors. Marla is also at increased risk for injury when she does exercise. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Physical Activity for Health Learning Outcome: 12.1

94) Compare and contrast muscular strength and muscular endurance and give an example of each. Answer: (Answers will vary): Muscular strength is the amount of force an individual muscle or group of muscles can generate in one contraction. In contrast, muscular endurance is the ability of an individual muscle or group of muscles to generate force repeatedly or to sustain force without fatigue. Thus, both concepts are associated with muscular force, but whereas muscle strength might help you lift a heavy box, muscle endurance would help you carry the box from your car to your apartment. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Fitness Components for Health, Wellness, and Physical Function Learning Outcome: 12.2 95) Applying the FITT principle, create a jogging and weight training program for a healthy college student who wants to stay fit and increase muscle strength. Answer: The program should consist of jogging for 20-30+ minutes 3-5 days a week, at 64-96 percent of maximal heart rate. The student should also weight train 2-3 days a week, skipping days in between, doing exercises that use all the major muscle groups. The weight training should be at a resistance of at least 60 percent of 1 RM to obtain improvements in strength. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Using "FITT" to Create Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.3 96) Nanette wants to increase her cardiorespiratory fitness. She loves roller skating and dancing. Identify at least three ways that she could take advantage of social support and community-based opportunities to increase her engagement in aerobic activity. Answer: (Answers will vary but should include some of the following ideas): Nanette could invite her friends and family members to dance or go roller-skating with her. She could join a dance class. She could offer to teach dance or roller-skating to children in her community. She could go dancing or roller-skating on dates. She could find a role model to support her efforts. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4 97) Identify the three most important characteristics of a successful physical activity program. Answer: A successful physical activity program is one that you enjoy, that is realistic, and that is specific to your skill level and needs. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overcome Obstacles and Implement Your Fitness Program Learning Outcome: 12.4

98) Explain why carbohydrate intake is so important prior to vigorous exercise or training sessions. Answer: Carbohydrates are the body's main source of fuel for physical activity. The body can store carbohydrates as glycogen, primarily in the liver and muscles; when you are physically active, the body can readily break down this stored glycogen to glucose, which can be quickly used to meet immediate energy needs. For more moderate exercise, especially of long duration, fats become an important source of energy. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Taking in Proper Nutrition for Exercise Learning Outcome: 12.5 99) You want to train for a 10K race being held in July, which means you'll have to train in the heat of summer. Describe your plan to avoid heat-related illness. Answer: Allow your body to adjust to working out in the heat by gradually increasing activity performed in hot weather. Be sure to stay well hydrated. During exercise sessions lasting longer than 60 minutes, drink a sports beverage instead of plain water to replace electrolytes lost in sweat. Exercise during cooler times of day, and wear appropriate clothes. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking in Proper Nutrition for Exercise and Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.5 and 12.6 100) In what conditions is heatstroke most likely to occur? What are the signs and symptoms? How should bystanders respond? Answer: Heatstroke is most likely to occur during vigorous exercise when the body's production of heat exceeds its capacity to cool down. The signs and symptoms include dry, hot, and usually red skin; very high body temperature; and rapid heart rate. An individual experiencing such symptoms should stop exercising immediately. They should be assisted into an air-conditioned environment or the shade, and immediate medical attention should be sought to prevent brain damage or death. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Preventing and Treating Exercise Injuries Learning Outcome: 12.6

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 13 Reducing Your Risk of Cardiovascular Disease and Cancer 1) How many adult Americans suffer from some type of cardiovascular disease? A) one out of five B) one out of four C) one out of three D) one out of two Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Cardiovascular Disease in the United States Learning Outcome: 13.1 2) The absence of clinical indicators of cardiovascular disease and the presence of seven behavioral and health factor metrics is known as A) cardiovascular fitness. B) cardiorespiratory fitness. C) heart-related quality of life. D) ideal cardiovascular health. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Cardiovascular Disease in the United States Learning Outcome: 13.1 3) Cardiovascular disease A) kills more non-Hispanic White Americans than Black Americans. B) causes nearly 25 percent more deaths each year than it did a decade ago. C) is second only to cancer as a leading cause of death among Americans. D) has been the leading cause of death in the United States for more than 100 years. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Cardiovascular Disease in the United States Learning Outcome: 13.1 4) The human heart is about the size of a(n) A) golf ball. B) adult's fist. C) small plum. D) grapefruit. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The average healthy adult heart beats 70-80 beats per minute. A lower heart rate of 60 might indicate that A) the individual is very fit. B) a heart valve is malfunctioning. C) the individual is stressed. D) the individual is out of shape. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 6) An adult with a damaged sinoatrial node A) must have a heart transplant to survive. B) must have a pacemaker implanted to control the heart rhythm. C) must take medication to control the heartbeat. D) does not usually have any significant health problems. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 7) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of blood flow as it travels through the heart? A) right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta B) aorta, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle C) left ventricle, left atrium, aorta, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs D) venae cavae, both atria, both ventricles, aorta Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 8) Vessels that carry blood away from the heart are the A) veins. B) capillaries. C) arteries. D) venules. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 2 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Vessels that carry blood to the heart are the A) veins. B) capillaries. C) arteries. D) arterioles. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 10) Thin-walled vessels that are involved in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide are A) veins. B) capillaries. C) arteries. D) atria. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 11) The two upper chambers of the heart that receive blood are the A) ventricles. B) venules. C) atria. D) arterioles. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 12) The two lower chambers of the heart that pump blood out are the A) ventricles. B) venules. C) atria. D) arterioles. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2

13) Which of the following is NOT a function of blood? A) nutrient transport B) regulation of body temperature C) regulation of the body's acid-base balance D) transport of lymphatic fluid Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 14) The small veins are the A) ventricles. B) venules. C) vena cava. D) capillaries. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 15) Which of the following statements about atherosclerosis is TRUE? A) It is characterized by a buildup of substances within the arteries that form plaque. B) It is easily reversed with medication and exercise. C) It is only rarely found in people younger than age 50. D) It causes thinning and softening of the arteries. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 16) An individual with cardiovascular disease would be MOST likely to experience angina pectoris while A) asleep, in the hours just before dawn. B) hiking at a high altitude. C) driving in traffic. D) giving an important presentation. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3

17) A reduction in the oxygen supply to a part of the body or an organ such as the heart is known as A) thrombosis. B) ischemia. C) atherosclerosis. D) intermittent claudication. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 18) All of the following occur as part of congestive heart failure EXCEPT A) shortness of breath. B) the circulation of blood through the body becomes sluggish. C) the heart becomes enlarged and less efficient. D) fluids cannot reach the legs, ankles, or feet. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 19) Which of the following represents the most serious type of heart arrhythmia? A) tachycardia B) bradycardia C) fibrillation D) preventricular contraction Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 20) Hypertension is a condition in which A) the blood contains an abnormally high level of fats and cholesterol. B) diastolic blood pressure is higher than systolic blood pressure. C) blood continually pushes too hard against the inner walls of blood vessels. D) blood glucose levels are abnormally and persistently elevated. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3

21) A woman goes to the emergency room. She tells the nurse that after carrying several loads of laundry up a flight of stairs she is having chest pain and a sensation she describes as her heart being crushed. Which condition is she likely experiencing? A) peripheral artery disease B) hypertension C) angina pectoris D) stroke Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 22) A man asks his office-mate to call 911 because he is experiencing tightness in his chest, pain in his left arm and shoulder, shortness of breath, and dizziness. Which condition is he likely experiencing? A) peripheral artery disease B) heart attack C) heart failure D) stroke Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 23) Which blood pressure measurement is the upper number that represents the amount of pressure on arterial walls when the heart contracts? A) systolic B) diastolic C) aortic D) ischemic Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3

24) Which blood pressure measurement is the lower number that represents the amount of pressure on arterial walls when the heart relaxes? A) systolic B) diastolic C) aortic D) ischemic Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 25) A blood pressure of 190 over 110 is classified as A) elevated blood pressure. B) hypertension stage 1. C) hypertension stage 2. D) hypertensive crisis. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 26) An irregularity in the heartbeat is known as A) arrhythmia. B) angina pectoris. C) ischemia. D) hypertension. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 27) The common name for a myocardial infarction is A) a seizure. B) a stroke. C) CHF. D) a heart attack. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3

28) What happens during a heart attack? A) Blood pools in the lower extremities. B) The heart pumps at an excessively rapid rate. C) Blood supply is blocked to some area of the heart. D) Blood supply to some area of the brain is interrupted. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 29) What happens during a stroke? A) Blood pools in the lower extremities. B) The heart pumps at an excessively rapid rate. C) Blood supply is blocked to some area of the heart. D) Blood supply to some area of the brain is interrupted. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 30) What happens in coronary artery disease? A) Plaque forms in blood vessels that supply blood to the heart. B) Blood clots form throughout the body. C) Blood supply is blocked to one or more extremities. D) Blood supply to some area of the brain is interrupted. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 31) "Mini-strokes" that cause only temporary impairment and that can indicate an impending stroke are known as A) preventricular contractions (PVCs). B) transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). C) aneurysms. D) cerebrovascular accidents (CVAs). Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3

32) Leo died when a bulging cerebral blood vessel ruptured, releasing blood into his brain. This event is known as A) an ischemic stroke. B) a hemorrhagic stroke. C) a traumatic brain injury. D) a transient ischemic attack. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 33) Which of the following is a leading cause of disability affecting the extremities, especially in Americans over the age of 65? A) coronary heart disease B) angina pectoris C) peripheral artery disease D) heart failure Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 34) Cardiometabolic risks are A) risk factors that affect both cardiovascular functions and the body's metabolic processes. B) a group of five conditions occurring together that increase the risk for cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes. C) the cardiovascular and metabolic factors that together increase the risk for cognitive decline. D) a measurement of a given individual's risk for coronary artery disease and/or type 2 diabetes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 35) Which of the following can help prevent cardiovascular disease? A) living a sedentary life B) avoiding tobacco C) consuming a moderate level of trans fats D) raising LDL levels Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) Which of the following blood cholesterol profiles is most healthful? A) total cholesterol = 200; HDL cholesterol = 30 B) total cholesterol = 240; LDL cholesterol = 180 C) total cholesterol = 170; HDL cholesterol = 70 D) HDL cholesterol = 50; LDL cholesterol = 130 Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 37) Which of the following characteristics would be consistent with a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome in an adult female? A) blood pressure of 155/90 B) fasting blood glucose of 80 mg/dL C) HDL of 60 D) waist measurement of 30 inches Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 38) Which of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between the gut microbiome and cardiovascular disease? A) Atherosclerosis leads to gut dysbiosis, which in turn reduces the efficient absorption of nutrients from foods. B) Stress, obesity, and poor quality and duration of sleep contribute to the liver's production of a chemical that destroys the beneficial microbes in the digestive tract. C) Intestinal microbes interact with byproducts from the digestion of animal-based foods in ways that injure the lining of blood vessels. D) Byproducts from the digestion of animal-based foods prompt an immune response that damages the intestinal lining, including its resident microbes, and prevents them from clearing LDL cholesterol from the blood. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4

39) Metabolic syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A) fat deposits in the abdomen. B) insulin resistance. C) elevated triglycerides. D) low blood pressure. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 40) Which of the following should be consumed daily as part of a heart-healthy diet? A) red meats B) plant sterols C) coffee D) fried foods Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 41) Of the following lifestyle choices, the MOST helpful for reducing cardiovascular disease risk is to A) eliminate cholesterol from your diet. B) engage in regular exercise. C) increase your intake of dietary protein. D) eat a small amount of chocolate once a day. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 42) Modifiable risk factors for CVD include A) heredity. B) age. C) race. D) blood cholesterol levels. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4

43) Which of the following body shapes represents a higher risk for heart disease? A) pear B) apple C) hourglass D) pencil Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 44) The blood level of which type of protein rises during an inflammatory reaction? A) polypeptides B) amino acids C) collagen D) C-reactive protein Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 45) Homocysteine is an amino acid that when found at high levels in the blood may indicate an increased risk of A) Alzheimer's disease. B) cardiovascular disease. C) Parkinson's disease. D) cancer. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 46) Which of the following is NOT a technique used to diagnose heart disease? A) electrocardiogram B) angioplasty C) ultrafast computed tomography D) positron emission tomography Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Diagnosing and Treating Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 13.5

47) A technique called thrombolysis is used to A) reduce the risk of a blood clot forming in the heart or brain. B) flatten plaque against a coronary artery's walls, thereby increasing blood flow to the region. C) dissolve a blood clot, thereby increasing blood flow to the heart or brain. D) scrape plaque from the inner wall of a coronary artery. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Diagnosing and Treating Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 13.5 48) Which diagnostic test records the electrical activity of the heart? A) electrocardiogram B) angiogram C) magnetic resonance imaging D) cardiac calcium score Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Diagnosing and Treating Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 13.5 49) Which diagnostic test produces a three-dimensional image of the heart as blood flows through it? A) angiography B) computed tomography C) magnetic resonance imaging D) positron emission tomography Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Diagnosing and Treating Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 13.5 50) Which diagnostic test is used to identify heart muscle damage caused by a heart attack or disease involving large blood vessels such as the aorta? A) angiography B) computed tomography C) magnetic resonance imaging D) positron emission tomography Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Diagnosing and Treating Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 13.5

51) A biopsy reveals that a woman who has had breast cancer now has cancer in her bones. The process of cancer spreading from one organ or body area to others is A) metastasis. B) transference. C) transvergence. D) malignance. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6 52) In the United States, the 5-year survival rate for cancer overall is currently A) about 10 percent. B) lower than it was about thirty years ago. C) higher for White Americans than for Black Americans. D) better for cancers of the lung and pancreas than for cancers of the oral cavity and stomach. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6 53) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to tumors? A) A benign tumor is always harmless, whereas a malignant tumor can be fatal. B) A malignant tumor is usually encapsulated and cannot metastasize. C) A benign tumor can invade surrounding tissue, producing mutant cells. D) A malignant tumor can invade surrounding tissue, produce mutant cells, and metastasize. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6 54) Removal and microscopic examination of a tissue sample to determine if cancer is present is a(n) A) biopsy. B) endoscopy. C) colonoscopy. D) PSA test. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6

55) The TNM cancer staging system is based on what three characteristics of the patient's disease? A) time since symptom onset, nature of symptoms, and microscopic evaluation B) tumor size, involvement of lymph nodes, and metastasis C) tumor size, nature of symptoms, and presence or absence of malignancy D) type of tumor, number of neoplasms, and metastasis Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6 56) A period during which cancer has responded to treatment and appears to be under control is called A) relapse. B) retraction. C) remission. D) reversion. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6 57) A woman with a large malignant tumor in her left breast and spread of the malignancy to three nearby lymph nodes but not to other organs most likely has A) cancer in situ. B) stage I cancer. C) stage III cancer. D) stage IV cancer. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6 58) Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the genetic risk of cancer? A) Women who inherit the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes will develop breast cancer by age 50. B) Scientists think that the majority of cancer types are strongly hereditary. C) Hodgkin's disease is directly caused by exposure to radiation and is not linked to heredity. D) An individual's risk of developing cancer is influenced by genetic as well as environmental and lifestyle factors. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

59) Which of the following factors is MOST likely to increase the risk of developing cancer? A) consumption of one alcoholic beverage daily B) consumption of foods grown with pesticides C) obesity D) job strain Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 60) A construction company used asbestos on many job sites over the years. Asbestos is a(n) A) widely used dye. B) radioactive material. C) environmental carcinogen. D) pesticide. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 61) Which of the following is TRUE about radiation and cancer? A) Ionizing radiation has been proven safe. B) Ionizing radiation is the only form of radiation proven to cause cancer in humans. C) Exposure to radon has not been shown to increase the risk of cancer. D) Ultraviolet radiation exposure does not increase cancer risk. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 62) Gwen received the HPV vaccination in her early teens. Doing so decreased her risk for A) leukemia. B) breast cancer. C) cervical cancer. D) ovarian cancer. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7

63) The hepatitis B and C viruses are believed to promote liver cancer by A) impairing the liver's ability to store glycogen. B) causing chronic inflammation of liver tissues. C) reducing the liver's ability to synthesize bile. D) blocking the ability of liver cells to mount an immune response. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 64) All of the following are known carcinogens EXCEPT A) tobacco. B) nickel. C) ionizing radiation. D) oncogenes. Answer: D Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 65) All of the following are well-documented risk factors for breast cancer EXCEPT A) early onset of menstruation and/or late menopause. B) weight gain after age 18. C) having your first child before the age of 20. D) having a family history of breast cancer. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 66) Prostate cancer risk A) has no correlation to family history. B) is highest among Latino men. C) is increased in people who consume a diet high in lycopene. D) increases dramatically with age. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8

67) Testicular cancer is A) a form of cancer that exhibits no visible signs. B) usually discovered by a physician during a testicular screening exam. C) one of the least curable forms of cancer. D) sometimes diagnosed in children. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 68) All of the following are warning signs of melanoma EXCEPT A) asymmetrical shape. B) edges that are uneven or scalloped. C) a uniform brown color. D) a diameter larger than a pea. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 69) Which of the following statements about pancreatic cancer is TRUE? A) In people with diabetes, the pancreas produces little or no insulin, and this appears to be protective against pancreatic cancer. B) A diet high in red meat increases risk for pancreatic cancer. C) Pancreatic cancer has a host of early symptoms, including persistent thirst, chronic diarrhea, and dramatic weight loss. D) Only about 39 percent of people diagnosed with pancreatic cancer survive five years. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 70) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for colorectal cancer? A) obesity B) colitis C) type 2 diabetes D) peptic ulcers Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8

71) If caught early, the prognosis for colon cancer is good because A) treatments are so advanced. B) the disease progresses slowly. C) it can be cured with diet. D) treatment can be delayed. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 72) In the ABCDE rule for the warning signs of melanoma, the B stands for A) bleeding. B) border irregularity. C) bumpy. D) black or brown. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 73) The BEST time for a man to perform a testicular self-exam is A) when he first wakes up in the morning. B) before he goes to sleep at night. C) after strenuous exercise. D) after a hot shower. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 74) Which of the following factors is linked to a reduced risk for ovarian cancer? A) having a child B) having a family history of colon cancer C) having a family history of breast cancer D) taking fertility drugs Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8

75) Sexually transmitted diseases have the greatest impact on increasing the incidence of which type of cancer? A) cervical B) ovarian C) testicular D) prostate Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 76) Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in bones, muscles, and/or connective tissue? A) lymphoma B) carcinoma C) sarcoma D) leukemia Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 77) Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in epithelial tissues? A) lymphoma B) carcinoma C) sarcoma D) leukemia Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 78) Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in the infection-fighting regions of the body? A) lymphoma B) carcinoma C) sarcoma D) leukemia Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8

79) Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in the blood-forming parts of the body, particularly the bone marrow and spleen? A) lymphoma B) carcinoma C) sarcoma D) leukemia Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 80) To reduce their risk for prostate cancer, men over 40 are encouraged to have A) an annual fecal occult blood test. B) a one-time genetic test. C) an annual PSA test. D) an annual digital rectal examination. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 81) The most lethal form of skin cancer is A) metastatic sarcoma. B) squamous cell carcinoma. C) basal cell carcinoma. D) malignant melanoma. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 82) A Pap test is used to screen women for A) cervical cancer. B) ovarian cancer. C) breast cancer. D) sexually transmitted diseases. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8

83) Jeremy was told that his leukemia could not be treated with radiotherapy and must be treated with chemotherapy. This is probably because the cancer is A) not localized. B) in situ. C) in remission. D) advanced. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Facing Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.9 84) Patrick is going to begin chemotherapy to treat a type of lymphoma. Which of the following side effects is he most likely to experience? A) lowered risk of infection B) rapid heartbeat C) nausea, fatigue, and hair loss D) persistent hunger and insomnia Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Facing Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.9 85) Rather than removing her tumor with traditional surgery, Eva's medical team decides to target it with a dose of radiation that destroys tumor cells with pinpoint accuracy. Eva will receive what type of treatment? A) gene therapy B) immunotherapy C) computed tomography D) stereotactic radiosurgery Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Facing Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.9 86) According to the World Health Organization, cardiovascular disease accounts for more than 50 percent of all deaths globally. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Cardiovascular Disease in the United States Learning Outcome: 13.1

87) The body of an average adult contains about 6 gallons of blood. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 88) Blood that has picked up oxygen in the lungs travels through the pulmonary vein back to the heart. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 89) A stroke is also known as a cerebrovascular accident. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 90) Last month, while playing hockey without a helmet, Avery experienced a traumatic brain injury. Avery is now at significantly increased risk for stroke. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 91) The majority of heart arrhythmias result in death. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 92) Diuretics ("water pills") are commonly prescribed for people with heart failure. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3

93) When a blood clot dislodges and moves through the cardiovascular system, it is referred to as a thrombus. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3 94) In order to reduce blood cholesterol, it is important to consume no more than 10 percent of your daily calories from fat. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 95) If you're consuming chocolate for its cardioprotective benefits, your best choice is sugar-free milk chocolate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 96) Diabetes increases the risk for blood vessel inflammation, which in turn increases the risk for cardiovascular disease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 97) A woman whose fat deposits are primarily in her abdominal area is at less risk for heart disease than her friend who carries more fat on her hips and thighs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 98) In a stress test, a patient receives an injection of a stimulant, and an ECG records the heart's response to the drug. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Diagnosing and Treating Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 13.5 24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

99) A male's lifetime risk for cancer is nearly 1 in 4. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6 100) A majority of Americans who are diagnosed with cancer are dead within five years. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6 101) An individual's lifestyle does not play a role in the development of cancer. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 102) Lung cancer is the only form of cancer conclusively linked to smoking. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 103) Pancreatic cancer has an especially high mortality rate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8 104) Having a father or brother with prostate cancer more than doubles a man's risk of getting the disease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8

105) The CT scan is a noninvasive procedure that uses x-rays to determine the shape and location of tumors. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Facing Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.9 106) Identify the four behaviors and three health factor metrics that the American Heart Association links to ideal cardiovascular health. Answer: The four behaviors linked to ideal cardiovascular health are: not smoking; sufficient physical activity; a healthy diet; and an appropriate energy balance and normal body weight. The three health factors linked to ideal cardiovascular health are: optimal total cholesterol without medication; optimal blood pressure without medication; and optimal fasting blood glucose without medication. Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Cardiovascular Disease in the United States Learning Outcome: 13.1 107) Describe the journey that an oxygen-depleted drop of blood would take from a capillary bed in your toes to your lungs. Answer: Oxygen-depleted blood in the capillary beds enters a venule, which carries it to a vein, from which it travels to the inferior vena cava, which releases it into the right atrium, which releases it into the right ventricle. The right ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary arteries, which take it to the lungs. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Understanding the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 13.2 108) Briefly describe what occurs when a person has a stroke. Include the underlying causes, basic effects on the brain and on physical and mental abilities, and the significance of the FAST tool. Answer: A stroke occurs when the blood supply is cut off by plaque formation or a blood clot within a cerebral artery (an artery serving the brain). It can also occur when an artery in the brain ruptures, often because of an aneurysm. Either event deprives the affected brain region of oxygen and nutrients, resulting in the death of brain cells and subsequent speech impairments, memory loss, and loss of motor control. The "FAST" signs of a stroke include Facial drooping or numbness, Arm weakness or numbness, and Speech difficulties, all of which indicate that it is Time to act. Left untreated, a severe stroke can be fatal. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Major Cardiovascular Diseases Learning Outcome: 13.3

109) Should you be concerned about your cholesterol intake? Why or why not? Answer: Answers will vary. Your body can synthesize all of the cholesterol you need, so technically speaking, you don't have to consume any cholesterol in your diet. In people who consume animal-based foods containing cholesterol, such as red meat, eggs, and cheese, the body still produces about 75 percent of total cholesterol. Until 2015, the Dietary Guidelines for Americans advised limiting cholesterol intake. However, recommendations are changing to emphasize consumption of heart-healthy unsaturated fats from a plant-based diet and from essential omega-3 fatty acids in salmon and other fatty fish, and to avoid consumption of any trans fats at all. Recommendations also advise reducing consumption of added sugars and sodium. In short, there is no convincing evidence that consumption of dietary cholesterol, for most people, increases the risk for cardiovascular disease. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Reducing Your Risks Learning Outcome: 13.4 110) Identify three common groups of medications currently used to treat cardiovascular disease. Answer: Among the most common groups of drugs for cardiovascular disease are statins, which are used to lower blood cholesterol levels; ACE inhibitors, which help blood vessels to relax, thereby lowering blood pressure; and beta-blockers, which reduce blood pressure by blocking the effects of the hormone epinephrine, thereby slowing the heartbeat. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Diagnosing and Treating Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 13.5 111) Compare and contrast benign and malignant tumors. How are they similar and how are they different? Answer: Both benign and malignant tumors are neoplasms, new growths of tissue made up of abnormal cells that divide uncontrolled and serve no purpose. Most neoplasms are benign, or noncancerous. These are encapsulated and harmless unless they begin to disrupt the growth or function of normal tissue. A benign brain tumor, for example, can cause fatal changes in the surrounding brain tissue. In contrast, malignant tumors are not encapsulated. Instead, they are able to invade nearby tissues, shedding their abnormal cells into the bloodstream and lymphatic system in a process known as metastasis. This process enables the growth of new tumors in body regions and organs distant from where the cancer first appeared. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: An Overview of Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6

112) Explain why an American male's 42 percent lifetime risk for cancer and an American female's 33 percent lifetime risk for cancer may or may not apply to you. Answer: Lifetime risk for a population of males or females represents the statistical average. Included in this calculation are certain percentages of people with genetic, behavioral, social, and environmental risk factors you might or might not share. It is more accurate and more helpful to think about your own personal cancer risk, which takes into account your precise heredity, lifestyle choices, environmental exposures, and other factors. If, for example, you do not have known genetic risks, do not smoke, maintain a healthy body weight, eat a nourishing diet, engage in regular physical activity, avoid excessive alcohol consumption, practice safe sex, have recommended cancer screenings, and avoid environmental and other carcinogens to the extent possible, then your risk for cancer is likely to be significantly lower than the average lifetime risk for your sex. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: What Causes Cancer? Learning Outcome: 13.7 113) List four characteristics of individuals at greatest risk for skin cancer and describe what a suspicious mole might look like. Answer: (Any four of the following) • Have traits such as fair skin; blonde, red, or light brown hair; blue, green, or gray eyes • Always burn before tanning; don't tan easily • Spend a lot of time outdoors • Burn easily and peel readily • Have been previously treated or have a family history of skin cancer • Have experienced severe sunburns as a child • Use no sunscreen or outdated or low-SPF sunscreen and don't use enough A suspicious mole may have sides that look different (asymmetry) and an irregular border (scalloped edges); the color may vary within the mole (color); and the diameter is larger than a pea. The characteristics change (evolve) over time. The suspicious mole can have one or more of these characteristics. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8

114) List five risk factors for breast cancer and describe tools for early detection. Also describe why early detection is important. Answer: (Any five of the following) • Age • Family history of breast cancer • BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutation • Weight gain after age 18 • Never having children or having the first child after 30 • Consuming two or more alcoholic drinks per day • Physical inactivity • Having had early menarche and/or late menopause • Recent use of oral contraceptives or postmenopausal hormone therapy • Obesity after menopause Screening mammograms, including a new 3D mammogram, as well as a new type of MRI can detect a lump that is still too small to be palpated. They can therefore contribute to early diagnosis and may improve effectiveness of treatment and survival rate. Many professional health care groups also recommend breast self-exam. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Cancers Learning Outcome: 13.8

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 13a Focus On: Minimizing Your Risk for Diabetes 1) Approximately, how many Americans have diabetes? A) nearly 5 million B) nearly 15 million C) nearly 25 million D) nearly 35 million Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 2) Diabetes mellitus is a disease characterized by A) high blood fats. B) high blood glucose. C) low blood pressure. D) high blood proteins. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 3) Which of the following is TRUE in regard to the use of glucose by body cells? A) Glucose not used to meet immediate energy needs is converted into amino acids and stored in the liver. B) Glucose is the preferred energy source for all body cells except red blood cells. C) The uptake of glucose by body cells is stimulated by a hormone secreted by the pancreas. D) Glucose easily diffuses across cell membranes. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1

4) The primary action of insulin is to A) increase the liver's breakdown of glycogen into glucose. B) stimulate cell transport structures to take up glucose from the bloodstream and carry it into the cell. C) metabolize glucose to energy. D) stimulate cells to release glucose into the bloodstream so that it can travel to the liver for storage. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 5) Type 1 diabetes A) is typically more expensive than type 2 diabetes to treat. B) is more prevalent than type 2 diabetes. C) occurs when the immune system attacks and degrades the insulin protein as if it were a foreign antigen. D) is also called non-insulin-dependent diabetes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 6) During the past few decades, the incidence of type 2 diabetes in children and teens has A) become more prevalent among adolescent boys than among adolescent girls. B) decreased by 10 percent. C) remained stable. D) increased. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 7) Which of the following factors would be MOST likely to increase an individual's risk of developing type 2 diabetes? A) White European ancestry B) age over 40 C) a high-stress job D) central adiposity Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 2 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which of the following individuals would have the highest risk for developing type 2 diabetes? A) a white male with a diet high in added sugars B) a normal-weight black female with a history of depression C) an Asian American female with high blood pressure D) a Native American male with a BMI of 30 Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 9) About what percentage of the American population over the age of 20 has symptoms of prediabetes? A) 13 percent B) 26 percent C) 37 percent D) 51 percent Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 10) Which of the following occurs as a result of gestational diabetes? A) The mother has significantly reduced risk of progressing to type 2 diabetes after giving birth. B) The growth of the fetus is limited. C) Changing hormone levels reduce metabolic stress. D) There is a higher risk of birth injury and cesarean delivery. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 11) Conditions that increase the risk for developing type 2 diabetes include all of the following EXCEPT A) gestational diabetes. B) prediabetes. C) metabolic syndrome. D) type 1 diabetes. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to prediabetes? A) It progresses to type 2 diabetes in nearly 95 percent of people. B) It is one of the conditions linked to metabolic syndrome. C) It is most common in college students. D) An estimated 49 million Americans age 20 or older have it. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 13) Carrying an excessive amount of body fat around the waist, which is a risk factor for diabetes, is a condition known as A) dorsal obesity. B) central cellulite storage. C) central adiposity. D) gastrointestinal adiposity. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 14) The condition of elevated blood glucose levels during pregnancy is called A) gestational diabetes. B) fetal diabetes. C) maternal diabetes. D) prediabetes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 15) A cluster of conditions that strongly increases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes is known as A) cardiovascular disease. B) prediabetes. C) central adiposity. D) metabolic syndrome. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) The body organ that secretes the hormone insulin is the A) spleen. B) liver. C) kidney. D) pancreas. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 17) The organ that stores glycogen that has been converted from glucose is the A) spleen. B) liver. C) kidney. D) pancreas. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 18) A state of elevated blood glucose is A) hyperglycemia. B) hypoglycemia. C) insulin resistance. D) glycemic load. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 19) Which of the following countries has the highest number of people with diabetes? A) Switzerland B) Mexico C) South Africa D) China Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1

20) Ibram has a disorder in which his own immune system destroys the insulin-producing cells in his pancreas. What is the name of this disorder? A) pancreatic autoimmune dysplasia B) type 1 diabetes C) hyperglycemia D) pancreatitis Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 21) A state in which the body's cells fail to respond to the effects of insulin is A) hyperglycemia. B) hypoglycemia. C) insulin resistance. D) diabetic coma. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 22) Which form of diabetes develops slowly and occurs when the body either loses its ability to produce enough insulin or cannot respond to the insulin that is available? A) type 1 diabetes B) type 2 diabetes C) gestational diabetes D) insulin-dependent diabetes Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 23) Carbohydrates that have been ingested are broken down into the form of sugar known as A) glucose. B) glycogen. C) lactose. D) fructose. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1

24) The monthly cost of medical care for an individual with type 2 diabetes averages A) $100—200 B) $200—550 C) $350—1,000 D) $1,000—1,350 Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 25) Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with diabetes? A) weight loss B) excessive thirst C) excessive urination D) agitation and excessive energy Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 26) Uncontrolled diabetes can increase the risk of A) liver cancer. B) blindness. C) brain tumors. D) skin cancer. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 27) John has not been feeling well. He is constantly tired and feels bloated. His blood pressure is low and at times his vision is blurred. Which two symptoms does John have that are characteristic of diabetes? A) bloating and blurred vision B) low blood pressure and bloating C) fatigue and blurred vision D) low blood pressure and fatigue Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2

28) Nerve damage associated with diabetes can cause numbness and tingling in the A) neck. B) hands. C) feet. D) hands and feet. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 29) Diabetes can result in hunger and weight loss because A) so many calories are lost in the glucose that passes into the urine. B) appetite is suppressed due to high blood sugar. C) a person with diabetes burns more calories during a given activity. D) excessive urination means loss of water weight. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 30) Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to all of the following EXCEPT A) coma. B) heart disease. C) kidney disease. D) pancreatic cancer. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 31) In a state of diabetic ketoacidosis, A) the body is breaking down muscle and other proteins for energy. B) levels of acidic molecules in the blood rise dangerously high. C) the brain must rely on glucose as a source of energy. D) kidney function will increase. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2

32) Which of the following factors contributes to a diabetes-related amputation? A) pneumonia or flu B) low blood pressure C) impaired immune response D) kidney failure Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 33) Kara was tested for diabetes. Her fasting plasma glucose test showed a level of 120 mg/dL. This indicates that A) Kara has diabetes. B) Kara has prediabetes. C) Kara has normal blood glucose levels. D) Kara's test results must be confirmed with an oral glucose tolerance test. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 34) Miguel was tested for diabetes. His oral glucose tolerance test showed a level of 120 mg/dL. This indicates that A) Miguel has diabetes. B) Miguel has prediabetes. C) Miguel has normal blood glucose levels. D) Miguel's test results must be confirmed with a fasting plasma glucose test. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 35) People with diabetes should check their own blood glucose level A) several times a week. B) once a week. C) several times a day. D) once a day. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2

36) A test that gives the average value of a patient's glucose over the past 2 to 3 months is the A) hemoglobin A1C test. B) red blood cell count. C) oral blood glucose test. D) fasting plasma tolerance test. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 37) A tool that shows how a patient's A1C numbers correspond to their blood glucose numbers is called their A) targeted average glucose. B) estimated average glucose. C) targeted FGP range. D) estimated glycogen storage capacity. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 38) Randy is an overweight 22-year-old whose doctor is concerned about his risk of diabetes. The doctor ordered a test that requires Randy to drink a concentrated glucose solution and then have blood drawn two hours later. The test Randy will undergo is the A) glucose meter test. B) hemoglobin A1C test. C) oral glucose tolerance test. D) fasting plasma glucose test. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2

39) Eleanor is 57 years old and has had poorly controlled type 2 diabetes for decades. Which of the following factors BEST explains why she is at increased risk for kidney failure? A) Her kidneys' filtration of excessive ketones from the blood requires her to urinate much more often than normal. B) Her increased thirst causes her to continually drink excessive fluids, which stress her kidneys. C) Her kidneys have become scarred by the overwork of clearing her blood of excessive glucose. D) Her kidneys have been the site of multiple infections. Answer: C Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 40) The recommended diet for individuals at risk of developing diabetes includes all of the following foods EXCEPT A) whole grains. B) nuts. C) fatty fish. D) red meat. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Diabetes Learning Outcome: 13a.3 41) Research suggests that individuals with prediabetes may avoid progressing to diabetes if they lose what percentage of current body weight? A) as little as 3 to 5 percent B) as little as 5 to 7 percent C) as little as 7 to 9 percent D) as little as 9 to 11 percent Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Diabetes Learning Outcome: 13a.3

42) Hermione is morbidly obese (BMI 30) and has type 2 diabetes. Which of the following treatment options is Hermione's physician LEAST likely to advise? A) bariatric surgery B) increased physical activity C) oral insulin administration D) adoption of a reduced-calorie, healthy diet Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Preventing and Treating Diabetes Learning Outcome: 13a.3 43) A meal with a low glycemic load is A) likely to trigger greater thirst than a meal with a high glycemic load. B) unlikely to help an individual feel satiated. C) likely to require an increased production of insulin by the pancreas. D) unlikely to cause a dramatic surge in blood glucose. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Diabetes Learning Outcome: 13a.3 44) For individuals with prediabetes, adopting the lifestyle changes advocated by the National Diabetes Prevention Program can cut the risk for developing type 2 diabetes by more than half. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 45) Experts predict that more than 1 in 3 Americans will develop diabetes by the year 2050. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 46) In a healthy person, an increase in blood glucose following a carbohydrate-containing meal or snack will result in increased secretion of insulin. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1

47) Inadequate sleep is thought to be a contributing factor in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 48) Diabetes can contribute to gum disease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 49) An oral glucose tolerance test result of 150 mg/dL indicates that the individual has diabetes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 50) People with diabetes generally do self-checks to monitor blood sugar throughout the day. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 51) The primary reason that diabetes increases the risk for blindness is that high blood glucose blocks tiny ducts that release tears that cleanse and lubricate the eye. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 52) Medications for treating diabetes tend to become less effective over time. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Diabetes Learning Outcome: 13a.3

53) A person with diabetes who has gastric bypass or sleeve gastrectomy surgery may eliminate the symptoms of diabetes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Diabetes Learning Outcome: 13a.3 54) All people with type 2 diabetes can control it with lifestyle changes and will never need to take insulin. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Preventing and Treating Diabetes Learning Outcome: 13a.3 55) Explain the primary differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Answer: Type 1 is a genetic autoimmune disorder in which the body's immune system attacks the insulin-making cells of the pancreas. This results in a rapid decrease in—or total cessation of—insulin production. Type 2 diabetes develops slowly over time and is related to genetics and biology, age, ethnicity, and lifestyle factors, especially overweight and obesity, low levels of physical activity, a poor diet, inadequate sleep, and stress. Over time, although production of insulin may be increased, cells become resistant to its effects. Hyperproduction of insulin damages the pancreas and insulin output eventually declines, causing a persistent rise in blood glucose. A person with type 1 diabetes must take insulin injections. A person with type 2 can sometimes control it through lifestyle changes and, if necessary, oral medications. In some cases, they must inject insulin. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 56) Identify the main risks of gestational diabetes to the mother and to the fetus. Answer: Women with gestational diabetes have an increased risk of high blood pressure, high blood acidity, infection, and death. They are more likely to experience a spontaneous abortion and preeclampsia, and to require cesarean birth. They also have a higher risk for developing type 2 diabetes in the decade following the birth. The fetus of a woman with gestational diabetes may become excessively large, with an increased risk for birth trauma; malformations of the heart, nervous system, and bones; respiratory distress; and fetal death. Other risks to the newborn include hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and respiratory distress. Even after an uncomplicated birth, the newborn is at risk for high insulin levels and fluctuations in blood glucose, and for obesity, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes later in life. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Is Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.1 14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) Explain why people with diabetes that is poorly managed are at increased risk for amputations, especially of the toes and feet. Answer: Tissue damage from trauma and infections, especially in the feet, are a frequent threat to people with diabetes, in part because their weakened immune system is less able to heal traumatic injury or conquer infection quickly. At the same time, nerve damage reduces sensation in the extremities, allowing people with diabetes to be unaware of traumatic or infectious tissue damage until it has progressed. Moreover, high blood glucose damages blood vessels serving the limbs and impairs delivery of nutrients to assist in wound healing; thus, amputations are often necessary. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Are the Symptoms of Diabetes? Learning Outcome: 13a.2 58) What three steps can an individual take to prevent or delay the development of diabetes? Answer: Lose weight or maintain a healthy weight; eat right (limit intake of saturated fats and added sugars, reduce portion sizes, and focus on fruit and vegetables, whole grains and fiber, low-fat dairy, nuts, and fatty fish); and increase physical fitness, including by adding at least 3 minutes of movement during every 30-minute period of sitting. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Preventing and Treating Diabetes Learning Outcome: 13a.3

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 14 Protecting Against Infectious Diseases and Sexually Transmitted Infections 1) Disease-causing agents are called A) pathogens. B) antibodies. C) carcinogens. D) infectious microorganisms. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 2) The bubonic plague is an example of A) a pandemic. B) an autoimmune disease. C) an epidemic. D) an endemic disease. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 3) All of the following must happen for a disease to occur EXCEPT A) the host must be susceptible. B) an agent must transmit a disease. C) the environment must support it. D) the host must never have had the disease before. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 4) You want to decrease your risk of developing an infectious disease. Which of the following factors is within your individual control? A) heredity B) nutritional status C) environmental conditions D) age Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Rita is worried about contracting COVID-19. Which of the following steps would do the MOST to reduce her risk? A) getting plenty of sleep B) taking immune-boosting supplements C) exercising regularly D) wearing a face mask in public Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 6) Greg frequently gets cold sores (caused by HSV-1). He recently noticed that his left eye had a painful lesion, and he immediately made an appointment with his doctor. Greg's eye most likely became infected with the herpes virus when he touched his mouth and shortly afterward rubbed his eye, which is transmission via A) autoinoculation. B) opportunism. C) direct contact. D) irritation. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 7) Alicia allows her pet beagle to share her ice cream cone. She is increasing her risk for A) a foodborne infection. B) a vector-transmitted infection. C) an opportunistic infection. D) a zoonotic infection. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1

8) Influenza outbreaks that affect 5-20% of the United States population each year are an example of a(n) A) trauma. B) plague. C) pandemic. D) epidemic. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 9) While hospitalized for severe malnutrition and a debilitating respiratory infection, an elderly patient developed a urinary tract infection. This is an example of a(n) A) airborne infection. B) endemic infection. C) opportunistic infection. D) perinatal infection. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 10) A very small number of pathogenic bacterial cells would be MOST likely to cause severe illness or death in a human host if the bacteria were A) extremely virulent and drug resistant. B) transmitted by an animal such as a dog or bat. C) opportunistic. D) able to breach the body's defenses. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 11) A substance that triggers an immune response is a(n) A) pathogen. B) antigen. C) antibody. D) toxin. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Every time you eat something that contains yellow dye, you wheeze and get a rash. The dye must be an A) antibody. B) antigen. C) enzyme. D) immunoglobulin. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 13) Key factors in mounting an immune response include all of the following EXCEPT A) antibodies. B) macrophages. C) lymphocytes. D) red blood cells. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 14) A rise in body temperature that occurs in response to invading pathogens is a(n) A) fever. B) autoimmune disease. C) sign of hypertension. D) allergic reaction. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 15) When the body is invaded by antigens, the immune system forms proteins called A) antibodies. B) macrophages. C) suppressors. D) antibiotics. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2

16) Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies develop in response to a vaccine? A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 17) Which of the following statements about antibodies is TRUE? A) They are manufactured by helper T cells. B) They are specific to their targeted antigen, like a key is specific to a lock. C) They are a type of phagocytic white blood cell. D) Their production triggers the fever characteristic of active infection. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 18) Which of the following statements about antibiotics is TRUE? A) They are effective in fighting viral infections such as influenza and COVID-19. B) They work by stimulating the body's development of antibodies. C) They can kill both pathogenic and beneficial bacteria in the body. D) They work by stimulating fever. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 19) Which immune system malfunction occurs when the body develops antibodies that attack its own tissues? A) passive immunity B) active immunity C) autoimmunity D) aggressive immunity Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2

20) Which of the following is the basic principle behind vaccination in the 21st century? A) Exposing someone to a small amount of a pathogen is not harmful, but can help build their immunity to that pathogen. B) Exposing someone to a weakened or killed version of a pathogen or a part of a pathogen is not harmful, but can help build their immunity to that pathogen. C) Exposing someone to a pathogen that causes a mild illness, such as cowpox, can give them some immunity against a similar but more serious illness, such as smallpox. D) Exposing someone to a small amount of preformed antibodies effective against a pathogen can help them fight off the pathogen, should they eventually encounter it. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 21) Which of the following is NOT a bacterial infection or caused by a bacterial infection? A) tuberculosis B) Lyme disease C) meningitis D) influenza Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 22) When farm animals develop infections with antibiotic-resistant bacteria, the pathogens are MOST likely to spread to humans A) who are vulnerable to opportunistic infections. B) when the animals are given free range. C) when fertilizer or water containing the animals' feces is used on food crops. D) when the animals' meat is overcooked. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3

23) You woke up this morning with the worst headache of your life, and you feel nauseated. Your neck feels so stiff that you can hardly nod your head. Your roommate says your skin is very hot and you probably have a fever. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) You are probably experiencing measles, which is resurgent on college campuses. You should go to a health clinic, and your roommate should quarantine. B) You studied so much last night that you developed a tension headache. Your roommate should let you rest. C) You are experiencing an aura associated with a migraine headache and your roommate should allow you to turn off all the lights. D) You have signs of meningitis. Both you and your roommate should go to the health clinic immediately. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 24) While in the hospital, Daniel's grandmother developed an inflammatory condition that involved a build-up of fluid in her lungs. His grandmother was suffering from A) tuberculosis. B) pneumonia. C) emphysema. D) influenza. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 25) What portion of the world's population is infected with tuberculosis (TB)? A) one-fifth B) one-fourth C) one-third D) one-half Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3

26) All of the following statements about methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are true EXCEPT A) it can invade the heart, lungs, and bones. B) community-acquired MRSA is on the rise. C) the MRSA bacteria do not respond to the class of antibiotics commonly used for Staphylococcus infections. D) although it can be acquired in health-care facilities, they are not a common source. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 27) All of the following statements about viruses are true EXCEPT A) they are composed of protein and either RNA or DNA. B) there are hundreds of viruses that cause disease. C) they reproduce by copying their genetic material, and then dividing into two daughter cells. D) drug treatment for viral infections is limited. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 28) Two weeks ago your nephew came down with the chickenpox while visiting. Now you have itchy, crusted spots on your arms and you feel terrible. You probably were infected with the chickenpox virus when your nephew was there but did not get sick until now because of the A) immune response. B) incubation period. C) inoculation period. D) antibody activity. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3

29) Which of the following statements about the common cold is TRUE? A) The majority of colds are caused by a variety of bacterial species. B) Adults have, on average, one cold each year. C) The common cold is endemic in the United States. D) The majority of colds are transmitted by airborne droplets released when an infected person sneezes. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 30) Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between getting a chill and contracting a cold? A) A chill may indirectly increase a person's risk for getting a cold by lowering the immune system's resistance. B) Getting a chill will cause a person to get a cold. C) Getting a chill has no relationship whatsoever to contracting a cold. D) Getting a chill may actually decrease the incidence, duration, and severity of a cold by reducing reproduction of the virus. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 31) Hepatitis B can lead to A) liver cancer. B) kidney disease. C) heart disease. D) skin cancer. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3

32) Which of the following is a small form of toxin-producing bacteria carried by ticks that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A) ehrlichiosis B) rickettsia C) Lyme disease D) tuberculosis Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 33) Symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following EXCEPT A) excessive hunger. B) fever and headache. C) nausea and vomiting. D) dark yellow urine. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 34) Coronaviruses that cause disease in humans are all A) zoonotic. B) deadly. C) resistant to current antibiotics. D) characterized by an incubation period of several weeks to years. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 35) A couple in Central America were dismayed when their baby was born with microcephaly. This birth defect might have resulted from infection with which of the following pathogens? A) prions B) the Zika virus C) West Nile Virus D) Powassan virus Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3

36) Which of the following statements is TRUE for both SARS-CoV1 and SARS-CoV2? A) They have both caused millions of deaths worldwide. B) They share more than 95 percent of the same genetic material. C) They both originated in China. D) They both circulated worldwide for more than 2 years. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 37) The common cold is which type of infection? A) fungal B) viral C) protozoan D) staphylococcal Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 38) After a relaxing week of backpacking and camping in the woods, during which you enjoyed drinking cool water from a creek, you have returned to school. Since you got back, you are experiencing abdominal cramps that won't go away. This condition is probably not the result of schoolwork overload, but rather something you picked up during your camping trip. You likely have A) malaria. B) trichomoniasis. C) giardiasis. D) valley fever. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 39) A self-replicating protein-based agent that is thought to cause mad cow disease is a type of A) virus. B) fungi. C) protozoan. D) prion. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) Shelby experiences a severe headache while vacationing at a lakeside resort that is infested with mosquitoes. The illness they are most likely experiencing is A) Ebola hemorrhagic fever. B) hantavirus. C) tuberculosis. D) West Nile virus. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 41) Garrett became very ill with an E.coli infection while living on his grandfather's dairy farm last summer. He could have been infected in all of the following ways EXCEPT A) eating undercooked ground beef. B) drinking unpasteurized milk. C) swimming in a sewage-contaminated creek. D) getting a mosquito bite. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 42) The largest type of pathogen is A) fungi. B) parasitic worms. C) protozoa. D) bacteria. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 43) Walter removed a tick embedded in his calf the evening after a long hike in the woods. Walter is now at increased risk for all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT A) candidiasis. B) ehrlichiosis. C) babesiosis. D) Lyme disease. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) When bacteria establish themselves in or on a host without causing an infection, this is known as A) colonization. B) infestation. C) foundation. D) globalization. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 45) A key reason for the resurgence of measles and mumps infections is A) an increased mosquito population. B) a public backlash against vaccinations. C) the rise of the HIV/AIDS epidemic. D) poor sanitation and hygiene in certain areas. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 46) The most well-known sign of mumps is A) an itchy red rash. B) a high fever. C) swollen salivary glands. D) yellowing of the eyes. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 47) Which of the following is TRUE about avian influenza? A) It is a bacterial disease. B) It appears to have originated in Africa. C) It has already developed into a major pandemic. D) It has not yet mutated into a form highly infectious to humans. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3

48) All of the following points about E. coli 0157:H7 are true EXCEPT that A) it is a bacterial disease. B) infection can be serious but is not known to cause deaths. C) it can be contracted from various foods. D) a typical symptom of infection is diarrhea. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 49) Edna lives in a nursing home. She has been taking antibiotics for both pneumonia and recurring urinary tract infections. This morning she awoke with a fever, watery diarrhea, and nausea. Which of the following infectious diseases is Edna MOST likely to have? A) necrotizing fasciitis B) COVID-19 C) Powassan virus D) Clostridium difficile Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 50) Sexually transmitted infections disproportionately affect A) females and adults age 25 and older. B) males and adults age 25 and older. C) females and young people age 15 to 24. D) males and young people age 15 to 24. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.4 51) STI pathogens prefer A) darkness and moisture. B) light and cold. C) light and heat. D) darkness and dryness. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.4

52) The MOST effective way to reduce your risk of STIs is to A) have oral sex instead of vaginal or anal sex. B) urinate before having sex. C) get the HIV vaccine. D) have sex only with a partner who has tested negative for STIs. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.4 53) Candi was mortified when her doctor told her that she had a protozoal STI. She probably had A) candidiasis. B) trichomoniasis. C) parasitic worms. D) rickettsia. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 54) When Maria's boyfriend returned from the health clinic, he told her he had been diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Maria should take lots of vitamins and eat a healthy diet to prevent infection. B) Maria should limit sexual activity with her boyfriend to oral sex until his treatment is finished and a follow-up test shows that he is free of the infection. C) Maria does not need to worry because she does not have any gonorrhea symptoms. D) Maria should go to the clinic to get tested for gonorrhea and treated if she has it. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 55) Sierra and Corey have wanted to have a baby since they got married 4 years ago. Their doctor suspects that their infertility is likely due to Sierra's history of PID from the most commonly reported STI. During her early 20s, Sierra had contracted A) herpes simplex. B) HPV. C) chlamydia. D) HIV/AIDS. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

56) Delay in seeking medical care for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) increases the risk of permanent damage and scarring that can lead to A) infertility and other complications. B) bleeding between periods. C) painful urination. D) painful intercourse. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 57) The stage of syphilis that is characterized by a bacteria-filled chancre is A) primary syphilis. B) secondary syphilis. C) latent syphilis. D) tertiary syphilis. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 58) Vincent contracted genital herpes 15 years ago, and is about to begin a new sexual relationship. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Because he contracted genital herpes so many years ago, there is very little likelihood that Vincent will transmit the herpes virus to his partner. B) Vincent should take the drug famciclovir to reduce viral shedding. C) Vincent should take the drug acyclovir, which destroys the herpes virus. D) Vincent should get the herpes vaccine. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 59) The CDC recommends HPV vaccination for A) girls beginning at age 13. B) boys beginning at age 13. C) both boys and girls beginning at age 11. D) all teens and adults, within six months of becoming sexually active. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 16 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) Bethany is 39 years old and has just been diagnosed with cervical cancer. It is probably related to an infection she had during her college years, which was A) hepatitis A. B) human papillomavirus (HPV). C) syphilis. D) chlamydia. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 61) Which of the following is caused by an increased production of a fungus normally resident in smaller numbers in the vagina? A) candidiasis B) HPV C) trichomoniasis D) gonorrhea Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 62) A cheesy white discharge from the vagina, or whitish patches on the mouth or throat, called thrush, are due to infection with the fungal pathogen A) HPV. B) Trichomonas vaginalis. C) Candida albicans. D) Treponema pallidum. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 63) Public lice are which type of infection? A) fungal B) parasitic C) protozoan D) prion Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 17 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

64) The virus responsible for causing genital warts is A) hepatitis B. B) chlamydia. C) HPV. D) syphilis. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 65) Which STI occurs in stages over a period of years? A) chlamydia B) gonorrhea C) HPV D) syphilis Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 66) HIV can potentially be transmitted through all of the following EXCEPT A) a condom breaking during vaginal intercourse. B) getting a tattoo. C) receiving a blood transfusion prior to 1985. D) sharing food utensils with an infected person. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6 67) Francisco just found out his HIV test is positive. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Francisco's positive HIV test means that he has AIDS. B) As he is unaware of having experienced any particular symptoms of HIV infection, it is likely that he was infected many years ago and his immune system overcame the infection. C) New drug therapies should allow Francisco to significantly slow progression of the infection. D) Francisco's wife does not need to worry about getting infected since she is a heterosexual female. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6 18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

68) On a business trip, an executive engages in unprotected sex with a prostitute. A week later, he worries that he might have been infected with HIV and visits his healthcare provider for testing. His provider recommends a new combo fourth-generation test that detects antibodies and antigens to HIV more quickly than the standard antibody test. For greatest accuracy, how soon can the executive be tested? A) immediately B) 12 days after he engaged in unprotected sex C) 42 days after he engaged in unprotected sex D) 84 days after he engaged in unprotected sex Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6 69) Interspecies transmission of infectious disease does not occur. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 70) Research links climate change to increased rates of vector-borne infectious disease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 71) An antibody is a pathogen capable of triggering an immune response. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2 72) Amy was just diagnosed with the flu. Getting a flu shot now is wise, because it will enable her body to attack and eliminate the flu virus in her system. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2

73) The primary reason for the decline in C. difficile infections is more widespread use of antibiotics. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 74) Treatment for influenza is only palliative. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 75) The human variant of mad cow disease can develop in a person who has eaten meat from infected cows. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 76) Oral sex carries no risk for STIs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.4 77) Sexually transmitted infections are a form of direct contact transmission. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.4 78) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) occurs in both males and females as a result of certain STIs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5

79) Herpes can be cured in its early stages with proper antibiotic treatment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 80) The human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination protects against all types of HPV. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 81) Pubic lice can migrate to other areas of the body, including the eyebrows and head. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 82) In the United States, more than one in ten people infected with HIV do not know it. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6 83) Two high-risk behaviors associated with the development of HIV/AIDS are having unprotected sex and sharing needles. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6 84) The terms HIV and AIDS are synonymous and can be used interchangeably. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6

85) A pregnant woman who is HIV positive cannot transmit HIV to her fetus. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6 86) You cannot contract HIV through casual contact. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6 87) If pathogenic microorganisms are all around us, including in the air, on surfaces, and even on our own skin, explain why we don't all develop new infectious diseases every day. Answer: Three conditions must be present at the same time to develop disease from exposure to a microorganism. 1) There must be contact—through broken skin, inhalation, and so forth—between the interior of the human body and a pathogen virulent enough to overcome the body's defenses and sustain itself long enough to cause infectious disease. Skin, for example, is the body's first defense: pathogens are not able to gain entry in a person with intact skin, but can gain entry to the body via a cut or burn, then multiply, typically in the bloodstream. 2) The host must be susceptible; that is, vulnerable in some way to the infection. Most obviously, the host's body temperature, chemistry, and cellular make-up must be hospitable to the pathogen involved. This explains why, for example, a certain type of microorganism that is pathogenic in dogs may not be pathogenic in humans. Moreover, within any given community, some people have a strong immune system, whereas others—including the very young, the very old, pregnant women, and people who are ill—have a compromised immune system unable to destroy the pathogen before it replicates to cause disease. 3) The environment must allow for the pathogen's survival. Factors such as temperature, light, and moisture must be hospitable to the pathogen. Pathogenic microorganisms in contaminated foods cannot reproduce in your freezer, for example, but can replicate quickly in the same food left out on your kitchen counter. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1

88) Compare and discuss factors you can control and factors you cannot control to prevent the onset of infectious disease. Answer: Heredity cannot be controlled; once you are conceived, your genetic composition and family history have been determined. Likewise, you cannot control your age. The majority of our environmental conditions are beyond our individual control, such as global warming and natural disasters (although we can control our response to these factors by being aware and prepared). The development of resistant organisms is beyond our control. We can reduce our personal risk by taking antibiotics only when necessary (not for viral infections) and by completing all antibiotic therapies as directed. The factors we can control have the greatest impact on our risk for infectious disease. These behaviors include the following: • Control stress. We cannot eliminate stressors, but we can control our responses to stressors, thus decreasing the effects of chronic stress such as obesity, heart disease, and decreased immunity. • Eat a healthy diet, be physically fit, and get adequate sleep. • Avoid high-risk behaviors such as smoking, misuse and abuse of alcohol and other drugs, and having unprotected sex. For airborne diseases such as COVID-19, avoid gathering in crowds when possible; social distance; and wear a high-quality mask. • Practice good personal hygiene, including good hand-washing practices. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1

89) Discuss three factors that are contributing to the development of multidrug-resistant organisms and what you can do to slow the growth of resistant organisms. Answer: (Any three of the following) • Antibiotics are widely used in food production. Many people believe antibiotics in our food supply are leading to the development of resistant organisms. An individual may try to avoid or limit their ingestion of antibiotic-rich substances. The individual's contribution in this way is made more difficult if proper and complete labeling of food products is not required. • Incorrect use of antibiotics aids the development of resistant organisms. Individuals can do their part by taking antibiotics as directed (i.e., do not skip doses and continue to take the drug until the regimen is complete even if symptoms are gone). • People often want and expect their health care provider to prescribe antibiotics for virtually any illness. Many health care providers continue to prescribe antibiotics for illnesses not caused by bacteria. An individual can do their part by modifying their own expectations of their health care provider and by asking if the prescribed antibiotic is necessary to treat their particular illness. • Incorrect disposal of antibiotics in the toilet or in household waste leads to contamination of waterways and soils. Finish the entire amount of the drug as prescribed. • Many soaps and cleaning products are antibacterial which, combined with inadequate handwashing, may lead to growth of resistant organisms. Individuals should not use antibacterial soap products for routine hand-washing and should wash their hands at least 20 seconds with regular soap and rinse well with warm water. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: The Process of Infection Learning Outcome: 14.1 90) Mark sliced his hand picking up a piece of broken glass, and failed to clean the wound thoroughly. As a result, he has developed an infection. Identify the signs and symptoms Mark is most likely experiencing. Answer: The infection has likely produced the four cardinal signs of inflammation: redness, swelling, pain, and heat. As the pathogen damages cells and tissues in the region, and the immune system floods the region with immune cells and chemicals, swelling, redness, and heat occur. Swelling exerts pressure on nerve endings, causing pain. Mark will also experience a fever as his immune system responds to the infection. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Your Body's Defenses against Infection Learning Outcome: 14.2

91) Propose at least two arguments in support of vaccination against potentially fatal infectious diseases. Answer: Widespread immunization programs have a long history as one of the most effective public health measures to reduce symptoms, hospitalizations, and deaths from severe infectious diseases. Smallpox, for example, has been eradicated because of global vaccination, and polio and several other vaccine-preventable diseases are extremely rare. When people who are able to choose vaccination do not get vaccinated, they risk becoming infected themselves as well as infecting others who are too young for vaccination or have medical problems that make vaccination ineffective or potentially harmful. Vaccines are safe and effective for the great majority of the population: rigorous randomized controlled clinical trials of their safety and effectiveness must be reviewed and approved by the Food and Drug Administration, and the CDC monitors any complaints of adverse reactions after administration begins. Overall, the danger of serious adverse effects from vaccines is miniscule compared to the dangers of being unprotected and becoming infected with vaccine-preventable diseases. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Types of Pathogens and the Diseases They Cause Learning Outcome: 14.3 92) Discuss at least three factors contributing to the current high rates of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) in the United States. Answer: (Any three or more of the following.) • STIs often are asymptomatic, at least initially; thus, they can spread without individuals knowing they are infected. • There have been cuts to state and local funding of STI programs. • The COVID-19 pandemic has reduced access to STI testing and treatment. • Shame and embarrassment may prevent infected people from seeking diagnosis and treatment. They may continue to be sexually active, thus infecting their partners. • People may not be comfortable communicating with partners about using condoms and other forms of safer sex. • Many people have casual attitudes about sex without consideration of the consequences. • In spite of massive educational efforts, there is still ignorance about infections, transmission of those infections, and the asymptomatic nature of many STIs. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.4 93) Identify the key difference between HSV-1 and HSV-2. What infectious disease do they cause, and what body areas do the two types infect? Answer: The key difference between HSV-1 and HSV-2 is that HSV-1 is much more common. It is estimated to infect between 50 and 80 percent of all adults, whereas HSV-2 is thought to infect about 17 percent of adults. Both types cause herpes and can infect any area of the body. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Common Types of Sexually Transmitted Infections Learning Outcome: 14.5 25 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

94) State two reasons that early detection of HIV infection is critical. Answer: The earlier HIV infection is diagnosed, the earlier it can be treated, and treatment can slow the progression of HIV to AIDS. Moreover, early detection is critical to avoid transmitting the infection to others, whether via shared contaminated needles or exchange of bodily fluids. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6 95) Explain the link between HIV infection and the development of opportunistic infections. Answer: HIV destroys helper T cells, which play key roles in both humoral and cell-mediated immune responses. Without robust immunity, pathogens that the immune system could otherwise easily vanquish can reproduce unchecked and cause disease. Opportunistic infections that are characteristic of full-blown AIDS include fungal infections, pneumonia, and tuberculosis. Certain types of cancer are also more likely to occur in people with AIDS. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: HIV/AIDS Learning Outcome: 14.6

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 14a Focus On: Reducing Risks for Chronic Diseases and Conditions 1) Two lung conditions referred to as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are A) chronic bronchitis and asthma. B) asthma and emphysema. C) chronic bronchitis and emphysema. D) acute bronchitis and tuberculosis. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 2) Risk factors for chronic lower respiratory disease include all of the following EXCEPT A) smoking. B) eating disorders. C) exposure to severe heat. D) exposure to air pollution. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 3) Which of the following conditions involves inflammation and eventual scarring of the lining of the bronchial tubes? A) pneumonia B) asthma C) emphysema D) bronchitis Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 4) A major risk factor for chronic bronchitis is A) a history of allergies. B) Hispanic ethnicity. C) cigarette smoking. D) exposure to dust and pollen. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following statements is TRUE for both chronic bronchitis and emphysema? A) Both diseases are characterized by damage to the air sacs of the lungs. B) Prevalence of both diseases is higher among males than females. C) Smoking is one of the major known risk factors for both diseases. D) Both diseases have allergic as well as intrinsic forms. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 6) Emphysema is an irreversible respiratory disease in which A) the alveoli are destroyed. B) excess mucus is produced. C) the lungs become more elastic. D) there is inflammation and constriction of the bronchial tubes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 7) Which of the following is TRUE about emphysema? A) It is a "man's disease." B) It is most common in people under age 45. C) The lung damage it causes is reversible. D) A person with emphysema finds it difficult to exhale. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 8) The disease characterized by inflammation of airways, constriction of bronchial muscles, and production of mucus that together block air flow is A) pulmonary embolism. B) dyspnea. C) emphysema. D) asthma. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1

9) Symptoms of asthma include all of the following EXCEPT A) wheezing. B) coughing. C) sneezing. D) shortness of breath. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 10) Asthma is A) somewhat rare among adults, affecting about 1.5 percent of Americans over age 18. B) a serious but not potentially fatal disorder. C) a disease characterized by disparities in treatment. D) a form of COPD. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 11) Chen has the most common type of asthma, which is A) extrinsic (allergic) asthma. B) intrinsic (nonallergic) asthma. C) aspirin-induced asthma. D) stress-induced asthma. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 12) Which of the following is TRUE concerning asthma? A) It is not influenced by genetics or family history. B) It is more common among males both in childhood and adulthood. C) Physician-approved cardiorespiratory exercise can help prevent episodes. D) It is essentially hay fever affecting the lungs. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1

13) A hypersensitivity reaction in which the body produces antibodies to a normally harmless substance is a(n) A) allergy. B) intolerance. C) overexposure. D) chronic condition. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2 14) An allergic response begins with exposure to a(n) A) antigen. B) antibody. C) toxin. D) pathogen. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2 15) An allergic reaction can trigger the immune system to release which substance that produces allergy symptoms? A) epinephrine B) adrenaline C) antihistamine D) histamine Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2 16) Adam's nose runs and his eyes itch whenever the pollen count is high. Adam most likely is experiencing A) influenza. B) hay fever. C) asthma. D) seasonal respiratory syndrome. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2 4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) You suffer from hay fever. The over-the-counter medications to treat your symptoms are likely to contain A) antihistamines. B) aspirin. C) antipyretics. D) analgesics. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2 18) The three major types of headaches include all of the following EXCEPT A) cluster headaches. B) sinus headaches. C) migraine headaches. D) tension headaches. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 19) in For the last two weeks, Madhu has woken up in the middle of the night with an excruciating pain behind their eyes. They are most likely experiencing a A) migraine headache. B) sinus headache. C) cluster headache. D) tension headache. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 20) You have a tension headache. Possible causes include all the following EXCEPT A) muscle contractions in your head and neck from sitting at your desk. B) an allergic reaction to milk in the ice cream you ate last night. C) clenching your jaw for hours while studying. D) drinking red wine and not getting enough sleep. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3

21) Once a month Jason experiences a headache that is severe, lasts 8-12 hours, and is accompanied by vomiting and extreme sensitivity to light. He most likely has which type of headache? A) tension B) migraine C) cluster D) sinus Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 22) In about one-fourth of cases, a sensory warning sign precedes a migraine. This warning sign is called a(n) A) prelude. B) halo. C) indicator. D) aura. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 23) Seizure disorders are A) classified as chronic degenerative disorders of cognition and movement. B) caused by a variant in a single gene. C) caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. D) not treatable. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 24) A toddler who is experiencing a very high fever is at increased risk for which of the following? A) a cluster headache B) a night terror C) a seizure D) Crohn's disease Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 6 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a(n) A) condition of improper bowel function. B) bowel disorder caused by bacteria. C) bowel disorder caused by a virus. D) inflammatory bowel disease. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 26) Omar is experiencing an episode of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following statements is MOST likely to be TRUE? A) Omar has been noticing blood in his stool. B) Omar should decrease his intake of dietary fiber. C) Omar is at increased risk for colorectal cancer. D) Omar is experiencing significant stress from a financial setback. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 27) Irritable bowel syndrome A) is classified as an autoimmune disorder. B) can cause either constipation or diarrhea. C) affects twice as many men as women. D) presents characteristic symptoms that make it easy to diagnose. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 28) Adelaide was rushed into surgery after a scan revealed perforation of her small intestine and internal bleeding. Her diagnosis is most likely A) Crohn's disease. B) ulcerative colitis. C) irritable bowel syndrome. D) colon cancer. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

29) Joshua has a disease in which the walls of his large intestine have become painfully inflamed. His diagnosis is A) Crohn's disease. B) ulcerative colitis. C) irritable bowel syndrome. D) chronic intestinal disease. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 30) Kari is 17 years old. She has an inflammatory disease of her small intestine that increases her risk for anemia and bowel obstruction. Kari most likely has A) Crohn's disease. B) ulcerative colitis. C) irritable bowel syndrome. D) colorectal cancer. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 31) Ulcerative colitis A) is caused by infection of the colon, usually by intestinal worms. B) often arises for the first time after age 50. C) is also known as Crohn's disease. D) may increase the risk for colorectal cancer. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 32) Experts suspect that ulcerative colitis may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT A) genetics. B) smoking. C) stress. D) irritable bowel syndrome. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4

33) What percentage of Americans will experience low back pain at some point in their life? A) around 25 to 30 percent B) around 45 to 50 percent C) around 65 to 70 percent D) around 85 to 90 percent Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 34) Which of the following statements about arthritis is TRUE? A) It is a disease of old age. B) It affects not only bones and joints, but also muscles and connective tissue. C) It is classified as an autoimmune disease. D) It is clinically referred to as osteoarthritis. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 35) Vimala suffers from chronic low back pain. Her doctor will most likely prescribe all of the following treatments EXCEPT A) gentle exercise. B) opioid pain relievers. C) massage. D) heat. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 36) A musculoskeletal disorder in which the immune system attacks the joints and other tissues is known as A) degenerative joint disease. B) osteoarthritis. C) rheumatoid arthritis. D) osteoporosis. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5

37) Carpal tunnel syndrome is one of the most common A) repetitive motion disorders. B) gastrointestinal disorders. C) types of back injury. D) types of arthritis. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 38) Kendra is a computer animation major and spends several hours every day creating images on a computer screen. Now a junior, she has begun to notice persistent tingling in her hands and fingers and pain moving her wrists. Kendra probably has A) injured her lower back. B) carpal tunnel syndrome. C) frozen shoulder. D) osteoarthritis. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 39) All of the following are considered repetitive motion disorders EXCEPT A) bursitis. B) tendonitis. C) arthritis. D) ganglion cysts. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 40) A lung disease is any disorder in which lung function is impaired. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1

41) Dyspnea is defined as a periodic cessation of breathing, especially during sleep. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 42) COPD includes all chronic lung diseases, including asthma. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 43) Essential oils are an eco-friendly alternative to commercial air fresheners. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 44) Emphysema involves difficulty fully exhaling stale air from the lungs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 45) Intrinsic asthma may be triggered by anything EXCEPT an allergy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 46) Genetics may play a role in asthma development. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1

47) Asthma is an allergic reaction to specific types of pollen. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 48) In asthma, the flow of air through the bronchial tubes is impaired by both muscle constriction and mucus. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 49) Certain medications can trigger an episode of asthma. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 50) A "smoker's cough" that has persisted for two or more years is a classic sign of acute bronchitis. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 51) Histamine production can cause increased production of mucus in the airways. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2 52) Another term for hay fever is allergic rhinitis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2

53) Hay fever is usually considered a seasonal disorder. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2 54) Allergies result from an inadequate immune system response. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2 55) Headaches are usually indicators of a serious medical condition. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 56) Migraines are considered an inherited neurological disorder. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 57) The pain of cluster headaches is more localized than that of tension headaches. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 58) In irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there is structural damage to the nerves serving the large intestine. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4

59) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is an inflammatory bowel disease. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 60) Crohn's disease may cause intestinal bleeding and anemia. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 61) Nearly one-quarter of all Americans have arthritis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 62) Smoking can contribute to low back pain. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 63) Rheumatoid arthritis affects nearly three times as many females as males. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 64) Most cases of acute low back pain will eventually require surgery. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5

65) Explain what happens in the body during an asthma attack. Answer: Air enters the respiratory system via the nose and mouth and travels through the bronchial tubes. During an asthma attack, the muscles of the bronchial tubes constrict, and the air passages become inflamed and clogged with mucus. This makes it difficult for the person to breathe. The person may also experience wheezing and coughing. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 66) You share an apartment with someone who is asthmatic. List and discuss at least four things you can do at home to help prevent asthma attacks. Answer: (At least four of the following) • Purchase a good air filter for your home, and clean filters regularly. If a fireplace or woodburning stove is present in the apartment, check it to ensure it is not spewing smoke or particulate matter. • Avoid cigarette, cigar, and pipe smoke. Don't vape. • Wash sofa cushions, pillows, and sheets regularly, and vacuum regularly. Use pillow and mattress protectors. • If you choose to have a pet but animal dander is a problem, try a non-shedding breed of dog or cat. Keep pets off the bed. • Keep your home clean and pest free; dust mites, cockroaches, and other vermin may trigger allergic reactions. • Make sure that you and your apartment-mate always know the location of asthma medications and that you know how to help if your apartment-mate has an attack. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Chronic Lower Respiratory (Lung) Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.1 67) Explain how an allergy affects the body. Answer: An allergy is a hypersensitivity reaction in which the body produces antibodies in response to the presence of a normally harmless substance in the environment. Antibody production triggers immune cells called mast cells and basophils to release histamine, which dilates blood vessels, increases the production of mucus, and may cause tissue swelling, rashes, difficulty breathing, and even anaphylaxis. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Allergies Learning Outcome: 14a.2

68) Describe an aura and propose an explanation for how experiencing an aura might help an individual to reduce the severity of a migraine headache. Answer: Among people who suffer migraines, about one-fourth experience an aura, an unusual sensation such as flashes of light, flickering vision, blind spots, tingling in the arms or legs, or an unusual odor or taste. The aura typically precedes the migraine and therefore can act as a warning sign, allowing the person to take medication or otherwise follow their physician's advice to reduce the severity of the episode. Diff: 6 Skill: Creating Section: Coping with Neurological Disorders Learning Outcome: 14a.3 69) Propose a mechanism by which chronic, persistent irritable bowel syndrome could result in significant weight loss and malnutrition. Answer: A common characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome is diarrhea, which occurs when food moves through the gastrointestinal tract too quickly. In an individual suffering chronic, persistent diarrhea, absorption of nutrients is impaired. Thus, the person can experience significant weight loss and malnutrition. Diff: 5 Skill: Creating Section: Coping with Digestion-Related Disorders and Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.4 70) Discuss at least three strategies to protect yourself from back pain and injury. Answer: (Any three or more of the following) • Consciously maintain good posture. Poor posture can cause muscle strain and pain. When sitting for long periods, use a chair with good lumbar support, and get up and walk around periodically. Also invest in a quality mattress. • Maintain a healthy body weight to avoid extra strain on your knees, hips, and back. • Maintain your strength and fitness. Exercise regularly and include exercises which strengthen core abdominal muscles and stretch the back muscles. • Lift objects using your legs, not your back. That is, do not bend from the waist to lift heavy objects; instead, keep the object close to your body and bend your knees while keeping your head down and your back straight. • Quit smoking. Smoking reduces blood flow to the lower spine, which can contribute to spinal disc degeneration. • Limit what you carry in your backpack. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5

71) Propose an explanation as to why weight loss is recommended for people with osteoarthritis who are overweight or obese. Answer: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease. Reducing body weight reduces the load that joints are required to move, and therefore the pressure, thereby reducing pain. Diff: 5 Skill: Creating Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5 72) Identify the common repetitive strain/motion disorder that affects the hand and wrist, its typical symptoms, and its common causes. Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common repetitive motion disorder that results from an irritation of the median nerve in the wrist. Symptoms include pain, numbness, or tingling sensations in the fingers and hands. It is often caused by repetitive motion while using computers or performing other tasks that require repeated hand and wrist movements. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Coping with Musculoskeletal Diseases Learning Outcome: 14a.5

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 15 Making Smart Health Care Choices 1) Taking responsibility for your health care includes all of the following EXCEPT A) learning how to navigate the health care system. B) using over-the-counter medications to treat sudden, ambiguous symptoms. C) being knowledgeable about the benefits and limits of self-care. D) checking a health care providers education, training, and credentials. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 2) For over a year, Zoe had avoided getting a free COVID-19 vaccine because she was concerned that it might cause an increase in her periodic headaches and worsen her insomnia. After her employer required that she get the vaccine, she agreed. For several months thereafter, she reported to her physician, employer, and family members that she was experiencing frequent headaches and sleeplessness. Zoe's symptoms might MOST LIKELY be due to A) an allergic reaction to something in the vaccine. B) contamination of the vaccine. C) the placebo effect. D) the nocebo effect. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 3) Communication with health care providers can be improved by all of the following EXCEPT A) knowing your family history. B) relying on your health care provider for all information on health care issues. C) writing down information so that you remember it accurately. D) seeking a second opinion when you have doubts about the provider's recommendations. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1

4) The primary difference between a board certified and board eligible physician is that a board A) certified physician has demonstrated competency in a given specialty. B) eligible physician practices alternative medicine. C) eligible physician has failed the board exam. D) certified physician is associated with an accredited health care facility. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 5) In a clinical trial for a new pain medication, Hayden was given an inactive substance instead of an actual drug. After taking it, however, their headache improved. This resulted from the A) analgesic effect. B) placebo effect. C) ingredients in the inactive pills. D) passage of time. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 6) Which of the following actions BEST exemplifies appropriate self-care? A) reading a classmate's social media post about COVID-19 B) after waking up with a sore throat, diagnosing yourself with COVID-19 C) using a rapid antigen test to determine whether or not your sore throat means you are infected with COVID-19 D) after your partner, with whom you spent the weekend, texts you that they have COVID-19, making yourself a vitamin-C shake Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 7) You should seek expert medical care if you experience A) unexplained sudden weight loss. B) a bout of diarrhea. C) dizziness upon standing. D) a runny nose. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 2 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which of the following symptoms probably does NOT warrant professional medical advice? A) You notice that your lips and nail beds are bluish in color. B) You get a tingling sensation in your arm and your speech is slurred. C) You experience sneezing and itchy, watery eyes. D) Your throat is swelling after taking a new medication. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 9) You should consult a physician A) to check blood pressure and temperature. B) to learn new relaxation techniques. C) to treat shortness of breath and dizziness in reaction to an insect bite. D) if you vomit after dining out. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 10) When choosing a health care provider, you should examine all of the following EXCEPT A) their education and training. B) their affiliations with accredited medical facilities. C) how their methods of treatment compare to established medical practices. D) their membership in local organizations such as country clubs or service clubs. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 11) Your doctor works at a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission. This type of accreditation indicates that A) only specialists can practice there. B) all practitioner education, licensing, and training qualifications have been verified. C) all physicians must be trained in both traditional and alternative medicine. D) only generalists can practice there. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1

12) Which of the following statements about preventable medical error is TRUE? A) It is responsible for the deaths of nearly 10,000 Americans annually. B) In the United States, it occurs often in underfunded rural hospitals but only rarely in sophisticated, complex health care systems. C) Examples include administration of medication to the wrong patient and injury from a poorly performed procedure. D) There is nothing you can do to reduce your risk of harm from a preventable medical error. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 13) Before receiving any care, patients must be made aware of the treatment plan and any potential risks involved. This is known as the right A) of informed consent. B) to receive care. C) to privacy. D) to access medical records. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 14) The term defensive medicine refers to actions taken to A) avoid malpractice claims. B) protect against infectious disease. C) slow the progress of chronic diseases. D) ensure that patients are informed about medical choices. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 15) The legal term for improper or negligent treatment of a patient by a health care provider that results in loss or harm to the patient is A) incompetence. B) malpractice. C) malfunction. D) abandonment. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) The conventional health care delivered in the United States is known as A) naturopathic medicine. B) allopathic medicine. C) holistic medicine. D) homeopathic medicine. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 17) All of the following statements are true about traditional Western medical practice EXCEPT A) all treatments have had the benefit of extensive clinical trials. B) practitioners complete rigorous education and clinical training programs. C) it can be practiced by a wide range of specialists and health professionals. D) treatments may change dramatically as new advances replace older practices. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 18) Which of the following health professionals is least likely to be a primary health care provider? A) allergist B) internist C) family practitioner D) obstetrician-gynecologist Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 19) Due to the differences in training, an osteopathic physician would probably have more experience dealing with which condition than a medical doctor? A) low back pain B) heart disease C) cancer D) kidney failure Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Your primary care provider suspects that you may have an unusual infection in your eyes. To whom would he or she refer you? A) physician assistant B) optician C) optometrist D) ophthalmologist Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 21) An optometrist A) treats skeletal and muscular problems. B) prescribes medications to treat eye illnesses. C) fits individuals for prosthetic limbs. D) performs eye exams and prescribes and fits lenses. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 22) The primary care practitioner in your campus health clinic is a nurse with a master's degree who is authorized to perform exams, conduct diagnostic tests, and in some states prescribe medications. He is a A) nurse practitioner. B) doctor of nursing science. C) licensed practical nurse. D) registered nurse. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 23) Physician assistants A) are competently able to treat 100 percent of those seeking primary care. B) can provide treatment and write prescriptions when supervised by a physician. C) are not licensed by state boards of medicine. D) are the same as physicians, but with fewer years of experience. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 6 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Over-the-counter drugs are commonly used for all of the following EXCEPT A) allergies. B) weight loss. C) sleep problems. D) diabetes. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 25) All of the following are true with respect to generic drugs EXCEPT that they A) contain the same active ingredients as their brand name counterpart. B) are generally less expensive than brand name drugs. C) have the same inactive ingredients as their brand name counterpart. D) are sold under a chemical name instead of a brand name. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 26) Over-the-counter drugs are A) not associated with dependency. B) highly unlikely to be abused. C) conventional medications that affect body functioning. D) also known as generic drugs. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 27) If you have moved to a new town and want to find a provider you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n) A) in-network practitioner. B) homeopathic practitioner. C) intern. D) primary care practitioner. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2

28) Medical decision making based on clinical expertise, patient values, and data from scientific research is known as A) allopathic medicine. B) evidence-based medicine. C) conventional medical care. D) primary care. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 29) Approximately what percentage of Americans currently uses one or more prescription drugs? A) nearly 10 percent B) nearly 30 percent C) nearly 50 percent D) nearly 70 percent Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 30) Originally health insurance covered only hospital expenses. This coverage was then expanded to physician services and medications and other treatments. What effect did this type of coverage have on the medical system? A) It helped contain costs. B) It encouraged patients to improve their lifestyle choices to prevent disease. C) It encouraged doctors to provide more medical procedures for patients. D) It discouraged hospitals from investing in expensive medical equipment and facilities. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 31) In a 2019 survey, what percentage of Americans ages 19 to 34 said they had no health insurance? A) 3.4 percent B) 15.6 percent C) 28.5 percent D) 41.8 percent Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Americans with group health insurance through their employer typically pay a percentage of the cost, which is deducted from their paycheck. Approximately, how much of the total cost of the insurance do they typically pay? A) 5 to 10 percent B) 15 to 25 percent C) 25 to 30 percent D) 35 to 50 percent Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 33) Which of the following is TRUE with respect to health care spending accounts (FSAs or HSAs)? A) They provide affordable health care coverage. B) They are only available to low-income individuals. C) They allow people to save money tax-free for health care costs. D) They provide funds that help employers finance company health plans. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 34) Most private health insurance plans require the patient to a pay a certain amount each year toward health care expenses before the plan benefits begin; this amount is the A) co-payment. B) coinsurance. C) deductible. D) premium. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3

35) Money is tight for Rosa. She has health insurance coverage through her employer; however, when her toddler wakes from his nap feverish, crying, and tugging his ear, she decides to try an over-the-counter pain reliever rather than taking him to his pediatrician, where she will have to pay a $25 fee for the visit. This fee is known as a A) fee-for-service. B) co-payment. C) shared cost. D) cost of service. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 36) If an insurance policy covers 90 percent of your total medical bills, the remaining 10 percent that you must pay is your A) coinsurance amount. B) co-payment amount. C) deductible amount. D) premium amount. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 37) Before the Affordable Care Act, if you had a history of back problems and needed health insurance, it was unlikely that your new insurance plan would cover any treatment related to your back problems until the policy had been in effect for a period of time. Your back problem was considered a(n) A) prior diagnosis. B) preexisting condition. C) lifestyle risk. D) untreatable condition. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3

38) A 70-year-old American would be eligible for health insurance coverage through A) COBRA. B) Medicaid. C) Medicare. D) Social Security. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 39) Capitation refers to A) payment of a fixed monthly amount to a health care provider per enrolled patient, regardless of the type or number of services provided. B) a one-time fee that is paid to health care providers from insurance companies if the patient enrolls in an HMO. C) care received from salaried practitioners at a specific health care facility, such as a hospital or clinic. D) administrators and stockholders in a proprietary hospital determining the fee schedule for a given fiscal year. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 40) Concerns about HMOs include all of the following EXCEPT A) questions about care allocation. B) profit-motivated medical decision making. C) the high cost of co-payments. D) questions about access to services. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3

41) What do preferred provider organizations (PPOs) and point of service (POS) plans have in common? A) Both are types of health maintenance organizations. B) Both are designed to coordinate a patient's care across various providers. C) Both are types of exclusive provider organizations. D) Both allow patients to seek outside care but require patients to pay an extra cost. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 42) The federally funded health insurance program that covers 99 percent of the U.S. population age 65 and older is A) Medicare. B) Medicaid. C) Social Security. D) COBRA. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 43) A group of physicians in private practice who negotiate fees for medical care only for patients who are members of their organization is called a(n) A) health maintenance organization. B) independent practice association. C) point of service plan. D) preferred provider organization. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 44) If you are concerned about the costs of health care, which of the following would it be sensible to avoid? A) recommended health screenings B) routine vaccinations C) regular exercise D) use of the emergency room for routine health care Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

45) The health insurance program jointly funded by the states and the federal government that provides coverage for low-income individuals and families is A) Medicare. B) Medicaid. C) Social Security. D) COBRA. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 46) Managed care emphasizes A) health education and preventive care. B) state-of-the-art diagnosis and treatment. C) physician independence. D) provision of emergency health care. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 47) Categories established by the federal government to determine how much a hospital will be reimbursed for the care of a patient with a particular condition or multiple conditions are A) diagnosis-related groups. B) fee schedules. C) formulary tiers. D) diagnostic codes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3

48) Georgia is a 19-year-old community college student who works a part-time, minimum-wage job, lives with five other students in a shared house, and is no longer in touch with family members. When she was recently treated for an asthma attack at an urgent care clinic, she did not have to pay for her care. Which of the following types of health insurance does Georgia MOST LIKELY have? A) Medicare B) Medicaid C) CHIP D) point-of-service Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 49) A payment made to an insurance company, usually on a monthly basis, to cover the cost of an insurance policy is the A) deductible. B) premium. C) waiting period. D) lifetime limit. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 50) Shortly before his 65th birthday, Stan's physician started him on medications to reduce his blood pressure and improve his blood lipid profile. When he enrolls in Medicare, what type of additional health insurance plan should Stan strongly consider purchasing? A) Medicaid B) a CHIP plan C) a Medigap plan D) a managed care plan Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3

51) Of the following types of health care expenditures, the United States spends the most on A) health insurance. B) government administration and research. C) drugs and medical products. D) hospital care. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 52) Whereas the United States has a free-market system of health care delivery, Canada and the United Kingdom have national, single-payer delivery systems. As compared to Canada and the United Kingdom, the United States A) spends about 40 percent less on health care per person. B) spends about the same amount on health care per person. C) spends about 40 percent more on health care per person. D) spends about 100 percent more on health care per person. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 53) The 2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) was designed to do all of the following EXCEPT A) establish a national single-payer health care system. B) improve the overall quality of health care. C) reduce the cost of health care. D) increase access to health care. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 54) Your father was laid off six months ago but recently started a new job. He was able to keep his health insurance during the transition through A) COBRA. B) Medicaid. C) Medicare. D) Social Security. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) All of the following are provisions of the Affordable Care Act (ACA) EXCEPT coverage for A) certain preventive services. B) preexisting conditions. C) prescription medications. D) young adults on a parent's plan through age 30. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 56) How did the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 help middle-income Americans afford health insurance? A) It established a "subsidy cliff" that removed affluent older Americans from Medicare, freeing up funding for middle-income Americans of all ages to gain subsidized coverage. B) It eliminated the income limit for eligibility to enroll in Medicaid in states that accepted the Medicaid expansion. C) It eliminated the income limit for eligibility to apply for subsidized care in the online insurance marketplace. D) It removed the annual and lifetime premium limits on benefits. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 57) Which of the following statements is NOT true about costs in the U.S. health care system? A) The U.S. spends more on health care than any other nation. B) Growing rates of obesity are pushing costs higher. C) New technologies are lowering costs. D) Overtreatment is an issue. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4

58) One of the advantages of a single-payer health care system is that it A) can achieve lower cost through economies of scale. B) provides a higher quality of health care. C) rations health care services. D) encourages people to commit to lifestyle choices that reduce their risk for chronic diseases. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 59) The placebo effect is the disappearance of symptoms without any apparent reason or treatment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 60) All U.S. patients have the legal right to access their medical records. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 61) Regular self-care should include learning about health from reliable health care publications, including websites. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 62) Requesting an x-ray when it is unnecessary but the patient demands it would be considered defensive medicine. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1

63) An osteopath (D.O) does not complete the same level of training as a physician who is an M.D. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 64) In theory, allopathic medicine is based on scientifically validated methods and procedures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 65) The Food and Drug Administration provides information for consumers on the risks and benefits of prescription drugs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 66) An optometrist holds a medical degree and can perform eye surgery. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 67) A periodontist is a dentist who specializes in alignment of the teeth. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 68) The labels of over-the-counter medications are not required to identify the purpose of the drug or the active ingredient. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2

69) Cost sharing is one of the mechanisms private health care insurers use to help patients afford coverage. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 70) Health insurance is based on the idea that policyholders pay affordable premiums so they never have to face catastrophic medical bills. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 71) All physicians are required by law to accept Medicare patients. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 72) Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), an insurer can impose an annual upper limit on coverage. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 73) The United States has a shortage of primary care physicians. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 74) The United States has the third highest life expectancy of any country in the world. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4

75) The right to medical care is recognized by the United Nations Universal Declaration of Human Rights. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 76) Although prescription medications must be approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), over-the-counter drugs do not need FDA approval. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 77) The Affordable Care Act's 80/20 rule mandates that insurance companies spend at least 20 percent of premiums on patient care. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 78) Undocumented immigrants in the United States are not eligible for Medicare, Medicaid, CHIP, or subsidized insurance in the Affordable Care Act marketplace. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4

79) List and discuss five points that will help you communicate well with health care providers. Answer: (Any five of the following) • Know your personal and family medical history. • Research your condition—causes, effect, possible treatments, etc. Don't rely solely on your provider for information. • Write out your questions in advance. • Bring someone with you to appointments to listen and ask questions. If you go alone, take notes. • Ask the practitioner to explain the problem and possible tests, treatments, and medications. If you don't understand anything, ask for explanations in simpler language. • If the provider prescribes medication, ask whether you can take a generic version. • Ask for a written summary of the results of your visit and any lab tests. • Seek a second opinion about important tests or treatment recommendations. • After an appointment, write down an account of what happened and what was said. • When filling prescriptions, make sure the pharmacist provides you with information about the drugs and their possible interactions, and read it. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 80) Identify four common forms of self-care. Answer: (Any four of the following) • Diagnosing symptoms or conditions that occur frequently but may not require physician visits (e.g., common colds or minor abrasions) • Performing first aid for common, uncomplicated injuries and conditions • Using over-the-counter medications to treat minor ailments or injuries • Having periodic checks for blood pressure, blood glucose, blood lipids, etc. • Scheduling routine and special vaccinations • Using reliable self-help books, tapes, websites, and videos • Engaging in meditation or other stress-management techniques • Eating a healthful diet, getting adequate sleep, and exercising regularly Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1

81) Andy has been taking a prescription antidepressant for 10 weeks and reports feeling less depressed since he began taking the medication. How can Andy be certain that his response isn't attributable to the placebo effect? Can he? And if not, what could he do to increase his understanding of his drug response? Answer: Answer will vary. Students may discuss concepts similar to the following: He cannot be certain. Researchers agree that expectations do influence human physiology. A recent review study of thousands of clinical trials of antidepressants concluded that their benefits reflect a combination of effects, including pharmacological and placebo effects. Not only mood, but pain and observable physical signs such as tremor respond to the placebo effect. Andy could conduct some research into the drug that he is taking, reading the published clinical studies or at least the abstracts of the studies. He could also ask his prescriber for more thorough information about the evidence for the effectiveness of the drug. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Taking Responsibility for Your Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.1 82) Distinguish between nurse practitioners (NPs), registered nurses (RNs), and licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs), comparing training and responsibilities. Answer: Nurse practitioners are registered nurses who obtain additional training and certification, typically through a master's degree program or specialized NP program. They may conduct or order diagnostic tests and, in many states, prescribe medication. Registered nurses typically have either a 4-year bachelor of science in nursing or a 2-year associate's degree in nursing. They must then pass a national certification exam in nursing. Licensed practical/vocational nurses typically have completed a 1-year or 2-year training program, often at a community college or in a large hospital, and have passed a licensing exam. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2 83) Explain why generic drugs are typically much less expensive than brand-name drugs. Answer: Generic drugs cost less because their manufacturers did not have to pay for the clinical trials that demonstrated the original drug's safety and effectiveness and thus supported its entry onto the market. In addition, once a patent on a brand-name drug expires, many different manufacturers can produce generic versions. This competition between multiple manufacturers reduces cost. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Conventional Health Care Learning Outcome: 15.2

84) List and explain the various mechanisms private insurance companies are still allowed to use, under the Affordable Care Act, to limit potential losses. Answer: • Deductibles—payments you must make before your insurance company starts paying • Coinsurance—the percentage of the bill you must pay • Co-payments—a set amount you must pay at the time of service • Limits on covered services—conditions or treatments not covered by a particular policy (for example, a plan may or may not cover eyeglasses, dental care, etc.) • Waiting periods—a period of time (not to exceed 90 days) during which a person is enrolled and paying premiums but before coverage begins; does not apply to plans purchased by individuals Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 85) The Affordable Care Act provided funding for a so-called Medicaid expansion. What does this mean? Answer: Medicaid is funded by both states and the federal government. Typically, each state independently determines income eligibility for Medicaid. The ACA provides generous subsidies for any state that expands Medicaid coverage to residents with incomes up to 133 to 138 percent of the federal poverty threshold. The subsidies mean that states that expand Medicaid must pay for just 10 percent of the cost of this expanded coverage. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Health Insurance Learning Outcome: 15.3 86) Identify at least four factors involved in the high cost of health care in the United States. Answer: (Any four of the following) • Excessive administrative costs • Lack of uniformity preventing bulk purchasing at reduced cost • Lack of competition in private insurance market • Duplication of services • Aging population • Increasing rates of obesity and inactivity • Demand for new diagnostic and treatment technologies • Emphasis on crisis-oriented care rather than prevention • Physician overtreatment • Inappropriate use of health care services by consumers Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4

87) List and discuss five key provisions of the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Answer: (Any five of the following) • Insurers are required to cover preventive services, such as screenings for cancer, mammograms and colonoscopies, tests of blood glucose and blood pressure, and other services. • Insurers must offer coverage to young adults on a parent's plan through age 26. • Coverage for prescription medications is required. • Americans cannot be denied coverage because of preexisting conditions. • No annual and lifetime limits on benefits are allowed. • An online insurance marketplace helps consumers shop for and enroll in plans and apply for subsidies to help pay for plans. • Small businesses receive special tax credits to help fund insurance plans. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4 88) Are you in favor of a national single-payer health insurance program in the United States? Support your answer with reasons why or why not. Answer: Answers will vary. Students may make arguments similar to the following: Yes; everyone should have access to affordable health care as a basic human right. Many other countries have successful programs that are cost effective. Currently, uninsured individuals increase system-wide costs by waiting to seek care until they are critically ill and foregoing expensive prescription drugs that they cannot afford. They would be more likely to seek preventive care if it were covered, and earlier intervention would cut costs and save lives. Healthy individuals contribute to society in multiple ways that individuals struggling with chronic illness cannot. In our current system, insured individuals end up paying higher prices for health care since the industry tries to offset costs incurred by treating uninsured or underinsured individuals. Moreover, considerable savings would be achieved by reducing administrative costs currently incurred by the thousands of different health insurance plans, as well as office costs for providers who must bill a variety of insurance companies, payments, etc. A single-payer plan could also purchase medical devices, medications, etc., in bulk, reducing the average costs. It would also protect Americans from catastrophic economic losses, including bankruptcy, that can occur when medical bills exceed a family's ability to pay them. No; health care is not a right, as it is not covered by the Bill of Rights in the U.S. Constitution. Ensuring their personal health is an individual's responsibility. Many individuals do not take care of their health. Moreover, many individuals can afford health coverage but choose—and have a right—to decline it. A single-payer system would entail enormous costs for changing the health care infrastructure and covering all Americans. It would have to be funded through higher taxes or through cuts in defense spending or other federal spending. The oversight of the health care system should be left up to the free market. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Issues Facing Today's Health Care System Learning Outcome: 15.4

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 15a Focus On: Understanding Complementary and Integrative Health 1) The mission of the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health is to A) promote the use of complementary health approaches. B) develop national standards for education, certification, and practice of complementary health care. C) scientifically study the use, effectiveness, and safety of complementary health approaches. D) investigate complaints of ineffectiveness or harm from consumers of complementary and alternative health approaches. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 2) Which term describes health approaches that are outside the realm of traditional Western medicine but are used in conjunction with conventional treatments? A) alternative B) complementary C) contradictory D) functional Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 3) Which term describes health approaches that are outside the realm of traditional Western medicine and are used in place of conventional treatments? A) alternative B) complementary C) contradictory D) functional Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1

4) Which term identifies a type of medical practice that combines conventional medicine with complementary health approaches in a coordinated way? A) combination B) naturopathic C) integrative D) blended Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 5) Natasha has not had much luck receiving help from her regular doctor to alleviate her PMS symptoms and overall fatigue. The medication that was prescribed made her dizzy, so Natasha stopped taking it. She decided to find a new doctor who was more focused on treating her and not her individual symptoms. Her next step is to make an appointment with a A) holistic practitioner. B) chiropractor. C) gynecologist. D) pain specialist. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 6) Which of the following is the most commonly used complementary therapy among U.S. adults? A) yoga B) meditation C) massage D) natural products Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1

7) To promote safe and effective care, before visiting a new complementary health practitioner, it is important to do all of the following EXCEPT A) consult reliable resources to determine the scientific basis of the practitioners' claimed benefits. B) consult with your primary health care provider. C) thoroughly evaluate the credentials of the practitioner. D) talk with someone who is currently using the practitioners' services. Answer: D Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 8) You are seeking to harmonize your body, mind, and spirit and balance your body's three vital energies through diet, exercise, herbs, meditation, massage, improved sleep patterns, and controlled breathing. Your plan is to consult with a practitioner of A) traditional Chinese medicine. B) Ayurvedic medicine. C) homeopathic medicine. D) naturopathic medicine. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 9) Ayurveda refers to a A) practice based on manipulation of the spinal column and other structures. B) practice based on the principle of "like cures like." C) system that emphasizes the power of natural healing processes. D) holistic and ancient treatment approach considered a "science of life." Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2

10) Which of the following statements about regulation of homeopathy is TRUE? A) The Food and Drug Administration has not found any active ingredients, toxic or beneficial, in any homeopathic remedy it has studied. B) No homeopathic remedies have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration. C) The Food and Drug Administration requires a prescription from a homeopathic practitioner for consumers to access homeopathic remedies. D) Many states restrict the practice of homeopathy to medical doctors and osteopaths. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 11) Which therapeutic system is based on administration of extremely diluted doses of natural agents that would produce symptoms of illness in large doses but are believed to produce a cure when given in minute doses? A) herbal B) homeopathic C) naturopathic D) chiropractic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 12) Naturopathy refers to a practice that A) is based on manipulation of the spinal column and other structures. B) is based on the principle of "like cures like." C) emphasizes the body's innate ability to maintain and restore health. D) attempts to remove blockages in the flow of the body's vital energy. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2

13) Which system focuses on balancing qi through acupuncture, massage, energy therapies, and herbal treatments? A) homeopathy B) Ayurvedic medicine C) energy medicine D) traditional Chinese medicine Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 14) Chinese herbal medicines are A) regulated by the Food and Drug Administration the same way it regulates prescription and over-the-counter drugs. B) classified by the Food and Drug Administration as dietary supplements. C) generally safe to use without having to consult your primary health care provider. D) prescribed with the goal of balancing the body's doshas. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 15) In Ayurvedic medicine, patients are diagnosed according to vital energies, which determine the treatments that are likely to work best. These vital energies are known as A) auras. B) meridians. C) chakras. D) doshas. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 16) Which complementary health approach focuses on the manipulation of biofields or electromagnetic fields? A) homeopathy B) Ayurvedic medicine C) energy therapies D) naturopathy Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) The complementary therapy that many Americans rely on for treatment of musculoskeletal problems and that many insurance companies now cover is A) the Alexander technique. B) chiropractic medicine. C) energy medicine. D) homeopathy. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 18) Chiropractic medicine is based on the principle that A) health is defined as having the proper balance of vital energy or life force. B) soft-tissue manipulation can be used for a wide variety of healing purposes. C) equal emphasis on body, mind, and spirit is essential to restore harmony. D) energy flows through the nervous system, and if the spine is not properly aligned the energy flow is disrupted. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 19) Chiropractors A) attend a training program that requires three years of intensive courses. B) offer treatment that research suggests may be effective for low back pain, neck pain, and headaches. C) manipulate muscle and connective tissue throughout the body in order to promote relaxation and healing. D) are still unlicensed and unregulated in most states. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3

20) For licensure in many states, a massage therapist needs A) an associate's degree in human biology. B) a minimum one-year apprenticeship with a licensed massage therapist. C) an affiliation with a hospital or medical practice. D) a degree from an approved school of massage and a passing grade on an examination. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 21) A form of traditional Chinese medicine that seeks to enhance flow of the body's energy but does not involve the insertion of needles is A) acupuncture. B) acupressure. C) tai chi. D) reiki. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 22) Claire wants to avoid taking medication for her chronic tension headaches, so she decides to try a form of traditional Chinese medicine that involves the insertion of fine needles at specific points along the body's energy channels. This complementary health approach is A) acupuncture. B) acupressure. C) tai chi. D) reiki. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 23) Which form of energy medicine is derived from the Japanese words representing "universal" and "vital energy"? A) qigong B) reiki C) tai chi D) shiatsu Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Olivia has experienced multiple symptoms, including fatigue and depression, for which her doctor has not been of much help. She decides to attend a healing retreat during which she learns and practices movement, meditation, and regulation of her breathing to increase the flow of her vital energy. This approach is referred to as A) qigong. B) the Alexander technique. C) guided imagery. D) progressive relaxation. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 25) The limited body of research into the effectiveness of acupuncture A) suggests that acupuncture is highly effective for musculoskeletal and gastrointestinal disorders. B) has found no evidence of effectiveness as compared to sham acupuncture for any disorders. C) is inconclusive. D) suggests that findings of effectiveness can be attributed solely to the placebo effect. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 26) A movement education method designed to release harmful tension in the body to improve ease of movement, balance, and coordination is known as A) deep breathing. B) Reiki. C) qigong. D) the Alexander technique. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3

27) A limited amount of research evidence suggests that massage therapy A) is effective in providing temporary relief of musculoskeletal pain. B) is effective because of the therapeutic relationship established between the client and the practitioner. C) is not effective for any physical disorders, but may be somewhat effective for anxiety and depression. D) is an effective cure for chronic low back pain. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 28) Which of the following practices is a mind-body technique practiced by about 8 percent of Americans and included within both Ayurveda and qigong? A) Pilates B) meditation C) healing touch D) chiropractic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 29) Which of the following therapies is most likely to be covered by health insurance? A) chiropractic B) acupressure C) dietary supplements D) Alexander technique Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 30) A soft-tissue manipulation approach used for relaxation, stress relief, pain management, and injury recovery is A) naturopathy. B) meditation. C) massage. D) yoga. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) Several traditional Chinese medicine therapies are based on the idea that energy flows through the body through channels or A) auras. B) meridians. C) chakras. D) doshas. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 32) A movement therapy that attempts to retrain the client's nervous system is A) osteopathy. B) Reiki. C) yoga. D) the Feldenkrais method. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 33) Research evidence links mindfulness meditation to increased academic success. One mechanism thought to contribute to this effect is that, over time, A) mindfulness meditation preserves and enhances the volume of grey matter in the brain. B) mindfulness meditation increases the reactivity of the amygdala of the brain. C) mindfulness meditation enlarges the amygdala of the brain. D) mindfulness meditation shrinks the prefrontal cortex of the brain. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 34) Which of the following statements about the term "natural" on the label of a dietary supplement is TRUE? A) The contents have been verified as pure and safe to consume. B) The product has been shown to confer a nutritional or health benefit. C) The product contains only botanicals and no synthetic ingredients. D) The term has no formal definition. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) The use of dietary supplements for therapeutic purposes is A) one of the most controversial complementary health approaches. B) tightly regulated by the state and federal government. C) always dangerous. D) thoroughly investigated and based in sound science. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 36) All of the following are true about dietary supplements EXCEPT that A) the Food and Drug Administration is not authorized to review their safety and effectiveness. B) they are frequently recalled because of contamination. C) they may differ in content from other supplements with the same name. D) they are highly effective therapies if labeled with the U.S. Pharmacopoeia Verified Mark. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 37) Limited research evidence suggests that dietary supplements containing elderberry flowers A) may help prevent upper respiratory tract infections. B) are effective in treating COVID-19. C) contain a form of cyanide and are toxic. D) may reduce insulin resistance and improve glucose metabolism in people with diabetes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 38) Lou is becoming increasingly concerned about his lapses in memory, and fears that, at age 69, he might be developing Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following supplements is he most likely to consider trying? A) vitamin D B) ginkgo biloba C) zinc D) Echinacea Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Rich lives in close quarters with 30 fraternity brothers. Which of the following is a dietary supplement that might help him avoid coming down with the common cold? A) aspirin B) Echinacea C) ginkgo biloba D) vitamin D Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 40) Prior to taking an herbal supplement that claims to increase muscle mass, Jermaine should consult all the following EXCEPT A) his personal trainer at the gym. B) the NCCIH website. C) the National Library of Medicine's PubMed database. D) his primary health care provider. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 41) Which organization in the United States. currently certifies the quality of dietary supplements? A) USP B) NIH C) FDA D) NCCIH Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 42) Which supplement is used as a treatment for dementia and cognitive decline but has not been shown to have any health benefits? A) Echinacea B) elderberry C) ginseng D) ginkgo biloba Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) Which supplement is claimed to boost the immune system, slow aging, and relieve various psychological disorders? A) vitamin D B) zinc C) ginseng D) ginkgo biloba Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 44) Which of the following is an established benefit of vitamin D? A) decreases the severity of COVID-19 B) boosts levels of immune cells and helps the body fight infection C) prevents or delays cognitive decline D) increases muscle mass and strength Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 45) In 2021, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recalled supplements containing kratom because A) it has not been shown to have any health benefits. B) it was shown to be addictive. C) it is known to cause respiratory depression. D) the supplements were contaminated with pollen and other allergens. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 46) Complementary health approaches are considered a subtype of conventional medicine. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1

47) In the United States, all practitioners of complementary health approaches are required to carry liability insurance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 48) About one-third of American adults age 18 to 44 have used some form of complementary health approach. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 49) Use of true alternative medicine is rare in the United States. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 50) In the United States, most health insurers are required by law to cover most complementary health approaches. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 51) More people turn to special diets as a complementary health approach than to dietary supplements and other natural products. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 52) Naturopathic physicians do not earn a recognized degree. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2

53) The Food and Drug Administration regulates homeopathic remedies as drugs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 54) In some homeopathic dilutions, not a single molecule of the originally toxic substance remains. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 55) Naturopathy emphasizes the use of minimally invasive therapies. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 56) Naturopathic practitioners use foods, herbs, color, and aromas as therapies, but not homeopathic medicines, acupuncture or acupressure, or spinal manipulation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 57) Some homeopathic remedies are derived from substances that are toxic. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 58) A practitioner of traditional Chinese medicine believes that an imbalance of qi results in disease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2

59) The existence of biofields has been experimentally proven. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 60) Chiropractic medicine has been practiced for more than 1,000 years. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 61) Massage therapy has been practiced in most cultures worldwide throughout human history. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 62) Acupressure is considered a manipulative therapy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3 63) Because herbs are natural products, they will not interfere with how prescription drugs work within the body. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 64) Echinacea can cause a skin rash in some individuals. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4

65) Nutritional approaches include special diets, functional foods, and dietary supplements. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 66) Although dietary supplements are not tightly regulated by the FDA, you can at least be sure that they contain the herb or other active ingredient identified on the label. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 67) If a product is labeled "natural," you may assume that it is safe. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Nutritional Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.4 68) Compare and contrast complementary and alternative health approaches. Answer: Complementary health approaches are used along with conventional medicine as part of the integrative-medicine approach. Alternative approaches are traditionally used in place of conventional medicine, as when someone with cancer adopts a macrobiotic diet and rejects the treatment path outlined by their conventional medical team. However, the NCCIH reports that such cases are rare in the United States. Some complementary health approaches, such as massage and chiropractic, are commonly used in conjunction with conventional treatments as part of integrative health care. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1

69) Define the three major domains of complementary health approaches discussed in this chapter, and provide examples of each. Answer: • Complementary medical systems: These approaches reflect specific theories of physiology, health, and disease that have developed outside the influence of conventional Western medicine. Examples are traditional Chinese medicine, Ayurveda, homeopathy, and naturopathy. • Psychological and physical approaches: This is a large and diverse group of complementary therapies administered or taught by a trained practitioner or teacher. They include manipulative therapies such as chiropractic and massage therapy, movement and relaxation therapies such as the Alexander technique and the Feldenkrais method, and therapies in which the practitioner attempts to shift the flow of body energy, such as acupuncture and acupressure. • Nutritional approaches: These include special diets, functional foods like probiotics and plants with antioxidant phytochemicals; and herbal remedies and other types of dietary supplements. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 70) Explain why the risk of ineffective or harmful treatment is higher with providers of complementary and alternative approaches as compared to providers of conventional health care. Answer: Effective and safe treatment cannot be guaranteed from any provider; however, the risk of ineffective or unsafe treatment is higher with providers of complementary and alternative approaches because each approach has its own standards for training, certification, licensure, and practice. Terms for educational facilities, such as "college" or "institute," are not regulated, and although some practitioners might undergo several years of education and training, other practitioners might be required simply to pass a few online courses. Moreover, no national standards govern any particular approach, and state requirements for practice differ widely. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1 71) Identify at least three situations in which it is particularly important for patients to consult their primary health care provider before using a dietary supplement. Answer: Any three of the following: It is particularly important for patients to consult their primary health care provider before using a dietary supplement if they (1) are pregnant or nursing; (2) are currently taking any prescription drug; (3) have a chronic medical condition; or (4) are planning to have surgery. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: What Are Complementary, Alternative, and Integrative Health Approaches? Learning Outcome: 15a.1

72) Explain what is meant by the statement that, with homeopathic remedies, like cures like, and contrast the approach with that of conventional pharmaceuticals. Answer: "Like cures like" means that pain or other symptoms can be reduced by taking a substance that would prompt the same symptoms, but in a dose much too dilute to actually harm the person. This minute dose is nevertheless theorized to prompt the immune system to respond, and in doing so, heal the patient's original—and similar—symptoms. For example, a homeopathic remedy to treat inflammation would be a highly diluted toxin that—in a larger dose—would provoke inflammation. In contrast, conventional pharmaceuticals treat symptoms by opposing them; thus, for example, inflammation is treated with a drug that has an antiinflammatory effect. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Complementary Medical Systems Learning Outcome: 15a.2 73) If you were to experience chronic musculoskeletal pain, would you be more likely to consider qigong or massage, and why? Answer: Answers will vary, but should include some of the following concepts: Qigong combines movement, meditation, and regulation of breathing to increase the flow of qi and improve health. A 2019 review study found that it was associated with a reduction in chronic musculoskeletal pain and was not associated with significant side effects. Massage is the manipulation of soft tissue by a trained therapist for relaxation and healing. A limited amount of research supports the effectiveness of massage to temporarily relieve musculoskeletal pain. Since both therapies have at least some research evidence supporting their effectiveness, the choice might come down to cost, convenience, or personal preference. For example, some might prefer the more passive role of the patient in massage therapy to the more active role the patient takes in qigong. Diff: 5 Skill: Evaluating Section: Psychological and Physical Approaches Learning Outcome: 15a.3

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 15b Focus On: Aging, Death, and Dying 1) Katie is a researcher who studies factors that influence aging and how individuals cope with the aging process. Katie works in the field of A) seniorology. B) gerontology. C) geriatrics. D) thanatology. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 2) People 65 and older make up what percentage of the U.S. population? A) nearly 6 percent B) nearly 16 percent C) nearly 26 percent D) nearly 36 percent Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 3) A degenerative bone disease characterized by porous bones is A) fibromyalgia. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) osteoporosis. D) osteoarthritis. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1

4) Which of the following statements about aging is TRUE? A) The number of Americans age 65 and up is growing, but the number of Americans age 85 and up is not. B) Nearly one-third of Americans age 65 and older have hypertension. C) Nearly one-third of Americans over age 85 live in a nursing home. D) Nearly 10 percent of America's senior citizens live in poverty. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 5) The average life expectancy of a baby born in 2020 is A) 77.8 years. B) 80.8 years. C) 83.8 years. D) 86.8 years. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 6) Aging is BEST defined as the A) degeneration of body structures and processes that occurs over time. B) individual and collective ways people cope with life's changes. C) patterns of life changes that occur in members of all species as they grow older. D) progressive and irreversible decline in body functioning. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 7) Which of the following statements about the physical changes of aging is TRUE? A) In older men and women, the brain decreases in size. B) In men over 65, testosterone levels rise. C) In women approaching menopause, rising estrogen levels can cause hot flashes and mood swings. D) In older men and women, fat deposits under the skin increase. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1

8) A majority of older adults A) live alone. B) are economically insecure. C) continue to be interested in sex and intimacy. D) have diabetes. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 9) Osteoporosis would most likely result in A) a wrist fracture as the result of a fall. B) arthritis in the lower back and knees. C) redistribution of body fat in the trunk region. D) a high bone density. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 10) All of the following individuals would be at an increased risk for osteoporosis EXCEPT a(n) A) smoker. B) male weight-lifter. C) alcoholic. D) woman with anorexia nervosa. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 11) Which of the following describes a vision change related to aging? A) The lens of the eye softens. B) The ability to see objects at a distance is lost. C) The lens becomes thinner and more transparent. D) Depth perception diminishes. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1

12) After his stroke at the age of 80, Austin developed urinary incontinence, meaning he has A) kidney failure. B) less control over elimination of urine from his bladder. C) slowing of the urinary stream flow. D) recurring urinary tract infections. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 13) Which of the following statements is accurate about urinary incontinence? A) Incontinence is an inevitable part of aging. B) Most forms of incontinence are difficult to treat. C) Incontinence occurs in older men much more frequently than in older women. D) Infections and medications are common causes of urinary incontinence. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 14) Menopause typically occurs between the ages of A) 35 and 45. B) 45 and 55. C) 55 and 65. D) 65 and 75. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 15) Your grandfather is having blurred vision due to clouding of the lens in his eyes. What is the term for this condition? A) cataracts B) retinal detachment C) glaucoma D) macular regeneration Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1

16) Miles is 75 and he has been diagnosed with presbycusis. What can he do to help him cope with this problem? A) Maintain good hygiene, wear a mask, and social distance to reduce his risk for infection. B) Use special eye drops to relieve pressure in his eyes. C) Wear hearing aids. D) Inject insulin. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 17) Lawrence is 47 years old and has become frustrated because his vision is no longer sharp enough to do crossword puzzles unless he wears magnifying eyeglasses he purchased at his local drug store. He probably has A) cataracts. B) glaucoma. C) macular degeneration. D) normal age-related vision loss. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 18) Jean's hearing has diminished over the years. She probably has the most difficulty hearing A) the news on her television. B) the sermon at church. C) the birds chirping in her garden. D) a conversation over the telephone. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 19) Age-related changes to the eardrum and the bones of the inner ear commonly leads to A) profound hearing loss. B) a chronic perception of a buzzing sound in the ear. C) chronic pain in the ear. D) difficulty in maintaining balance. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) All of the following sexual changes occur in aging men EXCEPT A) diminished ability to obtain an erection. B) longer refractory period between orgasms. C) extended duration of orgasm. D) decline in the angle of the erection. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 21) A joint condition that is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage is A) osteonecrosis. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) osteoporosis. D) osteoarthritis. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 22) One of the most common forms of progressive dementia that interferes with memory and normal intellectual functioning is A) Alzheimer's disease. B) multiple sclerosis. C) meningitis. D) Parkinson's disease. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 23) Mattie was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease at the age of 67. If she is like the average Alzheimer's disease patient, she will probably live to about age A) 69. B) 73. C) 77. D) 87. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1

24) Which of the following statements about Alzheimer's disease is FALSE? A) Communication between nerve cells in the brain is impaired. B) If caught early, its progression can be stopped. C) It is a disease in which brain cells die. D) It affects personality as well as memory. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 25) Progressive brain impairments that interfere with memory and normal intellectual functioning are A) migraines. B) dementias. C) brain tumors. D) traumatic brain injuries. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 26) Successful aging involves all of the following EXCEPT A) exercising. B) maintaining a diet with adequate protein. C) refusing to accept physical, emotional, and social changes associated with growing older. D) developing and maintaining healthy relationships. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Strategies for Healthy Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.2 27) Older adults should participate in muscle-strengthening exercise at least A) twice a month. B) once a week. C) twice a week. D) three times a week. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Strategies for Healthy Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.2

28) Which of the following statements about aging is TRUE? A) Our support systems tend to decrease as we age. B) Research is increasingly showing that older adults need less protein than they did when they were young. C) The lower your metabolic rate falls as you age, the more likely it is that you will lose weight. D) Walking–even briskly–is too light an exercise to be effective in helping to slow aging. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Strategies for Healthy Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.2 29) Nutrients considered especially important for healthy aging include A) calcium, vitamin D, and protein. B) sodium, chloride, and magnesium. C) vitamins A, C, and E. D) carbohydrates, lean proteins, and essential fatty acids. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Strategies for Healthy Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.2 30) Phillip was involved in a car crash and placed on a respirator. After his family had the respirator removed, he was nonresponsive, with no reflexes, no response to pain, no breathing, and a flat electroencephalogram. These vital signs indicate Phillip has experienced A) brain death. B) hyperthermic death. C) myocardial death. D) hypothermic death. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 31) All of the following are ways to help a grieving friend EXCEPT A) saying you are sorry about their loss and about their pain. B) being available to listen and help with what is necessary. C) avoiding talking about the person who died or mentioning their name. D) allowing them to express as much grief and as many emotions as they are feeling. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following is NOT one of the psychological stages of dying according to the Kübler-Ross model? A) denial B) depression C) resistance D) bargaining Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 33) The loss or deprivation experienced by a person when a loved one dies is known as A) guilt. B) bereavement. C) mourning. D) acceptance. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 34) Monica was president of the local chapter of Future Business Leaders of America during her senior year. After Monica was diagnosed with an aggressive form of lymphoma, her classmates stopped talking about their career plans in front of her. Monica was experiencing A) bereavement. B) depression. C) social death. D) peer rejection. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 35) The cultural practice of waiting a year after the death of a spouse to begin dating is an example of A) social death. B) expressed grief. C) mourning. D) bereavement. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) The study of death and dying is A) gerontology. B) thanatology. C) theology. D) anthropology. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 37) The permanent cessation of all of the body's vital functions is the definition of A) euthanasia. B) suicide. C) death. D) dying. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 38) The decline of the body's vital functions that results in death of an organism is A) dementia. B) impairment. C) disease. D) dying. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 39) A funeral and burial help family members of the deceased accomplish which of Worden's four developmental tasks of grieving? A) Accept the reality of the loss. B) Work through the pain of grief. C) Adjust to an environment in which the deceased is missing. D) Establish an enduring connection with the deceased while moving on with life. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3

40) Martha is 82 years old and has been diagnosed with end-stage kidney disease. Her kidney specialist has told her that treatments are becoming less and less effective and that "it's only a matter of time" before her kidneys fail completely. Although Martha understands what her physician has told her, she returns home in a state of shock. She decides that her physician must be mistaken and asks her daughter to help her find a new kidney specialist. Which stage of the Kübler-Ross model is Martha experiencing? A) denial B) anger C) bargaining D) depression Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 41) Ralph is 73 years old, and has recently been diagnosed with terminal pancreatic cancer. After being unable to sleep, he sits up in bed and pleads silently with God to allow him to live long enough to witness the birth of his first grandchild. Which stage of the Kübler-Ross model is Ralph experiencing? A) denial B) anger C) bargaining D) depression Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 42) Millie is 88 years old and has been coping with slowly progressing heart failure for many years. In the last six months, she has been hospitalized twice for infections, and feels weak and exhausted and ready for death. Which stage of the Kübler-Ross model is Millie experiencing? A) anger B) bargaining C) depression D) acceptance Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3

43) Bob smoked for six decades before being diagnosed with chronic emphysema. His symptoms have now progressed to a point at which his day-to-day activities are drastically restricted, he must use supplemental oxygen, and his wife has to "take care of everything." He realizes he is dying, and feels ashamed for not having quit smoking when he was young. He also feels guilty and worthless because of his dependency on his wife. Which stage of the Kübler-Ross model is Bob experiencing? A) guilt B) depression C) doom D) acceptance Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 44) Evgeniya is experiencing a sense of disorientation and unreality in response to the loss of her father. This response is known as A) mourning. B) quasi-death. C) grief work. D) grief. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 45) A document that stipulates a person's wishes about medical care that is used to make treatment decisions when the individual becomes unable to communicate their preferences is a(n) A) advance notice. B) advance directive. C) health care power of attorney. D) legal medical record. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Life-and-Death Decision Making Learning Outcome: 15b.4

46) Richard is 81 years old and has end-stage Alzheimer's disease. When he develops a lifethreatening infection, his physician advises against treatment and his family agrees. This decision to withhold treatment and allow Richard to die from the infection is known as A) palliative care. B) active euthanasia. C) passive euthanasia. D) rational suicide. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Life-and-Death Decision Making Learning Outcome: 15b.4 47) Care that focuses on relieving the pain and other symptoms of a serious illness to improve quality of life for patients and families is A) palliative care. B) skilled nursing care. C) grief counseling. D) end-of-life care. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Making Final Arrangements Learning Outcome: 15b.5 48) Funeral rituals A) are a relatively recent phenomenon in Western societies. B) are not useful in helping survivors cope with their loss. C) always include a viewing of the body of the deceased. D) are found in all cultures. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Making Final Arrangements Learning Outcome: 15b.5 49) Which of the following is TRUE about hospice care? A) It provides care not only for a terminally ill patient, but also for their family. B) It is not yet widely available in the United States. C) It relies on volunteers instead of the physicians, registered nurses, licensed therapists, and clergy that a hospital would have on staff. D) Care is typically provided under the direction of a certified hospice nurse. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Making Final Arrangements Learning Outcome: 15b.5 13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) Henry was killed in an automobile accident. After his death, his family discovered that he had no will. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Henry was intestate. B) Henry's family had to make a will for him. C) Henry's family was unable to settle his estate. D) Henry's family was unable to donate his organs. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Making Final Arrangements Learning Outcome: 15b.5 51) Which of the following statements about organ donation is TRUE? A) The organs from one donor can help as many as twenty people. B) You can donate internal organs such as the kidneys and liver, but not bones. C) The number of patients waiting for donations greatly outnumbers the number of available organs. D) You can register to be an organ donor in only about half of all U.S. states. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Making Final Arrangements Learning Outcome: 15b.5 52) Most older people end up living in a nursing home. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 53) Menopause may make sexual activity less pleasurable for women. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 54) Many older people engage in regular sexual activity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1

55) Gerontology explores the reasons for aging and the ways in which people cope with and adapt to this process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 56) Alzheimer's disease is a form of dementia. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 57) Deaths in 2020 from COVID-19 decreased overall life expectancy in the United States by two months. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 58) Sarcopenia is an age-related decline in respiratory capacity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Strategies for Healthy Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.2 59) In females, bone loss begins to accelerate about 5 to 10 years after menopause. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Strategies for Healthy Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.2 60) Thanatology is the study of life after death. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3

61) Anger is a normal part of the grief process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 62) A woman who miscarries early in her pregnancy may experience disenfranchised grief. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 63) To complete the grief work process, a person first must set a time limit for each of the stages to be completed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 64) According to Worden's model, the grief work process includes four developmental tasks that a person must complete to cope with the situation and move on with their life. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 65) A conscious, mentally competent adult has the right to refuse life-saving medical treatment. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Life-and-Death Decision Making Learning Outcome: 15b.4 66) Only attorneys can be appointed as durable power of attorney for health care. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Life-and-Death Decision Making Learning Outcome: 15b.4

67) When Lakshmi's cat developed irreversible kidney failure, she and her veterinarian ended its life. This act is known as active euthanasia. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Life-and-Death Decision Making Learning Outcome: 15b.4 68) Although helpful in addressing personal, emotional, and spiritual needs, the alternative advance directive known as "Five Wishes" fails to meet the legal requirements for advance directives in any state and therefore should only be used in addition to, not as a substitute for, a traditional advance directive. Answer: FALSE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Life-and-Death Decision Making Learning Outcome: 15b.4 69) If you lack a will at the time of your death, the courts will have to create a will for you. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Making Final Arrangements Learning Outcome: 15b.5 70) After a patient in hospice has died, providers continue to care for the bereaved family members. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Making Final Arrangements Learning Outcome: 15b.5 71) Explain how the growing population of elderly will affect society in the future. Answer: The growing population of elderly will place additional strains on the healthcare system in terms of treatment for chronic conditions and health maintenance. Housing will be affected as there will be a demand for assisted-living facilities, long-term care, etc. The increasing cost of care for this population will also have financial implications as it reduces funding for programs such as Social Security and Medicare. End-of-life ethical considerations regarding health care for the elderly will also become more significant and challenging. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1

72) Explain why it is important to build bone mass in your childhood, teens, and early twenties, and identify at least two ways to do this. Answer: The density of bones begins gradually to decline by the third or fourth decade of life. The more dense bones are at this point, the more years will elapse before bone density declines to a point at which the person is at risk for fracture. To build bone mass, young people should engage in regular weight-bearing exercise, including running, jumping rope, tennis, etc., and eat a healthful diet rich in sources of calcium and vitamin D. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.1 73) Identify at least four behaviors that can help older adults age successfully. Answer: (Answers will vary, but might include any four of the following) • Maintain your fitness through leisure activities and regular exercise. • Maintain a healthy weight. • Eat a healthy diet providing adequate protein and micronutrients. • Develop and maintain healthy relationships. • Cultivate the spiritual side of life. • Don't smoke. • If you drink alcohol, do so in moderation. Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Strategies for Healthy Aging Learning Outcome: 15b.2 74) List five common physical and emotional responses that can be part of the typical grief process. Then explain the four tasks in Worden's model of the grief work process. Answer: Students may mention any five of the following responses: insomnia, feelings of emptiness, muscular weakness, intense anxiety, sense of unreality, lapses in memory, loss of appetite, excessive talking, depression and social withdrawal, tightness in the throat or shortness of breath, feelings of guilt, difficulty concentrating, hostility, tendency to engage in purposeless behavior, difficulty in making decisions, lack of organization, preoccupation with the image of the deceased, and susceptibility to disease. Worden's model includes the following four tasks: 1) Accept the reality of the loss. 2) Work through the pain of grief. 3) Adjust to an environment in which the deceased is missing. 4) Establish an enduring connection with the deceased while moving on with life. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3

75) Define disenfranchised grief and explain why so many people worldwide experienced this state during the first year of the COVID-19 pandemic. Answer: Disenfranchised grief is grief that cannot be openly acknowledged, socially supported, or publicly mourned. During the first year of the COVID-19 pandemic, before vaccinations and effective treatments were available, hospitals typically did not allow family members and friends at the bedside of patients who were dying from any cause, and in-person memorial services and funerals were limited to a handful of mourners, if held at all. Thus, people often were forced to grieve in isolation at a time when they most needed the comfort of other family members and friends. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Understanding the Final Transitions: Dying and Death Learning Outcome: 15b.3 76) Why does a young, seemingly healthy person need an advance directive (or living will)? What steps should individuals take to make sure that their wishes will be carried out? Answer: A young, seemingly healthy person needs an advance directive (or living will) because anyone may become incapacitated at any time, such as following a severe neurological infection, a traumatic injury, a stroke, sudden cardiac arrest, or another incapacitating event. When individuals are unable to speak for themselves, an advance directive will inform treatment decisions. To ensure that their wishes are carried out, individuals should be specific; appoint an agent (durable power of attorney), discuss their wishes with their agent and doctor, and distribute copies to pertinent individuals (such as agent, doctor, attorney, and family members). Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Life-and-Death Decision Making Learning Outcome: 15b.4 77) Imagine that a family member has been diagnosed with cancer, has been told by her physicians that there is nothing more they can do, and has been offered hospice care. She tells you that she wants to register for hospice care, but that another relative is strongly opposed, and insists that the physicians are "giving up too soon." What benefits of hospice care, for the patient and the family, could you share with your family members? Answer: You could explain that hospice care is provided under the direction of a qualified physician, and that the care will focus on reducing your family member's pain and discomfort, 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. You could also share that hospice will help the patient and all of your family members feel more in control of the experience, will provide emotional support to the patient and family, and will continue to support the family through the bereavement period, potentially increasing the survivors' ability to cope with the loss. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Making Final Arrangements Learning Outcome: 15b.5

Health: The Basics, 14e (Donatelle) Chapter 16 Promoting Environmental Health 1) All of the following are consequences of population growth EXCEPT A) overfishing. B) increased species extinction. C) land degradation. D) higher carrying capacity of the earth. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 2) Which of the following is a concern in regard to overpopulation? A) increased amount of land used for agricultural purposes B) increased levels of prosperity in developed nations C) increased use of alternative fuels D) increased fish stocks Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 3) Experts analyze the carrying capacity of the earth to figure out A) how to increase available resources. B) how the earth's population will grow over the next century. C) the maximum population the earth can support. D) how to ration resources for the existing population. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 4) Countries with the largest per capita "ecological footprint" A) tend to have the highest fertility rates. B) tend to be among the world's poorest. C) include the United States. D) are uniformly those countries with the largest populations. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following statements about population is TRUE? A) China has the largest population and ecological footprint of any nation in the world. B) Central and Southern Asia has the highest fertility rate of any region in the world. C) Eastern Europe has a large population, high fertility, high immigration, and low emigration. D) Globally, fertility rates are increasing. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 6) Reasons for continued population growth in many developing nations include all of the following circumstances for women EXCEPT A) lack of education. B) no access to birth control. C) rising economic status. D) little control over reproductive choices. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 7) As compared to today, by the year 2050, the world's population is expected to A) decline by about 10 percent. B) stay about the same. C) increase by about 2 billion people. D) nearly double. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1

8) North America has an overall fertility rate of 1.7. This means that A) the number of children under age five living in North America is increasing by, on average, 1.7 every ten years. B) every female in North America needs to give birth to, on average, 1.7 living children in order to keep the population stable. C) each female in North America is currently giving birth to, on average, 1.7 living children throughout her reproductive years. D) each person in North America is currently giving birth to, on average, 1.7 children throughout their reproductive years. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 9) Fossil fuels are A) renewable. B) the second most common source of energy in the United States, after nuclear energy. C) derived from carbon-based sources such as coal. D) increasingly less important as nations transition from poverty to an industrialized economy. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 10) The greenhouse effect is A) the shift in seasonal temperatures and patterns of rainfall that has occurred in the last century. B) responsible for increasing the average temperature of the earth by about 8°F over the last century. C) a natural phenomenon. D) an essential mechanism for keeping the planet cool enough to sustain life. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2

11) Climate change is A) synonymous with global warming. B) due to a rise in global sea levels and solar output as well as changes in the earth's orbit. C) due to sustainable development. D) a shift in patterns of temperature, precipitation, and frequency of catastrophic storms. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 12) Increases in the planet's temperature over the past few decades can be attributed to A) acid deposition. B) excess carbon monoxide. C) the increased use of chlorofluorocarbons. D) the enhanced greenhouse effect. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 13) The primary greenhouse gas emitted into the atmosphere is A) nitrous oxide. B) carbon dioxide. C) hydrochlorazine. D) methane. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 14) Since 1880—1900, the Earth's average temperature has risen by how many degrees Fahrenheit? A) 0.12°F B) 1.12°F C) 2.12°F D) 3.12°F Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2

15) As part of the Paris Agreement, the United States set a goal for its nationally determined contribution (NDC) to A) invest a minimum of 1 billion U.S. dollars to help developing nations convert to clean energy by 2030. B) reduce its carbon footprint by 20 to 22 percent below 2005 levels by 2030. C) invest a minimum of 3 billion U.S. dollars in reparations to developing nations hardest hit by the effects of sea level rise and other consequences of climate change. D) reduce its greenhouse gas emissions by 50 to 52 percent below 2005 levels by 2030. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 16) Climate change is evidenced by which of the following? A) the warmest winter on record in the Northeastern U.S. B) more frequent and devastating wildfires C) a snowstorm in Florida D) the occurrence of a catastrophic hurricane Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 17) Cap and trade policies A) are financial rewards paid to industrial farms that limit their gallons of water used per day. B) were first implemented by the city of Boulder, Colorado and have now spread to many other cities in the United States. C) provide incentives to industrial polluters to limit their carbon emissions. D) limit the amount of electricity communities are allowed to purchase from coal-fired power plants before they must begin to purchase electricity from solar or wind sources. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2

18) Most experts agree that a key step in slowing climate change is to A) repeal all industrial waste laws. B) reduce consumption of fossil fuels. C) make cars larger and more efficient. D) eliminate mass transportation. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 19) Which of the following statements BEST explains how climate change can make available food supplies less nourishing? A) Drought and other extreme weather events can reduce global crop yields. B) Rising levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide can decrease the level of protein and minerals in crops and seafood. C) Increased heat and precipitation can increase the reproduction of microorganisms such as certain bacteria and viruses that can destroy crops. D) Climate-related stress can reduce our ability to digest food and absorb nutrients. Answer: B Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 20) All of the following are examples of resources that reduce carbon emissions EXCEPT A) solar. B) wind. C) bioenergy. D) coal. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 21) Gases that accumulate in the atmosphere and contribute to global warming by trapping heat near Earth's surface are A) ionizing gases. B) greenhouse gases. C) stratospheric gases. D) hydrocarbons. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 6 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) A measure of the amount of greenhouse gases contributed to the atmosphere through daily life is a(n) A) smog level. B) carbon level. C) carbon footprint. D) air quality index. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 23) Air pollutants regulated by the Clean Air Act include all of the following EXCEPT A) sulfur dioxide. B) carbon monoxide. C) particulates. D) carbon dioxide. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 24) A colorless gas that dissolves in water vapor to form acid, is emitted from the burning of fossil fuels, and contributes to the formation of acid deposition is A) lead. B) carbon monoxide. C) carbon dioxide. D) sulfur dioxide. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 25) All of the following statements about particulates are true EXCEPT A) they are tiny particles suspended in the air. B) diesel engines emit particulates. C) they impair visibility. D) they have few health effects. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) Motor vehicle exhaust and kerosene- and wood-burning stoves are sources of which odorless, colorless gas that also contributes to the formation of smog? A) carbon monoxide B) lead C) carbon dioxide D) sulfur dioxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 27) Smog is A) most likely to form on cold, rainy days. B) mostly ground-level ozone and particulate matter. C) an irritant to the eyes and throat, but does not cause serious damage to body tissues. D) produced when pollutants rise into the stratospheric ozone layer. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 28) Which of the six major outdoor air pollutants is a metallic element that is also a significant concern indoors? A) dioxin B) formaldehyde C) lead D) sulfur Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 29) Smog is MOST likely to form in areas that experience A) high rainfall. B) dry conditions. C) acid deposition. D) temperature inversions. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3

30) During the 2021 wildfires in the Western United States, smoke drifted to the East Coast, causing an Air Quality Index of orange. What does this mean? A) The air quality was healthy for everyone. B) The air quality was unhealthy for sensitive groups. C) The air quality was unhealthy for everyone. D) The air quality was hazardous for everyone. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 31) An Air Quality Index of 50 indicates that the air quality is A) good. B) unhealthy for sensitive people. C) unhealthy for everyone. D) hazardous. Answer: A Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 32) Which of the following statements about acid deposition is TRUE? A) It was formerly referred to as smog. B) It includes acidic dust, ash, and other particles that fall to the Earth. C) Eye exposure can result in blindness, and skin exposure can result in a second-degree burn. D) Mercury and lead are the main components. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 33) When trying to ensure clean air in your home, sources of pollution to look for include all of the following EXCEPT A) radon. B) tobacco smoke. C) formaldehyde. D) nitroglycerine. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3

34) You have just moved into a newly built home. The headaches and fatigue you have been attributing to the stress of buying a new house may actually be due to exposure to A) household cleaners. B) lead paint. C) indoor air pollutants. D) dust mites. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 35) Seth has a sensitivity to mold. When he visits his grandparents and spends time in their damp basement, he likely experiences all of the following EXCEPT A) nasal congestion. B) dizziness. C) difficulty breathing. D) migraine headaches. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 36) An important strategy for avoiding mold is to A) keep the humidity in your home between 60 and 80 percent. B) make sure you keep the doors and windows in your home tightly sealed. C) lay down carpeting in bathrooms and basements. D) use a dehumidifier in damp rooms. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 37) The ozone layer is A) close to Earth and consists mainly of chlorofluorocarbons. B) in the stratosphere and protects the planet from UVB radiation. C) a harmful chemical compound that is produced when oxygen interacts with water. D) a layer of toxic gas produced by the discharge of aerosols, refrigerants, and solvents high into the earth's stratosphere. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) The compound originally contained in aerosol propellants that is thought to have contributed to the depletion of the ozone layer is A) carbon oxides. B) chlorofluorocarbons. C) fluorohydrochlorides. D) nitrous oxide. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 39) The term for an environmental contaminant that causes potential harm to living organisms is A) pollutant. B) hazard. C) runoff. D) compound. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 40) A measure of how clean or polluted the air is in a given region on a particular day is the A) smog level. B) carbon level. C) carbon footprint. D) air quality index. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 41) Which compound that was formerly used in building materials such as insulation has been found to be the cause of certain cancers and lung diseases? A) radon B) asbestos C) lead D) PCBs Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3

42) Which naturally occurring odorless, colorless gas seeps into homes and is a leading cause of lung cancer? A) radon B) asbestos C) lead D) mold Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 43) Chemicals used to kill insects, rodents, weeds, and certain microorganisms are called A) dioxins. B) solvents. C) pesticides. D) herbicides. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 44) Carcinogenic chemicals formed during the incineration of waste and the burning of wood, coal, or oil are A) PCBs. B) solvents. C) pesticides. D) dioxins. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 45) Available freshwater includes A) water in lakes and rivers. B) seawater. C) water from glaciers. D) atmospheric water. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4

46) An average individual in the United States uses about how many gallons of water each day? A) 5 to 10 B) 10 to 20 C) 30 to 50 D) 80 to 100 Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 47) Which of the following statements BEST explains how climate change is linked to water scarcity? A) Climate change has increased the frequency of extreme precipitation events. B) Climate change has increased the incidence of drought. C) Climate change is melting the world's glaciers. D) Climate change is causing increased pollution of freshwater sources such as lakes and streams. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 48) Which of the following statements about U.S. water consumption is TRUE? A) A leaky faucet that drips one drop per second wastes about one gallon of water a day. B) The greatest percentage of Americans' daily water use is due to taking showers. C) Domestic (household) water use accounts for only 8 percent of all U.S. water use. D) Minor water leaks in homes across the U.S. waste about 1 million gallons of water annually. Answer: C Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 49) Byproducts from fracking can contaminate both groundwater and surface water. Fracking is a process in which A) petroleum is extracted from the earth via drilling. B) targeted explosives are used to extract coal from mines. C) pressurized liquids are used to extract natural gas from underground rock. D) aging pipes leak lead and other toxic chemicals into public drinking water supplies. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFASs), which are ubiquitous in surface water in the United States, are thought to increase the risk of which of the following health problems? A) infertility B) certain cancers C) Alzheimer's disease and other dementias D) stillbirth and birth defects Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 51) The average person in the United States generates how many pounds of municipal solid waste each day? A) about 1.7 B) about 4.9 C) about 6.5 D) about 8.1 Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5 52) A breakfast cereal company redesigned its packaging to remove plastic and reduce its use of cardboard. What term refers to this type of strategy? A) recycling B) municipal waste control C) ergonomic design D) source reduction Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5 53) Marta collects kitchen scraps and yard clippings in a bin outside of her home to use in her garden. She is A) recycling. B) composting. C) combusting. D) source reducing. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5 14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Education, Inc.

54) Which of the following statements about the 1980 Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act is TRUE? A) It established financial incentives to encourage American farmers who chose to switch from conventional to organic methods of agricultural production. B) It authorized the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to develop mechanisms for monitoring pollution levels in soil and groundwater. C) It established legal liability for industries that knowingly deposit hazardous wastes into the environment. D) It established a Superfund to clean up hazardous waste sites throughout the United States. Answer: D Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5 55) Which of the following statements about food waste is TRUE? A) Food waste accounts for more than 20 percent of U.S. municipal solid waste. B) Americans recycle about 14 percent of all food waste. C) Americans waste nearly 25 percent of all food. D) Research suggests that most Americans do not realize they waste food. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5 56) Which of the following statements regarding cell phones is TRUE? A) For the highest level of safety, it is best to put your phone on speaker or use a hands-free device with ear buds. B) Cell phone use has been proven to pose a clear risk of brain tumors. C) There is no valid research evidence that cell phone use poses any risk to human health. D) Shielded phone cases significantly reduce the radio frequency waves your cell phone emits and are recommended by the Federal Trade Commission. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Radiation Learning Outcome: 16.6

57) The release of particles and electromagnetic rays from atomic nuclei during the normal process of disintegration produces A) cell phone radiation. B) nonionizing radiation. C) ionizing radiation. D) microwave radiation. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Radiation Learning Outcome: 16.6 58) Radiation exposure is measured in which of the following units (also called roentgens)? A) radiation ionized units B) radiation absorbed doses C) radiation exposed doses D) radiation frequency units Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Radiation Learning Outcome: 16.6 59) The accident that results when the temperature in the core of a nuclear reactor increases enough to melt the fuel and breach the containment vessel is called a nuclear A) fire. B) breach. C) explosion. D) meltdown. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Radiation Learning Outcome: 16.6 60) Which of the following is a type of nonionizing radiation? A) x-rays B) sound waves C) visible light D) ultraviolet light Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Radiation Learning Outcome: 16.6

61) Mrs. Smith is an only child. She has three daughters. If all three have three daughters, and each daughter has three daughters, then Mrs. Smith will have 27 great-granddaughters. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 62) Overpopulation has resulted in changes to the Earth's ecosystems that are contributing to the extinction of thousands of species of plants and animals. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 63) Researchers currently estimate replacement-level fertility at 2.0. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 64) The global population currently consumes 1.6 times the resources that the Earth is able to supply each year. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 65) Over 97 percent of scientists agree that the Earth is warming, driven largely by human activities such as the burning of fossil fuels. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 66) Reduced meat consumption worldwide could significantly lower greenhouse gas emissions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2

67) Global sea levels have risen nearly 2.3 inches in the last 100 years. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2 68) Indoors during acute exposure to wildfire smoke, the EPA recommends opening windows to increase air circulation as much as possible. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 69) Airborne pesticides are an example of an anthropogenic pollutant. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 70) Smog does not form at night. Answer: TRUE Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 71) Some municipal water supplies in the United States have been found to be contaminated with pharmaceuticals. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 72) About 10-12 percent of the Earth's water is suitable for human consumption. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4

73) Over half of the global population faces a shortage of clean water. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Skill: Remembering Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 74) Hazardous waste in landfills and dump sites can harm the environment but has little impact on human health. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5 75) Americans recycle a majority of their used glass and plastic. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5 76) The federal government established Superfund to provide money for water conservation efforts in certain communities. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5 77) All forms of radiation pose a threat to human health. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Radiation Learning Outcome: 16.6 78) Currently, about 10 percent of the world's electricity is supplied by nuclear power. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Skill: Understanding Section: Radiation Learning Outcome: 16.6

79) Explain why slowing the world's population growth is a critical environmental challenge today. Answer: Overpopulation is taxing the capacity of the earth and its natural resources to provide adequate food, water, and energy for the human population. Just since 1996, the global demand for natural resources has doubled, and each year, the global population consumes 1.6 times the resources that the Earth is able to supply. Safe disposal of waste is becoming equally difficult, and our supply of fresh water is declining. Land is being lost to overdevelopment and contamination. Many plant and animal species and entire ecosystems are being lost or harmed by the development and overconsumption of resources that occurs with overpopulation. Moreover, overpopulation plus industrialization increases the burning of fossil fuels and the release of greenhouse gases. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overpopulation Learning Outcome: 16.1 80) Define fossil fuels; identify the task that would most greatly slow climate change; and list at least three steps you can take to achieve it. Answer: Fossil fuels are carbon-based materials, such as petroleum, coal, and natural gas, that are burned for energy. Most experts agree that to slow climate change, it is critical to reduce the burning of fossil fuels. To do this, you can reduce your driving and increase your use of walking, biking, or public transportation; drive a hybrid or all-electric vehicle instead of a vehicle with a conventional combustion engine; choose energy-saving appliances; source your energy from solar or wind rather than coal-fired power plants; and reduce, reuse, and recycle. You can also shift from a meat-based to a plant-based diet to reduce methane emissions from livestock. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Overpopulation; Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.1 and 16.2 81) Distinguish between the greenhouse effect and the enhanced greenhouse effect. Answer: The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon in which atmospheric gases keep some solar heat close to Earth's surface, thereby keeping the planet's air, oceans, and land masses warm enough to sustain life. In contrast, the enhanced greenhouse effect is not a natural phenomenon, but results from human activities such as the burning of fossil fuels that release excessive levels of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. These cause global warming by trapping excessive levels of solar heat. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Climate Change Learning Outcome: 16.2

82) Your roommate smokes inside your apartment. Discuss three main steps you could take to reduce this form of indoor air pollution. Answer: 1. Control the source—insist that your roommate smoke outdoors. 2. Improve ventilation— increase the amount of fresh air coming indoors. 3. Improve the cleanliness of the indoor air— remove pollutants from the air by using an air cleaner with a high-efficiency filter. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Air Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.3 83) What potential problems could result from the Earth's increasing shortage of clean water? Propose at least three. Answer: Answers will vary but should include some of the following information: In addition to threatening a population's supply of drinking water, which can lead to dehydration, especially among children and elderly, water shortages threaten the food supply when water for irrigation of crops is limited. Water scarcity threatens the survival of a region's animal populations as well. Water is also used in industry, and widespread shortages can mean reduced availability of many commodities. As water becomes scarcer , increasing competition for the limited supply can lead to regional conflict. Moreover, people who lack clean water may turn to water sources that may be contaminated, increasing the population's risk for waterborne infectious disease. Diff: 6 Skill: Creating Section: Water Scarcity and Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.4 84) Discuss three ways you can reduce the waste you generate at home. Answer: (Any three of the following) • Reduce your consumption to prevent waste from being generated in the first place. For example, buy only the food you can use by the expiration date, and food with less packaging. Eat leftovers promptly instead of allowing them to sit in your refrigerator until they're no longer safe to eat. You can also reduce your overall consumption of resources by switching to more of a plant-based diet. In addition, before you buy a new cell phone, pair of shoes, or any other item, ask yourself if you really need it. • Recycle as much packaging and as many used items as possible, from electronic devices to clothing and furniture. • Compost your kitchen and yard trash. • Wash and reuse dishes, cups, utensils, kitchen towels, napkins, containers, and shopping bags instead of using disposable items. Diff: 3 Skill: Applying Section: Land Pollution Learning Outcome: 16.5

85) Explain why some energy experts look to nuclear power to reduce climate change. Answer: Nuclear power reduces the world's demand for fossil fuels. It also releases less carbon into the air than do fossil-fuel powered generators. Diff: 4 Skill: Analyzing Section: Radiation Learning Outcome: 16.6