Anatomy & Physiology 7th Editionby Elaine Marieb Test Bank

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Anatomy & Physiology 7th Edition By Elaine Marieb

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com


Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 1 The Human Body: An Orientation 1.1 Matching Questions

Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, match the following cavities: 1) Thoracic cavity. Answer: C Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G3 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Cranial cavity. Answer: A Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G3 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Abdominal cavity. Answer: D Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G3 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Vertebral cavity. Answer: B Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G3 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, match the following descriptions to the most appropriate letter on the diagram: 5) Information about body temperature is sent through afferent pathways to the brain. Answer: C Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Free nerve endings in the skin detect changes in skin temperature (getting warmer). Answer: B Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Appropriate response information is sent through efferent pathways. Answer: D Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3 .


8) A change in the temperature of the external environment (getting warmer). Answer: A Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Sweat glands are stimulated as well as blood being distributed to the skin to allow cooling of the body to return the body's temperature to a physiological level. Answer: E Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Match the following systems to their functions: A) Nervous B) Integumentary C) Muscular D) Skeletal 10) Provides the force to move bones about their joints. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Responds to environmental changes by transmitting appropriate electrical impulses. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Provides a ridged framework to support the body and stores minerals. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Prevents water loss, entry of germs into the body and synthesizes vitamin D. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) B

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Match the following systems to their functions: A) Immune B) Cardiovascular C) Endocrine D) Lymphatic 14) Controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) A functional organ system which provides a means of protecting us from foreign invaders. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Picks up and cleans excess fluid from tissues. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) D

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Match the following examples of feedback mechanisms: A) Negative feedback B) Positive feedback 18) Used for changes in blood glucose levels. Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Used for changes in blood pressure. Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Used for blood clotting. Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Used for childbirth. Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7, 1.8 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) B

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Match the following systems and organs: A) Endocrine B) Digestive C) Respiratory D) Urinary E) Cardiovascular 22) Arteries, veins, heart. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Trachea, bronchi, alveoli. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Adrenal glands, pancreas, pituitary. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Esophagus, large intestine, rectum. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Kidneys, bladder, ureters. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 22) E 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D

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Match the following cavities and organs: A) Abdominal B) Thoracic C) Cranial D) Pelvic 27) Stomach. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Heart. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Uterus. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Brain. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Lungs. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 27) A 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) B

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Match the following regional terms and common terms: A) Patellar B) Brachial C) Thoracic D) Gluteal E) Cephalic 32) Arm. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Buttock. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Head. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Knee (anterior aspect). Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Chest. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 32) B 33) D 34) E 35) A 36) C

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Match the regional/directional terms and examples: A) Medial B) Anterior C) Proximal D) Distal E) Lateral 37) The bridge of the nose is ________ to the left eye. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) The upper arm is ________ to the forearm. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) The lungs are ________ to the heart. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The fingers are ________ to the wrist. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) The stomach is ________ to the spine. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 37) A 38) C 39) E 40) D 41) B

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1.2 True/False Questions 1) Positive feedback mechanisms tend to enhance the original stimulus so that the response is accelerated. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) The principle of complementarity of structure and function states that anatomy and physiology are inseparable because function always reflects structure. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The elbow is proximal to the shoulder. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The part of the serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) The right hypochondriac region contains the majority of the stomach. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Lungs carry out an excretory function. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through old age. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) It is important for any organism to maintain its boundaries, so that its internal environment remains distinct from the external environment surrounding it. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Without some sort of negative feedback mechanism, it would be impossible to keep our body chemistry in balance. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Responsiveness or irritability is the ability to sense changes in the environment and then respond to them. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Histology would be best defined as a study of ________. A) cells B) tissues C) cell chemistry D) the gross structures of the body Answer: B Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ________ anatomy. A) microscopic B) gross C) developmental D) systemic Answer: B Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Expiration (breathing out) is how the body removes excessive carbon dioxide from the blood. This is an example of ________. A) maintaining boundaries B) excretion of metabolic waste C) responsiveness D) metabolism Answer: B Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Generally, what is the result of the negative feedback process? A) to control body movement B) to maintain homeostasis C) to keep the body's blood sugar level high D) to regulate excretion via the kidneys Answer: B Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) The coxal joint is most likely found in the ________ region of the body. A) hand B) groin C) foot D) hip Answer: D Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n) ________. A) complex tissue B) organ system C) organ D) complex cell Answer: C Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) body erect B) arms at sides C) palms turned posteriorly D) thumbs pointed laterally Answer: C Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________. A) body temperature regulation B) regulating glucose levels in the blood C) enhancement of labor contractions D) blood calcium level regulation Answer: C Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane? A) a transverse cut just above the knees B) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves C) any sagittal plane except in the midline D) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions Answer: C Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region? A) appendix B) stomach C) liver D) intestines Answer: D Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane ________. A) covering individual lungs B) lining the thoracic cavity C) covering the heart D) lining the abdominal cavity Answer: B Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17 .


12) Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli? A) muscular B) lymphatic C) immune D) nervous Answer: D Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is NOT correctly matched. A) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye. B) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye. C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region. D) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth. Answer: C Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________. A) the lowest possible energy usage B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits C) a static state with no deviation from preset points D) a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances Answer: B Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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15) In which body cavities are the lungs located? A) pleural, ventral, and thoracic B) mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral C) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal D) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic Answer: A Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Choose the following statement that is NOT completely correct regarding serous membranes. A) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures. B) Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a virtual space between the two. C) Visceral pericardium covers the outer surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the internal walls of the heart. D) Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid. Answer: C Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex: 1. molecules 2. atoms 3. tissues 4. cells 5. organs A) 1-2-3-4-5 B) 2-1-4-3-5 C) 2-1-3-4-5 D) 1-2-4-3-5 Answer: B Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) Which of the following imaging devices would best localize a tumor in a person's brain? A) X-ray B) DSA C) PET D) MRI Answer: D Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G9 HAPS LO: HAPS6, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) Which of these is NOT part of the dorsal cavity? A) cranial cavity B) thoracic cavity C) spinal cord D) vertebral cavity Answer: B Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) In which quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located? A) right upper quadrant B) right lower quadrant C) left upper quadrant D) left lower quadrant Answer: C Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance? A) It is considered the cause of most diseases. B) The internal environment is becoming more stable. C) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed. D) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally. Answer: A Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20 .


22) The term pollex refers to the ________. A) great toe B) calf C) fingers D) thumb Answer: D Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following? A) intestines B) brain C) lungs D) liver Answer: B Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Select the most correct statement. A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system. B) Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life. C) The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system. D) Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both. Answer: A Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) One of the functional characteristics of life is excitability or responsiveness. This refers to ________. A) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them C) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger D) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce Answer: B Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of the following are survival needs of the body? A) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction B) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction C) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen Answer: D Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called? A) frontal B) regional C) sagittal D) transverse Answer: C Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called? A) frontal B) median C) sagittal D) transverse Answer: A Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) The body cavities that protect the nervous system are located in the ________ cavity. A) cranial B) dorsal C) vertebral D) thoracic E) ventral Answer: B Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels? A) systemic anatomy B) cardiovascular anatomy C) systemic physiology D) cardiovascular physiology Answer: D Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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31) It is wise to study anatomy alongside with physiology because ________. A) it makes for more efficient use of students' and teachers' time B) to understand anatomy requires complete understanding of physiology C) physiology is only explainable in terms of the underlying anatomy D) anatomy and physiology are practically the same thing Answer: C Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 32) The study of anatomy and physiology assumes and describes a healthy body. Select the description below that does NOT explain why this approach is useful. A) A healthy body provides a common standard to compare to. B) Study of a healthy body is less intimidating and more familiar to new students. C) A healthy body establishes what "normal" is. D) Study of a healthy body provides a foundation for a more complete understanding of all human bodies. Answer: B Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 33) One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of anatomical study, the rest are from a physiological perspective. Select the description below that comes from an anatomical perspective. A) The innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium. B) The extremely thin tissue (simple squamous epithelium) of the lungs allows for the quick diffusion of respiratory gases into and out of the body. C) The direction of blood flow through the heart is directed by one way valves. D) The cell-to-cell connections between heart (cardiac) muscle cells are strong. They hold the tissue together for a life time of forceful contractions. Answer: A Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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34) One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of physiological study, the rest are from an anatomical perspective. Select the description below that comes from physiological perspective. A) The skull is formed by 22 facial and cranial bones. B) The chambers of the heart and blood vessels leading to and from the heart are separated by valves composed of fibrous connective tissue. C) The pancreas lies deep to the stomach within the abdominal cavity. D) The contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessels (vasoconstriction) can reduce the flow of blood through the vessel. Answer: D Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 35) Which of the following is the best explanation for why cells are considered the smallest units of living things? A) Cells cannot be seen with the naked eye and are considered microscopic. B) Cells are highly ordered and complex. C) Cells have the ability to reproduce identical copies of themselves in a process called mitosis. D) Cells are the simplest structure to fit all of the characteristics necessary to be considered alive. Answer: D Section: 1.2, 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.3, 1.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) Prevention of water loss is a necessary function for life that would best fit in the category of ________. A) maintaining boundaries B) metabolism C) responsiveness D) excretion Answer: A Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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37) Anabolic reactions are chemical reactions of the body that build things, make them bigger or more complex. Catabolic reactions break things down making them smaller or less complex. If the rate of anabolic reaction in the body is much faster than the rate of catabolic reactions, which of the following necessary life function will be accomplished? A) movement B) responsiveness C) growth D) digestion Answer: C Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 38) Anatomical position is important because ________. A) it is the position most comfortable to hospital patients B) it provides the greatest circulation to the extremities C) it allows a common point of reference for body position to help communicate anatomical relationships D) it allows diagrams within textbooks to display a greater surface area of the body with one simple diagram Answer: C Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39) Positive feedback differs from negative feedback because ________. A) positive feedback is generally beneficial while negative feedback is typically harmful B) positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus while negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level C) positive feedback is critical to health while negative feedback serves only to alert us to potential health threats D) positive feedback provides moment-to-moment wellbeing while negative feedback causes a cascade effect Answer: B Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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40) When a baby suckles at its mother's breast the stimulus at the breast is sent to the mother's brain (a region called the hypothalamus). The brain responds by releasing hormones to stimulate the production and the ejection of milk from the breast. This helps the newborn to receive nourishment and encourages more suckling. This example is best described as a ________. A) negative feedback B) loss of homeostasis C) necessary life function D) positive feedback Answer: D Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 41) Some of the nerve endings in the skin are sensitive to changes in temperature. They are part of a negative feedback mechanism regulating body temperature. These nerve endings represent a(n) ________ in the negative feedback mechanism. A) homeostatic balance or "ideal" value B) effector C) control center D) receptor Answer: D Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 42) You are asked to take a person's heart rate at the popliteal pulse point. You will look for this pulse ________. A) on the posterior side of the knee B) at the posterior side of the wrist C) in the distal end of the lower leg D) on the palmar side of the hand Answer: A Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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43) You are told to take an axillary temperature on a small child. You will place the thermometer ________. A) under the tongue B) in the armpit C) in the rectum D) on the forehead Answer: B Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 44) You are asked to draw blood from the median cubital vein. You will search for this vein in the ________. A) hand B) anterior side of the elbow C) proximal arm D) lateral side of the foot Answer: B Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 45) The thoracic cavity contains the ________. It is found ________ to the vertebral cavity. A) heart and lungs; anterior B) digestive viscera; inferior C) kidneys and spleen; deep D) stomach and liver; superficial Answer: A Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 1.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Similar cells that have a common function are called ________. Answer: tissues Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28 .


2) What does the "principle of complementarity of structures and function" mean? Answer: Structure is specific to meet the needs of its function. Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) The term that describes the back of the elbow is ________. Answer: olecranal Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The term that describes the neck region is ________. Answer: cervical Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The heart is ________ to the lungs. Answer: medial Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) ________ is explained by chemical and physical principles and is concerned with the function of specific organs or organic systems. Answer: Physiology Section: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) What is a dynamic equilibrium of your internal environment termed? Answer: homeostasis Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which cavity contains the bladder, some reproductive organs, and the rectum? Answer: pelvic Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) What is the serous membrane that covers the intestines called? Answer: visceral peritoneum Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) What broad term covers all chemical reactions that occur within the body cells? Answer: metabolism Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) What is the function of the serous membranes? Answer: They act to reduce friction and allow the organs to slide across cavity walls. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Can lungs carry out excretory functions? Explain your answer. Answer: Yes, carbon dioxide is a metabolic waste the lungs excrete. Section: 1.2, 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS5 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 30 .


13) Why is anatomical terminology necessary? Answer: Anatomical terms are precise words that have limited usage, which prevents confusion when describing the location of body parts. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) The ability to sense changes in the environment and respond to them is called ________. Answer: responsiveness or excitability Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) What is the single most abundant chemical substance in the body? Answer: water Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Why must a normal body temperature be maintained in order for chemical reactions to be continued at life-sustaining rates? Answer: If body temperature is too low, chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body temperature is too high, chemical reactions speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape, resulting in loss of function. Section: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) What is the pathway between the receptor and the control center in the reflex pathway called? Answer: afferent pathway Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) What type of homeostatic feedback reflex is the withdrawal reflex? Answer: negative Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) Why are the abdominopelvic cavity organs the most vulnerable to blunt deceleration in an automobile accident with seat belts? Answer: The walls of the abdominal cavity are formed only by trunk muscles and are not reinforced by bone. The pelvic organs receive a somewhat greater degree of protection from the bony pelvis. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) What is the action of all of the negative feedback mechanisms of the body? Answer: They provide a mechanism to maintain levels of substances within physiological limits. Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which feedback mechanism causes the variable to deviate further and further from its original value or range? Answer: positive feedback Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) What can happen when the usual negative feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed and destructive positive feedback mechanisms take over? Answer: Homeostatic imbalances increase our risk for disease processes and produce the changes we associate with aging. Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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23) Which body system would be most affected by a lower than normal atmospheric pressure? Answer: respiratory system Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 24) Describe the overlap in function between the cardiovascular system and respiratory system. In other words, describe how they work together. Answer: The blood is provided a consistent supply of oxygen from the lungs while the circulatory system delivers carbon dioxide which will be removed from the body by the respiratory system. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 25) Describe the overlap in function between the muscular system and skeletal system. In other words, describe how they work together. Answer: The skeleton provides the ridged frame work (levers) for muscles to attach to. Muscles provide the force to move the bones about the joints. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 26) The integumentary system helps to maintain a boundary between the internal and external environment. Give an example of something that is prevented entry to the body and an example of something prevented from escaping the body by the integumentary system. Answer: The integument prevents entry of pathogens (germs, viruses, bacteria) OR harmful chemicals. The integumentary system prevents water (body fluid) loss. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating

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27) Describe the opposing ways that the muscular system and integumentary system act as effectors in the regulation of body temperature. Answer: The integument cools the body through sweat while the muscular system warms the body by shivering. Section: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS5 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 1.5 Clinical Questions 1) A small family was traveling in its van and had a minor accident. The children in the back seats were wearing lap belts, but still sustained numerous bruises about the abdomen, and had some internal organ injuries. Why is this area more vulnerable to damage than others? Answer: The abdominal organs are the least protected in the body because they are not surrounded by a bony covering such as the ribs, pelvis, or cranium. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Steve was injured in a football accident. X-ray examination showed a fracture underlying his left brachial deformity. What part of his body was injured? Answer: His left upper arm Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Judy is 16 years old and collapses on the gym floor with severe pain in her chest wall every time she takes a deep breath. She is rushed by ambulance to the emergency room. Judy is diagnosed with pleurisy and is given an anti-inflammatory drug through the intravenous route. Explain why an anti-inflammatory drug would be prescribed for someone with pleurisy. Answer: The pleural space contains a small amount of fluid that acts as a lubricant, allowing the pleurae to slide smoothly over each other as the lungs expand and contract. Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura around the lungs. When inflammation occurs in the pleural space, the pleurae do not slide smoothly and this causes severe pain that is more directly transmitted by the parietal than the visceral pleura. Section: 1.6 Learning Outcome: 1.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34 .


4) Sara is giving birth to her first child. She is concerned that her labor is taking longer than she thought it would. Why does giving birth usually take time for the contractions to proceed to the point when the child is born? Answer: Childbirth is based on the increasing levels of oxytocin that cause the uterine contractions. Under positive feedback, oxytocin levels increase which results in increasing strong contractions by the upper uterus that will ultimately result in the birth of the child. But this positive feedback needs numerous contraction cycles to overcome the muscular resistance to stretching in the lower uterus in order for the head to pass. Section: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) The nurse charted: "Patient has an open wound located on lateral aspect of leg." Describe where the wound is located. Answer: The wound is located on the outer side of the leg, the peroneal or fibular area. Section: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 2 Chemistry Comes Alive 2.1 Matching Questions

Figure 2.1 Using Figure 2.1, match the following: 1) Lipid. Answer: D Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Functional protein. Answer: B Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) Nucleotide. Answer: E Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Polysaccharide. Answer: C Section: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Monosaccharide. Answer: A Section: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Polymer. Answer: C Section: 2.7 Learning Outcome: 2.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Tertiary (protein) structure. Answer: B Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 2.2 Using Figure 2.2, match the following: 8) Deoxyribose sugar. Answer: B Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Thymine. Answer: D Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Guanine. Answer: E Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Phosphate. Answer: C Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Hydrogen bonds. Answer: A Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following chemical bonds to the correct description: A) Ionic bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Polar covalent bond D) Nonpolar covalent bond 13) A bond in which electrons are shared unequally. Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) A bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved. Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) A bond in which electrons are shared equally. Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9, 2.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) A type of bond important in tying different parts of the same molecule together into a threedimensional structure. Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) B

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Match the following particles to the correct description: A) Electron B) Neutron C) Atom D) Proton 17) Negatively charged subatomic particle. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Neutral subatomic particle. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Smallest particle of an element that retains its properties. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Positively charged subatomic particle. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Subatomic particle having an AMU (Atomic Mass Unit) of zero. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A

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Match the following: A) Compound B) Suspension C) Solution 22) Water. Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Saline. Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Dry ice (frozen carbon dioxide). Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.6, 2.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Blood. Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) B

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Match the following: A) Mass B) Energy C) Weight D) Matter 26) Can be measured only by its effects on matter. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Anything that occupies space and has mass. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Although a man who weighs 175 pounds on Earth would be lighter on the moon and heavier on Jupiter, his ________ would not be different. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Is a function of, and varies with, gravity. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) C

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Match the following: A) Electrical energy B) Chemical energy C) Radiant energy D) Mechanical energy 30) Legs moving the pedals of a bicycle. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) When the bonds of ATP are broken, energy is released to do cellular work. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Energy that travels in waves. Part of the electromagnetic spectrum. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Represented by the flow of charged particles along a conductor, or the flow of ions across a membrane. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 30) D 31) B 32) C 33) A

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Match the following: A) Quaternary B) Tertiary C) Secondary D) Primary 34) Protein structure achieved when alpha-helical or beta-pleated regions of the polypeptide chain fold upon one another to produce a compact ball-like, or globular, molecule. Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) The sequence of amino acids that form the polypeptide chain. Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Protein structure represented by alpha-helices and beta-sheets. Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Two or more polypeptide chains, each with its own tertiary structure. Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) A

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Match the following: A) Mass number of an element B) Atomic number C) Atomic symbol 38) Usually, the first one or two letters of an element's name. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Number of protons in an atom. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Combined number of protons and neutrons in an atom. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 38) C 39) B 40) A 2.2 True/False Questions 1) The atomic number of any atom is equal to the number of electrons in its nucleus and is written as a subscript to the left of its atomic symbol. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) It is the difference in the R group that makes each amino acid chemically unique. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11 .


3) Chemical properties are determined primarily by neutrons. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A charged particle is generally called an ion or electrolyte. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.1, 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.2, 2.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Isotopes differ from each other only in the number of electrons the atom contains. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) About 60% to 80% of the volume of most living cells consists of organic compounds. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Triglycerides are a poor source of stored energy. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Omega-3 fatty acids appear to decrease the risk of heart disease. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2, G5 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is primarily stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The lower the pH, the higher the hydrogen ion concentration. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The sharing of electrons in covalent bonds makes them stronger than ionic and hydrogen bonds. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Hydrogen bonds are too weak to bind atoms together to form molecules, but they do hold different parts of a single large molecule in a specific three-dimensional shape. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The fact that no chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture is the chief difference between mixtures and compounds. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The acidity of a solution reflects the concentration of free hydrogen ions in the solution. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) A chemical bond is an energy relationship between outer electrons and neighboring atoms. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) All organic compounds contain carbon except CO2 and CO. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.7 Learning Outcome: 2.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) A dipeptide can be broken into two amino acids by dehydration synthesis. Answer: FALSE Section: 2.7 Learning Outcome: 2.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The pH of body fluids must remain fairly constant for the body to maintain homeostasis. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Mixtures are combinations of elements or compounds that are physically blended together but are not bound by chemical bonds. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Buffers resist abrupt and large changes in the pH of body fluids by releasing or binding ions. Answer: TRUE Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nerve impulses? A) Fe B) I C) P D) Na Answer: D Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15 .


2) The basic structural material of the body consists of ________. A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids Answer: C Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils at room temperature have ________. A) a high water content B) long fatty acid chains C) saturated fatty acids D) unsaturated fatty acids Answer: D Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________. A) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules B) sequence of the nucleotides C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix D) arrangement of the histones Answer: B Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following does NOT characterize proteins? A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity. B) They have both functional and structural roles in the body. C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information. D) Their function depends on their three-dimensional shape. Answer: C Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16 .


6) The single most abundant protein in the body is ________. A) DNA B) hemoglobin C) collagen D) glucose Answer: C Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of ________. A) glucose B) triglycerides C) glycogen D) cholesterol Answer: C Section: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes? A) Some enzymes are purely protein. B) Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor. C) Each enzyme is chemically specific. D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation. Answer: D Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.20 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Which of the following is a general function for a fibrous protein? A) transport B) protein management C) body defense D) catalysis E) structural framework Answer: E Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) A chemical reaction in which bonds are created is usually associated with ________. A) the release of energy B) the consumption of energy C) degradation D) forming a smaller molecule Answer: B Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Salts are always ________. A) ionic compounds B) single covalent compounds C) double covalent compounds D) hydrogen bonded Answer: A Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom? A) 2, 8, 8 B) 2, 8 C) 2 D) 2, 8, 1 Answer: D Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global LO: G2, G4 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt. B) The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution. C) When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases. D) The pH of blood is slightly basic. Answer: C Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells? A) magnesium B) hydrogen C) potassium D) sodium Answer: D Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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15) Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? A) H2O B) CO2 C) NaOH D) CH4 Answer: D Section: 2.7 Learning Outcome: 2.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) What is a chain of more than 50 amino acids called? A) triglyceride B) polysaccharide C) protein D) nucleic acid Answer: C Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) What structural level is represented by the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain? A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure Answer: A Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________. A) Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form. B) Most enzymes can catalyze only one reaction per minute. C) Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements. D) Enzymes are not damaged by high temperature. Answer: C Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.20 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20 .


19) Which statement about enzymes is TRUE? A) Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form. B) Most enzymes can catalyze only one reaction per minute. C) Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements. D) Enzymes are not damaged by high temperature. Answer: C Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.20 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Chemical reactions proceed more slowly at higher temperatures. B) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers. C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully. D) Catalysts decrease the rate of chemical reactions, sometimes while undergoing reversible changes in shape. Answer: B Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-. A) a bicarbonate ion B) common in the liver C) a weak acid D) a proton donor Answer: A Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in human bodies. A) glucose to CO2 and H2O B) ADP + Pi to make ATP C) H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3 D) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen Answer: A Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) What happens in redox reactions? A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur B) the electron acceptor is oxidized C) the organic substance that loses hydrogen is usually reduced D) the reaction is uniformly reversible Answer: A Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which type of proteins can function as chemical messengers or as receptors in the plasma membrane? A) defensive B) transport C) communication D) enzyme Answer: C Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Which of the following does NOT describe uses for the ATP molecule? A) chemical work B) mechanical work C) transport down their concentration gradient D) pigment structure Answer: D Section: 2.12 Learning Outcome: 2.22 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids. A) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA. B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases. C) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C. D) tDNA is considered a "molecular slave" of DNA during protein synthesis. Answer: B Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following is an example of a suspension? A) cytosol B) salt water C) rubbing alcohol D) blood Answer: D Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) If the atomic mass of an element is 14 and the atomic number is 6, which of the following would describe this element? A) atom B) neutral C) ion D) isotope Answer: D Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 29) The four elements that make up about 96% of body weight are ________. A) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium B) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen Answer: C Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) ________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function. A) Vitamin K B) Cortisol C) Vitamin A D) Vitamin D Answer: D Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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31) You notice that you cannot read your book through a test tube of patient fluid held against the print, making it so blurred as to be unreadable. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days in a rack. What type of liquid is this? A) solution B) suspension C) colloid D) mixture Answer: C Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 32) Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell (outermost energy level)? A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 Answer: C Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2, G4 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 33) A high fever causes an enzyme to lose its three-dimensional structure and function. Which bonds are broken when a protein denatures? A) ionic bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) polar covalent bonds D) non-polar covalent bonds Answer: B Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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34) If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following? A) 37 protons and 37 neutrons B) 37 electrons C) 74 protons D) 37 protons and 37 electrons Answer: C Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 35) What does the formula C6H12O6 mean? A) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms. B) There are 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms. C) The molecular weight is 24. D) The substance is a colloid. Answer: B Section: 2.5, 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) An atom with 3 electrons in its outermost (valence) shell may have a total of ________ electrons altogether. A) 3 B) 8 C) 13 D) 17 Answer: C Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2, G4 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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37) Which of the following is a neutralization reaction? A) HCl → H+ + ClB) NaOH → Na+ + OHC) NH3 + H+ → NH4+2 D) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O Answer: D Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) The chemical symbol O=O means ________. A) zero equals zero B) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit C) the atoms are double bonded D) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons Answer: C Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) What is a cation? A) an atom that shares its valence electrons B) an atom that gains one or more electrons and acquires a net negative charge C) an atom that loses one or more electrons and acquires a net positive charge D) a molecule that has both positive and negative charges Answer: C Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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40) What does CH4 mean? A) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms. B) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms. C) This is an inorganic molecule. D) This was involved in a redox reaction. Answer: A Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction. A) synthesis B) decomposition C) exchange D) reversible Answer: A Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which of the following is NOT considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate? A) temperature B) concentration of reactants C) particle size D) time Answer: D Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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43) Which property of water is demonstrated when we sweat? A) high heat capacity B) high heat of vaporization C) polar solvent properties D) reactivity E) cushioning Answer: B Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Starch is a ________. A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) polysaccharide D) triglyceride Answer: C Section: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in triglycerides (neutral fats)? A) 1:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 4:1 Answer: C Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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46) In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves ________. A) as a code B) to hold the molecular backbone together C) to bind the sugars to their bases D) as nucleotides Answer: B Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) When frying an egg, the protein albumin denatures and maintains only its ________ structure. A) quaternary B) tertiary C) secondary D) primary Answer: D Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 48) Which of the following is chemically inert (unreactive)? A) carbon (atomic number 6) B) neon (atomic number 10) C) oxygen (atomic number 8) D) sodium (atomic number 11) Answer: B Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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49) An atom with an atomic number of 10 and a mass number of 24 would have ________. A) 14 electrons B) 14 neutrons C) 10 neutrons D) 24 protons Answer: B Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global LO: G2, G4 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 50) When DNA is replicated, it is necessary for the two strands to "unzip" temporarily. Choose which bonding type is most appropriate for holding the strands together in this way. A) ionic bonding B) polar covalent bonding C) hydrogen bonding D) non-polar covalent bonding Answer: C Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 51) Lithium has an atomic number of 3. How many electrons are there in the outermost (valence) shell? A) one B) two C) three D) zero Answer: A Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global LO: G2, G4 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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52) ATP → ADP + Pi is an example of a(n) ________ reaction. A) reversible B) synthesis C) exchange D) decomposition Answer: D Section: 2.5, 2.12 Learning Outcome: 2.11, 2.22 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 53) An acid with a pH of 6 has ________ hydrogen ions than pure water. A) 10-fold more B) 100-fold more C) 10-fold fewer D) 100-fold fewer Answer: A Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2, G4 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 54) A patient is hyperventilating. The "blowing off" of excessive carbon dioxide causes a decrease in blood H+ concentration. How can the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system function to correct this imbalance? CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3A) H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and raise pH. B) HCO3- binds with H+ to form H2CO3 and raise pH. C) H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and lower pH. D) HCO3- binds with H+ to form H2CO3 and lower pH. Answer: C Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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55) Forming glycogen as energy storage in the liver is an example of ________. A) oxidation B) anabolism C) exergonic D) catabolism Answer: B Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 56) Salivary amylase is an enzyme produced by the salivary glands that breaks down carbohydrates. What will happen to this enzyme as it follows the food into the stomach where the pH drops to 2.5? A) The enzyme will continue to function as it remains unchanged in chemical reactions. B) The enzyme will assume an alternate form and catalyze additional reactions. C) The enzyme will denature but retain its function. D) The enzyme will denature and become inactive. Answer: D Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 57) With a family history of cardiovascular disease, which toast spread would be considered the most "heart healthy"? A) margarine containing trans fats B) olive oil C) butter containing butterfat D) lard (pig fat) Answer: B Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2, G5 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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58) Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A) amino acid; protein B) monosaccharide; carbohydrate C) nucleotide; nucleic acid D) eicosanoid; triglyceride Answer: D Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 59) Starch is the stored carbohydrate in plants, while ________ is the stored carbohydrate in animals. A) glycogen B) cellulose C) glucose D) triglyceride Answer: A Section: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 60) How many phosphates would ADP have attached to it? A) two B) three C) one D) none Answer: A Section: 2.12 Learning Outcome: 2.22 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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61) Tendons are strong, rope-like structures that connect skeletal muscle to bone. Which of the following proteins would provide strength to a tendon? A) actin B) collagen C) molecular chaperone D) albumin Answer: B Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 62) Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense? A) two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides B) a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell C) two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides D) a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell Answer: C Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 63) What type of chemical bond can form between an atom with 11 protons and an atom with 17 protons? A) non-polar covalent B) polar covalent C) hydrogen D) ionic Answer: D Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2.4 Short Answer Questions 1) What happens when globular proteins are denatured? Answer: The active sites are destroyed. Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy. Answer: Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work. Kinetic energy is energy in action. Section: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) How can phospholipids form a film when mixed in water? Answer: Phospholipids have both polar and nonpolar ends. The polar end interacts with water, leaving the nonpolar end oriented in the opposite direction. Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) What properties does water have that make it a very versatile fluid? Answer: High heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, polar solvent properties, reactivity, and cushioning. Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.14 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) What advantages does ATP have in being the energy currency molecule? Answer: Its energy is easy to capture and store; it releases just the right amount of energy for the cell's needs so it is protected from excessive energy release. A universal energy currency is efficient because a single system can be used by all the cells in the body. Section: 2.12 Learning Outcome: 2.22 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36 .


6) Explain why water is considered to have partial charges even though it is sharing electrons in a polar covalent bond. Answer: Due to the electronegativity of oxygen, it pulls the shared electron more strongly than the hydrogen. As a result, the oxygen acquires a partial negative charge, and the hydrogens acquire a partial positive charge. Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) When a set of electrodes connected to a light bulb is placed in a solution of dextrose and a current is applied, the light bulb does not light up. When the same unit is placed in HCl, it does. Why? Answer: HCl ionizes to form current-conducting electrolytes. Dextrose does not ionize, and therefore does not conduct current. Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Describe the factors that affect chemical reaction rates. Answer: Temperature increases kinetic energy and therefore the force of molecular collisions. Particle size: smaller particles move faster at the same temperature and therefore collide more frequently; also, smaller particles have more surface area given the same concentration of reactants. Concentration: the higher the concentration, the greater the chance of particles colliding. Catalysts increase the rate of the reaction at a given temperature. Enzymes are biological catalysts. Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.13 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Protons and electrons exist in every atom nucleus except hydrogen. Is this statement true or false and why? Answer: False. Hydrogen has one proton and one electron. It is the neutron, not the electron that can coexist in the nucleus and that hydrogen does not have. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) A chemical bond never occurs between components of a mixture. Discuss this. Answer: Mixtures come in three forms—solutions, colloids, and suspensions. Components of these mixtures always retain their original makeup and can be separated into their individual components; therefore, no chemical bonding has taken place. Section: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) All chemical reactions are theoretically reversible, but reactions in the body tend to be irreversible. Discuss why this is the case. Answer: It is possible to reverse any reaction if the products are still present. Those that are only slightly exergonic are easily reversible. Some would require an enormous amount of energy to reverse. In the simple reaction Na + Cl → NaCl the amount of energy it takes to reverse table salt to chlorine gas and sodium metal is enormous. When glucose is oxidized the energy goes into bonds of ATP molecules which are then spent and thus the energy is not available to reform glucose. Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What is the major difference between polar and nonpolar covalent bonds? Answer: Polar bonds have an unequal sharing of electrons resulting in a slight negative charge at one end of the molecule and a slight positive charge at the other end. Nonpolar bonds have an equal sharing of electrons, resulting in a balanced charge among the atoms. Section: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) An amino acid may act as a proton acceptor or donor. Explain. Answer: Amino acids have two components—a base group (proton acceptor) and an organic acid part (a proton donor). Some have additional base or acid groups on the ends of their R groups as well. Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.19 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) Name at least four things you know about enzymes. Answer: 1. Most are proteins. 2. They have specific binding sites for specific substrates. 3. They lower the activation barrier for a specific reaction. 4. The names often end in "Suffix: -ase." 5. They can be denatured. 6. They can be used again and again. Section: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.20 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) In the compound H2CO3, what do the numbers 2 and 3 represent? Answer: The 2 indicates that there are two hydrogen atoms in the compound and the 3 indicates that there are three oxygen atoms in the compound. Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) Are all chemical reactions reversible? If not, why aren't they all reversible? Answer: All chemical reactions are theoretically reversible, but only if the products are not consumed and enough energy is available for the reaction. Section: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) If all protons, electrons, and neutrons are alike, regardless of the atom considered, what determines the unique properties of each element? Answer: Atoms of different elements are composed of different numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons. Section: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2.5 Clinical Questions 1) Mrs. Mulligan goes to her dentist and, after having a couple of cavities filled, her dentist strongly suggests that she reduce her intake of sodas and increase her intake of calcium phosphates in the foods she eats. Why? Answer: Sodas are strong acids that can reduce bone and tooth salts. Calcium phosphate makes teeth hard and therefore more resistant to tooth decay. Section: 2.2, 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.3, 2.15 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Although his cholesterol levels were not high, Mr. Martinez read that cholesterol was bad for his health, so he eliminated all foods and food products containing this molecule. He later found that his cholesterol level dropped only 20%. Why did it not drop more? Answer: Cholesterol is produced by the liver, in addition to being ingested in foods. Section: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.18 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) How can DNA be used to "fingerprint" a suspect in a crime? Answer: The DNA of a person is unique to that individual. By obtaining the DNA from nucleated cells from the crime scene (e.g., blood, semen, other body tissues), enzymes may be used to break up the DNA into fragments. Because nearly everyone's DNA is different, it also breaks up into fragments differently. When the fragments are separated, they form patterns even more unique than fingerprint patterns. A match of suspect and crime scene DNA is strong evidence. Section: 2.11 Learning Outcome: 2.21 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Why is it possible for us to drink a solution that contains a mixture of equal concentration of a strong acid and a strong base, either of which, separately, would be very caustic? Answer: When an acid and base of equal strength are mixed, they undergo a displacement (neutralization) reaction to form water and a salt. Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) A 65-year-old patient came to the emergency room with complaints of severe heartburn unrelieved by taking a "large handful" of antacids. Would you expect the pH to be high or low? Explain why. Answer: You would expect a high pH. Taking antacids will neutralize the acidic stomach. Taking a "handful" of antacids can cause an alkaloid state. Certain drugs, such as corticosteroids and antacids that contain baking soda, will lead to metabolic alkalosis. Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A 22-year-old female college student is stressed out due to final exams and begins to hyperventilate. This means she is exhaling too much carbon dioxide. As a result, the pH of the blood will become too basic creating a homeostatic imbalance. Her friend hands her a paper bag and instructs her to inhale and exhale into the bag. Breathing in the bag helps to replace the lost carbon dioxide lowering the pH back to normal levels. Which buffer system in the body will be involved in this reaction? Answer: The bicarbonate buffer system is going to be involved in this situation. In this buffer system, the weak acid is carbonic acid, which is formed from the reaction between carbon dioxide and water. The body responds to an increase in blood pH by shifting the equation to the left, causing carbonic acid to dissociate into bicarbonate and protons. These protons will bring the rising pH back to a normal level. Section: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Brenda is a 26-year-old female who is being discharged from the hospital after a vaginal delivery of an 8-pound healthy infant. Brenda is instructed by the nurse to eat a diet high in fiber and to drink 8 glasses of water per day to prevent constipation. Explain the role of fiber and water to promote defecation. Answer: Cellulose is a polysaccharide found in all plant products that adds bulk to the diet to promote feces through the colon. Water acts as a lubricating liquid within the colon, which eases feces through the bowel. Section: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.17 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 3 Cells: The Living Units 3.1 Matching Questions

Figure 3.1 Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 1) Produces ATP aerobically. Answer: B Section: 3.1, 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Site of enzymatic breakdown of phagocytized material. Answer: C Section: 3.1, 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .


3) Packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis. Answer: E Section: 3.1, 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Site of synthesis of lipid and steroid molecules. Answer: A Section: 3.1, 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Forms the mitotic spindle. Answer: D Section: 3.1, 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Replicate for cell division. Answer: D Section: 3.1, 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) When ruptured it releases the enzymes responsible for autolysis. Answer: C Section: 3.1, 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 3.2 Using Figure 3.2, match the following: 8) Nonpolar region of phospholipid. Answer: C Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Glycocalyx. Answer: A Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Polar region of phospholipid. Answer: B Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .


11) Peripheral protein. Answer: E Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Integral protein. Answer: D Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Unique glycoproteins and glycolipids involved in cell recognition. Answer: A Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Hydrophilic portion of phospholipid. Answer: B Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Synthetase enzymes B) Ribosomal RNA C) ATP D) Messenger RNA E) Transfer RNA 15) Forms part of the subunits for the protein synthesizing organelle. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) A molecule that binds to a specific codon and specific amino acid simultaneously. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Attaches the correct amino acid to its transfer RNA. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Provides the energy needed for synthesis reactions. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Produced in the nucleus, this molecule specifies the exact sequence of amino acids of the protein to be made. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20) May be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 15) B 16) E 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) B

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Match the following: A) Late prophase B) Early prophase C) Telophase D) Anaphase E) Metaphase 21) Chromosomes uncoil to form chromatin. Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Chromosomal centromeres split and chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell. Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disintegrate. Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Chromosomes align on the spindle equator. Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Centrioles move to opposite ends of the cell. Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) E 25) B

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Match the following: A) Nucleus B) Peroxisomes C) Cytoskeleton D) Golgi apparatus E) Ribosomes 26) This organelle modifies, concentrates, and packages the proteins and lipids made at the RER for domestic use or export. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The organelle that facilitates peptic bond formation between amino acids. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) This organelle contains oxidases and catalases. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) This is an elaborate network of rods and accessory proteins found in the cytosol that support cellular structures and provide the machinery to generate various cell movements, as well as provide the "roads" for vesicular trafficking. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The vast majority of the cell's genetic material is housed here. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 26) D 27) E 28) B 29) C 30) A 8 .


Match the following: A) Tight junctions B) Desmosomes C) Gap junctions 31) Help prevent molecules from passing through the extracellular space between adjacent cells. Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Type of anchoring junction. Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Allows ions and small molecules to pass through from one cell to another. Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Present in electrically excitable tissues. Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Abundant in tissues subjected to great mechanical stress. Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) B

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3.2 True/False Questions 1) Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has exactly the same genetic composition. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Apoptosis is programmed cell death; cancer cells do not undergo this process. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.12 Learning Outcome: 3.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Introns represent a genome scrap yard that provides DNA segments for genome evolution and a variety of small RNA molecules. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Enzymes and proteins needed for cell division are synthesizes and put into place during G2 phase. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Phagocytosis is used by the cells to secrete intracellular substances to the outside of the cell. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Osmosis is the passive movement of water, but it follows almost completely opposite laws of physics when compared to the diffusion of ions or other small particles. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) DNA replication requires an enzyme called RNA polymerase and results in a semi-conserved new molecule of DNA. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Dividing cells must pass through the phases of mitosis in the following order: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.23 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) The glycocalyx is composed of glycolipids, glycoproteins, and cholesterol molecules that are displayed on the outside surface of the plasma membrane. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Microfilaments are thin strands of the contractile protein composed of myosin. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Interstitial fluid represents one type of extracellular material. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.1 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Aquaporins are believed to be present in red blood cells and kidney tubules, but not in any other cells in the body. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Microtubules are hollow tubes made of subunits of the protein tubulin. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Telomeres are the regions of chromosomes that code for the protein ubiquitin. Answer: FALSE Section: 3.12 Learning Outcome: 3.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) The speed of individual particle diffusion is influenced by temperature and particle size, not by concentration. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) Concentration differences cause ionic imbalances that polarize the cell membrane, and active transport processes. Answer: TRUE Section: 3.4, 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.8, 3.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the membrane potential? A) In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential. B) The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump. C) The resting membrane potential is determined mainly by the concentration gradients and differential permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ and Na+ ions. D) The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes. Answer: D Section: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages? A) exocytosis B) phagocytosis C) pinocytosis D) intracellular vesicular trafficking Answer: B Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13 .


3) In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________. A) the smooth ER B) the rough ER C) both smooth and rough ER D) the cytoplasm Answer: A Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is ________. A) rRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) ssRNA Answer: C Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________. A) shrink B) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached C) neither shrink nor swell D) swell and burst Answer: D Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) Which of the following describes the plasma membrane? A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell B) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma C) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae Answer: C Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which of the following structures would aid a cell in allowing more nutrients to be absorbed by the cell? A) stereocilia B) microvilli C) primary cilia D) flagella Answer: B Section: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Which of the following statements is correct regarding net diffusion? A) The rate is independent of temperature. B) The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate. C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate. D) The lower the temperature, the faster the rate. Answer: B Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) In a tissue type that undergoes a relatively great deal of mechanical stress, like the tissue that lines the intestine, you would expect to see an abundance of ________ between the individual cells of the tissue. A) gap junctions B) desmosomes C) connexons D) tight junctions Answer: B Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) If cells are placed in a hypotonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen? A) The cells will swell and ultimately burst. B) The cells will lose water and shrink. C) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition. D) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent. Answer: A Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to ________. A) changes in the environment B) specific tRNAs C) specific codes from the DNA D) the presence or absence of ubiquitins Answer: A Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein? A) circulating antibody B) molecular transport through the membrane C) forms a lipid bilayer D) oxygen transport Answer: B Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA? A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis. B) If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be UCCAGU. C) There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid. D) rRNA is always attached to the rough ER. Answer: A Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which of the following would NOT be a constituent of a plasma membrane? A) glycolipids B) messenger RNA C) glycoproteins D) phospholipids Answer: B Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Mitosis ________. A) is the formation of sex cells B) is division of the genetic material within the nucleus C) creates diversity in genetic potential D) is a part of the cell cycle in all cells Answer: B Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17 .


16) The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of pinwheel array of 9 triplets of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a ________. A) centrosome B) centriole C) chromosome D) ribosome Answer: B Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which of these is found in an inclusion, not an organelle? A) melanin B) lysosome C) microtubule D) cilia Answer: A Section: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? A) cadherins:cell adhesion molecules B) glycolipids:cytosolic proteins C) ligands:chemical signaling messengers D) glycoproteins:plasma membrane receptor Answer: B Section: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.12, 3.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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19) If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the complementary mRNA? A) TGCAA B) ACGTT C) UGCAA D) GUACC Answer: C Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G2, G3 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which transport process is the main mechanism for the movement of most macromolecules by body cells? A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) secondary active transport Answer: C Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.8, 3.9, 3.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Passive membrane transport processes include ________. A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient B) movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration C) consumption of ATP D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration Answer: A Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? A) lipid metabolism and cholesterol synthesis B) steroid-based hormone synthesis C) breakdown of stored glycogen to form free glucose D) protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes Answer: D Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Mitochondria ________. A) contain digestive enzymes called acid hydrolyses B) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function D) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell Answer: C Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Peroxisomes ________. A) are functionally the same as lysosomes B) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action C) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis D) sometimes function as secretory vesicles Answer: B Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes? A) digesting particles taken in by endocytosis B) degrading worn-out or nonfunctional organelles C) help in the formation of cell membranes D) breaking down bone to release calcium ions into the blood Answer: C Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20 .


26) In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes line up along the midline or equator of the cell? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase Answer: B Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure? A) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules. B) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains. C) The lipid bilayer is a solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell. D) All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in a fluid layer on the outside of the cell. Answer: A Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"? A) Second messengers act through receptors called K-proteins. B) Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes. C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers. D) Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell. Answer: C Section: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) Which organelle is responsible for processing and packaging proteins destined for export from the cell? A) endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) lysosomes D) peroxisomes Answer: B Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The functions of centrioles include ________. A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division B) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces C) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis D) producing ATP Answer: A Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) A gene can best be defined as ________. A) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid B) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain D) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide Answer: C Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.24 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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32) Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in ________. A) an isotonic solution B) a hypotonic solution C) a hypertonic solution D) blood plasma Answer: C Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Some hormones enter cells via ________. A) exocytosis B) primary active transport C) pinocytosis D) receptor-mediated endocytosis Answer: D Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon. A) AUG B) UCG C) TCG D) UGA Answer: B Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 35) Which of the following is NOT one of the concepts collectively known as the cell theory? A) Cells only arise from other cells. B) All cells must be motile and divide. C) The cell is the smallest unit of life. D) All organisms are made of one or more cells. Answer: B Section: 3.1 Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23 .


36) If a human cell were to increase the amount of cholesterol embedded within its plasma membrane, which of the following would most likely happen? A) The cell would form a plaque that could potentially block a blood vessel. B) The plasma membrane would become more fluid and the phospholipids less stable. C) The plasma membrane would become more stable, less fluid, and less permeable. D) The plasma membrane would become more permeable to ions and less permeable to lipids. Answer: C Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 37) Cancerous cells can divide so rapidly that they will often produce a glycocalyx that is different than the other cells in the body. This may result in ________. A) cells of the immune system recognizing the tumorous cells as foreign and destroying them B) the cancer cells conserving energy for more growth C) allowing the cancer cells to bind to their healthy, neighboring cells D) a decrease in the permeability of the tumor cell's plasma membrane preventing the uptake of chemotherapy drugs Answer: A Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 38) The myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) undergoes a significant amount of physical stress due to its contractions. You would expect to see relatively large numbers of which of the following embedded within their plasma membrane? A) transport proteins B) tight junctions C) desmosomes D) glycolipids Answer: C Section: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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39) Which of the following will NOT speed up the net rate of diffusion for glucose into a cell? A) Increasing the concentration of glucose outside of the cell. B) Increasing the number of glucose transport proteins within the plasma membrane. C) Decreasing the number of phospholipids in the plasma membrane. D) Decreasing the concentration of glucose within the cell. Answer: C Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.6, 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) The lungs deliver a regular supply of oxygen to the blood, which is in turn circulated to most all the cells of the body. At the same time oxygen is consumed during aerobic cellular respiration within these cells. This implies that ________. A) the concentration gradient for oxygen is steepness inside of the cell B) the rate of oxygen diffusion is independent of concentration C) oxygen will passively diffuse into the cells D) oxygen requires active transport to enter most cells Answer: C Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 41) The movement of water across the plasma membrane can be described by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) simple diffusion B) facilitated diffusion through aquaporins C) passive membrane transport D) carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion Answer: D Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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42) If active transport establishes a concentration gradient with the use of ATP, then the concentration gradient can be looked at as ________. A) potential energy that can be harnessed when molecules passively diffuse down the concentration gradient B) an unusable byproduct of active transport that will simply diffuse away C) unwanted pressure that will be alleviated by channel mediated facilitated diffusion D) a byproduct of active transport that will be alleviated by pinocytosis Answer: A Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 43) Which of the following would NOT be restricted (limited) by low levels of ATP? A) pinocytosis B) exocytosis C) osmosis D) phagocytosis Answer: C Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.8, 3.9, 3.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 44) A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilize ________. A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis Answer: A Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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45) If a cell is non-selectively engulfing samples of extracellular fluid, for example to absorb nutrients, it will likely utilize ________. A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis Answer: B Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 46) If a cell is selectively reducing the concentration of a particular enzyme in the extracellular fluid it will likely utilize ________. A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis Answer: C Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 47) A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the transport protein, and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. This transport protein would best be described as ________. A) a pump B) a channel C) a symporter D) a carrier protein Answer: C Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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48) A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the transport protein, and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. Which of the following would stop transport of glucose through this transport protein? A) Increasing the concentration of glucose outside of the cell. B) Stopping the activity of the sodium potassium pump. C) Increasing the number of digestive enzymes in the digestive tract. D) Lowering the energy of activation. Answer: B Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.9, 3.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 49) Which of the following would NOT assist in establishing a resting membrane potential? A) Selective diffusion allowing more uncharged particles into the cell. B) Selective diffusion allowing more positively charged ions to diffuse out of the cell. C) Selective diffusion allowing fewer positively charged ions to diffuse into the cell. D) Having greater concentration of glycolipids on the outside surface of the membrane. Answer: A Section: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 50) When tissues are injured or infected, chemical signals can be releases that affect the plasma membrane of cells that line the nearby blood vessels. These blood vessels' cells (endothelial cells) respond to the chemical signals by displaying a type of glycoproteins on their surface. These proteins will attach to circulating white blood cells bringing them to the site of injury or infection. These glycoproteins would best be described as ________. A) transport proteins B) G-proteins C) Cell Adhesion Molecules (CAMs) D) desmosomes Answer: C Section: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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51) Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells? A) lysosomes B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondria D) cytoskeleton Answer: C Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 52) Beta cells in the pancreas produce and secrete the protein hormone insulin. You would expect to see a relatively large amount of which organelles in these cells? A) cytoskeleton, and peroxisomes B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and lysosomes C) mitochondria, and cilia D) Golgi apparatus, rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: D Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 53) Colchicine is a drug that can prevent the formation of microtubules. Which is the most likely effect colchicine would have on cell division? A) It will enhance mitosis by moving chromosome toward the spindle equator. B) It will arrest mitosis by preventing the formation of spindle microtubules. C) It would have little or no effect on mitosis. D) It would delay mitosis by preventing S phase. Answer: B Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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3.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The RNA that has an anticodon and attaches to a specific amino acid is ________ RNA. Answer: transfer Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Water may move through membrane pores constructed by transmembrane proteins called ________. Answer: aquaporins Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) ________ is the division of the cytoplasmic mass into two parts. Answer: Cytokinesis Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The phase of a cell life cycle in which the DNA is replicated is called ________. Answer: S phase of interphase Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Aerobic cellular respiration occurs in the ________. Answer: mitochondria Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) The most common intracellular cation is ________. Answer: potassium Section: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The process of discharging particles from inside a cell to the outside is called ________. Answer: exocytosis Section: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) A red blood cell would swell if its surrounding solution were ________. Answer: hypotonic Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Describe two important functions of the Golgi apparatus. Answer: To modify, sort, and package proteins. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Why can we say that a cell without a nucleus will ultimately die? Answer: Without a nucleus, a cell cannot make proteins, nor can it replace any enzymes or other cell structures (which are continuously recycled). Additionally, such a cell could not replicate. Section: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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11) Are random moments of particles, diffusion, and osmosis seen only in living tissue? Answer: No. Because they are passive processes that do not require energy, they can occur in the absence of any cellular processes. Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.6, 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) What processes maintain a steady state "resting" membrane potential? Answer: Both diffusion and active transport mechanisms operate within the cell membrane to maintain a resting membrane potential. Section: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) Briefly describe the glycocalyx and its functions. Answer: The glycocalyx is the sticky, carbohydrate-rich area on the cell surface. It helps bind cells together and provides a highly specific biological marker by which cells can recognize each other. Section: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.2, 3.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) If a sequence of nucleotides on one strand of DNA is CCGATT, what would the complementary sequence look like on the other strand? Answer: The complementary strand would be GGCTAA since C bonds with G and A bonds with T. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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15) In all living cells hydrostatic and osmotic pressures exist. Define these pressures and explain how they are used in the concept of tonicity of the cell. Answer: Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of water exerted on the cell membrane. Osmotic pressure is created by different concentrations of molecules in a solution separated by the cell membrane. Because these pressures are exerted on the membrane they can be used by the cell to change the shape of the cell, regulate substances entering and exiting the cell, and change the osmolarity of the cell. Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) Other than the nucleus, which organelle has its own DNA? Answer: Mitochondria Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) How are the products of free ribosomes different from membrane-bound ribosomes? Answer: Free ribosomes make soluble proteins that function in the cytosol. Membrane-bound ribosomes produce proteins that are to be used on the cell membrane or exported from the cell. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18) How are peroxisomes different from lysosomes? Answer: Peroxisomes contain oxidases that use oxygen to detoxify harmful substances. They are very good at neutralizing free radicals. Peroxisomes directly bud from the ER. Lysosomes contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes that will pretty much destroy anything they come in contact with. They are manufactured by the Golgi apparatus. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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19) Briefly name the subphases of interphase and tell what they do. Answer: G0 - resting phase. The cells do not undergo mitosis in this phase. G1 - growth phase. The cell is metabolically active and the centriole begins to divide at the end of this phase. S - DNA replicates itself. New histones are made and assembled into chromatin. G2 - Enzymes and proteins are synthesized and centriole replication is completed. This is the final phase of interphase. Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) What are nucleolar organizer regions? Answer: nuclear regions containing the DNA that issues genetic instructions for synthesizing ribosomal RNA Section: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 21) How is the resting potential formed? How is it maintained? Answer: It is formed by diffusion-limited concentration differences of ions resulting in ionic imbalances that polarize the membrane. It is maintained by active transport processes. Section: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) List possible causes of aging. Answer: 1. chemical insults and free radical formation (wear and tear theory) 2. diminished energy production by free radical-damaged mitochondria 3. progressive disorders in the immune system 4. genetic programming Section: 3.12 Learning Outcome: 3.27, 3.28 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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23) What factors contribute to the fragility of the lysosome and subsequent cell autolysis? Answer: cell injury, cell oxygen deprivation, presence of excessive amounts of vitamin A in the cell Section: 3.12 Learning Outcome: 3.27 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 24) Why can we say that cells are protein factories? Answer: Most of the metabolic machinery of the cell is involved in protein synthesis since structural proteins constitute most of the dry cell material and functional proteins direct all cellular activities. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.25 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 25) What are cell exons and introns? Answer: Exons are amino acid-specifying informational sequences in genes. Introns are noncoding gene segments that provide a reservoir of ready-to-use DNA segments for genome evolution and a source of a large variety of RNA molecules. Section: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.24 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) Follow the pathway that a typical protein, destined for exocytosis will make as it passes from the ribosome, into the rough endoplasmic reticulum. In your answer, be sure to describe role that ribosomes play, and the events that take place in the Rough Endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: A new polypeptide is translated at the ribosome and is threaded into the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). Within the RER the protein is aided in folding by chaperone proteins and modifications, like the addition of carbohydrates can be made to the protein here. The protein will be placed into a vesicle that will migrate from the RER to the cis-face of the Golgi apparatus. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.9, 3.16 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating

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27) Describe the events that take place within the Golgi apparatus to a protein that is destined for secretion by the cell into the extracellular fluid. Answer: Within the Golgi apparatus, further modifications of the protein can take place, like the addition of phosphate groups. The folded and processes protein will then be "tagged" and sent by vesicle from the trans-face of the Golgi apparatus to the plasma membrane for exocytosis. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.16 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 28) Compare a gap junction to a channel protein, how are they alike and how are the different? Answer: Both allow ions and small molecules to pass through by diffusion. However, gap junctions are embedded within in the plasma membranes of two neighboring cells. The alignment and connection of the gap junctions between the neighboring cells allows the passage of ions and small molecules directly from one cell into another. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.5, 3.6 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 3.5 Clinical Questions 1) A patient was admitted to the hospital for severe dehydration. Explain what changes occur in extracellular and intracellular fluid compartments during dehydration. Answer: Fluid volume deficit occurs when the body loses both water and electrolytes from the extracellular fluid compartment. Fluid is initially lost from the intravascular compartment (blood). Then fluid is drawn from the interstitial compartment into the intravascular compartment, depleting the interstitial compartment. To compensate for the decreased volume, the body then draws intracellular fluid out of the cells. This could lead to collapse and death. Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Your patient is sitting in your office for a pre-operative appointment and asks you why he will be given a saline IV rather than one containing pure sterile water. What is your response? Answer: Saline contains solutes that make it isotonic or equivalent to the blood in his body. If he were given pure water instead, the lack of solutes would push water into the cells causing them to burst. Saline is a better choice because it mimics blood components. Section: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36 .


3) At the age of 6 months, Caleb was diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. As his primary care physician, what would you tell his parents about this disease? Answer: It is an inherited condition where various chemicals are broken down in the brain by a cell organelle called the lysosome. Unfortunately, because of the buildup of undigested nerve cell lipids, the symptoms of listlessness and motor weakness will progress to mental retardation, seizures, blindness, and ultimately death. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Your patient has a respiratory disease that has literally paralyzed the cilia. Explain why this patient would be at an increased risk for a respiratory infection. Answer: Ciliated cells that live in the respiratory tract propel mucus, laden with dust particles and bacteria, upward and away from the lungs. If the cilia are paralyzed, bacteria remain in the lungs and may cause infection. Section: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.19, 3.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Describe the difference in cell division between normal cells and cancer cells. Answer: Normal cells divide in two distinct events—mitosis and cytokinesis which are wellcontrolled. Cancer cells divide wildly, with uncontrollable mechanisms and defective mitosis, sometimes ending in unequal chromosome sets, which makes them dangerous to their host. Additionally, the cancer cells are non-functioning (useless) cells. Section: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.22 Global LO: G2, G4 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) Research shows that neurofibrillary tangles associated with the disintegration of microtubules are the primary cause of Alzheimer's disease. If microtubules disintegrate, what then might happen to brain cells? Answer: Microtubules determine cell shape and intracellular movement. They are dynamic organelles constantly growing from the centrosome, dissembling, and then reassembling. Without microtubules, the elongated brain cell might either lose shape or lose its ability to move materials from end to end and keep its distant parts well-supplied and alive. Loss of signal followed by cell death result. Section: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 4 Tissue: The Living Fabric 4.1 Matching Questions

Figure 4.1 Using Figure 4.1, match the following: 1) Supports and protects; stores calcium. Answer: D Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Forms tendons and ligaments. Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .


3) Supports and protects; insulates against heat loss; reserve source of fuel. Answer: A Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Provides tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock. Answer: C Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Composed of cells in a fluid matrix. Answer: E Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 4.2 Using Figure 4.2, match the following: 6) Simple cuboidal epithelium. Answer: B Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Cardiac muscle. Answer: C Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .


8) Simple squamous epithelium. Answer: A Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Stratified squamous epithelium. Answer: D Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Skeletal muscle. Answer: E Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Serous membrane B) Cutaneous C) Mucous D) Endothelium membrane 11) The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body. Section: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The epithelial membrane that lines body cavities open to the exterior membrane. Section: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Section: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts. Section: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Makes up the pleura and pericardium. Section: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Lines blood vessels and the heart. Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) D Match the following: A) Smooth muscle B) Skeletal muscle C) Cell adhesion molecule D) Stratified squamous epithelium 17) Attaches to extracellular matrix. Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Found in areas subjected to wear and tear. Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Pull on bones or skin causing body movements. Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Moves food through the GI tract. Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) A

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Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues: A) Virtually no functional regenerative ability B) Moderate regenerative ability C) Weak regenerative ability D) Regenerates extremely well 21) Smooth muscle. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Skeletal muscle. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Cardiac muscle. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Areolar connective tissue. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Tendons and ligaments. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) B

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4.2 True/False Questions 1) The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The role of brown fat is to warm the body; whereas, the role of white fat is to store nutrients. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Tendons and ligaments are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Macrophages are found in areolar and lymphatic tissues. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Goblet cells are found within pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Simple cuboidal epithelia are usually found in areas where secretion and absorption occur. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Epithelial cells contain both blood vessels and nerve fibers. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Elastic cartilage tissue is found in the walls of the large arteries that leave the heart. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Adipose tissue is made up of pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Merocrine glands produce their secretions by accumulating their secretions internally until the cell ruptures. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Salivary glands exhibit compound tubuloalveolar glandular arrangement. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Connective tissues that possess a large quantity of collagen fibers often provide the framework for organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The basic difference between dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues is in the amount of elastic fibers and adipose cells present. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) A major characteristic of fibrocartilage is its unique amount of flexibility and elasticity. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Cartilage tissue tends to heal less rapidly than bone tissue. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Intercalated discs and striations are both characteristics of skeletal muscle. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) A smooth muscle cell has a central nucleus but lacks striations. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Cartilage has good regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Squamous cells are flattened and scale-like when mature. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11 .


22) Healing of a surgical incision through the body wall will tend to increase the amount of areolar tissue. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Endocrine glands are often called ducted glands. Answer: FALSE Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Blood is considered a type of connective tissue. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Tissues that are prepared for light microscopy must be stained to provide contrast. Answer: TRUE Section: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT found in cartilage but is found in bone? A) living cells B) lacunae C) blood vessels D) organic fibers Answer: C Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12 .


2) The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ________. A) hydroxyapatite crystals B) collagen fibers C) reticular fibers D) elastic fibers Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? A) cartilage tissue B) fibrocartilaginous tissue C) bone (osseous tissue) D) areolar tissue Answer: C Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage? A) It is more vascularized. B) It contains more nuclei. C) Fibers are not normally visible. D) It allows great flexibility. Answer: C Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) The primary blast cell for bone is the ________. A) osteoblast B) chondroblast C) hemocytoblast D) fibroblast Answer: A Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelia? A) microvilli B) Golgi apparatus C) lysosomes D) multiple nuclei Answer: B Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which of the following is a modification of the simple columnar epithelium that allows for efficient absorption along portions of the digestive tract? A) dense microvilli B) thin and permeable C) fibroblasts D) cilia Answer: A Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells ________. A) lines most of the respiratory tract B) aids in digestion C) is more durable than all other epithelia D) is found in some of the larger glands Answer: A Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs? A) pseudostratified columnar B) simple columnar C) simple squamous D) simple cuboidal Answer: C Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which type of connective tissue serves as the universal packing material between other tissues? A) adipose B) areolar connective tissue C) reticular connective tissue D) hyaline cartilage Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7, 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Connective tissue extracellular matrix is composed of ________. A) cells and fibers B) fibers and ground substance C) ground substance and cells D) all organic compounds Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which of the following is found in hyaline cartilage? A) chondrocyte B) fibroblast C) macrophage D) mast cell Answer: A Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) A substance received or given off by your body will likely pass through which tissue type? A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) nervous tissue D) muscle tissue Answer: A Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. A) elastic B) collagen C) reticular D) muscle Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16 .


15) When utilizing a transmission electron microscope, why is it necessary to stain the specimen with heavy metal salts? A) The salts provide color to the specimen so that it can be seen. B) The salts provide greater detailing of tissue as electrons bounce off of the tissue. C) The salts are acidic and attract to the specimen. D) The salts provide the three-dimensional image of the specimen. Answer: B Section: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________. A) adipose tissue B) elastic cartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) fibrocartilage Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue? A) simple squamous B) transitional C) simple columnar D) stratified squamous Answer: C Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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18) Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. A) exocrine B) endocrine C) sebaceous D) ceruminous Answer: B Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following is TRUE about epithelia? A) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion. B) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration. C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs. D) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized. Answer: C Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Chondroblasts ________. A) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae B) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix C) remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes D) never lose their ability to divide Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) ________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. A) Stratified cuboidal B) Stratified columnar C) Transitional D) Pseudostratified columnar Answer: D Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________. A) simple cuboidal B) simple squamous C) transitional D) stratified squamous Answer: D Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) Edema (swelling) occurs when ________. A) areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area B) adipose cells enlarge by pinocytosis C) collagen fibers enlarge as they change from dehydrated to hydrated shape D) reticular connective tissue invades the area Answer: A Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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24) Which of the following is TRUE about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands? A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process. B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion. C) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves. D) These glands are ductless. Answer: A Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Heart muscle cells would tend to separate without ________. A) myofilaments B) intercalated discs C) flana D) stroma Answer: B Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Blood vessels keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ is intact and healthy. A) endothelium B) mesothelium C) transitional epithelium D) simple cuboidal epithelium Answer: A Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which is TRUE concerning muscle tissue? A) highly cellular and well vascularized B) cuboidal shape enhances function C) contains contractile units made of collagen D) is a single-celled tissue Answer: A Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20 .


28) The first step in tissue repair involves ________. A) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells B) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue C) inflammation D) formation of scar tissue Answer: C Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) What are the three main components of connective tissue? A) ground substance, fibers, and cells B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts Answer: A Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following statements is TRUE of connective tissue? A) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers. B) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back. C) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength. D) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures. Answer: C Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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31) Select the correct statement regarding the stem cells of connective tissue. A) Connective tissue does not contain cells. B) Connective tissue cells are nondividing. C) Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper. D) "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells. Answer: D Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair. A) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection. B) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable. C) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot. D) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers. Answer: B Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Select the correct statement regarding epithelia. A) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers. B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells. C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important. D) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another. Answer: C Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue. A) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix. B) Its primary function is nutrient storage. C) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic. D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus. Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22 .


35) Which cells are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells? A) goblet cells B) mast cells C) macrophages D) fibroblasts Answer: A Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which of the following is NOT a step in tissue repair? A) inflammation B) restoration of blood supply C) regeneration and fibrosis D) formation of new stem cells Answer: D Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue. A) areolar B) dense regular C) embryonic D) reticular Answer: C Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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38) Which tissue type would likely function to hold the kidneys in place? A) adipose B) dense regular C) smooth muscle D) reticular Answer: A Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39) Which tissue type is formed by many cells joining together, which are multinucleated? A) cardiac muscle B) dense regular C) smooth muscle D) skeletal muscle Answer: D Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) Choose which tissue type likely functions to add support to an organ. A) cardiac muscle B) hyaline cartilage C) transitional D) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: B Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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41) Your instructor gives you an unknown organ for you to examine and identify through microscopy. What should you do first with the sample? A) fix it with preservative B) cut it into sections C) stain it to enhance contrast D) examine it for artifacts Answer: A Section: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 42) Choose which tissue would line the uterine (fallopian) tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus. A) stratified squamous epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) smooth muscle D) ciliated simple columnar epithelium Answer: D Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 43) Skin, lung, and blood vessel walls have which tissue characteristic in common? A) reticular fibers B) simple squamous epithelium C) elastic fibers D) simple columnar epithelium Answer: C Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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44) Generally speaking, connective tissues are largely non-living extracellular matrix. Which of the following is an EXCEPTION? A) adipose B) blood C) bone D) areolar Answer: A Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 45) The salivary glands are a good example of a ________ exocrine gland. A) compound tubular B) compound tubuloalveolar C) simple branched alveolar D) compound alveolar Answer: B Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 46) Which tissue in the wall of the uterus is required for labor contractions? A) stratified squamous B) elastic cartilage C) smooth muscle D) skeletal muscle Answer: C Section: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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47) Your instructor wants you to observe the three-dimensional surface of microvilli in the intestinal tract. Which type of microscopy would you use to obtain three-dimensional pictures of the unsectioned tissue surface? A) light microscopy B) transmission electron microscopy C) scanning electron microscopy D) both transmission and scanning electron microscopy Answer: C Section: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 48) Which tissue is made up of highly specialized cells that generate and conduct nerve impulses? A) nervous tissue B) connective tissue C) smooth muscle D) simple squamous epithelium Answer: A Section: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which of the following is NOT a component of the nervous system? A) brain B) spinal cord C) neurons D) goblet cells Answer: D Section: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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50) Where would you find the peritoneum? A) lining the thoracic cavity B) covering the lungs C) enclosing the heart D) enclosing the abdominopelvic viscera Answer: D Section: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4.4 Short Answer Questions 1) What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands? Answer: Exocrine glands have ducts and secrete their products onto body surfaces such as the skin or into body cavities. Examples include the liver, the pancreas, mucouse, sweat, oil, and salivary glands. Endocrine glands do not have ducts, produce hormones, and secrete them directly into the extracellular space. The hormones then enter the blood or lymphatic fluid and travel to specific target organs. Examples include the pineal gland, the pituitary gland, the testes, the ovaries, and the adrenal glands. Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Macrophage-like cells are found in many different tissues, and may have specific names that reflect their location or specializations. What is the one functional characteristic common to all macrophage-like cells? Answer: phagocytosis Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) All of the following statements refer to events of tissue repair. Put the events in proper numbered order according to the sequence of occurrence. The initial event, the injury, is already indicated as number one. 1. The skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and bleeding begins. 2. Epithelial regeneration is nearly complete. 3. Granulation tissue is formed. 4. Blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow. 5. The wound retracts. 6. Macrophages engulf and clean away cellular debris. 7. Fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break. Answer: 1, 4, 3, 7, 6, 5, 2 Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Since mature adipocytes rarely divide, how can adults gain weight? Answer: Adipocytes contain a fat-filled vacuole that can fill or empty, causing the cell to gain or lose volume. Mature adipocytes are among the largest cells in the body. Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Tendon tears or breaks are difficult to repair both physiologically and surgically. Why? Answer: Tendons are composed of dense regular connective tissue, which consists of densely packed, parallel connective tissue fibers. This type of tissue has relatively few cells and vascular supply is poor; consequently, repair is slow. Because of the structure of the tissue, surgical repair can be compared to attempting to suture two bristle brushes together. The broken ends of existing collage fibers will not reunite and can still slip past each other. Furthermore, any scar that forms has an irregular pattern with less one-way strength than parallel fibers. Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) How is epithelial tissue the opposite of connective tissue? Answer: Epithelial versus connective distinctions include: tight cell packing versus wide cell spacing, avascular versus vascular (except cartilage), polar versus nonpolar orientation, no matrix versus matrix (with important fibers), limited versus numerous cell types, and surface versus subsurface purposes. Section: 4.2, 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2, 4.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) How can one tell the difference between stratified squamous epithelium and transitional epithelium? Answer: The most reliable distinctions are two. Compared to stratified squamous epithelium, transitional epithelium has fewer layers (6 or less) and has more rounded surface cells when it is bunched up with more apparent layers and more likely to be mistaken for stratified squamous. Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) How is blood unique among connective tissues? Answer: Blood does not give mechanical support, its matrix is fluid, the cells are loose, the fibers are soluble, it carries nutrients, waste products, and other substances, and it attaches to several gases. Section: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) In terms of structure and function, compare the type of epithelium lining the trachea, air sacs of the lungs, and the epidermis of the skin. Answer: The trachea is lined with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells. The mucus produced by the goblet cells traps dust, bacteria, and other debris and the cilia move it upwards away from the lungs. The air sacs of the lungs are lined with simple squamous epithelium that serves as a thin, efficient membrane for gas exchange between air and blood. The epidermis of the skin consists of stratified squamous epithelium which functions as physical protection against abrasion, bacteria, and drying out. Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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10) Explain how the stains used in light microscopy provide contrast between structures and the background. Answer: The stains are beautifully colored synthetic dyes consisting of negatively charged molecules (acidic stains) or positively charged molecules (basic stains). The stains bind within the tissue to macromolecules of the opposite charge. Different parts of cells and tissues take up different dyes, distinguishing different anatomical structures. Section: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global LO: G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4.5 Clinical Questions 1) A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for surgical removal of a tumor on her thyroid gland. The surgeon informs her that she will have only a very thin scar. How could this be possible? Answer: By making a sharp incision which minimizes the number of injured cells and wound defects once reapproximated, the amount of granulation (scar-forming) tissue will be minimal. As the scar tissue beneath matures and contracts, very little new epithelium needs to bridge the gap. The final result may be only a fine white line. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) John, a 72-year-old grandfather, had been smoking heavily for 24 years and had a persistent cough. A biopsy of his lung tissue revealed considerable amounts of carbon particles. How could this happen considering the natural cleaning mechanism of the respiratory system? Answer: The sweeping action of the ciliated epithelium is essential in order to propel inhaled dust and other debris out of the respiratory tract. Anything that inhibits this mechanism would allow foreign substances to remain in the tract, which may cause damage. Chemicals such as nicotine may inhibit the action of the cilia, allowing carbon particles found in smoke to reach the lungs. Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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3) Aunt Jessie woke up one morning with excruciating pain in her chest. She had trouble breathing for several weeks. Following a visit to the doctor, she was told she had pleurisy. What is this condition and what did it affect? Answer: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura, the serosal membranes covering the lungs and lining the thoracic wall. Pain is caused by the irritation and friction as the lungs rub against the walls of the cavity. Section: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) In adult humans, most cancers are carcinomas or adenocarcinomas. These include cancers of the skin, lung, colon, breast, and prostate. Which of the four basic tissue types is involved? Why do you think this is so? Answer: Epithelium gives rise to most cancers. This is probably because epithelial cells divide more, leading to more opportunity for damage to growth control mechanisms, and because epithelia are more often in contact with environmental insults such as ultraviolet radiation and carcinogens. Section: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Explain why an open wound would need a bed of granulation tissue for wound healing to occur. Answer: Epithelium cannot grow across a defect without a blood supply from underlying connective tissue. Granulation tissue contains capillaries that grow in from nearby areas and first lay down the needed capillary bed. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Without macrophages, wound healing is delayed. Why? Answer: Macrophages are large, irregularly shaped cells that act as key defenders that avidly phagocytize a broad variety of foreign materials, ranging from foreign molecules to entire bacteria to dust particles. This "big eater" also disposes of dead tissue cells, which helps to clean out the wound, allowing for granulation tissue to form. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 32 .


7) A 62-year-old woman was in a car accident and suffered severe brain damage. Will the brain be able to repair the damaged tissue to a functional level? Explain your answer. Answer: Cardiac muscle and tissues in the brain and spinal cord have virtually no functional regenerative capacity. In most cases, this tissue would be replaced by scar tissue and would remain nonfunctional. While new research is showing that unexpected cell division can sometimes occur in tissues, the chances of this occurring in the brain are very small. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Explain why an infection may occur in a tissue injury. Answer: The skin is the largest organ in the body and protects underlying tissues from injury by preventing the passage of microorganisms. The skin and the mucous membranes are considered the body's first line of defense. Section: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 5 The Integumentary System 5.1 Matching Questions

Figure 5.1 Using Figure 5.1, match the following: 1) Site of the dermal ridges that produce epidermal ridges on the epidermal surfaces of the fingers. Answer: E Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .


2) Responsible for shock absorption and located in the hypodermis. Answer: B Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Pulls the hair follicle into an upright position. Answer: A Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Sudoriferous gland. Answer: C Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Dense irregularly arranged, fibrous connective tissue. Answer: D Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Region that thickens markedly when one gains weight. Answer: B Section: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Where capillary loops are found. Answer: E Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Dendritic cells B) Melanocyte C) Keratin D) Merkel cells E) Keratinocytes 8) The most abundant cells of the epidermis. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Spider-shaped epithelial cells that synthesize the pigment melanin. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Cells plus a disc-like sensory nerve ending that functions as a sensory receptor for touch. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Skin macrophages that help activate the immune system. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The fibrous protein that helps give the epidermis its protective properties. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 8) E 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) C

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Match the following: A) Stratum basale B) Stratum granulosum C) Stratum spinosum D) Stratum corneum 13) The layer of the epidermis where the cells are considered protective but nonviable. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The layer of the epidermis that is several layers thick and contains pre-keratin. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The layer that contains the mitotic viable cells of the epidermis. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The layer of the epidermis that contains one to five layers of flattened cells and deteriorating organelles. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) B

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Match the following: A) Cyanosis B) Ecchymoses C) Jaundice D) Erythema E) Pallor 17) May indicate embarrassment, fever, hypertension, inflammation, anger, or allergy. Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) May indicate fear, anemia, or low blood pressure. Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Usually indicates a liver disorder. Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Bruises or hematomas that occur when blood vessels are damaged. Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) A bluish color in light-skinned individuals. Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 17) D 18) E 19) C 20) B 21) A

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Figure 5.2 Using Figure 5.2, match the following: 22) Hypodermis. Answer: D Section: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Epidermis. Answer: A Section: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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24) Reticular layer of the dermis. Answer: C Section: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Papillary layer of the dermis. Answer: B Section: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Hyponychium B) Nail Matrix C) Nail D) Eponychium E) Lunule 26) The thickened proximal portion of the nail bed that is responsible for growth. Section: 5.6 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The thickened region beneath the free edge of the nail where dirt and debris tend to accumulate. Section: 5.6 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The proximal nail fold that makes up the cuticle. Section: 5.6 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Clear protective covering on the dorsal surface of the sital part of a finger or a toe. Section: 5.6 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The region that lies over the thick nail matrix and appears as a white crescent. Section: 5.6 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 26) B 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) E

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5.2 True/False Questions 1) The eccrine sweat glands are not the primary gland involved in thermoregulation. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The protein found in large amounts in the superficial layer of epidermal cells is keratin. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Joe just burned himself on a hot pot, and the burn is quite painful. Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.6 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) During the regressive phase of hair growth, the matrix is inactive and the follicle atrophies. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The skin cancer most likely to metastasize is cancer of the melanocytes. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) The dermis contains blood vessels and nerve fibers while the epidermis does not. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) For a doctor, simply looking at a patient's skin can help towards making a diagnosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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11) When an individual is exposed to extremely cold air the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that more blood will be brought closer to the outside surface of the skin. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number of melanocytes. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Cells in the stratum corneum undergo mitosis to keep the layer thick and protective. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) The pinkish hue of individuals with fair skin is the result of the crimson color of oxygenated hemoglobin (contained in red blood cells) circulating in the dermal capillaries and reflecting through the epidermis. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) When a patient is said to have "third-degree burns," this indicates that the patient has burns that cover approximately one-third or more of the body. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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16) Thick skin has a more extensive dermal layer than thin skin. Answer: FALSE Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) The action of the arrector pili muscle is very similar in humans as it is in other mammals but its beneficial functions differ. Answer: TRUE Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS3, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer. A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant. B) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum. C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant. D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing. Answer: D Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale Answer: D Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) medulla B) cortex C) external root sheath D) cuticle Answer: C Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________. A) race B) genetics C) use of farm chemicals D) overexposure to UV radiation Answer: D Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured? A) granulosum B) basale C) lucidum D) spinosum Answer: B Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch? A) Pacinian corpuscle B) tactile cells C) Ruffini body D) free nerve ending Answer: B Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does? A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts. B) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair. C) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair. D) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin. Answer: A Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The function of the root hair plexus is to ________. A) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed B) bind the hair root to the dermis C) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation Answer: D Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the following glands secrete sebum, an oily like substance? A) merocrine glands B) apocrine glands C) sebaceous glands D) eccrine glands Answer: C Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15 .


10) The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________. A) it is located just below the epidermis and protects the dermis from shock B) it has no delicate nerve endings and can therefore absorb more shock C) the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber D) the cells that make up the hypodermis secrete a protective mucus Answer: C Section: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Which type of skin cancer is the most dangerous because it is highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy? A) melanoma B) squamous cell carcinoma C) basal cell carcinoma D) adenoma Answer: A Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which of the following cells and their function are correctly matched? A) keratinocytes—provide sense of touch and pressure B) melanocytes—protects cells in the stratum corneum from damaging effects of sun's rays C) dendritic cells—activate the immune system D) tactile cells—protection Answer: C Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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13) Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________. A) provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis B) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer C) maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules D) maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature Answer: B Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? A) stratum corneum B) stratum granulosum C) stratum basale D) stratum lucidum Answer: C Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin? A) Glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces. B) The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments. C) The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it. D) Fat associated with skin prevents water loss. Answer: A Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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16) The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis? A) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes B) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells Answer: C Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? A) the reticular layer B) the subcutaneous layer C) the hypodermal layer D) the papillary layer Answer: A Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn? A) There is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles. B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis. C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent "black-and-blue marks." D) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear. Answer: B Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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19) The papillary layer of the dermis is composed of loosely packed connective tissue with numerous peg-like projections that provide a great deal of surface area connecting the dermis to the epidermis. Which of the statements below do NOT represent benefits provided by the papillary layer's anatomy? A) The looseness allows for phagocytes to roam through the tissue and search for infection. B) The spaces in the connective tissue allow many small blood vessels to deliver nutrients and pick up waste diffusing from the superficial epidermal layers. C) The looseness allows for easy separation of the dead cell layer of epidermis to be shed. D) The high surface area allows for a stronger connection of dermis to epidermis. Answer: C Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) The friction ridges seen in finger, palm and foot prints are different among various people but very similar between identical twins. This evidence suggests which of the following? A) That friction ridges allow for better tactile sensation. B) That friction ridges are genetically determined. C) That friction ridges aid in griping. D) That friction ridges change over time. Answer: B Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS10 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 21) Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage? A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color. B) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight. C) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system. D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen. Answer: D Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following would indicate a liver disease such as hepatitis resulting in elevated bilirubin? A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance. B) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause. C) The skin and sclera of the eyes appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint. D) The skin would be a deep shade of red, especially on the face and hands. Answer: C Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) A dendritic or Langerhans cell is a specialized ________. A) squamous epithelial cell B) phagocytic cell C) nerve cell D) melanocyte Answer: B Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) What are the most important factors influencing hair growth? A) sex and hormones B) age and glandular products C) the size and number of hair follicles D) nutrition and hormones Answer: D Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands? A) sebaceous and merocrine B) mammary and ceruminous C) eccrine and apocrine D) holocrine and mammary Answer: C Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________. A) primarily uric acid B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins D) metabolic wastes Answer: B Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body? A) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis B) beneath the flexure lines in the body C) in the axillary and anogenital area D) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet Answer: C Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________. A) by high temperatures B) when the air temperature drops C) by hormones, especially androgens D) as a protective coating when one is swimming Answer: C Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin? A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism. B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body. C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy. D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases. Answer: A Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss? A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist C) through blood analysis D) by using the "rule of nines" Answer: D Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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31) Which layer of tissue is damaged in a first-degree burn? A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) both the epidermis and dermis Answer: A Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 32) Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________. A) they grow much slower B) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months C) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle D) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length Answer: B Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Cells of the stratum spinosum have many interlocking desmosomes that will remain between the cells as they migrate to the stratum corneum. These cell junctions serve the body by ________. A) stopping water loss and preventing dehydration B) preventing ultraviolet light from penetrating the deeper layers of the epidermis C) allowing secretions like sweat or sebum to pass through D) preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis Answer: D Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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34) Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback? A) thickening of epidermis to form a callus in places where the skin is exposed to friction B) changes in the response of the hair follicle to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) C) formation of cerumen wax to deter insects from entering the ear D) production of vitamin D initiated by the suns UV light striking the skin Answer: A Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 35) Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback? A) the near waterproof secretions of glycolipids that is released by cells in the stratum granulosum B) the secretion of antibacterial compounds in sebum C) release of chemical signals by keratinocytes that have been damaged by UV light that will increase the production of melanin D) removal of nitrogenous compounds like urea within the sweat Answer: C Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback? A) an increase in sebum production in response to androgens (male sex hormones) B) release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat C) excretion of salts within the sweat D) lack of pain in third-degree burns due to damage to sensory nerves in the dermis Answer: B Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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37) Which layer of skin is LEAST protected by melanin? A) stratum corneum B) stratum spinosum C) stratum basale D) stratum granulosum Answer: A Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 38) Which layer of the epidermis will be supplied with the highest levels of oxygen from the blood? A) stratum corneum B) stratum spinosum C) stratum basale D) stratum granulosum Answer: C Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39) A patient has skin that is slightly blue in color. A likely treatment for this person might be ________. A) increasing fluids through IV therapy B) giving the patient supplemental oxygen by mask C) encouraging the patient to eat more orange colored vegetables (rich in beta carotene) D) exposing the patient to more sunlight Answer: B Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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40) The arrector pili muscle's predominate, useful function in humans is to ________. A) provide warmth by making the hair stand on end B) stimulate faster hair growth C) assist in the release sebum from nearby sebaceous glands D) prevent germs from entering the hair shaft Answer: C Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 41) Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the skin? A) Delivers important information about our environmental conditions to our brains. B) Conducts endergonic metabolic chemical reactions using the suns energy to initiate vitamin D synthesis. C) Holds a portion of the bloods total volume to be shunted (diverted) to other organs when needed. D) Gives the body its overall shape, loss of this function can be seen with the drooping of skin with age. Answer: D Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 42) All of the following will help the skin to fight infection but one. Which of the following will have little effect on the skin's ability to fight infection? A) greater production of melanin B) increased secretions of defensins from skin cells C) greater production of keratinocytes resulting in more layers of the stratum corneum D) more tight junctions between keratinocytes of the stratum corneum Answer: A Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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43) A light skinned person who is very cold may have a pale appearance. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this might be so? A) The person's blood vessels in the dermis have undergone vasoconstriction (narrowing). B) The person is in fear of hypothermia (sever cold exposure). C) The cold has slowed the movement of blood. D) The person's blood vessels in the epidermis have undergone vasodilation (widening). Answer: A Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 44) A surgeon opens her patient by cutting the integument parallel to the cleavage lines of the dermis (tension lines). This will result in ________. A) less chance for infection B) faster healing of the skin and less scaring C) greater chance of infection D) slowed healing and greater scaring Answer: B Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 45) A light-skinned person may appear pink when they become over heated. The best explanation for this is ________. A) the heart is pumping faster because the person was probably exercising B) blood flow has increased to the sweat glands in order to increase their metabolic activity C) the melanocytes are responding to the heat of the sun and change the appearance of the skin with increased production D) the blood vessels of the dermis have undergone vasodilation, bringing a greater volume of blood to the skin Answer: D Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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46) William has a cut that is superficial, painful but not bleeding. Based on this information, you would predict that the cut has penetrated to ________. A) the subcutaneous layer, but no deeper B) the stratum corneum but not the stratum granulosum C) the papillary layer but not the reticular layer D) the stratum basale but not the dermal layers Answer: D Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 47) The surge of sex hormones that accompanies puberty has a wide range of effects on the body. One of those effects is to enhance the activity of the sebaceous glands, increasing the production of sebum. Which of the following is the most likely to result from the increased sebaceous activity? A) increased cooling of the skin B) increased oily appearance and more acne C) increased hair growth D) decreased vitamin D synthesis Answer: B Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Cradle cap in infants is called ________. Answer: seborrhea Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The white crescent portion of the nail is called the ________. Answer: lunula Section: 5.6 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) The dermal folds that occur at or near joints where the dermis is tightly secured to deeper structures are called ________. Answer: flexure lines Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The ________ are the small muscles located in the dermis that cause goose bumps. Answer: arrector pili Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.7 Global LO: G3 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Tanning or darkening of the skin occurs as a defensive response to ________. Answer: UV radiation Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The coarse hair of the eyebrows and scalp is called ________ hair. Answer: terminal Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Burns that result in injury to the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis is called a ________ burn. Answer: second-degree Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Pigment-producing cells in the epidermis are ________. Answer: melanocytes Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The only place you will find stratum ________ is in the skin that covers the palms, fingertips, and soles of the feet. Answer: lucidum Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) List the layers of the dermis and describe the functions of the tissue that makes up each layer. Answer: The papillary layer is composed of areolar connective tissue that allows phagocytes and other defensive cells to serve as a second line of defense against microbial invasion. The reticular layer is composed of dense irregular connective tissue that gives the skin strength and resiliency, maintains hydration, and provides elasticity to the skin. Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) There are several reasons other than genetics for hair loss. Identify some of these other factors. Answer: Stressors such as acutely high fever, surgery, severe emotional trauma; drugs such as antidepressants and chemotherapy drugs; burns and radiation; lack of adequate nutrition due to poor skin circulation; and a protein-deficient diet can cause hair loss or thinning in our 4th decade of life and beyond. Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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12) In addition to the synthesis of vitamin D, keratinocytes are able to carry out some other biologically important functions. Name at least two of these other functions. Answer: Keratinocyte enzymes can neutralize carcinogens that penetrate the epidermis. Keratinocytes are also able to convert topical cortisone to a more active anti-inflammatory form. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) How are burns commonly classified? Give an example. Answer: Burns are classified according to their severity or depth. For example, in first-degree burns, only the epidermis is damaged; in second-degree burns, the epidermis and upper dermis are damaged; in third-degree burns, there is widespread damage of epidermis and dermis. Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) What is vellus hair? Answer: Vellus hair is pale, fine body hair associated with newborn children, women, and "peach fuzz" on all people. Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Balding men have tried all kinds of remedies, including hair transplants, to restore their lost locks. Explain the cause of male pattern baldness. Answer: It appears to be genetically determined and sex-linked, and is possibly caused by a delayed-action gene that responds to DHT and alters normal metabolism. Section: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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16) The skin protects, but how does it protect us and from what? Describe how the epidermal dendritic cells and melanocytes protect us. Describe what these cells protect us from. Answer: The epidermal dendritic cells act as antigen-presenting cells (APC): They present part of the pathogens (fragments of pathogens called epitopes) to other immune system cells to trigger an immune response to an infection. The melanocytes produce melanin in response to exposure to cell damaging, ultraviolet light. UV light is converted to heat when it strikes melanin pigment. Unlike UV light, heat will not damage the cells, particularly the DNA within the nucleus of the skin's cells. Section: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) Billions of consumer dollars are spent for deodorants and antiperspirants each year. Explain the production of body odors frequently associated with axillary skin. Answer: Sweat is mostly an odorless watery secretion produced by eccrine and apocrine glands. The odor usually arises when bacteria break down lipids and proteins in the surface secretions. Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18) What complications might be anticipated from the loss of large areas of skin surfaces? Answer: Large losses of skin, as with severe burn injuries, allow excessive fluid loss and infection. Skin grafting or "synthetic skin" applications are usually necessary. Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) Why are the apocrine sweat glands fairly unimportant in thermal regulation? Answer: They are largely confined to the axillary and anogenital regions rather than distributed on the body where heat can be more readily dissipated. Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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20) Why is profuse sweating on a hot day good, and yet a potential problem? Answer: Good because the sweat and evaporating of the sweat causes cooling of the body. Bad because excessive water and salt loss may occur. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances may follow. Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 21) What is the function of skin dermal folds and deep skin creases? Answer: Skin dermal folds and deep skin creases accommodate for joint movement. Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5.5 Clinical Questions 1) We are told that every surface we touch is teeming with bacteria, and bacteria are found in the pools we swim in, the water we wash with, and on the hands of friends. Why are we not inundated with bacterial infections on our skin? Answer: The low pH of the skin secretions, otherwise known as the acid mantle, retards the multiplication of bacteria on the skin. Also, in areas where sufficient sebum is produced regularly, many species of bacteria cannot exist. Beside the barrier qualities of the skin, it is also true that not all bacteria are harmful or thrive on skin. Skin is dry imparing bacteria to grow; Sweat contains high salt (NaCl) along with antimicrobial agents such as defensins and antibody: IgA. Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) The temperature yesterday was an uncomfortable 98°F. You unwisely chose to play tennis at noon, counting on your body's internal defenses to protect you against heat exhaustion. How did your body respond to this distress? Answer: The thermoreceptors sense the temperature change, and neural stimulation responds by stimulating sweat glands. Their watery products evaporated at the skin surface and cooled the body. Blood vessels in the dermis also responded by dilating and releasing heat closer to the surface of the skin to allow greater heat dissipation. Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 33 .


3) Mary noticed a large, brown spot on her skin. She has been playing tennis in the sun for several years without sun protection. She reported the discovery to a friend, who told her to apply the ABCD rule to determine whether or not she had malignant melanoma. Her friend told her that if her answer was "no" to the questions that were asked by the ABCD rule, she had nothing to worry about. What is the ABCD rule and should she ignore the spot if her answers are negative? Answer: The ABCD rule refers to the following: asymmetry—where the two sides of the spot do not match; border irregularity—the borders are not round and smooth; color—the pigmented spot contains shades of black, brown, tan, and sometimes blues and reds; and diameter—the spot is larger than 6 mm in diameter. It is imperative that Mary have a physician examine the spot immediately. Any unusual lesion on the skin of a sun worshipper should be examined and the ABCD rule does not account for all possible factors, such as rapid growth, even if less than 6 mm. The fact that she has been exposed to the sun without protection itself would be a strong recommendation for her to see a dermatologist regardless of passing the ABCD rule. Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) The Waldorf family was caught in a fire but escaped. Unfortunately, the father and daughter suffered burns. The father had second-degree burns on his entire chest, abdomen, and both arms, and third-degree burns on his entire left lower extremity. The daughter suffered first-degree burns on her whole head and neck and second-degree burns throughout both lower extremities. a. What percentage of the father's body was covered by burns? b. What percentage of the daughter's body received first-degree burns? c. What part of the daughter's body has both the dermis and epidermis involved? d. The father experiences a good deal of pain in the area of the chest and abdomen, but little pain in the leg. Why? Answer: a. 45% (18% anterior torso + 9% both arms but not forearms + 18% lower extremity) b. 9% c. 36% d. Normally, third-degree burns sear nerve endings off. When the tissue regenerates, pain will return. Second-degree burns are usually very painful because of the irritated but live nerve endings. Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) John, a younger teenager, notices that he is experiencing a lot of pimples and blackheads, which frequently become infected. What is causing this problem? Answer: Because of hormonal changes, teenagers frequently have overactive sebaceous (oil) glands, which can clog and become infected or inflamed. Scratching, squeezing, or irritating the tissue can lead to infection. Section: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Janet, a 28-year-old lawyer, bought a brand new pair of shoes for her first court appearance. After wearing them for the first time, she noticed pain on her heel and a fluid-filled lesion. Explain what has happened. Answer: A blister, a fluid-filled pocket that separates the epidermal and dermal layers, has formed due to her new shoes rubbing her heel. The repeated friction of the shoe rubbing her skin created the blister. Section: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Melanoma is a form of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes. Melanoma is most common in Caucasians between 40 and 70 years of age. Explain why Caucasians would have a greater incidence of melanoma. Answer: Melanoma has its beginnings in melanocytes, the skin pigment cells. These cells produce the dark protective pigment called melanin to protect against sun damage to DNA. Since the melanocytes in Caucasian people do not make as much melanin per cell as darker-skinned individuals, their melanocytes are more easily sun-damaged, resulting in damaged DNA cells that are more apt to lose genetic control of their own cell division. Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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8) The 68-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital medical floor with a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis. His wife asks the nurse why his skin looks blue. How would you explain cyanosis to the patient and his wife? Answer: Cyanosis is a dusky bluish or grayish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes that occurs with reduced oxygen levels. Without enough oxygen getting to the tissues the skin in Caucasians appears blue due to the color combination of dark maroon blood seen through the yellowish tint of skin. At close inspection of the conjunctiva and palms and soles may also show evidence of cyanosis. Section: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Explain why soap that has an alkaline base may not be healthy for some patients to use daily. Answer: The skin's acid mantle retards growth of bacteria. Soap may destroy the acid mantle of the skin, causing it to lose its protective mechanism. Some soaps contain antibacterial agents, which can change the natural flora of the skin. Section: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Robert, a surfer, has a mole that has changed its shape and size. His doctor, applying the ABCDE rule, diagnosed a melanoma. What do the letters ABCDE represent? Answer: A = asymmetry B = border irregularity C = color D = diameter E = elevation Section: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 6 Bones and Skeletal Tissues 6.1 Matching Questions

Figure 6.1 Using Figure 6.1, match the following bone types with the numbered structure: 1) Bone 1. Answer: Flat Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .


2) Bone 2. Answer: Long Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Bone 3. Answer: Flat Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Bone 4. Answer: Irregular Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Bone 5. Answer: Long Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Bone 6. Answer: Short Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Bone 7. Answer: Short Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Figure 6.2 Using Figure 6.2, match the following: 8) Compact bone. Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Location of the epiphyseal line. Answer: B Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Area where yellow marrow is found. Answer: D Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Epiphysis of the bone. Answer: A Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Osteomalacia B) Paget's disease C) Osteoporosis 12) Bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal. Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. Deforms on weight bearing. Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption. Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 12) C 13) A 14) B

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Match the following: A) Spiral B) Greenstick C) Comminuted 15) An incomplete fracture or cracking of the bone without actual separation of the parts. Common in children. Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Bone fragments into many pieces. Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Common sports fracture resulting from a twisting force. Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 15) B 16) C 17) A

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Match the following: A) Extracellular matrix B) Elastic cartilage C) Hyaline cartilage D) Fibrocartilage E) Chondrocytes 18) Cartilage producing cells. Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Jelly-like ground substance and fibers found. Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The most abundant skeletal cartilage. Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Contain stretchy elastic fibers and can withstand repeated bending. Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Has parallel rows of chondrocytes alternating with thick collagen fibers. Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) E 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) D

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Match the following: A) Epiphyseal line B) Chondrocytes C) Appositional growth D) Intramembranous ossification E) Epiphyseal plate 23) The cells responsible for the early stages of endochondral ossification. Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The growth pattern of bone in which matrix is laid down on the surface. Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Bone develops from a fibrous membrane. Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth. Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Area where bone longitudinal growth takes place. Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) A 27) E

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Match the following: A) Spine B) Foramen C) Ramus D) Facet E) Trochanter 28) Sharp, slender, often pointed projection. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Round or oval opening through a bone. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Smooth, nearly flat articular surface. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Armlike bar of bone. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) E

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6.2 True/False Questions 1) Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.2 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Short, irregular, and flat bones all consist of thin plates of spongy bone covered by compact bone. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Short, irregular, and flat bones have medullary cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) In newborn infants, the medullary cavity and all areas of spongy bone contain red bone marrow. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones without mineralization. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) All bones stop growing by the end of adolescence. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The hormone that is primarily involved in the control of bone remodeling is calcitonin. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The functions of bone include support of the body, protection of organs, and anchorage of skeletal muscles. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.2 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Remodeling replaces 30 - 40% of our skeleton each year. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) A complete nondisplaced closed (simple) fracture is one where the bone is broken through, but the bone ends retain their normal position and did not break penetrate the skin. Answer: TRUE Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) All elderly individuals lose bone mass due to osteoporosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses? A) spongy bone B) irregular bone C) compact bone D) trabecular bone Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________. A) fat B) blood-forming cells C) elastic tissue D) perforating fibers Answer: A Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. A) osteocyte B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) chondrocyte Answer: B Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? A) elastic connective tissue B) dense fibrous connective tissue C) fibrocartilage D) hyaline cartilage Answer: D Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause? A) inadequate calcification of bone B) decreased osteoclast activity C) decreased epiphyseal plate activity D) increased osteoclast activity Answer: C Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. A) epiphysis B) metaphysis C) diaphysis D) articular cartilage Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The term diploë refers to the ________. A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone B) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones D) two types of marrow found within most bones Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15 .


8) Which of the following is a bone marking described as a round or oval opening through a bone? A) meatus B) ramus C) foramen D) fossa E) epicondyle Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older women? A) poor posture B) estrogen deficiency due to menopause C) heritage such as African or Mediterranean D) abnormal PTH receptors Answer: B Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Ossification of the ends of long bones ________. A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation B) involves medullary cavity formation C) is produced by secondary ossification centers D) takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification Answer: C Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood? A) lacuna B) osteon C) epiphyseal plate D) epiphyseal line Answer: C Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood? A) parathyroid hormone B) calcium C) growth hormone D) thyroid hormone Answer: C Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? A) support B) storage of minerals C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) D) communication Answer: D Section: 6.2 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) Which of the following bones are NOT a part of the appendicular skeleton? A) shoulder B) hip C) skull D) upper limb Answer: C Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________. A) cartilage and compact bone B) dense irregular connective tissue C) osteogenic cells D) chondrocytes and osteocytes Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by ________. A) Volkmann's canals B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage C) perforating fibers D) the struts of bone known as spicules Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________. A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae B) adipose tissue and nerve fibers C) yellow marrow and spicules D) blood vessels and nerve fibers Answer: D Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The resilience of bone is thought to come from which of the following? A) amount of mineral salts in the bone B) presence of osteoblasts in the bone C) sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules D) amount of mineral salt and protein in the bone Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? A) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. B) Ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane. C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. D) A medullary cavity forms. Answer: B Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20) The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________. A) closing of the epiphyseal plate B) epiphyseal plate closure C) appositional growth D) concentric growth Answer: C Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? A) osteoclast B) osteocyte C) osteoblast D) stem cell Answer: A Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? A) calcitonin B) thyroxine C) parathyroid hormone D) estrogen Answer: C Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23) Which bone would likely take the longest to heal? A) thigh bone of a young individual B) finger bone of an elderly individual C) finger bone of a young individual D) thigh bone of an elderly individual Answer: D Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 24) Wolff's law is concerned with ________. A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it C) the function of bone being dependent on shape D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts Answer: B Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Cranial bones develop ________. A) from cartilage models B) within fibrous membranes C) from a tendon D) within osseous membranes Answer: B Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) In humans, the effect of the hormone calcitonin is to ________. A) increase blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts B) temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses C) decrease mitosis of chondrocytes at the epiphyseal plate D) increase blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoblasts Answer: B Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21 .


27) At what age do bones reach their peak density? A) at birth B) early childhood C) early adulthood D) late adulthood Answer: C Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth? A) growth at the epiphyseal plate B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage C) along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger D) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage Answer: B Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage? A) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones. B) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage. C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage. D) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within. Answer: D Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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30) In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________. A) by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis C) from the edges inward D) in a circular fashion Answer: B Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Spongy bone contains ________. A) osteons B) lamellar bone C) trabeculae D) osseous lamellae Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Ossification (Osteogenesis) is the process of ________. A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone B) bone destruction to liberate calcium C) bone formation D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage Answer: C Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________. A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity C) differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes D) calcification of the matrix of the zone underlying articular cartilage Answer: A Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .


34) Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood? A) thyroid hormones B) parathyroid hormone C) growth hormone D) calcitonin Answer: C Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) In some cases, the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause? A) overproduction of thyroid hormone B) elevated levels of sex hormones C) too much vitamin D in the diet D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity Answer: B Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of ________. A) calcium and vitamin D B) potassium and vitamin D C) calcium and vitamin E D) vitamin D and chloride Answer: A Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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37) What tissue forms the model for endochondral ossification? A) cartilage B) fibrous membrane C) fascia D) bone Answer: A Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anteriorly and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate tissue for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch. A) fibrocartilage B) elastic cartilage C) bone D) hyaline cartilage Answer: A Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) At an archeological site you discover a bone that is cylindrical in shape, about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide. Choose the correct classification. A) short B) irregular C) long D) sesamoid Answer: C Section: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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40) Choose the structures that most directly provide nutrients and remove wastes from osteocytes in compact bone. A) central canals B) canaliculi C) nutrient foramens D) perforating (Volkmann's) canals Answer: B Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 41) Skeletal remains are discovered at an archeological site. X-rays of the femur show evidence of a thin epiphyseal plate. This bone likely belonged to which of the following? A) 8-year-old female B) 60-year-old male C) 18-year-old male D) 25-year-old female Answer: C Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global LO: G2, G5 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 42) When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matrix secretions it is referred to as a(n) ________. A) osteoclast B) osteogenic cell C) chondrocyte D) osteocyte Answer: D Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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43) Choose the best location for obtaining a red bone marrow sample from a patient. A) frontal bone B) hip bone C) head of humerus D) medullary cavity of femur Answer: B Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 44) Which of the following is a bone disorder characterized by excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption? A) osteoporosis B) rickets C) osteomalacia D) Paget's disease Answer: D Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Choose which bone marking type would likely increase in size when a weight lifter repeatedly exercises muscles that attach to it. A) foramen B) meatus C) trochanter D) fossa Answer: C Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6.4 Short Answer Questions 1) List in order the four major healing stages of a simple fracture. Answer: Hematoma formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, and bone remodeling. Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) What is found in a central (Haversian) canal? Answer: Small blood vessels and nerve fibers that serve the osteon's cells. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Proper blood calcium levels are required for muscle contraction, nerve function, and other critical activities in the body. How does the body maintain homeostasis in response to decreased blood calcium levels? Discuss the main gland, hormone, and target of the hormone. Answer: In response to decreased blood calcium levels, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone (PTH) which stimulates osteoclasts to liberate calcium from bone and into blood. PTH also encourages the digestive system to absorb more calcium and the kidneys to retain more calcium in blood. Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.14 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS5, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Why are the bones of young children much more flexible than those of the elderly? Answer: Bones of children are not completely calcified, with a higher ratio of more flexible organic fibers. Bones in the elderly are more completely calcified, which gives the characteristic of rigidity. Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) Create an analogy for the chemical composition of bone using highway construction. Answer: In highway construction metal rebar is used with concrete to form a road that is hard, yet resistant to cracking. Likewise, with bone tissue, the organic collagen fibers are akin to the metal rebar, providing flexibility, while the inorganic minerals provide the hardness like concrete in a roadway. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 6) Bones appear to be lifeless structures. Does bone material renew itself? Answer: Bone only appears lifeless in gross anatomy. Microscopically, bone is full of cells and blood vessels that maintain and renew bone tissue. Approximately 5% to 7% of our bone mass is recycled each week. Up to 0.5 g of calcium may enter or leave the bones each day, depending on the negative feedback hormonal mechanism and gravitational forces. Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Compare the function of the organic materials in the bone matrix with the function of the inorganic materials in the matrix. Answer: The organic matrix contributes to the bone structure and its tensile strength, while the inorganic matrix contributes to hardness and resistance to compression. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) What are the differences between the diaphysis and the epiphyses of long bones? Answer: Diaphyseal bone is composed almost entirely of compact bone (except in irregular and short bones), while the epiphyses are composed almost entirely of spongy bone. The epiphyses are on the ends of the bone; the diaphysis is the "shaft" of the bone. The diaphysis in long bones has a large medullary cavity, whereas the epiphyses do not. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) Compare how nutrients reach individual osteocytes in compact bone and in spongy bone. Answer: In spongy bone, nutrients reach osteocytes by diffusing through the canaliculi from capillaries in the endosteum surrounding the trabeculae. In compact bone, nutrients travel from the blood supply of the medullary cavity through perforating (Volkmann's) canals that meet up with a central canal for each osteon. From a central canal, canaliculi connect with osteocytes. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Compare the starts of intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Answer: Intramembranous ossification starts in connective tissue from mesenchymal cells that become osteoblasts. These osteoblasts cluster together into an ossification center. Endochondral ossification starts with a hyaline cartilage "template." Mesenchymal cells become osteoblasts and begin forming bone around the cartilage as well as within. Section: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) What are the three characteristics used to classify bone fractures? Answer: Position of the bone ends after the fracture occurs. Completeness of the break. Whether the bone penetrates the skin. Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) List the three types of cartilage and an example of each? Answer: The three types of cartilage are hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage, and fibrocartilage. Examples of hyaline include articular, costal, respiratory, and nasal. Examples of elastic cartilage are the external ear and the epiglottis. Examples of fibrocartilage include the menisci of the knee and the discs between vertebrae. Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) List the seven functions of bones. Answer: Support, protection, anchorage, mineral storage, blood cell formation, triglyceride (fat) storage, and hormone production. Section: 6.2 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6.5 Clinical Questions 1) While on spring break from college, June fell on the pavement and broke her wrist. At the emergency room, a resident placed a cast on her wrist after manipulating the bones. It seemed to heal within a few months. Now, decades later she has noticed lumps in the area where the break happened and she has been complaining of pain. What could be causing the lumps and the pain? Answer: June probably has "bone spurs," which are abnormal projections from a bone due to bone overgrowth. Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Alice and James adopted a 3-year-old child from a developing country. They noticed that her legs were bowed and there were some deformities in her cranial and pelvic bones. They brought her to a physician for a diagnosis. What was the likely diagnosis, and what was the treatment for the disorder? Answer: The child most likely has rickets, a condition caused by poor diet, especially one deficient in vitamin D. The parents were told to increase her intake of calcium and vitamin D and to make sure that she gets some sunshine every day. Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating

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3) Emily, a 64-year-old formerly obese woman who successfully lost over 100 pounds, was brought to the hospital suffering pain in her legs, and an X-ray revealed that she had a simple fracture in her right femur and a crack in her left tibia. Other tests revealed that her bones were brittle and porous. What might have happened to Emily, and what advice would she have been given by the physician? Answer: Emily has osteoporosis, a debilitating bone disease that strikes more women than men after age 45-50. The bones become weak and brittle due to osteoclast out pacing of osteoblast in the bone. Emily has been told that she needs to take supplements of Ca, Vitamin D, and do weight-bearing exercise. Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 4) A 75-year-old woman and her 9-year-old granddaughter were victims of a train crash. In both cases, trauma to the chest was sustained. X-rays of the grandmother revealed several fractured ribs, but her granddaughter had none. Explain these different findings. Answer: The child had more organic material in her bones, which allows bones to be more flexible, while her grandmother's bones are extensively calcified, with little organic material, and are probably thin due to osteoporosis. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Johnny fractured the lower third of his right tibia in a skiing accident. The soft tissues in the area were severely damaged and their surgical removal was necessary. After prolonged immobilization, it was found that Johnny was healing very poorly. The explanation offered by the orthopedic surgeon was that vascularization of the fracture site was still inadequate and good healing was absolutely dependent upon an adequate blood supply. Describe how a long bone receives its blood supply and trace the path of nutrient delivery to the osteocytes. Answer: Long bones are nourished by nutrient arteries that frequently enter the shaft. Removal of the soft tissues probably reduced the flow of blood to the affected area. The pathway requires transport of nutrients from blood vessels in the medullary cavity to perforating (Volkmann's) canals to central (Haversian) canals to canaliculi to lacunae that contain osteocytes. Section: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) People who live in northern latitudes may require supplemental calcium with vitamin D. Explain why. Answer: Vitamin D is manufactured by the skin using sunlight and is needed for absorption of dietary calcium. People who live in the north where the winter months are severe may need supplemental vitamin D because of the decreased amount of sunlight exposure. Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.14 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) When does prevention of osteoporosis start? Answer: The prevention of osteoporosis should begin with children. Parents need to provide children with the opportunity to develop as much bone as they have inherited the ability to develop. If people increase their peak bone mass as young adults, they will have additional protection from osteoporotic fractures in the future. Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) If your elderly patient's blood calcium level is normal, does that mean the patient does not have osteoporosis? Explain. Answer: No. The level of calcium in the blood is expected to be normal, even in advanced cases of osteoporosis. The calcium in the bones will be low, but that occurs in order to maintain a normal blood calcium level. The priority is to maintain blood calcium levels regardless of the state of the bones. Section: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Mrs. Brown was outside on her patio cleaning windows when she fell off her step ladder and fractured her right hip. She had emergency surgery with an open reduction and internal fixation of the right hip. Three days postoperatively, she asks you if she will have trouble going through airport security. What has prompted her concern? Answer: Open (internal) reduction is the correction of the bone alignment through a surgical incision. It may include internal fixation of the fracture with the use of rods, wire, screws, pins, or nails, metal items that may trigger security alarms. Section: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 33 .


10) How can a tooth be moved in a bony socket during orthodontic treatment? Answer: Because bone deposition and reabsorption can occur, and because bone responds to mechanical stress (Wolff's law), a tooth can be moved. By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will reabsorb, while the bone on the reverse side will be reformed, that is, bone remodeling according to the stress imposed on it. Section: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.14 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Mimi, a 70-year-old seamstress, is having difficulty walking and pain in her left knee. After consulting with her physician, she is notified that she is suffering from a loss of cartilage in her knee. Which type of cartilage is usually found in the knee and why is its loss painful? Answer: Fibrocartilage forms the menisci of the knee to help absorb pressure and aids stretching when the knee moves. The hyaline cartilage covers the articulating surfaces of the distal end of the femur (condyles) as well as the condyles of the tibia. The pain is caused by the knee bones rubbing together due to the lack of fibrocartilage, or wear and tear of hyaline cartilage which might have worn off to expose the underlying bone tissue. Section: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 7 The Skeleton 7.1 Matching Questions

Figure 7.1 Using Figure 7.1, match the following:

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1) Articulates with hip bones of the pelvis. Answer: D Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Attach to ribs. Answer: B Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Bears most of the weight. Answer: C Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Transverse foramina allow the passage of vertebral arteries. Answer: A Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) No canals or foramen present. Answer: E Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Includes the atlas and the axis. Answer: A Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2 .


7) Contains a pivot joint that allows you to rotate your head "no." Answer: A Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Figure 7.2 Using Figure 7.2, match the following: 8) Anchor the pterygoid muscles. Answer: E Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .


9) Passageway for optic nerve. Answer: A Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Pituitary gland is suspended here. Answer: C Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Forms parts of the middle cranial fossa, dorsal walls of the orbits, and external walls of the skull. Answer: B Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Allow cranial nerves that control eye movements to enter the orbit. Answer: D Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Sphenoid B) Maxillae C) Temporal bones D) Lacrimal bones 13) These very small bones are at the medial wall of each orbit and provides a groove for the tear ducts. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) These are the key bones of the facial skeleton. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The bones that contain teeth. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) This bone has a passageway into the nasal cavity. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The sella turcica is a portion of this bone. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) A Match the following: A) Phalanges B) Humerus C) Radius 20) The fingers have three of these bones and the thumb has only two. Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) This bone articulates with the glenoid fossa. Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Forearm bone that articulates with most of the carpals. Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 20) A 21) B 22) C

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Match the following: A) Atlas B) Sacrum C) Intervertebral disc D) Cervical vertebrae E) Coccyx 23) This bone shapes the posterior wall of the pelvis. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The fused rudimentary tailbone. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The bone that articulates with the occipital condyles. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) These bones are the smallest and lightest vertebrae. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Allows the head to nod "yes." Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) A cushion-like shock absorber of two parts: a nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 23) B 24) E 25) A 26) D 27) A 28) C

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Match the following: A) Connects occipital and parietal bones B) Connects right and left parietal bones C) Connects occipital and temporal bones D) Connects temporal and parietal bones E) Connects parietal and frontal bones 29) Lambdoid suture. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Sagittal suture. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Squamosal suture. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Coronal suture. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Occipitomastoid suture. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) E 33) C

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Match the following: A) Appendicular skeleton B) Clavicle C) Scapula 34) Collarbones; slender, S-shaped bones. Section: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Bones of the limbs and their girdles. Section: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Shoulder blades; thin, triangular flat bones Section: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 34) B 35) A 36) C 7.2 True/False Questions 1) The femur is the largest and strongest bone in the body. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10 .


3) The frontal bone articulates with the parietal bone by means of the sagittal suture. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The mastoid sinuses are located at a position in the skull where they are usually free from infections. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The vertebral column is held in place primarily by the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Most of the body's weight is carried by the talus and calcaneus. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The most common site of fracture in the humerus is the surgical neck which is distal to the anatomical neck. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) The shallow socket of the shoulder joint restricts dislocation of the humerus and is the main contributor to the stability of the joint. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The tubercle of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) In women of childbearing age, the dimensions of the true pelvis are of utmost importance. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The term vertebrochondral ribs refers to the "false ribs," that attach to each other before they attach to the sternum. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The vomer along with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone forms the bony part of the nasal septum. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The temporal bone connects to the zygomatic bone via the temporal process of the temporal bone. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The lacrimal bone contains a groove that forms part of lacrimal fossa. Along with the soft tissue of the lacrimal sac, these structures drain tears from the eye into the nasal passage. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The largest and strongest bone of the face is the maxilla. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) All vertebrae possess a body, a spine, and transverse foramina. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The dens articulates with the occipital bone. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The pituitary gland is housed in a saddle-like depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica. Answer: FALSE Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23) The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis forming the acetabulum. Answer: TRUE Section: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The bones in the skull have many different names but what are the boundaries of each bone? A) Boundaries for skull bones are seen only in the infant skull. B) The boundaries are indistinct and are simply vague generalized regions. C) Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures. D) Bones of the skull are continuous but named for their specific markings. Answer: C Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses? A) The paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through. B) Sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment. C) Sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones. D) Sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no know function. Answer: C Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Which of the bones of the skull would you also refer to as a cheekbone? A) the temporal bone B) the parietal bone C) the occipital bone D) the zygomatic bone Answer: D Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15 .


4) Which of the following would be most associated with housing the special sense organs? A) hyoid bone B) the temporal bones C) the cranial bones D) the bones of the inner ear Answer: B Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming, humidifying, and filtering the air we inhale? A) hyoid bone B) the nasal cavity C) the cranial bones D) the bones comprising the orbits Answer: B Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones? A) house the special sense organs B) allow introduction of food into the digestive system C) protect the brain D) provide passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body Answer: C Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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7) The sphenoid bone is sometimes referred to as a "key stone" of the skull. This is due to the fact that ________. A) the sphenoid bone is solid like a stone and provides the strength necessary to support the skull B) the sphenoid is in the center of the skull and it articulates (joins) with all of the other bones of the skull (excluding the mandible) C) the sphenoid is wedged in the superior most portion of the skull and supports all of the other bones below (excluding the mandible) D) the intricate shape of the sphenoid makes it critical to the distinct characteristics of the individual human face Answer: B Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) The sella turcica is part of the ________ bone and houses the ________ gland. A) sphenoid; thymus B) ethmoid; pituitary C) sphenoid; pituitary D) ethmoid; thymus Answer: C Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The hypothalamus is a region of the brain controlling many aspects of the endocrine system. It works closely with the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is directly superior to the pituitary and is, therefore, ________. A) superior to the sella turcica B) superior to the crista galli C) inferior to the cribriform plate D) the only region of the brain that is outside of the skull Answer: A Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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10) During concussion (a type of traumatic brain injury) the brain will move within the cranial cavity. Damage is caused to the brain as it crashes into parts of the bony cavity walls. Ironically one of the bone markings that can cause serious damage to the brain is the ________. This is ironic because one of the functions of this bone marking is to ________. A) pterygoid processes; anchor important chewing muscles B) styloid process; attach to and support the hyoid bone C) crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place D) perpendicular plate; separate the left and right halves of the nasal cavity Answer: C Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 11) Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________. A) providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities B) giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock C) limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension D) applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping Answer: B Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) When looking at the range of motion of the various sections of the vertebral column the ________ has the most flexibility. A) cervical spine B) thoracic spine C) lumbar spine D) sacral spine Answer: A Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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13) The range of motion as well as the direction of motion for the various regions of the spine differs. For example, the lumbar spine is capable of flexion and extension but little rotational movement, while the thoracic spine rotates with little flexion or extension. This is due to variation in ________. A) the orientation of the superior and inferior articular facets B) the thickness of the intervertebral disc C) the composition of the intervertebral disks D) the arrangement of muscular attachment to the spinous processes Answer: A Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) The anatomy of the thoracic cage provides ridged support and protection but at the same time is also flexible and mobile. Of the list below, which feature does NOT aid in the flexibility and movement of the thoracic cage? A) the sternal angle B) the costal cartilages C) the jugular notch D) the costal spaces occupied by costal muscle Answer: C Section: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. This mobility comes at a cost because ________. A) the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion B) the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate C) muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power D) these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate Answer: B Section: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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16) From the list below, select the least likely explanation for the relatively high mobility of the arms. A) The clavicle articulates to the axial skeleton at only the sternal end. B) The scapula does not articulate to the axial skeleton directly. C) The subscapular notch is a passageway for nerves. D) the relatively open glenoid cavity of the glenohumeral joint Answer: C Section: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. The rounded trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. This forms a joint that allows for ________. A) the hinge like motion of the forearm B) the rotational motion of the forearm C) the curling of the fingers D) the hyper extension of the forearm Answer: A Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18) The proximal end of the radius illustrates the relationship of form and function. The cup-like surface of the radial head articulates with the rounded shape of the capitulum. This forms a joint that allows for ________. A) the hinge like motion of the forearm B) the rotational motion of the forearm C) the curling of the fingers D) the hyper extension of the forearm Answer: B Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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19) The axial skeleton includes ________. A) the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis B) arms, legs, hands, and feet C) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage D) the skull, the scapula, and the vertebral column Answer: C Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which vertebra does NOT have a body? A) last lumbar B) axis C) atlas D) last cervical Answer: C Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The suture that is found where a parietal and temporal bone meet on the lateral aspect of the skull is ________. A) coronal B) sagittal C) lambdoid D) squamous Answer: D Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone B) is composed of three bones joined together C) is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves D) is the only irregular bone found in the neck Answer: A Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Along with support, the anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column also acts to ________. A) hold the discs in place B) prevent hyperextension of the spine C) hold the spine erect D) protect the spinal cord Answer: B Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs? A) to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine B) to hold together the vertebra and support the body C) to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine D) to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column Answer: A Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones? A) zygomatic bones B) nasal conchae C) vomer D) maxillae Answer: D Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region? A) kyphosis B) scoliosis C) lordosis D) swayback Answer: B Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body? A) the sacrum B) the cervical region C) the lumbar region D) the sacral promontory Answer: C Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) How many bones make up the adult skull? A) 7 B) 12 C) 5 D) 22 Answer: D Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________. A) no transverse processes B) costal facets C) transverse foramina D) no intervertebral discs Answer: B Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) What is the major function of the axial skeleton? A) give the body resilience B) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement C) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs D) provide a space for the major digestive organs Answer: C Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones? A) the radius and the ulna B) the humerus and the clavicle C) the scapula and the clavicle D) the humerus and the radius Answer: A Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24 .


32) The "true wrist" or carpus consists of ________. A) a group of eight short bones united by ligaments B) the phalanges C) the styloid processes of the radius and ulna D) the metacarpals Answer: A Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal? A) medial cuneiform B) lateral cuneiform C) cuboid D) calcaneus Answer: A Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which bone forms the anterior cranium? A) frontal bone B) temporal bone C) sphenoid bone D) palatine bone Answer: A Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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35) The superior orbital fissure is formed in the sphenoid bone, whereas the inferior orbital fissure is formed between the sphenoid and ________. A) palatine B) maxilla C) ethmoid D) lacrimal Answer: B Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy? A) kyphosis B) hunchback C) scoliosis D) lordosis Answer: D Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae? A) The orientation of the articular processes is different from all the other thoracic vertebrae. B) The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs. C) There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12. D) The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum. Answer: B Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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38) The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone? A) vomer B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) maxilla Answer: B Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) The pelvic girdle does NOT include the ________. A) femur B) ilium C) ischium D) pubis Answer: A Section: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which of the following bones is NOT weight bearing? A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) talus Answer: C Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus? A) calcaneus B) head C) medial malleolus D) lateral malleolus Answer: D Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27 .


42) Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum? A) perpendicular plate B) crista galli C) cribriform plate D) orbital plate Answer: A Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following is NOT a movement that can occur between vertebrae? A) flexion and extension B) lateral flexion C) rotation D) supination Answer: D Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The kneecap is called the ________. Answer: patella Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The lateral condyle of the femur articulates with the lateral condyle of the ________. Answer: tibia Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) The medial condyle of the femur articulates with the medial condyle of the ________. Answer: tibia Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The largest foramen in the body is the ________ foramen. Answer: obturator Section: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The smallest short bone in the hand is the ________. Answer: pisiform Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The styloid process of the ________ points to the thumb. Answer: radius Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Only the ________ vertebrae have transverse foramina. Answer: cervical Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The ________ is the bone confined to the septum of the nose. Answer: vomer Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29 .


9) Your "cheekbone" is mostly formed from the ________ bone. Answer: zygomatic Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) What structure is the "missing" body of the second cervical vertebrae? Answer: dens Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) What is the function of the lumbar curvature? Answer: It positions the weight of the trunk over the body's center of gravity, thus providing optimal balance when standing. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which vertebral curvature abnormality is the most serious? Why? Answer: Scoliosis is the most serious abnormality, due to the pressure that can be placed on the lungs and resulting breathing difficulties. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) What is the purpose of the vertebral curvatures? Answer: Their purpose is to increase the resilience and flexibility of the spine, allowing it to function like a spring rather than a rigid rod. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) Why is the area just distal to the tubercles of the humerus called the surgical neck? Answer: This area is called the surgical neck because it is the most frequently fractured part of the humerus. Section: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) What are the subdivisions of the axial skeleton and how do they function? Answer: The skull, vertebral column, and the thoracic cage function to provide support and protection. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Describe the differences between the bones of the lower and upper limb and briefly state why these differences exist. Answer: The lower limbs carry the weight of the body and are subjected to exceptional forces. These bones are thicker and stronger. The upper limb bones are adapted for flexibility and mobility and are therefore smaller and lighter. Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) How are the pectoral and pelvic girdles structurally different? How is this difference reflected in their functions? Answer: The pectoral girdle moves freely across the thorax and allows the upper limb a high degree of mobility, while the pelvic girdle is secured to the axial skeleton to provide strength and support. This is why the glenoid cavity of the scapula is relatively shallow and the acetabulum of the pelvis is a deep socket. Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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18) How do the first two cervical vertebrae differ from other cervical vertebrae? What are their functions? Answer: The atlas or C1 vertebra has no body. It articulates with the skull with large curved articular surfaces to allow the skull to rock in a "yes" motion. The axis or C2 vertebra has a projection called the dens that allows the axis to pivot, giving the head the "no" motion. The vertebral foramen of the atlas is enlarged so that when the head is pivoted in the "no" motion, the spinal cord can move. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) Identify the arches of the foot and describe how they are maintained. Answer: There are three arches: the medial and lateral longitudinal arches, and the transverse arch. Together they form a half-cone that distributes the weight of the body. They are maintained by the shape of the foot bones, strong ligaments, and by the pull of some tendons. Section: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) Identify the four major cranial sutures in any order and the bones they connect. Answer: 1. Coronal - parietal and frontal 2. Sagittal - between the parietal bones 3. Squamous - parietal and temporal 4. Lambdoidal - parietal and occipital Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) How might low back pain be related to poor abdominal muscle tone? Answer: If the abdominal muscles are weak and can't maintain contraction, the belly sags forward, increasing the amount of lordosis. With greater curvature, the ligaments and muscles of the back undergo greater strain in order to maintain alignment of the vertebrae and counterbalance the shift in the center of gravity. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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22) If the hyoid bone is not attached to another bone why is it so important? Answer: The hyoid acts as an attachment point for muscles in the neck region to connect the muscles in the lower jaw region. It allows for the muscles to make a right angle at the junction of the lower jaw and throat. The hyoid serves as a movable base for the tongue and its horns are attachment points for neck muscles that raise and lower the larynx during speech and swallowing. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) What is the purpose of the articular processes of the vertebrae? Answer: These processes (superior and inferior) allow the vertebral column to flex forward some, but lock the vertebrae if the column is flexed back and limit rotation to avoid injury to the spinal cord and its nerve roots. In a four-legged animal, such as a horse, these processes allow the back to remain in place while you ride it. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7.5 Clinical Questions 1) After having a severe cold accompanied by nasal congestion, Jamila complained that she had a headache just above her eyes and that the right side of her face ached. What specific bony structures probably became infected by the bacteria or viruses causing the cold? Answer: The paranasal sinuses, specifically the frontal sinus located in the frontal bone and the right maxillary sinus located in the right maxilla. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) A skeleton was found in a wooded area. It was brought to a forensic medicine laboratory for identification. The first thing the coroner did was determine the age, sex, and possible size of the person. What was examined in order to get this information? Answer: By examining the shape of the pelvic inlet, the depth of the iliac fossa, the characteristics of the ilium, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis, one could determine the sex. Also significant for determining the sex of the skeleton are the position of the acetabulum, the shape of the obturator foramen, and the general design of the ischium. To determine the age of the individual, bone density, the status of growth plates, and markings are important. The markings where muscles were attached will reveal information about the mass and the general shape of the person. Section: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Jason is a 14-year-old who recently had his nose pierced through the nasal septum. He tells his mother that the area is very tender and warm to the touch. The area is also red. The mother calls the pediatrician's office and the nurse recommends that the mother bring Jason in for evaluation. The nurse explains to the mother that a local infection can spread and cause serious harm. Where do you think the infection could spread and why? Answer: Infection of nasal piercings can spread to the brain and cause serious complications. Infections in the brain may occur because of the direct extension from ear, tooth, mastoid, or sinus infections. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Sharon is a 32-year-old horse trainer. While training a young horse, she was thrown off of the horse and suffered a mild head injury. The nurse inquires about the use of a helmet. Sharon replies, "This is the first time I have ever had a head injury from a horse. I don't think I need a helmet." Based on your understanding of the skull, how should the nurse respond to the patient? Answer: The skull protects the brain from blows. A helmet would add extra protection in sports where there is an increased risk for head injury. Section: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) You are a school nurse in a middle school. You are responsible for screening the children for scoliosis. What is involved in this screening? Answer: Scoliosis literally means "twisted disease" and is an abnormal rotational curvature causing lateral deviation that occurs most often in the thoracic region. It is quite common during late childhood. The nurse would need to observe the child standing erect, disrobed from the waist up. An older girl may leave her bra on. The child is observed from behind and the nurse would note any asymmetry of the shoulders and hips. With the child bending forward so that the back is parallel to the floor, the nurse may observe from behind, noting tilting of the rib cage. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) When administering chest compression to someone whose heart has stopped beating, the heel of the hand should be placed on the sternum on a line drawn between the nipples. Why would it be a problem if the hand was placed at a lower part of the sternum? Answer: The compressions could break the xiphoid process of the sternum and drive it into the heart, diaphragm, or liver resulting in possibly deadly complications. Section: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Jim and his son Matthew are driving home from shopping the day after Thanksgiving and are involved in a car accident. Jim hit his head on the dashboard resulting in a fractured C2 vertebra. What exactly does this mean and why is it a concern to Jim's doctor? Answer: The C2 vertebra is the second cervical vertebra, or the axis. It causes the physician to be concerned because this vertebra has limited movement already, and also protects the spinal cord. An injury to this vertebra could also injure the spinal cord resulting in paralysis and sometimes death. Section: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 8 Joints 8.1 Matching Questions

Figure 8.1 Using Figure 8.1, match the following: 1) Periosteum. Answer: A Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .


2) Articular cartilage. Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Joint (articular) cavity. Answer: B Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Synovial membrane. Answer: E Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Fibrous layer. Answer: D Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 8.2 Using Figure 8.2, what type of axial movement does each joint have? 6) Joint 1. Answer: Multiaxial Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Joint 2. Answer: Uniaxial Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Joint 3. Answer: Uniaxial Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Joint 4. Answer: Nonaxial Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Joint 5. Answer: Biaxial Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Joint 6. Answer: Biaxial Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 8.3 Using Figure 8.3, identify each type of synovial joint by name. 12) Joint 1. Answer: Ball and socket Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Joint 2. Answer: Pivot Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Joint 3. Answer: Hinge Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Joint 4. Answer: Plane Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Joint 5. Answer: Saddle Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Joint 6. Answer: Condyloid Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Flexion B) Abduction C) Adduction D) Circumduction 18) Moving a limb so it describes a cone in a space. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Movement of a limb toward the midline of the body. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) A bending movement that decreases the angle of the joint. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) A

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Match the following: A) Diarthroses B) Amphiarthroses C) Synarthroses D) Joints 22) Freely movable joints Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Slightly movable joints Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Sites where two bones meet Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Immovable joints Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) C 8.2 True/False Questions 1) The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of that joint. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8 .


2) All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Hinge joints permit movement in only one plane. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The major role of ligaments at synovial joints is to unite bones and prevent undesirable movement. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Gliding movements occur when one flat, or nearly flat, bone surface glides or slips over another. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Movement at the hip joint does not have as wide a range of motion as at the shoulder joint. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Supination is the movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned anteriorly or superiorly. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The wrist joint can exhibit adduction and eversion movements. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Moving a limb so that it describes a cone in space is called circumduction. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Movement of the ankle so that the superior aspect of the foot approaches the shin is called dorsiflexion. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The gripping of the trochlea by the trochlear notch constitutes the "hinge" for the elbow joint. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Pronation is a much stronger movement than supination. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the presence or absence of a joint cavity. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Synovial fluid contains phagocytic cells that protect the cavity from invasion by microbes or other debris. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial fluids. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) A ball-and-socket joint is a multiaxial joint. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Bending of the tip of the finger exhibits flexion. Answer: TRUE Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 21) Dislocations in the TMJ almost always dislocate posteriorly with the mandibular condyles ending up in the infratemporal fossa. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Symphyses are synarthrotic joints designed for strength with flexibility. Answer: FALSE Section: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A situation where the bones are connected exclusively by ligaments, cords, or bands of fibrous tissue is a ________. A) syndesmosis B) suture C) synchondrosis D) gomphosis Answer: A Section: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________. A) tend to run parallel to one another B) are also called collateral ligaments C) prevent hyperextension of the knee D) attach to each other in their midportions Answer: C Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________. A) attach tendons B) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis) C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints D) form the synovial membrane Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13 .


4) Synchondroses and symphyses are examples of ________ joints. A) cartilaginous B) fibrous C) synovial D) periodontal Answer: A Section: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) On the basis of structural classification, which is a fibrous joint? A) symphysis B) synchondrosis C) pivot D) syndesmosis Answer: D Section: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________. A) menisci B) bursae C) ligaments D) tendons Answer: B Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________. A) amphiarthroses B) synarthroses C) diarthroses D) synovial joints Answer: A Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of the following are cartilaginous joints? A) syndesmoses B) sutures C) synchondroses D) gomphoses Answer: C Section: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Bowing to your opponent before a jiu jitsu match would be considered a ________ movement. A) extension B) circumduction C) flexion D) hyperextension Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________. A) cruciate ligaments B) patellar ligaments C) anterior ligaments D) tibial collateral ligaments Answer: A Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________. A) flexion B) extension C) hyperextension D) circumduction Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) In the classification of joints, which of the following is TRUE? A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses. B) Synovial joints are freely movable. C) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable. D) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present. Answer: B Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Synarthrotic joints ________. A) are found only in adults B) characterize all cartilaginous joints C) are immovable joints D) have large joint cavities Answer: C Section: 8.1 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Fibrous joints are classified as ________. A) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular C) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses Answer: D Section: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________. A) hyaline cartilage B) synovial membranes C) fibrocartilage D) tendon sheaths Answer: A Section: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is TRUE about this fluid? A) It contains enzymes only. B) It contains lactic acid. C) It contains hyaluronic acid. D) It contains hydrochloric acid. Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility B) interphalangeal joints C) joints that permit angular movements D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones Answer: D Section: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) What are menisci (articular discs)? A) cavities lined with cartilage B) small sacs containing synovial fluid C) wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity D) tendon sheaths Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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19) Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding gliding movements? A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints. B) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs. C) Gliding movements are multiaxial. D) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head. Answer: A Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) What is moving a limb away from the midline of the body along the frontal plane called? A) abduction B) adduction C) flexion D) extension Answer: A Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________. A) hands B) feet C) arms D) hands and the feet Answer: B Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint. A) nonaxial B) uniaxial C) biaxial D) multiaxial Answer: D Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19 .


23) Which of the following movements does NOT increase or decrease the angle between bones? A) abduction B) extension C) rotation D) circumduction Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________. A) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures B) rare because of the ligament reinforcement C) common in all people who are overweight D) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint Answer: B Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped? A) the patellar ligament B) the medial patellar retinacula C) the lateral patellar retinacula D) the extracapsular ligament Answer: A Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the following is (are) damaged as a result? A) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligaments B) suprapatellar ligament C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate ligaments D) tibial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament Answer: D Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27) Pointing the toes is an example of ________. A) circumduction B) plantar flexion C) pronation D) protraction Answer: B Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following is a TRUE statement? A) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process. B) The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula. C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint. D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius. Answer: D Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint? A) suture B) synchondrosis C) symphysis D) hinge joint Answer: D Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________. A) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella B) fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, which prevent lateral or medial rotation C) cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together D) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly Answer: B Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which of the following is commonly injured by baseball players due to vigorous circumduction? A) rotator cuff B) anular ligament C) acetabular labrum D) lateral ligament Answer: A Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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32) An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is ________. A) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends B) the radius and ulna along its length C) between the vertebrae D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity Answer: B Section: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the following statements best describes angular movements? A) They allow movement only in one plane. B) They turn a bone along its own long axis. C) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes. D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones. Answer: D Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify a saddle joint of the skeleton. A) interphalangeal joint of the finger B) metacarpophalangeal joint of the finger C) carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges D) carpometacarpal joint of the thumb Answer: D Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Tendon sheaths ________. A) act as friction-reducing structures B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue C) are extensions of periosteum D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle Answer: A Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .


36) Which of the following is NOT strictly a part of a synovial joint? A) joint (articular) cavity B) tendon sheath C) articular cartilage D) articular (joint) capsule Answer: B Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) All of the following are factors that influence synovial joint stability EXCEPT ________. A) structure and shape of the articulating bone B) arrangement and tension of the muscles C) strength and tension of joint ligaments D) number of bones in the joint Answer: D Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Performing "jumping jacks" requires ________. A) flexion and extension B) pronation and supination C) abduction and adduction D) inversion and eversion Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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39) Moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite, is called ________. A) protraction B) pronation C) adduction D) retraction Answer: A Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) Which of the following conditions is joint inflammation or degeneration accompanied by stiffness, pain, and swelling? A) arthritis B) Lyme disease C) rheumatoid arthritis D) osteoarthritis Answer: A Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.12 Global LO: G2, G5 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 41) Lifting up a glass to take a drink involves the elbow joint. Which of the following correctly characterizes that joint? A) pivot B) biaxial C) cartilaginous D) diarthrotic Answer: D Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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42) An individual with a "double-jointed" thumb can pull it back towards the wrist much farther than normal. What does it mean to be "double-jointed?" A) The joint capsules and ligaments are more stretchy and loose than normal. B) The additional joint present doubles the range of motion. C) Greater than normal production of serous fluid lubricates the joint and extends it. D) Articular cartilage at bone ends is replaced with hyaline cartilage. Answer: A Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) The type of joint between the carpal (trapezium) and the first metacarpal is a ________ joint. A) plane B) saddle C) condylar D) hinge Answer: B Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which joint does NOT belong with the others? A) interphalangeal (toes) B) elbow C) ankle D) wrist Answer: D Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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45) Which joints are correctly matched? A) interphalangeal; plane B) elbow; pivot C) ankle; hinge D) wrist; saddle Answer: C Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Why are epiphyseal plates considered temporary joints? Answer: Once long bone growth in length is complete, the cartilage of the epiphyseal plates completely ossifies to become a permanent connection between the bones. Section: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) A friend finally completes a basement floor tiling project that required extensive time on his knees. Afterwards, knee pain took him to a doctor who diagnosed bursitis. Help explain to your friend what bursitis is and what can be done to relieve it. Answer: Bursitis is inflammation of the bursa. Repeated pressure and friction on the knee while completing the project caused damage to the prepatellar bursa. This can be treated by avoiding pressure to the area and injection of anti-inflammatory drugs into the bursa. If significant fluid accumulates, aspiration may be required to relieve pressure. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) After months of very little exercise, you decide to go for a long run. After a mile, you start to feel pain in your kneecap area. What could explain this? Answer: Muscle tone is very important for stabilizing the knee joint. The long time off allowed the muscles whose tendons span the knee joint to weaken and lose that stabilizing force. Running should stop until the muscles can be reconditioned. Then the distance should be short at first and increased incrementally. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27 .


4) Synovial joints have six distinguishing features. What are they? Answer: Articular cartilage, a joint (articular) cavity, an articular (joint) capsule, synovial fluid, reinforcing ligaments, nerves, and blood vessels. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) How can gout be treated? Answer: Several drugs (colchicine, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, glucocorticoids, and others) that terminate or prevent gout attacks are available. Patients are advised to drink plenty of water and to avoid excessive alcohol consumption (which promotes uric acid overproduction) and foods high in purine-containing nucleic acids, such as liver, kidneys, and sardines. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) For each of the following movements, indicate the specific kind of joint involved (e.g., hinge, etc.) and the movement performed (e.g., extension, etc.). a. Bending the elbow: ________, ________. b. Turning head side to side: ________, ________. c. Lowering your arm to your side in the frontal plane: ________, ________. d. Turning the sole of foot medially: ________, ________. Answer: a. hinge; flexion b. pivot; rotation c. ball and socket; adduction d. plane; inversion Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) While the fingers can exhibit flexion and extension and other angular motions, the thumb has much greater freedom. Why? Answer: The thumb's carpometacarpal joint is a biaxial saddle joint whereas the other carpometacarpal joints are plane joints with no angular freedom. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 28 .


8) Briefly describe the structure of a typical synovial joint. Answer: The ends of each bone are covered with hyaline cartilage that is continuous with the synovial membrane enclosing the joint. Synovial fluid fills the space between the articular cartilage. Outside the synovial membrane there is a very tough, fibrous capsule that prevents the synovial membrane from bulging out as pressure is applied to the ends of the bones. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Although uric acid is a normal waste product of nucleic acid metabolism, excessive levels lead to gouty arthritis. How does this waste product build up and cause so much pain when things go wrong and why is it more common in men? Answer: Blood levels of uric acid increase due to excessive production or slow excretion. Males have higher blood levels of uric acid than females because estrogens are thought to increase the rate of uric acid excretion. When blood levels of uric acid rise excessively, it is deposited as needle-shaped urate crystals in the soft tissues of joints. This causes an inflammatory response and pain, typically at one joint at the base of the great big toe. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) After reading a medical report, you learn that a 45-year-old female has the following symptoms: inflammation of synovial membranes, accumulation of synovial fluid, pain and tenderness about the joints, pannus formation, and some immobility at certain joints. On the basis of these symptoms, what would the patient probably have? Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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11) Greg is somewhat of a "weekend athlete" who has overextended himself by pitching multiple baseball games for a local team during the week and by playing golf on the weekends for several hours. He presented himself to the emergency room last week with severe shoulder pain (at the glenohumeral joint). The physician told him that the X-ray was not conclusive, but he may have damage to his rotator cuff. What is the rotator cuff, and how might he have caused this damage? What remedies will the physician recommend? Answer: Greg has either stretched or torn his rotator cuff. He will be told to rest for a few months, and if the pain does not subside, surgery will be necessary. The rotator cuff is made up of four tendons that belong to the subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor muscles and encircle the shoulder joint. They are vulnerable to damage when the arm is circumducted vigorously. Greg is obviously overdoing his activities by pitching multiple baseball games per week and playing golf on weekends. Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Many inflammations of joint areas can be treated by injections of cortisone into the area. Why don't we continually get injections rather than operations? Answer: A joint inflammation is always a symptom of an underlying problem such as cartilage or ligament damage, arthritis, etc. Continued injection might cause the patient to reinjure the area, or it might mask a more severe injury that may appear later. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) Why is muscle tone the most important stabilizing factor for most joints? Answer: The shapes of the articular surfaces may hinder rather than help joint stability. Ligaments can stretch and reduce stability. Muscle tendons are kept taut at all times by the tone of their muscle. Section: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8.5 Clinical Questions 1) Steven, a football player, complained of severe pain and the inability to use his right arm and shoulder after having been tackled during a game. What would you guess might be his problem? Answer: He might have suffered a shoulder dislocation since the shoulder joint has sacrificed stability for flexibility. Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Mary has been suffering from a "bad knee" for several months. She is a tennis player who often slides in to attack a ball; she is an aerobic devotee and a jogger. She visited an orthopedic surgeon last week who told her that he would "like to have a look at her knee joint." He also told her that her symptoms indicated damage to the meniscus, and it might have to be removed. What will the doctor do to see the joint, and if the meniscus is removed will Mary be able to play tennis again? Answer: The doctor will perform arthroscopic surgery on Mary in order to view the interior of the joint. If she has severely damaged the meniscus, it can be removed with little impairment to the knee except some loss in stability. However, over the long term, the lack of weight distribution by the missing meniscus increases the likelihood of osteoarthritis in her knee. Mary might consider taking up swimming instead. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Farhad begins typing his term paper on his new computer early one morning. After 8 hours of typing, he notices that his wrists are stiff and very sore. The next morning, Farhad begins to finish his paper, but soon finds his wrists hurt worse than last night. What is wrong? Answer: Farhad is suffering from tendonitis. If he continues to use the keyboard incorrectly, the tendonitis could develop into the more serious condition called carpal tunnel syndrome. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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4) Alexis grinds her teeth at night when she sleeps, especially when she is stressed. One morning she woke up with extreme pain in her jaw muscles, a popping sound when she chewed, and joint stiffness. How do you explain her condition and how is it treated? Answer: Alexis is suffering from dislocation of her temporomandibular joint (TMJ), which was probably exacerbated by her grinding her teeth. Treatment includes relaxation of the jaw muscles using massage, muscle-relaxant drugs, heat or cold, or stress reduction techniques. Use of a mouth guard at night may also help. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) A nurse is instructing the patient care assistants (PCAs) on transfer techniques. For patients needing to be slid toward the head of the bed, the nurse tells the PCAs to use a draw sheet under the patient's torso. She tells them to avoid pulling on their hands or arms. Based on your knowledge of the shoulder joint, explain why pulling on the extremities should be avoided. Answer: In the shoulder joint, stability has been sacrificed to provide the most freely moving joint of the body. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint. Shoulder dislocations are fairly common; therefore, forces that are not under the patient's control should be avoided. Section: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Maggie is a 28-year-old Caucasian woman who has newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. She complains of painful, stiff hands and feet, feeling tired all the time, and reports an intermittent low-grade fever. She asks the doctor if she is going to be "crippled." How might the doctor explain the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis? Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic, systemic, and inflammatory disorder. RA is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks its own tissue. RA begins with inflammation of the synovial membrane of the affected joints. Fluid accumulates, causing joint swelling. The doctor should explain that RA is a chronic crippling disease with joint stiffening (ankylosis) resulting in restriction of joint movement and extreme pain. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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7) Susan was bitten by a deer tick and now complains of joint pain, flu-like symptoms, and difficulty thinking. What might be her diagnosis and the treatment required to alleviate her symptoms? Answer: Susan should consider Lyme disease and test for it. Treatment is taking antibiotics for 3 to 6 months. Section: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.13 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 9 Muscles and Muscle Tissue 9.1 Matching Questions

Figure 9.1 Using Figure 9.1, match the following: 1) Connective tissue sheath surrounding individual muscle fibers. Answer: B Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Bundle of muscle cells surrounded by a perimysium. Answer: D Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) Connective tissue covering the exterior of a muscle organ. Answer: A Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Connective tissue surrounding muscle fiber bundles. Answer: E Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Individual muscle fiber. Answer: C Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 9.2 Using Figure 9.2, match the following: 6) I band. Answer: C Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) H zone. Answer: B Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) A band. Answer: D Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Z disc. Answer: A Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) M line. Answer: E Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Fast (glycolytic), fatigable fibers B) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers C) Fast (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers 11) Recruited first and depend on oxygen delivery and aerobic mechanisms for ATP synthesis. Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Have very fast-acting myosin ATPases and depend upon aerobic metabolism during contraction. Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Red fibers, the smallest of the fiber types. Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Contain abundant amounts of glycogen. Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Abundant in muscles used to maintain posture. Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Used for short-term intense or powerful movement such as hitting a baseball. Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) A

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Match the following: A) Muscle tone B) Tetanus C) Isotonic contraction D) Isometric contraction E) Multiple motor unit summation 17) When muscle tension develops but the load is not moved. Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Determined by alternating motor units of a muscle organ even when the muscle is at rest. Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Continued sustained smooth contraction due to rapid stimulation. Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) When the muscle tension developed overcomes the load and muscle shortening occurs. Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) How a smooth increase in muscle force is produced. Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) E

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Match the following: A) A band B) I band C) Myosin D) Z discs 22) A sarcomere is the distance between two ________. Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The ________ contains only the actin filaments. Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The thicker filaments are the ________ filaments. Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Both actin and myosin are found in the ________. Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The myosin filaments are located in the ________. Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) A

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Match the following: A) Neuromuscular junction B) Sodium ions C) Acetylcholinesterase D) Acetylcholine E) Calcium ions 27) The final chemical messenger and "trigger" for muscle contraction. It binds to troponin. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) A neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by the axon terminals. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) It diffuses across the cell membrane resulting in depolarization. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Activates synaptic vesicles in axon terminals to fuse with plasma membrane of axon terminal. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Where the axon of a motor neuron connects with the muscle fibers. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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32) Breaks down ACh into its building blocks, rendering it inactive. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 27) E 28) D 29) B 30) E 31) A 32) C Match the following: A) Aerobic (Endurance) exercise B) Resistance exercise C) Disuse atrophy 33) Degeneration and loss of muscle mass. Section: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Increases the number of capillaries surrounding the muscle fibers and the number of mitochondria within the muscle fibers. Section: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Increases the size and strength of the muscles. Section: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 33) C 34) A 35) B

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9.2 True/False Questions 1) Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bears active sites for myosin attachment. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A skeletal muscle contracts with varying force and length of time in response to the body's needs at the time. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric contraction. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Muscle cells store more creatine phosphate than ATP resulting in the muscle having a reserve source of energy. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Muscle contraction will always promote movement of body parts regardless of how they are attached. Answer: FALSE Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Muscle tone is the small amount of tautness or tension in the muscle due to weak, involuntary contractions of its motor units. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Cells of unitary smooth muscle are found in the longitudinal and circular muscle layers of the intestine. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Excitability is the ability of a cell to receive and respond to stimulus by changing its membrane potential. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18) When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands do not diminish in length. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Cardiac muscle has a limited regenerative capacity. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Smooth muscles relax when intracellular Ca2+ levels drop but may not cease contractions. Answer: TRUE Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? A) Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads. B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules. C) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules. D) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter. Answer: B Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate? A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) no muscle can regenerate Answer: C Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Most skeletal muscles contain ________. A) muscle fibers of the same type B) a mixture of fiber types C) a predominance of slow oxidative fibers D) a predominance of fast oxidative fibers Answer: B Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________. A) increasing stimulus above the threshold B) increasing stimulus above tetanus C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers Answer: C Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases? A) motor units with the longest muscle fibers B) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units C) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons Answer: D Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction? A) number of muscle fibers stimulated B) size of the muscle fibers stimulated C) load on the fiber D) muscle length Answer: C Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Myoglobin ________. A) breaks down glycogen B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP C) stores oxygen in muscle cells D) produces the end plate potential Answer: C Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage? A) sarcoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondria C) intermediate filament network D) myofibrillar network Answer: A Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent? A) amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work B) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used C) the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used D) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion Answer: B Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors. A) contraction B) relaxation C) latent D) refractory Answer: C Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________. A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) forming a chemical compound with actin C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP Answer: D Section: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What is the primary function of wave summation? A) produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction B) increase muscle tension C) prevent muscle relaxation D) prevent muscle fatigue Answer: A Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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13) During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? A) myosin filaments B) actin filaments C) Z discs D) thick filaments Answer: B Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which of the following surrounds an individual muscle cell? A) perimysium B) endomysium C) epimysium D) fascicle Answer: B Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Rigor mortis occurs because ________. A) the cells are dead B) sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules D) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions Answer: C Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________. A) hemoglobin B) ATP C) myoglobin D) immunoglobin Answer: C Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19 .


17) The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________. A) microtubules B) mitochondria C) T tubules D) myofibrils Answer: D Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Sarcomeres are functional units of ________ muscle. A) smooth B) cardiac C) skeletal D) cardiac and skeletal only Answer: D Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) What is the functional role of the T tubules? A) stabilize the G and F actin B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction C) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle D) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction Answer: B Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20) During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. A) a strong base B) stearic acid C) hydrochloric acid D) lactic acid Answer: D Section: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? A) relaxation period B) refractory period C) latent period D) fatigue period Answer: B Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________. A) changes in length and moves the "load" B) does not change in length but increases tension C) never converts pyruvate to lactate D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP Answer: A Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments B) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke Answer: A Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________. A) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism B) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium C) the site of calcium binding site differs D) ATP energizes the sliding process Answer: C Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 25) Which of the following describes the cells of unitary smooth muscle? A) They depend upon recruitment using the autonomic nervous system. B) They are used for vision and hair raising. C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials. D) They consist of muscle fibers that are structurally independent of each other. Answer: C Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) Which of the following is TRUE about smooth muscle? A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers. B) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements. C) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle. D) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination. Answer: A Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) it appears to lack troponin B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments C) there are no sarcomeres D) there are noncontractile intermediate filaments that attach to dense bodies within the cell Answer: B Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The ability of muscle to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated is known as ________, and sets muscle apart from other tissue types. A) excitability B) extensibility C) contractility D) elasticity Answer: C Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei. B) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules. C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei. D) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels. Answer: C Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________. A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) hydrolysis D) the electron transport chain Answer: B Section: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Muscle tone is ________. A) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements B) the feeling of well-being following exercise C) a state of sustained partial contraction D) the condition of athletes after intensive training Answer: C Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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32) The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________. A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past C) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other D) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments Answer: A Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction? A) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae B) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved C) acetylcholinesterase breaks apart the ACh D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules Answer: C Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34) Which of the following is the correct order for the phases of a muscle twitch? A) relaxation, contraction, latent B) contraction, relaxation, latent C) latent, contraction, relaxation D) latent, relaxation, contraction Answer: C Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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35) What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue? A) It is composed of multiple cells working together. B) the ability to respond to nervous stimulation C) its cells' inability to reproduce by mitosis D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body Answer: D Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) Of the following muscle types, which has the longest muscle cells and has obvious stripes called striations? A) visceral smooth muscle B) multiunit smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle D) skeletal muscle Answer: D Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________. A) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin B) no muscle tension could be generated C) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel D) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract Answer: B Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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38) What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? A) motor end plate B) end of the muscle fiber C) part adjacent to another muscle cell D) any part of the sarcolemma Answer: A Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it its characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of extensibility? A) acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate B) elastic (titin) filaments C) thick (myosin) filaments D) potassium (K+) leak channels Answer: B Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it it's characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of excitability? A) acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate B) elastic (titin) filaments C) actin of thin filaments D) the Na+-K+ pump Answer: A Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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41) Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it it's characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of contractility? A) voltage gated sodium channels B) elastic (titin) filaments C) thick (myosin) filaments D) potassium (K+) leak channels Answer: C Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 42) Oxygen starved tissues can release chemical signals into the blood that can change the diameter of nearby blood vessels delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. In doing so, the blood vessels will respond through vasodilation (widening of the vessel). Which muscle type is responsible for this vasodilation? A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) striated muscle Answer: A Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 43) Of the following items listed below, which is the best description for why skeletal muscle stores glycogen? A) Skeletal muscle is a heavy consumer of energy. B) Glycogen provides a smooth surface for filaments to slide on. C) The glycogen is an insulating layer that helps regulate body temperature. D) Glycogen is part of muscles rigid supporting framework. Answer: A Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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44) During development embryonic cells will fuse to form muscle fibers. This will result in ________. A) interlocking of cells that can prevent the filaments from sliding B) the coordination of nerve signals to muscle fibers C) the striations that appear in skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues D) multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters Answer: D Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 45) Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber's volume are the myofibrils. This characteristic reflects muscles ability to ________. A) produce relatively high amounts of ATP B) store oxygen molecules that can be used in aerobic respiration C) produce movement through contractile force D) generate and propagate action potential Answer: C Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 46) Troponin, a major protein in thin filaments, is a globular protein with three polypeptide subunits. Which of the following is NOT a function of the troponin? A) One subunit attaches troponin to actin. B) One subunit binds tropomyosin and helps position it on actin. C) One subunit binds to potassium ions. D) One subunit binds to calcium ions. Answer: C Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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47) Curare is a poisonous plant extract. Curare molecules have a chemical structure like the neurotransmitter ACh. Curare can bind to the ACh receptor site on the chemically gated ion channels in the motor end plate. Even though curare will bind to the receptor site it will not open the ion channel and no ions will pass through. What do you think the symptoms of curare poisoning would look like? A) Muscles will respond too quickly and cause a severe tremor. B) Curare will only affect cardiac muscle, causing fibrillations of the heart. C) Curare will only affect muscles with ACh receptors, paralyzing them. D) Smooth muscles will become stimulated causing quick movement of nutrients through the digestive system. Answer: C Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 48) Myasthenia gravis is a disease that is believed to be caused by autoimmune disorder, resulting in the loss of ACh receptors at the motor end plate of muscle fibers. Which of the following is likely to be a symptom of myasthenia gravis? A) weakness of muscle B) seizures and uncontrollable muscle movement C) coma and loss of voluntary muscle movement D) dehydration with headache Answer: A Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 49) Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle? A) Skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres. B) Skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. The deepest layer being the endomysium. C) The shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature. D) Skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons. Answer: D Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.4, 9.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating

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50) If a muscle fiber were to suddenly and permanently stop producing ATP the fiber would no longer be able to actively transport calcium out of the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) and the intracellular calcium concentration would rise. Which of the following would you expect to happen? A) Myosin would be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach. B) The fiber would twitch uncontrollably due to excessive calcium bound to troponin. C) Calcium would be transported to the sarcoplasmic reticulum therefore contractions would cease. D) No change would occur in a muscle that was relaxed to begin with. Answer: A Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 51) When a sarcomere contracts and thin filaments move over thick filaments you would expect to see ________. A) the I bands to appear smaller B) the H zone to appear wider C) the I bands to appear wider D) the A band to appear darker Answer: A Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 52) Addition of more myoglobin to a muscle fiber would have the largest effect on ________. A) fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fibers B) fast oxidative fibers only C) fast oxidative and slow oxidative fibers D) fast glycolytic fibers only Answer: C Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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53) Exhaustion of glycogen storage within a muscle fiber would have the biggest effect on ________. A) slow oxidative fibers B) fast glycolytic fibers C) both slow and fast oxidative fibers D) fast oxidative fibers Answer: B Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 54) Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________. A) slow oxidative fibers B) fast glycolytic C) both slow and fast oxidative D) fast oxidative fibers Answer: A Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 55) A potential benefit of recruiting slow oxidative fibers for contraction before recruiting fast oxidative and fast glycolytic fibers might be ________. A) to allow for fine control with delicate contractile force with a small stimulus B) because they are slower to respond, slow oxidative fibers must be stimulated first in order to contract simultaneously with the faster fibers C) recruiting slow oxidative fibers early helps to tire them out first so that they won't interfere with the more powerful contractions of fast glycolytic fibers D) There is little to no benefit from recruiting slow oxidative fibers first, and therefore it is in fact fast glycolytic fibers that will be recruited first. Answer: A Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating

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56) Addition of more mitochondria to a muscle fiber will have the greatest effect on ________. A) slow oxidative fibers B) fast glycolytic fibers C) both slow and fast oxidative fibers D) fast oxidative fibers Answer: A Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 57) If given the exact same amount of ATP, which of the three fiber types would be able to contract for the longest amount of time? A) fast glycolytic fibers B) slow oxidative fibers C) both fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fibers D) fast oxidative fibers Answer: B Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 58) The 100-meter dash is a quick and short run requiring explosive speed. On completion of the dash, the runners will continue to breathe hard for several seconds to minutes even though they are no longer running. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? A) The runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose, and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake. B) Since the exercise was mostly aerobic exercise, the runners' bodies have not yet realized the run is over. C) The runners' fast oxidative muscles are so slow to utilize oxygen, they only begin aerobic respiration by the time the run has finished. D) Slow oxidative fibers are recruited last and have only started to work at completion of the run. Answer: A Section: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Only ________ muscle cells are multinucleated. Answer: skeletal Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The end of the muscle that is attached to the part of the body in motion when a muscle contracts is called the ________. Answer: insertion Section: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The enzyme ________ is present in the synaptic cleft at the neuromuscular junction. Its activity stops the neurotransmitters stimulation. Answer: acetylcholinesterase Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which cells help repair injured skeletal muscle fibers and allows regeneration of dead skeletal muscle? Answer: satellite cells Section: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Only ________ muscle cells have intercalated discs at their gap junctions. Answer: cardiac Section: 9.1 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) A smooth, sustained contraction from rapid stimulation of skeletal muscle fibers is called ________. Answer: tetanus Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Define muscle fatigue. Answer: It is an inability of the muscle to contract despite continued stimulation. Section: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Describe two ways in which the lack of ATP production results in rigor mortis. Answer: Following the death of an individual, ATP is rapidly consumed and cannot be replaced. Because cross bridge detachment and calcium active transport are ATP-driven, calcium leakage from the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes attachment of cross bridges, and lack of ATP prevents detachments. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) What ultimately stops muscle stimulation when the motor neuron ceases firing? Answer: The ultimate switch is the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. When the neuron stops releasing ACh, the muscle would not stop contracting if the acetylcholinesterase did not split the ACh into its two components, acetic acid and choline, making them release their binding sites. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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10) Describe the anatomical parts of the muscle triad and how the function of these organelles work together to initiate contraction. Answer: The parts of the muscle triad are two adjacent SR terminal cisterns plus one intervening T tubule. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a reservoir for calcium ions in the cell's normal resting state. The T tubule is a fold in the cell membrane between the sarcoplasmic reticuli. When an impulse is activated by a motor neuron, the voltage-regulated change causes SR foot proteins to open Ca2+ channels. The calcium ions are flushed out where they interact with the troponin complex to initiate a contraction. Once the axon stops firing, the membrane polarity is quickly restored and the calcium ions are pulled off the troponin and attracted back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Briefly explain the sources of energy for a one-minute sustained muscle contraction. Answer: 1. The first 4-6 seconds of energy come from stored ATP in the muscle cell. 2. 6-15 seconds of energy come from the transfer of creatine phosphate and ADP (which come from the first few seconds of burn) to form additional ATP. 3. 15-60 seconds of energy come from glycolysis, which by now has begun full production of ATP from glucose. Section: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Caveolae are an anatomical feature of smooth muscle. Describe this anatomical feature and specifically how it improves smooth muscles' response to nervous stimulation Answer: Caveolae are pouch like inholdings on the sarcolemma that contain many voltage gated calcium ion channels. These inholdings greatly increase the surface area that will respond to nervous stimulation. Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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13) How is it that norepinephrine (NE) can inhibit smooth muscle action in airways, yet stimulate contractions in smooth muscles everywhere else in the body? Answer: Norepinephrine's effects depend upon the action of the receptor to which it binds. There is a different type of NE receptor on bronchiolar muscle than the NE receptor in other places. Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) Describe how the unique contractile mechanism of smooth muscle allows it to contract and remain in a contracted state for long periods of time with relatively little energy expenditure. Answer: Smooth muscle possesses a latch state in which it can maintain its new length while relaxed and therefore hold a contracted state using little energy. Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Describe the difference between muscle tension, muscle contraction and a muscle twitch. Answer: A muscle twitch is the response of a motor unit to a single action potential from a motor neuron. A twitch consists of three phases, latent period, contraction and relaxation. Contraction is simply the activation of the myosin cross bridge cycle and tension is the force that is excreted by this contraction. Section: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9.5 Clinical Questions 1) Gary was injured in an automobile accident that severed the motor neurons innervating his quadriceps. Even though he has had extensive physical therapy, he is still suffering from muscle atrophy. Why is the therapy not working? Answer: In denervation atrophy, fibrous connective tissue replaces the muscle tissue that was lost. When atrophy is complete, fibrous tissue cannot be reversed to muscle tissue. Section: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Aaron arrived at the hospital with the following symptoms: drooping eyelids; fatigue and weakness of his muscles; and difficulty talking, breathing, and swallowing. What was his diagnosis? Answer: Aaron probably has myasthenia gravis (an autoimmune disease), which involves a shortage of ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Section: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Lynn has been waking up each night with intense pain in her calves. She does not feel that it is serious enough to seek medical attention but would like to know what is causing the pain. What would you tell her concerning this problem? She has been playing tennis all summer for several hours each day. Could this have anything to do with the night pain? Answer: This is due to sustained spasm, or tetanic contraction, of the gastrocnemius muscle. The causes could be low blood sugar, electrolyte depletion (particularly sodium and calcium), dehydration, or irritability of the spinal cord neurons. The fact that Lynn has been playing tennis for several hours each day may have caused an electrolyte depletion. She should increase her intake of sodium and calcium. Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) After much delayed removal of an elbow cast, Lauren noticed her arm was immovable. What happened to her arm? Answer: Two things have occurred to Lauren while she was convalescing from her injury. First, the immobilization of the arm caused some muscle mass to atrophy. Second, the loss of muscle was replaced with tough connective tissue that locked her arm in place. With therapy the tissue can be stretched or torn enough to return the full range of motion. Section: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) When a geriatric patient is admitted to the postsurgical unit, an important nursing measure is to prevent the loss of muscle mass. What is the term used for loss of muscle mass and how can the patient prevent it? Answer: Disuse atrophy is degeneration and loss of muscle mass. The size, shape, tone, and strength of muscles (including the heart) are maintained with mild exercise and increased with strenuous exercise. Promoting exercise to maintain a patient's muscle tone, joint mobility, and cardiovascular function is an important nursing function. Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) A patient has no peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract. Explain a possible complication of this condition. Answer: Peristalsis is wavelike movement produced by the circular and longitudinal muscle fibers of the intestinal walls that propels the intestinal contents forward. Without peristalsis, the patient would be unable to expel his or her stool, leading to abdominal discomfort, then vomiting, and finally obstruction. Section: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The nurse encourages the patient to do his own activities of daily living such as bathing, eating, dressing, and toileting activities. How do these activities promote physical conditioning? Answer: These activities are isotonic exercises in which muscle tension is constant and then shortens to produce muscle contraction and movement. Because the muscles contract, the shape, size, and strength of the muscles are maintained as well as joint mobility. Section: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). Discuss what this means in terms of the boy's muscles and what should his parents expect to observe. Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a muscle disorder inherited as a sex-linked recessive disease and is expressed almost exclusively in males. Active, normal appearing boys become clumsy and fall frequently as their skeletal muscles weaken due to atrophy and degeneration. It starts at the extremities and moves upward toward the head and chest muscles, and cardiac muscle. Section: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 10 The Muscular System 10.1 Matching Questions

Figure 10.1 Using Figure 10.1, match the following: 1) Second-class lever. Answer: A Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Humerus-ulna joint. Answer: B Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Tibia-calcaneus joint. Answer: A Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Atlanto-occipital joint. Answer: C Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) First-class lever. Answer: C Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The action of lifting a shovel of snow. Answer: B Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 10.2 Using Figure 10.2, match the following: 7) Deltoid. Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Serratus anterior. Answer: E Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Sternocleidomastoid. Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Pectoralis minor. Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Coracobrachialis. Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 10.3 Using Figure 10.3, match the following: 12) Trapezius muscle. Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Teres major muscle. Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) The latissimus dorsi. Answer: E Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Rotates scapula. Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Rhomboid minor and Rhomboid major. Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Elevates and adducts scapula. Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following muscle actions: A) Flexor digitorum profundus B) Flexor carpi ulnaris C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis D) Palmaris longus 18) Powerful flexor and adductor of hand. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Flexes distal interphalangeal joints. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Stabilizes the wrist during finger extension. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Extends and abducts the hand. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Tenses skin and fascia of palm during hand movements. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) D

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Match the following: A) Synergist B) Fixator C) Antagonist D) Agonist (prime mover) 23) Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle. Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle. Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Muscle that is primarily responsible for bringing about a particular movement. Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement. Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) A

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Match the following: A) Rectus B) Transversus C) Brevis D) Maximus E) Longus 27) Term used to describe short muscles Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Term used to describe long muscles Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Term used to describe muscles with straight fibers. Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Term used to describe muscles that have fibers running at right angles to the reference line. Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Term used to describe muscles that are large. Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 27) C 28) E 29) A 30) B 31) D

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10.2 True/False Questions 1) A wheelbarrow is a good example of a second-class lever. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Muscles are only able to pull, they never push. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) The buccinator muscle compresses the cheek and is well developed in nursing infants. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Deep muscles of the thorax promote movements for breathing. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The soleus is an antagonist of the gastrocnemius during plantar flexion. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Muscles that help to maintain posture are best described as synergists. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11 .


12) In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles are used. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The major head flexors are the sternocleidomastoid muscles, with the help of the muscles attached to the hyoid bone. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Muscle power depends mostly on the total number of muscle fibers (cells) in the muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon) is the largest tendon in the body. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) The diaphragm flattens and moves inferiorly during inspiration. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The broadest muscle of the back is the latissimus dorsi. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Muscle spasms of the back often are due to the erector spinae contraction. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Muscles connecting to the hyoid bone are important for swallowing and speech. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The muscles of facial expression insert into skin or other muscles, not bones. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Most superficial thorax muscles are extrinsic shoulder muscles. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13 .


10.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which type of lever is exemplified by the flexing of the forearm by the biceps brachii muscle? A) a first-class lever B) a second-class lever C) a third-class lever D) a fourth-class lever Answer: C Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop? A) extensor digitorum longus B) tibialis anterior C) extensor hallucis longus D) fibularis tertius Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) What is the major factor controlling how levers work? A) the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever B) the weight of the load C) the direction the load is being moved D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum Answer: D Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) Which of the following is NOT a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process? A) diaphragm B) external intercostal C) internal intercostal D) latissimus dorsi Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? A) the length B) the shape C) the number of neurons innervating it D) the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction Answer: D Section: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? A) a synergist B) an agonist (prime mover) C) an antagonist D) a fixator Answer: B Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively. B) The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively. C) The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively. D) The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively. Answer: A Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________. A) quadriceps femoris B) rectus abdominis C) gastrocnemius D) gluteus maximus Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the following describes a bipennate pattern of fascicles? A) an arrangement that looks like many feathers side by side B) an arrangement in which the fascicles insert into only one side of a tendon C) an arrangement of five fascicles on each side of the tendon D) an arrangement in which the fascicles insert into the tendon from opposite sides Answer: D Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles? A) They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed. B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity. C) They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing. D) They are often called strap muscles. Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action? A) to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally B) to initiate abduction of the arm, to stabilize the shoulder joint and to help prevent downward dislocation of the humerus C) to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi D) to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which of the following muscles are rotator cuff muscles? A) supraspinatus B) supraspinatus and infraspinatus C) supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor D) supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres mino, and subscapularis Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead? A) the medial pterygoid B) the zygomaticus major C) the frontal belly of the epicranius D) the temporalis Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) At the grocery store a cute, little curly-haired child is standing behind you in line. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use? A) orbicularis oris B) stylohyoid C) hyoglossus D) genioglossus Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which of these is the function of the external oblique muscles? A) flex vertebral column and compress abdominal wall B) pull ribs toward one another to elevate the rib cage C) extend vertebral column and head and rotates them to opposite sides D) elevate and adduct scapula in synergy with superior fibers of trapezius Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other to produce the cross-legged position? A) the gastrocnemius B) the sartorius C) all of the hamstrings D) the quadriceps femoris Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which of the following muscles inserts to the posterior calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon? A) the semitendinosus B) the sartorius C) the tibialis anterior D) the gastrocnemius Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) If a lever operates at a mechanical advantage, it means that the ________. A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum B) lever system is useless C) effort is farther than the load from the fulcrum D) load is near the fulcrum and the effort is applied far from the fulcrum Answer: D Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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19) Which of the following muscles fixes and stabilizes the pelvis during walking? A) internal oblique B) external oblique C) transversus abdominis D) rectus abdominis Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________. A) antagonist B) fixator C) synergist D) agonist (prime mover) Answer: A Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? A) an antagonist B) a prime mover C) a synergist D) an agonist Answer: C Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings? A) gracilis B) semitendinosus C) semimembranosus D) biceps femoris Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that inserts to the muscle which adults also use for whistling (orbicularis oris). What is this muscle called? A) platysma B) masseter C) zygomaticus D) buccinator Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 24) The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the ________. A) sternum B) clavicle C) platysma D) mastoid process of the temporal bone Answer: D Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) In general, a muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces ________. A) extension B) abduction C) flexion D) adduction Answer: C Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of these is NOT a way of classifying muscles? A) muscle location B) the type of muscle fibers C) the type of action they cause D) muscle shape Answer: B Section: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following muscles is used to form a smile? A) corrugator supercilli B) orbicularis oris C) zygomaticus major D) mentalis Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris? A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips. B) It pulls the lower lip down and back. C) It draws the eyebrows together. D) It closes the eye. Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22 .


29) Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs? A) quadriceps B) thigh adductors C) lateral rotators D) hamstrings Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called? A) speed levers B) power levers C) functional levers D) dysfunctional levers Answer: B Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions? A) the triceps brachii B) the anconeus C) the brachioradialis D) the flexor digitorum profundus Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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32) Which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly? A) diaphragm alone B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus C) external intercostals and diaphragm D) rectus abdominis and diaphragm Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh? A) biceps femoris B) vastus medialis C) soleus D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) First-class levers ________. A) have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle B) are typified by tweezers or forceps C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location D) are used when standing on tip-toe Answer: C Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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35) What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common? A) All names reflect direction of muscle fibers. B) Each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw. C) All act on the tongue. D) All names indicate the relative size of the muscle. Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF? A) first-class lever B) second-class lever C) third-class lever D) fourth-class lever Answer: C Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh at the hip? A) tibialis posterior B) vastus lateralis C) adductor magnus D) gluteus maximus Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint? A) tibialis anterior B) extensor digitorum longus C) fibularis (peroneus) tertius D) fibularis (peroneus) longus Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25 .


39) Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed? A) the vastus intermedius B) the vastus medialis C) rectus femoris D) the vastus lateralis Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee? A) hamstring muscles B) gluteal muscles C) brachioradialis D) soleus Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Which of the following muscles does NOT act in plantar flexion? A) popliteus B) tibialis posterior C) flexor digitorum longus D) gastrocnemius and soleus Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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42) ________ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint. A) Brachialis B) Triceps brachii C) Brachioradialis D) Biceps brachii Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) The ________ is known as the "boxer's muscle." A) biceps brachii B) flexor digitorum longus C) serratus anterior D) rectus abdominis Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) The ________ runs deep to the internal oblique. A) rectus abdominis B) external oblique C) latissimus dorsi D) transversus abdominis Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing. A) orbicularis oris B) mentalis C) risorius D) buccinator Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27 .


46) The ________ tightens the neck and draws the corners of the mouth downward as in expressing horror. A) sternohyoid B) mentalis C) platysma D) sternocleidomastoid Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) The ________ is the main chewing muscle. A) hyoglossus B) masseter C) lateral pterygoid D) buccinator Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) The abnormal protrusion of the small intestine through a weak point in the muscle of the abdominal wall is called a ________. A) hernia B) sprain C) pulled muscle D) hyperextension Answer: A Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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49) The quadriceps femoris is composed of three "vastus" muscles and the ________. A) biceps femoris B) rectus femoris C) semitendinosus D) semimembranosus Answer: B Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) The ________ is a synergist of the latissimus dorsi; it extends, medially rotates, and adducts the humerus. A) teres minor B) infraspinatus C) teres major D) supraspinatus Answer: C Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) The ________ extends the great toe. A) tibialis anterior B) fibularis (peroneous)tertius C) gastrocneumius D) extensor hallucis longus Answer: D Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10.4 Short Answer Questions 1) From superficial to deep, order the transversus abdominis, external oblique and internal oblique muscles. Describe the orientation of the muscle fibers for each of these as well as for the rectus abdominis muscles. Answer: Fibers of the external oblique muscle run downward and medially (like outstretched fingers in pants pockets) and at right angles to those of the internal oblique that runs just deep to it. Under these is the transversus abdominis whose fibers run horizontally across the abdomen at an angle to both oblique muscles. The rectus abdominis muscles run medially from the pubis to the rib cage. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) What are the components of a lever system? Describe the role of each component. Answer: The lever system components are lever, fulcrum, effort, and load. The lever is a rigid bar that moves on a fixed point (the fulcrum) when a force is applied to it. The applied force, or effort, is used to move a resistance, or load. Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Bodybuilders are known for their "great quads." Describe the quadriceps muscles. Answer: These are the muscles of the front and sides of the thigh, and include the rectus femoris and the lateral, medial, and intermediate vastus muscles. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) A woman mentions to her friend that another person on the beach has "great abs." What is she talking about? Answer: The woman is referring to well-developed rectus abdominis muscles. This is a term coined by bodybuilders and refers to the bulging muscles between the tendinous intersections. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Muscles that act as synergists seem to have valuable functions, especially in stabilizing joints. Briefly explain their functions. Answer: Synergists aid prime movers (agonists) by promoting the same movement or by reducing undesirable or unnecessary movements that might occur as the prime mover contracts. These latter muscles are called fixators. Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) How does an antagonist differ from a prime mover (agonist)? How is it the same? Answer: A prime mover is the muscle that causes the desired movement to occur. An antagonist is a muscle that opposes the action of the prime mover in a given movement. If, however, the direction of movement reverses, the former antagonist is now the prime mover and the former prime mover is now the antagonist. Section: 10.1 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) An elderly woman, with extensive osteoarthritis of her left hip joint, entered the hospital to have a total hip joint replacement (prosthesis implantation). After surgery, her left hip had to be maintained in abduction to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis while healing was occurring. An abduction pillow was used to keep the legs apart, especially when lying on her side. Name the abductor muscles and describe the action of each that need to be strengthened in order to help maintain abduction. Answer: Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, and gluteus minimus. These muscles originate on the pelvis; they act as major extensors of the thigh and abduct and rotate the thigh as well. The tensor fascia lata also abducts the thigh. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) A wide receiver for a college football team pulled a hamstring muscle. What muscles could be affected and what would the effect be? Answer: The muscles include the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus. They are important flexors of the leg and extensors of the thigh. Injuries here could make it impossible to run properly or to extend the thigh. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31 .


9) How can a lever system work at a mechanical disadvantage but still be of use to us? Answer: A lever that operates with the load far from the fulcrum and the effort applied near the fulcrum is operating at a disadvantage in terms of power, but the advantage is that the load can move over large distances at a rapid rate. Wielding a shovel is an example. Section: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) List and describe the muscles involved in biting and chewing an apple? Answer: Open and close lips—levator labii superioris and orbicularis oris Open the mouth—digastric and mylohyoid Closing the mouth and chewing—masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids Tongue—genioglossus, hypoglossus, and styloglossus Extra—buccinator holds food in teeth grinding area Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) A college student told her friend that she was going to the gym to work on tightening her gluteus maximus. Which muscle is she referring to and what is its function? Answer: The college student was referring to the largest and most superficial gluteus muscle that forms the bulk of the buttock mass. It functions as the major extensor of the thigh and is most effective when the thigh is flexed and force is necessary. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Damage to the ischiocavernosus muscle would have what effect? Answer: In the male, it would be impossible to achieve an erection of the penis. In the female, the clitoris would not become erect. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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10.5 Clinical Questions 1) David is playing football when he suffers from a ruptured calcaneal tendon. The rupture is accompanied by abrupt pain and the calf muscle bulges due to the release of two muscles from their insertion. Name these two muscles. Answer: Gastrocnemius and soleus. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Brian decided to enter a 5-mile race designed to raise money for a class trip. He did not do any preconditioning, nor has he ever jogged before. The morning after the race, Brian had so much pain in both his shins, he was unable to go to school. What caused this pain? Answer: Brian was not conditioned for this type of run, and he now has shin splints. This is a condition in which the anterior tibialis muscle is irritated, and as the inflamed muscle swells, its circulation is impaired by the tight fascial wrappings, causing pain and tenderness. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) A young pregnant woman went to a childbirth class and the instructor informed them about strengthening the muscles of the pelvic floor. What are these muscles? Answer: The levator ani and coccygeus muscles form the bulk of the pelvic diaphragm (pelvic floor). Strengthening these muscles helps in the delivery of the child by resisting downward forces when "pushing." Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) A nurse can facilitate respiratory functioning by encouraging deep breathing exercises such as diaphragmatic breathing. Explain diaphragmatic breathing. Answer: Diaphragmatic breathing is the alternating contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm causing pressure in the abdominopelvic cavity below that facilitates blood to the heart. Diaphragmatic breathing promotes maximum inhalation and lung expansion. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) In emphysema, the lungs become overdistended with trapped air, which increases the effort required for breathing. Describe the muscles involved when breathing becomes a forced process, such as a patient who has emphysema. Answer: During forced inspiration, the scalenes and sternocleidomastoid muscles help lift the ribs and the erector spinae muscle help in deep inspiration. Forced expiration is aided by internal intercostal muscles that pull the ribs inferiorly and by abdominal wall muscles that push the diaphragm superiorly by compressing the abdominal contents. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) The nurse is explaining Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles. What factors may contribute to a weakening of the pelvic floor muscles? Answer: Aging and multiple births. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Tom has been told that he has an inguinal hernia. What is an inguinal hernia and what is its possible cause? Answer: An inguinal hernia is an abnormal protrusion of abdominal contents, usually the small intestine, through a weak spot in muscles of the abdominal wall. It is usually a result of increased intraabdominal pressure during lifting or straining. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) A patient has a stroke and has weakness on his right side. How will the weakness affect his ability to swallow? Answer: The patient may have difficulty swallowing related to weakness or paralysis of the suprahyoid muscles. The suprahyoid muscles help elevate the larynx and close the epiglottis to prevent choking during the swallowing process. Section: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 11 Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue 11.1 Matching Questions

Figure 11.1 Using Figure 11.1, match the following: 1) Which neuron would activate to a muscle? Answer: A Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Which neuron would be found in the retina of the eye? Answer: B Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which neuron is a sensory neuron found in a reflex arc? Answer: C Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which neuron is never myelinated? Answer: B Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which neuron is typically involved in the special senses of sight and smell? Answer: B Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) In a reflex arc, which neuron has its cell body inside the spinal cord? Answer: A Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which neuron is common only in dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord and sensory ganglia of cranial nerves? Answer: C Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 2 .


Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which is by far the most common neuron type? Answer: A Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

Figure 11.2 Using Figure 11.2, match the following: 9) Ion channel. Answer: E Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) Synaptic vesicles. Answer: C Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Calcium ions. Answer: A Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Postsynaptic membrane. Answer: B Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Synaptic cleft. Answer: D Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Absolute refractory period B) Action potential C) Repolarization D) Relative refractory period E) Depolarization 14) The neuron cannot respond to a second stimulus, no matter how strong. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.13, 11.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The interior of the cell becomes less negative due to an influx of sodium ions. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.13, 11.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.13, 11.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Also called a nerve impulse transmitted by axons. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.13, 11.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) An exceptionally strong stimulus can trigger a response. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.13, 11.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 14) A 15) E 16) C 17) B 18) D

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Match the following: A) Hyperpolarization B) Threshold stimulus C) Repolarization D) Depolarization 19) Voltage-gated Na+ channels open. Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Na+ channels are inactivating, and voltage-gated K+ channels open. Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Some K+ channels remain open, and Na+ channels rest. Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Any stimulus at or above this level will result in action potential. Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) B

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Match the following: A) Secretory zone B) Receptive region C) Trigger zone D) Secretory region E) Conducting region 23) Area where nerve impulse is generated. Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Receives stimuli. Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Plasma membrane exhibits voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels. Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Plasma membrane exhibits voltage-gated Ca2+ channels. Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Axon terminals release neurotransmitters. Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) Plasma membrane exhibits chemically gated ion channels. Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 23) C 24) B 25) E 26) D 27) A 28) B

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Match the following: A) Parallel after-discharge circuit B) Converging circuit C) Diverging circuit D) Reverberating circuit 29) One incoming axon triggers responses in ever-increasing numbers farther and farther along the circuit. Section: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) May be involved in complex, exacting types of mental processing. Section: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Involved in control of rhythmic activities such as breathing. Section: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Involved in activating fibers of a skeletal muscle such as the biceps muscle. Section: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Different types of sensory input can have the same ultimate effect. Section: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) B

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11.2 True/False Questions 1) The all-or-none phenomenon as applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must be stimulated for conduction to take place. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli that will produce the same effect every time. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The peripheral nervous system is divided into afferent and efferent divisions. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Enkephalins and endorphins are peptides that act like morphine. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Axon diameter and degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Astrocytes are the most abundant and versatile glial cells that function to support and brace neurons Answer: TRUE Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Current is equal to the sum of voltage and resistance. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division Answer: D Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division Answer: A Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division Answer: B Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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4) Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve sends nerve impulses to the brain carrying information about the things we see. These nerve fibers most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division Answer: A Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this? A) satellite cells B) astrocytes C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes Answer: B Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Some nerve fibers of the peripheral nervous system have the ability to regenerate after damage has occurred. Which of the following cells is most responsible for aiding in this regulation? A) satellite cells B) astrocytes C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes Answer: C Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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7) It is important for newly developed neurons to form synapses with other neurons. Which cells are most responsible for guiding the formation of these particular junctions? A) satellite cells B) astrocytes C) Schwann cells D) microglial cells Answer: B Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection? A) microglia B) satellite cells C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes Answer: A Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Like all cells, the neurons' internal organization dictates its function. Neurons have relatively many mitochondria, an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many clusters of ribosomes. These cellular features indicate all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) neurons must meet a high demand for ATP B) neurons have a relatively high consumption of oxygen C) neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments D) neurons produce many proteins Answer: C Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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10) An action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. Which of the following examples below best illustrates the positive feedback aspect of an action potential? A) Voltage gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization. B) A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. This stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels. C) The sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is available, and regardless of membrane potential changes. D) Potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions. Answer: B Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) The depolarization phase of an action potential is punctuated by the closing of inactivation gates in the voltage gated sodium ion channels. All of the following are consequences of this inactivation EXCEPT one. Choose the statement below that is NOT a consequence of the closing of inactivating gates. A) This allows for the one way transmission of action potential down the axon. B) This stops the depolarization of the axon membrane. C) This allows for the efflux (diffusion out) of potassium ions, resulting in the repolarization of the cell. D) This limits the frequency of action potentials down the axon. Answer: C Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) During the relative refractory period of an action potential, a larger than normal stimulus is needed to cause another action potential. This is due to the fact that ________. A) the membrane is now impermeable to all ions B) the inactivation gates on voltage gated sodium ion channels are closed C) the sodium potassium pump will stop working during relative refractory D) the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the axon membrane Answer: D Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16 .


13) If a postsynaptic neuron is stimulated to threshold by spatial summation this implies that ________. A) the postsynaptic cell has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons B) the postsynaptic cell has a lower than normal threshold C) the postsynaptic cell has many voltage gated ion channels D) the postsynaptic cell is slow to repolarize Answer: A Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) If a postsynaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that ________. A) a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP B) the presynaptic neuron is sending frequent IPSP C) the postsynaptic cell is sending frequent action potential D) the postsynaptic cell can be influenced by only one presynaptic cell Answer: A Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) When a neurotransmitter like acetylcholine is acting in an excitatory manner which of the following is likely a result of the acetylcholine acting on the postsynaptic cell? A) Chemically gated sodium channels will open. B) Chemically gated chloride channels will open. C) Chemically gated potassium channels will open. D) Chemically gated sodium channels will be closed. Answer: A Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.18, 11.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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16) When a neurotransmitter like GABA is acting in an inhibitory manner which of the following is likely a result of the GABA acting on the postsynaptic cell? A) depolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane B) hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane C) opening of chemically gated sodium channels D) influx of positively charged ions into the postsynaptic cell Answer: B Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.18, 11.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so? A) Acetylcholine has many different forms. B) Different postsynaptic cells will have different receptors. C) Postsynaptic cells have a dynamic and changing metabolism and respond differently at different times. D) Acetylcholine has a "dose effect." Larger doses are stimulating while small doses inhibit. Answer: B Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18) Which of the following is NOT a function of dendrites? A) provide enormous surface area for receiving signals from other neurons B) generate nerve impulses and transmit them away from the cell body C) convey incoming messages toward the cell body D) produce short-distance signals called graded potentials Answer: B Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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19) Which of the choices below describes the ANS? A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands B) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles C) sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS D) sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract Answer: A Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid. A) ependymal cells B) Schwann cells C) oligodendrocytes D) astrocytes Answer: A Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus? A) origin of the stimulus B) type of stimulus receptor C) frequency of action potentials D) size of action potentials Answer: C Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________. A) motor neurons B) called neuroglial cells C) found in ganglia D) found in the retina of the eye Answer: D Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? A) cholinesterase B) norepinephrine C) acetylcholine D) gamma aminobutyric acid Answer: C Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function? A) senses changes in the environment B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions C) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction Answer: B Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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25) The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is NOT sensitive to another stimulus is the ________. A) resting period B) repolarization C) depolarization D) absolute refractory period Answer: D Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neurons? A) They conduct impulses. B) They have extreme longevity. C) They are mitotic. D) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate. Answer: C Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials? A) mechanically-gated channel B) voltage-gated channel C) leakage channel D) ligand-gated channel Answer: B Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following? A) inability to release acetylcholine B) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh C) inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft D) stimulation of the production of acetylcholine Answer: C Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.16, 11.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 29) Which of the following is NOT a function of the autonomic nervous system? A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract B) innervation of cardiac muscle C) innervation of glands D) innervation of skeletal muscle Answer: D Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________. A) nuclei B) nerves C) ganglia D) tracts Answer: C Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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31) The term central nervous system refers to the ________. A) spinal nerves B) sensory (afferent) nerves C) brain and spinal cord D) somatic nerves Answer: C Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.1, 11.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ________. A) efferent neuron B) afferent neuron C) interneuron D) glial cell Answer: C Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________. A) the myelin sheath B) large nerve fibers C) diphasic impulses D) erratic transmission of nerve impulses Answer: A Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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34) Which of the following is NOT a chemical class of neurotransmitters? A) amino acid B) biogenic amine C) ATP and other purines D) nucleic acid Answer: D Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following is FALSE or incorrect? A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold. B) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal. C) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane. Answer: B Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) Select the correct statement regarding chemical synapses. A) Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses. B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled. C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells. D) The synaptic cleft uses the action potential to transmit a chemical signal to the postsynaptic cell. Answer: D Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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37) Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential? A) It travels long distances. B) It can have amplitudes of various sizes. C) It is initiated by voltage changes in the membrane. D) It has a depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization phase. Answer: B Section: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. A) ependymal cells B) microglia C) oligodendrocytes D) astrocytes Answer: C Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open? A) voltage-gated sodium channels B) chemically-gated chloride channels C) voltage-gated calcium channels D) voltage-gated potassium channels Answer: D Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________. A) a change in sodium ion permeability B) hyperpolarization C) opening of voltage-regulated channels D) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur Answer: B Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25 .


41) Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane? A) Specific sodium gates will open. B) Specific potassium gates will open. C) Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open. D) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium. Answer: D Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________. A) postsynaptic potential B) excitatory potential C) action potential D) generator potential Answer: D Section: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following is NOT true of graded potentials? A) They are short-lived. B) They can form on receptor endings. C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point. D) They can be called postsynaptic potentials. Answer: C Section: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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44) Which of the following is TRUE about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes? A) Ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels. B) Ions always move passively across membranes. C) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes. D) Ions always move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. Answer: C Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________. A) the membrane potential has been reestablished B) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell C) proteins have been resynthesized D) all sodium gates are closed Answer: A Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) The interior surface of a neuron's plasma membrane at resting membrane potential will have a ________. A) positive charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell B) negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell C) negative charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell D) positive charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell Answer: B Section: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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47) If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon, ________. A) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only B) muscle contraction would occur C) the impulse would spread bidirectionally D) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only, and the muscle contraction would occur Answer: C Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 48) Which of the following neurotransmitters is the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord? A) acetylcholine B) endorphin C) serotonin D) glycine Answer: D Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential? A) short distance hyperpolarization B) short distance depolarization C) opens K+ or Cl- channels D) moves membrane potential away from threshold Answer: B Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The part of the nervous system that conducts impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles is the ________ nervous system. Answer: somatic Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Neuroglia found in the CNS that change the permeability of capillaries in the brain by binding to and surrounding these blood vessels are called ________. Answer: astrocytes Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which group of neurotransmitters play a role in emotional behavior and help regulate the biological clock? Answer: biogenic amine neurotransmitters Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) What mechanism is responsible for axonal transport? Answer: ATP-dependent "motor" proteins such as kinesin and dynein myosin are responsible. They propel cellular components along microtubules. Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than in adults is the ________. Answer: electrical synapse Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) When information is delivered within the CNS simultaneously by different parts of the neural pathway, the process is called ________ processing. Answer: parallel Section: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ________ summation. Answer: temporal Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) What is the role of microglial cells and why are they so important in the CNS? Answer: In the presence of invading microbes, microglial cells become macrophages to phagocytize the microbes and neuronal debris. This protective role is important because cells of the immune system are denied access to the CNS. Section: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Define synaptic delay. Answer: Synaptic delay reflects the time required for neurotransmitter release, diffusion across the synaptic cleft, and binding to receptors. Section: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) What is the difference between a direct acting neurotransmitter and an indirect acting neurotransmitter? Answer: Direct acting neurotransmitters bind to and open ion channels. Indirect acting neurotransmitters act through intracellular second-messenger molecules. Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30 .


11) What function is served by the increased axon diameter at the nodes of Ranvier? Answer: Increased diameter results in less resistance to lengthwise intra-axonal flow. This results in increased speed of impulse propagation. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Imagine a neuron that has several hundred axonal knobs impinging on it. The majority of these axonal knobs are shown to be "firing." However, the neuron in question does not transmit an impulse. Give a valid explanation of why this could occur. Answer: Both excitatory and inhibitory potentials impinge on neurons. In this case, inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) outnumber EPSPs, and due to the IPSP neurotransmitter released and its action, the postsynaptic neuron is inhibited from "firing" (hyperpolarized). Section: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) At the biochemical level, what is the explanation of the hyperpolarization phase at the conclusion of the action potential? Answer: The voltage gated K+ channels are slow to open as well as to close. These channels will remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the cell. The K+ ions decrease the positive ion concentration momentarily below the normal -70mV and thus hyperpolarize the cell. This assists in preventing the AP from reversing direction. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) What are the basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system? Answer: Sensory and motor divisions. Sensory has two divisions: the somatic and visceral. Motor has two divisions: the somatic and autonomic. The autonomic has two divisions: the sympathetic and parasympathetic. Section: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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15) Because all action potentials are alike, how does the brain separate situations that require immediate attention from ordinary "positional" reports? Answer: The importance of a stimulus is derived from the number of stimuli received from the same source. The frequency of impulse transmission indicates the stimulus intensity and the brain responds appropriately. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11.5 Clinical Questions 1) Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disease in which the myelin sheaths are destroyed. What process does this interfere with and what would be the consequence? Answer: Demyelination interferes with saltatory conduction, which would result in a slowing down and even permanent cessation of nerve impulse propagation. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A patient is admitted to the hospital with exacerbation of multiple sclerosis (MS). She asks the nurse, "Why did this have to happen to me again? I was doing so well." Explain why some forms of MS are characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation. Answer: Even though someone is diagnosed with MS, the axons are not damaged. Growing numbers of sodium channels appear spontaneously in the demyelinated fibers so that conduction resumes, even if slower. This may account for the cycles of relapse and remission in different patients. Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) A heroin addict was brought into the emergency room. The addict's friend asks the emergency room physician why heroin and morphine are such addictive drugs. How does the physician respond? Answer: The physician would respond that heroin, morphine, and other opiates cause the body to have the same responses as when endorphins are released. Endorphins are neurotransmitters that inhibit pain. Section: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 32 .


4) What symptoms would a nurse focus on in his or her care of a patient with multiple sclerosis? Answer: Visual disturbances, paralysis, and weakness Section: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Sally, a 5-year-old child, was bitten on the hand by a bat that was later diagnosed with rabies. She was immediately treated after the bite but had to go through a series of more involved treatments after the rabies diagnosis in the bat that bit her. How does the rabies virus get to the brain from a simple hand wound? Answer: The rabies virus uses retrograde axonal transport to reach the neuron cell bodies as it makes its way to the brain cells. Section: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 12 The Central Nervous System 12.1 Matching Questions

Figure 12.1 Using Figure 12.1, Match the following: w 1) White fiber tracts. Answer: A Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Thalamus. Answer: B Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) Pons. Answer: D Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Hypothalamus. Answer: C Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Medulla Oblongata. Answer: E Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 12.2 Using Figure 12.2, match the following: 6) Pons. Answer: E Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Corpus callosum. Answer: A Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Caudate nucleus. Answer: B Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Globus pallidus. Answer: C Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Thalamus. Answer: D Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 12.3 Using Figure 12.3, match the following: 11) Site of somatic motor neuron cell bodies. Answer: C Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Consists entirely of interneuron cell bodies. Answer: B Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Site of sensory neuron cell bodies. Answer: E Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Gray commissure. Answer: A Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Site of autonomic motor neuron cell bodies. Answer: D Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Area that encloses the central canal. Answer: A Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Unipolar neurons are found here. Answer: E Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Insula B) Parietal lobe C) Premotor cortex D) Primary auditory cortex E) Primary olfactory cortex F) Temporal lobe G) Frontal lobe H) Primary visual cortex I) Occipital lobe 18) Auditory area. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Primary somatosensory cortex. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Primary (somatic) motor cortex. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Motor speech (Broca's) area. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Premotor cortex. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7 .


23) Visual area. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Gustatory (taste) area. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The brain area just anterior to the precentral gyrus that selects and sequences basic motor movements into more complex tasks. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) This brain area lies on the medial aspect of the temporal lobe and allows for conscious awareness of different odors. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The area of the brain located in the superior margin of the temporal lobe that interprets impulses as pitch, loudness, and location. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) This area is on the extreme posterior of the occipital lobe and receives visual information that originates on the retina of the eye. Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) F 19) B 20) G 21) G 22) G 23) I 24) A 25) G 26) C 27) E 28) D 29) H

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Match the following stages of sleep with their descriptions: A) REM B) NREM stage 1 C) NREM stage 4 D) NREM stage 2 E) NREM stage 3 30) The stage when vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, and body temperature) reach their lowest normal levels. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Indicated by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Theta and delta waves begin to appear. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Very easy to awaken; EEG shows alpha waves; may even deny being asleep. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Typified by sleep spindles. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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35) The sleep cycle where bed-wetting, night terrors, and sleepwalking may occur. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) May allow the brain to work through emotional problems in dream imagery. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 30) C 31) A 32) E 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) A

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Match the following: A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebellum C) Brain stem D) Thalamus E) Cerebrum 37) Gateway to the cerebrum. Section: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Ensures coordination and balance. Section: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Produces automatic behaviors necessary for survival. Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Executive suite. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Visceral command center. Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) E 41) A

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Match the following: A) Conus medullaris B) Filum terminale C) Cervical enlargement D) Cauda equina 42) Where nerves serving the upper limbs arise. Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx. Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal. Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Inferior point of termination of the spinal cord in an adult. Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) A 12.2 True/False Questions 1) Passing through the NREM stages (1 through 4), the frequency of the EEG waves declines, but their amplitude increases. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13 .


2) Nuclei relating to the startle reflex are located in the corpora quadrigemina of the midbrain. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Specific motor and sensory functions are localized in specific areas called domains, whereas memory and language have overlapping domains. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) REM sleep begins about 90 minutes after sleep begins. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter, internal white matter, and the superior and inferior colliculi. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons are located in the ventral (anterior) horn of the spinal cord. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) The blood brain barrier is the protective mechanism that helps maintain the brain's stable environment. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The adult spinal cord ends between the level L1 and L2 of the vertebral column. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.18 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The terms fainting and syncope describe the same thing. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The reticular activating system (RAS) is comprised of specific pathways primarily in the limbic system. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Nondeclarative memories preserve the circumstances in which they are learned. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The brain and spinal cord begin as an embryonic structure called the neural plate. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) In most people, the left cerebral hemisphere has greater control over language abilities, math, and logic. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective (feelings), brain. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The canal connecting the third and fourth ventricles and running through the midbrain is the interventricular foramen. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Commissural fibers connect the cerebrum to the diencephalon. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) A disturbance of posture, muscle tremors at rest, and uncontrolled muscle contraction are all symptoms of damage to the basal nuclei. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.9 Learning Outcome: 12.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Most of the ascending and descending pathways to and from the brain cross over (decussate) from one side of the body to the other. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.11 Learning Outcome: 12.23 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the control of the rate and depth of breathing. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the hypothalamus. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Embryonic damage to the mesencephalon could result in improper formation of the midbrain. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which brain structure functions to control the autonomic nervous system and to regulate body temperature? A) hypothalamus B) mammillary body C) pons D) medulla oblongata Answer: A Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Nuclei of cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VI (abducens), and VII (facial) are found in the ________. A) midbrain B) medulla C) pons D) cerebrum Answer: C Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The arbor vitae refers to ________. A) cerebellar gray matter B) cerebellar white matter C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum D) flocculonodular nodes Answer: B Section: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The brain stem consists of the ________. A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla B) midbrain, medulla, and pons C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain D) midbrain only Answer: B Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the ________. A) prefrontal lobe B) frontal lobe C) temporal lobe D) parietal lobe Answer: D Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Spinocerebellar tracts ________. A) terminate in the spinal cord B) carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum C) give rise to conscious experience of perception D) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord Answer: B Section: 12.11 Learning Outcome: 12.24 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain? A) ependymal cells B) neurons C) epithelial cells D) astrocytes Answer: A Section: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges? A) arachnoid and epidura B) arachnoid and pia C) arachnoid and dura D) dura and epidura Answer: B Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20 .


9) Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________. A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) midbrain D) cerebrum Answer: B Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in ________. A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord C) the thalamus D) sympathetic ganglia Answer: A Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) What groove separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe? A) central sulcus B) longitudinal fissure C) parieto-occipital sulcus D) lateral fissure Answer: A Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Which of the following best describes the cerebrum? A) motor command center B) visceral command center C) executive suite D) decussation center Answer: C Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) An elevated ridge of the cortex is called a ________. A) sulcus B) fissure C) gyrus D) furrow Answer: C Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which of the following generalizations does NOT describe the cerebral cortex? A) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas. B) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral side of the body. C) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function. D) No functional area of the cortex works alone. Answer: C Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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15) If the caudal portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________. A) spinal cord may be affected B) cranial nerves would not form C) hindbrain would not be present D) telencephalon would cease development Answer: A Section: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The lateral sulcus separates which lobes? A) frontal from parietal B) parietal from occipital C) temporal from parietal D) frontal from temporal Answer: C Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Neural tracts that convey information to the brain concerning temperature and pain would be ________. A) ventral (anterior) spinothalamic B) reticulospinal C) lateral spinothalamic D) posterior spinothalamic Answer: C Section: 12.11 Learning Outcome: 12.24 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) Which of these would you NOT find in the cerebral cortex? A) cell bodies B) dendrites C) interneurons D) fiber tracts Answer: D Section: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________. A) myelinated nerve fibers only B) unmyelinated nerve fibers only C) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers D) cell bodies Answer: C Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following is NOT a role of the basal nuclei? A) playing a role in cognition and emotion B) controlling starting and stopping movements C) inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements D) initiating protective reflex actions Answer: D Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) An individual accidentally transected (cut across) the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________. A) paraplegia B) hemiplegia C) quadriplegia D) spinal shock only Answer: A Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.22 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________. A) upper motor neurons B) lower motor neurons C) spinal nerve roots D) neuromuscular junction Answer: A Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.22 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________. A) gyri B) sulci C) fissures D) ganglia Answer: A Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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24) The frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the ________. A) longitudinal fissure B) lateral sulcus C) central sulcus D) cranial fossa Answer: B Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Damage to the primary (somatic) motor cortex results in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and all reflexive contractions. B) Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible. C) Damage to the visual association area can result in blindness. D) Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location. Answer: A Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________. A) pyramidal and corticospinal B) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal C) segmental and nigrostriatal D) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine Answer: A Section: 12.11 Learning Outcome: 12.24 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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27) An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________. A) calcarine cortex B) primary visual cortex C) visual association area D) lateral geniculate body Answer: C Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 28) Broca's area ________. A) controls voluntary movements of the eyes B) is usually found only in the right hemisphere C) serves the recognition of complex objects D) is considered a motor speech area Answer: D Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality? A) prefrontal cortex (anterior association area) B) posterior association area C) limbic association area D) combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex Answer: A Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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30) The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________. A) metabolic waste such as urea B) nutrients such as glucose C) alcohol D) anesthetics Answer: A Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) All of the following are structures of the limbic system EXCEPT the ________. A) hippocampus B) cingulate gyrus C) amygdaloid body D) caudate nucleus Answer: D Section: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________. A) association B) automatic memory C) long-term memory D) rehearsal Answer: A Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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33) Which category of memory is involved when playing the piano? A) declarative B) procedural C) motor D) emotional Answer: B Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 34) The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________. A) thalamus B) reticular formation C) pyramids D) limbic system Answer: B Section: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid? A) glucose B) red blood cells C) potassium D) protein Answer: B Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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36) REM sleep is associated with ________. A) decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure B) decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex C) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm D) decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex Answer: C Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of the following is NOT a function of the CSF? A) reduction of brain weight B) protection from blows C) nourishment of the brain D) initiation of some nerve impulses Answer: D Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) sleep disturbances B) loss of body temperature control C) dehydration D) loss of fine motor control Answer: D Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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39) Important nuclei of the indirect (multineuronal) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________. A) red nuclei B) vestibular nuclei C) reticular nuclei D) superior colliculi Answer: B Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which of the following structures is probably NOT directly involved in memory? A) hippocampus B) medulla oblongata C) thalamus D) prefrontal cortex Answer: B Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________. A) olfactory cortex B) gustatory cortex C) vestibular cortex D) visceral sensory area Answer: D Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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42) Which statement about coma is TRUE? A) Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma. B) During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state. C) Coma is neurologically identical to syncope. D) Coma is a form of deep sleep. Answer: A Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) A patient suffering from memory loss, shortened attention span, disorientation, and eventual language loss is most likely suffering from ________. A) Huntington's disease B) Parkinson's disease C) cerebellar disease D) Alzheimer's disease Answer: D Section: 12.9 Learning Outcome: 12.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury? A) contusion B) concussion C) hemorrhage D) swelling Answer: B Section: 12.9 Learning Outcome: 12.19 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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45) Emotional memory ________. A) involves remembering names, faces, words, and dates B) involves remembering a skill such as playing a musical instrument C) involves remembering motor skills such as riding a bike D) involves your pounding heart when you hear a rattlesnake Answer: D Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)? A) postcentral gyrus B) gustatory cortex C) red nuclei D) Wernicke's area Answer: C Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate? A) During seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked. B) Absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and are often severely disabling. C) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor. D) The aura in tonic-clonic seizures typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness. Answer: C Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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48) White matter is found in all of the following locations EXCEPT the ________. A) corpus callosum B) cerebral cortex C) corticospinal tracts D) outer portion of the spinal cord Answer: B Section: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________. A) spinal cord B) medulla C) thalamus D) somatosensory cortex Answer: C Section: 12.11 Learning Outcome: 12.23 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________. A) spinal cord B) premotor cortex C) primary motor cortex D) rubrospinal tracts Answer: B Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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51) Which brain waves are uncommon for awake adults, but are common for children? A) alpha B) beta C) delta D) theta Answer: D Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) While sleep requirements vary, most adults need ________ hours of sleep for optimal health and function. A) 3-4 B) 7-8 C) 9-10 D) 11-12 Answer: B Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.14 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 53) The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ________. A) corona radiata B) corpus callosum C) internal capsule D) longitudinal fissure Answer: B Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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54) Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease. A) substantia nigra B) red nucleus C) internal capsule D) reticular formation Answer: A Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) What connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland? A) arbor vitae B) optic chiasma C) mammillary bodies D) infundibulum Answer: D Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 56) Arachnoid granulations are knoblike projections that protrude superiorly through the ________ mater to absorb cerebrospinal fluid into venous blood. A) pia B) arachnoid C) dura D) subarachnoid Answer: C Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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57) Interneurons receiving input from sensory neurons are located in the ________. A) dorsal root ganglion B) dorsal (posterior) horn C) ventral (anterior) horn D) lateral horn Answer: B Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) Which type of memory is exemplified by seeing someone you know at the grocery store and remembering their name? A) declarative (fact) B) procedural (skills) C) motor D) emotional Answer: A Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 59) The ________ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. A) diencephalon B) midbrain C) brain stem D) basal nuclei Answer: A Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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60) The two longitudinal ridges on the medulla oblongata where many descending fibers cross over are called the ________. A) olives B) nuclei C) pyramids D) lateral horns Answer: C Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 61) The corpora quadrigemina are found in the ________. A) diencephalon B) midbrain C) cerebellum D) pons Answer: B Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 62) Which type of wave predominates during stage 1 NREM sleep? A) alpha B) beta C) theta D) delta Answer: A Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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63) The ________ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are destroyed, the result is widespread amnesia. A) hippocampus B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) Wernicke's area Answer: A Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.12 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 64) Sleepwalking may occur during ________. A) REM B) NREM stage 1 C) NREM stage 2 D) NREM stage 4 Answer: D Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.16 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 65) Which of the following is a dural septum, described as a large sickle-shaped fold that dips into the longitudinal fissure between the cerebral hemispheres? A) falx cerebri B) corpus callosum C) falx cerebelli D) tentorium cerebelli Answer: A Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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66) The light of dawn and the buzz of an alarm clock lead to wakefulness through the ________. A) limbic system B) reticular activating system C) cerebellar peduncles D) basal nuclei Answer: B Section: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the cause of hydrocephalus and explain why this condition is much more serious in adults than in newborns. Answer: Hydrocephalus refers to a blockage of the normal circulation and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) throughout the meninges and ventricles. If CSF is allowed to accumulate, excessive pressure could be exerted on the brain. In newborns, the fontanels allow the skull to enlarge, while in adults, the cranial bones are fused and no expansion is possible thus causing earlier destruction of cortex instead. This disorder is treated by insertion of a shunt into the ventricles to drain excess fluid into the abdominal cavity. Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.18 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which brain areas lack a blood-brain barrier, and what purpose does this absence serve? Answer: The blood-brain barrier is absent around the vomiting center of the brain stem, so that it can monitor the blood for poisonous substances. It is also absent around the hypothalamus, so that it can monitor the chemical composition of the blood and adjust water balance and other factors. Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) What is the importance of the fact that the outer portion of the cerebral hemispheres is convoluted? Answer: The cerebral cortex is only 2-4 mm thick; however, the convolutions effectively triple the cortical surface area. As a result, the cortex accounts for 40% of the total brain mass and functions in all conscious activity, including movement, sensory perception, thinking, and memory. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) What is the cauda equina and why is it given this name? Answer: The cauda equina is a collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal and is given this name because of its resemblance to a horse's tail. This arrangement reflects the different rates of growth between the vertebral column and spinal cord. Because the column grows more rapidly than the cord, the lower nerves must "chase" their exit points inferiorly, thus forming the cauda equina. Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in cortical arousal and stimulation. Answer: The reticular activating system (RAS) appears to mediate the alertness state of the cerebral cortex. The thalamus, hypothalamus, and other areas such as the brain stem appear to be interconnected with the RAS. The hypothalamus seems to be the structure responsible for the actual timing of the sleep-wake cycle. The primary neurotransmitter involved is serotonin. Section: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Which spinal cord tract transmits impulses concerned with temperature and pain? Describe the pathway and include the location and destination of the first, second, and third-order neurons. Answer: The lateral spinothalamic tract conveys impulses concerned with temperature and pain to the opposite side of the brain for interpretation by the somatosensory cortex. First-order sensory neurons enter the spinal cord and synapse with second-order interneurons in the dorsal horn. These second-order neurons crossover to the other side of the cord and then ascend to the thalamus where they synapse with third-order neurons. Thalamic neurons then ascend to the somatosensory cortex. Section: 12.11 Learning Outcome: 12.24 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) List the three current suppositions about consciousness. Answer: (1) Consciousness involves simultaneous activity of large areas of the cerebral cortex; (2) consciousness is superimposed on other types of neural activity; and (3) consciousness is holistic and totally interconnected. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Differentiate clearly between short-term and long-term memory. Answer: Short-term memory (STM) is a fleeting memory of events that one is continuously exposed to, and seems to be limited to 7 or 8 chunks of information at a time. Long-term memory (LTM) is semipermanent storage of information that involves the transfer of data from STM banks to LTM banks based on several factors such as rehearsal, emotional state, and association. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Thomas is wearing a T-shirt with the saying "Only Left-Handed People Are In Their Right Minds." What does this mean in terms of lateralization of cortical function? Answer: Left handedness typically occurs when right cerebral dominance occurs. As a result, left handed people are using their right cerebrum for motor activity. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) List seven homeostatic roles of the hypothalamus. Answer: 1. Control of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) 2. Initiate physical responses to emotions 3. Body temperature regulation 4. Regulation of food intake 5. Regulation of water balance and thirst 6. Regulation of the sleep-wake cycles 7. Control endocrine system function Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) What is the role of the pineal gland in the sleep-wake cycle? Answer: The pineal gland secretes the hormone melatonin (a sleep-inducing signal and antioxidant) and helps regulate the sleep-wake cycle. Section: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What is the somatosensory homunculus? Which body region would be larger in the homunculus, the face or the hips? Why? Answer: The somatosensory homunculus is a body map depicting the relative amount and location of cortical tissue devoted to sensory reception for each body structure. The amount of sensory cortex devoted to a particular body region is related to that region's sensitivity (that is, how many receptors it has), not its size. The face (especially the lips) and fingertips are the most sensitive body areas, so these regions are the largest part of the homunculus. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) What is the basis for classifying the fibers and tracts of cerebral white matter? List and define each of the three types. Answer: The fibers and tracts are classified according to the direction in which they run. Association fibers connect different parts of the same hemisphere. Commissural fibers connect corresponding gray areas of the two hemispheres. Projection fibers either enter the cerebral cortex from the lower brain or cord or descend from the cortex to lower areas. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43 .


14) Describe how the function of a particular brain area is known. Answer: When a particular area of the brain is damaged, for example by a stroke, the neurons cannot be replaced and the area of damage loses its function. Thus, by examining functional loss in a patient, it can be inferred what the role of the damaged area is. In addition, functional imaging, for example by fMRI, can demonstrate how various areas of the brain are active during particular activities such as thinking, talking, seeing, or hearing. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) Would damage to the frontal lobe or the medulla oblongata be more likely to lead to death? Describe the overall functions of these brain regions. Answer: Damage to the medulla oblongata would be more likely to lead to death. The medulla oblongata has a crucial role as an autonomic reflex center involved in maintaining homeostasis. For example, the cardiovascular center adjusts the force and rate of heart contraction and maintains blood pressure through adjustments in blood vessel diameter. Respiratory centers generate the respiratory rhythm and help control the rate and depth of breathing. The frontal lobe contains motor areas that control voluntary movement as well as association areas involved in working memory, task management, consciousness, and problem solving. Section: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12.5 Clinical Questions 1) Mrs. Sagalov has recently been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. What clinical symptoms is she likely to show, and what would probably be seen if her brain were examined? Answer: Mrs. Sagalov is likely to show increasing cognitive deficits, including difficulties with memory and attention, and personality changes such as irritability, moodiness, and confusion. Her brain, particularly in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus, is likely to show senile plaques (clumps of cells and fibers around a protein core) and neurofibrillary tangles (twisted fibers within neuron cell bodies). Section: 12.9 Learning Outcome: 12.19 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) A patient is admitted to the rehabilitation unit five days after having a stroke. The nurse assesses his muscle strength and determines that he has right-sided weakness. Based on this assessment data, what part of the brain was injured? Answer: Damage to localized areas of the primary motor cortex paralyzes the body muscles controlled by these areas. If the stroke is in the left hemisphere, the right side of the body will be weak or paralyzed. Section: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) A patient was admitted to the medical/surgical unit with a stroke that affected the motor neurons in the direct (pyramidal) pathway. This affected the loss of voluntary movement to his left side. What other problems might the patient experience? Answer: Eventually, spasticity of the affected left side is likely to develop. If the stroke involves more of the non-dominant right hemisphere than the precentral gyrus, the patient might show sensory neglect to objects on his left side. Section: 12.11 Learning Outcome: 12.24 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Death from amyotrophic lateral sclerosis usually results from respiratory infection secondary to compromised respiratory function. Explain why. Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, or Lou Gehrig's disease, is a rare neuromuscular disease that involves progressive destruction of the ventral horn motor neurons and fibers of the pyramidal tract. As the disease progresses, the sufferer loses the ability to speak, swallow, and breathe. Because the lungs have difficulty fully expanding, secretions may accumulate, causing respiratory infection. Section: 12.10 Learning Outcome: 12.21 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) A small child is admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of meningitis. What body fluid should they sample to confirm the diagnosis? Explain. Answer: The body fluid that should be sampled is the cerebrospinal fluid due to its proximity to the brain, which is covered in membranes called meninges. Meningitis is the inflammation of these membranes caused by a pathogen, usually a bacterium or a virus. Sampling the cerebrospinal fluid can confirm the presence of the pathogen and also indicates to the physician how to treat the patient. Section: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Robert was helping his son work on the son's car when he temporarily lost the ability to speak in a normal manner and had difficulty handing his son the requested tools. This episode lasted for several minutes and then he was himself again. Robert's son insisted that his dad see his doctor after this episode. What might be the doctor's diagnosis of Robert's episode and what could be the cause? Answer: Robert experienced a TIA (transient ischemic attack) where brain cells are temporarily deprived of oxygen. The attack commonly lasts for only a short time but is a possible precursor of a more serious cerebrovascular accident (CVA), also called a stroke. Section: 12.9 Learning Outcome: 12.19 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) An 86-year-old patient with Alzheimer's disease was admitted to the hospital with dehydration. Her daughter states that her mother has been very confused and combative lately. Explain why the patient likely developed dehydration. Answer: One of the simplest mechanisms for maintaining fluid balance is the thirst mechanism. Normally, when a person is thirsty, he or she drinks because the thirst center in the hypothalamus is stimulated. In this patient's confused and combative state, she is probably refusing or forgetting to eat or drink, thereby developing dehydration. Section: 12.9 Learning Outcome: 12.19 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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8) The location and arrangement of the arteries supplying the hippocampus make it particularly vulnerable to injury. How would memory be affected if the hippocampus suffered deterioration? Answer: The hippocampus oversees the circuitry for learning and remembering spatial relationships. In other words, it acts as a switchboard, receiving and sorting information, helping to turn that information into a memory, and forwarding it to other parts of the brain. Without the help of the hippocampus we might learn, but we wouldn't remember. Section: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.12 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Susan and Robert are the parents of three children. One night while the family was sleeping, a fire broke out next door. Susan and Robert heard the fire trucks and rushed out to see what was happening. None of the children woke up, even with the sound of sirens close to the house. Why did the parents wake up, but the children didn't wake up? Answer: The reticular formation activation system, which filters stimuli, awakened the parents, who were responsible for the safety of their children. It allowed the children to ignore the stimuli so that they could get their rest, because the parents were in charge of the situation. It is also possible that the children were in a deeper stage of NREM sleep at the time the sirens sounded, depending upon when they were put to bed. Section: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 13 The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity 13.1 Matching Questions

Figure 13.1 Using Figure 13.1, match the following: 1) Innervates the superior oblique muscle. Answer: B Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Longest cranial nerve. Answer: D Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Damage to this nerve would cause dizziness, nausea, and loss of balance. Answer: C Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Involved in movement of the digestive tract. Answer: D Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Damage to this nerve would cause difficulty in speech and swallowing, but no effect on visceral organs. Answer: E Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Damage to this nerve would keep the eye from rotating inferolaterally. Answer: B Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 13.2 Using Figure 13.2, identify the following components of the reflex arc: 7) Integration center. Answer: E Section: 13.11 Learning Outcome: 13.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Sensory neuron. Answer: C Section: 13.11 Learning Outcome: 13.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Effector. Answer: B Section: 13.11 Learning Outcome: 13.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Motor neuron. Answer: D Section: 13.11 Learning Outcome: 13.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Receptor. Answer: A Section: 13.11 Learning Outcome: 13.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following reflexes to their function: A) Flexor B) Stretch C) Tendon D) Plantar E) Crossed-extensor 12) Tests both upper and lower motor pathways. The sole of the foot is stimulated with a dull instrument. Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) Consists of an ipsilateral withdrawal reflex and a contralateral extensor reflex; important in maintaining balance. Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) Produces a rapid withdrawal of the body part from a painful stimulus; ipsilateral. Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) Prevents muscle overstretching and maintains muscle tone. Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) Produces muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to tension; the contracting muscle relaxes as its antagonist is activated. Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Answers: 12) D 13) E 14) A 15) B 16) C 5 .


Match the following: A) Cervical plexus B) Lumbar plexus C) Brachial plexus D) Sacral plexus 17) The obturator and femoral nerves branch from this plexus. Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Striking the "funny bone" (ulnar nerve) may cause injury to a nerve of this plexus. Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Trauma to a nerve of this plexus may cause wrist drop. Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) A fall or improper administration of an injection to the buttocks may injure a nerve of this plexus. Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The phrenic nerve branches from this plexus. Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) D 21) A

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Figure 13.3 Using Figure 13.3, match the following: 22) Protects and shapes the eyeball; provides a sturdy anchoring site for extrinsic eye muscles. Answer: A Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Blood vessels that supply nutrition to most of the eyes' structures (excluding the lens and cornea). Answer: B Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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24) Contains only cones; provides detailed color vision. Answer: D Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Lacks photoreceptors; where optic nerve exits the eye. Answer: E Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer. Answer: C Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 13.4 Using Figure 13.4, match the following: 27) Acts as a reflexively activated diaphragm to vary pupil size. Answer: C Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The only tissue in the body that can be transplanted from one person to another with little or no rejection. Answer: B Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) Controls lens shape. Answer: A Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Viscous liquid that holds the retina firmly against the pigmented layer. Answer: E Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Increased pressure here causes glaucoma. Answer: D Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 13.5 Using Figure 13.5, match the following: 32) Auricle. Answer: A Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Tympanic membrane. Answer: E Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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34) Stapes. Answer: C Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Semicircular canals. Answer: B Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Cochlea. Answer: D Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Otoliths B) Pharyngotympanic tube C) Tympanic membrane D) Vestibule

37) Ear stones. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Separates external acoustic meatus from the middle ear. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Contains utricle and saccule. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) D

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13.2 True/False Questions 1) The meningeal branch of a spinal nerve actually reenters the vertebral canal to innervate the meninges and blood vessels. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Lamellar corpuscles can only be exteroceptors or proprioceptors. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Reciprocal inhibition means that while one sensory nerve is stimulated, another sensory neuron for synergistic muscles in the same area is inhibited and cannot respond. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Drooping of the upper eyelid, and double vision are potential symptoms of damage to the olfactory nerve. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Static equilibrium involves the sensation of linear acceleration as well as changes in head rotation. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Sour taste receptors are stimulated by hydrogen ions of acidic food substances. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The fluid contained within the membranous labyrinth is called perilymph. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Precision of eye movement is due to the fact that extrinsic eye muscle motor units typically innervate 8 to 12 muscle cells and in some cases as few as 2 or 3 muscle cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Ciliary muscles are considered voluntary, skeletal muscle. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) The somatosensory system receives inputs from three types of receptors: exteroceptors, proprioceptors, and interoceptors. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.1 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The anterior chamber of the eye is filled with vitreous humor. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The neural layer of the retina prevents excessive scattering of light within the eye. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the endolymph in motion. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Nerves are classified as cranial or spinal depending on whether they arise from the brain or the spinal cord. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The three levels of motor hierarchy are the segmental level, the projection level, and the precommand level. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) When we move from darkness to bright light, retinal sensitivity is lost, but visual acuity is gained. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Hair cells in the spiral organ of the ear are never replaced. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation? A) mechanoreceptors B) thermoreceptors C) nociceptors D) chemoreceptors Answer: C Section: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Receptors that respond to changes in room temperature are found in the skin. Which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above? A) mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors B) thermoreceptors that are also interoceptors C) mechanoreceptors that are also exteroceptors D) thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors Answer: D Section: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These sensations create awareness of our body's positioning. The following receptors are most likely responsible for this ability. A) nociceptors B) exteroceptors C) interoceptors D) proprioceptors Answer: D Section: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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4) Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus's strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves? A) Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus strength increases. B) An action potential will increase in strength as stimulus strength increases. C) More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus. D) Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases. Answer: A Section: 13.1 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following? A) hypoglossal nerve (XII) B) vagus nerve (X) C) facial nerve (VIII) D) olfactory nerve (I) Answer: D Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A patient has lost the ability to taste food. Which nerve may have been damaged? A) the optic nerves B) the facial nerves C) the abducens nerves D) trigeminal nerves Answer: B Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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7) An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye. She records the reactivity of the patient's pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports which of the following? A) The patient has suffered brain damage. B) The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III). C) The patient has lost function of the optic nerve (II). D) The patient has function of the trochlear nerve (IV). Answer: B Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) As a cook chops red onions he begins to tear up due to activation of the lacrimal gland. Which of the following nerves provided the stimulus? A) the olfactory nerve (I) B) the facial nerve (VII) C) the vagus nerve (X) D) the optic nerve (II) Answer: B Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________. A) they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury B) they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery C) they show the routes of motor nerves D) they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus Answer: A Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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10) A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm. However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________. A) spinal nerves of the cervical vertebra B) the dorsal root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra C) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra D) the dorsal rootlets located at one of the thoracic vertebra Answer: C Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Injury to cervical vertebrae C3-C4 is particularly problematic because ________. A) part of the brain stem is located here B) several ganglia are near this region that serve the heart C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here D) the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive there fibers from here Answer: C Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Bill is a mechanic that works with vibrating tools. He also exerts force on his wrists when twisting wrenches and screws. Bill has a tingling sensation in the lateral portion of his hand. The doctor suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following tests might the doctor try on her patient? A) Have Bill flex and extend his arm against resistance. B) Check for reflex on the medial condyle of the humerus with a rubber mallet. C) Have Bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away. D) Check for hyperextension at the knuckles of the little and ring finger. Answer: C Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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13) The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve. A) obturator B) common fibular C) tibial D) femoral Answer: C Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________. A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots Answer: A Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor. B) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field. C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. D) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold. Answer: C Section: 13.1 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________. A) femoral B) iliohypogastric C) sciatic D) ilioinguinal Answer: A Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. A) lumbar plexus B) femoral plexus C) sacral plexus D) thoracic plexus Answer: C Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________. A) rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior C) autonomic only D) always mediated by the brain Answer: B Section: 13.11 Learning Outcome: 13.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________. A) radial nerve B) sciatic nerve C) ulnar nerve D) median nerve Answer: C Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .


20) A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________. A) tendon reflex B) flexor reflex C) crossed-extensor reflex D) plantar reflex Answer: A Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. A) afferent nerves B) efferent nerves C) motor nerves D) mixed nerves Answer: A Section: 13.1 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. A) Wallerian cells B) Schwann cells C) dendrites D) Golgi organs Answer: B Section: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23) Regeneration within the CNS ________. A) is more successful than with the PNS B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars Answer: C Section: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________. A) also flex B) extend C) abduct D) adduct Answer: B Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Select the correct definition. A) Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation. B) Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body. C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face. D) Spatial discrimination allows us to recognize textures. Answer: C Section: 13.1 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________. A) pons B) thalamus C) reticular formation D) medulla Answer: B Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Bell's palsy is ________. A) characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles B) characterized by loss of vision C) often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles Answer: D Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector Answer: B Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________. A) neurofibromatosis B) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy C) phantom limb pain D) sciatica Answer: D Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 30) If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies? A) a complete loss of sensation B) a complete loss of voluntary movement C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control D) a complete loss of sensation and movement Answer: B Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.22 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31) Nutrients are delivered and waste products are carried away from the cells of the posterior segment of the eye by blood vessels. However, the cells in the cornea and lens (in the anterior segment) are avascular. Which is the best explanation for how these cells are maintained? A) These cells, like the cells of the corneal layer of the integument are not living cells. B) The nutrients and waste products of the anterior segment diffuse into and through the vitreous humor of the posterior segment. C) The aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus. D) The metabolic activity of these cells is very low. They produce little waste and need few nutrients. Answer: C Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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32) In a person who is color-blind, which of the following would you most expect to see? A) a loss of functions in the rods of their retina B) a loss of their peripheral vision C) absence of green or red cones in their foveae D) an inability to regenerate 11-cis-retinal after bleaching Answer: C Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 33) Which of the following best describes the function of the iris? A) controls amount of light entering eye B) gives the eye its color C) refracts light through the pupil D) adjusts the shape of the lens Answer: A Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which of the following is the best explanation for our perception of color? A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment. B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light. C) The foveae are densely packed with cones. D) As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell. Answer: B Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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35) If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is ________. A) sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain B) a small portion of light always enters the other eye C) information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes D) This, in fact, does not occur; information from both eyes is always separated. Answer: A Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors? A) Color perception is dependent on the millions of rods as well as cone photoreceptors. B) Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types. C) Colors are added and enhanced in the primary visual cortex of the brain. D) Shades of color are purely psychological and learned by association with age, infants only seeing in black and white. Answer: B Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 37) Humans can smell as many as 10,000 different odors but have significantly fewer types of olfactory receptors. Which of the following is the best explanation for why humans can distinguish so many smells? A) Taste receptors that are active at the same time influence the subtlety of what we smell. B) The olfactory pathway travels to location in the brain in which memories are formed and we simply mix this new sensory information with old memories. C) The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once. D) The belief that we can smell so many different distinct odors is a psychological process referred to as an uncinate fit or olfactory hallucination. Answer: C Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 29 .


38) As light travels through the eye, it passes through several structures or chambers before reaching the retina. Which list below gives those structures in the correct order? A) cornea, lens, pupil, anterior chamber, posterior segment B) cornea, pupil, anterior chamber, lens, posterior segment C) cornea, pupil, lens, anterior chamber, posterior segment D) cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior segment Answer: D Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39) The sensation of loudness or the volume of a sound is detected by ________. A) greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells B) vibration along a greater length of the basilar membrane, stimulating a greater number of hair cells C) faster vibration of the basilar membrane resulting in a higher frequency of hair cell stimulation D) sounds that can travel all the way to the apex of the scala vestibule with enough energy remaining to deflect hair cells Answer: A Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.16 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) What is the main function of the rods in the eye? A) depth perception B) color vision C) vision in dim light D) accommodation for near vision Answer: C Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) Receptors for hearing are located in the ________. A) cochlea B) semicircular canals C) tympanic membrane D) vestibule Answer: A Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Bitter taste is elicited by ________. A) hydrogen ions B) alkaloids C) acids D) metal ions Answer: B Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________. A) semicircular canals B) macula C) utricle D) cochlear duct Answer: B Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the external ear? A) pinna B) external acoustic meatus C) tympanic membrane D) pharyngotympanic tube Answer: D Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31 .


45) There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves? A) bipolar cells B) ganglion cells C) cone cells D) rod cells Answer: B Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 46) As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________. A) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane B) outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium C) inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane D) inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium Answer: A Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) Which of the following is TRUE about gustatory receptors? A) In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic. B) The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli. C) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes. D) All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation. Answer: C Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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48) Select the correct statement about olfaction. A) Olfactory receptors have a high degree of specificity toward a single type of chemical. B) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain. C) Substances must be volatile and hydrophobic in order to activate olfactory receptors. D) Olfactory adaptation is only due to fading of receptor cell response. Answer: B Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which best describes the function of olfactory cilia? A) increase surface area of neurons receptive to airborne chemicals B) help transport mucus toward nasopharynx C) help move air through nasal passages D) trap inhaled particulates before air reaches lungs Answer: A Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) Dark adaptation ________. A) is much faster than light adaptation B) results in inhibition of rod function C) primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin Answer: D Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) The blind spot of the eye is caused by ________. A) more rods than cones within the retina B) the macula lutea interrupts the nerve pathway C) an absence of cones in the foveae D) an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye Answer: D Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 33 .


52) Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related? A) frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound B) quality of a sound: frequency of the sound C) amplitude of a sound: intensity of the sound D) frequency of sound waves: number of wavelengths Answer: A Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.16 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 53) What is the primary function of cerumen? A) softens tympanic membrane B) lubricates ossicles C) cleans and lubricates the external auditory canal D) prevents water from entering middle ear Answer: C Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 54) Select the correct statement about equilibrium. A) The weight of the endolymph contained within the semicircular canals against the maculae is responsible for static equilibrium. B) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration. C) Hair cells involved in both static and dynamic equilibrium hyperpolarize only, resulting in an increased rate of impulse transmission. D) Due to dynamic equilibrium, movement can be perceived if rotation of the body continues at a constant rate. Answer: B Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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55) A perceived increase in the volume of sound is best explained by ________. A) a decrease in the width of the sound wave B) an increase in the width of the sound wave C) an increase in the height of the sound wave D) a combination of multiple sound waves Answer: C Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13.4 Short Answer Questions 1) One of the adaptive advantages of human body hair is believed to be its ability to help us detect potentially harmful insects crawling or landing on our skin. Which receptor type is most associated with this type of perception? Answer: Hair follicle receptors Section: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS2, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Receptors that are stimulated by temperature changes are called ________. Answer: thermoreceptors Section: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The perineurium defines the boundary of a ________. Answer: fascicle Section: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) We are aware of our facial expression because of which functional feature of which cranial nerve? Answer: The proprioception of facial muscles by the facial nerve, cranial nerve VII Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Describe the symptoms that may occur from lesions of the olfactory nerve, cranial nerve I. Answer: anosmia Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) An incorrectly placed intramuscular injection can cause injury to which nerve of the sacral plexus? Answer: sciatic nerve Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Describe how the muscle spindles and the tendon organs vary in their role during the stretch reflex and opposing tendon reflex. Answer: Tendon organs work with muscle spindles to act as proprioceptors in skeletal muscles and their associated tendons. When muscles are stretched due to contraction of antagonist muscles, the spindle neurons send impulses to the spinal cord, where they synapse with motor neurons of the stretched muscle. Impulses are then sent to the stretched muscle, which then resists further stretching. At more severe degrees of stretch, the tendon organs inhibit rather than increase resistance to stretching in order to prevent muscle tissue damage. Section: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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8) Distinguish between monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes and between ipsilateral and contralateral reflex responses. Answer: Monosynaptic refers to a single synapse in the reflex arc (one sensory and one motor neuron). Polysynaptic refers to more than one synapse in the arc involving sensory neurons, interneurons, and motor neurons. Ipsilateral refers to a reflex arc limited to one side of the spinal cord, while contralateral reflexes cross to the opposite side. Section: 13.11 Learning Outcome: 13.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) An adult patient shows Babinski's sign during a test of plantar reflex. How is Babinski's sign different than the normal response and what does the altered response indicate? Answer: The plantar reflex tests the integrity of the spinal cord from L4 to S2 and also determines if corticospinal tracts are functioning and properly myelinated. The normal plantar response is downward flexion of the toes. If there is damage, the great toe dorsiflexes and smaller toes fan laterally (Babinski's sign). Infants, who normally lack complete myelination, exhibit this sign. Section: 13.12 Learning Outcome: 13.29 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) The phrenic nerve arises from the left and right sides of cervical vertebra 3, 4 and 5. Describe the potential benefit of having the nerve exit from such a superior position and from multiple places on the spinal column. Answer: The fact that the phrenic nerve originates from multiple vertebra and from such a superior position, it reduces the likelihood of a spinal injury that would stop the diaphragm from working. Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 5-6: Evaluating/Creating 11) How is a receptor potential similar to an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) generated at a synapse? Answer: A receptor potential acts essentially the same as an EPSP in that stimulus causes changes in permeability of the receptor membrane, which results in a depolarizing graded potential. It will increase or decrease depending on the intensity of the stimulus. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 37 .


12) Describe the steps of the regeneration process of a damaged peripheral nerve fiber. Answer: The portion of the axon distal to the injury is degraded and cleaned up by Schwann cells and macrophages. Growth of new axon filaments is stimulated by growth factors released by Schwann cells. Schwann cells will form a regeneration tube that will guide and support the growth of a new axon and ultimately produce a new myelin sheath. Also, the neurilemma needs to be intact for regeneration. Section: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) High frequency sounds are detected when the basilar membrane is displaced near the ________. Answer: base Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The middle ossicle in the ear is the ________. Answer: incus Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Taste is solely a response to chemicals dissolved in ________. Answer: saliva Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The apex of the cochlea hears sounds in the range of ________ Hz. Answer: 20 Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Describe the process of light and dark adaptation and include the role of the rods and cones. Answer: Rods respond to low-intensity light that provides night and peripheral vision, while cones are bright-light, high-discrimination receptors that provide color vision. During light adaptation, rods are inactivated and as cones respond to the high-intensity light, high visual acuity results. In dark adaptation, cones do not function (visual acuity decreases) and rod function resumes when sufficient rhodopsin accumulates. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18) What is the chemical composition of the rod pigment, rhodopsin, and how does it appear to act in the reception of light? Answer: Rhodopsin is a combination of retinal and opsin. Retinal is chemically related to vitamin A and is synthesized from it. Retinal can form a variety of three-dimensional forms called isomers. The opsin protein combines with the 11-cis retinal to form rhodopsin. The lighttriggered changes in retinal cause hyperpolarization of the rods. This happens because the light turns off sodium entry, which then inhibits the release of neurotransmitter, thus turning off electrical signals. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) Explain why your nose runs during and immediately after a good cry. Answer: The tears flow into the lacrimal canaliculi and then into the nasolacrimal sac. As the sac fills, the tears begin to run down the nasolacrimal duct and out your nose. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) Trace the pathway of sound as it enters the external ear until it is perceived in the brain. Answer: A sound wave passing through the external acoustic meatus causes the eardrum to vibrate at the same frequency as the wave. The auditory ossicles amplify and deliver vibrations to the oval window. Pressure waves in the cochlear fluids cause basilar membrane resonance that stimulates the hair cells of the spiral organ (of Corti). Impulses are then generated along the cochlear nerve that travel to the cochlear nuclei of the medulla and, from there, through several brain stem nuclei to the auditory cortex of the brain. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39 .


21) Explain the role of the endolymph of the semicircular canals in activating the receptors during angular motion. Answer: The crista ampullaris responds to changes in the velocity of head movement (angular acceleration). The crista consists of a tuft of hair cells whose microvilli are embedded in the gelatinous cupula. Rotational movement causes the endolymph to flow in the opposite direction, thus bending the cupula and exciting the hair cells. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) When you go to the fair and ride the roller coaster, where do those wild sensations come from? Answer: The wild sensations occur when the receptor for dynamic equilibrium, the crista ampularis, is excited by endolymph moving in the semicircular canals. This movement is the result of rotational acceleration or deceleration. Many times these wild rides spin us around enough that our eyes tell us we are going one way but the vestibule and semicircular canal tell us something different. Conflicts like that can often cause us to get quite dizzy or even sick. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) What is the pharyngotympanic tube and what is its purpose? Answer: The pharyngotympanic tube links the middle ear cavity with the nasopharynx. Normally it is flattened and closed, but swallowing or yawning opens it briefly to equalize pressure in the middle ear cavity with external air pressure. It also replenishes air in the middle ear. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 24) Explain why prolonged periods of reading tire the eye muscles and result in eye strain. Answer: Reading or other close work requires almost continuous accommodation, pupillary constriction, and convergence, which lead to tiredness of the eye muscles. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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25) Explain why a bad cold can result in food not tasting the same as it normally does. Answer: Taste is 80% smell. When the ability to smell is blocked due to nasal congestion, taste is primarily via the taste receptors which account for only about 20% of the taste sensation. This results in a distinct difference in the "taste" of food. Additionally, you become a mouth breather and the oral mucosa becomes dry and reduces the ability to taste Section: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13.5 Clinical Questions 1) Ralph sustained a leg injury in a bowling accident and had to use crutches. Unfortunately, he never took the time to learn how to use them properly. After two weeks of use, he noticed his fingers were becoming numb. Then he noticed his arms were getting weaker and tingling. What could be his problem? Answer: Compression of the radial nerve (in the region of the armpit) may cause temporary cessation of nervous transmission, often called "Saturday night paralysis." Continued pressure could cause permanent damage. Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A patient suffers nerve damage to the median nerve, requiring surgery to suture the nerve back together. After surgery, the patient reports that sensation from the lateral and medial sides of the index finger seem to be reversed. How could this happen? Answer: In suturing the nerve back together, there is no guide to ensure that each nerve fiber continues across the transection into the same neurilemma in which it started. Nerve fibers can grow into pathways different from their original ones and establish new synapses. The brain cannot keep track of which nerve fibers have grown into different pathways, and projects sensations back to the point of origin. Section: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.23 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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3) David, an aspiring baseball player, was struck on the left side of his face with a fastball pitch. He was not wearing a safety helmet. His zygomatic arch was crushed, as well as parts of the temporal bone. Following the accident and reconstructive surgery, he noted that his left lower eyelid was still drooping and the corner of his mouth sagged. What nerve damage did he sustain? Answer: He suffered facial nerve damage on his left side. Due to the bone damage, branches to the eye and jaw were probably damaged. It is possible that the damage could be reversible if the nerves were not cut or crushed completely. Section: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Good friends Sami and Sara were picking roses when both encountered rose thorns. Sami just laughed and continued to pick more roses. Sara, however, had tears in her eyes and complained of how much the thorn prick hurt. What accounts for the difference in their response to the same pain stimulus? Answer: Even though both individuals have the same pain threshold since they both perceived pain at the same stimulus intensity, each one's tolerance to pain is different. Sarah has a lower pain threshold compared to Sami's. Section: 13.1 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Roger went for his yearly eye examination and was informed that his intraocular pressure was slightly elevated (at 22 mm Hg). The physician expressed concern over this condition and noted that if the condition got worse, eye drops would be merited. What is wrong with Roger's eyes, and what are the possible consequences of this condition? Explain the function of eye drops used for therapy. Answer: If the drainage of the aqueous humor is blocked, pressure within the eye can increase, causing compression of the retina and optic nerve, resulting in a condition called glaucoma. The resulting destruction of the neural structures causes blindness unless the condition is detected early. Early glaucoma can be treated with eye drops that increase the rate of aqueous humor drainage or decrease its production. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) Baby Susie's pediatrician notices that one of her eyes rotates outward and that she does not appear to be using it for vision. What is her condition and what does the pediatrician recommend? Answer: Susie has strabismus, caused by congenital weakness of the external eye muscles in her affected eye. To prevent this eye from becoming functionally blind, the doctor will recommend either eye exercises or putting a patch on the unaffected eye to force her to use the affected eye. If her case is deemed severe, surgery on the eye muscles will be recommended. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) A 60-year-old woman is experiencing vertigo. She ignores the symptoms initially, but now her attacks are accompanied by severe nausea and vomiting. Following an attack, she hears a roaring in her ears that causes temporary deafness for some time after. What do you think her problem is, and what is its suspected cause? Answer: She most likely has a condition known as Ménière's syndrome. It affects both the semicircular canals and the cochlea. The cause of the syndrome is uncertain, but it may result from distortion of the membranous labyrinth by excessive endolymph accumulation. Less severe cases can usually be managed by antimotion drugs. For more debilitating attacks, salt restriction and diuretics are used to decrease overall extracellular fluid volumes. Also, wearing a visor (baseball hat) reduces the visual field and allows the person to enhance their depth perception and reduce the dizziness. Section: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Ling, a 75-year-old grandmother, complained that her vision was becoming obscured. Upon examination by an ophthalmologist she was told she had cataracts. What are they, how do they occur, and how are they treated? Answer: A cataract is a clouding of the lens that causes the world to appear distorted, as if looking through frosted glass. Some cataracts are congenital, but most are due to age-related hardening and thickening of the lens, or are a possible consequence of diabetes mellitus. The direct cause is probably inadequate delivery of nutrients to the deeper lens fibers. The metabolic changes that result are thought to promote unfolding of the lens proteins. Unprotected exposure to the UV rays of sunlight over time is also associated with cataract formation. The lens can be removed and replaced with an artificial lens. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) A nurse is administering Pilocarpine eye drops. The nurse instructs the patient to press on the nasolacrimal duct for 30 seconds because the medication can have some systemic side effects, such as affecting the heart rate. Explain the rationale for pressing on the nasolacrimal duct. Answer: Applying gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct prevents the delivery of the drug to the nasal mucosa and general circulation, where it may affect heart rate. Section: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 14 The Autonomic Nervous System 14.1 Matching Questions

Figure 14.1 Using Figure 14.1, match the following: 1) Myelin sheath. Answer: E Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Cell body of an ANS preganglionic neuron. Answer: A Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) Cell body of an ANS postganglionic neuron. Answer: C Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Cell body of a somatic motor neuron. Answer: D Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Sympathetic B) Parasympathetic 5) Short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Collateral ganglia. Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Known to be active during "rest and digest" responses. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Decreases heart rate. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Maintenance functions. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Stimulates ciliary muscles of the eye, which makes the lens bulge for close vision. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .


11) Active during "fight or flight" responses. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) A

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Match the following: A) Acetylcholine (ACh) B) Norepinephrine (NE) 12) Secreted by preganglionic sympathetic fibers. Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Secreted by preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Secreted by postganglionic sympathetic fibers to sweat glands. Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Secreted by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers. Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Secreted by most postganglionic sympathetic fibers. Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) B

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14.2 True/False Questions 1) Somatic and visceral reflex arcs are similar, but visceral reflex arcs lack afferent fibers (visceral sensory neurons). Answer: FALSE Section: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The rami communicantes are associated only with the sympathetic division of the ANS. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The gray rami communicantes consist of myelinated postganglionic fibers. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The parasympathetic division innervates more organs than the sympathetic division. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) The celiac ganglion is primarily associated with the sympathetic division. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) All visceral organs receive dual innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the parasympathetic nervous division. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Most disorders of the autonomic nervous system reflect abnormalities of smooth muscle control. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The effect of beta-blocker drugs (block beta-receptors) is to increase blood pressure. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) The adrenal medulla is considered by some to be a "misplaced" sympathetic ganglion since embryologically, they arise from the same tissue. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ANS and by the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS have the same effect on most body organ systems. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Some sympathetic preganglionic fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to release norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood, producing a "surge of adrenaline." Answer: TRUE Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves contain postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) The ANS stimulates smooth muscles, skeletal muscles and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system innervates skeletal muscles only. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Autonomic ganglia are motor ganglia, containing the cell bodies of motor neurons. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Autonomic ganglia are sights of synapse and information transmission from preganglionic to postganglionic neurons. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) Most blood vessels are innervated by the sympathetic division alone. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The blood vessels of the skin are one of the few areas of the body where the vessels are innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The effect of the parasympathetic division on the penis is vasodilation causing erection, while ejaculation is due to sympathetic stimulation. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) All splanchnic nerves are sympathetic. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Most splanchnic nerves pass through the abdominal aortic plexus. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) The vasomotor tone of blood vessels is mostly under sympathetic control. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Because many of the same cardiac cells are innervated by both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers, the influence of the two divisions on the heart is synergistic, meaning contraction is strongest when both divisions act together. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) β-adrenergic receptors are the only receptors found on the heart. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Visceral reflexes include the reflexes that empty the bladder and the rectum. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), VII (facial), and IX (glossopharyngeal) supply the entire parasympathetic innervation of the head; however, only the preganglionic fibers lie within these three pairs of cranial nerves. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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31) The sacral part of the parasympathetic division serves the pelvic organs and the distal half of the large intestine. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Rami communicantes are designated white or gray to indicate whether or not the fibers passing through them are myelinated. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) The autonomic and somatic nervous systems are two separate systems that work totally independent of each other and lack any functional overlap. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Albuterol (Ventolin) binds to β2 receptors and is used by asthma patients to constrict the bronchioles of the lungs and ease breathing. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global LO: G2, G5 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________. A) parasympathetic innervation B) sympathetic stimulation C) vagus (X) nerve activity D) somatic stimulation Answer: B Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following does NOT describe the ANS? A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells C) involuntary nervous system D) general visceral motor system Answer: B Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. A) sympathetic division B) cerebrum C) parasympathetic division D) somatic nervous system Answer: A Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) their effectors B) their efferent pathways and ganglia C) target organ responses to their neurotransmitters D) regulation of activity by higher brain centers Answer: D Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Where would you NOT find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor? A) all parasympathetic target organs B) all postganglionic neurons (cell bodies and dendrites) C) adrenal medulla hormone producing cells D) sarcolemma of skeletal muscle cells at neuromuscular junctions Answer: A Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the lacrimal gland and nasal mucosa is the ________. A) ciliary ganglion B) pterygopalatine ganglion C) submandibular ganglion D) otic ganglion Answer: B Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Which of the following is a function of the parasympathetic division? A) dilates bronchioles B) produces "goosebumps" C) increases heart rate and force of contraction D) contracts smooth muscle of the bladder wall and relaxes urethral sphincter Answer: D Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve ________. A) V (trigeminal) B) VII (facial) C) X (vagus) D) XII (hypoglossal) Answer: C Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The "fight or flight" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. A) parasympathetic division B) sympathetic division C) somatic division D) peripheral division Answer: B Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. A) medulla B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) thalamus Answer: C Section: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) most glands Answer: C Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which of the following is NOT a result of parasympathetic stimulation? A) salivation B) dilation of the pupils C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera D) elimination of urine Answer: B Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS; parasympathetic ganglia are close to the visceral organs served. C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers. D) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers. Answer: A Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________. A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response C) preganglionic fibers are short D) preganglionic fibers are long Answer: B Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra? A) second cervical B) third lumbar C) first coccyx D) first thoracic Answer: D Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Autonomic ganglia contain ________. A) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons B) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors C) the cell bodies of motor neurons D) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons Answer: C Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerve stimulate many large glands in the head such as the nasal and lacrimal glands. A) optic (II) B) oculomotor (III) C) trochlear (IV) D) facial (VII) Answer: D Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic trunks without synapsing form structures called ________. A) white rami communicantes B) gray rami communicantes C) spinal nerves D) splanchnic nerves Answer: D Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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19) Which of the following is NOT a plexus of the vagus (X) nerve? A) cardiac B) pulmonary C) inferior hypogastric D) esophageal Answer: C Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers Answer: C Section: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.6 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The parasympathetic tone ________. A) prevents unnecessary heart deceleration B) accelerates activity of the digestive tract C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract D) causes blood pressure to rise Answer: C Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion B) synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion C) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron Answer: A Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of the following appears to exert the most direct influence over autonomic functions? A) hypothalamus B) midbrain C) reticular formation D) medulla oblongata Answer: A Section: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Drugs called beta-blockers ________. A) increase a dangerously low heart rate B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure C) have widespread sympathetic effects D) are potent antidepressants Answer: B Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Erection (vasodilation) of the penis or clitoris ________. A) is primarily under sympathetic control B) is primarily under parasympathetic control C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input D) depends very little on autonomic activation Answer: B Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which is an exclusively sympathetic function? A) regulation of pupil size B) regulation of cardiac rate C) regulation of respiratory rate D) regulation of body temperature Answer: D Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Raynaud's disease ________. A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities B) is induced by heat stress C) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord D) is frequently life threatening Answer: A Section: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) Which of the following is NOT true about hypertension? A) It is also known as high blood pressure. B) It may result from an overactive sympathetic vasoconstrictor response. C) It is serious because it forces the heart to work harder and increases wear and tear on artery walls. D) It is a disorder of the parasympathetic division of the ANS. Answer: D Section: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which sympathetic fibers form a splanchnic nerve? A) those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers B) those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered C) those that synapse with somatic fibers D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia Answer: D Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart activity? A) beta 1 B) beta 2 C) beta 3 D) alpha 1 Answer: A Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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31) Where would you NOT find autonomic ganglia? A) unpaired, anterior to spinal cord B) paired, beside spinal cord C) within wall of organ served or close to organ D) within spinal cord Answer: D Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure Answer: C Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________. A) lumbar splanchnic nerves B) cephalic plexus C) pelvic nerves D) vagus (X) nerves Answer: D Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the ________. A) sympathetic trunk B) phrenic nerve C) vagus (X) nerves D) sacral nerves Answer: C Section: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .


35) Parasympathetic functions include ________. A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction B) allowing the body to cope with an external threat C) lens accommodation for close vision D) raising blood glucose levels Answer: C Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________. A) lateral horn of the spinal cord B) hypothalamus C) lateral geniculate of the thalamus D) inferior colliculus Answer: B Section: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.10 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) The mushroom poison muscarine can bind to receptors on ________. A) all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic fibers B) the hormone producing cells of the adrenal medulla C) cell bodies and dendrites of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons D) cell bodies and dendrites of sympathetic postganglionic neurons Answer: A Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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38) Which of the following drug classes would be useful for smoking cessation products? A) nicotinic agents B) parasympathomimetic agents (muscarinic agents) C) acetylcholinesterase inhibitors D) sympathomimetic agents Answer: A Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global LO: G2, G5 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39) A mugger steals your wallet causing all of the following to happen EXCEPT ________. A) increased rate and force of heartbeat B) inability to read close-up print C) increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood D) increased metabolic rate Answer: C Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) Which of the following is mismatched? A) gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic B) bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic C) penis ejaculation; sympathetic D) promotes urination; sympathetic Answer: D Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 41) Which type of drug would be useful in dilating the pupils for an examination of the retina? A) beta-3 receptor mimic B) muscarinic receptor inhibitor C) alpha-1 receptor inhibitor D) beta-1 receptor mimic Answer: B Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 25 .


42) Which target organ receives dual innervation? A) kidney B) sweat glands C) small intestine D) coronary blood vessels Answer: C Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following is mismatched? A) sympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh B) parasympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh C) sympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE D) parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE Answer: D Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Explain the concept of dual innervation in the autonomic nervous system. Provide two examples. Answer: Dual innervation refers to the innervation of a target organ by both divisions of the ANS. Usually, the effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions on that target organ are antagonistic; they oppose each other. For example, sympathetic stimulation on the heart causes an increase in heart rate and force of contraction, while parasympathetic stimulation decreases heart rate. See table 14.5 for additional examples of dual innervation. Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) What studies have suggested that the ANS can also be subject to voluntary controls? Answer: Remembering a frightening event can make your heart race. Thinking about a favorite food can increase saliva production. Further, experimentation involving meditation and biofeedback indicates that cortical controls of the ANS are possible. Meditating yogis have changed their physiological states, while biofeedback techniques have been successful in helping patients overcome migraine headaches and improve stress management to reduce the risk of heart attack. Section: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.10 Global LO: G2, G5, G6, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) How is Raynaud's disease related to the ANS? Answer: Raynaud's disease is characterized by intermittent periods that cause the skin of the fingers and toes to become pale, then cyanotic and painful. It is an exaggerated vasoconstriction response to exposure to cold temperatures or emotional stress. It can potentially cause tissue ischemia and death. Section: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Carla was startled by an extremely loud bang that sounded like a gunshot. Her heartbeat accelerated rapidly. When she found that the noise was only a car backfiring, she felt greatly relieved but her heart kept beating heavily for over half an hour. Why did this happen? Answer: The effects of sympathetic activators are long lasting, because norepinephrine is inactivated slowly. Also, the adrenal medulla releases this neurotransmitter into the bloodstream, which adds to the long-lasting effects of adrenergic stimulation. Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Mark eats a very big meal in the evening. After the meal his wife would like him to help clean up, but Mark explains that he is "too tired" and promptly goes to sleep. What seems to be his problem? Answer: After a meal, parasympathetic influences dominate, which increase digestive functions while decreasing cardiac and respiratory activity. This causes the individual to feel sleepy. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27 .


6) Richard has been under great stress and has complained of migraine headaches for weeks. He tried all kinds of drugs, with little effect. When he was at the end of his rope, a friend suggested yoga and meditation. Having nothing to lose, he tried them and after several months, felt like a new person. How could these practices help him? Answer: The practitioner of meditation and biofeedback techniques seems to enter a physiological state of concentration that can reduce sympathetic-induced hypertension. By concentrating on relaxing thoughts, the practitioner can slow heart and respiratory rates. The effects are more widespread than can be explained by parasympathetic influences; the control could be consciously induced. Section: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.10 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Describe three potential outcomes that result when a preganglionic axon reaches a sympathetic trunk ganglion. Answer: The preganglionic and postganglionic neurons can (1) synapse at the same level, in the same trunk ganglion, (2) synapse at a higher or lower level; the preganglionic axon ascends or descends the sympathetic trunk to another trunk ganglion, (3) synapse in a distant collateral ganglion; the preganglionic axon passes through the trunk ganglion and emerges from the trunk without synapsing. These fibers synapse in collateral ganglia, located anterior to the vertebral column. Section: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Discuss a way in which the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions cooperate with each other. Answer: Prior to and during intercourse the parasympathetic system causes erection in the male penis and female clitoris. During the climax the sympathetic system causes ejaculation of semen by the penis and reflex contractions of the vagina. Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) List three key anatomical differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. Answer: 1. They have unique origin sites within the CNS. 2. They have different lengths of pre- and post-ganglionic axons. 3. Their ganglia are located in different areas. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) In what ways are the autonomic and the somatic nervous systems different? Answer: 1. The autonomic is a two-neuron system; the somatic uses one outside the CNS. 2. The autonomic uses smaller neuron fibers (type B or C) to innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands; the somatic generally uses type A fibers for rapid transmission to skeletal muscle. 3. The autonomic is mostly involuntary and automatic; the somatic is voluntary. 4. The autonomic uses several neurotransmitters and many receptor types; the somatic uses only one. 5. The autonomic is a slow system; the somatic is a fast system. 6. The autonomic has opposing forces to regulate the body; the somatic does not. Section: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14.5 Clinical Questions 1) Mrs. Oberhaus has been having intermittent attacks that cause the skin of her fingers and toes to become pale first, then blue and painful. These attacks seem to be associated with her exposure to extreme cold or times of emotional stress. What is Mrs. Oberhaus most likely suffering from and does the disease affect the somatic or autonomic nervous system? Answer: Mrs. Oberhaus is suffering from Raynaud's disease. It affects the autonomic nervous system and can range from uncomfortable to severe. Section: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) An elderly patient in a nursing home has hypertension as a result of many years at a very stressful job. What is hypertension and how is it treated? Answer: Hypertension is another name for high blood pressure. It may result from an overactive sympathetic vasoconstrictor response due to the continuous high levels of stress. It is serious because it puts strain on the heart that could lead to heart disease or heart attack. It is treated with adrenergic receptor-blocking drugs to counteract the effects of the sympathetic nervous system on the cardiovascular system. Section: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Describe outcome criteria that can be used to evaluate whether a patient is effectively coping with a stressful problem. Answer: Signs of mobilization of the sympathetic nervous system are: pounding heart, rapid deep breathing, cold and sweaty skin, and dilated pupils. Therefore, outcome criteria to evaluate a patient's ability to cope would be: regular heartbeat, even and unlabored breathing, warm and dry skin, and constricted or normal pupils. Section: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Baroreceptors in the carotid sinus monitor blood pressure. When the carotid sinus is stretched by blood pressure or manipulation, a feedback response through the vagus (X) nerve can be blocked by atropine. How would external stimulation of the carotid artery, such as carotid massage, affect the heart rate? Answer: External stimulation of the carotid artery would slow the heart down because of the parasympathetic effect of the vagus (X) nerve. Section: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) A patient with diabetes comes into the doctor's office complaining of sexual dysfunction, dizziness upon standing, and sluggish eye pupil reactions. What is causing the patient's issues and how should it be treated? Answer: The patient is suffering from autonomic neuropathy or damage to autonomic nerves caused by diabetes mellitus. Treatment for this issue is to maintain tight control of blood glucose levels by watching glucose intake and managing insulin. Section: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 15 The Endocrine System 15.1 Matching Questions

Figure 15.1 Using Figure 15.1, match the following:

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1) Produces the hormones that promote the development of the female secondary sexual characteristics at puberty. Answer: D Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Storehouse for the hormones produced by the hypothalamus of the brain. Answer: B Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Produces the hormones that direct the production of the secondary male sex characteristics. Answer: E Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Produce hormones involved in electrolyte balance and the stress response. Answer: C Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Produces hormones and is considered a neuroendocrine organ. Answer: A Section: 15.1 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 15.2 Using Figure 15.2, match the following anterior pituitary hormones with their targets: 6) Growth hormone. Answer: A Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Follicle stimulating hormone. Answer: C Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Prolactin. Answer: B Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Adrenocorticotropic hormone. Answer: E Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Thyroid stimulating hormone. Answer: D Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Graves' disease B) Pituitary dwarfism C) Diabetes mellitus D) Acromegaly E) Addison's disease 11) An autoimmune problem involving the thyroid gland. Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Hyposecretion of growth hormone. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Hyposecretion of the pancreas. Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex. Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Hypersecretion of growth hormone that occurs during adulthood. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) E 15) D

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Match the following: A) Gigantism B) Diabetes insipidus C) Cushing's disease D) Myxedema 16) Hyposecretion of the thyroid. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex. Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) B

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Match the following: A) Thyroid gland B) Adrenal medulla C) Parathyroid glands D) Pancreas E) Pituitary gland (hypophysis) 20) The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands. Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Is part of the sympathetic nervous system. Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body. Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Primary regulators of blood calcium levels. Section: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Produces the body's major metabolic hormones. Section: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 20) E 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A

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Figure 15.3 Using Figure 15.3, match the following: 25) Mainly produces glucocorticoids. Answer: B Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Produces epinephrine and norepinephrine. Answer: D Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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27) Produces aldosterone. Answer: A Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Excess hormone levels from this region result in Cushing's syndrome. Answer: B Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Hormones mimic sympathetic nervous system neurotransmitters. Answer: D Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Mainly produces small amounts of gonadocorticoids. Answer: C Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Humoral stimulus B) Neural stimulus C) Hormonal stimulus 31) Testosterone production. Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Epinephrine production. Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Aldosterone production. Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Parathyroid hormone production. Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) A 15.2 True/False Questions 1) The pineal gland is used as a brain orientation reference landmark for brain X-rays. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Calcitonin is the main regulator of blood calcium levels. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The number of receptors for a particular hormone can change due to consistently high or low levels of that hormone, which is referred to as up- and down-regulation. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Insufficient dietary iodine can cause Graves' disease. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Enteroendocrine cells of the GI tract produce some hormones that are chemically identical to neurotransmitters. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Type 2 diabetes mellitus may reflect declining receptor sensitivity to insulin rather than decreased insulin production. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenesis. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The beta cells in the pancreatic islets produce insulin. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Most type 2 diabetics do NOT produce insulin. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Cyclic AMP (cAMP), diacylglycerol (DAG), inositol triphosphate (IP3), and calcium ions can serve as second messengers. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the urinary excretion of sodium. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Hypersecretion of catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) can result in hypertension. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Thyroid hormone production requires the presence of both iodine and calcium. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Oxytocin and ADH are produced in the posterior pituitary. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) The endocrine gland that is probably malfunctioning if a person has a high metabolic rate is the parathyroid. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Growth hormone solely exerts its influence by targeting other endocrine glands to produce hormones. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that usually enhance the immune responses when an individual is suffering from severe stress. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) All amino acid-based hormones are lipid soluble and can cross the plasma membrane. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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27) All anterior pituitary hormones EXCEPT growth hormone affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP second-messenger system. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from fats and proteins, is due to the action of ________. A) aldosterone B) insulin C) secretin D) cortisol Answer: D Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the ________. A) adrenal medulla B) pancreas C) thyroid gland D) thymus gland Answer: D Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) Virtually all amino acid-based hormones exert their signaling effects through intracellular ________. A) calcium B) deactivating ions C) nucleotides D) second messengers Answer: D Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following is NOT a category of endocrine gland stimulus? A) enzymatic B) humoral C) neural D) hormonal Answer: A Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that travel through the blood and regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________. A) enzymes B) antibodies C) proteins D) hormones Answer: D Section: 15.1 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________. A) connects the hypophysis to the pituitary gland B) runs through the infundibulum C) conducts aldosterone to the hypophysis D) is the site of prolactin synthesis Answer: B Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus? A) polyuria B) polydipsia C) polyphagia D) polycythemia Answer: D Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of the following can act on receptors inside the target cell that directly activate specific genes? A) growth hormone B) testosterone C) calcitonin D) melatonin Answer: B Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) Oxytocin ________. A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism B) is an anterior pituitary secretion C) exerts its most important effects during menstruation D) controls milk production Answer: A Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ________. A) increases urine production B) promotes dehydration C) is produced by the anterior pituitary D) secretion is inhibited by alcohol Answer: D Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Enteroendocrine cells of the gastric mucosa can be triggered to release serotonin. Serotonin diffuses to and influences target cells without first entering the bloodstream. The effect of serotonin on target cells would best be described as a(n) ________. A) second messenger B) autocrine C) exocrine D) paracrine Answer: D Section: 15.1 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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12) Which of the following is NOT a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus? A) activates or deactivates enzymes B) stimulates production of an action potential C) alters plasma membrane permeability D) induces secretory activity Answer: B Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure? A) gastrin B) secretin C) leptin D) aldosterone Answer: C Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which of the following is NOT a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus? A) a change in membrane potential B) stimulation of mitosis C) an increase in enzyme synthesis D) direct control of the nervous system Answer: D Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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15) The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________. A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ D) nothing–all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific Answer: C Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________. A) hepatic portal system B) general circulatory system C) hypophyseal portal system D) feedback loop Answer: C Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is NOT a true endocrine gland because ________. A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release B) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release Answer: D Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.10 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) Steroid hormones exert their action by ________. A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene B) binding cell receptors and initiating cAMP activity C) entering the cell and activating mitochondrial DNA D) activating the hypothalamic release of regulating hormones Answer: A Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________. A) synthesizing more than one hormone at a time B) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ C) altering gene expression in the nuclear DNA D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP Answer: D Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because ________. A) there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane B) the receptors bind to several hormones at the same time C) the protein kinases are rapidly metabolized into functional amino acids D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes Answer: D Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of the following statements is TRUE of amino acid-based hormones? A) They cross the plasma membrane. B) They are lipid soluble. C) They are synthesized from cholesterol. D) They require a receptor in the plasma membrane. Answer: D Section: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22 .


22) Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________. A) insulin, because insulin is a small peptide B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells C) growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone D) glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone Answer: B Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which anterior pituitary hormone does NOT target another endocrine gland? A) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B) growth hormone (GH) C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: B Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism? A) neural stimulation B) catabolic inhibition C) protein synthesis D) humoral stimulation Answer: D Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) The major targets of growth hormone are ________. A) the blood vessels B) the thyroid and adrenal glands C) the liver and gall bladder D) liver, bones, and skeletal muscles Answer: D Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Which of the following is NOT a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium? A) activation of osteoclasts B) increased calcium ion reabsorption by the kidneys C) increased intestinal absorption of calcium ions D) inhibition of calcitonin synthesis Answer: D Section: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which organ is responsible for synthesizing the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)? A) the heart B) the kidney C) the skin D) the spleen Answer: A Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________. A) testosterone B) estrogen C) cortisol D) epinephrine Answer: C Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Leptin is secreted by ________. A) lymphocytes B) adipose cells C) goblet cells D) fibroblasts Answer: B Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following is NOT a component of the cyclic AMP signaling mechanism? A) hormone receptor B) effector enzyme C) steroid D) G protein Answer: C Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which of the following is NOT a steroid-based hormone? A) estrogen B) aldosterone C) epinephrine D) cortisol Answer: C Section: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25 .


32) The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ________. A) calcitonin B) parathyroid hormone C) thyroid hormone D) gonadotropic hormones Answer: B Section: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Hormones that bind to plasma proteins ________. A) are usually water soluble B) must also bind to plasma membrane receptors C) are usually made of amino acids D) are usually synthesized from cholesterol Answer: D Section: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________. A) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary C) travel by arteries to the pituitary D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system Answer: D Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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35) The effect of a hormone on a target cell may be decreased by the presence of ________. A) antagonistic hormones B) permissive hormones C) synergistic hormones D) plasma membrane receptors Answer: A Section: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Aldosterone ________. A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary B) functions to increase sodium reabsorption C) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood D) production is greatly influenced by ACTH Answer: B Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of the following is NOT a step in thyroxine (T4) production? A) the production of thyroglobulin by follicular cells B) the diffusion of iodide from blood plasma into the follicular cell C) the binding of iodine to tyrosines in the colloid D) the linking of two diiodotyrosine (DIT) molecules in the colloid Answer: B Section: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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38) In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________. A) sensitivity increase B) cellular affinity C) up-regulation D) a stressor reaction Answer: C Section: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) A release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) will trigger ________. A) increased osteoblast activity B) a reduction of calcium reabsorption in the kidney tubules C) increased activation of vitamin D by the kidney D) a drop in blood calcium levels Answer: C Section: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) A man has been told that he is NOT synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem. A) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore, it is not synthesized by males. B) A hormone made in the anterior pituitary cannot influence fertility. C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes. D) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH. Answer: C Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning this difference? A) It causes positive feedback. B) It does not require a second messenger to cause a response. C) It is very specific in the cell type it targets. D) It is a stimulant of cellular metabolism and targets all cells. Answer: B Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress? A) by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure B) by decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure C) by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin D) by releasing the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response Answer: A Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid-based hormones? A) iron B) calcium C) sodium D) chlorine Answer: B Section: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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44) John tells you that cholesterol is bad and should be eliminated from your diet. You explain to him that cholesterol is important. Which of the following hormones is synthesized from cholesterol? A) growth hormone B) testosterone C) oxytocin D) thyroxine Answer: B Section: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 45) Which hormone has only one known effect: to stimulate milk production by the breasts? A) progesterone B) estrogen C) oxytocin D) prolactin Answer: D Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of the following is correctly matched? A) zona glomerulosa – epinephrine and norepinephrine B) zona fasciculata – mineralocorticoids C) zona reticularis – gonadocorticoids D) adrenal medulla – glucocorticoids Answer: C Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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47) The parathyroid glands respond to which type of stimulus? A) hormonal B) neural C) humoral D) positive Answer: C Section: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) Dave has discovered a new lipid-soluble hormone. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this hormone? A) will likely act through a second-messenger system B) receptor will be located on the plasma membrane C) can be stored in secretory vesicles D) will be bound to a transport protein in the blood Answer: D Section: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 49) During an afternoon class, Lisa starts to feel hungry and worries that her blood sugar level may be dropping. Which hormone is helping to prevent a drop in blood sugar level? A) insulin B) glucagon C) aldosterone D) thyroxine Answer: B Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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50) Upon landing at the airport in Lagos, Nigeria, Eric feels wide awake even though the local time is 11pm. Which synthetic hormone supplement could he administer to help adjust to the new time zone? A) melatonin B) glucagon C) insulin D) growth hormone Answer: A Section: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.16 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 51) At age 85, Lyle's immune system does not respond to vaccines as well as it did when he was younger. The atrophy of which endocrine gland is likely responsible for this? A) thyroid B) anterior pituitary C) adrenal D) thymus Answer: D Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 52) Johanna, a 7-year-old girl, is significantly shorter than normal for her age. Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones. Which hormone is recommended? A) thyroid stimulating hormone B) parathyroid hormone C) growth hormone D) cortisol Answer: C Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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53) As a result of stress, the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats. A) thyroid stimulating hormone B) growth hormone C) ACTH D) ADH Answer: C Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 54) Melatonin ________. A) is produced by the parathyroid glands B) is responsible for regulating the sleep cycle C) triggers sexual maturation and puberty D) is at its highest levels at around noon Answer: B Section: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) Glucagon ________. A) stimulates the absorption of glucose from the blood B) triggers gluconeogenesis C) triggers the conversion of glucose into glycogen D) is considered a hypoglycemic hormone Answer: B Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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56) Which of the following is NOT a typical result of a long-term stress response? A) elevated blood pressure B) decreased production of glucocorticoids C) loss of muscle mass D) impaired immune function Answer: B Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Compare the structure and function of endocrine and exocrine glands. Answer: Endocrine glands are ductless glands that release hormones into the surrounding tissue fluid; the hormones diffuse into the blood to be transported to target cells throughout the body. Exocrine glands have ducts through which products (such as sweat or saliva) are released to a membrane surface. Section: 15.1 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Why should the hypothalamus instead of the anterior pituitary be called the "master endocrine gland"? Answer: Although the anterior pituitary produces hormones that regulate other endocrine glands, the hypothalamus controls anterior pituitary activity through releasing and inhibiting hormones. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Why would one NOT expect to continue increasing in height with age? Answer: The amount of growth hormone secreted declines with age and the closure of the epiphyseal plates prohibits further growth in length of the long bones. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) A woman with excessive body hair, a deep voice, and an enlarged clitoris shows the outward symptoms of which hormonal dysfunction? Answer: The hormonal dysfunction is hypersecretion of androgens. Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) A person who drinks a lot of alcoholic beverages must urinate frequently. Why? Answer: The function of ADH is to increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, producing concentrated urine. Alcohol inhibits ADH secretion, causing copious urine output. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.10 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) What is the role of hormone producing cells found within the heart? Answer: In response to high blood pressure, a few cardiac cells secrete atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), which helps regulate salt output by the kidney. In the kidney, ANP inhibits sodium ion reabsorption and renin release. In the adrenal cortex, ANP inhibits secretion of aldosterone. These effects reduce blood volume and blood pressure. Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.20 Global LO: G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) List three factors that target cell activation depends on, after the hormone binds to the receptor. Answer: Interaction depends on (1) blood levels of the hormone, (2) relative numbers of receptors for that hormone on or in the target cells, and (3) the affinity (strength) of the binding between the hormone and the receptor. Section: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global LO: G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Glucagon and insulin both target the cells of the liver and are both made in the pancreas, yet they have very different effects on the cells they target. What accounts for this fact? Answer: Glucagon and insulin use different cell surface receptors. Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Explain how parathyroid hormone (PTH) acts to increase blood calcium ion levels. Answer: Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoclasts (bone resorbing cells) to liberate calcium from bone into the blood. PTH also increases calcium reabsorption by the kidneys as well as calcium absorption by the small intestine through promotion of vitamin D activation. Section: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.14 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) List the four mechanisms involved in the regulation of aldosterone secretion. Answer: The four mechanisms are: (1) the renin-angiotensin mechanism, (2) plasma concentration of sodium and potassium ions, (3) control exerted by ACTH, and (4) plasma concentration of atrial natriuretic peptide. Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) What is the difference between autocrines and paracrines? Answer: Autocrines are self-regulating chemical messengers because their target is the cell from which they are manufactured. Paracrines are chemical messengers that act locally. They tend to affect only the cells immediately around them. Section: 15.1 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global LO: G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Define synergism in hormone interaction at target cells and give an example. Answer: Synergism occurs when more than one hormone produces the same effects at the target cell and their combined effects are amplified. For example, the liver will release glucose in the presence of glucagon or epinephrine. If both hormones are present, the amount of glucose released is increased 150%. Section: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.7 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) While visiting another country, you notice many individuals with iodine-deficiency goiters. Describe the feedback loop responsible for these goiters. Answer: Upon detecting low levels of thyroid hormone in the blood, the hypothalamus uses a releasing hormone to signal to the anterior pituitary to produce thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). The effect of TSH is to ramp up production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland. Iodine is required for functional thyroid hormone. Lack of iodine causes the continued effort by the thyroid to increase production (goiter) as the hypothalamus continues to stimulate TSH production. Section: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global LO: G2, G5, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15.5 Clinical Questions 1) Mrs. James appeared at the clinic complaining of extreme nervousness and sweating, saying that she could feel and hear her heart thumping when she tried to sleep at night. She was found to have a severely elevated and fluctuating blood pressure. Although laboratory testing revealed hyperglycemia and increased basal metabolic rate, tests of thyroid function were normal. What is your diagnosis? What treatment should be used? Answer: The diagnosis is hypersecretion of catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine), sometimes arising from a rare chromaffin cell tumor called a pheochromocytoma. Treatment is surgical removal of the tumor. Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) Mr. Sanchez makes an appointment to see his doctor for pain in his abdominal area. Tests and X-rays reveal kidney stones as well as bones with a moth-eaten appearance. Physical exam reveals hyporeflexia and hypotonia (weakness). What is the problem and what treatment would be recommended? Answer: The problem is hyperparathyroidism resulting from a parathyroid gland tumor. The treatment is removal of the tumor. Section: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.14 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) It was often rumored that one of our deceased presidents was suffering from Addison's disease (inadequate synthesis of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids). What symptoms may have led to the diagnosis of this condition? Answer: Low body weight, low plasma glucose and sodium levels, high potassium levels, hypotension, severe dehydration, and hypotension might all have been observed in the patient. Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Following workup for symptoms of decreased libido and erectile dysfunction, a patient is told that his pituitary is hypersecreting prolactin. Is there need for concern about this young man? Answer: Yes; there should be great concern, because hypersecretion of prolactin will lead to impotence. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) The parents of a 17-year-old boy are concerned about his height because he is only 5 feet tall and they are both close to 6 feet tall. After tests by their doctor, a certain hormone is prescribed for the boy. What is the probable diagnosis, and what hormone was prescribed? Why might the child still expect to reach his growth potential? Answer: The diagnosis is insufficient growth hormone. The prescription is synthetic growth hormone. The reason the child might reach his growth potential is that the epiphyseal plates of the long bones have not yet closed, allowing additional growth of the long bones. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) John is a 26-year-old man who begins to notice a progressive enlargement of feet, hands, cranium, nose, and lower jaw bone. His doctor recommends a pituitary gland operation. What is the most likely diagnosis? Why? Answer: The diagnosis is acromegaly. The condition results from excess secretion of growth hormone from the pituitary gland postpuberty and after the epiphyseal plates of the long bones have fused. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Explain how antidiuretic hormone can help regulate an abnormal increase in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid. Answer: The release of antidiuretic hormone can regulate an increase in solute concentration by causing reabsorption of water by the kidney. With reabsorption, blood water volume increases, decreasing solute concentration. Section: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.10 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) What is the most important nursing intervention when caring for a patient with Cushing's syndrome? Answer: Because of enhanced anti-inflammatory effects, infections may become overwhelmingly severe. Therefore, the nurse should warn the patient to avoid shaving nicks and other sources of infection. Section: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.15 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) A 25-year-old male was admitted to the medical/surgical unit with a blood glucose of 600 mg/dl. On assessment, the nurse observed his breathing was deep and rapid, and his breath smelled of acetone. His face was flushed and his skin was dry. His pH was low. Describe the physiological response that is occurring. Answer: In severe cases of diabetes mellitus, blood levels of fatty acids and their metabolites rise dramatically. The fatty acid metabolites, collectively called ketones, are strong organic acids. When they accumulate faster than they are used or excreted, the blood pH drops, resulting in ketoacidosis, and ketones begin to spill into the urine. The nervous system responds by initiating rapid deep breathing to blow off carbon dioxide from the blood and increase pH. Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Thomas is a diabetic. While at work, he began to tremble, was somewhat disoriented, and showed signs similar to that of a drunk. One of his colleagues gave him some hard candy, which seemed to help him return to normal functions. Why? Was this a proper action, considering that Thomas is diabetic? Answer: Thomas was suffering from hypoglycemia. The low blood sugar level affected his brain resulting in his appearance of being drunk. The candy raised his blood sugar back up to a normal level. This was a proper action because he was hypoglycemic; the brain needs constant glucose levels for normal function. Section: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 16 Blood 16.1 Matching Questions

Figure 16.1 Using Figure 16.1, match the following: 1) Monocyte. Answer: B Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Lymphocyte. Answer: D Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Eosinophil. Answer: C Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) Neutrophil. Answer: A Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) A granulocyte, phagocyte and the most common white blood cell found in whole blood. Answer: A Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Mounts a humoral immune response by producing antibodies. Answer: D Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Releases granules that kill parasitic worms. Answer: C Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) When activated, becomes a macrophage that fights infection. Answer: B Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Main bacteria killer during acute infections. Answer: A Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2 .


Match the following: A) Neutrophil B) Eosinophil C) Basophil D) Erythrocyte E) Monocyte 10) Nucleus has two lobes; contains granules of lysosomal enzymes; functions in attacking parasitic worms and plays complex roles in inflammatory diseases like allergies and asthma. Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Nucleus is multilobed; functions as a phagocyte; contains fine indistinct granules. Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Transports CO2 and oxygen. Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus; granules stain very dark; releases histamine and heparin. Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Largest of the WBCs become macrophages associated with chronic infections. Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) E 3 .


Match the following: A) Organic nutrients B) Electrolytes C) Fibrinogen D) Albumin 15) The major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Precursor to the structural framework of a blood clot. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Makes up most of plasma protein. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Material absorbed from the digestive tract, including simple sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20) Ions in the plasma–like sodium, potassium, and chloride ions. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) B Match the following: A) Gamma globulins B) Fibrinogen C) Albumin D) Alpha and beta globulins 21) Main contributor to osmotic pressure. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Antibodies released by plasma cells during immune response. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Necessary for coagulation. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Transport proteins like transferrin (that carries iron ions) or others that bind to lipids or fatsoluble vitamins. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) D 5 .


Match the following: A) Agglutination B) Hemoglobin C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte E) Factor VIII 25) Polymorphonuclear leukocyte. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) White blood cell without cytoplasmic granules. Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Protein capable of changing shape and color in the presence of O2. Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Adverse reaction of donor blood cells with recipient plasma. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Lacking in hemophilia type A. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) A 29) E

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Match the following: A) Interleukins and CSFs B) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2 C) Erythropoietin D) Heparin E) Spectrin 30) Produced by platelets. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) A fibrous protein that gives shape to an RBC plasma membrane. Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Hormone that stimulates production of RBCs. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Stimulates WBC production. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Natural anticoagulant found in basophils. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 30) B 31) E 32) C 33) A 34) D

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Figure 16.2 Using Figure 16.2, match the following: 35) Type O. Answer: D Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Type A. Answer: B Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8 .


37) Type AB. Answer: A Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Type B. Answer: C Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Universal donor. Answer: D (O negative) Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Universal recipient. Answer: A (AB positive) Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Embolism B) Polycythemia C) Anemia D) Thrombocytopenia E) Leukemia 41) Cancerous condition involving white blood cells. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Condition in which blood has abnormally low oxygen-carrying capacity. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Abnormal excess of erythrocytes resulting in an increase in blood viscosity. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Free-floating thrombus in the bloodstream. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels seen as petechiae on the skin. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 41) E 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) D

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16.2 True/False Questions 1) The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) When erythrocytes are destroyed, some of the heme is converted into bilirubin and then secreted as bile. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Myeloid stem cells give rise to all leukocytes. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Leukocytes move through the interstitial spaces by amoeboid motion. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) In clotting, prothrombin activator catalyzes prothrombin into thrombin, which in turn converts fibrinogen into fibrin. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering ________. A) a bacterial infection B) polycythemia C) anemia D) a viral infection Answer: A Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A person exhibiting suppression of immunity and clotting disorder as well as low oxygencarrying capacity is likely suffering from which of the following? A) iron deficiency anemia B) aplastic anemia C) pernicious anemia D) hemorrhagic anemia Answer: B Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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3) Which body activity would be most affected if a patient lacked an adequate number of erythrocytes (anemia)? A) clotting B) immune response C) hormone transport D) oxygen transport Answer: D Section: 16.1 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Which blood component primarily contributes to plasma osmotic pressure? A) electrolytes B) albumin C) gamma globulin D) blood borne nutrients Answer: B Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following? A) fever with pain B) pallor (pale skin) C) edema (swelling) D) loss of blood clotting Answer: D Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) A patient's hematocrit shows an unusually large buffy coat. What is a likely cause for this? A) severe infection B) anemia C) lipidemia D) thrombocytopenia Answer: A Section: 16.8 Learning Outcome: 16.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to see ________. A) decreased white blood cell count B) increased white blood cell count C) decreased hematocrit D) increased hematocrit Answer: D Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) With a patient who is administered an injection of colony stimulating factor (CSF), you would expect to see ________. A) decreased white blood cell count B) increased white blood cell count C) decreased red blood cell count D) increased red blood cell count Answer: B Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) Higher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on the heart while it is pumping. Viscosity of blood is highest when ________. A) hemoglobin levels are lowest B) hematocrit is highest C) HbA1C levels are lowest D) plasma levels are highest Answer: B Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage? A) living at higher altitude B) injection with erythropoietin (EPO) C) prolonged or excessive fever D) dehydration Answer: C Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________. A) malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait B) the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait C) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria D) sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria Answer: C Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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12) Lipids (either nutrients or hormones) are insoluble in water but are found traveling in the plasma of the blood. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? A) enzymes in the plasma convert lipids to soluble forms B) lipids are carried in plasma bound to soluble plasma transport proteins C) lipids are carried only in the lymph which is primarily composed of unsaturated fats D) lipids are carried inside blood cells Answer: B Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________. A) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells B) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus C) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells D) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation Answer: C Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that ________. A) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells C) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells D) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells Answer: C Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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15) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that ________. A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells C) platelets are larger than white blood cells D) platelets are larger than red blood cells Answer: A Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening? A) loss of immunity and loss of carbon dioxide carrying capacity B) loss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure C) loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity D) loss of immunity and loss of blood pressure Answer: C Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) lower plasma levels B) higher hematocrit C) higher blood viscosity D) lower immunity Answer: D Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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18) Which of the following is NOT a functional characteristic of WBCs? A) granulosis B) diapedesis C) ameboid motion D) positive chemotaxis Answer: A Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) What is the average normal pH range of blood? A) 8.35-8.45 B) 7.75-7.85 C) 7.35-7.45 D) 4.65-4.75 Answer: C Section: 16.1 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________. A) hemoglobin A B) hemoglobin B C) hemoglobin F D) hemoglobin S Answer: C Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood? A) megakaryocyte B) normoblast C) hemocytoblast D) polymorphonuclear cell Answer: C Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21 .


22) Which blood type is generally called the universal donor? A) A positive B) B negative C) AB positive D) O negative Answer: D Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) If a patient with type B blood received a transfusion of AB blood, which of the following would occur? A) The patient's A antigens (antiglutinogens) will agglutinate with the anti-A antibodies (agglutinins) in the donor blood. B) The patient's anti-A antibodies (agglutinins) will agglutinate with the A antigens (antiglutinogens) in the donor blood. C) The patient's B antigens (antiglutinogens) will agglutinate with the anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) in the donor blood. D) The patient's anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) will agglutinate with the B antigens (agglutinins) in the donor blood. Answer: B Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 24) Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis? A) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells B) decreased tissue demand for oxygen C) an increased number of RBCs D) moving to a lower altitude Answer: A Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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25) Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________. A) rate of erythrocyte formation B) rate of platelet formation C) clotting ability of the blood D) WBC ability to defend the body against disease Answer: A Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) A patient with type A positive blood can, in theory, safely donate blood to someone with ________ blood. A) A positive, A negative, O positive, or O negative B) A positive or O positive C) A positive or AB positive D) A positive, A negative, AB positive, or AB negative Answer: C Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27) When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________. A) A B) B C) AB D) O Answer: D Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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28) All of the following can be expected with polycythemia EXCEPT ________. A) high hematocrit B) low blood viscosity C) increased blood volume D) high blood pressure Answer: B Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 29) Which is NOT true of leukocytes? A) They are the only formed elements that are true cells. B) They move by amoeboid motion. C) They all contain easily recognizable membrane-bound cytoplasmic granules. D) They account for less than 1% of total blood volume. Answer: C Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Replacing lost blood volume with an isotonic saline solution ________. A) restores the oxygen-carrying capacity of the circulation B) restores the patient's blood glucose levels C) lowers the patient's blood volume D) lowers the patient's hematocrit Answer: D Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31) Blood doping refers to the practice of ________ before an athletic event. A) training at high altitude to increase red blood cell production B) injecting performance-enhancing steroids into the blood C) removing, storing, and re-injecting a person's red blood cells D) injecting high amounts of oxygen into the blood stream Answer: C Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24 .


32) A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________. A) aplastic anemia B) polycythemia C) pernicious anemia D) sickle-cell anemia Answer: C Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which is NOT true of thrombocytopenia? A) It may produce petechiae. B) It is caused by having a low number of circulating platelets. C) It can be caused by conditions that destroy bone marrow. D) It increases the risk of embolus formation. Answer: D Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Leukocytes displaying red cytoplasmic granules when treated with Wright's stain are most likely ________. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) monocytes D) erythrocytes Answer: B Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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35) Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma. B) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells. C) His blood lacks Rh factor. D) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive. Answer: A Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) Which of the following would NOT be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia? A) travel at high altitude B) vigorous exercise C) malaria D) prolonged exposure to cold Answer: D Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 37) The cells responsible for producing platelets are called ________. A) megakaryocytes B) myeloblasts C) monoblasts D) lymphoid stem cells Answer: A Section: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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38) Hemolytic disease of the newborn will NOT be possible in which of the following situations listed below? A) if the child is type O positive B) if the child is Rh+ C) if the father is Rh+ D) if the father is RhAnswer: D Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39) What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production? A) kidney B) brain C) liver D) pancreas Answer: A Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Why is blood considered a connective tissue? A) Plasma contains dissolved fibrous proteins. B) It is found in all areas of the body. C) It allows for chemical signals from one area of the body to reach another. D) It acts as an adhesive layer between tissue types. Answer: A Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) Which of the following is NOT a typical plasma protein? A) albumin B) globulins C) fibrinogen D) erythropoietin Answer: D Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16.4 Short Answer Questions 1) If a person has AB type blood, which of the ABO blood types can they receive as a transfusion? Answer: All (A, B, AB, and O) Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) When monocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces to fight infection, they change to a different type of cell called ________. Answer: macrophage(s) Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The group of blood disorders in which blood oxygen levels are inadequate to support normal metabolism is called ________. Answer: anemia Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) How many polypeptide chains make up hemoglobin? Answer: Four Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) List the two general factors that limit normal clot growth to the sight of injury. Answer: Rapid removal of coagulation factors and inhibition of activated clotting factors. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) List the most common causes of bleeding disorders. Answer: Platelet deficiency (thrombocytopenia); deficiency of procoagulants due to liver disorders; or certain genetic conditions (hemophilias). Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) List the granulocytes and describe the appearance of their granules in a typical blood smear. Answer: Neutrophils: pale, indistinct; eosinophils: red; basophils: dark purple Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Why is iron not stored or transported in its free form? In what form(s) is it stored or transported in blood? Answer: Because free iron is toxic to body cells, iron is stored within cells as protein-iron complexes such as ferritin and hemosiderin. It is transported loosely bound to a protein called transferrin. Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Explain why blood is classified as a connective tissue. Answer: Blood develops from mesenchyme which is the same embryonic tissue that develops into all the other types of connective tissue: Therefore, it has both solid (cells) and liquid (extracellular) components. The formed elements (cells) are suspended in a nonliving fluid matrix (plasma). Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull, dark red? Answer: In bright red blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin (oxygenated blood). In dull, darkred blood, oxygen has been released from the hemoglobin (deoxygenated blood). Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Why is hemoglobin enclosed in erythrocytes rather than existing free in plasma? Answer: Hgb needs to be packaged for efficient transport which in turn transports oxygen in an organized way. Additionally, erythrocytes generate energy anaerobically meaning it does not use the oxygen that it is transporting for the tissues. Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood? Answer: The buffy coat is a layer of centrifuged whole blood that contains leukocytes and platelets. Section: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) When diagnosing an iron deficiency one of the first tests is a red blood cell count. Why is this so? Answer: Iron is mostly stored in hemoglobin of RBCs. Additional free ions are bound to protein-iron molecules like ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin. Ferritin and hemosiderin molecules are stored in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow. Transferrin transports iron in the blood. Section: 16.2, 16.8 Learning Outcome: 16.2, 16.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) Why are the two pathways of blood clotting referred to as the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways? Answer: The factors required to initiate clotting are present within the blood in the intrinsic pathway and outside the blood in the extrinsic pathway. Section: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16.5 Clinical Questions 1) Why would there be cause for concern if a young pregnant mother is Rh-, her husband is Rh+, and this is their second child? Answer: If the mother was given RhoGAM before and shortly after the birth of their first child who is Rh+, there is little concern, because the RhoGAM prevented the mother from sensitizing herself against her child. If the second child is RH+ and she did not take RhoGAM, there is a chance the second child will develop erythroblastosis fetalis and die before birth. Section: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide? Answer: The differential count determines the relative proportion of individual leukocyte types in percentage and absolute value of each type of WBC (a valuable diagnostic tool). The total WBC count indicates an increase or decrease in number of WBCs. Section: 16.8 Learning Outcome: 16.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31 .


3) List three blood tests that might be ordered if anemia is suspected. Answer: The three tests for anemia include hemoglobin, hematocrit and RBC count. Section: 16.8 Learning Outcome: 16.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) A patient complains of no energy, a chronic sore throat, a low-grade fever, and is tired and achy. His doctor notes an enlarged spleen upon examination. What diagnosis would you expect and what definitive test would you request? Answer: The test would be a differential white blood cell count to look for elevated numbers of monocytes and atypical lymphocytes. The diagnosis would be possible infectious mononucleosis, pending test results. Order a Mono spot test! Section: 16.8 Learning Outcome: 16.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) A man of Mediterranean ancestry goes to his doctor with the following symptoms. He is very tired all of the time. He has difficulty catching his breath after even mild exercise. His doctor orders the following tests: CBC, hematocrit, differential WBC count, and hemoglobin electrophoresis. The tests show immature erythrocytes, fragile erythrocytes, and less than 2 million RBCs per cubic millimeter. What would be a tentative diagnosis and suggested treatment? Answer: The diagnosis is thalassemia. The treatment is blood transfusion and chelation therapy to remove excessive iron accumulate from transfusions. Section: 16.8 Learning Outcome: 16.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) A 68-year-old male is admitted to the hospital for emphysema. He is hypoxic and his lab tests reveal low oxygen levels. His hematocrit is 65%. The physician has told him that he has a type of polycythemia in which he has an increased number of erythrocytes circulating in his bloodstream. The patient tells the nurse that he does not understand what that means. How would the nurse explain this in terms the patient could understand? Answer: "Because you have decreased oxygen levels in your blood, your body has responded by producing more red blood cells, which we call polycythemia, the term for excessive RBC production. The low oxygen level causes your kidneys to make a hormone (erythropoietin) to stimulate the production of more red blood cells." Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) An elderly patient tells the nurse that she has been very tired lately and has difficulty walking to her mailbox without getting very short of breath. The nurse notes the mucous membranes are pale. The patient states that since her husband died three months ago, she has not been eating well. The physician confirms that she has iron-deficiency anemia. How are the patient's clinical manifestations and iron-deficiency anemia related? Answer: Without iron as a source material, the red bone marrow cannot manufacture sufficient hemoglobin to meet demand. The clinical manifestations are directly attributed to the reduction in the amount of oxygen available to tissues. Anemic individuals are fatigued, often pale, short of breath, and chilly. Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) A 16-year-old black male is admitted to the hospital in sickle-cell crisis. Pain management is a top priority for patients in sickle-cell crisis. Explain why. Answer: Sickle-cell anemia results from a defective hemoglobin S-producing gene that causes red blood cells to roughen and become sickle shaped. Such sickling can produce hemolysis. The altered cells tend to pile up in capillaries and smaller blood vessels, making the blood more viscous. Normal circulation is impaired, and the oxygen-deprived tissues are forced to switch to anaerobic metabolism, producing lactic acid which causes severe pain and swelling. Section: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) A 52-year-old woman was diagnosed with leukemia and has been receiving chemotherapy as an outpatient. She tells the RN that she hasn't been feeling well. The patient's skin is warm to the touch and she has a low-grade fever of 100.2°F. The neutrophil blood count is less than 1000/μl. The nurse is concerned about the possibility of infection because of the neutropenia and lowgrade fever. Explain why. Answer: A low-grade fever in someone who has neutropenia is a major concern for survival. Neutropenia is a concern because of the neutrophil's role in phagocytosis. This patient has a decreased ability to fight off infection and cannot respond by quickly developing more white blood cells the way a normal patient would. Patient is susceptible to opportunistic infections and should be treated as well as placed in protective isolation. Section: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 17 The Cardiovascular System: The Heart 17.1 Matching Questions

Figure 17.1 Using Figure 17.1, match the following: 1) Subendocardial conducting network (Purkinje fibers). Answer: E Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Sinoatrial (SA) node. Answer: A Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Atrioventricular (AV) bundle. Answer: C Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Atrioventricular (AV) node. Answer: B Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Bundle branches. Answer: D Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 17.2 Using Figure 17.2, match the following: 6) Atrial depolarization. Answer: A Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Point after which pressure begins to rise in the aorta. Answer: D Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Ventricular repolarization. Answer: E Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart. Answer: E Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 17.3 Using Figure 17.3, match the following: 10) Ventricular fibrillation. Answer: D Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.13 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5 .


11) Second-degree heart block. Answer: C Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.13 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Junctional rhythm. Answer: B Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.13 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) Normal sinus rhythm. Answer: A Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Parietal layer B) Epicardium C) Myocardium D) Endocardium 14) The inner lining of the heart. Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Heart muscle. Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Serous layer covering the heart muscle. Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The outermost layer of the serous pericardium. Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) A

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Match the following: A) Vagal tone B) Bradycardia C) Tachycardia D) Cardiac reserve 18) Heart rate at rest under both autonomic divisions signaling. Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) An abnormally fast heart rate. Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) An abnormally slow heart rate. Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Difference between resting and maximal cardiac output. Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D

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Match the following: A) Mitral (bicuspid) valve B) Aortic semilunar valve C) Tricuspid valve D) Pulmonary semilunar valve 22) Prevents backflow into the left ventricle. Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Prevents backflow into the right atrium. Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Prevents backflow into the left atrium. Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Prevents backflow into the right ventricle. Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Atrioventricular (AV) valve with two flaps. Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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27) Atrioventricular (AV) valve with three flaps. Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) C

Figure 17.4 Using Figure 17.4, match the following: 28) Tricuspid valve. Answer: B Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10 .


29) Mitral (bicuspid) valve. Answer: D Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Right atrium. Answer: A Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Left ventricle. Answer: E Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Pulmonary veins. Answer: C Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Infarction B) Quiescent period C) Ectopic focus D) Ischemia E) Fibrillation 33) Heart muscle is deprived of oxygen. Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Death of heart muscle cells. Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) A condition of rapid and irregular or out-of-phase contraction of ventricular heart muscle cells. Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) An abnormal pacemaker. Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Total heart relaxation. Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 33) D 34) A 35) E 36) C 37) B

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17.2 True/False Questions 1) The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) If blood volume decreased dramatically due to massive bleeding, the autonomic nervous system will attempt to maintain cardiac output by increasing the heart rate. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by fibrous connective tissue. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) The left side of the heart pumps the same volume of blood as the right. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) When released in large quantities, thyroxine, a thyroid gland hormone, causes a sustained increase in heart rate. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The "lub" sounds of the heart are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Autonomic regulation of heart rate is via two reflex centers found in the pons. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the atrioventricular (AV) valve flaps. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) An electrocardiogram (ECG) provides direct information about valve function. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) If the aorta and pulmonary trunk were switched, oxygen rich blood would be pumped from the left ventricle to the lungs. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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16) Heart tissue is supplied with nutrients primarily by diffusion from the heart chambers through the myocardium. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events? A) excitation of the sinoatrial (SA) node B) closure of the heart valves C) friction of blood against the chamber walls D) opening of the heart valves Answer: B Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) During the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, ________. A) atrioventricular, aortic, and pulmonary valves are closed B) atrioventricular valves are closed; aortic and pulmonary valves are open C) atrioventricular valves are open; aortic and pulmonary valves are closed D) atrioventricular, aortic, and pulmonary valves are open Answer: A Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________. A) a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output B) a rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output C) no change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate D) no change in blood pressure but a change in respiration Answer: A Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16 .


4) The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________. A) accommodate a greater volume of blood B) expand the thoracic cage during diastole C) pump blood with greater pressure D) pump blood through a smaller valve Answer: C Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which chambers of the heart contain oxygenated blood? A) right and left atria B) right and left ventricles C) right atrium and ventricle D) left atrium and ventricle Answer: D Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) If the SA node is NOT functioning, an ECG will show ________. A) higher P waves B) more P waves than QRS waves C) no QRS waves D) no P waves with a HR between 40-60 bpm Answer: D Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The receiving chambers of the heart include the ________. A) right and left atria B) right and left ventricles C) right atrium and ventricle D) left atrium and ventricle Answer: A Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17 .


8) The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________. A) pericarditis B) cardiac tamponade C) myocardial infarction D) angina pectoris Answer: B Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________. A) ischemia B) pericarditis C) myocardial infarct D) angina pectoris Answer: D Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the ________. A) second intercostal space to the right of the sternum B) second intercostal space to the left of the sternum C) fifth intercostal space inferior to the left nipple D) fifth right intercostal space Answer: A Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________. A) coronary sinus B) fossa ovalis C) coronary arteries D) coronary veins Answer: C Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________. A) pumps a greater volume of blood B) pumps blood against a greater resistance C) expands the thoracic cage D) sends blood through a smaller valve Answer: B Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The parietal pericardium ________. A) lines the internal surface of the fibrous pericardium B) is also called the epicardium C) is separated from the fibrous pericardium by serous fluid D) is found within the pericardial cavity Answer: A Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) Which of the following describes a condition where the heart is such an inefficient pump that blood circulation is inadequate to meet tissue needs? A) congestive heart failure B) bradycardia C) tachycardia D) ischemia Answer: A Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________. A) decreased delivery of oxygen B) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production C) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways D) an inadequate supply of lactic acid Answer: A Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________. A) it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation B) contractions would last as long as the refractory period C) tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action D) pacemaker cells would cease to spontaneously depolarize Answer: C Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Norepinephrine acts on the heart by ________. A) decreasing heart contractility B) causing a decrease in stroke volume C) blocking the action of calcium D) causing threshold to be reached more quickly Answer: D Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________. A) the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract B) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute C) the atrioventricular (AV) node would become the pacemaker of the heart D) parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate Answer: B Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The foramen ovale ________. A) connected the two atria in the fetal heart B) is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close C) is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum D) is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus Answer: A Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood from the right ventricle? A) venae cavae B) pulmonary trunk C) aorta D) pulmonary veins Answer: B Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21 .


21) Which of the following receive(s) blood during ventricular systole? A) aorta only B) pulmonary arteries only C) pulmonary veins only D) both the aorta and pulmonary trunk Answer: D Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of the following is NOT part of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart? A) atrioventricular (AV) node B) bundle branches C) atrioventricular (AV) valve D) sinoatrial (SA) node Answer: C Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The atrioventricular (AV) valves are closed ________. A) when the ventricles are in diastole B) when the ventricles are in systole C) while the atria are contracting D) by the movement of blood from atria to ventricles Answer: B Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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24) Pectinate muscles are found in the ________. A) atria only B) atria and ventricles C) ventricles only D) right atrium and right ventricle only Answer: A Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Select the correct statement about the heart valves. A) The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle. B) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle. C) Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart. D) The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction. Answer: D Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells. A) The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all. B) Cardiac muscle cells are innervated by sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic nerve fibers so that the nervous system can increase heart rate. C) The refractory period in skeletal muscle is much longer than that in cardiac muscle. D) The influx of potassium ions from extracellular sources is the initiating event in cardiac muscle contraction. Answer: A Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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27) Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall. A) The fibrous cardiac skeleton forms the bulk of the heart. B) Connective tissue in the heart wall aids in the conduction of the action potential. C) The heart chambers are lined by the endomysium. D) The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts. Answer: D Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________. A) has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium B) lacks striations C) has more nuclei per cell D) cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells Answer: A Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) During the period of ventricular filling, ________. A) pressure in the heart is at its peak B) blood flows mostly passively from the atria through the atrioventricular (AV) valves into the ventricles C) the atria remain in diastole D) the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves are open Answer: B Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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30) The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle? A) isovolumetric relaxation B) isovolumetric contraction C) ventricular ejection D) ventricular filling Answer: A Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which is most responsible for the synchronized contraction of cardiac muscle tissue? A) desmosomes B) small motor units C) gap junctions D) branching cells Answer: C Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Select the correct statement about cardiac output. A) A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction. B) Decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume. C) If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would be decreased. D) Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases. Answer: A Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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33) Which is NOT a vessel that brings blood directly into the right atrium? A) superior vena cava B) inferior vena cava C) pulmonary vein D) coronary sinus Answer: C Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Isovolumetric contraction ________. A) refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers B) occurs while the atrioventricular (AV) valves are open C) occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves close D) occurs only in people with heart valve defects Answer: A Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Given an end diastolic volume (EDV) of 120 ml / beat and an end systolic volume (ESV) of 50 ml / beat, the stroke volume (SV) would be ________. A) 120 ml / beat B) 170 ml / beat C) 70 ml / beat D) 50 ml / beat Answer: C Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G2, G4, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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36) If the mitral valve is unable to close properly, ________. A) blood could flow back into the left atrium B) blood could flow back into the left ventricle C) blood could flow back into the right atrium D) blood could flow back into the right ventricle Answer: A Section: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) During exercise, which of the following would occur on an electrocardiogram (ECG) compared to an individual at rest? A) the T wave would decrease B) the P-R interval would decrease C) the time from one R to the R of the next heartbeat would decrease D) the S-T segment would decrease Answer: C Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 38) Which coronary artery is most responsible for supplying blood to the myocardial tissue of the left atrium? A) anterior interventricular artery B) circumflex artery C) right marginal artery D) posterior interventricular artery Answer: B Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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39) What is the expected heart rate when a heart is removed from a living body? A) the heart would immediately stop beating B) 50 beats / minute C) 75 beats / minute D) 100 beats / minute Answer: D Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 40) While auscultating heart sounds during a checkup, Andy's doctor hears a high-pitched sound during ventricular contraction. Which type of valve could cause this? A) insufficient mitral (bicuspid) valve B) stenotic aortic semilunar valve C) incompetent tricuspid valve D) deficient pulmonary semilunar valve Answer: B Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 41) Exercise results in skeletal muscles compressing veins which encourages blood to return to the heart. In this scenario, which of the following is correct? A) preload increases B) stroke volume decreases C) venous return decreases D) end diastolic volume (EDV) decreases Answer: A Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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42) The "pacemaker potential" of pacemaker cells is produced by the opening of ________ at the end of an action potential. A) slow Na+ channels B) fast Ca2+ channels C) K+ channels D) slow Ca2+ channels Answer: A Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) The plateau phase of an action potential in cardiac muscle cells is due to the ________. A) influx of Na+ through fast Na+ channels B) influx of Ca2+ through slow Ca2+ channels C) efflux of Ca2+ through fast Ca2+ channels D) efflux of K+ through K+ channels Answer: B Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) The Frank-Starling Law states that, if other factors are constant, a ________. A) higher stroke volume will produce a lower end diastolic volume B) higher end diastolic volume will produce a higher stroke volume C) higher end diastolic volume will produce a lower stroke volume D) higher stroke volume will produce a higher end diastolic volume Answer: B Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Define systole and diastole. Which heart chambers are usually referenced when these terms are used? Answer: Systole is contraction of the muscle. Diastole is relaxation of the muscle. The contraction and relaxation of the ventricles are normally described with the terms systole and diastole. Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.14 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Define the terms end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV) and relate them to the calculation of stroke volume. Answer: EDV is the amount of blood that collects in a ventricle during diastole (filling of ventricles). ESV is the volume of blood remaining in a ventricle after it has contracted. Stroke volume (ml / beat) equals EDV - ESV. Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) What is the difference between the auricles and the atria? Answer: Auricles are the flaplike appendages attached to the atria that provides a reserve capacity to increase the atrial volume. The atria are receiving chambers for blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary and systemic circulation. Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The heart is called a "double pump" because there are two functionally separate circulations. Trace the pathway of each of these circulations and include the following information: heart chambers involved, major blood vessels involved, and general areas through which the blood flows. Begin with the right atrium. Answer: Right atrium to right ventricle to pulmonary trunk to pulmonary arteries to lungs to pulmonary veins (pulmonary circuit pump); left atrium to left ventricle to aorta to body tissues to venae cavae (systemic circuit pump). Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30 .


5) What two important functions does the intrinsic cardiac conduction system perform? Answer: The important functions of the intrinsic cardiac conduction system are to initiate impulses (pacemaker) and to distribute impulses throughout the heart so that it depolarizes and contracts in an orderly, sequential manner. Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Explain the role of pacemaker cells in cardiac tissue. Answer: Pacemaker cells do not maintain a stable resting membrane potential. Instead, they have an unstable resting potential that continuously depolarizes, drifting toward threshold for firing. These spontaneously changing membrane potentials, called pacemaker potentials, initiate the action potentials that trigger the heart's rhythmic contractions. Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Why is oxygen so much more critical to the heart muscle than to skeletal muscles? Answer: Cardiac muscle cells are highly dependent on oxygen and rely almost exclusively on aerobic respiration. Thus, they cannot tolerate lack of oxygen due to an inadequate blood supply. When there is a forced switch to anaerobic respiration, lactic acid and rising H+ levels impair heart function. Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) What is the functional importance of the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle? What is the functional importance of the fibrous cardiac skeleton of the heart? Answer: Intercalated discs contain anchoring desmosomes that prevent cell separation, and gap junctions that allow ions to travel from cell to cell enabling greater communication by increasing the surface area, transmitting current across the entire heart. The fibrous cardiac skeleton acts as a tendon, an insertion and insulator, giving the cardiac cells something to pull or exert their force on and isolating atrial from ventricular contractions. Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) List the three vessels that bring oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium. Which regions of the body do they serve? Answer: The superior vena cava returns oxygen-poor blood from body regions superior to the diaphragm. The inferior vena cava returns oxygen-poor blood from body areas inferior to the diaphragm. The coronary sinus collects blood draining from the myocardium. Section: 17.1 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) List and define the three most important factors that affect stroke volume. Answer: 1. Preload—the degree to which heart muscle cells are stretched before they contract 2. Contractility—contractile strength achieved at a given muscle length 3. Afterload—pressure that must be overcome for the ventricles to eject blood Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17.5 Clinical Questions 1) A 14-year-old girl undergoing a physical examination prior to being admitted to summer camp was found to have a loud diastolic murmur at the second intercostal space to the left side of the sternum. Explain the reason for the loud heart murmur associated with this girl's condition. Answer: The heart murmur is due to incomplete closure of the pulmonary valve and regurgitation of pulmonary trunk blood during diastole. Section: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.15 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A man enters the hospital complaining of chest pain. His history includes smoking, a stressful job, a diet heavy in saturated fats, lack of exercise, and high blood pressure. Although he is not suffering from a heart attack, his doctor explains to him that a heart attack is quite possible. What did the chest pain indicate? Why is this man a prime candidate for a heart attack? Answer: His symptoms indicate angina pectoris, possibly due to either atherosclerosis or stressinduced spasms of the coronary arteries. If the arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of blood, and therefore oxygen. A heart attack could occur if the coronary vessels experience further (or progressive) occlusion. Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 32 .


3) An older woman complains of shortness of breath and intermittent fainting spells. Her doctor runs various tests and finds that the atrioventricular (AV) node is not functioning properly. What is the suggested treatment? Answer: The suggested treatment is surgery to implant an artificial pacemaker. Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) A Doppler ultrasound was performed on a pregnant woman during a regular check-up. Everything looked great with the fetus and it had a strong heartbeat. The mother was alarmed by the fast pace of the fetal heartbeat. What do you tell her to reassure her that everything is fine? Answer: You tell her that the resting heart rate is fastest in a fetus with an average 140-160 beats/min. As we age, our heart rate declines to an average 72-80 beats/min in females and 64-72 beats/min in males. Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) A patient takes a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually for chest pain. Nitroglycerin acts directly on smooth muscle, producing relaxation and vessel dilation. How would this relieve chest pain? Answer: Angina pectoris is thoracic pain caused by a fleeting deficiency in blood delivery to the myocardium, with resulting decreased oxygen being delivered to the cells. Because nitroglycerin acts as a vasodilator (similar to nitric oxide), blood flow is increased, promoting the delivery of oxygen to the cells. Section: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) A patient was admitted to the hospital with chest pains. On admission, his pulse was 110 and blood pressure was 96/64. According to his history, his normal pulse rate is usually between 80 and 88 and his blood pressure runs from 120/70 to 130/80. Explain why these changes in BP and HR occur. Answer: Increased heart rate (measured by taking his pulse) without maintaining his normal blood pressure is suggestive of reduced stroke volume. Both a drop in blood volume and a weakened heart could cause this, but the chest pains suggest heart damage. Failure of compensating mechanisms to maintain blood pressure suggests a serious decline in cardiac output. Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) A 55-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with heart failure. He complains of increasing shortness of breath on exertion and needing to sleep on three pillows at night. On physical assessment, the nurse determines that his ankles and feet are very swollen. Which of these symptoms reflect left-sided heart failure and which reflect right-sided heart failure? Answer: Because the heart is a double pump, each side can initially fail independently of the other. If the left side fails, pulmonary congestion occurs. The right side of the heart continues to propel blood to the lungs, but the left side does not adequately eject the returning blood into the systemic circulation. Thus, blood vessels in the lungs become engorged with blood, pressure within them increases, and fluid leaks from the circulation into the lung tissue, causing pulmonary edema. Shortness of breath and difficulty breathing in a prone position may occur. If the right side of the heart fails, peripheral congestion occurs. Blood stagnates within body organs, and pooled fluids in the tissue spaces impair the ability of body cells to obtain adequate nutrients and oxygen and to rid themselves of wastes. Edema is most noticeable in the extremities (feet, ankles, and fingers). Section: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.16 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Asystole is the total absence of ventricular electrical activity. Explain why defibrillation would not be effective in this situation. Answer: Defibrillation is accomplished by electrically shocking the heart, which interrupts its chaotic twitching by depolarizing the entire myocardium. In this case, the ventricles are at a total standstill and defibrillation would not be effective. Section: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain), by decreasing the demand for oxygen. Explain why. Answer: By preventing the influx of calcium ions into myocardial and vascular smooth muscle cells, calcium channel blockers inhibit the intracellular release of additional stores of calcium ions. A drug that inhibits the release of intracellular calcium ions decreases the force of myocardial contractility, thereby decreasing the oxygen demand. Calcium channel blockers reduce the amount of calcium to bind to the troponin thereby reducing the work load on the heart. Section: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.9 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 18 The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels 18.1 Matching Questions

Figure 18.1 Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

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1) Sinusoid capillary. Answer: C Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Capillary found in endocrine organs that allows hormones to gain rapid entry into the blood. Answer: B Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Capillary with intercellular clefts found in the skin and muscles. Answer: A Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Capillary that has a discontinuous, incomplete basement membrane. Answer: C Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Capillary found where active capillary absorption of filtrate occurs. Answer: B Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 18.2 Using Figure 18.2, match the following: 6) Splenic vein. Answer: B Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Superior mesenteric vein. Answer: E Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Inferior mesenteric vein. Answer: D Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Hepatic portal vein. Answer: A Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Right gastroepiploic vein. Answer: C Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Inferior mesenteric artery B) Renal artery C) Internal iliac artery D) Aorta E) Common hepatic artery 11) Largest artery of the body. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Supplies the kidney. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Supplies the duodenum and stomach. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Supplies the distal areas of the large intestine. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Supplies pelvic structures. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Artery that does not anastomose. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) C 12) B 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) B

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Match the following: A) Brachiocephalic trunk B) Radial artery C) Internal carotid artery D) External iliac artery E) Celiac trunk 17) Gives rise to the right common carotid and right subclavian artery. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Supplies a lower limb. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Common site to take the pulse. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Major supply to the cerebral hemispheres. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Large unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta that supplies the liver, stomach, and spleen. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 17) A 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) E

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Match the following: A) External jugular vein B) Superior vena cava C) Pulmonary trunk D) Subclavian vein E) Axillary artery 22) Receives blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm, except the heart wall. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Drains the scalp. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Runs through the armpit area, giving off branches to the axillae, chest wall, and shoulder girdle. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Drains an upper extremity, a deep vein. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) E 26) D

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Match the following: A) Pulmonary vein B) Brachial artery C) Superior mesenteric artery D) Great saphenous vein E) Femoral artery 27) Artery usually ausculated to take the blood pressure. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Major artery of the thigh. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Supplies the small intestine. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Vessel commonly used as a coronary bypass vessel. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) A 31) D

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Match the following: A) Large veins B) Arterioles C) Capillaries D) Large arteries 32) Site where resistance to blood flow is greatest. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Site where exchanges of food and gases are made. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Site where blood pressure is lowest. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Site where the velocity of blood flow is fastest. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Site where the velocity of blood flow is slowest. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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37) Site where the blood volume is greatest. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Site where the blood pressure is greatest. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Site that is the major determinant of peripheral resistance. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) B

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Match the following: A) Vascular shock B) Hypovolemic shock C) Cardiogenic shock D) Circulatory shock 40) Results from heart inability to sustain adequate circulation due to myocardial damage. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Due to inadequate blood flow to meet tissue needs. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Normal blood volume but poor circulation due to extreme vasodilation. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Due to large-scale blood loss. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) B 18.2 True/False Questions 1) The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12 .


2) Arterial pressure in the pulmonary circulation is much higher than in the systemic circulation because of its proximity to the heart. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily move through the capillary membrane. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) is an arterial anastomosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The carotid sinus reflex protects the blood supply to the brain, whereas the aortic reflex is more concerned with maintaining adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a whole. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The pulmonary circulation does not directly serve the metabolic needs of body tissues. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Arteries supplying the same territory are often merged with one another, forming arterial anastomoses. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Whereas diffusion is more important for solute exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid, bulk flow is more important for regulation of the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Most blood vessel walls have three layers: the outermost layer (tunica media), the middle layer (tunica intima), and the innermost layer (tunica externa). Answer: FALSE Section: 18.1 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Elastic arteries, such as the aorta and its major branches, are thick-walled arteries near the heart. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.2 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Capillaries have an average lumen diameter, typically 8-10 mm, in order to handle the flow of many blood cells at once. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Veins carry blood from the capillary beds back toward the heart. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The pressure peak generated by ventricular contraction is called systolic pressure, while the lowest aortic pressure is called diastolic pressure. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Reduction in the concentration of albumin in blood plasma would alter capillary exchange by ________. A) increasing hydrostatic pressure and edema will occur B) decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and edema will occur C) increasing hydrostatic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases D) decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases Answer: B Section: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) If a person were to have substantial blood loss, you would expect to see all of the following physiological events to happen EXCEPT one. Select the least likely response to substantial blood loss. A) increasing vasomotor tone B) increases peripheral resistance C) decreased heart rate D) a weak, thread pulse Answer: C Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) During a marathon which of the following hormones is least likely to be released by the runner? A) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) B) epinephrine C) angiotensin II D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Answer: A Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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4) Which structural layer of blood vessels is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure? A) subendothelial B) tunica intima C) tunica media D) tunica externa Answer: C Section: 18.1 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Vessels that carry blood away from the heart and are named by the organs they supply (renal) are ________. A) elastic arteries B) muscular arteries C) arterioles D) capillaries Answer: B Section: 18.2 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following would NOT be expected from taking a diuretic drug? A) lower plasma volume B) increased urine output C) decreased blood pressure D) greater stress on the heart to provide adequate perfusion Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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7) A person suddenly gaining significant amounts of adipose tissue can expect all of the following physiological changes EXCEPT one. Which of the following is least likely to occur with a sudden and significant gain in adipose tissue? A) increased angiogenesis and higher peripheral resistance B) higher peripheral resistance and higher blood pressure C) lower heart rate and reduced blood flow D) increased risk of developing atherosclerosis Answer: C Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Which blood vessels lack elastic tissue? A) muscular arteries and arterioles B) venules and veins C) capillaries and venules D) arterioles and capillaries Answer: C Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) In red bone marrow newly formed blood cells enter the circulation. You would expect to see many ________ type of capillaries in red bone marrow. A) sinusoid B) continuous C) fenestrated D) metarterioles Answer: A Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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10) The aorta receives the full force of blood exiting the heart during ventricular systole. Which of the following statements best describes the adaptive anatomy of the aorta? A) The aorta's tunica media is thick with dense regular connective tissue to withstand the blood's pressure. B) Smooth muscle is relatively thin in the aorta to increase lumen size and systemic blood flow. C) Elastic fibers are extensive in the tunica media of the aorta and dampen the pulse pressure generated by the heart. D) The tunica external of the aorta is nearly absent compared to other vessels. Answer: C Section: 18.1 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the precapillary sphincters? A) They allow blood to bypass the true capillaries that are fed by the metarteriole. B) They regulate the flow of blood to tissues served by the true capillaries. C) They increase or decrease rates of perfusion to the tissues served by the true capillaries. D) They decrease the osmotic pressure in the thoroughfare channel. Answer: D Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Blood flow is ________ proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is ________ proportional to the total peripheral resistance. A) inversely; directly B) directly; inversely C) inversely; inversely D) directly; directly Answer: B Section: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Atherosclerosis causes elastic arteries to become less stretchy. How does this affect pulse pressure? A) Pulse pressure is chronically increased. B) Pulse pressure is temporarily increased. C) Pulse pressure is chronically decreased. D) Pulse pressure is temporarily decreased. E) Pulse pressure is unaffected by atherosclerosis. Answer: A Section: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) In general, it is expected that ________. A) hydrostatic pressure will rise as blood moves away from the arteriole end of the capillary bed B) hydrostatic pressure will drop as blood moves away from the arteriole end of the capillary bed C) hydrostatic pressure will remain constant throughout the capillary bed D) osmotic pressure will be lower in the arteriole end of the capillary bed compared to the venous end Answer: B Section: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) In general, it is expected that ________. A) osmotic pressure will remain relatively consistent throughout the capillary bed B) osmotic pressure will be lower in the arteriole end of the capillary bed compared to the venous end C) osmotic pressure will be higher in the arteriole end of the capillary bed compared to the venous end D) hydrostatic pressure will remain constant throughout the capillary bed Answer: A Section: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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16) Which of the following is most likely to occur in the arteriovenous shuts present in the blood vessels of the finger tips and toes? A) Colder temperatures will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts. B) Warmer temperatures will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts. C) Exercise will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts. D) Colder temperatures will result in vasodilation in the arteriovenous shuts. Answer: A Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) Which of the following does NOT contribute to venous blood pressure? A) increased abdominal pressure during breathing B) constriction of smooth muscle around veins by the sympathetic nervous system C) venous anastomoses D) skeletal muscle activity Answer: C Section: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18) The velocity of blood is slowest in the capillaries and pressure of blood is lowest in the veins. Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of the benefits of slow, low pressure blood in the capillary beds? A) Lower pressure reduces the chance of injury to delicate capillary vessels. B) Slower blood flow through capillaries allows more time for diffusion to take place in the capillary bed. C) Lower pressure on the venous end of the capillary bed allows for greater reabsorption of fluid back to the plasma. D) Lower pressure in the capillary bed helps to increase pressure in the venous circulation. Answer: D Section: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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19) The release of which hormone is most likely to cause a reduction in blood volume and pressure? A) antidiuretic hormone B) aldosterone C) norepinephrine D) atrial natriuretic peptide Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which will NOT occur if blood pressure drops below homeostatic levels? A) Baroreceptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated. B) The cardioacceleratory center of the medulla will be activated. C) Cardiac output will increase. D) Vasomotor center of the medulla will trigger vasoconstriction. Answer: A Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which statement best describes arteries? A) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart. B) All carry blood away from the heart. C) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood. D) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium. Answer: B Section: 18.2 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) capillaries Answer: D Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is FALSE? A) It carries nutrients, toxins, and microorganisms to the liver for processing. B) Its major vessels are the superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric, and splenic veins. C) It consists of a vein connecting two capillary beds together. D) It branches off of the inferior vena cava. Answer: D Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following contain oxygenated blood? A) pulmonary trunk B) lobar arteries C) pulmonary veins D) pulmonary arteries Answer: C Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Each of the following describes the action of aldosterone EXCEPT one. Which of the following does NOT describe the activity of aldosterone hormone? A) It promotes an increase in blood pressure. B) It promotes an increase in sodium reabsorption from the kidney to the blood. C) It will reduce urine output. D) It will result in higher sodium levels in the urine. Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) The pulse pressure is ________. A) systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure B) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure C) systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure D) diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure) Answer: B Section: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign? A) cold, clammy skin B) increased heart rate C) rapid, thready pulse D) rapidly falling blood pressure Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise? A) Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs. B) The skin will be cold and clammy. C) Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood. D) Blood flow to the kidneys increases. Answer: C Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels? A) Their prime function is the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells. B) The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter. C) They distribute blood to various parts of the body. D) They contain a large quantity of elastic tissue. Answer: B Section: 18.2 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure? A) neural controls B) baroreceptor-initiated reflexes C) chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes D) renal regulation Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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31) Peripheral resistance ________. A) decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel B) increases as blood vessel diameter increases C) increases as blood viscosity increases D) is not a major factor in blood pressure in healthy individuals Answer: C Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Brain blood flow autoregulation ________. A) is less sensitive to pH than to a decreased oxygen level B) causes constriction of cerebral blood vessels in response to a drop in systemic blood pressure C) is abolished when abnormally high CO2 levels persist D) is controlled by cardiac centers in the pons Answer: C Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Blood flow to the skin ________. A) is controlled mainly by decreasing pH B) increases when environmental temperature rises C) increases when body temperature drops so that the skin does not freeze D) is not an important source of nutrients and oxygen for skin cells Answer: B Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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34) Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls? A) hydrostatic and osmotic pressure B) hydrostatic pressure only C) blood volume and viscosity D) plasma and formed element concentration Answer: A Section: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock? A) hypovolemic, caused by increased blood volume B) cardiogenic, which results from any defect in blood vessels C) vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone D) circulatory, where blood volume is normal and constant Answer: C Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) The abdominal aorta splits into which vessels? A) right and left common iliac arteries B) right and left subclavian arteries C) right and left common carotid arteries D) right and left femoral arteries Answer: A Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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37) The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is ________. A) the only factor that influences resistance B) significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius C) significant because resistance is directly proportional to the blood vessel diameter D) insignificant because vessel diameter does not vary Answer: B Section: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is ________. A) the form of shock caused by anaphylaxis B) any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally C) shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea D) always fatal Answer: C Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance? A) blood viscosity B) total blood vessel length C) blood vessel diameter D) blood vessels type Answer: C Section: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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40) The beginning of a true capillary is surrounded by a precapillary sphincter. The opening and closing of precapillary sphincters is controlled by ________. A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) local chemical conditions D) blood pressure in the metarteriole Answer: C Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) The pulse rate depends on all of the following EXCEPT one. Select the one answer the does NOT affect a pulse rate reading. A) activity B) postural changes C) emotions D) the vessel selected to palpate Answer: D Section: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 42) Which of the following is least involved in pulmonary circulation? A) right ventricle B) pulmonary arteries and veins C) left atrium D) superior vena cava Answer: D Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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43) Histologically, the ________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer. A) tunica intima B) tunica media C) tunica externa D) tunica adventitia Answer: A Section: 18.1 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Due to the branching of arteries the type of arteries that would be most numerous would be ________. A) muscular arteries B) elastic arteries C) arterioles D) pulmonary arteries Answer: C Section: 18.2 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 45) Which of the following is NOT true regarding fenestrated capillaries? A) Fenestrated capillaries in the small intestine receive nutrients from digested food. B) Fenestrated capillaries in endocrine organs allow hormones rapid entry into the blood. C) Fenestrated capillaries are essential for filtration of blood plasma in the kidney. D) Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier. Answer: D Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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46) These capillaries may be lined with phagocytes that can extend their process into the plasma to catch "prey." A) fenestrations B) sinusoids C) thoroughfare channels D) anastomoses Answer: B Section: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT ________. A) activity of skeletal muscles B) pressure changes in the thorax C) venous valves D) urinary output Answer: D Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 48) Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension? A) 120/80 B) 140/90 C) 170/96 D) 110/60 Answer: C Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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49) Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure. A) An increase in cardiac output corresponds to a decrease in blood pressure, due to the increased delivery. B) Systemic vasodilation would increase blood pressure, due to diversion of blood to essential areas. C) Excess albumen transport protein production would decrease blood pressure. D) Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase. Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 50) Mechanisms that do NOT help regulate blood pressure include ________. A) nervous control that operates via reflex arcs involving baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and higher brain centers B) the dural sinus reflex C) renal regulation via the renin-angiotensin system of vasoconstriction D) chemical controls such as atrial natriuretic peptide Answer: B Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 51) The velocity of blood flow is ________. A) in direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels B) slower in the arteries than in capillaries because arteries possess a relatively large diameter C) slower in the veins than in the capillaries because veins have a large diameter D) slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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52) Select the correct statement about blood flow. A) It is relatively constant through all body organs. B) It is measured in mm Hg. C) It is greatest where resistance is highest. D) Blood flow through the entire vascular system is proportional to cardiac output. Answer: D Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 53) A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the ________. A) left side of the head and neck B) myocardium of the heart C) left upper arm D) right side of the head and neck and right upper arm Answer: D Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 54) Cerebral blood flow is regulated by ________. A) skin temperature B) ADH C) intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms D) the hypothalamic "thermostat" Answer: C Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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55) A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes EXCEPT ________. A) increased work of the left ventricle B) increased incidence of coronary artery disease C) increased damage to blood vessel endothelium D) decreased size of the heart muscle Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 56) The short-term controls of blood pressure, mediated by the nervous system and bloodborne chemicals, primarily operate via all but which of the following? A) reflex arcs involving baroreceptors B) altering blood volume C) reflex arcs associated with vasomotor fibers D) chemoreceptors Answer: B Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 57) Secondary hypertension can be caused by ________. A) obesity B) stress C) kidney disease D) smoking Answer: C Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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58) Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation? A) kidney B) lungs C) liver D) heart Answer: B Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 59) If a person has lost a significant amount of blood but still maintains a normal blood pressure it does not necessarily mean that the person is maintaining adequate perfusion. Which of the following best explains why this is so? A) Blood vessels are constricting causing greater peripheral resistance. B) The heart has increased its rate to increase cardiac output. C) The heart has increased its contractile force increasing cardiac output. D) The sympathetic nervous system has increased its nervous impulses. Answer: A Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 60) Which of the following would NOT result in the dilation of the feeder arterioles and opening of the precapillary sphincters in systemic capillary beds? A) a decrease in local tissue oxygen content B) an increase in local tissue carbon dioxide C) a local increase in histamine D) a local increase in pH Answer: D Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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61) Arteriolar blood pressure increases in response to all but which of the following? A) increasing stroke volume B) increasing heart rate C) rising blood volume D) falling blood volume E) all of these Answer: D Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 62) The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following? A) a decrease in carbon dioxide B) changes in arterial pressure C) a decrease in oxygen levels D) an increase in oxygen levels Answer: B Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18.4 Short Answer Questions 1) A family of peptides called ________ are released by the endothelium and are among the most potent vasoconstrictors known. Answer: endothelins Section: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Arterial ________ provide alternate pathways for blood to get to an organ. Answer: anastomoses Section: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) The ________ in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch detect increases in blood pressure. Answer: baroreceptors Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The internal carotid arteries supply the ________ with blood. Answer: brain Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) List the major factors that are linked to essential hypertension and note which ones are controllable by the patient. Answer: The factors are heredity, diet, obesity, age, diabetes mellitus, stress, and smoking. All of these factors are controllable by the patient except for heredity and age. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) What are the sounds of Korotkoff? Answer: They are thumping sounds heard as an inflated blood pressure cuff is deflated on the arm. They represent blood spurting through the constricted artery and continue until the vessel is no longer constricted. Section: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Which type of blood vessels contain valves and what is their function? Answer: Veins contain valves to prevent blood from flowing backward. This is necessary because the venous vessels are a low-pressure system and the blood must sometimes flow against gravity, particularly in the limbs. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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8) Describe the forces that determine fluid movements across capillary walls. Answer: (1) Capillary hydrostatic pressure (equal to capillary blood pressure) tends to force fluid out of capillaries into the interstitial spaces. (2) Osmotic pressure, created by large nondiffusible particles in the blood, tends to draw water into the capillaries. At the arterial end of the capillary bed, hydrostatic forces dominate and fluid moves out, while at the venous end, osmotic forces dominate and the net fluid movement is into the capillaries. The net filtration pressure is positive resulting in an overall loss of plasma fluid into the interstitial space. Hence, the function of the lymphatics to eventually return the lost fluid. Section: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) Define vasoconstriction and vasodilation. What is the mechanism of regulation? Answer: Vasoconstriction is a reduction in the lumen diameter of a blood vessel due to smooth muscle contraction. Vasodilation is a widening of the lumen due to smooth muscle relaxation. Both are regulated by vasomotor nerve fibers of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system and by local metabolic substances. Section: 18.1 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Consider the diameter of one 4-mm blood vessel and two 2-mm blood vessels. Would the two 2-mm vessels carry more, less, or the same amount of fluid, given that pressure is a constant? Why? Answer: The two 2-mm vessels would deliver considerably less (8 times less) fluid for two reasons: (1) the resistance in the smaller vessels is much greater and (2) the volume of the 4-mm vessel is greater than that of two 2-mm vessels. Draw a 4-inch circle; then put two 2-inch circles in it and notice the volume difference. Alternatively, consider the effect of the fourth power of the radius, if the radius halves, the flow decreases 16 times, and even 2 smaller vessels would only reduce the difference to an 8-fold decrease. Section: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) The abdominal aorta divides into three arteries at its terminus; what are they? Answer: Left and right common iliac arteries and the median sacral artery. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 38 .


12) The mesenteric arteries branch off the abdominal aorta, but the mesenteric veins do not connect directly to the vena cava. Why? Answer: The mesenteric veins merge into the hepatic portal vein before entering the liver. The liver dumps into the vena cava. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18.5 Clinical Questions 1) Describe the effect of hypovolemic shock on the blood vessels and the heart. Answer: Hypovolemic shock causes blood vessels to constrict to increase venous return and maintain pressure. Heart rate increases to compensate for loss of blood pressure and to maintain cardiac output. If volume loss continues, pressure eventually drops sharply and the shock becomes irreversible, leading to death. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A patient comes in for his annual physical, and his blood pressure is 164/95. Upon reviewing his charts, you notice that this is the third blood pressure reading he has had with a systolic value over 140 mmHg and a diastolic over 90 mm Hg. What would be your diagnosis? Why is this a concern for the patient overall? Answer: The diagnosis would be hypertension based on the chronically elevated blood pressure with systolic values over 140 mm Hg and diastolic values over 90 mm Hg. This is a concern for the patient because it strains the heart and damages arteries. Prolonged hypertension is the major cause of heart failure, vascular disease, renal failure, and stroke. Hypertension can also accelerate the progress of atherosclerosis and cause complications in the brain, heart, kidneys, and retinas of the eyes. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.10 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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3) For each of the following situations, describe the anticipated effect on blood pressure and the physiological basis of the response: (1) a high-salt diet, (2) a blow on the head that damages (disables) the vasomotor center, (3) an attack by a mugger, and (4) a hypothalamic tumor resulting in excess ADH production. Answer: (1) A high-salt diet causes increased sodium in the blood, which increases total extracellular fluid volume. This leads to increased blood volume and blood pressure. (2) Damage to the vasomotor center will cause a loss of vasomotor tone and a drop in blood pressure because the vasomotor center is the integrating center for blood pressure control. (3) During the mugger attack, blood pressure would increase due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation (the fightor-flight response) triggered by the hypothalamus. (4) Excess ADH production would cause an increase in blood pressure through increased water retention and therefore increased blood volume. ADH also stimulates vasoconstriction. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Mrs. Gray, a 50-year-old mother of seven children, is complaining of dull, aching pains in her legs. She reports that they have been getting progressively worse since the birth of her last child. During her physical examination, numerous varicosities are seen in both legs. How are varicosities recognized? What veins are most likely involved? What pathologic changes have occurred in these veins, and what is the most likely cause in this patient's case? Answer: Varicosities are recognized by the enlargement of the veins. Superficial veins are most likely involved because they have little support from surrounding tissues. The veins have become tortuous and dilated because of incompetent valves that allow the blood to pool, stretching the vein walls. The likely cause in this patient's case is her pregnancies, because the enlarged uterus exerts downward pressure on groin vessels, restricting return blood flow to the heart. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) Mr. Wilson is a 45-year-old stockbroker with essential hypertension. He is African American, obese, and he smokes 2-3 packs of cigarettes daily. What risk factors for hypertension are typified by Mr. Wilson? What steps should be taken to treat Mr. Wilson, and what lifestyle changes should he make? What complications are likely if corrective steps are not taken? Answer: The risk factors are obesity, race, a high-stress job, and smoking. Mr. Wilson should lose weight, reduce salt intake, quit smoking, and try to reduce his stress level, perhaps by relaxation training. Medical intervention could include treatment with diuretics, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, and angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. Complications could include atherosclerosis, heart failure, renal failure, and stroke. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.10 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A pregnant patient comes into a clinic and asks about a small painless dark compressible bulge that is becoming more apparent on her leg. What is it and what caused it? Answer: The patient is getting a varicose vein. Due to the growing fetus putting downward pressure on the vessels of the groin and restricting the return of blood to the heart, the valves in the peripheral veins begin to fail. This causes blood pooling, which enlarges these veins and puts additional strain on other peripheral vein valves down the line. Section: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) At the battle of Shiloh in the American Civil War, Confederate General A. S. Johnston was killed when he was shot in the thigh. Witnesses reported that he bled to death almost before he realized that he was wounded. Which blood vessel was most likely to have been injured? Why is a tourniquet usually ineffective in stopping the bleeding from this wound? Answer: The wound severed his femoral artery, the largest artery serving the lower limb. A tourniquet may be ineffective because it is a high-pressure, deep artery with a large diameter. It is therefore difficult to exert enough pressure through the thigh muscles to stop the bleeding. Section: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.16 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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8) A patient lost a lot of blood during surgery and his blood pressure dropped from 120/80 to 90/50. Describe how the kidneys respond to this change in blood pressure. Answer: When arterial blood pressure declines, special cells in the kidneys release the enzyme renin into the blood. Renin triggers a series of enzymatic reactions that produce angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin causes an increase in systemic blood pressure, and increases the rate of blood delivery to the kidneys and renal perfusion. It also stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone, a hormone that enhances renal reabsorption of sodium with water following causing water retention and stimulates the posterior pituitary to release ADH, which promotes more water reabsorption. As sodium moves into the bloodstream, water follows; thus, both blood volume and blood pressure rise. Stimulates the thirst center to consume more fluids. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) A patient has an 80% blockage of his left anterior descending coronary artery. Describe what occurs in terms of myocardial oxygen supply and demand if his sympathetic nervous system is stimulated. Answer: When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated there is increased myocardial contractility, which increases cardiac output and blood flow to active muscles. This increases the demand for oxygen to the cells. The coronary artery is a major blood vessel of the heart. When the demand for myocardial oxygen exceeds the ability of the coronary arteries to supply it, death of myocardial tissue can occur. Section: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 19 The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues 19.1 Matching Questions

Figure 19.1 Using Figure 19.1, match the following: 1) Axillary node(s). Answer: B Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .


2) Cisterna chyli. Answer: D Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Entrance of thoracic duct into subclavian vein. Answer: A Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Thoracic duct. Answer: C Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Collecting lymphatic vessels. Answer: E Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 19.2 Using Figure 19.2, match the following: 6) Efferent vessels. Answer: E Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Cortex. Answer: C Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Medullary cord. Answer: D Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .


9) Trabecula. Answer: A Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Medulla. Answer: D Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Lymph nodes B) Thoracic duct C) Peyer's patches D) Spleen E) Lymph 11) Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels. Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Stores blood platelets. Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Receives lymph from most of the body. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels. Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Largest lymphatic organ. Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine. Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) E 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) C 19.2 True/False Questions 1) Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Digested fats are absorbed from the intestine by the lymph capillaries called lacteals. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) Lymphoid tissue is mainly reticular connective tissue. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not DIRECTLY fight antigens. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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15) The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lumbar trunks draining the upper limbs and from the intestinal trunk draining the digestive organs. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child, it will most likely regenerate itself. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) In the spleen, red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response. Answer: FALSE Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The most important of the secondary lymphoid organs in the body are the lymph nodes. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20) The thymus is prominent in newborns, is highly active in the first year, and then atrophies after puberty. Answer: TRUE Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Small secondary lymphoid organs, which cluster along lymphatic vessels, are termed ________. A) lymph follicles B) lymph nodes C) lacteals D) lymphatics Answer: B Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following would NOT be classified as a lymphoid organ? A) pancreas B) spleen C) tonsils D) Peyer's patches of the intestine Answer: A Section: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is FALSE? A) It functions strictly in T lymphocyte maturation. B) It does not directly fight antigens. C) Its stroma consists of epithelial tissue. D) It has follicles similar to those in the spleen. Answer: D Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10 .


4) Which of the following correctly describes the pathway of lymph? A) lymphatic ducts to lymphatic trunks to lymphatic vessels to lymphatic capillaries B) lymphatic ducts to lymphatic capillaries to lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks C) lymphatic capillaries to lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts D) lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts to lymphatic capillaries Answer: C Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The thymus is most active during ________. A) fetal development B) childhood C) middle age D) old age Answer: B Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Lymph traveling from the left arm would enter the venous circulation via the ________. A) thoracic duct B) right lymphatic duct C) cisterna chili D) axillary nodes Answer: A Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system? A) lymphatic vessels B) lymph nodes C) lymph D) erythrocytes Answer: D Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The lymphatic capillaries are ________. A) more permeable than blood capillaries B) less permeable than blood capillaries C) as permeable as blood capillaries D) completely impermeable Answer: A Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________. A) T lymphocytes B) plasma cells C) lymph nodes D) medullary cords Answer: B Section: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________. A) efferent lymphatic vessels B) afferent lymphatic vessels C) the cortical sinus D) the subcapsular sinus Answer: A Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12 .


11) Lymph vessels do NOT transport ________. A) erythrocytes B) lymphocytes C) excess tissue fluid D) leaked plasma proteins E) dietary fats Answer: A Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Functions of the spleen include all of those below EXCEPT ________. A) removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood B) forming crypts that trap bacteria C) storage of blood platelets D) storage of iron Answer: B Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________. A) shrinkage of tissues distal in the limb to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph B) severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb C) increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal in the limb to the blockage D) abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region Answer: B Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) Select the correct statement about lymph transport. A) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits. B) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins. C) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling. D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles. Answer: D Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Select the correct statement about lymphocytes. A) The two main types are T cells and macrophages. B) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood. C) T cells are the precursors of B cells. D) T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue. Answer: B Section: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue. A) Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently. B) Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood. C) Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue. D) T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances. Answer: C Section: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________. A) tonsil B) thymus C) Peyer's patch D) appendix Answer: A Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following structures is NOT considered mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)? A) tonsils B) Peyer's patches C) thymus D) appendix Answer: C Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the ________. A) esophagus B) small intestine C) large intestine D) stomach Answer: B Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20) Lymphatic capillaries are present in ________. A) bones and teeth B) bone marrow C) CNS D) digestive organs Answer: D Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) What is a bubo? A) a wall in a lymph node B) a lobe of the spleen C) an infected Peyer's patch D) an infected lymph node Answer: D Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does NOT ________. A) have lymphocytes B) produce hormones C) have a cortex and medulla D) directly fight antigens Answer: D Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Large clusters of lymph nodes are NOT found in the ________ region. A) axillary B) cervical C) inguinal D) popliteal Answer: D Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16 .


24) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) Peyer's patches B) palatine tonsils C) lingual tonsils D) pancreatic islets of Langerhans Answer: D Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of the following is NOT a method that maintains lymph flow? A) skeletal muscle contraction B) breathing C) valves in lymph vessel walls D) capillary smooth muscle contraction Answer: D Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________. A) lingual tonsils B) palatine tonsils C) pharyngeal tonsils D) Peyer's tonsils Answer: A Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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27) Which lymphoid organs and tissues are characterized by a cortex and medulla? A) lymph nodes and thymus only B) lymph nodes, thymus and spleen only C) lymph nodes, spleen, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) only D) spleen and thymus only Answer: A Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age? A) tonsils B) appendix C) spleen D) thymus Answer: D Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ? A) appendix B) tonsils C) spleen D) thymus Answer: D Section: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? A) draining excess interstitial fluid B) carrying out immune responses C) transporting dietary fats D) transporting respiratory gases Answer: D Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18 .


31) Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen? A) house B and T lymphocytes B) remove and recycle old erythrocytes and platelets C) store iron from hemoglobin D) produce new erythrocytes in adults Answer: D Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) The blood testis barrier is to newly formed sperm cells as the blood thymus barrier is to ________. A) T lymphocyte precursors B) mast cells C) plasma cells D) white pulp Answer: A Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 33) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Only lymph nodes filter lymph. B) T lymphocytes originate from the red bone marrow. C) Antibodies mark antigens for destruction. D) The thymus consists mainly of lymphoid tissue. Answer: D Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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34) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the spleen? A) The splenic artery and vein enter and exit the spleen at the hilum. B) Clusters of white pulp look like islands in a sea of red pulp. C) Red pulp is where immune functions take place. D) The spleen is the largest lymphoid organ. Answer: C Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 35) Flow of lymph through a lymph node is slowed due to ________. A) the viscous nature of lymph B) fewer efferent vessels draining it compared to many afferent vessels feeding it C) the presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) mini-valves Answer: B Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Tonsils have blind-ended structures called ________ that trap bacteria and particulate matter. A) tonsillar crypts B) germinal centers C) lymphoid follicles D) tonsillar corpuscles Answer: A Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) From the right leg, lymph moves in which order? A) right lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, right subclavian vein B) right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, left subclavian vein C) right lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, left subclavian vein D) right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, right subclavian vein Answer: B Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20 .


38) Although B and T lymphocytes originate in the bone marrow, T cells mature in the ________. A) spleen B) thymus C) tonsils D) appendix Answer: B Section: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Lymphatic ________ are formed from the union of the largest collecting lymphatic vessels. A) capillaries B) nodes C) trunks D) ducts Answer: C Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Fats absorbed from the small intestine are transported to the bloodstream via ________. A) Peyer's patches B) lacteals C) lymph nodes D) tonsils Answer: B Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) Which lymphoid organ or tissue lacks a reticular fiber stroma? A) lymph nodes B) spleen C) mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) D) thymus Answer: D Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the structural and functional relationship between a capillary bed of the blood vascular system and lymphatic capillaries. Answer: Blind-ended lymphatic capillaries weave between the tissue cells and blood capillaries in the loose connective tissues of the body. Although similar to blood capillaries, lymphatic capillaries are even more permeable due to minivalves that act as one-way swinging doors. Leaked fluid from blood capillaries is taken up by the lymphatic capillaries as well as proteins in the interstitial space that are unable to enter blood capillaries. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Describe the mechanisms by which lymphatic fluid is moved through the lymphatics. Answer: Lymphatic fluid is moved through the lymphatics by the milking action of active skeletal muscles, pressure changes within the thorax during breathing, valves to prevent backflow, and pulsation of adjacent arteries. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) What is the consequence of obstruction of the lymphatics? Answer: Obstruction of the lymphatics results in edema distal in the body to the obstruction. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) Where are the lymph node aggregations most dense? Answer: Lymph node aggregations are most dense near the body surface in the inguinal, axillary, and cervical regions of the body. Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) What is the special role of the thymus gland? Answer: By secreting hormones, the thymus gland causes T lymphocytes to become immunocompetent (able to defend against specific pathogens in the immune response). Section: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Name the tonsils and state their body locations. Answer: Palatine tonsils are located on either side at the posterior end of the oral cavity. The lingual tonsil lies at the base of the tongue. The pharyngeal tonsil is in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx. The tiny tubal tonsils surround the openings of the auditory tubes into the pharynx. Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) List the functions of the spleen. Answer: The spleen's main functions are to remove aged or defective blood cells and platelets from the blood and to store or release some of the breakdown products of RBCs to the blood for processing by the liver. Other functions include acting as a blood filter and reservoir, serving as a site for erythrocyte production in developing embryos, storing blood platelets, and providing a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response. Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Characterize lymph transport in terms of rate, volume, and ability to change. Answer: Lymph transport is sporadic and much slower than that occurring in veins. About 3 liters of lymph enters the bloodstream in a 24-hour period. An increase in physical activity will cause lymph flow to increase, balancing the greater rate of fluid outflow from the vascular system. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) How do the lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries? Answer: Although similar to blood capillaries, lymphatic capillaries differ structurally in the following ways: (1) The endothelial cells forming the walls of lymphatic capillaries are not tightly joined. Their edges loosely overlap one another, forming flaplike minivalves. (2) Bundles of fine filaments anchor the endothelial cells to surrounding structures so that any increase in interstitial fluid volume separates the cell flaps, exposing gaps in the wall rather than causing the lymphatic capillary to collapse. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) How does the lymphatic system both help and hinder the spread of cancer through the body? Answer: Lymph nodes help rid the body of cancer cells by immune mechanisms. Lymph vessels may also be used to spread cancer cells throughout the body if immunity is not effective against the cancer cells because a cancer cell that escapes lymphatic filtration will reach the bloodstream and be carried anywhere in the body. Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) How does the structure of a lymph node allow lymphocytes and macrophages to perform their protective function? Answer: Macrophages and lymphocytes are located in lymph nodes. Macrophages ingest microorganisms and cellular debris. Lymphocytes monitor the lymphatic stream for the presence of antigens and mount an immune response. Because there are fewer efferent vessels draining the node than afferent vessels that feed it, the flow of lymph through the node stagnates somewhat, allowing time for the lymphocytes and macrophages to work. Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24 .


12) Define the term MALT. What is its function? Answer: MALT is an acronym for mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues. It includes Peyer's patches, the appendix, and the tonsils in the digestive tract, lymphoid follicles in the walls of the bronchi, and genitourinary tract. Collectively, MALT protects passages open to the exterior from foreign matter invading the walls. Section: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) How are lymphatic capillaries affected by tissue inflammation? Answer: When tissues become inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of larger particles such as cell debris, pathogens (disease-causing microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses), and cancer cells. In the lymph nodes, cells of the immune system "examine" the lymph and cleanse it of debris. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19.5 Clinical Questions 1) A mother takes her son to the doctor and describes the following symptoms that she has observed. The child is running a fever, has flu-like symptoms, and his lymph glands are very swollen and sore to the touch. Of what significance are the swollen and sore lymph glands? Answer: When tissues are inflamed, such as due to a bacterial infection, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit the uptake of the pathogens. The inflammation and pain indicate lymph nodes infected by microorganisms. Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A woman had a mastectomy that included the removal of axillary lymph nodes on her left side. What does she risk regarding her left arm and why? Answer: Total removal of the axillary lymph nodes results in severe localized edema because the lymphatic vessels are also lost. This results in chronic edema along the arm, although some lymphatic drainage is eventually reestablished by regrowth of the vessels. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 25 .


3) A man involved in a traffic accident is rushed to the emergency room of a hospital with severe internal bleeding. Examination reveals a ruptured spleen. What is the treatment of choice and what is the likely long-term outcome (prognosis)? Answer: Supportive care or splenic repair is the treatment of choice, depending on severity. Splenectomy is not as necessary as once believed, and is now performed less frequently. If the spleen does need to be removed, the prognosis is very good, as the functions of the spleen are largely taken over by the liver and bone marrow. Section: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) While passing through a village on safari you notice a man with one enormous leg and one normal-sized leg. You find out he has Filariasis commonly known as elephantiasis, which is caused by parasitic worms that get in the lymph system and reproduce to proportions that block the vessels. Why would this infection cause the increased size of the swollen leg? Answer: The swelling is due to edema as a result of the organism causing blockage. Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) Lymphedema may occur as a complication after a radical mastectomy, in which lymph nodes have been removed. Explain why it might occur. Answer: Anything that prevents the normal return of lymph to the blood, such as blockage of the lymphatics by tumors or removal of lymphatics during surgery, results in severe localized edema (lymphedema). Section: 19.1 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A nurse palpated enlarged lymph nodes. Describe signs and symptoms that help to distinguish cancerous lymph nodes from infected lymph nodes. Answer: Tender nodes are usually due to inflammation, whereas hard, fixed, nontender nodes are suggestive of malignancy. Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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7) Describe why the prognosis of cancer is best when there is no detectable spread from the region of the primary tumor to the lymph nodes. Answer: Cancer cells that break free from the primary tumor can metastasize via the lymph system. Even if a lymph node is 99% effective in trapping malignant cells, given the ability of a tumor to continuously shed cells into lymphatic capillaries, that still means that 100 out of every 10,000 cells get through. So the presence of any trapped cells in a lymph node is a warning that a few others may have escaped entrapment. Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) As the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) progresses, some individuals develop persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (any disease of the lymph nodes). Explain why this may occur. Answer: This may occur because lymph nodes are overwhelmed by a large number of virus particles trapped in the nodes, which stimulate an ineffective immune reaction but cannot be quickly eliminated due to the weakened immune state. The weak immune reaction persists, causing swelling of the nodes. Section: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 20 The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body Defenses 20.1 Matching Questions

Figure 20.1 Using Figure 20.1, match the following: 1) Heavy chain. Answer: B Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Light chain. Answer: D Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .


3) Variable region. Answer: C Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Constant region. Answer: E Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Antigen-binding site. Answer: A Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 20.2 Using Figure 20.2, match the following: 6) Area where B cells become immunocompetent. Answer: C Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .


7) Area where T cells become immunocompetent. Answer: B Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Area where activated immunocompetent B and T cells recirculate. Answer: E Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Area seeded by immunocompetent B and T cells. Answer: D Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Area where antigen challenge and clonal selection are most likely to occur. Answer: D Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Second Line of Defense B) First Line of Defense C) Third Line of Defense 11) Adaptive immune responses Section: 20.1 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Intact skin and mucous membranes Section: 20.1 Learning Outcome: 20.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) B and T lymphocytes Section: 20.1 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Inflammation Section: 20.1 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Fever Section: 20.1 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) A

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Match the following: A) Regulatory T cell B) Memory cell C) B cell D) T helper cell E) Cytotoxic T cell 16) Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen. Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Absence results in no immune response. Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Forms antibody-producing cells. Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells. Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Slows or stops the immune response. Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) E 20) A

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Match the following: A) IgD B) IgM C) IgE D) IgA E) IgG 21) Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Protects mucosal barriers. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Involved in allergies. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Along with IgM, this is a B cell receptor. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) First to peak during a primary immune response. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 21) E 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) B

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Match the following: A) Natural active humoral immunity B) Artificial passive humoral immunity C) Natural passive humoral immunity D) Artificial active humoral immunity 26) Mom passes IgA antibodies to her newborn via breastmilk Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) A patient is given immunoglobulin directly to help prevent rabies Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) A child is vaccinated before starting school Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) A teacher gets a cold from interacting with a sick student Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) A patient is given anti-venom for a snake bite Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 26) C 27) B 28) D 29) A 30) B

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20.2 True/False Questions 1) Virus infected cells secrete interferons to "warn" other cells of the presence of virus and deny entry to them. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Perforins form complexes that penetrate the cell membrane and allow the passage of the apoptosis inducing protein granzyme to enter the targeted cell. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Natural killer cells destroy target cells or pathogens by ingestion and destruction of particulate matter in a process called phagocytosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The respiratory burst produced by activated macrophages releases free radicals which are effective at killing pathogens. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Viral infection will provoke cell mediated immunity but will not activate a humoral response. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.5, 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Fever is often a beneficial immune response because it can speed the activities of leucocytes. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Monoclonal antibodies are used in clinical laboratory diagnosis because they bind to many antigenic determinates. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) B cells must accomplish double recognition: they must simultaneously recognize self and nonself to be activated. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Some immunocompetent cells will never encounter an antigen to which they can bind and therefore will never be called to service in our lifetime. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Anaphylactic shock is a rare but severe allergic response that may occur if the allergen enters the blood stream. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) In a case of immediate hypersensitivity, the immune system responds with an allergic response on the first exposure to the allergen. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Subacute hypersensitivities are categorically less harmful than acute (immediate) hypersensitivities. Answer: FALSE Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The nucleotide sequence within the genes that produce B cell receptor and antibodies are reshuffled by a process called somatic recombination. This produces the huge variability in antibody types. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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16) Antibodies typically act extracellularly in body fluids and are therefore considered part of the humoral branch of adaptive immunity. Answer: TRUE Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________. A) its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second and subsequent exposure to an antigen B) its need for several cells to be activated over several days on first exposure C) the ability of its individual cells to respond to many different pathogens D) the use of antibodies that cause cell lysis and kill invading cells Answer: A Section: 20.3-20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A cellular component of the innate defenses includes ________. A) natural killer cells B) T cells C) B cells D) plasma cells Answer: A Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) B lymphocytes are categorized as part of the adaptive branch of the immune system for all of the following reasons but one. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons B lymphocytes are considered part of the adaptive immunity? A) They produce memory cells when activated. B) Their receptors will bind to only one antigen. C) They require costimulation from an activated T helper cell. D) They are a first line of defense that can begin killing pathogens immediately. Answer: D Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) T cells are differentiated into two groups based on their glycoproteins: CD4 or CD8. Which of the following is TRUE of CD4 T cells? A) They become cytotoxic T cells. B) They become antigen presenting cells (APC) cells. C) They become T helper cells. D) They become plasma cells. Answer: C Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following examples below describes an autoimmune disease? A) Infection and death of T helper cells by a virus, resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity. B) Release of bacterial endotoxins that block acetylcholine release result in muscle paralysis. C) Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness. D) Uncontrolled cell division resulting in cell surface abnormalities recognized by NK cells. Answer: C Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) Which of the following does NOT describe actions of interferon (IFN)? A) Virally infected cells can release interferon which attracts NK cells to attack and kill the IFN secreting cell. B) IFN binds to normal, uninfected cells stimulating the activation of genes that produce antiviral proteins. C) IFN will attract macrophages to the secreting cell to be removed by phagocytosis. D) IFN can penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus. Answer: D Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) A vaccine is effective because ________. A) the vaccine contains the antibodies necessary to fight infection B) the vaccine contains the lymphocytes necessary to fight infection C) the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient than the primary response D) B-lymphocytes are unable to mount an immune response the first time they are exposed to a new pathogen Answer: C Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ________. A) the flu vaccine is substantially weaker than the polio vaccine B) the polio virus is substantially weaker than the flu virus C) exposure to flu vaccine produces no memory cells from proliferating B-lymphocytes D) the flu has several strains that change seasonally Answer: D Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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9) All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation EXCEPT one. Select the one answer that does NOT describe the classical pathway of complement activation. A) It is an example of overlap between innate and adaptive immune function. B) It requires that circulating antibodies are bound to antigens. C) Classical activation will result in enhanced inflammation, opsonization as well as formation of MAC proteins. D) It activates T helper cells by presenting antigen to them. Answer: D Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Vaccines work by ________. A) boosting innate immunity with cytokines B) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure C) providing the necessary antibodies to fight infections D) suppressing inflation to help speed healing Answer: B Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Inflammation ________. A) is caused by bacterial activity to enhance the spread of disease B) is caused by viral activity to enhance the spread of the disease C) slows the healing process with swelling that can impair bodily function D) brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection Answer: D Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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12) Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by ________. A) disrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria's plasma membrane B) providing a passage for antibodies to enter into the bacterial cytosol C) allowing the organelles to spill free from the bacteria D) penetrating the capsule of the bacteria giving antibiotic drugs access to bacterial cells Answer: A Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.4 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) All but one of the following occurs during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does NOT describe the process of inflammation. A) Inflammation increases capillary permeability. B) Chemotaxis draws leucocytes to the site of injury. C) Vasoconstriction prevents excessive blood loss due to injury. D) Release of prostaglandins results in pain. Answer: C Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) During inflammation, fluids will passively diffuse out of blood vessels into the nearby infected tissues. This implies all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) the osmolarity of the fluids surrounding infected tissue is higher than the plasma B) the surrounding tissue will swell with excessive fluids C) nearby capillaries have become more permeable D) B-lymphocytes will differentiate to become plasma cells Answer: D Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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15) Which of the following is TRUE of antigens? A) Antigens are substances that activate the adaptive immune response. B) Antigens are typically composed of nucleotides. C) Antigens are produced by the body in response to a foreign invader. D) Antigens are limited to one antigenic determinant per antigen molecule. Answer: A Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which of the following is TRUE of incomplete antigens (haptens)? A) Incomplete antigens are nonreactive. B) Incomplete antigens include pollen grains, microorganisms, and viruses. C) Incomplete antigens are only immunogenic when attached to protein carriers. D) Incomplete antigens are typically large macromolecules such as proteins. Answer: C Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Allergens differ from antigens because ________. A) allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle B) allergens do not involve the leucocytes, they simply stimulate the inflammatory response C) allergens are only active seasonally and are generally harmless to the body D) allergens are primarily plant derived while antigens are bacterial or viral in nature Answer: A Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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18) Without the positive selection process in lymphocyte maturation ________. A) T cells would not be able to properly bind to APC's and therefore not be activated by them B) monocytes would not be able to migrate into infected tissue and differentiate into macrophages C) NK cells would be non-functional D) autoimmune diseases would be likely to result Answer: A Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) Lymphocyte "education" refers to ensuring that T cells ________. A) that do not recognize self-antigens displayed on self-MHC proteins undergo apoptosis B) that do not recognize self-MHC proteins undergo apoptosis C) that contain MHC receptors undergo apoptosis D) that demonstrate immunological self-tolerance undergo apoptosis Answer: B Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) Plasma cells ________. A) have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody) B) are large so that they can envelope their prey by phagocytosis C) are small so that they slip between endothelial cells of capillaries to fight infection in the surrounding tissues D) have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum to dispose of ingested pathogens Answer: A Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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21) Which of the following is associated with passive immunity? A) exposure to an antigen B) infusion of weakened viruses C) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus D) booster shot of vaccine Answer: C Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell? A) cytotoxic B) antigenic C) helper D) regulatory Answer: B Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________. A) thymus B) spleen C) bone marrow D) lymph nodes Answer: C Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammatory response? A) prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue B) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue C) disposes of cellular debris and pathogens D) sets the stage for repair processes Answer: B Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19 .


25) The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________. A) vasodilation B) vasoconstriction C) phagocyte mobilization D) complement production Answer: A Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned? A) antigen B) interferon C) antibody D) complement Answer: A Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27) Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a FALSE or incorrect statement? A) NK cells are a type of neutrophil. B) NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow. C) NK cells attack cells that display abnormal or lack MHC antigens. D) NK cells attack cancer cells and virus-infected body cells. Answer: A Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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28) Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________. A) haptens B) antibodies C) ions D) reagins Answer: A Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of the following is NOT a role of activated complement? A) opsonization B) prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions C) enhancement of inflammation D) insertion of MAC and cell lysis Answer: B Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Interferons ________. A) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus B) act by increasing the rate of cell division C) interfere with viral replication within cells D) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold Answer: C Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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31) Regulatory T cells ________. A) release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells B) decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases C) may function in preventing autoimmune reactions D) aid B cells in antibody production Answer: C Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of the statements below does NOT describe antigens? A) Antigens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity. B) Antigens only come from microbes. C) The parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinants. D) Antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large polysaccharides. Answer: B Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Activated T cells and macrophages release ________ to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area. A) cytokines B) perforins C) interleukin 1 proteins D) interleukin 2 proteins Answer: A Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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34) Which of the following would be a component of the body's first line of defense? A) phagocytes B) inflammation C) mucous membranes D) natural killer cells Answer: C Section: 20.1 Learning Outcome: 20.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens? A) small molecules B) reactivity with an antibody C) contain many repeating chemical units D) inhibit production of antibodies Answer: B Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________. A) reducing its size B) immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies C) forming a large number of cytotoxic cells D) producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells Answer: D Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) T-cell activation requires ________. A) antigen binding and co-stimulation B) antigen binding and antibody production C) antibody production and co-stimulation D) antigen binding, antibody production, and co-stimulation Answer: A Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .


38) Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________. A) natural killer cells B) T-lymphocytes C) B-lymphocytes D) pinocytosis Answer: A Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________. A) diapedesis B) agglutination C) opsonization D) chemotaxis Answer: C Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Monoclonal antibodies are used for the diagnosis of all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) elevated blood glucose B) hepatitis C) rabies D) pregnancy Answer: A Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) Innate immune system defenses include ________. A) B cells B) T cells C) plasma cells D) phagocytosis Answer: D Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which of the following statements is incorrect or FALSE? A) Haptens lack immunogenicity unless attached to protein carriers. B) Class I MHC molecules are built into the plasma membranes of all body cells. C) Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens. D) MHC proteins are the cell's identity markers. Answer: C Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Phagocyte mobilization involves ________. A) diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall B) margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues C) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas D) monocytes as the most active phagocyte Answer: C Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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44) Fever ________. A) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous B) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting D) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication Answer: C Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Immunocompetence ________. A) occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system B) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it C) prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader D) requires exposure to an antigen Answer: B Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity. A) Immunological memory is established by passive immunization. B) A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body. C) The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism. D) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies. Answer: D Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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47) Cytotoxic T cells ________. A) can directly attack and kill other cells of the body B) require the double recognition signal of class I MHC plus class II MHC on the target cell in order to function C) function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations D) self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized Answer: A Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) T helper cells ________. A) bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin B) often function to decrease the immune response C) release B7 proteins D) function in the adaptive immune system activation Answer: D Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) Immediate and subacute hypersensitivities are caused by ________ that trigger the release of ________. A) antibodies; histamine B) memory T cells; perforins C) memory B cells; antibodies D) viruses; interferon Answer: A Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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50) Natural killer (NK) cells ________. A) are also called cytotoxic T cells B) are a type of phagocyte C) are cells of the adaptive immune system D) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated Answer: D Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) Select the correct statement about antigens. A) "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens. B) The largest type of antigen is called a hapten. C) Only small antigens exhibit reactivity. D) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody. Answer: D Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) Clonal selection of B cells ________. A) occurs during fetal development B) results in the formation of plasma cells C) cannot occur in the presence of antigens D) only occurs in the secondary immune response Answer: B Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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53) The primary immune response ________. A) occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response B) occurs when memory cells are stimulated C) is another name for immunological memory D) has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells Answer: D Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 54) Tissue rejection after an organ transplant is least likely due to the action of ________. A) natural killer cells B) cytotoxic T cells C) macrophages D) regulatory T cells Answer: D Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders? A) exposure of previously "hidden" self-antigens to the adaptive immune system during trauma B) a second exposure to an allergen C) mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present D) cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens (haptens) bound with self-antigens Answer: B Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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56) Which of the following is activated by the binding of proteins to sugars on the surface of microorganisms? A) classical pathway B) alternative pathway C) lectin pathway D) lactate pathway Answer: C Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 57) Antibody functions include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms B) cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched C) linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution D) targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis Answer: B Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) Which statement is TRUE about T cells? A) They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells. B) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2. C) Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines. D) They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins. Answer: B Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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59) What is the role of interferon in defense against disease? A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses B) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria C) activates the complement mechanism D) activates the inflammatory process Answer: A Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 60) Which of the following statements is a FALSE or incorrect statement? A) The lymphoid organs where lymphocytes become immunocompetent are called primary lymph organs. All other lymphoid organs are referred to as secondary lymphoid organs. B) It is our genes, not antigens, that determine what specific foreign substances our immune system will be able to recognize and resist. C) After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur. D) T cells and B cells become activated when they bind with recognized antigens. Answer: C Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 61) Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant antibody in plasma? A) IgM B) IgA C) IgD D) IgG E) IgE Answer: D Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Suppressor factors are ________ that suppress the immune system. Answer: cytokines Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Pure antibody preparations specific for a single antigenic determinant are called ________ antibodies. Answer: monoclonal Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The most common type of immediate hypersensitivity is ________. Answer: allergy Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Natural killer cells can lyse and kill cancer cells and virus-infected body cells ________ the immune system is activated. Answer: before Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) ________ shock is a dangerous condition where an allergen directly enters the blood, circulates rapidly through the body, and can cause death due to suffocation. Answer: Anaphylactic Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Harmful or disease-causing microorganisms are called ________. Answer: pathogens Section: 20.1 Learning Outcome: 20.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) A group of at least 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in an inactive state and are a major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body are referred to as ________. Answer: complement Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The antibody that becomes bound to mast cells and basophils and causes the cells to release histamine and other chemicals is ________. Answer: IgE Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Failure of developing T cells to recognize self MHC during positive selection results in ________. Answer: apoptosis Section: 20.4 Learning Outcome: 20.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) An autoimmune disease that severely impairs renal function is ________. Answer: glomerulonephritis Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) List and briefly discuss innate body defenses to disease. Answer: Innate body defenses to disease include surface membrane barriers, such as the skin and mucous membranes, as the first line of defense. Not only do the skin and mucous membranes act as a physical barrier to microorganisms, but they also secrete chemicals such as saliva, sebum, mucus, and HCl that kill microorganisms. Innate cellular defenses include the use of phagocytes and natural killer cells. Inflammation occurs in response to injury. The inflammatory response includes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and phagocyte mobilization. Antimicrobial substances such as interferon and complement are also produced as innate defenses by the body. Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) What are monoclonal antibodies? How are they produced, and what are some of their clinical uses? Answer: Monoclonal antibodies are pure antibody preparations that exhibit specificity for a single antigenic determinant. They are produced from the progeny of a single B cell hybridoma "clone," prepared by injecting a specific antigen into a lab animal and then harvesting sensitized B cells from its spleen. The cells are mixed with myeloma cells and incubated, and the resulting hybridoma cells (B cells fused with myeloma cells) produce the monoclonal antibody. They are used for the diagnosis of pregnancy, certain sexually transmitted diseases, hepatitis, rabies, and for other purposes. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) What is the antigen challenge, and where does it usually take place? Answer: The antigen challenge is the first encounter between an immunocompetent lymphocyte and an invading antigen. It usually takes place in the spleen or a lymph node, but may happen in any lymphoid tissue. Section: 20.3 Learning Outcome: 20.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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14) Why are regulatory T cells important to the immune process? Answer: They are vital in the final stopping of an immune response after the antigen is inactivated. They may also help prevent autoimmune reactions. Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) What is the most likely type of hypersensitivity associated with an agonizingly itchy case of poison ivy, appearance of hives after eating shellfish, or a positive TB test? Answer: The hypersensitivity associated with poison ivy is an example of delayed hypersensitivity called allergic contact dermatitis. The hypersensitivity associated with hives is an immediate hypersensitivity in the form of a local anaphylactic reaction. The hypersensitivity associated with a positive TB test is a type of delayed hypersensitivity. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) Children born without a thymus must be kept in a germ-free environment if they are to survive. Explain why this is necessary. Answer: If the thymus fails to develop, the T cells will not mature and become immunocompetent. If T cell function is disrupted, there is no resistance to disease. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) What are the signs of inflammation, and how does inflammation serve as a protective function? Answer: The four signs of inflammation are swelling, redness, heat, and pain. The signs are caused by local vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. This is of benefit because the process helps to dilute harmful substances that may be present; brings in large quantities of oxygen, nutrients, and cells necessary for the repair process; and allows the entry of clotting proteins. Pain helps immobilize the injury. An additional sign would be the loss of function. Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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18) Name four autoimmune diseases. Answer: Multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, Graves' disease, juvenile (type I) diabetes, systemic lupus erythematosus, glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) What are two general mechanisms by which autoimmune diseases could arise? Answer: 1. Appearance of new self-proteins in the circulation that have not previously been exposed to the immune system. 2. An immune response to foreign antigens resembling selfantigens. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20) Elderly people tend to develop cancer more frequently than younger people. Give an explanation for this observation that relates to immune function. Answer: As one ages, the efficiency of the immune system begins to decline. Over time one becomes exposed to harmful agents accumulatively, thus increasing the incidence of developing cancer cells. This may allow cancer to become established more easily. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 21) Why do schools require inoculations for childhood diseases such as mumps, measles, and whooping cough? Why are the inoculations of value? Answer: The inoculations are required to try to prevent epidemics of these microbiological infections. The inoculations are of great benefit in preventing the diseases because the vaccines cause immunity to the pathogens by stimulating both the formation of protective antibodies and the establishment of immunological memory against future infection. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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22) Tom gets a cut on his hand. After several days he notes swelling, pain, heat, and redness. Upon opening the wound to relieve the pressure, the presence of pus is noted. What has happened to the wound? Answer: The wound has become infected, probably with bacteria. The initial symptoms indicate acute inflammation. Pus indicates the presence of dead or dying neutrophils, broken-down tissue cells, and living and dead pathogens. Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) What are some of the drawbacks of passive humoral immunity? Answer: The effects are short lived; it does not trigger memory cell production; and your body degrades the antibodies. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 20.5 Clinical Questions 1) A 36-year-old man enters the hospital in an extremely debilitated condition. He has purplebrown skin lesions (a symptom of Kaposi's sarcoma) and a persistent cough. A physical examination reveals swollen lymph nodes, and laboratory tests find a very low lymphocyte count. Information taken during the personal history reveals that he has multiple sex partners with whom he frequently engages in unprotected sex. What is likely to be the man's problem and what is his outlook? Answer: He is probably suffering from AIDS. His outlook is poor once the disease has progressed to this advanced stage. There is no cure, and drug therapy has had limited short-term success. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) A young girl requires a liver transplant due to failure of her liver to function. What is required for her to have a good prognosis and why? Answer: The ABO and other blood group antigens of the donor and recipient must be determined. Next, donor and recipient tissues (MHC groups) are matched as closely as possible. Following surgery, she must receive immunosuppressive therapy to keep her body from rejecting the new liver as foreign tissue. Section: 20.6 Learning Outcome: 20.16 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) A woman comes into the hospital emergency room complaining that she is having problems swallowing and her neck is swelling. She has a history of radiation treatment to her neck as a child for acne. The woman is suffering from Hashimoto's thyroiditis. The radiation injured the thyroid gland and released thyroidglobulin into the bloodstream. The immune system has recently become sensitized and mounted an attack on the thyroid gland. Would this be a hypersensitivity or autoimmune disease? Explain your answer. Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease. Thyroidglobulin is normally produced by the thyroid gland ("self") and would normally not result in an immune response. The current problems the woman is facing is due to her immune system attacking her own proteins, which has resulted in the autoimmune disease. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.18 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Max is bitten by a rattlesnake while on a camping trip. His friends immediately apply ice packs to the bitten area to slow the spread of the protein-based toxin; they then rush him to an emergency facility. What treatment would be given and why? Answer: Max could be given an immune serum to the rattlesnake venom, thereby conferring passive immunity. The reason for passive immunization is that the venom could kill the person before active immunity could be established. The passive immunity would last until the "borrowed" antibodies naturally degraded in the body. No immunological memory would be established because B cells are not activated. Section: 20.5 Learning Outcome: 20.12 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) A physician orders Tylenol for a temperature greater than 101°F. The patient's temperature is 100.4°F. Explain the rationale for not medicating a fever of 100.4°F. Answer: A mild or moderate fever is an adaptive response that seems to benefit the body. Bacteria need large amounts of zinc and iron to multiply. During fever, the liver and spleen sequester these nutrients, making them less available, which helps to reduce the bacterial population. Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Nursing care of a patient with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) includes monitoring of Tlymphocyte counts. Explain why. Answer: The primary defect in patients with AIDS is depletion of T helper cells, and therefore the cell-mediated response. This immunodeficiency makes the patient more susceptible to infection and unusual cancers. Thus, the lower the count, the more protective precautions need to be taken. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) After receiving penicillin intravenously, a 32-year-old male patient has an anaphylactic reaction. The nurse understands that therapeutic management includes what critical items? Answer: Therapeutic management includes speed in recognition of signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction because death can occur within minutes. Maintaining an open airway is critical, because the bronchioles constrict, making it difficult to breathe. An agent to counteract the extreme vasodilation, such as epinephrine, is often the key to survival. Section: 20.7 Learning Outcome: 20.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) When the white blood cell count is depressed, the classic signs of infection such as redness, heat, and swelling are not manifested. In this case, the nurse should avoid administering aspirin. Explain why. Answer: Aspirin would disguise a fever that would indicate infection. Section: 20.2 Learning Outcome: 20.2 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 21 The Respiratory System 21.1 Matching Questions

Figure 21.1 Using Figure 21.1, match the following: 1) Main (primary) bronchus. Answer: D Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Pharynx. Answer: A Section: 21.1 Learning Outcome: 21.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Larynx. Answer: B Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Carina of trachea. Answer: E Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Trachea. Answer: C Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS2 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 21.2 Using Figure 21.2, match the following: 6) Tidal volume. Answer: B Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Inspiratory reserve volume. Answer: A Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Residual volume. Answer: D Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Expiratory reserve volume. Answer: C Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Air that does not participate in the exchange of gases. Answer: D Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G3, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS8 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Alveolar duct B) Respiratory bronchioles C) Segmental (tertiary) bronchi D) Type II alveolar cells E) Type I alveolar cells 11) NO exchange of gases occurs here. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Secrete a fluid containing surfactant. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Where the respiratory zone of the lungs begins. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Composed of simple squamous epithelium. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Terminates in alveoli. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Composed of cuboidal cells. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The respiratory membrane is composed of fused basement membrane of the capillary walls and ________. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) E 15) A 16) D 17) E

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Match the following: A) Inspiratory capacity B) Functional residual capacity C) Total lung capacity D) Vital capacity 18) TV + IRV + ERV + RV. Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) ERV + RV. Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) TV + IRV + ERV. Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) TV + IRV. Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) A

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Match the following: A) Intrapleural Pressure B) Intrapulmonary Pressure C) Boyle's Law D) Henry's Law E) Dalton's Law 22) The pressure in the alveoli. Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) P1V1 = P2V2 Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The pressure in the pleural cavity. Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture. Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) When a gas is in contact with a liquid, the gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure. Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) E 26) D 8 .


21.2 True/False Questions 1) Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The lingual tonsil is found on the posterior surface of the root of the tongue. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.1 Learning Outcome: 21.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to air for greater efficiency. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.1 Learning Outcome: 21.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue). Answer: TRUE Section: 21.3 Learning Outcome: 21.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) A drop in blood pH is likely to cause a slower breathing rate. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Intrapleural pressure is normally about 4 mm Hg less than the pressure in the alveoli. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) During normal quiet breathing, males breathe 25% more than females. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The alveolar ventilation rate is the best index of effective ventilation. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) In chronic bronchitis, mucus production is decreased and this leads to the inflammation and fibrosis of the mucosal lining of the bronchial tree. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Labored breathing is termed hypercapnia. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) The largest amount of carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream in the form of carbonic anhydrase. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The paired lungs occupy the mediastinum of the thoracic cavity. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.3 Learning Outcome: 21.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The Heimlich maneuver is a procedure in which air in the lungs is used to expel a piece of food blocking the trachea when someone is choking. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Tracheal obstruction is life threatening. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.3 Learning Outcome: 21.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The average individual has 500 ml of residual volume in his lungs. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Atelectasis (lung collapse) renders the lung useless for ventilation. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The inflation (Hering-Breuer) reflex is a potentially dangerous response that may cause overinflation of the lung. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) Strong emotions and pain, acting through the limbic system and hypothalamus, send signals to the respiratory centers that modulate respiratory rate and depth. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more CO2 to combine with hemoglobin and more bicarbonate ions to be generated (the Bohr effect). Answer: FALSE Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Dalton's law of partial pressures states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Oxygenated hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily when the pH is more basic. Answer: FALSE Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Nasal conchae heat and moisten inhaled air, and reclaim heat and moisture during exhalation. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.1 Learning Outcome: 21.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) Under certain conditions, the vocal folds act as a sphincter that prevents air passage. Answer: TRUE Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which bone does NOT contain paranasal sinuses? A) ethmoid B) frontal C) temporal D) maxillary Answer: C Section: 21.1 Learning Outcome: 21.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________. A) thickness of vestibular folds B) length of the vocal folds C) strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles D) force with which air rushes across the vocal folds Answer: D Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________. A) secrete surfactant B) trap dust and other debris C) replace mucus in the alveoli D) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion Answer: A Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14 .


4) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ________. A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere D) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure Answer: B Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following is TRUE regarding normal quiet expiration of air? A) It is a passive process that depends on the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration. B) It depends on the complete lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall. C) It is driven by increased blood CO2 levels. D) It requires contraction of abdominal wall muscles. Answer: A Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea? A) surface tension of water B) surfactant production C) C-shaped cartilage rings D) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium Answer: C Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________. A) pressure within the pleural cavity B) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs C) negative pressure in the intrapleural space D) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure Answer: B Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________. A) Boyle's law B) Henry's law C) Charles' law D) Dalton's law Answer: A Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________. A) Henry's law B) Boyle's law C) Dalton's law D) Charles' law Answer: C Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________. A) humidifying the air before it enters B) warming the air before it enters C) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid D) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations Answer: C Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) As the tension of vocal folds in the larynx increase, the voice becomes ________. A) higher in pitch B) lower in pitch C) louder D) more distinct Answer: A Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The Bohr effect describes the tendency for hemoglobin to more readily unload oxygen under which conditions? A) increased pH and PCO2 B) decreased pH and increased PCO2 C) increased pH and decreased PCO2 D) decreased pH and PCO2 Answer: B Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________. A) loss of oxygen in tissues B) increase of carbon dioxide C) acidosis D) alkalosis Answer: B Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The local matching of blood flow with ventilation is ________. A) the Bohr effect B) the Haldane effect C) chloride shifting D) ventilation-perfusion coupling Answer: D Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is ________. A) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in blood B) about equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin C) greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin D) not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules Answer: A Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer death for both men and women in North America? A) colorectal B) lung C) esophageal D) skin Answer: B Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs? A) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid B) compliance and transpulmonary pressures C) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and transpulmonary pressures D) compliance and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid Answer: A Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following counteracts the movement of bicarbonate ions from the RBC? A) the Bohr effect B) the Haldane effect C) chloride shifting D) release of hydrogen ion Answer: C Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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19) Hemoglobin has a much greater affinity for carbon monoxide than oxygen. Which principle explains why a hyperbaric chamber (containing high levels of oxygen) can treat carbon monoxide poisoning? A) Dalton's law B) Henry's law C) Boyle's law D) Charles' law Answer: B Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Which of the following refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs? A) pulmonary ventilation B) gas exchange C) internal respiration D) external respiration Answer: A Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________. A) surfactant B) surface tension C) friction D) air pressure Answer: C Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Which of the following determines lung compliance? A) airway opening B) flexibility of the thoracic cage C) muscles of inspiration D) alveolar surface tension Answer: D Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Tidal volume is air ________. A) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration B) exchanged during normal breathing C) inhaled after normal inspiration D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration Answer: B Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement? A) solubility in water B) partial pressure gradient C) the temperature D) molecular weight and size of the gas molecule Answer: B Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Possible causes of hypoxia include ________. A) too little oxygen in the atmosphere B) obstruction of the esophagus C) taking several rapid deep breaths D) getting very cold Answer: A Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21 .


26) The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________. A) tidal volume B) vital capacity C) inspiratory capacity D) expiratory reserve volume Answer: B Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following is correct regarding acclimatization? A) At high altitudes, hemoglobin's affinity for O2 is increased because BPG concentrations increase. B) When blood O2 levels decline, the kidneys produce more erythropoietin, which stimulates breakdown of red blood cells in the spleen. C) High-altitude conditions always result in lower-than-normal hemoglobin saturation levels because less O2 is available to be loaded. D) Decreases in arterial PO2 cause the peripheral chemoreceptors to become less responsive to increases in PCO2. Answer: C Section: 21.9 Learning Outcome: 21.24 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following is NOT a stimulus for breathing? A) rising carbon dioxide levels B) rising blood pressure C) arterial PO2 below 60 mm Hg D) acidosis resulting from CO2 retention Answer: B Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) Respiratory control centers are located in the ________. A) midbrain and medulla B) medulla and pons C) pons and midbrain D) upper spinal cord and medulla Answer: B Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________. A) reserve air B) expiratory capacity C) inspiratory reserve volume D) vital capacity Answer: C Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Which statement about CO2 is FALSE? A) Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation. B) Its accumulation in the blood is associated with a decrease in pH. C) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs. D) CO2 concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood. Answer: C Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Inspiration occurs when the ________ is less than the ________. A) intrapleural pressure; transpulmonary pressure B) intrapulmonary pressure; atmospheric pressure C) thoracic cavity volume; lung volume D) tidal volume; vital capacity Answer: B Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23 .


33) The left lung differs from the right in that the left lung has ________. A) a cardiac notch B) an oblique fissure C) three lobes D) a wider and more vertical primary bronchus Answer: A Section: 21.3 Learning Outcome: 21.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) The larynx contains ________. A) the thyroid cartilage B) a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam's apple C) an upper pair of avascular mucosal folds called true vocal folds D) lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds Answer: A Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract or relax during forced expiration, for example blowing up a balloon? A) diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract C) external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax D) diaphragm would contract, internal intercostals would relax Answer: B Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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36) How is the bulk of carbon dioxide transported in blood? A) chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells B) as bicarbonate ions in plasma after first entering the red blood cells C) as carbonic acid in the plasma D) chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin Answer: B Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of the choices below is NOT a role of the pleurae? A) allow the lungs to glide easily over the thorax wall during breathing movements B) help divide the thoracic cavity into three chambers C) help limit the spread of local infections D) assist in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs Answer: D Section: 21.3 Learning Outcome: 21.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport? A) 7-10% of CO2 is dissolved directly into the plasma B) just over 20% of CO2 is carried in the form of carbaminohemoglobin C) as bicarbonate ions in plasma D) attached to the heme part of hemoglobin Answer: D Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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39) Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________. A) thalamic control B) voluntary cortical control C) stretch receptors in the alveoli D) temperature of alveolar air Answer: B Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange? A) alveolar sacs B) alveoli C) respiratory bronchioles D) alveolar ducts Answer: B Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Which of the following is NOT part of the respiratory membrane of the lungs? A) alveolar epithelium B) capillary endothelium C) single layer of smooth muscle cells D) basement membrane Answer: C Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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42) The symptoms of hyperventilation may be averted by breathing into a paper bag because it ________. A) helps retain oxygen in the blood B) helps retain carbon dioxide in the blood C) reduces brain perfusion by constricting cerebral blood vessels D) lowers blood pH levels Answer: B Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Inspiratory capacity is ________. A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration B) the total amount of exchangeable air C) functional residual capacity D) air inspired after a tidal inhalation Answer: A Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Which center is located in the pons? A) pontine respirator group (PRG) B) expiratory center C) inspiratory center D) pacemaker neuron center Answer: A Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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45) The nose serves all of the following functions EXCEPT ________. A) as a passageway for air movement B) as the direct initiator of the cough reflex C) warming and humidifying the air D) cleansing the air Answer: B Section: 21.1 Learning Outcome: 21.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) According to the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, PO2 in the lungs of 100 mm Hg results in Hb being 98% saturated. At high altitude, there is less O2. At a PO2 in the lungs of 80 mm Hg, Hb would be ________ saturated. A) 98% B) 100% C) 95% D) less than 50% Answer: C Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 47) Which of the following is an appropriate response to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning? A) slow breathing into a paper bag B) immediate application of bicarbonate ions to facilitate removal of CO from Hb C) hyperventilation to exhale CO from the body D) hyperbaric oxygen chamber to increase PO2 and clear CO from the body Answer: D Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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48) Which pressure actually keeps the lungs from collapsing? A) intrapulmonary pressure B) intrapleural pressure C) transpulmonary pressure D) atmospheric pressure Answer: C Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which of the choices below is NOT a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin? A) partial pressure of oxygen B) temperature C) partial pressure of carbon dioxide D) number of red blood cells Answer: D Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which of the following is responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall? A) the smooth muscles of the lung B) the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone C) the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs D) surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity Answer: D Section: 21.3 Learning Outcome: 21.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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51) The erythrocyte (red blood cell) count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the ________. A) temperature is lower at higher altitudes B) basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes C) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes D) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes Answer: D Section: 21.9 Learning Outcome: 21.24 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________. A) ciliated mucous lining in the nose B) abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa C) porous structure of turbinate bones D) action of the epiglottis Answer: A Section: 21.1 Learning Outcome: 21.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 53) Which of the following is INCORRECT? A) Gas flow equals pressure gradient over resistance. B) Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance. C) Resistance equals pressure gradient over gas flow. D) The amount of gas flowing in and out of the alveoli is directly proportional to the difference in pressure or pressure gradient between the external atmosphere and the alveoli. Answer: B Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.11 Global LO: G2, G4, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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54) Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation. A) A decrease in compliance causes an increase in ventilation. B) A lung that is less elastic will require less muscle action to perform adequate ventilation. C) As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required. D) Surfactant helps increase alveolar surface tension. Answer: C Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood. A) During normal activity, a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2. B) During conditions of acidosis, hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently. C) Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen-carrying capacity. D) A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal. Answer: D Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.18, 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 56) Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation? A) pneumonia B) tuberculosis C) emphysema D) coryza Answer: C Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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57) Which of the following does NOT influence hemoglobin saturation? A) temperature B) BPG C) partial pressure of carbon dioxide D) nitric oxide Answer: D Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) For inspiration of air, which of the following happens first? A) air (gases) flows into lungs B) intrapulmonary pressure drops C) thoracic cavity volume decreases D) diaphragm descends, thoracic volume begins to increase, and rib cage rises Answer: D Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 59) Spirometry results reveal a vital capacity of two liters which is well below the predicted value of five liters. This suggests which disorder? A) obstructive pulmonary disease B) asthma C) restrictive disease D) emphysema Answer: C Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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60) Which law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas? A) Dalton's law B) Henry's law C) Boyle's law D) Charles' law Answer: C Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 61) The Bohr effect refers to the unloading of ________ in a RBC due to declining blood pH. A) carbon dioxide B) oxygen C) BPG D) chloride ions Answer: B Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 62) Which structure is lined with simple squamous epithelium? A) trachea B) nasopharynx C) alveolus D) oropharynx Answer: C Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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63) Using spirometry, a patient discovers their forced expiratory volume (FEV) after the first second is 40%. What does this suggest? A) healthy lungs B) obstructive pulmonary disease C) restrictive disease D) exposure to asbestos Answer: C Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 64) Which of the following anchor(s) the vocal folds? A) arytenoid cartilages B) cuneiform cartilages C) corniculate cartilages D) cricoid cartilage Answer: A Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 65) Which of the following is a conducting zone structure? A) alveolar duct B) terminal bronchiole C) alveolar sac D) respiratory bronchiole Answer: B Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21.4 Short Answer Questions 1) How is alveolar gas exchange affected by emphysema and pneumonia? Answer: In pneumonia, gas exchange is impaired due to the thickening of the walls of the alveoli, shared basement membrane and capillary wall. It may even reduce the vital capacity. In emphysema, the progressive destruction of alveoli leads to a reduction in the cross-sectional area of gas exchange, resulting in having to supplement with oxygen the air that these patients breathe. Additionally, due to a reduction in elastic connective tissue and normal tissue parenchyma, the compliance will also be reduced. Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Briefly differentiate between atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, and intrapleural pressure. Which of these is always negative in a healthy individual during normal breathing? What happens if intrapleural pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure? Answer: Atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted by gases of the atmosphere. Intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the alveoli of the lungs. Intrapleural pressure is the pressure within the intrapleural space. Intrapleural pressure is negative relative to the other two during normal inspiration/expiration. Equalization of the intrapleural pressure with atmospheric pressure or intrapulmonary pressure immediately causes lung collapse. Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.8 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles begins inspiration. Explain exactly what happens, in terms of volume and pressure changes in the lungs, when these muscles contract. Answer: With contraction of the diaphragm, the height of the thoracic cavity increases. Contraction of the external intercostal muscles expands the diameter of the thorax. With an increase in volume of the thorax, the intrapulmonary volume increases, causing a drop in pressure relative to atmospheric pressure. Air rushes into the lungs along this pressure gradient until intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal. Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.10 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) What is the chloride shift and why does it occur? Answer: The chloride shift is an ionic exchange process whereby chloride ions move from the plasma into the erythrocytes to counterbalance the net positive charge left within the erythrocytes by the rapid outrush of negative bicarbonate ions whenever blood CO2 rises. Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.20 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) is a condition peculiar to premature babies. In IRDS insufficient surfactant is produced. What does this cause and how is it treated? Answer: Too little surfactant results in increased surface tension that can collapse the alveoli. Great effort is required to completely reinflate the alveoli during each inspiration. IRDS is treated by spraying natural or synthetic surfactant into the newborn's respiratory passageways. Also, devices that maintain positive airway pressure throughout the respiratory cycle can keep the alveoli open between breaths. Severe cases require mechanical ventilators. Section: 21.4 Learning Outcome: 21.11 Global LO: G2, G5, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) How is it possible to change the pitch of our voice from high to low? Answer: Usually, the tenser the vocal folds, the faster they vibrate and the higher the pitch. To produce deep tones, the glottis widens, and to produce high-pitched tones, the glottis becomes a slit. Intrinsic laryngeal muscles control the true vocal folds and the size of the glottis. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The partial pressure gradient for oxygen (in the body) is much steeper than that for carbon dioxide. Explain how equal amounts of these two gases can be exchanged (in a given time interval) in the lungs and at the tissues. Answer: Equal amounts of O2 and CO2 can be exchanged in the lungs and at the tissues because CO2 solubility in plasma and alveolar fluid is 20 times greater than that of O2. Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.17 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Define anatomical dead space. What is the relationship between anatomical and alveolar dead space? Which value is likely to increase during lung pathology? Answer: Anatomical dead space is the space in the conducting respiratory passageways. Alveolar dead space is the space in nonfunctional alveoli. Anatomical dead space and alveolar dead space together make up the total dead space. Alveolar dead space will increase during lung pathology. Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.13 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Distinguish among anemic, ischemic (stagnant), histotoxic, and hypoxemic hypoxia. Answer: Anemic hypoxia reflects poor oxygen delivery resulting from too few RBCs or RBCs that contain abnormal or too little Hb. Ischemic (stagnant) hypoxia results when blood circulation is impaired or blocked. Histotoxic hypoxia occurs when body cells are unable to use O2 even though adequate amounts are delivered. Hypoxemia hypoxia is indicated by reduced arterial PO2. Section: 21.7 Learning Outcome: 21.18 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21.5 Clinical Questions 1) Timothy has been having difficulty breathing since he had pneumonia last month. Recently he had severe pain in his chest and back, and his breathing was extremely irregular. The doctor at the emergency room told him that one of the lobes of his lung had collapsed. How could this happen? Answer: Timothy suffered a pneumothorax, or lung collapse, most likely caused by a rupture of the visceral pleura as a result of coughing during his bout with pneumonia. The pneumothorax was large enough to cause atelectasis, or collapse, of one of his lobes, but not the remainder of his lung. Section: 21.3 Learning Outcome: 21.8 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) While having a physical examination, a young male informed his doctor that at age 8 he had lobar pneumonia and pleurisy in his left lung. The physician decided to measure his VC. Describe the apparatus and method used for taking this measurement. Define the following terms used in the description of lung volumes: TV, IRV, ERV, RV, and VC. Answer: His vital capacity (VC) was measured using a spirometer. As he breathed into a handheld device, the speed and volume of air flow was calculated from the output of a pressure transducer. Tidal volume (TV) is the amount of air that moves into and out of the lungs with normal breathing. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled beyond a tidal inspiration. The expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the amount of air that can be evacuated from the lungs over and above a tidal expiration. Residual volume (RV) is the amount of air that remains in the lungs even after the most strenuous expiration. Vital capacity (VC) is the total amount of exchangeable air. Section: 21.5 Learning Outcome: 21.12 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Jane had been suffering through a severe cold and was complaining of a frontal headache and a dull, aching pain at the side of her face. What regions are likely to become sites of secondary infection following nasal infection? Answer: Following nasal infection, the frontal and maxillary sinuses become infected. Section: 21.1 Learning Outcome: 21.1 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) A smoker sees his doctor because he had a persistent cough for months and is short of breath after very little exertion. What diagnosis will the doctor make and what can the person expect if he does not quit smoking? Answer: The person is suffering from chronic bronchitis, which causes the dyspnea and coughing. If he does not stop smoking, he can expect frequent pulmonary infections, more coughing, and progressively worse dyspnea (all symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). Ultimately, he can expect to develop hypoxemia, CO2 retention, and respiratory acidosis. He may develop emphysema or lung cancer. Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) After a long scuba diving session on a Caribbean reef, Carl boards a plane to Dallas. He begins to feel pain in his elbow on the flight back to Dallas. What is happening to him? Answer: Carl is experiencing decompression sickness, "the bends," due to several problems: (1) Applying Boyle's law, a lot of gas was forced into Carl's bloodstream during the dive and there was not sufficient time to decompress the excess before he boarded the plane. (2) The plane is not pressurized to sea level, which further reduced atmospheric pressure holding the gases in suspension (Henry's law). Carl should be transported to a hyperbaric chamber to be repressurized. This will reduce the volume of the gas bubbles in his arm so that normal circulation can resume. Section: 21.6 Learning Outcome: 21.15 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO2 was 55 and PCO2 was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the venturi mask. One hour later, after the oxygen was placed, the nurse finds the patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a Code Blue and begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Explain why the patient stopped breathing. Answer: In people who retain carbon dioxide because of pulmonary disease, arterial PCO2 is chronically elevated and chemoreceptors become unresponsive to this chemical stimulus. In such cases, declining PO2 levels act on the oxygen-sensitive peripheral chemoreceptors and provide the principle respiratory stimulus, or the so-called hypoxic drive. Pure oxygen will stop a person's breathing, because his respiratory stimulus (low PO2 levels) would be removed. Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) While dining out in a restaurant a man suddenly chokes on a piece of meat. The waitress is also a student nurse and comes to the man's aid. She asks him if he can talk. The man responds by shaking his head no and grabbing at his neck. What is the significance of the man's inability to talk? Answer: Speech involves the intermittent release of expired air and opening and closing of the glottis. Because the man is unable to speak, this indicates that he is choking on a piece of food that suddenly closed off air at or below the glottis. Section: 21.2 Learning Outcome: 21.4 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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8) How will the lungs compensate for an acute rise in the partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood? Answer: Respiratory rate will increase. Section: 21.8 Learning Outcome: 21.22 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) A patient with tuberculosis is usually quarantined from other patients, and medical staff treating the patient take extra precautions with personal protective equipment (i.e. wearing masks and gowns before entering the room). Why are these precautions necessary? Answer: Tuberculosis, caused by the bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is spread by coughing and primarily enters the body in inhaled air. Patients are quarantined to limit their exposure to other patients. Medical staff are extra cautious to minimize their role in transmission. Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) John has undergone surgery and has developed pneumonia. He also has a history of emphysema. Which symptoms and signs would the nurse expect to find? Answer: 1. The patient may have dyspnea. 2. The patient may have hypoxemia because of increased secretions in the lungs. 3. The patient may use his accessory muscles to assist breathing. 4. The patient may have a productive cough. 5. The patient's breath sounds may have rales (crackles). Section: 21.10 Learning Outcome: 21.25 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 22 The Digestive System 22.1 Matching Questions

Figure 22.1 Using Figure 22.1, match the following: 1) Mucosa. Answer: A Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Duodenal glands found here. Answer: B Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) Smooth muscle layer. Answer: C Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) MALT found here. Answer: B Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Serosa. Answer: D Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Area of the lamina propria. Answer: A Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Continuation of the mesentery. Answer: D Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 22.2 Using Figure 22.2, match the following: 8) Absorptive cells that line the intestinal tract. Answer: B Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Cell type specialized to secrete mucus into the lumen of the intestinal tract. Answer: D Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Structures that increase the absorptive area of the small intestine. Answer: A Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Wide lymph capillary located in the villus. Answer: C Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Paneth cells are found here. Answer: E Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: 13) Wavelike smooth muscle contractions that move foodstuffs through the alimentary tube. Section: 22.1 A) B) C) Peristalsis Absorption Segmentation Learning Outcome: Global LO: G7 22.2 D) Digestion HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Chemical or mechanical process of breaking down foodstuffs into simpler units. Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Rhythmic local constrictions of the small intestine that mixes food with digestive juices and makes absorption more efficient. Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Process by which simpler chemical units pass through the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract into the blood or lymph. Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) B

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Figure 22.3 Using Figure 22.3, match the following: 17) Produces enzymes that break down all categories of foodstuffs. Answer: D Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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18) Increases surface area for absorption via villi and microvilli. Answer: B Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Bacteria process undigested chyme from the small intestine. Answer: E Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Only digestive structure with three muscle layers. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Receives blood via the hepatic portal system. Answer: A Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Contains the brush border enzymes that complete digestion of carbohydrates and proteins. Answer: B Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Main function is to filter and process the nutrient-rich blood delivered to it. Answer: A Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7 .


24) Produces intrinsic factor. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Produces a mucoid barrier to prevent self-digestion. Answer: C Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Gastrin B) Cholecystokinin C) Gastric inhibitory peptide D) Secretin 26) Increases output of enzymatic-rich pancreatic juice. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Increases output of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Increases HCl secretion and stimulates contraction of intestinal muscle. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Stimulates insulin release and mildly inhibits HCl production. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) C

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Match the following: A) Short reflexes B) Enteric nervous system C) Long reflexes D) Submucosal nerve plexus 30) Respond to stimuli within the GI tract. Section: 22.3 Learning Outcome: 22.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Provide the major nerve supply to the GI tract wall and control GI tract motility. Section: 22.3 Learning Outcome: 22.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) In-house nerve supply of the alimentary canal. Section: 22.3 Learning Outcome: 22.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Involves CNS integration centers and extrinsic autonomic nerves for responses to stimuli either inside or outside of the GI tract. Section: 22.3 Learning Outcome: 22.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) C

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22.2 True/False Questions 1) The relatively unchanging pressure in a filling stomach is due to the contraction of the stomach oblique muscle layer. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Accessory digestive organs are the teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, pancreas, and gall bladder. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Food often contains bacteria, but the HCl of the stomach is effective in killing most ingested microbes. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Stellate macrophages are found in the liver and are responsible for removing bacteria and worn-out cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11 .


6) The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) All the chemical and mechanical phases of digestion from the mouth through the small intestine are directed toward changing food into forms that can pass through the epithelial cells lining the mucosa into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) Pepsinogen is the precursor to the gastric enzyme for protein digestion and is secreted by the parietal cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The only essential function of the stomach is to begin the digestion of proteins. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The major role of absorption in the ileum is to reclaim bile salts to be recycled back to the liver. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) The peritoneum is the most extensive serous membrane in the body. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Peyer's patches are primarily found in the submucosa of the duodenum. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) The submucosal nerve plexus provides the major nerve supply to the GI tract wall and controls GI motility. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.3 Learning Outcome: 22.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Dentin anchors the tooth in place. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) The digestive function of the liver is to produce digestive enzymes. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Another term for swallowing is deglutition. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The splanchnic circulation refers to the arteries that serve the digestive organs and the veins that carry blood from the digestive organs to the liver. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The stomach's contractile rhythm is set by pacemaker cells found in the spinal cord. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) The major stimulus for production of intestinal fluid is distention or irritation of the intestinal mucosa by hypertonic or acidic chyme. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Most nutrients are absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villi by active transport. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.10 Learning Outcome: 22.26 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Severe diarrhea can diminish potassium ion absorption. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.29 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Xerostomia is a condition where too little saliva is produced and results in dry mouth. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Fats significantly delay the emptying of the stomach through hormonal and neuronal signals. Answer: TRUE Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) The soft palate reflexively opens the nasopharynx to allow the passage of food, which is now called a bolus. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) When swallowing, the glottis covers the epiglottis. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Most gastric ulcers are due to excessive production of hydrochloric acid. Answer: FALSE Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The enterohepatic circulation reabsorbs bile salts in the distal portion of the small intestine (ileum). All of the following statements about the enterohepatic circulation are true EXCEPT one. Select the statement below that is NOT true of the enterohepatic circulation? A) Reabsorbing bile salts in the ileum gives more time to emulsify lipid and aid in their absorption within a greater length of the small intestine. B) The reabsorption of bile salts allows them to be reused within new bile. C) All of the components of bile are recycled by this circulation. D) Reabsorption of bile salts reduces the need to synthesize new bile salts. Answer: C Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) Which of the following is the best illustration of the difference between metabolism and digestion? A) Metabolism comprises all of the chemical reactions preformed within the body while digestion is only the breakdown of food within the GI tract. B) Digestion requires enzymes for it to take place while metabolism does not necessarily need or use them. C) Digestion has a wide variety of chemical reactions while metabolism is restricted to only a few reaction types. D) Digestions must happen first for metabolism to follow it. Answer: A Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion, or absorption? A) large intestine B) the esophagus C) the oral cavity D) the small intestine Answer: B Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Which of the following would likely be absorbed in the stomach? A) a serving of lean chicken breast B) a serving of alcohol C) a serving of dessert D) a serving of pasta Answer: B Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.26 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) Which of the following is the best explanation of the benefit in the digestive system having the largest collection of lymphoid tissue (MALT) at the distal end of the small intestine? A) The digestive systems first and foremost job is to digest and absorb nutrients so it puts off immunity for last. B) The huge numbers of bacteria living in the large intestine must be prevented from entering the lumen of the small intestine and being absorbed with food's nutrients into the blood stream. C) The body will actively excrete pathogens out of the body, into the digestive system, to be removed from the body in feces. D) The alkaline secretions of the small intestine aid in the growth of bacteria and these bacteria must be controlled. Answer: B Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________. A) lipid digestion B) lipid absorption C) lipid emulsification D) lipid ingestion Answer: C Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.29 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) A doctor consulting a patient that recently has had their gall bladder removed would likely advise ________. A) eating a low to no carb diet B) eating fewer, but larger meals C) eating foods that are low in fat D) increasing unsaturated fats while eliminating trans fats in their diets Answer: C Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.19 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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8) A ruptured appendix is life threatening because ________. A) it is likely to cause severe internal bleeding B) it is likely to cause massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity C) loss of the appendix's function will cause an immune deficiency in the digestive system D) the large intestine will no longer be able to receive digested material from the small intestine Answer: B Section: 22.9 Learning Outcome: 22.24 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) All but one of the following is a function of the low pH found in the stomach. Select the description below that does NOT reflect a role of stomach acid. A) Stomach acid denatures proteins making the poly peptide chain more accessible to pepsin digestive enzymes. B) Many potentially harmful bacteria will be prevented entry to the small intestine by stomach acid. C) The stomach's acid catabolically breaks down food stuffs in preparation for absorption. D) Low pH converts pepsinogen to its active form of pepsin, preventing the protease enzyme from digesting the cells that produce it. Answer: C Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Fat absorption through the plasma membrane of epithelial cells ________. A) occurs by simple diffusion because lipids are able to penetrate the hydrophobic fatty acid tails within the plasma membrane B) requires enzymes attached to the brush border to further breakdown the fats C) requires vesicular, active transport of the relatively large fatty acids and monoglyceride D) is accomplished by cotransporters that use the concentration gradient of Na+ outside of the cells Answer: A Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.29 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Select the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms. A) The enzymes would digest each other if they were not properly regulated. B) The immunoglobulins protecting the digestive tract would be digested without proper regulation of protein digesting enzymes. C) Inactive enzymes will simply be expelled with the feces if no protein is present in the digesting food; this will help to conserve energy. D) The cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract. Answer: D Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Select the description below that illustrates a difference between a sphincter and circular muscle. A) A sphincter is composed of smooth muscle while circular muscle is composed of skeletal muscle tissue. B) A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion during digestion. C) Sphincters are found throughout the GI tract while circular muscle is found only in the proximal portion of the GI tract. D) Sphincters are found in the proximal portion of the GI tract while circular muscle is found in the distal portions. Answer: B Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) In the enteric nervous system, a long reflexive pathway has an advantage over a short reflexive pathway in the fact that ________. A) long reflexive pathways last much longer than short reflexive pathways B) long reflexive pathways are quicker to respond than short reflexive pathways C) long reflexive pathways can be stimulated by things outside of the GI tract D) long reflexive pathways can respond throughout the entire length of the GI tract while short reflexive pathways can only respond in the proximal end Answer: C Section: 22.3 Learning Outcome: 22.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) The sight of food can trigger a series of events that results in the release of gastric juice. All but one of the following is true in regards to the previous statement. Select the one answer that is NOT true. A) This is an example of a long reflexive pathway. B) This prepares the stomach for food before its arrival in the stomach. C) The motor nerves of this pathway are part of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. D) The cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and medulla oblongata are all involved in processing the stimulatory information. Answer: C Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) EXCEPT one. Select the statement that is NOT true of swallowing. A) The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea. B) The voluntary phase of swallowing takes place within the mouth. C) The mouth, pharynx and esophagus all take part in swallowing. D) The involuntary portion of swallowing takes place in the pharynx. Answer: A Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Some antacid drugs block histamine receptors, resulting in reduction of the production and excretion of stomach acid. These drugs have the biggest effect on which of the following? A) surface epithelial cells B) parietal cells C) chief cells D) mucous neck cells Answer: B Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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17) Which of the following is NOT a function of cholecystokinin (CCK)? A) increase production of stomach acid B) increase production of pancreatic juice C) stimulate gall bladder to release bile D) open hepatopancreatic sphincter Answer: A Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Generally, the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin which are released by duodenal enteroendocrine cells will ________. A) decrease the activities of the accessory digestive organs B) increase stomach emptying C) increase the release of digestive enzymes and bile D) increase the force of stomach contractions Answer: C Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 19) Select the one response below that would NOT result from a drug that blocks histamine receptors in the cells lining the stomach. A) It would lower the activity of parietal cells. B) It would reduce the symptoms of heartburn. C) It would cause the release of secretin and cholecystokinin. D) It would raise the pH of the stomach. Answer: C Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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20) Specific enteroendocrine cells of the stomach, called G cells, are stimulated by partially digested proteins, caffeine, and rising pH. When stimulated, G cells secrete ________. A) ghrelin B) pepsin C) hydrochloric acid D) gastrin Answer: D Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 21) The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________. A) in the glandular tissue that surround the organ lumen B) in the walls of the tract organs C) in the pons and medulla D) in the oral cavity Answer: B Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________. A) carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract B) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver C) distribute hormones throughout the body D) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low Answer: B Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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23) The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________. A) digestion B) absorption C) ingestion D) secretion Answer: A Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________. A) absorption B) secretion C) chemical digestion D) mechanical breakdown Answer: C Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________. A) mesenteries B) lamina propria C) serosal lining D) mucosal lining Answer: A Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen. A) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa B) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa C) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa D) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa Answer: D Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following is NOT a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier? A) thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus B) tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells C) replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells D) secretion of pepsinogen Answer: D Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.13 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 28) What part of the tooth bears the force and resists the friction of chewing? A) crown B) enamel C) pulp D) cementum Answer: B Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________. A) submucosa B) serosa C) adventitia D) lamina propria Answer: D Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile. A) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion. B) Bile functions to emulsify fats. C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs. D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion. Answer: D Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task? A) villi and microvilli B) the vast array of digestive enzymes C) Brunner's glands and Peyer patches D) the rugae and haustra Answer: A Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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32) Select the statement that is TRUE concerning primary teeth. A) There are 27 primary teeth, and the molars are permanent. B) There are 24 primary teeth, and no new primary teeth appear after 13 months. C) There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age, most children have all 20. D) There are 32 primary teeth, and by 36 months of age, most children have all 32. Answer: C Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the following is TRUE concerning the number and type of permanent teeth? A) There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge. B) There are 27 permanent teeth, and the first molars are usually the last to emerge. C) The number of permanent teeth is always equal to the number of primary teeth. D) The number of upper permanent teeth is not equal to the number of lower permanent teeth. Answer: A Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Which of the following is NOT true of saliva? A) cleanses the mouth B) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates C) moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus D) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion Answer: D Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the following is NOT found in saliva? A) urea and uric acid B) electrolytes C) lysozyme D) protease Answer: D Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27 .


36) The bolus is liquefied in the ________ and it is now called chyme. A) mouth B) stomach C) esophagus D) small intestine Answer: B Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Peristaltic waves are ________. A) segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract B) churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract that aid in mechanical breakdown of chyme C) pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract D) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another Answer: D Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 38) Pepsinogen, an inactive digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________. A) chief cells of the stomach B) parietal cells of the stomach C) Brunner's glands in the duodenum D) goblet cells of the small intestine Answer: A Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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39) You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal? A) gastrin B) amylase C) cholecystokinin D) trypsin Answer: B Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________. A) portal vein B) pancreatic acini C) bile canaliculus D) hepatopancreatic ampulla Answer: D Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41) Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible? A) amylase B) pepsin C) lipase D) chymotrypsin Answer: C Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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42) Hepatocytes do NOT ________. A) produce digestive enzymes B) process nutrients C) store fat-soluble vitamins D) detoxify toxic chemicals Answer: A Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed? A) A B) B12 C) C D) K Answer: B Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 44) Gastric pits, as opposed to gastric glands, are completely lined with ________. A) parietal cells B) enteroendocrine cells C) mucous cells D) chief cells Answer: C Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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45) Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________. A) mastication B) catabolism C) anabolism D) excretion Answer: B Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) The ________ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure. A) liver B) spleen C) pancreas D) stomach Answer: A Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 47) Digestion and absorption of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged? A) lipids B) carbohydrates C) proteins D) starches Answer: A Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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48) The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for? A) incisor tooth B) molar tooth C) premolar tooth D) canine tooth Answer: D Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) The lamina propria is composed of ________. A) loose connective tissue B) dense irregular connective tissue C) dense regular connective tissue D) reticular connective tissue Answer: A Section: 22.1 Learning Outcome: 22.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which of the following is (are) NOT important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion? A) distention B) carbohydrates C) peptides D) low acidity Answer: B Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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51) The function of goblet cells is to ________. A) absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use B) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion C) secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral D) provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food Answer: B Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria? A) produce gas B) absorb bilirubin C) synthesis of vitamin K D) synthesize vitamins C and D Answer: C Section: 22.9 Learning Outcome: 22.24 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 53) Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________. A) somatic neurons in the spinal cord B) the vagus nerve and enteric plexus C) the rubrospinal tracts D) the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts Answer: B Section: 22.3 Learning Outcome: 22.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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54) Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds? A) fungiform and circumvallate B) palatine and circumvallate C) circumvallate and filiform D) fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform Answer: A Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which of the following produce intrinsic factor? A) parietal cells B) zymogenic cells C) mucous neck cells D) enteroendocrine cells Answer: A Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 56) Which of the following enzymes would be most active in the presence of high concentrations of protein fragments? A) sucrase B) amylase C) trypsin D) lipase Answer: C Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.27 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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57) A child with restricted tongue movement may have a surgery that involves the cutting of the ________. A) lingual frenulum B) palatine tonsils C) uvula D) terminal sulcus Answer: A Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the large intestine? A) It does not contain villi. B) It exhibits external muscular bands called teniae coli. C) It is longer than the small intestine. D) It has pocket-like sacs called haustra. Answer: C Section: 22.9 Learning Outcome: 22.24 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 59) What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs? A) HCl B) pepsinogen C) intrinsic factor D) gastric lipase Answer: C Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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60) Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion. A) Vagus stimulation of the stomach results in decreased secretion of gastric juice. B) The presence of food in the stomach prevents hormonal control of gastric secretion. C) Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth. D) Gastric secretion is enhanced by very low pH (below a pH of 2). Answer: C Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 61) Paneth cells ________. A) secrete digestive enzymes B) secrete hormones C) secrete enzymes that kill bacteria D) secrete bicarbonate ions Answer: C Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 62) Select the correct statement about absorption. A) Eighty percent of ingested materials have been absorbed by the end of the large intestine. B) Carbohydrates diffuse across the mucosal endothelium and are then actively transported into blood capillaries. C) In the rare case that intact, whole proteins are transported across the mucosal endothelium, an immune response may be generated. D) Amino acid transport is linked to chloride transport. Answer: C Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.29 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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63) Which is NOT true of lipid absorption? A) Fatty acids and monoglycerides are absorbed passively by diffusion. B) Products of lipid digestion are transported to the blood by the lymphatic system. C) Fatty acids and monoglycerides are packaged with proteins to form chylomicrons. D) Enterocytes require the presence of lipoprotein lipase to effectively absorb micelles. Answer: D Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.29 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 64) The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur? A) Increased production of trypsinogen. B) This type of food would cause secretion of gastrin to cease, resulting in faster gastric emptying. C) Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum. D) The acid secretions from the stomach would be sufficient to digest this food but may cause heartburn. Answer: C Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 65) Hormones or paracrines that inhibit gastric secretion include ________. A) ACh B) secretin C) gastrin D) histamine Answer: B Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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66) Which of these is NOT part of the splanchnic circulation? A) hepatic portal vein B) inferior vena cava C) superior mesenteric artery D) celiac artery Answer: B Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 67) Which of these is NOT a component of saliva? A) lysozyme B) a cyanide derivative C) defensins D) metabolic waste Answer: B Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The longest portion of the small intestine is the ________. Answer: ileum Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The principal enzyme for breaking down carbohydrates is ________. Answer: amylase Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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3) Cells of the stomach that secrete HCl are ________ cells. Answer: parietal Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The chief bile pigment is ________. Answer: bilirubin Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Cells are found in the sinusoids of the liver that remove debris from the blood as it flows past are called ________ macrophages. Answer: stellate Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The part of the peritoneum that covers the external surfaces of most digestive organs is the ________ peritoneum. Answer: visceral Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) The ________ ligament anchors a tooth in the alveolus of the jaw. Answer: periodontal Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) The ________ phase of gastric secretions occurs when food enters the stomach. Answer: gastric Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The protective outermost layer of the esophagus is the ________. Answer: adventitia Section: 22.2 Learning Outcome: 22.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Compare and contrast the structure and function of a premolar and a molar. Answer: Premolars have a broad crown with rounded cusps but have only one root except the first upper molars that often have two. Molars also have broad crowns with rounded cusps but are larger than premolars. Molars have at least two roots. Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) What are chylomicrons? Answer: Chylomicrons are tiny fatty droplets composed of triglycerides, small amounts of phospholipids, cholesterol, free fatty acids, and some protein that circulate in the blood but have not yet been reprocessed by the liver. These are picked up by lacteals of the lymphatics which are then transported through the lymph vessels and eventually into the systemic circulation via the lymphatic duct. Section: 22.11 Learning Outcome: 22.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) What is heartburn and what causes it? Answer: Heartburn is the discomfort felt in the chest area when the acidic gastric juices get regurgitated into the esophagus. This may happen when someone has eaten or drunk too much, or it can be caused by extreme obesity or the discomfort of pregnancy. It is related to weakness of the gastroesophageal sphincter, frequently associated with hiatal hernia. Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Name two regions of the digestive tract where mechanical food breakdown processes are very important. Name two organs that are primarily food conduits. Name the organ where protein digestion is begun. Name the organ where fat digestion begins. Answer: Mechanical food processes are very important in the mouth (mastication) and stomach (contractions causing mixing of food into chyme). The esophagus and pharynx are primarily food conduits. Protein digestion begins in the stomach. Fat digestion begins in the small intestine. Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Define constipation and diarrhea. Note possible causes of each. Answer: Watery stools are called diarrhea. Constipation is a condition in which too much water has been absorbed and the stool becomes hard and difficult to pass. Any condition (such as irritation of the colon by bacteria) that rushes food residue through the large intestine before that organ has had sufficient time to absorb the remaining water results in diarrhea. Constipation may ensue from the lack of fiber in the diet, improper bowel habits, laxative abuse, or anything that decreases motility. Section: 22.9 Learning Outcome: 22.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Assume you have been chewing a piece of bread for 5 or 6 minutes. How would you expect its molecular chemistry to change during this time? Why? Answer: The bread will begin to change as some of the starch is broken down into the sugar maltose due to the chemical digestion of carbohydrates by salivary amylase. Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 41 .


16) Your friend suffers from heartburn and was told that he should "stop drinking caffeinated coffee because it is acidic." Explain to your friend why this is good advice but explain the mistaken facts to him. Answer: Coffee's pH does not cause heartburn. However, caffeine can promote the release of gastrin hormone from G cells in the stomach. Release of gastrin will result in the greater production of stomach acid that could worsen the pain of heartburn. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 17) Why is it necessary for the stomach contents to be so acidic? How does the stomach protect itself from digestion? Answer: HCl is necessary for the activation and optimal activity of pepsin, and it kills many of the bacteria ingested with food. Mucous cells in the lining of the stomach secrete an alkaline mucus that clings to the stomach wall and helps to shield it from the acid. The epithelial cells of the mucosa are joined together by tight junctions that prevent gastric juice from leaking into underlying tissue layers. Damaged epithelial cells are shed and quickly replaced by cell division. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 18) Identify three ways the small intestine is modified to increase the surface area for digestion and absorption. Answer: The plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli are modifications of the small intestine for digestion and absorption. The plicae circulares are circular folds of the mucosa and submucosa. They force chyme to move spirally through the lumen. The villi are fingerlike projections of the mucosa. They increase the absorptive surface area. Microvilli are projections of the plasma membrane of the absorptive cells of the mucosa that bear intestinal digestive enzymes. They also increase surface area and enhance absorption. Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.21 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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19) How is digestive activity provoked after eating? What activates the secretion of digestive juices into the lumen or hormones into the blood? Answer: Mechanoreceptors located in the walls of the gastrointestinal tract respond to stretching by the introduction of food into the lumen. Likewise, chemoreceptors in the walls are able to respond to changes in solute concentration and pH as well as the presence of substrates and end products of digestion. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.15 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) How is salivation regulated? Answer: When we ingest food, chemoreceptors and pressoreceptors in the mouth send signals to the salivatory nuclei in the brain stem. The parasympathetic nervous system activity increases and motor fibers trigger the increase in serous, enzyme-rich saliva. Section: 22.4 Learning Outcome: 22.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 21) What is bile and where is it produced? What is its digestive function? Where is it stored and concentrated? Answer: Bile is an alkaline solution containing bile salts, bile pigments, cholesterol, neutral fats, phospholipids, and a variety of electrolytes. It is produced in the liver. Its digestive function is to emulsify fats. It is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22.5 Clinical Questions 1) Mrs. Wong goes to the emergency room with the following symptoms: severe pain in the umbilical region, loss of appetite, nausea, and vomiting. While she was waiting to see a doctor, the pain moved to the lower right abdominal quadrant. What is the likely diagnosis and treatment? Answer: The most likely diagnosis is appendicitis. The accepted treatment is immediate surgical removal of the appendix. You should rule out pregnancy if she is of child bearing age. Can be an OBGYN condition. Section: 22.9 Learning Outcome: 22.24 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 43 .


2) Jose is brought to the emergency room complaining of a burning sensation in his chest, increased salivation, and difficulty in swallowing. He is having difficulty breathing and feels the presence of a "lump in his throat." The diagnosis is gastroesophageal reflux disease. Explain. Answer: Gastroesophageal reflux disease is a disorder in which the rate of reflux is greater than in normal individuals and causes clinical symptoms and/or histological changes. Reflux and regurgitation may result in aspiration of gastric contents into the air passages, causing respiratory distress such as hoarseness, asthma, and pneumonia. The sensation of a lump in his throat may be due to esophageal muscle spasm from irritation or even worse, that he has developed a stricture (narrowing) or cancer from prolonged neglect. Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Sami has been hospitalized with acute gastritis. Her symptoms were epigastric pressure (just above the stomach), headache, nausea, and vomiting with traces of old dark blood. She revealed that she had been suffering back pain and drank four shots of gin and took three aspirin to "kill the pain." What led the physician to make this diagnosis, and what may have caused the sudden attack? Answer: Gastritis is an inflammation of the mucosal lining of the stomach and is suspected because of the pain location, accompanying symptoms, and ingesting of likely causative agents. He would likely confirm the diagnosis by doing an upper GI endoscopy. The probable reason for the abrupt onset of symptoms is due to rapid and heavy ingestion of alcohol and aspirin. Acute gastritis is often due to chemical irritants that destroy the alkaline mucus barrier, particularly alcohol or salicylate. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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4) A woman is brought to an emergency room complaining of severe pain in her left iliac region. She claims previous episodes and says that the condition is worse when she is constipated, and is relieved by defecation. A large, tender mass is palpated in the left iliac fossa and a barium study reveals a large number of diverticula in her descending and sigmoid colon. What are diverticula, and what is believed to promote their formation? Does this woman have diverticulitis or diverticulosis? Explain. Answer: Diverticula are small herniations of the mucosa through the colon walls, a condition called diverticulosis. They are believed to form when the diet lacks bulk (low-fiber diet) and the volume of residue in the colon is small. The colon narrows contractions of its circular muscles and they become more powerful, increasing the pressure on its walls. Diverticulitis is a condition in which the diverticula become inflamed. This woman has diverticulitis due to the inflammation of her diverticula, as evidenced by the pain and mass. Section: 22.9 Learning Outcome: 22.24 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) A patient is 67 years old and has had a hiatal hernia for three years. In the last year, she has complained of worsening heartburn, especially at night. What are the characteristic symptoms of a hiatal hernia and which of these symptoms did the patient have? Answer: Heartburn and regurgitation from gastroesophageal reflux are the most common clinical manifestations of hiatal hernia. This patient complained of heartburn. When the patient lies down, the hernia slides upward into the thoracic cavity, which increases the discomfort. Section: 22.5 Learning Outcome: 22.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A patient was admitted to the hospital because of severe epigastric pain. He has noted that his stools were darker than the usual brown color. He appears pale and very anxious. The history reports that he drinks 2-3 beers per day and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. Based on the assessment data, what condition might the nurse determine this patient has? Explain why. Answer: The patient most likely has a gastric ulcer. The most distressing symptom of a gastric ulcer is gnawing epigastric pain that seems to bore through to the back. The danger posed by ulcers is perforation of the stomach wall followed by peritonitis and massive hemorrhage. Because the patient's stools are darker than usual, and he is pale and anxious, the doctor suspects a bleeding ulcer. Factors such as smoking and alcohol increase hypersecretion of hydrochloric acid and low secretion of mucus. Section: 22.6 Learning Outcome: 22.14 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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7) A patient has esophageal cancer and must have a feeding tube inserted. The doctor tells the patient that the tube will be inserted surgically into the duodenum. The patient's wife asks why the tube will not be inserted into the stomach. What would the doctor say? Answer: The duodenum is part of the small intestine, which is the body's major digestive organ. Digestion is completed and absorption is best in the small intestine. There is also less risk for vomiting, which may cause complications. Section: 22.8 Learning Outcome: 22.21 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) A 45-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver. He is thin and malnourished. His abdomen is very large due to an accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. His lower extremities are very swollen. Explain why these changes have occurred. Answer: Cirrhosis is a diffuse and progressive chronic scarring of the liver that typically results from chronic alcoholism or severe chronic hepatitis. Cirrhosis is characterized by extensive degeneration and destruction of the liver parenchymal cells. Edema and ascites (accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity) occur because the portal blood cannot flow as easily through narrowed, scarred canaliculi, leading to a backup of pressure (portal hypertension) that causes increased filtration loss of fluid through intestinal capillary walls. Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) A 45-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse is observing him closely for the possibility of gastrointestinal bleeding. Why is this considered a possible complication? Answer: As scar tissue eventually shrinks, it obstructs blood flow throughout the hepatic portal system, causing portal hypertension. Some veins of the portal system anastomose with veins that drain into the venae cavae. However, these connecting veins called esophageal varices are small, include submucosal veins in the lower esophagus and gastric cardia, and tend to burst when forced to carry large volumes of blood. Signs of their failure include vomiting blood. Section: 22.7 Learning Outcome: 22.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 23 Nutrition, Metabolism, and Body Temperature Regulation 23.1 Matching Questions

Figure 23.1 Using Figure 23.1, match the following: 1) Ten-step enzymatically driven process that converts glucose into pyruvic acid. Answer: A Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 1 .


2) Occurs via substrate-level phosphorylation. Answer: D Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Produces the CO2 involved during glucose oxidation. Answer: B Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Where the hydrogen atoms removed during the oxidation of food fuels are combined with O2. Answer: C Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Contains ATP synthase rotor rings. Answer: C Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) ATP formed by oxidative phosphorylation. Answer: E Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Involves sugar activation, sugar cleavage, oxidation, and ATP formation. Answer: A Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Citric acid (Krebs) cycle B) Electron transport chain C) Glycolysis 8) Glucose serves as the initial reactant. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Involves the removal of hydrogen electrons and CO2 from the substrate molecule. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Occurs in the cytosol of a cell. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Produces the most ATP. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Involves the use of oxygen to pick up excess hydrogen and electrons. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) B

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Match the following: A) Glycolysis B) Glycogenolysis C) Glycogenesis D) Gluconeogenesis 13) Breakdown of glycogen to release glucose. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Formation of glucose from proteins or fats. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Storage of glucose in the form of glycogen. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) A

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Match the following: A) Lipolysis B) Ketogenesis C) Lipogenesis D) Beta oxidation 17) Synthesis of lipids from glucose or amino acids. Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Splitting of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids. Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Conversion of fatty acids into acetyl groups. Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Formation of ketone bodies. Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) B

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Match the following: A) Convection B) Conduction C) Evaporation D) Radiation 21) Heat transfer into the chair you are sitting on. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Heat exchange when you are under a ceiling fan. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Heat loss in the form of infrared waves. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Heat loss during sweating. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 23.2 True/False Questions 1) Beta oxidation is the initial phase of fatty acid oxidation, and it occurs in the cytoplasm. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7 .


2) The increased use of noncarbohydrate molecules for energy to conserve glucose is called glucose sparing. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Except for lactose and some glycogen, the carbohydrates we ingest are mainly from animals. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The term essential nutrient refers to the chemicals that can be interconverted in the liver so that the body can maintain life and good health. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The most abundant dietary lipids in the diets of most Americans are triglycerides. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) There are no nutritionally complete proteins. All animal products should be eaten with plant material to make a nutritionally complete protein. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) The body is considered to be in nitrogen balance when the amount of nitrogen ingested in lipids equals the amount excreted in urine. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The amount of protein needed by each person is determined by their age, size, metabolic rate, and the need to build new proteins. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Vitamins are inorganic compounds that are essential for growth and good health. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.2 Learning Outcome: 23.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Cellular respiration is an anabolic process. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.3 Learning Outcome: 23.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The preferred energy fuel for the brain is fat. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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12) Glycogenesis begins when ATP levels are high, and glucose entering cells is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate and converted to its isomer, glucose-1-phosphate. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Glycogen accounts for 80-85% of stored energy in the body. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) In order for amino acids to be oxidized for energy, the amine group (NH2) must be removed. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.6 Learning Outcome: 23.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Glucose sparing refers to the use of noncarbohydrate fuel molecules in the post absorptive state. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Processes that break down complex molecules into simpler ones are described as anabolic. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.3 Learning Outcome: 23.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) For use as fuel, all food carbohydrates are eventually transformed to glucose. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Triglycerides and cholesterol do NOT circulate freely in the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.8 Learning Outcome: 23.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The major role of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) is to store energy in the form of fat. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.8 Learning Outcome: 23.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) It would not be healthy to eliminate all fats from your diet because they serve a useful purpose in maintaining the body. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Carbohydrate and fat pools are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy, but amino acid pools must first be converted to a carbohydrate intermediate before being sent through cellular respiration pathways. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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22) High levels of HDLs are considered good. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.8 Learning Outcome: 23.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Diets high in cholesterol and saturated fats tend to produce high HDL concentrations. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.8 Learning Outcome: 23.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Ghrelin, produced by the stomach, is a powerful appetite stimulant. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.9 Learning Outcome: 23.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Peptides called NPY (neuropeptide Y) and AgRP (agouti-related peptides) are powerful appetite enhancers. Answer: TRUE Section: 23.9 Learning Outcome: 23.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) The primary function of dietary protein is energy production within cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which type of food molecule provides components for cellular structures like plasma membranes, myelin sheaths, and steroid hormones? A) lipids B) glucose C) complex carbohydrates D) protein Answer: A Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the choices below is NOT a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body? A) ATP production B) lipogenesis C) amino acid synthesis D) direct conversion to a nucleic acid Answer: D Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following is the major role of leptin in the body? A) promote weight loss with activity B) protect against weight loss during nutritional deprivation C) shrink fat stores D) increase appetite and food intake Answer: D Section: 23.9 Learning Outcome: 23.27 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) Cholesterol, though it is NOT an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it ________. A) is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones B) helps provide essential nutrients to the brain and lungs C) helps mobilize fats during periods of starvation D) enters the glycolytic pathway without being altered Answer: A Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Which of the following statements best describes complete protein? A) derived from meat and fish only B) meets all the minimum daily requirements for a healthy diet C) derived only from legumes and other plant material D) must contain all the body's amino acid requirements for tissue maintenance and growth Answer: D Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The term metabolism is best defined as ________. A) the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats B) a measure of carbohydrate utilization, typically involving measurement of calories C) the number of calories it takes to keep from shivering on a cold day D) the sum of all biochemical reactions in the body Answer: D Section: 23.3 Learning Outcome: 23.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Which of the following is NOT true of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)? A) It is best calculated when the subject is in the absorptive state. B) It represents the amount of energy the body needs to perform only essential functions. C) It should account for body surface area. D) It is measured when the subject is reclining and at rest. Answer: A Section: 23.10 Learning Outcome: 23.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly ________. A) urea B) ammonia C) acetyl CoA D) ketone bodies Answer: A Section: 23.6 Learning Outcome: 23.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because ________. A) vitamins provide protection against the common cold B) very few foods contain vitamins C) most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients D) all vitamins are water soluble and pass out of the body too quickly to ensure utilization Answer: C Section: 23.2 Learning Outcome: 23.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) Minerals required by the body in moderate amounts include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) calcium and phosphorus B) sulfur and potassium C) sodium and chlorine D) iron and selenium Answer: D Section: 23.2 Learning Outcome: 23.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which of the choices below describes the pathway of cellular respiration (the complete oxidation of glucose)? A) glycolysis, citric acid (Krebs) cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation B) gluconeogenesis, citric acid (Krebs) cycle, lipolysis C) lipolysis, glycogenolysis, beta oxidation D) glycogenesis, lipogenesis, electron transport chain Answer: A Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Catabolism of food molecules involves ________. A) dehydration reactions B) hydrolysis reactions C) glycogenesis D) synthesis reactions Answer: B Section: 23.3 Learning Outcome: 23.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________. A) causes a decline in circulating ketone bodies B) builds up triglycerides during the postabsorptive state C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones D) elevates glucagon levels Answer: C Section: 23.3 Learning Outcome: 23.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The goal of cellular respiration is to ________. A) generate body heat B) provide the body with essential vitamins and minerals C) convert polymers into monomers D) convert ADP molecules into ATP molecules Answer: D Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________. A) gluconeogenesis B) glycogenesis C) lipogenesis D) lipolysis Answer: D Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration? A) oxidative phosphorylation B) substrate-level phosphorylation C) lactic acid production D) oxidation reactions Answer: A Section: 23.3 Learning Outcome: 23.15 Global LO: G2 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Lipogenesis occurs when ________. A) there is a shortage of fatty acids B) glucose levels drop slightly C) excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high Answer: D Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Oxidative deamination takes place in the ________. A) liver B) muscles C) brain D) blood Answer: A Section: 23.6 Learning Outcome: 23.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Transamination is the process whereby the amine group of an amino acid is ________. A) transferred to acetyl CoA B) converted to urea C) transferred to a keto acid D) converted to ammonia Answer: C Section: 23.6 Learning Outcome: 23.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18 .


20) Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________. A) postabsorptive state B) absorptive state C) starvation period D) period when the metabolic rate is lowest Answer: B Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of the following is a normal consequence of the activation of the heat-promoting center? A) release of epinephrine B) sympathetic sweat gland activation C) increase in ADH production D) vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels Answer: A Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________. A) glycogen is broken down to release glucose B) glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate molecules C) glycogen is formed D) glucose is converted into carbon dioxide and water Answer: B Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23) Glycolysis is best defined as a catabolic reaction based upon the ________. A) conversion of glucose into carbon dioxide and water B) conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid C) conversion of pyruvic acid into carbon dioxide and water D) formation of sugar Answer: B Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) What is the outcome of ketosis? A) water retention and edema B) metabolic acidosis C) metabolic alkalosis D) glycogen buildup E) glucogenesis Answer: B Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Which of the choices below happens during the absorptive state? A) Anabolic processes exceed catabolic ones. B) Catabolic processes exceed anabolic ones. C) No metabolism occurs. D) Only glucose metabolism occurs. Answer: A Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) In the case of a person who consumes a normal, balanced diet, proteins are essential to the body for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) production of energy B) production of some hormones C) production of enzymes, clotting factors, and antibodies D) formation of functional molecules like hemoglobin and cytochromes Answer: A Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The most abundant dietary lipids are ________. A) cholesterol B) phospholipids C) fatty acids D) triglycerides Answer: D Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The ingestion of which nutrient type results in the greatest food-induced thermogenesis? A) lipids B) carbohydrates C) proteins D) vitamins Answer: C Section: 23.10 Learning Outcome: 23.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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29) Which hormone directs essentially all the events of the absorptive state? A) growth hormone B) thyroid hormone C) epinephrine D) insulin Answer: D Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Why is external respiration (breathing) necessary for cellular respiration? A) Inhaled oxygen is necessary for the breakdown of glucose in glycolysis. B) Inhaled oxygen is needed to bind to carbon atoms to form carbon dioxide during the citric acid cycle. C) Inhaled oxygen provides the energy that drives cellular respiration. D) Inhaled oxygen is necessary for receiving electrons and hydrogen ions from the electron transport chain. Answer: D Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 31) Which of the following is NOT an important function of the liver? A) carbohydrate and lipid metabolism B) synthesis of bile salts C) synthesis of vitamin K D) protein metabolism Answer: C Section: 23.8 Learning Outcome: 23.24 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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32) As the body progresses from the absorptive to the postabsorptive state, the ________ continues to burn glucose while virtually every other organ in the body switches to fatty acids as its major energy source. A) liver B) brain C) pancreas D) spleen Answer: B Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) In gluconeogenesis, during the postabsorptive state, amino acids and ________ are converted to glucose. A) glycerol B) glycogen C) acetyl CoA D) glucagon Answer: A Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) In the liver, the amine group of glutamic acid is removed as ________ in the oxidative state. A) glyceraldehyde B) pyruvic acid C) ammonia D) oxaloacetic acid Answer: C Section: 23.6 Learning Outcome: 23.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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35) Which of the choices below is NOT a mechanism of heat production? A) vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels B) shivering C) sweating D) enhanced thyroxine release Answer: C Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Heat-loss enhancing mechanisms do NOT include ________. A) reducing activity B) the evaporation of sweat C) behavior measures such as wearing light, loose clothing D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels Answer: D Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) The amount of ________ produced is probably the most important hormonal factor in determining basal metabolic rate (BMR). A) norepinephrine B) thyroxine C) prolactin D) ADH Answer: B Section: 23.10 Learning Outcome: 23.28 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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38) When ketone bodies are present in the blood and urine in large amounts, it usually indicates increased metabolism of ________. A) amino acids B) fatty acids C) glycogen D) lactic acid Answer: B Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) The "thermostat" or temperature regulator of the body is the ________. A) thyroid B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) pituitary Answer: C Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) When sitting on a cold park bench, body heat is transferred to the bench by ________. A) conduction B) convection C) radiation D) excretion Answer: A Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) During exercise, increased metabolic activity increases body heat, which then triggers sweating. Which of the following best describes the function of sweating? A) infrared radiation B) direct conduction C) forced convection D) sensible evaporation Answer: D Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The amino acid pool is the body's total supply of amino acids in the body's proteins. B) Fats and carbohydrates are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy. C) Amino acids can be used to supply energy only after being converted to a citric acid cycle intermediate. D) Excess carbohydrate and fat can be stored as such, whereas excess amino acids are oxidized for energy or converted to fat or glycogen for storage. Answer: A Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Which of the following provides a good source of complex carbohydrates? A) fruit B) grain C) chicken breast D) vegetable oil Answer: B Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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44) Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized? A) fats B) vitamins and minerals C) foods and beverages high in caffeine D) proteins Answer: A Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Which of the following does NOT occur in the mitochondria? A) electron transport B) glycolysis C) citric acid (Krebs) cycle D) formation of malic acid from fumaric acid Answer: B Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of the following is NOT true of beta oxidation? A) It occurs in the mitochondria. B) The carbon in the beta (third) position is oxidized during the process. C) It involves the anabolism of fats. D) Fatty acids are broken into acetic acid fragments. Answer: C Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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47) Select the correct statement about proteins. A) Strict vegetarians need not worry about adequate protein intake, as most vegetables are almost perfect sources of amino acids. B) All proteins can be synthesized in the body if most of the amino acids are present. C) Proteins will be used by most cells for ATP synthesis if insufficient carbohydrates are ingested. D) Catabolic steroids (hormones) accelerate the rate of protein synthesis. Answer: C Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the "reduced" reactant ________. A) gains electrons B) loses energy C) loses hydrogen ions D) gains negatively charged ions Answer: A Section: 23.3 Learning Outcome: 23.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) What process primes a molecule to change in a way that increases its activity, produces motion, or does work? A) phosphorylation B) beta oxidation C) cellular respiration D) glycolysis Answer: A Section: 23.3 Learning Outcome: 23.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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50) Which of the choices below is NOT a source of blood glucose during the postabsorptive state? A) glycogenolysis in the liver B) lipolysis in adipose tissues and the liver C) absorption of glucose from the GI tract D) catabolism of cellular protein Answer: C Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) Which of the following is correct? A) Most of the ATP are produced by substrate-level phosphorylation. B) Each FADH2 yields about 1.5 ATP via oxidative phosphorylation. C) Glycolysis relies on substrate-level oxidation for the four ATP produced in this pathway. D) Most ATP from cellular respiration are produced directly in the citric acid (Krebs) cycle. Answer: B Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) Which of the following food groups are considered good sources of complete proteins? A) corn, cottonseed oil, soy oil, and wheat germ B) lima beans, kidney beans, nuts, and cereals C) egg yolk, fish roe (eggs), and grains D) eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish Answer: D Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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53) Conditions that promote the oxidative deamination and energy use of amino acids include ________. A) adequate essential amino acids B) adequate fat calories to provide adequate ATP formation C) excessive amounts of protein in the diet D) ammonia combining with oxygen to form urea Answer: C Section: 23.6 Learning Outcome: 23.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 54) When blood is cooler than the hypothalamic set point, the person may ________. A) pant B) exhibit vasodilation of skin vessels C) perspire heavily D) shiver Answer: D Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) Glucose can be obtained from ________. A) glycogenolysis B) triglyceride anabolism C) protein anabolism D) lipogenesis Answer: A Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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56) Which of the following is NOT a function of low-density-lipoproteins (LDLs)? A) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for membrane formation B) transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver C) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for hormone synthesis D) assist in the storage of cholesterol when supply exceeds demand Answer: B Section: 23.8 Learning Outcome: 23.25 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 57) Which of the following best defines negative nitrogen balance? A) Protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis. B) It is a condition usually caused by having a diet low in fish and meat. C) A negative nitrogen balance is normal and is a way of maintaining homeostasis. D) It occurs when amino acids are broken down by liver enzymes and carried to the bloodstream. Answer: A Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) Red blood cells lack mitochondria. As a result, ATP production is solely through ________. A) aerobic respiration B) glycolysis C) citric acid (Krebs) cycle D) electron transport chain Answer: B Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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59) In India, rice is a large part of the diet. Lack of which vitamin in rice would lead to higher levels of blindness in this population? A) vitamin A B) vitamin E C) vitamin C D) vitamin D Answer: A Section: 23.2 Learning Outcome: 23.9 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 60) Which term describes the action of an endurance runner the night before the race as she "carbo-loads" when eating a large pasta dinner? A) glycolysis B) glycogenolysis C) glycogenesis D) gluconeogenesis Answer: C Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 61) Several hours after your last meal, declining blood glucose levels stimulate release of the hormone ________, which stimulates glycogenolysis, lipolysis and fat mobilization, and gluconeogenesis. A) insulin B) thyroxine C) cortisol D) glucagon Answer: D Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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62) At the conclusion of glycolysis, most of glucose's chemical energy is found in the ________. A) NADH B) ATP C) pyruvic acid molecules D) acetyl CoA Answer: C Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 63) While traveling abroad in Africa you observe a large number of people with goiter (enlarged thyroid). Which mineral deficiency could be responsible for this? A) chromium B) iron C) iodine D) fluorine Answer: C Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 64) A recent health screening revealed a low-density-lipoprotein (LDL) level over 130. Which of the following should be prescribed? A) statins B) iron C) insulin D) glucagon Answer: A Section: 23.8 Learning Outcome: 23.25 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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23.4 Short Answer Questions 1) A friend expresses concern that their family hardly ever consumes fruits and vegetables and is not eating healthy. Use the USDA's MyPlate food guide to help your friend understand how to improve this family's diet. Answer: The USDA's guidelines are represented by a dinner plate that suggests how to plan meals relative to amounts and varieties of foods from each group. The plate depicts approximately 30% grains, 30% vegetables, 20% fruits, and 20% protein. A cup nearby represents dairy. The plate illustrates that half of your foods should be fruits and vegetables. Many people consume less than this recommended amount. Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.2 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Your car breaks down along the highway on a cold winter afternoon. As you wait for help to arrive, the temperature drops significantly inside the car. Describe two involuntary adjustments an adult body will make in order to maintain core body temperature. Answer: 1. Constriction of cutaneous blood vessels: Sympathetic fibers cause vasoconstriction of the blood vessels in skin in order to reduce heat otherwise lost through radiation from the skin. 2. Shivering: Brain centers controlling muscle tone are activated which eventually cause heat generation from the involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) What are the four mechanisms of heat exchange and how are they defined? Answer: (1) Radiation is the loss of heat as thermal energy. (2) Conduction is the transfer of heat between objects that are in direct contact with each other. (3) Convection is the process of replacing the warm air around the body with cooler air and thus removing body heat. (4) Evaporation cools by removing large amounts of heat as water changes state from liquid to gas. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) Define amino acid pool and explain how the pool is maintained even though we excrete amino acids daily. Answer: The amino acid pool consists of the body's total supply of free amino acids needed to resynthesize body proteins. Even though a small amount of amino acids and proteins is lost daily in urine, these are replaced through diet. If they are not replaced, the amino acids resulting from tissue breakdown become a part of the pool. Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.22 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Megadoses of vitamin supplements may have serious consequences. Extreme excess of which vitamin group, water or fat soluble, is most likely to cause serious health problems, and why? Answer: Fat-soluble vitamins are most likely to cause serious health problems such as damage to the brain, kidneys, liver, bone, and cardiovascular system, because they are stored in the body and excesses are not removed. Section: 23.2 Learning Outcome: 23.9 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) What is obesity, and what health problems accompany or follow its onset? Answer: Obesity is a BMI (body mass index) greater than 30. Health problems accompanying or following obesity include a higher incidence of arteriosclerosis, hypertension, coronary artery disease, and diabetes mellitus. Section: 23.9 Learning Outcome: 23.27 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) How is the postabsorptive state controlled and initiated? Answer: The postabsorptive state is controlled by the interaction of the sympathetic nervous system and several hormones, especially glucagon. The trigger for initiating postabsorptive events is a decline in insulin release, which occurs as blood glucose levels begin to drop. Insulin levels decrease, and the insulin-induced cellular responses are inhibited. Section: 23.7 Learning Outcome: 23.23 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) What is the significance of the fact that monosaccharides are phosphorylated immediately upon entry into cells? Answer: Monosaccharides are phosphorylated immediately upon entry into cells so that entry into metabolic pathways is possible. Additionally, phosphorylation, to change the structure of glucose, allows the maintenance of a diffusion gradient for simple glucose. Phosphorylation also prevents glucose from leaving the cell. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Explain what happens to pyruvic acid if oxygen is not present in sufficient quantities to support the electron transport system. Answer: When oxygen is not present in sufficient amounts, the NADH + H+ produced during glycolysis begins to unload its hydrogen "baggage" back onto pyruvic acid, reducing it. This addition of hydrogen atoms to pyruvic acid results in the production of lactic acid. Section: 23.4 Learning Outcome: 23.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Define nitrogen balance. List three factors that might lead to negative nitrogen balance and three that might result in positive nitrogen balance. Answer: Nitrogen balance is a state when the amount of nitrogen ingested in proteins equals the amount of nitrogen excreted in urine and feces. Factors leading to negative nitrogen balance (when protein breakdown exceeds the use of protein for building structural or functional molecules) include: physical and emotional stress, poor-quality dietary protein, and starvation. Factors leading to positive nitrogen balance (when the rate of protein synthesis is higher than the rate of its breakdown and loss) include: the normal condition in growing children and pregnant women, periods of rebuilding or repair following illness, and site-specific regeneration following injury. Section: 23.1 Learning Outcome: 23.6 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23.5 Clinical Questions 1) After chopping wood for about 2 hours on a hot but breezy afternoon, John stumbled into the house and immediately fainted. His T-shirt was wringing wet with perspiration, and his pulse was faint and rapid. What is your tentative diagnosis? Explain your reasoning and note what you should do to help John's recovery. Answer: John was suffering from heat exhaustion due to excessive loss of body fluids (indicated by his wet T-shirt); his low blood pressure; and cool, clammy skin. To help his recovery, he should be given fluid and electrolyte replacement therapy and should be cooled down. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) Harry is hospitalized with bacterial pneumonia. When you visit him, his teeth are chattering, his skin is cool and clammy to the touch, and he complains of feeling cold, even though the room is quite warm. Explain his symptoms. Answer: Harry's symptoms indicate a fever caused by his bacterial pneumonia. The white cells battling the pneumonia release pyrogens that act directly on the hypothalamus, causing its neurons to release prostaglandins. The prostaglandins reset the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher temperature, causing the body to initiate heat-promoting mechanisms including shivering and vasoconstriction that causes a decline of heat loss from the body surface, cooling of the skin, and shivering. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Hank, a 45-year-old high school teacher, suffered a heart attack during a recreational swim. Upon visiting his physician, he was diagnosed as being obese and at risk for type 2 diabetes and atherosclerosis. What does it mean to be obese, and why is the physician concerned about his overall health? Answer: A person that is obese has a body mass index (BMI) over 30. Chronic low-grade systemic inflammation accompanies obesity and contributes to insulin resistance, in which more insulin than normal is required to maintain blood glucose levels. People who are obese have a higher incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atherosclerosis, hypertension, heart disease, and osteoarthritis. The atherosclerosis and heart disease most likely contributed to his heart attack. Section: 23.11 Learning Outcome: 23.30 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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4) The patient is a 28-year-old female with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She developed viral gastroenteritis with nausea and vomiting. She did not take her insulin and she became increasingly nonresponsive. Her husband called 911 and she was taken to the emergency room. Her pulse rate was 128 and her respiratory rate was 28, deep, and smelled fruity (Kussmaul breathing). Her urinary glucose and ketone levels were both 4+. Her pH was dangerously low. Explain how the body attempted to compensate for the low serum pH. Answer: Ketosis leads to metabolic acidosis. The deep, rapid respirations were the body's attempt to compensate for the extremely low pH by blowing off CO2, resulting in less carbonic acid that in turn caused pH to rise. Section: 23.5 Learning Outcome: 23.19 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) The patient is 45 years old and is obese. He states he has been on the Atkins diet (low carbohydrate and high protein and fat) and has lost 20 pounds. What are the dangers inherent in following fad diets for quick weight loss? Answer: Many fad diets are nutritionally unhealthy, particularly if they limit certain groups of nutrients. Some of the liquid high-protein diets contain poor-quality protein and are actually dangerous. Section: 23.9 Learning Outcome: 23.27 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) What are four possible complications of obesity from a medical standpoint? Answer: Obesity contributes to insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes mellitus; the obese also have a higher incidence of atherosclerosis, hypertension, heart disease, and osteoarthritis. Section: 23.9 Learning Outcome: 23.27 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) The patient is 52 years old and has a history of hypertension. His cholesterol level is 235. He states his job is very stressful and he is recently going through a divorce. He admits to being overweight and has an inactive lifestyle. His father died of a stroke at age 60. He is worried about having a heart attack and/or stroke and wishes to change his lifestyle. Among other advice, the nurse encourages the patient to eat more cold-water fish such as salmon. Explain why eating more fish would be of benefit for this patient. Answer: The omega-3 fatty acids in cold-water fish lower the proportions of both saturated fats and cholesterol, make blood platelets less sticky, thus helping to prevent spontaneous clotting that can block blood vessels and they also appear to lower blood pressure. Section: 23.8 Learning Outcome: 23.25 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 24 The Urinary System 24.1 Matching Questions

Figure 24.1 Using Figure 24.1, match the following: 1) Glomerulus. Answer: C Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) Afferent arteriole. Answer: A Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Collecting duct. Answer: B Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Nephron loop. Answer: E Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Peritubular capillaries. Answer: D Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Structure most closely associated with granular cells. Answer: A Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which label marks a structure at the medulla of the kidney? Answer: E Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2 .


Figure 24.2 Using Figure 24.2, match the following: 8) Podocyte. Answer: B Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Is composed of simple squamous epithelium. Answer: A Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3 .


10) Collecting duct cells. Answer: C Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Proximal convoluted tubule cells. Answer: E Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Filtrate at the site of these cells is about the same osmolarity as blood plasma. Answer: E Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Cells that are the most active in reabsorbing the filtrate. Answer: E Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Cells that reabsorb virtually all the nutrients. Answer: E Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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15) Cells that are most affected by ADH. Answer: C Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Almost no water is absorbed in these cells. Answer: D Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Blood supply that directly receives substances from the tubular cells B) Site at which most of the tubular reabsorption occurs C) Site of filtrate formation D) Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule 17) Proximal convoluted tubule. Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Glomerulus. Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Peritubular capillaries. Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Collecting duct. Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) D

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Match the following: A) Peritubular capillaries B) Glomerular capillaries C) Efferent arterioles D) Afferent arterioles E) Vasa recta 21) Low pressure, porous vessels that reabsorb solutes and water from the tubule cells. Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) High pressure vessel that forces fluid and solutes into the glomerular capsule. Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) May form meandering vessels or bundles of long straight vessels. Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Play a role in urine concentration. Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Fenestrated vessels that allow passage of all plasma elements but not blood cells. Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) E 25) B

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Match the following: A) Net filtration pressure B) Glomerular filtration rate C) Hydrostatic pressure in the capsular space D) Colloid osmotic pressure in glomerular capillaries E) Hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries 26) Glomerular blood pressure. Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The pressure exerted by filtrate in the glomerular capsule. Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Volume of filtrate formed each minute. Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) Outward pressures minus the inward pressures. Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Pressure exerted by the proteins in the blood that "sucks" water into the capillary. Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 26) E 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) D

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Match the following: A) Urethra B) Kidney C) Ureter D) Urinary Bladder 31) Filters nearly 200 liters of fluid from the bloodstream to form urine while returning needed substances to the blood. Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Tubes that transfer urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder. Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Smooth, collapsible, muscular sac that stores urine temporarily. Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Tube that drains urine from the bladder and conveys it out of the body. Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) A

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24.2 True/False Questions 1) If the GFR is too low, needed substances may pass so quickly through the renal tubules that they are not absorbed and instead are lost in the urine. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.3 Learning Outcome: 24.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) In the kidneys, the countercurrent mechanism involves the interaction between the flow of filtrate through the nephron loop of the juxtamedullary nephrons (the countercurrent multiplier) and the flow of blood through the limbs of adjacent blood vessels (the countercurrent exchanger). This relationship establishes and maintains an osmotic gradient extending from the cortex through the depths of the medulla that allows the kidneys to vary urine concentration dramatically. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The path urine takes after it is formed until it leaves the body is the urethra, urinary bladder, and finally the ureter. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Water reabsorption through the proximal convoluted tubule is termed obligatory water reabsorption, whereas water reabsorption through the distal convoluted tubule is termed facultative water reabsorption. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) The position of the kidneys behind the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity is described by the term retroperitoneal. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.1 Learning Outcome: 24.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The entire responsibility for urine formation lies with the nephron. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.3 Learning Outcome: 24.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Both the male and female urethras serve both the urinary and the reproductive systems. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The act of emptying the bladder is called voiding. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Glomerular filtration is an ATP-driven process. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) In the absence of hormones, the distal tubule and collecting ducts are relatively impermeable to water. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) The collecting duct is impermeable to water in the presence of ADH. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The urethra contains an internal sphincter of smooth muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) High blood pressure triggers granular cells of the juxtaglomerular complex to release renin. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Aldosterone is a hormone that causes the renal tubules to reclaim sodium ions from the filtrate. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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15) Blood pressure in the renal glomerulus is lower than in most parts of the body in order to conserve body water. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) The proximal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Salt is actively transported out of the filtrate in the nephron loop. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.7 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Incontinence is the inability to control voluntary micturition. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The myogenic mechanism reflects the tendency of vascular smooth muscle to stretch. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20) An excessive urine output is called anuria. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Tubular secretion is effective in controlling blood pH. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.6 Learning Outcome: 24.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The trigone is so named because of the shape of the urinary bladder. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Atrial natriuretic peptide inhibits sodium reabsorption. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The macula densa cells are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in the urea content of the filtrate. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Blood in the urine may be a symptom of bladder cancer. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Obligatory water reabsorption involves the movement of water along an osmotic gradient. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Atop each kidney is an adrenal gland, an endocrine gland that is functionally unrelated to the kidney. Answer: TRUE Section: 24.1 Learning Outcome: 24.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Cortical nephrons are responsible for producing concentrated urine. Answer: FALSE Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the best explanation for why the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) contain so many mitochondria? A) A great deal of active transport takes place in the PCT. B) Cells of the PCT go through a great deal of mitosis. C) Contraction of the PCT moves filtrate through the tubule. D) This provides the energy needed to fight kidney infection. Answer: A Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15 .


2) What is the best explanation for the microvilli on the apical surface of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)? A) Their movements propel the filtrate through the tubules. B) They increase the surface area and allow for a greater volume of filtrate components to be reabsorbed. C) They hold on to enzymes that cleanse the filtrate before reabsorption. D) They increase the amount of surface area that comes in contact with the blood's plasma to help actively excrete toxins. Answer: B Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) The thin segment of the nephron loop's descending limb ________. A) helps to pack a greater number of nephron loops into a smaller space B) is easily broken and replaced often C) aids in the passive excretion of nitrogenous waste D) aids in the passive movement of water out of the tubule Answer: D Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The relatively long half-life of lipid-soluble hormones (steroid hormones) compared to watersoluble hormones is due in part to the way that these hormones are passed into the filtrate from the glomerular capillaries. From the list below select the best explanation for why lipid-soluble (steroid) hormones have a relatively long half-life. A) Steroid hormones travel in the plasma on large transport proteins that cannot pass through the filtration membrane. B) The large size of the steroid hormones prevents them from passing through the filtration membrane. C) Steroid hormones are absorbed by target cells before they can reach the kidneys. D) The relatively small size of steroid hormones allows them to easily pass back into the peritubular capillaries if released into the filtrate. Answer: A Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) The presence of protein in the urine indicates which of the following? A) too much protein in the diet B) high levels of transcription and translation by the bodies tissues C) damage to the filtration membrane D) damage to the renal tubules Answer: C Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Hydrostatic pressure is the primary driving force of plasma through the filtration membrane into the capsular space. All but one of the following statements reflects why hydrostatic pressure is so high in the glomerular capillaries. Select the one statement that does NOT explain the high pressure within the glomerular capillaries. A) The diameter of the efferent arteriole is smaller than the afferent arteriole. B) The efferent arteriole has higher resistance to blood flow than the afferent arteriole. C) The flow of blood is reduced as blood reaches the efferent arteriole. D) The volume of plasma in the efferent arteriole is higher when compared to the afferent arteriole. Answer: D Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) Cells and transport proteins are physically prevented from passing through the filtration membrane. This has the following effect on filtration. A) increased osmotic pressure in the filtrate that draws plasma through the membrane B) decreased osmotic pressure in the filtrate that increases the amount of filtration C) increasing osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries that reduces the amount of filtration D) neutral change in osmotic pressure with no effect on filtration Answer: C Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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8) If the diameter of the afferent arterioles leading to the glomerulus increases (vasodilation), which of the following is NOT likely to occur? A) Glomerular filtration rate will increase. B) Net filtration pressure will increase. C) Urine output will increase. D) Systemic blood pressure will go up. Answer: D Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 9) If the diameter of the efferent arterioles leading away from the glomerulus increases (vasodilation), which of the following is NOT likely to occur? A) Glomerular filtration rate will decrease. B) Net filtration pressure will decrease. C) Urine output will decrease. D) Systemic blood pressure will decrease. Answer: D Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) If the diameter of the afferent arterioles leading to the glomerulus decreases (vasoconstriction), which of the following is NOT likely to occur? A) Glomerular filtration rate will decrease. B) Net filtration pressure will decrease. C) Urine output will decrease. D) Systemic blood pressure will decrease. Answer: D Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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11) If the diameter of the efferent arterioles leading away from the glomerulus decreases (vasoconstriction), which of the following is NOT likely to occur? A) Glomerular filtration rate will increase. B) Net filtration pressure will increase. C) Urine output will increase. D) Systemic blood pressure will go up. Answer: D Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) If the glomerular mesangial cells contract, reducing the overall surface area of the glomerulus, which of the following is NOT likely to occur? A) Glomerular filtration rate will decrease. B) Systemic blood pressure will be lowered. C) Urine output will decrease. D) Net filtration rate will decrease. Answer: B Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) If blood pressure drops very low (MAP is below 80mmHg) renin enzyme will be secreted by granular cells. Which of the following is NOT likely to occur? A) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) will decrease. B) Net filtration pressure (NFP) will decrease. C) Blood plasma and extracellular fluids volume will increase. D) Kidney perfusion will increase. Answer: D Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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14) Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the intrinsic and extrinsic controls of the kidney? A) Extrinsic and intrinsic controls work in nearly opposite ways. B) Extrinsic controls have the greatest effect on systemic blood pressure while intrinsic controls have a greater effect on GFR. C) Extrinsic controls will reduce blood plasma volume while intrinsic controls will increase blood plasma volumes. D) Intrinsic controls raise blood pressure while extrinsic controls lower blood pressure. Answer: B Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 15) Reabsorption of nutrients like glucose and amino acids takes place in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) via cotransporters that utilize secondary active transport. Which of the following would stop the reabsorption of glucose at the apical surface of the cells in the PCT? A) increasing Na+ concentration in the filtrate B) increasing Na+ in the interstitial fluid C) loss of Na+-K+ ATPase in the basolateral surface of PCT cells D) loss of K+ leak channels at the apical surface Answer: C Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) Bulk flow of nutrients, ions and water into the peritubular capillaries is the result of all of the following EXCEPT one. Select the answer below that does NOT describe a cause of bulk flow of fluids into the peritubular capillaries. A) increased resistance to blood flow at the efferent arteriole B) lower hydrostatic pressure in the peritubular capillary C) higher osmotic pressure in the peritubular capillary D) leaky tight junctions of peritubular capillary's endothelium Answer: D Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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17) The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the ________. A) nephron loop B) glomerular filtration membrane C) collecting duct D) distal convoluted tubule Answer: A Section: 24.7 Learning Outcome: 24.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following is NOT associated with the renal corpuscle? A) a podocyte B) a vasa recta C) a fenestrated capillary D) an efferent arteriole Answer: B Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________. A) decrease in the production of ADH B) increase in the production of ADH C) increase in the production of aldosterone D) decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma Answer: B Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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20) The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium. A) transitional B) simple squamous C) stratified squamous D) pseudostratified columnar Answer: A Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________. A) when the peritubular capillaries are dilated B) when the pH of the urine decreases C) by a decrease in the blood pressure D) when the specific gravity of urine rises above 1.10 Answer: C Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of the choices below is NOT a function of the urinary system? A) helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood B) regulates blood glucose levels and produces hormones C) maintains blood osmolarity D) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat Answer: D Section: 24.1 Learning Outcome: 24.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney. A) lobar B) arcuate C) interlobar D) cortical radiate Answer: B Section: 24.1 Learning Outcome: 24.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22 .


24) The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it ________. A) has a basement membrane B) is impermeable to most substances C) is drained by an efferent arteriole D) has a blood pressure much lower than other organ systems Answer: C Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The descending limb of the nephron loop ________. A) is not permeable to water B) is freely permeable to sodium and urea C) pulls water by osmosis into the lumen of the tubule D) contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla Answer: D Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Select the correct statement about the ureters. A) Ureters contain sphincters at the entrance to the bladder to prevent the backflow of urine. B) The epithelium is stratified squamous like the skin, which allows a great deal of stretch. C) The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract. D) The ureter is innervated by parasympathetic nerve endings only. Answer: C Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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27) The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________. A) ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently B) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position C) is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys D) produces vitamin D and other chemicals needed by the kidney Answer: B Section: 24.1 Learning Outcome: 24.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The renal corpuscle is made up of ________. A) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus B) the descending nephron loop C) the renal pyramid D) the renal papilla Answer: A Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________. A) nephron B) nephron loop C) glomerular capsule D) capsular space Answer: A Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Which of the following does NOT describe the juxtaglomerular complex? A) It regulates the rate of filtrate formation. B) It helps control systemic blood pressure. C) Its granular cells produce rennin. D) Its macula densa cells produce aldosterone. Answer: D Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24 .


31) The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________. A) the ionic electrochemical gradient B) protein-regulated diffusion C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure) D) the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries Answer: C Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)? A) the stretching of the bladder wall B) motor neurons C) the pressure of the fluid in the bladder D) the sympathetic efferents Answer: A Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) The filtration membrane includes all EXCEPT ________. A) glomerular endothelium B) podocytes C) renal fascia D) basement membrane Answer: C Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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34) The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________. A) active transport B) osmosis C) filtration D) cotransport with sodium ions Answer: B Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) The glomerular capsular space contains ________. A) urine B) blood C) filtrate D) plasma Answer: C Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) The macula densa cells respond to ________. A) aldosterone B) antidiuretic hormone C) changes in pressure in the tubule D) changes in Na+ content of the filtrate Answer: D Section: 24.1 Learning Outcome: 24.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) Which of the following is NOT reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule? A) Na+ B) K+ C) glucose D) creatinine Answer: D Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26 .


38) The fluid in glomerular capsule is similar to plasma EXCEPT that it does NOT contain a significant amount of ________. A) glucose B) hormones C) electrolytes D) plasma protein Answer: D Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it ________. A) is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells B) increases the rate of glomerular filtration C) increases secretion of ADH D) inhibits the release of ADH Answer: D Section: 24.7 Learning Outcome: 24.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) The function of angiotensin II is to ________. A) constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure B) decrease the production of aldosterone C) decrease arterial blood pressure D) decrease water absorption Answer: A Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) An important physical characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ________. A) the same as water B) slightly higher than water C) much higher than water D) less than water Answer: B Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body. 1. major calyx 2. minor calyx 3. nephron 4. urethra 5. ureter 6. collecting duct A) 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4 B) 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 C) 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4 D) 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4 Answer: D Section: 24.1 Learning Outcome: 24.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Select the correct statement about the nephrons. A) The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium. B) The glomerulus is correctly described as the proximal end of the proximal convoluted tubule. C) Podocytes are the branching epithelial cells that line the tubules of the nephron. D) Filtration slits are the pores that give fenestrated capillaries their name. Answer: A Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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44) What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal? A) Net filtration would increase above normal. B) Net filtration would decrease. C) Filtration would increase in proportion to the increase in capsular pressure. D) Capsular osmotic pressure would compensate so that filtration would not change. Answer: B Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 45) Which of the following is NOT a part of the juxtaglomerular complex? A) granular cells B) macula densa C) podocyte cells D) mesangial cells Answer: C Section: 24.2 Learning Outcome: 24.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Which of the following is incorrect? A) The kidneys produce a large volume of dilute urine when overhydrated. B) The kidneys produce a small volume of concentrated urine when dehydrated. C) Urine concentration and volume are determined by countercurrent mechanisms D) The concentration of urine is lower when urine volume is reduced. Answer: D Section: 24.7 Learning Outcome: 24.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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47) Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________. A) facilitated diffusion B) passive transport C) countertransport D) secondary active transport Answer: D Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) Which of the choices below is a function of the nephron loop? A) form a large volume of very concentrated urine or a small volume of very dilute urine B) form a large volume of very dilute urine or a small volume of very concentrated urine C) absorb electrolytes actively and water by osmosis in the same segments D) absorb water and electrolytes into the tubular network Answer: B Section: 24.7 Learning Outcome: 24.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) What is the effect of antidiuretic hormone on the cells of the collecting duct? A) causes aquaporins to be inserted into the apical membranes B) triggers synthesis of more sodium channels in the apical membranes C) triggers synthesis of more potassium channels in the apical membranes D) inhibits sodium reabsorption through the apical membranes Answer: A Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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50) Which of the following hormones acting on the collecting duct is most responsible for retaining sodium ions in the blood? A) antidiuretic hormone B) parathyroid hormone C) atrial natriuretic peptide D) aldosterone Answer: D Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 51) The factor that promotes filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ________. A) colloid osmotic pressure of the blood B) glomerular hydrostatic pressure C) capsular hydrostatic pressure D) myogenic mechanism Answer: B Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) Glomerular filtration rate can be controlled by manipulating one major variable, which is ________. A) systemic blood pressure B) the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure D) activation of sympathetic nerve fibers Answer: C Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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53) If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean? A) The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out of the blood. B) Most of the glucose is filtered out of the blood and is not reabsorbed in the convoluted tubules. C) 100% of glucose is reabsorbed. D) The clearance value of glucose is relatively high in a healthy adult. Answer: C Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 54) Excretion of dilute urine requires ________. A) relative permeability of the distal tubule to water B) impermeability of the collecting tubule to water C) transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the descending nephron loop D) the presence of ADH Answer: B Section: 24.7 Learning Outcome: 24.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 55) Which of the choices below is NOT a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood pH? A) by secreting hydrogen ions into the filtrate B) by reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate ions C) by producing new bicarbonate ions D) by secreting sodium ions Answer: D Section: 24.6 Learning Outcome: 24.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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56) In the ascending limb of the nephron loop the ________. A) thin segment is freely permeable to water B) thick segment is permeable to water C) thin segment is not permeable to sodium and chloride D) thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption Answer: D Section: 24.7 Learning Outcome: 24.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 57) Except for potassium ions, tubular secretion of most unwanted substances occurs in the ________. A) proximal convoluted tubule B) nephron loop C) distal convoluted tubule D) collecting duct Answer: A Section: 24.6 Learning Outcome: 24.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? A) help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys B) help regulate blood pressure and the rate of excretion by the kidneys C) help regulate urea absorption by the kidneys D) help regulate water and electrolyte excretion by the kidneys Answer: A Section: 24.3 Learning Outcome: 24.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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59) Which of the choices below is the salt level-monitoring part of the nephron? A) macula densa B) principal cell C) vasa recta D) nephron loop Answer: A Section: 24.3 Learning Outcome: 24.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 60) Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption? A) ADH B) thyroxine C) aldosterone D) atrial natriuretic peptide Answer: A Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 61) Which of the choices below is NOT a glomerular filtration rate control method? A) renal autoregulation B) neural regulation C) electrolyte levels D) hormonal regulation Answer: C Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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62) Which of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion? A) angiotensin II and ADH B) angiotensin II and aldosterone C) angiotensin I and epinephrine D) angiotensin I and atrial natriuretic peptide Answer: B Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24.4 Short Answer Questions 1) ADH activated water channels called ________ are essential for water reabsorption in the collecting duct. Answer: aquaporins Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The presence of blood in the urine is called ________ and is an important sign of renal trauma. Answer: hematuria Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The area between the ureters and urethra that is often the location of infection is called the ________ in a bladder. Answer: trigone Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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4) The ________ mechanism is the general tendency of vascular smooth muscle to contract when stretched. Answer: myogenic Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The presence of pus in the urine is a condition called ________. Answer: pyuria Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Sodium-linked water flow across a membrane not under hormonal control is called ________ water reabsorption. Answer: obligatory Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Explain how filtration works in the glomerular capillaries. Answer: The glomerular capillaries are fenestrated, allowing fairly large molecules to pass through. The substances must pass through the basement membrane, where they are further selected for size by the filtration slits of the podocytes. Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 8) List three substances that are abnormal urinary constituents and provide the proper clinical term for such abnormalities. Answer: Abnormal urinary constituents include the following (the clinical term for each is listed in parentheses): glucose (glycosuria), proteins (proteinuria or albuminuria), ketone bodies (ketonuria), hemoglobin (hemoglobinuria), bile pigments (bilirubinuria), erythrocytes (hematuria), and leukocytes (pyuria). Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36 .


9) Explain the role of aldosterone in sodium and water balance. Answer: Aldosterone targets the distal tubule and collecting duct and enhances sodium ion reabsorption so that very little leaves the body in urine. Aldosterone also causes increased water reabsorption because, as sodium is reabsorbed, water follows it back into the blood. Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 10) Explain what is meant by the terms cotransport process and transport maximum. Answer: Cotransport process refers to the active transport of one solute "uphill" (against a concentration gradient) coupled to the "downhill" (with a concentration gradient) movement of another during tubular reabsorption. Transport maximum reflects the number of carriers in the renal tubules available to "ferry" a particular substance. Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) Humans can survive for a period of time without water thanks to the ability of the kidneys to produce concentrated urine. Briefly explain the factors that allow this to happen. Answer: Facultative water reabsorption depends on the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In the presence of ADH, the pores of the collecting tubule increase in number and the filtrate loses water by osmosis as it passes through the medullary regions of increasing osmolarity. Consequently, water is conserved and urine becomes concentrated. The water that passes through these regions is reabsorbed by the body in order to prevent dehydration. Section: 24.7 Learning Outcome: 24.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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12) List and describe three pressures operating at the filtration membrane, and explain how each influences net filtration pressure. Answer: Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the chief force pushing water and solutes across the filtration membrane. The higher the glomerular hydrostatic pressure, the more filtrate is pushed across the membrane. Colloid osmotic pressure of plasma proteins in the glomerular blood, and capsular hydrostatic pressure exerted by fluids in the glomerular capsule, drive fluids back into the glomerular capillaries. The net filtration pressure equals glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of colloid osmotic pressure of glomerular blood and capsular hydrostatic pressure. Section: 24.4 Learning Outcome: 24.5 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) What are aquaporins? Answer: Aquaporins are transmembrane proteins that form water-filled pores in waterpermeable portions of the convoluted tubules such as the PCT and collecting duct. Section: 24.5 Learning Outcome: 24.7 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 14) Freshly voided urine has very little smell, but shortly after voiding it can give off a very strong smell. Why? Answer: Freshly voided urine is relatively sterile but if it is allowed to stand, bacteria begin to metabolize the urea solutes to release ammonia and other smells depending on the person's diet. A fruity smell generally means there is a diabetes problem. Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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24.5 Clinical Questions 1) An older man sees his doctor for severe pain in his lower abdominal or flank area, elevated temperature, and nausea. Exhaustive tests rule out abdominal obstructions and infections. Plain X-rays indicate a radiopaque (whitish) spot in the area of his right ureter. Diagnose his problem. Give suggested treatment and prognosis. Answer: The symptoms indicate a kidney stone that has been passed into the ureter. Recommended treatments include IV therapy to flush the stone out, surgery, or ultrasound waves to shatter the calculi. The usual prognosis is for complete recovery. There is a possibility of kidney stones forming again. Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.15 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) What clinical effects would low blood pressure have on the kidneys of a burn patient? Answer: This patient would have a much lower glomerular hydrostatic pressure due to water losses through burned skin and would have a low GFR. This is highly dangerous, leading to failure of the nephron loop to maintain countercurrent flow, flowed by anuria. It is made worse if any muscle is burned and myoglobin in the blood exceeds its transport maximum, resulting in plugging of the tubules and death of the nephron. Often massive fluid transfusions are required to maintain blood volume, high GFR, and dilution of myoglobinuria to avoid catastrophe. Section: 24.3 Learning Outcome: 24.4 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS7, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Ellen, a 47-year-old woman who has suffered kidney disease for several years, has been diagnosed with proteinuria. Her legs and feet are so swollen that she has difficulty walking. Her hands and her left arm are also swollen. What is proteinuria, and could this condition be playing a role in her swollen limbs? Answer: Proteinuria is a condition in which the permeability of the glomerular capillaries is increased to such an extent that large amounts of plasma proteins (mostly albumin) pass into the glomerular filtrate and are excreted in the urine. If the condition is severe, the loss of plasma proteins may decrease osmotic pressure substantially. When this happens there is a tendency for fluid to leave the systemic blood vessels and enter the tissue space. This is the reason for Ellen's swollen limbs. Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.14 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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4) Rachael has been complaining of frequent and burning urination. She also reported seeing some blood in her urine. Her physician suspects cystitis. What is cystitis, and how can it cause these symptoms? Answer: It is possible that Rachael has cystitis, a condition in which the mucous membrane lining the bladder becomes swollen and bleeding occurs. This condition is caused by bacterial invasion of the bladder or by chemical or mechanical irritation. Burning on urination alone implies urethritis—inflammation of the urethra alone, but urinary frequency suggests the bladder itself is also involved, with the inflammation causing smooth muscle irritability lowering the stretch trigger point for micturition. Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.12 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) An 18-year-old patient has a complaint of painful urination, fever, chills, and back pain. This is her second urinary tract infection (UTI) within 5 months. How can the doctor instruct the patient on prevention of another UTI? Answer: Escherichia coli are normal residents of the digestive tract and generally cause no problems there, but these bacteria account for 80% of all urinary tract infections. The doctor can instruct the patient on proper hygiene measures, including wiping from front to back following urination to avoid introduction of anal bacteria, reduction in sexual activity if sexually active, and increased fluid intake to increase flushing of the urethra. The doctor should also explain that sexually transmitted infections can also inflame the urinary tract, clogging some of its ducts. Section: 24.8 Learning Outcome: 24.12 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) A 58-year-old woman complains of loss of urine when coughing and sneezing, and during exercise. She has had three children. Describe the possible causes of urinary incontinence in this patient. Answer: Stress incontinence is found most commonly in women with relaxed pelvic musculature deprived of estrogen. Stress incontinence may occur with a sudden increase in intraabdominal pressure such as coughing or sneezing, which forces urine through the external sphincter. Aging, multiple pregnancies, and obesity are risk factors in increasing the relaxation and/or pressure from above. Section: 24.9 Learning Outcome: 24.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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7) Explain how an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor) such as captopril would be effective as an antihypertensive. Answer: Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor activating smooth muscle of arterioles throughout the body, causing mean arterial blood pressure to rise. ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by interrupting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Section: Case Study Learning Outcome: 24.6 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 25 Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance 25.1 Matching Questions Match the following: A) Nonelectrolytes B) Intracellular C) Electrolytes D) Extracellular E) Interstitial 1) Dissociate into ions in water. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Do not dissociate in solution. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The main fluid compartment outside the cells. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The main fluid compartment located within the cell. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Fluid in the spaces between cells. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) E

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Match the following: A) Hyperkalemia B) Hypermagnesemia C) Hyponatremia D) Hypernatremia E) Hypocalcemia 6) Magnesium excess. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Calcium depletion. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Sodium excess. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Potassium excess. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Sodium depletion. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 6) B 7) E 8) D 9) A 10) C

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Match the following: A) Addison's disease B) Hyponatremia C) Dehydration D) Aldosterone E) Edema 11) An atypical accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Fluid loss, either the loss of water or the loss of water and solutes together. Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) A disorder entailing deficient aldosterone production by the adrenal cortex. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Regulates sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) A condition due to excessive water intake that results in net osmosis into tissue cells. This leads to severe metabolic disturbances. Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 11) E 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) B

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Match the electrolyte composition for the following: A) Intracellular fluid B) Interstitial fluid C) Blood plasma 16) The concentration of sodium ions is highest in ________. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) The concentration of potassium ions is highest in ________. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The concentration of phosphate ions is highest in ________. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The concentration of bicarbonate ions is highest in ________. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The concentration of protein anions is highest in ________. Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) A

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Match the following: A) Metabolic acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Metabolic alkalosis 21) Possibly caused by severe diarrhea or untreated diabetes mellitus. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) Possibly occurring with emphysema, extreme obesity, or narcotic overdose. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 23) Possibly caused by asthma, pneumonia, or a severe panic attack. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 24) Possibly caused by vomiting, use of diuretics, or use of antacids. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Answers: 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) D

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Match the following: A) Amphoteric molecules B) Phosphate buffer system C) Protein buffer system D) Bicarbonate buffer system E) Alkaline reserve 25) The only important ECF buffer. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) Most important buffer in ICF. Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 27) Important buffer in urine and ICF. Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 28) Proteins that can function as either an acid or a base depending on the pH of its environment. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 29) Bicarbonate ions that are available in the blood to resist changes in pH. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing Answers: 25) D 26) C 27) B 28) A 29) E

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25.2 True/False Questions 1) Adipose tissue is one of the most hydrated of all tissues in the human body. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is sodium. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Electrolytes determine most of the chemical and physical reactions of body fluids. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Solutes, regardless of size, are able to move freely between compartments because water carries them along the osmotic gradients. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The thirst center in the brain is located in the hypothalamus. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Dehydration can be caused by endocrine disturbances such as diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) It is impossible to overhydrate because people need as much water as they can drink to carry out ordinary body functions. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Water imbalance, in which output exceeds intake, causing an imbalance in body fluids, is termed dehydration. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Salts are lost from the body in perspiration and urine only. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Excessive loss of water from the extracellular fluid (ECF) leads to a rise in osmotic pressure in the ECF which causes cells to shrink as water leaves by osmosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) Although the sodium content of the body may be altered, its concentration in the ECF remains relatively stable because of immediate adjustments in water volume. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Sodium is pivotal to fluid and electrolyte balance and to the homeostasis of all body systems. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) When aldosterone release is inhibited, sodium reabsorption cannot occur beyond the distal convoluted tubule. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of sodium while enhancing potassium secretion. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Some potassium ions are reabsorbed from the kidney filtrate via type A intercalated cells, a unique population of collecting duct cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Aldosterone is secreted in response to low extracellular potassium. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) To remain properly hydrated, water intake must equal water output. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The main way the kidney regulates potassium ions is to excrete them. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Obligatory water loss occurs because humans always take in more fluids through eating and drinking than they need to maintain water balance. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Premenstrual edema may be due to enhanced reabsorption of sodium chloride. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) Heavy consumption of salt substitutes high in potassium can present a serious clinical problem when aldosterone release is not normal. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Insensible water loss includes water lost in feces. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The two hormones responsible for the regulation of calcium are pituitary hormone and calcitonin. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Calcitonin targets the bones and causes the release of calcium from storage when serum calcium levels are low. Answer: FALSE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The normal pH of blood is 7.35-7.45. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) Most acidic substances (hydrogen ions) originate as by-products of cellular metabolism. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Weak acids are able to act as chemical buffering systems for the body because they only partially dissociate. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) The phosphate buffer system is relatively unimportant for buffering blood plasma. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) The single most important blood buffer system is the bicarbonate buffer system. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) One of the most powerful and plentiful sources of buffers is the protein buffer system. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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31) As ventilation increases and more carbon dioxide is removed from the blood, the hydrogen ion concentration of the blood decreases. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Carotid artery and aortic baroreceptors are involved in long term adjustment to total body sodium ion content. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Respiratory acidosis results when lungs are obstructed and gas exchange is inefficient. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) Prolonged hyperventilation can cause alkalosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Thirst is normally triggered by hypothalamic osmoreceptors sensitive to a 1-2% increase in plasma osmolality. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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36) Blood acidity results in depression of the CNS, whereas blood alkalosis results in overexcitement of the CNS. Answer: TRUE Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The body's water volume is closely tied to the level of which of the following ions? A) calcium ions B) potassium ions C) hydrogen ions D) sodium ions Answer: D Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The term hypotonic hydration refers to ________. A) the feeling one might have after profuse sweating with exertion B) the unpleasant feeling people have after drinking too much liquor C) a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking excessive amounts of water D) a condition that is caused by high levels of sodium in the extracellular fluid compartment Answer: C Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) When antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are low, ________. A) most of the water reaching the collecting ducts is not reabsorbed B) aquaporins are inserted into the collecting duct principal cell apical membranes C) nearly all of the filtered water is reabsorbed D) a small volume of concentrated urine is excreted Answer: A Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.6 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15 .


4) Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid? A) antidiuretic hormone B) erythropoietin C) aldosterone D) renin Answer: C Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is to ________. A) enhance atrial contractions B) activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism C) prevent pH changes caused by organic acids D) reduce blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention Answer: D Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________. A) a person consumes excessive amounts of antacids B) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction C) a runner has completed a very long marathon D) the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions Answer: B Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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7) Total body water is NOT a function of which of the following? A) age B) body mass C) amount of body fat D) amount of water ingested Answer: D Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of the choices below is NOT an essential role of salts in the body? A) neuromuscular activity B) membrane permeability C) secretory activity D) anabolism of lipids Answer: D Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Which of the choices below exerts primary control over sodium levels in the body? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) water levels D) glucocorticoids Answer: B Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ________. A) plasma B) intracellular fluid C) interstitial fluid D) cerebrospinal fluid Answer: A Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17 .


11) In a car accident, Jane suffered a chest injury that resulted in impaired breathing and respiratory acidosis. How will her body compensate for this imbalance? A) Kidneys retain hydrogen ions. B) Kidneys retain bicarbonate ions. C) Kidneys eliminate bicarbonate ions. D) Kidneys eliminate carbon dioxide. Answer: B Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid. A) iron B) chloride C) potassium D) bicarbonate Answer: C Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids? A) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids B) Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids C) equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids D) little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids Answer: A Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) For bulk flow across capillary walls, ________. A) hydrostatic pressure of blood forces nearly protein-free plasma out of the blood into the interstitial space B) osmotic pressure of plasma proteins pulls fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space C) fluid runs into lymphatic capillaries that empty into the interstitial space D) hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial space returns fluid to the capillary Answer: A Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ________. A) the potassium ion content in the renal tubule cells B) the pH of the intracellular fluid C) intracellular sodium levels D) potassium ion concentration in extracellular fluid Answer: D Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Amphoteric molecules ________. A) can function as acids at low pH B) can function as bases at high pH C) can function as an acid or a base depending on the pH D) trigger pH imbalances and must be neutralized by buffers Answer: C Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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17) A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates ________. A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis Answer: A Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________. A) requires active transport B) is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces C) requires ATP for the transport to take place D) always involves filtration Answer: B Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) What hormone reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and sodium ion and water retention? A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) aldosterone C) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) D) thyroxine Answer: C Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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20) When a strong acid such as HCl is added to the carbonic acid buffer system, ________. A) carbonic acid is converted into bicarbonate B) more carbonic acid is formed C) hydrochloric acid is neutralized by sodium hydroxide D) the blood plasma pH is reduced Answer: B Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Which of the following is NOT a chemical buffer system? A) bicarbonate B) phosphate C) nitrogen D) protein Answer: C Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of the following is NOT a trigger for juxtaglomerular granular cells to release renin? A) sympathetic stimulation B) decreased filtrate NaCl concentration C) decreased stretch of the granular cells of the afferent arterioles D) increased extracellular fluid water levels Answer: D Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding fluid shifts? A) Nonelectrolytes are the controlling factor in directing fluid shifts. B) Electrolytes are not as important as proteins in regulating fluid shifts in the body. C) Electrolytes have greater osmotic power than nonelectrolytes and therefore have the greatest ability to cause fluid shifts. D) There are always more positive electrolytes than negative in a solution; it is therefore impossible to follow fluid shifts. Answer: C Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following would describe nonelectrolytes? A) inorganic salts B) organic bases C) inorganic acids D) polar covalent compounds Answer: D Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) The maintenance of the proper pH of the body fluids may be the result of ________. A) the control of respiratory ventilation B) the operation of the various buffer systems in the stomach C) the active secretion of OH- into the filtrate by the kidney tubule cells D) control of the acids produced in the stomach Answer: A Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) Which of the following is NOT a disorder of water balance? A) excessive hydration due to excess atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion B) hypotonic hydration, in which sodium content is normal but water content is high C) edema or tissue swelling, which is usually due to an increased capillary hydrostatic pressure D) excess water in interstitial spaces due to a low level of plasma proteins Answer: A Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) The regulation of sodium ________. A) is due to specific sodium receptors in the hypothalamus B) is linked to blood pressure C) involves aldosterone, a hormone that increases sodium excretion in the kidneys D) involves hypothalamic osmoreceptor detection of ion concentration Answer: B Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Blood analysis indicates a low pH, and the patient is breathing rapidly. Given your knowledge of acid-base balance, which of the following is most likely? A) respiratory acidosis B) metabolic acidosis C) metabolic alkalosis D) respiratory alkalosis Answer: B Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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29) A patient is breathing slowly, and blood pH analysis indicates an abnormally high value. What is the likely diagnosis? A) respiratory acidosis B) metabolic acidosis C) metabolic alkalosis D) respiratory alkalosis Answer: C Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 30) Which of the following is NOT a likely source of hydrogen ions in blood plasma? A) metabolism of proteins containing phosphorus B) metabolism of fats C) anaerobic metabolism of glucose D) aerobic metabolism of glucose Answer: D Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Annie has just eaten a large order of heavily salted French fries, some pickled eggs, and some cheese. How will consuming this much salt affect her physiology? A) It will cause a prolonged increase in the osmolality of the blood. B) There will be a temporary increase in blood volume. C) She will experience hypotension. D) There will be a shift in the pH of her body fluids to the higher side of the pH scale. Answer: B Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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32) The most important force causing net outward water flow across capillary walls is ________. A) osmotic pressure of plasma proteins B) hydrostatic pressure of capillary blood C) hydrostatic pressure of interstitial fluid D) intracellular hydrostatic pressure Answer: B Section: 25.1 Learning Outcome: 25.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) When the blood becomes acidic (acidosis) and bicarbonate ions have been depleted, new bicarbonate ions must be generated in the plasma. Which of the following is NOT a means for replenishing bicarbonate ions? A) Buffered hydrogen ions are excreted in urine. B) Ammonium ions are excreted in urine. C) Glutamine is metabolized by deamination, oxidation, and acidification. D) Bicarbonate ions are reclaimed by tubular reabsorption. Answer: D Section: 25.5 Learning Outcome: 25.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 34) The regulation of potassium balance ________. A) is not linked to sodium balance B) includes renal secretion, but never absorption C) is accomplished mainly by hepatic mechanisms D) involves aldosterone-induced secretion of potassium Answer: D Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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35) After completing a marathon on a particularly warm day, Dave consumes four liters of water. Soon after, he begins to feel nauseous and starts vomiting. What is likely happening to Dave? A) hyponatremia; very low extracellular sodium ion concentration B) dehydration C) hypoproteinemia; unusually low levels of plasma proteins D) obligatory water loss Answer: A Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 36) Mary finds that she regularly retains water at a certain point in the menstrual cycle. Which of the following is chemically similar to aldosterone, and like aldosterone, enhances NaCl reabsorption in the renal tubules? A) progesterone B) estrogen C) luteinizing hormone D) follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: B Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 37) Nancy is experiencing an acute panic attack. While hyperventilating, she remembers to open a paper bag and breathe into it. What is Nancy trying to prevent? A) respiratory acidosis B) metabolic alkalosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) metabolic acidosis Answer: C Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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38) If the thyroid and parathyroid glands are surgically removed, which of the following would go out of balance without replacement therapy? A) sodium ion levels B) potassium ion levels C) anion levels D) calcium ion levels Answer: D Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 39) Insufficient parathyroid hormone production in the body could result in ________. A) muscle twitching B) cardiac arrhythmia C) muscle weakness D) kidney stones Answer: A Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) In the case of edema, excess fluid is held in which fluid compartment(s)? A) interstitial fluid B) blood plasma C) intracellular fluid D) intracellular fluid and interstitial fluid Answer: A Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) Falling arterial blood pressure promotes ________. A) vasodilation B) enhanced sodium ion loss in urine C) enhanced water loss in urine D) vasoconstriction Answer: D Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) An illness causes Doug to experience severe diarrhea and an accompanying loss of bicarbonate-rich secretions. How can this metabolic acidosis be compensated? A) hypoventilation B) enhanced sodium ion loss in urine C) increased respiratory rate and depth D) increased renin secretion Answer: C Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.18 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS6 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 25.4 Short Answer Questions 1) What provides the shortest-term mechanism for preventing acid-base imbalances in the body? The longest-term mechanism? Answer: Chemical buffers, such as the bicarbonate buffer system, act within a fraction of a second to resist a pH change. The longest-term mechanism is the kidney system, which ordinarily requires from several hours to a day or more to effect changes in blood pH. Section: 25.4, 25.5 Learning Outcome: 25.14, 25.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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2) What is the effect of acidosis on the body? Of alkalosis? Answer: When the body is in acute acidosis, the nervous system becomes so severely depressed that the person goes into a coma and death soon follows. Alkalosis causes overexcitement of the nervous system. Characteristic signs include muscle tetany, extreme nervousness, and convulsions. Death often results from respiratory arrest. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Describe the mechanisms by which the kidneys remove hydrogen ions from the body. Answer: Virtually all of the H+ that leaves the body in urine is secreted into the filtrate. The tubule cells, including collecting ducts, appear to respond directly to the pH of the ECF and to alter their rate of H+ secretion accordingly. The secreted H+ ions are obtained from the dissociation of carbonic acid within the tubule cells. For each H+ ion actively secreted into the tubule lumen, one sodium ion is reabsorbed into the tubule cell from the filtrate, thus maintaining the electrochemical balance. Section: 25.5 Learning Outcome: 25.16 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Describe the influence of rising parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels on bone, the small intestine, and the kidneys. Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) activates osteoclasts that break down the bone matrix, resulting in the release of Ca2+ and PO43- to the blood. PTH enhances intestinal absorption of Ca2+ indirectly by stimulating the kidneys to transform vitamin D to its active form, which is necessary for calcium absorption by the small intestine. PTH increases the reabsorption of calcium by the renal tubules, which simultaneously decreases phosphate ion reabsorption. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.12 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS5, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) When the blood becomes hypertonic (too many solutes) due to dehydration, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released. What is the effect of ADH on the kidney tubules? Answer: The release of ADH causes the kidney tubules to reabsorb excess water, resulting in the excretion of concentrated urine. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29 .


6) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis? Answer: If the infant is uncomfortable and cries forcefully for long periods of time, this would be similar to hyperventilation. Hyperventilation would cause respiratory alkalosis because the infant is losing carbon dioxide rapidly. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) How does the respiratory system influence the buffer systems of the body? Answer: The respiratory system maintains a constant bicarbonate level in the bloodstream by outgassing carbon dioxide. In the event of a respiratory problem the CO2 to bicarbonate ratio might change, in turn changing buffering effects on pH. Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.15 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) Identify and describe the operation of the three major chemical buffers of the body. Answer: The bicarbonate buffer system (carbonic acid plus sodium bicarbonate) acts to tie up the hydrogen ions released by a strong acid, thus converting it to a weaker acid, which lowers the pH only slightly. For a strong base, the carbonic acid will be forced to donate more H+ to tie up the OH- released by the base, with the net result of replacement of a strong base by a weak one. The pH rise is very small. The phosphate buffer system, composed of the sodium salts of dihydrogen phosphate and monohydrogen phosphate, acts in a similar fashion to the bicarbonate system. NaH2PO4 acts as a weak acid; Na2HPO4 acts as a weak base. Hydrogen ions released by strong acids are tied up in weak acids; strong bases are converted to weak bases. Amino acids of the protein buffer system release H+ when the pH begins to rise by dissociating carboxyl groups, or bind hydrogen ions with amine groups to form NH3+ when the pH falls. Section: 25.4 Learning Outcome: 25.14 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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9) List and describe three stimuli that activate the hypothalamic thirst center. Answer: Hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect ECF osmolality through changes in plasma membrane stretch that result from gaining or losing water. Dry mouth resulting from increased blood osmotic pressure and reduced saliva production. A substantial decrease in blood volume or pressure, as in hemorrhage, also triggers the thirst mechanism. Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.6 Global LO: G2, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS11 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25.5 Clinical Questions 1) A patient is admitted to the hospital in complete collapse. His blood pH is 6.8, and his HCO3is 20 mEq/L. What diagnosis would you give and what prognosis? A medical history reveals that this patient is a chronic alcoholic. Answer: The pH and bicarbonate levels and the history of alcoholism indicate metabolic acidosis. With a pH below 7.0, the patient will go into a coma and death soon follows. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 2) A pregnant woman complains to her doctor that her ankles and feet stay swollen all of the time. She is very worried about this. As her doctor, what would you tell her? Answer: She is showing edema, an atypical accumulation of fluid in the spaces between cells (interstitial spaces). This is caused by her pregnancy due to a high blood volume that increases capillary hydrostatic pressure and enhances capillary permeability. She should be monitored for the edema during the pregnancy and her BP for possible pre-eclampsia, and urine should be periodically checked for proteinuria, but the edema should clear up at the end of the pregnancy once both blood volume and uterine pressure on venous return disappear. Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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3) Helen is a 62-year-old smoker. Her physician has diagnosed her as having emphysema that has caused her to hypoventilate. Surprisingly, when her blood pH is checked, it is 7.40. Why? Answer: Helen is suffering from respiratory acidosis because she is retaining too much carbon dioxide. Her shallow breathing, due to the damage to her lungs from the disease, is the cause. In order to release the carbon dioxide, one must be able to breathe normally (deep breathing would be optimal). However, because this has been a long-term problem, her kidneys have excreted greater amounts of acids while retaining HCO3-, thus providing renal compensation to her chronic respiratory acidosis. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.18 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) After traveling from Los Angeles to Denver, Claire finds she is not feeling well and checks into a clinic for help. The clinic's diagnosis is respiratory alkalosis. What has caused this problem? Answer: Respiratory alkalosis is always caused by hyperventilation. Claire is experiencing the effect of the high altitude and was overcompensating or trying to do too much the first day in Denver. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 5) A patient is 72 years old and was admitted to the hospital for severe shortness of breath and edema to her lower extremities. She was diagnosed with heart failure. A symptom of heart failure is generalized edema. Explain the finding of generalized edema in heart failure. Answer: Edema is an atypical accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space, leading to tissue swelling. Heart failure is one cause of edema. Section: 25.2 Learning Outcome: 25.8 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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6) A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the psychiatric unit for anorexia. Her body weight is 89 lbs. and height is 64 inches. She admits to frequent self-induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives. She was treated on the medical unit with intravenous fluids. Now that she is on the psychiatric unit she is experiencing fluid retention as evidenced by mild puffiness and bloating. Explain these symptoms. Answer: It is not uncommon for anorexics who are chronically fluid depleted to develop a compensatory increased production of aldosterone, which causes the kidneys to conserve sodium and water. Section: 25.3 Learning Outcome: 25.11 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) A patient's anxiety caused her to develop respiratory alkalosis. The nurse instructs the patient to take some slow deep breaths while breathing into a paper bag. Explain why this would be effective. Answer: Instructing the patient to breathe more slowly will reduce the elimination of CO2. Breathing into a paper bag will cause retention of CO2. Section: 25.6 Learning Outcome: 25.17 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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Anatomy and Physiology, 7e (Marieb/Hoehn) Chapter 26 The Reproductive System 26.1 Matching Questions

Figure 26.1 Using Figure 26.1, match the following:

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1) Spermatogonium. Answer: A Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) First cells with n number of chromosomes. Answer: D Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) Type B daughter cell. Answer: B Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Early spermatids. Answer: E Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) Primary spermatocyte. Answer: C Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 26.2 Using Figure 26.2, match the following: 6) Location of acrosome. Answer: B Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Location of mitochondria. Answer: A Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) Midpiece. Answer: A Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Location of nucleus. Answer: C Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Area of compacted DNA. Answer: C Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 11) Flagellum. Answer: D Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Figure 26.3 Using Figure 26.3, match the following: 12) The stage called ovulation. Answer: E Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Vesicular (antral) follicle. Answer: C Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) Primary follicles. Answer: B Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Primordial follicle. Answer: A Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Corpus luteum. Answer: D Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Mature follicle. Answer: C Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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Match the following: A) Anaphase II of meiosis B) Metaphase of mitosis C) Metaphase II of meiosis D) Metaphase I of meiosis E) Anaphase I of meiosis 18) Homologous chromosomes separate. Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator. Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) Chromosomes that have undergone crossing over line up individually along the spindle equator. Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21) Chromosomes that have not undergone crossing over line up individually along the spindle equator. Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) Centromeres separate. Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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23) Part of a process that produces genetically identical daughter cells. Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 18) E 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) B

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Match the following: A) Gonorrhea B) Genital warts C) Genital herpes D) Syphilis E) Chlamydia 24) Human papillomavirus. Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Treponema pallidum. Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26) Causes urethritis in males. Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Human herpes simplex virus. Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Pathogen responsible for 25-50% of all diagnosed cases of pelvic inflammatory disease. Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 24) B 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) E

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Match the following: A) Seminal gland/vesicle B) Semen C) Bulbo-urethral gland D) Prostatitis E) Prostate gland 29) Secretions from this gland account for some 70% of semen volume. Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.7, 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) Secretions from this gland play a role in activating sperm and accounts for 1/3 of semen volume. Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.7, 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31) Milky white, somewhat sticky mixture of accessory gland secretions and sperm. Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Secretions from this gland neutralize traces of acidic urine in the spongy urethra and lubricates the glans penis. Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Chronic inflammation of the prostate. Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding Answers: 29) A 30) E 31) B 32) C 33) D 10 .


26.2 True/False Questions 1) It is necessary for the testes to be kept below body temperature for abundant, viable sperm formation. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.2 Learning Outcome: 26.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) The prostate atrophies as a man ages, and it usually causes no health problems. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) When it is cold, the scrotum is pulled away from the body. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.2 Learning Outcome: 26.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) When a couple is having difficulty conceiving a child, it is necessary to investigate the sperm of the male. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 5) The amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of FSH alone. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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6) Ovarian follicles contain mature eggs. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.9 Learning Outcome: 26.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) Sexually transmitted infections are the most important cause of reproductive disorders. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The testis is divided into seminiferous tubules which contain the lobules that produce sperm and the ejaculatory duct that allows the sperm to be ejected from the body. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.2 Learning Outcome: 26.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) The smaller cell produced by oogenesis meiosis I, called the first polar body, is essentially a packet of discarded nuclear material. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) A human egg or sperm contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) The Pap smear is a test to detect cancerous changes in cells of the cervix. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) The hormone that triggers ovulation is estrogen. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 13) Ovulation occurs near the end of the ovarian cycle. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 14) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) Female orgasm is required for conception. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.16 Learning Outcome: 26.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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16) Puberty is the period of life when the reproductive organs grow to adult size and become functional. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Sustentocytes prevent sperm antigens from entering the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 18) The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase I. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) Male erection is a response to a parasympathetic reflex, and ejaculation is a response to a sympathetic reflex. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.6 Learning Outcome: 26.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) The soft mucosal lining of the uterus is the endometrium. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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21) A scrotal muscle that contracts in response to cold environmental temperature is the cremaster. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.2 Learning Outcome: 26.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 22) The secretions of the bulbourethral glands neutralize traces of acidic urine in the urethra and serve as a lubricant during sexual intercourse. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) The zona pellucida is formed as the follicle becomes a secondary follicle. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 24) The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is inhibin. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) Sperm are ejaculated from the corpora cavernosa of the penis. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.6 Learning Outcome: 26.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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26) Male testicular functions are regulated by FSH and LH. Answer: TRUE Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27) Extremely stressful physical activity in young females can result in excessive bone mass due to large amounts of estrogen production. Answer: FALSE Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following things occur during meiosis I. Select the statement below that does NOT occur during meiosis I. A) The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other. B) A single diploid (2n) nucleus has become two haploid (n) nuclei. C) The sister chromatids are separated from each other. D) Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes. Answer: C Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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2) Which of the following statements is TRUE of metaphase I of meiosis I? A) Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side. B) Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom. C) The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator. D) Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells. Answer: D Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Select the statement below that is FALSE. A) A cell undergoing meiosis results in 4 cells while a cell undergoing mitosis results in 2 cells. B) Meiosis results in haploid cells while mitosis results in diploid cells. C) Meiosis produces genetically unique cells while mitosis produces genetically identical cells. D) Meiosis occurs only after the onset of puberty while mitosis occurs throughout an entire lifetime. Answer: D Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) Select the statement which is TRUE regarding synapsis and crossing over. A) Its effects are significant in meiosis and in mitosis. B) It is a significant source of genetic variation that occurs in meiosis I and meiosis II. C) It is a significant source of genetic variation only during meiosis I. D) It only occurs in meiosis II. Answer: C Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) Select the statement which is FALSE. A) Crossing over is a source of genetic variability seen in mitosis and meiosis. B) Meiosis II is essentially the same process as mitosis except the starting cells are haploid (n). C) Meiosis II is essentially the same process as mitosis except the genetic material will not replicate before division takes place. D) Further genetic variation typically does not occur after meiosis I. Answer: A Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late spermatids. Select the answer below that does NOT reflect a difference between early and late spermatids. A) Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis. B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid. C) Early spermatids have not formed flagella. D) Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm. Answer: B Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) During spermiogenesis ________. A) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilization B) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for digestion of the excessive cytoplasm around the flagella of the developing sperm C) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its pointy shape helps the sperm to move more efficiently D) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because of its ability to propel the flagella moving the sperm through the female reproductive system towards the egg Answer: A Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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8) All but one of the events described below occur during spermiogenesis. Select the event that does NOT occur during spermiogenesis. A) Mitochondria form around the proximal end of the flagellum. They will provide the ATP to drive the motion of the flagellum. B) Excessive cytoplasm will be shed to reduce unneeded mass of the maturing sperm. C) The centrioles migrate to the posterior end of the developing sperm to form the microtubules that make up the flagellum. D) Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization. Answer: D Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) All but one of the following statements is true with regard to the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that is FALSE. A) The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis. B) The barrier prevents the spermatocytes from exposing their unique antigens to the immune system. C) The barrier marks the border between the basal compartment and the adluminal compartment. D) The cells that form the blood testis barrier are joined by tight junctions. Answer: A Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.10 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 10) Of the following statements, select the statement that is NOT true of uterine function. A) The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during childbirth. B) The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into. C) The rhythmic, reverse peristalsis of the uterus can propel sperm toward the egg. D) The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization. Answer: D Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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11) The oral contraceptive pill, informally called "the pill," contains an estrogen and progesterone, or a synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones, taken in the pill and circulating in the blood, works because ________. A) the hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide B) the hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation C) the hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the embryo will have no place to implant D) the hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg Answer: B Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.20 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 12) The diploid number of chromosomes in a human is 46. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in a primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte is ________. A) 23 B) 46 C) 92 D) 38 Answer: B Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following best describes the role they play? A) They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens. B) They regulate the temperature of the testes. C) They are responsible for penile erection. D) They contract to allow ejaculation. Answer: B Section: 26.2 Learning Outcome: 26.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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14) The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________. A) gravity B) peristaltic contractions C) enzymatic activity D) hormonal action Answer: B Section: 26.3 Learning Outcome: 26.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________. A) smoking B) a diet high in fat C) failure of the testis to make their normal descent D) sexually transmitted infections Answer: C Section: 26.2 Learning Outcome: 26.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which of the following glands are responsible for producing 70% of semen volume? A) the seminal vesicles B) the bulbourethral glands C) the prostate D) the pituitary Answer: A Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins? A) LH B) FSH C) GnRH D) testosterone Answer: C Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 21 .


18) Which of the stages of syphilis is characterized by destructive lesions of the CNS, blood vessels, bones, and skin? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) latent Answer: C Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 19) The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________. A) vesicular follicles B) uterine tubes C) infundibula D) fimbriae Answer: B Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 20) If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain? A) Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur. B) Triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to triple and normal development would not occur. C) half the diploid number with no change in development D) There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells. Answer: A Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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21) Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________. A) about the same number of each is produced per month B) they have the same degree of motility C) they have the same number of chromosomes D) they are about the same size Answer: C Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.17 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 22) The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained through ________. A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis D) DNA synthesis Answer: B Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 23) Fertilization generally occurs in the ________. A) ovary B) uterus C) vagina D) uterine tubes Answer: D Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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24) Which of the following female structures is homologous to the male scrotum? A) labia majora B) labia minora C) clitoris D) vagina Answer: A Section: 26.11 Learning Outcome: 26.15 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25) In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________. A) dizygotic B) genetically identical C) fraternal D) potentially of different sexes Answer: B Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26) Which of the following is incurable? A) gonorrhea B) genital herpes C) trichomoniasis D) syphilis Answer: B Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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27) Effects of estrogen include ________. A) increased oiliness of the skin B) deepening of the voice C) growth of the breasts at puberty D) growth of the larynx Answer: C Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 28) Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________. A) contraction of uterine muscles B) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation C) proliferation of the uterine myometrium D) development of the female secondary sex characteristics Answer: B Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.21 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 29) The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________. A) spermatocytes B) spermatogonia C) sustentacular cells D) interstitial endocrine cells Answer: D Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 30) If a woman has just ended her menstrual phase, when is she most likely to ovulate? A) within the next 4 days B) in about 10 days C) in about 14 days D) in about 24 days Answer: B Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 25 .


31) Erection of the penis results from ________. A) a sympathetic activation of bulbospongiosus muscles B) parasympathetic activation of the bulbourethral glands C) dilation of the veins in the penis D) a parasympathetic reflex that promotes release of nitric oxide Answer: D Section: 26.6 Learning Outcome: 26.9 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which is NOT a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle? A) late in this phase, cervical mucus becomes thin and crystalline B) vesicular follicle growth C) corpus luteum secretion D) development of endometrial cells Answer: C Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the choices below is NOT a function of the vagina? A) serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte B) serves as a passageway for menstrual flow C) serves as the birth canal D) receives semen from the penis during sexual intercourse Answer: A Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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34) Which of the following is TRUE of testosterone? A) Testosterone provides positive feedback on gonadotropin release. B) Testosterone is produced by interstitial endocrine cells. C) The production of testosterone is stimulated by FSH. D) The release of testosterone surges during ejaculation. Answer: B Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which of the choices below is NOT a function of testosterone? A) stimulates the male pattern of development B) contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis C) stimulates protein synthesis D) stimulates the HPG axis Answer: D Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which male hormone provides negative feedback for the secretion of FSH? A) ACTH B) inhibin C) ICSH D) GnRH Answer: B Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.12 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 37) During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, ________ reaches its highest levels. A) LH B) progesterone C) estrogen D) FSH Answer: B Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 27 .


38) Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle. A) The menstrual phase of the cycle is normally from day 1 to day 8. B) During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest. C) During the proliferative phase, levels of progesterone rise as the follicle produces more hormone. D) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo. Answer: D Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 39) Which of the choices below is NOT a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis? A) hypothalamus B) anterior pituitary gland C) thalamus D) interstitial cells Answer: C Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 40) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the mammary glands of both males and females? A) Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer. B) All lumps identified in breast tissue are malignant. C) The only time hormones target breast tissue is during pregnancy and lactation. D) The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are part of the integumentary system. Answer: D Section: 26.12 Learning Outcome: 26.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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41) Normally menstruation occurs when ________. A) blood levels of FSH fall off B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease C) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase D) the corpus luteum secretes estrogen Answer: B Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 42) The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________. A) during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced B) the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n C) in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced from the parent cell, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell D) spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only Answer: C Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 43) Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise? A) There were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared. B) One is an undeveloped primary oocyte that failed to mature. C) The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies. D) What you really see are two polar bodies and the sperm that will fertilize the egg. Answer: C Section: 26.13 Learning Outcome: 26.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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44) Which of the following will occur immediately after ovulation? A) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only. B) The endometrium enters its secretory phase. C) The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced. D) The corpus luteum becomes a corpus albicans. Answer: B Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 45) Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation? A) There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system. B) There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by testosterone buildup in the blood. C) The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes. D) Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex that activates urinary contraction muscles. Answer: C Section: 26.3 Learning Outcome: 26.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 46) Spermatogenesis ________. A) is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule B) involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes C) results in the formation of diploid cells D) involves a two-part process called mitosis I and mitosis II Answer: B Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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47) Which hormone is the necessary trigger for ovulation to occur? A) LH B) FSH C) progesterone D) estrogen Answer: A Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 48) The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis ________. A) involves the release of testosterone from the anterior pituitary B) involves FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary C) involves posterior pituitary release of two regulating hormones D) involves positive feedback control of spermatogenesis Answer: B Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.2 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 49) Which of the following does NOT occur in both the male and female sexual response? A) Blood flow to genital structures increases. B) A refractory period follows orgasm. C) Blood pressure and heart rate increase. D) Muscles of structures in the reproductive duct contract rhythmically. Answer: B Section: 26.16 Learning Outcome: 26.22 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 50) Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes? A) The ampulla is the narrow constricted region. B) The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary. C) The isthmus is the normal site of fertilization. D) The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length. Answer: B Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 31 .


51) Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle. A) Rising levels of estrogen start follicle development. B) High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release. C) The follicle begins to secrete progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation. D) The LH surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte. Answer: B Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.19 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 52) Which of these statements about sexually transmitted infections is FALSE? A) Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that can often be asymptomatic or bring on a wide variety of symptoms. B) Gonorrhea is caused by a bacterium that can bring on painful discharges in males. C) Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated. D) Genital herpes is caused by a virus that may cause intermittent lesions. Answer: C Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 53) Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is NOT true? A) The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte. B) The primary spermatocyte forms two secondary spermatocytes. C) The secondary spermatocytes each form two spermatids. D) Each spermatid forms two sperm. Answer: D Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.11 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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54) A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________. A) be unable to produce viable sperm B) not develop secondary sex characteristics C) be impotent (unable to have an erection) D) have impaired function of interstitial cells Answer: A Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.2 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 55) A patient with trichomoniasis, if they have any symptoms at all, will most likely exhibit which of the following? A) pink rash all over the body B) yellow-green vaginal discharge and strong odor C) painful lesions on the genitals D) sterility Answer: B Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 56) A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________. A) decreased testosterone secretion B) excessive beard growth C) increased spermatogenesis D) shrinkage of the anterior pituitary gland Answer: A Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.12 Global LO: G2, G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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57) All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true EXCEPT ________. A) FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium B) estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle C) the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation D) a decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation Answer: A Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 58) Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously? A) maximal LH secretion and menstruation B) maximal steroid secretion by the corpus luteum and menstruation C) early follicular development and the secretory phase in the uterus D) regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion Answer: D Section: 26.15 Learning Outcome: 26.20 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 59) The duct system of the male reproductive system includes all but which of the following? A) epididymis B) urethra C) ductus deferens D) corpus spongiosum Answer: D Section: 26.3 Learning Outcome: 26.5 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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60) Prostate cancer is ________. A) the number one cause of death in men B) sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient C) most common in Asians D) often the result of a distortion of the urethra Answer: B Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.7 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 26.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The ________ plexus of testicular veins assists in cooling the testis. Answer: pampiniform Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 2) Surgical cutting of the ductus deferens as a form of birth control is called a(n) ________. Answer: vasectomy Section: 26.3 Learning Outcome: 26.3 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 3) The erectile tissue around the urethra is the corpus ________. Answer: spongiosum Section: 26.1 Learning Outcome: 26.1 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 4) The midpiece of the sperm tail contains mostly ________. Answer: mitochondria Section: 26.6 Learning Outcome: 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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5) The ________ of the testis nourish the newly formed sperm cells. Answer: sustenocytes Section: 26.6 Learning Outcome: 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 6) The suspensory ligament and mesovarium are part of the ________ ligament. Answer: broad Section: 26.9 Learning Outcome: 26.13 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 7) A follicle with only a small antrum in it would be classified as a(n) ________ follicle. Answer: secondary Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.18 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 8) The portion of the uterine endometrium that is not sloughed off every month is called the ________. Answer: stratum basalis Section: 26.14 Learning Outcome: 26.17 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 9) Treponema pallidum causes the sexually transmitted disease called ________. Answer: syphilis Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding

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10) What are some risk factors for developing breast cancer? Answer: Some of the risk factors for developing breast cancer are: (1) early onset of menses and late menopause; (2) first pregnancy late in life or no pregnancies at all; (3) familial history of breast cancer; (4) postmenopausal hormone replacement. Section: 26.12 Learning Outcome: 26.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 11) What is the name given to the female homologue to the penis? Answer: The female clitoris is homologous to the glans penis of the male. It is homologous in that it contains dorsal erectile columns and can become swollen with blood during tactile stimulation. Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 12) Describe the composition and functional roles of semen. Answer: Semen is a fluid mixture of sperm and accessory gland secretions (prostate, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands). The liquid provides a transport medium for nutrients and contains chemicals that protect the sperm and facilitate their movements. Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 13) Explain the function of the myometrium and endometrium. Answer: The myometrium plays an active role during childbirth when it contracts rhythmically to force the baby out of the mother's body. The endometrium is the innermost lining of the uterus that nourishes the embryo from the time of implantation until delivery. Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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14) What is the purpose of the male bulbourethral gland? Answer: Because it releases its contents prior to ejaculation, its function is probably to neutralize the acids in the urethra and for lubrication to help the initiation of intercourse. Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.8 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 1-2: Remembering/Understanding 15) What is the physiological importance of the fact that the male testes descend to reside in the scrotal sac? Answer: The male testes descend into the scrotal sac so that a fairly constant intrascrotal temperature is maintained. Failure of the testes to descend results in sterility, because production of viable spermatozoa requires a temperature several degrees lower than normal body temperature, and also increases the incidence of testicular cancer. Section: 26.2 Learning Outcome: 26.4 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 16) Ovulation occurs when the oocyte is released into the peritoneal cavity. By what means does it usually enter the uterine tube? Answer: Fimbriae, which drape over the ovary, become very active close to the time of ovulation and their cilia create currents in the peritoneal fluid. These currents usually carry the oocyte to the uterine tube, where it begins its journey toward the uterus. Section: 26.10 Learning Outcome: 26.14 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 26.5 Clinical Questions 1) Teresa has been complaining of severe abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and a low-grade fever. What might be the doctor's diagnosis, and how should the condition be treated? Answer: The symptoms sound like pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs, especially the uterus, uterine tubes, or ovaries. PID at one time was most commonly caused by the bacterium that causes gonorrhea, but any bacterium can trigger the infection. Early treatment should include antibiotics (doxycycline or a cephalosporin). Section: 26.17 Learning Outcome: 26.23 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 38 .


2) A 38-year-old male is upset about his low sperm count and visits a "practitioner" who commonly advertises his miracle cures of sterility. The practitioner is a quack who treats conditions of low sperm count with megadoses of testosterone. Although his patients experience a huge surge in libido, their sperm count is even lower after hormone treatment. Explain why. Answer: Megadoses of testosterone would inhibit hypothalamic release of GnRH and may act directly on the anterior pituitary to inhibit gonadotropin (FSH ) release. Spermatogenesis is inhibited in the absence of FSH stimulation. Section: 26.8 Learning Outcome: 26.12 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 3) Debbye and her husband have been trying to conceive for two years, but have not been successful. They seek treatment for infertility, and the doctor recommends checking her husband's sperm quality and quantity. What could the problem be? Answer: In the past 50 years, there has been a decline in male fertility. Some believe the culprit is foreign molecules that have invaded our lives, such as environmental toxins, phthalates (oily solvents that make plastics flexible), pesticides, and herbicides. These estrogen-like compounds block the action of male sex hormones. Other causes for male infertility include the use of common antibiotics, radiation, lead, marijuana, and excessive alcohol use. It may also be caused by defects in calcium channels, hormonal imbalances, and oxidative stress. Section: 26.7 Learning Outcome: 26.12 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 4) Based on your knowledge of how the prostate encircles part of the urethra, what are two clinical manifestations of an enlarged prostate? Answer: Awakening at night to void caused by incomplete bladder emptying from an enlarging prostate; a small urinary stream; hesitancy in starting the urinary stream; dribbling at the end of voiding. Section: 26.5 Learning Outcome: 26.7 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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5) A woman, whose family history contains severe osteoporosis, asked her doctor to prescribe estrogen after she reached menopause to reduce her risk of osteoporosis. The doctor refused to provide long-term estrogen replacement therapy. Why? Answer: The risk of breast cancer is proportional to a woman's lifetime exposure to estrogens. It would be better for her to find alternative treatments to reduce her risk of osteoporosis than to increase her risk of breast cancer from long-term estrogen supplementation. Section: 26.12 Learning Outcome: 26.16 Global LO: G7 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 6) Explain the action of drugs like sildenafil (Viagra) on the male reproductive system. Answer: Sildenafil and other similar drugs enhance the effect of nitric oxide on the reproductive tissues. Nitric oxide relaxes smooth muscle in the blood vessels of the penis, dilating the vessels and allowing erectile tissues to fill with blood. This enhanced action of engorging the corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosum enhances and prolongs erections. Section: 26.6 Learning Outcome: 26.9 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing 7) What are some possible complications a patient may have after a radical mastectomy? Answer: The entire breast is removed along with underlying muscles, fascia, and associated lymph nodes. Therefore, the patient might experience lymphedema related to edema on the operative side. The patient may also experience problems with arm function due to the removal of muscles. The patient might experience muscle shortening and decreased muscle tone of other muscles on the affected side. Section: 26.12 Learning Outcome: 26.16 Global LO: G2, G7, G8 HAPS LO: HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS6, HAPS11 Bloom's: 3-4: Applying/Analyzing

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