Administrative Office Management, 8E
Zane K. Quible
Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS Note: The key to each question and the text page number of the material involved in each question appears at the end of the test bank file. Following is a list of the test item numbers for each chapter: Chapter 1: 1-350 Chapter 4: 108-134 Chapter 7: 206-264 Chapter 10: 341-372 Chapter 13: 442-470 Chapter 16: 534-590 Chapter 19: 689-751 Chapter 22: 847-883 Chapter 25: 962-990
Chapter 2: 36-67 Chapter 5: 135-173 Chapter 8: 265-298 Chapter 11: 373-408 Chapter 14: 471-500 Chapter 17: 591-620 Chapter 20: 752-791 Chapter 23: 884-926
Chapter 3: 68-107 Chapter 6: 174-205 Chapter 9: 299-340 Chapter 12: 409-441 Chapter 15: 501-533 Chapter 18: 621-688 Chapter 21: 792-846 Chapter 24: 927-961
Chapter 1 1.
Today, the administrative office management function permeates the entire organization.
2.
Enterprise-wide systems allow an organization to integrate a diverse array of functions.
3.
Knowledge management involves managing the organization’s intellectual capital, human resources, and strategic relationships.
4.
Few managers consider knowledge to be their most important and precious organizational resource.
5.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding the nature of the impact of the administrative office management function on employees? A. It provides employees with more challenging positions. B. It helps employees increase their productivity. C. It helps employees maximize their efficiency. D. It provides employees with the information they need, when they need it, and in the format they need.
6.
Which one of the following is a new area providing added career opportunities for administrative office managers? A. Systems analysis B. Facility management C. Information processing D. Image processing
7.
Increasingly, the development of the administrative office management function, overseen by the administrative office manager, is taking place in small- to mid-size organizations.
8.
Which one of the following is not appropriate as a current challenge confronting administrative office managers? A. Government regulations B. Organizational/employee productivity C. Poorly trained office employees D. Failure of some newly implemented office systems to perform according to expectations
9.
Globalization is having an impact on administrative office management.
10.
The name of the certification program for administrative managers is A. Certificate of Administrative Management. B. Certified Administrative Managers. C. Certificate of Administration Management. D. Certified Associate of Management.
11.
Roles are the set of behaviors and job tasks an individual is expected to perform.
12.
Skills are defined as the abilities individuals possess that enable them to carry out their specified roles.
13.
Which one of the following is not one of the important roles of administrative office managers? A. Decision-making role B. Information-management role C. Financial role D. Interpersonal role
14.
Which one of the following is not one of the areas in which administrative office managers are expected to have special skills? A. Technical B. Financial C. Conceptual D. Human
15.
Which one of the following is the role that enables an administrative office manager to determine the full impact of a change or a variety of changes? A. Human role B. Technical role C. Human role D. Conceptual role
16.
Rarely, if ever, does the nature of an individual’s technical skills determine the areas of his or her responsibility.
17.
Which of the following individuals is generally credited with having founded scientific management? A. Frederick Herzberg B. Charles Babbage C. Frederick Taylor
D. Henri Fayol 18.
Scientific management was designed to solve two major problems: (1) to help employees become happy, productive workers; and (2) to improve the operating efficiency of management.
19.
Which of the following is the cornerstone of scientific management? A. The use of time and motion study to increase workers' efficiency B. The promotion of employees to higher-level positions C. The mechanization of the work process D. The unionization of employees
20.
The proponents of scientific management emphasized the mechanical and physiological aspects of work, which in many cases was detrimental to the psychological and social needs of the employees.
21.
Focusing on the firm as a whole or total entity rather than on certain isolated functions is a characteristic of which of the following phases of management theory? A. Scientific management B. Administrative movement C. Human relations movement D. Modern movement
22.
The universality of management principles is a characteristic of A. Scientific management. B. Administrative movement. C. Human relations movement. D. Modern movement.
23.
Which of the following individuals was primarily instrumental in developing the administrative movement? A. Elton Mayo B. Charles Babbage C. Frederick Taylor D. Henri Fayol
24.
The ______________________was primarily concerned with individuals and small groups as opposed to the total organization. A. Scientific management B. Administrative movement C. Human relations movement D. Modern movement
25.
One of the primary proponents of the human relations movement was A. Frederick Taylor. B. William Ouchi. C. Elton Mayo. D. Charles Babbage.
26.
The famous Hawthorne Studies were conducted by Henri Fayol.
27.
Certain of the concepts and practices popularized by the human relations movement continue to be present today, especially those that involve human relations and employee motivation.
28.
The operations approach and the behavioral science approach are part of the modern movement phase in the evolution of management theory.
29.
A basic difference between the operations approach and the behavioral science approach is that the former is nonquantitative whereas the later is quantitative.
30.
Increasingly, the modern management movement is moving away from a systems approach to management.
31.
Contingency management is based on the premise that one best way exists in all situations.
32.
TQM emphasizes hierarchical structures and managerial control of employees and work processes.
33.
Theoretically, TQM should reduce the amount of adversity found within organizations.
34.
Which is the following is a false statement regarding TQM? A. It emphasizes individual rather than teamwork commitment. B. It empowers employees. C. It diminishes much of the adversity found in many organizations. D. It emphasizes cooperation.
35.
One of the important elements of Theory Z is that employees are assumed to have lifetime employment. Chapter 2
36.
Failure to give adequate consideration to the organizing function may have a negative impact on the morale level of employees.
37.
Objectives that are stated in numerical terms are often difficult to measure when determining whether or not the objectives have been met.
38.
The number of subordinates a supervisor is able to supervise effectively is referred to as A. Control ratio. B. Unity of command. C. Chain of command. D. Span of control.
39.
Because the functional areas of many organizations are interrelated, one functional area may experience difficulty if another functional area also experiences difficulties.
40.
The interrelatedness of functions within organizations is decreased when extensive use is made of enterprise-wide systems.
41.
Total Quality Management increases the span of control in many organizations.
42.
The formal specification of who reports to whom is referred to as communication networks.
43.
No employee should have more than one supervisor at any one time.
44.
When an individual has been given the responsibility to carry out a certain task, the individual A. Must also be given the authority to carry out the task. B. Should determine how much authority will be necessary to carry out the task. C. Must seek the necessary authority to carry out the task. D. Should assume that the necessary authority to carry out the task has been granted.
45.
One reason to empower employees is to encourage them to participate as much as possible in making decisions that affect all aspects of their job tasks.
46.
In which of the following organizational structures does direct authority flow vertically from the top hierarchical levels, through the middle levels, to the lowest levels? A. Product B. Line C. Committee D. Line and staff
47.
Activities that are directly associated with the attainment of the primary objectives of the organization are A. Staff activities. B. Functional activities. C. Line activities. D. Committee activities.
48.
Which of the following identifies an advantage of the line structure? A. Line managers are able to do their own work rather than having to delegate to the subordinates. B. Decision-making is expeditious. C. Line managers have assistants to whom they can delegate certain tasks. D. Staff specialists provide expertise in areas in which line managers may be deficient.
49.
The line organizational structure often has to be abandoned because organizations increase in size and complexity.
50.
Direct line authority gives supervisors the right to take disciplinary action against individuals in other units or departments.
51.
The most serious disadvantage of the line structure is A. Staff employees generally have difficulty working for line employees. B. It fails to provide the needed specialization often required in organizations when they become larger and more complex. C. It does not work well in small organizations. D. Line employees are unable to make fast, expeditious decisions.
52.
Staff employees are generally responsible for the attainment of the primary objectives of the organization.
53.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the line and staff organizational structure? A. Line managers readily accept the activities performed by staff employees. B. The activities of the staff employees support the activities of the line employees. C. The activities of the line employees support the activities of the staff employees. D. The line and staff organizational structure is very time consuming.
54.
If a line manager has authority over subordinates in another department, which type of organizational structure is present? A. Functional structure B. Line and staff structure C. Committee structure D. Product structure
55.
A line manager who has functional authority for an employee is able to take disciplinary action against that employee.
56.
When an organization is comprised of several divisions that are geographically separated by wide distances, the product organizational structure may be very advantageous.
57.
The recommendations provided by committees are likely to have a more narrow base than are the recommendations made by one of the other types of organizational structures.
58.
A primary disadvantage of the committee structure is its time-consuming nature.
59.
Matrix structure is especially useful when organizations undertake complex projects.
60.
Which of the following is a false statement about matrix structure? A. Employees are permanently transferred from a functional area to the project area. B. Employees' jobs may be split several ways. C Matrix structure helps organizations maximize the utilization of their resources. D. Employees may have two superiors.
61.
Matrix structure violates the unity of command principle.
62.
Centralization means that A. All the activities for which a manager is responsible are performed in the same building. B. A manager may delegate many activities to a lower-level subordinate. C. Similar activities found throughout an organization are placed under the jurisdiction of one individual. D. Several individuals located throughout the organization may have jurisdiction over similar activities.
63.
Which of the following is a true statement? A. As organizations grow in size, centralization becomes less desirable. B. The desirability of centralization is not influenced by the nature of the organization.
C. As organizations grow in size, the need for centralization increases. D. Centralization increases the need for higher-quality employees. 64.
The centralization of certain office activities is beneficial in terms of maintaining the security of confidential material.
65.
Which of the following is a false statement with regard to the characteristics of organization charts? A. Organization charts depict formal as well as informal relationships in an organization. B. Organization charts illustrate lines of authority and responsibility. C. Organization charts depict who reports to whom. D. Horizontal as well as vertical authority is depicted on organization charts.
66.
In preparing organization charts, A. Individuals of the same hierarchical level do not necessarily have to be placed on the same horizontal level. B. Horizontal authority is depicted by dotted lines. C. Functional authority is depicted by solid lines. D. Functional authority is depicted by dotted lines.
67.
Informal organization does not help employees satisfy their needs for interacting socially and for identifying with a group. Chapter 3
68.
All but one of the following are variables that affect the communication process. Which one does not affect the communication process? A. Nature of the message B. Genders of those communicating C. Backgrounds of sender and receiver D. Relationship between sender and receiver
69.
Which of the following is not an appropriate element of the communication model? A. Sender B. Channel C. Feedback D. Filters
70.
Decoding involves interpreting the message and giving it meaning.
71.
The sender engages in encoding and interpreting while the receiver engages in decoding and translating.
72.
The message element of the communication process includes facial expressions.
73.
Which one of the following is a false statement about the nature of feedback? A. It can often be avoided with no effect on the success of the communication process. B. It enables the sender to determine how much of the message was actually received. C. It enables the sender to determine the accuracy of the message that was actually
received. D. It can be in the form of the receiver's failure to comply with the sender's request. 74.
In the communication process, noise does not necessarily need to be heard.
75.
In communication, noise is any disruption or interference in the communication process.
76.
The success of downward communication is rarely, if ever, affected by the timing and clarity of the message.
77.
Upward communication enables subordinates to relate more closely to, and identify with, their superiors.
78.
Which one of the following is generally the most important factor that affects the success of downward communication? A. Sender’s selection of the appropriate communication medium B. Position occupied by the sender C. Location of the communication encounter or message receipt D. Listening skill level of the receiver
79.
Which one of the following is not one of the factors that impacts on the effectiveness of upward communication? A. Quality of subordinate's presentation of the message B. Timeliness of the message C. Utility of the message D. Position held by the message receiver
80.
An example of horizontal communication is small group meetings.
81.
Which one of the following is a false statement about the grapevine form of communication? A. It is considered to be an official communication tool. B. It might be used to transmit information throughout the entire organization. C. It provides fast and accurate transmission of information. D. Management can use the grapevine to assess employee reaction to proposed change.
82.
Cross-training is a feature of which one of the following concepts? A. Employee participation B. Vestibule training C. Work teams D. Cafeteria approach
83.
Which one of the following is not a legitimate reason that explains why employees join small groups? A. Performance feedback B. Security C. Power D. Advice accessibility
84.
Individuals are generally motivated to join formal small groups because of the consequences they will experience if they do not join, whereas they join informal small
groups because of the benefits they will derive. 85.
Groupthink is one of the positive outcomes of small groups.
86.
Pointing to an object while mentioning it in a conversation is an example of a __________________nonverbal cue. A. Replacing B. Contradicting C. Emphasizing D. Confirming
87.
Which part of the human body tends to be the most expressive in communicating activities? A. Head B. Arms C. Face D. Hands
88.
Posture often sends signals about an individual’s mood.
89.
Occulesics refers to touching.
90.
Which of the following most accurately identifies the range of protective-custody space humans maintain? A. 0-12 inches B. 0-18 inches C. 0-24 inches D. 0-30 inches
91.
Proxemics refers to the manner in which people A. Express themselves verbally. B. Structure their territory and space. C. Use their time. D. Gesture to an audience during a presentation.
92.
The ability of people to meet deadlines communicates a message about their organizational skills.
93.
Nonverbal communication is culture bound.
94.
Subordinate suspicion of a supervisor rarely creates a communication barrier.
95.
Subordinates tend to communicate only the information to their superiors that enhances their standing with their superiors.
96.
Perceptions can create a communication barrier.
97.
Which one of the following is not an appropriate aspect of the internal element of listening? A. Ability to hear B. Ability to attach meaning to the message
C. Capacity for listening D. Ability to act on information contained in the message 98.
The length of time individuals are able to listen, and the amount of information they are able to absorb is fairly equal from person to person.
99.
The presence of noise in the communication process is an example of a contextual element of the listening process.
100.
The outcome of a decision is often affected by how accurately the problem is defined at the outset.
101.
The most effective way to evaluate possible solutions to a problem is to A. Calculate the cost of each solution. B. Determine the effect that each solution will have on the desired outcome. C. Evaluate the solutions on the basis of whose ideas they are. D. Evaluate solutions on the basis of past managerial experiences with similar situations.
102.
The nominal group technique maximizes the amount of personal interaction among group members.
103.
Those whose persuasive communication skills are well developed tend to win in conflict situations more often than those whose skills are not well developed.
104.
Planned change is reactive change.
105.
Reactive change A. Is proactive. B. Is generally more effective than planned change. C. Is forced change. D. Generally provides greater flexibility in making changes than does planned change.
106.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the implementation of change? A. The need for change rarely arises from an external force. B. Communication is not likely to be used extensively in the process of recommending a change. C. The commitment of the organization's resources to the change is made during the "implementing the plan" step. D. Communication is not an effective tool for helping employees overcome their resistance to change.
107.
Which one of the following is being used increasingly by organizations when planning for change? A. Team empowerment B. Participative management C. Focus groups D. Team building Chapter 4
108. Office layout is minimally concerned with the flow of work through an office. 109.
Hoteling generally involves employees who spend most of their days working on the premises.
110.
It is permissible for information to flow in a backtracking or a criss-crossing pattern through an office as long as the employees don't complain about the workflow.
111.
Which of the following is one of the most effective means available for use in analyzing the flow of work through an office? A. Interviewing employees B. Following the movement of major source documents C. Analyzing the placement of equipment and furniture D. Studying the location of various employees
112.
The organization chart only depicts formal lines of authority within an organization; it does not identify informal lines of communication.
113.
To analyze the nature of face-to-face and phone contact between employees and departments, a communications work flow chart should be used.
114.
When determining an appropriate location for each department within an organization, little or no consideration should be given to the flow of work between departments.
115.
As a rule, closely related departments, such as accounting and data processing, should be located near A. The entrance to the building. B. A conference room. C. The mailroom and receiving areas of the building. D. One another.
116.
Departments with frequent public contact should be located near the top-level executive offices.
117.
Areas that are utilized by many of the departments should be located centrally within an organization.
118.
All but one of the following are valid reasons for doing away with private offices. Identify the reason that is not valid. A. Private offices complicate supervision. B. The cost of a private office is considerably higher than for a general office. C. Most employees would rather work in a general office area than in a private office. D. Private offices impede communication between individuals.
119.
How much space should be allowed for each individual who will be in a reception area at any one time? A. 35 square feet of space B. 40 square feet of space C. 45 square feet of space D. 50 square feet of space
120.
Many organizations are nowadays installing boardrooms that also function as conference rooms.
121.
In rooms that house the computer installation, a temperature of 75 degrees F. and 40 percent humidity are recommended.
122.
By federal law, all office buildings must use barrier-free construction.
123.
The Americans with Disabilities Act suggests but does not require that employers provide reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities.
124.
Open space planning has been shown to lead to work-related stress experienced by employees.
125.
Cybernetics, used in office landscaping, is based on information flows.
126.
Which one of the following is not one of the approaches of the open plan concept of designing office layout? A. Modular B. Cybernetics C. Landscape D. Cluster workstation
127.
Which one of the following approaches in the open plan concept is especially well suited to provide employees with the amount of storage space their job function requires? A. Modular B. Cluster workstation C. Hoteling D. Landscape
128.
Cluster workstations tend not to be as elaborate as work areas designed using the modular approach.
129.
A distinct advantage of the cluster workstation approach is the flexibility it offers in making changes in layout and in redesigning work areas.
130.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the office landscaping concept? A. Landscaping eliminates the use of permanent walls, corridors, and private offices. B. Landscaping uses movable partitions. C. Furniture is arranged in clusters. D. All are true statements.
131.
In a sense, office landscaping is a blend of the modular and cluster workstation approaches.
132.
In a hybrid office landscaping situation, the ratio between open areas and non-open areas is approximately 80:20.
133.
Which one of the following is not an appropriate layout preparation tool? A. Template B. Schematic drawing
C. Cutouts D. Magnetic board 134.
Some computer-aided design software packages are capable of optimizing layout design. Chapter 5
135.
Office environment is affected by such factors as lighting, color scheme, noise level, and the condition of the air.
136.
The green-office movement uses benzene rather than formaldehyde in the manufacturer of such office furnishings as carpet and upholstered items, such as chairs.
137.
A poor office environment is apt to have very little impact on employee production and morale but rather has a significant impact on the absenteeism and tardiness levels of the employees.
138.
Which one of the following is a false statement about the "sick-building" syndrome? A. It can manifest itself in skin rashes and upper-respiratory infections. B. It is commonly found in office buildings constructed during the 1950s. C. It is present when at least 20 percent of the employees complain of the symptoms that disappear when the employees leave the building. D. A number of the factors contributing to the "sick-building" syndrome result from various construction features of the building.
139.
Electromagnetic radiation can contribute to the "sick-building" syndrome concern.
140.
Which one of the following is the result of long-term repetitive motion? A. Ergosyndrome B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Computer vision syndrome D. Spinal-technostress syndrome
141.
Light can have both a physical impact and a psychological impact on employees.
142.
The ____________________is used to measure the effectiveness of lighting systems. A. Equivalent Spherical Illumination B. Visual Comfort Probability C. Task Illumination D. Lighting Quotient
143.
If the minimum ESI of the work surface is at least __________________of the maximum ESI, uniformity of the lighting system is considered adequate. A. One-fourth B. One-half C. One-third D. Two-thirds
144.
______________________is expressed in raw foot-candles. A. Equivalent Spherical Illumination
B. Visual Comfort Probability C. Task Illumination D. Lighting Quotient 145.
Identify which one of the following is a false statement with regard to direct lighting systems. A. Most of the light is reflected downward. B. Very little of the light is diffused. C. Glare–either reflected or direct–is not a concern. D. Lighting uniformity is often difficult to achieve.
146.
A semi-direct lighting system results in most of the light being directed upward and then reflected downward.
147.
Which of the following is a false statement with regard to indirect lighting systems? A. Most of the lighting is directed upward, becomes diffused, and is directed downward. B. If the ceiling is used as the lighting source, it should be a dark color. C. Indirect lighting is the system most often recommended for most office work. D. Most shadows and glares are eliminated.
148.
Semi-indirect lighting, in comparison to indirect lighting, results in more light being directed to the ceiling, which causes a diffusion of the light.
149.
General diffuse lighting, in comparison to semi-indirect lighting, A. Directs more light directly to the working surface. B. Has a higher level of reflected light. C. Produces fewer shadows and less glare than does semi-indirect lighting. D. Is a more desirable lighting system for office work than is semi-indirect.
150.
Task/ambient lighting often consumes more energy than conventional lighting.
151.
Which one of the following is a false statement with regard to task/ambient lighting? A. It facilitates the development of the acoustical system. B. It provides uniformity of lighting. C. It makes possible the taking of a tax credit on the lighting system. D. It helps the fire rating of the building.
152.
Task lighting helps conserve energy.
153.
As a kind of lighting, natural light is very dependable but is not very efficient.
154.
Fluorescent lighting, in comparison to incandescent lighting, offers few advantages.
155.
Special consideration may have to be given office lighting if a number of terminal screens are used in a given area.
156.
The colors used in an office have both a physical and a psychological impact on employees.
157.
The primary colors–yellow, red, and blue–can be combined to produce secondary colors.
158.
Identify the false statement with regard to the impact of color on the moods of employees. A. Warm colors, such as red, orange, and yellow, create warm and cheerful moods. B. Natural colors, such as beige and white, produce depression. C. Cool colors, such as greens, blue, and violet, create calm and retiring moods. D. Grey produces a sleep-inducing effect.
159.
As a floor covering, carpet is useful for noise control and is often less expensive to maintain than is the cost of maintaining other types of floor coverings.
160.
High noise levels can cause fatigue as well as nervous conditions.
161.
The decibel, which is the unit measure of sound, is the smallest change in sound that can be detected by the human ear.
162.
Noise traveling through the air is known as airborne sound, but noise traveling through structural facilities is known as facility sound.
163.
All but one of the following are characteristics of materials used for noise control. Which one is not a characteristic? A. Consolidation B. Absorption C. Reflection D. Isolation
164.
Materials with hard surfaces reflect less sound than do materials with soft surfaces.
165.
Assuming the humidity level in an office is within the proper range, an ideal temperature is A. 64 degrees F. B. 66 degrees F. C. 68 degrees F. D. 70 degrees F.
166.
To have adequate air circulation, ______________of air per person per minute is needed. A. 13 cubic feet B. 40 cubic feet C. 18 cubic feet D. 25 cubic feet
167.
With regard to the use of music in an office, which of the following is a false statement? A. It helps reduce job boredom. B. It helps reduce nervous strain and tension. C. It results in employees' making an increased number of errors. D. Its use continues to increase.
168.
Music that is played continuously is as effective as is music that is played in cycles.
169.
The purpose of the energy efficiency study is to determine whether or not energy is being wasted.
170.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the development of energy conservation goals? A. The goals are formulated prior to the completion of the energy conservation study. B. Goals that are not attainable should be discarded. C. A periodic follow-up should be undertaken to determine whether sufficient progress is being made in achieving the goals. D. The goals are determined by the energy conservation committee, using the wisdom of the committee members to determine what they should be.
171.
Automatic light control systems have been found generally to waste more energy than they save.
172.
Automatic light control systems activated by motion or body heat are quite ineffective as a security system.
173.
Office security involves protecting the organization's physical property and protecting the organization's vital information. Chapter 6
174.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding the process of planning for the selection of new office equipment? A. Equipment purchase cost is more often than not the most important factor to consider when deciding which brands of equipment to compare. B. The number of factors considered will likely be determined by the type of equipment needed and the functions it will be used to perform. C. A comparative analysis form is useful in the planning process. D. When selecting some equipment, all factors have to be considered; but when selecting some other equipment, only a few factors may need to be considered.
175.
One effective way to combat carpal tunnel syndrome is to have a sufficient number of rest or break periods.
176
The needs of equipment should not be determined by the work that is to be processed by the equipment.
177.
Once the needs of the equipment have been determined, it is possible to determine the type of equipment that would best meet the organization's needs.
178.
Which of the following is perhaps the least reliable method for determining the dependability of equipment? A. Evaluating the equipment of the same brand that is already being used by the organization B. Assessing reports compiled by Buyers Laboratory, Inc. C Contacting other users of the same equipment who have been referred by the equipment vendor D. Contacting other users of the same equipment who have not been referred by the equipment vendor
179.
Equipment specifications refer to such factors as the equipment's accommodating add-on
attachments and the feasibility of using the equipment for a variety of work processes. 180.
When selecting equipment, very little, if any, emphasis should be placed on the interchangeability of the supplies that the equipment uses.
181.
Equipment flexibility refers to such factors as the equipment's accommodating add-on attachments and the feasibility of using the equipment for a variety of work processes.
182.
Rarely should the equipment operator be considered when selecting new office equipment because of the frequent employee turnover.
183.
With regard to the standardization of equipment, which of the following is a false statement? A. The organization may be able to reduce its service costs. B. Standardization facilitates the ease with which the employees operate the equipment. C. Equipment standardization costs more in the long run. D. The organization may be able to take advantage of quantity purchasing of equipment.
184.
Vendor reputation should have very little bearing on the equipment that is ultimately selected.
185.
The frequency with which technological developments occur is an insignificant factor to consider when deciding whether equipment should be leased or purchased.
186.
A true lease is one in which A. The lessee intends to purchase the equipment being leased. B. The lessee may decide to purchase the equipment being leased. C. It is illegal in an increasing number of states. D. The lessee never intends to purchase the equipment being leased.
187.
A true lease is not renewable.
188.
When obtaining office equipment through a lease with the option to purchase, the lessee can purchase the equipment at any time during the duration of the lease period.
189.
Sale-leaseback is a very common means of leasing office equipment.
190.
Which of the following is an advantage of leasing office equipment? A. Leased office equipment is frequently less costly over a period of time than is purchased equipment. B. The lesser is generally responsible for equipment maintenance and repairs. C. Leasing equipment enables an organization to use its resources more effectively. D. Lease payments are always tax deductible.
191.
Which of the following statements is a true statement with regard to the difference between equipment leasing and equipment rental? A. Rental requires the use of the equipment for a specified length of time. B. Leasing frequently involves a contract specifying the length of time the lease may be in effect. C. Equipment obtained through a lease agreement can be returned without financial penalty.
D. Equipment leasing and rental are synonymous. 192.
Which one of the following is a true statement? A. Purchased equipment cannot be depreciated. B. Purchased equipment is considered an asset. C. Purchased equipment generally provides the owner with fewer advantages than leased equipment. D. Leased equipment can be depreciated.
193.
Preventive maintenance of equipment is a distinct characteristic of which of the following types of equipment maintenance? A. Service contract B. In-house C. Call basis D. Call basis and in-house
194.
Which of the following equipment maintenance alternatives is generally suited best for large organizations rather than medium-sized or small-sized organizations? A. Service contract B. Call basis C. In-house D. Self-service
195.
In comparing the amount of paper work involved in equipment maintenance, the callbasis technique is likely to be less costly than the service-contract basis.
196.
Which of the following technologies is commonly used in many organizations today to facilitate equipment inventory? A. Indica B. Etch C. Black light D. Bar code
197.
The hierarchical level of the individual for whom furniture is being selected is an important consideration when choosing office furniture.
198.
Which of the following is a false statement regarding systems furniture? A. It requires more floor space than traditional furniture. B. It is available in a wide range of finishes. C. It is available in a wide range of sizes and shapes. D. It is more adaptable than traditional furniture.
199.
Modular design of office furniture frequently results in self-contained workstations.
200.
Portability of office furniture is required because of open space planning.
201.
Functional design of office furniture means that it can be easily and rapidly rearranged.
202.
Which of the following statements best describes the use of ergonomics in designing office furniture? A. It is another name for modular design.
B. It pertains to the furniture finish. C. It is concerned with the useful life of the furniture. D. It is the study of the relationship between employees and their physical environment. 203.
To which of the following can the science of ergonomics be most directly applied? A. Chair B. Desk C. File cabinets D. Book
204.
An increasing number of organizations are allowing employees to use non-conventional office furniture as a means of adding to their comfort level.
205.
Which one of the following is not one of the standards set forth by the American National Standards Institute/Human Factors and Ergonomics Society regarding office chairs? A. The chair should allow the user to sit with his/her feet flat on the floor. B. The chair should support the user’s back in an upright position. C. The user should be able to hang his or her arms straight down from the shoulders. D. The chair should have arm rests of a sufficient size to accommodate each type of user. Chapter 7
206.
The quality of an organization's work force is often directly related to the quality of its employee selection process.
207.
All but one of the following are factors to consider in determining workforce needs. Which one is not an appropriate factor? A. Organization’s primary purpose B. Turnover among employees C. Changes in skills and/or backgrounds that employees need to possess D. Changes in technological processes
208.
Which one of the following is a useful technique for determining workforce needs when a direct relationship exists between the number of units produced and the number of employees needed to produce these units? A. Workforce demand analysis B. Scatter plot C. Ratio analysis D. Standard deviation
209.
Core competencies are described as an employee’s attributes that enable him/her to learn and develop new job-related proficiencies.
210.
Using an internal recruiting source demonstrates to employees that their employer rewards competence.
211.
As an internal recruiting source, employee referral may be used to give employees a feeling of recognition and importance although over the long run, it may have a negative impact on creating a more diverse workforce.
212.
Organizations that promote employees from within generally find the practice to be a very poor means of filling open positions.
213.
One disadvantage of using external sources in the processing of hiring employees is the large number of applicants a company may have for just one opening.
214.
The 1996 Personal Responsibility and Welfare Reconciliation Act requires that employers with 100 or more employees hire individuals currently receiving welfare.
215.
Which of the following statements is false with regard to the use of unsolicited applications? A. Unsolicited applications are used by individuals who wish to apply for a particular job without knowing whether or not an opening actually exists. B. This recruiting source does not characteristically produce a high number of acceptable applicants. C. Nearly every organization uses this recruiting source extensively. D. Some employees who use unsolicited applications are very competent employees.
216.
Which of the following external recruiting sources characteristically provides a large number of applicants in a short period of time? A. Unsolicited applications B. Employee referral C. Educational institution placement services D. Advertising
217.
Leased employees are employees of the organization where they work.
218.
A common misconception about using employee leasing is that it enables an organization to decrease quickly to the number of employees it needs when a surplus exists; in reality, it does not provide a quick response.
219.
The USES (United States Employment Service) both controls and operates the public employment agencies found in the various states.
220.
If an employee is receiving unemployment compensation, the employee A. Should register with the state's public employment agency. B. Is required by law to register with the state's public employment agency. C. Is required to wait until the benefits are depleted before registering with the state's public employment agency. D. Should register with the United States Employment Service.
221.
A private employment agency A. Provides free services to its clients. B. Is used only for higher-level management positions. C. Is controlled by the United States Employment Service. D. Is more costly to use as a placement service than are public employment agencies.
222.
Which of the following is a most effective source for obtaining employees for a short employment period? A. Public employment agency B. Temporary help agency
C. Advertisement D. Private employment agency 223.
When an employee from a temporary help agency is hired, the agency is responsible for paying the employee's payroll taxes, Social Security benefits, etc.
224.
Resume banks are maintained by the organization needing new employees.
225.
All electronic resume banks are Web based.
226.
Which of the following is a true statement about outsourcing? A. The organization using outsourcing is relieved of the responsibility of personnel matters involving the "outsourced" employees. B. The organization using outsourcing is responsible for obtaining its own employees. C. Outsourcing is commonly used as a means of staffing the general office area of organizations. D. The organization using outsourcing is responsible for supervising the contracted employees.
227.
All organizations with 20 or more employees are required by federal law to hire qualified persons with disabilities.
228.
According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, during the hiring process, employers can ask about one's ability to perform a job but cannot inquire as to whether an applicant has a disability.
229.
According to the ADA, a person is considered to have a disability if he/she possesses a physical or mental condition that limits his/her life activities even though no record of the impairment exists.
230.
The job performance of persons with disabilities tends to be lower than the performance of persons without disabilities.
231.
The purpose of the employee requisition blank is to A. Notify a private or public agency that an opening exists. B. Request additional help from the organization's floating pool of employees. C. Seek approval to increase the number of employees in a given work unit. D. Authorize the personnel department to begin recruiting potential employees for an open position.
232.
Whereas a job description identifies the requirements of a certain position, the job specification identifies the duties and responsibilities of the job.
233.
The purpose of the screening interview is to A. Identify the job applicants who mistakenly believe they are qualified for the job for which they are applying. B. Identify which department is most suitable for each of the applicants. C. Identify the employees who wish to be promoted to higher-level positions. D. Identify potential problem employees.
234.
An employee-selection practice that is growing in popularity involves having job
applicants fill out the application blank after the screening interview. 235.
An increasing number of organizations are developing application blanks for different types of positions, recognizing that obtaining the same information is not pertinent to all positions.
236.
Which of the following statements is true with regard to application blanks? A. They are becoming virtually useless in the selection process. B. Federal legislation prohibits requesting any information on the blank that may be discriminatory. C. It is illegal to use the blank to compare one applicant's background with another applicant's background. D. The blanks are destroyed once the position is filled.
237.
Which one of the following items is suitable for inclusion on the application blank? A. Applicant's marital status B. Inclusive dates of previous employment C. Applicant's name changes D. Nature of applicant's military discharge
238.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding biodata forms? A. The form can list the qualifications the job holder is expected to possess. B. The same questions appear on the biodata form used throughout the organization. C. Applicants’ forms are scored to determine how one applicant compares with another. D. The questions asked on the form must have job relevance.
239.
Fewer organizations seem to be placing as much emphasis on letters of recommendation as in the past.
240.
A selection interview is generally conducted by the human resources manager.
241.
The Employment Polygraph Protection Act has increased the number of potential employees to whom a polygraph test can be administered.
242.
Federal legislation suggests but does not require that tests used in the employee selection process should be able to predict job success or failure.
243.
If a test is reliable, A. It will cover in depth a broad range of topics. B. The individuals taking the test will be able to achieve consistent results. C. It will provide a prognosis of what the testee is able to achieve. D. It will provide an analysis of the situation being tested.
244.
If a test is valid, it has predictive value.
245.
The type of validity that provides test results for each cultural subgroup as a means of predicting job success for the members of the subgroup is A. Differential validity. B. Construct validity. C. Criterion-related validity. D. Content validity.
246.
Whereas criterion-related validity is concerned with measures of job performance, construct validity provides a measure of specific theoretical constructs, such as aptitude and intelligence.
247.
Content validity is determined by identifying critical job tasks and then A. Completing a factor analysis on them. B. Comparing them with similar tasks in other companies. C. Testing a random sample of those tasks. D. Subjecting these tasks to a critical incidents measure.
248.
Biodata tests should not be used to eliminate the adverse impact that standardized tests tend to have on certain cultural groups.
249.
A test that provides a measure of an applicant's proficiency in performing a certain activity or activities or skills is A. An intelligence test. B. A personality test. C. An achievement test. D. An aptitude test.
250.
Achievement tests measure an applicant's ability to learn.
251.
Intelligence tests measure applicants' mental and reasoning skills.
252.
What type of personality test requires the test taker to interpret and discuss the meaning of information or graphics, such as that found in an ink blot? A. Unipolar B. Bipolar C. Predictive D. Projective
253.
The type of interview that is especially useful when many employees apply for the same position is A. Patterned. B. Direct. C. Functional. D. Indirect.
254.
The type of interview that primarily involves the interviewer's asking only questions related to the applicant's background is the A. Indirect interview. B. Patterned interview. C. Functional interview. D. Direct interview.
255.
The __________________ interview is comprised of a series of job-related questions accompanied by predetermined answers. A. Indirect B. Functional C. Patterned
D. Direct 256.
Questions pertaining to BFOQs cannot be asked during an interview.
257.
The order in which applicants are interviewed may affect their rating, a phenomenon which needs to be guarded against.
258.
According to Federal Guidelines, the selection procedures used by the organization must not have an adverse impact on any protected group.
259.
Disparate treatment of job applications is permissible as long as an organization is able to hire the quantity of employees it needs.
260.
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 allows an employer to use gender, national origin, or religion as a selection factor if justifiable as a bonafide occupational qualification.
261.
Which one of the following pieces of federal legislation require the “reasonable accommodation” of job applicants should they be hired? A. Americans with Disabilities Act B. Pregnancy Discrimination Act C. Civil Rights Act D. Vocational Rehabilitation Act
262.
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 restricts to a maximum of $25,000 the amount of punitive and compensatory damages an applicant can receive who is intentionally discriminated against by a potential employer.
263.
Whether an organization uses the single predictor or multiple predictor approach in deciding which job applicant to hire is often determined by the type and level of position being filled.
264.
A selection ratio higher than 6:1 is recommended. Chapter 8
265.
Thinking of employee development as a continuous process that exists during the employee's tenure is not appropriate.
266.
All but one of the following is a commonly found component of employee development. Which is that component? A. Job evaluation B. Orientation C. Counseling D. Training
267.
The use of a "buddy" system of orientation has generally been found to be somewhat ineffective, especially in terms of the benefits to employees.
268.
All but one of the following is a satisfactory means of determining the need for a training program. Which one is not a satisfactory means?
A. Employees' opinions B. Supervisors' opinions C. Performance appraisal D. Salary increases 269.
The employee performance analysis examines the content of present and anticipated openings.
270.
An employee attitude survey is a fairly ineffective means for determining the need for a training program.
271.
As employee diversity increases in many organizations, population needs analysis becomes less important.
272.
The type of training program that provides experiences designed to help employees qualify for the positions for which they have been hired is a A. Refresher training program. B. Basic knowledge program. C. Job exposure training program. D. Job skills training program.
273.
The type of training program designed to help employees maintain their high level of effectiveness in performing their jobs is a A. Job skills training program. B. Basic knowledge training program. C. Refresher training program. D. Job exposure training program.
274.
Which one of the following is used by some organizations to assess the effectiveness of their training efforts? A. Benchmarking. B. Broadbanding. C. Broacasting. D. Broadbasing.
275.
Learning by doing means that A. The learners are passive in the learning process. B. The learners are actively involved in the learning process. C. The learners determine how they will learn. D. The learners have a very small function in the learning process.
276.
With regard to knowledge of results, A. Learners should be informed of only the errors they make. B. Learners should be made aware of how closely their behavior conforms with expected behavior. C. Learners tend to find the receipt of information about their performance to be frustrating. D. A fairly large amount of time should transpire between task completion and becoming knowledgeable about results.
277.
To be most effective, learning should begin with the simple and progress to the complex.
278.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to distributed learning? A. A large unit of learning is more effective than smaller units of learning. B. Responsibility for training should be distributed among several individuals. C. The training should be offered without intervention. D. The training period should be provided over a period of time.
279.
Learning curve refers to the way people learn, with different people learning different tasks differently from one another.
280.
While the lecture method for training employees can be criticized for providing little in the way of feedback, it does effectively provide for individual differences.
281.
The conference method of training office employees is effective for helping them develop A. Technical skills. B. Decision-making skills. C. Human relations skills. D. Communication skills.
282.
Programmed instruction, as a training technique, offers the following advantages: immediate knowledge of results, individualized pace of learning, and active participation in the learning process.
283.
The training technique that can be presented using the textbook format or the teachingmachine format is the A. Conference method. B. Programmed instruction. C. Lecture. D. Group discussion.
284.
Distance learning delivers the training experience to the employee’s work site.
285.
Simulation training techniques place learners in an artificial representation of a real-life situation.
286.
Which of the following areas is most suitable for using role-playing as a training technique? A. Skill development B. Attitude formation C. Job knowledge D. Human relations
287.
When the case method is used, learners are generally expected to identify the problems of the situation but not to make recommendations for problem solution.
288.
Which of the following training techniques provides the learners with a few details about the situation and then requires the learners to ask questions to obtain the other necessary information in order to solve the problem? A. Incident method B. Business game C In-basket
D. Role-playing 289.
Business games are especially suited for human relations training.
290.
The type of training technique that requires the learner to recommend how certain situations might be solved as well as the priority with which the situations should be handled is the A. Incident method. B. In-basket simulation. C. Business games technique. D. Simulation.
291.
A type of training activity especially suited for computer-assisted instruction is (are) A. Drill and practice exercises. B. Human relations. C. Interpersonal communications. D. Decision-making skills.
292.
Virtual reality training lends itself well to situations that require A. Decision making. B. Making value judgments. C. Subjective results. D. Practice.
293.
As a training technique, job rotation has good transfer value because the learner rotates between actual jobs.
294.
Job-instruction training is especially well suited to training situations heavily based on sequential steps.
295.
Examples of special-purpose training are literacy training and diversity training.
296.
The federal legislation that provides financial support for training newly hired employees, especially those who have been unemployed for a long time or who are been receiving welfare is the A. Workforce Training Act. B. Civil Rights Act. C. Workforce Investment Partnership Act. D. Vocational Rehabilitation Act.
297
Counseling sessions with employees are generally most effective when they are conducted at the employee's workstation.
298.
In counseling subordinates, many supervisors prefer the nondirective counseling approach, which gives the supervisors the opportunity to determine the scope of each session. Chapter 9
299.
All but one of the following have an impact on the amount of leadership skills required in
a supervisory position. Which does not have an impact? A. The number of subordinates for whom the supervisor is responsible B. The personality of the supervisor C. The hierarchical level of the supervisor D. The background of the subordinates 300.
All but one of the following are characteristics of the autocratic leadership approach. Which is not a characteristic? A. The autocratic supervisor seeks ideas, suggestions, and recommendations from subordinates. B. The autocratic supervisor rarely deviates from the norm. C. The autocratic supervisor tends to be inflexible. D. The autocratic supervisor tends to discipline subordinates before attempting to determine reasons for their misconduct.
301.
All but one of the following are characteristics of the democratic leadership approach. Which of the following is not a characteristic? A. Subordinates are asked to participate in the decision-making process, especially if the impact of the decision is apt to have an effect on them. B. The approach is flexible. C. A cooperative relationship is likely to exist between the supervisor and subordinates. D. The supervisor is rarely ultimately responsible for making the final decision.
302.
All but one of the following are characteristics of the laissez-faire leadership approach. Which one is not a characteristic? A. The subordinates have a considerable amount of freedom. B. The supervisor may display a lack of care. C. The laissez-faire approach is a useful approach when employee creativity is involved. D. The subordinates are given a considerable amount of assistance from the supervisor.
303.
In terms of leadership orientation, the subordinate-oriented supervisor is concerned with output but not to the extent that the achievement-oriented supervisor is concerned.
304.
As leadership behavior becomes less boss-centered and more subordinate-centered, the amount of authority exercised by the supervisor increases as the area of freedom for the subordinate decreases.
305.
Which of the following is a false statement about the planning function of supervision? A. The amount of time consumed by the planning function is directly related to the hierarchical level of the supervisor's position. B. Lower level supervisors spend more time in the planning function than do higher level supervisors. C. Plans developed by the lower level supervisors are usually of a shorter duration than are those developed by higher level supervisors. D. The planning activities of the lower level supervisors frequently involve implementing the goals and objectives developed by higher level supervisors.
306.
The organizing function of supervision involves determining which of the subordinates in the work unit are best qualified for a particular job that has to be done and subsequently assigning that job to the appropriate subordinate.
307.
The extent to which supervisors are responsible for staffing activities appears to be related to the hierarchical level of the supervisor.
308.
Lower level supervisors are generally less concerned with the directing function of supervision than are higher level supervisors.
309.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the controlling function of supervision? A. If the actual results are less than the anticipated results, someone other than the immediate supervisor is likely to be responsible for taking corrective action. B. Although desirable, standards are not needed. C. Someone other than the supervisor is responsible for developing the validity of the standards. D. Controlling involves comparing actual results with anticipated results.
310.
One way to increase the extent to which supervisors can get their subordinates to cooperate is to provide the subordinates with as much variety in their daily routine as possible.
311.
Supervisors who hear only what they want to hear from their subordinates tend to be rather objective in making decisions.
312.
Making subordinates aware that higher level management is dependent upon them for their ideas and suggestions and by providing variations in the routines of subordinates are examples of ways that supervisors can A. Delegate to subordinates. B. Understand subordinates. C. Achieve cooperation with subordinates. D. Show fairness to subordinates.
313.
Supervisors are sometimes hesitant to delegate because of the fear involved in delegating.
314.
An effective supervisor is selective in delegating certain tasks.
315.
To understand subordinates fully, a supervisor should, among other things, be familiar with the character and work habits of subordinates.
316.
A perceived lack of fairness is often not as damaging to a supervisor-subordinate relationship as is a real lack of fairness.
317.
Which one of the following is not an outcome of team building? A. It destroys to a certain extent employee creativity. B. It gives employees a feeling that they play a more significant role in what happens within an organization. C. It is likely to produce greater employee productivity. D. It generally results in happier employees.
318.
A supervisor who has conceptual skills has the ability to assess the impact of change he/she is recommending.
319.
A supervisor who possesses ____________________ skills is sometimes thought to
possess a "fifth" sense in dealing with organizational matters. A. Technical B. Human C. Conceptual D. Management 320.
With regard to teaching, which of the following are two areas in which the supervisor should be skilled? A. Motivating and communicating B. Demonstrating and explaining C. Motivating and explaining D. Demonstrating and motivating
321.
Coaching takes place when a supervisor makes a concerted effort to develop subordinates.
322.
Which of the following best summarizes the supervisor's responsibility for counseling subordinates? A. The supervisor should provide counseling whenever a subordinate seeks counseling. B. There is nothing that does not fall within the domain of appropriate areas for a supervisor-subordinate counseling relationship. C. The supervisor must judiciously screen the areas about which to counsel subordinates. D. Supervisors should not counsel subordinates.
323.
Effective communication between subordinates and their supervisors depends heavily upon trust.
324.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the supervisor's ethical behavior? A. One of the most effective ways to enhance the ethical behavior of employees is to mandate such behavior. B. Unethical behavior is always illegal behavior. C. Rewarding ethical behavior is not especially effective in stimulating employees to behave ethically. D. Managers who display ethical behavior can often entice their subordinates to behave ethically.
325.
Which of the following may be responsible for the greatest amount of employee absenteeism? A. Illness B. Lack of job satisfaction C. Transportation problems D. Family responsibilities
326.
It has been found that providing employees with personal days has been ineffective as a way of handling absenteeism.
327.
More and more supervisors are being made responsible for detection of employees who have an alcohol or drug abuse problem.
328.
An objective of the National Council on Alcoholism is to have alcoholism considered to be a disease.
329.
The symptoms of drug abuse are more noticeable than are the symptoms of alcoholism.
330.
Supervisors are generally responsible for helping their subordinates become familiar with what constitutes sexual harassment.
331.
The supervisor must be tolerant of and sensitive to the differences among employees of other cultures and must work with his/her subordinates in getting them to be sensitive to the differences among employees of other cultures.
332.
Which one of the following is not appropriate for improving the effectiveness of the disciplining process? A. Discipline should be consistent with the severity of the offense. B. Discipline should be delayed until the employee has had time to forget about the offense. C. The employee should be told how to correct the situation. D. The discipline should be restricted to the immediate problem.
333.
At-will hiring means that the employee is hired to work for a definite length of time and that he or she has employment rights specified in an employment contract.
334.
Essentially, the just-cause termination process has been replaced with the at-will termination process.
335.
In the litigation process involving termination of employees, increasingly, written evidence must be available proving that the employee has had ample warning about his/her problematic performance.
336.
As a form of union security, a union shop clause A. Requires the employee to be a member or become a member of the union within a specified time. B. Does not require employees to join a union but does stipulate that employees have to pay union dues. C. Requires that employees who join a union voluntarily must remain in good standing during the life of the agreement. D. Is illegal.
337.
A management prerogative refers to those items that are not contained in the labor agreement nor are restricted by law.
338.
In an agency shop agreement, employees do not have to join the union although they have to pay union dues.
339.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to escalator clauses in union contracts? A. They are illegal. B. They pertain to fringe benefits of union membership. C They provide for automatic adjustments in salary rates as the cost of living increases. D. They tend to work to the disadvantage of the unionized employee.
340.
It is always illegal for employees to strike or to walk out during the time that a current labor agreement is in force. Chapter 10
341.
Employees who are not motivated tend to perform just as effectively as those who are motivated.
342.
Employees who lack motivation represent a financial burden to the organization.
343.
That which employees find motivational may be related to their cultural background.
344.
Which of the following best identifies the nature of the difference between ability and aptitude? A. They are virtually the same. B. Aptitude is a measure of the capability an individual has for carrying out the job whereas ability is a measure of potential. C. Aptitude is a measure of potential whereas ability is a measure of one's capability. D. Both aptitude and ability are closely related to individual needs.
345.
To a large extent, values are influenced by the environment in which people live and work.
346.
Filled needs are more motivational than are unfilled needs.
347.
The inner state of disequilibrium results from A. Emotions. B. Values. C. Needs. D. Personality type.
348.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A. All needs can be categorized into seven basic categories. B. The higher level needs are not important until the lower level needs have been satisfied. C. The higher level needs are easier to achieve than are the lower level needs. D. Of all the needs, self-actualization is the easiest to achieve.
349.
Job security is an example of a safety need, according to A. H. Maslow.
350.
Self-esteem needs include such elements as recognition, attention, prestige, and status.
351.
Which of the following is an accurate description of self-actualization needs? A. One's desire to become the person one is capable of becoming B. One's desire to have a good working relationship with a superior C. One's desire to perform satisfactorily D. One's feeling more superior than others
352.
The seniority system has had a negative impact on how well a person's self-actualization
needs are satisfied. 353.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the need satisfaction of employees? A. All employees have the same success with regard to need satisfaction. B. Money is used to satisfy the higher level needs of employees. C. The higher level needs are, for the most part, related to the mind and spirit. D. People in higher level jobs generally are more successful in satisfying their needs than those in lower level jobs.
354.
While lower level needs are basically infinite, higher level needs are finite.
355.
According to Herzberg, experiences leading to negative attitudes are generally related to employees' psychological needs.
356.
Identify which one of the following is a job satisfier. A. Working conditions B. Company policy C. Supervision D. Work itself
357.
According to Herzberg, the hygiene factors are concerned with the A. Job. B. Job content. C. Environment in which the job is performed. D. Amount of growth the job provides.
358.
According to Herzberg, A. Job satisfaction and job dissatisfaction are opposite ends of a continuum. B. The opposite of job satisfaction is job dissatisfaction. C. Job satisfaction and job dissatisfaction are separate and distinct from one another. D. When a job satisfier is present, the result is job satisfaction; but when that satisfier is not present, the result is job dissatisfaction.
359.
In the process of motivating employees, job satisfiers are more important than dissatisfiers because the satisfiers have a strong influence on employee motivation.
360.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding the needs theory? A. The primary motives comprising the needs theory have a psychological base. B. The secondary motives are generally acquired from one’s culture. C. The “need for achievement” is an important secondary motive. D. Individuals with a high need for affiliation tend to find decision making an unpleasant experience.
361.
McClelland, Maslow, and Herzberg all agreed on the role that achievement and advancement play in the motivational process.
362.
According to the _______________theory, motivation can result from an imbalance in the ratio between an individual's input and outcome. A. Expectancy B. Equilibrium
C. Reinforcement D. Equity 363.
The input-outcome measure characteristic of the equity theory is known as the ____________________ ratio. A. Balance B. Reference C. Inequity D. Imbalance
364.
According to the equity theory, the stronger the perceived relationship between effort and outcome, the higher employee motivation will be.
365.
According to the _________________theory, motivation is a consequence of behavior. A. Motivation-hygiene B. Reinforcement C. Equity D. Expectancy
366.
_________________ refers to how desirable an employee finds the outcome of the reward in the expectancy theory. A. Suitability B. Congruence C. Valence D. Instrumentality
367.
According to the reinforcement theory, motivation is a function of the consequences of behavior, meaning that reinforced behavior tends to be repeated whereas nonreinforced behavior tends not be repeated.
368.
Which of the following is a true statement about the relationship between goals and motivation? A. No relationship between the two exists. B. Goals continue to be motivational even after they have been met. C. Employees with unmet goals tend to be motivated toward the fulfillment of those goals. D. The level of employee dedication toward the fulfillment of a goal is not concerned with motivation.
369.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the paternalistic approach that some supervisors and managers use? A. The manager or supervisor lets the employees determine what is best for them. B. The manager or supervisor has very little concern for the employer. C. The manager or supervisor believes he or she knows what is best for the employees. D. The manager or supervisor lets top management decide what is best for the employee.
370.
The humanistic approach to need satisfaction of employees states that not only do managers and supervisors recognize that employees have certain needs they can help employees satisfy, but also that employees have certain needs that only they themselves can satisfy.
371.
Fewer employees seem to be desirous of job-related growth opportunities now than was the case several years ago.
372.
Over the long run, which of the following approaches produces the best results in dealing with frustration? A. Defense mechanism B. Anxiety C. Alternative goals D. Corrective action Chapter 11
373.
The original purpose of performance appraisal was to A. Appraise the performance of all employees. B. Identify supervisors who should be promoted or who should receive a salary increase. C. Evaluate the performance of high-level managers. D. Determine which employees should receive a salary increase.
374.
A well-designed performance appraisal program provides motivation for individuals to work harder.
375.
A well-designed performance appraisal program will elicit a change in the behavior of employees, as well as facilitate superior-subordinate communication.
376.
The establishment of performance standards A. Is not necessary until the performance appraisal method has been selected. B. Is determined for each individual employee. C. Is necessary in order to have a basis or standard against which to evaluate employees. D. Is generally considered to be a nonproductive activity.
377.
In a unionized organization, seniority is typically only minimally considered in determining who will be promoted.
378.
The establishment of performance standards is not as important for non-production jobs as for production jobs.
379.
The graphic rating scale is probably the most widely used performance appraisal technique.
380.
Which of the following is a false statement with regard to the traits identified on a graphic rating scale? A. The scale values should be randomized to result in greater objectivity. B. The traits should all be of equal value. C. The traits should be defined on the appraisal form. D. More objectivity can be obtained if descriptive phrases are used in presenting the qualitative section of the form.
381.
When designing a graphic rating scale, a section for comments should not be included
because it causes the form to become too subjective. 382.
One of the shortcomings of the graphic rating scale technique is that all traits are considered to be of equal importance unless they are weighted differently.
383.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the paired comparison appraisal technique? A. The performance appraisal of one employee is compared with the performance of all the other employees in the work group. B. The performance of one employee is compared with the performance of the employee in the work group whose performance is most identical to the employee being appraised. C The appraisal of employees is based on individual traits rather than on total performance. D. The employees are appraised on traits most appropriate to the demands of their individual jobs.
384.
The paired comparison appraisal technique is more appropriate for a larger number of employees than is the graphic rating scale technique.
385.
The performance appraisal technique that consists of a series of statements about various traits to which the rater provides an answer is the A. Graphic rating scale technique. B. Paired comparison technique. C. Simple ranking. D. Checklist technique.
386.
A distinct advantage of the checklist technique of performance appraisal is that specific items are evaluated–not just broad or general traits.
387.
The appraisal technique that ranks employees from the best to the worst and that fails to identify strong and weak areas of the employees' performance is the A. Paired comparison technique. B. Checklist technique. C. Simple ranking. D. Forced choice technique.
388.
The appraisal technique that consists of the rater's selecting from each set of 25-40 sets of statements, the statement that is most descriptive and the statement that is least descriptive of the person being evaluated is the A. Forced choice technique. B. Results-oriented technique. C. Simple ranking technique. D. Checklist technique.
389.
With the checklist appraisal technique, only the "most descriptive" and the "least descriptive" statements have an impact on the individual being appraised. All other statements are neutral.
390.
The forced choice appraisal technique is expensive to develop or install.
391.
The appraisal technique that involves developing for each type of job a list of crucial job requirements and then evaluating the employees on the basis of these requirements is the A. Forced choice technique. B. Critical incidents technique. C. Graphic rating scale. D. Checklist technique.
392.
The critical incidents technique of performance appraisal is immune from the criticism of some of the other techniques that allow supervisors to avoiding thinking about performance appraisal until a short time before it is to be completed.
393.
The appraisal technique that causes concern among employees that their supervisor is continually observing them to obtain evidence for their appraisal is the A. Critical incidents technique. B. Checklist technique. C. Results-oriented technique. D. Paired comparison technique.
394.
When a need exists to fill a leadership position from among the employees in a certain work unit, the appraisal technique that might be most effective is the A. Results-oriented technique. B. Group-rating technique. C. Forced choice technique. D. Peer-rating technique.
395.
Whereas the peer-rating technique uses an employees' peers in the appraisal process, the group-rating technique is likely to use the employee's immediate supervisor, the supervisor's superior, etc., in the appraisal process.
396.
When the self-appraisal method of performance appraisal is used, both the employee being rated and that employee's supervisor complete the rating form.
397.
Which of the following appraisal techniques uses an objective outsider in the appraisal process? A. Narrative B. Results-oriented C. Self-appraisal D. Field staff review
398.
The rating technique that involves the supervisor's and subordinate's jointly determining the employee's performance goals and determining specific courses of action to accomplish these goals is the A. Group-rating technique. B. Peer-rating technique. C. Results-oriented technique. D. Forced choice technique.
399.
The rating technique that uses a series of five to ten scales and a series of anchors for each scale is the A. Peer-rating technique. B. Behaviorally anchored rating technique.
C. Forced choice technique. D. Results-oriented technique. 400.
The behaviorally anchored rating technique diminishes the impact of the halo/horns effect on the appraisal process.
401.
Which one of the following is a false statement about the mixed standard scales appraisal technique? A. It can be tailored to specific positions. B. It uses four qualitative values. C The technique uses as many as 25-30 performance standards. D The technique is quite easy to use.
402.
When the rating on a few traits affects the employee's rating on the remainder of the appraisal form, the rating error that is present is A. Halo/horns effect. B. Discrimination. C. Influence of recent performance. D. Bias.
403.
The impact of extreme ratings in the performance appraisal process is more likely to occur with ranking appraisal techniques than with techniques that use a rating scale.
404.
The validity of performance appraisal results can be determined by analyzing the strictness or leniency with which the rater appraises subordinates.
405.
The purpose of the appraisal interview is to inform the employees of their evaluation results.
406.
One effective way of neutralizing defensive behavior during the appraisal interview is to depersonalize as much as possible the criticism leveled against the employee.
407.
Decisions about employee promotion generally take into consideration both objective and subjective factors.
408.
Basing decisions on factors other than gender, race, national origin, and so forth, is important. Chapter 12
409.
Determining the various components of a specific job is called A. Job evaluation. B. Job analysis. C. Job description. D. Job specification.
410.
The document that outlines the duties and responsibilities of a job is the A. Job analysis questionnaire. B. Job specification. C. Job description.
D. Job evaluation form. 411.
The document that outlines the personal qualifications that an individual must possess in order to perform the duties and responsibilities of the job is the A. Job specification. B. Job description. C. Job information sheet. D. Position description.
412.
The information gathered during the job analysis effort is ultimately used in the process of job evaluation, as well as used to identify areas in which employees may need training.
413.
Job analysis can be used to standardize the same job performed by two or more other individuals.
414.
Which one of the following is not one of the preparatory items that needs to be completed prior to beginning job analysis? A. Determining where job inequities exist. B. Determining which jobs will be included in the analysis. C. Determining the order in which jobs will be analyzed. D. Determining the method that will be used to collect the desired information.
415.
All but one of the following are considered to be benefits of job analysis. Which one is not a benefit? A. It produces an objective basis for determining the importance of each job. B. It facilitates the assignment of more equitable workloads. C. It helps determine the amount of salary increase each employee should receive. D. It aids the supervisory process.
416.
Job analysis and time and motion studies are very similar.
417.
To a great extent, the success of the questionnaire method of job analysis is dependent upon the employee's ability to interpret correctly the questionnaire items and to provide accurate answers.
418.
The design of the job analysis questionnaire should not be influenced by the size of the organization in which it will be used.
419.
When the job being described is not especially difficult to describe, when the job is comprised mainly of physical activities as opposed to human relations or personality factors, and when job information has to be obtained rather quickly, which of the following job analysis methods is most appropriate? A. Questionnaire method B. Interview method C. Observation method D. Combination method
420.
A common standardized job analyis program is the A. DAC B. PAQ C. AJQ
D. JAQ 421.
A potential disadvantage of the questionnaire method of job analysis is the development of a form that is too confusing for participants to complete.
422.
The job analysis method that involves questioning employees either at their work stations or in the job analyst's office is the A. Questionnaire method. B. Interview method. C. Observation method. D. Combination method.
423.
The job analysis technique that uses the job information worksheet is the A. Observation method. B. Questionnaire method. C. Interview method. D. Combination method.
424.
When the number of jobs being analyzed is quite small and when it is useful for the analyst to observe the job while talking with the employee about the job, which of the following methods of job analysis is most appropriate? A Questionnaire method B. Guideline method C. Observation method D. Interview method
425.
The method of job analysis that takes place at the employee's work station or at various locations where the employee works is the A. Interview method. B. Questionnaire method. C. Guideline method. D. Observation method.
426.
If the nature of a certain job prohibits the employee's absence from the workstation, the interview method of job analysis should be used.
427.
The observation method of job analysis can be used to analyze a large number of jobs.
428.
Which of the following is the primary advantage of the observation method of job analysis? A. Speed with which it is used B. Heavy dependence on trained observers C. Lack of confusion of the process creates D. Accuracy of results it produces
429.
Which of the following is the least formal of the various job analysis methods commonly used? A. Daily log method B. Interview method C. Observation method D. Combination of methods
430.
Using two or more methods of job analysis is generally thought to provide more accurate information than one method provides.
431.
Job descriptions and job specifications should never be combined into one document.
432.
The Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT) is useful for standardizing job titles used in job descriptions and job specifications.
433.
It is now permissible to list both the DOT and the O*NET number on a job description.
434.
Although not necessary, both the essential and marginal functions should be listed on a job description.
435.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to preparing the "duties of job" section of a job description? A. Only the duties and responsibilities should be presented. B. Only the frequency with which duties and responsibilities are performed should be presented. C. The section should include information about the duties and responsibilities of the job in addition to identifying the frequency with which they are performed. D. Only the relationship of the job being described to other jobs should be identified.
436.
When problems arise regarding ADA compliance in the preparation of effective job descriptions, the problems typically involve how essential functions are treated on the job description.
437.
The job description identifies the experience requirements, job knowledge requirements, human relations requirements, etc., of the job being described.
438.
The O*NET number should not be listed on a job specification.
439.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the listing of the personal requirements on the job specification? A. Only the justifiable personal requirements should be listed. B. The person preparing the job specifications can determine which ones get listed, based on his/her personal preferences. C. Generally, the individuals currently holding the position determine which ones are listed. D. When too many personal requirements exist for listing on the specification, the ones that are listed are chosen randomly.
440.
Job descriptions and job specifications should be readily available to those individuals to whom the descriptions and specifications pertain.
441.
It is not a wise managerial practice to use job specifications in the recruitment and selection of employees. Chapter 13
442.
The relative worth of a job is determined after its monetary worth is set.
443
In addition to using the results of job evaluation as a basis for determining lines of authority and patterns of advancement within an organization, it can also be used to determine areas appropriate for new employee orientation and training.
444.
A nonquantitative method of job evaluation A. Means that the method is nonquantitative. B. Is restricted to low-level jobs. C. Evaluates jobs on the basis of job parts rather than on the basis of whole jobs. D. Evaluates the jobs on the basis of whole jobs rather than on the basis of job parts.
445.
Quantitative job evaluation methods evaluate jobs on the basis of job parts.
446
Factors that jobs share in common with one another and that provide an evaluation basis are called _________________. A. Compensable factors B. Evaluation factors C. Analysis factors D. Weighted factors
447
Of all the job evaluation methods, which of the following tends to be the simplest? A. Point evaluation B. Ranking C. Job grading D. Factor comparison
448.
The job evaluation method that first ranks jobs in the order of relative importance and then assigns the jobs to one of several specific job levels is A. Point evaluation. B. Job ranking. C. Factor comparison. D. Job grading.
449.
The job evaluation method that is readily understood by employees but that is difficult to implement when more than 25-30 jobs are being evaluated is the A. Job grading method. B. Point evaluation method. C. Factor comparison method. D. Ranking method.
450.
The job evaluation method that classifies jobs and groups according to a number of predetermined classes is called A. Job grading. B. Job ranking. C. Point evaluation. D. Factor comparison.
451.
Which one of the following “tools” is commonly used in the job ranking method of job evaluation? A. Computer spreadsheet
B. Index cards C. Job tracking sheets D. Profile record 452.
The ranking method of job evaluation utilizes standard job descriptions for each class of jobs.
453.
The factor comparison method is a quantitative method of job evaluation, which means that jobs are evaluated on the basis of whole jobs as opposed to job parts.
454.
Generally, when using standard job descriptions in job evaluation, they should be developed for each of the various family groups of positions.
455.
The job evaluation method that evaluates jobs on the basis of skill requirements, mental requirements, physical requirements, responsibility requirements, and environmental requirements is A. Job ranking. B. Job grading. C. Factor comparison. D. Point evaluation.
456.
Which of the following job evaluation methods requires the establishment of the salary for the key jobs prior to the evaluation of the key jobs? A. Factor comparison B. Job ranking C. Job grading D. Point evaluation
457.
The factor comparison method of job evaluation incorporates the use of compensable factors.
458.
Generally, ______ key jobs are sufficient when using the factor comparison method of job evaluation. A. 10-15 B. 15-20 C. 20-25 D. 25-30
459.
As a rule, the greater that the importance of certain job requirements, such as skill or mental requirements, are to the total job, the higher is the salary allocation for those requirements if the factor comparison method of job evaluation is used.
460.
When using the factor comparison method of job evaluation, it is desirable, but not mandatory, for the factor ranking and the monetary ranking of each job to agree with one another.
461.
The monetary comparison scale is a component of which one of the following job evaluation techniques? A. Point evaluation B. Job ranking C. Factor comparison
D. Job grading 462.
One of the distinct advantages of the factor comparison method of job evaluation, in comparison to the other methods, is that it is less affected by inequitable salary rates than are any of the other methods.
463.
The job evaluation method that divides the evaluation factors into degrees and then assigns a specific number of points to each degree is the A. Factor evaluation method. B Point evaluation method. C. Job grading method. D. Job ranking method.
464.
An advantage of the point evaluation method of job evaluation is that the evaluation factors can be assigned a point value in relation to the importance of each factor.
465.
The device that must be developed when the point evaluation method of job evaluation is used is the A. Standard job description. B. Monetary comparison scale. C. Point manual. D. Factor ranking chart.
466.
Although the point evaluation method of job evaluation has several distinct advantages, a distinct disadvantage is that it can be only minimally tailored to meet the requirements of specific organizations.
467.
The technique that involves increasing points by a constant percentage in the point evaluation method is called A. Straight arithmetic. B. Mathematical. C. Quantitative. D. Geometric progression.
468.
The computer-aided method of job evaluation decreases considerably the amount of manual effort needed to complete the process.
469.
Because of the exacting nature of job evaluation methodology, it is generally possible for an organization to adopt another organization's job evaluation program with very little, if any, modification needed.
470.
Which one of the following is not a stated advantage of using a committee to undertake the job evaluation process within an organization? A. Results tend to be more objective. B. Broad-based representation tends to increase the program’s acceptability. C. Results tend to be more accurate. D. Results can be made available more quickly. Chapter 14
471.
While the purpose of job evaluation is to determine the relative worth of jobs in an organization, the salary administration program is responsible for determining an equitable monetary compensation for such jobs.
472.
One indication that a salary program is not externally competitive is increased turnover of employees.
473.
Which one of the following is not one of the stated goals of salary administration programs? A. It assists managers in determining which employees should be laid off or furloughed should that become necessary. B. It enables the organization to conform with requirements of existing legislation. C. It helps reduce employee turnover. D. It helps promote good employer-employee relations.
474.
A very important part of the salary administration program is the policies and procedures under which the program operates.
475.
When employees receive a salary increase by means of the percentage- of-salary increase method, the salary differential between the lower- and higher-paid individuals soon diminishes.
476.
Salary administration programs appear to be most effective if they operate under A. Decentralized control. B. Centralized control, decentralized location. C Centralized control. D. Decentralized control, decentralized location.
477.
After an organization has set its salary levels for each job level, the going rates for comparable jobs in the community should be determined.
478.
The relative worth of jobs, a factor used in salary administration, is determined by A. Job evaluation. B. Job analysis. C. Broadbanding. D. Benchmarking.
479.
The Dictionary of Clerical Salaries, a salary scale prepared by the Administrative Management Society, contains salary data for about 20 different office and data processing jobs.
480.
If the organization is unable to obtain prepared salary scale data, it can conduct its own survey.
481.
If the cost-of-living index is used as a salary determinant, the purchasing power of employees is essentially maintained.
482.
All but one of the following are significant acts that have an impact on the salary structure of organizations. Which one does not have an impact? A. Equal Pay Act B. Fair Labor Standards Act
C. Davis-Bacon Act D. Salary Differential Act 483.
It is not imperative to compare an organization's salary structure with those of competing firms in the community.
484.
Designing salary structures with overlapping rates A. Works to the advantage of recently hired employees. B. Works to the advantage of employees who have worked for the organization for a long time. C. Allows an employee with a considerable amount of experience to be paid a salary equal to or higher than a relatively inexperienced employee in the next higher category. D. Does not have an impact on the relationship between the salaries earned by the lower-rated and higher-rated positions.
485.
In salary administration, determining the monetary worth of each job begins with preparing the salary_____________________. A. Benchmark chart B. Scattergram C. Analysis chart D. Comparison chart
486.
All but one of the following is a means by which employees’ salaries are increased. Which one is not appropriate? A. Specific time interval B. Merit C. Performance based D. Combination of methods
487.
The two types of individual incentive wage plans are units of production and A. Quality of performance. B. Quantity of output. C. Time required to complete a unit. D. Supervisor's recommendation.
488.
The performance-based pay plan that is based on the extent to which employee-generated costs are less than a threshold amount is A. Gain sharing. B. Key contributor program. C Individual incentive pay. D. Zero-based budgeting.
489.
The salary administration program that involves paying employees on the depth and breadth of skills they possess as well as on the basis of the job knowledge they use in carrying out their jobs is A. Gain sharing pay. B. Individual incentive pay. C. Key contributor pay. D. Competency-based pay.
490.
________________________ refers to the practice found in many salary administration programs in many of today’s organizations that reduces the number of salary grades and pay ranges. A. Broadbanding. B. Benchmarking. C. Pay containment. D. Salary restriction.
491.
Certain of the fringe benefits made available to employees provide them with greater job security.
492.
The cafeteria approach to fringe benefits provides cafeteria services at a reduced rate for exempt employees.
493.
All but one of the following is a true statement regarding preferred provider organizations. Which one is not a true statement? A. PPOs do not allow individuals to select their health care providers. B. PPOs contract with employers, insurance companies, or third-party payers to provide reduced-fee medical services. C. Employees who belong to a PPO receive medical services at a reduced cost. D. Employees who belong to a PPO have a wider choice of health-care providers than do those who belong to a HMO.
494.
Profit-sharing plans generally allow employees to share in all profits of the organization.
495.
Reimbursement account programs can be used to reimburse an individual for deductibles and co-pays, but not for noninsured expenses involving dental care, eye care, or prescription drugs.
496 .
The federal legislation which specifies that employees must receive the legal minimum wage is the A. Walsh-Healey Act. B. Fair Labor Standards Act. C. Davis-Bacon Act. D. Pension Reform Act.
497.
The Walsh-Healey Act pertains to employees working on government contracts that utilize materials and equipment in excess of $10,000.
498.
The Pension Reform Act of 1974 requires all employers to have employee pension plans for their employees.
499.
According to the Pension Reform Act, should an employee quit, the employee is entitled to the amount of his/her contribution but to none of the employer's contribution until the employee reaches retirement age.
500.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding the Family Medical Leave Act of 1993? A. It allows employees who become parents to take a leave of absence from work but not employees who adopt a child. B. It allows employees to take a leave of absence to care for an ill spouse.
C. It requires employees to have worked for their current employer for 12 months before they are eligible for the leave of absence. D. It allows employees to take a leave of absence to care for an ill parent. Chapter 15 501.
All but one of the following statements is true with regard to work measurement. Which one is not true? A. Work measurement helps determine what comprises a fair day's work from the employees' and the employer's standpoint. B. Work measurement helps assess employee productivity. C. Work measurement provides the mechanism for determining work standards. D. Work measurement is appropriate for all office tasks.
502.
Work measurement aids in planning and scheduling work, as well as in determining the efficiency of work methods and procedures.
503. All but one of the following is an appropriate use of work measurement. Which one is not? A. Work measurement helps determine equitable workloads for employees. B. Work measurement helps determine equitable salary rates. C. Work measurement helps determine the cost of office operations. D. Work measurement helps determine the number of workers who will be needed to complete a given amount of work on time. 504.
All but one of the following are characteristics of measurable office activities. Which one is not a characteristic? A. The activities must be isolated. B The activities must be countable. C The activities must be justifiable. D. The activities must involve judgment and decision-making.
505.
Gaining employee support for a work measurement program is not especially critical to its success.
506.
Which of the following is generally the last step undertaken in installing a work measurement program? A. Follow up B. Train supervisors and managers C. Collect important data D. Instruct employees
507.
All but one of the following are criteria to consider when selecting an appropriate work measurement program. Which one is not an appropriate criterion? A. Intended use of standards B Degree of accuracy required C. Cost the organization is willing to assume D. Type of company in which the program is used
508.
Of the following, which work measurement technique is considered to be rather simple
and quick to use? A. Production records technique B. Time study technique C. Predetermined standard time data technique D. Micromotion study technique 509.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the production records technique of work measurement? A. The data to set the standards are purchased. B. The supervisors in the various work units gather the needed data. C. The employees keep a time log that records the amount of time taken to produce their output. D. The data are gathered over a period of not more than two days.
510.
To determine standards when using the production records technique, the total units produced are divided by the total time taken to produce the units.
511.
The production records technique of work measurement is greatly dependent on accurate time logs on which the standards are based.
512.
Which one of the following work measurement techniques is likely to produce the least accurate results? A. Production records B. Work sampling C. Time study D. Micromotion
513.
Which one of the following work measurement techniques utilizes random observations? A. Time study B. Micromotion C. Work sampling D. Predetermined standard time data
514.
The purpose of the random observations that are characteristic of the work sampling technique is to identify the types of activities performed by the employee at the time the observations are being made.
515.
All but one of the following factors is an important consideration in selecting the proper number of observations to make when using the work sampling technique. Which one is not appropriate? A. The degree of tolerance required B. The reliability of results required C. The frequency of results required D. The portion of time that the smallest activity in the work process consumes
516.
Generally, procedures consisting of numerous minute activities are not well-suited for using the work sampling technique to measure.
517.
The work measurement technique that utilizes a sheet on which the analyst records the amount of time consumed by each element of the work process is A. Predetermined standard time data.
B. Time study. C. Micromotion. D. Work sampling. 518.
When the time study technique of work measurement is used, either continuous or lapsed timing may be used.
519.
One of the disadvantages of the time study technique of work measurement is that it is not useful for measuring elements of a work process that are time consuming.
520.
The work measurement technique that involves making a visual recording of the work processes being studied is the A. Microchrometer technique. B. Predetermined standard time data technique. C. Time study technique. D. Micromotion technique.
521.
Micromotion study is especially appropriate for studying the work processes involving both people and machines.
522.
The dynochrometer is a special timing device that is used when elements of the work process are extremely minute.
523.
The micromotion study technique is best to use with low volume, inexpensive work processes.
524.
When compared with the time study technique and the work sampling technique of work measurement, micromotion study is A. Less expensive to install. B. Less accurate as a work measurement technique. C. More expensive to install. D. Easier to use.
525.
Which of the following work measurement techniques typically uses information purchased from an external source? A. Micromotion study B. Predetermined standard time data C. Time study D. Production records
526.
Which of the following work measurement techniques most easily accommodates changes in work processes? A. Predetermined standard time data B. Micromotion data C. Time study D. Work sampling
527.
The technique that is used to adjust standards to accommodate average employees is called standards adjustment.
528.
It is possible to set standards at such a high level that they are virtually meaningless.
529.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding the setting of work standards? A. They should be set where they are acceptable to employees. B. They should not be set at such a low level that only the most efficient, productive employees can attain. C. They should be set at a level attainable by few employees. D. They should be set at a level that provides a sufficient incentive for the employee to perform well but also at a level where the average employee can be reasonably successful.
530.
Standards, which result from work measurement, are advantageous for a variety of reasons, including to communicate to employees the production levels that are expected of them.
531.
Quantity standards consist of two types of standards: subjective and engineered.
532.
Quality and descriptive standards are developed by work measurement.
533.
Descriptive standards are used for such purposes as determining the size and type of working areas or the appropriate desk size for various employees. Chapter 16
534.
All but one of the following have been identified as factors responsible for stagnation of U.S. productivity. Which one is not a valid factor? A. Declining work ethic B. Declining quality of raw materials used in production processes C. Increasing number of service workers D. Changing characteristics of work force
535.
All but one of the following have been identified as characteristics of successful productivity programs. Which one is not a valid characteristic? A. Use of latest technology in program B. Employee commitment to program C. Productivity goals D. Employee participation in program
536.
It is generally most desirable to assign the overall authority and responsibility for the coordination of a productivity program to two or three individuals.
537.
Although top management will usually outline broad objectives of the productivity improvement program, specific objectives will usually be outlined by the A. Productivity manager. B. Managers whose departments will be affected by the program. C. Task force. D. Executive committee.
538.
Managerial communication to employees about the productivity improvement program should be delayed until the program becomes operational.
539.
The results of the data collected during the preliminary measurement process are used effectively in making pre- and post-comparisons once the productivity improvement program begins operating.
540.
When selecting the areas for inclusion in the productivity improvement program, the amount of the financial resources the organization is able to allocate to the program should be considered.
541.
Which one of the following factors is not appropriate for use in prioritizing the areas/activities to include in a productivity improvement program? A. Cost-benefit ratio of each area/activity B. Amount of improvement in each area/activity that is anticipated C. Extent to which the area/activity encompasses the entire organization D. Attitude of each of the task force members about the areas/activities being considered
542.
As the number of alternatives that are available for improving office productivity increases, the amount of planning flexibility that is available decreases.
543.
Ultimately, the _________________ determines which of the various alternatives will be selected for inclusion in the productivity improvement program. A. Cost-benefit ratio B. Factor analysis C. Standard deviation D. Residual-benefit formula
544.
For some of the productivity improvement solutions that are selected, top management approval will be needed; for others, such approval will not be needed.
545.
Rarely should unit managers, supervisors, or employees be involved in the development of the productivity improvement program's implementation schedule.
546.
Which of the following is a false statement with regard to the measurement element of productivity improvement programs? A. Office tasks that involve the use of judgment are quite easily measured. B. Both quantitative and qualitative data are gathered during the measurement process. C. Tasks being measured should be uniform from one task performance to another. D. The measurement period should be sufficiently long to compensate for any abnormal fluctuations in the workload.
547.
Follow-up of the solutions implemented in a productivity improvement program is critical.
548.
Per unit cost is not an effective measurement technique in productivity improvement programs.
549.
Job rotation is considered to be an effective means for maximizing employee growth and development.
550.
Which of the following is a false statement with regard to job enrichment? A. It gives employees an opportunity to experience achievement, recognition, and job growth.
B. Employees will experience greater job motivation if the environment in which the job is performed is enriched than if the job content is enriched. C. Job enrichment is different from job enlargement. D. Job enrichment gives employees greater responsibility and control. 551.
Job enrichment is related to ___________________. A. Job enlargement B. Employee empowerment C. Employee assistance programs D. Job simplification
552.
Vertical load is similar to A. Job enrichment. B. Job enlargement. C. Job simplification. D. Job rotation.
553.
Job enlargement usually has a significant positive impact on employee productivity.
554.
Flextime enables employees to develop their work schedules in accordance with their individual preferences.
555.
With respect to the starting times used with flextime, A. All employees start at the same time. B. Employees may start any time during the work day that they choose. C. Employees may start and conclude work whenever they wish. D. Employees are expected to begin work within a certain time span.
556.
Flextime has a significant impact on absenteeism and tardiness of employees.
557.
Flextime is especially suited for organizations in which the output of one individual is another individual's input.
558.
Job sharing involves the filling of two part-time jobs by one employee.
559.
Job sharing in some organizations is combined with A. Flextime. B. Job enrichment. C. Telecommuting. D. Employee empowerment.
560.
Which of the following is a false statement with regard to the objective-setting process of management-by-objectives? A. The process should be a joint effort between the supervisor and the subordinates. B. The supervisor should set the objectives for the subordinates. C. If the subordinate is primarily responsible for determining objectives, the supervisor must review and approve the objectives. D. Both the supervisor and the subordinate must be in agreement with the objectives.
561.
MBO has a positive effect on the amount of interest that employees take in the performance of their jobs.
562.
MBO requires frequent (perhaps every 3-6 months) assessment of the progress the employee has made in attaining his/her stated objectives.
563.
MBO tends to work as well in organizations experiencing stability in its operations as those experiencing frequent change in its operations.
564.
The fairly high attrition rate of office employees enables an employer to use job security as a means of improving office productivity.
565.
Some employees are reluctant to increase their productivity because they believe it may threaten their job security.
566.
Which one of the following is a false statement about the use of employee participation in productivity improvement programs? A. Participation tends to reduce employee resistance to change. B. Participation increases employee cooperation. C. Many of the ideas contributed by employees have to be discarded because of their tendency to look out for their own best interests, which may be contrary to the best interests of the organization. D. Employees tend to be better informed about certain job aspects than are their supervisors.
567.
Ideally, management should feel bound by the ideas provided by employees in order to maximize the impact of the productivity improvement program.
568.
Quality circles are comprised of employees who are involuntarily assigned to various groups.
569.
The typical number of employees who participate in a quality circle is A. 4-6. B. 6-10. C. 8-12. D. 12-16.
570.
Which one of the following is a false statement about quality circles? A. Quality circles generally meet on company time. B. Quality circles are more effective when they are comprised of individuals whose duties are not closely related. C. The leader of a quality circle is generally the supervisor of a work unit. D. During quality circle meetings, the leader will function as a group member, not as a work-unit supervisor.
571.
Which one of the following is not one of the cited disadvantages of quality circles? A. Some circles tend to cause employees to get frustrated more quickly with their jobs, increasing the turnover rate. B. Some circles try to deal with problems outside the members’ areas of expertise. C. Some circles lack top management support. D. Some supervisors believe their authority is usurped by the quality circle process.
572.
The objective of quality of work life programs is aimed at helping employees improve the
efficiency with which they carry out their job tasks. 573.
Employee participation is one of the strategies used in some organizations to improve the employee quality of work life.
574.
Employee assistance programs are frequently designed to provide needy employees with financial assistance.
575.
Which one of the following is not one of the arrangements used by organizations to offer employee assistance programs? A. In-house B. Outsource C. Consortium D. Consultant
576.
E-mail is becoming a more common productivity improvement tool in many organizations.
577.
Employee burnout is generally brought on by A. Physical fatigue. B. Mental fatigue. C. Poor physical health. D. Stress.
578.
One of the characteristics seen among employees experiencing burnout is the tendency to push them beyond their limits.
579.
Which one of the following is a false statement about the use of incentive pay plans as a means of improving employee productivity? A. The monetary rewards should be delayed until they are large enough to make a significant impact. B. The rewards should be proportional to increases in productivity. C. Rewards should be distributed after predetermined levels of employee productivity have been attained. D. Rewards should be large enough to motivate improved performance.
580.
For the incentive plan to work well, the reward system must be understood by employees.
581.
Which one of the following is a helpful technique in reducing mental and emotional stress among employees? A. Job rotation B. Vertical loading C. Quality circles D. E-mail
582.
Team building enables a work group to identify, diagnose, and solve its own problems.
583.
The teambuilding consultant should prescribe solutions to the members of a work team.
584.
Functional teams are often known for their streamlined decision-making.
585.
Employees placed on project teams are often known for their work ethic, which is the strongest determinant in their selection for the team.
586.
The most time-consuming step in problem solving is generally A. Identifying the problem. B. Collecting information about the problem. C. Analyzing the information about the problem. D. Identifying solutions to the problem.
587.
An effective key to time management is accurately estimating how long the completion of various tasks will take.
588.
Using an alternative workweek system has been found to increase employee absenteeism and tardiness.
589.
Typically, TQM programs are organization wide.
590.
Which of the following are the two critical ingredients of TQM? A. Commitment and teamwork B. Teamwork and empowerment C. Empowerment and attitude D. Attitude and commitment Chapter 17
591.
Increasingly, in many organizations, integrated systems are referred to as A. Enterprise-wide systems. B. Operational systems. C. Administrative systems. D. Functional systems.
592.
Integrated systems are often comprised of several subsystems.
593.
Procedures are comprised of related methods.
594.
Whereas a system refers to the integrated procedures necessary to achieve a well-defined goal, methods consist of specific clerical or mechanical operations or activities.
595.
The use of integrated systems generally helps organizations achieve their objectives.
596.
In most cases, systems increase the operating flexibility of those procedures and processes that are systematized.
597.
All but one of the following are appropriate characteristics of systems. Which is not an appropriate characteristic? A. Systematic B. Complex C. Functional D. Adaptable
598.
Integrated systems should be responsive to the extent that they enable the organization to respond quickly to changing needs.
599.
The purpose of the processing element of integrated systems is to A. Prepare data for processing within the system. B. Transform input into desired output. C. Prepare usable reports for managers. D. Make recommendations to management.
600.
The increasing amount of technological integration used in designing operating systems and procedures is responsible for the evolution of what is known as ____________________. A. Systematic management B. Functional management C. Integrative management D. Knowledge management
601.
Increasingly, knowledge management will make use of a Web-based workflow.
602.
The size and type of the organization are two of the factors that should be considered when selecting the appropriate staffing alternatives for systems' utilization.
603.
One of the most significant advantages of using outside consultants for systems design is the objectivity with which consultants operate.
604.
Which of the following is true with regard to the use of a full-time systems staff? A. It continually works to improve the design of the system. B. The line managers and systems staff always work closely together. C. It is the least expensive alternative in terms of staffing. D. As the system develops, less need for a full-time staff exists.
605.
Bottlenecks in workflow, backtracking, and criss-crossing work flow are examples of factors that should not be used to determine the need for systems' utilization.
606.
One of the major objectives of analyzing the present process when modifying systems is that evidence may be available which indicates the need to combine, simplify, or eliminate steps in the work process.
607.
The systems and procedures tool that identifies the major activities performed by a given work unit, the amount of time the work unit as a whole spends on each activity, and the activities performed by each employee, as well as the amount of time each employee spends with the activities is the A. Workload chart. B. Office layout chart. C. Flow process chart. D. EDP block diagram.
608.
Which of the following systems and procedures tools readily identifies whether or not employees are performing too many duplicate activities? A. Flow process chart B. Horizontal flow process chart
C. Systems analysis chart D. Workload chart 609.
The workload chart identifies in ascending order of importance the activities performed by a given work unit.
610.
Which of the following systems and procedures tools is especially useful for identifying and categorizing each step in a work process as either a transportation, delay, storage, inspection, etc.? A. Workload chart B. EDP block diagram C. Flow process chart D. Horizontal flow process chart
611.
An operation, one of the symbols used on the flow process chart, is defined as the movement of an object from one location to another.
612.
On a flow process chart, operations that are classified as "do" steps and that can be eliminated automatically eliminate "get ready" and "put away" steps as well.
613.
Which one of the following types of charts is frequently used in conjunction with flow process charts? A. Horizontal flow process chart B. Workload chart C. Office layout chart D. EDP block diagram
614.
The right- and left-hand charts are used to identify hand movements in a particular work process.
615.
The right- and left-hand charts contain a section to summarize both the present and proposed work processes.
616.
The systems and procedures tool that is specifically designed to study the relationship between an individual's utilizing a piece of equipment and the equipment is the A. Right- and left-hand chart. B. EDP block diagram. C. Operator-machine process chart. D. Flow process chart.
617.
The operator-machine process chart is especially useful for studying high-volume, repetitive processes.
618.
The systems and procedures tool that is especially useful for illustrating what happens to each copy of a multiple-copy form set is the A. Flow process chart. B. Operator-machine process chart. C. EDP block diagram. D. Horizontal flow process chart.
619.
The systems and procedures tool that is especially useful for guiding a computer
programmer in developing a computer program is the A. EDP block diagram. B. Operator-machine process chart. C. Horizontal flow process chart. D. Right- and left-hand chart. 620.
The decision steps on an EDP block diagram involve a "yes," a "no," and a "maybe" decision. Chapter 18
621.
The first electronic commercial computer became operational in A. 1946. B. 1951. C. 1956. D. 1961.
622.
Vacuum tubes are a characteristic of which generation of computers? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
623.
Microscopic integrated circuitry and microprogramming are characteristics of which computer generation? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
624.
Artificial intelligence will allow computers to learn from their mistakes and to mimic human behavior.
625.
Which one of the following is not one of the characteristics of artificial intelligence? A. Robotics B. Behavior emulation C. Natural languages D. Expert systems
626.
The basis for expert systems is the knowledge of experts in the field for which the expert system is being developed.
627.
Which one of the following best identifies a characteristic of digital computers? A. They are used to process continuous numbers. B. They are used in scientific research. C. They are used primarily as a measuring device. D. They are used to count numbers.
628.
Analog computers are primarily used in nonscientific research.
629.
A server functions as a host computer in a computer network system.
630.
Magnetic tape cassettes are rarely used today as a backup medium for servers.
631.
A tablet PC permits input of data/information by means of a keyboard and ____________________. A. Voice B. Bubble memory C. Handwriting D. MICR
632.
A personal digital assistant is generally more functional than a palmtop computer.
633.
The device referred to as a communicator integrates PDA, cell phone, and scanning into one device.
634.
USB ports eliminate the need to install expansion cards in a computer to accommodate additional peripheral devices.
635.
Turnkey systems are _______________ A. Obsolete. B. Primarily used for data storage. C. Generally inappropriate for use as a business computer. D. Bundled.
636.
All but one of the following are components of the central processing unit of a computer. Which one is not a component? A. Arithmetic-logic unit B. Control unit C. Output unit D. Storage unit
637.
Electronic devices that are used for the input of data into a computer can never be used also for the storage of data.
638.
Buffering data means that data may be put into storage to compensate for the differences in the operating speeds of the computer.
639.
The data input device that is used primarily to process financial information in banks is A. Perforated paper tape. B. Punched cards. C. OCR. D. MICR.
640.
MICR is comprised of a total of 12 characters or symbols.
641.
Which of the following is a false statement regarding OCR? A. It is limited to the use of 30 letters and symbols. B. It is often used for scanning labels. C. Scanned data are often input into a database. D. OCR data are easily read by humans.
642.
Although claimed to reduce the amount of human effort involved in inputting data into an electronic system, rarely does optical character recognition result in the reduction of human effort.
643.
Perhaps the greatest use of mark-sense input is in the following: A. Processing of bank checks. B. Processing of tax records. C. Processing of purchasing order. D. Processing of objective (multiple choice and true-false exams/tests.
644.
Today, perhaps the most common use of magnetic tapes in computer operations is to provide a backup of data/information.
645.
One common use of the magnetic strip technology is on name or identification badges.
646.
Which of the following data input devices permits the random accessing of data? A. OCR B. Magnetic tape C. MICR D. Magnetic hard disks
647.
Storage density on magnetic hard disks has been averaging about 15-20 percent per year.
648.
Magnetic hard disks are always internal devices.
649.
Perhaps the most significant advantage of using floppy disks is the ease with which they are handled.
650.
Electronic input requires the use of A. A tablet PC. B. Internet Service Provider. C. Web browser. D. A network.
651.
The keyboard terminal is especially useful for the mass input of data into the computer.
652.
As a data input device, the console terminal is distinctly advantageous because it allows the computer operator to communicate directly with the computer.
653.
The data input device that utilizes a light pen to change data stored within the computer is the A. Magnetic cassette. B. Floppy disk. C. Monitor. D. Portable audio terminal.
654.
The data input device that is frequently used instead of cash registers in stores and businesses is the A. Voice communication device. B. Portable audio terminal.
C. Magnetic cassette. D. Point-of-sale terminal. 655.
The use of a touch-tone telephone is likely to increase as a common input device.
656.
Audio communication transforms touch-tone phones into data terminals.
657.
Compared with other types of input devices, the optical laser disk is more limited in the amount of information that can be stored on each disk.
658.
Which of the following identifies the mechanism that reads data on an optical laser disk? A Magnetic sensor B. Digital reader head C. Laser beam D. Read-write head
659.
The clicking of the left computer mouse button is used to input data into a computer.
660.
Which one of the following is especially useful as an input device for individuals working with engineering or architectural drawings? A. Optical disk B. Lightpen C. Touchscreen D. Voice input
661.
One of the most common applications of voice input is in word processing.
662.
The optical card, which is about the size of a credit card, can hold as much as ________________ of data. A. 100MB B. 75MB C. 50MB D. 25MB
663.
Smart cards are designed with an internal microprocessor.
664.
The USB pen drive should not be used for data backup because it has volatile memory.
665.
A type of temporary storage is A. ROM. B. RAM. C. EROM. D. PROM.
666.
RDRAM permits the storage of 12,000,000 characters on a chip smaller than a postage stamp.
667.
Binary code converts all letters, numbers, and symbols into combinations of 0s and 1s.
668.
Which one of the following numbers represents the number 34 in binary code? A. 100010
B. 010100 C. 111001 D. 101001 669.
The data or instructions held in RAM can be altered by the user.
670.
In addition to performing arithmetic functions on data, the arithmetic-logic unit is also capable of comparing the size of data.
671.
_____________________ are one of the components of the arithmetic-logic unit of the computer. A. Processors B. Accumulators C. Storage gates D. Hard drives
672.
The computer component that instructs input devices to read data into storage, to locate data held in secondary storage and transfer it to memory, and to instruct the arithmeticlogic unit to perform certain operations on data is the A. Control unit. B. Output unit. C. Processing unit. D. Arithmetic-logic unit.
673.
Non impact printers typically function much more rapidly than do impact printers.
674.
Basically, COM and C.O.L.D. are synonymous.
675.
Computer software refers to the electrical devices that comprise the computer.
676.
Examples of word-oriented programming languages are C and Java.
677.
A compiler translates the source program into an object program.
678.
Problem-oriented languages describe the nature of the problem.
679.
Visual languages use text-based instructions in developing computer programming functions.
680.
The computer program that uses English words to represent processing functions is A. COBOL. B. AUTOCODER. C. PL/1. D. SPS.
681.
Which one of the following computer sizes is most generally used in distributed data processing? A. Personal computers B. Small-business computers C. Large computers D. Minicomputers
682.
One of the advantages of distributed data processing is that data do not have to be first transferred to another location to be processed.
683.
____________________ involves a network of computers that operate together to solve a variety of business problems. A. Distributed data processing B. Utility computing C. Data warehousing D. Grid computing
684.
A (n) ____________________is a short-term increase in voltage that can sometimes result in the failure of computer equipment. A. Sag B. Surge C. Spike D. Oscillation
685.
Multipartite viruses affect both boot sectors and files on floppy disks.
686.
One of the most effective ways to avoid a computer virus is to avoid exchanging floppy disks among computers.
687.
Tracking software is used to monitor employees’ use of their computers to determine whether they have violated company policy regarding computer usage.
688.
A data ________________is a depository of data that is subsequently processed and analyzed to make the accumulation useful to a specific group of end users. A. File B. Warehouse C. Server D. Storehouse Chapter 19
689.
To a large extent, telecommunications enhances interconnectivity.
690.
Twisted-pair wiring can be used for voice communication but not for data communication.
691.
With twisted-pair wiring, one wire is called a “tip.” The other wire is called a A. Ring. B. Circuit. C. Node. D. Bip.
692.
Which of the following is typically used as the communication channel in local area networks? A. Twisted-pair wiring B. Coaxial cable
C. Microwaves D. Nodes 693.
Microwave telecommunications technology requires transmission towers located not more than 50 miles from one another.
694.
Microwave technology is considered as a _______________ type of system. A. Ground-to-air B. Base-to-base C. Point-to-point D. Send-to-receive
695.
Many of the earth-orbiting satellites used today are privately owned.
696.
Of the following communication channels, which one is a light-based system? A. Satellite B. Fiber optics C. Microwave D. Coaxial cable
697.
Wireless radio frequency technology is as secure as fiber optics technology.
698.
While digital signals are discrete pulses of electrical current, analog signals are transmitted as sounds.
699.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to analog signals? A. Digital signals are the same as analog signals. B. The absence of an analog signal is represented by binary digit of 1. C. Analog signals transmit as electrical pulses. D. Analog signals are continuously varying.
700.
Two or more local area networks are interconnected using a A. Bridge. B. Modem. C. Node. D. Emulator.
701.
Which one of the following is not an appropriate function of LANs? A. Sharing computer and peripheral devices B. Expediting communication C. Increasing the size of computer memory D. Sharing computer files
702.
The star network results in the centralization of data/information as well as software and certain hardware devices.
703.
The network that connects devices to a continuous network cable is a A. Star network. B. Wide area network. C. Bus network. D. Ring network.
704.
A host computer is required in a ring network.
705.
Data collision can be a problem with the bus network.
706.
A disadvantage of the bus network results from timing or scheduling the transmission of data/information through the channel.
707.
Wireless LANs facilitate the interconnection of devices up to 50 feet away from the transmitter.
708.
MANs tend to serve a larger geographical area than do LANs.
709.
WANs tend to be used to interconnect an organization’s headquarters with its various remotely located branches.
710.
Baud refers to the number of signal changes per second that a communication channel will allow.
711.
DSL technology increases the speed with which data move through copper lines.
712.
With the addition of a dial tone to digital cable, one can use the coaxial cable found in cable TV systems as a telephone line.
713.
Which one of the following is not one of the three types of ISD services that are or will be available? A. Basic rate ISDN B. Baud rate ISDN C. Primary rate ISDN D. Broadband ISDN
714.
In a full-duplexing arrangement, data are simultaneously sent and received through a communication channel.
715.
The word “modem” is the acronym for A. Modulator-emulator. B. Modulation-emulation. C. Modulator-demodulator. D. Modulation-demodulator.
716.
A key system is an expensive alternative to PABX, PBX, and Centrex.
717.
Which of the following requires a switchboard for incoming and outgoing calls? A. PABX B. Centrex C. Telex D. PBX
718.
Which of the following requires a switchboard for incoming calls but not for outgoing calls? A. PBX
B. PABX C. Centrex D. Telex 719.
Which of the following telephone systems functions without the use of a switchboard for either incoming or outgoing calls? A. PBX B. PABX C. Telex D. Centrex
720.
Of the telephone platforms, PBX is the most private in that it is not possible for a person to listen in on another's phone call.
721.
Voice-over IP uses a computer and the Internet to support phone calls.
722.
With cellular phone technology, service areas, known as cells, have a radius of 10-15 miles.
723.
Which of the following technologies provides the capability of easily connecting a laptop computer to telecommunications? A. Wi-Fi B. LAN C. Wi-LAN D. WI-PC
724.
A communicator is a hybrid product resulting from the merger of PDAs and cell phones.
725.
An inbound 800 line results in a toll-free call for the person making a call.
726.
_______________________ determines whether an organization has a sufficient number of trunk lines to support the current level of usage. A. Level of support B. Phone provider service C. Grade of service D. Trunk line capacity
727. _______________________ allows one to access all messages (voice, e-mail, fax, and so forth) from one location. A. Integrated messaging service B. Communications assistant service C. Communications delivery service D. Unified messaging 728.
Teleconferencing and videoconferencing are commonly used as an alternative to traveling.
729.
PC conferencing facilitates simultaneous transmission of video and data, but not voice.
730.
Fax on demand enables an outside party to call an organization and then request information.
731.
Increasingly, organizations are restricting the use of their e-mail systems for business use only.
732.
Which one of the following is not one of the issues confronting organizations and employees and their use of e-mail? A. E-mail reliability. B. E-mail privacy. B. Personal use of the organization’s e-mail system. C. Size of e-mail messages that can be sent.
733.
One of the features of some voice-message systems used within organizations is the ability to “broadcast” the same message to multiple individuals.
734.
Telephone interconnect makes it possible to obtain long-distance phone service from a variety of vendors, not just one, as was the case prior to 1968.
735.
The device that permits the sharing of an on-screen workspace is A. The whiteboard. B. Fax broadcast. C. Videoconferencing. D. Interoffice messaging.
736.
A telewriter is used to transmit handwritten messages between two locations.
737.
The intrafax device is a type of facsimile.
738.
One of the goals of installing a telecommunications management system is to consolidate various aspects of the system.
739.
Purchasing reconditioned equipment is not one of the recommended alternatives for controlling communication costs.
740.
Which one of the following work arrangements is consistent with the goals of the Clean Air Act? A. Hoteling B. Telecommuting C. Teleconferencing D. Home commuting
741.
One of the often-cited disadvantages of telecommuting is that employees miss the human interaction available when working on the premises.
742.
The Internet backbone continues to be financially supported by the National Science Foundation.
743
The standards by which the Internet operates are called A. Benchmarks. B. Objectives. C. Protocols. D. Codes.
744.
Which one of the following is a means by which individuals can access the Internet from home? A. Dialtone. B. Dialsystem. C. Dialphone. D. Dial-up access.
745.
Much of the material available on the Web is in_______________ format. A. Hypertext B. HTML C. URL D. Visual Basic
746.
Which of the following is needed to access a Web site? A. TFL B. FTP C. HTM D. URL
747.
The protocol that permits the transfer of files through the Internet is called A. Telnet. B. FTP. C. Usenet. D. Listserv.
748.
Which of the following is basically an offline discussion group? A. Usenet B Listserv C. Telnet D. File transfer protocol
749.
Newsgroups require that their users subscribe to them.
750.
Listserv is considered to be an Internet mailing list.
751.
The Internet protocol that enables individuals to log onto a remote computer is A. Usenet. B. Listserv. C. Telnet. D. FTP. Chapter 20
752.
The first device commonly used to perform word processing functions was known as the MTST (magnetic tape selectric typewriter).
753.
Increasingly, applications software is becoming more integrated.
754.
Some applications software is not dependent on operating systems software.
755.
Which of the following is a true statement? A. Applications software is used by employees to perform a wide range of job tasks, but systems software is used to make computers operational. B. Applications software is primarily used by computer programmers to assist them in writing systems software. C. Applications software is no longer used, but systems software is. D. Systems software is no longer used, but applications software is.
756.
Which of the following is a false statement regarding operating systems software? A. Operating systems software does not control file management as that is a function of the applications software. B. Operating systems software controls the computer’s hardware. C. Operating systems software allocates RAM. D. Operating systems software manages the input and output of instructions.
757.
Vertical applications software is more commonly used in a wide variety of organizations than is horizontal software.
758.
Which of the following is a false statement regarding shareware software programs? A. One is generally able to use the software on a free trial period. B. The vast majority of shareware programs are downloaded from the Internet. C. Shareware is not copyrighted. D. Shareware typically does not have as many “bells and whistles” as commercial software does.
759.
Public domain software is not copyrighted and can be modified without the developer’s permission.
760.
When software is shared by multiple users, it is stored on a A. Personal computer. B. Server. C. Mainframe console. D. CD-ROM.
761.
On-demand computing is an economical alternative to the organization’s purchasing software.
762.
A site license gives a user site permission to load a software program on its server.
763.
Today, much of the software used in an organization A. Is leased. B. Is bundled as a suite. C. Is developed around the DOS operating system. D. Is not well designed for the uses made of it.
764.
Much of the software used in organizations uses OLE (object linking and editing).
765. Which of the following protocols is used to facilitate the creation of Web-based documents? A. URL
B. HTTP C. FTP D. HTML 766.
In the early days of word processing, material was input into the system by _____________________. A. Word processing originators B. Word processing secretaries C. Word processing technicians D. Word processing specialists
767.
In the early days of word processing, dictation was commonly used.
768.
The middle step in the word processing cycle involves revision.
769.
As material is keyboarded on a desktop computer using word processing, it is held in the computer’s random access memory until permanently saved to another medium.
770.
Today’s word processing software is capable of automatically generating a table of contents.
771.
With regard to the material created in word processing, a common means of disposition is as an attachment to an e-mail message.
772.
Which of the following is a useful function of spreadsheets? A. What if? B. So what? C. WYSIWYG D. Functional analysis
773.
A commonly used function of spreadsheets is the sorting of the contents of a spreadsheet.
774.
A spreadsheet cell and a cell address are synonymous terms.
775.
A useful function of spreadsheets is called A. Formula derivation. B. Formula abstraction. C. Formula replication. D. Formula specification.
776.
A database software program facilitates data entry but not retrieval.
777.
Formula replication functions by using cutting and pasting.
778.
Spreadsheet and database software programs perform identical functions.
779.
A logical database field accepts only “yes” or “no” responses.
780.
Databases eliminate the storage of redundant information.
781.
Which of the following is the most complex of the query processes in databases?
A. SQL B List view C. Sort view D. Browse view 782.
Increasingly, companies are allowing their customers to access certain of their databases.
783.
SQL facilitates the retrieval of a group of records but not individual’s records that possess the desired search criteria.
784.
___________________ are commonly used in preparing slides for presentations. A. Worksheets B. Design attributes C. Templates D. Storyboards
785.
A ______________ projector is commonly used when displaying slides created using a presentation program. A. LCD B. CED C. DEL D. DEC
786.
Nowadays, one can incorporate a video clip into a slide created using a presentation software program.
787.
Word processing and desktop publishing are synonymous terms.
788.
The output of desktop publishing is referred to as A. Final output. B. Final production. C. Printer-ready copy. D. Camera-ready copy.
789.
PDF refers to portable distance font.
790.
Scheduling software can be used to determine when individuals might be available to attend a meeting.
791.
Web-based scheduling capability will likely be available in the near future. Chapter 21
792.
Records management and filing are synonymous terms.
793.
Image processing involves the storage of records on a magnetic medium or on optical disks.
794.
With the development of new technology, an organization’s failure to store backup copies of vital records off premises is not much of a concern.
795.
Developing efficient methods of entering data on forms and determining the length of time that records should be kept are examples of activities involved in which of the following stages of the records cycle? A. Creation B. Storage C. Utilization D. Retrieval
796.
Developing efficient procedures through which documents will move is an example of activities involved in which of the following stages of the records cycle? A. Storage B. Creation C. Utilization D. Disposition
797.
The disposition stage of the records cycle may involve preserving valuable documents.
798
One objective of quality records management programs is to develop among employee an appreciate for the value of the organization’s records.
799.
The organization of the records management program is influenced by the type of control of the program and the location of the records storage.
800.
Centralized storage of the records management program means that A. Overall authority and responsibility for the program are vested in two or more persons. B. The records are stored in one location in the organization. C. The records are stored in several different locations throughout the organization. D. The overall authority and responsibility for the program are vested in one person.
801.
Decentralized storage of records results in the following advantages: confidential records are less vulnerable and requested records may be more quickly retrieved.
802. All but one of the following are alphabetic indexing methods. Which one is not one of the methods? A. Geographical B. Name C. Chronological D. Subject 803.
The chronological indexing system is an example of an alphabetic indexing system.
804.
Which one of the following methods makes extensive use of cross-referencing? A. Numerical B. Chronological C. Name D. Subject
805. The personnel needs in a records management program are greatly influenced by the size of the organization and
A. Type of program structure used. B. Philosophy of top management. C. Type of organization (service or manufacturing). D. Location of organization. 806.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding the Certified Records Manager (CRM) program? A. It requires passage of a five-part test. B. The program is sponsored by the Association of Certified Records Managers. C. For a person wishing to be certified, it requires a recommendation from a CRM. D. It requires that CRMs be able to document 100 hours of continuing education over a five-year period.
807.
Retention schedules specify the length of time that records must be retained by the organization.
808.
The first step in the development of a retention schedule is to A. Classify the records. B. Determine the necessity for records. C. Conduct a records inventory. D. Assess the suitability of the storage equipment.
809.
The retention schedule specifies when records should be transferred from active status to inactive status and when the records should be destroyed.
810.
Statutes of limitation, the Guide to Records Retention Requirements, and some legislative acts all specify the length of time that certain records must be kept.
811.
All but one of the following are factors that should be considered in selecting storage equipment for records. Which one is not an appropriate factor to consider? A. The nature of the records being stored B. The frequency with which records are retrieved C. The type of organization (manufacturing, distribution, service, etc.) D. The layout of the organization
812.
A five-drawer file cabinet is an example of a vertical rotary file.
813.
Lateral filing equipment consumes less space than a comparably sized standard filing cabinet.
814.
Which of the following types of storage equipment provides document security to all records except the documents stored on either side of the one aisle that is accessible at any given time? A. Power filing equipment B. Vertical rotary file C. Mobile filing equipment D. Structural power file
815.
The purpose of computerized records retrieval is to maintain an inventory of all records checked out at any given time.
816.
Computerized records retention systems are generally powered by a desktop computer.
817.
Records disposition means that all records are destroyed.
818.
Which one of the following is not one of the means of records disposition? A. Digitizing B. Transferring C. Microrecording D. Archiving
819.
Under proper storage conditions, film-based records are predicted to last up to 500 years.
820.
One concern about the long-term storage of records on a medium other than paper is whether the necessary equipment to access and/or read the record will be available.
821.
Which of the following best describes the meaning of "transfer" as it relates to records management? A. Records are put into low-cost storage areas. B. Records are changed from active status to inactive status. C. Records are destroyed. D. Records are preserved in vaults.
822.
Which of the following factors is most suitable for determining when transfer of records should take place? A. The value of the record B. The age of the record C. The frequency of the use of the record D. The size of the record
823.
The major difference between the perpetual and periodic methods of records transfer is the frequency with which records are transferred.
824.
The perpetual method of records transfer requires a duplicate set of storage equipment.
825.
When a record is destroyed, a certificate of destruction should be prepared, which identifies the date on which the record was destroyed.
826.
The digitizing of records facilitates off-premises storage of a backup copy.
827.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the finding ratio? A. A suitable ratio is 97 percent or higher. B. The finding ratio is concerned with the ratio between the number of records used and those not used. C. A low finding ratio may mean that records are not transferred quickly enough. D. A low finding ratio may mean that individuals are using duplicate records rather than requesting records from the central storage area.
828.
All but one of the following are true statements with regard to the use ratio. Which one is not a true statement? A. A use ratio of 20 percent or higher is generally considered to be satisfactory. B. A use ratio of less than 20 percent is generally considered to be satisfactory.
C. The use ratio is found by dividing the number of records not used into the number of records used. D. The use ratio is a satisfactory means of assessing the effectiveness of the program. 829.
A suitable means of evaluating the effectiveness of a records management program is to compare the operating costs of the program with standard operating costs, specifically in terms of salaries, equipment, supplies, and space.
830.
Which of the following is a common component of document management systems? A. Classifications schemes B. Inventory system C. Data labels D. Bar codes
831.
In records management, imaging systems refers to scanned images, micrographics, and electronic images.
832.
Which of the following technologies allocates redundant on multiple hard drives for the purpose of backing up information? A. RAID B. COM C. C.O.L.D. D. RAM
833
Some organizations are now using a storage application service provider to provide the backup of their electronic records.
834.
Compound documents are those which are comprised of multiple pages.
835.
Micrographics provides a more dense storage process than does storage of records on CD-R or DVD.
836.
To determine the financial feasibility of installing a micrographics system, it will be necessary to determine at what point greater economy can be achieved by storing a document in micro-image format rather than in hard-copy format.
837.
Which of the following micro-image formats is widely used? A. Aperture cards B. Film strips C. Roll film D. Microfilm
838.
Which of the following is a true statement about CAR? A. It pertains to the storage of information in electronic format. B. It is used to facilitate networking processes. C. It refers to computerization of job applicant data. D. It refers to the use of computer devices to retrieve micro-images.
839.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding C.O.L.D.? A. It is an antiquated means of records storage/backup. B. It involves storage of computer processed data/information on a CD.
C. It has been replaced by COM, a newer technology. D. Records stored using this means are severely restricted in terms of their accessibility to multiple users. 840.
Rotary micrographics cameras automatically feed documents through the machine.
841.
Which of the following devices is used to update microfiche? A. Record processor B. Processor camera C. Planetary camera D. Rotary camera
842.
New technology makes it possible to digitize a micro-record so it can be transmitted to a user via e-mail.
843.
Which of the following is not an appropriate factor to consider in determining which records to micro-record? A. Length of time records are to be kept B. Physical characteristics of records C. Admissibility of record as court evidence D. Availability of equipment in which to store micro-images
844.
Image processing eliminates much of the information that in the past has been stored on paper.
845.
Image processing uses one format: digitized documents.
846.
Imaging systems generally result in slower access to desired information than does the use of paper-based documents.
Chapter 22 847.
One of the most important objectives of a forms control program is to guard against the development of unneeded forms.
848.
Which of the following best describes the purpose for which forms are cataloged? A. To eliminate forms B. To simplify forms C. To determine the nature, type, and purpose of the forms used in the organization D. To develop more effective forms
849.
Forms can be classified by number and by content.
850.
Classifying forms by their function enables those who are responsible for forms control and design to analyze the similarities and differences among the various forms.
851.
Even though the consolidation of two or more forms may be possible, doing so is unwise because of the impact of the consolidation on systems utilization.
852.
___________________ facilitates forms consolidation. A. Forms categorizing B. Forms analysis C. Forms design D. Forms scrutiny
853. All but one of the following are appropriate forms design guidelines. Which one is not an appropriate guideline? A. The common information that appears on two related forms should not be in the same location on the two forms. B. Information that is on one form should appear in the same order on the two forms. C. Forms should be numbered sequentially if control is important. D. The design of the form should be simplistic. 854.
All but one of the following are types of continuous forms. Which one is not a type of continuous form? A. Fan-fold B Roll C. Unit-set D. Removable side strip
855.
Continuous forms are perforated.
856.
Which one of the following is a false statement regarding continuous forms? A. Fanfold forms are multicopy forms. B. Removable side strip forms can be single or multicopy forms. C. Roll forms are single forms. D. Continuous forms are always multicopy forms.
857.
Unit-set forms are always single-copy forms.
858.
The type of form that facilitates the easy separation of the various copies from one another because of a perforated paper strip at the top of the form is the A. Unit-set form. B. Continuous form. C. OCR form. D. MICR form.
859.
Carbonless forms cost considerably less to produce than do other types of forms.
860.
Which one of the following types of forms requires the use of paper with a special coating? A. Carbonless B. OCR C. Unit set D. Fanfold
861.
Carbonless forms are distinctly advantageous for the following reasons: they make easy the detection of erasures on forms, and disposal of carbons is not a concern.
862.
Whereas MICR forms are primarily restricted to use in banking, OCR forms are used for
a variety of purposes. 863.
Which one of the following is a correct statement with regard to mark-sense forms? A. Information is entered on the forms by means of a magnetic typewriter ribbon. B. They are best used for numerical data as opposed to alphabetic data. C. Mark-sense forms do not require close alignment when being processed. D. Mark-sense forms can accommodate handwritten numbers and letters.
864.
A form containing a bar code is classified as a MICR form.
865.
Electronic forms are growing at a faster rate nowadays than are paper based forms.
866.
The two types of electronic forms used today are A. Web based and OCR. B. Software based and Web based. C. OCR and software based. D. Web-based and MICR.
867.
Electronic forms are generally not as efficient as their paper-based counterparts from the standpoint of information retrieval.
868.
Less care has to be exercised in the design of a form that is part of a functional operating system of an organization than in designing a form that is not part of an operating system.
869.
In terms of forms design, what relationship exists between the statute of limitations and forms design? A. The type of information to be recorded on the form B. The type of paper on which the form is printed C. The equipment on which the form is processed D. The size of the form
870.
Preprinting information on a form has been found to have a positive impact on the completeness with which data are entered on the form.
871.
All but one of the following is sufficient justification to prenumbering forms. Which one is not a sufficient justification? A. It saves employee time and effort. B. Greater control can be exercised over the form. C. It makes the form appear to be more official. D. It facilitates the ease with which forms are rearranged.
872.
Instructions on a form should be placed as closely as possible to the items to which they pertain.
873.
The identification number found on forms is generally located in the A. Lower right corner. B. Lower left corner. C. Upper left corner. D. Upper right corner.
874.
All but one of the following are important factors to consider when selecting an
appropriate type of carbon for use in making carbon copies. Which is not an important consideration? A. The frequency of use of the form B. The number of copies that must be made C. The confidentiality of the form D. The size of the form 875.
The method of entering data on a form has an impact on both the vertical and horizontal spacing on the form.
876.
When handwriting is the primary data entry method on a form, the information should be placed in a box on the form rather than on a line, such as is the case when the primary data entry method is by typewriter.
877.
Which of the following factors is most affected by the weight of paper on which a form is printed? A. The durability of the form B. The size of the form C. The color of the form D. The means of making one carbon copy
878.
The grade of paper is determined by the direction of the fibers used in the production of the paper.
879.
As the cloth content of paper increases and as the sulphite content decreases, the quality of paper increases.
880.
The grain of paper can affect how paper automatically feeds through printing equipment.
881.
The major purpose for using different colors of paper in designing multiple copy form sets is to increase the aesthetic value of the form set.
882.
In some instances, the size of type used in printing forms is controlled by state law.
883.
One of the more important functions provided by professional forms services is the inventory control of forms. Chapter 23
884.
All but one of the following should be considered when determining the need for a reprographics center. Which one is not appropriate to consider? A. The number of copies needed of each document B. The nature of specialized production jobs C. The desired quality of copying or printing processes D. The nature of the organization for which a reprographics center is being considered
885.
With increasing frequency, reprographics centers are under centralized control.
886.
Satellite reprographics centers are being installed as a replacement for centrally located reprographics centers.
887.
Flow of work should not be considered in determining the layout of the reprographics center, but rather the nature of the production jobs should be considered.
888.
A primary factor that is used to determine whether a copying or printing process should be used to make copies is the number of copies that have to be made.
889.
Rarely is the layout of the reprographics center of much concern.
890.
Which one of the following involving the reprographics center is not an area of concern when preparing operational policies A. Person requesting work to be completed in reprographics center B. How confidential materials are handled C. How high-priority items are handled D. How appropriate copying/printing method is determined
891.
Maintaining equipment in the reprographics center is an effective means of helping control the costs of the operation.
892.
The frequency with which production standards are attained in the reprographics center should not be used to assess the efficiency of the center.
893.
Which of the following is a true statement with regard to the diffusion transfer copying process? A. It is a wet-copy process. B. It uses plain paper. C. It produces copies in a very short period of time. D. It does not require any special developing chemicals that some of the other copying processes do.
894.
Diffusion transfer requires the use of a special type of light.
895.
The stabilization process does not require sensitized paper in the copying process.
896.
Whereas stabilization copying processes are especially suited for copying photographs, diazo processes are suited for making copies of architectural and engineering drawings.
897.
Stabilization requires the use of developing chemicals.
898.
The diazo process is one of the least expensive copying processes presently used.
899.
The copying process that works on the principle that dark areas absorb heat while light areas do not absorb heat is A. Diazo. B. Thermography. C. Stabilization. D. Diffusion transfer.
900.
Thermography requires the use of infrared rays.
901.
The fiber optics copying process involves the use of plain paper.
902.
The copying process that utilizes the principle that unlike electrical charges attract each other but like charges repel each other is the A. Xerographic process. B. Stabilization process. C. Diffusion transfer process. D. Diazo process.
903.
The xerographic process prepares copies more slowly than does the diazo process.
904.
High-volume copiers are capable of making __________ copies per month. A. 10,000 - 20,000 B. 20,000 - 50,000 C. 50,000 - 100,000 D. 100,000 - 150,000
905.
Which of the following printing processes is most restrictive in terms of the number of copies that can be made from one master? A Xerographic process B. Spirit process C. Mimeograph process D. Offset process
906.
Analog copying equipment generally produces higher-quality copies than does digital equipment.
907.
One distinct advantage of the spirit duplication process is that several different colors can be printed during one pass through the duplicator.
908.
The printing process that works on the principle that grease and water do not mix is the A. Thermography process. B. Offset process. C. Spirit process. D. Stencil duplication process.
909.
Today, many organizations are using laser printers to prepare multiple copies of a document rather than the photocopy process because doing so is less expensive.
910.
In comparison to stencil and spirit duplication, the quality of offset duplication is considerably lower.
911.
An example of a machine that uses the imprinting process is a signature machine.
912.
Desktop publishing is an example of a type of photocomposition.
913.
The advent of the Web has resulted in a reduction in the number of paper copies of documents many organizations print and/or copy.
914.
The pneumatic tube system is rapidly becoming a common type of document delivery process in many organizations.
915.
All but one of the following factors determine the personnel, layout, and equipment requirements of the mailroom. Identify that factor. A. The correspondence volume of the operation B. The location of the mailroom C. The speed with which mail must be processed D. The nature of the outgoing mail
916.
Express mail and certified mail are common types of accountable mail with which organizations must be concerned.
917.
A common task of the senior mail clerk is to open and route mail to the appropriate departments or individuals when the mail has not been so addressed.
918.
When organizations have an outside company run their mailroom, their mail function is considered to be A. Handled by a third party. B. Delegated. C. Processed. D. Outsourced.
919.
The functions performed by the mailroom should not be used to determine the layout of the mailroom.
920.
Modular furniture in the mailroom provides it with greater flexibility.
921.
The flow of work through a mailroom should be considered in planning the layout of the mailroom.
922. Electronic postage is officially known as the Information Based Indicia Program. 923. _______________________ is a service provided by the U.S. Postal Service. A. Endicia B. PC Postage C. Indicia D. Electronic Postage 924.
An effective way to conserve postage costs is the use of ZIP + 4.
925.
Regular maintenance of mailing lists is generally found not to be an effective means of conserving mailing costs because the cost of maintaining the list generally exceeds mailing costs.
926.
Courier services are an alternative to mail delivery by the U.S. Postal Service. Chapter 24
927.
The absence of control often results in reduced managerial effectiveness.
928.
Organizations that sell their products in countries that belong to the European
Community are expected to have ISO 9000 Certification. 929.
Control becomes important when the results of certain activities fail to meet minimum expectations.
930.
Control aids in meeting schedule deadlines.
931.
In a sequential pattern, which of the following is the first step in developing a control program? A. Development of assessment device B. Application of corrective measures C. Identification of anticipated results D. The factors of control
932.
Without clearly identifying anticipated results, those responsible for the control process have nothing against which to make a comparison of the actual results and the anticipated results.
933.
The anticipated results that are identified in the control process should not be communicated to employees because they tend to work only hard enough to achieve the anticipated results.
934.
Performance standards are often used as an assessment device in designing control programs.
935.
Generally, the quality control measurement process is the same in organizations that use TQM as in organizations that do not use TQM.
936.
In organizations that use TQM and that need to take corrective action in their quality control process will generally depend on management rather than employees to alleviate the problem.
937.
The quality control technique that involves examining every unit of work produced by each employee is A. Zero defects. B. Spot checking. C. Total inspection. D. Statistical quality control.
938.
Which of the following is an example of office work that is generally subjected to total inspection as a means of assuring its quality? A. Filing documents B. Proofreading letters C. Making appointments D. Preparing rough drafts of documents
939.
Generally, total inspection is a desirable quality control technique for all types of office work.
940.
The quality control technique that involves a periodic examination of employees' work to determine the level of accuracy is
A. Total inspection. B. Zero defects. C. Spot checking. D. Statistical quality control. 941.
The quality control technique that involves the use of sampling and normal distribution is A. Statistical quality control. B. Zero defects. C. Total inspection. D. Spot checking.
942.
Normal distribution, an important aspect of quality control, is based on the principle that randomly observed occurrences of a sufficient quantity tend to be distributed around the mean or average of all occurrences.
943.
If the control limits in statistical quality control are set at two standard deviations above and below the mean, A. The cause of the errors that exceed the number allowable for the control limits is due to chance. B. The cause of errors that exceed the number allowable for the control limits can be attributed to some factor other than chance. C. Employee fatigue is the reason for errors exceeding the control limits. D. All errors fall within the control limits.
944.
The minimum acceptable accuracy level is a determinant of the sample size when using the statistical quality control technique.
945.
__________________ is(are) used to determine what errors are attributable to chance and what errors are attributable to some identifiable cause when using statistical quality control. A. Standard deviation B. Percentage of errors ratio C. Control limits D. Factor ratio
946.
The quality control technique that is based on the premise that errors can be prevented because employees do their work correctly the first time is A. Zero defects. B. Total inspection. C. Spot checking. D. Statistical quality control.
947.
When zero defects is used as a quality control technique, employees are rewarded on the basis of their error-free work.
948.
When using zero effects, the errors attributable to management are of no concern because the process is relevant only to employees.
949.
Which one of the following is not one of the critical ingredients of the TQM concept? A. Customer satisfaction B. Employer performance appraisal
C. Accurate statistical measurement D. New employee relations 950.
Accurate statistical measurement is an important component of TQM programs.
951.
Which one of the following do TQM programs use extensively? A. Punitive reward systems B. Pay reduction when employees perform below expectation C. Democratic management practices D. Employee empowerment to give employees greater control over their work.
952.
Six Sigma programs allow no more than _______ defects per million units. A. 3.4 B. 15.3 C. 25.8 D. 45.2
953.
Although employee “buy-in” is desirable in Six Sigma programs, it is not crucial to the success of the program.
954.
A floating work unit is one means of controlling the fluctuations in the amount of work that has to be done in a given work unit.
955.
Maintenance projects are used in quantity control processes.
956.
The control device which ensures that a given amount of work is completed in a given amount of time and that provides a mechanism for determining whether or not the work is completed according to the time allocation is the A. Floating work unit. B. Short-interval scheduling. C. Zero defects. D. Work allocation program.
957.
A basic assumption of short-interval scheduling is that short-range goals are more likely to be attained than are long-range goals.
958.
A schedule log is one of the easier-to-use quantity control devices.
959.
The work scheduling device which requires that the manager or supervisor work backwards from the completion date of the project is the A. Schedule log. B. Work chart. C. Gantt Chart. D. Work schedule calendar.
960.
The Gantt Chart identifies jobs or projects that are to be completed on any given day.
961.
The work scheduling device that uses critical paths consisting of components that must be completed before the project is completed is the A. Short-interval scheduling. B. PERT.
C. Gantt Chart. D. Work chart. Chapter 25 962.
Budgeting assists management in maintaining a program of cost effectiveness with regard to the organization's operations.
963.
When the length of the budget period is determined, the length of time should be sufficiently long to compensate for any seasonal fluctuations.
964.
Employee participation in the planning processes prior to the preparation of the budget is A. Not recommended. B. Required by law. C. Very advantageous. D. Generally not worthwhile.
965.
The typical purpose of a budget committee is to A. Prepare the budget. B. Provide input into the development of the budget. C. Consolidate department budgets to develop a master budget. D. See that budgets are adhered to.
966.
Before a reasonably accurate office budget can be prepared, an estimation will have to be made of the cost of producing each type of unit output and the number of units of output that will likely have to be produced.
967.
The type of costs that remain constant no matter how many units are produced are A. Semivariable costs. B. Level costs. C. Fixed costs. D. Variable costs.
968.
Rent and insurance costs are examples of variable costs.
969.
Whereas semi-variable costs increase as production increases, but not in direct proportion, variable costs vary according to the output levels.
970.
The budget should, but does not have to, provide for unforeseen circumstances.
971.
The budget revision method that involves revising the budget at predetermined times for the remainder of the fiscal year is A. Progressive review. B. Periodic review. C. Perpetual review. D. Moving review.
972.
The progressive review technique of budget revision uses variable-length time spans, depending on the time of year that the revising is being done.
973.
Zero-based budgeting requires that all programs and expenditures be re-evaluated each budget period.
974.
Zero-based budgeting uses decision packages that provide management with a mechanism for evaluating and comparing various organizational operations.
975.
While budgetary control takes place once a year, budget preparation is an on-going process that takes place continually.
976.
All but one of the following are true statements with regard to suggested guidelines for preparing budget reports. Which is not a true statement? A. Exception situations should be pointed out. B. A comparison base should be provided when presenting figures. C. Interpretation of information should not be provided. D. Reports should be standardized as much as possible.
977.
The difference between actual and projected costs, as presented in a budget, is known as A. Variance. B. Deviation. C. Subcode differential. D. Banding.
978.
Unit budget reports are often presented on a monthly basis.
979.
Cost control has an impact on the development of efficient operating procedures.
980.
Some office costs do not warrant implementing cost control procedures.
981.
The technique for use in controlling office costs that involves determining what percent of the total cost of an operation that is a salary or labor cost, a materials or supplies cost, or an overhead cost is A. Cost analysis breakdown. B. Cost breakdown technique. C. Standard costs breakdown. D. Cost classification technique.
982.
An example of a direct salary cost in the producing of a business letter is the janitors' salaries.
983.
Which of the following is a true statement about the benchmarking process used in budgeting? A. It has been found to work more effectively in large organizations than in small organizations. B. It results in an organization’s using a “best practices” process. C. It has been found to work more effectively in manufacturing-type organizations than in service-type organizations. D. It generally enables an organization to terminate a certain percentage of its employees.
984.
The technique for controlling office costs that involves determining the unit cost of various office operations is the
A. Standard cost technique. B. Cost breakdown technique. C. Cost analysis technique. D. Cost classification technique. 985.
The technique for controlling office costs that involves comparing costs of a current period's operations with the operational costs of a prior period is the A. Cost breakdown technique. B. Standard cost technique. C. Cost classification technique. D. Cost analysis study technique.
986.
Of all the techniques used for controlling office costs, the cost breakdown technique is the one most affected by inflation.
987.
In some instances, budget figures have to be adjusted to assure the use of comparable data.
988.
Purchasing/leasing equipment that uses interchangeable supplies is an effective way to control the cost of office supplies.
989.
Trading off equipment with higher-than-normal repair costs is recommended even if the equipment has not been used the normal length of time.
990.
One effective way to help control overhead costs is to make employees more conscious of their actions.
Test Question Answers and Page Number References Ch. 1
8. C-6
16. F-11
24. C-14
1. T-2
9. T-8
17. C-13
25. C-14
2. T-2
10. B-9
18. F-13
26. F-14
3. F-3
11. T-10
19. A-13
27. T-14
4. F-3
12. F-10
20. T-13
28. T-14
5. A-3
13. C-10
21. B-13
29. F-14
6. B-5
14. B-11
22. B-13
30. F-15
7. T-6
15. D-11
23. D-13
31. F-15
32. F-15
57. F-29
82. C-45
Chapter 4
33. T-15
58. T-31
83. A-45
108. F-61
34. A-16
59. T-31
84. T-45
109. F-62
35. T-16
60. A-31
85. F-46
110. F-64
Chapter 2
61. T-31
86. D-46
111. B-64
36. T-20
62. C-32
87. C-48
112. T-65
37. F-21
63. C-33
88. F-48
113. F-65
38. D-21
64. F-34
89. F-48
114. F-67
39. T-21
65. A-34
90. B-49
115. D-67
40. T-21
66. D-35
91. B-50
116. F-67
41. F-22
67. F-35
92. T-50
117. T-67
42. F-22
Chapter 3
93. T-50
118. C-67
43. T-22
68. B-39
94. F-50
119. A-68
44. A-23
69. D-39
95. T-51
120. T-69
45. T-24
70. T-40
96. T-52
121. F-69
46. B-25
71. F-40
97. D-52
122. F-70
47. C-25
72. T-40
98. F-52
123. F-70
48. B-25
73. A-40
99. T-53
124. T-73
49. T-25
74. T-40
100. T-54
125. T-73
50. F-25
75. T-40
101. B-54
126. B-74
51. B-25
76. F-42
102. F-55
127. A-74
52. F-25
77. T-42
103. T-57
128. T-75
53. B-25
78. A-43
104. F-57
129. T-75
54. A-26
79. D-43
105. C-57
130. D-75
55. F-26
80. T-43
106. C-57
131. T-75
56. T-29
81. A-43
107. C-58
132. T-76
133. B-78
158. B-96
183. C-112
208. B-130
134. T-80
159. T-96
184. F-112
209. T-132
Chapter 5
160. T-98
185. F-115
210. T-132
135. T-85
161. T-98
186. D-114
211. T-132
136. F-85
162. F-99
187. F-114
212. F-133
137. F-86
163. A-99
188. T-114
213. T-133
138. B-86
164. F-99
189. F-114
214. F-133
139. T-87
165. C-102
190. C-116
215. C-134
140. B-87
166. D-102
191. B-116
216. D-134
141. T-89
167. C-103
192. B-116
217. F-135
142. A-89
168. F-103
193. F-118
218. F-135
143. D-89
169. F-104
194. C-119
219. F-136
144. C-90
170. C-104
195. T-119
220. B-136
145. A-90
171. F-106
196. D-120
221. D-136
146. F-90
172. F-106
197. T-122
222. B-137
147. B-90
173. T-106
198. A-122
223. T-137
148. F-90
Chapter 6
199. T-123
224. F-137
149. A-91
174. A-110
200. T-124
225. F-137
150. F-91
175. T-110
201. F-124
226. A-138
151. B-91
176. F-110
202. D-124
227. F-139
152. T-91
177. T-110
203. A-125
228. T-139
153. F-92
178. A-111
204. T-125
229. F-139
154. F-92
179. T-111
205. D-126
230. F-139
155. T-94
180. F-112
Chapter 7
231. D-140
156. T-94
181. T-112
206. T-130
232. F-140
157. T-95
182. F-112
207. A-130
233. A-141
234. T-141
260. T-157
285. T-176
310. T-191
235. T-141
261. A-159
286. D-176
311. F-192
236. B-141
262. F-159
287. F-176
312. C-193
237. B-142
263. T-160
288. A-176
313. T-193
238. B-143
264. F-161
289. F-176
314. T-193
239. F-144
Chapter 8
290. B-177
315. T-193
240. F-145
265. F-165
291. A-177
316. F-195
241. F-148
266. A-165
292. D-178
317. A-195
242. F-148
267. F-165
293. T-179
318. T-195
243. B-147
268. D-168
294. T-179
319. C-196
244. T-147
269. F-169
295. T-180
320. B-196
245. A-148
270. F-169
296. C-181
321. T-196
246. T-147
271. F-169
297. F-182
322. C-196
247. C-147
272. B-169
298. F-182
323. T-197
248. F-148
273. C-170
Chapter 9
324. D-199
249. C-149
274. A-171
299. B-186
325. B-200
250. F-149
275. B-171
300. A-187
326. F-200
251. T-149
276. B-172
301. D-187
327. T-201
252. D-149
277. T-172
302. D-188
328. T-201
253. A-153
278. D-172
303. T-188
329. F-201
254. D-153
279. T-173
304. F-189
330. T-202
255. B-153
280. F-174
305. B-189
331. T-203
256. F-154
281. B-174
306. T-190
332. B-204
257. T-155
282. T-174
307. T-190
333. F-205
258. T-156
283. B-174
308. F-190
334. F-205
259. F-157
284. T-175
309. D-191
335. T-206
336. A-208
385. D-241
410. C-257
386. T-241
411. A-257
387. C-241
412. T-257
388. A-242
413. T-257
389. F-242
414. A-257
390. T-242
415. C-258
391. B-242
416. F-257
392. F-243
417. T-259
393. A-243
418. F-259
394. D-243
419. A-262
395. T-243
420. B-262
396. T-243
421. T-262
397. D-244
422. B-262
398. C-245
423. C-262
399. B-245
424. C-264
400. T-246
425. D-263
401. B-246
426. F-263
402. A-248
427. F-264
403. F-249
428. T-264
404. T-249
429. A-264
405. T-251
430. D-264
406. T-252
431. F-265
407. T-252
432. T-266
408. T-253
433. T-266
Chapter 12
434. F-265
409. B-257
435. C-267
361. T-224 337. T-209 362. D-224 338. T-209 363. B-224 339. C-209 364. F-224 340. F-210 365. B-225 Chapter 10 366. C-225 341. F-214 367. T-225 342. T-214 368. C-226 343. T-214 369. C-227 344. C-214 370. T-227 345. T-215 371. F-228 346. F-215 372. D-231 347. C-216 Chapter 11 348. B-217 373. B-235 349. T-218 374. T-236 350. T-218 375. T-236 351. A-219 376. C-236 352. T-219 377. F-237 353. C-217 378. F-237 354. F-217 379. T-237 355. F-220 380. B-239 356. D-220 381. F-239 357. C-221 382. T-239 358. C-222 383. A-240 359. T-220 384. F-241 360. A-222
436. T-267
461. C-280
486. C-295
511. T-323
437. F-269
462. F-282
487. C-299
512. A-323
438. F-269
463. B-282
488. A-301
513. C-324
439. A-271
464. T-282
489. D-301
514. T-324
440. T-271
465. C-283
490. A-302
515. C-324
441. F-271
466. F-285
491. T-303
516. T-325
Chapter 13
467. D-283
492. F-303
517. B-325
442. F-274
468. T-285
493. A-306
518. T-326
443. T-274
469. F-286
494. F-308
519. T-326
444. D-275
470. D-286
495. F-309
520. D-327
445. T-275
Chapter 14
496. B-310
521. T-327
446. A-275
471. T-290
497. T-311
522. F-327
447. B-275
472. T-291
498. F-311
523. F-327
448. B-275
473. A-291
499. F-311
524. C-327
449. D-276
474. T-291
500. A-311
525. B-328
450. A-277
475. F-292
Chapter 15
526. A-328
451. B-276
476. C-292
501. D-318
527. F-329
452. F-276
477. F-293
502. T-318
528. T-329
453. F-277
478. A-293
503. B-318
529. C-331
454. T-277
479. F-294
504. D-319
530. T-331
455. C-278
480. T-294
505. F-321
531. T-331
456. A-278
481. T-295
506. A-321
532. F-332
457. T-278
482. D-295
507. D-321
533. T-332
458. B-279
483. F-296
508. A-322
Chapter 16
459. T-279
484. C-297
509. C-322
534. B-336
460. F-280
485. B-296
510. T-322
535. A-337
536. F-336
562. T-347
588. F-355
613. C-372
537. C-339
563. F-348
589. T-355
614. T-372
538. F-338
564. T-349
590. B-356
615. T-372
539. T-340
565. T-349
Chapter 17
616. C-372
540. T-340
566. C-349
591. A-359
617. T-372
541. D-340
567. F-349
592. T-360
618. D-376
542. F-340
568. F-349
593. T-361
619. A-377
543. A-341
569. C-349
594. T-361
620. F-379
544. T-341
570. B-350
595. T-361
Chapter 18
545. F-341
571. A-350
596. F-362
621. B-383
546. A-342
572. F-350
597. B-362
622. A-384
547. T-341
573. T-351
598. T-362
623. D-384
548. F-342
574. F-351
599. B-362
624. T-385
549. T-344
575. D-351
600. D-364
625. B-385
550. B-345
576. T-351
601. T-364
626. T-385
551. B-344
577. D-351
602. T-365
627. D-386
552. A-345
578. T-352
603. T-365
628. F-386
553. F-344
579. A-352
604. A-365
629. T-386
554. T-345
580. T-352
605. F-366
630. F-387
555. D-345
581. A-352
606. T-366
631. C-388
556. T-346
582. T-353
607. A-367
632. T-388
557. F-346
583. F-353
608. D-367
633. F-388
558. F-347
584. T-354
609. F-368
634. T-389
559. C-347
585. F-354
610. C-369
635. D-389
560. B-347
586. C-355
611. F-369
636. C-390
561. T-348
587. T-355
612. T-369
637. F-391
638. T-391
664. F-401
689. T-418
715. C-428
639. D-391
665. B-401
690. F-419
716. T-429
640. F-393
666. T-402
691. A-419
717. D-429
641. A-393
667. T-402
692. B-419
718. B-429
642. F-393
668. A-402
693. F-419
719. D-429
643. D-393
669. T-402
694. C-420
720. F-429
644. T-394
670. T-403
695. T-420
721. T-429
645. T-394
671. B-403
696. B-420
722. F-430
646. D-394
672. A-404
697. F-421
723. A-430
647. F-394
673. T-405
698. T-421
724. T-430
648. F-395
674. F-406
699. D-421
725. F-431
649. T-395
675. F-406
700. A-422
726. C-431
650. D-395
676. T-407
701. C-422
727. D-433
651. F-395
677. T-408
702. T-423
728. T-433
652. T-395
678. F-408
703. D-425
729. F-434
653. C-396
679. F-408
704. F-425
730. T-435
654. D-397
680. A-408
705. T-425
731. T-436
655. T-398
681. A-409
706. T-425
732. A-436
656. T-398
682. T-409
707. F-425
733. T-436
657. F-395
683. D-411
708. T-426
734. T-439
658. C-398
684. B-411
709. T-426
735. A-434
659. T-399
685. T-412
710. T-426
736. T-440
660. B-399
686. T-413
711. T-427
737. T-440
661. T-399
687. T-413
712. T-427
738. T-441
662. A-400
688. B-413
713. B-428
739. F-441
663. T-401
Chapter 19
714. T-428
740. B-442
741. T-442
766. D-457
791. F-471
816. T-492
742. F-444
767. T-457
Chapter 21
817. F-493
792. F-475
818. D-494
743. C-444 744. D-445
768. T-458
793. T-475
819. T-493
745. A-445
769. T-458
794. F-476
820. T-493
746. D-446
770. T-459
795. A-476
821. B-494
747. B-446
771. T-459
796. C-476
822. C-494
748. A-446
772. A-461
797. T-477
823. T-494
749. T-447
773. T-461
798. T-477
824. F-494
750. T-447
774. F-462
799. T-478
825. T-495
751. C-448
775. C-463
800. B-478
826. T-494
Chapter 20
776. F-463
801. T-479
827. A-495
752. T-451
777. T-463
802. C-479
828. B-495
753. T-455
778. F-463
803. F-479
829. T-496
754. F-452
779. T-464
804. A-480
830. D-497
755. A-452
780. T-463
805. A-481
831. T-497
756. A-452
781. A-465
806. B-482
832. A-498
757. F-452
782. T-466
807. T-482
833. T-498
758. C-453
783. F-465
808. C-482
834. F-499
759. T-453
784. C-467
809. F-484
835. F-499
760. B-453
785. A-467
810. T-484
836. T-499
761. T-454
786. T-467
811. C-488
837. C-500
762. T-454
787. F-468
812. F-489
838. D-501
763. B-455
788. D-468
813. T-489
839. B-502
764. T-455
789. F-469
814. C-491
840. T-502
765. D-456
790. T-469
815. T-492
841. A-502
842. T-503
867. F-515
892. F-531
918. D-544
843. D-504
868. F-517
893. A-532
919. F-544
844. T-504
869. B-518
894. F-533
920. T-544
845. F-504
870. T-519
895. F-533
921. T-544
846. F-504
871. C-519
896. T-533
922. T-546
Chapter 22
872. T-519
897. T-533
923. B-546
847. T-508
873. B-519
898. T-534
924. T-546
848. C-508
874. D-519
899. T-534
925. F-548
849. F-509
875. T-520
900. T-534
926. T-548
850. T-509
876. F-520
901. T-537
Chapter 24
851. F-510
877. A-521
902. A-534
927. T-552
852. B-510
878. F-521
903. F-535
928. T-552
853. A-511
879. T-521
904. C-535
929. T-552
854. C-512
880. T-521
905. B-538
930. T-553
855. T-512
881. F-522
906. F-535
931. D-553
856. D-514
882. T-522
907. T-538
932. T-553
857. F-514
883. T-523
908. B-538
933. F-553
858. A-514
Chapter 23
909. T-536
934. T-554
859. F-514
884. D-528
910. F-538
935. F-554
860. A-514
885. T-528
911. T-539
936. F-554
861. T-514
886. F-529
912. T-540
937. C-556
862. T-515
887. F-530
913. T-541
938. B-556
863. B-515
888. T-529
914. F-541
939. F-556
864. F-515
889. F-529
915. B-544
940. C-556
865. T-515
890. A-530
916. T-542
941. A-556
866. B-515
891. T-531
917. T-543
942. T-556
943. B-557
956. B-561
968. F-573
981. B-579
944. T-556
957. T-561
969. T-573
982. F-579
945. C-558
958. T-564
970. F-574
983. B-579
946. A-558
959. B-564
971. B-575
984. A-580
947. T-558
960. T-565
972. F-575
985. D-580
948. F-558
961. B-565
973. T-576
986. F-580
949. B-558
Chapter 25
974. T-576
987. T-580
950. T-558
962. T-570
975. F-576
988. T-582
951. D-558
963. T-571
976. C-577
989. T-582
952. A-559
964. C-572
977. A-577
990. T-582
953. T-560
965. B-572
978. T-577
954. T-561
966. T-573
979. T-578
955. T-561
967. C-573
980. T-578