Anatomy & Physiology 4th Edition, Kenneth S Saladin Test Bank by Ace Test Banks

Anatomy & Physiology 4th Edition By Kenneth S. Saladin

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Chapter 1 1. Cells contain smaller structures called ___ that carry out their metabolic functions. ________________________________________

2. Many physiological processes are controlled by self-correcting ___ loops. ________________________________________

3. ___was the first to produce a microscope capable of viewing a single cell. ________________________________________

4. Our thumbs are said to be __ because we can cross our palms with them to touch our fingertips. ________________________________________

5. ___ is the body's tendency to maintain stable internal conditions. ________________________________________

6. All chemical change in the body is collectively called ___. ________________________________________

7. The study of structures that can be observed without magnification is called ___. ________________________________________

8. In a dynamic physiological equilibrium, conditions fluctuate slightly around an average value called the ___. ________________________________________

9. A ___ group of individuals is as much like the treatment group as possible in every way except for the treatment being tested. ________________________________________

10. ___ is a process in which a physiological change triggers further change in the same direction. ________________________________________

11. When something has been observed to happen repeatedly, and this is eventually expressed as a law of nature, scientists are using the inductive method of thinking. True False

12. Galen was not allowed to dissect cadavers to learn anatomy. True False

13. Aristotle did not believe that natural phenomena could have supernatural causes. True False

14. Prior to William Harvey, scientists generally believed that organs consume the blood supplied to them. True False

15. Robert Hooke was the first person to name cells but not the first to see them. True False

16. Vasodilation is one of the mechanisms for reducing heat loss from the body. True False

17. Darwin's Origin of Species theorized extensively about human evolution. True False

18. According to Darwin's The Descent of Man, humans evolved from monkeys or apes. True False

19. Positive feedback usually helps to restore normal function when one of the body's physiological variables gets out of balance. True False

20. The color vision of humans is thought to be a result of the diet of our primate ancestors. True False

21. Negative feedback prevents any changes from occurring in values such as body temperature and blood sugar level. True False

22. The primary reason for having a large sample size in scientific research is so the data from many individuals can be added together to give a higher total value. True False

23. A scientific theory contains more verified information than a law of nature does. True False

24. Anabolism occurs when complex molecules are made from simpler ones. True False

25. A tissue is a group of cells and cell products that perform a specific function. True False

26. The internal anatomy depicted in textbooks and atlases applies to only 70% of the population. True False

27. The internal environment is maintained in dynamic equilibrium, meaning that given variables fluctuate slightly around a set point. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

adaptation

Andreas Vesalius

assimilation

bipedalism

effector

endothermy

fact

hypothesis

law

metabolism

natural selection

nerve

opposable thumb

organ

organelles

organism

receptor

scientific method

selection pressure tissues

theory Walter Cannon

William Harvey

28. Which term means composed of two or more tissues, working to perform a specific function? ________________________________________

29. Which term can be described as the statement or set of statements that summarize our present understanding of a phenomenon? ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as the characteristic of most primates not seen in other mammals' prototype? ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the grade of structure between cells and organs? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as any force of nature that affects the evolution of the structural and functional characteristics of a species? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the sum of all internal chemical reactions? ________________________________________

34. Which term can be described as homeostasis? ________________________________________

35. Which term can be described as any structure specialized to detect a stimulus? ________________________________________

36. Which term refers to the careful observation, logical thinking, and honest analysis of one's observations and conclusions? ________________________________________

37. Feeling structures with your fingertips is called __________________, while tapping on the body and listening for sounds of abnormalities is called ___________________. A. palpation; percussion B. auscultation; percussion C. percussion; auscultation D. palpation; auscultation E. percussion; palpation

38. Studying tissue specimens that are thinly sliced, stained, and observed under a microscope is called A. gross anatomy. B. histopathology. C. histology. D. molecular biology. E. pathophysiology.

39. Study of the microscopic structure of tissues and organs is called A. gross anatomy. B. dissection. C. auscultation. D. cytology. E. histology.

40. When a physician listens to your heart sounds, he or she is using the technique of A. auscultation. B. osculation. C. palpation. D. percussion. E. repercussion.

41. Studying anatomy by touch, for example during a physical examination, is called A. auscultation. B. osculation. C. palpation. D. percussion. E. repercussion.

42. You have gained weight and feel very sluggish. You think it may be a hormonal problem. You should see a(n) A. neurophysiologist. B. pathophysiologist. C. orthopedist. D. endocrinologist. E. gastroenterologist.

43. Which of the following ideas is inconsistent with the naturalistic philosophy of Hippocrates? A. cell theory B. the demonic theory of disease C. the theory of homeostasis D. the hypothetico-deductive method E. reductionism

44. The inventor of the first practical compound microscope was A. Schwann. B. Schleiden. C. Leewenhoek. D. Hooke. E. Cannon.

45. The cell theory is thought to be one of the most important breakthroughs in biomedical history because all functions of the body are now interpreted as the effects of cellular activity. The two scientists who are credited for the cell theory are A. Watson and Crick. B. Leewenhoek and Hooke. C. Schwann and Schleiden. D. Zeiss and Abbe. E. Galen and Aristotle.

46. __ was the first to realize that blood must be cycled within the circulatory system. A. Versalius B. Aristotle C. Avicenna D. Hooke E. Harvey

47. The birth of cytology is attributed to the work of A. Galen. B. Aristotle. C. Bernard. D. Hooke. E. Hippocrates.

48. Schleiden and Schwann are best known as early contributors to A. comparative physiology. B. microscope design. C. cell theory. D. the theory of homeostasis. E. noninvasive medical imaging.

49. This Muslim scholar wrote the leading medical textbook, still in use until the 16th Century: A. Avicenna B. Hippocrates C. Harvey D. Versalius E. Leeuwenhoek

50. ____ revolutionized medical education in the sixteenth century by publishing the world's first accurate anatomical illustrations. A. Galen B. Schwann C. Paracelsus D. Harvey E. Versalius

51. The terms physics, physiology, and physician come from a term that ___ proposed to distinguish natural causes from supernatural causes. A. Aristotle B. Plato C. Paracelsus D. Hippocrates E. Avicenna

52. Throughout much of the Middle Ages, medical authorities relied over-dogmatically on the authority of the Roman physician ___, in spite of the fact that he told them to trust their own observations more than his books. A. Aristotle B. Plato C. Galen D. Hippocrates E. Avicenna

53. The earliest code of medical ethics is attributed to A. Avicenna. B. Galen. C. Plato. D. Aristotle. E. Hippocrates.

54. William Harvey is remembered as a pioneer in A. comparative physiology. B. cytology. C. gross anatomy. D. human genetics. E. biochemistry.

55. Andreas Versalius is remembered as a pioneer in A. comparative physiology. B. cytology. C. gross anatomy. D. pharmacology. E. biochemistry.

56. Robert Hooke is remembered as a pioneer in A. comparative physiology. B. cytology. C. gross anatomy. D. medicine. E. biochemistry.

57. The process of making numerous observations until one feels confident in drawing generalizations and predictions is called the A. experimental design. B. deductive method. C. inductive method. D. hypothesis. E. statistical analysis.

58. Most people think that ulcers are caused by psychological stress. It was discovered that an acid-resistant bacteria, Heliobacter pylori, lives in the lining of the stomach. If these bacteria cause ulcers, then treatment with an antibiotic should reduce ulcers. This line of investigation is called A. hypothetical reasoning. B. hypothetico-deductive reasoning. C. the inductive method. D. experimental design. E. statistical analysis.

59. Two groups of people were tested to determine whether garlic lowers blood cholesterol levels. One group was given 800 mg of garlic powder daily for four months and exhibited an average 12% reduction in the blood cholesterol. The other group was not given any garlic and after four months averaged a 3% reduction in cholesterol. The group that was not given the garlic was the A. control group. B. test group. C. placebo group. D. peer group. E. double-blind group.

60. A new wonder drug is being hyped that will increase your short-term memory. Students were divided randomly into two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group was given the "smart pill" once a day for the semester, and the other group was given the same-looking pill, but it was just sugar. The sugar pill is termed a(n) A. controlled pill. B. placebo. C. treatment pill. D. variable. E. effective dose.

61. A scientific method used to avoid psychological bias in medical research is A. peer review. B. inductive reasoning. C. the double-blind method. D. hypothesis testing. E. the hypothetico-deductive method.

62. Scientists consider a hypothesis to be valid and useful only if it is ___; that is, if we can conceive of evidence that would prove it wrong. A. factual B. scientific C. falsifiable D. discredited E. theoretical

63. ___ is a process that submits a scientist's ideas to the critical judgment of other specialists in the field before the research is funded or published. A. Peer review B. Statistical testing C. Falsification D. Adjudication E. Hypothetico-deductive testing

64. Studies on human subjects often must control for ___ effects, which are changes in a person's physiological state resulting from his or her expectations or mental state. A. feedback B. homeostatic C. placebo D. psychosomatic E. psychotic

65. You tossed a coin ten times and got five heads and five tails. You then tossed the coin ten more times and got ten heads and no tails. What is the probability that the next toss of the coin will come out a tail? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100%

66. A summary of conclusions drawn from a large body of observed facts is called a(n) A. scientific fact. B. hypothesis. C. law. D. theory. E. scientific rule.

67. Which of the following would contain the greatest amount of information that scientists consider to be true to the best of their knowledge? A. a fact B. a natural law C. a hypothesis D. an equation E. a theory

68. A change in the genetic composition of a population over time is called A. mutation. B. natural selection. C. selection pressure. D. evolution. E. adaptation.

69. Using a technique called DNA hybridization, the structure of human DNA most closely resembles the DNA of A. sloths. B. chimpanzees. C. gorillas. D. lemurs. E. orangutans.

70. The anatomy of the human pelvis differs significantly from other primates with changes in the femur, knee, great toe, foot arches, spinal column, and skull. These major adaptations allow for A. greater ability for balance. B. grasping by the lower limbs. C. bipedalism. D. arboreal locomotion. E. better hand coordination.

71. Modern humans are considered bipedal and are part of the _________________ genus. A. homo erectus B. homo habilis C. homo sapiens D. hominidae E. Australopithecus

72. The relatively helpless state of human newborns is traceable to A. their inability to thermoregulate. B. skeletal adaptations to bipedal locomotion. C. the arboreal habits of early primates. D. the conditions of modern civilization. E. the diet of early species of homo.

73. This primate trait is unusual among mammals: A. mammary glands B. four-chambered heart C. heterodonty D. notochord E. color vision

74. Most primates are ____, meaning they live in trees. A. prehensile B. bipedal C. cursorial D. troglodytic E. arboreal

75. The smallest unit of an organism that carries out all the basic functions of life is a(n) A. molecule. B. organelle. C. cell. D. tissue. E. organ.

76. A group of similar cells and cell products that forms a discrete region of an organ and performs a specific function is a(n) A. organ system. B. organ. C. tissue. D. cell. E. organism.

77. The theory that a large, complex system such as the human body can be understood by its simpler components is called A. lamarckianism. B. holism. C. reductionism. D. Darwinism.

78. To be most effective, a healthcare provider treats not just the specific problem but also the entire person. The idea that human beings are more than the sum of their parts is called A. constructivism. B. holism. C. reductionism. D. reactionary.

79. The belief that complex systems can be understood from knowledge of their parts is A. naturalism. B. reductionism. C. vitalism. D. holism. E. rationalism.

80. ___ is the view that not everything about an organism can be understood or predicted from a knowledge of its components; that is, the whole is greater than the sum of its parts. A. Naturalism B. Reductionism C. Holism D. Materialism E. Falsifiability

81. Taking apart a clock to see how it works is similar to ___ thinking about human physiology. A. comparative B. evolutionary C. holistic D. inductive E. reductionistic

82. All of the following are human organ systems except A. skeletal. B. endocrine. C. epidermal. D. reproductive. E. lymphatic.

83. Metabolism is the sum of A. inhalation and exhalation. B. growth and differentiation. C. anabolism and catabolism. D. ingestion and excretion. E. responsiveness and movement.

84. We live in an ever-changing environment outside of our body, yet our internal conditions or internal environment remain relatively stable. This is called A. homeostasis. B. metastasis. C. responsiveness. D. adaptiveness. E. evolution.

85. Which of the following is most similar to the negative feedback effect in human physiology? A. a car that runs out of gas and stops B. starting a bonfire with only a single match C. a toilet tank that refills itself after a flush D. a teacher marking all the wrong answers on a student's exam E. an automatic door that opens when you approach it

86. Which of the following is most similar to the positive feedback effect in human physiology? A. a car that runs out of gas and stops B. starting a bonfire with only a single match C. a toilet tank that refills itself after a flush D. a teacher marking all the wrong answers on a student's exam E. an automatic door that opens when you approach it

87. When you exercise you generate excess heat and your body temperature rises. Blood vessels dilate to the skin, warm blood flows closer to the body surface, and you lose heat. This process is called A. negative feedback. B. positive feedback. C. dynamic equilibrium. D. integration control. E. set point adjustment.

88. When a woman is giving birth, the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates release of the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract. Labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled. This is an example of A. negative feedback. B. positive feedback. C. dynamic equilibrium. D. integration control. E. set point adjustment.

89. Which of the following is most likely to cause disease? A. positive feedback B. negative feedback C. homeostasis D. equilibrium E. irritability

90. Which of the following correctly lists the levels of human structural complexity from the smallest to the largest structural units? A. organelles, organisms, organs, organ systems B. cells, organisms, organelles, organs, organ systems C. organelles, cells, organs, tissues, organism D. cells, organs, tissues, organisms, organ systems E. organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

91. The smallest structures that biologists consider being alive are A. organisms. B. organs. C. macromolecules. D. cells. E. organelles.

92. The presence of receptors and effectors is essential to which of the following characteristics of living organisms? A. assimilation B. metabolism C. responsiveness D. reproduction E. growth

93. An organ, by definition, is composed of two or more types of A. organelles. B. tissues. C. organ systems. D. organisms. E. cells.

94. Major features of human gross anatomy have standardized names prescribed by a book titled Terminologia Anatomica (TA), which has been approved by professional associations of anatomists in more than 50 countries. To establish uniformity, the TA has rejected all ____________________ and gave each structure a unique ___________________ name. A. eponyms; Greek B. Latin words; English C. eponyms; Latin D. Greek words; English E. Latin words, Greek

95. Hypercalcemia means A. elevated calcium levels in blood. B. lowered calcium levels in bone. C. elevated sodium levels in blood. D. elevated calcium levels in bone. E. lowered calcium levels in the blood.

96. The plural of axilla is _____________ while the plural of appendix is ______________. A. axillae; appendices B. axillides; appendages C. axillies; appendi D. axilli; appendices

97. Osteoblasts and osteocytes are A. cells in bone. B. cells in cartilage. C. fibers in muscle. D. layers in tissue. E. organelles in cells.

98. In this technique, the patient lies within a cylindrical chamber that creates a magnetic field 3,000 to 60,000 times as strong as the earth's. This technique is called a(n) A. CT scan. B. PET scan. C. MRI. D. X-ray. E. sonography.

01 Key

1. Cells contain smaller structures called ___ that carry out their metabolic functions. organelles

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #1

2. Many physiological processes are controlled by self-correcting ___ loops. negative feedback

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #2

3. ___was the first to produce a microscope capable of viewing a single cell. Leeuwenhoek

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #3

4. Our thumbs are said to be __ because we can cross our palms with them to touch our fingertips. opposable

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #4

5. ___ is the body's tendency to maintain stable internal conditions. Homeostasis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #5

6. All chemical change in the body is collectively called ___. metabolism

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #6

7. The study of structures that can be observed without magnification is called ___. gross anatomy

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #7

8. In a dynamic physiological equilibrium, conditions fluctuate slightly around an average value called the ___. set point

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #8

9. A ___ group of individuals is as much like the treatment group as possible in every way except for the treatment being tested. control

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #9

10. ___ is a process in which a physiological change triggers further change in the same direction. Positive feedback

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #10

11. When something has been observed to happen repeatedly, and this is eventually expressed as a law of nature, scientists are using the inductive method of thinking. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #11

12. Galen was not allowed to dissect cadavers to learn anatomy. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #12

13. Aristotle did not believe that natural phenomena could have supernatural causes. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #13

14. Prior to William Harvey, scientists generally believed that organs consume the blood supplied to them. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #14

15. Robert Hooke was the first person to name cells but not the first to see them. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #15

16. Vasodilation is one of the mechanisms for reducing heat loss from the body. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #16

17. Darwin's Origin of Species theorized extensively about human evolution. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #17

18. According to Darwin's The Descent of Man, humans evolved from monkeys or apes. FALSE

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #18

19. Positive feedback usually helps to restore normal function when one of the body's physiological variables gets out of balance. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #19

20. The color vision of humans is thought to be a result of the diet of our primate ancestors. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #20

21. Negative feedback prevents any changes from occurring in values such as body temperature and blood sugar level. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #21

22. The primary reason for having a large sample size in scientific research is so the data from many individuals can be added together to give a higher total value. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #22

23. A scientific theory contains more verified information than a law of nature does. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #23

24. Anabolism occurs when complex molecules are made from simpler ones. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #24

25. A tissue is a group of cells and cell products that perform a specific function. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #25

26. The internal anatomy depicted in textbooks and atlases applies to only 70% of the population. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #26

27. The internal environment is maintained in dynamic equilibrium, meaning that given variables fluctuate slightly around a set point. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #27

Match the following terms to the definitions.

adaptation

Andreas Vesalius

assimilation

bipedalism

effector

endothermy

fact

hypothesis

law

metabolism

natural selection

nerve

opposable thumb

organ

organelles

organism

receptor

scientific method

selection pressure tissues

theory Walter Cannon

William Harvey

Saladin - 001 Chapter...

28. Which term means composed of two or more tissues, working to perform a specific function? organ

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #28

29. Which term can be described as the statement or set of statements that summarize our present understanding of a phenomenon? theory

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #29

30. Which term can be described as the characteristic of most primates not seen in other mammals' prototype? opposable thumb

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #30

31. Which term can be described as the grade of structure between cells and organs? tissues

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #31

32. Which term can be described as any force of nature that affects the evolution of the structural and functional characteristics of a species? selection pressure

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #32

33. Which term can be described as the sum of all internal chemical reactions? metabolism

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #33

34. Which term can be described as homeostasis? Walter Cannon

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #34

35. Which term can be described as any structure specialized to detect a stimulus? receptor

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #35

36. Which term refers to the careful observation, logical thinking, and honest analysis of one's observations and conclusions? scientific method

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #36

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #37

38. Studying tissue specimens that are thinly sliced, stained, and observed under a microscope is called A. gross anatomy. B. histopathology. C. histology. D. molecular biology. E. pathophysiology.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #38

39. Study of the microscopic structure of tissues and organs is called A. gross anatomy. B. dissection. C. auscultation. D. cytology. E. histology.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #39

40. When a physician listens to your heart sounds, he or she is using the technique of A. auscultation. B. osculation. C. palpation. D. percussion. E. repercussion.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #40

41. Studying anatomy by touch, for example during a physical examination, is called A. auscultation. B. osculation. C. palpation. D. percussion. E. repercussion.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #41

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #42

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #43

44. The inventor of the first practical compound microscope was A. Schwann. B. Schleiden. C. Leewenhoek. D. Hooke. E. Cannon.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #44

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #45

46. __ was the first to realize that blood must be cycled within the circulatory system. A. Versalius B. Aristotle C. Avicenna D. Hooke E. Harvey

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #46

47. The birth of cytology is attributed to the work of A. Galen. B. Aristotle. C. Bernard. D. Hooke. E. Hippocrates.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #47

48. Schleiden and Schwann are best known as early contributors to A. comparative physiology. B. microscope design. C. cell theory. D. the theory of homeostasis. E. noninvasive medical imaging.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #48

49. This Muslim scholar wrote the leading medical textbook, still in use until the 16th Century: A. Avicenna B. Hippocrates C. Harvey D. Versalius E. Leeuwenhoek

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #49

50. ____ revolutionized medical education in the sixteenth century by publishing the world's first accurate anatomical illustrations. A. Galen B. Schwann C. Paracelsus D. Harvey E. Versalius

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #50

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #52

53. The earliest code of medical ethics is attributed to A. Avicenna. B. Galen. C. Plato. D. Aristotle. E. Hippocrates.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #53

54. William Harvey is remembered as a pioneer in A. comparative physiology. B. cytology. C. gross anatomy. D. human genetics. E. biochemistry.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #54

55. Andreas Versalius is remembered as a pioneer in A. comparative physiology. B. cytology. C. gross anatomy. D. pharmacology. E. biochemistry.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #55

56. Robert Hooke is remembered as a pioneer in A. comparative physiology. B. cytology. C. gross anatomy. D. medicine. E. biochemistry.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #56

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #57

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #58

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #61

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #62

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #63

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #64

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #65

66. A summary of conclusions drawn from a large body of observed facts is called a(n) A. scientific fact. B. hypothesis. C. law. D. theory. E. scientific rule.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #67

68. A change in the genetic composition of a population over time is called A. mutation. B. natural selection. C. selection pressure. D. evolution. E. adaptation.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #68

69. Using a technique called DNA hybridization, the structure of human DNA most closely resembles the DNA of A. sloths. B. chimpanzees. C. gorillas. D. lemurs. E. orangutans.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #70

71. Modern humans are considered bipedal and are part of the _________________ genus. A. homo erectus B. homo habilis C. homo sapiens D. hominidae E. Australopithecus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #71

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #72

73. This primate trait is unusual among mammals: A. mammary glands B. four-chambered heart C. heterodonty D. notochord E. color vision

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #73

74. Most primates are ____, meaning they live in trees. A. prehensile B. bipedal C. cursorial D. troglodytic E. arboreal

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #74

75. The smallest unit of an organism that carries out all the basic functions of life is a(n) A. molecule. B. organelle. C. cell. D. tissue. E. organ.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #75

76. A group of similar cells and cell products that forms a discrete region of an organ and performs a specific function is a(n) A. organ system. B. organ. C. tissue. D. cell. E. organism.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #76

77. The theory that a large, complex system such as the human body can be understood by its simpler components is called A. lamarckianism. B. holism. C. reductionism. D. Darwinism.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #78

79. The belief that complex systems can be understood from knowledge of their parts is A. naturalism. B. reductionism. C. vitalism. D. holism. E. rationalism.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #79

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #80

81. Taking apart a clock to see how it works is similar to ___ thinking about human physiology. A. comparative B. evolutionary C. holistic D. inductive E. reductionistic

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #81

82. All of the following are human organ systems except A. skeletal. B. endocrine. C. epidermal. D. reproductive. E. lymphatic.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #82

83. Metabolism is the sum of A. inhalation and exhalation. B. growth and differentiation. C. anabolism and catabolism. D. ingestion and excretion. E. responsiveness and movement.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #87

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #88

89. Which of the following is most likely to cause disease? A. positive feedback B. negative feedback C. homeostasis D. equilibrium E. irritability

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #90

91. The smallest structures that biologists consider being alive are A. organisms. B. organs. C. macromolecules. D. cells. E. organelles.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #91

92. The presence of receptors and effectors is essential to which of the following characteristics of living organisms? A. assimilation B. metabolism C. responsiveness D. reproduction E. growth

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #92

93. An organ, by definition, is composed of two or more types of A. organelles. B. tissues. C. organ systems. D. organisms. E. cells.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #95

96. The plural of axilla is _____________ while the plural of appendix is ______________. A. axillae; appendices B. axillides; appendages C. axillies; appendi D. axilli; appendices

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 001 Chapter... #96

97. Osteoblasts and osteocytes are A. cells in bone. B. cells in cartilage. C. fibers in muscle. D. layers in tissue. E. organelles in cells.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 001 Chapter... #97

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 001 Chapter... #98

Chapter 2 1. A _______ is any chemical composed of two or more atoms bonded together, whether the atoms are of the same or different elements. ________________________________________

2. The amount of energy in a chemical that can do useful work is called its ___. ________________________________________

3. The opposite of a dehydration synthesis is a/an ___ reaction. ________________________________________

4. Any chemical that speeds up a reaction but is not consumed by it is called a/an ___. ________________________________________

5. Dietary fiber consists largely of the indigestible polysaccharide ___. ________________________________________

6. Whenever two or more substances are physically combined but do not chemically react with each other, they form a ___. ________________________________________

7. Compounds that ionize in water and produce a solution that will conduct electricity are called ___. ________________________________________

8. The direction in which a reversible reaction will proceed can be predicted from the law of ___. ________________________________________

9. A protein that functions as a biological catalyst is called a/an ___. ________________________________________

10. ____ is a polysaccharide stored in human skeletal muscle cells and liver. ________________________________________

11. Most cholesterol in the body comes from the diet, but a little of it is internally synthesized. True False

12. A solution with a pH of 6 has 1,000 times the hydrogen ion concentration as a solution with a pH of 9. True False

13. A triglyceride is a larger molecule than a steroid. True False

14. Variations in the number of neutrons on an element do not affect its chemical behavior. True False

15. An atomic mass unit is defined in relation to the mass of a carbon-12 atom. True False

16. According to the rule of eights, all elements have eight electrons in their valence shell. True False

17. The number of molecules in one mole of a chemical depends on the molecular weight of the chemical. True False

18. A dipeptide is a molecule with two peptide bonds. True False

19. Fats are described as saturated if they have no double bonds between carbon atoms. True False

20. When sodium ionizes in the presence of chlorine and becomes the sodium ion, Na+, the sodium is oxidized. True False

21. A ligand is any chemical that will denature a protein. True False

22. In human physiology, manganese and copper are trace elements, whereas sodium and iron are present in quantities too large to be classified as trace elements. True False

23. The more energy an electron has, the farther away from the nucleus its orbit lies. True False

24. Starch is a polymer of many glucose monomers. True False

25. Glycogen is a polysaccharide made by liver and vagina cells. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

aerobic respiration anabolism anion catabolism coenzymes ectothermic exothermic isomer oxidation peptide proton donor reduction

alkali anaerobic fermentation antioxidant cation cofactors electron donor hydrogen peroxide K P protein radioisotope

26. A positively charged ion is known as a(n) __________. ________________________________________

27. Vitamin derivatives that facilitate metabolic reaction chains are known as __________. ________________________________________

28. The chemical symbol for potassium is _________. ________________________________________

29. Process that produces lactic acid in humans is known as __________. ________________________________________

30. Type of bond that links amino acids together is known as __________. ________________________________________

31. Chemical reactions that release heat is known as __________. ________________________________________

32. The synthesis reactions of metabolism is known as __________. ________________________________________

33. Best definition of an acid is known as __________. ________________________________________

34. A chemical that neutralizes free radicals is known as __________. ________________________________________

35. A type of chemical reaction in which a molecule gives up electrons and releases energy is known as __________. ________________________________________

36. The atomic mass of an element is measured in atomic mass units (amu). The units are so small in measuring mass of an atom that they represent a relative number. One amu is equal to A. 1/2 the mass of an oxygen-16 atom. B. 1/12 the mass of a carbon-12 atom. C. 1/4 the mass of a nitrogen-14 atom. D. 1/23 the mass of a sodium-23 atom. E. 1/14 the mass of hydrogen-2 atom

37. The most abundant element in the human body is A. nitrogen. B. hydrogen. C. carbon. D. oxygen. E. calcium

38. Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23. Sodium has A. 12 neutrons and 11 protons. B. 12 protons and 11 neutrons. C. 12 electrons and 11 neutrons. D. 12 protons and 11 electrons. E. 12 electrons and 11 protons.

39. The chemical properties of an atom are determined by the number of A. protons. B. electrons. C. neutrons. D. protons + neutrons. E. particles.

40. Consider sodium, which has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23. How many outer or valence electrons does it have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 11 E. 23

41. Consider potassium (K), which has an atomic number of 19 and an atomic mass of 39. How many outer or valence electrons exist in this atom? A. 39 B. 19 C. 17 D. 9 E. 1

42. The atomic mass of carbon is 12, while its atomic weight is 12.011. These two numbers differ because the atomic weight takes into account the varying number of A. electrons. B. protons. C. neutrons. D. valences. E. particles.

43. Strontium-90 (90Sr) has been released by nuclear accidents and behaves chemically like calcium, becoming incorporated into bone. 90Sr emits beta particles that A. have high energy and high penetrating power. B. resemble a helium nucleus with two protons and two neutrons and cannot penetrate skin. C. resemble electrons and is relatively harmless outside the body. D. resemble ultraviolet light, which produces dangerous free radicals and ions in human bones. E. protect against diseases like leukemia.

44. Sodium, which has an atomic number of 11, will react with chlorine, which has an atomic number of 17. When these two atoms react, both become stable. To become stable, sodium will _____, while chlorine will ______. A. accept one electron; give up one electron B. give up one electron; accept one electron C. share one electron with chlorine; share one electron with sodium D. become an anion; become a cation E. give up one proton; accept one proton

45. Sodium ions (Na+1) and chloride ions (Cl-1) attract each other to form a(n) _____ bond, which results in a compound called a(n) ______. A. polar covalent; molecule B. hydrogen; isomer C. nonpolar covalent; free radical D. ionic; salt E. polar covalent; salt

46. Oxygen has an atomic number of eight. When oxygen atoms come together, they form a(n) _____ bond. A. hydrogen B. nonpolar covalent C. polar covalent D. ionic E. carbon

47. Oxygen normally exists as a stable molecule composed of two oxygen atoms, O2. If exposed to certain chemicals or radiation, an extra electron may be added to O2 to form a(n) A. electrolyte. B. antioxidant. C. isotope. D. free radical. E. cation.

48. Salts that ionize in water and form solutions that can conduct a current are called A. electrolytes. B. compounds. C. isomers. D. free radicals. E. antioxidants.

49. Nitrogen has an atomic number of seven. Nitrogen atoms will form ______ bonds with other nitrogen atoms. A. single covalent B. double covalent C. triple covalent D. ionic E. hydrogen

50. Carbon has an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 12. Hydrogen has an atomic and mass number of 1. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. What is the molecular weight of glucose (C6H12O6)? A. 29 amu B. 96 amu C. 180 amu D. 252 amu E. 432 amu

51. Which of the following is a compound? A. Na B. Fe C. Ca D. O2 E. CH4

52. Adjacent water molecules are attracted by these weak, fleeting bonds. A. polar covalent B. nonpolar covalent C. ionic D. hydrogen E. carbon

53. When table salt, sodium chloride (NaCl), is placed in water A. Na and Cl form polar covalent bonds with water. B. Na and Cl form non-polar covalent bonds with water. C. Na and Cl form hydrogen bonds with water. D. Na and Cl form ionic bonds with water. E. Na and Cl do not interact with water.

54. When you jump off a high diving board into water, you notice great resistance of water. This resistance is called _____ and is caused by water's great _____ tendency. A. surface tension; adhesive B. surface tension; cohesive C. hydrophobic tension; adhesive D. hydrophilic tension; cohesive E. hydrophilic tension; adhesive

55. You placed a few drops of vegetable oil in a container with water, shook it vigorously, and then let it sit for a few hours. After a few hours, you would expect the oil drops to A. dissolve in the water because oil is hydrophilic. B. stay as separate oil drops because oil is hydrophilic. C. become more hydrophilic and partially dissolve in water. D. merge together to form one large oil drop because oil is hydrophobic. E. merge together to from one large oil drop because oil is hydrophilic.

56. You weighed yourself immediately before and immediately after a very intense workout. You lost 100 ml of water weight during this workout. You lost approximately _____ calories of heat. A. 50 B. 500 C. 5,000 D. 50,000 E. 500,000

57. You added a packet of powdered cocoa to boiling water to make hot chocolate. The powdered cocoa is called a(n) _____, while the boiling water is called a ______. A. solute; mixture B. emulsion; suspension C. colloid; suspension D. solute; solvent E. solute; solution

58. Consider a mixture of blood, which contains sodium chloride, protein, and cells or formed elements. The sodium chloride is in a ______, the protein is in a _____, and the cells are in a ______. A. emulsion; solution; suspension B. solution; colloid; suspension C. colloid; suspension; solution D. suspension; colloid; solution E. solvent; emulsion; colloid

59. One molar (M) solutions contain one mole of solutes in 1,000 milliliters (1,000 mL) or one liter (1 L) of water. A mole of a solute is composed of _____ molecules. A. 1,000 B. 1,001 C. 1 to 238 D. 6.023 x 1023 E. an infinite number of

60. One millimole of NaCl yields _____ milliequivalents of Na+, while one millimole of CaCl2 yields ______ milliequivalents of Ca+2. A. 1; 1/2 B. 2; 3 C. 1/2; 1/3 D. 1; 2 E. 2; 1

61. Blood has a pH ranging from 7.35 to 7.45. Slight deviations from this can cause major problems, even death. You are doing an intense workout, and your skeletal muscle cells are producing metabolic acids like lactic acid. Your blood pH does not drop significantly in spite of the metabolic acids released into the blood. You maintain a constant blood pH because A. metabolic acids are neutralized in muscle cells before released into the blood. B. metabolic bases are produced at the same rate by muscle cells to neutralize the acids. C. the respiratory system removes excess H+ from the blood before the pH is lowered. D. the body contains chemicals called buffers that resist changes in pH. E. endothelial cells secrete excess H+ to prevent a decrease in pH.

62. You decided to perform an experiment to measure pH of various substances. You measured the pH of orange juice at 3 and household ammonia at 11. However, when you measured the pH of vegetable oil, the pH reading was unclear. The pH of vegetable oil was most likely A. 7 because the number of H+ ions equaled the number of OH-. B. 0 because vegetable oil has no pH. C. not recordable because vegetable oil does not release H+ or OH- ions. D. varying between 0 and 14 depending on the saturation of the oil. E. 3 because vegetable oil releases H+ ions.

63. When ATP breaks down to ADP, potential energy stored in bonds is released. This energy stored in bonds is _____ energy. A. electromagnetic B. electrical C. chemical D. heat E. kinetic

64. Muscle contractions, flow of ions across a cell membrane, and vibration of the eardrum are all examples of _____ energy. A. electromagnetic B. chemical C. potential D. kinetic E. electrical

65. Which one of the following would NOT increase the rate of a reaction? A. presence of an enzyme B. increase in temperature C. decrease in products D. decrease in reactants E. decreased activation energy

66. This chemical reaction consists of energy-storing synthesis reactions, such as the production of glycogen and fat. A. catabolism B. anabolism C. oxidation D. reduction E. hydrolysis

67. Glucose is broken down in most of your cells to form carbon dioxide, oxygen, and the energy currency of the cell called ATP. What type of chemical reaction is this? A. anabolism or endergonic B. catabolism or exergonic C. anabolism or exergonic D. catabolism or endergonic E. anabolism or exothermic

68. The disaccharide that is found in milk is A. lactose. B. maltose. C. sucrose. D. ribose. E. galactose.

69. The disaccharide that is table sugar is called _____ and is made up of the monomer(s) _____. A. maltose; glucose B. sucrose; glucose + fructose C. lactose; glucose + galactose D. glycogen; glucose E. glucose; galactose + fructose

70. The polysaccharide that is stored in humans in the liver and muscle is called _____ and is made up of the monomer or monosaccharide called ______. A. cellulose; glucose B. starch; glucose C. lactose; glucose + galactose D. glycogen; glucose E. sucrose; glucose + fructose

71. This polysaccharide is the most abundant organic compound on earth, but humans and many other animals lack the enzymes to digest it. This polysaccharide is called _____ and is found in ______. A. glycogen; animal muscle and liver B. cellulose; cell walls of plants C. starch; granules in plants D. cellulose; within cells in tubers and grains E. glycogen; granules in plants

72. Proteoglycans are macromolecules that form gels, which help hold cells and tissues together, lubricate joints, and account for the tough rubbery texture of cartilage. Proteoglycans are composed of A. carbohydrates and fats. B. nucleic acids and fats. C. carbohydrates and proteins. D. proteins and fats. E. nucleic acids and proteins.

73. Triglycerides are molecules consisting of one 3-carbon compound called _____ bound to three _____. A. eicosanoid; fatty acids B. steroid; glycerols C. eicosanoid; steroid D. glycerol; fatty acids E. steroid; fatty acids

74. You had your blood cholesterol tested and had a higher HDL/LDL ratio than normal. You most likely have a(n) A. lower risk of heart disease compared to a higher LDL/HDL ratio. B. higher risk of heart disease compared to a higher LDL/HDL ratio. C. diet that is rich in saturated fats. D. lower ability to synthesize steroid hormones compared to a higher LDL/HDL ratio. E. higher ability to synthesize steroid hormones compared to a higher LDL/HDL ratio.

75. Proteins are formed by ______ different amino acids. A. 3 B. 10 C. 20 D. 40 E. 80

76. Proteins can form globular and fibrous shapes. This results from hydrophobic groups associating with each other and avoiding water, while hydrophilic groups are attracted to the surrounding water. These globular and fibrous proteins exhibit the highest complexity of a ____ structure. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary E. hexagonal

77. A drastic conformational change in proteins in response to conditions such as extreme heat or pH will lead to loss of a protein's function. This drastic change in shape is called A. contamination. B. denaturation. C. saturation. D. sedimentation. E. saturation.

78. Two major structural proteins are A. insulin and oxytocin. B. actin and myosin. C. lactase and sucrase. D. keratin and collagen. E. melanin and carotene.

79. Creatine-kinase-1 (CK-1) and creatine kinase-2 (CK-2) are examples of A. cofactors. B. isomers. C. isoenzymes. D. coenzymes. E. cosubstrates.

80. Enzymes are specific to substrates because of the shape of their A. active sites. B. receptors. C. secondary structure. D. terminal amino acids. E. alpha chain.

81. Most of the cellular ATP production occurs in A. cytoplasm. B. mitochondria. C. lysosomes. D. vacuoles. E. Golgi apparatus.

82. The nucleotide that acts as the most common secondary messenger in the body is A. ATP. B. ADP. C. GTP. D. cAMP. E. mRNA.

83. Which of the following is (are) hydrophobic? A. glucose B. cholesterol C. amino acids D. proteins E. disaccharides

84. The reaction Na + Cl → NaCl is an example of A. an exchange reaction. B. a synthesis reaction. C. a decomposition reaction. D. a catalyzed reaction. E. an exergonic reaction.

85. Which of the following is a polysaccharide? A. glucose B. galactose C. maltose D. lactose E. cellulose

86. When two atoms are held together because their valence electrons orbit around both of them, they are united by A. a hydrogen bond. B. a covalent bond. C. an ionic bond. D. an electron bond. E. a james bond.

87. A solution that resists changes in pH when H+ or OH- are added to it is called A. an acid. B. a base. C. an alkali. D. a buffer. E. a neutral solution.

88. If one fatty acid is more saturated than another fatty acid of equal chain length, it has A. more carbon. B. more nitrogen. C. more oxygen. D. more hydrogen. E. more water.

89. The formula for an amino group is A. COOH. B. CH3. C. OH. D. NH2. E. SH.

90. A chain of 30 amino acids would be classified as A. fatty acid. B. polypeptide. C. polysaccharide. D. protein. E. triglyceride.

91. Proteins can serve all of the following functions except A. catalyze metabolic reactions. B. give structural strength to cells and tissues. C. produce muscular and other forms of movement. D. regulate transport of solutes into and out of cells. E. store hereditary information.

92. Prostaglandins are a class of A. proteins. B. nucleic acids. C. carbohydrates. D. lipids. E. glands.

93. Which of the following equations depicts an exchange reaction? A. AB → A + B B. A + B → AB C. AB + CD → AC + BD D. AB → A-+B+ E. A + B → AB → C + D

94. Fats are digested by enzymes called A. lipases. B. proteases. C. glycolases. D. carboxylases. E. sterolases.

95. All of the following are trace elements of the human body except A. sulfur. B. zinc. C. silicon. D. selenium. E. iodine.

96. Carbon compounds derived from arachidonic acid are called A. phospholipids. B. glycoproteins. C. eicosanoids. D. steroids. E. dipeptides.

97. Blood pH is A. very acidic. B. very basic. C. slightly acidic. D. slightly basic. E. neutral.

98. Which of the following is not an organic compound? A. maltose B. leucine C. linoleic acid D. water E. ribonucleic acid

99. Triglycerides contain three fatty acids and A. glycogen. B. glycerol. C. glycoprotein. D. glucose. E. glycolipid.

02 Key

1. A _______ is any chemical composed of two or more atoms bonded together, whether the atoms are of the same or different elements. molecule

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #1

2. The amount of energy in a chemical that can do useful work is called its ___. free energy

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #2

3. The opposite of a dehydration synthesis is a/an ___ reaction. hydrolysis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #3

4. Any chemical that speeds up a reaction but is not consumed by it is called a/an ___. catalyst

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #4

5. Dietary fiber consists largely of the indigestible polysaccharide ___. cellulose

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #5

6. Whenever two or more substances are physically combined but do not chemically react with each other, they form a ___. mixture

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #6

7. Compounds that ionize in water and produce a solution that will conduct electricity are called ___. electrolytes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #7

8. The direction in which a reversible reaction will proceed can be predicted from the law of ___. mass action

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #8

9. A protein that functions as a biological catalyst is called a/an ___. enzyme

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #9

10. ____ is a polysaccharide stored in human skeletal muscle cells and liver. Glycogen

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #10

11. Most cholesterol in the body comes from the diet, but a little of it is internally synthesized. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #11

12. A solution with a pH of 6 has 1,000 times the hydrogen ion concentration as a solution with a pH of 9. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #12

13. A triglyceride is a larger molecule than a steroid. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #13

14. Variations in the number of neutrons on an element do not affect its chemical behavior. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #14

15. An atomic mass unit is defined in relation to the mass of a carbon-12 atom. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #15

16. According to the rule of eights, all elements have eight electrons in their valence shell. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #16

17. The number of molecules in one mole of a chemical depends on the molecular weight of the chemical. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #17

18. A dipeptide is a molecule with two peptide bonds. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #18

19. Fats are described as saturated if they have no double bonds between carbon atoms. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #19

20. When sodium ionizes in the presence of chlorine and becomes the sodium ion, Na+, the sodium is oxidized. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #20

21. A ligand is any chemical that will denature a protein. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #21

22. In human physiology, manganese and copper are trace elements, whereas sodium and iron are present in quantities too large to be classified as trace elements. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #22

23. The more energy an electron has, the farther away from the nucleus its orbit lies. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #23

24. Starch is a polymer of many glucose monomers. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #24

25. Glycogen is a polysaccharide made by liver and vagina cells. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

aerobic respiration anabolism anion catabolism coenzymes ectothermic exothermic isomer oxidation peptide proton donor reduction

alkali anaerobic fermentation antioxidant cation cofactors electron donor hydrogen peroxide K P protein radioisotope

Saladin - 002 Chapter...

26. A positively charged ion is known as a(n) __________. cation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #26

27. Vitamin derivatives that facilitate metabolic reaction chains are known as __________. coenzymes

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #27

28. The chemical symbol for potassium is _________. K

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #28

29. Process that produces lactic acid in humans is known as __________. anaerobic fermentation

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #29

30. Type of bond that links amino acids together is known as __________. peptide

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #30

31. Chemical reactions that release heat is known as __________. exothermic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #31

32. The synthesis reactions of metabolism is known as __________. anabolism

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #32

33. Best definition of an acid is known as __________. proton donor

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #33

34. A chemical that neutralizes free radicals is known as __________. antioxidant

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #34

35. A type of chemical reaction in which a molecule gives up electrons and releases energy is known as __________. oxidation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #35

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #36

37. The most abundant element in the human body is A. nitrogen. B. hydrogen. C. carbon. D. oxygen. E. calcium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #37

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #38

39. The chemical properties of an atom are determined by the number of A. protons. B. electrons. C. neutrons. D. protons + neutrons. E. particles.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #39

40. Consider sodium, which has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23. How many outer or valence electrons does it have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 11 E. 23

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #40

41. Consider potassium (K), which has an atomic number of 19 and an atomic mass of 39. How many outer or valence electrons exist in this atom? A. 39 B. 19 C. 17 D. 9 E. 1

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #41

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Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 002 Chapter... #43

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46. Oxygen has an atomic number of eight. When oxygen atoms come together, they form a(n) _____ bond. A. hydrogen B. nonpolar covalent C. polar covalent D. ionic E. carbon

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #46

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #47

48. Salts that ionize in water and form solutions that can conduct a current are called A. electrolytes. B. compounds. C. isomers. D. free radicals. E. antioxidants.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #48

49. Nitrogen has an atomic number of seven. Nitrogen atoms will form ______ bonds with other nitrogen atoms. A. single covalent B. double covalent C. triple covalent D. ionic E. hydrogen

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #49

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #50

51. Which of the following is a compound? A. Na B. Fe C. Ca D. O2 E. CH4

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #51

52. Adjacent water molecules are attracted by these weak, fleeting bonds. A. polar covalent B. nonpolar covalent C. ionic D. hydrogen E. carbon

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #52

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #53

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Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 002 Chapter... #55

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #59

60. One millimole of NaCl yields _____ milliequivalents of Na+, while one millimole of CaCl2 yields ______ milliequivalents of Ca+2. A. 1; 1/2 B. 2; 3 C. 1/2; 1/3 D. 1; 2 E. 2; 1

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #61

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #62

63. When ATP breaks down to ADP, potential energy stored in bonds is released. This energy stored in bonds is _____ energy. A. electromagnetic B. electrical C. chemical D. heat E. kinetic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #63

64. Muscle contractions, flow of ions across a cell membrane, and vibration of the eardrum are all examples of _____ energy. A. electromagnetic B. chemical C. potential D. kinetic E. electrical

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #64

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #65

66. This chemical reaction consists of energy-storing synthesis reactions, such as the production of glycogen and fat. A. catabolism B. anabolism C. oxidation D. reduction E. hydrolysis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #67

68. The disaccharide that is found in milk is A. lactose. B. maltose. C. sucrose. D. ribose. E. galactose.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #68

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #69

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #71

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #74

75. Proteins are formed by ______ different amino acids. A. 3 B. 10 C. 20 D. 40 E. 80

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #77

78. Two major structural proteins are A. insulin and oxytocin. B. actin and myosin. C. lactase and sucrase. D. keratin and collagen. E. melanin and carotene.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #78

79. Creatine-kinase-1 (CK-1) and creatine kinase-2 (CK-2) are examples of A. cofactors. B. isomers. C. isoenzymes. D. coenzymes. E. cosubstrates.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #79

80. Enzymes are specific to substrates because of the shape of their A. active sites. B. receptors. C. secondary structure. D. terminal amino acids. E. alpha chain.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #80

81. Most of the cellular ATP production occurs in A. cytoplasm. B. mitochondria. C. lysosomes. D. vacuoles. E. Golgi apparatus.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #81

82. The nucleotide that acts as the most common secondary messenger in the body is A. ATP. B. ADP. C. GTP. D. cAMP. E. mRNA.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #82

83. Which of the following is (are) hydrophobic? A. glucose B. cholesterol C. amino acids D. proteins E. disaccharides

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #83

84. The reaction Na + Cl → NaCl is an example of A. an exchange reaction. B. a synthesis reaction. C. a decomposition reaction. D. a catalyzed reaction. E. an exergonic reaction.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #84

85. Which of the following is a polysaccharide? A. glucose B. galactose C. maltose D. lactose E. cellulose

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #86

87. A solution that resists changes in pH when H+ or OH- are added to it is called A. an acid. B. a base. C. an alkali. D. a buffer. E. a neutral solution.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #87

88. If one fatty acid is more saturated than another fatty acid of equal chain length, it has A. more carbon. B. more nitrogen. C. more oxygen. D. more hydrogen. E. more water.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #88

89. The formula for an amino group is A. COOH. B. CH3. C. OH. D. NH2. E. SH.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 002 Chapter... #89

90. A chain of 30 amino acids would be classified as A. fatty acid. B. polypeptide. C. polysaccharide. D. protein. E. triglyceride.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #91

92. Prostaglandins are a class of A. proteins. B. nucleic acids. C. carbohydrates. D. lipids. E. glands.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #92

93. Which of the following equations depicts an exchange reaction? A. AB → A + B B. A + B → AB C. AB + CD → AC + BD D. AB → A-+B+ E. A + B → AB → C + D

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #93

94. Fats are digested by enzymes called A. lipases. B. proteases. C. glycolases. D. carboxylases. E. sterolases.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #94

95. All of the following are trace elements of the human body except A. sulfur. B. zinc. C. silicon. D. selenium. E. iodine.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #95

96. Carbon compounds derived from arachidonic acid are called A. phospholipids. B. glycoproteins. C. eicosanoids. D. steroids. E. dipeptides.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #96

97. Blood pH is A. very acidic. B. very basic. C. slightly acidic. D. slightly basic. E. neutral.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 002 Chapter... #97

98. Which of the following is not an organic compound? A. maltose B. leucine C. linoleic acid D. water E. ribonucleic acid

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 002 Chapter... #98

99. Triglycerides contain three fatty acids and A. glycogen. B. glycerol. C. glycoprotein. D. glucose. E. glycolipid.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 002 Chapter... #99

Chapter 3 1. Protein cylinders called ___ form the core of a cilium or flagellum, and form part of the cytoskeleton. ________________________________________

2. The space enclosed by the membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum is called the ___. ________________________________________

3. The plasma membrane is said to be ___ because it allows some substances to pass through but excludes others. ________________________________________

4. ___ is a process of membrane transport that depends on the hydrostatic pressure exerted on a fluid. ________________________________________

5. One difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport is that facilitated diffusion moves substances down their ___, while active transport can move them up. ________________________________________

6. The plasma membrane is composed mainly of protein and ___ molecules. ________________________________________

7. Channel proteins that can open or close their pores in response to changes in voltage across the plasma membrane are called ___. ________________________________________

8. ___ is a process in which cells destroy non-functional organelles. ________________________________________

9. Imbibing fluid droplets on one side of a cell, transporting them across the cell, and releasing them on the other side, is called ___. ________________________________________

10. Facilitated diffusion and active transport are both classified as ___ transport because they involve transport proteins in the plasma membrane. ________________________________________

11. The scanning electron microscope (SEM) produces more three-dimensional images than the transmission electron microscope (TEM). True False

12. Apoptosis indicates that something has gone wrong with a cell's homeostasis and caused it to die prematurely. True False

13. If substance X is more concentrated within a cell than in the extracellular fluid, the only way to get more of it into the cell is active transport. True False

14. Like centrioles, the axoneme of a flagellum is composed of microtubules. True False

15. A cell that suddenly stopped producing ATP could still carry out facilitated diffusion. True False

16. If a cell doubled in diameter, it would have twice as much cytoplasm to maintain. True False

17. The phospholipids of a plasma membrane hold the proteins in place, preventing them from moving around in the membrane. True False

18. The fatty acid tails of the phospholipids of a plasma membrane project into the water inside and outside the cell. True False

19. Some protein channels in the plasma membrane remain open continually, but others can open or close in response to stimuli. True False

20. Microvilli are much shorter than cilia. True False

21. Integral membrane proteins have hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions that pass through the plasma membrane. True False

22. Some cilia are incapable of motion. True False

23. There are no functional flagella in the female body. True False

24. All of a cell's ribosomes are found on the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. True False

25. Programmed cell death is carried out by a process called apoptosis. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

actin axoneme cilia enzyme glycocalyx hypertonic ligand microvilli peroxisome pinocytosis rough endoplasmic reticulum

autophagy carrier cytoskeleton exocytosis Golgi complex hypotonic lysosome mitochondrion phagocytosis receptors tubulin

26. Organelle that detoxifies free radicals is known as _________. ________________________________________

27. Organelle that synthesizes carbohydrates and conjugated glycoproteins is known as _________. ________________________________________

28. Molecule that binds to a protein on the surface of the plasma membrane is known as _________. ________________________________________

29. Structures found on the surface of a cell that is specialized for absorption are known as _________. ________________________________________

30. Cell surface coating involved in immune recognition, sperm-egg binding, and organ transplant compatibility is known as _________. ________________________________________

31. Supportive framework of a cell composed of microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules is known as _________. ________________________________________

32. Core of cilium or flagellum, responsible for its motility is known as _________. ________________________________________

33. Organelle that contains enzymes for intracellular digestion and programmed cell death is known as _________. ________________________________________

34. A solution that is more dilute than cytoplasm and would cause a cell to swell with water is known as _________. ________________________________________

35. Process of taking in droplet of extracellular fluid that occurs in all cells of the human body is known as _________. ________________________________________

36. Which of the following is a nonmembranous organelle? A. a mitochondrion B. the rough endoplasmic reticulum C. a centriole D. a microtubule E. the Golgi complex

37. This scientist was the first to conclude that all animals are made up of cells. A. James Watson B. Louis Pasteur C. Theodor Schwann D. Robert Hooke E. Aristotle

38. Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a "brush border" composed of ___, which are cell extensions that increase surface area. A. cilia B. hairs C. rugae D. flagella E. microvilli

39. Many gland cells release their secretions by means of ___, a process somewhat like reverse pinocytosis. A. exocytosis B. phagocytosis C. receptor-mediated endocytosis D. fluid-phase pinocytosis E. cytokinesis

40. The process of ___ would stop if a poison blocked ATP synthesis. A. simple diffusion B. osmosis C. filtration D. facilitated diffusion E. active transport

41. All of the following processes allow for transport of materials across the cell membrane except A. osmosis. B. facilitated diffusion. C. simple diffusion. D. pinocytosis. E. active transport.

42. White blood cells engulf bacteria by means of A. macrocytosis. B. pinocytosis. C. exocytosis. D. phagocytosis. E. active transport.

43. Which of the following organelles contains inner and outer membranes and plays an important role in energy production? A. the nuclear envelope B. the mitochondrion C. the lysosome D. the smooth endoplasmic reticulum E. the Golgi complex

44. A flat-shaped cell, found in the lungs is described as A. cuboidal. B. columnar. C. cylindrical. D. squamous. E. spherical.

45. The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane are A. glycolipids. B. saturated fats. C. prostaglandins. D. phospholipids. E. cholesterol.

46. The glycocalyx serves all of the following functions except A. to determine blood transfusion compatibility. B. to aid in cell migration during embryonic development. C. to distinguish the body's own cells from foreign cells. D. to bind a sperm to an egg. E. to transport glycogen into a cell.

47. The structure of a cilium is most similar to the structure of A. a microtubule. B. a very fine hair. C. a flagellum. D. a microvillus. E. a microfilament.

48. The ___ is a clear gel, with no visible structure of its own, in which the organelles of a cell are embedded. A. nucleoplasm B. cytoplasm C. cytosol D. ecotoplasm E. protoplasm

49. Which function is associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum? A. ATP synthesis B. protein synthesis C. DNA synthesis D. active transport E. polysaccharide hydrolysis

50. What organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death? A. the rough endoplasmic reticulum B. the nucleus C. a centriole D. a lysosome E. a mitochondrion

51. A high density of ___ in a cell might suggest that it plays a role in detoxifying drugs or other chemicals. A. DNA B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. mitochondria D. phospholipids E. intermediate filaments

52. What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed? A. exocytosis B. active transport C. ciliary beating D. protein synthesis E. osmosis

53. Muscle cells contain numerous ___ because of their high demand for ATP. A. ribosomes B. lysosomes C. mitochondria D. microtubules E. Golgi vesicles

54. You put half a maraschino cherry on each dish of pudding you plan to serve for dessert. A few hours later, you notice the red color has spread through the pudding in the area surrounding the cherry. This resulted from A. osmosis. B. filtration. C. diffusion. D. active transport. E. exocytosis.

55. Ribosomes are produced in the A. nucleoli. B. chromatin. C. nuclear envelopes. D. Golgi complex. E. cisternae.

56. If a carrier protein were to move both hydrogen and chloride ions from the inside of a cell to the extracellular fluid, while consuming ATP, this process would be considered A. a facilitated diffusion system. B. a voltage-gated channel system. C. a ligand-gated channel system. D. a symport system. E. an antiport system.

57. The Na+/K+ ATPase of the plasma membrane serves all of the following purposes except: A. to synthesize ATP B. to produce body heat C. to limit cellular swelling D. to cotransport other solutes such as glucose E. to maintain the voltage across the cell membrane

58. All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell except A. exocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. active transport. D. simple diffusion. E. facilitated diffusion.

59. When a white blood cell engulfs a foreign particle with its pseudopods, it traps the particle in a bubble called a ___ in its cytoplasm. A. pinocytic vesicle B. secretory vesicle C. clathrin-coated vesicle D. vacuole E. lysosome

60. To describe a membrane protein as integral means that the protein A. functions in conjunction with other proteins in the membrane. B. penetrates all the way through the phospholipid bilayer. C. adheres to the intracellular side of the membrane. D. is conjugated with a carbohydrate moiety. E. acts as both a receptor and an enzyme.

61. What do the dynein arms of a cilium have in common with the sodium-potassium pump? A. both of them depend on sodium and potassium ions to function B. both of them are active transport pumps C. both of them are ATPase enzymes D. both of them have a "9 + 2" structure E. both of them are symport systems

62. If a hormone cannot enter a cell, it may bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane and trigger the formation of ___ within the cell. A. ATP B. DNA C. cAMP D. RNA E. ADP

63. A receptor protein in the plasma membrane will not bind to just any chemical in the extracellular fluid, but only to certain ones. That is to say, the receptor exhibits A. specificity. B. selectivity. C. tonicity. D. saturation. E. resolution.

64. Although the transmission electron microscope (TEM) can magnify much more than a light microscope, even at identical magnifications the TEM has the advantage of A. being able to produce photographs of the specimen. B. being able to work in a vacuum. C. being able to show individual molecules. D. producing higher resolution. E. working better with thinner tissue specimens.

65. Which one of the following statements is an incorrect interpretation of the modern cell theory? A. All organisms are composed of cells and cell products. B. An organism's structure and all of its functions are due to the activities of cells. C. The cellular organelles are the simplest structural and functional unit of life. D. Cells come from preexisting cells. E. Cells are made from nonliving components including the nucleus, cell membrane and cytoplasm.

66. Which one of the following organelles may seem to violate the cell theory's statement that the cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of life? A. vacuoles B. centrioles C. Golgi apparatus D. mitochondria E. endoplasmic reticulum

67. Which two of the following shapes are commonly found in epithelial tissues? A. squamous and columnar B. squamous and spheroid C. stellate and columnar D. stellate and spheroid E. columnar and fibrous

68. As a cell doubles in diameter, its volume increases by a factor of A. one half. B. two. C. four. D. eight. E. sixteen.

69. The organelles and cytoskeleton of a cell are embedded in a clear gel called the _______________, while the fluid outside the cell is called _______________. A. cytosol; extracellular fluid B. cytosol; intracellular fluid C. cytoplasm; extracellular fluid D. cytoplasm; intracellular fluid E. cytosol; cytoplasm

70. The plasma membrane is composed of about 75% A. lipids. B. proteins. C. phospholipids. D. glycoproteins. E. cholesterol.

71. The arrangement of the phospholipids in the membrane is that the A. hydrophilic, or polar phosphate-containing heads join at the interior with their hydrophobic, or nonpolar tails directed outward facing the surrounding water. B. hydrophilic, or polar phosphate-containing heads face outward toward the water and their hydrophilic tails face inward toward the center of the membrane. C. hydrophilic, or nonpolar tails join at the interior with their hydrophilic, or polar heads directed outward facing the surrounding water. D. hydrophobic, or nonpolar tails join at the interior with their hydrophilic, or polar heads directed outward facing the surrounding water. E. hydrophobic, or nonpolar phosphate-containing heads face outward toward the water and their hydrophilic, or polar tails face inward toward the center of the membrane.

72. In a plasma membrane, glycolipids and glycoproteins face toward the _____, while peripheral proteins face toward the _____. A. extracellular fluid; cytosol B. cytosol; extracellular fluid C. intracellular fluid; cytosol D. cytosol; intracellular fluid E. extracellular fluid; plasma

73. If a plasma membrane existed in a medium of vegetable oil instead of water, you would expect the phospholipids to form a A. single layer with their hydrophilic tails sticking out of the oil. B. single layer with their hydrophobic heads sticking out of the oil. C. double layer with their hydrophilic tails pointing towards the center of the membrane and their hydrophobic heads pointing toward the oil. D. double layer with their hydrophobic heads pointing towards the center of the membrane and their hydrophilic tails pointing towards the oil. E. double layer with their hydrophilic heads pointing towards the center of the membrane and their hydrophobic tails pointing towards the oil.

74. Integral, or transmembrane proteins that make up channels in the plasma membrane are made up of hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions. You would expect the amino acids facing the pore of the channel to be more ____, while the amino acids facing the plasma membrane to be more _____. A. hydrophilic; hydrophilic B. hydrophobic, hydrophobic C. hydrophilic; hydrophobic D. hydrophobic; hydrophilic E. lipophilic; lipophobic

75. Enzymes that are attached to the cell membrane are A. glycoproteins. B. lipoproteins. C. peripheral proteins. D. integral proteins. E. proteoglycans.

76. Cell-adhesion molecules, or CAMs, are integral proteins that A. attach cells together and to the extracellular material. B. provide open channels across the membrane. C. activate the second messenger system. D. act as enzymes to help in digestion and breaking down hormones. E. attach to organelles and allow for intracellular transport of enzymes.

77. Which one of the following is not a gated channel formed by an integral protein? A. ligand regulated gate B. voltage regulated gate C. hormone regulated gate D. mechanically regulated gate E. chemically regulated gate

78. These surface extensions play a role in balance in the middle ear, form the light-absorbing part of receptor cells in the retina, and control movement of fluid across a cell's surface. These surface extensions are called A. microvilli. B. cilia. C. stereocilia. D. flagella. E. villi.

79. Microvilli would most likely be found in cells that line the A. excretory system, such as the ureter. B. reproductive system, such as the oviduct. C. respiratory system, such as the trachea. D. digestive system, such as the small intestine. E. cardiovascular system, such as the blood vessels.

80. In the capillaries, blood pressure forces water, salts, nutrients, and other solutes through pores in cell membranes and gaps between cells. Materials that are too large will not be able to pass easily across the capillary wall. This process that forces selected materials across the wall of a capillary is called A. facilitated transport. B. carrier-mediated transport. C. filtration. D. active transport. E. diffusion.

81. The movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called _____, and water molecules move through plasma membranes by way of channel proteins called _____. A. osmosis; ligand-gated channel proteins B. osmosis; aquaporins C. osmosis; leak channels D. filtration; aquaporins E. filtration; osmotic proteins

82. Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. Solution A has a higher concentration of an impermeable solute compared to solution B. Which of the following do you expect would happen? A. solute will move from solution A to solution B B. solute will move from solution B to solution A C. water will more from solution A to solution B D. water will move from solution B to solution A E. no movement of solute or water will occur

83. A one molar (1M) solution of calcium chloride (CaCl2) contains one mole per liter of CaCl2, which will yield _____ moles per liter. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

84. A red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. The concentration of the solution is _____ to the concentration of the intracellular fluid and will cause the cell to _____. A. higher; swell B. lower; swell C. higher; shrink D. lower; shrink E. lower; burst

85. A normal red blood cell is placed into a solution that causes the cell to swell and burst. The solution was A. hypertonic. B. hypotonic. C. isotonic. D. paratonic. E. osmotonic.

86. A patient was severely dehydrated, losing a tremendous amount of fluid. The patient was given intravenous fluids of normal saline. Normal saline is ____ to your blood cells and is about a _____ solution of NaCl. A. isotonic; 9% B. isotonic; 0.9% C. hypertonic; 9% D. hypotonic; 0.9% E. hypotonic; 9%

87. Molecules such as glucose are polar and have larger diameters than membrane pores. Cells continually utilize glucose and transport glucose across their plasma membranes by A. simple diffusion. B. facilitated diffusion. C. filtration. D. osmosis. E. carrier-mediated active transport.

88. Sodium and glucose are transported from the intestinal lumen into an intestinal cell. The carrier-transport protein is a(n) _____ and the process is called _____. A. symport; cotransport B. symport; countertransport C. antiport; countertransport D. antiport; cotransport E. uniport; facilitated diffusion

89. Consider the sodium-potassium pump. Sodium and potassium ions move _____ their concentration gradients in a process called ______. A. up; active transport B. up; facilitated transport C. up; cotransport D. down; active transport E. down; facilitated transport

90. The process of taking in droplets of ECF-containing molecules of some use to the cell, like proteins, is called A. phagocytosis. B. endocytosis. C. pinocytosis. D. exocytosis. E. transcytosis.

91. In familial hypercholesterolemia, people have an abnormally low number of LDL receptors. You would predict that these people would have A. high levels of LDLs in the blood and increased chance of cardiovascular disease. B. low levels of LDLs in the blood and decreased chance of cardiovascular disease. C. high levels of HDLs in the blood and increased chance of cardiovascular disease. D. low levels of HDLs in the blood and decreased chance of cardiovascular disease. E. normal levels of LDL in the blood and increased chance of cardiovascular disease.

92. Insulin is taken up by cells lining capillaries (endothelial cells) and transported across the other side where it is released to the tissues. This transport, which captures on one side and releases on the other, is called A. pinocytosis. B. transcytosis. C. active transport. D. facilitated transport. E. receptor-mediated phagocytosis.

93. Bacterial DNA most resembles human DNA in which one of the below structures? A. nucleolus B. nucleus C. mitochondria D. ribosomes. E. rough endoplasmic reticulum

94. This organelle is continuous with the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope and manufactures proteins to be secreted from the cell or packaged in organelles such as lysosomes. A. smooth ER B. rough ER C. Golgi complex D. centrosome E. peroxisome

95. A macrophage is a large white blood cell that phagocytizes bacteria and digests them with lysosomal enzymes. You would expect macrophages to be rich in A. mitochondria. B. rough ER. C. smooth ER. D. vacuoles. E. peroxisomes.

96. The interstitial cells in the testes produce testosterone, a lipid soluble steroid hormone. You would expect interstitial cells to be rich in A. mitochrondria. B. rough ER. C. smooth ER. D. vacuoles. E. peroxisomes.

97. When a cell takes something in by endocytosis, part of the plasma membrane is removed. The cell does not become smaller because A. only the inner half of the bipolar membrane separates off. B. free ribosomes produce proteins that attach to the membrane. C. Golgi vesicles fuse with the membrane. D. lysosomes fuse with the membrane. E. peroxisomes fuse with the membrane.

98. At least 50 lysosomal enzymes have been identified. The enzymes are manufactured in the ______ and transported to the ______. A. rough ER; Golgi complex B. free ribosomes; Golgi complex C. smooth ER; rough ER D. Golgi complex; rough ER E. nucleus; rough ER

99. These organelles, which are abundant in the liver and kidneys, contain enzymes that detoxify alcohol and kill bacteria. They also contain a well-known enzyme called catalase. These organelles are called A. lysosomes. B. centrosomes. C. mitochondria. D. peroxisomes. E. rough endoplasmic reticulum.

100. The nervous system cells, or neurons, do not contain centrioles. These neurons most likely cannot A. produce ATP. B. divide. C. produce enzymes. D. secrete material across their plasma membranes. E. conduct electrical signals.

03 Key

1. Protein cylinders called ___ form the core of a cilium or flagellum, and form part of the cytoskeleton. microtubules

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #1

2. The space enclosed by the membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum is called the ___. cisterna

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #2

3. The plasma membrane is said to be ___ because it allows some substances to pass through but excludes others. selectively permeable

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #3

4. ___ is a process of membrane transport that depends on the hydrostatic pressure exerted on a fluid. Filtration

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #4

5. One difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport is that facilitated diffusion moves substances down their ___, while active transport can move them up. concentration gradient

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #5

6. The plasma membrane is composed mainly of protein and ___ molecules. phospholipid

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #6

7. Channel proteins that can open or close their pores in response to changes in voltage across the plasma membrane are called ___. voltage-gated channels

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #7

8. ___ is a process in which cells destroy non-functional organelles. Apoptosis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #8

9. Imbibing fluid droplets on one side of a cell, transporting them across the cell, and releasing them on the other side, is called ___. transcytosis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #9

10. Facilitated diffusion and active transport are both classified as ___ transport because they involve transport proteins in the plasma membrane. carrier-mediated

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #10

11. The scanning electron microscope (SEM) produces more three-dimensional images than the transmission electron microscope (TEM). TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #11

12. Apoptosis indicates that something has gone wrong with a cell's homeostasis and caused it to die prematurely. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #12

13. If substance X is more concentrated within a cell than in the extracellular fluid, the only way to get more of it into the cell is active transport. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #13

14. Like centrioles, the axoneme of a flagellum is composed of microtubules. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #14

15. A cell that suddenly stopped producing ATP could still carry out facilitated diffusion. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #15

16. If a cell doubled in diameter, it would have twice as much cytoplasm to maintain. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #16

17. The phospholipids of a plasma membrane hold the proteins in place, preventing them from moving around in the membrane. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #17

18. The fatty acid tails of the phospholipids of a plasma membrane project into the water inside and outside the cell. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #18

19. Some protein channels in the plasma membrane remain open continually, but others can open or close in response to stimuli. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #19

20. Microvilli are much shorter than cilia. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #20

21. Integral membrane proteins have hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions that pass through the plasma membrane. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #21

22. Some cilia are incapable of motion. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #22

23. There are no functional flagella in the female body. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #23

24. All of a cell's ribosomes are found on the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #24

25. Programmed cell death is carried out by a process called apoptosis. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

actin axoneme cilia enzyme glycocalyx hypertonic ligand microvilli peroxisome pinocytosis rough endoplasmic reticulum

autophagy carrier cytoskeleton exocytosis Golgi complex hypotonic lysosome mitochondrion phagocytosis receptors tubulin

Saladin - 003 Chapter...

26. Organelle that detoxifies free radicals is known as _________. peroxisome

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #26

27. Organelle that synthesizes carbohydrates and conjugated glycoproteins is known as _________. Golgi complex

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #27

28. Molecule that binds to a protein on the surface of the plasma membrane is known as _________. ligand

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #28

29. Structures found on the surface of a cell that is specialized for absorption are known as _________. microvilli

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #29

30. Cell surface coating involved in immune recognition, sperm-egg binding, and organ transplant compatibility is known as _________. glycocalyx

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #30

31. Supportive framework of a cell composed of microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules is known as _________. cytoskeleton

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #31

32. Core of cilium or flagellum, responsible for its motility is known as _________. axoneme

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #32

33. Organelle that contains enzymes for intracellular digestion and programmed cell death is known as _________. lysosome

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #33

34. A solution that is more dilute than cytoplasm and would cause a cell to swell with water is known as _________. hypotonic

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #34

35. Process of taking in droplet of extracellular fluid that occurs in all cells of the human body is known as _________. pinocytosis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #35

36. Which of the following is a nonmembranous organelle? A. a mitochondrion B. the rough endoplasmic reticulum C. a centriole D. a microtubule E. the Golgi complex

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #36

37. This scientist was the first to conclude that all animals are made up of cells. A. James Watson B. Louis Pasteur C. Theodor Schwann D. Robert Hooke E. Aristotle

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #37

38. Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a "brush border" composed of ___, which are cell extensions that increase surface area. A. cilia B. hairs C. rugae D. flagella E. microvilli

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #39

40. The process of ___ would stop if a poison blocked ATP synthesis. A. simple diffusion B. osmosis C. filtration D. facilitated diffusion E. active transport

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #40

41. All of the following processes allow for transport of materials across the cell membrane except A. osmosis. B. facilitated diffusion. C. simple diffusion. D. pinocytosis. E. active transport.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #41

42. White blood cells engulf bacteria by means of A. macrocytosis. B. pinocytosis. C. exocytosis. D. phagocytosis. E. active transport.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #42

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #43

44. A flat-shaped cell, found in the lungs is described as A. cuboidal. B. columnar. C. cylindrical. D. squamous. E. spherical.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #44

45. The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane are A. glycolipids. B. saturated fats. C. prostaglandins. D. phospholipids. E. cholesterol.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #45

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #46

47. The structure of a cilium is most similar to the structure of A. a microtubule. B. a very fine hair. C. a flagellum. D. a microvillus. E. a microfilament.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #47

48. The ___ is a clear gel, with no visible structure of its own, in which the organelles of a cell are embedded. A. nucleoplasm B. cytoplasm C. cytosol D. ecotoplasm E. protoplasm

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #48

49. Which function is associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum? A. ATP synthesis B. protein synthesis C. DNA synthesis D. active transport E. polysaccharide hydrolysis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #49

50. What organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death? A. the rough endoplasmic reticulum B. the nucleus C. a centriole D. a lysosome E. a mitochondrion

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #50

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #51

52. What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed? A. exocytosis B. active transport C. ciliary beating D. protein synthesis E. osmosis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #52

53. Muscle cells contain numerous ___ because of their high demand for ATP. A. ribosomes B. lysosomes C. mitochondria D. microtubules E. Golgi vesicles

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #53

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #54

55. Ribosomes are produced in the A. nucleoli. B. chromatin. C. nuclear envelopes. D. Golgi complex. E. cisternae.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #55

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #56

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #57

58. All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell except A. exocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. active transport. D. simple diffusion. E. facilitated diffusion.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #58

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 003 Chapter... #61

62. If a hormone cannot enter a cell, it may bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane and trigger the formation of ___ within the cell. A. ATP B. DNA C. cAMP D. RNA E. ADP

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 003 Chapter... #62

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 003 Chapter... #63

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 003 Chapter... #64

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68. As a cell doubles in diameter, its volume increases by a factor of A. one half. B. two. C. four. D. eight. E. sixteen.

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70. The plasma membrane is composed of about 75% A. lipids. B. proteins. C. phospholipids. D. glycoproteins. E. cholesterol.

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75. Enzymes that are attached to the cell membrane are A. glycoproteins. B. lipoproteins. C. peripheral proteins. D. integral proteins. E. proteoglycans.

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83. A one molar (1M) solution of calcium chloride (CaCl2) contains one mole per liter of CaCl2, which will yield _____ moles per liter. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

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85. A normal red blood cell is placed into a solution that causes the cell to swell and burst. The solution was A. hypertonic. B. hypotonic. C. isotonic. D. paratonic. E. osmotonic.

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90. The process of taking in droplets of ECF-containing molecules of some use to the cell, like proteins, is called A. phagocytosis. B. endocytosis. C. pinocytosis. D. exocytosis. E. transcytosis.

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93. Bacterial DNA most resembles human DNA in which one of the below structures? A. nucleolus B. nucleus C. mitochondria D. ribosomes. E. rough endoplasmic reticulum

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Chapter 4 1. The sex of a person from which a tissue was taken could be determined from the ___, a chart in which photographs of the chromosomes are arranged in homologous pairs. ________________________________________

2. Two identical-looking chromosomes, each of which was inherited from a different parent, are called ___ chromosomes. ________________________________________

3. A ___ is, in some cases, a gene for a growth factor. It can mutate and become a cancer-causing oncogene. ________________________________________

4. The enzymes that activate other proteins involved in mitosis are called ___. ________________________________________

5. The spread of cancer from its original site in the body to new locations is called ___. ________________________________________

6. Any environmental agent that causes cancer is called a/an ___. ________________________________________

7. A ___ cell is one that has half as many chromosomes as those cells with a complete chromosome set. ________________________________________

8. The alternative forms taken by a single gene are called its ___. ________________________________________

9. The ___ is the combination of genes that a person has for a specific trait. ________________________________________

10. ___ is a phenomenon in which cells stop dividing when they are in close contact with neighboring cells, thus preventing excessive tissue growth. ________________________________________

11. Whereas DNA is composed of pyrimidines, RNA is composed of purines. True False

12. A cell may have more than one nucleus. True False

13. A change in protein structure does not necessarily change its function. True False

14. Only one ribosome at a time can translate an mRNA molecule. True False

15. DNA synthesis occurs during a cell's second growth phase. True False

16. In a given metaphase chromosome, one daughter chromosome came from the individual's father and the other one came from the mother. True False

17. All carcinogens are mutagens but not all mutagens are carcinogens. True False

18. An oncogene is one example of a carcinogen. True False

19. Mutations in tumor suppressor genes are one of the common causes of cancer. True False

20. If a recessive allele is present in a heterozygous state, it usually will not be phenotypically expressed. True False

21. Only a heterozygous individual can be a genetic carrier. True False

22. Although all cells synthesize phospholipids, there are no genes for phospholipids. True False

23. DNA is composed of double-ringed nitrogenous bases, whereas RNA is composed of single-ringed nitrogenous bases. True False

24. RNA polymerase is an enzyme in the ribosomes that polymerizes amino acids into proteins. True False

25. A mutation may or may not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions

allele base triplet codominance G0 G2 haploid homozygous locus metaphase penetrance pleiotropy telophase

anaphase carcinoma codon G1 genotype heterozygous incomplete dominance melanoma mutation phenotype sarcoma

26. Which term can be described as the sequence of 3 DNA nucleotides that codes for one amino acid? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as any of the alternative forms that a particular gene can take? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as having identical alleles for a given gene? ________________________________________

29. Which term can be described as the condition in which two alleles are both fully expressed when present in the same individual? ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as the percentage of individuals with a given genotype who actually exhibit the phenotype predicted from it? ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the alleles that a person possesses for a particular trait? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as cancer of the bone, other connective tissue, or muscle? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the cells with homologous pairs of chromosomes? ________________________________________

34. Which term can be described as the phase of the cell cycle in which a cell finishes replicating its centrioles and synthesizes enzymes that control cell division? ________________________________________

35. Which term can be described as the phase of mitosis in which each centromere divides in two and chromatids separate from each other? ________________________________________

36. ___ are both found in RNA but neither of them is found in DNA. A. Adenine and ribose B. Adenine and guanine C. Deoxyribose and uracil D. Ribose and uracil E. Thiamine and uracil

37. What does the nuclear envelope have in common with mitochondria? A. cristae B. cytochromes C. ribosomes D. a double unit membrane E. large pores for proteins to pass through

38. In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around A. histones. B. a ribosome. C. a polyribosome. D. nonhistones. E. a nucleotide.

39. If a DNA molecule has 12% thymine, how much guanine will it have? A. 6% B. 12% C. 24% D. 38% E. 76%

40. If you were looking at human cells in interphase with a light microscope, which of the following might be visible in their nuclei? A. nucleoli B. nucleosomes C. chromosomes D. double helices E. histones

41. Which of the following is a pyrimidine? A. guanine B. cytosine C. adenine D. morphine E. deoxyribose

42. If part of a gene had the base sequence TGCCAT, what would be the base sequence of the complementary strand of DNA? A. AGCCAU B. ACGGUA C. UCGGUA D. TCGGTA E. ACGGTA

43. If part of a gene had the base sequence TGCCAT, what would be the base sequence of the corresponding mRNA? A. AGCCAU B. ACGGUA C. UCGGUA D. TCGGTA E. ACGGTA

44. If part of a gene had the base sequence TGCCAT and it were transcribed to mRNA, what would be the base sequence of the tRNA anticodons that would bind to that region of the mRNA? A. UGCCAU B. ACGGUA C. UCGGUA D. TCGGTA E. ACGGTA

45. RNA differs from DNA in all of the following ways except A. RNA molecules are much shorter. B. RNA molecules are composed of only one nucleotide chain. C. RNA does not contain deoxyribose. D. RNA can pass through the nuclear pores, but DNA cannot. E. RNA does not code for proteins.

46. DNA could code for the synthesis of only one of the following, namely A. testosterone. B. glycogen. C. collagen. D. phospholipids. E. prostaglandin.

47. DNA can code for the synthesis of all of the following substances except A. more DNA. B. histones. C. tRNA. D. a prostaglandin. E. hemoglobin.

48. Of the following, the only substance that directly binds to an amino acid during protein synthesis is A. tRNA. B. mRNA. C. pre-mRNA. D. rRNA. E. DNA.

49. Morse code consists of only two symbols, "." and "-". A binary computer code consists of only two symbols, 1 and 0. The number of symbols in the genetic code, however, is A. one. B. two. C. four. D. eight. E. thousands.

50. All newly synthesized proteins begin with methionine, because the code for methionine, AUG, is also A. a MET codon. B. a base triplet. C. a start codon. D. a stop codon. E. an anticodon.

51. A base sequence TATATA indicates A. a repetitive mutation in the DNA. B. where RNA polymerase should begin transcribing a gene. C. where rRNA should begin reading the mRNA code. D. the end of the gene for a particular protein. E. the anticodon of a tRNA molecule.

52. The process of post-transcriptional modification A. adds a carbohydrate or other moiety to a new polypeptide. B. converts pre-mRNA to mRNA by removing introns. C. folds a new polypeptide into its tertiary shape. D. transfers mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. E. converts mRNA's base sequence to a protein's amino acid sequence.

53. The number of chemically different tRNAs used in converting the genetic code to a polypeptide sequence is A. 4. B. 20. C. 32. D. 61. E. 64.

54. Protein synthesis involves an anticodon, a base triplet, and a codon. These are parts of the ___ molecules, respectively. A. tRNA, DNA, and mRNA B. DNA, tRNA, and mRNA C. mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA D. DNA, RNA, and polypeptide E. RNA, DNA, and polypeptide

55. One function of a chaperone, or heat shock protein, is A. to ensure the accuracy of DNA transcription. B. to remove the introns from pre-mRNA. C. to escort amino acids to the ribosomes for polypeptide assembly. D. to correct errors in DNA replication. E. to regulate the folding of newly synthesized polypeptides.

56. Since insulin begins as a polypeptide of 86 amino acids, we can estimate the minimum number of DNA bases in the insulin gene as A. exactly 86 bases. B. at least 86 bases but probably more than 100, including SnRNPs. C. exactly 258 bases. D. exactly 261 bases. E. probably more than 261 bases.

57. ___ is/are needed in the production of proteins that are going to be secreted from a cell, but not necessarily in the production of proteins destined for intracellular uses. A. RNA polymerase B. Ribosomes C. Post-transcriptional modification D. Golgi apparatus E. Mitochondria

58. As a first step in DNA replication, the double helix must be "unzipped" to expose some of its bases. The protein that does this is A. DNA replicase. B. DNA ligase. C. DNA helicase. D. DNA polymerase. E. reverse transcriptase.

59. Which of these processes occurs during a cell's first growth (G1) phase? A. DNA is semiconservatively replicated. B. The nuclear envelope breaks down. C. The cell synthesizes the enzymes that control mitosis. D. Centrioles begin to replicate. E. The chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes.

60. The stage at which sister chromatids part company and move to opposite poles of a cell is the ___ of a cell's life cycle. A. S phase B. G2 phase C. prophase D. metaphase E. anaphase

61. Malignant tumors differ from benign tumors in all of the following ways except that A. they are cancerous. B. they are not encapsulated. C. they are the only potentially fatal tumors. D. they are capable of metastasis. E. they grow more rapidly.

62. A carcinoma is a type of tumor that develops from A. bone cells. B. epithelial cells. C. pigmented skin cells. D. bone marrow. E. lymph nodes.

63. It is because of ___ that human sex cells are haploid. A. homology B. segregation C. integration D. pleiotropy E. anaplasia

64. If a person is homozygous for a certain trait, he or she has A. haploid genes for that trait. B. identical loci for that gene. C. identical alleles for that gene. D. homologous chromosomes for that trait. E. polygenic inheritance of that trait.

65. If a man has an X-linked recessive allele for a given trait A. he cannot pass it to his son. B. he cannot pass it to his daughter. C. its effects will be masked by his dominant Y chromosome. D. its effects will be masked by his other X chromosome. E. he must have inherited it from his father.

66. An example of incomplete dominance is seen in A. familial hypercholesterolemia. B. ABO blood types. C. albinism. D. color blindness. E. sickle cell anemia.

67. Which of the following violates the law of complementary base pairing? A. A-T B. C-G C. A-U D. T-C E. G-C

68. The process of transcription produces A. DNA. B. pre-mRNA. C. rRNA. D. tRNA. E. a polypeptide.

69. The process of translation produces A. DNA. B. pre-mRNA. C. rRNA. D. tRNA. E. a polypeptide.

70. The process of semiconservative replication produces A. DNA. B. pre-mRNA. C. rRNA. D. tRNA. E. a polypeptide.

71. The stage at which chromosomes aggregate along the equator of a cell is A. prophase. B. metaphase. C. anaphase. D. telophase. E. interphase.

72. DNA is wrapped around clusters of eight proteins. These proteins are called _____, and the clusters of DNA plus the eight proteins form granules called ______. A. nonhistones; nucleosomes B. histones; nucleosomes C. histones; chromosomes D. nonhistones; chromosomes E. histones; chromatin

73. Consider the diagrams of two nucleotides below. The adenine nucleotide is classified as a ______, while the cytosine nucleotide is classified as a ________. A. deoxyribose; ribose B. ribose; deoxyribose C. pyrimidine; purine D. purine; pyrimidine E. histone; nonhistone

74. In a DNA molecule, complementary pairs of nitrogenous bases face the inside of a double helix and hold the sugar-phosphate backbones together with _____ bonds. A. polar covalent B. nonpolar covalent C. ionic D. hydrogen E. phosphate

75. The double helix of DNA has a uniform 2-nm diameter. This constant diameter occurs because _____ always pair(s) with ______. A. deoxyribose sugars; phosphates B. ribose sugars; phosphates C. purines; pyrimidines D. deoxyribose; nitrogen bases E. ribose sugars; deoxyribose sugars

76. Transcription occurs in the ______, while most translation occurs in the _____. A. nucleus; cytoplasm B. nucleus; nucleolus C. cytoplasm; nucleus D. nucleolus; cytoplasm E. nucleolus; rough endoplasmic reticulum

77. In the transcription of DNA to mRNA, there are nonsense portions on the mRNA that are cut out before translation can occur. These nonsense portions of mRNA are called A. stop codons. B. introns. C. exons. D. anticodons. E. spliceosomes

78. RNA polymerase opens up DNA so that a complementary pre-mRNA can be transcribed. To open DNA, RNA polymerase breaks A. hydrogen bonds between deoxyribose and phosphate. B. covalent bonds between adenine and uracil. C. covalent bonds between deoxyribose and the nitrogen bases. D. hydrogen bonds between the complementary purines and pyrimidines. E. phosphate bonds between complementary sugar-phosphate backbone pairs.

79. Functional mRNA generally leaves the nucleus and binds to A. sense strand of DNA. B. tRNA in the cytosol. C. tRNA in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. D. rRNA in the small ribosomal subunit. E. rRNA in the large ribosomal subunit.

80. In transfer RNA (tRNA), one end has three nucleotides called anticodons, which attaches to the codon on the functional mRNA. At the other end there is a binding site for _____. A. amino acids B. ATP C. DNA polymerase D. RNA polymerase E. Ribosomes

81. Once two adjacent tRNAs bind to codons on the mRNA, an enzyme in the large ribosomal subunit leads to formation of ____ bonds between the adjacent amino acids. A. hydrogen B. ionic C. covalent D. phosphate E. nitrogen

82. A protein is 100 amino acids long. What would be the minimum number of nucleotides on the functional mRNA to synthesize this protein? A. 33 B. 100 C. 300 D. 303 E. 306

83. A newly formed protein does not prematurely form its final primary, secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure because A. the polyribosome prevents the newly formed protein from assuming a set shape until it is fully formed. B. tRNA stays bonded to the amino acids until the protein is completed. C. proteins called chaperones prevent the newly formed protein from assuming a premature shape. D. signal peptides prevent the protein from forming its shape until the protein is completed. E. free radicals prevent premature protein folding.

84. You were able to radioactively tag an amino acid that is used to make insulin, a hormone that will be exported out of the cell. The pathway of the tagged amino acid would be A. free ribosome → cytosol → vesicle → extracellular fluid. B. rough ER → Golgi complex → Golgi vesicle → extracellular fluid. C. rough ER → smooth ER → Golgi complex → Golgi vesicle → extracellular fluid. D. smooth ER → Golgi complex → Golgi vesicle → extracellular fluid. E. smooth ER → Golgi complex → lysosome → extracellular fluid.

85. The purpose of the clathrin coat on the transport vesicle is to A. direct the transport vesicle to the Golgi complex. B. prevent the protein inside the transport vesicle from being digested by enzymes. C. prevent the newly formed protein into forming its final shape until it reaches its final destination. D. finalize the final shape of the protein and allow other molecules to be added to the protein such as carbohydrates or fats. E. direct the transport vesicle to be incorporated into the plasma membrane.

86. An epithelial cell with its 46 chromosomes divides to form two new epithelial cells, each with 46 chromosomes. You would expect that in the new epithelial cells A. one cell to have 46 chromosomes with the old DNA and the other cell to have 46 chromosomes with the new DNA. B. both cells to have 46 chromosomes with new DNA. C. both cells to have 46 chromosomes, half with new DNA and half with old DNA. D. both cells to have 46 chromosomes: 23 chromosomes with new DNA and 23 chromosomes with old DNA. E. both cells to have 46 chromosomes with old DNA.

87. DNA in your cells containing 46 chromosomes consists of billions of base pairs. This replication of the 46 chromosomes takes A. seconds. B. minutes. C. hours. D. days. E. weeks.

88. DNA polymerase is most active in which one of the following phases of a cell cycle? A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. M E. G0

89. In the cell cycle, RNA polymerase is most active in which of the following phases? A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. M E. G0

90. G1, S, and G2 are collectively called A. prophase. B. telophase. C. cytokinesis. D. interphase. E. anaphase.

91. In a cell cycle, a cell leaving the M phase has ______ DNA molecules, while a cell leaving the S phase has _____ DNA molecules. A. 46; 46 B. 46; 92 C. 46; 23 D. 23; 46 E. 23; 23

92. In prophase, the chromatin supercoils into short, dense rods which each consist of two A. sister chromatids. B. centromeres. C. chromosomes. D. chromatins. E. histones.

93. Cytokinesis occurs during which phase of mitosis? A. anaphase B. telophase C. metaphase D. prophase. E. interphase.

94. Sperm and egg cells contain _____ chromosomes and are called _____ cells. A. 46; diploid B. 46; haploid C. 23; haploid D. 23; diploid E. 23; homologous

95. The allele for detached earlobes (D) is dominant to the allele for attached earlobes (d). A male who is heterozygous for detached earlobes has a child with a female who is also heterozygous for detached earlobes. What is the chance that their first child will have attached earlobes? A. 0 B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100%

96. In blood types, there are three alleles possible at a locus. Type A allele (IA) and type B allele (IB) are both dominant to type O allele (i). A alleles and B alleles are codominant, or equally dominant. If a type AB male has a child with a type O female, what is the chance their first child will be type O? A. 0 B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100%

97. You would expect traits that are common in a population would be determined by A. dominant alleles. B. recessive alleles. C. codominant alleles. D. alleles that produce the better adaptive phenotypes. E. alleles that interact more with environmental factors.

98. Hemophilia is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. This means that A. women can be carriers but cannot get hemophilia. B. the gene is found on the Y chromosome. C. a man can give the allele to his son but not to his daughter. D. a son who has hemophilia inherited the allele from his mother. E. a son who has hemophilia inherited the allele from his father.

99. Emphysema, which is a respiratory disorder that destroys alveoli in the lungs, is linked to a specific abnormal genotype. However, about 80% of individuals with this genotype develop emphysema. This percentage of the genotype that actually produces the phenotype is called A. penetrance. B. pleiotropy. C. multiple-gene inheritance. D. environmental adaptation. E. phenotypic effect.

04 Key

1. The sex of a person from which a tissue was taken could be determined from the ___, a chart in which photographs of the chromosomes are arranged in homologous pairs. karyotype

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #1

2. Two identical-looking chromosomes, each of which was inherited from a different parent, are called ___ chromosomes. homologous

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #2

3. A ___ is, in some cases, a gene for a growth factor. It can mutate and become a cancer-causing oncogene. proto-oncogene

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #3

4. The enzymes that activate other proteins involved in mitosis are called ___. cyclin-dependent kinases

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #4

5. The spread of cancer from its original site in the body to new locations is called ___. metastasis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #5

6. Any environmental agent that causes cancer is called a/an ___. carcinogen

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #6

7. A ___ cell is one that has half as many chromosomes as those cells with a complete chromosome set. haploid

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8. The alternative forms taken by a single gene are called its ___. alleles

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9. The ___ is the combination of genes that a person has for a specific trait. genotype

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10. ___ is a phenomenon in which cells stop dividing when they are in close contact with neighboring cells, thus preventing excessive tissue growth. Contact inhibition

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11. Whereas DNA is composed of pyrimidines, RNA is composed of purines. FALSE

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12. A cell may have more than one nucleus. TRUE

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13. A change in protein structure does not necessarily change its function. TRUE

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14. Only one ribosome at a time can translate an mRNA molecule. FALSE

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15. DNA synthesis occurs during a cell's second growth phase. FALSE

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16. In a given metaphase chromosome, one daughter chromosome came from the individual's father and the other one came from the mother. FALSE

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17. All carcinogens are mutagens but not all mutagens are carcinogens. TRUE

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18. An oncogene is one example of a carcinogen. FALSE

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19. Mutations in tumor suppressor genes are one of the common causes of cancer. TRUE

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20. If a recessive allele is present in a heterozygous state, it usually will not be phenotypically expressed. TRUE

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21. Only a heterozygous individual can be a genetic carrier. TRUE

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22. Although all cells synthesize phospholipids, there are no genes for phospholipids. TRUE

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23. DNA is composed of double-ringed nitrogenous bases, whereas RNA is composed of single-ringed nitrogenous bases. FALSE

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24. RNA polymerase is an enzyme in the ribosomes that polymerizes amino acids into proteins. FALSE

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25. A mutation may or may not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. TRUE

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Match the following terms to the definitions

allele base triplet codominance G0 G2 haploid homozygous locus metaphase penetrance pleiotropy telophase

anaphase carcinoma codon G1 genotype heterozygous incomplete dominance melanoma mutation phenotype sarcoma

Saladin - 004 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the sequence of 3 DNA nucleotides that codes for one amino acid? base triplet

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27. Which term can be described as any of the alternative forms that a particular gene can take? allele

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28. Which term can be described as having identical alleles for a given gene? homozygous

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29. Which term can be described as the condition in which two alleles are both fully expressed when present in the same individual? codominance

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30. Which term can be described as the percentage of individuals with a given genotype who actually exhibit the phenotype predicted from it? penetrance

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #30

31. Which term can be described as the alleles that a person possesses for a particular trait? genotype

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #31

32. Which term can be described as cancer of the bone, other connective tissue, or muscle? sarcoma

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #32

33. Which term can be described as the cells with homologous pairs of chromosomes? diploid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #33

34. Which term can be described as the phase of the cell cycle in which a cell finishes replicating its centrioles and synthesizes enzymes that control cell division? G2

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35. Which term can be described as the phase of mitosis in which each centromere divides in two and chromatids separate from each other? anaphase

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #35

36. ___ are both found in RNA but neither of them is found in DNA. A. Adenine and ribose B. Adenine and guanine C. Deoxyribose and uracil D. Ribose and uracil E. Thiamine and uracil

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #36

37. What does the nuclear envelope have in common with mitochondria? A. cristae B. cytochromes C. ribosomes D. a double unit membrane E. large pores for proteins to pass through

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #37

38. In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around A. histones. B. a ribosome. C. a polyribosome. D. nonhistones. E. a nucleotide.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #38

39. If a DNA molecule has 12% thymine, how much guanine will it have? A. 6% B. 12% C. 24% D. 38% E. 76%

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41. Which of the following is a pyrimidine? A. guanine B. cytosine C. adenine D. morphine E. deoxyribose

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #41

42. If part of a gene had the base sequence TGCCAT, what would be the base sequence of the complementary strand of DNA? A. AGCCAU B. ACGGUA C. UCGGUA D. TCGGTA E. ACGGTA

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #42

43. If part of a gene had the base sequence TGCCAT, what would be the base sequence of the corresponding mRNA? A. AGCCAU B. ACGGUA C. UCGGUA D. TCGGTA E. ACGGTA

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #43

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #44

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #45

46. DNA could code for the synthesis of only one of the following, namely A. testosterone. B. glycogen. C. collagen. D. phospholipids. E. prostaglandin.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 004 Chapter... #46

47. DNA can code for the synthesis of all of the following substances except A. more DNA. B. histones. C. tRNA. D. a prostaglandin. E. hemoglobin.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 004 Chapter... #47

48. Of the following, the only substance that directly binds to an amino acid during protein synthesis is A. tRNA. B. mRNA. C. pre-mRNA. D. rRNA. E. DNA.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #48

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #49

50. All newly synthesized proteins begin with methionine, because the code for methionine, AUG, is also A. a MET codon. B. a base triplet. C. a start codon. D. a stop codon. E. an anticodon.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #50

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #52

53. The number of chemically different tRNAs used in converting the genetic code to a polypeptide sequence is A. 4. B. 20. C. 32. D. 61. E. 64.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 004 Chapter... #53

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #54

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #59

60. The stage at which sister chromatids part company and move to opposite poles of a cell is the ___ of a cell's life cycle. A. S phase B. G2 phase C. prophase D. metaphase E. anaphase

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #61

62. A carcinoma is a type of tumor that develops from A. bone cells. B. epithelial cells. C. pigmented skin cells. D. bone marrow. E. lymph nodes.

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63. It is because of ___ that human sex cells are haploid. A. homology B. segregation C. integration D. pleiotropy E. anaplasia

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66. An example of incomplete dominance is seen in A. familial hypercholesterolemia. B. ABO blood types. C. albinism. D. color blindness. E. sickle cell anemia.

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67. Which of the following violates the law of complementary base pairing? A. A-T B. C-G C. A-U D. T-C E. G-C

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68. The process of transcription produces A. DNA. B. pre-mRNA. C. rRNA. D. tRNA. E. a polypeptide.

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69. The process of translation produces A. DNA. B. pre-mRNA. C. rRNA. D. tRNA. E. a polypeptide.

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70. The process of semiconservative replication produces A. DNA. B. pre-mRNA. C. rRNA. D. tRNA. E. a polypeptide.

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71. The stage at which chromosomes aggregate along the equator of a cell is A. prophase. B. metaphase. C. anaphase. D. telophase. E. interphase.

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82. A protein is 100 amino acids long. What would be the minimum number of nucleotides on the functional mRNA to synthesize this protein? A. 33 B. 100 C. 300 D. 303 E. 306

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87. DNA in your cells containing 46 chromosomes consists of billions of base pairs. This replication of the 46 chromosomes takes A. seconds. B. minutes. C. hours. D. days. E. weeks.

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88. DNA polymerase is most active in which one of the following phases of a cell cycle? A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. M E. G0

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #88

89. In the cell cycle, RNA polymerase is most active in which of the following phases? A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. M E. G0

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 004 Chapter... #89

90. G1, S, and G2 are collectively called A. prophase. B. telophase. C. cytokinesis. D. interphase. E. anaphase.

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91. In a cell cycle, a cell leaving the M phase has ______ DNA molecules, while a cell leaving the S phase has _____ DNA molecules. A. 46; 46 B. 46; 92 C. 46; 23 D. 23; 46 E. 23; 23

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92. In prophase, the chromatin supercoils into short, dense rods which each consist of two A. sister chromatids. B. centromeres. C. chromosomes. D. chromatins. E. histones.

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93. Cytokinesis occurs during which phase of mitosis? A. anaphase B. telophase C. metaphase D. prophase. E. interphase.

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94. Sperm and egg cells contain _____ chromosomes and are called _____ cells. A. 46; diploid B. 46; haploid C. 23; haploid D. 23; diploid E. 23; homologous

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Chapter 5 1. The epidermis is said to be a ___ stratified squamous epithelium because it is covered with dead, protein-filled cells. ________________________________________

2. Any gland that has no duct and secretes its products directly into the blood is called an ___ gland. ________________________________________

3. Hyaline cartilage is covered by a fibrous connective tissue membrane called the ___. ________________________________________

4. All the material found outside the cells is called ___ material. ________________________________________

5. Tendons are in a category called ___ connective tissue because all their fibers are more or less parallel and closely spaced. ________________________________________

6. A simple epithelium is one in which every cell reaches the ___. ________________________________________

7. All connective tissues consist of cells, fibers, and ___. ________________________________________

8. The cell body of a neuron usually has one axon and numerous ___ extending from it. ________________________________________

9. The growth of a tissue due to enlargement of its cells, but not involving the production of new cells, is called ___. ________________________________________

10. Glands that produce thin, watery secretions are called ___ glands. ________________________________________

11. In a connective tissue, the extracellular matrix occupies more space than the cells do. True False

12. In an epithelium, there is no extracellular matrix. True False

13. Apoptosis is tissue growth through cell multiplication. True False

14. After a cartilage cell becomes trapped in a lacuna, it is called a chondrocyte. True False

15. As people get older, brown fat constitutes a greater percentage of their body weight. True False

16. There is a layer of areolar tissue immediately deep to the epidermis. True False

17. Most of the space within a cell is filled with interstitial fluid. True False

18. Gangrene is a type of atrophy. True False

19. A desmosome is more effective than a tight junction in preventing substances from passing between cells. True False

20. If a tissue grows by cell division, it is said to exhibit hyperplasia. True False

21. A compound gland has branched ducts. True False

22. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium usually contains Goblet cells. True False

23. Transitional epithelium is usually found in salivary glands and is specialized for secretion. True False

24. Reticular connective tissue is found in lymph nodes. True False

25. Elastic cartilage is found in intervertebral discs. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

adipocytes apoptosis cardiac muscle chondrocytes endoderm fibrosis infarction mesoderm mucous membranes osseous tissue pericardium pleura serous membranes

anaplasia atrophy cartilage ectoderm epidermis hyperplasia lipocytes metaplasia necrosis osteocytes peritoneum regeneration smooth muscle

26. Which term can be described as the cartilage cells? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as the formation of scar tissue? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as the primary germ layer that gives rise to muscle and connective tissue? ________________________________________

29. Which term can be described as the abnormal death of a tissue? ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as the connective tissue containing calcified matrix? ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the replacement of damaged tissue with the same kind of tissue? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as the double layered membranes that allow organs to slide past each other? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity? ________________________________________

34. Which term can be described as the tissue with intercalated discs? ________________________________________

35. Which term can be described as fat cells? ________________________________________

36. Cilia are most likely to be seen on ___ epithelium. A. stratified squamous B. stratified cuboidal C. pseudostratified D. simple squamous E. transitional

37. A tissue specialized for energy storage and thermal insulation is A. cartilage tissue. B. muscle tissue. C. adipose tissue. D. epithelial tissue. E. nervous tissue.

38. A decrease in the size of a tissue or organ is A. hyperplasia. B. metaplasia. C. hypertrophy. D. atrophy. E. hypotrophy.

39. The internal lining of the esophagus and adult vagina is A. a serosa. B. the peritoneum. C. the pleura. D. a ciliated epithelium. E. a stratified squamous epithelium.

40. Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and A. fibroblasts. B. chondrocytes. C. neuroglia. D. neurocytes. E. osteocytes.

41. Which of the following tissues is avascular? A. epithelial and cartilage B. muscle tissue C. dense irregular connective tissue D. bone and cartilage E. nervous tissue and bone

42. Which of the following is not one of the four primary classes of tissue? A. muscle tissue B. connective tissue C. epithelial tissue D. cartilage tissue E. nervous tissue

43. Which of the following are branched? A. reticular fibers B. skeletal muscle fibers C. white collagen fibers D. yellow collagen fibers E. smooth muscle cells

44. The gel of the extracellular matrix is composed mostly of water and A. proteoglycans. B. collagen. C. keratin. D. reticular fibers. E. phospholipid.

45. The only type of cell seen in a tendon is A. muscle fibers. B. reticular cells. C. chondrocytes. D. fibroblasts. E. mast cells.

46. The shape of a person's external ear is due mainly to A. dense regular connective tissue. B. dense irregular connective tissue. C. elastic cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. ligaments.

47. The secretory cells of a gland are supported by a connective tissue framework called the A. serosa. B. stroma. C. parenchyma. D. trabecula. E. lamina propria.

48. Glands that produce a thick, sticky secretion are called ___ glands. A. serous B. acinar C. mucous D. compound E. exocrine

49. ___ are single mucus-secreting cells found in the epithelia of many mucous membranes. A. Mast cells B. Goblet cells C. Endocrine cells D. Myocytes E. Histiocytes

50. A tissue most like the endothelium that lines the blood vessels is A. the epithelium that lines the esophagus. B. transitional epithelium. C. simple cuboidal epithelium. D. the epithelium that lines the trachea. E. mesothelium.

51. The epithelium that lines the stomach and intestines is A. simple cuboidal. B. simple columnar. C. pseudostratified. D. transitional. E. stratified squamous.

52. In ___, cells and matrix are arranged in concentric layers around a central canal that contains blood vessels. A. hyaline cartilage B. elastic cartilage C. osseous tissue D. dentin E. dense regular connective tissue

53. Which of the following is not a connective tissue? A. blood B. bone C. cartilage D. muscle E. adipose

54. A/an ___ is a small sac of gland cells arranged around a space into which they secrete their product. A. areolus B. acinus C. ductus D. lobule E. varix

55. Hyaline cartilage is found in A. costal cartilage. B. pubic symphysis. C. intervertebral discs. D. epiglottis. E. external ear.

56. All glands that release their products by way of ducts, rather than directly into the bloodstream, are called ___ glands. A. exocrine B. endocrine C. holocrine D. apocrine E. autocrine

57. The simple squamous epithelium that lines the body cavities and covers the outer surfaces of the viscera is called A. endoderm. B. endothelium. C. perineum. D. mesothelium. E. ectoderm.

58. A ___ is a relatively impenetrable attachment between two epithelial cells formed by membrane proteins that interlock somewhat like a zipper. A. plasma membrane B. desmosome C. tight junction D. gap junction E. zipper junction

59. In all mucous membranes, an epithelium rests on a connective tissue layer called A. the muscularis mucosae. B. the submucosa. C. the lamina propria. D. the serosa. E. the mucosa.

60. Stem cells travel to and proliferate downward in this phase of the hair cycle: A. telogen B. anagen C. catagen D. antigen E. teratogen

61. The only type of muscle with multinucleated fibers is A. skeletal muscle. B. cardiac muscle. C. involuntary muscle. D. smooth muscle. E. visceral muscle.

62. Tendons and ligaments are made predominantly of the protein A. keratin. B. fibrin. C. actin. D. collagen. E. elastin.

63. Which type of epithelium is best suited for rapid filtration? A. simple squamous B. stratified squamous C. pseudostratified D. transitional E. stratified cuboidal

64. Tissue gel gets its viscous consistency from its A. mucus. B. collagen fibers. C. hyaluronidase. D. proteoglycans. E. glycosaminoglycans.

65. The nonliving material surrounding cells is called A. ground substance. B. fibrous proteins. C. intracellular fluid. D. matrix. E. cytoplasm.

66. The germ layer that gives rise to mucous membranes of the digestive and respiratory tracts is called A. ectoderm. B. endoderm. C. mesoderm. D. mesenchyme. E. epiderm.

67. An individual was born with Marfan's syndrome, which is a hereditary defect on chromosome 15. Symptoms of this disease include unusually tall stature, long limbs, and an abnormal spinal curvature. Which germ layer is most likely affected by this hereditary disease? A. ectoderm B. endoderm C. mesoderm D. epiderm E. neuroderm

68. This primary germ layer is the middle layer called _____ and gives rise to a gelatinous material called ____ that gives rise to the different types of connective tissue such as bone, muscle, and blood. A. ectoderm; stem cells B. mesoderm; mesenchyme C. endoderm; mesenchyme D. mesoderm; fibroblasts E. ectoderm; mesenchyme

69. This tissue regulates what enters and what leaves the body. A. epithelial B. connective C. muscular D. nervous E. blood

70. A tissue containing ~20 layers of flat cells is called A. simple squamous. B. simple cuboidal. C. simple columnar. D. pseudostratified columnar. E. stratified squamous.

71. Which of the following is not a characteristic of simple columnar epithelium? A. Goblet cells B. cilia C. nuclei lined up towards basement membrane D. cells appear cube shaped E. specialized for absorption and secretion

72. The epithelium lining the trachea is capable of A. producing mucus and moving material across its surface. B. producing mucus and absorbing large quantities of material. C. producing enzymes and absorbing large quantities of material. D. producing acid and moving material across its surface. E. gas exchange.

73. The epithelium that would most likely be found lining the esophagus and vagina is A. keratinized stratified squamous. B. nonkeratinized stratified squamous. C. stratified cuboidal. D. transitional. E. pseudostratified columnar.

74. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in _____ and its function is _____. A. kidney tubules; absorption B. salivary glands; digestion C. small intestine; secretion D. lung; diffusion E. esophagus; protection

75. This cell is large and flat and produces the fibers and ground substance of connective tissue. A. macrophage B. adipocyte C. fibroblast D. neutrophil E. squamous

76. A patient has an abnormally high concentration of basophils in his blood and mast cells in the surrounding connective tissue. The other while blood cell counts were normal. The patient most likely has A. an infection caused by parasites. B. cancer. C. an allergy. D. a chronic infection caused by bacteria. E. a clotting problem.

77. The most common fiber in connective tissue is A. collagen. B. elastic. C. reticular. D. keratin. E. fibrin.

78. If you were unable to produce the protein elastin that makes up elastic fibers, you would have great difficulty A. attaching bones to bones. B. developing bones. C. breathing. D. attaching muscles to bones. E. maintaining your posture.

79. Glycosaminoglycan (GAG) is a long polysaccharide composed of amino sugars and uronic acid. GAGs, such as hyaluronic acid, heparin, and chondroitin sulfate, are negatively charged. GAGs help give the ground substance some of its qualities such as A. helping to transfer charges in the nervous system. B. holding water and maintaining electrolyte balance. C. giving bone its brittle inorganic structure. D. providing the major structural support of tendons and ligaments. E. acting as an energy reserve for muscle contraction.

80. The connective tissue that forms the framework of organs and tissue such as lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus is composed primarily of fibroblasts and A. reticular fibers. B. elastic fibers. C. collagen fibers. D. chondroitin sulfate. E. keratin.

81. Which one of the following does not have an abundance of collagen fibers? A. Achilles tendon B. dermis of skin C. cartilage of the nose D. cartilage of the external ear E. patellar ligament

82. Adipose tissue in adults is primarily white fat, but infants and children also have brown fat. Infants and children have a need for brown fat because they A. have a small surface area to volume ratio. B. have a large surface area to volume ratio. C. require more ATP production. D. require more protection from ultraviolet rays. E. need to lose heat at a faster rate

83. Which of the following tissues is found in the dermis of the skin? A. adipose B. simple squamous C. stratified squamous D. dense irregular E. dense regular

84. Which one of the following is not made of hyaline cartilage? A. nose B. larynx C. intervertebral disc D. costal, or rib cartilage E. trachea

85. The ground substance of blood is called A. plasma. B. hyaluronic acid. C. interstitial fluid. D. chondroitin sulfate. E. cytosol.

86. The area of the neuron which houses the nucleus is called the ______, while the long single extension that sends electrical signals to other cells is called the ______. A. neuroglia; axon B. soma; axon C. soma; dendrite D. dendrite; axon E. soma; nerve

87. The electrical charge difference across plasma membranes of all cells is called the A. membrane potential. B. depolarization phase. C. action potential. D. repolarization phase. E. hyperpolarization phase.

88. Which two muscle types form sphincters? A. smooth and cardiac B. cardiac and skeletal C. skeletal and smooth D. striated and skeletal E. intestinal and skeletal

89. Which two muscle types are controlled involuntarily? A. smooth and cardiac B. cardiac and skeletal C. skeletal and smooth D. striated and smooth E. intestinal and skeletal

90. Astronauts in zero gravity are able to move food through their digestive tracts and urine through their ureters and urinary bladders because A. skeletal muscle puts pressure on the different ducts and bladder. B. smooth muscle has waves of contractions that propel material through ducts. C. cardiac muscle maintains a high pressure that moves material through ducts. D. striated muscle creates a pressure gradient that forces material from one end of the duct to the other. E. skeletal muscle sphincters contract and allow materials to move through ducts.

91. Which one of the following muscle types has gap junctions? A. cardiac and visceral smooth B. skeletal and visceral smooth C. multiunit smooth and cardiac D. striated and visceral smooth E. cardiac and skeletal

92. The junction that binds basal epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane is called a A. gap junction. B. desmosome. C. hemidesmosome. D. tight junction. E. intercalated disc.

93. Which two junctions would most likely be found in intercalated discs in cardiac muscle? A. tight junctions and desmosomes B. gap junctions and desmosomes C. tight junctions and gap junctions D. desmosomes and hemidesmosomes E. gap junctions and hemidesmosomes

94. Which one of the below has no ducts and produces hormones? A. endocrine gland B. exocrine gland C. Goblet cells D. holocrine glands E. salivary gland

95. Which one of the following glands has the highest rate of mitosis in its parenchymal cells? A. holocrine B. apocrine C. merocrine D. eccrine E. exocrine

96. The membrane that lines the outer wall of the heart is a ______ membrane, specifically called the _______. A. serous; parietal pericardium B. serous; visceral pericardium C. serous; visceral peritoneum D. mucous; visceral peritoneum E. mucous; parietal peritoneum

97. A chronic smoker can cause the normal ciliated pseudostratified epithelium in the bronchi to change to stratified squamous epithelium. You would expect this chronic smoker to A. benefit by the protective stratified squamous epithelium. B. be unable to filter air and would be forced to cough particles out of the bronchi. C. be less likely to warm and humidify the air and less likely to move filter particles towards the pharynx. D. have less gas exchange in the alveoli because it is much more difficult for gases to cross this stratified squamous epithelium. E. produce more mucus from Goblet cells found in stratified squamous epithelium.

98. You decided to become buff and started seriously lifting weights. After six months you began to notice that some of your muscles increased in size. This increase in size was due to _____ of the muscle cells. A. hyperplasia B. neoplasia C. hypertrophy D. metaplasia. E. atrophy

99. The most controversial stem cell is the embryonic stem cell. This cell, which is ethically very controversial, is most interesting to scientists because embryonic stem cells are A. unipotent. B. omnipotent. C. multipotent. D. pluripotent. E. semipotent.

100. During wound healing, macrophages serve to A. release histamines to increase the flow of blood to the area. B. produce collagenous fibers. C. phagocytize foreign material and the blood clot. D. help the surface epithelial cells multiply and migrate into the wound. E. make capillaries more leaky to allow white blood cells to migrate into the wound.

05 Key

1. The epidermis is said to be a ___ stratified squamous epithelium because it is covered with dead, protein-filled cells. keratinized

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #1

2. Any gland that has no duct and secretes its products directly into the blood is called an ___ gland. endocrine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #2

3. Hyaline cartilage is covered by a fibrous connective tissue membrane called the ___. perichondrium

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #3

4. All the material found outside the cells is called ___ material. extracellular

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #4

5. Tendons are in a category called ___ connective tissue because all their fibers are more or less parallel and closely spaced. dense regular

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #5

6. A simple epithelium is one in which every cell reaches the ___. basement membrane

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #6

7. All connective tissues consist of cells, fibers, and ___. ground substance

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #7

8. The cell body of a neuron usually has one axon and numerous ___ extending from it. dendrites

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #8

9. The growth of a tissue due to enlargement of its cells, but not involving the production of new cells, is called ___. hypertrophy

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #9

10. Glands that produce thin, watery secretions are called ___ glands. serous

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #10

11. In a connective tissue, the extracellular matrix occupies more space than the cells do. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #11

12. In an epithelium, there is no extracellular matrix. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #12

13. Apoptosis is tissue growth through cell multiplication. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #13

14. After a cartilage cell becomes trapped in a lacuna, it is called a chondrocyte. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #14

15. As people get older, brown fat constitutes a greater percentage of their body weight. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #15

16. There is a layer of areolar tissue immediately deep to the epidermis. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #16

17. Most of the space within a cell is filled with interstitial fluid. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #17

18. Gangrene is a type of atrophy. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #18

19. A desmosome is more effective than a tight junction in preventing substances from passing between cells. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #19

20. If a tissue grows by cell division, it is said to exhibit hyperplasia. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #20

21. A compound gland has branched ducts. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #21

22. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium usually contains Goblet cells. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #22

23. Transitional epithelium is usually found in salivary glands and is specialized for secretion. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #23

24. Reticular connective tissue is found in lymph nodes. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #24

25. Elastic cartilage is found in intervertebral discs. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

adipocytes apoptosis cardiac muscle chondrocytes endoderm fibrosis infarction mesoderm mucous membranes osseous tissue pericardium pleura serous membranes

anaplasia atrophy cartilage ectoderm epidermis hyperplasia lipocytes metaplasia necrosis osteocytes peritoneum regeneration smooth muscle

Saladin - 005 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the cartilage cells? chondrocytes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #26

27. Which term can be described as the formation of scar tissue? fibrosis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #27

28. Which term can be described as the primary germ layer that gives rise to muscle and connective tissue? mesoderm

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #28

29. Which term can be described as the abnormal death of a tissue? necrosis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #29

30. Which term can be described as the connective tissue containing calcified matrix? osseous tissue

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #30

31. Which term can be described as the replacement of damaged tissue with the same kind of tissue? regeneration

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #31

32. Which term can be described as the double layered membranes that allow organs to slide past each other? serous membranes

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #32

33. Which term can be described as the serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity? peritoneum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #33

34. Which term can be described as the tissue with intercalated discs? cardiac muscle

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #34

35. Which term can be described as fat cells? adipocytes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #35

36. Cilia are most likely to be seen on ___ epithelium. A. stratified squamous B. stratified cuboidal C. pseudostratified D. simple squamous E. transitional

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #36

37. A tissue specialized for energy storage and thermal insulation is A. cartilage tissue. B. muscle tissue. C. adipose tissue. D. epithelial tissue. E. nervous tissue.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #37

38. A decrease in the size of a tissue or organ is A. hyperplasia. B. metaplasia. C. hypertrophy. D. atrophy. E. hypotrophy.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #38

39. The internal lining of the esophagus and adult vagina is A. a serosa. B. the peritoneum. C. the pleura. D. a ciliated epithelium. E. a stratified squamous epithelium.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #39

40. Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and A. fibroblasts. B. chondrocytes. C. neuroglia. D. neurocytes. E. osteocytes.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #40

41. Which of the following tissues is avascular? A. epithelial and cartilage B. muscle tissue C. dense irregular connective tissue D. bone and cartilage E. nervous tissue and bone

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #41

42. Which of the following is not one of the four primary classes of tissue? A. muscle tissue B. connective tissue C. epithelial tissue D. cartilage tissue E. nervous tissue

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #42

43. Which of the following are branched? A. reticular fibers B. skeletal muscle fibers C. white collagen fibers D. yellow collagen fibers E. smooth muscle cells

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #43

44. The gel of the extracellular matrix is composed mostly of water and A. proteoglycans. B. collagen. C. keratin. D. reticular fibers. E. phospholipid.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #44

45. The only type of cell seen in a tendon is A. muscle fibers. B. reticular cells. C. chondrocytes. D. fibroblasts. E. mast cells.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #45

46. The shape of a person's external ear is due mainly to A. dense regular connective tissue. B. dense irregular connective tissue. C. elastic cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. ligaments.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #46

47. The secretory cells of a gland are supported by a connective tissue framework called the A. serosa. B. stroma. C. parenchyma. D. trabecula. E. lamina propria.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #47

48. Glands that produce a thick, sticky secretion are called ___ glands. A. serous B. acinar C. mucous D. compound E. exocrine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #48

49. ___ are single mucus-secreting cells found in the epithelia of many mucous membranes. A. Mast cells B. Goblet cells C. Endocrine cells D. Myocytes E. Histiocytes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #49

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 005 Chapter... #50

51. The epithelium that lines the stomach and intestines is A. simple cuboidal. B. simple columnar. C. pseudostratified. D. transitional. E. stratified squamous.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #52

53. Which of the following is not a connective tissue? A. blood B. bone C. cartilage D. muscle E. adipose

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #53

54. A/an ___ is a small sac of gland cells arranged around a space into which they secrete their product. A. areolus B. acinus C. ductus D. lobule E. varix

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #54

55. Hyaline cartilage is found in A. costal cartilage. B. pubic symphysis. C. intervertebral discs. D. epiglottis. E. external ear.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 005 Chapter... #55

56. All glands that release their products by way of ducts, rather than directly into the bloodstream, are called ___ glands. A. exocrine B. endocrine C. holocrine D. apocrine E. autocrine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #56

57. The simple squamous epithelium that lines the body cavities and covers the outer surfaces of the viscera is called A. endoderm. B. endothelium. C. perineum. D. mesothelium. E. ectoderm.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #57

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #58

59. In all mucous membranes, an epithelium rests on a connective tissue layer called A. the muscularis mucosae. B. the submucosa. C. the lamina propria. D. the serosa. E. the mucosa.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #59

60. Stem cells travel to and proliferate downward in this phase of the hair cycle: A. telogen B. anagen C. catagen D. antigen E. teratogen

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #60

61. The only type of muscle with multinucleated fibers is A. skeletal muscle. B. cardiac muscle. C. involuntary muscle. D. smooth muscle. E. visceral muscle.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #61

62. Tendons and ligaments are made predominantly of the protein A. keratin. B. fibrin. C. actin. D. collagen. E. elastin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #62

63. Which type of epithelium is best suited for rapid filtration? A. simple squamous B. stratified squamous C. pseudostratified D. transitional E. stratified cuboidal

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #63

64. Tissue gel gets its viscous consistency from its A. mucus. B. collagen fibers. C. hyaluronidase. D. proteoglycans. E. glycosaminoglycans.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 005 Chapter... #64

65. The nonliving material surrounding cells is called A. ground substance. B. fibrous proteins. C. intracellular fluid. D. matrix. E. cytoplasm.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #65

66. The germ layer that gives rise to mucous membranes of the digestive and respiratory tracts is called A. ectoderm. B. endoderm. C. mesoderm. D. mesenchyme. E. epiderm.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #66

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69. This tissue regulates what enters and what leaves the body. A. epithelial B. connective C. muscular D. nervous E. blood

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #69

70. A tissue containing ~20 layers of flat cells is called A. simple squamous. B. simple cuboidal. C. simple columnar. D. pseudostratified columnar. E. stratified squamous.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #70

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75. This cell is large and flat and produces the fibers and ground substance of connective tissue. A. macrophage B. adipocyte C. fibroblast D. neutrophil E. squamous

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 005 Chapter... #76

77. The most common fiber in connective tissue is A. collagen. B. elastic. C. reticular. D. keratin. E. fibrin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #77

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81. Which one of the following does not have an abundance of collagen fibers? A. Achilles tendon B. dermis of skin C. cartilage of the nose D. cartilage of the external ear E. patellar ligament

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 005 Chapter... #82

83. Which of the following tissues is found in the dermis of the skin? A. adipose B. simple squamous C. stratified squamous D. dense irregular E. dense regular

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #83

84. Which one of the following is not made of hyaline cartilage? A. nose B. larynx C. intervertebral disc D. costal, or rib cartilage E. trachea

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #84

85. The ground substance of blood is called A. plasma. B. hyaluronic acid. C. interstitial fluid. D. chondroitin sulfate. E. cytosol.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #85

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #87

88. Which two muscle types form sphincters? A. smooth and cardiac B. cardiac and skeletal C. skeletal and smooth D. striated and skeletal E. intestinal and skeletal

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #88

89. Which two muscle types are controlled involuntarily? A. smooth and cardiac B. cardiac and skeletal C. skeletal and smooth D. striated and smooth E. intestinal and skeletal

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 005 Chapter... #90

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92. The junction that binds basal epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane is called a A. gap junction. B. desmosome. C. hemidesmosome. D. tight junction. E. intercalated disc.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #92

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94. Which one of the below has no ducts and produces hormones? A. endocrine gland B. exocrine gland C. Goblet cells D. holocrine glands E. salivary gland

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 005 Chapter... #94

95. Which one of the following glands has the highest rate of mitosis in its parenchymal cells? A. holocrine B. apocrine C. merocrine D. eccrine E. exocrine

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 005 Chapter... #95

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Chapter 6 1. Each hair grows in an oblique epithelial tube called a ___. ________________________________________

2. The holocrine glands of the skin secrete ___. ________________________________________

3. Dead keratinized cells form the stratum ___ of the skin. ________________________________________

4. A deficiency of oxygen in the blood can give rise to a skin color called ___. ________________________________________

5. The fingernails are composed of the protein ____. ________________________________________

6. Perspiration creates a protective low-pH film on the skin called the ___. ________________________________________

7. Sweat is expelled by contractions of the ___ cells in the base of the gland. ________________________________________

8. Blood vessels travel through channels called ___, seen at the centers of the osteons. ________________________________________

9. Axillary sweat glands are in a class called ___ glands after a former, mistaken belief about their mode of secretion. ________________________________________

10. Earwax is also called ___. ________________________________________

11. Jaundice can result from ingestion of large amounts of dietary carotene. True False

12. The margins of the lips are red because of the high density of blood capillaries in the epidermis. True False

13. It is physiologically important for some ultraviolet light to penetrate the epidermis. True False

14. Oxygen cannot diffuse through the skin. True False

15. Men and women have about the same average number of hairs per square centimeter on the face. True False

16. A man cannot inherit pattern baldness from his father or pass it down to his son, but he can pass it down to his daughter True False

17. Apocrine sweat glands first develop at puberty. True False

18. Malignant melanoma is the most deadly and most common form of skin cancer. True False

19. Second-degree burns are painless because the sensory nerve endings are destroyed. True False

20. Basal and squamous cell carcinomas are benign forms of skin cancer. True False

21. The most abundant protein of the epidermis is keratin, while the most abundant protein of the dermis is collagen. True False

22. Apocrine sweat glands are thought to play a more important role for scent than for thermoregulation. True False

23. All new epidermal cells are produced by the stratum granulosum. True False

24. In places, the dermis may exhibit either smooth or skeletal muscle fibers. True False

25. The epidermis is composed of columnar epithelium. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

alopecia collagen elastin hemangioma hemoglobin keratin melanin perspiration vellus

carotene diaphoresis freckle hematoma hirsutism lanugo nevus terminal hair vibrissa

26. A mole is known as _________. ________________________________________

27. The pigment of red hair is known as _________. ________________________________________

28. Hair of the eyebrows is known as _________. ________________________________________

29. Thinning of the hair is known as _________. ________________________________________

30. A guard hair is known as _________. ________________________________________

31. A yellow pigment sometimes found in the skin is known as _________. ________________________________________

32. A birthmark is known as _________. ________________________________________

33. Visible sweating is known as _________. ________________________________________

34. Principal protein of the stratum corneum is known as _________. ________________________________________

35. Principal protein of the dermis is known as _________. ________________________________________

36. The skin does not include A. the epidermis. B. the papillary layer. C. the hypodermis. D. the stratum basale. E. the dermis.

37. Thick skin is found A. on the lips. B. on the fingertips. C. between the shoulders. D. on the abdomen. E. on the buttocks.

38. Thin skin is found A. on the eyelids. B. fingertips. C. on the palms. D. on the abdomen. E. on the cheeks.

39. The epidermis differs from the inner lining of the esophagus in that the epidermis A. rests on a layer of connective tissue. B. is cornified. C. is not cornified. D. is a stratified squamous epithelium. E. is not a stratified squamous epithelium.

40. In melanized skin, the melanin accumulates mostly in A. the keratinocytes. B. the melanocytes. C. the Merkel cells. D. the stratum spinosum. E. the stratum pigmentosum.

41. Which of the following is associated with the sense of touch? A. Langerhans cells B. keratinocytes C. melanocytes D. fibroblasts E. Merkel cells

42. Areolar tissue is found in A. the stratum corneum. B. the stratum lucidum. C. the stratum spinosum. D. the papillary layer. E. the reticular layer.

43. Stretch marks result from A. bleeding into the epidermis. B. bleeding into the dermis. C. photoaging of the skin. D. worn out elastic fibers. E. torn collagen fibers.

44. The fastest rate of mitosis is seen in A. the stratum corneum. B. the stratum lucidum. C. the stratum granulosum. D. the stratum spinosum. E. the stratum basale.

45. The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical abuse is A. pallor. B. erythema. C. hematoma. D. jaundice. E. albinism.

46. The skin discoloration most likely to result from anemia is A. pallor. B. erythema. C. hematoma. D. jaundice. E. albinism.

47. The synthesis of ___ depends on the penetration of ultraviolet light through the epidermis. A. collagen B. vitamin D C. keratin D. cholesterol E. carotene

48. A hair receives its nutrition from A. its medulla. B. its cortex. C. the epithelial root sheath. D. the arrector pili. E. the dermal papilla.

49. The parts of a hair from deepest in the skin to the part above the surface, respectively, are A. the medulla, cortex, and cuticle. B. the vellus, pilus, and lanugo. C. the root, bulb, and shaft. D. the bulb, root, and shaft. E. the root, stem, and trunk.

50. The difference between a round hair and a flattened hair is related to A. a difference in the person's age. B. a difference in the hair's growth rate. C. a difference in the degree of curliness. D. a difference in nutrition. E. a difference in color.

51. The glands most responsible for cooling the skin are A. ceruminous glands. B. sebaceous glands. C. merocrine glands. D. exothermic glands. E. apocrine glands.

52. In thick skin, the layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial, respectively, are the stratum A. basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, and corneum. B. spinosum, basale, granulosum, corneum, and lucidum. C. basale, lucidum, granulosum, corneum, and spinosum. D. basale, corneum, lucidum, granulosum, and spinosum. E. corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, and basale.

53. Which of the following is an epidermal cell with an immunological function? A. a keratinocyte B. a melanocyte C. a plasma cell D. a Langerhans cell E. a Merkel cell

54. Shiny hair gets its sheen from oil produced by the ___ glands. A. merocrine B. ceruminous C. apocrine D. sebaceous E. sudoriferous

55. A child's body hair is mostly A. lanugo. B. vernix. C. vellus. D. alopecia. E. terminal hair.

56. In cold weather, ___ may result from reduced blood circulation through the skin. A. jaundice B. hypothermia C. hemangioma D. erythema E. cyanosis

57. In thin skin, the ___ is absent. A. reticular layer of the dermis B. stratum corneum of the epidermis C. stratum lucidum of the epidermis D. papillary layer of the dermis E. hypodermis

58. The apocrine type of sweat gland is found A. all over the body surface. B. in the groin. C. on the palms. D. on the forehead. E. in the auditory canal.

59. The closest estimate of the average thickness of the skin is A. 0.007 mm. B. 0.3 mm. C. 1.5 mm. D. 4-9 mm. E. 13 mm.

60. All new epidermal cells arise from A. the hypodermis. B. the dermis. C. the stratum corneum. D. the stratum basale. E. the stratum lucidum.

61. The appearance of the ___ results from shrinkage during histological fixation and from the desmosomes that attach each cell to its neighbors. A. flexion creases B. stretch marks C. fingerprints D. reticular layer of the dermis E. stratum spinosum

62. The ultimate fate of an epidermal keratinocyte is described by the term A. desquamation. B. necrosis. C. involution. D. phagocytosis. E. mitosis.

63. ___ are likely to be most conspicuous in areas of skin that are subjected to the greatest mechanical stress. A. Merkel cells B. Dermal papillae C. Keratinocytes D. Arrector pili muscles E. Hemangiomas

64. Which of the following terms does not belong with the others? A. panniculus adiposus B. stratum basale C. superficial fascia D. hypodermis E. subcutaneous tissue

65. All of the following substances can contribute to the color of skin. Of these, only ___ is of dietary origin. A. hemoglobin B. collagen C. melanin D. carotene E. bilirubin

66. The greatest immediate threat to the survival of a patient with severe burns is A. infection. B. pain. C. fluid loss. D. eschar. E. loss of thermoregulation.

67. The synthesis of calcitriol from cholesterol begins in the skin and is completed by A. the skin as well. B. the liver and kidneys. C. the small intestine. D. the bones. E. the endocrine system.

68. A pilus is A. a hair. B. a hair follicle. C. a muscle that moves a hair. D. a sensory nerve fiber around the base of a hair. E. a gland associated with a hair follicle.

69. The dermal papilla of a hair is found in its A. medulla. B. cuticle. C. cortex. D. root. E. bulb.

70. Pattern baldness is relatively rare in women because A. it is inhibited by estrogen. B. it only occurs in people with two Y chromosomes. C. it only occurs in people with an X and a Y chromosome. D. it is caused by a dominant X-linked allele. E. women have lower testosterone levels than men.

71. The space under the tip of a fingernail is the A. nail groove. B. free edge. C. lunule. D. hyponychium. E. eponychium.

72. A fingernail will always exhibit four of the following features, but sometimes lacks A. a nail plate. B. a lunule. C. a nail fold. D. a nail groove. E. a nail matrix.

73. The integumentary glands that normally develop at puberty are A. the merocrine glands. B. the apocrine glands. C. the ceruminous glands. D. the sebaceous glands. E. the sudoriferous glands.

74. Any zone of tissue injury is called A. a carcinoma. B. a melanoma. C. a lesion. D. a nevus. E. an eschar.

75. Debridement is a treatment for A. malignant melanoma. B. hemangioma. C. basal cell carcinoma. D. partial thickness burns. E. third-degree burns.

76. Which of the below is absent in thin skin? A. stratum corneum B. reticular layer C. stratum basale D. stratum lucidum E. papillary layer

77. This skin has a thick stratum corneum, sweat glands but no hair follicles or sebaceous glands. You would most likely find this skin covering the A. forehead and neck. B. palms of the hand and soles of the feet. C. back. D. arms and legs. E. abdomen.

78. When sunburned, the skin often peels off in sheets. This can be explained because the keratinocytes are connected by A. desmosomes. B. gap junctions. C. tight junctions. D. basement membranes. E. intercalated discs.

79. The epithelium of the epidermis is best described as A. keratinized stratified cuboidal. B. nonkeratinized stratified squamous. C. keratinized stratified squamous. D. callused stratified squamous. E. nonkeratinized stratified cuboidal.

80. Which two strata of the epidermis are most susceptible to cancer? A. corneum and lucidum B. lucidum and granulosum C. granulosum and spinosum D. spinosum and basale E. basale and corneum

81. You are unable to form dendritic (Langerhans) cells. Your skin would be more susceptible to A. water loss. B. cancer. C. infection. D. loss of touch sensation. E. loss of pain sensation.

82. You have a splinter that went deep into the skin but did not reach the stratum basale. Which one of the below would be most likely to NOT occur? A. destruction of keratinocytes in stratum spinosum B. feeling of pain C. destruction of pathogens found in the splinter D. bleeding from the wound E. destruction of keratinocytes in stratum granulosum

83. The cells above the stratum granulosum are dead because they A. produce keratin which acts as a barrier. B. are too close to the surface and are destroyed by UV light. C. contain lysosomes that rupture. D. are too far from blood vessels and are coated with a glycolipid. E. do not contain keratin.

84. The house mite, Dermatophagoides, feeds on dandruff which is composed of A. keratin and oil. B. collagen and keratin. C. sebum and sweat. D. glucose and keratin. E. lactic acid and sebum.

85. The layer of the dermis most likely used to make leather is called the_____, which is very tough because of the high concentration of _____ fibers. A. areolar, collagen B. areolar, keratin C. reticular layer, collagen D. reticular layer, keratin E. stratified squamous, keratin

86. You would expect dermal papillae to be relatively tall and numerous in the A. back of the neck. B. palms of the hands. C. abdomen. D. forehead. E. chest.

87. This layer contains areolar and adipose connective tissue, has a tendency to store fat, and is an area where drugs are commonly injected because of its high vascularity. A. epidermis B. hypodermis C. hyperdermis D. papillary layer of dermis E. reticular layer of dermis

88. The reddish color of the skin forming the lips is primarily due to this pigment. A. hemoglobin B. myoglobin C. melanin D. carotene E. keratin

89. The color of the skin in different races is primarily caused by the A. amount of exposure to ultraviolet radiation. B. amount of hemoglobin carried in the blood. C. amount of melanin formed. D. number of melanocytes. E. number of keratinocytes.

90. An individual has a yellowing of both the skin and whites of the eyes. The individual most likely has _____, which is caused by high levels of _____ in the blood. A. enythema, oxygen-rich hemoglobin B. jaundice, bilirubin C. cyanosis, oxygen-poor hemoglobin D. bronzing, carotene E. pallor, melanin

91. Flat melanized patches that are caused by a dominant gene are called _____, while an elevated patch of melanized skin is called a _____. A. hemangiomas, birth mark B. freckles, birth mark C. port wine stains, mole D. freckles, mole E. nevus, mole

92. Mosquitoes are attracted to these two materials diffusing throughout the skin. A. sebum and sweat B. water and carbon dioxide C. amino acids and steroids D. oxygen and fat soluble vitamins E. fatty acids and minerals

93. This vitamin begins its synthesis in the epidermal keratinocytes and is important in regulating blood calcium and phosphate levels. A. A B. K C. C D. D E. E

94. Which one of the following would most help you to develop strong fingernails? A. Cement artificial nails to the surface of existing nails. B. Eat a diet rich in calcium. C. Eat a well-balanced diet with adequate amounts of protein. D. Expose your skin to a minimum of one hour of sunlight per day. E. Take a multivitamin.

95. A disorder which causes recurring reddened plaques covered with silvery scales is called A. eczema. B. psoriasis. C. rosacea. D. seborrheic dermatitis. E. acne.

96. The portion of a hair follicle which is a single layer of cells containing hard keratin is the A. cortex. B. cuticle. C. medulla. D. vellus. E. root.

97. The contraction of the piloerector muscles (arrector pili) in humans causes A. hairs to stand on end trapping air, which is used as insulation. B. generation of heat to raise the body temperature. C. hairs to stand on end to make the individual appear bigger. D. hairs to stand on end with no apparent function. E. increased ability to feel pain.

98. The major function of the vellus hair on your arm is to A. detect objects with a light touch. B. provide insulation. C. provide protection from blows to the arm. D. keep dirt and other debris from clinging to the skin. E. generate heat to maintain body temperature.

99. In a condition called alopecia, which is often associated with aging, A. epithelial root sheath cells below the bulge in the follicle undergo apoptosis. B. stems cells from the bulb in the follicle multiply and travel downward forming the epithelial root sheath. C. follicles shrink and begin producing wispy vellus hairs instead of thicker terminal hairs. D. hair is lost from some regions of the scalp rather than thinning uniformly across the scalp. E. nails become brittle.

100. For pattern baldness, or loss of hair in some regions of the scalp, to occur in males, the male must have A. one dominant baldness allele and high levels of testosterone. B. two recessive baldness alleles and high levels of testosterone. C. one dominant baldness allele and low levels of testosterone. D. two recessive baldness alleles and low levels of testosterone. E. two dominant baldness alleles and normal levels of testosterone.

06 Key

1. Each hair grows in an oblique epithelial tube called a ___. follicle

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #1

2. The holocrine glands of the skin secrete ___. sebum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #2

3. Dead keratinized cells form the stratum ___ of the skin. corneum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #3

4. A deficiency of oxygen in the blood can give rise to a skin color called ___. cyanosis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #4

5. The fingernails are composed of the protein ____. keratin (or hard keratin)

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #5

6. Perspiration creates a protective low-pH film on the skin called the ___. acid mantle

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #6

7. Sweat is expelled by contractions of the ___ cells in the base of the gland. myoepithelial

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #7

8. Blood vessels travel through channels called ___, seen at the centers of the osteons. central (Haversian) canals

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #8

9. Axillary sweat glands are in a class called ___ glands after a former, mistaken belief about their mode of secretion. apocrine

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #9

10. Earwax is also called ___. cerumen

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #10

11. Jaundice can result from ingestion of large amounts of dietary carotene. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #11

12. The margins of the lips are red because of the high density of blood capillaries in the epidermis. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #12

13. It is physiologically important for some ultraviolet light to penetrate the epidermis. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #13

14. Oxygen cannot diffuse through the skin. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #14

15. Men and women have about the same average number of hairs per square centimeter on the face. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #15

16. A man cannot inherit pattern baldness from his father or pass it down to his son, but he can pass it down to his daughter TRUE

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 006 Chapter... #16

17. Apocrine sweat glands first develop at puberty. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #17

18. Malignant melanoma is the most deadly and most common form of skin cancer. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #18

19. Second-degree burns are painless because the sensory nerve endings are destroyed. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #19

20. Basal and squamous cell carcinomas are benign forms of skin cancer. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #20

21. The most abundant protein of the epidermis is keratin, while the most abundant protein of the dermis is collagen. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #21

22. Apocrine sweat glands are thought to play a more important role for scent than for thermoregulation. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #22

23. All new epidermal cells are produced by the stratum granulosum. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #23

24. In places, the dermis may exhibit either smooth or skeletal muscle fibers. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #24

25. The epidermis is composed of columnar epithelium. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

alopecia collagen elastin hemangioma hemoglobin keratin melanin perspiration vellus

carotene diaphoresis freckle hematoma hirsutism lanugo nevus terminal hair vibrissa

Saladin - 006 Chapter...

26. A mole is known as _________. nevus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #26

27. The pigment of red hair is known as _________. melanin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #27

28. Hair of the eyebrows is known as _________. terminal hair

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #28

29. Thinning of the hair is known as _________. alopecia

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #29

30. A guard hair is known as _________. vibrissa

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #30

31. A yellow pigment sometimes found in the skin is known as _________. carotene

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #31

32. A birthmark is known as _________. hemangioma

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #32

33. Visible sweating is known as _________. diaphoresis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #33

34. Principal protein of the stratum corneum is known as _________. keratin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #34

35. Principal protein of the dermis is known as _________. collagen

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #35

36. The skin does not include A. the epidermis. B. the papillary layer. C. the hypodermis. D. the stratum basale. E. the dermis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #36

37. Thick skin is found A. on the lips. B. on the fingertips. C. between the shoulders. D. on the abdomen. E. on the buttocks.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #37

38. Thin skin is found A. on the eyelids. B. fingertips. C. on the palms. D. on the abdomen. E. on the cheeks.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #39

40. In melanized skin, the melanin accumulates mostly in A. the keratinocytes. B. the melanocytes. C. the Merkel cells. D. the stratum spinosum. E. the stratum pigmentosum.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #40

41. Which of the following is associated with the sense of touch? A. Langerhans cells B. keratinocytes C. melanocytes D. fibroblasts E. Merkel cells

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #41

42. Areolar tissue is found in A. the stratum corneum. B. the stratum lucidum. C. the stratum spinosum. D. the papillary layer. E. the reticular layer.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #42

43. Stretch marks result from A. bleeding into the epidermis. B. bleeding into the dermis. C. photoaging of the skin. D. worn out elastic fibers. E. torn collagen fibers.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #43

44. The fastest rate of mitosis is seen in A. the stratum corneum. B. the stratum lucidum. C. the stratum granulosum. D. the stratum spinosum. E. the stratum basale.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #44

45. The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical abuse is A. pallor. B. erythema. C. hematoma. D. jaundice. E. albinism.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #45

46. The skin discoloration most likely to result from anemia is A. pallor. B. erythema. C. hematoma. D. jaundice. E. albinism.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #46

47. The synthesis of ___ depends on the penetration of ultraviolet light through the epidermis. A. collagen B. vitamin D C. keratin D. cholesterol E. carotene

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #47

48. A hair receives its nutrition from A. its medulla. B. its cortex. C. the epithelial root sheath. D. the arrector pili. E. the dermal papilla.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #48

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #49

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #50

51. The glands most responsible for cooling the skin are A. ceruminous glands. B. sebaceous glands. C. merocrine glands. D. exothermic glands. E. apocrine glands.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #52

53. Which of the following is an epidermal cell with an immunological function? A. a keratinocyte B. a melanocyte C. a plasma cell D. a Langerhans cell E. a Merkel cell

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #53

54. Shiny hair gets its sheen from oil produced by the ___ glands. A. merocrine B. ceruminous C. apocrine D. sebaceous E. sudoriferous

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #54

55. A child's body hair is mostly A. lanugo. B. vernix. C. vellus. D. alopecia. E. terminal hair.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #55

56. In cold weather, ___ may result from reduced blood circulation through the skin. A. jaundice B. hypothermia C. hemangioma D. erythema E. cyanosis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #56

57. In thin skin, the ___ is absent. A. reticular layer of the dermis B. stratum corneum of the epidermis C. stratum lucidum of the epidermis D. papillary layer of the dermis E. hypodermis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #57

58. The apocrine type of sweat gland is found A. all over the body surface. B. in the groin. C. on the palms. D. on the forehead. E. in the auditory canal.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #58

59. The closest estimate of the average thickness of the skin is A. 0.007 mm. B. 0.3 mm. C. 1.5 mm. D. 4-9 mm. E. 13 mm.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #59

60. All new epidermal cells arise from A. the hypodermis. B. the dermis. C. the stratum corneum. D. the stratum basale. E. the stratum lucidum.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 006 Chapter... #61

62. The ultimate fate of an epidermal keratinocyte is described by the term A. desquamation. B. necrosis. C. involution. D. phagocytosis. E. mitosis.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #62

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #63

64. Which of the following terms does not belong with the others? A. panniculus adiposus B. stratum basale C. superficial fascia D. hypodermis E. subcutaneous tissue

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #64

65. All of the following substances can contribute to the color of skin. Of these, only ___ is of dietary origin. A. hemoglobin B. collagen C. melanin D. carotene E. bilirubin

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #65

66. The greatest immediate threat to the survival of a patient with severe burns is A. infection. B. pain. C. fluid loss. D. eschar. E. loss of thermoregulation.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #66

67. The synthesis of calcitriol from cholesterol begins in the skin and is completed by A. the skin as well. B. the liver and kidneys. C. the small intestine. D. the bones. E. the endocrine system.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #67

68. A pilus is A. a hair. B. a hair follicle. C. a muscle that moves a hair. D. a sensory nerve fiber around the base of a hair. E. a gland associated with a hair follicle.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #68

69. The dermal papilla of a hair is found in its A. medulla. B. cuticle. C. cortex. D. root. E. bulb.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 006 Chapter... #70

71. The space under the tip of a fingernail is the A. nail groove. B. free edge. C. lunule. D. hyponychium. E. eponychium.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #71

72. A fingernail will always exhibit four of the following features, but sometimes lacks A. a nail plate. B. a lunule. C. a nail fold. D. a nail groove. E. a nail matrix.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #72

73. The integumentary glands that normally develop at puberty are A. the merocrine glands. B. the apocrine glands. C. the ceruminous glands. D. the sebaceous glands. E. the sudoriferous glands.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #73

74. Any zone of tissue injury is called A. a carcinoma. B. a melanoma. C. a lesion. D. a nevus. E. an eschar.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #74

75. Debridement is a treatment for A. malignant melanoma. B. hemangioma. C. basal cell carcinoma. D. partial thickness burns. E. third-degree burns.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #75

76. Which of the below is absent in thin skin? A. stratum corneum B. reticular layer C. stratum basale D. stratum lucidum E. papillary layer

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #79

80. Which two strata of the epidermis are most susceptible to cancer? A. corneum and lucidum B. lucidum and granulosum C. granulosum and spinosum D. spinosum and basale E. basale and corneum

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #80

81. You are unable to form dendritic (Langerhans) cells. Your skin would be more susceptible to A. water loss. B. cancer. C. infection. D. loss of touch sensation. E. loss of pain sensation.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 006 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #83

84. The house mite, Dermatophagoides, feeds on dandruff which is composed of A. keratin and oil. B. collagen and keratin. C. sebum and sweat. D. glucose and keratin. E. lactic acid and sebum.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 006 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 006 Chapter... #85

86. You would expect dermal papillae to be relatively tall and numerous in the A. back of the neck. B. palms of the hands. C. abdomen. D. forehead. E. chest.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #87

88. The reddish color of the skin forming the lips is primarily due to this pigment. A. hemoglobin B. myoglobin C. melanin D. carotene E. keratin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #92

93. This vitamin begins its synthesis in the epidermal keratinocytes and is important in regulating blood calcium and phosphate levels. A. A B. K C. C D. D E. E

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #94

95. A disorder which causes recurring reddened plaques covered with silvery scales is called A. eczema. B. psoriasis. C. rosacea. D. seborrheic dermatitis. E. acne.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #95

96. The portion of a hair follicle which is a single layer of cells containing hard keratin is the A. cortex. B. cuticle. C. medulla. D. vellus. E. root.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #97

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 006 Chapter... #98

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 006 Chapter... #99

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 006 Chapter... #100

Chapter 7 1. A tendon connects a muscle to a bone, whereas a ___ connects one bone to another. ________________________________________

2. Sutural (wormian) bones are found in some adults between the major bones of the ___. ________________________________________

3. The head of a long bone is called its ___. ________________________________________

4. The medullary cavity of a bone is lined by a fibrous connective tissue membrane called the ___. ________________________________________

5. A person stops growing in height when closure of the ___ occurs around 18-20 years of age. ________________________________________

6. Cells called ___ deposit matrix at the surface of a bone. ________________________________________

7. The ___ in bone resists tension and usually prevents a bone from shattering under stress. ________________________________________

8. Vitamin D deficiency causes bones to become _____. ________________________________________

9. ___ bone marrow becomes less widespread as a child becomes an adult. ________________________________________

10. Some bone marrow is said to be hemopoietic because it produces ___. ________________________________________

11. Tendons and ligaments, not just bones, are considered part of the skeletal system. True False

12. Children have more bones than adults do. True False

13. The diploe is important in reducing damage to the brain. True False

14. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts develop from osteogenic cells. True False

15. Each osteocyte of compact bone is supplied by blood capillaries in its lacuna. True False

16. Endochondral ossification is the development of a bone from a cartilage model. True False

17. The bones of an infant have relatively rough surfaces that become smoother as the child begins to walk. True False

18. Osteoblasts are immature bone cells that break down bone matrix to release calcium into the blood. True False

19. In osteoporosis, compact bone is converted to spongy bone. True False

20. In elderly people, the medullary cavities of the long bones have generally become completely filled in with osseous tissue. True False

21. Men are susceptible to osteoporosis. True False

22. Protein fibers are an important component of osseous tissue. True False

23. Vitamin C deficiency causes bones to become brittle. True False

24. Nerves and blood vessels travel through compact bone. True False

25. Slight changes in blood phosphorus concentration often have immediate, life-threatening effects. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions

adipose tissue blood cartilage compound endosteum hypercalcaemia mesenchyme osteoclasts osteoporosis periosteum thyroid gland

areolar calcitriol comminuted D3 estrogen hypocalcaemia osteoblasts osteomalacia parathyroid gland progesterone

26. The sheath of a bone to which a tendon is attached is known as the ________. ________________________________________

27. Precursors of osteocytes is known as ________. ________________________________________

28. A deficiency of calcium in the blood is known as ________. ________________________________________

29. The source of calcitonin is ________. ________________________________________

30. A deficiency of this hormone often underlies osteoporosis is known as ________. ________________________________________

31. Fracture in which a bone is broken into several fragments is known as ________. ________________________________________

32. Embryonic connective tissue that gives rise to bone is known as ________. ________________________________________

33. Vitamin produced by the action of ultraviolet radiation on cholesterol is known as ________. ________________________________________

34. Abnormal softening of bone in adults is known as ________. ________________________________________

35. Yellow bone marrow consists mainly of ________. ________________________________________

36. The term osseous tissue refers to A. bone only. B. bone and bone marrow only. C. bone, tendons, and ligaments only. D. embryonic tissue that later turns into bone. E. all tissues of the skeletal system.

37. This is a bacterial infection of bones. A. rickets B. osteoporosis C. osteitis deformans D. osteoma E. osteomyelitis

38. If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, we would expect A. an elevated level of osteoclast activity. B. an elevated level of osteoblast activity. C. a reduced rate of endochondral ossification. D. a rise in blood calcium concentration. E. increasingly brittle bones.

39. Hemopoiesis typically occurs in A. the epiphyseal plate. B. the articular cartilages. C. the red bone marrow. D. the yellow bone marrow. E. the gelatinous bone marrow.

40. The most serious effect of severe hypocalcaemia is likely to be A. laryngospasm and suffocation. B. carpopedal spasm. C. brittle bones and spontaneous fractures. D. depression of the nervous system. E. cardiac arrest.

41. Calcium homeostasis in adults is maintained mainly by A. calcitonin. B. calcitriol. C. vitamin D. D. parathyroid hormone. E. hydroxyapatite.

42. Osteoblasts deposit more bone matrix in response to all of the following factors except A. thyroid hormone. B. parathyroid hormone. C. growth hormone. D. testosterone. E. insulin.

43. A farmer's finger is pulled completely off his hand by a piece of farm machinery. This is A. a displaced fracture. B. a complete fracture. C. an avulsion. D. a revulsion. E. an open fracture.

44. All of the following components of the bone matrix are organic except A. hydroxyapatite. B. collagen. C. chondroitin sulfate. D. glycoproteins. E. proteoglycans.

45. Most bones develop from A. hyaline cartilage. B. osseous tissue. C. bone marrow. D. endoderm. E. fibrocartilage.

46. In this condition, one would see rapid bone deformation due to great osteoblast activity. A. osteomalacia B. osteomyelitis C. osteoma D. osteitis deformans E. osteosarcoma

47. The cells primarily responsible for the breakdown of bone are A. C cells. B. osteoprogenitor cells. C. haversian cells. D. osteoblasts. E. osteoclasts.

48. The protein fibers of the bone matrix are composed of A. collagen. B. elastin. C. keratin. D. fibrin. E. ostein.

49. Appositional growth of a long bone has the effect of A. replacing osteoid tissue with osseous tissue. B. replacing spongy bone with compact bone. C. increasing the diameter of the bone. D. increasing the length of the bone. E. fusing the epiphysis to the diaphysis.

50. Bones found in the forearm are A. flat bones. B. sesamoid bones. C. spongy bones. D. long bones. E. irregular bones.

51. Osteogenic cells give rise to osteoblasts, but ___ arise from monocytes of the blood. A. osteoclasts B. fibroblasts C. chondrocytes D. osteocytes E. osteoprogenitor cells

52. Osteocytes in the outer lamellae of an osteon transport their wastes to the bloodstream for removal via A. matrix. B. nutrient canals. C. canaliculi. D. trabeculae. E. ruffled border.

53. ___ is common in the skeleton in old age, but not in childhood. A. Osteoid tissue B. Red marrow C. Gelatinous marrow D. Spongy bone E. Cartilage

54. The ___ forms by endochondral ossification. A. frontal bone B. humerus C. occipital bone D. temporal bone E. parietal bone

55. Formation of ___ is a stage in intramembranous ossification. A. osteoid tissue B. a primary ossification center C. chondrocyte proliferation D. chondrocyte hypertrophy E. hemopoiesis

56. In the development of the skeleton, what typically occurs around the ages of 18 to 21? A. bone remodeling ceases B. red marrow turns to gelatinous marrow C. appositional growth ceases D. mineral deposition ceases E. the epiphyseal plates close

57. When bone is being resorbed, acid phosphatase dissolves its A. osteocytes. B. osteoclasts. C. condyles. D. hydroxyapatite. E. collagen.

58. Hypocalcaemia can result from any of the following except A. lactation. B. a vitamin D deficiency. C. excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone. D. severe diarrhea. E. excessive secretion of calcitonin.

59. One thing calcitriol does that parathyroid hormone does not is A. raise the calcium concentration of the blood. B. stimulate the small intestine to absorb more phosphate. C. stimulate the kidneys to excrete more phosphate. D. stimulate the osteoclasts to resorb more bone. E. stimulate the skin to synthesize more vitamin D.

60. A soft callus forms during A. endochondral ossification. B. intramembranous ossification. C. bone growth at the metaphysis. D. the remodeling of bone. E. the healing of a fracture.

61. The main reason osteoporosis is most common in elderly women is their lack of A. estrogen. B. osteoclast activity. C. parathyroid hormone. D. dietary calcium. E. exercise.

62. The skeletal system performs all of the following functions except A. protective enclosure of the viscera. B. maintenance of electrolyte balance. C. maintenance of acid-base balance. D. regulation of body temperature. E. production of blood cells.

63. Hydroxyapatite is best described as A. a secretion of the osteoclasts. B. dissolved minerals in the tissue fluid. C. dissolved minerals in the blood plasma. D. fibrous protein in the bone matrix. E. calcium phosphate crystals in the bone matrix.

64. A canaliculus of compact bone contains A. nerves. B. blood vessels. C. an abundance of collagen fibers. D. a process of an osteocyte. E. mainly hydroxyapatite.

65. Based on shape, parietal bones are classified as A. long. B. short. C. flat. D. irregular. E. sutural.

66. Bones that serve as levers and are moved by skeletal muscle to produce movement are termed A. long bones. B. short bones. C. flat bones. D. irregular bones. E. sessamoid bones.

67. The cavity in the diaphysis of long bones is called the ______ cavity and commonly contains ______ marrow. A. medullary; red B. epiphysis; red C. medullary; yellow D. epiphysis; yellow E. endosteum; gelatinous

68. This layer makes up 25% of the skeleton by weight and helps protect the soft tissues like the brain from trauma. A. compact bone B. diploe C. medullary cavity D. epiphyseal plate E. canaliculi

69. The periosteum is a connective tissue sheath which lines the _____ of bones and fuses with bones by way of _____ fibers. A. outer surface; elastic B. inner surface; reticular C. outer surface; perforating D. inner surface; perforating E. outer surface; actin

70. Fat is stored in the A. diploe of flat bones. B. medullary cavity of long bones. C. periosteum of flat and long bones. D. epiphyses of long bones. E. metaphyses of short bones.

71. Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes? A. osteogenic cells B. osteoblasts C. osteocytes D. osteoclasts E. chondrocytes

72. Which one of the bone cells is most closely related to white blood cells? A. osteogenic cells B. osteoblasts C. osteocytes D. osteoclasts E. chondrocytes

73. You looked at a microscope slide of bone tissue and saw many small cavities called lacunae. In living bone, these lacunae house A. osteogenic cells. B. osteoblasts. C. osteocytes. D. osteoclasts. E. chondrocytes.

74. Osteocytes pass nutrients and chemical signals to other osteocytes and osteoblasts by way of ______ that are found in slender channels called ______. A. gap junctions; canaliculi B. cytoplasmic processes; Haversian canals C. gap junctions; perforating canals D. tight junctions; nutrient foramina E. gap junctions; Haversian canals

75. Hydroxyapatite refers to the crystal of bone which is made up primarily of A. sodium chloride. B. potassium chloride. C. calcium phosphate. D. calcium carbonate. E. calcium hydroxide.

76. When bone is stressed on one side, it usually bends slightly on the other side and does not fracture. This is due to tensile strength caused by A. the bone salts. B. collagenous fibers. C. hyaline cartilage. D. the periosteum and endosteum. E. elastic fibers.

77. Which one of the following is found in compact bone but not in spongy bone? A. lacunae B. osteocytes C. central canals D. canaliculi E. lamellae

78. Not all compact bone is organized around a central canal with concentric lamellae. Lamellae found in the inner and outer boundaries of dense bone run parallel to the bone surface. These lamellae are called A. concentric. B. interstitial. C. circumferential. D. peripheral. E. periosteal.

79. You are following the pathway of a glucose molecule from the nutrient foramen in compact bone to an osteocyte in the second row of lacunae of an osteon or Haversian system. Which one of the following represents the most likely pathway? A. central (haversian) canal → perforating (Volkmann) canal → canaliculus → lacuna → canaliculus → lacuna B. perforating canal → central canal → lacuna → canaliculus → lacuna C. central canal → canaliculus → Volkmann canal → canaliculus → lacuna → canaliculus → lacuna D. perforating canal → central canal → canaliculus → lacuna → canaliculus → lacuna E. central canal → perforating canal → lacuna → canaliculus → lacuna

80. Bones of the skull and clavicle develop by A. trabecular ossification. B. intramembranous ossification. C. mesenchymal ossification. D. endochondral ossification. E. interstitial ossification.

81. In endochondral ossification, the model or template on which the bone forms is A. primary cartilage. B. elastic cartilage. C. hyaline cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. spongy bone.

82. As bone grows in the child only two areas of cartilage are left at each epiphysis. These two areas are A. articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate. B. primary and secondary ossification centers. C. epiphyseal plate and epiphyseal line. D. elastic cartilage and epiphyseal plate. E. fibrocartilage and articular cartilage.

83. At the epiphyseal plate, in the zone of calcification A. osteoclasts erode spongy bone to form the marrow cavity. B. osteoblasts deposit bone along the calcified matrix forming spongy bone with osteocytes. C. minerals are deposited between lacunae, chondrocytes die, and a calcified matrix is left. D. hydroxyapetite is deposited onto collagenous fibers. E. chondroblasts deposit more cartilage to increase the size of the epiphyseal plate.

84. In the zone of bone deposition, _____ cells rapidly invade the calcified matrix and lay down bone. Then ______ cells erode the spongy bone to form the marrow cavity. A. osteoblast; osteoclast B. osteoblast; osteocyte C. osteocyte; osteoclast D. osteoclast; osteoblast E. chondroblast; osteoclast

85. The growth of the epiphyseal plate which adds to the length of bone is called ______ growth. A. mitotic B. interstitial C. appositional D. hypertrophic E. appendicular

86. In order for mineralization to begin, two steps must occur. These steps are A. the solubility product must be reached and the pH must drop to below 4. B. the solubility product must be reached and the inhibitors are neutralized. C. the pH must be above 7 and osteoclasts become activated. D. osteoblasts begin secreting calcium and phosphate which then attract collagenous fibers. E. osteoblasts begin secreting enzymes to activate inhibitors.

87. You soaked a wishbone from your turkey dinner in vinegar. After a couple of days you would expect the wishbone to A. become brittle. B. dissolve completely. C. become flexible. D. remain unchanged. E. become stronger.

88. The hydrogen ion pump in osteoclasts became blocked. You would expect the osteoclasts to A. digest minerals but not collagen. B. digest collagen but not minerals. C. be unaffected. D. be unable to digest either minerals or collagen. E. be unable to produce collagen fibers.

89. If the pH of blood drops below 7.35, your body is said to be in a state of acidosis. To counteract this acidosis, you would expect your kidneys to excrete more hydrogen ions, your breathing rate to increase to blow off more carbon dioxide, and your bone to A. increase the activity of osteoblasts. B. decrease the activity of osteoblasts. C. increase the activity of osteoclasts. D. increase the activity of osteocytes. E. decrease activity of osteoclasts.

90. An individual has the following symptoms: increased excitability of the nervous system and increased muscle spasms particularly in the hands and feet. This individual most likely is suffering from A. hyperparathyroidism. B. hypocalcaemia. C. hyperthyroidism. D. hypothyroidism.

91. Parathyroid hormone helps to convert A. 7-dehydroxycholesterol to vitamin D3. B. vitamin D3 to calcidiol. C. calcidiol to calcitriol. D. calcitriol to vitamin D3. E. cholesterol to 7-dehydrocholesterol.

92. Osteoclasts are stimulated, calcium is reabsorbed by the kidneys, calcitriol is formed and osteoblasts are inhibited from forming collagen. The best explanation for these activities is A. low blood calcium and increased production of calcitonin. B. high blood calcium and decreased production of calcitonin. C. low blood calcium and increased production of PTH. D. high blood calcium and decreased production of PTH. E. normal blood calcium and decreased dietary calcium.

93. The use of anabolic steroids by adolescent boys will A. increase the growth of bone by stimulating osteoblast activity. B. decrease the growth of bone by stimulating osteoclast activity. C. decrease the growth of bone by prematurely closing the epiphyseal plate. D. increase the growth of bone by prematurely closing the epiphyseal plate. E. not affect bone growth.

94. A fracture of the distal end of the radius and ulna is called a A. colles. B. pott. C. comminuted. D. greenstick. E. compound.

95. A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a A. linear. B. pott. C. comminuted. D. greenstick. E. compound.

96. Arteriosclerosis is an example of ectopic ossification where A. the solubility product is not reached. B. osteoblasts lay down bone. C. calcification occurs outside of bone. D. collagenous fibers accumulate. E. the blood vessels ossify.

97. The adult body contains about 1,100 g of calcium with about ______% stored in bone. A. 1 B. 18 C. 85 D. 99 E. 100

98. A child lives under the dense canopy of a rainforest in a developing nation. The child shows early symptoms of rickets with the legs beginning to bow. Which one of the following best explains the cause of rickets? A. The child cannot form sufficient parathyroid hormone. B. Calcium levels in the diet are too low. C. The child cannot form sufficient vitamin D3. D. The child cannot form sufficient calcitonin. E. The child cannot form sufficient vitamin C.

99. In an uncomplicated fracture, fibroblasts deposit collagen in the granulation tissue, while osteogenic cells produce both chondroblasts and osteoblasts. The process is called A. hematoma formation. B. formation of granulation tissue. C. callus formation. D. remodeling. E. intramembranous ossification.

100. A loss of bone mass, especially spongy bone, is usually a result of lack of exercise or deficiency of estrogen after menopause. This disorder is called A. osteomalacia. B. osteoporosis. C. osteoma. D. osteomyelitis. E. osteogenesis imperfecta.

07 Key

1. A tendon connects a muscle to a bone, whereas a ___ connects one bone to another. ligament

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #1

2. Sutural (wormian) bones are found in some adults between the major bones of the ___. cranium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #2

3. The head of a long bone is called its ___. epiphysis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #3

4. The medullary cavity of a bone is lined by a fibrous connective tissue membrane called the ___. endosteum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #4

5. A person stops growing in height when closure of the ___ occurs around 18-20 years of age. epiphyseal plates

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #5

6. Cells called ___ deposit matrix at the surface of a bone. osteoblasts

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #6

7. The ___ in bone resists tension and usually prevents a bone from shattering under stress. collagen

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #7

8. Vitamin D deficiency causes bones to become _____. flexible

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #8

9. ___ bone marrow becomes less widespread as a child becomes an adult. Red

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #9

10. Some bone marrow is said to be hemopoietic because it produces ___. blood cells

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #10

11. Tendons and ligaments, not just bones, are considered part of the skeletal system. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #11

12. Children have more bones than adults do. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #12

13. The diploe is important in reducing damage to the brain. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #13

14. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts develop from osteogenic cells. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #14

15. Each osteocyte of compact bone is supplied by blood capillaries in its lacuna. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #15

16. Endochondral ossification is the development of a bone from a cartilage model. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #16

17. The bones of an infant have relatively rough surfaces that become smoother as the child begins to walk. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #17

18. Osteoblasts are immature bone cells that break down bone matrix to release calcium into the blood. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #18

19. In osteoporosis, compact bone is converted to spongy bone. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #19

20. In elderly people, the medullary cavities of the long bones have generally become completely filled in with osseous tissue. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #20

21. Men are susceptible to osteoporosis. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #21

22. Protein fibers are an important component of osseous tissue. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #22

23. Vitamin C deficiency causes bones to become brittle. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #23

24. Nerves and blood vessels travel through compact bone. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #24

25. Slight changes in blood phosphorus concentration often have immediate, life-threatening effects. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions

adipose tissue blood cartilage compound endosteum hypercalcaemia mesenchyme osteoclasts osteoporosis periosteum thyroid gland

areolar calcitriol comminuted D3 estrogen hypocalcaemia osteoblasts osteomalacia parathyroid gland progesterone

Saladin - 007 Chapter...

26. The sheath of a bone to which a tendon is attached is known as the ________. periosteum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #26

27. Precursors of osteocytes is known as ________. osteoblasts

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #27

28. A deficiency of calcium in the blood is known as ________. hypocalcaemia

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #28

29. The source of calcitonin is ________. thyroid gland

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #29

30. A deficiency of this hormone often underlies osteoporosis is known as ________. estrogen

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #30

31. Fracture in which a bone is broken into several fragments is known as ________. comminuted

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #31

32. Embryonic connective tissue that gives rise to bone is known as ________. mesenchyme

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #32

33. Vitamin produced by the action of ultraviolet radiation on cholesterol is known as ________. D3

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #33

34. Abnormal softening of bone in adults is known as ________. osteomalacia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #34

35. Yellow bone marrow consists mainly of ________. adipose tissue

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #35

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #36

37. This is a bacterial infection of bones. A. rickets B. osteoporosis C. osteitis deformans D. osteoma E. osteomyelitis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #37

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #38

39. Hemopoiesis typically occurs in A. the epiphyseal plate. B. the articular cartilages. C. the red bone marrow. D. the yellow bone marrow. E. the gelatinous bone marrow.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #39

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 007 Chapter... #40

41. Calcium homeostasis in adults is maintained mainly by A. calcitonin. B. calcitriol. C. vitamin D. D. parathyroid hormone. E. hydroxyapatite.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #41

42. Osteoblasts deposit more bone matrix in response to all of the following factors except A. thyroid hormone. B. parathyroid hormone. C. growth hormone. D. testosterone. E. insulin.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #42

43. A farmer's finger is pulled completely off his hand by a piece of farm machinery. This is A. a displaced fracture. B. a complete fracture. C. an avulsion. D. a revulsion. E. an open fracture.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #43

44. All of the following components of the bone matrix are organic except A. hydroxyapatite. B. collagen. C. chondroitin sulfate. D. glycoproteins. E. proteoglycans.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #44

45. Most bones develop from A. hyaline cartilage. B. osseous tissue. C. bone marrow. D. endoderm. E. fibrocartilage.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #45

46. In this condition, one would see rapid bone deformation due to great osteoblast activity. A. osteomalacia B. osteomyelitis C. osteoma D. osteitis deformans E. osteosarcoma

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #46

47. The cells primarily responsible for the breakdown of bone are A. C cells. B. osteoprogenitor cells. C. haversian cells. D. osteoblasts. E. osteoclasts.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #47

48. The protein fibers of the bone matrix are composed of A. collagen. B. elastin. C. keratin. D. fibrin. E. ostein.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #48

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #49

50. Bones found in the forearm are A. flat bones. B. sesamoid bones. C. spongy bones. D. long bones. E. irregular bones.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #50

51. Osteogenic cells give rise to osteoblasts, but ___ arise from monocytes of the blood. A. osteoclasts B. fibroblasts C. chondrocytes D. osteocytes E. osteoprogenitor cells

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #51

52. Osteocytes in the outer lamellae of an osteon transport their wastes to the bloodstream for removal via A. matrix. B. nutrient canals. C. canaliculi. D. trabeculae. E. ruffled border.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #52

53. ___ is common in the skeleton in old age, but not in childhood. A. Osteoid tissue B. Red marrow C. Gelatinous marrow D. Spongy bone E. Cartilage

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #53

54. The ___ forms by endochondral ossification. A. frontal bone B. humerus C. occipital bone D. temporal bone E. parietal bone

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #54

55. Formation of ___ is a stage in intramembranous ossification. A. osteoid tissue B. a primary ossification center C. chondrocyte proliferation D. chondrocyte hypertrophy E. hemopoiesis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #55

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #56

57. When bone is being resorbed, acid phosphatase dissolves its A. osteocytes. B. osteoclasts. C. condyles. D. hydroxyapatite. E. collagen.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #57

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Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #59

60. A soft callus forms during A. endochondral ossification. B. intramembranous ossification. C. bone growth at the metaphysis. D. the remodeling of bone. E. the healing of a fracture.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #60

61. The main reason osteoporosis is most common in elderly women is their lack of A. estrogen. B. osteoclast activity. C. parathyroid hormone. D. dietary calcium. E. exercise.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #61

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #62

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #63

64. A canaliculus of compact bone contains A. nerves. B. blood vessels. C. an abundance of collagen fibers. D. a process of an osteocyte. E. mainly hydroxyapatite.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #64

65. Based on shape, parietal bones are classified as A. long. B. short. C. flat. D. irregular. E. sutural.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #65

66. Bones that serve as levers and are moved by skeletal muscle to produce movement are termed A. long bones. B. short bones. C. flat bones. D. irregular bones. E. sessamoid bones.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #67

68. This layer makes up 25% of the skeleton by weight and helps protect the soft tissues like the brain from trauma. A. compact bone B. diploe C. medullary cavity D. epiphyseal plate E. canaliculi

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #68

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #69

70. Fat is stored in the A. diploe of flat bones. B. medullary cavity of long bones. C. periosteum of flat and long bones. D. epiphyses of long bones. E. metaphyses of short bones.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #70

71. Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes? A. osteogenic cells B. osteoblasts C. osteocytes D. osteoclasts E. chondrocytes

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #71

72. Which one of the bone cells is most closely related to white blood cells? A. osteogenic cells B. osteoblasts C. osteocytes D. osteoclasts E. chondrocytes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #72

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #74

75. Hydroxyapatite refers to the crystal of bone which is made up primarily of A. sodium chloride. B. potassium chloride. C. calcium phosphate. D. calcium carbonate. E. calcium hydroxide.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #76

77. Which one of the following is found in compact bone but not in spongy bone? A. lacunae B. osteocytes C. central canals D. canaliculi E. lamellae

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #78

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80. Bones of the skull and clavicle develop by A. trabecular ossification. B. intramembranous ossification. C. mesenchymal ossification. D. endochondral ossification. E. interstitial ossification.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #80

81. In endochondral ossification, the model or template on which the bone forms is A. primary cartilage. B. elastic cartilage. C. hyaline cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. spongy bone.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #84

85. The growth of the epiphyseal plate which adds to the length of bone is called ______ growth. A. mitotic B. interstitial C. appositional D. hypertrophic E. appendicular

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 007 Chapter... #86

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Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 007 Chapter... #89

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Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 007 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #93

94. A fracture of the distal end of the radius and ulna is called a A. colles. B. pott. C. comminuted. D. greenstick. E. compound.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #94

95. A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a A. linear. B. pott. C. comminuted. D. greenstick. E. compound.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #96

97. The adult body contains about 1,100 g of calcium with about ______% stored in bone. A. 1 B. 18 C. 85 D. 99 E. 100

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #97

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 007 Chapter... #98

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 007 Chapter... #99

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 007 Chapter... #100

Chapter 8 1. Two knoblike processes of the skull, called the ___, articulate with the spinal column. ________________________________________

2. The pituitary gland lies in a cavity of the sphenoid bone called the ___. ________________________________________

3. Most of the space in each nasal fossa is occupied by three scroll-like ___. ________________________________________

4. The inferior half of the nasal septum is formed by a bone called the ___. ________________________________________

5. About one-quarter of the length of the spinal column consists of cartilagenous ___ between the vertebrae. ________________________________________

6. The ilium, ischium and pubis make up a bone called ____. ________________________________________

7. The socket of the hip joint is called the ___. ________________________________________

8. The weight-bearing bone of the calf is the ___. ________________________________________

9. The calcaneal (or Achilles) tendon inserts on a bone called the ___. ________________________________________

10. The lateral malleolus of the ankle is the distal head of the ___. ________________________________________

11. The mandible originates in the fetus as two separate bones. True False

12. Both the wrist and ankle have a navicular bone. True False

13. The scapula attaches to the axial skeleton at each of its three angles. True False

14. There is no such bone as middle phalanx I. True False

15. The tibia articulates with the trochlear surface of the calcaneus. True False

16. The head of the humerus inserts into a deep socket called the acetabulum. True False

17. The malleus is attached to the medial surface of the eardrum. True False

18. The pubic symphysis and annulus fibrosus are made of the same type of tissue. True False

19. Alveoli are sockets for teeth and are found in the maxilla and the mandible. True False

20. The lesser wings of the ethmoid bone form the floor of the anterior cranial fossa. True False

21. The right and left nasal fossae are separated in part by the ethmoid bone. True False

22. The frontal bone is classified as a facial bone since it forms the forehead. True False

23. Most of the hard palate is formed by the palatine bones. True False

24. The coronal suture establishes the posterior limit of the frontal bone. True False

25. The median sacral crest represents the fused spinous processes of vertebrae S1-S5. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

alveolus brachium cuneiforms foramen magnum inferior nasal concha manubrium medial epicondyle olecranon process superior nasal concha trapezoid zygomatic arch

antebrachium cribriform plate eye orbit humerus lunate and hamate maxillozygomatic joint occipital condyles sella turcica temporomandibular joint xiphoid process

26. A tooth socket is known as a(n) _________. ________________________________________

27. The forearm is known as a(n) _________. ________________________________________

28. Largest part of the sternum is the _________. ________________________________________

29. Structure made up of the zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the temporal process of the zygomatic bone is the _________. ________________________________________

30. The only moveable joint of the skull is the _________. ________________________________________

31. Large opening found in the occipital bone is known as the _________. ________________________________________

32. Feature of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is known as the _________. ________________________________________

33. Apex of the elbow is known as the _________. ________________________________________

34. Feature of the ethmoid bone that increases air turbulence in the nose is known as the _________. ________________________________________

35. Tarsal bones are known as _________. ________________________________________

36. Nodding your head "yes" represents movement of which type of joint? A. second-class lever B. third-class lever C. syndesmosis D. synostosis E. saddle joint

37. All of the following are paranasal sinuses except A. the sphenoid. B. the temporal. C. the ethmoid. D. the maxillary. E. the frontal.

38. The internal and external acoustic meatuses are openings in A. the temporal bone. B. the maxilla. C. the parietal bone. D. the frontal bone. E. the sphenoid bone.

39. The sphenoid bone has all of the following features except A. an infraorbital foramen. B. a foramen ovale. C. an optic foramen. D. a foramen spinosum. E. a pterygoid canal.

40. Which of the following skull bones are paired? A. sphenoid B. occipital C. frontal D. parietal E. ethmoid

41. The lambdoid suture separates the parietal bones from A. the occipital bone. B. each other. C. the temporal bone. D. the frontal bone. E. the maxillae.

42. The styloid process, mastoid process, and zygomatic process are parts of A. the zygomatic arch. B. the occipital bone. C. the zygomatic bone. D. the maxilla. E. the temporal bone.

43. The ___ bone of the skull articulates with the vertebral column. A. parietal B. frontal C. maxillary D. temporal E. occipital

44. Which of the following would normally be impossible to palpate on a living person? A. the superior nuchal line B. the occipital condyles C. the zygomatic arch D. the mastoid process E. the supraorbital ridge

45. The olfactory nerve tracts could be most easily damaged by a fracture of the ___ bone. A. frontal B. ethmoid C. sphenoid D. maxillary E. temporal

46. All of the following are facial bones except ___, which is a cranial bone. A. the palatine bone B. the lacrimal bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the vomer E. the maxilla

47. The fetal skull has all of the following fontanels except for a/an ___ fontanel. A. anterior B. posterior C. sphenoid D. mastoid E. occipital

48. There are ___ thoracic vertebrae and pairs of ribs. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 12 E. 14

49. The axis is the only vertebra with A. a transverse foramen. B. a superior vertebral notch. C. a dens. D. an anterior arch. E. a superior articular facet.

50. Which of these bones is in the antebrachium? A. fibula B. humerus C. ulna D. calcaneus E. femur

51. The glenoid cavity is a point of articulation between A. the femur and tibia. B. the os coxae and femur. C. the humerus and radius. D. the humerus and ulna. E. the scapula and humerus.

52. The cranial bones have a middle layer of spongy bone called A. the diploe. B. the dura mater. C. the nucleus pulposus. D. the air cells. E. the annulus fibrosus.

53. Which part of the mandible articulates with the cranium? A. the coronoid process B. the body C. the mandibular notch D. the condyloid process E. the mental protuberance

54. A fractured ___ may be evidence of death by strangulation. A. mandible B. styloid process C. mastoid process D. vomer E. hyoid bone

55. The ___ of a vertebra bears the most weight. A. transverse process B. neural arch C. centrum D. lamina E. pedicle

56. The articulation of the head with the spinal column is A. the coxal joint. B. the atlantooccipital joint. C. the craniosacral joint. D. the atlantoaxial joint. E. the nuchal joint.

57. Costal facets are found only on A. thoracic vertebrae. B. cervical vertebrae. C. ribs. D. the sternum. E. the scapula.

58. Two bones have auricular surfaces, namely A. the right and left temporal bones. B. the radius and ulna. C. the atlas and axis. D. the calcaneus and talus. E. the sacrum and os coxae.

59. All of the following adult bones arise as two separate bones in the fetus except A. the os coxae. B. the frontal bone. C. the mandible. D. the patella. E. the sacrum.

60. Each clavicle articulates with A. the manubrium and gladiolus. B. the manubrium and scapula. C. the manubrium and humerus. D. the scapula and humerus. E. the gladiolus and spinal column.

61. A costal cartilage connects each ___ to the ___. A. rib; sternum B. rib; spinal column C. metacarpal bone; carpal bones D. metatarsal bone; tarsal bones E. nasal bone; nasal septum

62. The ___ is fractured more often than any other bone. A. humerus B. radius C. ulna D. clavicle E. nasal bone

63. Strictly speaking, "arm" refers only to A. the upper extremity. B. the brachium. C. the antebrachium. D. the cubital region. E. the crural region.

64. A styloid process is found on all of the following except A. the radius. B. the ulna. C. the temporal bone. D. the fibula. E. the femur.

65. Which of the following is not in the same class with the others? A. lunate B. trapezoid C. cuneiform D. pisiform

66. Which of the following is not found in the skull? A. foramen spinosum B. foramen magnum C. mastoid foramen D. mental foramen E. obturator foramen

67. Adults may have more than 206 bones because A. adult females often have two more ribs. B. the os coxal bones often don't fuse. C. the number of carpal and tarsal bones often varies. D. of sesamoid and sutural bones. E. the epiphyseal plates do not close until old age.

68. A rounded knob that articulates with another bone is called a A. condyle. B. facet. C. process. D. trochanter. E. meatus.

69. A shallow, broad, or elongated basin in bone is called a(n) A. fovea. B. alveolus. C. fossa. D. sulcus. E. foramen.

70. A small, rounded process is called a _____ while a massive process is called a(n) ______. A. trochanter; tubercle B. epicondyle; tubercle C. tubercle; trochanter D. tubercle; spine E. epicondyle; condyle

71. Which one of the sinuses listed below does not communicate with the nasal cavity? A. frontal B. mastoid C. maxillary D. ethmoid E. sphenoid

72. The suture that separates the two parietal bones is called the _____ suture. A. sagittal B. coronal C. lambdoid D. squamous E. transverse

73. The smooth area of the frontal bone just above the nasal bones is called the A. supraorbital margin. B. supraorbital notch. C. diploe. D. glabella. E. body.

74. The suture that separates the parietal bone from the occipital bone is the _____ suture, while the suture between the parietal and temporal bones is the _____ suture. A. coronal; sagittal B. lambdoid; squamous C. lambdoid; sagittal D. sagittal; squamous E. coronal; lambdoid

75. The process in the temporal bone which provides attachment for muscles of the tongue, pharynx, and hyoid bone and resembles a writing instrument used by ancient Greeks and Romans is called the _____ process. A. styloid B. zygomatic C. mandibular D. mastoid E. sphenoid

76. The large, irregular opening just medial to the styloid process of the temporal bone is the A. jugular foramen. B. external acoustic meatus. C. carotid canal. D. internal acoustic meatus. E. foramen magnum.

77. Which one of the foramens listed below is not found in the sphenoid? A. foramen rotundum B. mental foramen C. foramen ovale D. optic foramen E. foramen lacerum

78. Which one of features listed below is not found in the ethmoid bone? A. crista galli B. inferior nasal conchae C. middle nasal conchae D. superior nasal concha E. perpendicular plate

79. The part of the ethmoid bone which allows nerve fibers for the sense of smell to pass directly into the brain is called the A. superior meati. B. cribriform foramina. C. crista galli. D. optic foramina. E. perpendicular plate.

80. An upward blow to the nose may cause leakage of cerebrospinal fluid as well as loss of the sense of smell. The most likely bone that is damaged to cause these problems is the A. ethmoid. B. sphenoid. C. maxilla. D. nasal bone. E. lacrimal.

81. The palatine process of the maxillary bone along with the palatine bone form the A. superior wall of the nasal cavity. B. lateral wall of the nasopharynx. C. posterior wall of the orbit of the eye. D. hard palate or anterior root of the oral cavity. E. palatine arch of the oral cavity.

82. This bone, which resembles the blade of a plow, forms the inferior part of the nasal septum and is called the A. lacrimal bone. B. nasal bone. C. ethmoid. D. vomer. E. maxilla.

83. The mandibular condyles articulate with the A. mandibular fossae of the parietal bone. B. mandibular fossae of the temporal bone. C. parietal fossae of the parietal bone. D. temporal fossae of the temporal bone. E. temporal fossae of the mandible.

84. Nerves and blood vessels that supply the lower teeth pass through this foramen. Dentists inject anesthetics near this foramen to deaden sensation from the lower teeth. This foramen is called the A. mental foramen. B. infraorbital foramen. C. supraorbital foramen. D. mandibular foramen. E. maxillary foramen.

85. One of the few bones that does not articulate with other bones and is located between the chin and larynx is the A. maxilla. B. ethmoid. C. hyoid. D. incus. E. mandible.

86. A newborn infant has abnormally wide sutures. This may indicate A. dehydration. B. a brain tumor. C. meningitis. D. hydrocephalus. E. spina bifida.

87. An abnormal lateral spinal curvature, which is more common in adolescent girls, is called A. scoliosis. B. primary curvature. C. kyphosis. D. lordosis. E. secondary curvature.

88. The region of the vertebral column, which has the most number of fused or unfused vertebrae, is the A. cervical. B. thoracic. C. lumbar. D. sacrum. E. coccyx.

89. This vertebra has the following characteristics: body, vertebral foramen, spinous process, transverse process, and transverse foramen. This vertebra is a A. cervical. B. thoracic. C. lumbar. D. sacral. E. coccygeal.

90. In a herniated, ruptured, or slipped disc this area of fibrocartilage called the _____ cracks and the ______ oozes out and may put painful pressure on the spinal cord or spinal nerve. A. nucleus pulposus; annulus fibrosus B. lamina; nucleus pulposus C. annulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus D. annulus fibrosis; pedicle nucleus E. nucleus pulposus; lamina

91. The head of most ribs articulates with the body of the thoracic vertebra at the A. costal facet. B. superior costal facet. C. inferior costal facet. D. superior and inferior costal facets. E. transverse process.

92. In a 5-year-old child, the sacrum contains _____ separate vertebrae. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

93. When doing CPR, to move blood out of the heart you always find the inferior end of the sternum as a landmark and then move superiorly before beginning compression. The inferior end of the sternum that you do not want to compress is the A. manubrium. B. body. C. gladiolus. D. xiphoid process. E. costal facet.

94. Ribs 8 through 10 attach to costal cartilage of rib 7. Ribs 8 through 10 are called A. true ribs. B. floating ribs. C. articular ribs. D. false ribs. E. sternal ribs.

95. The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the _____ while the trochlea of the humerus articulates with the _____. A. radius; carpal bones B. ulna; carpal bones C. ulna; radius D. radius; ulna E. scapula; clavicle

96. The "funny bone" refers to the A. lateral epicondyle. B. capitulum. C. medial epicondyle. D. trochlea. E. olecranon process.

97. How many phalanges are in each hand or foot? A. 5 B. 8 C. 14 D. 15 E. 19

98. The area of the innominate bone where the sciatic nerve passes is called the A. obturator foramen. B. acetabulum. C. lesser sciatic notch. D. greater sciatic notch. E. pubic symphysis.

99. The tibia is one of the major weight-bearing bones of the leg and articulates inferiorly with this weight-bearing bone called the A. femur. B. talus. C. calcaneus. D. fibula. E. patella.

100. The prominent bony knobs on the medial and lateral sides of your ankle are the A. medial malleolus of the fibula and lateral malleolus of the tibia. B. medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula. C. medial talus and lateral calcaneus tarsal bones. D. medial and lateral epicondyles of the tibia. E. medial styloid process of tibia and lateral styloid process of the fibula.

08 Key

1. Two knoblike processes of the skull, called the ___, articulate with the spinal column. occipital condyles

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #1

2. The pituitary gland lies in a cavity of the sphenoid bone called the ___. sella turcica

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #2

3. Most of the space in each nasal fossa is occupied by three scroll-like ___. conchae

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #3

4. The inferior half of the nasal septum is formed by a bone called the ___. vomer

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #4

5. About one-quarter of the length of the spinal column consists of cartilagenous ___ between the vertebrae. intervertebral discs

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #5

6. The ilium, ischium and pubis make up a bone called ____. coxal bone

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #6

7. The socket of the hip joint is called the ___. acetabulum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #7

8. The weight-bearing bone of the calf is the ___. tibia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #8

9. The calcaneal (or Achilles) tendon inserts on a bone called the ___. calcaneus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #9

10. The lateral malleolus of the ankle is the distal head of the ___. fibula

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #10

11. The mandible originates in the fetus as two separate bones. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #11

12. Both the wrist and ankle have a navicular bone. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #12

13. The scapula attaches to the axial skeleton at each of its three angles. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #13

14. There is no such bone as middle phalanx I. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #14

15. The tibia articulates with the trochlear surface of the calcaneus. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #15

16. The head of the humerus inserts into a deep socket called the acetabulum. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #16

17. The malleus is attached to the medial surface of the eardrum. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #17

18. The pubic symphysis and annulus fibrosus are made of the same type of tissue. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #18

19. Alveoli are sockets for teeth and are found in the maxilla and the mandible. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #19

20. The lesser wings of the ethmoid bone form the floor of the anterior cranial fossa. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #20

21. The right and left nasal fossae are separated in part by the ethmoid bone. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #21

22. The frontal bone is classified as a facial bone since it forms the forehead. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #22

23. Most of the hard palate is formed by the palatine bones. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #23

24. The coronal suture establishes the posterior limit of the frontal bone. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #24

25. The median sacral crest represents the fused spinous processes of vertebrae S1-S5. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

alveolus brachium cuneiforms foramen magnum inferior nasal concha manubrium medial epicondyle olecranon process superior nasal concha trapezoid zygomatic arch

antebrachium cribriform plate eye orbit humerus lunate and hamate maxillozygomatic joint occipital condyles sella turcica temporomandibular joint xiphoid process

Saladin - 008 Chapter...

26. A tooth socket is known as a(n) _________. alveolus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #26

27. The forearm is known as a(n) _________. antebrachium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #27

28. Largest part of the sternum is the _________. manubrium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #28

29. Structure made up of the zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the temporal process of the zygomatic bone is the _________. zygomatic arch

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #29

30. The only moveable joint of the skull is the _________. temporomandibular joint

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #30

31. Large opening found in the occipital bone is known as the _________. foramen magnum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #31

32. Feature of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is known as the _________. sella turcica

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #32

33. Apex of the elbow is known as the _________. olecranon process

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #33

34. Feature of the ethmoid bone that increases air turbulence in the nose is known as the _________. superior nasal concha

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #34

35. Tarsal bones are known as _________. cuneiforms

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #35

36. Nodding your head "yes" represents movement of which type of joint? A. second-class lever B. third-class lever C. syndesmosis D. synostosis E. saddle joint

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #36

37. All of the following are paranasal sinuses except A. the sphenoid. B. the temporal. C. the ethmoid. D. the maxillary. E. the frontal.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #37

38. The internal and external acoustic meatuses are openings in A. the temporal bone. B. the maxilla. C. the parietal bone. D. the frontal bone. E. the sphenoid bone.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #38

39. The sphenoid bone has all of the following features except A. an infraorbital foramen. B. a foramen ovale. C. an optic foramen. D. a foramen spinosum. E. a pterygoid canal.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #39

40. Which of the following skull bones are paired? A. sphenoid B. occipital C. frontal D. parietal E. ethmoid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #40

41. The lambdoid suture separates the parietal bones from A. the occipital bone. B. each other. C. the temporal bone. D. the frontal bone. E. the maxillae.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #41

42. The styloid process, mastoid process, and zygomatic process are parts of A. the zygomatic arch. B. the occipital bone. C. the zygomatic bone. D. the maxilla. E. the temporal bone.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #42

43. The ___ bone of the skull articulates with the vertebral column. A. parietal B. frontal C. maxillary D. temporal E. occipital

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #43

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 008 Chapter... #44

45. The olfactory nerve tracts could be most easily damaged by a fracture of the ___ bone. A. frontal B. ethmoid C. sphenoid D. maxillary E. temporal

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 008 Chapter... #45

46. All of the following are facial bones except ___, which is a cranial bone. A. the palatine bone B. the lacrimal bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the vomer E. the maxilla

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #46

47. The fetal skull has all of the following fontanels except for a/an ___ fontanel. A. anterior B. posterior C. sphenoid D. mastoid E. occipital

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #47

48. There are ___ thoracic vertebrae and pairs of ribs. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 12 E. 14

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #48

49. The axis is the only vertebra with A. a transverse foramen. B. a superior vertebral notch. C. a dens. D. an anterior arch. E. a superior articular facet.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #49

50. Which of these bones is in the antebrachium? A. fibula B. humerus C. ulna D. calcaneus E. femur

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #50

51. The glenoid cavity is a point of articulation between A. the femur and tibia. B. the os coxae and femur. C. the humerus and radius. D. the humerus and ulna. E. the scapula and humerus.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #51

52. The cranial bones have a middle layer of spongy bone called A. the diploe. B. the dura mater. C. the nucleus pulposus. D. the air cells. E. the annulus fibrosus.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #52

53. Which part of the mandible articulates with the cranium? A. the coronoid process B. the body C. the mandibular notch D. the condyloid process E. the mental protuberance

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #53

54. A fractured ___ may be evidence of death by strangulation. A. mandible B. styloid process C. mastoid process D. vomer E. hyoid bone

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 008 Chapter... #54

55. The ___ of a vertebra bears the most weight. A. transverse process B. neural arch C. centrum D. lamina E. pedicle

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #55

56. The articulation of the head with the spinal column is A. the coxal joint. B. the atlantooccipital joint. C. the craniosacral joint. D. the atlantoaxial joint. E. the nuchal joint.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #56

57. Costal facets are found only on A. thoracic vertebrae. B. cervical vertebrae. C. ribs. D. the sternum. E. the scapula.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #57

58. Two bones have auricular surfaces, namely A. the right and left temporal bones. B. the radius and ulna. C. the atlas and axis. D. the calcaneus and talus. E. the sacrum and os coxae.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #58

59. All of the following adult bones arise as two separate bones in the fetus except A. the os coxae. B. the frontal bone. C. the mandible. D. the patella. E. the sacrum.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #59

60. Each clavicle articulates with A. the manubrium and gladiolus. B. the manubrium and scapula. C. the manubrium and humerus. D. the scapula and humerus. E. the gladiolus and spinal column.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #60

61. A costal cartilage connects each ___ to the ___. A. rib; sternum B. rib; spinal column C. metacarpal bone; carpal bones D. metatarsal bone; tarsal bones E. nasal bone; nasal septum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #61

62. The ___ is fractured more often than any other bone. A. humerus B. radius C. ulna D. clavicle E. nasal bone

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #62

63. Strictly speaking, "arm" refers only to A. the upper extremity. B. the brachium. C. the antebrachium. D. the cubital region. E. the crural region.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #63

64. A styloid process is found on all of the following except A. the radius. B. the ulna. C. the temporal bone. D. the fibula. E. the femur.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #64

65. Which of the following is not in the same class with the others? A. lunate B. trapezoid C. cuneiform D. pisiform

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #65

66. Which of the following is not found in the skull? A. foramen spinosum B. foramen magnum C. mastoid foramen D. mental foramen E. obturator foramen

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #67

68. A rounded knob that articulates with another bone is called a A. condyle. B. facet. C. process. D. trochanter. E. meatus.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #68

69. A shallow, broad, or elongated basin in bone is called a(n) A. fovea. B. alveolus. C. fossa. D. sulcus. E. foramen.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #70

71. Which one of the sinuses listed below does not communicate with the nasal cavity? A. frontal B. mastoid C. maxillary D. ethmoid E. sphenoid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #71

72. The suture that separates the two parietal bones is called the _____ suture. A. sagittal B. coronal C. lambdoid D. squamous E. transverse

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #72

73. The smooth area of the frontal bone just above the nasal bones is called the A. supraorbital margin. B. supraorbital notch. C. diploe. D. glabella. E. body.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #74

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #76

77. Which one of the foramens listed below is not found in the sphenoid? A. foramen rotundum B. mental foramen C. foramen ovale D. optic foramen E. foramen lacerum

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #77

78. Which one of features listed below is not found in the ethmoid bone? A. crista galli B. inferior nasal conchae C. middle nasal conchae D. superior nasal concha E. perpendicular plate

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #79

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #81

82. This bone, which resembles the blade of a plow, forms the inferior part of the nasal septum and is called the A. lacrimal bone. B. nasal bone. C. ethmoid. D. vomer. E. maxilla.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #84

85. One of the few bones that does not articulate with other bones and is located between the chin and larynx is the A. maxilla. B. ethmoid. C. hyoid. D. incus. E. mandible.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #85

86. A newborn infant has abnormally wide sutures. This may indicate A. dehydration. B. a brain tumor. C. meningitis. D. hydrocephalus. E. spina bifida.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #86

87. An abnormal lateral spinal curvature, which is more common in adolescent girls, is called A. scoliosis. B. primary curvature. C. kyphosis. D. lordosis. E. secondary curvature.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #87

88. The region of the vertebral column, which has the most number of fused or unfused vertebrae, is the A. cervical. B. thoracic. C. lumbar. D. sacrum. E. coccyx.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #91

92. In a 5-year-old child, the sacrum contains _____ separate vertebrae. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #93

94. Ribs 8 through 10 attach to costal cartilage of rib 7. Ribs 8 through 10 are called A. true ribs. B. floating ribs. C. articular ribs. D. false ribs. E. sternal ribs.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #95

96. The "funny bone" refers to the A. lateral epicondyle. B. capitulum. C. medial epicondyle. D. trochlea. E. olecranon process.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 008 Chapter... #96

97. How many phalanges are in each hand or foot? A. 5 B. 8 C. 14 D. 15 E. 19

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #97

98. The area of the innominate bone where the sciatic nerve passes is called the A. obturator foramen. B. acetabulum. C. lesser sciatic notch. D. greater sciatic notch. E. pubic symphysis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 008 Chapter... #98

99. The tibia is one of the major weight-bearing bones of the leg and articulates inferiorly with this weight-bearing bone called the A. femur. B. talus. C. calcaneus. D. fibula. E. patella.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #99

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 008 Chapter... #100

Chapter 9 1. Freely movable joints such as the knuckles are called ___. ________________________________________

2. Skull sutures and other immovable joints are called ___. ________________________________________

3. The lambdoid suture, in which the bones are joined along a wavy line, is an example of a/an ___ suture. ________________________________________

4. Two long bones joined by a broad interosseous membrane form a type of joint called a/an ___. ________________________________________

5. The lubricant in the joint cavity of a diarthrosis is called ___. ________________________________________

6. A long, tubular bursa enclosing a tendon is called a/an ___. ________________________________________

7. The maximum angle through which a joint can move is called its ___. ________________________________________

8. The part of a lever from the fulcrum to the resistance is called the ___. ________________________________________

9. In the elbow, a third-class lever, the ___ is between the ___ and the resistance. ________________________________________

10. If you keep your heels on the floor but raise your toes, you are performing the action of ___. ________________________________________

11. Amphiarthroses are less movable than diarthroses. True False

12. Intervertebral discs form cartilagenous joints between the vertebrae. True False

13. The carpal and tarsal bones are joined by gomphoses. True False

14. A synchondrosis and symphysis differ only with respect to what type of cartilage joins adjacent bones to each other. True False

15. A meniscus is a type of bursa seen, for example, in the space between the femur and tibia. True False

16. The fibrous capsule of a synovial joint is continuous with the periosteum of the adjoining bones. True False

17. The shoulder is a good example of a hinge joint. True False

18. Circumduction is limited to ball and socket joints. True False

19. If you have been pointing toward a car on your right using your right hand and then you reach into your pocket for your keys, your arm has exhibited adduction. True False

20. The right and left halves of the hard palate are joined by a plane suture. True False

21. The wrist can be hyperextended but the elbow cannot. True False

22. Grasping a doorknob with your right hand and turning the knob clockwise to open the door is an example of pronation. True False

23. Closing your mouth is an example of elevation of the mandible. True False

24. A single joint may combine features of condyloid, hinge, and gliding joints. True False

25. The shoulder joint is stabilized mainly by its three glenohumeral ligaments. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

acetabular labrum annular ligament calcaneal tendon condyloid hip ligament patellar tendon rotator cuff saddle

ankle bursa calcaneus gliding knee meniscus pivot round ligament talus

26. Fibrous band or cord connecting one bone to another is known as a ________. ________________________________________

27. Fibrous sac filled with synovial fluid, adjacent to a joint cavity is known as a ________. ________________________________________

28. Synovial joint type unique to the trapeziometacarpal joint is known as the ________. ________________________________________

29. This synovial joint type seen between the radius and ulna and between the atlas and axis is known as a ________. ________________________________________

30. Formed by tendons of the subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor muscles is the ________. ________________________________________

31. The _________ encircles the head of the radius and enables it to pivot on the ulna. ________________________________________

32. The ________ deepens the socket of the hip joint and helps stabilize the joint. ________________________________________

33. The location of the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments is known as the ________. ________________________________________

34. The ________ limits the range of dorsiflexion. ________________________________________

35. The talocrural joint is known as the ________. ________________________________________

36. Many anatomists say that the human body has no true A. second-class levers. B. third-class levers. C. syndesmoses. D. synostoses. E. saddle joints.

37. Unlike other joints, a ___ does not join two bones to each other. A. pivot joint B. cartilagenous joint C. gomphosis D. squamous suture E. synchondrosis

38. Which movement is limited to the foot? A. pronation B. elevation C. dorsiflexion D. abduction E. circumduction

39. Which of these is a first-class lever? A. the humeroulnar joint B. the talocrural joint C. the knee joint D. any metacarpophalangeal joint E. the atlanto-occipital joint

40. Which of these is not part of the temporomandibular joint? A. meniscus B. sphenomandibular ligament C. temporomandibular ligament D. annular ligament E. mandibular fossa

41. Which of these bursae is not associated with the shoulder joint? A. olecranon bursa B. subdeltoid bursa C. subacromial bursa D. subcoracoid bursa E. subscapular bursa

42. Which of these is a gliding joint? A. the humeroscapular joint B. the atlanto-occipital joint C. any interphalangeal joint D. the talocrural joint E. the patellofemoral joint

43. The rotator cuff includes tendons of all of the following muscles except A. the subscapularis. B. the biceps brachii. C. the infraspinatus. D. the teres minor. E. the supraspinatus.

44. The humerus is held in the glenoid cavity more securely by the ___ than by any other structure. A. glenohumeral ligament B. transverse humeral ligament C. biceps brachii tendon D. coracoid process E. glenoid labrum

45. If two bones are joined so firmly together they cannot move, they form A. a diarthrosis. B. a fibrous joint. C. a syndesmosis. D. a synarthrosis. E. a symphysis.

46. The hyaline costal cartilage that attaches a rib to the sternum forms A. a synchondrosis. B. a symphysis. C. a synarthrosis. D. a syndesmosis. E. a synostosis.

47. The cartilage pad called a meniscus is found within the knee and ___ joints. A. elbow B. finger C. hip D. intervertebral E. temporomandibular

48. Which of the following joints is multiaxial? A. a saddle joint B. the coxal joint C. a condyloid joint D. a hinge joint E. the proximal radioulnar joint

49. To raise your hand and place it on the shoulder of a person standing in front of you involves ___ of the shoulder. A. abduction B. adduction C. flexion D. extension E. elevation

50. To be sitting on a sofa and raise your arm to rest it on the back of the sofa involves ___ at the shoulder joint. A. abduction B. adduction C. lateral excursion D. extension E. elevation

51. If you hug yourself to keep warm, the shoulders are A. pronated. B. protracted. C. supinated. D. retracted. E. flexed.

52. A man raises his chin to shave his neck. This action is A. elevation of the mandible. B. extension of the neck. C. hyperextension of the neck. D. abduction of the neck. E. dorsiflexion of the neck.

53. If you stand on tiptoes to reach something on a high shelf, you are performing ___ at the ankle joint. A. eversion. B. abduction. C. opposition. D. dorsiflexion. E. plantar flexion.

54. A fibrous joint cannot also be A. a gomphosis. B. a diarthrosis. C. an amphiarthrosis. D. a synarthrosis. E. a suture.

55. Suppose you cup your hands to hold some water. This action would most likely involve A. pronation of the forearm. B. circumduction of the wrists. C. opposition of the thumb. D. abduction of the fingers. E. adduction of the fingers.

56. Suppose you are looking at the back of your hand and you turn your fingers upward to admire a new ring. A motion employed in this would be A. dorsiflexion of the hand. B. hyperextension of the wrist. C. extension of the wrist. D. flexion of the wrist. E. hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints.

57. As you take a bite from an apple, you are using mainly ___ of the mandible. A. protraction and retraction B. eversion and inversion C. lateral and medial excursion D. adduction and abduction E. depression and elevation

58. A metacarpophalangeal joint is A. a pivot joint. B. a ball and socket joint. C. a gliding joint. D. a hinge joint. E. a condyloid joint.

59. A certain lever has a fulcrum at one end, has a tendon exerting an effort 5 cm distal to the fulcrum, and acts against a resistance another 6 cm distal to the effort. What is the mechanical advantage of this lever? A. 0.45 B. 0.54 C. 0.83 D. 2.2 E. 11.0

60. Which of the following is true of joints that are first-class levers? A. Their mechanical advantage may be either greater or less than 1.0. B. Their mechanical advantage is always less than 1.0. C. Their output force is always greater than the input force. D. Their resistance is between the joint and the distal end of the bone. E. The fulcrum (joint) is at the opposite end from the tendinous insertion.

61. The rotator cuff tendons enclose the shoulder joint on all sides except ___, which partially explains the nature of most shoulder dislocations. A. anteriorly B. posteriorly C. superiorly D. inferiorly E. medially

62. Radial and ulnar collateral ligaments restrict side-to-side movements of the ___ joint. A. shoulder B. elbow C. wrist D. hip E. knee

63. The patella and femur form a ___ joint. A. gliding B. pivot C. saddle D. cartilagenous E. condyloid

64. Hyperextension of the knee is prevented partly by A. the anterior cruciate ligament. B. the patellar tendon. C. the patellar ligament. D. the calcaneal tendon. E. the collateral ligaments.

65. A tendon sheath is a modified A. ligament. B. joint capsule. C. bursa. D. tendon. E. meniscus.

66. A torn tendon or ligament is the cause of A. bursitis. B. a sprain. C. tendonitis. D. gout. E. rheumatism.

67. A joint, such as the knee or elbow, which is freely moveable is termed A. diarthrosis. B. amphiarthrosis. C. synarthrosis. D. synostosis. E. synchondrosis.

68. A joint that is slightly moveable, such as the intervertebral discs, intercarpal and intertarsal joints, is termed A. diarthrosis. B. amphiarthrosis. C. synarthrosis. D. synostosis. E. synovial.

69. A structurally classified joint which has no synovial cavity and is held together by ligaments is termed A. fibrous. B. cartilaginous. C. bony. D. synovial. E. connective.

70. The functional and structural classifications that best describe the tibiofibular joint are: A. synarthroses, synovial joint B. diarthroses, fibrous joint C. amphiarthroses, fibrous joint D. amphiarthroses, cartilaginous joint E. diarthroses, cartilaginous

71. The suture between the temporal bone and parietal bone and between the temporal bone and sphenoid bone is called A. serrate. B. lap. C. plane. D. butt. E. jagged.

72. The joint between the ribs and costal cartilage is a ______ joint which is specifically called a ______. A. fibrous; synchondrosis B. cartilaginous; synchondrosis C. cartilaginous; symphysis D. fibrous; symphysis E. fibrous; synostosis

73. The pubic symphysis is made up of A. fibrous tissue. B. hyaline cartilage. C. elastic cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. osseous tissue.

74. The joints between sacral vertebrae, between the bony plates in the skull, the epiphyseal plate, and the joint between the first ribs and sternum all have this in common. A. They are all jointed by fibrous tissue. B. They are all jointed by hyaline cartilage. C. They all ossify as you get older. D. They are all examples of sutures. E. They are all examples of synchondroses.

75. Synovial fluid is rich in ______ and ______, which give it a viscous, slippery texture similar to egg white before it is heated into a white gel. A. albumin; collagen B. albumin; hyaluronic acid C. collagen; hyaluronic acid D. collagen; elastin E. collagen; lactic acid

76. The articular cartilage found in a synovial joint is A. hyaline cartilage. B. elastic cartilage. C. fibrocartilage. D. not cartilage at all but rather a dense arrangement of collagenous fibers. E. fibrous tissue.

77. The meniscus is composed of A. hyaline cartilage. B. elastic cartilage. C. fibrocartilage. D. dense fibrous connective tissue. E. dense irregular connective tissue.

78. This part of a synovial joint encloses the cavity, retains the synovial fluid, and is continuous with the periosteum. A. articular cartilage B. fibrous capsule C. synovial membrane D. meniscus E. bursa

79. The elbow is an example of what type of joint? A. hinge B. saddle C. gliding D. condyloid E. ball and socket

80. If you are moving your head, from side to side to say "no", you are using this type joint. A. hinge B. pivot C. gliding D. condyloid E. ball and socket

81. The carpometacarpal I joint is responsible for our opposable thumbs. This is an example of a _____ joint. A. hinge B. saddle C. pivot D. condyloid E. ball and socket

82. Which one of the following joints does not fit with the others? A. proximal radioulnar joint between head of the radius and radial notch of the ulna B. radiocarpal joint between the distal radius and carpal bones of the wrist C. ulnarcarpal joint between the distal ulna and the carpal bones of the wrist D. metacarpophalangeal joint between the distal end of the metacarpals and the phalanges E. metatarsophalangeal joint between the distal end of the metatarsals and the phalanges

83. Which one of the following is the weakest joint? A. ball-and-socket (head of humerus, glenoid fossa of scapula) B. hinge (elbow) C. pivot (head of radius and radial notch of ulna) D. condyloid (distal end of metacarpal and phalanx) E. gliding (intercarpal)

84. The movement in which one end of an appendage remains relatively stationary while the other end makes a circular motion is A. circumduction. B. rotation. C. abduction. D. adduction. E. flexion.

85. The movement of the foot where the soles are turned medially is A. inversion. B. eversion. C. protraction. D. retraction. E. supination.

86. A uniaxial joint like the elbow is capable of which one of the following movements? A. circumduction B. supination and pronation C. flexion and extension D. rotation E. abduction

87. Tendons, ligaments, and muscles have sensory nerve endings called ______ that continually monitor joint angle and muscle tension. A. nociceptors B. baroreceptors C. proprioceptors D. pacinian corpuscles E. tactile receptors

88. Which lever type is most common in the human body? A. first B. second C. third D. fourth E. fifth

89. The class of lever where the effort is between the resistance and the fulcrum is a ____ lever. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth E. fifth

90. The temporomandibular joint represents the articulations of the ____ of the mandible with the _____ of the temporal bone. A. condylar process; mandibular fossa B. coronoid process; mandibular fossa C. condylar process; styloid process D. coronoid process; styloid process E. coracoid process; mastoid process

91. An athlete tore the rotator cuff. That athlete would have difficulty with which one of the following joints? A. TMJ B. ankle C. knee D. shoulder E. elbow

92. The coxal, or hip joint, contains a ring of fibrocartilage called the A. meniscus. B. acetabular labrum. C. glenoid labrum. D. round ligament. E. pubic ligament.

93. The fibrocartilage discs of the knees are called the _____ and the ligaments which prevent hyperextension and prevent the femur from sliding off the front of the tibia are the _____ ligaments. A. menisci; popliteal B. collateral ligaments; cruciate C. menisci; cruciate D. menisci; collateral E. bursae; collateral

94. The Achilles heel is the A. deltoid ligament. B. calcaneal tendon. C. tibialis anterior tendon. D. tibialis posterior tendon. E. plantar tendon.

95. The crunching or crackling sounds in aging joints are caused by A. bursae popping air. B. bone grinding against bone. C. roughened cartilage moving. D. ligaments slipping over bones. E. calcium deposits on articular cartilage.

96. As articular cartilage wears away, ____ often grows into the joint cavity, restricting movement and causing pain. A. cartilage discs B. spurs C. ankylosis D. synovial membranes E. bursae

97. What type of joint is the epiphyseal plate? A. synostosis B. syndesmosis C. symphysis D. synovial E. synchondrosis

98. Which of the following joints allows for the most movement? A. suture B. gomphoses C. pivot D. amphiarthroses E. symphysis

99. The joint between a tooth and an alveolar socket is called A. gomphosis. B. diarthrosis. C. synchondrosis. D. syndesmosis. E. suture.

100. Which of the following ligaments of the tibiofemoral joint are intracapsular? A. anterior cruciate ligament B. oblique popliteal ligament C. arcuate popliteal ligament D. fibular collateral ligament E. tibial collateral ligament

09 Key

1. Freely movable joints such as the knuckles are called ___. diarthroses

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #1

2. Skull sutures and other immovable joints are called ___. synarthroses

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #2

3. The lambdoid suture, in which the bones are joined along a wavy line, is an example of a/an ___ suture. serrate

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #3

4. Two long bones joined by a broad interosseous membrane form a type of joint called a/an ___. syndesmosis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #4

5. The lubricant in the joint cavity of a diarthrosis is called ___. synovial fluid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #5

6. A long, tubular bursa enclosing a tendon is called a/an ___. tendon sheath

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #6

7. The maximum angle through which a joint can move is called its ___. range of motion

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #7

8. The part of a lever from the fulcrum to the resistance is called the ___. resistance arm

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #8

9. In the elbow, a third-class lever, the ___ is between the ___ and the resistance. effort; fulcrum

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #9

10. If you keep your heels on the floor but raise your toes, you are performing the action of ___. dorsiflexion

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #10

11. Amphiarthroses are less movable than diarthroses. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #11

12. Intervertebral discs form cartilagenous joints between the vertebrae. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #12

13. The carpal and tarsal bones are joined by gomphoses. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #13

14. A synchondrosis and symphysis differ only with respect to what type of cartilage joins adjacent bones to each other. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #14

15. A meniscus is a type of bursa seen, for example, in the space between the femur and tibia. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #15

16. The fibrous capsule of a synovial joint is continuous with the periosteum of the adjoining bones. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #16

17. The shoulder is a good example of a hinge joint. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #17

18. Circumduction is limited to ball and socket joints. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #18

19. If you have been pointing toward a car on your right using your right hand and then you reach into your pocket for your keys, your arm has exhibited adduction. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #19

20. The right and left halves of the hard palate are joined by a plane suture. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #20

21. The wrist can be hyperextended but the elbow cannot. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #21

22. Grasping a doorknob with your right hand and turning the knob clockwise to open the door is an example of pronation. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #22

23. Closing your mouth is an example of elevation of the mandible. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #23

24. A single joint may combine features of condyloid, hinge, and gliding joints. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #24

25. The shoulder joint is stabilized mainly by its three glenohumeral ligaments. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

acetabular labrum annular ligament calcaneal tendon condyloid hip ligament patellar tendon rotator cuff saddle

ankle bursa calcaneus gliding knee meniscus pivot round ligament talus

Saladin - 009 Chapter...

26. Fibrous band or cord connecting one bone to another is known as a ________. ligament

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #26

27. Fibrous sac filled with synovial fluid, adjacent to a joint cavity is known as a ________. bursa

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #27

28. Synovial joint type unique to the trapeziometacarpal joint is known as the ________. saddle

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #28

29. This synovial joint type seen between the radius and ulna and between the atlas and axis is known as a ________. pivot

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #29

30. Formed by tendons of the subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor muscles is the ________. rotator cuff

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #30

31. The _________ encircles the head of the radius and enables it to pivot on the ulna. annular ligament

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #31

32. The ________ deepens the socket of the hip joint and helps stabilize the joint. acetabular labrum

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #32

33. The location of the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments is known as the ________. knee

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #33

34. The ________ limits the range of dorsiflexion. calcaneal tendon

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #34

35. The talocrural joint is known as the ________. ankle

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #35

36. Many anatomists say that the human body has no true A. second-class levers. B. third-class levers. C. syndesmoses. D. synostoses. E. saddle joints.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #36

37. Unlike other joints, a ___ does not join two bones to each other. A. pivot joint B. cartilagenous joint C. gomphosis D. squamous suture E. synchondrosis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #37

38. Which movement is limited to the foot? A. pronation B. elevation C. dorsiflexion D. abduction E. circumduction

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #38

39. Which of these is a first-class lever? A. the humeroulnar joint B. the talocrural joint C. the knee joint D. any metacarpophalangeal joint E. the atlanto-occipital joint

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #39

40. Which of these is not part of the temporomandibular joint? A. meniscus B. sphenomandibular ligament C. temporomandibular ligament D. annular ligament E. mandibular fossa

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #40

41. Which of these bursae is not associated with the shoulder joint? A. olecranon bursa B. subdeltoid bursa C. subacromial bursa D. subcoracoid bursa E. subscapular bursa

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #41

42. Which of these is a gliding joint? A. the humeroscapular joint B. the atlanto-occipital joint C. any interphalangeal joint D. the talocrural joint E. the patellofemoral joint

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 009 Chapter... #42

43. The rotator cuff includes tendons of all of the following muscles except A. the subscapularis. B. the biceps brachii. C. the infraspinatus. D. the teres minor. E. the supraspinatus.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #43

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 009 Chapter... #44

45. If two bones are joined so firmly together they cannot move, they form A. a diarthrosis. B. a fibrous joint. C. a syndesmosis. D. a synarthrosis. E. a symphysis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #45

46. The hyaline costal cartilage that attaches a rib to the sternum forms A. a synchondrosis. B. a symphysis. C. a synarthrosis. D. a syndesmosis. E. a synostosis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #46

47. The cartilage pad called a meniscus is found within the knee and ___ joints. A. elbow B. finger C. hip D. intervertebral E. temporomandibular

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #47

48. Which of the following joints is multiaxial? A. a saddle joint B. the coxal joint C. a condyloid joint D. a hinge joint E. the proximal radioulnar joint

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #48

49. To raise your hand and place it on the shoulder of a person standing in front of you involves ___ of the shoulder. A. abduction B. adduction C. flexion D. extension E. elevation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #49

50. To be sitting on a sofa and raise your arm to rest it on the back of the sofa involves ___ at the shoulder joint. A. abduction B. adduction C. lateral excursion D. extension E. elevation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #50

51. If you hug yourself to keep warm, the shoulders are A. pronated. B. protracted. C. supinated. D. retracted. E. flexed.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #52

53. If you stand on tiptoes to reach something on a high shelf, you are performing ___ at the ankle joint. A. eversion. B. abduction. C. opposition. D. dorsiflexion. E. plantar flexion.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #53

54. A fibrous joint cannot also be A. a gomphosis. B. a diarthrosis. C. an amphiarthrosis. D. a synarthrosis. E. a suture.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #54

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #55

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #56

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #57

58. A metacarpophalangeal joint is A. a pivot joint. B. a ball and socket joint. C. a gliding joint. D. a hinge joint. E. a condyloid joint.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #58

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 009 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 009 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #61

62. Radial and ulnar collateral ligaments restrict side-to-side movements of the ___ joint. A. shoulder B. elbow C. wrist D. hip E. knee

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #62

63. The patella and femur form a ___ joint. A. gliding B. pivot C. saddle D. cartilagenous E. condyloid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #63

64. Hyperextension of the knee is prevented partly by A. the anterior cruciate ligament. B. the patellar tendon. C. the patellar ligament. D. the calcaneal tendon. E. the collateral ligaments.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #64

65. A tendon sheath is a modified A. ligament. B. joint capsule. C. bursa. D. tendon. E. meniscus.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #65

66. A torn tendon or ligament is the cause of A. bursitis. B. a sprain. C. tendonitis. D. gout. E. rheumatism.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #66

67. A joint, such as the knee or elbow, which is freely moveable is termed A. diarthrosis. B. amphiarthrosis. C. synarthrosis. D. synostosis. E. synchondrosis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #67

68. A joint that is slightly moveable, such as the intervertebral discs, intercarpal and intertarsal joints, is termed A. diarthrosis. B. amphiarthrosis. C. synarthrosis. D. synostosis. E. synovial.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #68

69. A structurally classified joint which has no synovial cavity and is held together by ligaments is termed A. fibrous. B. cartilaginous. C. bony. D. synovial. E. connective.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #70

71. The suture between the temporal bone and parietal bone and between the temporal bone and sphenoid bone is called A. serrate. B. lap. C. plane. D. butt. E. jagged.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #71

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #72

73. The pubic symphysis is made up of A. fibrous tissue. B. hyaline cartilage. C. elastic cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. osseous tissue.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #74

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #76

77. The meniscus is composed of A. hyaline cartilage. B. elastic cartilage. C. fibrocartilage. D. dense fibrous connective tissue. E. dense irregular connective tissue.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #78

79. The elbow is an example of what type of joint? A. hinge B. saddle C. gliding D. condyloid E. ball and socket

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #79

80. If you are moving your head, from side to side to say "no", you are using this type joint. A. hinge B. pivot C. gliding D. condyloid E. ball and socket

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #80

81. The carpometacarpal I joint is responsible for our opposable thumbs. This is an example of a _____ joint. A. hinge B. saddle C. pivot D. condyloid E. ball and socket

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 009 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 009 Chapter... #83

84. The movement in which one end of an appendage remains relatively stationary while the other end makes a circular motion is A. circumduction. B. rotation. C. abduction. D. adduction. E. flexion.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #84

85. The movement of the foot where the soles are turned medially is A. inversion. B. eversion. C. protraction. D. retraction. E. supination.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #85

86. A uniaxial joint like the elbow is capable of which one of the following movements? A. circumduction B. supination and pronation C. flexion and extension D. rotation E. abduction

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #87

88. Which lever type is most common in the human body? A. first B. second C. third D. fourth E. fifth

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #88

89. The class of lever where the effort is between the resistance and the fulcrum is a ____ lever. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth E. fifth

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #90

91. An athlete tore the rotator cuff. That athlete would have difficulty with which one of the following joints? A. TMJ B. ankle C. knee D. shoulder E. elbow

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #91

92. The coxal, or hip joint, contains a ring of fibrocartilage called the A. meniscus. B. acetabular labrum. C. glenoid labrum. D. round ligament. E. pubic ligament.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #93

94. The Achilles heel is the A. deltoid ligament. B. calcaneal tendon. C. tibialis anterior tendon. D. tibialis posterior tendon. E. plantar tendon.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 009 Chapter... #95

96. As articular cartilage wears away, ____ often grows into the joint cavity, restricting movement and causing pain. A. cartilage discs B. spurs C. ankylosis D. synovial membranes E. bursae

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #96

97. What type of joint is the epiphyseal plate? A. synostosis B. syndesmosis C. symphysis D. synovial E. synchondrosis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #97

98. Which of the following joints allows for the most movement? A. suture B. gomphoses C. pivot D. amphiarthroses E. symphysis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 009 Chapter... #98

99. The joint between a tooth and an alveolar socket is called A. gomphosis. B. diarthrosis. C. synchondrosis. D. syndesmosis. E. suture.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 009 Chapter... #99

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 009 Chapter... #100

Chapter 10 1. Several body orifices are regulated by circular muscles called ___. ________________________________________

2. Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called ___. ________________________________________

3. A muscle that prevents unwanted movement of a bone is called a ___. ________________________________________

4. The muscle of the lips is the ___. ________________________________________

5. The prime mover of neck flexion is a prominent muscle on the side of the neck called the ___. ________________________________________

6. In a ___ muscle, the fascicles diverge from both sides of a central tendon. ________________________________________

7. The largest muscle of the upper back is the ___. ________________________________________

8. The linea alba separates the right and left ___ muscles from each other. ________________________________________

9. The hamstring muscles are the semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and ___. ________________________________________

10. The anterior aspect of the thigh is dominated by the ___, a large muscle with four heads. ________________________________________

11. All skeletal muscles have their origins and insertions on bone. True False

12. The levator palpebrae is an antagonist of the orbicularis oris. True False

13. The little finger is extended by both the extensor digitorum and the extensor digiti minimi. True False

14. Both the hand and the foot have lumbrical and interosseous muscles. True False

15. Each muscle fiber is surrounded by its own connective tissue sheath called the perineurium. True False

16. The bone at a muscle's origin shows little or no movement when that muscle contracts. True False

17. The interosseous muscles are fusiform. True False

18. The actions of a synergist are similar but not necessarily identical to those of a prime mover at the same joint. True False

19. The pelvic diaphragm is deeper than the urogenital diaphragm. True False

20. Fusiform muscles are generally weaker than parallel muscles because they have a narrower tendon at the insertion. True False

21. An antagonist is a muscle that generally acts to prevent movement of a bone. True False

22. The orbicularis oculi moves the eye, for example when you are reading a page of print. True False

23. When you swallow, you can feel your larynx bob upwards. This results from the action of certain muscles in the infrahyoid group. True False

24. Raising the thumb to a hitchhiking position employs the adductor pollicis. True False

25. Contraction of the diaphragm expels air from the lungs. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

adductor pollicis antagonist belly brachialis deep transverse perineus fascicle interosseous membrane palmaris longus prime mover retinaculum triceps brachii vastus lateralis

anal triangle aponeurosis biceps femoris bursa external urethral sphincter head ischiocavernosus pelvic diaphragm psoas major synergist urogenital triangle

26. A broad flat tendon is known as the ________. ________________________________________

27. Muscle that produces the main force in a given joint action is known as the ________. ________________________________________

28. Antagonist of the rectus femoris is known as the ________. ________________________________________

29. Synergist of the biceps brachii is known as the ________. ________________________________________

30. The ________ forms a web between the thumb and the palm. ________________________________________

31. Connective tissue band that holds down tendons at the wrist or ankle are known as the ________. ________________________________________

32. Prominent muscle that extends from the lumbar vertebrae to the femur is known as the ________. ________________________________________

33. Helps to void urine is known as the ________. ________________________________________

34. Anterior half of the perineum is known as the ________. ________________________________________

35. Thick middle part of a muscle is known as the ________. ________________________________________

36. ___ are straplike muscles of uniform width whose fascicles all run in the same direction. A. Convergent muscles B. Pennate muscles C. Rectilinear muscles D. Fusiform muscles E. Parallel muscles

37. A/an ___ muscle of the hand has both its origin and insertion within the hand. A. internal B. synergistic C. convergent D. extrinsic E. intrinsic

38. A smile is produced by contraction of the ___ muscle(s). A. frontalis B. zygomaticus C. depressor anguli oris D. orbicularis oris E. orbicularis oris

39. The ___ muscles pull the skin of the chin upward. A. depressor anguli oris B. mentalis C. depressor labii inferioris D. platysma E. masseter

40. All of the following are intrinsic muscles of the head except A. the temporalis. B. the epicranius. C. the sternocleidomastoid. D. the risorius. E. the nasalis.

41. All of the following produce chewing movements of the mandible except A. the masseter. B. the medial pterygoid. C. the lateral pterygoid. D. the thyrohyoid. E. the mylohyoid.

42. Which of the following is an extensor of the neck? A. posterior scalene B. semispinalis capitis C. sternocleidomastoid D. occipitalis E. omohyoid

43. The word hallucis in the name of a muscle pertains to A. the great toe. B. the thumb. C. the ankle. D. the wrist. E. the mind.

44. The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is A. the transversus abdominis. B. the internal oblique. C. the rectus abdominis. D. the erector spinae. E. the latissimus dorsi.

45. The pronator teres and pronator quadratus A. depress the scapula. B. rotate the scapula. C. flex the elbow. D. turn the palm upward. E. turn the palm downward.

46. The two prominent superficial tendons at the wrist belong to the ___ muscle(s). A. semitendinosus and semimembranosus B. palmaris longus and flexor carpi ulnaris C. flexor retinaculum and extensor retinaculum D. flexor digitorum superficialis E. extensor digitorum and extensor pollicis brevis

47. All of the following belong to the triceps surae of the calf except A. the plantaris muscle. B. the soleus muscle. C. the tibialis posterior muscle. D. the calcaneal tendon. E. the gastrocnemius muscle.

48. Which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle? A. sternothyroid B. sternohyoid C. mylohyoid D. omohyoid E. thyrohyoid

49. Which one of these muscles helps to open the mouth (depress the mandible)? A. zygomaticus major B. digastric C. sternohyoid D. depressor anguli oris E. mentalis

50. The ___ acts synergistically with the masseter to elevate the mandible. A. levator scapulae B. splenius capitis C. buccinator D. zygomaticus major E. temporalis

51. The ___ originates on the zygomatic arch and inserts on the angle of the mandible. A. masseter B. buccinator C. temporalis D. genioglossus E. zygomaticus major

52. Which of the following is not a muscle of the lower extremity? A. sartorius B. adductor magnus C. pectineus D. semitendinosus E. flexor carpi ulnaris

53. Which of the following muscles is not below the knee? A. flexor digitorum brevis B. psoas major C. abductor hallucis D. peroneus longus E. soleus

54. The prominent tendons you can palpate at the popliteal fossa arise from A. the biceps brachii. B. the triceps brachii. C. the hamstring muscles. D. the quadriceps femoris. E. the gastrocnemius.

55. Crossing your legs while sitting employs mainly A. the sartorius. B. the superior gemellus. C. the piriformis. D. the pectineus. E. the bulbocavernosus.

56. Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body? A. latissimus dorsi B. teres major C. transversus abdominis D. trapezius E. pectoralis major

57. The longest muscle of the human body is A. the sartorius. B. the ischiocavernosus. C. the gastrocnemius. D. the superior rectus. E. the triceps brachii.

58. The calcaneal (Achilles) tendon arises from A. the gastrocnemius and soleus. B. the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis. C. the lateral rotator muscles. D. the semitendinosus and semimembranosus. E. the adductor longus, adductor brevis, and adductor magnus.

59. Which of the following muscles does not insert on the tibia or fibula? A. tibialis anterior B. rectus femoris C. biceps femoris D. vastus medialis E. semimembranosus

60. Which of the following is not a muscle of the buttocks? A. tensor fasciae latae B. lateral rotators C. vastus intermedius D. gluteus maximus E. gluteus minimus

61. You have just played a stunning violin concerto, the audience is wild with applause, and you take a deep bow, using your A. gluteus maximus muscles. B. iliopsoas muscles. C. extensor hallucis longus muscles. D. dorsal interosseous muscles. E. lumbrical muscles.

62. Which of the following flexes the thigh? A. vastus lateralis B. vastus medialis C. semimembranosus D. rectus femoris E. biceps femoris

63. The quadriceps femoris includes all of the following muscles parts except A. the vastus medialis. B. the rectus femoris. C. the vastus intermedius. D. the vastus femoris. E. the vastus lateralis.

64. The ___ is one of the hamstring muscles on the posterior side of the thigh. A. semimembranosus B. adductor magnus C. gluteus minimus D. ischiocavernosus E. tensor fasciae latae

65. Which of the following muscles produces plantar flexion of the foot? A. tibialis anterior B. soleus C. plantaris D. flexor digitorum brevis E. quadratus plantae

66. The teres major and teres minor originate on the ___ and insert on the ___. A. humerus; scapula B. scapula; humerus C. os coxae; femur D. femur; tibia E. tibia; calcaneus and talus

67. Tendinous insertions divide the ___ into segments externally visible on the abdomen of a well-muscled person. A. vastus lateralis B. biceps brachii C. quadriceps femoris D. serratus anterior E. rectus abdominis

68. When you hyperextend your fingers, as in admiring a ring, you may be able to see three or four prominent tendons stand out on the back of your hand. These tendons arise from A. the flexor digitorum superficialis. B. the flexor digitorum profundus. C. the lumbrical muscles. D. the extensor digitorum. E. the dorsal interossei.

69. Suppose you were doing toe-touching exercises, without bending your knees. Each time you stood up, you would be using A. the iliocostalis muscles. B. the quadratus femoris muscles. C. the gastrocnemius muscles. D. the rectus abdominis muscles. E. the gluteus medius and minimus muscles.

70. Which of the following perineal muscles exhibits the greatest difference between males and females? A. the bulbospongiosus B. the deep transverse perineus C. the levator ani D. the coccygeus E. the external anal sphincter

71. Which of the following muscles is bipennate? A. the pectoralis major B. the biceps brachii C. the rectus femoris D. the palmar interosseous muscles E. the deltoid

72. In skeletal muscle, groups of muscle cells are called _____ and are surrounded by a connective tissue sheath called the ______. A. fascicles, endomysium B. fascicles, perimysium C. fasciae, epimysium D. fasciae, endomysium E. fascicles, epimysium

73. The biceps brachii is connected to the scapula by collagenous fibers of the epimysium called the ______, and this attachment represents the ______ of the biceps brachii. A. aponeurosis; origin B. indirect attachment; insertion C. tendon; origin D. tendon; insertion E. aponeurosis; insertion

74. The rectus abdominis is a(n) _____ muscle, while the rectus femoris is a(n) _____ muscle. A. fusiform; parallel B. parallel; bipennate C. circular; multipennate D. convergent; unipennate E. bipennate; parallel

75. Which one of the following muscles would exert the greatest tension on its insertion? A. biceps brachii B. rectus abdominis C. pectoralis major D. orbicularis oculi E. brachioradialis

76. Which of the following muscles are not part of the rotator cuff? A. subscapularis B. infraspinatus C. supraspinatus D. teres minor E. teres major

77. The extensor carpi ulnaris is an example of what type of muscle? A. intrinsic B. extrinsic C. synergist D. fixator E. antagonist

78. Lumborum means _____, while brachii means ______. A. of the thorax; of the fibula B. of the lower back; of the arm C. of the thorax; of the thumb D. of the chest; of the great toe E. of the lower back; of the hand

79. You are trying to find the flexor digitorum profundus. You are looking for a muscle that A. flexes the toes and is large. B. flexes the fingers and is close to the skin. C. flexes the fingers or toes and is deep. D. rotates the toes and is large. E. flexes the leg and is small.

80. You are looking for the flexor hallucis brevis. This muscle A. flexes the thumb briefly. B. flexes the index finger and is short. C. flexes the little toe and is short. D. flexes the great toe and is short. E. flexes the ring finger and is short.

81. The frontalis muscle is connected to the occipitalis muscle by a(an) A. deep fascia. B. tendon. C. aponeurosis. D. flat, thin muscle. E. ligament.

82. The muscles of the cheek, which function in blowing, sucking, and chewing, are called the _____ muscles. A. buccinator B. masseter C. orbicularis oris D. zygomaticus major E. zygomaticus minor

83. The two powerful muscles, which elevate your mandible to bite and chew, are the A. masseter and buccinator. B. zygomaticus major and minor. C. temporalis and masseter. D. depressor labii inferioris and depressor anguli oris. E. buccinator and temporalis.

84. This muscle, which is named for its origin and insertion, elevates the hyoid bone. A. stylohyoid B. omohyoid C. sternohyoid D. thyrohyoid E. sternothyroid

85. The principle flexors of the neck are the A. sternocleidomastoid and trapezius. B. scalenus and trapezius. C. splenius capitis and sternocleidomastoid. D. sternocleidomastoid and scalenus. E. sternocleidomastoid and platysma.

86. The muscular dome between the abdominal and thoracic cavity is the A. central tendon. B. diaphragm. C. external intercostals. D. internal intercostals. E. transverse abdominis.

87. Which of the following muscles flexes the vertebral column? A. longissimus B. transverse abdominis C. iliocostalis D. rectus abdominis E. spinalis

88. Identify the muscle that you can see originates on the iliac crest and inserts on lumbar vertebrae and rib 12. A. multifidus B. quadratus lumborum C. erector spinae D. splenius E. longissimus

89. Identify the muscle group which extends and rotates the vertebral column. A. serratus posterior B. quadratus lumborum C. multifidus D. iliocostalis E. longissimus

90. Your hamstring muscles, gluteus maximus, and erector spinae are contracting in the sequence listed. You are most likely A. straightening up after touching your toes. B. standing up from sitting in a chair. C. turning over in a lying position. D. climbing up stairs. E. bending to touch your toes.

91. In males, this muscle forms a sheath around the base of the penis and expels semen during ejaculation. In females, this same muscle encloses the vagina and tightens on the penis during intercourse. This muscle is the A. ischiocavernosus. B. superficial transverse perineus. C. levator ani. D. bulbospongiosus. E. cremaster.

92. The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula, as in shrugging and lowering the shoulders, are the A. trapezius and serratus anterior. B. pectoralis minor and serratus anterior. C. levator scapulae and rhomboideus muscles. D. trapezius and rhomboideus muscles. E. levator scapulae and pectoralis major.

93. The four rotator cuff muscles are examples of A. prime movers. B. antagonists. C. synergists. D. fixators. E. medial rotators.

94. The principle flexors of the forearm are the A. biceps brachii and coracobrachialis. B. brachioradialis and brachialis. C. subscapularis and coracobrachialis. D. biceps brachii and brachialis. E. biceps brachii and triceps brachii.

95. On the posterior side of the hand you can notice four tendon sheaths around four tendons attaching to all of your digits except the thumb. These tendons all come from the same muscle called the A. extensor carpi ulnaris. B. extensor digiti minimi. C. extensor carpi radialis. D. extensor digitorum. E. extensor pollicis.

96. This large muscle originates on the ilium and sacrum, inserts on the distal femur and its action is to extend the thigh. A. gluteus maximus B. tensor fasciae latae C. psoas major D. iliacus E. gluteus minimus

97. Which one of the following is not part of the quadriceps muscle group? A. vastus medialis B. vastus lateralis C. vastus intermedius D. biceps femoris E. rectus femoris

98. If the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon was cut, which muscle action would be affected the most? A. dorsiflexion B. plantarflexion C. inversion D. eversion E. leg extension

99. The extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallicus longus, fibularis tertius, and tibialis anterior A. dorsiflex the foot. B. plantar flex the foot. C. invert the foot. D. evert the foot. E. extend the leg.

100. Skeletal muscle contractions help move A. blood through the heart. B. blood through arteries. C. blood through veins. D. food through the GI tract. E. urine through the ureters.

10 Key

1. Several body orifices are regulated by circular muscles called ___. sphincters

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #1

2. Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called ___. fascicles

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3. A muscle that prevents unwanted movement of a bone is called a ___. fixator

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #3

4. The muscle of the lips is the ___. orbicularis oris

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #4

5. The prime mover of neck flexion is a prominent muscle on the side of the neck called the ___. sternocleidomastoid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #5

6. In a ___ muscle, the fascicles diverge from both sides of a central tendon. bipennate

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7. The largest muscle of the upper back is the ___. trapezius

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8. The linea alba separates the right and left ___ muscles from each other. rectus abdominis

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9. The hamstring muscles are the semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and ___. biceps femoris

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #9

10. The anterior aspect of the thigh is dominated by the ___, a large muscle with four heads. quadriceps femoris

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #10

11. All skeletal muscles have their origins and insertions on bone. FALSE

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12. The levator palpebrae is an antagonist of the orbicularis oris. TRUE

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13. The little finger is extended by both the extensor digitorum and the extensor digiti minimi. TRUE

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14. Both the hand and the foot have lumbrical and interosseous muscles. TRUE

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15. Each muscle fiber is surrounded by its own connective tissue sheath called the perineurium. FALSE

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16. The bone at a muscle's origin shows little or no movement when that muscle contracts. TRUE

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17. The interosseous muscles are fusiform. FALSE

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18. The actions of a synergist are similar but not necessarily identical to those of a prime mover at the same joint. TRUE

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19. The pelvic diaphragm is deeper than the urogenital diaphragm. TRUE

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20. Fusiform muscles are generally weaker than parallel muscles because they have a narrower tendon at the insertion. FALSE

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21. An antagonist is a muscle that generally acts to prevent movement of a bone. FALSE

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22. The orbicularis oculi moves the eye, for example when you are reading a page of print. FALSE

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23. When you swallow, you can feel your larynx bob upwards. This results from the action of certain muscles in the infrahyoid group. TRUE

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24. Raising the thumb to a hitchhiking position employs the adductor pollicis. FALSE

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25. Contraction of the diaphragm expels air from the lungs. TRUE

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Match the following terms to the definitions.

adductor pollicis antagonist belly brachialis deep transverse perineus fascicle interosseous membrane palmaris longus prime mover retinaculum triceps brachii vastus lateralis

anal triangle aponeurosis biceps femoris bursa external urethral sphincter head ischiocavernosus pelvic diaphragm psoas major synergist urogenital triangle

Saladin - 010 Chapter...

26. A broad flat tendon is known as the ________. aponeurosis

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27. Muscle that produces the main force in a given joint action is known as the ________. prime mover

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28. Antagonist of the rectus femoris is known as the ________. biceps femoris

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29. Synergist of the biceps brachii is known as the ________. brachialis

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30. The ________ forms a web between the thumb and the palm. adductor pollicis

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31. Connective tissue band that holds down tendons at the wrist or ankle are known as the ________. retinaculum

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32. Prominent muscle that extends from the lumbar vertebrae to the femur is known as the ________. psoas major

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33. Helps to void urine is known as the ________. deep transverse perineus

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34. Anterior half of the perineum is known as the ________. urogenital triangle

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35. Thick middle part of a muscle is known as the ________. belly

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36. ___ are straplike muscles of uniform width whose fascicles all run in the same direction. A. Convergent muscles B. Pennate muscles C. Rectilinear muscles D. Fusiform muscles E. Parallel muscles

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #36

37. A/an ___ muscle of the hand has both its origin and insertion within the hand. A. internal B. synergistic C. convergent D. extrinsic E. intrinsic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #37

38. A smile is produced by contraction of the ___ muscle(s). A. frontalis B. zygomaticus C. depressor anguli oris D. orbicularis oris E. orbicularis oris

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #38

39. The ___ muscles pull the skin of the chin upward. A. depressor anguli oris B. mentalis C. depressor labii inferioris D. platysma E. masseter

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #39

40. All of the following are intrinsic muscles of the head except A. the temporalis. B. the epicranius. C. the sternocleidomastoid. D. the risorius. E. the nasalis.

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41. All of the following produce chewing movements of the mandible except A. the masseter. B. the medial pterygoid. C. the lateral pterygoid. D. the thyrohyoid. E. the mylohyoid.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #41

42. Which of the following is an extensor of the neck? A. posterior scalene B. semispinalis capitis C. sternocleidomastoid D. occipitalis E. omohyoid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #42

43. The word hallucis in the name of a muscle pertains to A. the great toe. B. the thumb. C. the ankle. D. the wrist. E. the mind.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #43

44. The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is A. the transversus abdominis. B. the internal oblique. C. the rectus abdominis. D. the erector spinae. E. the latissimus dorsi.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #44

45. The pronator teres and pronator quadratus A. depress the scapula. B. rotate the scapula. C. flex the elbow. D. turn the palm upward. E. turn the palm downward.

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48. Which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle? A. sternothyroid B. sternohyoid C. mylohyoid D. omohyoid E. thyrohyoid

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #48

49. Which one of these muscles helps to open the mouth (depress the mandible)? A. zygomaticus major B. digastric C. sternohyoid D. depressor anguli oris E. mentalis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #49

50. The ___ acts synergistically with the masseter to elevate the mandible. A. levator scapulae B. splenius capitis C. buccinator D. zygomaticus major E. temporalis

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51. The ___ originates on the zygomatic arch and inserts on the angle of the mandible. A. masseter B. buccinator C. temporalis D. genioglossus E. zygomaticus major

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #51

52. Which of the following is not a muscle of the lower extremity? A. sartorius B. adductor magnus C. pectineus D. semitendinosus E. flexor carpi ulnaris

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #52

53. Which of the following muscles is not below the knee? A. flexor digitorum brevis B. psoas major C. abductor hallucis D. peroneus longus E. soleus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #53

54. The prominent tendons you can palpate at the popliteal fossa arise from A. the biceps brachii. B. the triceps brachii. C. the hamstring muscles. D. the quadriceps femoris. E. the gastrocnemius.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #54

55. Crossing your legs while sitting employs mainly A. the sartorius. B. the superior gemellus. C. the piriformis. D. the pectineus. E. the bulbocavernosus.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 010 Chapter... #55

56. Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body? A. latissimus dorsi B. teres major C. transversus abdominis D. trapezius E. pectoralis major

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #56

57. The longest muscle of the human body is A. the sartorius. B. the ischiocavernosus. C. the gastrocnemius. D. the superior rectus. E. the triceps brachii.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #57

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #58

59. Which of the following muscles does not insert on the tibia or fibula? A. tibialis anterior B. rectus femoris C. biceps femoris D. vastus medialis E. semimembranosus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #59

60. Which of the following is not a muscle of the buttocks? A. tensor fasciae latae B. lateral rotators C. vastus intermedius D. gluteus maximus E. gluteus minimus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #61

62. Which of the following flexes the thigh? A. vastus lateralis B. vastus medialis C. semimembranosus D. rectus femoris E. biceps femoris

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #62

63. The quadriceps femoris includes all of the following muscles parts except A. the vastus medialis. B. the rectus femoris. C. the vastus intermedius. D. the vastus femoris. E. the vastus lateralis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #63

64. The ___ is one of the hamstring muscles on the posterior side of the thigh. A. semimembranosus B. adductor magnus C. gluteus minimus D. ischiocavernosus E. tensor fasciae latae

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #64

65. Which of the following muscles produces plantar flexion of the foot? A. tibialis anterior B. soleus C. plantaris D. flexor digitorum brevis E. quadratus plantae

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #65

66. The teres major and teres minor originate on the ___ and insert on the ___. A. humerus; scapula B. scapula; humerus C. os coxae; femur D. femur; tibia E. tibia; calcaneus and talus

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 010 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #67

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71. Which of the following muscles is bipennate? A. the pectoralis major B. the biceps brachii C. the rectus femoris D. the palmar interosseous muscles E. the deltoid

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #71

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #72

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #73

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75. Which one of the following muscles would exert the greatest tension on its insertion? A. biceps brachii B. rectus abdominis C. pectoralis major D. orbicularis oculi E. brachioradialis

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 010 Chapter... #75

76. Which of the following muscles are not part of the rotator cuff? A. subscapularis B. infraspinatus C. supraspinatus D. teres minor E. teres major

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #76

77. The extensor carpi ulnaris is an example of what type of muscle? A. intrinsic B. extrinsic C. synergist D. fixator E. antagonist

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #79

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #80

81. The frontalis muscle is connected to the occipitalis muscle by a(an) A. deep fascia. B. tendon. C. aponeurosis. D. flat, thin muscle. E. ligament.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #81

82. The muscles of the cheek, which function in blowing, sucking, and chewing, are called the _____ muscles. A. buccinator B. masseter C. orbicularis oris D. zygomaticus major E. zygomaticus minor

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #83

84. This muscle, which is named for its origin and insertion, elevates the hyoid bone. A. stylohyoid B. omohyoid C. sternohyoid D. thyrohyoid E. sternothyroid

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #85

86. The muscular dome between the abdominal and thoracic cavity is the A. central tendon. B. diaphragm. C. external intercostals. D. internal intercostals. E. transverse abdominis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #86

87. Which of the following muscles flexes the vertebral column? A. longissimus B. transverse abdominis C. iliocostalis D. rectus abdominis E. spinalis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #87

88. Identify the muscle that you can see originates on the iliac crest and inserts on lumbar vertebrae and rib 12. A. multifidus B. quadratus lumborum C. erector spinae D. splenius E. longissimus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #88

89. Identify the muscle group which extends and rotates the vertebral column. A. serratus posterior B. quadratus lumborum C. multifidus D. iliocostalis E. longissimus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 010 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #91

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93. The four rotator cuff muscles are examples of A. prime movers. B. antagonists. C. synergists. D. fixators. E. medial rotators.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #96

97. Which one of the following is not part of the quadriceps muscle group? A. vastus medialis B. vastus lateralis C. vastus intermedius D. biceps femoris E. rectus femoris

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 010 Chapter... #97

98. If the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon was cut, which muscle action would be affected the most? A. dorsiflexion B. plantarflexion C. inversion D. eversion E. leg extension

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 010 Chapter... #98

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 010 Chapter... #99

100. Skeletal muscle contractions help move A. blood through the heart. B. blood through arteries. C. blood through veins. D. food through the GI tract. E. urine through the ureters.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 010 Chapter... #100

Chapter 11 1. The tendency of a stretched fiber to return to its original length is called ___. ________________________________________

2. One motor nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by it are called a ___. ________________________________________

3. A plasma membrane is said to be ___ if there is a difference in charge on opposite sides of it. ________________________________________

4. The events that occur between the time a nerve fiber stimulates a muscle fiber and the time the muscle fiber begins to contract are called ___. ________________________________________

5. The ___ theory is the current model of how a muscle fiber contracts. ________________________________________

6. A resting muscle is normally in a state of partial contraction called ___. ________________________________________

7. The ___ is a local change in the voltage across the sarcolemma caused by a neurotransmitter. ________________________________________

8. A muscle fiber will not contract unless it is depolarized to a voltage called its ___. ________________________________________

9. Motor nerve fibers release a neurotransmitter called ___, which makes skeletal muscle fibers contract. ________________________________________

10. In a resting muscle, an organelle called the ___ contains a concentrated solution of calcium. ________________________________________

11. One somatic motor neuron can innervate only one skeletal muscle fiber. True False

12. The largest motor units are found in the muscles with the finest degree of control. True False

13. Involuntary muscle can be either smooth or striated. True False

14. Thin filaments do not change in length when a muscle contracts. True False

15. Skeletal muscle does not contract if it is not stimulated by a motor neuron. True False

16. Troponin is part of the thick filament of a sarcomere. True False

17. The strength of a muscle contraction depends in part on how many motor units are stimulated. True False

18. Tetanus is a normal part of muscle contraction, not just the name of a bacterial disease. True False

19. A contracted muscle cannot relax in the absence of ATP. True False

20. In multi-unit smooth muscle, each muscle fiber is directly innervated by a nerve fiber. True False

21. Unlike striated muscle, smooth muscle does not have thick and thin myofilaments. True False

22. Unlike skeletal muscle, smooth muscle often contracts even when it is not stimulated by a nerve. True False

23. Smooth muscle is not stimulated by acetylcholine. True False

24. Smooth muscle is not as limited as skeletal muscle by the length-tension relationship. True False

25. Endurance exercise promotes the development of slow-twitch muscle fibers. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

A band fast twitch glucose hemoglobin I band isotonic latent period myoglobin relaxation slow twitch twitch

cholesterol fatty acids H zone hydrochloric acid isometric lactic acid motor unit piloerector muscle sarcomere tetanus visceral

26. A quick cycle of muscle contraction and relaxation is known as a ________. ________________________________________

27. A delay between the stimulation of a muscle fiber and the onset of contraction is known as the ________. ________________________________________

28. Lowers the pH of the sarcoplasm and contributes to muscle fatigue is known as ________. ________________________________________

29. One motor nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by it is known as the ________. ________________________________________

30. Contraction in which a muscle develops tension but does not shorten is known as ________. ________________________________________

31. Zone of a sarcomere that becomes narrower during muscle contraction is known as the ________. ________________________________________

32. Primary energy source for resting muscle is known as ________. ________________________________________

33. Type of skeletal muscle fibers most susceptible to fatigue is known as ________. ________________________________________

34. Single-unit smooth muscle is known as the ________. ________________________________________

35. Oxygen storage pigment in muscle is known as ________. ________________________________________

36. Which of the following is/are voluntary muscle? A. smooth muscle B. cardiac muscle C. skeletal muscle D. visceral muscle E. intestinal muscle

37. The series elastic components of a muscle include all of the following except A. the epimysium. B. the myofilaments. C. the tendons. D. the endomysium. E. the perimysium.

38. Action potentials are propagated from the surface to the interior of a muscle fiber by way of A. the sarcomeres. B. the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C. the endomysium. D. the myofibrils. E. the T tubules.

39. The triads of a muscle fiber consist of A. three terminal cisternae. B. two terminal cisternae and a T tubule. C. two T tubules and a terminal cisterna. D. two thick myofilaments and one thin myofilament. E. two I bands and an A band.

40. In a relaxed muscle fiber, the active sites of actin are blocked by A. tropomyosin. B. troponin C. C. calcium ions. D. myosin heads. E. intermediate filaments.

41. Each end of a sarcomere is marked by A. terminal cisternae. B. an I band. C. an H band. D. an A band. E. a Z disc.

42. Synaptic vesicles are found in A. the synaptic cleft. B. the synaptic knob. C. the motor end plate. D. the junctional folds. E. the terminal cisternae.

43. The bright red color of skeletal muscle is due mainly to its A. myoglobin. B. A bands. C. troponin. D. tropomyosin. E. myosin.

44. During the time that a muscle is shortening but maintaining constant tension, it is undergoing A. treppe. B. tetanus. C. isokinetic contraction. D. isometric contraction. E. isotonic contraction.

45. Varicosities and gap junctions are characteristic of A. slow-twitch fibers. B. fast-twitch fibers. C. single-unit smooth muscle. D. multiunit smooth muscle. E. neuromuscular junctions.

46. The region of a sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap is A. the Z disc. B. the H band. C. the A band. D. the I band. E. the M band.

47. When there is not enough oxygen to create ATP by aerobic respiration, a muscle fiber can produce ATP by borrowing phosphate groups from A. cyclic adenosine monophosphate. B. creatine phosphate. C. phospholipids. D. cholinesterase. E. creatine kinase.

48. Red slow-twitch muscle fibers get their name from the fact that they contain more ___ and less ___ than white fast-twitch fibers. A. glycogen; myoglobin B. hemoglobin; myoglobin C. myoglobin; hemoglobin D. creatine phosphate; ATP E. myoglobin; glycogen

49. Which of the following is considered to be a regulatory protein of the myofilaments? A. G actin B. calmodulin C. troponin D. cholinesterase E. myosin

50. Chicken legs have dark meat because of an abundance of oxygen storage pigment in their fibers. The pigment is called _____ and the fibers are _____. A. myoglobin; slow twitch B. hemoglobin; slow twitch C. albumin; fast twitch D. troponin; fast twitch E. tropomyosin; fast twitch

51. Which of these processes occurs during the contraction of skeletal muscle? A. Calcium ions are taken up by the terminal cisternae. B. The myofilaments become shorter. C. Myofibrils slide over each other. D. Calcium ions dissociate from troponin. E. Z discs move closer together.

52. Oxygen debt is the amount of extra oxygen needed after an exercise to do all of the following except A. oxidize lactic acid. B. lower the metabolic rate to a resting level. C. replenish the reserves of creatine phosphate. D. replenish the reserves of oxygenated myoglobin. E. replenish the oxygen dissolved in the extracellular fluids.

53. Creatine kinase A. donates one of its phosphate groups to ADP. B. phosphorylates and activates certain enzymes in the sarcoplasm. C. acts as a second messenger in muscle fibers. D. catalyzes the transfer of phosphate from CP to ADP. E. functions as a substitute for ATP during anaerobic fermentation.

54. In contrast to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle has all of the following properties except A. only one nucleus in each cell. B. a lack of striations. C. a lack of perimysium and epimysium. D. a more extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum. E. an absence of T tubules.

55. The role of calmodulin in smooth muscle is A. to bind calcium ions. B. to hydrolyze ATP. C. to form cross-bridges with the thin myofilaments. D. to attach myofilaments to the inside of the plasma membrane. E. to function as voltage-regulated calcium channels in the plasma membrane.

56. Which of the following is not found in the thin filaments of striated muscle? A. F actin B. ATPase C. troponin D. tropomyosin E. Ca2+ receptors

57. Muscle contraction and relaxation require ATP for all of the following steps except A. flexion of the head of a myosin molecule. B. maintaining excitability of the sarcolemma. C. release of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasm. D. reabsorption of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasm. E. detachment of myosin from actin.

58. In contrast to red muscle fibers, white fibers A. contract more slowly. B. contain more mitochondria. C. fatigue more quickly. D. have more capillaries. E. contain more myoglobin.

59. When a muscle develops increased tension, but does not change in length, it is said to exhibit A. treppe. B. fatigue. C. twitch. D. isometric contraction. E. isotonic contraction.

60. The loss of muscle mass from disuse is called A. tetanus. B. atrophy. C. treppe. D. dystrophy. E. myopathy.

61. Posture is maintained mainly by ___ fibers because they fatigue _____. A. slow-twitch; slowly B. white; slowly C. type II; rapidly D. fast-twitch; rapidly E. fast glycolytic; slowly

62. Gap junctions are characteristic of A. neuromuscular junctions. B. visceral muscle. C. skeletal muscle. D. muscle-tendon connections. E. tendon-bone connections.

63. Endurance training favors all of the following changes in the skeletal muscles except A. less reliance on fat as an energy source. B. larger and more numerous mitochondria. C. a higher density of blood capillaries. D. a higher concentration of myoglobin. E. less production of lactic acid.

64. A motor unit is A. one neuromuscular junction. B. the distance from one Z disc to the next. C. one thick filament and all thin filaments with which it forms cross bridges. D. one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by it. E. one muscle fiber and all the nerve fibers that innervate it.

65. Muscle tension in the stomach wall drops when you are eating, enabling the stomach to expand and accommodate the meal. This is called A. muscular accommodation. B. plasticity. C. the stress-relaxation response. D. the latch-bridge mechanism. E. peristalsis.

66. In smooth muscle, the calcium needed for contraction comes mainly from A. the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B. mitochondria. C. intercalated discs. D. the motor nerve fiber. E. the extracellular fluid.

67. If a poison inhibits the activity of acetylcholinesterase, a muscle A. may be unable to relax. B. may be unable to contract. C. will fatigue more quickly. D. will fatigue more slowly. E. will switch to anaerobic fermentation.

68. The strength of a muscle depends on all the following factors except A. the number of muscle fibers innervated by each nerve fiber. B. multiple motor unit summation. C. the degree of stretch just before it was stimulated. D. the diameter of its fibers. E. the length of its sarcomeres.

69. When smooth muscle exhibits dual innervation, it A. has two nerve fibers for each muscle fiber. B. has two muscle fibers for each nerve fiber. C. is supplied by both the autonomic and somatic nerve fibers. D. is supplied by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers. E. exhibits both synapses and varicosities.

70. Which of the following is most important in the functioning of the pacemakers of visceral muscle? A. synaptic vesicles B. gap junctions C. neurotransmitters D. dense bodies E. varicosities

71. Skeletal muscles are stimulated to contract by A. neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine. B. stretching. C. hormones such as epinephrine. D. pacemaker cells. E. extracellular calcium.

72. The fibrous tissue that surrounds each muscle cell or fiber is called ____ and its function is to A. endomysium; insulate adjacent muscle cells from one another. B. perimysium; join adjacent muscle cells so they all pull on the tendon. C. epimysium; surround all the fascicles and join them together. D. endomysium; surround all the fascicles and join them to the tendon. E. epimysium; allow fibers to slide past each other.

73. You are working out with weights and after a while you notice that your muscles are becoming larger. This can be best explained because A. muscle cells increased in number by cell division. B. muscle cells enlarged because of increased number of myofibrils. C. myofibrils increased in length. D. myosin proteins became enlarged. E. actin proteins became enlarged.

74. The outer membrane around the muscle cell or fiber is called the ____, while the tunnel-like infoldings of the outer membrane form part of the triad called the ____. A. sarcolemma; terminal cisternae B. sarcolemma; transverse tubules C. transverse tubule; sarcoplasmic reticulum D. transverse tubule; terminal cisternae E. sarcoplasm; transverse tubules

75. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ____ ions and forms dilated sacs alongside transverse (T) tubules called the _____. A. calcium; triad B. calcium; terminal cisternae C. sodium; terminal cisternae D. potassium; triad E. potassium; terminal cisternae

76. In skeletal muscle fibers, Ca2+ binds to A. troponin. B. tropomyosin. C. actin. D. titin. E. myosin.

77. In skeletal muscle fibers, the elastic filaments are called _____ and their function is to A. titin; return the muscle cell to its resting length after contraction. B. actin; bind to myosin heads during a muscle contraction. C. myosin; bind to active sites on actin during a muscle contraction. D. tropomyosin; move off of the active sites on actin during a muscle contraction. E. troponin; bind to Ca2+ to cause muscle relaxation.

78. In skeletal muscle, the light bands are called ____ and they contain A. I bands; actin. B. I bands; myosin. C. A bands; actin. D. A bands; myosin. E. H zones; actin.

79. The distance from one Z disc to the next is called the ____ and it ____ during contraction. A. sarcomere; shortens B. sarcomere; stays the same C. I band; shortens D. A band; stays the same E. motor unit; lengthens

80. The motor nerve fibers innervating skeletal muscle fibers are _____ motor neurons, and release the neurotransmitter called ____ onto the muscle fibers. A. sympathetic; norepinephrine B. parasympathetic; acetylcholine C. somatic; norepinephrine D. somatic; acetylcholine E. autonomic; norepinephrine

81. At the neuromuscular junction, the motor neuron releases _____ into the synaptic cleft. A. acetylcholine B. norepinephrine C. epinephrine D. calcium E. sodium

82. A deficiency of ACh receptors in a motor end plate would cause ____ and is called _____. A. inability of actin and myosin to detach; rigor mortis B. difficulty firing muscle fibers; myasthenia gravis C. muscle cells to atrophy; Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. spastic paralysis; tetanus or lockjaw E. hypocalcemia; paralysis

83. In the neuromuscular junction, ACh released into the synaptic cleft is rapidly destroyed by A. acetyl transferase. B. acetylcholinesterase. C. ATPase. D. monoamine oxidase. E. acetylcholine kinase.

84. In a resting muscle or nerve cell, there are excess _____ ions in the extracellular fluid and excess _____ ions in the intracellular fluid. A. potassium; sodium B. calcium; potassium C. sodium; calcium D. sodium; potassium E. potassium; calcium

85. The resting potential across the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is about _____ millivolts (mV). A. +70 B. -70 C. +90 D. -90 E. 0

86. In an action potential, the _____ voltage regulated gates open first followed by the ____ voltage regulated gates opening. A. calcium; potassium B. sodium; potassium C. potassium; sodium D. sodium; calcium E. calcium; sodium

87. A molecule of ATP is needed twice for each complete cycle of a power stroke. ATP is needed to A. cock the myosin head into its high-energy extended position and provide the energy for the power stroke. B. release the low-energy myosin head and hydrolyze ATP to form the high-energy myosin head. C. bind the myosin head to the active site of the thin filament and provide the energy for the power stroke. D. change the shape of troponin-tropomyosin complex and provide the energy for the power stroke. E. release the low energy actin and hydrolyze ATP to form high energy actin.

88. As a muscle relaxes, action potentials no longer travel down the motor neuron and no new ACh is released. The ACh present in the synaptic cleft A. is actively transported back into the synaptic bulb. B. is destroyed by acetyl transferase. C. can no longer bind to receptor sites on the motor end plate. D. is destroyed by acetylcholinesterase. E. remains bound to the receptor on the motor end plate.

89. As a muscle relaxes, calcium moves back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by a process called A. passive diffusion. B. facilitated diffusion. C. primary active transport. D. secondary active transport. E. osmosis.

90. The amount of force produced by a muscle is proportional to all of the following factors except one. Identify the exception. A. number of cross bridges B. number of motor units recruited C. diameter of muscle fiber D. frequency of stimulation E. resting sarcomere length

91. In a resting muscle, most of the ATP generated by aerobic respiration comes from A. amino acids. B. fatty acids. C. glucose. D. nucleic acids. E. creatine phosphate.

92. In your quadriceps femoris, which is a powerful muscle group that extends the knee, you have the following proportion of slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers: 85% slow-twitch and 15% fast-twitch. You most likely perform best at A. sprinting short-distance events. B. broad jumping. C. pole vaulting. D. running long-distance events. E. power lifting.

93. The movement of your fingers is controlled by muscles which have a greater proportion of A. slow oxidative fibers with small motor units. B. fast glycolytic fibers with small motor units. C. slow oxidative fibers with large motor units. D. fast glycolytic fibers with large motor units. E. fast oxidative glycolytic with large motor units.

94. You are examining a cross-sectional slide of a muscle, and you noticed the following characteristics in most of the muscle fibers: smaller diameter, abundant mitochondria, abundant myoglobin, and low levels of glycogen reserves. This muscle is predominantly made up of fibers that are A. type I and slow oxidative. B. type I and fast glycolytic. C. type II and slow oxidative. D. type II and fast glycolytic. E. type III and fast oxidative glycolytic.

95. You prefer white meat to red meat in your turkey dinner. Which one of the following characteristics would not correctly describe the fibers in the white meat? A. abundant glycogen B. fatigues quickly C. aerobic respiration D. low myoglobin content E. high force production

96. Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. These drugs A. prevent calcium from leaving the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle. B. prevent calcium from entering cardiac muscle and cause the heart to beat faster. C. prevent calcium from entering smooth muscle and causes the muscle to relax. D. stimulate the calcium pump in smooth muscle, thus preventing calcium from binding with calmodulin. E. prevent calcium from entering sarcoplasmic reticulum in smooth muscle.

97. The urinary bladder's wall consists of three layers of smooth muscle. When the bladder fills, the smooth muscle A. stretches until it reaches a critical maximum length and then contracts. B. stretches but its force of contraction weakens the more it is stretched. C. briefly contracts and resists, relaxes, and then still contracts forcefully when stretched. D. will contract more forcefully the more it is stretched. E. will relax more the more it is stretched.

98. Lifting a box off the floor unto a table is called a _____ contraction of your biceps brachii while lowering the box onto the floor is called a _____ contraction of your biceps brachii. A. isometric; isotonic B. isotonic; isokinetic C. isokinetic; isometric D. concentric; eccentric E. eccentric; concentric

99. In skeletal muscle fibers, each myosin head binds to a A. troponin complex. B. tropomyosin. C. G actin. D. titin. E. myosin tail.

100. Which of the following supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction? A. The A band decreases in width during contraction. B. The I band increases in width during contraction. C. The A band increases in width during contraction. D. The distance between the Z lines decreases during contraction. E. The distance between Z lines increase during contraction.

11 Key

1. The tendency of a stretched fiber to return to its original length is called ___. elasticity

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2. One motor nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by it are called a ___. motor unit

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3. A plasma membrane is said to be ___ if there is a difference in charge on opposite sides of it. polarized

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4. The events that occur between the time a nerve fiber stimulates a muscle fiber and the time the muscle fiber begins to contract are called ___. excitation-contraction coupling

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5. The ___ theory is the current model of how a muscle fiber contracts. sliding filament

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6. A resting muscle is normally in a state of partial contraction called ___. tonus

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7. The ___ is a local change in the voltage across the sarcolemma caused by a neurotransmitter. end plate potential

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8. A muscle fiber will not contract unless it is depolarized to a voltage called its ___. threshold

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9. Motor nerve fibers release a neurotransmitter called ___, which makes skeletal muscle fibers contract. acetylcholine

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10. In a resting muscle, an organelle called the ___ contains a concentrated solution of calcium. sarcoplasmic reticulum

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11. One somatic motor neuron can innervate only one skeletal muscle fiber. FALSE

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12. The largest motor units are found in the muscles with the finest degree of control. FALSE

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13. Involuntary muscle can be either smooth or striated. TRUE

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14. Thin filaments do not change in length when a muscle contracts. TRUE

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15. Skeletal muscle does not contract if it is not stimulated by a motor neuron. TRUE

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16. Troponin is part of the thick filament of a sarcomere. FALSE

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17. The strength of a muscle contraction depends in part on how many motor units are stimulated. TRUE

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18. Tetanus is a normal part of muscle contraction, not just the name of a bacterial disease. TRUE

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19. A contracted muscle cannot relax in the absence of ATP. TRUE

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20. In multi-unit smooth muscle, each muscle fiber is directly innervated by a nerve fiber. TRUE

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21. Unlike striated muscle, smooth muscle does not have thick and thin myofilaments. FALSE

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22. Unlike skeletal muscle, smooth muscle often contracts even when it is not stimulated by a nerve. TRUE

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23. Smooth muscle is not stimulated by acetylcholine. FALSE

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24. Smooth muscle is not as limited as skeletal muscle by the length-tension relationship. TRUE

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25. Endurance exercise promotes the development of slow-twitch muscle fibers. TRUE

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Match the following terms to the definitions.

A band fast twitch glucose hemoglobin I band isotonic latent period myoglobin relaxation slow twitch twitch

cholesterol fatty acids H zone hydrochloric acid isometric lactic acid motor unit piloerector muscle sarcomere tetanus visceral

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26. A quick cycle of muscle contraction and relaxation is known as a ________. twitch

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27. A delay between the stimulation of a muscle fiber and the onset of contraction is known as the ________. latent period

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28. Lowers the pH of the sarcoplasm and contributes to muscle fatigue is known as ________. lactic acid

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29. One motor nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by it is known as the ________. motor unit

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30. Contraction in which a muscle develops tension but does not shorten is known as ________. isometric

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31. Zone of a sarcomere that becomes narrower during muscle contraction is known as the ________. I band

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32. Primary energy source for resting muscle is known as ________. fatty acids

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33. Type of skeletal muscle fibers most susceptible to fatigue is known as ________. fast twitch

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34. Single-unit smooth muscle is known as the ________. visceral

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35. Oxygen storage pigment in muscle is known as ________. myoglobin

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36. Which of the following is/are voluntary muscle? A. smooth muscle B. cardiac muscle C. skeletal muscle D. visceral muscle E. intestinal muscle

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37. The series elastic components of a muscle include all of the following except A. the epimysium. B. the myofilaments. C. the tendons. D. the endomysium. E. the perimysium.

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40. In a relaxed muscle fiber, the active sites of actin are blocked by A. tropomyosin. B. troponin C. C. calcium ions. D. myosin heads. E. intermediate filaments.

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41. Each end of a sarcomere is marked by A. terminal cisternae. B. an I band. C. an H band. D. an A band. E. a Z disc.

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42. Synaptic vesicles are found in A. the synaptic cleft. B. the synaptic knob. C. the motor end plate. D. the junctional folds. E. the terminal cisternae.

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43. The bright red color of skeletal muscle is due mainly to its A. myoglobin. B. A bands. C. troponin. D. tropomyosin. E. myosin.

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44. During the time that a muscle is shortening but maintaining constant tension, it is undergoing A. treppe. B. tetanus. C. isokinetic contraction. D. isometric contraction. E. isotonic contraction.

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45. Varicosities and gap junctions are characteristic of A. slow-twitch fibers. B. fast-twitch fibers. C. single-unit smooth muscle. D. multiunit smooth muscle. E. neuromuscular junctions.

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46. The region of a sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap is A. the Z disc. B. the H band. C. the A band. D. the I band. E. the M band.

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49. Which of the following is considered to be a regulatory protein of the myofilaments? A. G actin B. calmodulin C. troponin D. cholinesterase E. myosin

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56. Which of the following is not found in the thin filaments of striated muscle? A. F actin B. ATPase C. troponin D. tropomyosin E. Ca2+ receptors

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58. In contrast to red muscle fibers, white fibers A. contract more slowly. B. contain more mitochondria. C. fatigue more quickly. D. have more capillaries. E. contain more myoglobin.

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59. When a muscle develops increased tension, but does not change in length, it is said to exhibit A. treppe. B. fatigue. C. twitch. D. isometric contraction. E. isotonic contraction.

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60. The loss of muscle mass from disuse is called A. tetanus. B. atrophy. C. treppe. D. dystrophy. E. myopathy.

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61. Posture is maintained mainly by ___ fibers because they fatigue _____. A. slow-twitch; slowly B. white; slowly C. type II; rapidly D. fast-twitch; rapidly E. fast glycolytic; slowly

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62. Gap junctions are characteristic of A. neuromuscular junctions. B. visceral muscle. C. skeletal muscle. D. muscle-tendon connections. E. tendon-bone connections.

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66. In smooth muscle, the calcium needed for contraction comes mainly from A. the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B. mitochondria. C. intercalated discs. D. the motor nerve fiber. E. the extracellular fluid.

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70. Which of the following is most important in the functioning of the pacemakers of visceral muscle? A. synaptic vesicles B. gap junctions C. neurotransmitters D. dense bodies E. varicosities

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71. Skeletal muscles are stimulated to contract by A. neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine. B. stretching. C. hormones such as epinephrine. D. pacemaker cells. E. extracellular calcium.

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76. In skeletal muscle fibers, Ca2+ binds to A. troponin. B. tropomyosin. C. actin. D. titin. E. myosin.

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78. In skeletal muscle, the light bands are called ____ and they contain A. I bands; actin. B. I bands; myosin. C. A bands; actin. D. A bands; myosin. E. H zones; actin.

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81. At the neuromuscular junction, the motor neuron releases _____ into the synaptic cleft. A. acetylcholine B. norepinephrine C. epinephrine D. calcium E. sodium

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85. The resting potential across the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is about _____ millivolts (mV). A. +70 B. -70 C. +90 D. -90 E. 0

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91. In a resting muscle, most of the ATP generated by aerobic respiration comes from A. amino acids. B. fatty acids. C. glucose. D. nucleic acids. E. creatine phosphate.

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99. In skeletal muscle fibers, each myosin head binds to a A. troponin complex. B. tropomyosin. C. G actin. D. titin. E. myosin tail.

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Chapter 12 1. The central nervous system consists of the ___ and ___. ________________________________________

2. Nervous tissue is composed of neurons and supporting cells called ___. ________________________________________

3. Whether or not a neuron fires depends on whether it is depolarized to a voltage called its ___. ________________________________________

4. In the peripheral nervous system, myelin sheaths have gaps called ___ about 1 mm apart. ________________________________________

5. The junction where one neuron meets another is called a/an ___. ________________________________________

6. The ____ nervous system controls skeletal muscles. ________________________________________

7. ___ are neurotransmitters, such as GABA, that are synthesized from amino acids. ________________________________________

8. Neurons follow the ___ law, meaning they either fire at maximum voltage or not at all. ________________________________________

9. The portion of the neuron that receives signals from other neurons is the _____. ________________________________________

10. Neurofibrillary tangles and the destruction of parts of the hippocampus are characteristic of ____. ________________________________________

11. Dendrites do not release neurotransmitters. True False

12. Myelinated nerve fibers conduct signals faster than unmyelinated fibers. True False

13. Multipolar neurons have two or more axons. True False

14. Axonal transport is the mechanism for transmitting action potentials along an axon. True False

15. There are no voltage-regulated ion gates in the internodes of a myelinated nerve fiber. True False

16. In a myelinated nerve fiber, action potentials occur only at the nodes of Ranvier. True False

17. Neuromodulators alter the response of a neuron to a neurotransmitter. True False

18. Stimulation at a cholinergic synapse is halted mainly by reuptake. True False

19. A reverberating circuit produces repeated output in response to a single input. True False

20. A weak stimulus produces weaker action potentials than a strong stimulus. True False

21. The norepinephrine receptor is a ligand-gated ion channel. True False

22. If a neuron becomes hyperpolarized, it is less likely to fire. True False

23. Each node of Ranvier speeds up a nerve impulse. True False

24. Not all synapses employ neurotransmitters. True False

25. Large nerve fibers conduct signals more slowly than small ones. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

acetylcholinesterase astocytes ependymal cells facilitation glycine microglia neural coding norepinephrine potentiation retrograde transport synapse

anterograde transport axon collateral excitatory postsynaptic potential gap junction inhibitory postsynaptic potential myelin neuromodulation oligodendrocytes presynaptic inhibition summation

26. A neurotransmitter whose function depends on a second messenger is known as a(n) ________. ________________________________________

27. Macrophages of the central nervous system is known as a(n) ________. ________________________________________

28. An inhibitory neurotransmitter is known as a(n) ________. ________________________________________

29. Hyperpolarization of a dendrite by a neurotransmitter is known as a(n) ________. ________________________________________

30. The gap between one neuron and the next is known as a(n) ________. ________________________________________

31. The brain's counterpart to the Schwann cells are known as a(n) ________. ________________________________________

32. The process of adding up postsynaptic potentials and responding to their net effect is known as ________. ________________________________________

33. Conversion of information to a meaningful pattern of action potentials is known as ________. ________________________________________

34. Movement of materials up an axon toward the soma is known as ________. ________________________________________

35. Process in which one presynaptic neuron makes it easier for another one to stimulate a postsynaptic neuron is known as ________. ________________________________________

36. Nissl bodies are located in the ___ of a neuron. A. soma B. dendrite C. myelin sheath D. telodendria E. synaptic knobs

37. The trigger zone of a neuron includes A. the dendrites. B. the synaptic knobs. C. each node of Ranvier. D. each internode. E. the axon hillock.

38. Local potentials differ from action potentials in all of these ways except that A. they are reversible. B. they are of variable voltage. C. they are sometimes inhibitory. D. they obey the all-or-none law. E. they spread only short distances from the point of stimulation.

39. At the distal end of a nerve fiber, action potentials have the same voltage as they had at the beginning. That is to say, they are A. saltatory. B. nondecremental. C. refractory. D. irreversible. E. self-propagating.

40. In ___, several EPSPs occurring in quick succession depolarize a neuron to threshold. A. temporal summation B. spatial summation C. synaptic potentiation D. a reverberating circuit E. recruitment

41. In a ___ neuronal circuit, input to one neuron leads to output from multiple neurons. A. reverberating B. facilitated C. diverging D. converging E. parallel

42. When a neuron is depolarized to threshold, A. voltage-regulated Na+ gates open. B. voltage-regulated Na+ gates close. C. a neurotransmitter is released. D. voltage-regulated K+ gates close. E. Na+/ K+ pumps are activated.

43. The falling phase of an action potential results from A. the opening of Na+ gates. B. the efflux of K+. C. positive feedback. D. hyperpolarization. E. the closing of K+ gates.

44. Because of the absence of ___, damaged nerve fibers in the CNS cannot regenerate. A. a myelin sheath B. an epineurium C. an endoneurium D. neuroglia E. an axolemma

45. The neuron doctrine refers to the fact that A. action potentials are all-or-none. B. neurons do not fire unless they reach threshold. C. neurons are organized into functional groups called neuronal pools. D. nerve signals pass from neuron to neuron over junctions called synapses. E. once an action potential begins, it cannot be stopped.

46. Because of ___, one motor neuron of the brain can ultimately cause thousands of muscle fibers to contract. A. diverging circuits B. parallel after-discharge circuits C. tetanic potentiation D. recruitment E. spatial summation

47. Summation occurs in the ___ of a neuron. A. dendritic spines B. synaptic knobs C. internodes D. nodes of Ranvier E. axon hillock

48. In ___, the additive effects of EPSPs and IPSPs determine whether a neuron fires. A. synaptic potentiation B. facilitation C. neural integration D. neural coding E. neuromodulation

49. Monoamine oxidase A. stimulates postsynaptic neurons. B. degrades serotonin after reuptake. C. degrades acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft. D. is a neuromodulator. E. is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

50. Nerve signals A. travel fastest in small unmyelinated fibers. B. travel fastest in large unmyelinated fibers. C. travel fastest in small myelinated fibers. D. travel fastest in large myelinated fibers. E. travel at the same speed in all nerve fibers.

51. The blood brain barrier consists of tight junctions in the A. endothelium. B. neurons. C. ependymal cells. D. oligodendrocytes. E. microglia.

52. One role of the astrocytes is to A. circulate the cerebrospinal fluid. B. form scar tissue in the brain. C. phagocytize tissue debris. D. help form the blood-brain barrier. E. form myelin in the CNS.

53. ___ line the ventricles of the brain. A. Schwann cells B. Satellite cells C. Astrocytes D. Oligodendrocytes E. Ependymal cells

54. Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system usually A. has more local, specific effects. B. reacts more slowly to a stimulus. C. does not employ chemical messengers. D. continues to respond long after the stimulus ceases. E. secretes chemical messengers into the bloodstream.

55. Which of the following is an effector? A. an afferent neuron B. an efferent neuron C. a gland D. a sense organ E. an interneuron

56. The integrative function of the nervous system is associated especially with A. sensory neurons. B. afferent neurons. C. interneurons. D. efferent neurons. E. effectors.

57. During its ___, a neuron responds only to stimuli stronger than a normal threshold stimulus. A. relative refractory period B. hyperpolarized phase C. period of facilitation D. synaptic delay E. absolute refractory period

58. The brain and spinal cord constitute the ___ nervous system. A. autonomic B. peripheral C. central D. afferent E. cranial

59. The ___ nervous system carries brain and spinal cord signals to other organs. A. autonomic B. peripheral C. central D. craniospinal E. efferent

60. A neuron fires only when its membrane reaches A. the resting membrane potential. B. 0 mV. C. its repolarization potential. D. the action potential. E. the threshold potential.

61. Long-term memories occur when there are more of these receptors: A. NMDA B. Dopamine C. Acetylcholine D. Substance P E. Nicotine

62. The phenomenon of ___ enables frequently used synapses to transmit signals more easily. A. post-tetanic potentiation B. neuronal convergence C. after-discharge D. anterograde transport E. temporal summation

63. During the rising phase of an action potential A. K+ is entering the neuron. B. K+ is leaving the neuron. C. neurotransmitters are being released. D. Na+ is entering the neuron. E. Na+ is leaving the neuron.

64. The trigger zone of a neuron includes the axon hillock and A. initial segment. B. dendritic spines. C. soma. D. first internode. E. first node of Ranvier.

65. The bodies of the Schwann cells constitute the A. axolemma. B. axoplasm. C. myelin. D. endoneurium. E. neurilemma.

66. Unlike local potentials, action potentials are A. decremental. B. detrimental. C. self-propagating. D. graded. E. reversible.

67. If a nerve fiber is firing 300 times per second at time A and 500 times per second at time B, it probably means that at time B A. its refractory period was over. B. the stimulus was stronger. C. it was exhibiting spatial summation. D. it was exhibiting temporal summation. E. it was not obeying the all-or-none law.

68. All of the following events occur when a nerve signal reaches a synaptic knob. The one that occurs first is A. ACh is reabsorbed by the presynaptic cell. B. synaptic vesicles undergo exocytosis. C. ACh binds to a receptor. D. ligand-gated ion channels open on the postsynaptic cell. E. calcium ions enter the synaptic knob.

69. Blood capillaries of the brain are enveloped by A. microglia. B. myelin sheaths. C. endoneurium. D. astrocytes. E. ependymal cells.

70. The Nissl bodies of a neuron consist of A. synaptic vesicles. B. neuromodulators. C. rough endoplasmic reticulum. D. cytoskeleton. E. lipofuscin.

71. A bipolar neuron has A. two axons arising from the soma. B. one axon and one dendrite arising from the soma. C. two axons and multiple dendrites arising from the soma. D. two dendrites arising from the soma. E. two somas.

72. The regeneration tube of a peripheral nerve fiber consists of A. the axolemma and neurilemma. B. the neurilemma and endoneurium. C. the myelin sheath and neurilemma. D. Schwann cells and astrocytes. E. satellite cells and oligodendrocytes.

73. A typical neuron will have a membrane voltage of about ___ at the time when sodium gates close and potassium ions begin rapidly leaving the cell. A. –90 mV B. –70 mV C. 0 mV D. +35 mV E. +60 mV

74. Ganglia consist of A. cell bodies of neurons in the PNS. B. cell bodies of neurons in the CNS. C. synaptic knobs of neurons in the PNS. D. synaptic knobs of neurons in the CNS. E. axons of neurons in the CNS.

75. You stand up quickly and the arterial pressure in the carotid artery drops. Receptors in the wall of the carotid artery are sensitive to stretching of the wall, which is caused by changes in blood pressure. The signals from these receptors are carried to the CNS by neurons in the _____ division. A. visceral motor B. somatic motor C. somatic sensory D. visceral sensory E. spinal motor

76. Unipolar neurons are found A. entirely within the CNS. B. with their nerve cell bodies in the CNS and synaptic knobs in the PNS. C. with their nerve cell bodies in the PNS and their synaptic knobs in the CNS. D. entirely within the PNS. E. with their axons in the PNS and their cells bodies and synaptic knobs in the CNS.

77. Mature neurons lack centrioles. You would expect these neurons to be unable to A. produce proteins. B. generate ATP. C. move material from the cell body to the synaptic knobs. D. undergo mitosis. E. release neurotransmitter.

78. The most common structural neuron is the _____ neuron, which includes A. multipolar; motor neurons and interneurons. B. bipolar; sensory neurons for smell, vision, and hearing. C. unipolar; sensory neurons for temperature, pressure, touch, and pain. D. anaxonic; some neurons in the brain and retina. E. tripolar; sensory and motor neurons.

79. Movement of mitochondria, synaptic vesicles, calcium ions, glucose, and amino acids from the soma down the axon is called A. fast anterograde transport. B. fast retrograde transport. C. slow axonal transport. D. slow anterograde transport. E. slow retrograde transport.

80. You were unable to produce the motor protein called dynein. Your neurons would be unable to transport A. glucose and amino acids from the soma down the axon to the synaptic knobs. B. pathogens like tetanus toxin and rabies virus from the soma down the axon to the synaptic knobs. C. used synaptic vesicles and unused chemicals from the synaptic knobs up the axon to the soma. D. calcium ions, acetylcholinesterase, and amino acids from the synaptic knobs to the soma. E. synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitter.

81. The most abundant cell in the nervous system is the A. microglial cell. B. astrocyte. C. interneuron. D. satellite cell. E. bipolar neuron.

82. The oligodendrocyte is found in the _____ and functions to A. peripheral nervous system; form the myelin sheath. B. central nervous system; form the myelin sheath. C. peripheral nervous system; surround somas of neurons in ganglia. D. central nervous system; phagocyticize and destroy microorganisms. E. peripheral nervous system; phagocyticize and destroy microorganisms.

83. The glial cells that contribute to the blood-brain barrier in the CNS are A. oligodendrocytes. B. astrocytes. C. ependymal cells. D. microglia. E. Schwann cells.

84. In an autopsy, a pathologist found an area of brain tissue with very high concentrations of microglia. That area of the brain most likely A. had a brain tumor. B. had a tear in the blood-brain barrier. C. had been damaged by infection, trauma, or stroke. D. stopped producing cerebral spinal fluid. E. had a concussion.

85. Glial cells which resemble a cuboidal epithelium without the basement membrane and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are called A. oligodendrocytes. B. astrocytes. C. ependymal cells. D. microglia. E. satellite cells.

86. Most adult brain tumors are composed of _____ cells and cannot be treated by chemotherapy because of the ______. A. interneurons; blood-brain barrier B. Schwann cells and satellite cells; myelin sheath C. glial cells; blood-brain barrier D. glial cells; meninges E. sensory neurons; myelin sheath

87. Neurons that send impulses to skeletal muscles have a ____ diameter and are A. small; myelinated. B. small; unmyelinated. C. large; myelinated. D. large; unmyelinated. E. medium; partially myelinated.

88. In this disorder, oligodendrocytes and myelin sheaths of the CNS deteriorate and are replaced by hardened scar tissue: A. multiple sclerosis B. myasthenia gravis C. Parkinson disease D. Tay-Sachs disease E. Alzheimer's disease

89. Damaged neurons in the PNS can regenerate if their _____ is intact and they can form a _____. A. Schwann cell; myelin sheath B. satellite cell; neurilemma C. soma; regeneration tube D. synaptic knobs; neurotransmitter E. axon; endonerium

90. The charge difference across the plasma membrane in muscles and nerve cells is called the ______ and measures about _____ millivolts. A. action potential; +70 B. action potential; -70 C. resting potential; -70 D. resting potential; +70 E. receptor potential; 0

91. A neurotransmitter, such as Glycine, attaches to a ligand receptor and causes hyperpolarization. This neurotransmitter would most likely cause a(n) A. resting potential. B. action potential. C. excitatory local potential. D. inhibitory local potential. E. receptor potential.

92. An excitatory local potential reaches the trigger zone at the axon hillock and causes a depolarization to -60 millivolts. The trigger zone will most likely A. open voltage-regulated gates and fire a full action potential. B. not open voltage-regulated gates and not fire an action potential. C. open ligand-regulated gates and produce and excitatory local potential. D. open ligand-regulated gates and produce an inhibitory local potential. E. not open ligand-regulated gates and produce a receptor potential.

93. Which one of the below is the correct sequence of voltage-regulated gates opening and closing in an action potential? A. Na+ gates opening; K+ gates opening; Na+ gates closing B. Na+ gates opening; Na+ gates closing; K+ gates opening C. K+ gates opening; K+ gates closing; Na+ gates opening D. K+ gates opening; Na+ gates opening; K+ gates closing E. K+ gates opening; K+ gates closing; Na+ gates closing

94. The refractory period represents the time period when a region of the axon can A. be fired again with a stronger stimulus. B. be fired again with a weaker stimulus. C. cannot be fired again regardless of the stimulus. D. can be fired again with two weak stimuli. E. can be fired again with the same stimulus.

95. Which one of the following statements is not true about an action potential? A. Action potentials follow an all-or-none law. B. Action potentials are nondecremental; they do not get weaker with distance. C. Action potentials cannot be triggered again until the hyperpolarized membrane returns to resting potential. D. Action potentials are irreversible; once the neuron reaches threshold the action potential goes to completion. E. Action potentials cannot be generated unless a cell reaches threshold.

96. In a myelinated neuron carrying an action potential, the next node of Ranvier will be stimulated by A. ionic flow from the next adjacent unfired section of the neuron. B. sodium ions diffusing from the ECF to the ICF at the area of stimulation. C. sodium ions flowing around the myelin sheath from the next adjacent node of Ranvier. D. sodium ions flowing down the fiber under the axolemma to the next adjacent node of Ranvier. E. potassium ions flowing around the myelin sheath to the adjacent node of Ranvier.

97. In a chemical synapse, the synaptic knobs of the presynaptic neuron contain _____, while the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron contains _____. A. voltage-regulated gates; synaptic vesicles B. ligand-regulated gates; synaptic vesicles C. synaptic vesicles; voltage-regulated gates D. synaptic vesicles; ligand-regulated gates E. voltage-regulated gates; ligand-regulated gates

98. Parkinson disease is caused by degeneration of neurons that release A. epinephrine. B. dopamine. C. serotonin. D. histamine. E. glycine.

99. Prozac (fluoxetine) is an antidepressant that blocks the synaptic reuptake of A. epinephrine. B. dopamine. C. serotonin. D. acetylcholine. E. glycine.

100. In a cholinergic synapse, the arrival of a nerve signal at the synaptic knob in the presynaptic neuron triggers the opening of _____ voltage-regulated gates, which cause A. Na; an EPSP. B. K; an IPSP. C. Na; an action potential. D. Ca; release of ACh. E. K; uptake of ACh.

12 Key

1. The central nervous system consists of the ___ and ___. brain; spinal cord

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2. Nervous tissue is composed of neurons and supporting cells called ___. neuroglia

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3. Whether or not a neuron fires depends on whether it is depolarized to a voltage called its ___. threshold

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4. In the peripheral nervous system, myelin sheaths have gaps called ___ about 1 mm apart. nodes of Ranvier

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5. The junction where one neuron meets another is called a/an ___. synapse

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6. The ____ nervous system controls skeletal muscles. somatic

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7. ___ are neurotransmitters, such as GABA, that are synthesized from amino acids. Monoamines (Biogenic amines)

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8. Neurons follow the ___ law, meaning they either fire at maximum voltage or not at all. all-or-none

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9. The portion of the neuron that receives signals from other neurons is the _____. dendrite

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10. Neurofibrillary tangles and the destruction of parts of the hippocampus are characteristic of ____. Alzheimer disease

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11. Dendrites do not release neurotransmitters. TRUE

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12. Myelinated nerve fibers conduct signals faster than unmyelinated fibers. TRUE

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13. Multipolar neurons have two or more axons. FALSE

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14. Axonal transport is the mechanism for transmitting action potentials along an axon. FALSE

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15. There are no voltage-regulated ion gates in the internodes of a myelinated nerve fiber. FALSE

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16. In a myelinated nerve fiber, action potentials occur only at the nodes of Ranvier. TRUE

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17. Neuromodulators alter the response of a neuron to a neurotransmitter. TRUE

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18. Stimulation at a cholinergic synapse is halted mainly by reuptake. FALSE

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19. A reverberating circuit produces repeated output in response to a single input. TRUE

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20. A weak stimulus produces weaker action potentials than a strong stimulus. FALSE

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21. The norepinephrine receptor is a ligand-gated ion channel. FALSE

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22. If a neuron becomes hyperpolarized, it is less likely to fire. TRUE

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23. Each node of Ranvier speeds up a nerve impulse. FALSE

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24. Not all synapses employ neurotransmitters. TRUE

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25. Large nerve fibers conduct signals more slowly than small ones. FALSE

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Match the following terms to the definitions.

acetylcholinesterase astocytes ependymal cells facilitation glycine microglia neural coding norepinephrine potentiation retrograde transport synapse

anterograde transport axon collateral excitatory postsynaptic potential gap junction inhibitory postsynaptic potential myelin neuromodulation oligodendrocytes presynaptic inhibition summation

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26. A neurotransmitter whose function depends on a second messenger is known as a(n) ________. norepinephrine

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27. Macrophages of the central nervous system is known as a(n) ________. microglia

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28. An inhibitory neurotransmitter is known as a(n) ________. glycine

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29. Hyperpolarization of a dendrite by a neurotransmitter is known as a(n) ________. inhibitory postsynaptic potential

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30. The gap between one neuron and the next is known as a(n) ________. synapse

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31. The brain's counterpart to the Schwann cells are known as a(n) ________. oligodendrocytes

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32. The process of adding up postsynaptic potentials and responding to their net effect is known as ________. summation

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33. Conversion of information to a meaningful pattern of action potentials is known as ________. neural coding

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34. Movement of materials up an axon toward the soma is known as ________. retrograde transport

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35. Process in which one presynaptic neuron makes it easier for another one to stimulate a postsynaptic neuron is known as ________. facilitation

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36. Nissl bodies are located in the ___ of a neuron. A. soma B. dendrite C. myelin sheath D. telodendria E. synaptic knobs

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37. The trigger zone of a neuron includes A. the dendrites. B. the synaptic knobs. C. each node of Ranvier. D. each internode. E. the axon hillock.

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40. In ___, several EPSPs occurring in quick succession depolarize a neuron to threshold. A. temporal summation B. spatial summation C. synaptic potentiation D. a reverberating circuit E. recruitment

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41. In a ___ neuronal circuit, input to one neuron leads to output from multiple neurons. A. reverberating B. facilitated C. diverging D. converging E. parallel

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43. The falling phase of an action potential results from A. the opening of Na+ gates. B. the efflux of K+. C. positive feedback. D. hyperpolarization. E. the closing of K+ gates.

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44. Because of the absence of ___, damaged nerve fibers in the CNS cannot regenerate. A. a myelin sheath B. an epineurium C. an endoneurium D. neuroglia E. an axolemma

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47. Summation occurs in the ___ of a neuron. A. dendritic spines B. synaptic knobs C. internodes D. nodes of Ranvier E. axon hillock

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48. In ___, the additive effects of EPSPs and IPSPs determine whether a neuron fires. A. synaptic potentiation B. facilitation C. neural integration D. neural coding E. neuromodulation

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51. The blood brain barrier consists of tight junctions in the A. endothelium. B. neurons. C. ependymal cells. D. oligodendrocytes. E. microglia.

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53. ___ line the ventricles of the brain. A. Schwann cells B. Satellite cells C. Astrocytes D. Oligodendrocytes E. Ependymal cells

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55. Which of the following is an effector? A. an afferent neuron B. an efferent neuron C. a gland D. a sense organ E. an interneuron

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56. The integrative function of the nervous system is associated especially with A. sensory neurons. B. afferent neurons. C. interneurons. D. efferent neurons. E. effectors.

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58. The brain and spinal cord constitute the ___ nervous system. A. autonomic B. peripheral C. central D. afferent E. cranial

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59. The ___ nervous system carries brain and spinal cord signals to other organs. A. autonomic B. peripheral C. central D. craniospinal E. efferent

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60. A neuron fires only when its membrane reaches A. the resting membrane potential. B. 0 mV. C. its repolarization potential. D. the action potential. E. the threshold potential.

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61. Long-term memories occur when there are more of these receptors: A. NMDA B. Dopamine C. Acetylcholine D. Substance P E. Nicotine

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64. The trigger zone of a neuron includes the axon hillock and A. initial segment. B. dendritic spines. C. soma. D. first internode. E. first node of Ranvier.

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65. The bodies of the Schwann cells constitute the A. axolemma. B. axoplasm. C. myelin. D. endoneurium. E. neurilemma.

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66. Unlike local potentials, action potentials are A. decremental. B. detrimental. C. self-propagating. D. graded. E. reversible.

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69. Blood capillaries of the brain are enveloped by A. microglia. B. myelin sheaths. C. endoneurium. D. astrocytes. E. ependymal cells.

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70. The Nissl bodies of a neuron consist of A. synaptic vesicles. B. neuromodulators. C. rough endoplasmic reticulum. D. cytoskeleton. E. lipofuscin.

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81. The most abundant cell in the nervous system is the A. microglial cell. B. astrocyte. C. interneuron. D. satellite cell. E. bipolar neuron.

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83. The glial cells that contribute to the blood-brain barrier in the CNS are A. oligodendrocytes. B. astrocytes. C. ependymal cells. D. microglia. E. Schwann cells.

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98. Parkinson disease is caused by degeneration of neurons that release A. epinephrine. B. dopamine. C. serotonin. D. histamine. E. glycine.

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99. Prozac (fluoxetine) is an antidepressant that blocks the synaptic reuptake of A. epinephrine. B. dopamine. C. serotonin. D. acetylcholine. E. glycine.

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Chapter 13 1. Bundles of nerve fibers traveling up or down the white matter of the spinal cord are called ___. ________________________________________

2. All somatic sensory fibers from the neck down enter a region of gray matter of the spinal cord called the ___. ________________________________________

3. ___ is the crossing of ascending or descending nerve fibers from one side of the CNS to the other. ________________________________________

4. The connection from a sensory neuron to a motor neuron is usually made by one or more neurons called ___. ________________________________________

5. _____ is a bundle of nerve roots within vertebrae L2-S5 which innervate the pelvic organs and legs. ________________________________________

6. To describe a reflex arc as ___ means that its receptors and effectors are on the same side of the body. ________________________________________

7. A/an ___ is a region of the skin that provides sensory input to a particular spinal nerve. ________________________________________

8. The thick ___ nerve of the lower limb is actually two nerves enclosed in a common fibrous sheath. ________________________________________

9. This meninx lies closest to the surrounding bone. ________________________________________

10. During a withdrawal reflex of the leg, a ___ reflex also occurs to prevent a person from falling over. ________________________________________

11. Spinal cord injuries most frequently occur from fractures between L3-L5. True False

12. There is a layer of adipose tissue in the epidural space. True False

13. The deepest meninx is the pia mater. True False

14. The pia mater contains a space filled with cerebrospinal fluid. True False

15. When a pregnant woman takes folic acid she decreases the chance that her baby will have spina bifida. True False

16. Sensations of pressure, light touch, and pain will travel up the spinothalamic tract. True False

17. Messages for fine control of the limbs travel down the gracile fasciculus. True False

18. Contralateral tracts are those that do not decussate. True False

19. The tectospinal tract begins in the medulla oblongata. True False

20. Afferent fibers carry messages to the muscles. True False

21. The axillary nerve carries fibers which control the triceps brachii. True False

22. The saphenous nerve controls the muscles of the calf. True False

23. The extrafusal fibers will flower spray endings on them. True False

24. Reciprocal inhibition occurs when antagonists are inhibited during a reflex. True False

25. The postsynaptic reflex arc enables a spinal output of longer duration. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

afferent dorsal root ganglion endoneurium gamma motor neurons hemiplegia muscle spindle perineurium reciprocal inhibition secondary afferent fibers ventral horn

corticospinal tracts efferent epineurium Golgi tendon organ mixed paraplegia primary afferent fibers reflexes tectospinal tracts

26. Nerve fibers that conduct sensory signals to the central nervous system is known as ________. ________________________________________

27. Fibrous sheath enclosing a nerve is known as ________. ________________________________________

28. Descending tracts that carry signals from the cerebral cortex for precise coordinated limb movements are known as ________. ________________________________________

29. Name of a type of nerve that transmits both sensory and motor information is known as ________. ________________________________________

30. Coordinators of simple, repeated actions are known as ________. ________________________________________

31. Location of intrafusal fibers is known as the ________. ________________________________________

32. Locations of afferent somas is known as the ________. ________________________________________

33. Respond to sustained stretch of a muscle spindle is known as ________. ________________________________________

34. Would suppress contraction of the triceps brachii when the biceps brachii is contracting is known as ________. ________________________________________

35. Paralysis of only one side of the body is known as ________. ________________________________________

36. An individual peripheral nerve axon is covered by Schwann cells which produce a (an) A. endoneurium. B. axolemma. C. emyoneurium. D. neurilemma. E. perineurium.

37. ___ nerve fibers are those that innervate the skin and skeletal muscles. A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Somatic D. Visceral E. General

38. The upper motor neurons that control the skeletal muscles are found in A. the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. B. the ventral horn of the spinal cord. C. the motor association cortex of the cerebrum. D. the postcentral gyrus of the cerebrum. E. the precentral gyrus of the cerebrum.

39. The signals that control your handwriting travel down the spinal cord in A. the tectospinal tracts. B. the corticospinal tracts. C. the spinocerebellar tracts. D. the fasciculus gracilis. E. the vestibulospinal tracts.

40. The cervical plexus gives rise to all the following nerves except A. the great auricular nerve. B. the lesser occipital nerve. C. the radial nerve. D. the phrenic nerve. E. the ansa cervicalis.

41. Most lower motor neurons are located in A. the ventral horns of the spinal cord. B. the dorsal horns of the spinal cord. C. the diencephalon. D. the primary motor cortex. E. the medulla oblongata.

42. The epidural space in the spinal column is occupied by A. adipose tissue. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. the dura mater. D. areolar tissue. E. the spinal cord.

43. The neurilemma is covered by the loose connective tissue called the A. endoneurium. B. axolemma. C. emyoneurium. D. neurilemma. E. perineurium.

44. Which of the following sensory functions involves neurons in the dorsal root ganglia? A. smell B. touch C. hearing D. taste E. vision

45. Nerve fibers that stimulate the skeletal muscles of your foot have their somas in A. the cerebellum. B. the ventral horn of the spinal cord. C. the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. D. the dorsal root ganglion. E. the primary motor cortex of the cerebrum.

46. The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form nerve plexuses in all regions except A. the cervical region. B. the brachial region. C. the thoracic region. D. the lumbar region. E. the sacral region.

47. If the ___ of the cervical plexus were severed, it would have a life-threatening effect, whereas severance of any of the others would be less serious. A. supraclavicular nerves B. ansa cervicalis C. great auricular nerve D. lesser occipital nerve E. phrenic nerves

48. Efferent nerve signals to the arm pass through ___, in this order. A. roots, divisions, cords, and trunks B. roots, trunks, divisions, and cords C. trunks, roots, divisions, and cords D. trunks, cords, roots, and divisions E. cords, roots, divisions, and trunks

49. Which of the following is not a single nerve, but two nerves enclosed in a common fibrous sheath? A. the saphenous nerve B. the femoral nerve C. the tibial nerve D. the sciatic nerve E. the common peroneal nerve

50. The spinal cord is divided into all of the following regions except A. cervical. B. thoracic. C. lumbar. D. pelvic. E. sacral.

51. A ganglion is to the peripheral nervous system what a/an ___ is to the central nervous system. A. nucleus B. fascicle C. cingulus D. tract E. gyrus

52. ___ nerve fibers are those that innervate the skin and skeletal muscles. A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Somatic D. Visceral E. General

53. The quickest reflex arcs involve only two neurons and are thus A. ipsilateral. B. contralateral. C. monosynaptic. D. polysynaptic. E. autonomic.

54. If a bee sting on the right thigh causes a quick involuntary reaction of the right arm, we can say that ___ has occurred. A. reciprocal inhibition B. a crossed extensor reflex C. a withdrawal reflex D. an intersegmental reflex E. a monosynaptic reflex

55. The tension in a muscle spindle is maintained by A. a stretch reflex. B. alpha motor neurons. C. gamma motor neurons. D. annulospiral endings. E. flower-spray endings.

56. This structure anchors the spinal cord to L2 A. lateral horn. B. ventral root. C. central canal. D. gray commissure. E. coccygeal ligament.

57. Which of the following motor tracts is involved in reflex movements of the head in response to visual or auditory stimuli? A. lateral corticospinal tract B. ventral corticospinal tract C. tectospinal tract D. lateral reticulospinal tract E. medial reticulospinal tract

58. Nerve fibers that stimulate the skeletal muscles of your foot have their somas in A. the thalamus. B. the ventral horn of the spinal cord. C. the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. D. the dorsal root ganglion. E. the primary motor cortex of the cerebrum.

59. A withdrawal reflex employs a A. converging circuit. B. diverging circuit. C. facilitated circuit. D. parallel after-discharge circuit. E. reverberating circuit.

60. A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood. You flinch at the pain, pulling your hand back. This is called the A. pain reflex. B. stretch reflex. C. withdrawal reflex. D. tendon reflex. E. crossed extensor reflex.

61. You hear a loud noise and instinctively react to it. What motor tract carried the signals? A. tectospinal B. lateral corticospinal C. ventral corticospinal D. spinothalamic E. medial reticulospinal

62. Which of the following would be most important in relaying motor signals bringing about ventilation? A. iliolingual nerve B. ansa cervicalis C. lumbar plexus D. median nerve E. intercostal nerve

63. This viral infestation can remain viable with the dorsal root ganglia for many years. A. Ebola B. poliomyelitis C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. influenza A E. chickenpox

64. Which of the following nerves is sensory only? A. phrenic B. cervical C. axillary D. femoral

65. These neurons innervate extrafusal fibers. A. primary afferent fibers B. secondary efferent fibers C. alpha motor neurons D. gamma motor neurons E. secondary afferent fibers

66. Sensory impulses from the genital region are transmitted to the CNS by way of the A. iliohypogastric nerve. B. femoral nerve. C. saphenous nerve. D. pudendal nerve. E. common peroneal nerve.

67. In addition to the dorsal and ventral rami, each spinal nerve gives rise to A. a meningeal branch. B. a cauda equina. C. an ansa cervicalis. D. a musculocutaneous branch. E. an intercostal branch.

68. The tension in a muscle spindle is maintained by A. a stretch reflex. B. alpha motor neurons. C. gamma motor neurons. D. annulospiral endings. E. flower-spray endings.

69. Walking is controlled by groups of neurons in the spinal cord called A. nuclei and ganglia. B. the limbic system. C. central pattern generators. D. dorsal and ventral horns. E. corticospinal tract.

70. The spinal cord ends at about which vertebra? A. T11 B. L1 C. L3 D. L5 E. S5

71. Nerves to the pelvic region and lower limbs arise from an area of the spinal cord called the ______ enlargement. A. cervical B. thoracic C. lumbar D. sacral E. pelvic

72. A bundle of nerve roots that occupy the canal of vertebrae L2 to S5 are called the A. lumbar enlargement. B. cauda equina. C. medullary cone. D. reticular formation. E. terminal filum.

73. Spinal cord injuries commonly result from fractures of vertebrae C5 to C6, but never from fractures of L3 to L5. This is because vertebrae C5 to C6 A. contain segments of the spinal cord, while vertebrae L3 to L5 do not. B. are smaller and more fragile than vertebrae L3 to L5. C. contain segments of the spinal cord, which ends at vertebra L3. D. are protected by ribs, while vertebrae L3 to L5 are unprotected. E. have transverse foramina, while L3 to L5 do not.

74. Anesthetics and anti-inflammatory drugs are introduced into this space in the spinal cord. A. subdural B. epidural C. subarachnoid D. dural sinus E. central canal

75. The majority of cerebrospinal fluid in the spinal cord is found in the A. ventricles. B. central canal. C. epidural space. D. subarachnoid space. E. subdural space.

76. The innermost meninx around the spinal cord is called the _____ and extends beyond the medullary cone as the _____. A. dura mater; terminal filum B. pia mater; denticulate ligament C. pia mater; terminal filum D. arachnoid; denticulate ligament E. arachnoid; terminal filum

77. Your spinal cord was unable to form any denticulate ligaments. Your spinal cord would most likely lose A. its ability to move cerebrospinal fluid. B. side-to-side stability. C. its anchor to vertebra L2. D. its ability to reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid back into the blood. E. vertical stability.

78. This is a congenital defect resulting from the failure of one or more vertebrae to form a complete vertebral arch for enclosure of the spinal cord. A. kyphosis B. scoliosis C. lordosis D. spina bifida E. Down syndrome

79. You were going to have a spinal tap to remove some cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. Starting from outside of the spinal cord, what would be the correct order of spaces and meninges through which the syringe would pass? A. epidural space, dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space B. dura mater, epidural space, arachnoid, subarachnoid space C. arachnoid, dura mater, epidural space, subarachnoid space D. epidural space, dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space, pia mater E. dura mater, epidural space, arachnoid, subarachnoid space, pia mater

80. Motor neurons of the somatic motor nervous system have their nerve cell bodies, or somas, in the A. dorsal horn. B. dorsal root ganglion. C. ventral horn. D. lateral horn. E. medial horn.

81. You are following the signals from a sensory neuron to the spinal cord where it synapses with a motor neuron that leaves the spinal cord and synapses on a skeletal muscle. The route would be A. dorsal root → dorsal horn → lateral horn → ventral horn → ventral root → spinal nerve. B. ventral root → ventral horn → dorsal horn → dorsal root → spinal nerve. C. ventral root → ventral horn → lateral horn → dorsal horn → dorsal root → spinal nerve. D. dorsal root → dorsal horn → ventral horn → ventral root → spinal nerve. E. dorsal root → dorsal horn → lateral horn → lateral root → spinal nerve.

82. Sensory information about deep touch or visceral pain in the lower limbs are carried in ____ tracts, which decussate, or cross over, in the _____. A. gracile fasciculus; medulla oblongata B. cuneate fasciculus; medulla oblongata C. lateral corticospinal; medulla oblongata D. tectospinal; midbrain E. medial corticospinal; midbrain

83. Second-order neurons synapse with neurons in the A. spinal cord. B. dorsal root ganglion. C. thalamus. D. cerebral cortex. E. medulla oblongata.

84. This disease is marked by degeneration of motor neurons, and in most cases, neurons are destroyed by the inability of astrocytes to reabsorb glutamate, which allows this neurotransmitter to reach toxic levels. A. poliomyelitis B. spina bifida C. multiple sclerosis D. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis E. Alzheimer's disease

85. An action potential carried in one nerve fiber cannot stimulate adjacent nerve fibers carried in the same nerve because of the A. myelin sheath. B. perineurium. C. endoneurium. D. epineurium. E. neurilemma.

86. The ventral root carries ____ neurons, while the dorsal root carries ____ neurons. A. sensory; sensory B. mixed; motor C. sensory; motor D. motor; sensory E. motor; motor

87. The most vulnerable nerve in the body is the ____ nerve. A. vagus B. peroneal C. sciatic D. radial E. cervical

88. This virus remains for life in the dorsal root ganglion but can travel down neurons from the dorsal root ganglion by fast axonal transport and cause a painful trail of skin discoloration along the path of the neurons. This virus travels down ____ neurons and causes _____. A. sensory; shingles B. sensory; chicken pox C. motor; herpes D. motor; polio E. motor; small pox

89. This plexus is formed by the ventral rami of nerves C4 to T2. It innervates the upper limb and some muscles of the neck and shoulder. A. cervical B. brachial C. lumbar D. sacral E. pectoral

90. The sciatic nerve comes from the _____ plexus, while the femor nerve comes from the ____ plexus. A. lumbar; sacral B. brachial; sacral C. sacral; lumbar D. brachial; lumbar E. lumbar; brachial

91. The cutaneous regions innervated by specific spinal nerves are each called a A. plexus. B. ramus. C. ganglion. D. dermatome. E. epitome.

92. Which one of the following best describes the order of a somatic reflex? A. somatic receptor → interneuron → afferent nerve fiber → efferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle B. somatic receptor → afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → efferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle C. somatic receptor → efferent nerve fiber → interneuron → afferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle D. somatic receptor → efferent nerve fiber → afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → skeletal muscle E. somatic receptor → afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → efferent nerve fiber → smooth muscle

93. In skeletal muscle the stretch receptors are the A. annulospiral endings. B. flower-spray endings. C. extrafusal fibers. D. intrafusal fibers. E. fast twitch fibers.

94. The fibers that carry action potentials to cause skeletal muscle to contract are A. gamma motor neurons. B. alpha motor neurons. C. intrafusal fibers. D. extrafusal fibers. E. beta sensory neurons.

95. In the skeletal muscle, the flower-spray endings' function is to A. stimulate the intrafusal fibers to contract. B. stimulate the extrafusal fibers to contract. C. respond to the onset of the muscle stretch. D. respond to a prolonged muscle stretch. E. stimulate contraction of antagonist muscle.

96. You begin to nod off as you are reading this question. Your head starts to lower a little but this reflex causes your head to rise. A. golgi tendon reflex B. crossed extensor reflex C. withdrawal reflex D. stretch reflex E. flexor reflex

97. In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to A. contract and the antagonist muscles, the hamstrings, to relax. B. contract and the hamstrings also to contract. C. relax and the hamstrings to contract. D. relax and the hamstrings also to relax. E. relax without any effect on the hamstrings.

98. A reflex where the sensory input and motor output are on opposite sides of the spinal cord is called a(n) _____ reflex arc. A. intersegmental B. contralateral C. ipsilateral D. polysynaptic E. monosynaptic

99. The Golgi tendon reflex causes A. a muscle that is being stretched to contract. B. the contralateral motor neurons to contract. C. the ipsilateral motor neurons to relax. D. a muscle that overcontracts to relax. E. a tendon to contract.

100. Quadriplegia, or paralysis of all four limbs, results from spinal cord lesions A. above level C5. B. from levels C5 to C7. C. from levels T1 to T7. D. from level T8 to T12. E. below level L1.

13 Key

1. Bundles of nerve fibers traveling up or down the white matter of the spinal cord are called ___. tracts

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #1

2. All somatic sensory fibers from the neck down enter a region of gray matter of the spinal cord called the ___. dorsal horn

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #2

3. ___ is the crossing of ascending or descending nerve fibers from one side of the CNS to the other. Decussation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #3

4. The connection from a sensory neuron to a motor neuron is usually made by one or more neurons called ___. interneuron

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #4

5. _____ is a bundle of nerve roots within vertebrae L2-S5 which innervate the pelvic organs and legs. Cauda equina

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #5

6. To describe a reflex arc as ___ means that its receptors and effectors are on the same side of the body. ipsilateral

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #6

7. A/an ___ is a region of the skin that provides sensory input to a particular spinal nerve. dermatome

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #7

8. The thick ___ nerve of the lower limb is actually two nerves enclosed in a common fibrous sheath. sciatic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #8

9. This meninx lies closest to the surrounding bone. dura mater

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #9

10. During a withdrawal reflex of the leg, a ___ reflex also occurs to prevent a person from falling over. crossed extensor

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #10

11. Spinal cord injuries most frequently occur from fractures between L3-L5. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #11

12. There is a layer of adipose tissue in the epidural space. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #12

13. The deepest meninx is the pia mater. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #13

14. The pia mater contains a space filled with cerebrospinal fluid. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #14

15. When a pregnant woman takes folic acid she decreases the chance that her baby will have spina bifida. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #15

16. Sensations of pressure, light touch, and pain will travel up the spinothalamic tract. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #16

17. Messages for fine control of the limbs travel down the gracile fasciculus. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #17

18. Contralateral tracts are those that do not decussate. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #18

19. The tectospinal tract begins in the medulla oblongata. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #19

20. Afferent fibers carry messages to the muscles. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #20

21. The axillary nerve carries fibers which control the triceps brachii. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #21

22. The saphenous nerve controls the muscles of the calf. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #22

23. The extrafusal fibers will flower spray endings on them. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #23

24. Reciprocal inhibition occurs when antagonists are inhibited during a reflex. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #24

25. The postsynaptic reflex arc enables a spinal output of longer duration. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

afferent dorsal root ganglion endoneurium gamma motor neurons hemiplegia muscle spindle perineurium reciprocal inhibition secondary afferent fibers ventral horn

corticospinal tracts efferent epineurium Golgi tendon organ mixed paraplegia primary afferent fibers reflexes tectospinal tracts

Saladin - 013 Chapter...

26. Nerve fibers that conduct sensory signals to the central nervous system is known as ________. afferent

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #26

27. Fibrous sheath enclosing a nerve is known as ________. epineurium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #27

28. Descending tracts that carry signals from the cerebral cortex for precise coordinated limb movements are known as ________. corticospinal tracts

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #28

29. Name of a type of nerve that transmits both sensory and motor information is known as ________. mixed

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #29

30. Coordinators of simple, repeated actions are known as ________. reflexes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #30

31. Location of intrafusal fibers is known as the ________. muscle spindle

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #31

32. Locations of afferent somas is known as the ________. dorsal root ganglion

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #32

33. Respond to sustained stretch of a muscle spindle is known as ________. secondary afferent fibers

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #33

34. Would suppress contraction of the triceps brachii when the biceps brachii is contracting is known as ________. reciprocal inhibition

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #34

35. Paralysis of only one side of the body is known as ________. hemiplegia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #35

36. An individual peripheral nerve axon is covered by Schwann cells which produce a (an) A. endoneurium. B. axolemma. C. emyoneurium. D. neurilemma. E. perineurium.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #36

37. ___ nerve fibers are those that innervate the skin and skeletal muscles. A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Somatic D. Visceral E. General

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #37

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #39

40. The cervical plexus gives rise to all the following nerves except A. the great auricular nerve. B. the lesser occipital nerve. C. the radial nerve. D. the phrenic nerve. E. the ansa cervicalis.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #40

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #41

42. The epidural space in the spinal column is occupied by A. adipose tissue. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. the dura mater. D. areolar tissue. E. the spinal cord.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #42

43. The neurilemma is covered by the loose connective tissue called the A. endoneurium. B. axolemma. C. emyoneurium. D. neurilemma. E. perineurium.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #43

44. Which of the following sensory functions involves neurons in the dorsal root ganglia? A. smell B. touch C. hearing D. taste E. vision

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #44

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #45

46. The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form nerve plexuses in all regions except A. the cervical region. B. the brachial region. C. the thoracic region. D. the lumbar region. E. the sacral region.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #46

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #47

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #48

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #49

50. The spinal cord is divided into all of the following regions except A. cervical. B. thoracic. C. lumbar. D. pelvic. E. sacral.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #50

51. A ganglion is to the peripheral nervous system what a/an ___ is to the central nervous system. A. nucleus B. fascicle C. cingulus D. tract E. gyrus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #51

52. ___ nerve fibers are those that innervate the skin and skeletal muscles. A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Somatic D. Visceral E. General

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #52

53. The quickest reflex arcs involve only two neurons and are thus A. ipsilateral. B. contralateral. C. monosynaptic. D. polysynaptic. E. autonomic.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #53

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #54

55. The tension in a muscle spindle is maintained by A. a stretch reflex. B. alpha motor neurons. C. gamma motor neurons. D. annulospiral endings. E. flower-spray endings.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #55

56. This structure anchors the spinal cord to L2 A. lateral horn. B. ventral root. C. central canal. D. gray commissure. E. coccygeal ligament.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #56

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #57

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #58

59. A withdrawal reflex employs a A. converging circuit. B. diverging circuit. C. facilitated circuit. D. parallel after-discharge circuit. E. reverberating circuit.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 013 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #61

62. Which of the following would be most important in relaying motor signals bringing about ventilation? A. iliolingual nerve B. ansa cervicalis C. lumbar plexus D. median nerve E. intercostal nerve

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #62

63. This viral infestation can remain viable with the dorsal root ganglia for many years. A. Ebola B. poliomyelitis C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. influenza A E. chickenpox

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #63

64. Which of the following nerves is sensory only? A. phrenic B. cervical C. axillary D. femoral

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #64

65. These neurons innervate extrafusal fibers. A. primary afferent fibers B. secondary efferent fibers C. alpha motor neurons D. gamma motor neurons E. secondary afferent fibers

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #65

66. Sensory impulses from the genital region are transmitted to the CNS by way of the A. iliohypogastric nerve. B. femoral nerve. C. saphenous nerve. D. pudendal nerve. E. common peroneal nerve.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #67

68. The tension in a muscle spindle is maintained by A. a stretch reflex. B. alpha motor neurons. C. gamma motor neurons. D. annulospiral endings. E. flower-spray endings.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #68

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #69

70. The spinal cord ends at about which vertebra? A. T11 B. L1 C. L3 D. L5 E. S5

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #70

71. Nerves to the pelvic region and lower limbs arise from an area of the spinal cord called the ______ enlargement. A. cervical B. thoracic C. lumbar D. sacral E. pelvic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #71

72. A bundle of nerve roots that occupy the canal of vertebrae L2 to S5 are called the A. lumbar enlargement. B. cauda equina. C. medullary cone. D. reticular formation. E. terminal filum.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #72

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #73

74. Anesthetics and anti-inflammatory drugs are introduced into this space in the spinal cord. A. subdural B. epidural C. subarachnoid D. dural sinus E. central canal

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #74

75. The majority of cerebrospinal fluid in the spinal cord is found in the A. ventricles. B. central canal. C. epidural space. D. subarachnoid space. E. subdural space.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #79

80. Motor neurons of the somatic motor nervous system have their nerve cell bodies, or somas, in the A. dorsal horn. B. dorsal root ganglion. C. ventral horn. D. lateral horn. E. medial horn.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 013 Chapter... #82

83. Second-order neurons synapse with neurons in the A. spinal cord. B. dorsal root ganglion. C. thalamus. D. cerebral cortex. E. medulla oblongata.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #85

86. The ventral root carries ____ neurons, while the dorsal root carries ____ neurons. A. sensory; sensory B. mixed; motor C. sensory; motor D. motor; sensory E. motor; motor

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #86

87. The most vulnerable nerve in the body is the ____ nerve. A. vagus B. peroneal C. sciatic D. radial E. cervical

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #87

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 013 Chapter... #88

89. This plexus is formed by the ventral rami of nerves C4 to T2. It innervates the upper limb and some muscles of the neck and shoulder. A. cervical B. brachial C. lumbar D. sacral E. pectoral

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #89

90. The sciatic nerve comes from the _____ plexus, while the femor nerve comes from the ____ plexus. A. lumbar; sacral B. brachial; sacral C. sacral; lumbar D. brachial; lumbar E. lumbar; brachial

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #90

91. The cutaneous regions innervated by specific spinal nerves are each called a A. plexus. B. ramus. C. ganglion. D. dermatome. E. epitome.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #92

93. In skeletal muscle the stretch receptors are the A. annulospiral endings. B. flower-spray endings. C. extrafusal fibers. D. intrafusal fibers. E. fast twitch fibers.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #97

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #98

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 013 Chapter... #99

100. Quadriplegia, or paralysis of all four limbs, results from spinal cord lesions A. above level C5. B. from levels C5 to C7. C. from levels T1 to T7. D. from level T8 to T12. E. below level L1.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 013 Chapter... #100

Chapter 14 1. The ventricles of the brain are filled with a liquid called ___. ________________________________________

2. The ___ is a chain of nuclei in the brainstem that screen out unimportant stimuli and selectively allow other stimuli to come to one's conscious attention. ________________________________________

3. The cerebrum develops from a vesicle of the embryonic brain called the ___. ________________________________________

4. The cerebral cortex consists of folds of tissue called ___ separated by grooves called ___. ________________________________________

5. Most regions of primary sensory cortex of the brain are surrounded by, or adjacent to, regions called ___ that identify and interpret the sensation. ________________________________________

6. Destruction of _____ is associated with fluent aphasia. ________________________________________

7. The largest part of the diencephalon is the ___, the "gateway to the cerebral cortex." ________________________________________

8. This narrow structure connects the cerebellar hemispheres. ________________________________________

9. Centers for hunger, thirst, and thermoregulation are found in a part of the brain called the ___. ________________________________________

10. Cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed by these cauliflower-like structures. ________________________________________

11. The sacral segments of the spinal cord are not found within the sacral vertebrae. True False

12. Within one tract of the spinal cord, all nerve fibers have the same general function. True False

13. The tentorium cerebelli separates the cerebellum from the brainstem. True False

14. Sensory signals from the inner ear travel by way of the vestibulocochlear nerve. True False

15. The pons and cerebellum arise from the same vesicle of the embryonic brain. True False

16. The cerebrum is the only part of the brain that is divided into right and left hemispheres. True False

17. The frontal lobe of the cerebrum extends posteriorly as far as the central sulcus. True False

18. Signals for vision, hearing, and smell are transmitted to the postcentral gyrus. True False

19. The primary visual cortex is in the frontal lobes just superior to the eyes. True False

20. The hypothalamus is part of the diencephalon. True False

21. The epidural space separates the dura mater from the arachnoid. True False

22. The arachnoid villi return CSF to the lateral ventricles of the brain. True False

23. The blood-brain barrier is absent from the circumventricular organs. True False

24. The repetitive muscle contractions of walking are controlled by neuronal pools in the spinal cord. True False

25. Because of the decussation of sensory nerve fibers, the right postcentral gyrus monitors sensations from the left side of the body. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

aphasia Broca's area corpora quadrigemina fissures hippocampus insula medulla oblongata pons precentral gyrus sulci Wernicke's area

arachnoid villi choroid plexus corpus calosum gyri I and II IX and XII midbrain postcentral gyrus reticular formation VII and IX

26. Plan your spoken words according to learned rules of grammar is in the ________. ________________________________________

27. The superior and inferior colliculi is known as ________. ________________________________________

28. There would be no sense of taste if cranial nerves ____ were destroyed. ________________________________________

29. The source of cerebrospinal fluid is found in the ________. ________________________________________

30. Shallow grooves between the folds of the cerebrum is known as ________. ________________________________________

31. Folds or wrinkles of the cerebral surface is known as _________. ________________________________________

32. Difficulty producing intelligible speech due to brain injury is known as ________. ________________________________________

33. Origin of the last four pairs of cranial nerves is known as ________. ________________________________________

34. Brainstem structure that relays signals from the cerebrum to the cerebellum is known as ________. ________________________________________

35. This has an upside-down sensory map of the opposite side of the body. ________________________________________

36. If we recorded your electroencephalogram while you took this test, it would show predominantly A. alpha waves. B. beta waves. C. delta waves. D. gamma waves. E. theta waves.

37. One of the functions associated with the limbic system is A. hearing. B. reading comprehension. C. stimulus filtering. D. feelings of peace, fear, or anger. E. motor control of the limbs.

38. The somesthetic center of the postcentral gyrus is part of the ___ of the cerebrum. A. frontal lobe B. temporal lobe C. insula D. vermis E. parietal lobe

39. The hypothalamus plays a role in controlling all of the following except A. sex drive. B. hunger. C. sleepiness. D. speech. E. blood pressure.

40. The cerebellum develops from the embryonic A. myelencephalon. B. metencephalon. C. mesencephalon. D. diencephalon. E. telencephalon.

41. Unwanted muscle contractions are inhibited by A. midbrain. B. basal nuclei. C. primary motor cortex. D. motor association area. E. premotor cortex.

42. Which of the following is most concerned with motor coordination and equilibrium? A. the precentral gyrus B. the postcentral gyrus C. the pons D. the hypothalamus E. the cerebellum

43. Which lobe of the cerebrum is most concerned with vision? A. the parietal lobe B. the frontal lobe C. the occipital lobe D. the temporal lobe E. the insula

44. Which of the following functions would most likely be controlled by the representational hemisphere of the cerebrum? A. taking this test B. diagnosing a patient's disease C. painting a picture D. giving a speech E. balancing your checkbook

45. Cerebrospinal fluid returns to the bloodstream by way of A. the central canal of the spinal cord. B. the choroid plexuses of the brain. C. the arachnoid villi. D. the cauda equina. E. the pia mater.

46. From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in the order A. dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid. B. dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater. C. pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid. D. pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater. E. arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater.

47. The ___ is a purely sensory nerve. A. olfactory nerve B. trigeminal nerve C. facial nerve D. vestibulocochlear nerve E. glossopharyngeal nerve

48. The optic nerve becomes the optic tract when it reaches the A. the frontal lobes. B. the occipital lobes. C. the thalamus. D. the midbrain. E. the optic chiasma.

49. A patient complains of numbness of the scalp and forehead and shows no blink reflex when the eye is lightly touched with cotton fibers. This suggests damage to A. the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. B. the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve. C. the oculomotor nerve. D. the facial nerve. E. the abducens nerve.

50. The ___ helps to coordinate and smooth skeletal movements. A. thalamus B. forebrain C. pons D. cerebellum E. limbic system

51. The right and left cerebral hemispheres are joined mainly by the A. corpus callosum. B. thalamus. C. pons. D. decussation. E. association tracts.

52. The neural tube is formed by fusion of the neural A. mesoderm. B. crests. C. tracts. D. folds. E. plates.

53. The third ventricle of the brain is A. deep in the cerebral hemisphere. B. inferior to the corpus callosum. C. superior to the corpus callosum. D. between the cerebellum and occipital lobe. E. between the cerebellum and the pons.

54. Opening the eyes involves the ___ nerve. A. optic B. oculomotor C. ophthalmic D. trochlear E. abducens

55. Of the following cranial nerves, only the ___ nerve has no sensory or motor functions related to the eye. A. trochlear B. trigeminal C. oculomotor D. abducens E. accessory

56. The white matter of the cerebellum constitutes its A. arbor vitae B. vermis C. cortex D. folia E. peduncles

57. Purkinje cells are giant multipolar neurons of A. the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. B. the ventral horn of the spinal cord. C. the cerebral cortex. D. the cerebellum. E. the reticular formation.

58. Almost all sensory signals pass through the ___ on the way to the cerebrum. A. corpora quadrigemina B. thalamus C. hypothalamus D. corpus callosum E. corticospinal tracts

59. Your comprehension of these written words involves activity of A. Purkinje cells in the cerebellum. B. Purkinje cells in the occipital lobe. C. pyramidal cells in the postcentral gyrus. D. pyramidal cells in the precentral gyrus. E. pyramidal cells of Wernicke's area.

60. ___ connect one gyrus to another within the same cerebral hemisphere. A. Association tracts B. Projection tracts C. Commissural tracts D. Spinothalamic tracts E. Corticospinal tracts

61. The lateral sulcus of the cerebrum separates the ___ from the ___. A. frontal lobe; parietal lobe B. occipital lobe; parietal lobe C. temporal lobe; parietal lobe D. occipital lobe; cerebellum E. temporal lobe; cerebellum

62. The ability to recall and perform learned motor skills and habits is called A. memory consolidation. B. long-term memory. C. a conditioned reflex. D. procedural memory. E. declarative memory.

63. The ___ contains nuclei that control coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting. A. thalamus B. hypothalamus C. midbrain D. pons E. medulla oblongata

64. The ___ contains nuclei that regulate body temperature, food intake, and sexual response. A. thalamus B. hypothalamus C. midbrain D. pons E. medulla oblongata

65. The cerebral cortex concerned with hearing is in A. the insula. B. the occipital lobe. C. the temporal lobe. D. the parietal lobe. E. the frontal lobe.

66. The brain center most concerned with emotion is A. the limbic system. B. the reticular formation. C. the basal nuclei. D. the midbrain. E. the thalamus.

67. The corpus callosum is composed of A. long association fibers. B. short association fibers. C. commissural fibers. D. projection fibers. E. ascending fibers.

68. The retinas originate as outgrowths of A. the telencephalon. B. the diencephalon. C. the mesencephalon. D. the metencephalon. E. the myelencephalon.

69. The portion of the brain where one thinks consciously about motor activities is the A. pre-central gyrus. B. cingulate gyrus. C. post-central gyrus. D. substantia nigra. E. basal nuclei.

70. Cerebrospinal fluid serves all of the following functions except A. to support the weight of the brain. B. to cushion the brain from blows. C. to remove metabolic wastes from the central nervous system. D. to provide a stable chemical environment for the nervous tissue. E. to help cool the brain.

71. Cerebrospinal fluid leaves the fourth ventricle of the brain by way of A. the cerebral aqueduct. B. the lateral and median apertures. C. the circumventricular organs. D. the interventricular foramen. E. the arachnoid villi.

72. The cell bodies of the cerebral neurons are located in A. the gray matter. B. the white matter. C. the corpus callosum. D. the corpora quadrigemina. E. the association tracts.

73. The primary somesthetic cortex monitors all the following senses except A. tickle. B. pain. C. touch. D. heat. E. smell.

74. Which of the following cranial nerves carries equilibrium messages? A. facial B. abducens C. trigeminal D. glossopharyngeal E. vestibulocochlear

75. The two cerebral hemispheres are separated into right and left hemispheres by a deep groove called the A. longitudinal fissure. B. transverse fissure. C. central sulcus. D. corpus callosum. E. lateral sulcus.

76. The cerebrum and the cerebellum contain thick folds called ____ whose purpose is to A. gyri; provide connections between hemispheres. B. neural folds; provide connections between hemispheres. C. sulci; increase surface area. D. gyri; increase surface area. E. fissures; increased number of cortical neurons.

77. The second-largest region of the brain is the _____, whose function is to A. pons; relay signals from the cerebrum to the cerebellum. B. cerebellum; coordinate skeletal muscles. C. corpora quadrigemina; coordinate skeletal muscles of the eyes and head in response to visual and auditory stimulation. D. thalamus; relay sensory input to processing centers in the cerebrum. E. hypothalamus; controls body temperature and food intake.

78. The gray matter of the brain consists of the ____ and _____. A. nuclei; tracts B. medulla; pons C. cortex; nuclei D. cortex; medulla E. medulla; nerves

79. The neurons and all glial cells except microglia are derived from _____; the microglia are derived from ______. A. mesoderm; ectoderm B. ectoderm; mesoderm C. endoderm; mesoderm D. ectoderm; endoderm E. mesoderm; endoderm

80. The lumen of the neural tube develops into the A. central canal and ventricles. B. cerebral and cerebellar peduncles. C. brainstem. D. olfactory tracts. E. optic tracts.

81. The outer double meningeal layer around the brain is called the _____, and in some places the two layers are separated by _____. A. pia mater; subarachnoid space B. arachnoid; subarachnoid space C. dura mater; epidural space D. dura mater; dural sinuses E. pia mater; epidural space

82. The meningeal layer of the dura mater folds inward to separate the left and right cerebral hemispheres. This meningeal layer is called the A. falx cerebri. B. falx cerebelli. C. tentorium cerebri. D. tentorium cerebelli. E. arbor vitae.

83. An individual is experiencing a high fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, and intense headaches. A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This individual most likely has A. Parkinson Disease. B. Alzheimer's Disease. C. meningitis. D. hydrocephaly. E. a stroke.

84. A network of capillaries in the brain that produces cerebrospinal fluid is called the ____ and is surrounded by glial cells called ____. A. dural sinus; ependymal cells B. choroid plexus; microglia C. spinal canal; astrocytes D. choroid plexus; ependymal cells E. arachnoid villus; astrocytes

85. Which one of the following is the correct pathway of CSF from the choroid plexus where it is formed to the dural sinus where it reenters the blood stream? A. lateral ventricle → interventricular foramen → third ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → fourth ventricle → subarachnoid space → arachnoid villus B. lateral ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → third ventricle → interventricular foramen → fourth ventricle → central canal → subarachnoid space → arachnoid villus C. subarachnoid space → central canal → interventricular foramen → lateral ventricle → third ventricle → fourth ventricle → arachnoid villus D. arachnoid villus → subarachnoid space → fourth ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → third ventricle → interventricular foramen → lateral ventricle E. third ventricle → interventricular foramen → fourth ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → lateral ventricle → subarachnoid space → arachnoid villus

86. Individuals with Parkinson Disease, like Mohammed Ali and the Pope, do not produce sufficient amounts of the neurotransmitter called dopamine by the substantia nigra of the brain. However, injections of dopamine into the blood do not ease the symptoms. Increasing dopamine in the blood does not help because dopamine A. cannot cross the brain-CSF barrier. B. cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. C. is quickly destroyed by enzymes in the blood. D. can cross into the interstitial fluid of the brain but cannot enter the neurons in the substantia nigra. E. is too large and cannot cross the choroids plexus.

87. The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is most permeable to which one of the following chemical groupings? A. glucose, water, oxygen, alcohol, and caffeine B. sodium, potassium, chloride, urea, and creatinine C. dopamine, adrenalin, erythromyosin D. platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells E. fatty acids, cholesterol, triglycerides, eicosanoids

88. There are two barrier systems to the blood supply of the brain: the blood-brain barrier (BBB) and the blood-CSF barrier. Two glial cells that are critical to the formation of these barriers are A. ependymal cells and microglia. B. microglia and astrocytes. C. ependymal cells and astrocytes. D. oligodendrocytes and microglia. E. Shwann cells and ependymal cells.

89. The gray matter of the cerebellum contains 100 billion neurons. The most distinctive neuron, which is large and multipolar and receives input from more than 100,000 synapses, is called the A. Purkinje cell. B. pyramidal cell. C. mammillary body. D. preoptic nucleus. E. astrocyte.

90. You were driving erratically and a police officer pulled you over. The officer requested that you get out of the car and perform two activities. The first was to walk a straight line, and the second was to close your eyes and touch your nose with your index finger. The officer was checking on the ability of your ____ to coordinate these activities. A. medulla oblongata B. primary motor area C. premotor area D. cerebellum E. primary somatosensory area

91. The cerebral aqueduct is located in the ____, while the third ventricle is located in the _____. A. telencephalon; diencephalon B. diencephalon; metencephalon C. myelencephalon; mesencephalon D. mesencephalon; diencephalon E. diencephalon; mesencephalon

92. A loosely coordinated core of gray matter in the midbrain, pons, and medulla is called the A. brainstem. B. projection tract. C. reticular formation. D. corpora quadrigemina. E. substantia nigra.

93. The nucleus in the hypothalamus that produces the hormone oxytocin, which is involved in childbirth, lactation, and orgasm, is the A. anterior nucleus. B. supraoptic nucleus. C. preoptic nucleus. D. paraventricular nucleus. E. infraoptic nucleus.

94. You are too cold you shiver, and you are too hot you sweat. The body's thermostat, which has a heat-losing center and a heat-producing center, is found in the A. preoptic nucleus. B. ventromedial nucleus. C. suprachiasmatic nucleus. D. supraoptic nucleus. E. paraventricular nucleus.

95. You usually go to bed at the same time and wake up two minutes before the alarm clock goes off. This circadian rhythm is regulated by the A. nuclei in the medulla oblongata. B. suprachiasmatic nucleus. C. basal nuclei. D. limbic system. E. preoptic nucleus.

96. Damage to the temporal lobe would most likely cause the individual to be unable to A. become aware of objects on the contralateral side. B. determine the meaning of written and spoken words. C. integrate information from sensory and motor regions to plan and execute appropriate behavior. D. recognize and name familiar objects. E. hear.

97. Nonfluent aphasia results in slow speech, difficulty in choosing words, or use of words that only approximate the correct word. Nonfluent aphasia results from a lesion to A. the primary motor area. B. the motor association (premotor) area. C. Wernicke's area. D. Broca's area. E. primary auditory area.

98. The only two cranial nerves that are completely sensory are numbers A. I and II. B. III and IV. C. V and VI. D. VII and VIII. E. XI and XII.

99. This cranial nerve controls hearing and equilibrium. A. trochlear (IV) B. trigeminal (V) C. vestibulocochlear (VIII) D. glossopharyngeal (IX) E. abducens (VI)

100. Two cranial nerves involved in taste are A. trigeminal (V) and vagus (X). B. abducens (VI) and accessory (XI). C. facial (VII) and glossopharyngeal (IX). D. facial (VII) and accessory (XI). E. trigeminal (V) and facial (VII).

14 Key

1. The ventricles of the brain are filled with a liquid called ___. cerebrospinal fluid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #1

2. The ___ is a chain of nuclei in the brainstem that screen out unimportant stimuli and selectively allow other stimuli to come to one's conscious attention. reticular formation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #2

3. The cerebrum develops from a vesicle of the embryonic brain called the ___. telencephalon

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #3

4. The cerebral cortex consists of folds of tissue called ___ separated by grooves called ___. gyri; sulci

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #4

5. Most regions of primary sensory cortex of the brain are surrounded by, or adjacent to, regions called ___ that identify and interpret the sensation. association areas

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #5

6. Destruction of _____ is associated with fluent aphasia. Wernicke's area

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #6

7. The largest part of the diencephalon is the ___, the "gateway to the cerebral cortex." thalamus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #7

8. This narrow structure connects the cerebellar hemispheres. vermis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #8

9. Centers for hunger, thirst, and thermoregulation are found in a part of the brain called the ___. hypothalamus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #9

10. Cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed by these cauliflower-like structures. arachnoid villi

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #10

11. The sacral segments of the spinal cord are not found within the sacral vertebrae. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #11

12. Within one tract of the spinal cord, all nerve fibers have the same general function. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #12

13. The tentorium cerebelli separates the cerebellum from the brainstem. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #13

14. Sensory signals from the inner ear travel by way of the vestibulocochlear nerve. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #14

15. The pons and cerebellum arise from the same vesicle of the embryonic brain. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #15

16. The cerebrum is the only part of the brain that is divided into right and left hemispheres. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #16

17. The frontal lobe of the cerebrum extends posteriorly as far as the central sulcus. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #17

18. Signals for vision, hearing, and smell are transmitted to the postcentral gyrus. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #18

19. The primary visual cortex is in the frontal lobes just superior to the eyes. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #19

20. The hypothalamus is part of the diencephalon. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #20

21. The epidural space separates the dura mater from the arachnoid. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #21

22. The arachnoid villi return CSF to the lateral ventricles of the brain. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #22

23. The blood-brain barrier is absent from the circumventricular organs. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #23

24. The repetitive muscle contractions of walking are controlled by neuronal pools in the spinal cord. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #24

25. Because of the decussation of sensory nerve fibers, the right postcentral gyrus monitors sensations from the left side of the body. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

aphasia Broca's area corpora quadrigemina fissures hippocampus insula medulla oblongata pons precentral gyrus sulci Wernicke's area

arachnoid villi choroid plexus corpus calosum gyri I and II IX and XII midbrain postcentral gyrus reticular formation VII and IX

Saladin - 014 Chapter...

26. Plan your spoken words according to learned rules of grammar is in the ________. Wernicke's area

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #26

27. The superior and inferior colliculi is known as ________. corpora quadrigemina

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #27

28. There would be no sense of taste if cranial nerves ____ were destroyed. IX and XII

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #28

29. The source of cerebrospinal fluid is found in the ________. choroid plexus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #29

30. Shallow grooves between the folds of the cerebrum is known as ________. sulci

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #30

31. Folds or wrinkles of the cerebral surface is known as _________. gyri

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #31

32. Difficulty producing intelligible speech due to brain injury is known as ________. aphasia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #32

33. Origin of the last four pairs of cranial nerves is known as ________. medulla oblongata

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #33

34. Brainstem structure that relays signals from the cerebrum to the cerebellum is known as ________. pons

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #34

35. This has an upside-down sensory map of the opposite side of the body. postcentral gyrus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #35

36. If we recorded your electroencephalogram while you took this test, it would show predominantly A. alpha waves. B. beta waves. C. delta waves. D. gamma waves. E. theta waves.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #36

37. One of the functions associated with the limbic system is A. hearing. B. reading comprehension. C. stimulus filtering. D. feelings of peace, fear, or anger. E. motor control of the limbs.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #37

38. The somesthetic center of the postcentral gyrus is part of the ___ of the cerebrum. A. frontal lobe B. temporal lobe C. insula D. vermis E. parietal lobe

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #38

39. The hypothalamus plays a role in controlling all of the following except A. sex drive. B. hunger. C. sleepiness. D. speech. E. blood pressure.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #39

40. The cerebellum develops from the embryonic A. myelencephalon. B. metencephalon. C. mesencephalon. D. diencephalon. E. telencephalon.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #40

41. Unwanted muscle contractions are inhibited by A. midbrain. B. basal nuclei. C. primary motor cortex. D. motor association area. E. premotor cortex.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #41

42. Which of the following is most concerned with motor coordination and equilibrium? A. the precentral gyrus B. the postcentral gyrus C. the pons D. the hypothalamus E. the cerebellum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #42

43. Which lobe of the cerebrum is most concerned with vision? A. the parietal lobe B. the frontal lobe C. the occipital lobe D. the temporal lobe E. the insula

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #43

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #44

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #45

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #46

47. The ___ is a purely sensory nerve. A. olfactory nerve B. trigeminal nerve C. facial nerve D. vestibulocochlear nerve E. glossopharyngeal nerve

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #47

48. The optic nerve becomes the optic tract when it reaches the A. the frontal lobes. B. the occipital lobes. C. the thalamus. D. the midbrain. E. the optic chiasma.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #48

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 014 Chapter... #49

50. The ___ helps to coordinate and smooth skeletal movements. A. thalamus B. forebrain C. pons D. cerebellum E. limbic system

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #50

51. The right and left cerebral hemispheres are joined mainly by the A. corpus callosum. B. thalamus. C. pons. D. decussation. E. association tracts.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #51

52. The neural tube is formed by fusion of the neural A. mesoderm. B. crests. C. tracts. D. folds. E. plates.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #52

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #53

54. Opening the eyes involves the ___ nerve. A. optic B. oculomotor C. ophthalmic D. trochlear E. abducens

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #54

55. Of the following cranial nerves, only the ___ nerve has no sensory or motor functions related to the eye. A. trochlear B. trigeminal C. oculomotor D. abducens E. accessory

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #55

56. The white matter of the cerebellum constitutes its A. arbor vitae B. vermis C. cortex D. folia E. peduncles

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #56

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #57

58. Almost all sensory signals pass through the ___ on the way to the cerebrum. A. corpora quadrigemina B. thalamus C. hypothalamus D. corpus callosum E. corticospinal tracts

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #58

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #59

60. ___ connect one gyrus to another within the same cerebral hemisphere. A. Association tracts B. Projection tracts C. Commissural tracts D. Spinothalamic tracts E. Corticospinal tracts

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #61

62. The ability to recall and perform learned motor skills and habits is called A. memory consolidation. B. long-term memory. C. a conditioned reflex. D. procedural memory. E. declarative memory.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #62

63. The ___ contains nuclei that control coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting. A. thalamus B. hypothalamus C. midbrain D. pons E. medulla oblongata

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #63

64. The ___ contains nuclei that regulate body temperature, food intake, and sexual response. A. thalamus B. hypothalamus C. midbrain D. pons E. medulla oblongata

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #64

65. The cerebral cortex concerned with hearing is in A. the insula. B. the occipital lobe. C. the temporal lobe. D. the parietal lobe. E. the frontal lobe.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #65

66. The brain center most concerned with emotion is A. the limbic system. B. the reticular formation. C. the basal nuclei. D. the midbrain. E. the thalamus.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #66

67. The corpus callosum is composed of A. long association fibers. B. short association fibers. C. commissural fibers. D. projection fibers. E. ascending fibers.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #67

68. The retinas originate as outgrowths of A. the telencephalon. B. the diencephalon. C. the mesencephalon. D. the metencephalon. E. the myelencephalon.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #68

69. The portion of the brain where one thinks consciously about motor activities is the A. pre-central gyrus. B. cingulate gyrus. C. post-central gyrus. D. substantia nigra. E. basal nuclei.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #70

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #71

72. The cell bodies of the cerebral neurons are located in A. the gray matter. B. the white matter. C. the corpus callosum. D. the corpora quadrigemina. E. the association tracts.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #72

73. The primary somesthetic cortex monitors all the following senses except A. tickle. B. pain. C. touch. D. heat. E. smell.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #73

74. Which of the following cranial nerves carries equilibrium messages? A. facial B. abducens C. trigeminal D. glossopharyngeal E. vestibulocochlear

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #74

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #77

78. The gray matter of the brain consists of the ____ and _____. A. nuclei; tracts B. medulla; pons C. cortex; nuclei D. cortex; medulla E. medulla; nerves

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #79

80. The lumen of the neural tube develops into the A. central canal and ventricles. B. cerebral and cerebellar peduncles. C. brainstem. D. olfactory tracts. E. optic tracts.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 014 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #87

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #91

92. A loosely coordinated core of gray matter in the midbrain, pons, and medulla is called the A. brainstem. B. projection tract. C. reticular formation. D. corpora quadrigemina. E. substantia nigra.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 014 Chapter... #97

98. The only two cranial nerves that are completely sensory are numbers A. I and II. B. III and IV. C. V and VI. D. VII and VIII. E. XI and XII.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #98

99. This cranial nerve controls hearing and equilibrium. A. trochlear (IV) B. trigeminal (V) C. vestibulocochlear (VIII) D. glossopharyngeal (IX) E. abducens (VI)

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 014 Chapter... #99

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 014 Chapter... #100

Chapter 15 1. Cardiac muscle has the ___ type of acetylcholine receptors. ________________________________________

2. An organ is said to have dual innervation when it receives both _____ and ____ fibers. ________________________________________

3. In the peripheral nervous system, the cell bodies of the neurons are concentrated in masses called ___. ________________________________________

4. ___ receptors bind norepinephrine. ________________________________________

5. The gray ramus communicans gets its color from the lack of ___. ________________________________________

6. The celiac ganglion is part of the _____ division. ________________________________________

7. The digestive system has a nervous system of its own called the _____ nervous system. ________________________________________

8. The ____ division has ganglia on or near target organs. ________________________________________

9. The sympathetic nervous system is also called the ___ division of the autonomic nervous system, referring to the site of origin of its efferent fibers. ________________________________________

10. ____ is a parasympathetic cranial nerve with branches to the heart and the bronchii. ________________________________________

11. Both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems have cholinergic fibers. True False

12. The adrenal medulla consists of modified neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. True False

13. Mass activation, which is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system, results from its converging neuronal circuits. True False

14. The autonomic nervous system does not innervate any skeletal muscle fibers. True False

15. Visceral muscles cease contracting and soon exhibit denervation atrophy if the autonomic nerve fibers to them are severed. True False

16. Muscarinic receptors bind the same neurotransmitter as nicotinic receptors. True False

17. All preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system end at synapses in the paravertebral ganglia. True False

18. Neuronal divergence occurs in the sympathetic division, but not in the parasympathetic division. True False

19. Only nicotinic receptors are found on cardiac muscle fibers. True False

20. Norepinephrine always stimulates its target cells whereas acetylcholine always inhibits them. True False

21. Falling asleep and waking up are governed by a shifting balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. True False

22. Muscarine is a neurotransmitter produced by muscarinic neurons. True False

23. Adrenergic receptors always function by means of a second messenger, such as cAMP, IP3, or Ca2+. True False

24. Not all organs that receive sympathetic nerve fibers also receive parasympathetic fibers. True False

25. The vasomotor tone of the blood vessels is an effect of continual stimulation by sympathetic neurons. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

acetylcholine atropine collateral ganglia efferent hypothalamus neuronal divergence norepinephrine splanchnic terminal ganglia trigeminal nerve

afferent beta-blocker craniosacral enteric neuronal convergence nicotinic pons sympathetic chain ganglia thoracolumbar vagus nerve

26. Nerve fibers that conduct sensory signals to the central nervous system is known as ________. ________________________________________

27. Nerves found only in the digestive system are known as ________. ________________________________________

28. The ________ contains 90% of the fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system. ________________________________________

29. The site where most presynaptic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system release their neurotransmitter is known as ________. ________________________________________

30. One presynaptic neuron stimulates multiple postsynaptic neurons is known as ________. ________________________________________

31. The major control area of visceral motor activities is known as the ________. ________________________________________

32. Secreted by most postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system. ________________________________________

33. Location of the sympathetic division. ________________________________________

34. This blocks muscarinic receptors. ________________________________________

35. The site of the somas of most postsynaptic parasympathetic neurons is the _________. ________________________________________

36. All of the following are under dual control of the ANS except A. iris. B. heart. C. salivary glands. D. adrenal medulla. E. digestive system.

37. Increased cardiac vasodilation occurs through stimulation of which receptors? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. beta-2 D. beta-1 E. gamma

38. Which of the following is associated with the flight or fight reaction? A. pupillary constriction B. reduced urinary output C. increased gastric motility D. glycogen synthesis E. reduced heart rate

39. Which of the following is a mechanism for norepinephrine destruction? A. AchE B. NEA C. NO D. MAC E. MAO

40. Which of the following is most responsible for bringing about bladder constriction and internal urethral sphincter relaxation? A. tympanic ganglion B. otic ganglion C. inferior hypogastric plexus D. abdominal aortic plexus E. inferior mesenteric ganglion

41. The cardiac, pulmonary, and esophageal plexuses are formed by fibers of the ___ nerve. A. vagus B. glossopharyngeal C. facial D. accessory E. hypoglossal

42. This parasympathetic nerve controls salivary secretions. A. facial B. trigeminal C. splanchnic D. celiac E. vagus

43. These sympathetic nerves pass thru ganglia without synapsing. A. facial B. trigeminal C. splanchnic D. celiac E. vagus

44. This parasympathetic nerve emerges from the pons. A. facial B. trigeminal C. splanchnic D. celiac E. vagus

45. This parasympathetic nerve controls swallowing. A. facial B. saphenous C. celiac D. vagus E. splanchnic

46. This hormone would increase to the greatest degree in stressful situations. A. noradrenalin B. epinephrine C. dopamine D. acetylcholine E. norepinephrine

47. This group of nerves does not come from the brain or the spinal cord. A. somatic B. enteric C. limbic D. sympathetic E. parasympathetic

48. Postganglionic fibers from this site will control the thickness of the lens. A. celiac ganglion B. trigeminal nerve C. ciliary ganglion D. sphenopalatine ganglion E. vagus nerve

49. This parasympathetic nerve adjusts the heart rate. A. facial B. trigeminal C. glossopharyngeal D. hypoglossal E. vagus

50. Sweat glands are primarily controlled by this sympathetic route. A. splanchnic B. spinal C. vagus D. hypoglossal E. facial

51. The paravertebral ganglia are connected via spinal nerves in which region? A. saccral B. cranial C. cervical D. coccygeal E. thoracic

52. The paravertebral ganglia are not A. sympathetic. B. autonomic. C. along the vertebral column. D. parasympathetic. E. groups of nerves.

53. The autonomic nervous system A. controls skeletal muscle. B. has no ganglia. C. is either excitatory or inhibitory. D. use the neurotransmitter acetylcholine exclusively. E. is voluntary.

54. All of the following are parasympathetic effects except A. decreased heart rate. B. increased stomach secretion. C. dilation of the bronchioles. D. constriction of the pupil. E. contraction of the bladder.

55. If you blocked the cardiac beta receptors, you would expect to see A. a slower pulse. B. a faster pulse. C. a rise in blood pressure. D. more forceful heart contractions. E. no effect.

56. Most parasympathetic fibers reach their target organs by way of A. the accessory nerve. B. the splanchnic nerve. C. the trigeminal nerve. D. the vagus nerve. E. the hypoglossal nerve.

57. Destruction of the sympathetic nervous system will produce A. orgasm. B. labor contractions. C. circulatory shock. D. bronchodilation. E. glycogen breakdown.

58. Which of the following is more effective in producing bronchodilation? A. acetylcholine B. nicotine C. muscarine D. norepinephrine E. thyroxine

59. Nicotinic receptors bind A. epinephrine. B. norepinephrine. C. dopamine. D. acetylcholinesterase. E. acetylcholine.

60. Sympathetic nerve fibers that do not synapse in the paravertebral ganglia synapse instead in A. the collateral ganglia. B. the sympathetic chain ganglia. C. the intramural ganglia. D. the spinal cord. E. their target organs.

61. The vagus nerves form all of the following except A. the cardiac plexus. B. the pulmonary plexus. C. the esophageal plexus. D. the hypogastric plexus. E. anterior and posterior vagal trunks.

62. One division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates your salivary glands to secrete a watery solution of enzymes, and the other division stimulates them to secrete mucus. Together, these secretions constitute the saliva. This is an example of A. a dual effect. B. a sympathetic effect. C. an antagonistic effect. D. a cooperative effect. E. a biofeedback effect.

63. __ blocks dopamine reuptake, leading to a quick "high." A. Substance P B. Fluoxetine C. Cocaine D. Imipramine E. Serotonin

64. The adrenergic fibers of the autonomic nervous system are A. sympathetic preganglionic fibers. B. sympathetic postganglionic fibers. C. somatic preganglionic fibers. D. parasympathetic preganglionic fibers. E. parasympathetic postganglionic fibers.

65. The ___ system is characterized by long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers. A. thoracolumbar B. craniosacral C. somatosensory D. somatic motor E. sympathetic

66. The sympathetic nervous system reduces blood flow to A. the skin. B. the skeletal muscles. C. the heart. D. the lungs. E. the brain.

67. The autonomic nervous system controls ___ without the need of input from the brain. A. sweating B. digestive secretion C. urination D. heart rate E. blood pressure

68. Antagonistic effects of the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are exemplified in the control of A. blood clotting. B. blood flow to the skeletal muscles. C. sweating. D. erection of the hair. E. intestinal motility.

69. The ___ carry parasympathetic efferent fibers to the urinary bladder. A. splanchnic nerves B. vagal trunks C. femoral nerves D. pudendal nerves E. pelvic nerves

70. All of the following are true of the autonomic nervous system (ANS), and distinguish it from the somatic nervous system, except that A. the ANS has two efferent fibers leading from the CNS to the target organ. B. the ANS has no afferent fibers. C. responses to the ANS are largely involuntary. D. denervation of ANS target muscles causes hypersensitivity rather than paralysis. E. efferent fibers of the ANS sometimes have inhibitory effects.

71. ___ produces a feeling of well-being as opposed to depression. A. Adenosine B. Acetylcholine C. Serotonin D. Substance Y E. MAO

72. This enzyme would normally break down serotonin. A. adenosine B. AChE C. renin D. MAO E. substance Y

73. This neurotransmitter produces a sensation of sleepiness. A. adenosine B. acetylcholine C. serotonin D. substance P E. MAO

74. This illness of the autonomic nervous system is manifested by extreme vasoconstriction as well as paleness and cyanosis in the toes and fingers. It is triggered by emotional distress and cold temperatures. A. Horner syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Hackett disease D. Raynaud disease E. Huntington disease

75. Which one of the below is not controlled by the autonomic nervous system? A. sweat glands B. skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscle D. smooth muscle E. salivary glands

76. If the somatic motor neurons to skeletal muscle are severed, the muscle exhibits _____, and if the autonomic motor neurons to smooth or cardiac muscle are severed, the muscle exhibits _____. A. rigor mortis; hypersensitivity B. flaccid paralysis; hypersensitivity C. hypersensitivity; rigor mortis D. hypersensitivity; flaccid paralysis E. flaccid paralysis; flaccid paralysis

77. In response to high blood pressure, stretch receptors called ____ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head will cause the heart to ____ its beats per minute. A. baroreceptors; decrease B. proprioceptors; decrease C. baroreceptors; increase D. proprioceptors; increase E. chemoreceptors; increase

78. Your entire grade depends on whether you can answer this question correctly. Your ____ division will stimulate an increase in heart rate, increase in blood pressure, and reduce the blood flow to your skin and digestive tract, and your ___ system will enable you to circle the correct answer. A. somatic motor; visceral motor B. parasympathetic; somatic motor C. sympathetic; visceral motor D. sympathetic; somatic motor E. parasympathetic; visceral motor

79. The system that stimulates normal conditions in the body such as lowered heart rate, and increased gastrointestinal activities such as digestion, secretion, and defecation is the A. sympathetic division. B. parasympathetic division. C. somatic motor system. D. somatic visceral system. E. enteric nervous system.

80. In the ANS, the preganglionic neuron releases _____, while the postganglionic neuron releases _____. A. ACh; ACh B. ACh; ACh or NE C. ACh or EP; ACh D. EP; ACh or NE E. ACh or NE; ACh

81. The preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous division originate in segments ____ of the spinal cord and first enter the ____ ganglia. A. S2 to S4; paravertebral B. S2 to S4; sympathetic chain C. T1 to L2; collateral D. T1 to L2; sympathetic chain E. T1 to L2; paravertebral

82. The somas of somatic motor neurons are found in the ____ of the spinal cord, while the somas of preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division are found in the ____ of the spinal cord. A. ventral horns; dorsal horns B. ventral horns; lateral horns C. lateral horns; ventral horns D. lateral horns; dorsal horns E. dorsal horns; ventral horns

83. The pathway of postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division that synapse with postganglionic neurons that innervate the liver, stomach, spleen, intestine, adrenal medulla, kidney, urinary bladder, and reproductive structures includes which of the following structures? A. spinal cord and sympathetic chain ganglia B. spinal cord, sympathetic chain ganglia, and collateral ganglia C. brainstem and sympathetic chain ganglia D. brainstem, sympathetic chain ganglia, and collateral ganglia E. brainstem and paravertebral ganglia

84. White rami carry ____ neurons, while gray rami carry ____ neurons. A. myelinated postganglionic; unmyelinated preganglionic B. unmyelinated postganglionic; myelinated preganglionic C. unmyelinated preganglionic; myelinated postganglionic D. myelinated preganglionic; unmyelinated postganglionic E. myelinated preganglionic; myelinated postganglionic

85. A neuron that synapses on the adrenal medulla is a ____ neuron, which releases the neurotransmitter ____. A. preganglionic; ACh B. postganglionic; NE C. preganglionic; NE D. postganglionic; ACh E. somatic; NE

86. Sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes it to release three hormones. Of these three hormones ____ is the primary hormone released. A. dopamine B. norepinephrine (noradrenaline) C. epinephrine (adrenaline) D. acetylcholine E. serotonin

87. Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division originate or have their nerve cell bodies in A. the pons. B. the cervical region of the spinal cord. C. the thoracic region of the spinal cord. D. the lumbar region of the spinal cord. E. the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.

88. About 90% of all parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are carried in the ____ nerve. A. glossopharyngeal (IX) B. oculomotor (III) C. vagus (X) D. facial (VII) E. trigeminal (V)

89. The parasympathetic fibers that innervate the distal half of the large intestine, urinary bladder, and reproductive organs originate in A. the pons. B. the medulla oblongata. C. segments C2 to C7 of the spinal cord. D. segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord. E. segments S2 to S4 of the spinal cord.

90. This system has about 17 postganglionic neurons for every preganglionic neuron and thus a single preganglionic fiber firing leads to widespread effects. A. somatic motor system B. parasympathetic division C. sympathetic division D. enteric nervous system E. somatic sensory system

91. If the ventral roots are severed, what autonomic functions would not be affected? A. sympathetic stimulation of the heart and lungs B. parasympathetic stimulation of all its effectors C. parasympathetic stimulation of the distal large intestine, urinary bladder, and reproductive organs D. parasympathetic stimulation of the eyes, lacrimal glands, salivary glands, heart, lungs, spleen, stomach, liver, gall bladder, kidney, ureter, intestine, and reproductive glands E. sympathetic stimulation of skeletal muscles

92. Which one of the below is made up of primarily adrenergic fibers? A. preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division B. postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division C. postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division D. all motor fibers of the somatic motor system E. preganglionic neurons of parasympathetic division

93. Drugs that are monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors would most likely A. activate the parasympathetic division and allow for normal digestive system activities. B. block ACh receptors on skeletal muscle and cause flaccid paralysis. C. decrease the amount of NE destroyed and may be used as an antidepressant. D. stimulate -2 receptors and cause an increase in heart rate and dilation of bronchioles. E. inhibit uptake of dopamine and cause depression.

94. The ANS primarily releases the neurotransmitters ACh and NE. Although all autonomic fibers release one of these two neurotransmitters, sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers may also stimulate the release of a number of other neurotransmitters. Which one of the below is stimulated to be released by parasympathetic fibers? A. somatostatin B. enkephalin C. substance P D. nitric oxide E. neuropeptide Y

95. Ephedrine and pseudoephedrine are the main ingredients in some very popular cold remedies. Ephedrine and pseudoephedrine act to A. block the sympathetic division. B. block the parasympathetic division. C. mimic the sympathetic division. D. mimic the parasympathetic division. E. block the somatic sensory division.

96. The effect of ACh on nicotinic receptors is _____ and on muscarinic receptors is _____. A. inhibitory; stimulatory B. inhibitory; stimulatory or inhibitory C. stimulatory; stimulatory or inhibitory D. stimulatory or inhibitory; stimulatory E. stimulatory; inhibitory

97. Propranolol, or inderal, blocks -1 and -2 receptors. This popular drug is used A. to dilate respiratory passages in anaphylactic shock. B. to constrict blood vessels to the skin treating a spider or snake bite. C. to lower blood pressure by decreasing the heart rate. D. as a diuretic to increase urine output. E. to constrict blood vessels in the nose to relieve congestion.

98. Norepinephrine stimulates blood vessels to the skin and most viscera to vasoconstrict, while at the same time NE stimulates blood vessels to the heart and skeletal muscles to vasodilate. This can be explained because blood vessels to the skin and viscera have _____ receptors, while blood vessels to the heart and skeletal muscles have _____ receptors. A. ;  B. ;  C. ; nicotinic D. muscarinic;  E. nicotinic; muscarinic

99. Caffeine taken later in the day can delay the sense of sleepiness. Caffeine blocks the chemical called _____, which is on inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain that produces the sense of sleepiness. A. glycine B. adenosine C. serotonin D. melatonin E. dopamine

100. Too much production of the thyroid hormone is called hyperthyroidism. One of the functions of the thyroid hormone is to increase the number of -2 receptors on the heart. You would expect hyperthyroidism to result in A. a rapid heart rate. B. a drop in arterial blood pressure. C. vasodilation of blood vessels to the skin. D. vasoconstriction of blood vessels to skeletal muscle. E. weight gain.

15 Key

1. Cardiac muscle has the ___ type of acetylcholine receptors. muscarinic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #1

2. An organ is said to have dual innervation when it receives both _____ and ____ fibers. sympathetic; parasympathetic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #2

3. In the peripheral nervous system, the cell bodies of the neurons are concentrated in masses called ___. ganglia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #3

4. ___ receptors bind norepinephrine. Adrenergic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #4

5. The gray ramus communicans gets its color from the lack of ___. myelin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #5

6. The celiac ganglion is part of the _____ division. sympathetic

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #6

7. The digestive system has a nervous system of its own called the _____ nervous system. enteric

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #7

8. The ____ division has ganglia on or near target organs. parasympathetic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #8

9. The sympathetic nervous system is also called the ___ division of the autonomic nervous system, referring to the site of origin of its efferent fibers. thoracolumbar

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #9

10. ____ is a parasympathetic cranial nerve with branches to the heart and the bronchii. Vagus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #10

11. Both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems have cholinergic fibers. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #11

12. The adrenal medulla consists of modified neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #12

13. Mass activation, which is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system, results from its converging neuronal circuits. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #13

14. The autonomic nervous system does not innervate any skeletal muscle fibers. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #14

15. Visceral muscles cease contracting and soon exhibit denervation atrophy if the autonomic nerve fibers to them are severed. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #15

16. Muscarinic receptors bind the same neurotransmitter as nicotinic receptors. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #16

17. All preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system end at synapses in the paravertebral ganglia. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #17

18. Neuronal divergence occurs in the sympathetic division, but not in the parasympathetic division. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #18

19. Only nicotinic receptors are found on cardiac muscle fibers. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #19

20. Norepinephrine always stimulates its target cells whereas acetylcholine always inhibits them. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #20

21. Falling asleep and waking up are governed by a shifting balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #21

22. Muscarine is a neurotransmitter produced by muscarinic neurons. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #22

23. Adrenergic receptors always function by means of a second messenger, such as cAMP, IP3, or Ca2+. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #23

24. Not all organs that receive sympathetic nerve fibers also receive parasympathetic fibers. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #24

25. The vasomotor tone of the blood vessels is an effect of continual stimulation by sympathetic neurons. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

acetylcholine atropine collateral ganglia efferent hypothalamus neuronal divergence norepinephrine splanchnic terminal ganglia trigeminal nerve

afferent beta-blocker craniosacral enteric neuronal convergence nicotinic pons sympathetic chain ganglia thoracolumbar vagus nerve

Saladin - 015 Chapter...

26. Nerve fibers that conduct sensory signals to the central nervous system is known as ________. afferent

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #26

27. Nerves found only in the digestive system are known as ________. enteric

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #27

28. The ________ contains 90% of the fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system. vagus nerve

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #28

29. The site where most presynaptic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system release their neurotransmitter is known as ________. sympathetic chain ganglia

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #29

30. One presynaptic neuron stimulates multiple postsynaptic neurons is known as ________. neuronal divergence

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #30

31. The major control area of visceral motor activities is known as the ________. hypothalamus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #31

32. Secreted by most postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system. norepinephrine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #32

33. Location of the sympathetic division. thoracolumbar

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #33

34. This blocks muscarinic receptors. atropine

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #34

35. The site of the somas of most postsynaptic parasympathetic neurons is the _________. terminal ganglia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #35

36. All of the following are under dual control of the ANS except A. iris. B. heart. C. salivary glands. D. adrenal medulla. E. digestive system.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #36

37. Increased cardiac vasodilation occurs through stimulation of which receptors? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. beta-2 D. beta-1 E. gamma

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #37

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #38

39. Which of the following is a mechanism for norepinephrine destruction? A. AchE B. NEA C. NO D. MAC E. MAO

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #39

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #40

41. The cardiac, pulmonary, and esophageal plexuses are formed by fibers of the ___ nerve. A. vagus B. glossopharyngeal C. facial D. accessory E. hypoglossal

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #41

42. This parasympathetic nerve controls salivary secretions. A. facial B. trigeminal C. splanchnic D. celiac E. vagus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #42

43. These sympathetic nerves pass thru ganglia without synapsing. A. facial B. trigeminal C. splanchnic D. celiac E. vagus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #43

44. This parasympathetic nerve emerges from the pons. A. facial B. trigeminal C. splanchnic D. celiac E. vagus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #44

45. This parasympathetic nerve controls swallowing. A. facial B. saphenous C. celiac D. vagus E. splanchnic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #45

46. This hormone would increase to the greatest degree in stressful situations. A. noradrenalin B. epinephrine C. dopamine D. acetylcholine E. norepinephrine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #46

47. This group of nerves does not come from the brain or the spinal cord. A. somatic B. enteric C. limbic D. sympathetic E. parasympathetic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #47

48. Postganglionic fibers from this site will control the thickness of the lens. A. celiac ganglion B. trigeminal nerve C. ciliary ganglion D. sphenopalatine ganglion E. vagus nerve

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #48

49. This parasympathetic nerve adjusts the heart rate. A. facial B. trigeminal C. glossopharyngeal D. hypoglossal E. vagus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #49

50. Sweat glands are primarily controlled by this sympathetic route. A. splanchnic B. spinal C. vagus D. hypoglossal E. facial

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #50

51. The paravertebral ganglia are connected via spinal nerves in which region? A. saccral B. cranial C. cervical D. coccygeal E. thoracic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #51

52. The paravertebral ganglia are not A. sympathetic. B. autonomic. C. along the vertebral column. D. parasympathetic. E. groups of nerves.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #52

53. The autonomic nervous system A. controls skeletal muscle. B. has no ganglia. C. is either excitatory or inhibitory. D. use the neurotransmitter acetylcholine exclusively. E. is voluntary.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #53

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #54

55. If you blocked the cardiac beta receptors, you would expect to see A. a slower pulse. B. a faster pulse. C. a rise in blood pressure. D. more forceful heart contractions. E. no effect.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 015 Chapter... #55

56. Most parasympathetic fibers reach their target organs by way of A. the accessory nerve. B. the splanchnic nerve. C. the trigeminal nerve. D. the vagus nerve. E. the hypoglossal nerve.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #56

57. Destruction of the sympathetic nervous system will produce A. orgasm. B. labor contractions. C. circulatory shock. D. bronchodilation. E. glycogen breakdown.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 015 Chapter... #57

58. Which of the following is more effective in producing bronchodilation? A. acetylcholine B. nicotine C. muscarine D. norepinephrine E. thyroxine

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #58

59. Nicotinic receptors bind A. epinephrine. B. norepinephrine. C. dopamine. D. acetylcholinesterase. E. acetylcholine.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #60

61. The vagus nerves form all of the following except A. the cardiac plexus. B. the pulmonary plexus. C. the esophageal plexus. D. the hypogastric plexus. E. anterior and posterior vagal trunks.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #61

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #62

63. __ blocks dopamine reuptake, leading to a quick "high." A. Substance P B. Fluoxetine C. Cocaine D. Imipramine E. Serotonin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #63

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #64

65. The ___ system is characterized by long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers. A. thoracolumbar B. craniosacral C. somatosensory D. somatic motor E. sympathetic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #65

66. The sympathetic nervous system reduces blood flow to A. the skin. B. the skeletal muscles. C. the heart. D. the lungs. E. the brain.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #66

67. The autonomic nervous system controls ___ without the need of input from the brain. A. sweating B. digestive secretion C. urination D. heart rate E. blood pressure

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #67

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 015 Chapter... #68

69. The ___ carry parasympathetic efferent fibers to the urinary bladder. A. splanchnic nerves B. vagal trunks C. femoral nerves D. pudendal nerves E. pelvic nerves

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #70

71. ___ produces a feeling of well-being as opposed to depression. A. Adenosine B. Acetylcholine C. Serotonin D. Substance Y E. MAO

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #71

72. This enzyme would normally break down serotonin. A. adenosine B. AChE C. renin D. MAO E. substance Y

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #72

73. This neurotransmitter produces a sensation of sleepiness. A. adenosine B. acetylcholine C. serotonin D. substance P E. MAO

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #74

75. Which one of the below is not controlled by the autonomic nervous system? A. sweat glands B. skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscle D. smooth muscle E. salivary glands

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #79

80. In the ANS, the preganglionic neuron releases _____, while the postganglionic neuron releases _____. A. ACh; ACh B. ACh; ACh or NE C. ACh or EP; ACh D. EP; ACh or NE E. ACh or NE; ACh

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #87

88. About 90% of all parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are carried in the ____ nerve. A. glossopharyngeal (IX) B. oculomotor (III) C. vagus (X) D. facial (VII) E. trigeminal (V)

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 015 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 015 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 015 Chapter... #95

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Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 015 Chapter... #97

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Difficulty: medium Saladin - 015 Chapter... #100

Chapter 16 1. Deep pressure and vibration are detected by cutaneous sense organs called ___, which have onionlike layers of connective tissue around a central sensory dendrite. ________________________________________

2. ___ is sensitivity to the positions and movements of the limbs and other body parts. ________________________________________

3. Variations in the pitch of the sounds we hear are due to variations in the ___ of the sound waves reaching the ear. ________________________________________

4. Nerve endings that respond to tissue damage and produce sensations of pain are called ___. ________________________________________

5. The bending of light rays as they pass from one transparent medium into another medium of different optical density is called ___. ________________________________________

6. Any change in or around the body to which the nervous system reacts is called a/an ___. ________________________________________

7. The receptors for touch, heat, pressure, vision, and hearing are classified as ___ because they sense stimuli that arise external to the body. ________________________________________

8. The sharpest or most detailed daytime vision occurs in a region of the retina called the ___. ________________________________________

9. All receptors specialized to detect changes in temperature are called ___. ________________________________________

10. The gustatory and olfactory senses are more commonly called ___ and ___, respectively. ________________________________________

11. The posterior chamber of the eye is filled with gelatinous vitreous humor. True False

12. There are no rod cells in the fovea centralis. True False

13. There are no cone cells in the optic disc. True False

14. A sound of 30 db is 1,000 times as loud as the minimum sound audible to humans. True False

15. Three otoliths transfer vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the ear. True False

16. When they are not being stimulated by light, rod cells secrete a neurotransmitter that inhibits the bipolar neurons. True False

17. Taste cells are not neurons. True False

18. Olfactory cells are not neurons. True False

19. Taste cells are also known as lingual papillae. True False

20. In vision, the cornea refracts light rays more than the lens does. True False

21. Each cone cell has three types of pigments specialized to absorb light in three different regions of the visible spectrum. True False

22. Rod cells release neurotransmitter in the dark and stop releasing it when they absorb light. True False

23. Optic nerve fibers end at synapses in the optic chiasma. True False

24. Signals for different stimulus intensities follow different projection pathways to the brain, enabling the brain to distinguish strong from weak stimuli. True False

25. Many stimuli produce physiological responses without producing sensations. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

ampulla bipolar cells cochlea corpus calosum detect rotational acceleration general senses otoliths photopupillary reflex rods special senses stapes vitreous humor

aqueous humor bleaching cones detect equilibrium detect sound optic chiasma oval window photoreceptors semicircular ducts stapedius stereoscopic vision

26. Substance found in the posterior chamber of the eye is known as ________. ________________________________________

27. Effect of light on 11-cis retinal is known as ________. ________________________________________

28. Color vision receptors are known as ________. ________________________________________

29. This helps protect the inner ear from being damaged by loud noises. ________________________________________

30. Vision, hearing, taste, smell, and equilibrium :: ________________________________________

31. Organ of hearing is known as ________. ________________________________________

32. All these cells contain the same visual pigment. ________________________________________

33. Calcium carbonate-protein granules in the macula sacculi and macula utriculi. ________________________________________

34. Point where some fibers from the right eye cross over to the left brain. ________________________________________

35. Function of the semicircular ducts. ________________________________________

36. Taste cells produce all of the following sensations except A. spicy. B. salty. C. bitter. D. sweet. E. sour.

37. Which of the following is not characteristic of rod vision? A. low threshold B. peripheral vision C. coarse resolution D. trichromatic vision E. scotopic vision

38. Which of the following nerve endings are not found in the skin? A. proprioceptors B. Ruffini's corpuscles C. tactile corpuscles D. pacinian corpuscles E. hair receptors

39. Convergence of the eyes when focusing on a nearby object is achieved by means of A. the ciliary muscles. B. the extrinsic muscles. C. the zonular fibers. D. the suspensory ligament. E. the radial fibers.

40. The loudness of a sound is correlated with the ___ of the sound wave. A. pitch B. frequency C. amplitude D. wavelength E. speed

41. Other than the optic disc, the only point where the retina is attached to the rest of the eyeball is an anterior ring called A. the suspensory ligament. B. the ciliary body. C. the crista ampullaris. D. the cupula. E. the ora serrata.

42. When the stapes pushes in and creates pressure on the endolymph, the ___ bulges out to relieve the pressure. A. basilar membrane B. vestibular membrane C. tympanic membrane D. oval window E. round window

43. The sensory cells of hearing are stimulated by the ___ resting on their stereocilia. A. basilar membrane B. cupula C. vestibular membrane D. tectorial membrane E. crista ampullaris

44. Mitral cells synapse with A. rod cells. B. cone cells. C. olfactory cells. D. taste cells. E. bipolar cells.

45. The semicircular ducts are filled with A. aqueous humor. B. vitreous humor. C. perilymph. D. endolymph. E. cerebrospinal fluid.

46. The semicircular ducts lie within A. the middle ear cavity. B. the auditory tube. C. the membranous labyrinth. D. the vestibule. E. the semicircular canals.

47. Which of the following are heat receptors? A. lamellated corpuscles B. Krause's end bulbs C. Ruffini's corpuscles D. Merkel discs E. free nerve endings

48. Hair cells of the cochlea are stimulated as a result of the up-and-down vibrations of A. the basilar membrane. B. the tectorial membrane. C. the vestibular membrane. D. the tympanic membrane. E. the otolithic membrane.

49. At normal daylight intensities, the ___ cells are nonfunctional because all their rhodopsin is bleached. A. cone B. rod C. amacrine D. bipolar E. corneal

50. We sense rotary movements of the head when the endolymph pushes on a gelatinous cap called the ___ in a semicircular duct. A. otolith B. papilla C. cupula D. utricle E. saccule

51. Which of the following is part of the fibrous tunic of the eye? A. the rods B. the choroid C. the sclera D. the retina E. the vitreous body

52. The blind spot in each visual field is a region in which A. there are rod cells but no cone cells. B. there are cone cells but no rod cells. C. bipolar cells block light from reaching the rods and cones. D. the iris casts a shadow on part of the retina. E. the optic nerve leaves the eye.

53. The footplate of the stapes covers an opening called A. the auditory canal. B. the auditory tube. C. the oval window. D. the round window. E. the crista ampullaris.

54. Stereocilia with tip links are involved in the sense of A. taste. B. smell. C. proprioception. D. linear acceleration. E. hearing.

55. When you view objects close to the eye, the eye makes an adjustment called A. emmetropia. B. accommodation. C. refraction. D. myopia. E. diplopia.

56. Substance P A. is released by damaged tissues and stimulates pain receptors. B. is released by pain receptors and stimulates spinal interneurons. C. is released by interneurons in the thalamus. D. blocks the transmission of pain signals in the spinal cord. E. is responsible for the phenomenon of referred pain.

57. Suppose you were sitting in a rotating chair in a hair salon with your eyes closed, and the chair was rotated. You could sense this by means of your A. cochlea. B. macula utriculi. C. macula sacculi. D. semicircular ducts. E. organ of Corti.

58. The function of the suspensory ligaments is to A. hold the lens of the eye in place. B. detect stretch in a tendon. C. govern the vibration of the basilar membrane. D. detect stretch in a skeletal muscle. E. constrict the pupil.

59. Taste buds are found on all the lingual papillae except for the ___ type. A. fungiform B. filiform C. foliate D. vallate E. circumvallate

60. The gustatory nucleus, which receives taste signals from the tongue, is in A. the temporal lobe. B. the parietal lobe. C. the medulla oblongata. D. the pons. E. the cerebellum.

61. Nerve fibers of the olfactory tracts lead to A. the temporal lobes. B. the thalamus. C. the parietal lobes. D. the precentral gyrus. E. the midbrain.

62. Humans can hear sounds ranging in frequency A. from 5 to 20 Hz. B. from 20 to 50 Hz. C. from 50 to 1,000 Hz. D. from 20 to 20,000 Hz. E. from 100 to 100,000 Hz.

63. The auditory tube A. leads from the pinna to the tympanic membrane. B. leads from the tympanic membrane to the oval window. C. spirals around the modiolus of the cochlea. D. leads from the nasopharynx to the middle ear. E. includes the vestibule and semicircular ducts.

64. The ___ is attached to the medial side of the tympanic membrane. A. malleus B. incus C. stapes D. stapedius E. tensor tympani

65. When a tip link opens the ion channel on a cochlear stereocilium, ___ ions rapidly enter and depolarize the hair cell. A. sodium B. potassium C. chloride D. calcium E. magnesium

66. In vision, most light refraction occurs at the interface where light passes A. from air into the cornea. B. from the cornea into the aqueous humor. C. from the aqueous humor into the lens. D. from the lens into the vitreous body. E. from the vitreous body into the retina.

67. Tears are produced by A. the tarsal glands. B. the lacrimal glands. C. the puncta lacrimalia. D. the lateral canthi. E. the lacrimal sac.

68. The consensual light reflex refers to the fact that A. the lens causes light rays to converge toward the center of the retina. B. the eyes converge to focus an image on identical parts of both retinas. C. both pupils react even if only one eye is stimulated. D. many rod cells converge on each bipolar cell in the retina. E. cones take over when all the rod cells are bleached by bright light.

69. When light is absorbed by a rod cell A. cyclic GMP is produced. B. the rod cell releases a sudden flood of glutamic acid. C. all the bipolar cells become hyperpolarized. D. retinal and opsin dissociate from each other. E. sodium ions diffuse into the outer segment.

70. The fact that cone cells exhibit less neuronal convergence than rod cells do is part of the reason that A. rod cells cannot distinguish different colors from each other. B. rod cells do not function in bright light. C. no images are perceived within the optic disc. D. cone cells do not see in black and white. E. photopic vision has higher resolution than scotopic vision.

71. Receptors that respond intensely to the onset of stimulation but quickly stop responding are called A. proprioceptors. B. interoceptors. C. phasic receptors. D. tonic receptors. E. somesthetic receptors.

72. The receptors most likely to detect an ant crawling on your back are A. free nerve endings. B. hair receptors. C. lamellated corpuscles. D. tactile corpuscles. E. Krause's end bulbs

73. All receptors for ___ are confined to the head and are innervated by cranial nerves. A. the special senses B. somesthetic senses C. proprioception D. exteroception E. chemoreception

74. The transmission of pain signals through the spinal cord can be prevented by A. bradykinin. B. substance P. C. acetylcholine. D. histamine. E. enkephalins.

75. Some strong odors are detected by ___ instead of the olfactory cells. A. mitral cells B. olfactory hairs C. the olfactory bulbs D. the trigeminal nerve E. the olfactory tracts

76. The conversion of a sensation like touch or heat to a pattern of action potentials is called sensory A. adaptation. B. transduction. C. modality. D. amplification. E. translation.

77. Meissner's, or tactile, corpuscles in your fingers respond to the texture by causing graded voltage changes across their plasma membranes. These voltage changes are called A. sensory transductions. B. excitatory postsynaptic potentials. C. action potentials. D. receptor potentials. E. inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.

78. You are holding your hands behind your back and someone is touching a specific area of your hand. You know where your hand is touched because of A. sensory transduction. B. two-point discrimination. C. sensory projection. D. association pathways. E. proprioception.

79. You walked into a restaurant and smelled barbequed ribs. Within a few seconds, however, you are no longer aware of the smell. Your olfactory receptors are A. phasic receptors. B. tonic receptors. C. nociceptors. D. proprioceptors. E. inhibitory receptors.

80. The intrafusal fibers in a skeletal muscle are A. nociceptors, which are phasic receptors. B. nociceptors, which are tonic receptors. C. proprioceptors, which are phasic receptors. D. proprioceptors, which are tonic receptors. E. chemoreceptors, which are phasic receptors.

81. You have one hand in a bowl of ice water and the other hand is free. After your one hand is sufficiently cold, you place both hands in a bowl of room temperature water. You would predict that A. both hands will feel the same temperature. B. the hand from the cold water will feel hot and the hand that was free will feel cool. C. the hand from the cold water will feel hot and the hand that was free will not register any temperature change. D. the hand from the cold water will feel cold and the hand that was free will also feel cold. E. both hands will feel cold.

82. Tonic receptors for light touch, textures, edges, and shapes are _____, and tonic receptors for heavy touch, pressure, stretching of the skin, and joint movements are _____. A. tactile (Merkel) discs; Ruffini corpuscles B. tactile (Merkel) discs; lamellated (pacinian) corpuscles C. tactile (Meissner) corpuscles; lamellated (pacinian) corpuscles D. tactile (Meissner) corpuscles; Ruffini corpuscles E. Ruffini corpuscles; lamellated (pacinian) corpuscles

83. A ladybug is crawling on your skin as you are reading this question. The ladybug most likely stimulates A. lamellated (pacinian) corpuscles. B. Ruffini corpuscles. C. peritrichial endings. D. free nerve endings. E. nociceptors.

84. The receptors for deep pressure in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue are A. tactile (Merkel) discs. B. tactile (Meissner) corpuscles. C. Krause end bulbs. D. lamellated corpuscles. E. peritrichial endings.

85. These receptors are free nerve endings that are tonic receptors, which respond to tissue damage from trauma, ischemia, or excessive stimulation by agents such as heat, cold, and chemicals. A. mechanoreceptors B. nociceptors C. chemoreceptors D. thermoreceptors E. proprioceptors

86. Most somesthetic signals (touch, pain, heat, cold, pressure, movement, and stretch) below the head are carried by way of three neurons called the first-, second-, and third-order neurons. Generally, second-order neurons end in the _____; proprioceptive signals are an exception with their second-order neurons ending in the _____. A. pons; thalamus B. thalamus; cerebral cortex C. cerebellum; thalamus D. thalamus; cerebellum E. thalamus; hypothalamus

87. You are experiencing pain in the back, and it was significant enough to go to your physician. The physician asks you to describe not only the level of pain, usually on a 10-point rating scale, but also the type of pain—is it a sharp, localized pain or a dull, diffuse pain. If it is a sharp, localized pain with an 8 out of 10 rating on the pain scale, you most likely have A. recent trauma with the pain sensation carried by myelinated fibers. B. chronic pain sensation carried by unmyelinated fibers. C. recent trauma with the pain sensation carried by unmyelinated fibers. D. chronic pain sensation carried by myelinated fibers. E. recent trauma with the pain sensation carried by somatic motor fibers.

88. A pain that radiates along the left shoulder and medial side of the arm may not indicate a pain specifically in that area. This may indicate a heart attack, which causes _____ pain, and the phenomenon is called ____ pain. A. somatic; visceral B. somatic; referred C. visceral; referred D. visceral; somatic E. referred; visceral

89. This chemical is released by injured tissues and is the most potent pain stimulus known. A. prostaglandins B. enkephalins C. substance P D. bradykinin E. serotonin

90. You feel tired, your joints hurt, and your muscles feel weak. Like any addicted exercise fanatic, your cure is to have a high intensity workout. As you are working out, all of your aches and pains seem to dwindle. This can be explained because exercise stimulates A. the blockage of release of bradykinin. B. release of endorphins and dynorphins. C. the release of morphine. D. the release of heroin, which blocks the receptor sites for substance P. E. release of opium.

91. The receptors for taste are located on A. cilia on neurons. B. cilia on epithelial cells. C. microvilli on neurons. D. microvilli on epithelial cells. E. stereocillia on gustatory cells.

92. The first-order neurons of taste project to the A. salivatory nucleus in the medulla oblongata and pons. B. lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus. C. solitary nucleus in the medulla oblongata. D. ventromedial nucleus in the hypothalamus. E. supraoptical nucleus in the hypothalamus.

93. The threshold for this taste is the lowest for any of the tastes. A. salty B. sweet C. sour D. bitter E. spicy

94. These cells are the only neurons in the body exposed to the external environment, and unlike most neurons, they are replaceable. A. rods in the retina B. hair cells in the inner ear C. gustatory cells D. olfactory cells E. cones in the retina

95. Odors like certain perfumes or certain foods stimulate a memory in the _____ and/or stimulate a response in the _____. A. olfactory cortex; primary motor cortex B. hippocampus; amygdale and hypothalamus C. prefrontal cortex; premotor cortex D. limbic system; mammillary body and fornix E. primary motor cortex; limbic system

96. You are listening to music at a frequency of 200 cps or Hz and at 120 decibels. You are listening to A. low pitch sound that may damage your inner ear. B. low pitch sound that is barely audible. C. high pitch sound that may damage your inner ear. D. high pitch sound that is barely audible. E. high pitch sound that is not audible.

97. In the inner ear, the transducer that converts vibrations caused by sound to nerve impulses is the A. tectorial membrane. B. organ of Corti. C. vestibular membrane. D. basilar membrane. E. ampulla.

98. The aqueous humor is secreted by the _____ and reabsorbed into the _____. A. ciliary body; sclera venous sinus B. choroid plexus; saggital venous sinus C. hyaloid canal; scleral venous sinus D. ciliary body; hyaloid canal E. choroids plexus; hyaloid canal

99. The most finely detailed images are produced by the A. fundus. B. fovea centralis. C. optic disc. D. ora serrata. E. tapedum lucidum.

100. In looking at a near object, the ciliary muscles will _____, the suspensory ligaments _____, and the lens _____. A. contract; become taut; thins B. contract; loosen; thickens C. relax; loosen; thickens D. relax; become taut; thins E. relax; loosen; thins

16 Key

1. Deep pressure and vibration are detected by cutaneous sense organs called ___, which have onionlike layers of connective tissue around a central sensory dendrite. lamellated (pacinian) corpuscles

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #1

2. ___ is sensitivity to the positions and movements of the limbs and other body parts. Proprioception

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #2

3. Variations in the pitch of the sounds we hear are due to variations in the ___ of the sound waves reaching the ear. frequency

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #3

4. Nerve endings that respond to tissue damage and produce sensations of pain are called ___. nociceptors

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #4

5. The bending of light rays as they pass from one transparent medium into another medium of different optical density is called ___. refraction

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #5

6. Any change in or around the body to which the nervous system reacts is called a/an ___. stimulus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #6

7. The receptors for touch, heat, pressure, vision, and hearing are classified as ___ because they sense stimuli that arise external to the body. exteroceptors

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #7

8. The sharpest or most detailed daytime vision occurs in a region of the retina called the ___. fovea centralis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #8

9. All receptors specialized to detect changes in temperature are called ___. thermoreceptors

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #9

10. The gustatory and olfactory senses are more commonly called ___ and ___, respectively. taste; smell

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #10

11. The posterior chamber of the eye is filled with gelatinous vitreous humor. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #11

12. There are no rod cells in the fovea centralis. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #12

13. There are no cone cells in the optic disc. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #13

14. A sound of 30 db is 1,000 times as loud as the minimum sound audible to humans. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #14

15. Three otoliths transfer vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the ear. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #15

16. When they are not being stimulated by light, rod cells secrete a neurotransmitter that inhibits the bipolar neurons. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #16

17. Taste cells are not neurons. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #17

18. Olfactory cells are not neurons. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #18

19. Taste cells are also known as lingual papillae. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #19

20. In vision, the cornea refracts light rays more than the lens does. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #20

21. Each cone cell has three types of pigments specialized to absorb light in three different regions of the visible spectrum. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #21

22. Rod cells release neurotransmitter in the dark and stop releasing it when they absorb light. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #22

23. Optic nerve fibers end at synapses in the optic chiasma. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #23

24. Signals for different stimulus intensities follow different projection pathways to the brain, enabling the brain to distinguish strong from weak stimuli. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #24

25. Many stimuli produce physiological responses without producing sensations. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

ampulla bipolar cells cochlea corpus calosum detect rotational acceleration general senses otoliths photopupillary reflex rods special senses stapes vitreous humor

aqueous humor bleaching cones detect equilibrium detect sound optic chiasma oval window photoreceptors semicircular ducts stapedius stereoscopic vision

Saladin - 016 Chapter...

26. Substance found in the posterior chamber of the eye is known as ________. aqueous humor

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #26

27. Effect of light on 11-cis retinal is known as ________. bleaching

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #27

28. Color vision receptors are known as ________. cones

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #28

29. This helps protect the inner ear from being damaged by loud noises. stapedius

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #29

30. Vision, hearing, taste, smell, and equilibrium :: special senses

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #30

31. Organ of hearing is known as ________. cochlea

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #31

32. All these cells contain the same visual pigment. rods

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #32

33. Calcium carbonate-protein granules in the macula sacculi and macula utriculi. otoliths

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #33

34. Point where some fibers from the right eye cross over to the left brain. optic chiasma

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #34

35. Function of the semicircular ducts. detect rotational acceleration

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #35

36. Taste cells produce all of the following sensations except A. spicy. B. salty. C. bitter. D. sweet. E. sour.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #36

37. Which of the following is not characteristic of rod vision? A. low threshold B. peripheral vision C. coarse resolution D. trichromatic vision E. scotopic vision

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #37

38. Which of the following nerve endings are not found in the skin? A. proprioceptors B. Ruffini's corpuscles C. tactile corpuscles D. pacinian corpuscles E. hair receptors

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #39

40. The loudness of a sound is correlated with the ___ of the sound wave. A. pitch B. frequency C. amplitude D. wavelength E. speed

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #40

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #41

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #42

43. The sensory cells of hearing are stimulated by the ___ resting on their stereocilia. A. basilar membrane B. cupula C. vestibular membrane D. tectorial membrane E. crista ampullaris

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #43

44. Mitral cells synapse with A. rod cells. B. cone cells. C. olfactory cells. D. taste cells. E. bipolar cells.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #44

45. The semicircular ducts are filled with A. aqueous humor. B. vitreous humor. C. perilymph. D. endolymph. E. cerebrospinal fluid.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #45

46. The semicircular ducts lie within A. the middle ear cavity. B. the auditory tube. C. the membranous labyrinth. D. the vestibule. E. the semicircular canals.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #46

47. Which of the following are heat receptors? A. lamellated corpuscles B. Krause's end bulbs C. Ruffini's corpuscles D. Merkel discs E. free nerve endings

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #47

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #48

49. At normal daylight intensities, the ___ cells are nonfunctional because all their rhodopsin is bleached. A. cone B. rod C. amacrine D. bipolar E. corneal

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #49

50. We sense rotary movements of the head when the endolymph pushes on a gelatinous cap called the ___ in a semicircular duct. A. otolith B. papilla C. cupula D. utricle E. saccule

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #50

51. Which of the following is part of the fibrous tunic of the eye? A. the rods B. the choroid C. the sclera D. the retina E. the vitreous body

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #52

53. The footplate of the stapes covers an opening called A. the auditory canal. B. the auditory tube. C. the oval window. D. the round window. E. the crista ampullaris.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #53

54. Stereocilia with tip links are involved in the sense of A. taste. B. smell. C. proprioception. D. linear acceleration. E. hearing.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #54

55. When you view objects close to the eye, the eye makes an adjustment called A. emmetropia. B. accommodation. C. refraction. D. myopia. E. diplopia.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #55

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #56

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #57

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #58

59. Taste buds are found on all the lingual papillae except for the ___ type. A. fungiform B. filiform C. foliate D. vallate E. circumvallate

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #59

60. The gustatory nucleus, which receives taste signals from the tongue, is in A. the temporal lobe. B. the parietal lobe. C. the medulla oblongata. D. the pons. E. the cerebellum.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #60

61. Nerve fibers of the olfactory tracts lead to A. the temporal lobes. B. the thalamus. C. the parietal lobes. D. the precentral gyrus. E. the midbrain.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #61

62. Humans can hear sounds ranging in frequency A. from 5 to 20 Hz. B. from 20 to 50 Hz. C. from 50 to 1,000 Hz. D. from 20 to 20,000 Hz. E. from 100 to 100,000 Hz.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #62

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #63

64. The ___ is attached to the medial side of the tympanic membrane. A. malleus B. incus C. stapes D. stapedius E. tensor tympani

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #64

65. When a tip link opens the ion channel on a cochlear stereocilium, ___ ions rapidly enter and depolarize the hair cell. A. sodium B. potassium C. chloride D. calcium E. magnesium

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #65

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 016 Chapter... #66

67. Tears are produced by A. the tarsal glands. B. the lacrimal glands. C. the puncta lacrimalia. D. the lateral canthi. E. the lacrimal sac.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #67

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #68

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 016 Chapter... #70

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #71

72. The receptors most likely to detect an ant crawling on your back are A. free nerve endings. B. hair receptors. C. lamellated corpuscles. D. tactile corpuscles. E. Krause's end bulbs

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #72

73. All receptors for ___ are confined to the head and are innervated by cranial nerves. A. the special senses B. somesthetic senses C. proprioception D. exteroception E. chemoreception

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #73

74. The transmission of pain signals through the spinal cord can be prevented by A. bradykinin. B. substance P. C. acetylcholine. D. histamine. E. enkephalins.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #74

75. Some strong odors are detected by ___ instead of the olfactory cells. A. mitral cells B. olfactory hairs C. the olfactory bulbs D. the trigeminal nerve E. the olfactory tracts

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #75

76. The conversion of a sensation like touch or heat to a pattern of action potentials is called sensory A. adaptation. B. transduction. C. modality. D. amplification. E. translation.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #79

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 016 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 016 Chapter... #87

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #88

89. This chemical is released by injured tissues and is the most potent pain stimulus known. A. prostaglandins B. enkephalins C. substance P D. bradykinin E. serotonin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #90

91. The receptors for taste are located on A. cilia on neurons. B. cilia on epithelial cells. C. microvilli on neurons. D. microvilli on epithelial cells. E. stereocillia on gustatory cells.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #92

93. The threshold for this taste is the lowest for any of the tastes. A. salty B. sweet C. sour D. bitter E. spicy

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #97

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #98

99. The most finely detailed images are produced by the A. fundus. B. fovea centralis. C. optic disc. D. ora serrata. E. tapedum lucidum.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 016 Chapter... #99

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 016 Chapter... #100

Chapter 17 1. ___ is a mechanism by which a single hormone molecule can trigger the production of millions of molecules of a metabolic product. ________________________________________

2. In one second-messenger system, the cytoplasmic protein ___ acts as a receptor for calcium ions. ________________________________________

3. Eicosanoids are synthesized from a fatty acid called ___. ________________________________________

4. ___ secretions such as histamine diffuse only a short distance from the cells that secrete them, rather than traveling in the blood like hormones. ________________________________________

5. Stress is a condition that stimulates the ___ axis. ________________________________________

6. Triiodothyronine has a calorigenic effect because it stimulates the synthesis of ___. ________________________________________

7. Preproinsulin is converted to proinsulin while it is in the ___ of the  cell. ________________________________________

8. Tyrosine and tryptophan can be converted to a class of hormones called ___. ________________________________________

9. The posterior pituitary gland secretes ____ and ____. ________________________________________

10. The heart secretes a hormone called ___ that increases sodium excretion. ________________________________________

11. Growth hormone is no longer secreted after the epiphyseal plates close and growth of the long bones ceases. True False

12. The adult pineal gland is a small, shriveled remnant of the child's. True False

13. Hypoglycemic hormones are secreted in response to excessively low blood glucose levels. True False

14. Ketone bodies are products of fat catabolism. True False

15. Most people with diabetes mellitus have normal insulin levels and are not benefitted by insulin injections. True False

16. The process of up-regulation makes target cells more sensitive to a hormone. True False

17. Peptide hormones do not enter their target cells, but bind to receptors in the plasma membrane. True False

18. The production of red blood cells is stimulated by a hormone secreted by the bone marrow. True False

19. The gonads, adrenal cortex, and posterior pituitary gland secrete steroid hormones. True False

20. The ovaries can inhibit hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary. True False

21. The adrenal cortex secretes angiotensin II. True False

22. The posterior pituitary gland secretes but does not synthesize oxytocin. True False

23. The adult pituitary is connected by a stalk to the roof of the nasal cavity. True False

24. The parathyroid glands promote bone growth by stimulating calcium deposition. True False

25. The target organ for thyrotropin-releasing hormone is the thyroid gland. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

acceptor site adrenal medulla C peptide Cushing's syndrome eicosanoids growth hormone leader sequence myedema tetraiodothyronine thyrotropin tyrosine

Addison's disease bone marrow calcium dopamine endemic goiter inositol triphosphate lymphokines pineal gland thymus tryptophan

26. This results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone. ________________________________________

27. Second messenger that comes from the extracellular fluid is known as ________. ________________________________________

28. Region of the chromatin that binds a given hormone. ________________________________________

29. The amino acid sequence removed from proinsulin to leave insulin. ________________________________________

30. The amino acid precursor of thyroid hormones is known as ________. ________________________________________

31. A thyroid hormone. ________________________________________

32. Hyposecretion of this hormone can cause dwarfism and hypersecretion can cause gigantism. ________________________________________

33. This is caused by hypersecretion of cortisol. ________________________________________

34. Source of hormones that stimulate lymphocyte activity. ________________________________________

35. An effect of a dietary iodine deficiency. ________________________________________

36. Neuroendocrine cells are A. neurons that regulate secretion by the endocrine glands. B. neurons that release hormones into the bloodstream. C. neurons whose activity is regulated by hormones. D. endocrine cells that respond to neurotransmitters. E. endocrine cells that have evolved from neurons.

37. Which of the following hormones is most similar to oxytocin in chemical structure? A. antidiuretic hormone B. estradiol C. testosterone D. insulin E. epinephrine

38. Which of the following hormones passes through the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract? A. antidiuretic hormone B. prolactin-inhibiting hormone C. adrenocorticotropic hormone D. luteinizing hormone E. thyroid-stimulating hormone

39. Which of the following hormones passes through the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system? A. antidiuretic hormone B. prolactin-inhibiting hormone C. adrenocorticotropic hormone D. luteinizing hormone E. thyroid-stimulating hormone

40. Somatotropes of the anterior pituitary gland produce A. TSH. B. ACTH. C. FSH. D. LH. E. GH.

41. Which of the following endocrine glands is located most inferiorly? A. the thyroid B. the thymus C. the adrenal gland D. the pineal body E. the pituitary gland

42. What is the target organ of corticotropin-releasing hormone? A. the thyroid gland B. the posterior pituitary C. the anterior pituitary D. the adrenal cortex E. the gonad

43. The uterus is a target organ of A. follicle stimulating hormone. B. luteinizing hormone. C. adrenocorticotropic hormone. D. oxytocin. E. gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

44. Hypersecretion of growth hormone can cause gigantism if it begins in childhood, but is more likely to cause ___ if it begins in adulthood. A. myxedema B. Grave's disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. acromegaly E. dwarfism

45. Destruction of the  cells of the pancreas would cause a loss of ___ secretion. A. adrenocorticotropin B. somatostatin C. glucagon D. somatotropin E. insulin

46. Which of the following correctly traces the four conditions from cause to effect? A. ketonuria → accelerated fat catabolism → diuresis → insulin hyposecretion B. ketonuria → insulin hyposecretion → accelerated fat catabolism → diuresis C. accelerated fat catabolism → ketonuria → diuresis → insulin hyposecretion D. insulin hyposecretion → accelerated fat catabolism → ketonuria → diuresis E. insulin hyposecretion → ketonuria → diuresis → accelerated fat catabolism

47. Noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus results when A. glucagon is able to compensate for the deficiency of insulin. B. somatostatin is able to compensate for the deficiency of insulin. C. insulin is secreted but target cells lack receptors for it. D. insulin binds to its target cells but the cAMP second-messenger system fails to work. E. excessive secretion of insulin triggers hypoglycemia.

48. Calcium metabolism is regulated by A. the pancreatic islets. B. the adrenal cortex. C. the parathyroid glands. D. the neurohypophysis. E. the thymus.

49. Which of these is a biogenic amine? A. oxytocin B. thyroxine C. insulin D. aldosterone E. cortisol

50. Most of the following hormones bind to receptors at the cell surface except ____ that binds to receptors in the nucleus. A. luteinizing hormone B. insulin C. testosterone D. growth hormone E. angiotensin

51. If one hormone makes a target cell more responsive to another hormone that follows later, the first hormone is said to have a ___ effect. A. facilitating B. synergistic C. catalytic D. cooperative E. permissive

52. In ___, target cells reduce the number of receptors for a hormone in response to long-term overstimulation. A. habituation B. down-regulation C. the synergistic response D. the antagonistic response E. desensitization

53. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by A. the ovaries. B. the testes. C. the hypothalamus. D. the adrenal gland. E. the anterior pituitary.

54. There are hormones in all of the following classes of organic compounds except A. polysaccharides. B. polypeptides. C. glycoproteins. D. biogenic amines. E. steroids.

55. The polypeptide precursor that is split up to form endorphins also forms A. insulin. B. ACTH. C. melatonin. D. ADH. E. FSH.

56. Which of the following hormones has the broadest range of target organs? A. somatotropin B. FSH C. TSH D. ADH E. ACTH

57. The neurotransmitter dopamine is also known as ___ for its endocrine role. A. prolactin B. prolactin-releasing factor C. prolactin-inhibiting factor D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone E. norepinephrine

58. Neurons called osmoreceptors trigger the secretion of A. eicosanoids. B. growth hormone-inhibiting hormone. C. adrenocorticotropic hormone. D. antidiuretic hormone. E. glucagon.

59. Negative feedback inhibition occurs when A. TRH stimulates the anterior pituitary. B. TRH causes the anterior pituitary to release TSH. C. TRH stimulates the thyroid gland. D. TSH stimulates the thyroid gland. E. thyroxine stimulates the anterior pituitary.

60. Insulinlike growth factors, or somatomedins, are secreted in response to A. insulin. B. growth hormone. C. thyroid hormone. D. testosterone. E. estrogens.

61. A lack of antidiuretic hormone causes A. osmotic diuresis. B. diabetes mellitus. C. diabetes insipidus. D. acromegaly. E. Cushing's syndrome.

62. Two glands are especially noted for regressing after childhood, namely A. the anterior and posterior pituitary. B. the thymus and pineal. C. the adrenal cortex and medulla. D. the thyroid and parathyroids. E. the thymus and thyroid.

63. Parathyroid hormone is antagonized by A. antidiuretic hormone. B. aldosterone. C. adrenocorticotropic hormone. D. thyroid hormone. E. calcitonin.

64. The adrenal cortex secretes all of the following hormones except A. androgens. B. estrogens. C. aldosterone. D. progesterone. E. corticosterone.

65. All of the following hormones suppress secretion by the anterior pituitary except A. inhibin. B. somatostatin. C. tetraiodothyronine. D. oxytocin. E. dopamine.

66. Thyroxine-binding globulin is A. a receptor for T4 found in its target cell nuclei. B. a receptor for T4 found in its target cell plasma membranes. C. a releasing factor that stimulates secretion of thyroxine. D. a colloid found in the thyroid follicles. E. a transport protein in the blood plasma.

67. Rather than being synthesized in the cell like other second messengers, ___ enters the cell through the plasma membrane. A. calcium B. cAMP C. IP3 D. sodium E. diacylglycerol

68. Suppose 1 molecule of hormone X activated 10 G proteins, each G protein activated 10 adenylate cyclase molecules, each adenylate cyclase made 1,000 cAMP molecules, and each cAMP activated 1,000 enzyme molecules. This would be a case of A. negative feedback inhibition. B. enzyme amplification. C. up-regulation. D. a synergistic effect. E. hypersecretion.

69. Hydrophobic hormones are transported in the blood A. by binding to the red blood cells. B. by binding to hydrophilic transport proteins. C. in the form of hydrophilic salts. D. as hydrophilic preprohormones. E. contained in secretory vesicles.

70. One of the enzymes that shuts off a hormone's stimulatory effect is A. adenylate cyclase. B. phospholipase. C. cyclooxygenase. D. acetylcholinesterase. E. phosphodiesterase.

71. The endocrine gland most affected by stress is A. the thymus. B. the thyroid. C. the adrenal cortex. D. the parathyroids. E. the neurohypophysis.

72. Hormones are released A. across gap junctions. B. into ducts. C. into extracellular fluid. D. directly into the bloodstream. E. into intracellular fluid.

73. The nervous system reacts to stimuli _____ compared to the endocrine system, adapts _____ compared to the endocrine system, and has _____ effects compared to the endocrine system. A. slowly; slowly; widespread B. quickly; slowly; specific C. quickly; quickly; widespread D. quickly; quickly; specific E. slowly; quickly; specific

74. Epinephrine (EP), norepinephrine (NE), cortisol, and aldosterone are all produced in the A. hypothalamus. B. adrenal glands. C. thyroid gland. D. pancreas. E. pituitary gland.

75. The pituitary gland (hypophysis) is connected to the hypothalamus by the _____ and is housed in the _____. A. infundibulum; cribriform plate of the ethmoid B. optic chiasm; petrous part of the temporal bone C. infundibulum; sella turcica of the sphenoid D. mammillary body; lesser wings of the sphenoid E. optic chiasma; cribriform plate of the ethmoid

76. In the embryo, the neurohypophyseal bud gives rise to the ____, and the hypophyseal pouch gives rise to the _____. A. anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary B. anterior pituitary; hypothalamus C. hypothalamus; anterior pituitary D. posterior pituitary; anterior pituitary E. posterior pituitary; hypothalamus

77. Which one of the following is not part of the neurohypophysis? A. pars tuberalis B. posterior lobe, or pars nervosa C. hypothalamohypophyseal tract D. median eminence E. infundibulum

78. Tropic hormones are different from other hormones because they A. are produced in the hypothalamus. B. are released in response to the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). C. control the release of the hormones of the pituitary. D. stimulate other endocrine glands to release their own hormones. E. have inhibitory effects on their target tissues.

79. In response to stress, the adrenal cortex releases cortisol. What stimulates the release of cortisol? A. hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) to the posterior pituitary, which releases OT B. posterior pituitary releases thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) to the anterior pituitary, which releases ACTH C. hypothalamus releases CRH to the anterior pituitary, which releases ACTH D. anterior pituitary releases ACTH to the hypothalamus, which releases CRH E. hypothalamus releases ACTH to the anterior pituitary which releases CRH

80. In response to cold weather, the hypothalamus releases _____, which is carried by the _____ to the anterior pituitary where it causes the release of _____. A. thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH); hypothalamohypophyseal portal system; thyroid hormones (TH) B. thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH); hypothalamohypophyseal portal system; thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. oxytocin (OT); hypothalamohypophyseal tract; growth hormone (GH) D. prolactin (PRL); hypothalamohypophyseal portal system; milk E. TSH; hypothalamohypophyseal tract; thyroid hormone

81. An infant suckling at a mother's breast will stimulate the mother's hypothalamus to release _____, which is carried down the ____ and stimulates ____. A. prolactin (PRL); hypothalamohypophyseal portal system; milk production B. oxytocin (OT); hypothalamohypophyseal portal system; milk ejection C. OT; hypothalamohypophyseal tract; milk ejection D. PRL; hypothalamohypophyseal tract; milk production E. PRL; hypothalamohypophyseal portal system; milk production

82. Prolactin (PRL) in females stimulates _____, and in males stimulates ______. A. production of milk; production of sperm B. production of milk; production of testosterone C. ejection of milk into ducts; production of sperm D. ejection of milk into ducts; production of testosterone E. ejection of milk; ejaculation

83. In females, the luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates _____, while in males, LH stimulates ______. A. development of eggs; sperm production B. development of eggs; secretion of testosterone C. ovulation; sperm production D. ovulation; secretion of testosterone E. corpus luteum formation; sperm production

84. This hormone enhances amino acid transport into cells and increases protein synthesis, catabolizes fat for energy, and promotes glycogen synthesis. A. cortisol B. insulin C. growth hormone (GH) D. thyroid hormone (TH) E. glucagon

85. Pituitary hormones are not secreted at a steady rate. GH is secreted mainly _____, while PRL is secreted mainly _____. A. at night; during labor B. at night; during pregnancy and nursing C. at midday; during labor D. in the morning; during pregnancy and nursing E. in the morning; during labor

86. If you have seasonal affective disorder (SAD), which is a mood dysfunction, you would have high levels of _____ and low levels of _____. A. epinephrine (EP); cortisol B. cortisol; epinephrine (EP) C. melatonin; serotonin D. melatonin; cortisol E. cortisol; melatonin

87. The thymus secretes the hormones _____, which regulate ______. A. EP and NE; the alarm reaction B. cortisol and corticosterone; the stress response C. thymopoietin and thymosin; T lymphocytes D. glucagon and insulin; blood glucose levels E. triiodothyronine; tetraiodothyronine

88. The thyroid follicles store and secrete _____, while the C cells secrete _____. A. thyroid hormones; calcitonin B. thymosin; calcitonin C. thyroid hormones; cortisol D. parathyroid hormone; cortisol E. calcitonin; thyroid hormones

89. The two thyroid hormones (TH) are T3 and T4. The "3" and "4" refer to number of A. oxygen atoms. B. iron atoms. C. iodine atoms. D. calcium atoms. E. tyrosine amino acids.

90. In the formation of the thyroid hormones, 90% of the secreted thyroid hormone is _____, while _____ is the thyroid hormone that affects target cells. A. thyroxine; T4 B. thyroglobulin; T3 C. T4; T3 D. T3; T4 E. thyroxine; thyroglobulin

91. Some major functions of the thyroid hormones (TH) are to stimulate which of the following? A. gluconeogenesis; glycogen and fat break down; release of glucose and fatty acids into circulation B. ATP production; oxygen consumption and heat production; stimulates nervous system and skeletal development C. glucose and amino acid uptake into most tissues; promotes glycogen, fat, and protein synthesis D. fat and protein catabolism; inhibits immune system E. glycogen synthesis; muscle hypertrophy

92. These two hormones both stimulate glycogenolysis and increase glucose levels in the blood. A. glucagon and epinephrine B. insulin and epinephrine C. growth hormone and insulin D. cortisol and glucagon E. epinephrine and growth hormone

93. This hormone stimulates glucose uptake, storage of glycogen, and storage of fat in muscle and adipose tissue. It also stimulates uptake of amino acids and protein synthesis in many cells. A. GH B. insulin C. thyroxine D. cortisol E. glucagon

94. In the ovary, follicle, or granulosa cells secrete _____, while after ovulation the corpus luteum secretes _____. A. estradiol; estradiol and progesterone B. progesterone; estradiol C. estradiol; progesterone D. estradiol and progesterone; estradiol E. progesterone; estradiol and estrone

95. In the testes, the sustentacular (sertoli) cells secrete _____, and the interstitial cells secrete _____. A. inhibin and progesterone; testosterone B. progesterone; testosterone and inhibin C. testosterone; inhibin D. inhibin; testosterone E. estrogen; testosterone

96. T4 and T3 are _____ hormones that are carried _____ in the blood. A. monoamines; by thyroxine-binding globulin B. monoamines; unbound or free C. steroids; by transcortin-binding protein D. steroids; unbound or free E. catecholamines; by thyroxine-binding globulin

97. The stress response, or general adaptation syndrome (GAS), primarily involves the elevated levels of these two hormones. A. aldosterone and EP B. EP and NE C. EP and cortisol D. cortisol and aldosterone E. NE and aldosterone

98. The stage of exhaustion in the stress response occurs after months of stress, and the body's homeostatic conditions deteriorate rapidly when A. the glycogen supplies are depleted. B. the energy demands are met primarily by fat metabolism. C. the energy demands are met primarily by protein metabolism. D. ATP can no longer be generated from mitochondria. E. the energy demands are met primarily by carbohydrate metabolism.

99. Eicosanoids are a family of paracrine secretions derived from _____ that is released from the _____. A. leukotrienes; adrenal cortex B. prostacyclin; smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. arachidonic acid; cell membrane D. prostaglandin; prostate gland E. cholesterol; adipocytes

100. President John F. Kennedy had this disease whose symptoms include: inability to maintain glucose levels between meals, plasma Na+ levels drop, blood pH decreases, K+ levels increase, weight loss, and muscular weakness. These are symptoms of A. diabetes mellitus, type I. B. hypoadrenalism, or Addison's disease. C. hyperadrenalism, or Cushing's syndrome. D. hyperthyroidism, or Grave's disease. E. hypothyroidism; myxedema.

17 Key

1. ___ is a mechanism by which a single hormone molecule can trigger the production of millions of molecules of a metabolic product. Enzyme amplification

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #1

2. In one second-messenger system, the cytoplasmic protein ___ acts as a receptor for calcium ions. calmodulin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #2

3. Eicosanoids are synthesized from a fatty acid called ___. arachidonic acid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #3

4. ___ secretions such as histamine diffuse only a short distance from the cells that secrete them, rather than traveling in the blood like hormones. Paracrine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #4

5. Stress is a condition that stimulates the ___ axis. pituitary-adrenal

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #5

6. Triiodothyronine has a calorigenic effect because it stimulates the synthesis of ___. Na+-K+ ATPase

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #6

7. Preproinsulin is converted to proinsulin while it is in the ___ of the  cell. rough endoplasmic reticulum

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #7

8. Tyrosine and tryptophan can be converted to a class of hormones called ___. monoamines (biogenic amines)

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #8

9. The posterior pituitary gland secretes ____ and ____. oxytocin; antidiuretic hormone

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #9

10. The heart secretes a hormone called ___ that increases sodium excretion. atrial natriuretic factor

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #10

11. Growth hormone is no longer secreted after the epiphyseal plates close and growth of the long bones ceases. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #11

12. The adult pineal gland is a small, shriveled remnant of the child's. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #12

13. Hypoglycemic hormones are secreted in response to excessively low blood glucose levels. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #13

14. Ketone bodies are products of fat catabolism. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #14

15. Most people with diabetes mellitus have normal insulin levels and are not benefitted by insulin injections. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #15

16. The process of up-regulation makes target cells more sensitive to a hormone. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #16

17. Peptide hormones do not enter their target cells, but bind to receptors in the plasma membrane. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #17

18. The production of red blood cells is stimulated by a hormone secreted by the bone marrow. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #18

19. The gonads, adrenal cortex, and posterior pituitary gland secrete steroid hormones. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #19

20. The ovaries can inhibit hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #20

21. The adrenal cortex secretes angiotensin II. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #21

22. The posterior pituitary gland secretes but does not synthesize oxytocin. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #22

23. The adult pituitary is connected by a stalk to the roof of the nasal cavity. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #23

24. The parathyroid glands promote bone growth by stimulating calcium deposition. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #24

25. The target organ for thyrotropin-releasing hormone is the thyroid gland. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

acceptor site adrenal medulla C peptide Cushing's syndrome eicosanoids growth hormone leader sequence myedema tetraiodothyronine thyrotropin tyrosine

Addison's disease bone marrow calcium dopamine endemic goiter inositol triphosphate lymphokines pineal gland thymus tryptophan

Saladin - 017 Chapter...

26. This results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone. myedema

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #26

27. Second messenger that comes from the extracellular fluid is known as ________. calcium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #27

28. Region of the chromatin that binds a given hormone. acceptor site

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #28

29. The amino acid sequence removed from proinsulin to leave insulin. C peptide

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #29

30. The amino acid precursor of thyroid hormones is known as ________. tyrosine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #30

31. A thyroid hormone. tetraiodothyronine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #31

32. Hyposecretion of this hormone can cause dwarfism and hypersecretion can cause gigantism. growth hormone

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #32

33. This is caused by hypersecretion of cortisol. Cushing's syndrome

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #33

34. Source of hormones that stimulate lymphocyte activity. thymus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #34

35. An effect of a dietary iodine deficiency. endemic goiter

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #35

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #36

37. Which of the following hormones is most similar to oxytocin in chemical structure? A. antidiuretic hormone B. estradiol C. testosterone D. insulin E. epinephrine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #37

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #39

40. Somatotropes of the anterior pituitary gland produce A. TSH. B. ACTH. C. FSH. D. LH. E. GH.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #40

41. Which of the following endocrine glands is located most inferiorly? A. the thyroid B. the thymus C. the adrenal gland D. the pineal body E. the pituitary gland

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #41

42. What is the target organ of corticotropin-releasing hormone? A. the thyroid gland B. the posterior pituitary C. the anterior pituitary D. the adrenal cortex E. the gonad

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #42

43. The uterus is a target organ of A. follicle stimulating hormone. B. luteinizing hormone. C. adrenocorticotropic hormone. D. oxytocin. E. gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #43

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #44

45. Destruction of the  cells of the pancreas would cause a loss of ___ secretion. A. adrenocorticotropin B. somatostatin C. glucagon D. somatotropin E. insulin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #45

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 017 Chapter... #46

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #47

48. Calcium metabolism is regulated by A. the pancreatic islets. B. the adrenal cortex. C. the parathyroid glands. D. the neurohypophysis. E. the thymus.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #48

49. Which of these is a biogenic amine? A. oxytocin B. thyroxine C. insulin D. aldosterone E. cortisol

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #49

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #50

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #52

53. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by A. the ovaries. B. the testes. C. the hypothalamus. D. the adrenal gland. E. the anterior pituitary.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #53

54. There are hormones in all of the following classes of organic compounds except A. polysaccharides. B. polypeptides. C. glycoproteins. D. biogenic amines. E. steroids.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #54

55. The polypeptide precursor that is split up to form endorphins also forms A. insulin. B. ACTH. C. melatonin. D. ADH. E. FSH.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #55

56. Which of the following hormones has the broadest range of target organs? A. somatotropin B. FSH C. TSH D. ADH E. ACTH

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #56

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #57

58. Neurons called osmoreceptors trigger the secretion of A. eicosanoids. B. growth hormone-inhibiting hormone. C. adrenocorticotropic hormone. D. antidiuretic hormone. E. glucagon.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #58

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #59

60. Insulinlike growth factors, or somatomedins, are secreted in response to A. insulin. B. growth hormone. C. thyroid hormone. D. testosterone. E. estrogens.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #60

61. A lack of antidiuretic hormone causes A. osmotic diuresis. B. diabetes mellitus. C. diabetes insipidus. D. acromegaly. E. Cushing's syndrome.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #61

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #62

63. Parathyroid hormone is antagonized by A. antidiuretic hormone. B. aldosterone. C. adrenocorticotropic hormone. D. thyroid hormone. E. calcitonin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #63

64. The adrenal cortex secretes all of the following hormones except A. androgens. B. estrogens. C. aldosterone. D. progesterone. E. corticosterone.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 017 Chapter... #64

65. All of the following hormones suppress secretion by the anterior pituitary except A. inhibin. B. somatostatin. C. tetraiodothyronine. D. oxytocin. E. dopamine.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #65

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #66

67. Rather than being synthesized in the cell like other second messengers, ___ enters the cell through the plasma membrane. A. calcium B. cAMP C. IP3 D. sodium E. diacylglycerol

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70. One of the enzymes that shuts off a hormone's stimulatory effect is A. adenylate cyclase. B. phospholipase. C. cyclooxygenase. D. acetylcholinesterase. E. phosphodiesterase.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #70

71. The endocrine gland most affected by stress is A. the thymus. B. the thyroid. C. the adrenal cortex. D. the parathyroids. E. the neurohypophysis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #71

72. Hormones are released A. across gap junctions. B. into ducts. C. into extracellular fluid. D. directly into the bloodstream. E. into intracellular fluid.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #72

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74. Epinephrine (EP), norepinephrine (NE), cortisol, and aldosterone are all produced in the A. hypothalamus. B. adrenal glands. C. thyroid gland. D. pancreas. E. pituitary gland.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 017 Chapter... #74

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77. Which one of the following is not part of the neurohypophysis? A. pars tuberalis B. posterior lobe, or pars nervosa C. hypothalamohypophyseal tract D. median eminence E. infundibulum

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89. The two thyroid hormones (TH) are T3 and T4. The "3" and "4" refer to number of A. oxygen atoms. B. iron atoms. C. iodine atoms. D. calcium atoms. E. tyrosine amino acids.

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Chapter 18 1. The production of blood cells and platelets is called ___. ________________________________________

2. An abnormally low concentration of oxygen in the bloodstream is called ___. ________________________________________

3. The red color of erythrocytes comes from the pigment ___. ________________________________________

4. Most clotting factors are plasma proteins synthesized by the ___. ________________________________________

5. A blood clot that breaks free and travels in the blood stream is called a/an ___. ________________________________________

6. The clumping of RBCs by antibodies is called ___, whereas the clumping of RBCs by fibrin is called ___. ________________________________________

7. Leukemia patients are vulnerable to ___ infections, caused by pathogens that take advantage of people with impaired immune systems. ________________________________________

8. All mechanisms for stopping bleeding are collectively called ___. ________________________________________

9. Lymphocytes and monocytes are classified as ___ to distinguish them from the other three types of leukocytes. ________________________________________

10. Platelet aggregation is accompanied by ___, the release of platelet secretions by exocytosis. ________________________________________

11. A deficiency of oxygen is one of the leading causes of anemia. True False

12. Hemostasis is another term for blood clotting. True False

13. A person can have a normal RBC count, yet still be anemic. True False

14. Rh+ women do not have babies with hemolytic disease of the newborn. True False

15. Bile pigments are produced by the breakdown of the globin part of hemoglobin. True False

16. The hematocrit of a man is always higher than the hematocrit of a woman. True False

17. The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting differ from each other only up to the point where factor X is activated. True False

18. Removing the iron from solution as soon as blood is drawn will prevent the blood from clotting. True False

19. Most hemophilia is due to a hereditary lack of factor VIII. True False

20. In myelocytic leukemia, there is uncontrolled production of a large number of immature lymphocytes. True False

21. A type B person's blood plasma will not agglutinate a type A person's erythrocytes. True False

22. A man with blood type B+ cannot be the father of a baby with blood type O-. True False

23. An Rh- woman's second or third baby is more likely to have hemolytic disease of the newborn than her first baby. True False

24. Sickle-cell disease is caused by a dominant allele that alters the structure of b hemoglobin. True False

25. Albumin is the most abundant protein in the blood plasma. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions. ABagglutinogens B+ ferritin globin hematoma hemocytoblast hemophilia kernicterus macrophage neutrophils RBC count

agglutinins aplastic anemia basophils gastroferritin hematocrit heme hemolysis jaundice leukemia megakaryocyte pernicious anemia transferrin

26. This binds to ferrous ions in the stomach. ________________________________________

27. Platelet-producing cell are known as ________. ________________________________________

28. The percent of whole blood composed of erythrocytes is known as ________. ________________________________________

29. A bruise or mass of clotted blood in a tissue is known as ________. ________________________________________

30. The rarest ABO/Rh blood type in the United States is known as ________. ________________________________________

31. Erythrocyte antigens that determine a person's ABO blood type are known as ________. ________________________________________

32. This is a source of histamine. ________________________________________

33. Results from a hereditary lack of intrinsic factor is known as ________. ________________________________________

34. The nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin is known as ________. ________________________________________

35. Brain damage resulting from elevated bilirubin levels is known as ________. ________________________________________

36. Which of these is not found in blood? A. glycogen B. fibrinogen C. glucose D. urea E. albumin

37. Blood has all of the following functions except A. nutrient transport. B. heat transfer. C. clotting. D. hormone production. E. pH buffering.

38. Blood serum is essentially the same as blood plasma, except that plasma contains ___ and serum does not. A. platelets. B. nitrogenous wastes. C. fibrinogen. D. glucose. E. albumin.

39. Leukopoiesis is A. a procedure for separating blood cells from plasma. B. a process that stimulates a hormone blood cell formation. C. the production of white blood cells. D. the process in which white blood cells attack foreign cells. E. a process that stops blood loss when a vessel is broken.

40. Erythrocytes transport oxygen and serve to A. defend the body against pathogens. B. initiate blood clotting. C. regulate erythropoiesis. D. transport nutrients. E. transport carbon dioxide.

41. The ___ is especially involved in breaking up old erythrocytes and disposing of the cellular remains. A. spleen B. bone marrow C. lung D. heart E. kidney

42. The enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin is A. thrombin. B. prothrombin. C. fibrinolysin. D. thromboplastin. E. thrombolysin.

43. A deficiency of circulating leukocytes is called A. leukocytosis. B. leukemia. C. polycythemia. D. leukopenia. E. oligoleukosis.

44. ___ is secreted in response to hypoxia and produces a negative feedback loop that raises the oxygen concentration of the blood. A. Aldosterone B. Hemopoietin C. Heparin D. Angiotensin E. Erythropoietin

45. The viscosity of blood is due more to ___ than to any other factor. A. fibrin B. albumin C. sodium D. erythrocytes E. hydrogen bonding

46. Which of the following ions serves as a cofactor in blood clotting? A. Ca2+ B. Na+ C. Fe2+ D. Fe3+ E. Mg2+

47. Which of these is least likely to result from severe chronic anemia? A. cardiac stress B. high blood pressure C. tissue necrosis D. low blood viscosity E. hypoxemia

48. Which of the following agents opposes coagulation? A. thrombin B. vitamin K C. thromboplastin D. Hageman factor E. heparin

49. Which of the following blood components is not a protein? A. ferritin B. creatinine C. albumin D. antibodies E. prothrombin

50. An emergency room patient has been in an automobile accident. He is unconscious and his medical history is unknown, but he is found to have blood type B+. He needs blood, and only the following types are available. Which would be the safest to administer? A. OB. AC. A+ D. ABE. AB+

51. Which of the following could result from an overly zealous program of exercise? A. mononucleosis B. polycythemia C. leukopenia D. leukocytosis E. hypoplastic anemia

52. When platelets degranulate, they release a vasoconstrictor called ___, which aids in hemostasis. A. epinephrine B. thromboxane C. serotonin D. prostacyclin E. heparin

53. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are A. lymphocytes. B. monocytes. C. basophils. D. neutrophils. E. eosinophils.

54. ___ is a bile pigment formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin from expired erythrocytes. A. Apoferritin B. Transferrin C. Heme D. HbF E. Biliverdin

55. ___ are formed elements of the blood that are not and never were true cells. A. Platelets B. Antibodies C. Erythrocytes D. Neutrophils E. Monocytes

56. Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called A. albumins. B.  globulins. C.  globulins. D. isoenzymes. E. procoagulants.

57. It would be impossible for a type O+ baby to have a/an ___ father. A. B+ B. OC. O+ D. A+ E. AB-

58. Which of the following is not a component of hemostasis? A. platelet plug formation B. vasoconstriction C. agglutination D. degranulation E. clot retraction

59. Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a hormone that is secreted by A. the pituitary gland. B. the bone marrow. C. the kidneys. D. the thymus. E. the spleen.

60. Any form of anemia that results from an excessive rate of erythrocyte destruction is classified as A. pernicious anemia. B. malicious anemia. C. hemorrhagic anemia. D. hemolytic anemia. E. hypoplastic anemia.

61. Tissue macrophages develop from A. monocytes. B. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. C. lymphocytes. D. neutrophils. E. basophils.

62. Which of the following correctly matches an iron-binding protein to its site of action? A. ferritin-stomach B. gastroferritin-bloodstream C. transferrin-bloodstream D. transferrin-liver E. apoferritin-stomach

63. Which of the following cells is in a different lineage than all the rest? A. proerythroblast B. erythroblast C. myeloblast D. normoblast E. reticulocyte

64. Which of the following cells is far larger than all the others? A. macrophage B. monocyte C. large lymphocyte D. erythrocyte E. megakaryocyte

65. In the hemoglobin molecule, the ferrous ion is bound to A. globin moieties. B. nitrogen atoms. C. carbon atoms. D. sulfur atoms. E. amino acids.

66. In hemostasis, thromboplastin A. initiates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. B. initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. C. converts prothrombin to thrombin. D. acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to reduce blood loss. E. dissolves the clot after the tissue has healed.

67. When a clot is no longer needed, it is dissolved by A. prothrombin. B. thromboplastin. C. plasmin. D. kallikrein. E. PDGF.

68. Hematocrit is the percent volume of ______ and averages about ______ percent. A. leukocytes; 55 B. platelets; 45 C. erythrocytes; 45 D. monocytes; 55 E. lymphocytes; 50

69. An individual has a white blood cell count of 25,000 cells/L. You could assume that the individual may have A. major problems clotting. B. a severe infection. C. polycythemia. D. no problems since this count is normal. E. leukemia

70. You have all seen movies of people stranded in the ocean aboard lifeboats. The people are surrounded by water yet they cannot drink the seawater. The seawater would A. decrease the blood osmolarity, and the tissues would become more hydrated. B. increase the blood osmolarity, and the tissues would become more dehydrated. C. destroy red blood cells, and the tissues would become deprived of oxygen. D. destroy white blood cells, and the body's immune system would become compromised. E. destroy platelets, and blood clotting would be compromised.

71. Most people have been to the hospital and have seen people hooked up by an IV to a plastic bag containing various solutions. One of the most common solutions used in an IV is normal saline. If you looked at the bag of normal saline, you would expect its salinity to be about ____%. A. 0 B. 0.9 C. 5 D. 10 E. 90

72. The mean temperature of the blood is _____º F. A. 96.8 B. 97.5 C. 98.6 D. 100.4 E. 101.6

73. The most common nutrient in the blood is _____; the most common electrolyte is _____; and the most common nitrogenous waste is _____. A. protein; Na+; urea B. glucose; Ca++; creatinine C. amino acid; Cl-; ammonia D. lipid; K+; uric acid E. cholesterol; Na+; creatine

74. TBG, transcortin, transferrin, and ceruloplasmin are all examples of A. albumins. B. globulins. C. lipoproteins. D. fibrinogens. E. glycoproteins.

75. RhoGAM is an antibody given to Rh- women who give birth to a Rh+ child. RhoGAM is what type of plasma protein? A. alpha () globulin B. beta () globulin C. gamma () globulin D. fibrinogen E. albumin

76. These plasma proteins are made in the liver and form a major component of blood clots. A. albumin B.  and  globulins C.  globulins D. fibrinogen E. platelets

77. What would be the benefit of giving intravenous albumin to a patient who has experienced fluid loss and low blood volume? A. Albumin increases colloid osmotic pressure. B. Albumin increases the clotting reaction to prevent more fluid loss. C. Albumin forms antibodies, which will provide immune protection against bacteria, fungi, and viruses. D. Albumin carries prothrombin to the injured area, and prothrombin activates to thrombin, which rapidly stimulates clotting. E. Albumin decreases blood pressure.

78. In the adult, blood formation occurs in the A. liver and red bone marrow. B. liver, spleen, and red bone marrow. C. red bone marrow. D. red bone marrow and lymphoid tissues. E. red and yellow bone marrow.

79. Specialized cells called ____ produce all the formed elements. A. myeloid stem cells B. lymphoid stem cells C. proerythroblasts D. hemocytoblasts E. hemocytes

80. Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes are all derived from A. megakaryoblasts. B. granulocyte-macrophage colony-forming units. C. proerythroblasts. D. B and T progenitor cells. E. colony-stimulating factors.

81. Thrombopoietin is a hormone produced by the liver and kidneys that stimulates ____ to be committed to form _____. A. hemocytoblasts; megakaryoblasts B. hemocytoblasts; proerythroblasts C. granulocyte-macrophage colony-forming units; platelets D. B and T progenitor cells; granulocytes and monocytes E. proerythroblasts; megakaryoblasts

82. The formed elements in the blood that have one nucleus are the _____, while the formed elements that have no nucleus are the _____. A. erythrocytes and leukocytes; platelets B. leukocytes; erythrocytes and platelets C. platelets and leukocytes; erythrocytes D. platelets and erythrocytes; leukocytes E. erythrocytes; leukocytes and platelets

83. Red blood cells have two peripheral proteins, spectrin and actin, that A. bind to oxygen and carbon dioxide. B. catalyze the reaction CO2 + H2O  H2CO3. C. permit RBCs to squeeze through capillaries. D. are antigens, which determine the ABO blood type. E. are enzymes for glucose metabolism.

84. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that occurs in cigarette smoke, engine exhaust, and fumes from furnaces and space heaters. Carbon monoxide competes with _____ for the same binding site located on the _____. A. O2; amino group in globin B. O2; iron in heme C. CO2; amino group in globin D. CO2; iron in heme E. iron; amino group in globin

85. After about 120 days and 700 miles, red blood cells become fragile due to the deterioration of the peripheral protein called _____. The cell fragments are phagocytized by ____ in the spleen and liver. A. spectrin; neutrophils B. spectrin; macrophages C. actin; neutrophils D. actin; macrophages E. actin; lymphocytes

86. Macrophages in the spleen and liver will phagocytize ruptured RBCs and decompose heme into _____ and ______. A. biliverdin; iron B. amino acids; iron C. globin; biliverdin D. iron; globin E. bilirubin; globin

87. The color of bile is due to ____; the color of feces is due to ____; the color of urine is due to ____; and the color of jaundice is due to _____. A. bilirubin; urochrome; urobilinogen; biliverdin B. biliverdin; urobilinogen; urochrome; bilirubin C. bilirubin; urobilinogen; urochrome; bilirubin D. biliverdin; urochrome; urobilinogen; bilirubin E. biliverdin; urochrome; urobilinogen; biliverdin

88. An individual has type B, Rh positive blood. The individual has the _____ antigen(s) and _____ antibody(ies). A. A and Rh; B B. B and Rh; A C. B; A and Rh D. A; B and Rh E. Rh; A and B

89. A newborn baby is type B, Rh positive. The RBCs will have the _____ antigen(s) and the plasma will have _____ antibody(ies). A. A and Rh; B B. B and Rh; A C. B; A D. B and Rh; neither A nor Rh antibodies E. A and Rh; neither B nor Rh antibodies

90. Your blood type is AB, Rh positive and you are willing to give blood. In spite of a national shortage of blood, you were turned down by your local blood bank. The reason for being turned down is that your blood is A. a rare type and can only be given to AB, Rh positive recipients. B. a rare type and can only be given to O, Rh negative recipients. C. a common ABO blood type, but the Rh antigen will cause agglutination. D. a common Rh blood type, but the A and B antigens will cause agglutination. E. a rare type that can only be given to A, Rh positive and B, Rh positive recipients.

91. The universal donor is type A. AB, Rh negative. B. AB, Rh positive. C. O, Rh negative. D. O, Rh positive E. ABO negative.

92. A woman has a normal pregnancy, but the second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), or erythroblastosis fetalis. The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type _____ and both children are most likely _____. A. A, Rh negative; B, Rh positive B. A, Rh positive; B, Rh negative C. O, Rh negative; AB, Rh negative D. AB, Rh positive; O, Rh negative E. AB, Rh positive; O, Rh positive

93. The most common leukocyte is the _____, while the least common leukocyte is the _____. A. lymphocyte; monocyte B. neutrophil; basophil C. neutrophil; eosinophil D. lymphocyte; neutrophil E. monocyte; basophil

94. You are looking at differential WBC counts for two patients. One patient has a parasitic infection while the other has a viral infection. The patient with the parasitic infection would have a high ____ differential count, while the patient with a viral infection would have a high ____ differential count. A. monocyte; neutrophil B. eosinophil; monocyte C. basophil; neutrophil D. neutrophil; eosinophil E. lymphocyte; basophil

95. In a vascular spasm, the injured smooth muscles vasoconstrict and platelets release ____, which is a chemical vasoconstrictor. A. serotonin B. prostacyclin C. histamine D. plasmin E. leukotriens

96. A blood clot is composed of blood cells, platelets, and a sticky protein called A. thrombin. B. fibrin. C. prostacyclin. D. plasmin. E. interleukin.

97. Platelets and endothelial cells secrete a mitotic stimulant called platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF). PDGF stimulates the mitosis of A. platelets and endothelial cells. B. fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells. C. platelets and lymphocytes. D. monocytes and neutrophils. E. fibroblasts and endothelial cells.

98. Thrombin formation is inhibited by A. antithrombin and kallikrein. B. plasmin and heparin. C. coumarin and warfarin. D. antithrombin and heparin. E. histamine and heparin.

99. Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by clots in unbroken vessels. This condition is called ____ and pieces may break loose of the vessel wall and travel in the bloodstream as a(n) _____. A. plaque; thrombus B. embolism; thrombus C. thrombosis; embolus D. thrombosis; plaque E. plaque; embolus

100. Which one of these plasma proteins in not made in the liver? A. alpha () globulin B. beta () globulin C. gamma () globulin D. albumin E. fibrinogen

18 Key

1. The production of blood cells and platelets is called ___. hemopoiesis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #1

2. An abnormally low concentration of oxygen in the bloodstream is called ___. hypoxemia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #2

3. The red color of erythrocytes comes from the pigment ___. hemoglobin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #3

4. Most clotting factors are plasma proteins synthesized by the ___. liver

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #4

5. A blood clot that breaks free and travels in the blood stream is called a/an ___. embolus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #5

6. The clumping of RBCs by antibodies is called ___, whereas the clumping of RBCs by fibrin is called ___. agglutination; coagulation (clotting)

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #6

7. Leukemia patients are vulnerable to ___ infections, caused by pathogens that take advantage of people with impaired immune systems. opportunistic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #7

8. All mechanisms for stopping bleeding are collectively called ___. hemostasis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #8

9. Lymphocytes and monocytes are classified as ___ to distinguish them from the other three types of leukocytes. agranulocytes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #9

10. Platelet aggregation is accompanied by ___, the release of platelet secretions by exocytosis. degranulation

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #10

11. A deficiency of oxygen is one of the leading causes of anemia. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #11

12. Hemostasis is another term for blood clotting. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #12

13. A person can have a normal RBC count, yet still be anemic. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #13

14. Rh+ women do not have babies with hemolytic disease of the newborn. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #14

15. Bile pigments are produced by the breakdown of the globin part of hemoglobin. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #15

16. The hematocrit of a man is always higher than the hematocrit of a woman. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #16

17. The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting differ from each other only up to the point where factor X is activated. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #17

18. Removing the iron from solution as soon as blood is drawn will prevent the blood from clotting. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #18

19. Most hemophilia is due to a hereditary lack of factor VIII. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #19

20. In myelocytic leukemia, there is uncontrolled production of a large number of immature lymphocytes. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #20

21. A type B person's blood plasma will not agglutinate a type A person's erythrocytes. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #21

22. A man with blood type B+ cannot be the father of a baby with blood type O-. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #22

23. An Rh- woman's second or third baby is more likely to have hemolytic disease of the newborn than her first baby. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #23

24. Sickle-cell disease is caused by a dominant allele that alters the structure of b hemoglobin. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #24

25. Albumin is the most abundant protein in the blood plasma. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions. ABagglutinogens B+ ferritin globin hematoma hemocytoblast hemophilia kernicterus macrophage neutrophils RBC count

agglutinins aplastic anemia basophils gastroferritin hematocrit heme hemolysis jaundice leukemia megakaryocyte pernicious anemia transferrin

Saladin - 018 Chapter...

26. This binds to ferrous ions in the stomach. gastroferritin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #26

27. Platelet-producing cell are known as ________. megakaryocyte

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #27

28. The percent of whole blood composed of erythrocytes is known as ________. hematocrit

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #28

29. A bruise or mass of clotted blood in a tissue is known as ________. hematoma

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #29

30. The rarest ABO/Rh blood type in the United States is known as ________. AB-

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #30

31. Erythrocyte antigens that determine a person's ABO blood type are known as ________. agglutinogens

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #31

32. This is a source of histamine. basophils

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #32

33. Results from a hereditary lack of intrinsic factor is known as ________. hemophilia

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #33

34. The nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin is known as ________. heme

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #34

35. Brain damage resulting from elevated bilirubin levels is known as ________. kernicterus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #35

36. Which of these is not found in blood? A. glycogen B. fibrinogen C. glucose D. urea E. albumin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #36

37. Blood has all of the following functions except A. nutrient transport. B. heat transfer. C. clotting. D. hormone production. E. pH buffering.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #37

38. Blood serum is essentially the same as blood plasma, except that plasma contains ___ and serum does not. A. platelets. B. nitrogenous wastes. C. fibrinogen. D. glucose. E. albumin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #39

40. Erythrocytes transport oxygen and serve to A. defend the body against pathogens. B. initiate blood clotting. C. regulate erythropoiesis. D. transport nutrients. E. transport carbon dioxide.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #40

41. The ___ is especially involved in breaking up old erythrocytes and disposing of the cellular remains. A. spleen B. bone marrow C. lung D. heart E. kidney

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #41

42. The enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin is A. thrombin. B. prothrombin. C. fibrinolysin. D. thromboplastin. E. thrombolysin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #42

43. A deficiency of circulating leukocytes is called A. leukocytosis. B. leukemia. C. polycythemia. D. leukopenia. E. oligoleukosis.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #43

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #44

45. The viscosity of blood is due more to ___ than to any other factor. A. fibrin B. albumin C. sodium D. erythrocytes E. hydrogen bonding

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #45

46. Which of the following ions serves as a cofactor in blood clotting? A. Ca2+ B. Na+ C. Fe2+ D. Fe3+ E. Mg2+

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #46

47. Which of these is least likely to result from severe chronic anemia? A. cardiac stress B. high blood pressure C. tissue necrosis D. low blood viscosity E. hypoxemia

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #47

48. Which of the following agents opposes coagulation? A. thrombin B. vitamin K C. thromboplastin D. Hageman factor E. heparin

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #48

49. Which of the following blood components is not a protein? A. ferritin B. creatinine C. albumin D. antibodies E. prothrombin

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #49

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #50

51. Which of the following could result from an overly zealous program of exercise? A. mononucleosis B. polycythemia C. leukopenia D. leukocytosis E. hypoplastic anemia

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #51

52. When platelets degranulate, they release a vasoconstrictor called ___, which aids in hemostasis. A. epinephrine B. thromboxane C. serotonin D. prostacyclin E. heparin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #52

53. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are A. lymphocytes. B. monocytes. C. basophils. D. neutrophils. E. eosinophils.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #53

54. ___ is a bile pigment formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin from expired erythrocytes. A. Apoferritin B. Transferrin C. Heme D. HbF E. Biliverdin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #54

55. ___ are formed elements of the blood that are not and never were true cells. A. Platelets B. Antibodies C. Erythrocytes D. Neutrophils E. Monocytes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #55

56. Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called A. albumins. B.  globulins. C.  globulins. D. isoenzymes. E. procoagulants.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #56

57. It would be impossible for a type O+ baby to have a/an ___ father. A. B+ B. OC. O+ D. A+ E. AB-

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 018 Chapter... #57

58. Which of the following is not a component of hemostasis? A. platelet plug formation B. vasoconstriction C. agglutination D. degranulation E. clot retraction

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #58

59. Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a hormone that is secreted by A. the pituitary gland. B. the bone marrow. C. the kidneys. D. the thymus. E. the spleen.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #60

61. Tissue macrophages develop from A. monocytes. B. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. C. lymphocytes. D. neutrophils. E. basophils.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #61

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #62

63. Which of the following cells is in a different lineage than all the rest? A. proerythroblast B. erythroblast C. myeloblast D. normoblast E. reticulocyte

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #63

64. Which of the following cells is far larger than all the others? A. macrophage B. monocyte C. large lymphocyte D. erythrocyte E. megakaryocyte

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #64

65. In the hemoglobin molecule, the ferrous ion is bound to A. globin moieties. B. nitrogen atoms. C. carbon atoms. D. sulfur atoms. E. amino acids.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #65

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #66

67. When a clot is no longer needed, it is dissolved by A. prothrombin. B. thromboplastin. C. plasmin. D. kallikrein. E. PDGF.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #67

68. Hematocrit is the percent volume of ______ and averages about ______ percent. A. leukocytes; 55 B. platelets; 45 C. erythrocytes; 45 D. monocytes; 55 E. lymphocytes; 50

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #68

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 018 Chapter... #70

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #71

72. The mean temperature of the blood is _____º F. A. 96.8 B. 97.5 C. 98.6 D. 100.4 E. 101.6

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #72

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #73

74. TBG, transcortin, transferrin, and ceruloplasmin are all examples of A. albumins. B. globulins. C. lipoproteins. D. fibrinogens. E. glycoproteins.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #74

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #75

76. These plasma proteins are made in the liver and form a major component of blood clots. A. albumin B.  and  globulins C.  globulins D. fibrinogen E. platelets

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #78

79. Specialized cells called ____ produce all the formed elements. A. myeloid stem cells B. lymphoid stem cells C. proerythroblasts D. hemocytoblasts E. hemocytes

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #79

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #81

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #83

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 018 Chapter... #87

88. An individual has type B, Rh positive blood. The individual has the _____ antigen(s) and _____ antibody(ies). A. A and Rh; B B. B and Rh; A C. B; A and Rh D. A; B and Rh E. Rh; A and B

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #90

91. The universal donor is type A. AB, Rh negative. B. AB, Rh positive. C. O, Rh negative. D. O, Rh positive E. ABO negative.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #94

95. In a vascular spasm, the injured smooth muscles vasoconstrict and platelets release ____, which is a chemical vasoconstrictor. A. serotonin B. prostacyclin C. histamine D. plasmin E. leukotriens

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #95

96. A blood clot is composed of blood cells, platelets, and a sticky protein called A. thrombin. B. fibrin. C. prostacyclin. D. plasmin. E. interleukin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #97

98. Thrombin formation is inhibited by A. antithrombin and kallikrein. B. plasmin and heparin. C. coumarin and warfarin. D. antithrombin and heparin. E. histamine and heparin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 018 Chapter... #98

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 018 Chapter... #99

100. Which one of these plasma proteins in not made in the liver? A. alpha () globulin B. beta () globulin C. gamma () globulin D. albumin E. fibrinogen

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 018 Chapter... #100

Chapter 19 1. Contraction of any heart chamber is called ___. ________________________________________

2. A persistent, resting heart rate in excess of 100 beats/minute is called ___. ________________________________________

3. If the SA node fails to function, other regions of atrial myocardium called ___ take over and trigger a rhythmic heartbeat, although at a slower rate. ________________________________________

4. When the ventricles first begin to contract, there is not enough pressure in them to force the semilunar valves open, and for a moment, no blood is expelled. Therefore this phase of the cardiac cycle is called ___. ________________________________________

5. Each ventricle ejects about 75 ml of blood in one beat. This figure is called the ___. ________________________________________

6. The ventricles are said to exhibit ___ when they beat in a rapid, uncoordinated fashion and do not effectively eject blood. ________________________________________

7. The death of a patch of myocardium due to ischemia is clinically known as ___ and likely to cause a heart attack. ________________________________________

8. In the aortic arch and carotid arteries there are pressure sensors called ___, which help to monitor and regulate blood pressure. ________________________________________

9. Cardiac output is a product of ___ and ___. ________________________________________

10. Gradual depolarization of cells of the SA node, prior to the point where membrane voltage reaches the threshold, is called the ___ potential. ________________________________________

11. An increased afterload reduces the heart's ejection fraction. True False

12. If the SA node is destroyed, the heart will stop beating. True False

13. The first heart sound occurs at the same time as the P wave of the ECG. True False

14. Being larger than the right ventricle, the left ventricle pumps more blood in each beat. True False

15. The myocardium begins to relax at the end of the plateau in the action potential. True False

16. Since athletes are in better than average condition, their hearts beat faster at rest. True False

17. Cor pulmonale results when the left ventricle fails, causing blood to back up into the lungs. True False

18. Cells of the SA node exhibit a long plateau in their action potentials. True False

19. The parasympathetic nervous system has a negative chronotropic effect on the heart. True False

20. The bundle of His originates at the AV node. True False

21. The unusually long refractory period of the myocardium prevents wave summation and tetanic contraction. True False

22. Papillary muscles help to prevent prolapse of the semilunar valves. True False

23. The myocardium receives the least amount of blood when the ventricles are contracting. True False

24. The resting heart rate would be slower if not for the fact that sympathetic nerve fibers continually stimulate it. True False

25. Most blood enters the ventricles even before the atria begin to contract. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

afterload bradycardia chordae tendineae coronary sinus epicardium left atrium preload pulmonary veins stroke volume tachycardia ventricular systole

AV bundle cardiac output circumflex artery endocardium first heart sound mitral valve prolapse pulmonary arteries second heart sound superior vena cava ventricular diastole

26. This is the same as the visceral pericardium. ________________________________________

27. This helps to prevent valvular prolapse during ventricular systole. ________________________________________

28. Empties into the right atrium :: ________________________________________

29. Site of damage that could cause heart block. ________________________________________

30. Phase of the cardiac cycle in which the AV valves close. ________________________________________

31. This is caused partly by closing of the semilunar valves ________. ________________________________________

32. This receives blood that has circulated through the myocardium. ________________________________________

33. Milliliters of blood ejected by one beat of the left ventricle is known as ________. ________________________________________

34. Abnormally fast heart rate is known as ________. ________________________________________

35. End-diastolic volume is known as ________. ________________________________________

36. The coronary arteries arise from A. the proximal end of the aorta. B. the interventricular arteries. C. the myocardium. D. the coronary sulcus. E. the venae cavae.

37. In the action potential of a myocardial cell, the Ca2+ gates close A. when the pacemaker potential reaches threshold. B. when the voltage reaches its highest positive value. C. just as the cell begins to depolarize. D. at the end of the voltage plateau. E. at the end of repolarization.

38. If the electrocardiogram exhibits a nodal rhythm A. the heart is functioning normally. B. the heart is beating at a slow rate set by the AV node. C. the heart is beating at a fast rate set by the SA node. D. the heart is in ventricular fibrillation. E. there is probably a bundle branch block.

39. The average resting cardiac cycle takes about 0.8 sec, including 0.1 sec for atrial systole, 0.3 sec for ventricular systole, and 0.4 sec for A. isovolumetric relaxation. B. ventricular diastole. C. atrial diastole. D. cardiac reserve. E. the quiescent period.

40. If the heart's normal pacemaker is nonfunctional and the AV node takes over, the heart beats at a rate of 40-60 bpm called A. the endogenous rhythm. B. the chronotropic rhythm. C. the ectopic rhythm. D. the sinus rhythm. E. the nodal rhythm.

41. If the chordae tendineae of an animal's heart were cut, the most likely effect would be A. valvular stenosis. B. valvular prolapse. C. fibrillation. D. heart block. E. myocardial infarction.

42. Blood normally leaves the right ventricle through A. the pulmonary semilunar valve. B. the pulmonary tricuspid valve. C. the tricuspid valve. D. the bicuspid valve. E. the aortic semilunar valve.

43. A heart rate of 45 bpm and an absence of P waves from the electrocardiogram would suggest A. ventricular fibrillation. B. cardiac arrhythmia. C. a bundle branch block. D. cor pulmonale. E. damage to the SA node.

44. The fast-rising phase of the SA node action potential is due to A. the opening of slow calcium channels. B. the closing of potassium channels. C. calcium influx. D. potassium influx. E. potassium efflux.

45. A friction rub results from A. a myocardial infarction. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. valvular insufficiency. D. an excessive afterload. E. a deficiency of pericardial fluid.

46. The electrical synchrony of the ventricular myocardium results from A. the gap junctions of the intercalated discs. B. the desmosomes of the intercalated discs. C. the simultaneous firing of the SA and AV nodes. D. the internodal pathways. E. the fibrous skeleton.

47. The amount of blood (mL) coming from one ventricle in one heartbeat is called A. the ejection fraction. B. the preload. C. the afterload. D. the stroke volume. E. the cardiac output.

48. Atrial systole begins A. immediately before the P wave. B. immediately after the P wave. C. during the Q wave. D. during the S-T segment. E. immediately after the T wave.

49. Diastasis is a period of A. atrial systole. B. isovolumetric relaxation. C. slow ventricular filling. D. reduced ejection. E. rapid ejection.

50. The cardiac center, which modifies the heart rate, is located in A. the SA node. B. the AV node. C. the carotid sinuses. D. the aortic arch. E. the medulla oblongata.

51. The cardioinhibitory center communicates with the heart by way of A. the internodal pathways. B. the bundle of His. C. Purkinje fibers. D. the vagus nerves. E. sympathetic nerves.

52. At the end of ventricular contraction, the amount of blood remaining in the ventricle is A. the end-systolic volume. B. the end-diastolic volume. C. the stroke volume. D. the residual volume. E. the ejection fraction.

53. The heart's normal ___ of 54% can rise to as high as 90% during strenuous exercise. A. ejection fraction B. end-systolic volume C. end-diastolic volume D. coronary circulation E. stroke volume

54. Pressure in the arteries that opposes the opening of the semilunar valves is called A. inotropic pressure. B. oncotic pressure. C. afterload. D. preload. E. hypertension.

55. The second heart sound immediately follows A. closing of the AV valves. B. the end of diastole. C. the P wave. D. the QRS complex. E. the T wave.

56. The heart rate tends to be higher in A. women than in men. B. teenagers than in infants. C. athletes than in sedentary people. D. men than in women. E. adults than in children.

57. The ___ commonly measures about 75 mL. A. cardiac output B. stroke volume C. end-diastolic volume D. end-systolic volume E. ejection fraction

58. The conduction of electrical signals is fastest in A. the atria. B. the internodal pathways. C. the Purkinje fibers. D. the SA node. E. the AV node.

59. One way of stating the Frank-Starling law of the heart is that stroke volume is proportional to A. the end-systolic volume. B. the end-diastolic volume. C. the afterload. D. the heart rate. E. contractility.

60. Baroreceptors are located in A. the aorta and carotid sinuses. B. the superior and inferior venae cavae. C. the internal carotid arteries only. D. the internal and external jugular veins. E. the circulatory system pressure points.

61. If end-diastolic volume is 108 mL, end-systolic volume is 35 mL, and ejection fraction is 0.86, then the stroke volume must be A. 0.03 L. B. 0.086 L. C. 73 mL. D. 138 mL. E. 143 mL.

62. During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles A. rises rapidly. B. falls rapidly. C. remains constant. D. rises and then falls. E. falls and then rises.

63. Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the ___ of the electrocardiogram. A. P wave B. P-Q segment C. S-T segment D. R wave E. T wave

64. Hypercapnia has the effect of A. increasing the heart rate. B. decreasing the heart rate. C. increasing myocardial contractility. D. increasing the afterload. E. reducing the ejection fraction.

65. The effect of vagal tone on the heart is to A. prolong the plateau in the action potential. B. hyperpolarize the SA node. C. shorten the pacemaker potential. D. reduce conduction speed through the AV node. E. inhibit the breakdown of cAMP.

66. The heart rate is increased by A. hypothyroidism. B. acetylcholine. C. hyperkalemia. D. hypernatremia. E. hypercalcemia.

67. Lung diseases that obstruct the flow of blood through the lungs are most likely to A. increase the preload in the left ventricle. B. increase the afterload in the pulmonary trunk. C. increase the ejection fraction of the right ventricle. D. reduce the ejection fraction of the left ventricle. E. have a positive chronotropic effect on both ventricles.

68. The innermost lining of the heart wall is A. the parietal pericardium. B. the visceral pericardium. C. the epicardium. D. the endocardium. E. the myocardium.

69. An anatomical arrangement that reduces the risk for myocardial infarctions is A. arterial anastomoses in the coronary circulation. B. the desmosomes of the intercalated discs. C. a double circulation. D. gap junctions in the myocardium. E. circumflex arteries.

70. Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle has A. a more extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum. B. more nuclei per cell. C. more mitochondria. D. longer fibers. E. shorter refractory periods.

71. A substance that reduces the heart rate is said to exert A. a positive inotropic effect. B. a negative chronotropic effect. C. a positive barotropic effect. D. a negative inotropic effect. E. a positive chemotropic effect.

72. Which of the following reduces the heart rate? A. epinephrine B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. digitalis E. nicotine

73. Because the human heart is myogenic A. it will beat even if all nerves to it are severed. B. both ventricles pump the same amount of blood. C. it is not subject to the influence of hormones. D. it contracts rhythmically. E. it generates electrical activity that can be detected by an electrocardiograph.

74. Which of the following vessels are in the coronary sulcus? A. the anterior and posterior interventricular arteries B. the superior and inferior venae cavae C. the great and middle cardiac veins D. the right and left semilunar arteries E. the marginal artery and circumflex artery

75. The cardiovascular system refers to all of the below except one. The area that is not part of the cardiovascular system is the A. heart. B. arteries. C. blood. D. capillaries. E. veins.

76. In the cardiovascular system, the _____ circuit carries blood to and from the lungs, which is served by the _____ side of the heart. A. pulmonary; left B. systemic; left C. pulmonary; right D. systemic; right E. coronary; right

77. Blood, which is _____, leaves the left side of the heart and is pumped into the _____. A. O2 rich, CO2 poor; aorta B. O2 poor, CO2 rich; pulmonary artery C. O2 rich, CO2 poor; pulmonary vein D. O2 poor, CO2 rich; vena cavas E. O2 rich, CO2 poor; pulmonary capillaries

78. The heart is enclosed in a double-walled sac called the pericardium. The outer wall is called the _____ pericardium and consists of A. parietal; fibrous and serous layers. B. parietal; a serous layer. C. visceral; fibrous and serous layers. D. visceral; a serous layer. E. visceral; a fibrous layer.

79. The endocardium is lined by a _____ epithelium called the _____. A. simple squamous; mesothelium B. simple squamous; endothelium C. simple cuboidal; mesothelium D. stratified squamous; endothelium E. stratified sqamous; mesothelium

80. The myocardia of the two atria are simultaneously excited, but the atria do not stimulate the ventricles directly, otherwise all of the chambers of the heart would contract at the same time. The signals from the atria are blocked from stimulating the ventricles directly by the A. interventricular sulcus. B. interventricular septum. C. fibrous skeleton. D. conduction system. E. SA node.

81. The internal ridges in the atria are called _____, while the internal ridges in the ventricles are called _____. A. papillary muscles; pectinate muscles B. pectinate muscles; trabeculae carneae C. pectinate muscles; papillary muscles D. trabeculae carneae; chordae tendineae E. papillary muscles; chordae tendineae

82. When the left ventricle contracts the _____ valve closes and the _____ valve is pushed open. A. bicuspid; pulmonary B. tricuspid; aortic C. mitral; aortic D. tricuspid; pulmonary E. bicuspid; pulmonary

83. When the ventricles contract, the papillary muscles also contract, which A. tightens the chordae tendineae preventing the AV valves from prolapsing. B. tightens the chordae tendineae, causing the AV valves to close. C. loosens the chordae tendineae, allowing the semilunar valves to open. D. loosens the chordae tendineae, allowing the semilunar valves to close. E. loosens the chordae tendineae, causing the AV valves to open.

84. In mitral stenosis, one of the most common forms of valvular heart disease, when the ventricles contract blood will leak back into the A. left atrium. B. right atrium. C. aorta. D. pulmonary trunk. E. pulmonary arteries.

85. You are following the pathway of blood from the superior vena cava to the aorta. What is the correct order of valves through which the blood will pass? A. aortic, bicuspid, pulmonary, tricuspid B. tricuspid, aortic, bicuspid, pulmonary C. tricuspid, pulmonary, bicuspid, aortic D. pulmonary, bicuspid, aortic, tricuspid E. bicuspid; pulmonary; tricuspid; aortic

86. The coronary artery receives blood from the ____, and the coronary artery empties blood into the _____. A. pulmonary artery; right atrium B. superior vena cava; left atrium C. inferior vena cava; left atrium D. aorta; right atrium E. pulmonary vein; right atrium

87. The left coronary artery divides into the A. marginal and posterior interventricular arteries. B. anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries. C. marginal and circumflex arteries. D. anterior and posterior interventricular arteries. E. posterior interventricular and marginal arteries.

88. An individual is feeling severe chest pain, which radiates to the neck, jaw, shoulder, and left arm. The individual is showing symptoms of A. tachycardia. B. myocardial infarction. C. congestive heart failure. D. valvular heart disease. E. bradycardia.

89. Cardiac muscle metabolism is different from skeletal muscle metabolism because cardiac muscle A. can break down fatty acids for energy. B. relies more on anaerobic respiration. C. does not rely on anaerobic respiration. D. is more prone to fatigue. E. produces more lactic acid.

90. Which one of the following parts of the conduction system directly stimulates the ventricles? A. AV node B. AV bundle C. right and left bundle branches D. Purkinje fibers E. bundle of His

91. Acetylcholine binds to muscarinic receptors on the SA node causing a K+ leak. This will cause the heart to A. slow its rate of contraction. B. speed up its rate of contraction. C. fibrillate. D. stop beating. E. have nodal rhythm.

92. Hypocalcaemia will cause the heart rate to _____ and hyperkalemia will cause heart rate to _____. A. increase; increase B. decrease; decrease C. increase; decrease D. decrease; increase E. increase; stop

93. The absolute refractory period in the myocyte results in A. stimulation of neighboring myocytes. B. continual production of action potentials called pacemaker potentials. C. the ability to wave summate and to undergo tetany. D. the prevention of wave summation and tetanus. E. the ability to use glucose in anaerobic glycolysis.

94. An individual has mitral valve prolapse, which generates a gurgling sound called a heart murmur. The murmur would be associated with the _____ heart sound and occurs when the ____. A. lubb (S1); atria contract B. dupp (S2); atria relax C. lubb (S1); ventricles contract D. dupp (S2); ventricles relax E. lubb (S1); ventricles relax

95. The aortic semilunar valve shuts when the pressure in the aorta is ______ and results in the _____ heart sound. A. less than in the left ventricle; dupp (S2) B. less than in the right ventricle lubb (S1) C. greater than in the left ventricle; dupp (S2) D. greater than in the left ventricle; lubb (S1) E. greater than in the right ventricle; dupp (S2)

96. The mitral, or bicuspid valve, opens when the pressure in the left ventricle is _____; and the mitral valve closes when the pressure in the left ventricle is _____. A. less than the pressure in the left atrium; greater than the pressure in the left atrium B. less than the pressure in the aorta; greater than the pressure in the aorta C. less than the pressure in the right atrium; greater than the pressure in the right atrium D. less than the pressure in the pulmonary trunk; greater than the pressure in the pulmonary trunk. E. greater than the pressure in the left atrium; less than the pressure in the left atrium.

97. Blood moves into the aorta when the pressure in the aorta is ____ causing the aortic valve to ____. A. less than the pressure in the right ventricle; close B. greater than the pressure in the right ventricle; open C. greater than the pressure in the left ventricle; close D. less than the pressure in the left ventricle; open E. the same as the pressure in the left ventricle; open

98. Most of the ventricle filling occurs A. during atrial systole. B. during atrial diastole. C. during ventricular systole. D. isovolumetric contraction. E. when the AV valve is closed.

99. The first heart sound (S1 or lubb) is primarily caused by ________. A. left ventricle contracting B. left atrium contracting C. right ventricle relaxing D. right atrium relaxing E. left atrium relaxing

100. The pressure peaks at about ____ mmHg in the left ventricle and at about _____ mmHg in the right ventricle. A. 25; 120 B. 80; 120 C. 120; 25 D. 120; 80 E. 140; 90

19 Key

1. Contraction of any heart chamber is called ___. systole

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #1

2. A persistent, resting heart rate in excess of 100 beats/minute is called ___. tachycardia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #2

3. If the SA node fails to function, other regions of atrial myocardium called ___ take over and trigger a rhythmic heartbeat, although at a slower rate. ectopic pacemakers

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #3

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #4

5. Each ventricle ejects about 75 ml of blood in one beat. This figure is called the ___. stroke volume

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #5

6. The ventricles are said to exhibit ___ when they beat in a rapid, uncoordinated fashion and do not effectively eject blood. fibrillation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #6

7. The death of a patch of myocardium due to ischemia is clinically known as ___ and likely to cause a heart attack. myocardial infarction

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #7

8. In the aortic arch and carotid arteries there are pressure sensors called ___, which help to monitor and regulate blood pressure. baroreceptors

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #8

9. Cardiac output is a product of ___ and ___. heart rate; stroke volume

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #9

10. Gradual depolarization of cells of the SA node, prior to the point where membrane voltage reaches the threshold, is called the ___ potential. pacemaker

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #10

11. An increased afterload reduces the heart's ejection fraction. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #11

12. If the SA node is destroyed, the heart will stop beating. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #12

13. The first heart sound occurs at the same time as the P wave of the ECG. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #13

14. Being larger than the right ventricle, the left ventricle pumps more blood in each beat. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #14

15. The myocardium begins to relax at the end of the plateau in the action potential. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #15

16. Since athletes are in better than average condition, their hearts beat faster at rest. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #16

17. Cor pulmonale results when the left ventricle fails, causing blood to back up into the lungs. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #17

18. Cells of the SA node exhibit a long plateau in their action potentials. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #18

19. The parasympathetic nervous system has a negative chronotropic effect on the heart. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #19

20. The bundle of His originates at the AV node. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #20

21. The unusually long refractory period of the myocardium prevents wave summation and tetanic contraction. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #21

22. Papillary muscles help to prevent prolapse of the semilunar valves. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #22

23. The myocardium receives the least amount of blood when the ventricles are contracting. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #23

24. The resting heart rate would be slower if not for the fact that sympathetic nerve fibers continually stimulate it. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #24

25. Most blood enters the ventricles even before the atria begin to contract. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

afterload bradycardia chordae tendineae coronary sinus epicardium left atrium preload pulmonary veins stroke volume tachycardia ventricular systole

AV bundle cardiac output circumflex artery endocardium first heart sound mitral valve prolapse pulmonary arteries second heart sound superior vena cava ventricular diastole

Saladin - 019 Chapter...

26. This is the same as the visceral pericardium. epicardium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #26

27. This helps to prevent valvular prolapse during ventricular systole. chordae tendineae

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #27

28. Empties into the right atrium :: superior vena cava

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #28

29. Site of damage that could cause heart block. AV bundle

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #29

30. Phase of the cardiac cycle in which the AV valves close. ventricular systole

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #30

31. This is caused partly by closing of the semilunar valves ________. second heart sound

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 019 Chapter... #31

32. This receives blood that has circulated through the myocardium. coronary sinus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #32

33. Milliliters of blood ejected by one beat of the left ventricle is known as ________. stroke volume

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #33

34. Abnormally fast heart rate is known as ________. tachycardia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #34

35. End-diastolic volume is known as ________. preload

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #35

36. The coronary arteries arise from A. the proximal end of the aorta. B. the interventricular arteries. C. the myocardium. D. the coronary sulcus. E. the venae cavae.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #36

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #37

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 019 Chapter... #39

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #40

41. If the chordae tendineae of an animal's heart were cut, the most likely effect would be A. valvular stenosis. B. valvular prolapse. C. fibrillation. D. heart block. E. myocardial infarction.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #41

42. Blood normally leaves the right ventricle through A. the pulmonary semilunar valve. B. the pulmonary tricuspid valve. C. the tricuspid valve. D. the bicuspid valve. E. the aortic semilunar valve.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #42

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #43

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #44

45. A friction rub results from A. a myocardial infarction. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. valvular insufficiency. D. an excessive afterload. E. a deficiency of pericardial fluid.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #45

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #46

47. The amount of blood (mL) coming from one ventricle in one heartbeat is called A. the ejection fraction. B. the preload. C. the afterload. D. the stroke volume. E. the cardiac output.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #47

48. Atrial systole begins A. immediately before the P wave. B. immediately after the P wave. C. during the Q wave. D. during the S-T segment. E. immediately after the T wave.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #48

49. Diastasis is a period of A. atrial systole. B. isovolumetric relaxation. C. slow ventricular filling. D. reduced ejection. E. rapid ejection.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #49

50. The cardiac center, which modifies the heart rate, is located in A. the SA node. B. the AV node. C. the carotid sinuses. D. the aortic arch. E. the medulla oblongata.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #50

51. The cardioinhibitory center communicates with the heart by way of A. the internodal pathways. B. the bundle of His. C. Purkinje fibers. D. the vagus nerves. E. sympathetic nerves.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #52

53. The heart's normal ___ of 54% can rise to as high as 90% during strenuous exercise. A. ejection fraction B. end-systolic volume C. end-diastolic volume D. coronary circulation E. stroke volume

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #53

54. Pressure in the arteries that opposes the opening of the semilunar valves is called A. inotropic pressure. B. oncotic pressure. C. afterload. D. preload. E. hypertension.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #54

55. The second heart sound immediately follows A. closing of the AV valves. B. the end of diastole. C. the P wave. D. the QRS complex. E. the T wave.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #55

56. The heart rate tends to be higher in A. women than in men. B. teenagers than in infants. C. athletes than in sedentary people. D. men than in women. E. adults than in children.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #56

57. The ___ commonly measures about 75 mL. A. cardiac output B. stroke volume C. end-diastolic volume D. end-systolic volume E. ejection fraction

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #57

58. The conduction of electrical signals is fastest in A. the atria. B. the internodal pathways. C. the Purkinje fibers. D. the SA node. E. the AV node.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #58

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #60

61. If end-diastolic volume is 108 mL, end-systolic volume is 35 mL, and ejection fraction is 0.86, then the stroke volume must be A. 0.03 L. B. 0.086 L. C. 73 mL. D. 138 mL. E. 143 mL.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #61

62. During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles A. rises rapidly. B. falls rapidly. C. remains constant. D. rises and then falls. E. falls and then rises.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #62

63. Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the ___ of the electrocardiogram. A. P wave B. P-Q segment C. S-T segment D. R wave E. T wave

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #63

64. Hypercapnia has the effect of A. increasing the heart rate. B. decreasing the heart rate. C. increasing myocardial contractility. D. increasing the afterload. E. reducing the ejection fraction.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 019 Chapter... #64

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #65

66. The heart rate is increased by A. hypothyroidism. B. acetylcholine. C. hyperkalemia. D. hypernatremia. E. hypercalcemia.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 019 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #67

68. The innermost lining of the heart wall is A. the parietal pericardium. B. the visceral pericardium. C. the epicardium. D. the endocardium. E. the myocardium.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #68

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #69

70. Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle has A. a more extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum. B. more nuclei per cell. C. more mitochondria. D. longer fibers. E. shorter refractory periods.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #70

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #71

72. Which of the following reduces the heart rate? A. epinephrine B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. digitalis E. nicotine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #72

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #74

75. The cardiovascular system refers to all of the below except one. The area that is not part of the cardiovascular system is the A. heart. B. arteries. C. blood. D. capillaries. E. veins.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #75

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #79

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #87

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #89

90. Which one of the following parts of the conduction system directly stimulates the ventricles? A. AV node B. AV bundle C. right and left bundle branches D. Purkinje fibers E. bundle of His

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 019 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 019 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 019 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #97

98. Most of the ventricle filling occurs A. during atrial systole. B. during atrial diastole. C. during ventricular systole. D. isovolumetric contraction. E. when the AV valve is closed.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 019 Chapter... #98

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #99

100. The pressure peaks at about ____ mmHg in the left ventricle and at about _____ mmHg in the right ventricle. A. 25; 120 B. 80; 120 C. 120; 25 D. 120; 80 E. 140; 90

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 019 Chapter... #100

Chapter 20 1. An arteriovenous ___ is a route by which blood flows from an artery to a vein without passing through capillaries. ________________________________________

2. The middle layer of a blood vessel is called the ___. ________________________________________

3. In ___ capillaries, there are numerous filtration pores through the endothelial cells. ________________________________________

4. The lowest arterial blood pressure observed during the cardiac cycle is called the ___ pressure. ________________________________________

5. The ability of a tissue to control its own blood supply is called ___. ________________________________________

6. The stretch receptors in the cardiovascular system are called ___. ________________________________________

7. In the process of ___, an endothelial cell imbibes a fluid droplet by pinocytosis on one side and releases it by exocytosis on the other side. ________________________________________

8. At its inferior end, the aorta branches into right and left ___ arteries. ________________________________________

9. The ___ is a complex of arteries on the base of the brain, surrounding the pituitary gland. ________________________________________

10. Intestinal blood enters the inferior side of the liver by way of the ___ vein. ________________________________________

11. The femoral vein is a superior continuation of the popliteal vein. True False

12. Both the hand and foot exhibit a dorsal venous arch. True False

13. The cephalic vein drains blood from the head into the brachiocephalic vein. True False

14. The circumflex arteries around the neck of the humerus represent an arterial anastomosis. True False

15. The lungs receive both a pulmonary and a systemic blood supply. True False

16. A stroke is also known as a transient ischemic attack. True False

17. Venous pooling shock results from extensive fluid loss by the body. True False

18. The skeletal muscle pump assists blood flow in small, low-pressure arteries. True False

19. All capillaries reabsorb about the same amount of fluid as they release. True False

20. The only force favoring capillary reabsorption is the colloid osmotic pressure of the blood. True False

21. Perfusion of the digestive tract drops during heavy exercise. True False

22. Blood cannot get from an artery into a vein without passing through at least one capillary bed. True False

23. Distributing arteries are larger than resistance arteries. True False

24. The inferior vena cava has one-way valves that ensure the upward flow of blood toward the heart. True False

25. Blood cannot flow from point A to point B in a vessel unless the pressure is higher at A than at B. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

anastomosis angiotensin II baroreflex cardiogenic shock circulatory shock peripheral resistance portal system superficial palmar arch throughfare channel vasoconstriction venous pooling shock

angiogenesis atrial natriuretic peptide capillaries chemoreflex deep palmar arch phrenic artery subcostal arteries thoracic pump vasa vasorum vasomotion

26. Which term can be described as the Semicircular artery that gives rise to the digital arteries of the hand? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as the artery that supplies the diaphragm? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as the route in which blood flows through two capillary beds in series before returning to the heart? ________________________________________

29. Which term describes a hormone that is a strong vasoconstrictor? ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as the small blood vessels that perfuse the larger blood vessels? ________________________________________

31. Which term describes the growth of new blood vessels that better perfuse a tissue? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as the category that includes neurogenic and anaphylactic shock? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the function of blood viscosity, vessel length, and vessel radius? ________________________________________

34. Which term described the promotion of the upward flow of blood in the inferior vena cava? ________________________________________

35. Which term describes the autonomic negative feedback response to changes in blood pressure? ________________________________________

36. To get from the subclavian artery to the brachial artery, blood must flow through A. the axillary artery. B. the deep brachial artery. C. the brachiocephalic artery. D. the ulnar artery. E. the radial artery.

37. The human body has only one ___ but has two of each of the rest of these vessels. A. median cubital vein B. brachiocephalic artery C. brachiocephalic vein D. common iliac vein E. anterior communicating artery

38. The muscles between the ribs are supplied by the anterior and posterior A. subclavian arteries. B. phrenic arteries. C. thoracic arteries. D. thoracoacromial arteries. E. intercostal arteries.

39. Most blood from the brain flows down the internal jugular veins and then into A. the external jugular veins. B. the vertebral veins. C. the superior vena cava. D. the subclavian veins. E. the brachiocephalic veins.

40. How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart? A. none B. one C. two D. four E. six

41. The anterior and posterior communicating arteries are found in A. the neck. B. the arterial circle (or circle of Willis). C. branches of the celiac trunk. D. the forearm. E. the azygos-hemiazygos system.

42. The major deep veins of the forearm are the ___ on the medial side and the ___ on the lateral side, respectively. A. cephalic; basilic B. basilica; cephalic C. ulnar; radial D. radial; ulnar E. brachial; axillary

43. Which of the following arteries does not occur in the lower extremity? A. digital arteries B. posterior tibial artery C. medial plantar artery D. peroneal artery E. anterior interosseous artery

44. Which of the following veins does not occur in the upper extremity? A. cephalic vein B. small saphenous vein C. basilic vein D. median antebrachial vein E. ulnar vein

45. All of the following are supplied by the celiac trunk except for A. the superior mesenteric artery. B. the splenic artery. C. the left and right gastric arteries. D. the hepatic artery. E. the gastroduodenal artery.

46. In humans, there is no such thing as A. a right common carotid artery. B. a left brachiocephalic artery. C. a left brachiocephalic vein. D. a right subclavian vein. E. a right brachiocephalic artery.

47. Immediately lateral to the eyebrow, you can palpate the pulse of A. the external carotid artery. B. the ophthalmic artery. C. the hemiazygos artery. D. the facial artery. E. the superficial temporal artery.

48. The hepatic portal vein receives blood from all of the following except A. the splenic vein. B. the superior mesenteric vein. C. the pancreatic vein. D. the hepatic veins. E. the gastroepiploic veins.

49. Which of the following is not a branch of the external carotid artery? A. the superficial temporal artery B. the ophthalmic artery C. the facial artery D. the occipital artery E. the superior thyroid artery

50. The two internal carotid arteries unite on the base of the brain to form A. the common carotid artery. B. the posterior communicating artery. C. the Willis artery. D. the obturator artery. E. the basilar artery.

51. Veins are called ___ vessels because they can hold a large amount of blood. A. capacitance B. resistance C. storage D. compliance E. hemodynamic

52. A weakened vessel that bulges during systole is called A. an atheroma. B. an aneurysm. C. a hematoma. D. a varicose vein. E. an embolism.

53. Blood flow is directly proportional to A. blood viscosity. B. vessel length. C. vessel radius. D. erythrocyte count. E. peripheral resistance.

54. In a puncture of the dural sinus there is great danger of blocking cardiac output because of a (an) A. aneurism. B. air embolism. C. hypertensive event. D. transcytosis. E. varicose vein.

55. Excessive fluid loss by sweating or hemorrhage is most likely to cause ___ shock. A. anaphylactic B. cardiac C. neurogenic D. obstructed venous return E. hypovolemic

56. Blood flow equals the pressure difference (P) between two points divided by A. arterial diameter. B. osmotic pressure. C. resistance. D. hydrostatic pressure. E. blood volume.

57. Inadequate pumping activity of the heart is likely to cause A. neurogenic shock. B. venous pooling shock. C. obstructed venous return shock. D. cardiogenic shock. E. anaphylactic shock.

58. Peripheral resistance is directly proportional to A. blood viscosity. B. vessel diameter. C. cardiac preload. D. systolic contraction force. E. pulse pressure.

59. If a person's arterial blood pressure measures 130/85, the mean arterial blood pressure is A. 85 mmHg. B. 100 mmHg. C. 107.5 mmHg. D. 128.3 mmHg. E. 130 mmHg.

60. Blood flow will decrease if A. vessel radius increases. B. viscosity increases. C. p increases. D. pressure increases. E. afterload increases.

61. Water enters the blood capillaries by means of A. filtration. B. active transport. C. osmosis. D. pinocytosis. E. facilitated diffusion.

62. The medullary ischemic reflex results in A. increased circulation to the brain. B. reduced circulation to the brain. C. ischemia of the medulla oblongata. D. increased circulation to the adrenal medulla. E. hormone secretion by the adrenal medulla when perfusion drops.

63. The net filtration pressure of a blood capillary is the difference between A. colloid osmotic pressure and oncotic pressure. B. blood and interstitial hydrostatic pressures. C. blood pressures at the arterial and venous ends. D. net hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure. E. interstitial pressure and oncotic pressure.

64. Positive feedback is most important in A. transient ischemic attack. B. compensated shock. C. decompensated shock. D. the medullary ischemic reflex. E. the baroreflex.

65. Blood solutes can pass through the walls of continuous capillaries by passing through either the endothelial cell or A. the thoroughfare channels. B. the intercellular clefts. C. the filtration pores. D. the sinusoids. E. the fenestrations.

66. Hypovolemic shock can be caused by A. obstructed venous return. B. emotional distress. C. anaphylaxis. D. reduced cardiac output. E. profuse sweating.

67. According to the principle of ___, blood near the middle of an artery flows faster than blood near its walls, just as water flows faster in the middle of a river than it does near shore. A. laminar flow B. Poiseuille's law C. capacitance D. autoregulation E. Harvey's law

68. Identify the net filtration pressure in a capillary under the following conditions: interstitial hydrostatic pressure, -2 mmHg; colloid osmotic pressure (COP) of the tissue fluid, 6 mmHg; COP of the blood, 29 mmHg; blood hydrostatic pressure, 32 mmHg. A. 1 mmHg B. 5 mmHg C. 8 mmHg D. 11 mmHg E. 65 mmHg

69. In autoregulation, all of the following chemicals tend to increase blood flow except A. nitric oxide. B. carbon dioxide. C. thromboxane A2. D. histamine. E. lactic acid.

70. The common route for blood flow is heart → arteries → arterioles → capillaries → venules → veins → heart. There are exceptions to this route, notable portal systems and anastomoses. In a portal system blood flows from one _____ to another, while in the anastomoses blood flows from one _____ to another. A. capillary bed; artery or vein B. artery or vein; capillary bed C. artery; vein D. vein; artery E. vein; capillary bed

71. The outer wall of an artery or vein is called the _____ and in large arteries and veins contains the _____. A. tunica media; smooth muscle B. tunica externa; vasa vasorum C. tunica externa; valves D. tunica intima; endothelium E. tunica intima; basement membrane

72. You would expect to find the thickest tunica media in a A. small artery. B. small vein. C. large artery. D. large vein. E. capillary.

73. The renal vein has a larger diameter than the renal artery with the renal vein having a larger _____ but a smaller _____. A. tunica externa; lumen B. lumen; tunica media C. tunica media; lumen D. tunica intima; tunica media E. lumen; tunica intima

74. A short vessel, which links to capillaries, and does not have a continuous tunica media but rather individual muscle cells spaced at short distances apart is a(n) A. muscular artery. B. arteriole. C. precapillary sphincter. D. metarteriole. E. venule.

75. Arteries like the aorta, pulmonary arteries, and common carotid arteries maintain pressure on blood during ventricular diastole and lessen the fluctuations in blood pressure. These are _____ arteries. A. distributing B. resistance C. elastic D. muscular E. conducting

76. The major vessels that control the relative amounts of blood directed to the various tissues are A. muscular arteries. B. resistance arteries. C. conducting arteries. D. capillaries. E. veins.

77. The most common capillary beds in the body are A. continuous capillaries with tight junctions and intercellular clefts. B. continuous capillaries with filtration pores that allow for rapid passage of small molecules. C. fenestrated capillaries with tight junctions and intercellular clefts. D. fenestrated capillaries with filtration pores that allow for rapid passage of small molecules. E. fenestrated capillaries with gap junctions that allow for rapid passage of small molecules.

78. The capillaries that form the blood-brain barrier in the brain resemble A. continuous capillaries without fenestrations. B. continuous capillaries without intercellular clefts. C. fenestrated capillaries without fenestrations. D. fenestrated capillaries without intercellular clefts. E. fenestrated capillaries with intercellular clefts.

79. Valves are found in A. veins and lymphatic vessels. B. veins. C. veins and arteries. D. arteries. E. capillaries.

80. People who stand for long periods have pressure buildup, particularly in their superficial vessels, which may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by A. a rupture or aneurysm in the wall of an artery. B. a rupture or aneurysm in the wall of a vein. C. destruction of valves in the wall of a vein. D. destruction of valves in the wall of a lymphatic vessel. E. an embolus in the lumen of a vein.

81. In the arterial blood pressure reading, for example in a young adult, the ratio is written 120/75. The 120 reading is in _____ units and refers to ______. A. inches of water; peak arterial pressure during systole B. millimeters of mercury; lowest arterial pressure during systole C. milliliters of water; lowest arterial pressure during systole D. millimeters of mercury; peak arterial pressure during systole E. pounds of pressure; lowest arterial pressure during systole.

82. Hypertension, or high blood pressure is a chronic resting blood pressure higher than _____ mmHg systolic or ______ mmHg diastolic. A. 200; 100 B. 140; 90 C. 170; 60 D. 140; 100 E. 200; 90

83. A weak point in a blood vessel or heart wall that forms a thin-walled, bulging sac that may rupture is called a(n) A. aneurysm. B. embolism. C. thrombus. D. hernia. E. infarction.

84. Suppose a vessel with a radius of 1 mm had a flow of 1 mm/sec. The vessel dilated to a radius of 4 mm. Its new flow rate would be _____ mm/sec. A. 4 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 E. 256

85. Anaphylactic shock can be caused by a hypersensitive allergic reaction, which individuals can have to such things as a bee sting or to penicillin. These individuals have massive release of histamine, which causes ____ of blood vessels and _____ in arterial blood pressure. A. vasodilation; a decrease B. vasodilation; an increase C. vasoconstriction; a decrease D. vasoconstriction; an increase E. vasoconstriction; no change

86. You have been exercising strenuously and decided to sit down and rest. In response to the effects of exercising, the baroreceptors stimulate the _____ center and inhibit the ____ center. A. cardioinhibitory; vasomotor B. vasomotor; cardioacceleratory C. cardioinhibitory; cardioacceleratory D. cardioacceleratory; vasomotor E. cardioacceleratory; cardioinhibitory

87. Which one of the following hormones reduces blood pressure? A. angiotensin II B. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) C. aldosterone D. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) E. renin

88. These two hormones are powerful vasoconstrictors: _____. Of these two hormones, ____ also stimulates an increase in heart rate. A. NE and vasopressin; vasopressin B. EP and angiotensin II; EP C. NE and ANP; NE D. EP and aldosterone; EP E. EP and vasopressin; vasopressin

89. Proteins, like albumin, move across a capillary by A. diffusion, dissolving in the plasma membrane. B. transcytosis. C. diffusion, through intercellular clefts. D. diffusion, through fenestrations. E. osmosis.

90. Some water-soluble materials can cross the capillary in the kidney, small intestine, and many endocrine glands and either cross slowly or not at all in other areas of the body. These water-soluble materials most likely cross by A. diffusing through the plasma membrane. B. transcytosis. C. diffusing through intercellular clefts. D. diffusing through fenestrations. E. exocytosis.

91. The highest pressure that moves substances out of a capillary is _____ pressure. A. interstitial hydrostatic B. blood hydrostatic C. blood colloid osmotic pressure D. interstitial fluid osmotic pressure E. intracellular osmotic pressure

92. The highest pressure that moves substances into a capillary is A. blood hydrostatic pressure. B. interstitial hydrostatic pressure. C. blood colloid osmotic pressure. D. interstitial fluid osmotic pressure. E. intracellular osmotic pressure.

93. The most important force in venous flow is A. the pressure gradient generated by the heart. B. gravity. C. the skeletal muscle pump. D. the thoracic (respiratory) pump. E. one way flow due to valves.

94. A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 60 mmHg can cause _____, and a MAP above 160 mmHg can cause _____. A. syncope; cerebral edema B. neurogenic shock; neurogenic shock C. compensated shock; decompensated shock D. syncope; neurogenic shock E. neurogenic shock; syncope

95. The main chemical stimulus for cerebral autoregulation is changes in A. K+. B. H+ or CO2. C. O2. D. Na+. E. Ca2+.

96. The ______ arteries give rise to the arterial circle (circle of Willis). A. cerebral and external carotid B. basilar and internal carotid C. maxillary and facial D. occipital and cerebral E. internal and external carotid

97. The arterial supply for the upper limbs beings with the subclavian artery, which continues as the ____ and _____ arteries as blood flows toward the elbow. A. brachial; axillary B. axillary; brachial C. radial; brachial D. axillary; ulnar E. brachial; radial

98. The stomach, duodenum, pancreas, liver, and gall bladder are supplied by the _____ arteries. A. hepatic B. mesenteric C. phrenic D. common iliac E. gastric

99. The largest vein that drains the neck and head is the _____ vein. A. internal jugular B. external jugular C. vertebral D. facial E. internal carotid

100. The intercostals, esophageal, pericardial, and bronchial veins all drain into the _____ vein before draining into the superior vena cava. A. internal jugular B. azygos C. brachiocephalic D. deep thoracic E. subclavian

20 Key

1. An arteriovenous ___ is a route by which blood flows from an artery to a vein without passing through capillaries. anastomosis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #1

2. The middle layer of a blood vessel is called the ___. tunica media

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #2

3. In ___ capillaries, there are numerous filtration pores through the endothelial cells. fenestrated

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #3

4. The lowest arterial blood pressure observed during the cardiac cycle is called the ___ pressure. diastolic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #4

5. The ability of a tissue to control its own blood supply is called ___. autoregulation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #5

6. The stretch receptors in the cardiovascular system are called ___. baroreceptors

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #6

7. In the process of ___, an endothelial cell imbibes a fluid droplet by pinocytosis on one side and releases it by exocytosis on the other side. transcytosis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #7

8. At its inferior end, the aorta branches into right and left ___ arteries. common iliac

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #8

9. The ___ is a complex of arteries on the base of the brain, surrounding the pituitary gland. arterial circle (circle of Willis)

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #9

10. Intestinal blood enters the inferior side of the liver by way of the ___ vein. hepatic portal

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #10

11. The femoral vein is a superior continuation of the popliteal vein. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #11

12. Both the hand and foot exhibit a dorsal venous arch. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #12

13. The cephalic vein drains blood from the head into the brachiocephalic vein. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #13

14. The circumflex arteries around the neck of the humerus represent an arterial anastomosis. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #14

15. The lungs receive both a pulmonary and a systemic blood supply. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #15

16. A stroke is also known as a transient ischemic attack. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #16

17. Venous pooling shock results from extensive fluid loss by the body. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #17

18. The skeletal muscle pump assists blood flow in small, low-pressure arteries. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #18

19. All capillaries reabsorb about the same amount of fluid as they release. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #19

20. The only force favoring capillary reabsorption is the colloid osmotic pressure of the blood. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #20

21. Perfusion of the digestive tract drops during heavy exercise. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #21

22. Blood cannot get from an artery into a vein without passing through at least one capillary bed. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #22

23. Distributing arteries are larger than resistance arteries. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #23

24. The inferior vena cava has one-way valves that ensure the upward flow of blood toward the heart. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #24

25. Blood cannot flow from point A to point B in a vessel unless the pressure is higher at A than at B. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

anastomosis angiotensin II baroreflex cardiogenic shock circulatory shock peripheral resistance portal system superficial palmar arch throughfare channel vasoconstriction venous pooling shock

angiogenesis atrial natriuretic peptide capillaries chemoreflex deep palmar arch phrenic artery subcostal arteries thoracic pump vasa vasorum vasomotion

Saladin - 020 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the Semicircular artery that gives rise to the digital arteries of the hand? superficial palmar arch

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #26

27. Which term can be described as the artery that supplies the diaphragm? phrenic artery

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #27

28. Which term can be described as the route in which blood flows through two capillary beds in series before returning to the heart? portal system

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #28

29. Which term describes a hormone that is a strong vasoconstrictor? angiotensin II

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #29

30. Which term can be described as the small blood vessels that perfuse the larger blood vessels? vasa vasorum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #30

31. Which term describes the growth of new blood vessels that better perfuse a tissue? angiogenesis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #31

32. Which term can be described as the category that includes neurogenic and anaphylactic shock? circulatory shock

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #32

33. Which term can be described as the function of blood viscosity, vessel length, and vessel radius? peripheral resistance

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #33

34. Which term described the promotion of the upward flow of blood in the inferior vena cava? thoracic pump

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #34

35. Which term describes the autonomic negative feedback response to changes in blood pressure? baroreflex

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #35

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #36

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #37

38. The muscles between the ribs are supplied by the anterior and posterior A. subclavian arteries. B. phrenic arteries. C. thoracic arteries. D. thoracoacromial arteries. E. intercostal arteries.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #39

40. How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart? A. none B. one C. two D. four E. six

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #40

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #41

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #42

43. Which of the following arteries does not occur in the lower extremity? A. digital arteries B. posterior tibial artery C. medial plantar artery D. peroneal artery E. anterior interosseous artery

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #43

44. Which of the following veins does not occur in the upper extremity? A. cephalic vein B. small saphenous vein C. basilic vein D. median antebrachial vein E. ulnar vein

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #44

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #45

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #46

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #47

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #48

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #49

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #50

51. Veins are called ___ vessels because they can hold a large amount of blood. A. capacitance B. resistance C. storage D. compliance E. hemodynamic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #51

52. A weakened vessel that bulges during systole is called A. an atheroma. B. an aneurysm. C. a hematoma. D. a varicose vein. E. an embolism.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #52

53. Blood flow is directly proportional to A. blood viscosity. B. vessel length. C. vessel radius. D. erythrocyte count. E. peripheral resistance.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #53

54. In a puncture of the dural sinus there is great danger of blocking cardiac output because of a (an) A. aneurism. B. air embolism. C. hypertensive event. D. transcytosis. E. varicose vein.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #54

55. Excessive fluid loss by sweating or hemorrhage is most likely to cause ___ shock. A. anaphylactic B. cardiac C. neurogenic D. obstructed venous return E. hypovolemic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #55

56. Blood flow equals the pressure difference (P) between two points divided by A. arterial diameter. B. osmotic pressure. C. resistance. D. hydrostatic pressure. E. blood volume.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #56

57. Inadequate pumping activity of the heart is likely to cause A. neurogenic shock. B. venous pooling shock. C. obstructed venous return shock. D. cardiogenic shock. E. anaphylactic shock.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #57

58. Peripheral resistance is directly proportional to A. blood viscosity. B. vessel diameter. C. cardiac preload. D. systolic contraction force. E. pulse pressure.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #58

59. If a person's arterial blood pressure measures 130/85, the mean arterial blood pressure is A. 85 mmHg. B. 100 mmHg. C. 107.5 mmHg. D. 128.3 mmHg. E. 130 mmHg.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 020 Chapter... #59

60. Blood flow will decrease if A. vessel radius increases. B. viscosity increases. C. p increases. D. pressure increases. E. afterload increases.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #60

61. Water enters the blood capillaries by means of A. filtration. B. active transport. C. osmosis. D. pinocytosis. E. facilitated diffusion.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #61

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #62

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #63

64. Positive feedback is most important in A. transient ischemic attack. B. compensated shock. C. decompensated shock. D. the medullary ischemic reflex. E. the baroreflex.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 020 Chapter... #64

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #65

66. Hypovolemic shock can be caused by A. obstructed venous return. B. emotional distress. C. anaphylaxis. D. reduced cardiac output. E. profuse sweating.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #67

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 020 Chapter... #68

69. In autoregulation, all of the following chemicals tend to increase blood flow except A. nitric oxide. B. carbon dioxide. C. thromboxane A2. D. histamine. E. lactic acid.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #70

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #71

72. You would expect to find the thickest tunica media in a A. small artery. B. small vein. C. large artery. D. large vein. E. capillary.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #72

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #74

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #75

76. The major vessels that control the relative amounts of blood directed to the various tissues are A. muscular arteries. B. resistance arteries. C. conducting arteries. D. capillaries. E. veins.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #78

79. Valves are found in A. veins and lymphatic vessels. B. veins. C. veins and arteries. D. arteries. E. capillaries.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #79

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #81

82. Hypertension, or high blood pressure is a chronic resting blood pressure higher than _____ mmHg systolic or ______ mmHg diastolic. A. 200; 100 B. 140; 90 C. 170; 60 D. 140; 100 E. 200; 90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #82

83. A weak point in a blood vessel or heart wall that forms a thin-walled, bulging sac that may rupture is called a(n) A. aneurysm. B. embolism. C. thrombus. D. hernia. E. infarction.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #83

84. Suppose a vessel with a radius of 1 mm had a flow of 1 mm/sec. The vessel dilated to a radius of 4 mm. Its new flow rate would be _____ mm/sec. A. 4 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 E. 256

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #86

87. Which one of the following hormones reduces blood pressure? A. angiotensin II B. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) C. aldosterone D. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) E. renin

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #87

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 020 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 020 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 020 Chapter... #94

95. The main chemical stimulus for cerebral autoregulation is changes in A. K+. B. H+ or CO2. C. O2. D. Na+. E. Ca2+.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #97

98. The stomach, duodenum, pancreas, liver, and gall bladder are supplied by the _____ arteries. A. hepatic B. mesenteric C. phrenic D. common iliac E. gastric

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 020 Chapter... #98

99. The largest vein that drains the neck and head is the _____ vein. A. internal jugular B. external jugular C. vertebral D. facial E. internal carotid

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #99

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 020 Chapter... #100

Chapter 21 1. Cells infected with viruses may release ___, a chemical signal that signals neighboring cells to defend themselves against infection. ________________________________________

2. ___ infections are those that become established in people whose immune systems are compromised by some other cause. ________________________________________

3. Before a monocyte can phagocytize bacteria or dead WBCs, it must transform into a/an _____. ________________________________________

4. The migration of neutrophils through the wall of a blood vessel is called ___. ________________________________________

5. Small molecules called ___ are not antigenic by themselves, but can become antigenic by binding to human proteins. (Penicillin is an example.) ________________________________________

6. The monokines and lymphokines are collectively called ___, a term that refers to the fact that they are messengers from one WBC to another. ________________________________________

7. ___ is a process in which T cells that attack one's own antigens are destroyed, leaving the immune system in a state of self-tolerance. ________________________________________

8. ___ is the attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation by a chemical called kinin. ________________________________________

9. Disease-causing organisms and substances are collectively called ___. ________________________________________

10. Interleukin and other chemicals that cause fever are called ___. ________________________________________

11. Clonal deletion destroys T cells that react against the body's own antigens. True False

12. Antigens are usually macromolecules with highly repetitive structures. True False

13. Interleukins are chemical messengers secreted by leukocytes to communicate with each other. True False

14. Natural killer (NK) cells are lymphocytes that do not depend on recognition of a specific foreign antigen. True False

15. One role of macrophages is to "present" antigens so that helper T cells can recognize them. True False

16. All antibody molecules in one person have identical heavy chains but differ in their light chains. True False

17. Anaphylactic shock is characterized by dangerously high blood pressure. True False

18. Opsonization is a process in which foreign cells are lysed by complement proteins. True False

19. Plasma cells develop from T cells after exposure to an antigen. True False

20. The light chains of an immunoglobulin bind to an antigen and vary in structure, while the heavy chains are constant in structure and determine the class to which an immunoglobulin belongs. True False

21. Lymph nodes are the only lymphatic organs with afferent lymphatic vessels. True False

22. Complement proteins, unlike antibodies, can lyse a foreign cell. True False

23. There is no specific criterion for the minimum temperature considered to be a fever. True False

24. Lymphatic capillaries are the smallest lymphatic vessels in organs such the lymph nodes, spleen, and tonsils. True False

25. Histamine, a strong vasodilator, also dilates the bronchioles and promotes free breathing. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

anaphylactic shock bradykinin cisterna chyli diapedesis hyaluronidase hyperemia lysozyme margination opsonization right lymphatic duct thoracic duct

basophils chemotaxis complement protein eosinophils hydrogen peroxide lumbar trunk macrophages neutrophils pyrogen spleen thymus

26. Which term can be described as the former monocytes that avidly phagocytize bacteria and other matter? ________________________________________

27. Which term partially accounts for the redness of inflamed tissue? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as a fever-producing chemical? ________________________________________

29. Which term describes the destruction of bacteria with hydrogen peroxide and hypochlorite? ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as the difficulty breathing and a sudden drop in blood pressure due to immediate hypersensitivity to an antigen? ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the process of coating bacteria with complement, making them easier to phagocytize? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as the antibiotic agent in tears, saliva, and mucus? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the adhesion of a neutrophil to the wall of a blood vessel near inflamed tissue? ________________________________________

34. Which term can be described as the largest lymphatic duct draining the lower body, the left arm and the left side of the head? ________________________________________

35. Which term can be described as the lymphatic organ in which the lymphocytes form white pulp? ________________________________________

36. Antibody molecules consist of ___ polypeptide chains depending on which class of antibody is considered. A. 1 to 6 B. 2 to 8 C. 2 to 10 D. 4 to 10 E. 4 to 20

37. Bacterial infection is especially likely to elevate the ___ count. A. lymphocyte B. basophil C. monocyte D. neutrophil E. eosinophil

38. Before a B lymphocyte can secrete antibodies it must transform into A. a stem cell. B. a plasma cell. C. an antigen-presenting cell. D. a T cell. E. a macrophage.

39. One mechanism of antibody action is ___, which makes bacteria easier to phagocytize. A. margination B. cytolysis C. opsonization D. complement fixation E. pyrexia

40. A patient with a snakebite is given an antivenom in horse serum. His blood pressure quickly drops drastically. What do you suspect is wrong? A. anaphylactic shock B. massive hemolysis due to the snake venom C. an autoimmune reaction D. severe inflammation E. a complement reaction

41. In sunburn, the redness of the skin results from A. hyperemia. B. kinin. C. diapedesis. D. pyrexia. E. embarrassment.

42. The main antigen-presenting cells in the body are A. neutrophils. B. fibroblasts. C. helper T cells. D. plasma cells. E. macrophages.

43. The formed elements most directly responsible for humoral immunity are A. killer T cells. B. helper T cells. C. B lymphocytes. D. mast cells. E. neutrophils.

44. The function of an antigen-presenting cell depends on the presence of ___ on its plasma membrane. A. IgG B. interleukin-2 C. helper factors D. MHC proteins E. complement proteins

45. All of the following are macrophages except A. microglia. B. histiocytes. C. eosinophils. D. Kupffer cells. E. Langerhans cells.

46. Which of the following cells are destroyed by the AIDS virus? A. plasma cells B. B cells C. helper T cells D. cytotoxic T cells E. natural killer cells

47. Plasma cells arise from A. killer T cells. B. helper T cells. C. mast cells. D. neutrophils. E. B cells.

48. The antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule are found A. on the light chains only. B. on the heavy chains only. C. at the tips of the constant regions. D. at the tips of the variable regions. E. on the antigenic determinants.

49. Suppressor T cells are associated with A. cell-mediated immunity. B. passive immunity. C. innate resistance. D. humoral immunity. E. diplomatic immunity.

50. Lymphocytes similar to T-cells, but called ___, recognize and destroy tumors in a nonspecific fashion, without requiring prior exposure to tumor antigens. A. plasma cells B. natural killer cells C. macrophages D. Kupffer cells E. B cells

51. Complement fixation enables foreign cells to be destroyed by A. neutralization. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. cytolysis. E. apoptosis.

52. When an antigen triggers the multiplication of B lymphocytes, some daughter cells transform into antibody-producing cells and mount an attack, while others become A. natural killer cells. B. memory cells. C. plasma cells. D. helper cells. E. suppressor cells.

53. ___ is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies damage the capillaries of the kidneys. A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus D. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease E. Rheumatic fever

54. MALT is lymphatic tissue found in such places as A. the spleen. B. the thymus. C. the bone marrow. D. the digestive mucosa. E. the lymph nodes.

55. Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called A. albumins. B. interleukins. C. globulins. D. isoenzymes. E. thrombins.

56. Which of the following is not a form of nonspecific resistance? A. vaccination B. fever C. lysozyme D. stomach acid E. inflammation

57. In inflammation, basophils produce all of the following chemicals except A. histamine. B. perforin. C. serotonin. D. bradykinin. E. heparin.

58. Capping and antigen endocytosis are early steps in the action of A. antigen-presenting cells. B. NK cells. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. helper T cells. E. immunoglobulins.

59. T cells become immunocompetent during their stay in A. the spleen. B. the bone marrow. C. the yolk sac. D. the lymph nodes. E. the thymus.

60. The largest antibodies are in the ___ class. A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA E. IgE

61. In a transfusion reaction, the hemolysis of mismatched erythrocytes results from A. precipitation. B. opsonization. C. complement fixation. D. agglutination. E. coagulation.

62. Macrophages secrete a lymphokine called ___. A. kinin B. kininogen C. bradykinin D. monokine E. macrophage-activating factor

63. Cytotoxic T cells can destroy cancer cells by means of a secretion called A. perforin. B. hapten. C. pyrogen. D. interleukin. E. complement.

64. Most circulating antibodies, and the only ones that cross the placenta, are A. IgD. B. IgM. C. IgG. D. IgA. E. IgE.

65. Lymphocytes are ___ once they have developed surface receptors for a particular antigen. A. capped B. opsonized C. self-tolerant D. sensitized E. immunocompetent

66. Tapeworms, hookworms, and other parasites too large to phagocytize are attacked mainly by A. eosinophils. B. natural killer cells. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. macrophages. E. neutrophils.

67. Which of these is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation? A. redness B. fever C. swelling D. heat E. pain

68. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except A. anaphylaxis. B. systemic lupus erythematosus. C. rheumatic fever. D. type II diabetes mellitus. E. myasthenia gravis.

69. In order for a helper T cell to recognize an antigen, the antigen must be bound to A. a hapten. B. an immunoglobulin. C. a natural killer cell. D. an MHC protein. E. a basophil.

70. Antibodies A. are steroids. B. are proteins. C. are polysaccharides. D. are antigenic. E. are lipids.

71. The lymphatic system returns about _____ L of fluid back to the circulatory system each day. A. 0.5 to 1.5 B. 2 to 4 C. 5 to 7 D. 7.5 to 9 E. 10 to 12

72. Special lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary _____ that cannot be absorbed into the capillaries. A. water B. glucose C. lipids D. amino acids E. vitamins

73. Lymph most closely resembles A. perilymph. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. intracellular fluid. D. plasma. E. saliva.

74. The lymphatic trunks converge to form the right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct. These ducts drain into the A. internal jugular veins. B. external jugular veins. C. subclavian veins. D. superior vena cava. E. aorta.

75. This lymphatic cell when activated forms colonies of helper cells, cytotoxic cells, suppressor cells, and memory cells. A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes C. macrophages D. reticular cells E. basophils

76. Lymph nodes in the cervical area that are temporarily swollen and painful to the touch most likely indicate A. inflammation or infection localized in that area. B. widespread inflammation or infection. C. chronic infection or cancer. D. clogging of the efferent lymphatic vessels. E. a renal tumor.

77. The largest tonsils, which are the ones most commonly removed in a tonsillectomy, are the _____ tonsils. A. adenoid B. lingual C. pharyngeal D. palatine E. nasopharyngeal

78. This lymphatic organ is very large in the fetus. It begins to shrink after the age of 14 and is replaced almost entirely by fibrous and fatty tissue in the elderly. A. lymph node B. spleen C. thymus D. tonsils E. appendix

79. These highly mobile WBCs spend most of their lives wandering in connective tissues killing bacteria by phagocytosis and respiratory bursts. A. macrophages B. lymphocytes C. neutrophils D. eosinophils E. basophils

80. Neutrophils produce a respiratory burst, which destroys more bacteria than can be destroyed by phagocytosis. A respiratory burst results from the formation of a(n) ____ that reacts with H+ to form _____. A. superoxide anion; hydrogen peroxide B. carbonic anhydrase; carbonic acid C. lactase; lactic acid D. lysozymes; defensins E. hypochlorite; lysozymes

81. Basophils aid in the mobility and action of leukocytes by releasing an anticoagulant called _____ and a vasodilator called ____. A. warfarin; histamine B. coumarin; prostaglandin C. histamine; heparin D. heparin; histamine E. prostaglandins; coumadin

82. An individual has been losing weight and showing signs of anemia. A differential WBC count revealed an elevated eosinophil count. These are all symptoms of A. a bacterial infection. B. a parasitic infection. C. a viral infection. D. leukemia. E. seasonal allergies.

83. When lymphocytes called natural killer (NK) cells are "on the lookout" for abnormal cells such as cancerous cells or cells infected with viruses, NK cells release _____, which make holes in the cell membranes of the abnormal cells. A. defensins B. perforins C. superoxide anions D. lysozymes E. hydrogen peroxide

84. These polypeptides stimulate cells to produce antiviral proteins and activate NK cells and macrophages. A. defensins B. complement system C. interferon D. perforins E. interleukins

85. Antibodies work in a similar fashion; they bind to pathogens and expose sites to activate A. the release of interferon. B. B lymphocytes to plasma cells. C. NK cells and T lymphocytes. D. the complement system. E. the release of interleukins.

86. Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by ____ in a process called ____. A. neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization B. neutrophils and macrophages; cytolysis C. mast cells and basophils; opsonization D. mast cells and basophils; cytolysis E. lymphocytes and monocytes; opsonization

87. Complement C3a proteins stimulate mast cells and basophils to promote ____, and complement C3b proteins trigger stimulation of proteins called _____. A. cytolysis; the complement system B. opsonization; perforins C. phagocytosis; the complement system D. inflammation; membrane attack complex E. chemotaxis; opsonization

88. Histamine, bradykinin, and leukotrienes all stimulate A. hyperemia. B. margination. C. the complement complex. D. clotting. E. phagocytosis.

89. In an area of injury, leukocytes adhere to the endothelium, which is called _____, and then squeeze through spaces between endothelial cells into the interstitial fluid, which is called _____. A. opsonization; cytokinesis B. cytokinesis; margination C. margination; diapedesis D. chemotaxis; diapedesis E. diapedesis; chemotaxis

90. Pathogens are prevented from spreading from an infected area by A. plasmin. B. the complement system. C. histamine. D. fibrin. E. heparin.

91. Neutrophils are the chief enemies of bacteria. They exhibit the following steps in fighting bacteria: A. phagocytosis → chemotaxis → diapedesis → margination B. margination → diapedesis → chemotaxis → phagocytosis C. margination → phagocytosis → chemotaxis → diapedesis D. chemotaxis → margination → diapedesis → phagocytosis E. diapedesis → margination → chemotaxis → phagocytosis

92. Activated macrophages and T cells in inflamed tissue release ____ that promote the production of more leukocytes. A. colony-stimulating factors B. erythropoietin C. leukotrienes D. complement proteins E. interferons

93. When neutrophils and macrophages phagocytize bacteria, they secrete interleukin-1, which A. causes hyperemia. B. acts as a pyrogen. C. stimulates abscess formation. D. stimulates the complement system. E. causes inflammation.

94. The mother is Rh-, has Rh antibodies, and is carrying an Rh+ fetus. The movement of Rh antibodies across the placenta causes ____ immunity. Rh- mothers should be given RhoGAM after every fetal event where the fetus is Rh+. Injecting the mother with RhoGAM causes ____ immunity. A. artificial active; natural active B. natural active; artificial active C. artificial passive; natural passive D. natural passive; artificial passive E. natural active; natural passive

95. These are "identification tags" that label every cell of your body as belonging to you. A. antigens B. epitopes C. major histocompatibility complex proteins D. antigen-presenting cells E. antibodies

96. These cells recognize an Ag-MHCP complex, secrete interleukins, attract macrophages, and stimulate T and B cell mitosis and maturation. A. memory T cells B. suppressor T cells C. helper T cells D. cytotoxic T cells E. natural killer cells

97. Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells respond to ____ proteins, while helper T (TH) cells respond to _____ proteins. A. MHC-I; MHC-II B. MHC-II; MHC-I C. MHC-I and MHC-II; MHC-II D. MHC-I and MHC-II; MHC-I E. MHC-I; MHC-I and MHC-II

98. The first time you are exposed to a particular antigen, your plasma cells produce mainly _____ antibodies. A. IgA B. IgD C. IgM D. IgG E. IgE

99. It is allergy season, and you have tremendous nasal congestion, water eyes, and a runny nose. These symptoms are caused when allergens bind to IgE on the membranes of _____ and stimulate them to release _____. A. lymphocytes; antibodies B. mast cells and basophils; histamine C. natural killer cells; perforins D. the adrenal medulla; EP E. monocytes; heparin

100. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) contains the enzyme _____ that stimulates host cells to produce DNA from viral _____. A. reverse transcriptive; RNA B. reverse transcriptive; DNA C. DNA polymerase; DNA D. RNA polymerase; RNA E. RNA polymerase; DNA

21 Key

1. Cells infected with viruses may release ___, a chemical signal that signals neighboring cells to defend themselves against infection. interferon

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #1

2. ___ infections are those that become established in people whose immune systems are compromised by some other cause. Opportunistic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #2

3. Before a monocyte can phagocytize bacteria or dead WBCs, it must transform into a/an _____. macrophage

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #3

4. The migration of neutrophils through the wall of a blood vessel is called ___. diapedesis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #4

5. Small molecules called ___ are not antigenic by themselves, but can become antigenic by binding to human proteins. (Penicillin is an example.) haptens

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 021 Chapter... #5

6. The monokines and lymphokines are collectively called ___, a term that refers to the fact that they are messengers from one WBC to another. interleukins

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #6

7. ___ is a process in which T cells that attack one's own antigens are destroyed, leaving the immune system in a state of self-tolerance. Clonal deletion

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 021 Chapter... #7

8. ___ is the attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation by a chemical called kinin. Chemotaxis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #8

9. Disease-causing organisms and substances are collectively called ___. pathogens

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #9

10. Interleukin and other chemicals that cause fever are called ___. pyrogens

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #10

11. Clonal deletion destroys T cells that react against the body's own antigens. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 021 Chapter... #11

12. Antigens are usually macromolecules with highly repetitive structures. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #12

13. Interleukins are chemical messengers secreted by leukocytes to communicate with each other. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #13

14. Natural killer (NK) cells are lymphocytes that do not depend on recognition of a specific foreign antigen. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #14

15. One role of macrophages is to "present" antigens so that helper T cells can recognize them. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #15

16. All antibody molecules in one person have identical heavy chains but differ in their light chains. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #16

17. Anaphylactic shock is characterized by dangerously high blood pressure. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #17

18. Opsonization is a process in which foreign cells are lysed by complement proteins. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #18

19. Plasma cells develop from T cells after exposure to an antigen. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #19

20. The light chains of an immunoglobulin bind to an antigen and vary in structure, while the heavy chains are constant in structure and determine the class to which an immunoglobulin belongs. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 021 Chapter... #20

21. Lymph nodes are the only lymphatic organs with afferent lymphatic vessels. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 021 Chapter... #21

22. Complement proteins, unlike antibodies, can lyse a foreign cell. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #22

23. There is no specific criterion for the minimum temperature considered to be a fever. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #23

24. Lymphatic capillaries are the smallest lymphatic vessels in organs such the lymph nodes, spleen, and tonsils. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #24

25. Histamine, a strong vasodilator, also dilates the bronchioles and promotes free breathing. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 021 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

anaphylactic shock bradykinin cisterna chyli diapedesis hyaluronidase hyperemia lysozyme margination opsonization right lymphatic duct thoracic duct

basophils chemotaxis complement protein eosinophils hydrogen peroxide lumbar trunk macrophages neutrophils pyrogen spleen thymus

Saladin - 021 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the former monocytes that avidly phagocytize bacteria and other matter? macrophages

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #26

27. Which term partially accounts for the redness of inflamed tissue? hyperemia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #27

28. Which term can be described as a fever-producing chemical? pyrogen

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #28

29. Which term describes the destruction of bacteria with hydrogen peroxide and hypochlorite? neutrophils

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 021 Chapter... #29

30. Which term can be described as the difficulty breathing and a sudden drop in blood pressure due to immediate hypersensitivity to an antigen? anaphylactic shock

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 021 Chapter... #30

31. Which term can be described as the process of coating bacteria with complement, making them easier to phagocytize? opsonization

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #31

32. Which term can be described as the antibiotic agent in tears, saliva, and mucus? lysozyme

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 021 Chapter... #32

33. Which term can be described as the adhesion of a neutrophil to the wall of a blood vessel near inflamed tissue? margination

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34. Which term can be described as the largest lymphatic duct draining the lower body, the left arm and the left side of the head? thoracic duct

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35. Which term can be described as the lymphatic organ in which the lymphocytes form white pulp? spleen

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36. Antibody molecules consist of ___ polypeptide chains depending on which class of antibody is considered. A. 1 to 6 B. 2 to 8 C. 2 to 10 D. 4 to 10 E. 4 to 20

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37. Bacterial infection is especially likely to elevate the ___ count. A. lymphocyte B. basophil C. monocyte D. neutrophil E. eosinophil

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38. Before a B lymphocyte can secrete antibodies it must transform into A. a stem cell. B. a plasma cell. C. an antigen-presenting cell. D. a T cell. E. a macrophage.

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39. One mechanism of antibody action is ___, which makes bacteria easier to phagocytize. A. margination B. cytolysis C. opsonization D. complement fixation E. pyrexia

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41. In sunburn, the redness of the skin results from A. hyperemia. B. kinin. C. diapedesis. D. pyrexia. E. embarrassment.

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42. The main antigen-presenting cells in the body are A. neutrophils. B. fibroblasts. C. helper T cells. D. plasma cells. E. macrophages.

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43. The formed elements most directly responsible for humoral immunity are A. killer T cells. B. helper T cells. C. B lymphocytes. D. mast cells. E. neutrophils.

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44. The function of an antigen-presenting cell depends on the presence of ___ on its plasma membrane. A. IgG B. interleukin-2 C. helper factors D. MHC proteins E. complement proteins

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45. All of the following are macrophages except A. microglia. B. histiocytes. C. eosinophils. D. Kupffer cells. E. Langerhans cells.

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46. Which of the following cells are destroyed by the AIDS virus? A. plasma cells B. B cells C. helper T cells D. cytotoxic T cells E. natural killer cells

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47. Plasma cells arise from A. killer T cells. B. helper T cells. C. mast cells. D. neutrophils. E. B cells.

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49. Suppressor T cells are associated with A. cell-mediated immunity. B. passive immunity. C. innate resistance. D. humoral immunity. E. diplomatic immunity.

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51. Complement fixation enables foreign cells to be destroyed by A. neutralization. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. cytolysis. E. apoptosis.

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54. MALT is lymphatic tissue found in such places as A. the spleen. B. the thymus. C. the bone marrow. D. the digestive mucosa. E. the lymph nodes.

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55. Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called A. albumins. B. interleukins. C. globulins. D. isoenzymes. E. thrombins.

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56. Which of the following is not a form of nonspecific resistance? A. vaccination B. fever C. lysozyme D. stomach acid E. inflammation

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57. In inflammation, basophils produce all of the following chemicals except A. histamine. B. perforin. C. serotonin. D. bradykinin. E. heparin.

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58. Capping and antigen endocytosis are early steps in the action of A. antigen-presenting cells. B. NK cells. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. helper T cells. E. immunoglobulins.

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59. T cells become immunocompetent during their stay in A. the spleen. B. the bone marrow. C. the yolk sac. D. the lymph nodes. E. the thymus.

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60. The largest antibodies are in the ___ class. A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA E. IgE

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61. In a transfusion reaction, the hemolysis of mismatched erythrocytes results from A. precipitation. B. opsonization. C. complement fixation. D. agglutination. E. coagulation.

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62. Macrophages secrete a lymphokine called ___. A. kinin B. kininogen C. bradykinin D. monokine E. macrophage-activating factor

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63. Cytotoxic T cells can destroy cancer cells by means of a secretion called A. perforin. B. hapten. C. pyrogen. D. interleukin. E. complement.

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64. Most circulating antibodies, and the only ones that cross the placenta, are A. IgD. B. IgM. C. IgG. D. IgA. E. IgE.

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65. Lymphocytes are ___ once they have developed surface receptors for a particular antigen. A. capped B. opsonized C. self-tolerant D. sensitized E. immunocompetent

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66. Tapeworms, hookworms, and other parasites too large to phagocytize are attacked mainly by A. eosinophils. B. natural killer cells. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. macrophages. E. neutrophils.

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67. Which of these is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation? A. redness B. fever C. swelling D. heat E. pain

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68. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except A. anaphylaxis. B. systemic lupus erythematosus. C. rheumatic fever. D. type II diabetes mellitus. E. myasthenia gravis.

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69. In order for a helper T cell to recognize an antigen, the antigen must be bound to A. a hapten. B. an immunoglobulin. C. a natural killer cell. D. an MHC protein. E. a basophil.

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70. Antibodies A. are steroids. B. are proteins. C. are polysaccharides. D. are antigenic. E. are lipids.

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71. The lymphatic system returns about _____ L of fluid back to the circulatory system each day. A. 0.5 to 1.5 B. 2 to 4 C. 5 to 7 D. 7.5 to 9 E. 10 to 12

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72. Special lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary _____ that cannot be absorbed into the capillaries. A. water B. glucose C. lipids D. amino acids E. vitamins

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73. Lymph most closely resembles A. perilymph. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. intracellular fluid. D. plasma. E. saliva.

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77. The largest tonsils, which are the ones most commonly removed in a tonsillectomy, are the _____ tonsils. A. adenoid B. lingual C. pharyngeal D. palatine E. nasopharyngeal

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84. These polypeptides stimulate cells to produce antiviral proteins and activate NK cells and macrophages. A. defensins B. complement system C. interferon D. perforins E. interleukins

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88. Histamine, bradykinin, and leukotrienes all stimulate A. hyperemia. B. margination. C. the complement complex. D. clotting. E. phagocytosis.

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90. Pathogens are prevented from spreading from an infected area by A. plasmin. B. the complement system. C. histamine. D. fibrin. E. heparin.

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98. The first time you are exposed to a particular antigen, your plasma cells produce mainly _____ antibodies. A. IgA B. IgD C. IgM D. IgG E. IgE

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Chapter 22 1. The largest passageways of the bronchial tree that lack cartilage are called ___. ________________________________________

2. The depth of inspiration is governed by the firing frequency of neurons in a nucleus of the medulla oblongata called the ___. ________________________________________

3. The ability of the lungs to inflate easily, called pulmonary ___, is reduced in certain fibrotic diseases of the lungs. ________________________________________

4. Peripheral chemoreceptors of respiration are located in the ___ (name any location). ________________________________________

5. The ___ disorders of respiration do not affect vital capacity but do reduce the FEV1.0 and maximum voluntary ventilation. ________________________________________

6. An excessive concentration of CO2 in the tissue fluids, called ___, can create a pH imbalance called ___. ________________________________________

7. Right-sided heart failure due to obstructed pulmonary circulation is called ___. ________________________________________

8. The exchange of HCO3- for Cl- across the plasma membrane of an RBC is called the ___. ________________________________________

9. The reaction CO2 + H2O  HCO3- + H+ proceeds much more rapidly in RBCs than in the plasma because RBCs contain the enzyme ___ . ________________________________________

10. Ventilation-___ coupling is the principle that blood flow to different areas of the lung is proportional to the air supply to those areas, so blood is directed to the best-ventilated parts of the lung. ________________________________________

11. The apneustic center of the pons is only hypothetical. True False

12. The expiratory center of the medulla oblongata normally controls each expiration. True False

13. All atmospheric gases are equally soluble in the blood and tissue fluid. True False

14. Hypoventilation leads to hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis. True False

15. It normally involves no muscular effort to exhale, only to inhale. True False

16. Most CO2 in the blood is transported in the form of carbaminohemoglobin. True False

17. Hyperventilation occurs when the peripheral chemoreceptors sense high levels of CO2 in the arterial blood. True False

18. Tuberculosis is caused by a Streptococcus infection. True False

19. We do not need to know the residual volume of the lungs to determine the vital capacity. True False

20. Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting. True False

21. The binding of one oxygen molecule to hemoglobin makes it easier for the next one to bind. True False

22. At rest, the blood gives up only one-quarter of its oxygen as it passes through the systemic capillaries. True False

23. As hemoglobin binds hydrogen ions, it tends to release oxygen. True False

24. Hemoglobin releases the same amount of oxygen to all the tissues regardless of variations in their metabolic rate. True False

25. Hemoglobin binds more oxygen at high temperatures than it does at lower temperatures. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

alveolar macrophages atelectasis carbon dioxide conducting zone emphysema FEV1.0 Henry's law mucus oxygen respiratory zone vital capacity

anaphylaxis Bohr effect Charle's law Dalton's law expiratory reserve volume fibrosis left shift nitrogen residual volume total lung volume

26. Which term can be described as the percent of the vital capacity that can be exhaled in a given time such as 1 second? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as the most abundant gas in the atmosphere? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as an obstructive pulmonary disorder? ________________________________________

29. Which term can be described as the collapse of all or part of a lung? ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as the final defense against inhaled debris? ________________________________________

31. Which term can describes the most abundant gas in expired air? ________________________________________

32. Which term is defined as the total pressure of a gas mixture equals the sum of the partial pressures of the constituent gases? ________________________________________

33. Which term describes the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled in one breath? ________________________________________

34. Oxyhemoglobin dissociates more easily at low pH is known as ________. ________________________________________

35. All parts of the respiratory tract that do not participate in gas exchange with the blood are known as the ________. ________________________________________

36. Which of the following correctly traces the route of air flow in the respiratory tract? A. larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchioles → bronchi B. pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchiole C. larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles D. larynx → pharynx → bronchi → trachea → bronchioles E. pharynx → trachea → larynx → bronchi → bronchioles

37. The posterior limit of the nasal cavity is/are A. the vestibule. B. the choanae. C. the fossae. D. the nasal septum. E. the conchae.

38. The ___ consist of mucous membranes supported by the turbinate bones. A. choanae B. meatuses C. nares D. conchae E. fossae

39. The primary purpose of the erectile tissues of the respiratory tract is to allow A. the trachea to minimize the volume of dead space. B. blood to be directed to the best-ventilated alveoli. C. air to be directed to the best-perfused alveoli. D. each nasal fossa to be periodically rehumidified. E. inhaled pathogens to be trapped before they reach the lungs.

40. The lower respiratory tract begins at A. the trachea. B. the choanae. C. the primary bronchi. D. the bronchioles. E. the glottis.

41. The largest of the following cartilages is A. the thyroid cartilage. B. the corniculate cartilage. C. the arytenoid cartilage. D. the epiglottic cartilage. E. the cricoid cartilage.

42. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by A. alveolar macrophages. B. type I alveolar cells. C. type II alveolar cells. D. goblet cells. E. S cells.

43. One effect of hypoxia is A. pneumothorax. B. atelectasis. C. low hematocrit. D. anemia. E. cyanosis.

44. Carbon monoxide poisoning causes A. ischemic hypoxia. B. Cheyne-Stokes hypoxia. C. histotoxic hypoxia. D. hypoxemic hypoxia. E. anemic hypoxia.

45. Most CO2 is transported in the blood A. bound to the ferrous ion of hemoglobin. B. as dissolved gas bubbles. C. as bicarbonate ions. D. bound to the globin moiety of hemoglobin. E. bound to carbonic anhydrase.

46. The difference between the amount of air you normally inhale with each breath and the amount you can inhale with maximum effort is A. the inspiratory reserve volume. B. the maximum inspiratory volume. C. the vital capacity. D. the residual volume. E. the maximum breathing capacity.

47. In spirometric measurements, the difference between a volume and a capacity is A. a volume is a measurement taken at rest whereas a capacity is a measurement taken during peak physical exertion. B. a capacity is a measurement taken at rest whereas a volume is a measurement taken during peak physical exertion. C. a capacity is a measurement expected of an average healthy individual whereas a volume is the measurement actually obtained in a person with respiratory disease. D. a capacity is determined by adding two or more respiratory volumes. E. a capacity is a measure of inspiration whereas a volume is a measure of expiration.

48. Gasping, labored breathing or "craving for air" is called A. eupnea. B. hyperventilation. C. dyspnea. D. hyperpnea. E. Cheyne-Stokes breathing.

49. The ___ pressure is the gas pressure between the parietal and visceral pleurae minus the gas pressure in the alveoli. A. transpulmonary B. intrapleural C. atmospheric D. ventilation E. intrapulmonary

50. Which of the following has the strongest stimulatory effect on pulmonary ventilation? A. PO2 of the air B. PO2 of the blood C. PCO2 of the blood D. systolic blood pressure E. osmolarity of the blood

51. The bonding of CO2 to hemoglobin produces A. methemoglobin. B. oxyhemoglobin. C. reduced hemoglobin. D. carboxyhemoglobin. E. carbaminohemoglobin.

52. The venous blood coming out of your leg muscles at rest probably has about ___ as/than the arterial blood going into it. A. the same amount of oxygen B. 10% to 12% less oxygen C. 20% to 25% less oxygen D. 65% to 72% less oxygen E. 97% less oxygen

53. Which of these would not cause atelectasis? A. emphysema B. a tumor blocking a tertiary bronchus C. a chest puncture D. pneumothorax E. a marble caught in a child's bronchus

54. ___ protects the lungs from damage by over-inflation. A. Pulmonary compliance B. The inflation reflex C. The baroreflex D. Airway resistance E. The apneustic center

55. When a mixture of gases is in contact with a liquid, the amount of each gas that dissolves in the liquid is proportional to its partial pressure, according to A. Poiseuille's law. B. Henry's law. C. Dalton's law. D. the law of Laplace. E. Hoyle's rule.

56. When bicarbonate ions are produced in an erythrocyte, they diffuse into the blood plasma. To compensate for this, ___ diffuses from the plasma into the RBC. A. CO2 B. O2 C. Na+ D. H2CO3 E. Cl-

57. Expiration is normally a passive process resulting from the ___ of the thoracic cage. A. elasticity B. distensibility C. capacitance D. compliance E. expiratory reserve

58. The paranasal sinus closest to the upper teeth is A. the maxillary sinus. B. the ethmoid sinus. C. the carotid sinus. D. the sphenoid sinus. E. the frontal sinus.

59. The hilum of the lung is on its A. cupola. B. cardiac notch. C. mediastinal surface. D. costal surface. E. base.

60. Which of the following is most important in keeping food out of the trachea? A. extrinsic muscles of the larynx B. epiglottis C. glottis D. soft palate E. vocal folds

61. Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus? A. sphenoid B. cricoid C. ethmoid D. maxillary E. frontal

62. Vibrissae are A. nasal guard hairs. B. nasal cartilages. C. cilia of the nasal mucosa. D. folds in the larynx. E. air passages between the nasal conchae.

63. The smallest passageways in the lung to have ciliated epithelia are A. terminal bronchioles. B. respiratory bronchioles. C. tertiary bronchi. D. alveolar ducts. E. alveoli.

64. The Valsalva maneuver A. is used to dislodge foreign matter from the airway. B. prevents food and drink from entering the nasal cavity. C. prevents food and drink from entering the trachea. D. protects the lungs from overinflation. E. increases pressure in the abdominal cavity.

65. In keeping with ___, the warming of air as it is inhaled is one factor that inflates the lungs. A. the Bohr effect B. Dalton's law C. the law of Laplace D. Charles' law E. Henry's law

66. Transpulmonary pressure is greater than zero during expiration and in A. inspiration. B. emphysema. C. pneumothorax. D. dyspnea. E. apnea.

67. Squamous cell carcinoma is a form of lung cancer that begins in A. the epithelium of the bronchi. B. the pulmonary lymph nodes. C. the squamous type I cells of the alveoli. D. the mucous glands of the bronchi. E. the respiratory bronchioles.

68. Suppose the atmospheric pressure at a given time is 765 mmHg, the intrapleural pressure during inspiration is 759 mmHg, and the intrapulmonary pressure is 763 mmHg. Under these conditions the transpulmonary pressure would be A. +6 mmHg. B. -6 mmHg. C. +4 mmHg. D. -4 mmHg. E. +2 mmHg.

69. Suppose a person has a tidal volume of 650 mL, an inspiratory reserve volume of 3,400 mL, an anatomic dead space of 155 mL, and a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min. What would be the value of his alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)? A. 14 breaths per minute B. 490 mL C. 490 mL/min D. 6.93 L/min E. 38.5 L/min

70. Several hormones promote oxygen unloading from the hemoglobin to the systemic tissues by promoting the synthesis of A. more hemoglobin. B. carbonic anhydrase (CAH). C. 2,3 biphosphoglycerate (BPG). D. pulmonary surfactant. E. cyclooxygenase.

71. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves carry signals from the peripheral chemoreceptors to A. the central chemoreceptors. B. the aortic and carotid bodies. C. the aortic and carotid sinuses. D. the pneumotaxic center of the pons. E. the medulla oblongata.

72. The dilated chamber inside the ala nasi of the external protruding nose is called the _____ and is lined by _____ epithelium. The ala nasi can be seen below. A. vestibule; stratified squamous B. nasal cavity; ciliated pseudostratified columnar C. nasopharynx; ciliated pseudostratified columnar D. oral cavity; stratified squamous E. nares; ciliated columnar epithelium

73. The narrow air passages which cause turbulence are called ____ and are lined by ____. A. vestibules; stratified squamous B. nasal fossae; simple squamous C. meatuses; ciliated pseudostratified columnar D. nasopharynx; ciliated pseudostratified columnar E. nasal foramina; pseudostratified columnar

74. The _____ houses the pharyngeal tonsils and receives the auditory tubes, while the ____ houses the palatine and lingual tonsils. A. nasopharynx; oropharynx B. nasopharynx; laryngopharynx C. oropharynx; laryngopharynx D. laryngopharynx; oropharynx E. oropharynx; nasopharynx

75. The vocal cords are anchored in the ____ cartilage and are controlled by movement of _____ cartilage(s). A. cricoid; thyroid and arytenoid B. thyroid; arytenoid and corniculate C. arytenoid; thyroid D. epiglottis; thyroid and cricoid E. corniculate; thyroid and cricoid

76. Inhaled foreign objects tend to lodge more in the right bronchus because it A. has a poorer mucociliary escalator than the left. B. has less sympathetic stimulation than the left. C. is wider and more vertical than the left. D. has no trachealis muscle, which is only found in the left. E. has less parasympathetic stimulation than the left.

77. Particles stuck in mucus are moved out of the bronchioles, bronchi, and trachea to the _____ by _____. A. alveoli; peristaltic contractions B. pharynx; peristaltic contractions C. alveoli; movement of cilia D. pharynx; movement of cilia E. nasal cavity; movement of cilia

78. The left lung has _____ lobes and the right lung has _____ lobes to make room for the _____. A. three; two; liver B. two; three; thymus C. two; three; heart D. three; two; heart E. three; two; thymus

79. The bronchioles have walls with _____ that are contracted by stimulation of the ____ nervous system. A. C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage; parasympathetic B. C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage; sympathetic C. smooth muscle; sympathetic D. smooth muscle; parasympathetic E. skeletal muscle; somatic

80. Most of the wall of an alveolus consists of _____. Cells that wander the lumens of the alveoli and surrounding connective tissue are called _____. A. squamous (type I) alveolar cells; alveolar macrophages B. squamous (type I) alveolar cells; great (type II) alveolar cells C. great (type II) alveolar cells; alveolar macrophages D. great (type II) alveolar cells; squamous (type I) alveolar cells E. alveolar macrophages; squamous (type I) alveolar cells

81. Your resting ventilation rate is about ____ mL per minute. A. 420 B. 4,200 C. 600 D. 1500 E. 6000

82. When you inhale, your lungs expand easily because they have A. low compliance. B. high compliance. C. low elasticity. D. high elasticity. E. high resistance.

83. Surface tension at the surface of the water and air in alveoli resists inspiration. To decrease this surface tension, the great (type II) alveolar cells release A. lysozymes. B. pleural fluid. C. surfactant. D. mucus. E. bile.

84. If your chest expands, you would predict the intrapulmonary pressure to _____ because of ____ law. A. decrease; Charles' B. decrease; Boyle's C. increase; Dalton's D. increase; Henry's E. increase; Bohr's

85. Your frequency of breathing is 12 breaths/minute; your tidal volume is 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4,700 mL; and your dead air space is 150 mL. Your alveolar ventilation rate is ____ mL/min. A. 1,800 B. 3,000 C. 4,200 D. 6,000 E. 6,500

86. The amount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration is called ______, and the amount of air left that cannot be exhaled is called ______. A. vital capacity; expiratory reserve volume B. vital capacity; residual volume C. tidal volume; expiratory reserve volume D. inspiratory reserve volume; expiratory reserve volume E. tidal volume; residual volume

87. You opened a can of carbonated soda and poured it into a glass. The carbon dioxide formed bubbles in the soda because the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the air above the soda _____, which is explained by _____ Law. A. decreased; Henry's B. decreased; Charles' C. increased; Henry's D. increased; Charles' E. increased; Boyle's

88. You measured your resting breathing frequency at 12 breaths per minute with a tidal volume of 500 mL per breath. You exercised by riding a bicycle and peddled as fast as you could for 20 minutes. You then stopped and measured your breathing frequency and tidal volume again. You would predict that your breathing frequency would _____ and your tidal volume would _____. A. decrease; increase B. decrease; decrease C. increase; decrease D. increase; increase E. increase; not change

89. In diabetes mellitus, acidosis can cause _____ depth and rate of breathing, which is called _____. A. increased; Kussmaul respiration B. increased; Dalton's respiration C. decreased; hypoventilation D. decreased; orthopnea E. decreased; eupnea

90. To help expel abdominopelvic contents during urination, defecation, or childbirth, we often take a deep breath, hold it, and then contract the abdominal muscles. This is called the A. Bohn effect. B. Hering-Breuer reflex. C. Charles' Law. D. valsalva maneuver. E. Dalton's Law

91. The inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the ____, while the apneustic and pneumotaxic centers are located in the _____. A. pons; midbrain B. medulla oblongata; pons C. medulla oblongata; thalamus D. thalamus; hypothalamus E. pons; thalamus

92. You are sitting at the computer doing quiet normal breathing, or eupnea. The nuclei responsible for the eupnea is the A. dorsal respiratory group (DRG). B. ventral respiratory group (VRG). C. apneustic center. D. Hering-Breuer center. E. pneumostatic center.

93. Compared to inspired air, CO2 is higher in alveolar air, O2 is lower in alveolar air, water is higher in alveolar air, and nitrogen is lower in alveolar air. This can be explained because A. CO2 moves into the alveoli and O2 and H2O move out into the alveoli from blood capillaries. B. CO2 moves out of the alveoli and O2 and H2O move into the capillaries. C. CO2 moves into the alveoli, O2 moves out of the alveoli, and H2O is added all along the respiratory tract. D. N2 involves a pathological situation. N2 will move out of the alveoli into the capillaries increasing the risk of the bends. E. CO2 and N2 move into the alveoli and H2O moves out of the alveoli as respiratory water.

94. You have a chamber that contains an equal volume of atmospheric air and an equal volume of water. You would expect _____ in the air to reach equilibrium with the water the fastest. A. O2 B. CO2 C. N2 D. CO2 and O2 to take the same time E. H2

95. You have a closed container full of air with a pressure of 760 mmHg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the air. The pressure of the air just due to oxygen is _____ mmHg. A. 760 B. 159 C. 104 D. 520 E. 601

96. During vigorous exercise, RBCs spend 0.3 sec in an alveolar capillary, compared to 0.75 sec at rest. In alveolar capillaries, RBCs in 0.3 sec would be able to load _____% of the O2 compared to RBCs in 0.75 sec. A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80 E. E.100

97. As altitude increases, the partial pressure of O2 _____ and the partial pressure of CO2 ______. A. increases; increases B. increases; decreases C. decreases; increases D. decreases; decreases E. decrease; does not change

98. Each hemoglobin can carry up to ____ O2 molecules that are bound to ____. A. 4; globin B. 4; iron C. 2; globin D. 2; iron E. 2; heme

99. Hemoglobin bound to at least one molecule of O2 is called _____; hemoglobin bound to no O2 is called _____, and hemoglobin bound to CO2 is called _____. A. carbaminohemoglobin; deoxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin B. deoxyhemoglobin; reduced hemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin C. oxyhemoglobin; deoxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin D. reduced hemoglobin; oxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin E. deoxyhemoglobin; oxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin

100. Carbon monoxide binds 210 times as tightly as _____ to the _____ of hemoglobin. A. carbon dioxide; iron on heme B. carbon dioxide; amino acids in globin C. oxygen; iron on heme D. oxygen; amino acids in globin E. hydrogen; iron on heme

22 Key

1. The largest passageways of the bronchial tree that lack cartilage are called ___. bronchioles

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #1

2. The depth of inspiration is governed by the firing frequency of neurons in a nucleus of the medulla oblongata called the ___. inspiratory center (or DRG)

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 022 Chapter... #2

3. The ability of the lungs to inflate easily, called pulmonary ___, is reduced in certain fibrotic diseases of the lungs. compliance

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #3

4. Peripheral chemoreceptors of respiration are located in the ___ (name any location). aortic or carotid bodies

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5. The ___ disorders of respiration do not affect vital capacity but do reduce the FEV1.0 and maximum voluntary ventilation. obstructive

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6. An excessive concentration of CO2 in the tissue fluids, called ___, can create a pH imbalance called ___. hypercapnia; acidosis

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7. Right-sided heart failure due to obstructed pulmonary circulation is called ___. ischemic hypoxia

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8. The exchange of HCO3- for Cl- across the plasma membrane of an RBC is called the ___. chloride shift

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9. The reaction CO2 + H2O  HCO3- + H+ proceeds much more rapidly in RBCs than in the plasma because RBCs contain the enzyme ___ . carbonic anhydrase

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11. The apneustic center of the pons is only hypothetical. TRUE

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12. The expiratory center of the medulla oblongata normally controls each expiration. FALSE

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13. All atmospheric gases are equally soluble in the blood and tissue fluid. FALSE

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14. Hypoventilation leads to hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis. TRUE

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15. It normally involves no muscular effort to exhale, only to inhale. TRUE

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16. Most CO2 in the blood is transported in the form of carbaminohemoglobin. FALSE

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17. Hyperventilation occurs when the peripheral chemoreceptors sense high levels of CO2 in the arterial blood. TRUE

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18. Tuberculosis is caused by a Streptococcus infection. FALSE

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19. We do not need to know the residual volume of the lungs to determine the vital capacity. TRUE

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20. Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting. TRUE

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21. The binding of one oxygen molecule to hemoglobin makes it easier for the next one to bind. TRUE

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22. At rest, the blood gives up only one-quarter of its oxygen as it passes through the systemic capillaries. TRUE

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23. As hemoglobin binds hydrogen ions, it tends to release oxygen. TRUE

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24. Hemoglobin releases the same amount of oxygen to all the tissues regardless of variations in their metabolic rate. FALSE

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25. Hemoglobin binds more oxygen at high temperatures than it does at lower temperatures. TRUE

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Match the following terms to the definitions.

alveolar macrophages atelectasis carbon dioxide conducting zone emphysema FEV1.0 Henry's law mucus oxygen respiratory zone vital capacity

anaphylaxis Bohr effect Charle's law Dalton's law expiratory reserve volume fibrosis left shift nitrogen residual volume total lung volume

Saladin - 022 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the percent of the vital capacity that can be exhaled in a given time such as 1 second? FEV1.0

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27. Which term can be described as the most abundant gas in the atmosphere? nitrogen

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28. Which term can be described as an obstructive pulmonary disorder? emphysema

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29. Which term can be described as the collapse of all or part of a lung? atelectasis

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30. Which term can be described as the final defense against inhaled debris? alveolar macrophages

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31. Which term can describes the most abundant gas in expired air? carbon dioxide

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32. Which term is defined as the total pressure of a gas mixture equals the sum of the partial pressures of the constituent gases? Dalton's law

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33. Which term describes the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled in one breath? vital capacity

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34. Oxyhemoglobin dissociates more easily at low pH is known as ________. Bohr effect

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35. All parts of the respiratory tract that do not participate in gas exchange with the blood are known as the ________. conducting zone

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37. The posterior limit of the nasal cavity is/are A. the vestibule. B. the choanae. C. the fossae. D. the nasal septum. E. the conchae.

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38. The ___ consist of mucous membranes supported by the turbinate bones. A. choanae B. meatuses C. nares D. conchae E. fossae

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40. The lower respiratory tract begins at A. the trachea. B. the choanae. C. the primary bronchi. D. the bronchioles. E. the glottis.

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41. The largest of the following cartilages is A. the thyroid cartilage. B. the corniculate cartilage. C. the arytenoid cartilage. D. the epiglottic cartilage. E. the cricoid cartilage.

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42. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by A. alveolar macrophages. B. type I alveolar cells. C. type II alveolar cells. D. goblet cells. E. S cells.

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43. One effect of hypoxia is A. pneumothorax. B. atelectasis. C. low hematocrit. D. anemia. E. cyanosis.

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44. Carbon monoxide poisoning causes A. ischemic hypoxia. B. Cheyne-Stokes hypoxia. C. histotoxic hypoxia. D. hypoxemic hypoxia. E. anemic hypoxia.

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48. Gasping, labored breathing or "craving for air" is called A. eupnea. B. hyperventilation. C. dyspnea. D. hyperpnea. E. Cheyne-Stokes breathing.

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51. The bonding of CO2 to hemoglobin produces A. methemoglobin. B. oxyhemoglobin. C. reduced hemoglobin. D. carboxyhemoglobin. E. carbaminohemoglobin.

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53. Which of these would not cause atelectasis? A. emphysema B. a tumor blocking a tertiary bronchus C. a chest puncture D. pneumothorax E. a marble caught in a child's bronchus

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 022 Chapter... #53

54. ___ protects the lungs from damage by over-inflation. A. Pulmonary compliance B. The inflation reflex C. The baroreflex D. Airway resistance E. The apneustic center

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56. When bicarbonate ions are produced in an erythrocyte, they diffuse into the blood plasma. To compensate for this, ___ diffuses from the plasma into the RBC. A. CO2 B. O2 C. Na+ D. H2CO3 E. Cl-

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #56

57. Expiration is normally a passive process resulting from the ___ of the thoracic cage. A. elasticity B. distensibility C. capacitance D. compliance E. expiratory reserve

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #57

58. The paranasal sinus closest to the upper teeth is A. the maxillary sinus. B. the ethmoid sinus. C. the carotid sinus. D. the sphenoid sinus. E. the frontal sinus.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 022 Chapter... #58

59. The hilum of the lung is on its A. cupola. B. cardiac notch. C. mediastinal surface. D. costal surface. E. base.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #59

60. Which of the following is most important in keeping food out of the trachea? A. extrinsic muscles of the larynx B. epiglottis C. glottis D. soft palate E. vocal folds

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 022 Chapter... #60

61. Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus? A. sphenoid B. cricoid C. ethmoid D. maxillary E. frontal

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #61

62. Vibrissae are A. nasal guard hairs. B. nasal cartilages. C. cilia of the nasal mucosa. D. folds in the larynx. E. air passages between the nasal conchae.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #62

63. The smallest passageways in the lung to have ciliated epithelia are A. terminal bronchioles. B. respiratory bronchioles. C. tertiary bronchi. D. alveolar ducts. E. alveoli.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #63

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65. In keeping with ___, the warming of air as it is inhaled is one factor that inflates the lungs. A. the Bohr effect B. Dalton's law C. the law of Laplace D. Charles' law E. Henry's law

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #65

66. Transpulmonary pressure is greater than zero during expiration and in A. inspiration. B. emphysema. C. pneumothorax. D. dyspnea. E. apnea.

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81. Your resting ventilation rate is about ____ mL per minute. A. 420 B. 4,200 C. 600 D. 1500 E. 6000

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #81

82. When you inhale, your lungs expand easily because they have A. low compliance. B. high compliance. C. low elasticity. D. high elasticity. E. high resistance.

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95. You have a closed container full of air with a pressure of 760 mmHg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the air. The pressure of the air just due to oxygen is _____ mmHg. A. 760 B. 159 C. 104 D. 520 E. 601

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #95

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98. Each hemoglobin can carry up to ____ O2 molecules that are bound to ____. A. 4; globin B. 4; iron C. 2; globin D. 2; iron E. 2; heme

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 022 Chapter... #100

Chapter 23 1. ___ is the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood. ________________________________________

2. Each kidney has one million or more functional units called ___. ________________________________________

3. ___ is a hormone that regulates sodium reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubule. ________________________________________

4. ___ is a hormone that regulates water permeability of the collecting duct. ________________________________________

5. Urine formation begins with the filtration of fluid from a spheroid capillary bed called the ___. ________________________________________

6. ___ is a process in which the renal tubules remove wastes from the blood and add them to the tubular fluid. ________________________________________

7. Urine is conveyed from the kidney to the bladder by a tube called the ___. ________________________________________

8. The ___ reflex involuntarily empties the bladder unless one consciously suppresses urination. ________________________________________

9. The yellow color of urine is due to the pigment ___. ________________________________________

10. The ___ apparatus monitors the composition and concentration of the tubular fluid and adjusts the glomerular filtration rate. ________________________________________

11. The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs about the same amount of water regardless of the body's state of hydration. True False

12. Urine is always hypertonic to the blood plasma. True False

13. Glycosuria does not occur in diabetes insipidus. True False

14. Renin is a hormone that helps control the body's water balance. True False

15. The kidneys remove the -NH2 group from amino acids and convert the resulting ammonia to urea. True False

16. Uric acid is the most abundant nitrogenous waste in the blood. True False

17. The osmolarity of a nonionizing solute is equal to its molarity. True False

18. After urine enters a minor calyx, it undergoes no further changes in composition or concentration. True False

19. Not all nephrons have a nephron loop. True False

20. The vasa recta arise mainly from the arcuate arteries and perfuse the renal medulla. True False

21. The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is composed of podocytes. True False

22. Voluntary control over urination employs the external urinary sphincter. True False

23. The bladder could not be emptied without the aid of the micturition center of the pons. True False

24. All urea is removed from the blood as it circulates through the kidneys. True False

25. Aldosterone has no effect on sodium reabsorption by the proximal convoluted tubule. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

ADH angiotensin II atrial natriuretic factor detrusor muscle gycemia molarity obligatory water reabsorption peritubular capillaries polyuria rugae specific gravity

aldosterone anuria collecting duct ependymal cells gycosuria nephron loop pedicels podocytes renal capsule solvent drag vasa recta

26. Which term can be described as having spaces called glomerular filtration slits between them? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as the hormone that constricts the efferent arteriole and maintains the glomerular filtration rate when blood pressure drops? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as the process in which solutes follow water that is being absorbed by osmosis? ________________________________________

29. This occurs when the glucose concentration in the proximal convoluted tubule is greater than the transport maximum. ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as the hormone that inhibits Na+ reabsorption, increasing Na+ output in the urine? ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as a countercurrent multiplier? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as a countercurrent exchanger? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the weight of urine per milliliter relative to the weight of distilled water per milliliter? ________________________________________

34. Which term can be described as excessive urine output? ________________________________________

35. Which term can be described as the muscularis of the urinary bladder? ________________________________________

36. The most abundant nitrogenous waste of the blood is A. urea. B. ammonia. C. uric acid. D. creatinine. E. amino acids.

37. Blood plasma has an osmolarity of about A. 30 mOsm/L. B. 100 mOsm/L. C. 300 mOsm/L. D. 900 mOsm/L. E. 1,200 mOsm/L.

38. Starting in the abdominal cavity and progressing dorsally, you would have to cut through the ___, in this order, to expose the kidney. A. renal fascia, peritoneum, adipose capsule, and renal capsule B. peritoneum, renal capsule, renal fascia, and adipose capsule C. peritoneum, adipose capsule, renal capsule, and renal fascia D. peritoneum, renal fascia, adipose capsule, and renal capsule E. adipose capsule, peritoneum, renal fascia, and renal capsule

39. Which of these is not part of a nephron? A. glomerulus B. glomerular capsule C. nephron loop D. collecting duct E. distal convoluted tubule

40. Urine normally contains all of the following except A. sodium. B. urea. C. glucose. D. creatinine. E. potassium.

41. The average adult must excrete at least ___ of urine per day to maintain a safe and stable concentration of urea in the blood. A. 30 mL B. 100 mL C. 400 mL D. 1,200 mL E. 4,400 mL

42. If magnesium chloride (MgCl2) completely ionizes in water to Mg2+ and 2 Cl-, it would require ___ of MgCl2 to make 0.5 L of a 300 mOsm/L solution. A. 15 millimoles B. 50 millimoles C. 100 millimoles D. 150 millimoles E. This cannot be calculated without knowing the molecular weight of MgCl2.

43. The three regions of the male urethra are A. the prostatic, membranous, and penile. B. the prostatic, bulbar, and penile. C. the prostatic, vesicular, and penile. D. the vesicular, bulbar, and penile. E. the vesicular, membranous, and penile.

44. Immediately after the arcuate artery, blood flows into A. the interlobar arteries. B. the renal arteries. C. the afferent arterioles. D. the interlobular arteries. E. the peritubular capillaries.

45. If we follow the ureter into the kidney, we find that the first structure to arise from it is A. the renal sinus. B. the renal pelvis. C. the renal pyramids. D. the major calices. E. the minor calices.

46. The cells of the distal convoluted tubule that come in contact with the afferent arteriole are A. the macula densa. B. the mesangial cells. C. the podocytes. D. the juxtaglomerular cells. E. the juxtamedullary cells.

47. The blood vessels of the renal medulla that run alongside the nephron loops are A. the vasa recta. B. the vasa efferentia. C. the arcuate arteries. D. the peritubular capillaries. E. Henle's vessels.

48. The trigone is a triangular region of A. a renal pyramid. B. the renal cortex. C. the hilum. D. the urinary bladder. E. the prostatic urethra.

49. There is one ___ for each nephron. A. peritubular capillary B. vasa recta C. minor calyx D. afferent arteriole E. interlobular artery

50. The total amount of fluid entering the capsular spaces of all the nephrons in a given time is called A. the rate of tubular secretion. B. the rate of tubular reabsorption. C. the glomerular filtration rate. D. the net filtration pressure. E. the renal clearance.

51. The kidneys do not A. control blood pressure. B. regulate the pH of the body fluids. C. have any role in erythrocyte production. D. produce vitamin D. E. secrete hormones that stimulate thirst.

52. By constricting the ___, angiotensin II maintains the blood pressure in the glomerulus even when systemic blood pressure drops. A. afferent arteriole B. efferent arteriole C. proximal convoluted tubule D. distal convoluted tubule E. renal artery

53. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by A. the glomerular capillaries. B. the collecting duct. C. the renal corpuscle. D. the proximal convoluted tubule. E. the distal convoluted tubule.

54. The thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop is permeable to A. water but not urea. B. sodium ions but not potassium ions. C. sodium and potassium ions but not chloride ions. D. water but not salts. E. sodium, potassium, and chloride ions but not water.

55. The collecting duct reabsorbs not only water but also ___, thus contributing to the osmotic gradient of the renal medulla. A. sodium B. potassium C. urea D. glucose E. protein

56. Kidney damage can cause ___, the excretion of protein in the urine. A. pyuria B. uremia C. albuminuria D. hematuria E. dysuria

57. The glomerular capsule and glomerulus make up A. a renal corpuscle. B. a lobe of the kidney. C. a lobule of the kidney. D. a juxtaglomerular apparatus. E. a nephron.

58. Glucose gets from the tubular fluid into the cytoplasm of the proximal convoluted tubule cells by means of A. osmosis. B. secondary active transport. C. facilitated diffusion. D. solvent drag. E. the paracellular route.

59. A simple squamous epithelium is found in A. the parietal and visceral layers of the glomerular capsule. B. the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule and thin segment of the nephron loop. C. the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule and the proximal convoluted tubule. D. the proximal and distal convoluted tubules. E. the renal pelvis and ureter.

60. If not for the countercurrent multiplier, the kidneys could not produce A. renin. B. erythropoietin. C. hypertonic urine. D. hypotonic urine. E. any urine at all.

61. Blood pressure in the glomerulus is unusually high compared to other capillaries because the diameter of the ___ is greater than that of the ___. A. efferent arteriole; peritubular capillaries B. descending limb; ascending limb C. afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole D. interlobular artery; interlobular vein E. proximal tubule; distal tubule

62. The first step leading to angiotensin II production is the secretion of ___ by the kidneys. A. angiotensin I B. angiotensinogen C. angiotensin converting enzyme D. calcitriol E. renin

63. In diabetes mellitus, glycosuria occurs because the concentration of glucose in the glomerular filtrate exceeds A. the reabsorption capacity of the collecting duct. B. the transport maximum of the proximal tubule. C. its concentration in the blood plasma. D. the rate of renal clearance of glucose. E. the glomerular filtration rate.

64. Because of the ___, very little albumin escapes from the blood during glomerular filtration. A. oncotic pressure of the blood B. hydrostatic pressure of the blood C. fenestrated capillary endothelium D. basement membrane of the glomerulus E. juxtaglomerular apparatus

65. Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate? A. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole B. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole C. vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole D. a drop in oncotic pressure E. an increase in osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule

66. Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to A. angiotensin. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. aldosterone. E. hyponatremia.

67. A realistic value for ___ is about 180 L/day. A. glomerular filtration rate B. net filtration pressure C. adult urine output D. renal blood flow E. sodium reabsorption

68. A patient produces 80 mL of urine per hour. Her urine contains 9.0 mg of urea per milliliter, and her blood contains 0.20 mg of urea per milliliter. What is her rate of renal clearance for urea? A. 4.5 mL/min B. 3.6 L/min C. 1.35 mL/min D. 60 mL/min E. 270 mL/min

69. The rate of renal clearance of penicillin is greater than the glomerular filtration rate. This suggests that A. the glomerular filtration membrane is highly permeable to penicillin. B. penicillin concentration exceeds the transport maximum. C. the uriniferous tubules have no transporters for penicillin. D. penicillin has a high rate of tubular reabsorption. E. penicillin is removed from the blood by tubular secretion.

70. The kidneys secrete the hormone _____, which stimulates RBC production. A. calcitriol B. renin C. thrombopoietin D. erythropoietin E. angiotensin II

71. The kidneys secrete the enzyme renin, which A. stimulates the conversion of calcidiol to calcitriol. B. detoxifies free radicals and drugs by activating peroxisomes. C. stimulates the formation of angiotensin I, which ultimately increases blood pressure. D. curdles milk by coagulating its proteins. E. stimulates the conversion of T3 to T4.

72. The kidney adds an hydroxyl group to calcidiol converting it to A. active vitamin D. B. vitamin C. C. active vitamin B12. D. vitamin E. E. active vitamin A.

73. Urea is a combination of A. uric acid and ammonia. B. ammonia and carbon dioxide. C. creatinine and carbon dioxide. D. uric acid and creatinine. E. urea and creatinine

74. Uric acid is formed by the catabolism of _____, while creatinine is formed by the catabolism of _____. A. carbohydrates; adenosine triphosphate B. fat; nucleic acids C. protein; creatine phosphate D. nucleic acids; creatine phosphate E. cholesterol; creatine phosphate

75. The kidneys are located at levels _____ vertebrae, and the _____ kidney is more inferior because of the space occupied by the liver above it. A. T1 to T7; left B. T8 to T12; right C. T8 to T12; left D. T12 to L3; right E. T12 to L3; left

76. The kidney is connected to the parietal peritoneum by the A. hilum. B. renal capsule. C. renal fascia. D. adipose capsule. E. mesentery

77. The renal parenchyma contains an outer renal _____ that extends inward to form renal _____. A. medulla; pyramids B. medulla; columns C. cortex; pyramids D. cortex; columns E. cortex; papilla

78. Trace urine from the collecting duct of the nephron to the ureter. A. papillary duct → major calyx → minor calyx → renal pelvis B. papillary duct → minor calyx → major calyx → renal pelvis C. renal pelvis → minor calyx → major calyx → papillary duct D. renal pelvis → major calyx → minor calyx → papillary duct E. minor calyx → major calyx → papillary duct → renal pelvis

79. This tubule has a simple cuboidal epithelium nearly devoid of microvilli. A. glomerular capsule B. proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) C. thin segment of the nephron loop D. distal convoluted tubule (DCT) E. collecting duct

80. The concentration gradient is maintained in the renal medulla by _____ nephrons, which make up ____% of the nephrons. A. juxtamedullary; 85 B. juxtamedullary; 15 C. cortical; 85 D. cortical; 15 E. medullary; 50

81. The capillary bed associated with nephron loop in the juxtamedullary nephron is the A. vasa recta. B. glomerulus. C. peritubular capillary. D. medullary capillary. E. endocortical capillary.

82. The interlobar artery penetrates each renal column and gives off the _____ artery that runs at the boundary between the cortex and medulla. A. arcuate B. interlobular C. afferent D. efferent E. segmental

83. The arcuate arteries travel at the junction of the medulla and cortex and give rise to ______ arteries, which pass outward into the cortex. A. interlobar B. interlobular C. afferent D. efferent E. segmental

84. The _____ feeds into the glomerulus and the _____ drains the glomerulus. A. afferent arteriole; interlobular vein B. efferent arteriole; interlobular vein C. afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole D. efferent arteriole; afferent arteriole E. afferent arteriole; efferent venule

85. The glomerulus has the highest blood hydrostatic pressure of any capillary bed in the body because it is drained by the ____ arteriole, which has ____ diameter than the arteriole feeding the glomerulus. A. afferent; a smaller B. afferent; a larger C. efferent; a smaller D. efferent; a larger E. efferent; the same

86. The afferent and efferent arterioles come in contact with the DCT just outside the glomerular capsule. This complex is called the A. juxtaglomerular cells. B. macula densa. C. vasa recta. D. juxtaglomerular apparatus. E. macular complex.

87. The glomerular filtrate most resembles A. plasma. B. tubular fluid. C. urine. D. intracellular fluid. E. blood.

88. Special cells called _____ wrap _____ around the glomeruli to form negatively charged filtration slits. A. endothelia; microvilli B. macrophages; pseudopodia C. podocytes; pedicles D. mesangial cells; pseudopodia E. ependymal cells; pedicles

89. Which molecule would you expect to have the most difficulty crossing the glomerular filtration membrane? A. urea B. glucose C. amino acids D. albumin E. vitamin C

90. You found a high level of albumin in the urine. This was most likely caused by A. a diet high in protein and low in carbohydrates. B. kidney trauma or infection. C. an alarm reaction, which stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. D. examining urine without fasting for eight hours. E. starvation.

91. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about _____ mL/min. A. 0.125 B. 1.25 C. 12.5 D. 125 E. 1,250

92. Adults produce about _____ L/day of glomerular filtrate and excrete about ____ L/day of urine. A. 0.15 to 0.18; 0.1 to 0.2 B. 1.5 to 1.8; 0.1 to 0.2 C. 15 to 18; 1 to 2 D. 150 to 180; 1 to 2 E. 1,500 to 1,800; 10 to 20

93. A low glomerular filtration rate (GFR) will cause the juxtaglomerular cells to release _____, which will _____. A. renin; decrease blood pressure B. renin; increase blood pressure C. paracrine factors; cause constriction of the afferent arteriole D. paracrine factors; cause dilation of the efferent arteriole E. angiotensin II; increase blood pressure

94. The ion that creates an osmotic and electrical gradient that drives the reabsorption of water and other solutes is A. Ca2+. B. Cl-. C. K+. D. Na+. E. H+.

95. Sodium ions enter the epithelial cells from the glomerular filtrate by symport and antiport, yet the concentration of Na+ in the cytoplasm remains low. This can be explained because Na+ is A. facilitated transported back into the glomerular filtrate. B. actively transported by the Na+-K+ pump into the extracellular fluid. C. actively transported by the Na+-K+ pump into the glomerular filtrate. D. transported by pinocytosis into the glomerular filtrate. E. transported by transcytosis into the glomerular filtrate.

96. Substantial amounts of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) are filtered out of the blood by the glomerulus, but urine is usually bicarbonate free. Bicarbonate ions combine with ____ ions in the glomerular filtrate to form ____, which diffuses into the epithelial cells. A. H+; CO2 B. H+; H2O2 C. K+; KHCO3 D. Cl+; NaCl E. K+; H2O

97. This hormone binds to principal cells in the DCT to reabsorb Na+ and secrete K+. A. aldosterone B. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) C. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D. parathyroid hormone (PTH) E. renin

98. The thin segment of the descending limb of the nephron loop is very permeable to ____, while the thick segment of the ascending nephron loop actively transports ____ into the ECF. A. NaCl; water B. water; NaCl C. water; Na+, K+, 2 ClD. Na+, K+, 2 Cl-; water E. water; urea

99. Many diuretic drugs, such as furosemide (Lasix), produce osmotic diuresis by A. dilating the afferent arteriole. B. inhibiting Na+ reabsorption. C. blocking the secretion of ADH. D. decreasing the reabsorption of glucose. E. stimulating Na2+ reabsorption.

100. The internal urethral sphincter is made up of _____ muscle and contracts in response to _____ stimulation. A. smooth; sympathetic B. smooth; parasympathetic C. skeletal; somatic motor D. skeletal; parasympathetic E. skeletal; sympathetic

23 Key

1. ___ is the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood. Azotemia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 023 Chapter... #1

2. Each kidney has one million or more functional units called ___. nephrons

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3. ___ is a hormone that regulates sodium reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubule. Aldosterone

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4. ___ is a hormone that regulates water permeability of the collecting duct. Antidiuretic hormone

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5. Urine formation begins with the filtration of fluid from a spheroid capillary bed called the ___. glomerulus

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6. ___ is a process in which the renal tubules remove wastes from the blood and add them to the tubular fluid. Tubular secretion

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7. Urine is conveyed from the kidney to the bladder by a tube called the ___. ureter

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8. The ___ reflex involuntarily empties the bladder unless one consciously suppresses urination. micturition

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9. The yellow color of urine is due to the pigment ___. urochrome

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10. The ___ apparatus monitors the composition and concentration of the tubular fluid and adjusts the glomerular filtration rate. juxtaglomerular

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11. The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs about the same amount of water regardless of the body's state of hydration. TRUE

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12. Urine is always hypertonic to the blood plasma. FALSE

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13. Glycosuria does not occur in diabetes insipidus. TRUE

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14. Renin is a hormone that helps control the body's water balance. FALSE

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15. The kidneys remove the -NH2 group from amino acids and convert the resulting ammonia to urea. FALSE

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16. Uric acid is the most abundant nitrogenous waste in the blood. FALSE

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17. The osmolarity of a nonionizing solute is equal to its molarity. TRUE

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18. After urine enters a minor calyx, it undergoes no further changes in composition or concentration. TRUE

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19. Not all nephrons have a nephron loop. TRUE

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20. The vasa recta arise mainly from the arcuate arteries and perfuse the renal medulla. FALSE

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21. The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is composed of podocytes. TRUE

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22. Voluntary control over urination employs the external urinary sphincter. TRUE

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23. The bladder could not be emptied without the aid of the micturition center of the pons. FALSE

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24. All urea is removed from the blood as it circulates through the kidneys. FALSE

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25. Aldosterone has no effect on sodium reabsorption by the proximal convoluted tubule. TRUE

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Match the following terms to the definitions.

ADH angiotensin II atrial natriuretic factor detrusor muscle gycemia molarity obligatory water reabsorption peritubular capillaries polyuria rugae specific gravity

aldosterone anuria collecting duct ependymal cells gycosuria nephron loop pedicels podocytes renal capsule solvent drag vasa recta

Saladin - 023 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as having spaces called glomerular filtration slits between them? podocytes

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27. Which term can be described as the hormone that constricts the efferent arteriole and maintains the glomerular filtration rate when blood pressure drops? angiotensin II

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28. Which term can be described as the process in which solutes follow water that is being absorbed by osmosis? solvent drag

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29. This occurs when the glucose concentration in the proximal convoluted tubule is greater than the transport maximum. gycosuria

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30. Which term can be described as the hormone that inhibits Na+ reabsorption, increasing Na+ output in the urine? atrial natriuretic factor

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31. Which term can be described as a countercurrent multiplier? nephron loop

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32. Which term can be described as a countercurrent exchanger? vasa recta

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33. Which term can be described as the weight of urine per milliliter relative to the weight of distilled water per milliliter? specific gravity

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34. Which term can be described as excessive urine output? polyuria

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35. Which term can be described as the muscularis of the urinary bladder? detrusor muscle

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36. The most abundant nitrogenous waste of the blood is A. urea. B. ammonia. C. uric acid. D. creatinine. E. amino acids.

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37. Blood plasma has an osmolarity of about A. 30 mOsm/L. B. 100 mOsm/L. C. 300 mOsm/L. D. 900 mOsm/L. E. 1,200 mOsm/L.

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39. Which of these is not part of a nephron? A. glomerulus B. glomerular capsule C. nephron loop D. collecting duct E. distal convoluted tubule

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40. Urine normally contains all of the following except A. sodium. B. urea. C. glucose. D. creatinine. E. potassium.

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41. The average adult must excrete at least ___ of urine per day to maintain a safe and stable concentration of urea in the blood. A. 30 mL B. 100 mL C. 400 mL D. 1,200 mL E. 4,400 mL

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44. Immediately after the arcuate artery, blood flows into A. the interlobar arteries. B. the renal arteries. C. the afferent arterioles. D. the interlobular arteries. E. the peritubular capillaries.

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48. The trigone is a triangular region of A. a renal pyramid. B. the renal cortex. C. the hilum. D. the urinary bladder. E. the prostatic urethra.

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49. There is one ___ for each nephron. A. peritubular capillary B. vasa recta C. minor calyx D. afferent arteriole E. interlobular artery

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51. The kidneys do not A. control blood pressure. B. regulate the pH of the body fluids. C. have any role in erythrocyte production. D. produce vitamin D. E. secrete hormones that stimulate thirst.

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55. The collecting duct reabsorbs not only water but also ___, thus contributing to the osmotic gradient of the renal medulla. A. sodium B. potassium C. urea D. glucose E. protein

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56. Kidney damage can cause ___, the excretion of protein in the urine. A. pyuria B. uremia C. albuminuria D. hematuria E. dysuria

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57. The glomerular capsule and glomerulus make up A. a renal corpuscle. B. a lobe of the kidney. C. a lobule of the kidney. D. a juxtaglomerular apparatus. E. a nephron.

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60. If not for the countercurrent multiplier, the kidneys could not produce A. renin. B. erythropoietin. C. hypertonic urine. D. hypotonic urine. E. any urine at all.

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62. The first step leading to angiotensin II production is the secretion of ___ by the kidneys. A. angiotensin I B. angiotensinogen C. angiotensin converting enzyme D. calcitriol E. renin

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66. Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to A. angiotensin. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. aldosterone. E. hyponatremia.

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67. A realistic value for ___ is about 180 L/day. A. glomerular filtration rate B. net filtration pressure C. adult urine output D. renal blood flow E. sodium reabsorption

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70. The kidneys secrete the hormone _____, which stimulates RBC production. A. calcitriol B. renin C. thrombopoietin D. erythropoietin E. angiotensin II

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72. The kidney adds an hydroxyl group to calcidiol converting it to A. active vitamin D. B. vitamin C. C. active vitamin B12. D. vitamin E. E. active vitamin A.

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73. Urea is a combination of A. uric acid and ammonia. B. ammonia and carbon dioxide. C. creatinine and carbon dioxide. D. uric acid and creatinine. E. urea and creatinine

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76. The kidney is connected to the parietal peritoneum by the A. hilum. B. renal capsule. C. renal fascia. D. adipose capsule. E. mesentery

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77. The renal parenchyma contains an outer renal _____ that extends inward to form renal _____. A. medulla; pyramids B. medulla; columns C. cortex; pyramids D. cortex; columns E. cortex; papilla

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81. The capillary bed associated with nephron loop in the juxtamedullary nephron is the A. vasa recta. B. glomerulus. C. peritubular capillary. D. medullary capillary. E. endocortical capillary.

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87. The glomerular filtrate most resembles A. plasma. B. tubular fluid. C. urine. D. intracellular fluid. E. blood.

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89. Which molecule would you expect to have the most difficulty crossing the glomerular filtration membrane? A. urea B. glucose C. amino acids D. albumin E. vitamin C

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91. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about _____ mL/min. A. 0.125 B. 1.25 C. 12.5 D. 125 E. 1,250

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94. The ion that creates an osmotic and electrical gradient that drives the reabsorption of water and other solutes is A. Ca2+. B. Cl-. C. K+. D. Na+. E. H+.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 023 Chapter... #94

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Chapter 24 1. The liquid contained within the cells is called ___. ________________________________________

2. Water that is chemically synthesized by the body is called ___ to distinguish it from ingested water. ________________________________________

3. The hypothalamus has a nucleus called the ___ that stimulates water intake and inhibits salivation. ________________________________________

4. A local accumulation of interstitial fluid is called ___. ________________________________________

5. A deficiency of sodium in the blood is called ___. ________________________________________

6. Hyperkalemia is an abnormally high concentration of ___ in the blood. ________________________________________

7. A chemical that converts a strong acid or base to a weak one and thus resists pH changes is called a/an ___. ________________________________________

8. The reversible reaction CO2 + H2O  H2CO3 is catalyzed by the enzyme ___. ________________________________________

9. A blood pH below 7.35 is called ___. ________________________________________

10. An acid-base imbalance that the body cannot correct is said to be ___. ________________________________________

11. Dehydration is a condition in which proportionate amounts of water and sodium are lost and the blood volume drops. True False

12. The kidneys can raise the blood volume by reducing urine output. True False

13. Chemical buffers act more quickly than physiological buffers. True False

14. Most buffering of the extracellular fluid is carried out by phosphates. True False

15. The adult body is about 75% water by weight. True False

16. About two-thirds of the total body water is intracellular. True False

17. The amount of water lost by way of the respiratory system is greater in cold weather than in hot weather. True False

18. Chronic diarrhea tends to cause both hypokalemia and hypovolemia. True False

19. Long-term satiation of thirst is mainly due to distension of the stomach by the swallowed water. True False

20. Abnormal loss of protein in the urine can lead to edema. True False

21. Aldosterone stimulates kidney tubule cells to produce Na+-K+ pumps. True False

22. Aldosterone greatly reduces urine output. True False

23. Acidosis causes hypokalemia by stimulating cells to take up potassium. True False

24. The kidney tubules reabsorb water by active transport. True False

25. Hyperchloremia induces H+ retention and acidosis. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

1,500 ml/day 3.0 L/day acidosis aldosterone angiotensin II cutaneous transpiration HCl hypertonic hypovolemia intracellular fluid phosphate buffer system preformed water sweating

200 ml/day 700 ml/day ADH alkalosis bicarbonate buffer system H2CO3 HCO3interstitial fluids isotonic hypovolemia phosphates proteins transcellular fluid

26. Which term can be described as the hormone that stimulates aquaporin deployment? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as the pericardial, synovial, and peritoneal fluids? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as the average urine output? ________________________________________

29. Which term can be described as the average production of metabolic water? ________________________________________

30. Included in insensible water loss is known as ________. ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the results from net loss of proportionate amounts of Na+ and H2O? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as a weak acid? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the buffers most responsible for stabilizing the pH of the blood? ________________________________________

34. Which term can be described as the buffer in the renal tubules that supplements the action of bicarbonate ions? ________________________________________

35. Which term can be described as the result of an excess of bicarbonate ions? ________________________________________

36. Blockage of the lymphatic vessels draining a region of the body is most likely to cause A. insensible water loss. B. cutaneous transpiration. C. negative water balance. D. positive water balance. E. edema.

37. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to suffocation? A. hypercalcemia B. hypocalcemia C. hyperkalemia D. hypokalemia E. acidosis

38. A base is any chemical that A. releases OH-. B. binds OH-. C. lowers the pH. D. binds H+. E. releases H+.

39. The blood plasma is about ___ of the total body water. A. 2% B. 8% C. 25% D. 35% E. 48%

40. Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to A. hyponatremia. B. hypernatremia. C. aldosterone. D. hypotension. E. hypertension.

41. Antidiuretic hormone A. increases water and sodium reabsorption. B. increases water reabsorption but not sodium reabsorption. C. increases urine output but not urine concentration. D. increases the volume and concentration of the urine. E. reduces the glomerular filtration rate.

42. Which of the following cations is most concentrated in the intracellular fluid? A. K+ B. Na+ C. NH4+ D. Fe2+ E. Ca2+

43. Which of the following conditions is likely to produce the highest daily output of sodium in the urine? A. hypertension B. a high level of aldosterone C. a low level of atrial natriuretic factor D. a high level of estrogen E. a low level of progesterone

44. The sense of thirst is satiated by all of the following mechanisms, but the one with the longest-lasting effect is A. cooling of the mouth. B. stretching of the stomach by ingested water. C. a drop in blood osmolarity. D. moistening of the mouth. E. increased salivation.

45. When the hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect a rise in blood osmolarity A. the kidneys secrete renin. B. the kidneys secrete aldosterone. C. the adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone. D. the posterior pituitary releases ADH. E. the heart secretes ANF.

46. Aldosterone receptors are found on cells of A. the adrenal cortex. B. the adrenal medulla. C. the posterior pituitary. D. the proximal convoluted tubule. E. the distal convoluted tubule.

47. When the renal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the tubular fluid, they ___ at the same time. A. secrete potassium B. secrete sodium C. reabsorb potassium D. reabsorb sodium E. secrete chloride

48. The pH of the intracellular fluid is buffered mainly by A. bicarbonate. B. protein. C. phosphates. D. carbonic acid. E. ammonium ions.

49. A deficiency of potassium ions in the blood is called A. hyperpotassemia. B. hypernatremia. C. hypokalemia. D. hypopotassemia. E. hypophosphatemia.

50. The pH of systemic arterial blood is normally A. 5.6. B. 6.7. C. 7.0. D. 7.4. E. 8.6.

51. People who have lost a lot of blood often feel intensely thirsty. This is because A. angiotensin II is produced and stimulates the thirst center. B. the osmolarity of the remaining blood is elevated. C. the hypothalamic osmoreceptors respond to falling blood pressure. D. ADH is released and stimulates the thirst center. E. the loss of plasma electrolytes stimulates the thirst center.

52. The bicarbonate buffer system would not work very well in the human body if not for the action of the respiratory system, which A. supplies the buffer system with CO2. B. supplies the buffer system with O2. C. expels HCO3- produced by the buffer system. D. expels H+ produced by the buffer system. E. expels CO2 produced by the buffer system.

53. The limiting pH is a value below which A. human life cannot be maintained. B. hydrogen ions cannot be secreted into the tubular fluid. C. hydrogen ions cannot be reabsorbed from the tubular fluid. D. the bicarbonate buffer system no longer works. E. hydrogen ions must be buffered by ammonia.

54. The lymphatic system helps maintain fluid balance by A. returning fluid from the interstitial compartment to the bloodstream. B. transferring excess water from the bloodstream to the tissue fluid. C. compensating for hypovolemia by releasing stored fluid to the tissues. D. compensating for hypervolemia by absorbing and storing excess fluid. E. maintaining equilibrium between fluid intake and output.

55. Aldosterone has which of the following effects? A. increases Na+ and K+ reabsorption B. reduces Na+ and K+ reabsorption C. causes the urine to be more dilute D. reduces Na+ reabsorption and increases K+ reabsorption E. increases Na+ reabsorption and reduces K+ reabsorption

56. Increasing the K+ concentration of the extracellular fluid (ECF) will A. cause more K+ to diffuse out of the cells into the ECF. B. usually not affect the intracellular K+ concentration. C. raise cell membrane potentials and make cells more excitable. D. lower cell membrane potentials and make cells more excitable. E. lower cell membrane potentials and make cells less excitable.

57. Because of the carbonic anhydrase on the brush borders of the kidney tubules, A. the kidneys eliminate almost as much CO2 as the lungs do. B. the urine is normally free of bicarbonate ions. C. the urine contains a high concentration of bicarbonate ions. D. bicarbonate ions are rapidly reabsorbed by the kidney tubules. E. the pH of the urine is normally slightly basic.

58. An antiport system on the brush borders of the kidney tubules A. transports bicarbonate from the tubular fluid back into the tubule cells. B. transports H+ in both directions across the epithelium. C. transports CO2 from the blood into the tubular fluid. D. exchanges H+ for Na+. E. exchanges K+ for Na+.

59. If a person's urine has an unusually high concentration of ammonium chloride, we would suspect that the person has A. Addison's disease. B. acidosis. C. alkalosis. D. hyperchloremia. E. an abnormally high rate of amino acid catabolism.

60. At a normal pH, the extracellular fluid has about A. a 20:1 ratio of bicarbonate ions to carbonic acid. B. a 20:1 ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ions. C. a 1:1 ratio of hydrogen ions to bicarbonate ions. D. a 20:1 ratio of hydrogen ions to hydroxyl ions. E. a 20:1 ratio of hydroxyl ions to hydrogen ions.

61. A lung disease that interferes with pulmonary gas exchange can be expected to lead to A. metabolic acidosis. B. metabolic alkalosis. C. compensated alkalosis. D. respiratory acidosis. E. respiratory alkalosis.

62. The volume of water in a cell is governed mainly by the amount of ___ in the cytoplasm. A. protein B. HCO3C. ClD. Na+ E. K+

63. Which of the following diseases is most likely to produce metabolic acidosis? A. emphysema B. diabetes mellitus C. diabetes insipidus D. Addison's disease E. tuberculosis

64. Urine normally has a pH of approximately A. 4.5. B. 5.5. C. 7.4. D. 8.2. E. 9.1.

65. If you could trace the hydrogen ions removed from the blood and excreted in the urine, most of them would be part of the ___ of the urine. A. NaH2PO4 B. NH4Cl C. H2O D. HCO3E. urea

66. The most common cause of hyponatremia is A. excess aldosterone secretion. B. an aldosterone deficiency. C. excess water intake. D. excess sodium excretion. E. an ADH deficiency.

67. The collecting ducts of the kidney have intercalated cells which can A. override the limiting pH and secrete more H+ into the urine. B. secrete aldosterone in response to hyponatremia. C. secrete renin and activate the angiotensin-aldosterone system. D. reabsorb K+ from the urine. E. secrete K+ into the urine.

68. Women may retain water at certain times of the month because estrogen A. mimics aldosterone. B. antagonizes antidiuretic hormone. C. is an angiotensin II synergist. D. stimulates the thirst center. E. reduces the glomerular filtration rate.

69. Aquaporins A. stimulate glomerular filtration. B. stimulate the thirst center. C. promote intestinal absorption of water. D. are water channels in the collecting duct. E. are active transport pumps for water.

70. What will be the result if the number of Na+-K+ pumps in the distal convoluted tubule is increased? A. The potassium concentration of the urine will fall. B. The potassium concentration of the urine will rise. C. The sodium concentration of the blood will rise. D. The sodium concentration of the blood will fall. E. The electrolyte composition of the urine will be homeostatically stabilized.

71. Excessive ADH secretion is most likely to produce A. fluid sequestration. B. volume depletion. C. hypotonic hydration. D. hypernatremia. E. hypovolemia.

72. Edema is least likely to result from A. increased blood osmolarity. B. increased capillary permeability. C. obstruction of the lymphatic vessels. D. histamine secretion. E. hypertension.

73. The majority of water in your body is in the A. blood plasma and lymph. B. interstitial fluid. C. intracellular fluid (ICF). D. extracellular fluid (ECF). E. cerebrospinal fluid.

74. The fluid that forms the cerebrospinal, synovial, peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial fluids as well as vitreous and aqueous humors, bile, and fluids of the digestive, urinary, and respiratory tracts are part of the A. intracellular fluid (ICF). B. transcellular fluid. C. interstitial fluid. D. blood plasma. E. lymph.

75. Water lost through the breath and cutaneous transpiration is called ____ water loss and averages about ____ mL/day. A. insensible; 700 B. obligatory; 400 C. metabolic; 200 D. preformed; 2,300 E. facultative; 500

76. The minimum urine output to avoid abnormally high levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is about ____ mL/day. A. 700 B. 400 C. 200 D. 2,300 E. 500

77. In response to dehydration, the thirst center in the hypothalamus sends ____ signals to the salivary glands to ____ saliva production. A. sympathetic; increase B. sympathetic; decrease C. parasympathetic; increase D. parasympathetic; decrease E. somatic; increase

78. What percent change in plasma osmolarity would make one intensely thirsty? A. 0.2 to 0.3 B. 2 to 3 C. 10 to 15 D. 20 to 30 E. 5 to 8

79. Short-term inhibition of thirst is caused by _____, and long-term inhibition of thirst is caused by _____. A. distension of stomach and small intestine; decreased osmolarity of the blood B. decreased osmolarity of the blood; distension of stomach and small intestine C. constriction of stomach and small intestine; increased osmolarity of the blood D. increased osmolarity of the blood; constriction of stomach and small intestine E. distension of the large intestine; increased osmolarity of the blood

80. Dehydration results in increased blood and ECF osmolarity, which causes osmolarity receptors to stimulate the formation of ____ by the hypothalamus that causes ____ in the DCT and CD. A. ADH; decreased water reabsorption B. ADH; increased water reabsorption C. aldosterone; decreased sodium and water reabsorption D. aldosterone; increased sodium and water reabsorption E. angiotensin II; increased sodium reabsorption

81. Hemorrhaging, vomiting, and diarrhea can all result in A. the release of glucagon. B. the release of insulin. C. dehydration. D. hypovolemia. E. cardiogenic shock.

82. To excrete one liter of sweat, the majority of water will come from the A. glomerular filtrate. B. intracellular fluid. C. extracellular fluid. D. lymphatic system. E. interstitial fluid.

83. You were getting ready to go cross country skiing in the snow. Before you leave it would be best to drink A. alcohol. B. tea. C. coffee. D. cider. E. Coke.

84. You are working outside on a hot day, sweating profusely, and drinking large quantities of water. You may be subjecting yourself to A. oliguria. B. volume excess. C. hypotonic hydration. D. hypertonic hydration. E. dehydration.

85. You are getting really concerned about taking in enough fluids. You decided to double your fluid intake from two to four liters per day. Your blood volume would _____ and your urine volume would _____. A. increase; increase B. stay the same; increase C. stay the same; stay the same D. decrease; increase E. increase; stay the same

86. Which one of the following would not stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone? A. decreased Na+ B. increased K+ C. decreased Ca2+ D. decreased H2O E. hemorrhage

87. In response to high blood pressure, this hormone increases the secretion of Na+ and H2O in urine. A. aldosterone B. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) C. cortisol D. estrogen E. angiotensin II

88. An increase in the blood plasma concentration of _____ may lead to water retention, hypertension, and edema. A. K+ B. Na+ C. Ca2+ D. H+ E. Mg2+

89. Hyperkalemia (increased K+) will stimulate the _____ to release _____. A. adrenal cortex; aldosterone B. adrenal medulla; EP C. hypothalamus; ADH D. pancreatic islets; insulin E. pancreatic islets; glucagon

90. An individual is suffering from the following symptoms: muscle weakness, depressed reflexes, and irregular electrical activity of the heart. This individual most likely has A. increased Na+ (hypernatremia). B. decreased Ca2+ (hypocalcemia). C. decreased K+ (hypokalemia). D. decreased Cl- (hypochloremia). E. increased K+ (hyperkalemia).

91. Some tumors of the adrenal cortex secrete excess aldosterone and may cause paralysis. You would expect decreased levels of ____ causing ____ levels of nervous system activity. A. calcium; increased B. potassium; decreased C. sodium; increased D. sodium; decreased E. potassium; increased

92. An individual has the following symptoms: multiple fractures of bones and multiple bouts with renal calculi (kidney stones) over just a few years. The individual showed an imbalance in one of the blood plasma electrolytes. You would expect the individual to have A. high Na+ (hypernatremia). B. low K+ (hypokalemia). C. high Ca2+ (hypercalcemia). D. high K+ (hyperkalemia). E. low Ca2+ (hypocalcemia).

93. Which one of the below would be characterized as a strong acid? A. H2PO4B. H2CO3 C. HCl D. NaCl E. HCO3-

94. The physiological buffer system that works the fastest is the _____ system, and the physiological buffer system that buffers the greatest quantity of acid or base is the _____ system. A. urinary; respiratory B. respiratory; urinary C. respiratory; digestive D. digestive; urinary E. urinary; digestive

95. The optimum pH for the phosphate buffer system is about _____, while the optimum pH for the bicarbonate buffer system is about _____. A. 6.8; 6.1 B. 6.8; 7.4 C. 7.4; 6.8 D. 7.4; 6.1 E. 7.0; 5.5

96. Proteins can buffer a drop in pH by their _____ side groups and can buffer an increase in pH by their _____ side groups. A. –NH2; –PO4 B. –PO4; –COOH C. –NH2; –COOH D. –COOH; –NH2 E. –PO4; –NH2

97. Hydrogen ions in the blood plasma are neutralized by the formation of A. carbonic acid and water. B. bicarbonate and ammonia. C. water and carbon dioxide. D. uric acid and lactic acid. E. urea and carbon dioxide.

98. HCO3- in the tubular fluid is A. excreted in the urine. B. absorbed into the renal tubule by active transport. C. absorbed into the renal tubule by the H+-HCO3- antiport. D. combined with H+ and then forms H2O and CO2. E. absorbed into the renal tubules by pinocytosis.

99. Acidosis causes depressed central nervous system activity including confusion, disorientation, and coma. This is because the excess H+ causes A. decreased Ca2+ (hypocalcemia). B. increased Na+ (hypernatremia). C. decreased K+ (hypokalemia). D. increased K+ (hyperkalemia). E. decreased Na+ (hyponatremia).

100. You are trying to hold your breath as long as you can, but after about two minutes you have to breathe. At this point you are in A. respiratory acidosis. B. respiratory alkalosis. C. metabolic acidosis. D. metabolic alkalosis. E. central alkalosis

24 Key

1. The liquid contained within the cells is called ___. intracellular fluid

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2. Water that is chemically synthesized by the body is called ___ to distinguish it from ingested water. metabolic water

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3. The hypothalamus has a nucleus called the ___ that stimulates water intake and inhibits salivation. thirst center

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4. A local accumulation of interstitial fluid is called ___. edema

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5. A deficiency of sodium in the blood is called ___. hyponatremia

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6. Hyperkalemia is an abnormally high concentration of ___ in the blood. potassium ions

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7. A chemical that converts a strong acid or base to a weak one and thus resists pH changes is called a/an ___. buffer

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8. The reversible reaction CO2 + H2O  H2CO3 is catalyzed by the enzyme ___. carbonic anhydrase

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9. A blood pH below 7.35 is called ___. acidosis

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10. An acid-base imbalance that the body cannot correct is said to be ___. uncompensated

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11. Dehydration is a condition in which proportionate amounts of water and sodium are lost and the blood volume drops. FALSE

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12. The kidneys can raise the blood volume by reducing urine output. FALSE

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13. Chemical buffers act more quickly than physiological buffers. TRUE

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14. Most buffering of the extracellular fluid is carried out by phosphates. FALSE

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15. The adult body is about 75% water by weight. FALSE

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16. About two-thirds of the total body water is intracellular. TRUE

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17. The amount of water lost by way of the respiratory system is greater in cold weather than in hot weather. TRUE

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18. Chronic diarrhea tends to cause both hypokalemia and hypovolemia. TRUE

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19. Long-term satiation of thirst is mainly due to distension of the stomach by the swallowed water. FALSE

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20. Abnormal loss of protein in the urine can lead to edema. TRUE

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21. Aldosterone stimulates kidney tubule cells to produce Na+-K+ pumps. TRUE

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22. Aldosterone greatly reduces urine output. FALSE

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23. Acidosis causes hypokalemia by stimulating cells to take up potassium. FALSE

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24. The kidney tubules reabsorb water by active transport. FALSE

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25. Hyperchloremia induces H+ retention and acidosis. TRUE

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Match the following terms to the definitions.

1,500 ml/day 3.0 L/day acidosis aldosterone angiotensin II cutaneous transpiration HCl hypertonic hypovolemia intracellular fluid phosphate buffer system preformed water sweating

200 ml/day 700 ml/day ADH alkalosis bicarbonate buffer system H2CO3 HCO3interstitial fluids isotonic hypovolemia phosphates proteins transcellular fluid

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26. Which term can be described as the hormone that stimulates aquaporin deployment? ADH

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27. Which term can be described as the pericardial, synovial, and peritoneal fluids? transcellular fluid

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28. Which term can be described as the average urine output? 1,500 ml/day

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29. Which term can be described as the average production of metabolic water? 200 ml/day

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30. Included in insensible water loss is known as ________. cutaneous transpiration

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31. Which term can be described as the results from net loss of proportionate amounts of Na+ and H2O? isotonic hypovolemia

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32. Which term can be described as a weak acid? H2CO3

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33. Which term can be described as the buffers most responsible for stabilizing the pH of the blood? bicarbonate buffer system

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34. Which term can be described as the buffer in the renal tubules that supplements the action of bicarbonate ions? phosphate buffer system

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35. Which term can be described as the result of an excess of bicarbonate ions? alkalosis

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37. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to suffocation? A. hypercalcemia B. hypocalcemia C. hyperkalemia D. hypokalemia E. acidosis

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38. A base is any chemical that A. releases OH-. B. binds OH-. C. lowers the pH. D. binds H+. E. releases H+.

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39. The blood plasma is about ___ of the total body water. A. 2% B. 8% C. 25% D. 35% E. 48%

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40. Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to A. hyponatremia. B. hypernatremia. C. aldosterone. D. hypotension. E. hypertension.

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42. Which of the following cations is most concentrated in the intracellular fluid? A. K+ B. Na+ C. NH4+ D. Fe2+ E. Ca2+

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46. Aldosterone receptors are found on cells of A. the adrenal cortex. B. the adrenal medulla. C. the posterior pituitary. D. the proximal convoluted tubule. E. the distal convoluted tubule.

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47. When the renal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the tubular fluid, they ___ at the same time. A. secrete potassium B. secrete sodium C. reabsorb potassium D. reabsorb sodium E. secrete chloride

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48. The pH of the intracellular fluid is buffered mainly by A. bicarbonate. B. protein. C. phosphates. D. carbonic acid. E. ammonium ions.

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49. A deficiency of potassium ions in the blood is called A. hyperpotassemia. B. hypernatremia. C. hypokalemia. D. hypopotassemia. E. hypophosphatemia.

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50. The pH of systemic arterial blood is normally A. 5.6. B. 6.7. C. 7.0. D. 7.4. E. 8.6.

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62. The volume of water in a cell is governed mainly by the amount of ___ in the cytoplasm. A. protein B. HCO3C. ClD. Na+ E. K+

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63. Which of the following diseases is most likely to produce metabolic acidosis? A. emphysema B. diabetes mellitus C. diabetes insipidus D. Addison's disease E. tuberculosis

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64. Urine normally has a pH of approximately A. 4.5. B. 5.5. C. 7.4. D. 8.2. E. 9.1.

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65. If you could trace the hydrogen ions removed from the blood and excreted in the urine, most of them would be part of the ___ of the urine. A. NaH2PO4 B. NH4Cl C. H2O D. HCO3E. urea

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66. The most common cause of hyponatremia is A. excess aldosterone secretion. B. an aldosterone deficiency. C. excess water intake. D. excess sodium excretion. E. an ADH deficiency.

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71. Excessive ADH secretion is most likely to produce A. fluid sequestration. B. volume depletion. C. hypotonic hydration. D. hypernatremia. E. hypovolemia.

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72. Edema is least likely to result from A. increased blood osmolarity. B. increased capillary permeability. C. obstruction of the lymphatic vessels. D. histamine secretion. E. hypertension.

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73. The majority of water in your body is in the A. blood plasma and lymph. B. interstitial fluid. C. intracellular fluid (ICF). D. extracellular fluid (ECF). E. cerebrospinal fluid.

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76. The minimum urine output to avoid abnormally high levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is about ____ mL/day. A. 700 B. 400 C. 200 D. 2,300 E. 500

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78. What percent change in plasma osmolarity would make one intensely thirsty? A. 0.2 to 0.3 B. 2 to 3 C. 10 to 15 D. 20 to 30 E. 5 to 8

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81. Hemorrhaging, vomiting, and diarrhea can all result in A. the release of glucagon. B. the release of insulin. C. dehydration. D. hypovolemia. E. cardiogenic shock.

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82. To excrete one liter of sweat, the majority of water will come from the A. glomerular filtrate. B. intracellular fluid. C. extracellular fluid. D. lymphatic system. E. interstitial fluid.

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83. You were getting ready to go cross country skiing in the snow. Before you leave it would be best to drink A. alcohol. B. tea. C. coffee. D. cider. E. Coke.

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86. Which one of the following would not stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone? A. decreased Na+ B. increased K+ C. decreased Ca2+ D. decreased H2O E. hemorrhage

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 024 Chapter... #86

87. In response to high blood pressure, this hormone increases the secretion of Na+ and H2O in urine. A. aldosterone B. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) C. cortisol D. estrogen E. angiotensin II

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 024 Chapter... #87

88. An increase in the blood plasma concentration of _____ may lead to water retention, hypertension, and edema. A. K+ B. Na+ C. Ca2+ D. H+ E. Mg2+

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93. Which one of the below would be characterized as a strong acid? A. H2PO4B. H2CO3 C. HCl D. NaCl E. HCO3-

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95. The optimum pH for the phosphate buffer system is about _____, while the optimum pH for the bicarbonate buffer system is about _____. A. 6.8; 6.1 B. 6.8; 7.4 C. 7.4; 6.8 D. 7.4; 6.1 E. 7.0; 5.5

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Chapter 25 1. The ___ is a serous membrane that extends from the lesser curvature of the stomach to the liver. ________________________________________

2. The starch-digesting enzymes of the saliva and pancreatic juice are called ___. ________________________________________

3. Activities of different regions of the digestive tract are coordinated with each other through the ___ nerve plexus between the two layers of the muscularis externa. ________________________________________

4. Pepsin is produced from a zymogen called ___. ________________________________________

5. The _____ gland is located halfway along the body of the mandible, just deep to the mylohyoid muscle and empties into the mouth near the lower central incisors. ________________________________________

6. The partially digested slurry that passes from the stomach into the small intestine is called ___. ________________________________________

7. Each hepatic lobule consists of plates of epithelial cells radially arranged around a blood vessel called the ___. ________________________________________

8. As a prelude to enzymatic digestion, dietary fat must be ___, or broken up into small droplets suspended in the chyme. ________________________________________

9. The duodenal hormone ___ stimulates the liver and pancreas to secrete bicarbonate. ________________________________________

10. Dietary lipids are taken up by a lymphatic capillary called the ___ in each villus of the small intestine. ________________________________________

11. The gastroileal reflex relaxes the ileocecal valve when the stomach is full of food. True False

12. The external anal sphincter allows for voluntary control over the time of defecation. True False

13. Digestive enzymes digest each other, allowing the amino acids to be absorbed and reused. True False

14. There are normally 32 teeth in the maxilla and 32 in the mandible. True False

15. A high-fat meal remains in the stomach longer than a high-carbohydrate meal. True False

16. The intestinal crypts contain chief cells, parietal cells, and G cells. True False

17. Positive feedback is important in the production of pepsin in the stomach. True False

18. Due to postmortem shrinkage, the small intestine is shorter in a cadaver than it is in a living person. True False

19. There are no gastric glands in the fundic stomach. True False

20. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon into the duodenum. True False

21. The stomach lining is so well protected by mucus and tight junctions that its epithelial cells die at a very slow rate. True False

22. Ingested food raises the pH of the stomach contents. True False

23. The stomach secretes gastrin when its internal pH rises. True False

24. The hormone secretin stimulates the stomach to secrete acid and enzymes. True False

25. Chylomicrons are produced by the epithelial cells of the small intestine. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

chief cells dentin enamel gastrin HCl lactase pancreas pepsin pulp teniae coli vitamin D

chylomicrons duodenum fructose haustra intrinsic factor micelles parietal cells pepsinogen sucrose vitamin C vitamin K

26. Which term can be described as the tissue that constitutes most of the bulk of a tooth? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as the salivary enzyme that is activated in the stomach? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as the stomach cells that secrete pepsinogen? ________________________________________

29. Which bacterial flora in the large intestine produce this vitamin? ________________________________________

30. The ________ is secreted by G cells of the gastric glands. ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the three ribbonlike strips of muscularis externa in the colon? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as the disaccharide produced by starch digestion? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the source of cholecystokinin. ________________________________________

34. Which term can be described as the site of H+-K+ ATPase? ________________________________________

35. Which term can describes the emulsified lipid droplets in the small intestine? ________________________________________

36. All of the following except ___ contribute to the large surface area available for nutrient absorption in the small intestine. A. circular folds B. intestinal length C. microvilli D. villi E. rugae

37. Each of the following lists some of the tissue layers of the digestive tract. Which one has them in correct order from lumen to external surface? A. lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa B. serosa, lamina propria, submucosa, muscularis mucosae, muscularis externa C. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis mucosae, muscularis externa, lamina propria D. mucosa, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa, lamina propria E. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, lamina propria, serosa

38. Which of the following cells are not found in the gastric glands? A. chief cells B. goblet cells C. parietal cells D. mucous neck cells E. enteroendocrine cells

39. The swallowing center is located in A. the mouth. B. the oropharynx. C. the esophagus. D. the brainstem. E. the enteric nervous system.

40. All of the following glands secrete only mucus, except A. the pyloric glands. B. the duodenal glands. C. the cardiac glands. D. the intestinal crypts of the colon. E. the gastric glands.

41. An active transport pump called H+-K+ ATPase is essential for A. the intestinal absorption of potassium. B. neutralizing stomach acid as it enters the duodenum. C. the secretion of stomach acid. D. buffering the pH of the intestinal environment. E. the reabsorption of salts by the colon.

42. Bacteria, destroying macrophages are found in sinusoids of A. the liver. B. the pancreas. C. the intestinal crypts. D. the gastric glands. E. the appendix.

43. Vitamin B12, which is needed for red blood cell production, requires ___ for its absorption. A. intrinsic factor B. bile salts C. lecithin D. hydrochloric acid E. enterokinase

44. Chylomicrons are produced in A. the mouth, by the action of lingual lipase. B. the stomach, by the action of gastric lipase. C. the lumen of the small intestine, as fats are emulsified. D. the epithelial cells of the small intestine, as lipids are absorbed. E. the lymph, as fats are absorbed.

45. The enterogastric reflex serves to A. relax the stomach in preparation for swallowed food. B. stimulate acid and enzyme secretion when food enters the stomach. C. stimulate intestinal motility when there is food in the stomach. D. inhibit gastric motility when there is chyme in the small intestine. E. relax the ileocecal valve when chyme is on its way to the colon.

46. The release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by A. the hepatopancreatic sphincter. B. the gastroesophageal sphincter. C. the pyloric sphincter. D. the biliary valve. E. the ileocecal valve.

47. The falciform ligament A. attaches the stomach to the diaphragm. B. attaches the liver to the diaphragm. C. attaches the liver to the abdominal wall. D. attaches the gallbladder to the liver. E. is a remnant of the umbilical vein.

48. A hepatic triad consists of A. the right, left, and common hepatic ducts. B. the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and common bile duct. C. the hepatic portal vein and two hepatic veins. D. a bile ductule and branches of the hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein. E. a central vein, hepatic lobule, and hepatic sinusoid.

49. Bile gets its yellow, green color mainly from A. cholesterol. B. bile salts. C. phospholipids. D. bilirubin. E. urobilinogen.

50. Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice? A. trypsinogen B. chymotrypsinogen C. deoxyribonuclease D. sodium bicarbonate E. enterokinase

51. Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice? A. ribonuclease B. insulin C. amylase D. sodium bicarbonate E. procarboxypeptidase

52. Which of these nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine? A. triglycerides B. amino acids C. glucose D. minerals E. water, soluble vitamins

53. Which of these is the site of contact digestion? A. the gastric pits B. the surface of the gastric mucosa C. the intestinal crypts D. the brush border of the small intestine E. the cytoplasm of the small intestinal cells

54. What are Peyer's patches, and where are they located? A. mucous glands of the duodenal submucosa B. fatty, clublike appendages on the serosa of the colon C. lymphatic follicles of the ileum D. peptic ulcers that may occur in the stomach or duodenum E. lymphatic tissues of the oropharynx

55. Of the following components of bile, only ___ has/have a digestive function. A. bile salts B. bilirubin C. cholesterol D. phospholipids E. neutral fats

56. All of the following enzymes digest proteins except A. pepsin. B. trypsin. C. chymotrypsin. D. carboxypeptidase. E. ribonuclease.

57. Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in response to the hormone A. insulin. B. cholecystokinin. C. secretin. D. glucagon. E. gastrin.

58. The function of enterokinase is to A. convert pepsinogen to pepsin. B. convert trypsinogen to trypsin. C. convert procarboxypeptidase to carboxypeptidase. D. digest dietary proteins. E. digest dietary fats.

59. Unlike the small intestine, the large intestine shows pouches called ___ along its length. A. circular folds B. teniae coli C. haustra D. epiploic appendages E. ceca

60. Bacteria constitute about ___ of the dry weight of the feces. A. 2% B. 14% C. 30% D. 55% E. 80%

61. The gastrocolic reflex triggers ___ in response to filling of the stomach. A. segmentation contractions B. the migrating mobility complex C. haustral contractions D. mass movements E. relaxation of the ileocecal valve

62. Dextrinase carries out one of the final stages in the digestion of A. proteins. B. nucleic acids. C. triglycerides. D. vitamins. E. polysaccharides.

63. Cane sugar is digested by A. sucrase. B. sucrose. C. lactase. D. lactose. E. maltase.

64. SGLT, an active transport pump of the small intestine, can only absorb glucose by simultaneously transporting A. water. B. sodium. C. maltose. D. amino acids. E. potassium.

65. In addition to active transport, glucose can be absorbed from the chyme by means of A. pinocytosis. B. receptor, mediated endocytosis. C. facilitated diffusion. D. solvent drag. E. phagocytosis.

66. Which of the following enzymes functions at the lowest pH? A. salivary amylase B. pancreatic amylase C. pepsin D. trypsin E. dipeptidase

67. Lecithin, a phospholipid, prepares fat for enzymatic digestion by breaking it up into A. fatty acids and glycerol. B. high density lipoproteins. C. chylomicrons. D. emulsification droplets. E. micelles.

68. All of the following nutrients are absorbed by blood capillaries of the villus except A. glucose. B. cholesterol. C. amino acids. D. phosphate. E. minerals.

69. The absorption of ___ depends on the presence of vitamin D. A. vitamin K B. cholesterol C. nucleotides D. glucose E. calcium

70. Most of the water entering the digestive tract each day comes from A. gastrointestinal secretions. B. beverages. C. food. D. transpiration. E. metabolic water.

71. Which of the following enzymes does not digest any nutrients? A. chymotrypsin B. carboxypeptidase C. enterokinase D. sucrase E. lingual lipase

72. All of the following are enzymes except A. secretin. B. trypsin. C. pepsin. D. glucoamylase. E. enterokinase.

73. The enterogastric reflex regulates the ___ phase of gastric activity. A. cephalic B. colonic C. intestinal D. buccal E. gastric

74. The small intestine is suspended from the dorsal body wall by A. the falciform ligament. B. the mesentery. C. the greater omentum. D. the lesser omentum. E. the epiploic appendages.

75. Which one of the following is absorbed without being digested? A. cholesterol B. sucrose C. peptides D. triglycerides E. lactose

76. Most of the GI tract is composed of a _____ epithelium, while the oral cavity through the esophagus and lower anal canal are composed of a _____ epithelium. A. pseudostratified columnar; nonkeratinized stratified squamous B. simple columnar; nonkeratinized stratified squamous C. simple cuboidal; keratinized stratified squamous D. simple squamous; transitional E. simple columnar; simple squamous

77. This tissue layer consists of a thick layer of loose connective tissue containing blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, a nerve plexus, and in some places, glands that secrete lubricating mucus into the lumen. A. tunica mucosa B. tunica submucosa C. tunica muscularis externa D. tunica serosa E. tunica adventitia

78. This is the outer tunic in the oral cavity, pharynx, most of the esophagus, and the rectum. It is composed of a fibrous connective tissue layer called the A. mucosa. B. submucosa. C. serosa. D. adventitia. E. granulose.

79. The tunica mucosa contains smooth muscle called the _____, which is stimulated by the ____ plexus. A. muscularis mucosae; submucosal B. muscularis mucosae; myenteric C. longitudinal layers; submucosal D. circular and longitudinal layers; myenteric E. circular layer; submucosal

80. The extension of the peritoneum that loosely covers the small intestine like an apron is the _____, while the extension of the peritoneum that anchors much of the large intestine is the _____. A. lesser omentum; mesentery B. greater omentum; mesocolon C. mesentery; greater omentum D. mesocolon; lesser omentum E. mesentery; lesser omentum

81. Inflammation of the greater or lesser omentum, mesentery, or mesocolon is called A. diverticulitis. B. appendicitis. C. peritonitis. D. gastritis. E. direticulitis.

82. This structure closes off the nasopharynx when you swallow. A. palatal rugae B. vestibule C. uvula D. frenulum E. epiglottis

83. The tongue has a ____ epithelium and the site of the taste buds called ____. A. keratinized stratified squamous; papillae B. keratinized stratified squamous; frenula C. nonkeratinized stratified squamous; papillae D. nonkeratinized stratified squamous; lingual glands E. nonkeratinozed; frenula

84. Infants have _____ deciduous teeth, while adults have _____ permanent teeth. A. 20; 32 B. 16; 20 C. 10; 32 D. 32; 20 E. 32; 32

85. An individual has an impacted tooth. This tooth is most likely the A. canine. B. second premolar. C. first molar. D. third molar. E. incisor.

86. The tooth is anchored to alveolar bone by the A. periodontal ligament. B. gomphosis. C. gingival sulcus. D. root canal. E. facial nerve.

87. Gingivitis is a (n) _____ and is the leading cause of _____ in adults. A. tooth decay; tooth aches B. infection of the pulp cavity; root canals C. gum inflammation; tooth loss D. calculus; periodontal disease E. viral infection; hyper halitosis

88. Most of a tooth consists of a hard, yellowish tissue called _____, which is covered by a hard layer of calcium phosphate crystals called _____. A. enamel; cementum B. cementum; dentin C. dentin; enamel D. cementum; enamel E. pulp; dentin

89. The two living parts of a tooth are the A. dentin and enamel. B. dentin and cementum. C. cementum and enamel. D. pulp cavity and root canal. E. root canal and cementum.

90. You were following a molecule of glucose from the artery outside the tooth to an odontoblast in the dentin. The pathway glucose would take is A. pulp cavity → root canal → apical foramen B. apical foramen → root canal → pulp cavity C. root canal → apical foramen → pulp cavity D. root canal → pulp cavity → apical foramen E. apical foramen → pulp cavity → root canal

91. Salivary glands produce _____, which inhibits bacterial growth. A. IgA B. IgF C. IgG D. IgM E. IgE

92. Lingual lipase and lysozymes are produced by _____ salivary glands. A. ectodermal B. endodermal C. intrinsic D. extrinsic E. mesodermal

93. Mumps are most often caused by a viral infection of the ____ salivary glands. A. parotid B. intrinsic C. submandibular D. sublingual E. extrinsic

94. The esophagus pierces through the diaphragm at the ____, and its submucosa contains ____ glands that secrete mucus. A. hiatus; Brunner B. inguinal canal; esophageal C. hiatus; esophageal D. inguinal canal; Brunner E. hiatus; goblet

95. The tunica muscularis externa of the stomach contains A. two layers of smooth muscle. B. three layers of smooth muscle. C. one layer of skeletal muscle. D. a mixture of smooth and skeletal muscles. E. one layer of smooth muscle.

96. In the gastric pits, ____ cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor and _____ cells secrete pepsinogen. A. enteroendocrine; parietal B. parietal; chief C. chief; parietal D. parietal; enteroendocrine E. enteroendocrine; parietal

97. Pepsinogen is produced by _____ cells and is activated by _____. A. chief; HCl secreted by parietal cells B. chief; carbonic anhydrase secreted by parietal cells C. parietal; HCl secreted by chief cells D. parietal; carbonic anhydrase secreted by chief cells E. exocrine cells; carbonic anhydrase secreted by parietal cells

98. Pepsin digests _____ to _____. A. amino acids; peptides B. peptides; amino acids C. proteins; peptides D. proteins; amino acids E. polypeptides; dipeptides

99. The pathway of bile from the bile canaliculus to the gallbladder is A. bile ductule → hepatic duct → common hepatic duct → cystic duct B. bile ductile → hepatic duct → cystic duct → bile duct C. bile duct → cystic duct → common bile duct → hepatic duct D. bile ductile → bile duct → common hepatic duct → cystic duct E. cystic duct → hepatic duct → bile ductule → common hepatic duct

100. The ileocecal valves open in response to A. food in the ileum. B. food in the stomach. C. somatic motor signals. D. sympathetic signals. E. food in the large intestine.

25 Key

1. The ___ is a serous membrane that extends from the lesser curvature of the stomach to the liver. lesser omentum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #1

2. The starch-digesting enzymes of the saliva and pancreatic juice are called ___. amylases

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #2

3. Activities of different regions of the digestive tract are coordinated with each other through the ___ nerve plexus between the two layers of the muscularis externa. myenteric

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #3

4. Pepsin is produced from a zymogen called ___. pepsinogen

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #4

5. The _____ gland is located halfway along the body of the mandible, just deep to the mylohyoid muscle and empties into the mouth near the lower central incisors. submandibular

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #5

6. The partially digested slurry that passes from the stomach into the small intestine is called ___. chyme

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #6

7. Each hepatic lobule consists of plates of epithelial cells radially arranged around a blood vessel called the ___. central vein

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #7

8. As a prelude to enzymatic digestion, dietary fat must be ___, or broken up into small droplets suspended in the chyme. emulsified

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #8

9. The duodenal hormone ___ stimulates the liver and pancreas to secrete bicarbonate. secretin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #9

10. Dietary lipids are taken up by a lymphatic capillary called the ___ in each villus of the small intestine. lacteal

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #10

11. The gastroileal reflex relaxes the ileocecal valve when the stomach is full of food. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #11

12. The external anal sphincter allows for voluntary control over the time of defecation. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #12

13. Digestive enzymes digest each other, allowing the amino acids to be absorbed and reused. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #13

14. There are normally 32 teeth in the maxilla and 32 in the mandible. FALSE

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15. A high-fat meal remains in the stomach longer than a high-carbohydrate meal. TRUE

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16. The intestinal crypts contain chief cells, parietal cells, and G cells. FALSE

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17. Positive feedback is important in the production of pepsin in the stomach. TRUE

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18. Due to postmortem shrinkage, the small intestine is shorter in a cadaver than it is in a living person. FALSE

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19. There are no gastric glands in the fundic stomach. FALSE

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20. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon into the duodenum. FALSE

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21. The stomach lining is so well protected by mucus and tight junctions that its epithelial cells die at a very slow rate. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #21

22. Ingested food raises the pH of the stomach contents. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #22

23. The stomach secretes gastrin when its internal pH rises. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #23

24. The hormone secretin stimulates the stomach to secrete acid and enzymes. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #24

25. Chylomicrons are produced by the epithelial cells of the small intestine. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

chief cells dentin enamel gastrin HCl lactase pancreas pepsin pulp teniae coli vitamin D

chylomicrons duodenum fructose haustra intrinsic factor micelles parietal cells pepsinogen sucrose vitamin C vitamin K

Saladin - 025 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the tissue that constitutes most of the bulk of a tooth? dentin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #26

27. Which term can be described as the salivary enzyme that is activated in the stomach? pepsin

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #27

28. Which term can be described as the stomach cells that secrete pepsinogen? chief cells

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #28

29. Which bacterial flora in the large intestine produce this vitamin? vitamin K

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #29

30. The ________ is secreted by G cells of the gastric glands. gastrin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #30

31. Which term can be described as the three ribbonlike strips of muscularis externa in the colon? teniae coli

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #31

32. Which term can be described as the disaccharide produced by starch digestion? sucrose

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #32

33. Which term can be described as the source of cholecystokinin. duodenum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #33

34. Which term can be described as the site of H+-K+ ATPase? parietal cells

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #34

35. Which term can describes the emulsified lipid droplets in the small intestine? micelles

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #35

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #36

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #37

38. Which of the following cells are not found in the gastric glands? A. chief cells B. goblet cells C. parietal cells D. mucous neck cells E. enteroendocrine cells

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #38

39. The swallowing center is located in A. the mouth. B. the oropharynx. C. the esophagus. D. the brainstem. E. the enteric nervous system.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #39

40. All of the following glands secrete only mucus, except A. the pyloric glands. B. the duodenal glands. C. the cardiac glands. D. the intestinal crypts of the colon. E. the gastric glands.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #40

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #41

42. Bacteria, destroying macrophages are found in sinusoids of A. the liver. B. the pancreas. C. the intestinal crypts. D. the gastric glands. E. the appendix.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #42

43. Vitamin B12, which is needed for red blood cell production, requires ___ for its absorption. A. intrinsic factor B. bile salts C. lecithin D. hydrochloric acid E. enterokinase

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #43

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49. Bile gets its yellow, green color mainly from A. cholesterol. B. bile salts. C. phospholipids. D. bilirubin. E. urobilinogen.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #49

50. Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice? A. trypsinogen B. chymotrypsinogen C. deoxyribonuclease D. sodium bicarbonate E. enterokinase

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #50

51. Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice? A. ribonuclease B. insulin C. amylase D. sodium bicarbonate E. procarboxypeptidase

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #51

52. Which of these nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine? A. triglycerides B. amino acids C. glucose D. minerals E. water, soluble vitamins

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #52

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #53

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #54

55. Of the following components of bile, only ___ has/have a digestive function. A. bile salts B. bilirubin C. cholesterol D. phospholipids E. neutral fats

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #55

56. All of the following enzymes digest proteins except A. pepsin. B. trypsin. C. chymotrypsin. D. carboxypeptidase. E. ribonuclease.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #56

57. Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in response to the hormone A. insulin. B. cholecystokinin. C. secretin. D. glucagon. E. gastrin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #57

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #58

59. Unlike the small intestine, the large intestine shows pouches called ___ along its length. A. circular folds B. teniae coli C. haustra D. epiploic appendages E. ceca

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #59

60. Bacteria constitute about ___ of the dry weight of the feces. A. 2% B. 14% C. 30% D. 55% E. 80%

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #61

62. Dextrinase carries out one of the final stages in the digestion of A. proteins. B. nucleic acids. C. triglycerides. D. vitamins. E. polysaccharides.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #62

63. Cane sugar is digested by A. sucrase. B. sucrose. C. lactase. D. lactose. E. maltase.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #63

64. SGLT, an active transport pump of the small intestine, can only absorb glucose by simultaneously transporting A. water. B. sodium. C. maltose. D. amino acids. E. potassium.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #64

65. In addition to active transport, glucose can be absorbed from the chyme by means of A. pinocytosis. B. receptor, mediated endocytosis. C. facilitated diffusion. D. solvent drag. E. phagocytosis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #65

66. Which of the following enzymes functions at the lowest pH? A. salivary amylase B. pancreatic amylase C. pepsin D. trypsin E. dipeptidase

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #66

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #67

68. All of the following nutrients are absorbed by blood capillaries of the villus except A. glucose. B. cholesterol. C. amino acids. D. phosphate. E. minerals.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #68

69. The absorption of ___ depends on the presence of vitamin D. A. vitamin K B. cholesterol C. nucleotides D. glucose E. calcium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #69

70. Most of the water entering the digestive tract each day comes from A. gastrointestinal secretions. B. beverages. C. food. D. transpiration. E. metabolic water.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #70

71. Which of the following enzymes does not digest any nutrients? A. chymotrypsin B. carboxypeptidase C. enterokinase D. sucrase E. lingual lipase

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #71

72. All of the following are enzymes except A. secretin. B. trypsin. C. pepsin. D. glucoamylase. E. enterokinase.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #72

73. The enterogastric reflex regulates the ___ phase of gastric activity. A. cephalic B. colonic C. intestinal D. buccal E. gastric

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #73

74. The small intestine is suspended from the dorsal body wall by A. the falciform ligament. B. the mesentery. C. the greater omentum. D. the lesser omentum. E. the epiploic appendages.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #74

75. Which one of the following is absorbed without being digested? A. cholesterol B. sucrose C. peptides D. triglycerides E. lactose

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #75

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Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #80

81. Inflammation of the greater or lesser omentum, mesentery, or mesocolon is called A. diverticulitis. B. appendicitis. C. peritonitis. D. gastritis. E. direticulitis.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #81

82. This structure closes off the nasopharynx when you swallow. A. palatal rugae B. vestibule C. uvula D. frenulum E. epiglottis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #83

84. Infants have _____ deciduous teeth, while adults have _____ permanent teeth. A. 20; 32 B. 16; 20 C. 10; 32 D. 32; 20 E. 32; 32

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #84

85. An individual has an impacted tooth. This tooth is most likely the A. canine. B. second premolar. C. first molar. D. third molar. E. incisor.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #85

86. The tooth is anchored to alveolar bone by the A. periodontal ligament. B. gomphosis. C. gingival sulcus. D. root canal. E. facial nerve.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #87

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #88

89. The two living parts of a tooth are the A. dentin and enamel. B. dentin and cementum. C. cementum and enamel. D. pulp cavity and root canal. E. root canal and cementum.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #90

91. Salivary glands produce _____, which inhibits bacterial growth. A. IgA B. IgF C. IgG D. IgM E. IgE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #91

92. Lingual lipase and lysozymes are produced by _____ salivary glands. A. ectodermal B. endodermal C. intrinsic D. extrinsic E. mesodermal

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #92

93. Mumps are most often caused by a viral infection of the ____ salivary glands. A. parotid B. intrinsic C. submandibular D. sublingual E. extrinsic

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #93

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 025 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 025 Chapter... #97

98. Pepsin digests _____ to _____. A. amino acids; peptides B. peptides; amino acids C. proteins; peptides D. proteins; amino acids E. polypeptides; dipeptides

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 025 Chapter... #98

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 025 Chapter... #99

100. The ileocecal valves open in response to A. food in the ileum. B. food in the stomach. C. somatic motor signals. D. sympathetic signals. E. food in the large intestine.

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 025 Chapter... #100

Chapter 26 1. A deficiency of blood glucose is called ___. ________________________________________

2. Fat has a ___ effect, meaning that by meeting the energy needs of many tissues, it leaves more glucose available for those tissues that depend on it exclusively. ________________________________________

3. There are ten amino acids that the body cannot synthesize and therefore must acquire from the diet. They are called the ___ amino acids. ________________________________________

4. Lipoproteins that transport newly absorbed dietary fats in the lymph and blood are called ___. ________________________________________

5. If a dietary protein has all the essential amino acids in the proportions needed for human metabolism, it is called a/an ___ protein. ________________________________________

6. The metabolic reaction chain that splits glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid is called ___. ________________________________________

7. The iron-containing enzymes of the mitochondrial cristae that participate in the electron transport system are called ___. ________________________________________

8. When stored glycogen is needed for energy, it is hydrolyzed to glucose through a process called ___. ________________________________________

9. When the stomach and small intestine are empty and the body is drawing on its stored energy reserves, it is in the ___ state. ________________________________________

10. You arrive in class and find your seat is still warm from the student before you. Which method of heat loss from that student's body accounts for this? ________________________________________

11. A diet high in cellulose helps to reduce the body's cholesterol level. True False

12. Water-soluble vitamins remain dissolved in the blood plasma longer, and are excreted from the body more slowly, than fat-soluble vitamins. True False

13. On a day when the temperature is over 38 C (100 F), evaporation is the only means by which the body can lose heat. True False

14. HDLs contain more protein and fewer lipids than LDLs. True False

15. Ideally, a person's blood HDL level should be kept as low as possible. True False

16. The essential amino acids can be synthesized from other amino acids when they are lacking in the diet. True False

17. No significant amount of the body's energy requirement comes from vitamins. True False

18. Plant foods contain more salt (NaCl) than meats do. True False

19. It is undesirable to consume large doses of fat-soluble vitamins. True False

20. Lactic acid contains more free energy than the pyruvic acid from which it is made. True False

21. Elderly people easily become chilled because they have more brown fat. True False

22. The primary reason we do not feel hungry for a few hours after a meal is stretching of the stomach with food. True False

23. More energy enters the mitochondrial membrane reactions by way of NADH than by way of FADH2. True False

24. Even though fiber is important in health, it is not considered a nutrient. True False

25. Even though water is important in health, it is not considered a nutrient. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

anorexia cholesterol hyperglycemia hypoglycemia intestinal lumen lactic acid lipid soluble vitamins mitochondrial inner membrane mitochondrial outer membrane neuropeptide Y tocopherol

carotene glucagon hyperphagia intestinal cells lacteals leptin lipoprotein mitochondrial matrix NADH pyruvic acid

26. Which term can be described as the major component of LDLs? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as the site of chylomicron formation? ________________________________________

28. Which term can be described as excess blood glucose? ________________________________________

29. Prevented by glucagon following a high-protein meal is known as ________. ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as the dietary provitamin that the body converts to vitamin A? ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the major end product of glycolysis? ________________________________________

32. This is transported to the liver in HDLs to be disposed of in the bile. ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the effect of a lesion in the hunger center of the hypothalamus? ________________________________________

34. Which term describes the location of ATP synthase? ________________________________________

35. Which term can be described as an appetite-suppressing hormone? ________________________________________

36. The recommended daily allowance is higher for ___ than for any of these other nutrients. A. proteins B. carbohydrates C. vitamins D. lipids E. minerals

37. Next to water, the most abundant substance in cow's milk is A. calcium. B. vitamin D. C. fat. D. lactose. E. maltose.

38. In a state of nitrogen balance A. nitrogen intake and output are equal. B. the rates of muscle growth and atrophy are equal. C. equal amounts of nitrogen are supplied by proteins and nucleic acids. D. 50% of the RDA of nitrogen comes from essential amino acids and 50% from inessential amino acids. E. 50% of the RDA of nitrogen comes from the diet and 50% is produced in the body.

39. Each of the following lists some of the intermediates of glycolysis and aerobic respiration. Which one lists them in correct metabolic order? A. G6P, PGAL, pyruvic acid, acetyl-CoA, citric acid B. G6P, PGAL, acetyl-CoA, citric acid, pyruvic acid C. PGAL, G6P, acetyl-CoA, pyruvic acid, citric acid D. PGAL, acetyl-CoA, G6P, pyruvic acid, citric acid E. G6P, citric acid, pyruvic acid, PGAL, acetyl-CoA

40. The most significant product of the ornithine cycle is A. ornithine. B. ammonia. C. urea. D. protein. E. pyruvic acid.

41. A gram of fat has about ___ the calories of a gram of starch. A. one-tenth B. one-half C. one-fourth D. twice E. five times

42. Eicosanoids and bile salts are made from which of the following nutrients? A. lipids B. minerals C. vitamins D. proteins E. carbohydrates

43. Glucostats are cells located in A. the liver. B. the gastric mucosa. C. the intestinal mucosa. D. the pancreatic islets. E. the hypothalamus.

44. Which of the following is not a macronutrient? A. fat B. starch C. protein D. calcium E. water

45. The human body contains carbohydrates in all of the following forms and places except A. glucose in the bloodstream. B. glycogen in the liver. C. glycogen in the muscles. D. cellulose in the cell walls. E. oligosaccharides in the glycocalyx.

46. When fats are incompletely oxidized, they yield ___, which may cause acidosis. A. ketones B. fatty acids C. glycerol D. amino acids E. acetyl groups

47. During periods of fasting, fat is said to have a protein-sparing effect because the body A. oxidizes its spare protein before it depletes its fat reserves. B. does not oxidize its proteins unless it has consumed its fat reserves. C. must have an adequate fat intake in order to absorb and metabolize proteins. D. must have an adequate protein intake in order to absorb and metabolize fats. E. metabolizes fats and proteins through the same metabolic pathways.

48. Which of the following is not a dietary source of cholesterol? A. eggs B. liver C. whole milk D. shrimp E. corn oil

49. When the triglycerides have been removed from a chylomicron, the empty chylomicron remnant A. returns to the adipose tissue to be refilled with lipids. B. returns to the liver to be refilled with lipids. C. is removed from the blood and degraded by the liver. D. is filtered by the kidneys and excreted in the urine. E. returns to the small intestine to pick up more dietary fat.

50. The highest percentage of cholesterol is found in A. chylomicrons. B. chylomicron remnants. C. VLDLs. D. LDLs. E. HDLs.

51. Proteins are important for all of the following physiological roles except A. structural strength. B. thermal insulation. C. movement. D. membrane transport. E. oxygen transport.

52. All of the following people could be expected to exhibit positive nitrogen balance except A. a man training for Olympic weight-lifting competition. B. a growing child. C. a person dying in a famine. D. a pregnant woman. E. a fetus.

53. Which of the following would provide the lowest quantity of minerals for a given weight of food? A. peas and beans B. eggs and milk C. broccoli and carrots D. fish and oysters E. rice and white flour

54. Our need for all of the following except ___ is met partly by our own intestinal bacteria. A. biotin B. folic acid C. pantothenic acid D. manganese E. vitamin K

55. All of the following vitamins except ___ are fat-soluble. A. A B. K C. C D. D E. E

56. An excess of this vitamin can cause anorexia, hair loss, and birth defects. A. riboflavin (B2) B. retinol (A) C. folic acid D. phylloquinone (K) E. pantothenic acid

57. The coenzymes of aerobic respiration are synthesized from A. cholesterol. B. minerals. C. fatty acids. D. B vitamins. E. amino acids.

58. Of all the NADH contributing energy to ATP synthesis, most is produced by A. glycolysis. B. anaerobic fermentation. C. the citric acid cycle. D. the mitochondrial proton pumps. E. electron transfer from FADH2.

59. Cytochromes and iron-sulfur centers are found in A. the cisternae of the rough ER. B. the cytosol. C. the mitochondrial matrix. D. the space between the two mitochondrial membranes. E. the inner mitochondrial membrane.

60. Hydrogen ions diffuse from the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion into the mitochondrial matrix by way of A. iron-sulfur centers. B. proton pumps. C. ATP synthase. D. a respiratory enzyme complex. E. the mitochondrial cisterna.

61. Approximately ___ of the energy in a glucose molecule winds up in ATP molecules at the end of aerobic respiration. A. 10% B. 20% C. 40% D. 80% E. 98%

62. The conversion of amino acids to glucose is called A. gluconeogenesis. B. glycogenesis. C. glycogenolysis. D. glycolysis. E. glyconeogenesis.

63. The liver performs all of the following functions except A. glycogenesis. B. secretion of digestive enzymes. C. phagocytosis. D. detoxification. E. synthesis of plasma proteins.

64. The liver performs all of the following functions except A. disposal of chylomicron remnants. B. production of high-density lipoproteins. C. absorption of digested nutrients. D. synthesis of urea. E. synthesis of clotting factors.

65. The synthesis and storage of triglycerides is called A. -oxidation. B. ketogenesis. C. lipogenesis. D. lipolysis. E. the fat-sparing effect.

66. Which of the following is a ketone body? A. PGAL B. -hydroxybutyric acid C. coenzyme A D. oxaloacetic acid E. -ketoglutaric acid

67. Which of these is least characteristic of the postabsorptive state? A. gluconeogenesis B. glucagon secretion C. lipolysis D. glycogenesis E. glycogenolysis

68. Which of the following nutrients is most likely to circulate through skeletal muscle before it ever circulates through the liver? A. a triglyceride B. an amino acid C. galactose D. ascorbic acid E. magnesium

69. Insulin has all of the following effects in the absorptive state except that it does not stimulate A. glycolysis. B. gluconeogenesis. C. lipogenesis. D. amino acid absorption. E. protein synthesis.

70. The basal metabolic rate should be measured when a person A. is sleeping. B. first rises in the morning. C. has just eaten a normal meal. D. is in the postabsorptive state. E. is engaged in normal physical activity but not strenuous exercise.

71. The loss of body heat by conduction can be enhanced by A. radiation. B. convection. C. nonshivering thermogenesis. D. shivering thermogenesis. E. evaporation.

72. At a comfortable room temperature, the body loses the most heat by A. thermogenesis. B. hyperthermia. C. convection. D. evaporation. E. radiation.

73. The quickest physiological mechanism for achieving moderate heat loss is A. cutaneous vasodilation. B. cutaneous vasoconstriction. C. nonshivering thermogenesis. D. convection. E. diaphoresis.

74. Shivering warms the body because it increases the rate of A. radiation. B. conduction. C. ATP hydrolysis. D. vasodilation. E. glycolysis.

75. Heat exhaustion results from A. extreme electrolyte loss in the sweat. B. denaturation of proteins in the brain tissue. C. excessive heat loss from the body. D. a high rate of conduction and convection. E. a high humidity that retards evaporative cooling.

76. Leptin is produced by _____ and inhibits the synthesis of _____. A. adipocytes; orexin B. adipocytes; neuropeptide Y C. glucostats; CCK D. glucostats; endocannabinoids E. hepatocytes; serotonin

77. According to one hypothesis, the satiety center has neurons called _____ that rapidly absorb glucose after a meal and send inhibitory signals to the feeding center. A. glucostats B. lipostats C. endostats D. somatostats E. gycerostats

78. An individual has a height of six feet and a weight of 150 pounds. This individual has a BMI of _____ and is considered _____. A. 15; under weight B. 20; optimal C. 29; overweight D. 25; overweight E. 35; obese

79. In humans, NE stimulates the appetite for A. carbohydrates. B. proteins. C. triglycerides. D. nucleic acids. E. cholesterol.

80. Carbohydrates and proteins yield about ____ kcal/g, while fats yield about ____ kcal/g when completely oxidized. A. 4; 9 B. 4; 4 C. 9; 4 D. 9; 9 E. 4; 7

81. Most of the carbohydrates in the body are found as A. blood glucose. B. starch. C. liver glycogen. D. muscle glycogen. E. cellulose.

82. An increase in blood glucose will stimulate the release of _____ and most of any excess glucose will be stored as _____. A. insulin; glycogen B. insulin; fat C. glucagon; glycogen D. growth hormone; protein E. glucagon; fat

83. Of the macronutrients we consume, _____ is required in the largest daily quantity and _____ is required in the least daily quantity. A. carbohydrates; water B. carbohydrates; fats C. water; fats D. water; protein E. carbohydrates; protein

84. Carbohydrates should account for about _____% of your daily caloric intake. A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 E. 60

85. The two major dietary disaccharides are _____, and ultimately all carbohydrate digestion generates _____. A. lactose and sucrose; glucose B. maltose and sucrose; fructose C. lactose and maltose; glucose D. galactose and fructose; galactose E. fructose and sucrose; glucose

86. Which one of the following vessels would have the highest concentration of glucose? A. inferior vena cava B. hepatic vein C. hepatic portal vein D. hepatic artery E. aorta

87. Pectin is a _____ fiber found in oats, beans, peas, carrots, brown rice, and fruits. This fiber reduces blood _____. A. water-insoluble; Na+ and Ca2+ B. water-insoluble; glucose and amino acids C. water-soluble; cholesterol and LDL D. water-soluble; fatty acids and HDL E. water-soluble; fatty acids and cholesterol

88. Fats should account for about _____% of your daily caloric intake. A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 E. 60

89. A major structural component of plasma membranes and myelin that is also the precursor of steroid hormones, bile acids, and vitamin D is A. cholesterol. B. phospholipids. C. thromboplastin. D. arachidonic acid. E. linoleic acid.

90. Which one of the following is an unsaturated fat? A. vegetable oil B. coconut oil C. egg yolk D. nondairy coffee creamer E. butter

91. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) have the highest proportion of A. lipid to protein. B. protein to lipid. C. cholesterol to lipoprotein. D. triglyceride to phospholipid. E. cholesterol to triglycerides.

92. An individual who has atherosclerosis would have a high ____ ratio. A. LDL:HDL B. LDL:VLDL C. HDL:LDL D. HDL:VLDL E. VLDL; LDL

93. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are absorbed A. into blood capillaries. B. into lacteals. C. by receptor-mediated endocytosis. D. by antiport active transport. E. via transcytosis.

94. The catabolism reaction that breaks down glucose to pyruvic acid takes place in the A. mitochondria. B. cytoplasm. C. rough ER. D. Golgi complex. E. smooth ER.

95. Lactic acid formed in RBCs and in fast twitch muscle fibers leaves the cells, enters the bloodstream to the _____ and is oxidized to _____. A. liver; acetic acid B. kidney; acetic acid C. kidney; pyruvic acid D. liver; pyruvic acid E. kidney; glucose

96. The inner membrane of mitochondria or mitochondrial cristae contains the protein called _____, which harnesses electrical energy to produce ATP by _____. A. ATP synthase; chemiosmosis B. ATP synthase; oxidation C. enzyme complex; proton pumps D. enzyme complex; reduction E. ATPase; reduction

97. Glycogenesis is stimulated by ______, and glycogenolysis is stimulated by _____. A. insulin; aldosterone B. insulin; glucagon and EP C. growth hormone; glucagon and EP D. growth hormone; cortisol E. growth hormone; insulin

98. Glucose and amino acids are absorbed into the _____ and fats are absorbed into the _____. A. lacteals; blood capillaries B. hepatic portal system; lymphatic system C. blood capillaries; hepatic portal system D. lacteals; lymphatic system E. hepatic portal system; blood capillaries

99. About four hours after a meal, which one of the following will be stimulated? A. gluconeogenesis B. lipogenesis C. glycogenesis D. glycogenolysis E. glyconeogenesis

100. The postabsorptive state is regulated mainly by the ____ nervous system and the hormone _____. A. sympathetic; insulin B. parasympathetic; glucagon C. sympathetic; glucagon D. parasympathetic; insulin E. sympathetic; cortisol

26 Key

1. A deficiency of blood glucose is called ___. hypoglycemia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #1

2. Fat has a ___ effect, meaning that by meeting the energy needs of many tissues, it leaves more glucose available for those tissues that depend on it exclusively. glucose-sparing

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #2

3. There are ten amino acids that the body cannot synthesize and therefore must acquire from the diet. They are called the ___ amino acids. essential

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #3

4. Lipoproteins that transport newly absorbed dietary fats in the lymph and blood are called ___. chylomicrons

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #4

5. If a dietary protein has all the essential amino acids in the proportions needed for human metabolism, it is called a/an ___ protein. complete

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #5

6. The metabolic reaction chain that splits glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid is called ___. glycolysis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #6

7. The iron-containing enzymes of the mitochondrial cristae that participate in the electron transport system are called ___. cytochromes

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #7

8. When stored glycogen is needed for energy, it is hydrolyzed to glucose through a process called ___. glycogenolysis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #8

9. When the stomach and small intestine are empty and the body is drawing on its stored energy reserves, it is in the ___ state. postabsorptive

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #9

10. You arrive in class and find your seat is still warm from the student before you. Which method of heat loss from that student's body accounts for this? conduction

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #10

11. A diet high in cellulose helps to reduce the body's cholesterol level. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #11

12. Water-soluble vitamins remain dissolved in the blood plasma longer, and are excreted from the body more slowly, than fat-soluble vitamins. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #12

13. On a day when the temperature is over 38 C (100 F), evaporation is the only means by which the body can lose heat. TRUE

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14. HDLs contain more protein and fewer lipids than LDLs. TRUE

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15. Ideally, a person's blood HDL level should be kept as low as possible. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #15

16. The essential amino acids can be synthesized from other amino acids when they are lacking in the diet. FALSE

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17. No significant amount of the body's energy requirement comes from vitamins. TRUE

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18. Plant foods contain more salt (NaCl) than meats do. FALSE

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19. It is undesirable to consume large doses of fat-soluble vitamins. TRUE

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20. Lactic acid contains more free energy than the pyruvic acid from which it is made. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #20

21. Elderly people easily become chilled because they have more brown fat. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #21

22. The primary reason we do not feel hungry for a few hours after a meal is stretching of the stomach with food. FALSE

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23. More energy enters the mitochondrial membrane reactions by way of NADH than by way of FADH2. TRUE

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24. Even though fiber is important in health, it is not considered a nutrient. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #24

25. Even though water is important in health, it is not considered a nutrient. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

anorexia cholesterol hyperglycemia hypoglycemia intestinal lumen lactic acid lipid soluble vitamins mitochondrial inner membrane mitochondrial outer membrane neuropeptide Y tocopherol

carotene glucagon hyperphagia intestinal cells lacteals leptin lipoprotein mitochondrial matrix NADH pyruvic acid

Saladin - 026 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the major component of LDLs? cholesterol

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #26

27. Which term can be described as the site of chylomicron formation? intestinal cells

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #27

28. Which term can be described as excess blood glucose? hyperglycemia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #28

29. Prevented by glucagon following a high-protein meal is known as ________. hypoglycemia

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #29

30. Which term can be described as the dietary provitamin that the body converts to vitamin A? carotene

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #30

31. Which term can be described as the major end product of glycolysis? pyruvic acid

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #31

32. This is transported to the liver in HDLs to be disposed of in the bile. cholesterol

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #32

33. Which term can be described as the effect of a lesion in the hunger center of the hypothalamus? anorexia

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #33

34. Which term describes the location of ATP synthase? mitochondrial inner membrane

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #34

35. Which term can be described as an appetite-suppressing hormone? leptin

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #35

36. The recommended daily allowance is higher for ___ than for any of these other nutrients. A. proteins B. carbohydrates C. vitamins D. lipids E. minerals

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #36

37. Next to water, the most abundant substance in cow's milk is A. calcium. B. vitamin D. C. fat. D. lactose. E. maltose.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #37

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #38

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 026 Chapter... #39

40. The most significant product of the ornithine cycle is A. ornithine. B. ammonia. C. urea. D. protein. E. pyruvic acid.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #40

41. A gram of fat has about ___ the calories of a gram of starch. A. one-tenth B. one-half C. one-fourth D. twice E. five times

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #41

42. Eicosanoids and bile salts are made from which of the following nutrients? A. lipids B. minerals C. vitamins D. proteins E. carbohydrates

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #42

43. Glucostats are cells located in A. the liver. B. the gastric mucosa. C. the intestinal mucosa. D. the pancreatic islets. E. the hypothalamus.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #43

44. Which of the following is not a macronutrient? A. fat B. starch C. protein D. calcium E. water

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #44

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #45

46. When fats are incompletely oxidized, they yield ___, which may cause acidosis. A. ketones B. fatty acids C. glycerol D. amino acids E. acetyl groups

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #46

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #47

48. Which of the following is not a dietary source of cholesterol? A. eggs B. liver C. whole milk D. shrimp E. corn oil

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #48

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #49

50. The highest percentage of cholesterol is found in A. chylomicrons. B. chylomicron remnants. C. VLDLs. D. LDLs. E. HDLs.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #50

51. Proteins are important for all of the following physiological roles except A. structural strength. B. thermal insulation. C. movement. D. membrane transport. E. oxygen transport.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 026 Chapter... #52

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 026 Chapter... #53

54. Our need for all of the following except ___ is met partly by our own intestinal bacteria. A. biotin B. folic acid C. pantothenic acid D. manganese E. vitamin K

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55. All of the following vitamins except ___ are fat-soluble. A. A B. K C. C D. D E. E

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #55

56. An excess of this vitamin can cause anorexia, hair loss, and birth defects. A. riboflavin (B2) B. retinol (A) C. folic acid D. phylloquinone (K) E. pantothenic acid

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #56

57. The coenzymes of aerobic respiration are synthesized from A. cholesterol. B. minerals. C. fatty acids. D. B vitamins. E. amino acids.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #57

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #58

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61. Approximately ___ of the energy in a glucose molecule winds up in ATP molecules at the end of aerobic respiration. A. 10% B. 20% C. 40% D. 80% E. 98%

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #61

62. The conversion of amino acids to glucose is called A. gluconeogenesis. B. glycogenesis. C. glycogenolysis. D. glycolysis. E. glyconeogenesis.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #62

63. The liver performs all of the following functions except A. glycogenesis. B. secretion of digestive enzymes. C. phagocytosis. D. detoxification. E. synthesis of plasma proteins.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #63

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #64

65. The synthesis and storage of triglycerides is called A. -oxidation. B. ketogenesis. C. lipogenesis. D. lipolysis. E. the fat-sparing effect.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #65

66. Which of the following is a ketone body? A. PGAL B. -hydroxybutyric acid C. coenzyme A D. oxaloacetic acid E. -ketoglutaric acid

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #66

67. Which of these is least characteristic of the postabsorptive state? A. gluconeogenesis B. glucagon secretion C. lipolysis D. glycogenesis E. glycogenolysis

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 026 Chapter... #67

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 026 Chapter... #68

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #70

71. The loss of body heat by conduction can be enhanced by A. radiation. B. convection. C. nonshivering thermogenesis. D. shivering thermogenesis. E. evaporation.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #71

72. At a comfortable room temperature, the body loses the most heat by A. thermogenesis. B. hyperthermia. C. convection. D. evaporation. E. radiation.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #72

73. The quickest physiological mechanism for achieving moderate heat loss is A. cutaneous vasodilation. B. cutaneous vasoconstriction. C. nonshivering thermogenesis. D. convection. E. diaphoresis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #73

74. Shivering warms the body because it increases the rate of A. radiation. B. conduction. C. ATP hydrolysis. D. vasodilation. E. glycolysis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #74

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #75

76. Leptin is produced by _____ and inhibits the synthesis of _____. A. adipocytes; orexin B. adipocytes; neuropeptide Y C. glucostats; CCK D. glucostats; endocannabinoids E. hepatocytes; serotonin

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 026 Chapter... #78

79. In humans, NE stimulates the appetite for A. carbohydrates. B. proteins. C. triglycerides. D. nucleic acids. E. cholesterol.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #79

80. Carbohydrates and proteins yield about ____ kcal/g, while fats yield about ____ kcal/g when completely oxidized. A. 4; 9 B. 4; 4 C. 9; 4 D. 9; 9 E. 4; 7

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #80

81. Most of the carbohydrates in the body are found as A. blood glucose. B. starch. C. liver glycogen. D. muscle glycogen. E. cellulose.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #83

84. Carbohydrates should account for about _____% of your daily caloric intake. A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 E. 60

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #85

86. Which one of the following vessels would have the highest concentration of glucose? A. inferior vena cava B. hepatic vein C. hepatic portal vein D. hepatic artery E. aorta

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #87

88. Fats should account for about _____% of your daily caloric intake. A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 E. 60

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #89

90. Which one of the following is an unsaturated fat? A. vegetable oil B. coconut oil C. egg yolk D. nondairy coffee creamer E. butter

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #90

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #91

92. An individual who has atherosclerosis would have a high ____ ratio. A. LDL:HDL B. LDL:VLDL C. HDL:LDL D. HDL:VLDL E. VLDL; LDL

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #92

93. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are absorbed A. into blood capillaries. B. into lacteals. C. by receptor-mediated endocytosis. D. by antiport active transport. E. via transcytosis.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #93

94. The catabolism reaction that breaks down glucose to pyruvic acid takes place in the A. mitochondria. B. cytoplasm. C. rough ER. D. Golgi complex. E. smooth ER.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #95

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #97

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #98

99. About four hours after a meal, which one of the following will be stimulated? A. gluconeogenesis B. lipogenesis C. glycogenesis D. glycogenolysis E. glyconeogenesis

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 026 Chapter... #99

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 026 Chapter... #100

Chapter 27 1. Sterility may result from uncorrected ___, or undescended testes. ________________________________________

2. Spermatozoa are produced in minute ducts called ___. ________________________________________

3. Testosterone is secreted by ___ cells of the testes. ________________________________________

4. The ___ is a countercurrent heat exchanger that keeps the testis cool. ________________________________________

5. Until ejaculation, most sperm are stored in the ___. ________________________________________

6. About 30% of the semen is produced by the ___, a medial gland that encloses part of the urethra. ________________________________________

7. The blood-testis barrier is formed by tight junctions between the ___ cells of the testis. ________________________________________

8. Erection results largely from vasocongestion of the two ___ on the dorsal side of the penis. ________________________________________

9. A sperm penetrates an egg by means of enzymes from its ___. ________________________________________

10. The first haploid cell produced in spermatogenesis is the ___. ________________________________________

11. Primary spermatocytes are haploid. True False

12. Impotence means the inability to fertilize an egg due to a low sperm count or defective sperm. True False

13. The acidity of the vagina would be harmful to sperm if it were not neutralized by the semen. True False

14. Spermatogenesis requires a temperature slightly lower than the core body temperature. True False

15. The testes and ovaries are collectively called the gametes. True False

16. During erection, the corpora cavernosa become more vasocongested than the corpus spongiosum. True False

17. Since ejaculation is an involuntary reflex, it does not involve any skeletal (voluntary) muscles. True False

18. The male scrotum is homologous to the female labia majora. True False

19. If two chromosomes are homologous, they came from the same parent. True False

20. The nerves that carry sensations from the male genitals constitute the pampiniform plexus. True False

21. Testosterone has no effect on spermatogenesis unless follicle-stimulating hormone is present. True False

22. Sperm heads are embedded in the sustentacular cells until the spermatozoa are mature. True False

23. Spermine is a sugar that provides energy for sperm motility. True False

24. The tunica albuginea of the male is homologous to the tunica vaginalis of the female. True False

25. The blood-testis barrier keeps blood from getting to the testes. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

beard bulbourethral glands dartos muscle GnRH interstitial (Leydig) cells LH mesonephric duct paramesonephric duct seminal vesicles sustentacular (Sertoli) cells trabeculae

bulbocavernosus cremaster FSH impotence lacunae male climacteric nitric oxide PDE5 spermatic cord testis tunica albuginea

26. Which term can be described as the Embryonic precursor of the male reproductive tract? ________________________________________

27. Secretions from the ________ constitute 60% of semen. ________________________________________

28. The inability to produce ________ would result in impotence. ________________________________________

29. The ________ form the blood-testis barrier. ________________________________________

30. Which term can be described as a male secondary sex characteristic? ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the cord that guides the descending testes into the fetal scrotum? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as the muscle that elevates or lowers the scrotum? ________________________________________

33. After age 50, FSH and LH levels rise significantly is known as ___________. ________________________________________

34. Minute blood sinuses in the erectile tissues of the penis is known as ________. ________________________________________

35. Inhibin that selectively suppresses its secretion is known as ________. ________________________________________

36. The final cellular transformation in the production of spermatozoa is called A. climacteric. B. spermiogenesis. C. spermatogenesis. D. detumescence. E. resolution.

37. When all sexually reproducing species of animals are considered, the one characteristic that most defines a female is A. the presence of a uterus. B. provision for the nourishment of the young. C. production of the larger gamete. D. production of the smaller gamete. E. the lack of a copulatory organ.

38. Which of the following is/are female secondary sex organ(s)? A. ovaries B. uterus C. breasts D. ova E. scent glands

39. The genetic sex of a child is determined by A. prenatal hormone exposure. B. unknown factors. C. the egg. D. the sperm. E. both parents equally.

40. Müllerian-inhibiting factor A. suppresses FSH secretion by the pituitary. B. stimulates ICSH secretion by the pituitary. C. suppresses premature secretion of testosterone. D. causes regression of the mesonephric ducts. E. causes regression of the paramesonephric ducts.

41. Testis-determining factor is found in or on A. the Y chromosome. B. the X chromosome. C. the gonadal ridges of the embryo. D. the fetal testis. E. the sustentacular cells of the testis.

42. Hypospadias is a birth defect that results from A. incomplete regression of the paramesonephric ducts. B. failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum. C. urethral opening on the side of the penis. D. incomplete fusion of the labioscrotal folds. E. a lack of androgen receptors.

43. Which of the following is an androgen? A. testosterone B. human chorionic gonadotropin C. müllerian inhibiting factor D. interstitial cell-stimulating hormone E. follicle-stimulating hormone

44. The germinal epithelium of the testis consists of germ cells and A. interstitial cells. B. sustentacular cells. C. spermatogonia. D. a tunica albuginea. E. a tunica dartos.

45. To get from the testis to the epididymis, sperm must pass through A. the inguinal canal. B. the spermatic cord. C. the ductus deferens. D. the efferent ductules. E. the ejaculatory ducts.

46. Men have only one ___ but have two of all the rest of these. A. bulbourethral gland(s). B. prostate gland(s). C. ejaculatory duct(s). D. seminal vesicle(s). E. corpus cavernosum (corpora cavernosa).

47. The heat exchanger that prevents afferent blood from overheating the testes is A. the rete testis. B. the epididymis. C. the pampiniform plexus. D. the blood-testis barrier. E. the helicine artery.

48. Mitochondria are found in the ___ of a spermatozoon. A. acrosome B. head C. principal piece D. midpiece E. endpiece

49. The foreskin of the penis is called A. the prepuce. B. the crus. C. the glans. D. the frenulum. E. the raphe.

50. The smooth muscle layer in the wall of the scrotum is called A. the cremaster. B. the muscularis interna. C. the tunica media. D. the tunica dartos. E. the tunica vaginalis.

51. Until ejaculation, sperm are stored mainly in A. the corpus spongiosum. B. the seminal vesicles. C. the seminiferous tubules. D. the prostate. E. the epididymis.

52. Vasectomy, a procedure for surgical sterilization of the male, entails removal of part of the A. prostatic urethra. B. seminal vesicles. C. seminiferous tubules. D. corpus spongiosum. E. ductus deferens.

53. Fibrinogen, a clotting protein, is found not only in the blood but also in the secretion of A. the testes. B. the epididymis. C. the seminal vesicles. D. the bulbourethral glands. E. the prostate.

54. The cell in spermatogenesis that undergoes meiosis I is A. a type A spermatogonium. B. a type B spermatogonium. C. a primary spermatocyte. D. a secondary spermatocyte. E. a spermatid.

55. A spermatozoon secretes enzymes from its ___ to penetrate the egg. A. acrosome B. nucleus C. endpiece D. mitochondria E. principal piece

56. The energy for sperm motility comes from A. prostaglandins. B. sucrose. C. fructose. D. galactose. E. spermine.

57. One of the major processes that transforms a spermatid into a spermatozoon is A. meiosis I. B. meiosis II. C. development of androgen receptors. D. migration through the blood-testis barrier. E. loss of excess cytoplasm.

58. Most of the semen consists of the secretion from A. the seminal vesicles. B. the prostate. C. the testes. D. the epididymis. E. the bulbourethral glands.

59. The lacunae of the corpora cavernosa receive blood directly from A. the helicine arteries. B. the pudendal arteries. C. the deep arteries. D. the dorsal arteries. E. the testicular arteries.

60. The cell that migrates from the outside to the inside of the blood-testis barrier is A. a type A spermatogonium. B. a type B spermatogonium. C. a primary spermatocyte. D. a secondary spermatocyte. E. a spermatid.

61. The peristaltic propulsion of sperm along the ductus deferens is called A. intromission. B. myotonia. C. expulsion. D. emission. E. coition.

62. Penile cancer has been linked to human papilloma cancer. What other conditions is this cancer related to? A. varicocele. B. non-retractable foreskins. C. cryptoorchidism. D. tight jeans. E. circumcision.

63. The penis of a male embryo develops from A. the gonadal ridge. B. the phallus. C. the urogenital folds. D. the labioscrotal folds. E. the mesonephric duct.

64. The testes receive a poor oxygen supply mainly because A. they do not have any arteries. B. the blood-testis barrier prevents them from receiving very much blood. C. the testicular artery has a very low blood pressure. D. hemoglobin does not unload oxygen at low temperatures. E. the pampiniform plexus consumes most oxygen in the blood before it reaches the testis.

65. All of the following play a role in thermoregulation of the testes except A. the countercurrent heat exchanger. B. the cremaster muscle. C. the pampiniform plexus. D. the bulbocavernosus muscle. E. the dartos muscle.

66. Which of the following is not a spermatic duct? A. a seminiferous tubule B. an efferent ductule C. the duct of the epididymis D. the ductus deferens E. the ejaculatory duct

67. At what stage does a developing sperm cell begin to grow a tail? A. spermatozoon B. spermatid C. primary spermatocyte D. secondary spermatocyte E. spermatogonium

68. Half of the penis, called its ___, is internal and normally cannot be seen. A. glans B. corona C. bulb D. shaft E. root

69. The forcible expulsion of semen in ejaculation results from spasmodic contractions of A. the penile urethra. B. the seminal vesicles. C. the bulbocavernosus muscle. D. the dartos muscle. E. the cremaster muscle.

70. The first hormone to trigger the changes of puberty is A. gonadotropin-releasing hormone. B. follicle-stimulating hormone. C. testosterone. D. interstitial cell-stimulating hormone. E. human chorionic gonadotropin.

71. Which of the following hormonal changes contributes to male climacteric? A. elevated secretion of androgens B. elevated secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone C. elevated secretion of inhibin D. reduced secretion of interstitial cell-stimulating hormone E. cessation of testosterone secretion

72. In gametogenesis, the genetic composition of each chromosome is changed by the process of A. reduction division. B. tetrad formation. C. anaphase. D. crossing-over. E. interkinesis.

73. When a cell divides by meiosis, it ultimately produces ___ daughter cells. A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32

74. The most important role of meiosis in sexual reproduction is A. to reduce the size of the gametes. B. to produce at least one gamete that is mobile. C. to prevent the chromosome number from doubling in each generation. D. to ensure that each daughter cell gets the same number of chromosomes. E. to change the genetic composition of each chromosome.

75. Contractions of the female reproductive tract may be stimulated by ___ in the semen. A. spermine B. fructose C. prostaglandins D. fibrinolysin E. leukotrienes

76. The male penis is homologus with the _____ of the female. A. labia majora B. labia minora C. vagina D. ovaries E. clitoris

77. The saclike extension of the peritoneum that covers the anterior and lateral surface of the testes is called A. tunica albuginea. B. tunica dartos. C. tunica vaginalis. D. rete testis. E. perineal raphe.

78. The cremaster muscle A. is a smooth muscle that causes erection. B. is a skeletal muscle that causes erection. C. is a smooth muscle that draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm. D. is a skeletal muscle that draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm. E. is a smooth muscle that allows the tested to be suspended farther from the body to keep them cool.

79. The optimal temperature for sperm production is A. 33 degrees C. B. 35 degrees C. C. 37 degrees C. D. 39 degrees C. E. 41 degrees C.

80. Secretions from the seminal vesicles empty into the A. ejaculatory duct. B. ductus deferens. C. ampulla. D. efferent ductules. E. urethra.

81. Secretions from the ____ lubricate the head of the penis and neutralize acidity from residual urine in the urethra. A. seminal vesicles B. prostate gland C. bulbourethral glands D. ampulla E. crus

82. Which hormone stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone? A. lutenizing hormone B. follicle stimulating hormone C. inhibin D. gonadotropin releasing hormone E. androgen-binding protein

83. Which of the following represents the correct order in the process of spermatogenesis? A. spermatogonium → primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatids → spermatozoa B. spermatocyte → primary spermatogonium → secondary spermatogonium → spermatids → spermatozoa C. spermatozoa → primary spermatogonium → secondary spermatogonium → spermatids → spermatogonium D. spermatogonium → primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatozoa → spermatids E. spermatocyte → primary spermatid → secondary spermatid → spermatogonium → spermatozoa

84. Meiosis II is the process by which _____ become _____. A. spermatids; spermatozoa B. spermatogonium; primary spermatocyte C. primary spermatocyte; secondary spermatocytes D. secondary spermatocytes; spermatids E. spermatozoa; spermatozoa

85. Viagra prolongs erection by A. activating nitric oxide (NO) production. B. inactivating guanylate cyclase. C. stimulating production of cGMP. D. inhibiting nitric oxide (NO) production. E. inhibiting degradation of cGMP.

86. The excitement phase is characterized by all of the following events except A. vasocongestion. B. myotonia. C. increased heart rate. D. decreased blood pressure. E. increased pulmonary ventilation.

87. The excitement phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by A. efferent sympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord. B. efferent sympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord. C. efferent parasympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord. D. efferent parasympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord. E. efferent somatic signals from the thoracic region of the spinal cord.

88. The orgasm-emission phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by A. efferent sympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord. B. efferent sympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord. C. efferent parasympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord. D. efferent parasympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord. E. efferent somatic signals from the thoracic region of the spinal cord.

89. The parasympathetic division cause all of the following events except A. deep artery of the penis dilates. B. erectile tissues engorge with blood. C. trabecullar muscle of erectile tissues relaxes. D. fluid secretions from the bulbourethral gland. E. peristalsis of the ductus deferens.

90. Persons with androgen-insensitivity syndrome have all of the following except A. ovaries, vagina and uterus. B. testes. C. XY chromosomes. D. female secondary sex characteristics. E. male levels of testosterone.

91. A type B spermatogonium gives rise to A. two primary spermatocytes. B. two spermatids. C. two secondary spermatocytes. D. two spermatozoa. E. two type A spermatogonia.

92. In the process of spermiogenesis _____ become _____. A. spermatids; spermatozoa B. spermatozoa; spermatids C. spermatogonia; spermatocytes D. spermatocytes; spermatids E. spermatocytes; spermatozoa

93. The erectile tissue of the penis that passes along the ventral side of the penis and encloses the penile urethra is the A. corpus spongiosum. B. corpus cavernosum. C. tunica albuginea. D. tunica vaginalis. E. crus.

94. High levels of testosterone will inhibit the A. hypothalamus. B. anterior pituitary gland. C. posterior pituitary gland. D. testes. E. thyroid gland.

95. Which of the following hormones directly stimulates the development of male secondary sex characteristics? A. estrogen B. inhibin C. lutenizing hormone D. follicle stimulating hormone E. testosterone

96. A normal sperm count is A. 50 to 120 sperm/ml semen. B. 500 to 1200 sperm/ml semen. C. 5000 to 12000 sperm/ml semen. D. 50,000 to 120,000 sperm/ml semen. E. 50 to 120 million sperm/ml semen.

97. A sperm count lower than ____ is usually associated with infertility. A. 20 to 25 sperm/ml semen B. 200 to 250 sperm/ml semen C. 2000 to 2500 sperm/ml semen D. D.20,000 to 25,000 sperm/ml semen E. 20 to 25 million sperm/ml semen

98. Sterility refers to the A. inability to have an erection. B. lack of sperm in the semen. C. lack of seminal fluid during ejaculation. D. low levels of testosterone. E. inability to fertilize an egg.

99. Semen contains all of the following secretions except A. spermatogonia. B. spermine. C. fibrinogen. D. spermatozoa. E. fructose.

100. Dilation of ____ causes the lacunae to fill with blood and the penis becomes erect. A. dorsal arteries. B. internal pudendal artery. C. deep artery. D. dorsal vein. E. helicine arteries.

27 Key

1. Sterility may result from uncorrected ___, or undescended testes. cryptorchidism

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #1

2. Spermatozoa are produced in minute ducts called ___. seminiferous tubules

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #2

3. Testosterone is secreted by ___ cells of the testes. interstitial (Leydig)

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #3

4. The ___ is a countercurrent heat exchanger that keeps the testis cool. pampiniform plexus

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #4

5. Until ejaculation, most sperm are stored in the ___. epididymis

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #5

6. About 30% of the semen is produced by the ___, a medial gland that encloses part of the urethra. prostate

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #6

7. The blood-testis barrier is formed by tight junctions between the ___ cells of the testis. sustentacular (Sertoli)

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #7

8. Erection results largely from vasocongestion of the two ___ on the dorsal side of the penis. corpora cavernosa

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #8

9. A sperm penetrates an egg by means of enzymes from its ___. acrosome

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #9

10. The first haploid cell produced in spermatogenesis is the ___. secondary spermatocyte

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #10

11. Primary spermatocytes are haploid. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #11

12. Impotence means the inability to fertilize an egg due to a low sperm count or defective sperm. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #12

13. The acidity of the vagina would be harmful to sperm if it were not neutralized by the semen. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #13

14. Spermatogenesis requires a temperature slightly lower than the core body temperature. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #14

15. The testes and ovaries are collectively called the gametes. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #15

16. During erection, the corpora cavernosa become more vasocongested than the corpus spongiosum. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #16

17. Since ejaculation is an involuntary reflex, it does not involve any skeletal (voluntary) muscles. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #17

18. The male scrotum is homologous to the female labia majora. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #18

19. If two chromosomes are homologous, they came from the same parent. FALSE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #19

20. The nerves that carry sensations from the male genitals constitute the pampiniform plexus. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #20

21. Testosterone has no effect on spermatogenesis unless follicle-stimulating hormone is present. TRUE

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #21

22. Sperm heads are embedded in the sustentacular cells until the spermatozoa are mature. TRUE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #22

23. Spermine is a sugar that provides energy for sperm motility. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #23

24. The tunica albuginea of the male is homologous to the tunica vaginalis of the female. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #24

25. The blood-testis barrier keeps blood from getting to the testes. FALSE

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #25

Match the following terms to the definitions.

beard bulbourethral glands dartos muscle GnRH interstitial (Leydig) cells LH mesonephric duct paramesonephric duct seminal vesicles sustentacular (Sertoli) cells trabeculae

bulbocavernosus cremaster FSH impotence lacunae male climacteric nitric oxide PDE5 spermatic cord testis tunica albuginea

Saladin - 027 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the Embryonic precursor of the male reproductive tract? mesonephric duct

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #26

27. Secretions from the ________ constitute 60% of semen. seminal vesicles

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #27

28. The inability to produce ________ would result in impotence. nitric oxide

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #28

29. The ________ form the blood-testis barrier. sustentacular (Sertoli) cells

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #29

30. Which term can be described as a male secondary sex characteristic? beard

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #30

31. Which term can be described as the cord that guides the descending testes into the fetal scrotum? spermatic cord

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #31

32. Which term can be described as the muscle that elevates or lowers the scrotum? cremaster

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #32

33. After age 50, FSH and LH levels rise significantly is known as ___________. male climateric

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #33

34. Minute blood sinuses in the erectile tissues of the penis is known as ________. lacunae

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #34

35. Inhibin that selectively suppresses its secretion is known as ________. FSH

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #35

36. The final cellular transformation in the production of spermatozoa is called A. climacteric. B. spermiogenesis. C. spermatogenesis. D. detumescence. E. resolution.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #36

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38. Which of the following is/are female secondary sex organ(s)? A. ovaries B. uterus C. breasts D. ova E. scent glands

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #38

39. The genetic sex of a child is determined by A. prenatal hormone exposure. B. unknown factors. C. the egg. D. the sperm. E. both parents equally.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #39

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #40

41. Testis-determining factor is found in or on A. the Y chromosome. B. the X chromosome. C. the gonadal ridges of the embryo. D. the fetal testis. E. the sustentacular cells of the testis.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #41

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #42

43. Which of the following is an androgen? A. testosterone B. human chorionic gonadotropin C. müllerian inhibiting factor D. interstitial cell-stimulating hormone E. follicle-stimulating hormone

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #43

44. The germinal epithelium of the testis consists of germ cells and A. interstitial cells. B. sustentacular cells. C. spermatogonia. D. a tunica albuginea. E. a tunica dartos.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #44

45. To get from the testis to the epididymis, sperm must pass through A. the inguinal canal. B. the spermatic cord. C. the ductus deferens. D. the efferent ductules. E. the ejaculatory ducts.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #45

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #46

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #47

48. Mitochondria are found in the ___ of a spermatozoon. A. acrosome B. head C. principal piece D. midpiece E. endpiece

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #48

49. The foreskin of the penis is called A. the prepuce. B. the crus. C. the glans. D. the frenulum. E. the raphe.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #49

50. The smooth muscle layer in the wall of the scrotum is called A. the cremaster. B. the muscularis interna. C. the tunica media. D. the tunica dartos. E. the tunica vaginalis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #50

51. Until ejaculation, sperm are stored mainly in A. the corpus spongiosum. B. the seminal vesicles. C. the seminiferous tubules. D. the prostate. E. the epididymis.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #51

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #52

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #53

54. The cell in spermatogenesis that undergoes meiosis I is A. a type A spermatogonium. B. a type B spermatogonium. C. a primary spermatocyte. D. a secondary spermatocyte. E. a spermatid.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #54

55. A spermatozoon secretes enzymes from its ___ to penetrate the egg. A. acrosome B. nucleus C. endpiece D. mitochondria E. principal piece

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #55

56. The energy for sperm motility comes from A. prostaglandins. B. sucrose. C. fructose. D. galactose. E. spermine.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #56

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #57

58. Most of the semen consists of the secretion from A. the seminal vesicles. B. the prostate. C. the testes. D. the epididymis. E. the bulbourethral glands.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #58

59. The lacunae of the corpora cavernosa receive blood directly from A. the helicine arteries. B. the pudendal arteries. C. the deep arteries. D. the dorsal arteries. E. the testicular arteries.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #60

61. The peristaltic propulsion of sperm along the ductus deferens is called A. intromission. B. myotonia. C. expulsion. D. emission. E. coition.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #61

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 027 Chapter... #62

63. The penis of a male embryo develops from A. the gonadal ridge. B. the phallus. C. the urogenital folds. D. the labioscrotal folds. E. the mesonephric duct.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #63

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #64

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 027 Chapter... #65

66. Which of the following is not a spermatic duct? A. a seminiferous tubule B. an efferent ductule C. the duct of the epididymis D. the ductus deferens E. the ejaculatory duct

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #66

67. At what stage does a developing sperm cell begin to grow a tail? A. spermatozoon B. spermatid C. primary spermatocyte D. secondary spermatocyte E. spermatogonium

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #67

68. Half of the penis, called its ___, is internal and normally cannot be seen. A. glans B. corona C. bulb D. shaft E. root

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #68

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #69

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #70

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #71

72. In gametogenesis, the genetic composition of each chromosome is changed by the process of A. reduction division. B. tetrad formation. C. anaphase. D. crossing-over. E. interkinesis.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #72

73. When a cell divides by meiosis, it ultimately produces ___ daughter cells. A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #74

75. Contractions of the female reproductive tract may be stimulated by ___ in the semen. A. spermine B. fructose C. prostaglandins D. fibrinolysin E. leukotrienes

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #75

76. The male penis is homologus with the _____ of the female. A. labia majora B. labia minora C. vagina D. ovaries E. clitoris

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #77

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #78

79. The optimal temperature for sperm production is A. 33 degrees C. B. 35 degrees C. C. 37 degrees C. D. 39 degrees C. E. 41 degrees C.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #79

80. Secretions from the seminal vesicles empty into the A. ejaculatory duct. B. ductus deferens. C. ampulla. D. efferent ductules. E. urethra.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #80

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 027 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 027 Chapter... #85

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #86

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #87

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #88

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 027 Chapter... #89

Difficulty: difficult Saladin - 027 Chapter... #90

91. A type B spermatogonium gives rise to A. two primary spermatocytes. B. two spermatids. C. two secondary spermatocytes. D. two spermatozoa. E. two type A spermatogonia.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #92

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #93

94. High levels of testosterone will inhibit the A. hypothalamus. B. anterior pituitary gland. C. posterior pituitary gland. D. testes. E. thyroid gland.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #94

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #95

96. A normal sperm count is A. 50 to 120 sperm/ml semen. B. 500 to 1200 sperm/ml semen. C. 5000 to 12000 sperm/ml semen. D. 50,000 to 120,000 sperm/ml semen. E. 50 to 120 million sperm/ml semen.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #96

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #97

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #98

99. Semen contains all of the following secretions except A. spermatogonia. B. spermine. C. fibrinogen. D. spermatozoa. E. fructose.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 027 Chapter... #99

100. Dilation of ____ causes the lacunae to fill with blood and the penis becomes erect. A. dorsal arteries. B. internal pudendal artery. C. deep artery. D. dorsal vein. E. helicine arteries.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 027 Chapter... #100

Chapter 28 12/04/2006 1. The release of an egg from the ovary is called ___. ________________________________________

2. The constricted part of the uterus that protrudes into the vagina is called the ___. ________________________________________

3. Attachment of the conceptus to the uterine wall is called ___. ________________________________________

4. ___ is a hormone secreted by the ovary that selectively suppresses FSH secretion. ________________________________________

5. A developing egg is ovulated, and may be fertilized, at the ___ stage of oogenesis. ________________________________________

6. Follicles and oocytes develop during a portion of the ovarian cycle called the ___ phase. ________________________________________

7. An ovarian follicle is considered a secondary follicle when it develops a cavity called the ___. ________________________________________

8. In the luteal phase, the ovaries secrete mainly ___, which stimulates glycogen synthesis and mucus secretion in the uterus. ________________________________________

9. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a state of severe ___ early in pregnancy. ________________________________________

10. Parturition is the process of ___. ________________________________________

11. Only the female embryonic gonad has receptors for HCG. True False

12. Most of a female's eggs degenerate before she is born. True False

13. Prolactin is not secreted until after a woman gives birth. True False

14. Cow's milk does not contain enough protein for adequate infant nutrition. True False

15. Colostrum has less protein than cow's milk. True False

16. The serosa of the uterus is called the perimetrium. True False

17. Milk flows into a single large lactiferous duct immediately behind the nipple. True False

18. An adolescent girl's growth of axillary hair and apocrine glands is stimulated by androgens. True False

19. Most girls do not ovulate during the first year of menstruation. True False

20. The luteal phase is a period of rapid mitosis in the endometrium. True False

21. The reproductive tract of a female fetus differentiates under the influence of estrogen. True False

22. There are no mucous glands in the vagina. True False

23. Estrogen is a hormone that increases the incidence of certain types of breast cancer. True False

24. A woman's blood cholesterol level tends to rise after menopause. True False

25. Estrogen causes granulosa cells of a follicle to be more sensitive to FSH. True False

Match the following terms to the definitions.

anterior pituitary colostrum endometrial cells fimbriae internal and external os mesovarium oxytocin perimetrium prolactin stratum functionalis uterine tube vagina

atresia corpus luteum estrogen fornices mesosalpinx myometrial cells parturition posterior pituitary stratum basalis suspensory ligament uterus

26. Which term can be described as the target cells for oxytocin? ________________________________________

27. Which term can be described as the degeneration of ovarian follicles that never ovulate? ________________________________________

28. Which term describes that which binds the ovary to the broad ligament? ________________________________________

29. Which term describes that which is suppressed by both inhibin and dopamine? ________________________________________

30. That which partially composes the menstrual fluid is known as ________. ________________________________________

31. Which term can be described as the vaginal spaces that surround the cervix? ________________________________________

32. Which term can be described as the site of fertilization? ________________________________________

33. Which term can be described as the source of prolactin and luteinizing hormones? ________________________________________

34. Which term can be described as childbirth? ________________________________________

35. Which term can be described as the mammary secretion that precedes milk? ________________________________________

36. An erectile tissue present in the penis but absent from the clitoris is A. the corpus albicans. B. the tunica albuginea. C. the corpus spongiosum. D. the corpus cavernosum. E. the corpus luteum.

37. Just before it is withdrawn by a nursing infant, milk enters a dilated sac behind the nipple called A. the lactiferous duct. B. the lactiferous sinus. C. the lactiferous bulb. D. the areola. E. the lacteal.

38. Development of a girl's breasts at puberty is called A. menarche. B. climacteric. C. pubarche. D. larche. E. mammarche.

39. The second half of the menstrual cycle is regulated largely by A. the corpus luteum. B. the corpus albicans. C. the corpus spongiosum. D. the chloasma. E. the placenta.

40. Pregnancy tests are based on the detection of ___ in the urine. A. estrogen B. progesterone C. FSH D. LH E. HCG

41. In the first 2 to 3 days postpartum, the mammary glands secrete ___ rather than milk. A. chloasma B. lochia C. lanugo D. colostrum E. meconium

42. Which of these is not included in the female vestibule? A. the urinary orifice B. the mons pubis C. the vaginal orifice D. the labia minora E. the clitoris

43. The ___ glands of the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands of the male. A. greater vestibular B. lesser vestibular C. cervical D. areolar E. paraurethral

44. In the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle, ___ inhibits FSH and LH secretion. A. inhibin B. HCG C. progesterone D. androgen E. relaxin

45. In the luteal phase, all of the following things happen except A. the uterus secretes mucus. B. the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. C. FSH secretion is inhibited. D. the endometrium nearly doubles in thickness. E. the endometrial cells exhibit rapid mitosis.

46. Estrogen causes all of the following effects in adolescent girls except A. growth of the breasts. B. growth of the pubic and axillary hair. C. vaginal metaplasia. D. endometrial mitosis. E. fat deposition.

47. The superior curvature of the uterus is called A. the fundus. B. the corpus. C. the isthmus. D. the infundibulum. E. the body.

48. Blood is supplied to the endometrium by the ___ arteries between the endometrial glands. A. arcuate B. uterine C. spiral D. cardinal E. gonadal

49. The vestibular bulbs serve to A. secrete mucus into the uterus. B. constrict the vagina during intercourse. C. lubricate the cervical canal. D. lubricate the vagina. E. neutralize vaginal acidity.

50. Ovulation is triggered by A. LH. B. FSH. C. estriol. D. estradiol. E. progesterone.

51. A primordial and primary follicle differ with respect to A. whether the egg is at the primary or secondary oocyte stage. B. whether the follicle has ovulated or not. C. the presence or absence of polar bodies. D. the number of granulosa cell layers surrounding the egg. E. the presence or absence of an antrum.

52. All of the following processes are important in follicular development. Which one occurs first? A. FSH secretion B. estradiol secretion C. LH secretion D. prolactin secretion E. GnRH secretion

53. Which of these is a consequence of the ischemic phase of the uterine cycle? A. implantation B. endometrial necrosis C. endometrial mitosis D. endometrial secretion E. ovulation

54. At the time a woman begins her next ovarian cycle, the former mature follicle of the previous cycle is A. a corpus luteum. B. a corpus albicans. C. a corpus spongiosum. D. a corpus callosum. E. a corpus cavernosum.

55. The ischemic phase of the uterine cycle is brought on by vascular spasms, which in turn are a response to A. ovulation. B. menstruation. C. rising LH level. D. falling progesterone level. E. rising progesterone level.

56. After ovulation, an egg has about ___ to be fertilized, or else it dies. A. 6 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 2 days E. 3 days

57. Lutein cells, a source of ovarian androgens, develop from A. the theca interna. B. the corpus luteum. C. the corona radiata. D. granulosa cells. E. oocytes.

58. The layer of uterine mucosa that is shed in menstruation is called A. the stratum basale. B. the stratum functionalis. C. the myometrium. D. the perimetrium. E. the stratum vasculare.

59. A fetus is nourished by way of a disc-shaped organ, the ___, attached to the uterine wall. A. amnion B. chorion C. trophoblast D. blastocyst E. placenta

60. Eventually, the placenta secretes the major hormones that regulate pregnancy. Until then, the main source of hormones is A. the umbilical cord. B. the endometrium. C. the corpus luteum. D. the pituitary. E. the amnion.

61. Milk is not secreted until after birth, mainly because A. the mammary ducts and acini do not develop until then. B. the mammary gland cells do not respond to prolactin until then. C. prolactin is not secreted until then. D. oxytocin is not secreted until then. E. human placental lactogen is released at birth.

62. The most abundant hormone of pregnancy is A. human chorionic somatomammotropin. B. human chorionic gonadotropin. C. human placental lactogen. D. progesterone. E. prolactin.

63. Human milk has all the following advantages over cow's milk for infant nutrition except A. it has a laxative effect. B. it reduces the incidence and degree of jaundice in neonates. C. it has more protein. D. it colonizes the infant stomach with beneficial bacteria. E. it provides temporary immunity to the infant.

64. Which of these occurs in first-stage labor? A. crowning B. effacement C. expulsion D. tenting E. involution

65. What is one advantage of breast-feeding to the mother? A. It promotes involution of the corpus luteum. B. It promotes the return of fertility. C. It flushes excess calcium from the body. D. It stimulates gonadotropin secretion. E. It promotes involution of the uterus.

66. In early pregnancy, ___ stimulates growth of the corpus luteum. A. adrenocorticotropic hormone B. human placental lactogen C. human chorionic somatomammotropin D. human chorionic gonadotropin E. progesterone

67. During pregnancy, ___ elevates the mother's metabolic rate. A. human chorionic thyrotropin B. aldosterone C. progesterone D. parathyroid hormone E. relaxin

68. Autolysis is a process that results in A. menstruation. B. postpartum shrinkage of the uterus. C. labor contractions. D. colostrum secretion. E. milk secretion.

69. Thinning of the cervical tissue during first-stage labor is called A. dilation. B. episiotomy. C. crowning. D. involution. E. effacement.

70. In a woman who is neither pregnant nor nursing, milk secretion is inhibited by A. colostrum. B. prolactin. C. prolactin-inhibiting factor. D. progesterone. E. oxytocin.

71. Mammary gland development and lactation depend on all of the following hormones except A. estrogen. B. progesterone. C. insulin. D. HCG. E. prolactin.

72. In female sexual response, the ___ may secrete a fluid similar to the prostatic secretion of the male. A. vaginal mucosa B. paraurethral glands C. greater vestibular glands D. lesser vestibular glands E. cervical glands

73. Which of the following is commonly classified as a female secondary sex characteristic? A. the ovary B. the labia majora C. the uterus D. the distribution of body fat E. the vagina

74. At the time of the sexual cycle when the uterus is building up endometrial tissue by mitosis, A. several follicles are developing antra. B. the corpus luteum is shrinking. C. the corpus luteum is enlarging. D. oogonia are transforming into primary oocytes. E. the oocyte completes meiosis II.

75. The female reproductive tract develops from the paramesonephric duct because of the A. presence of estrogen. B. presence of estrogen and progesterone. C. absence of testosterone. D. absence of testosterone and mullerian-inhibiting factor. E. absence of inhibin.

76. The ovarian artery and ovarian vein travel through the ____ ligament. A. suspensory B. broad C. ovarian D. mesovarium E. uterine

77. The pathway of an ovulated egg from the ovary to the uterus is A. pelvic cavity → isthmus → fimbriae → infundibulum → ampulla B. pelvic cavity → fimbriae → infundibulum → ampulla → isthmus C. fimbriae → isthmus → infundibulum → ampulla D. ampulla → fimbriae → infundibulum → isthmus E. fimbriae → ampulla → isthmus → infundibulum

78. The eggs are moved along the uterine tube by A. cilia. B. pressure differences between the uterine tube and uterus. C. peristaltic waves. D. cilia and peristaltic waves. E. mass movement.

79. The ____ area of the uterus communicates with the uterine tube, and the ____ area of the uterus communicates with the vagina. A. cervix; fundus B. fundus; body C. fundus; cervix D. body; cervix E. cervix; body

80. The myometrium contains _____ muscle, whose function is to _____. A. smooth; produce labor contractions B. skeletal; produce labor contractions C. smooth; move eggs along the uterine tube D. skeletal; move eggs along the uterine tube E. skeletal; contract during menstruation

81. The stratum ____ of the endothelium is shed in each menstrual period. A. functionalis B. basalis C. corneum D. spinosum E. granulosum

82. The vaginal secretion has a pH of about 3.5 to 4.0. This pH _____ and is primarily caused by the production of _____. A. stimulates sperm; carbonic acid B. stimulates sperm; lactic acid C. inhibits pathogens; carbonic acid D. inhibits pathogens; lactic acid E. inhibits pathogens; yeast

83. Most people with AIDS become infected through sexual contact. A female can become infected by a male who has HIV but may not be showing any symptoms of AIDS. HIV from infected males can invade the female through A. sensory neurons. B. dendritic cells. C. stratified squamous epithelial cells of the vagina. D. the simple columnar epithelium of the cervix. E. stratum functionalis of the uterus.

84. In the milk ejection reflex, sensitive nerve fibers in the _____ stimulate the hypothalamus to release _____. A. lactiferous sinus; oxytocin B. lactiferous sinus; prolactin C. areola; oxytocin D. areola; prolactin E. areola; progesterone

85. The majority of breast cancers A. occur in women with a long exposure to estrogen. B. have no identifiable risk factor. C. are hereditary. D. are linked to smoking. E. are linked to high carbohydrate diets.

86. The most abundant form of estrogen in females is A. estradiol. B. estriol. C. estrin. D. estrone. E. estrace.

87. Menarche is often delayed in girls who seriously train for athletic events, such as long distance runners and dancers. Menarche is delayed in these girls because they A. maintain low body fat. B. produce more testosterone. C. stop producing estrogen. D. increase leptin secretion. E. produce too much progesterone.

88. In women, the cessation of menstruation is called _____, and the decrease in estrogen and progesterone production is called _____. A. climacteric; menopause B. menopause; climacteric C. menopause; atresia D. atresia; climacteric E. climacteric; atresia

89. After climacteric, some females experience hot flashes, which are caused by A. vasodilation of cutaneous arteries. B. vasoconstriction of cutaneous arteries. C. vasodilation of cranial arteries. D. vasoconstriction of cranial arteries. E. vasodilation of facial arteries.

90. An egg, or ovum, is defined as A. any stage from the oogonia to the fertilized egg. B. any stage from the primary oocyte to the fertilized egg. C. either the secondary oocyte or the first polar body. D. the primary oocyte that travels in the uterine tube. E. a follicle that has developed an atrum.

91. The theca folliculi secrete _____ and the granulosa cells secrete ____. A. FSH; LH B. androgen; estrogen C. inhibin; LH D. estrogen; progesterone E. progesterone; FSH

92. The primary follicle gives rise to the secondary follicle when the A. follicular cells become stratified and cuboidal. B. theca interna begins to secrete androgen. C. follicular fluid forms the antrum. D. follicle increases in size and protrudes from the surface of the ovary. E. theca interna begins to secrete estrogen.

93. In the last day or two of the preovulatory phase, estrogen levels are high and these two hormones surge dramatically. A. progesterone and FSH B. FSH and LH C. LH and inhibin D. progesterone and inhibin E. E.FSH and inhibin

94. To stimulate ovulation, LH stimulates A. increased blood flow to the maturing follicle and release of collagenase. B. increased secretion of estrogen and release of hyaluronidase. C. decreased blood flow to the maturing follicle and contraction of myoepithelial cells. D. the secondary oocyte to finish meiosis II and movement of cilia in the uterine tube. E. increased secretion of progesterone and release of collagenase.

95. When the follicle expels the secondary oocyte, it becomes the ____ and secretes ____. A. corpus albicans; FSH and LH B. corpus albicans; estrogen and progesterone C. corpus luteum; FSH and LH D. corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone E. corpus albicans; progesterone

96. During the plateau phase, the glans and clitoris swell as the ____ arteries dilate and the corpora _____ swell. A. dorsal; cavernosa B. deep; spongiosum C. deep; cavernosa D. dorsal; spongiosum E. dorsal; vaginalis

97. Fertilization occurs in the _____, and implantation occurs in the _____. A. uterine tube; cervix B. uterine tube; body of uterus C. body of uterus; cervix D. cervix; body of uterus E. cervix; fundus of uterus

98. The developing individual is called a(n) ____ during the first two weeks, a(n) ____ from two through eight weeks, and a(n) _____ from the beginning of week nine until birth. A. embryo; fetus; blastocyst B. embryo; blastocyst; fetus C. blastocyst; fetus; embryo D. blastocyst; embryo; fetus E. zygote; blastocyst; fetus

99. The most abundant estrogen of pregnancy is ____, and the estrogen that has the greatest effects during pregnancy is by _____. A. estrone; estradiol B. estrone; estriol C. estriol; estriol D. estriol; estradiol E. estradiol; estrone

100. This placental hormone suppresses FSH and LH secretions, suppresses uterine contractions, and prevents menstruation. A. human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) B. estrogen C. progesterone D. human chorionic somatomammotropin (HCS) E. lutenizing hormone (LH)

28 2 Key

1. The release of an egg from the ovary is called ___. ovulation

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #1

2. The constricted part of the uterus that protrudes into the vagina is called the ___. cervix

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3. Attachment of the conceptus to the uterine wall is called ___. implantation

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4. ___ is a hormone secreted by the ovary that selectively suppresses FSH secretion. Inhibin

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5. A developing egg is ovulated, and may be fertilized, at the ___ stage of oogenesis. secondary oocyte

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6. Follicles and oocytes develop during a portion of the ovarian cycle called the ___ phase. follicular

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7. An ovarian follicle is considered a secondary follicle when it develops a cavity called the ___. antrum

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8. In the luteal phase, the ovaries secrete mainly ___, which stimulates glycogen synthesis and mucus secretion in the uterus. progesterone

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9. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a state of severe ___ early in pregnancy. vomiting

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10. Parturition is the process of ___. giving birth

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11. Only the female embryonic gonad has receptors for HCG. FALSE

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12. Most of a female's eggs degenerate before she is born. TRUE

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13. Prolactin is not secreted until after a woman gives birth. FALSE

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14. Cow's milk does not contain enough protein for adequate infant nutrition. FALSE

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15. Colostrum has less protein than cow's milk. FALSE

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16. The serosa of the uterus is called the perimetrium. TRUE

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17. Milk flows into a single large lactiferous duct immediately behind the nipple. FALSE

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18. An adolescent girl's growth of axillary hair and apocrine glands is stimulated by androgens. TRUE

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19. Most girls do not ovulate during the first year of menstruation. TRUE

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20. The luteal phase is a period of rapid mitosis in the endometrium. FALSE

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21. The reproductive tract of a female fetus differentiates under the influence of estrogen. FALSE

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22. There are no mucous glands in the vagina. TRUE

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23. Estrogen is a hormone that increases the incidence of certain types of breast cancer. TRUE

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24. A woman's blood cholesterol level tends to rise after menopause. TRUE

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25. Estrogen causes granulosa cells of a follicle to be more sensitive to FSH. TRUE

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Match the following terms to the definitions.

anterior pituitary colostrum endometrial cells fimbriae internal and external os mesovarium oxytocin perimetrium prolactin stratum functionalis uterine tube vagina

atresia corpus luteum estrogen fornices mesosalpinx myometrial cells parturition posterior pituitary stratum basalis suspensory ligament uterus

Saladin - 028 Chapter...

26. Which term can be described as the target cells for oxytocin? myometrial cells

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27. Which term can be described as the degeneration of ovarian follicles that never ovulate? atresia

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28. Which term describes that which binds the ovary to the broad ligament? mesovarium

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29. Which term describes that which is suppressed by both inhibin and dopamine? prolactin

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30. That which partially composes the menstrual fluid is known as ________. stratum functionalis

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31. Which term can be described as the vaginal spaces that surround the cervix? fornices

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32. Which term can be described as the site of fertilization? uterine tube

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33. Which term can be described as the source of prolactin and luteinizing hormones? anterior pituitary

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34. Which term can be described as childbirth? parturition

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35. Which term can be described as the mammary secretion that precedes milk? colostrum

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36. An erectile tissue present in the penis but absent from the clitoris is A. the corpus albicans. B. the tunica albuginea. C. the corpus spongiosum. D. the corpus cavernosum. E. the corpus luteum.

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38. Development of a girl's breasts at puberty is called A. menarche. B. climacteric. C. pubarche. D. larche. E. mammarche.

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39. The second half of the menstrual cycle is regulated largely by A. the corpus luteum. B. the corpus albicans. C. the corpus spongiosum. D. the chloasma. E. the placenta.

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40. Pregnancy tests are based on the detection of ___ in the urine. A. estrogen B. progesterone C. FSH D. LH E. HCG

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41. In the first 2 to 3 days postpartum, the mammary glands secrete ___ rather than milk. A. chloasma B. lochia C. lanugo D. colostrum E. meconium

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42. Which of these is not included in the female vestibule? A. the urinary orifice B. the mons pubis C. the vaginal orifice D. the labia minora E. the clitoris

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43. The ___ glands of the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands of the male. A. greater vestibular B. lesser vestibular C. cervical D. areolar E. paraurethral

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44. In the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle, ___ inhibits FSH and LH secretion. A. inhibin B. HCG C. progesterone D. androgen E. relaxin

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47. The superior curvature of the uterus is called A. the fundus. B. the corpus. C. the isthmus. D. the infundibulum. E. the body.

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48. Blood is supplied to the endometrium by the ___ arteries between the endometrial glands. A. arcuate B. uterine C. spiral D. cardinal E. gonadal

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50. Ovulation is triggered by A. LH. B. FSH. C. estriol. D. estradiol. E. progesterone.

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52. All of the following processes are important in follicular development. Which one occurs first? A. FSH secretion B. estradiol secretion C. LH secretion D. prolactin secretion E. GnRH secretion

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53. Which of these is a consequence of the ischemic phase of the uterine cycle? A. implantation B. endometrial necrosis C. endometrial mitosis D. endometrial secretion E. ovulation

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56. After ovulation, an egg has about ___ to be fertilized, or else it dies. A. 6 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 2 days E. 3 days

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57. Lutein cells, a source of ovarian androgens, develop from A. the theca interna. B. the corpus luteum. C. the corona radiata. D. granulosa cells. E. oocytes.

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58. The layer of uterine mucosa that is shed in menstruation is called A. the stratum basale. B. the stratum functionalis. C. the myometrium. D. the perimetrium. E. the stratum vasculare.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #58

59. A fetus is nourished by way of a disc-shaped organ, the ___, attached to the uterine wall. A. amnion B. chorion C. trophoblast D. blastocyst E. placenta

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #59

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #60

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #61

62. The most abundant hormone of pregnancy is A. human chorionic somatomammotropin. B. human chorionic gonadotropin. C. human placental lactogen. D. progesterone. E. prolactin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #62

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #63

64. Which of these occurs in first-stage labor? A. crowning B. effacement C. expulsion D. tenting E. involution

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #64

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #65

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #66

67. During pregnancy, ___ elevates the mother's metabolic rate. A. human chorionic thyrotropin B. aldosterone C. progesterone D. parathyroid hormone E. relaxin

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #67

68. Autolysis is a process that results in A. menstruation. B. postpartum shrinkage of the uterus. C. labor contractions. D. colostrum secretion. E. milk secretion.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #68

69. Thinning of the cervical tissue during first-stage labor is called A. dilation. B. episiotomy. C. crowning. D. involution. E. effacement.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #69

70. In a woman who is neither pregnant nor nursing, milk secretion is inhibited by A. colostrum. B. prolactin. C. prolactin-inhibiting factor. D. progesterone. E. oxytocin.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #70

71. Mammary gland development and lactation depend on all of the following hormones except A. estrogen. B. progesterone. C. insulin. D. HCG. E. prolactin.

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #71

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #72

73. Which of the following is commonly classified as a female secondary sex characteristic? A. the ovary B. the labia majora C. the uterus D. the distribution of body fat E. the vagina

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #73

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #74

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #75

76. The ovarian artery and ovarian vein travel through the ____ ligament. A. suspensory B. broad C. ovarian D. mesovarium E. uterine

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #76

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #77

78. The eggs are moved along the uterine tube by A. cilia. B. pressure differences between the uterine tube and uterus. C. peristaltic waves. D. cilia and peristaltic waves. E. mass movement.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #78

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #79

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #80

81. The stratum ____ of the endothelium is shed in each menstrual period. A. functionalis B. basalis C. corneum D. spinosum E. granulosum

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #81

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #82

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #83

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #84

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #85

86. The most abundant form of estrogen in females is A. estradiol. B. estriol. C. estrin. D. estrone. E. estrace.

Difficulty: easy Saladin - 028 Chapter... #86

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Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #88

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91. The theca folliculi secrete _____ and the granulosa cells secrete ____. A. FSH; LH B. androgen; estrogen C. inhibin; LH D. estrogen; progesterone E. progesterone; FSH

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #91

Difficulty: medium Saladin - 028 Chapter... #92

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Chapter 28 1. The release of an egg from the ovary is called ___. ________________________________________