Human Diseases, 6th Edition Test Bank by Ace Test Banks

Human Diseases, 6th Edition Neighbors TannehillJones Test Bank

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases 1. Medications, education, and nutritional modifications are all examples of which of the following? a. diagnoses b. complications c. prognoses d. treatment interventions ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A diagnosis is the identification of a disease or condition, not a way to deal with it. b. Incorrect. A complication is the onset of a second disease or disorder, not a way to deal with it. c. Incorrect. A prognosis is the expected outcome of the disease or condition, not a way to deal with it. d. Correct. Medications, nutritional modifications, and education are all treatment interventions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:01 AM 2. Which of the following is a preventive treatment? a. physical therapy b. surgery c. medication d. mammograms ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Preventive treatments are done before a problem develops. Physical therapy is prescribed after a problem is defined. b. Incorrect. Preventive treatments are done before a problem develops. Surgery is performed after a problem is defined. c. Incorrect. Preventive treatments are done before a problem develops. Medication is prescribed after a problem is defined. d. Correct. Mammograms are for early detection of tumors to prevent the advancement of disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.3 - Describe the standard precaution guidelines for disease prevention. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:03 AM 3. The holistic medicine concept considers which of the following aspects of being? a. psychological b. spiritual Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases c. Cognitive d. psychological, spiritual, and cognitive ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Holistic medicine includes the psychological aspect of being, but others are listed. b. Incorrect. Holistic medicine includes the spiritual aspect of being, but others are listed. c. Incorrect. Holistic medicine includes the cognitive aspect of being, but others are listed. d. Correct. Holistic medicine considers the psychological, spiritual, and cognitive aspects of being.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:04 AM 4. An example of an acute illness is: a. asthma. b. arthritis. c. a sore throat. d. diabetes mellitus. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Asthma is a chronic illness. b. Incorrect. Arthritis is a chronic illness. c. Correct. A sore throat is an example of an acute illness. d. Incorrect. Diabetes mellitus is a chronic illness. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.2 - Discuss the pathogenesis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:05 AM 5. An example of an acute disease is: a. heart disease. b. a middle ear infection. c. low back pain. d. hypertension. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Heart disease is a chronic disease. b. Correct. A middle-ear infection is an acute disease. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases c. Incorrect. Low back pain is a chronic disease. d. Incorrect. Hypertension is a chronic disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.2 - Discuss the pathogenesis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:09 AM 6. A derangement or abnormality of function, such as a vitamin deficiency, is called a what? a. syndrome b. disease c. disorder d. pathogen ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Syndrome refers to a group of symptoms, which might be caused by a specific disease but might also be caused by several interrelated problems. b. Incorrect. Disease may be called a change in structure or function that is considered to be abnormal within the body, or it may be defined as any change from normal. c. Correct. Disorder is defined as a derangement or abnormality of function.

d. Incorrect. Microorganisms or agents that cause disease are called pathogens. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:10 AM 7. The alteration of homeostasis, the state of sameness, is the underlying concept of what term? a. disease b. disorder c. syndrome d. pathogenesis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Disease may be called a change in structure or function that is considered to be abnormal within the body, or it may be defined as any change from normal. b. Incorrect. Disorder is defined as a derangement or abnormality of function.

c. Incorrect. Syndrome refers to a group of symptoms, which might be caused by a specific disease but might also be caused by several interrelated problems. d. Incorrect. The pathogenesis is a description of how a particular disease progress.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:11 AM 8. What type of pathologist studies biopsies? a. academic b. anatomic c. clinical d. surgical ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An academic pathologist focuses on teaching. b. Incorrect. An anatomic pathologist focuses on clinical examinations. c. Incorrect. A clinical pathologist focuses on laboratory examinations. d. Correct. A surgical pathologist studies biopsies. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:12 AM 9. What is the role or subject of focus for a pathologist in the field of hematology? a. antibodies b. blood c. microorganisms d. postmortem ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An immunologist studies antigen and antibodies. b. Correct. A hematologist studies blood. c. Incorrect. A microbiologist studies microbiology. d. Incorrect. An autopsy pathologist performs postmortems. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:12 AM 10. A cold progresses through the stages of inoculation, incubation, full-blown illness, and recovery. This process is known as the cold’s: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases a. etiology b. pathogenesis c. prognosis d. idiopathy ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. The etiology of a disease means the study of cause. b. Correct. The pathogenesis is a description of how a particular disease progresses. c. Incorrect. A prognosis is the expected outcome of the disease or condition.

d. Incorrect. If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is called idiopathic. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.2 - Discuss the pathogenesis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:13 AM 11. How would the pathogenesis of a disease that lasts for an extended period, such as heart disease, be classified? a. acute b. chronic c. iatrogenic d. idiopathic ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An acute disease is short term and usually has a sudden onset. b. Correct. If the disease lasts for an extended period or the healing process is progressing slowly, it is classified as a chronic condition. c. Incorrect. Iatrogenic means that the problem arose from a prescribed treatment, and it refers to the etiology, rather than the pathogenesis, of the disease. d. Incorrect. If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is called idiopathic, and it refers to the etiology, rather than the pathogenesis, of the disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.2 - Discuss the pathogenesis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:15 AM 12. In terms of pathogenesis, which of the following would be a chronic condition? a. gastroenteritis b. hypertension c. laceration d. pneumonia ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Gastroenteritis is short term and usually has a sudden onset. b. Correct. Since hypertension lasts for an extended period, it is classified as a chronic condition. c. Incorrect. A laceration is short term and usually has a sudden onset.

d. Incorrect. Pneumonia is short term and usually has a sudden onset. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.2 - Discuss the pathogenesis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:16 AM 13. A patient had hip-replacement surgery, and while in the hospital, contracted COVID-19. Which term describes the cause of the illness? a. etiologic b. iatrogenic c. idiopathic d. nosocomial ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Etiology is the study of cause. b. Incorrect. Iatrogenic means that the problem arose from a prescribed treatment. c. Incorrect. Idiopathic means the cause is unknown.

d. Correct. Nosocomial implies that the disease was acquired from a hospital environment.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:16 AM 14. If a disease arises as a result of a prescribed treatment, the cause is said to be what? a. etiologic b. iatrogenic c. idiopathic d. nosocomial ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Etiology is the study of cause. b. Correct. Iatrogenic means that the problem arose from a prescribed treatment. c. Incorrect. Idiopathic means the cause is unknown. d. Incorrect. Nosocomial implies that the disease was acquired from a hospital environment. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:18 AM 15. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends that you wash your hands before doing which of the following to avoid getting sick and spreading germs? a. preparing food b. handling a face mask c. changing a diaper d. touching animals ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The CDC recommends washing your hands before eating or preparing food. b. Incorrect. While it may be wise to wash your hands before handling a face mask, the CDC recommendation is to do so afterward. c. Incorrect. The CDC recommends washing your hands after changing a diaper.

d. Incorrect. The CDC recommends washing your hands after touching animals. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.3 - Describe the standard precaution guidelines for disease prevention. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:18 AM 16. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends that you scrub your hands for how long to avoid getting sick and spreading germs? a. 10 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 30 seconds d. 60 seconds ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Ten seconds is not long enough. b. Correct. The CDC suggests that to wash your hands properly, scrub your hands for at least 20 seconds. c. Incorrect. Thirty seconds is longer than the CDC recommends.

d. Incorrect. Sixty seconds is longer than the CDC recommends. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.3 - Describe the standard precaution guidelines for disease prevention. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 12:38 AM 11/26/2022 4:20 AM

17. Which of the following predisposing factors is controllable? a. age b. Heredity c. Lifestyle d. Sex ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Some risk factors are controllable, whereas others, such as age, are not. b. Incorrect. Some risk factors are controllable, whereas others, such as heredity, are not. c. Correct. Some risk factors, such as lifestyle behaviors, are controllable, whereas others, such as age, are not. d. Incorrect. Some risk factors are controllable, whereas others, such as sex, are not.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.4 - Identify the predisposing factors to human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:20 AM 18. Which of the following is true regarding age as a risk factor for disease? a. The older a person gets, the higher the risk for chronic diseases such as cancer and heart disease. b. Newborns are at the least risk because their immune systems have not been compromised by the environment. c. Older persons are at a relatively low risk because their immune systems are fully developed. d. Beginning in early teens, a female’s risk for a difficult or problem pregnancy will progressively increase throughout her life. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The older we become, the higher the risk for diseases such as cancer, heart disease, stroke, senile dementia, and Alzheimer’s disease. b. Incorrect. Newborns are at risk of disease because their immune systems are not fully developed. c. Incorrect. Older persons are at risk because their immune systems are degenerating. d. Incorrect. Girls in their early teens and women over the age of 30 are at high risk for a difficult or problem pregnancy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.4 - Identify the predisposing factors to human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:21 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases 19. Which of the following is more prevalent in women than in men? a. gout b. lung cancer c. Parkinsonism d. rheumatoid arthritis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Gout occurs more often in men. b. Incorrect. Lung cancer occurs more often in men. c. Incorrect. Parkinsonism occurs more often in men. d. Correct. Some disorders or diseases, including osteoporosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and breast cancer, occur more often in women.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.4 - Identify the predisposing factors to human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:23 AM 20. Which of the following is an example of the lifestyle factor of poor nutrition that is a risk factor for disease? a. eating excessive fat b. not consuming enough salt c. eating too much fiber d. consuming excessive fruits ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Poor nutrition includes consuming excessive fat, salt, and sugar and not enough fruits, vegetables, and fiber. b. Incorrect. Poor nutrition includes consuming excessive salt.

c. Incorrect. Poor nutrition includes not consuming enough fiber. d. Incorrect. Poor nutrition includes not consuming enough fruits. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.4 - Identify the predisposing factors to human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:24 AM 21. What is a diagnosis? a. the onset of a second disease or disorder b. the expected outcome of the disease or condition c. the identification or naming of a disease or condition d. the study of the cause of a disease or disorder ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. A complication is the onset of a second disease or disorder. b. Incorrect. A prognosis is the expected outcome of the disease or condition. c. Correct. Diagnosis is the identification or naming of a disease or condition. d. Incorrect. The etiology of a disease means the study of cause.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:26 AM 22. The expectation that a laceration should heal in 7 to 10 days is what? a. the diagnosis b. the etiology c. the pathogenesis d. the prognosis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diagnosis is the identification or naming of a disease or condition. b. Incorrect. The etiology of a disease means the study of cause. c. Incorrect. The pathogenesis is a description of how a particular disease progresses. d. Correct. A prognosis is the expected outcome of the disease or condition.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:28 AM 23. Which of the following is a symptom of a disease? a. fever b. vomiting c. stomach pain d. elevated blood pressure ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Fever is a sign, not a symptom. b. Incorrect. Vomiting is a sign, not a symptom. c. Correct. Symptoms are what patients report as their problems, and they can include stomach pain. d. Incorrect. Elevated blood pressure is a sign, not a symptom.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:28 AM 24. If a physician is using the skill of auscultation during a physical examination, what is the physician doing? a. using a stethoscope to listen to body cavities b. feeling lightly or pressing firmly on internal organs or structures c. tapping over various body areas to produce a vibrating sound d. taking the patient’s temperature and blood pressure ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Auscultation means using a stethoscope to listen to body cavities. b. Incorrect. Feeling lightly or pressing firmly on internal organs or structures is called palpation. c. Incorrect. Tapping over various body areas to produce a vibrating sound is called percussion. d. Incorrect. Auscultation is not taking the patient’s temperature and blood pressure.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.6 - Describe some common tests used to diagnose disease states. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:30 AM 25. If the physician is tapping over various body areas to produce a vibrating sound, what skill is the physician using? a. auscultation b. exacerbation c. palpation d. percussion ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Auscultation means using a stethoscope to listen to body cavities. b. Incorrect. Exacerbation refers to a time when symptoms of a chronic disease flare up or become worse. c. Incorrect. Feeling lightly or pressing firmly on internal organs or structures is called palpation. d. Correct. Tapping over various body areas to produce a vibrating sound is called percussion.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases 26. What is a CBC? a. an examination of blood for cell counts and abnormalities b. an examination of urine for abnormalities c. X-ray examination of the chest cavity d. a procedure for recording the electrical activity of the heart ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A complete blood count (CBC) is an examination of blood for cell counts and abnormalities. b. Incorrect. A urinalysis (UA) is an examination of urine for abnormalities.

c. Incorrect. A chest X-ray (CXR) is an X-ray examination of the chest cavity. d. Incorrect. An electrocardiography (ECG or EKG) is a procedure for recording the electrical activity of the heart.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.6 - Describe some common tests used to diagnose disease states. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:32 AM 27. What period of a chronic disease is a time when symptoms are temporarily resolved? a. exacerbation b. mortality c. remission d. treatment ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Exacerbation refers to a time when symptoms flare up or become worse. b. Incorrect. Mortality is defined as the quality of being mortal, that is, destined to die. c. Correct. Remission refers to a time when symptoms are diminished or temporarily resolved. d. Incorrect. Treatment is the plan of care.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:33 AM 28. Diseases that commonly lead to the death of an individual are said to have a high rate of what? a. exacerbation b. complication c. mortality Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases d. remission ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Exacerbation refers to a time when symptoms flare up or become worse. b. Incorrect. A complication is the onset of a second disease or disorder in an individual who is already affected with a disease. c. Correct. Mortality is defined as the quality of being mortal, that is, destined to die. Diseases commonly leading to the death of an individual have a high mortality rate. d. Incorrect. Remission refers to a time when symptoms are diminished or temporarily resolved.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:34 AM 29. When a physician includes survival rate as part of a prognosis, what is the physician considering? a. the percentage of people with the disease who live for a set time b. the likelihood of the patient going into remission c. the number of people who die with the disease d. the impact of a second disease or disorder on the original prognosis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The survival rate is the percentage of people with a particular disease who live for a set time. b. Incorrect. Remission refers to a time when symptoms are diminished or temporarily resolved. c. Incorrect. The mortality rate of a disease (also called death rate) is related to the number of people who die with the disease in a certain amount of time. d. Incorrect. A complication is the onset of a second disease or disorder in an individual who is already affected with a disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:34 AM 30. What type of medicine considers the whole person rather than just the physical being? a. diagnostic b. holistic c. idiopathic d. prognostic ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. A diagnosis is the identification of a disease or condition, and is not a type of medicine. b. Correct. The concept of considering the whole person rather than just the physical being is called holistic medicine. c. Incorrect. If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is called idiopathic. This is not a type of medicine. d. Incorrect. A prognosis is the expected outcome of the disease or condition, not a type of medicine.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:35 AM 31. What type of treatment is aimed at preventing pain and discomfort? a. holistic b. interventive c. palliative d. preventive ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The concept of considering the whole person rather than just the physical being is called holistic medicine. b. Incorrect. Treatment interventions aim to cure the disease.

c. Correct. Palliative treatment is aimed at preventing pain and discomfort but does not seek to cure the disease. d. Incorrect. In preventive treatment, care is given to prevent disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:36 AM 32. A patient with end-term cancer has opted for palliative treatment. What does that mean? a. The patient wants treatment aimed at preventing pain and discomfort. b. The patient wants treatment that focuses on the interaction of the spiritual, cognitive, social, physical, and emotional being. c. The patient wants to try a broad range of interventions to cure the disease. d. The patient wasn’t to undergo a wide range of screening. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Palliative treatment is aimed at preventing pain and discomfort but does not seek to cure the disease.

b. Incorrect. This is a description of holistic medicine, rather than palliative treatment. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases c. Incorrect. Palliative treatment does not seek to cure the disease. d. Incorrect. Screening is part of preventive, not palliative, care. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:38 AM 33. Bioethics is a branch of ethics concerned specifically with what? a. life decisions b. medical decisions c. relationships between physicians and patients d. relationships among physicians ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Bioethics is a branch of ethics concerned with what is right or wrong in bio (life) decisions. Because bioethics is a study of life ethics, it covers or becomes entwined with medical ethics. b. Incorrect. It covers or becomes entwined with medical ethics, but it does not specifically address medical decisions. c. Incorrect. Medical ethics includes the values and decisions in medical practice, including relationships to patients. d. Incorrect. Medical ethics includes the values and decisions in medical practice, including relationships to peer physicians.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:47 AM 34. Participation in ethical decision making requires members to follow some basic rules, which can include which of the following? a. listening with an open mind to all opinions b. allowing the discussion to go in many directions c. limiting the number of ideas presented d. choosing only one or two of the ideas to evaluate ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. One basic rule is listening with an open mind to all opinions. b. Incorrect. One basic rule is to keep the discussion focused. c. Incorrect. One basic rule is to entertain diverse ideas. d. Incorrect. One basic rule is to weigh out the pros and cons of each idea. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:49 AM 35. What are microorganisms that cause disease called? a. disorders b. etiologies c. pathogens d. syndromes ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A disorder is a derangement or abnormality of function. b. Incorrect. The etiology of disease means the study of cause. c. Correct. Microorganisms or agents that cause disease are called pathogens. d. Incorrect. Syndrome refers to a group of symptoms. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:50 AM 36. A sprained ankle takes a very long time to heal, and the ankle may now be prone to repeated injury. In terms of pathogenesis, it would be described as what? a. acute b. chronic c. holistic d. palliative ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An acute disease is short term. b. Correct. If the disease lasts for an extended period or the healing process is progressing slowly, it is classified as a chronic. c. Incorrect. The concept of considering the whole person is called holistic medicine. d. Incorrect. Palliative is a type of treatment that is aimed at preventing pain and discomfort.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.2 - Discuss the pathogenesis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:51 AM

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases 37. What type of test would be ordered to measure the sugar levels in blood? a. blood glucose b. complete blood count (CBC) c. urinalysis (UA) d. electrocardiography ((ECG or EKG) ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Blood glucose is a test of the blood to determine its glucose or sugar levels. b. Incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) is an examination of blood for cell counts and abnormalities. c. Incorrect. A urinalysis (UA) is an examination of urine for abnormalities.

d. Incorrect. An electrocardiography (ECG or EKG) is a procedure for recording the electrical activity of the heart.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.6 - Describe some common tests used to diagnose disease states. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:58 AM 38. What type of diagnostic examination shows detailed images of body structures and organs? a. chest X-ray (CXR) b. computerized axial tomography (CT or CAT) c. electrocardiography ((ECG or EKG) d. serum electrolytes ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A chest X-ray (CXR) is an X-ray examination of the chest cavity. b. Correct. Computerized axial tomography (CT or CAT) is an examination showing detailed images of body structures and organs.

c. Incorrect. An electrocardiography (ECG or EKG) is a procedure for recording the electrical activity of the heart. d. Incorrect. Serum electrolytes is an examination of blood serum to determine the levels of the common electrolytes (sodium, potassium, chloride, and carbon dioxide).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.6 - Describe some common tests used to diagnose disease states. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 4:59 AM 39. What type of diagnostic test determines the levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and carbon dioxide in the blood? a. complete blood count (CBC) b. electrocardiography ((ECG or EKG) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases c. serum electrolytes d. urinalysis (UA) ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) is an examination of blood for cell counts and abnormalities. b. Incorrect. An electrocardiography (ECG or EKG) is a procedure for recording the electrical activity of the heart. c. Correct. Serum electrolytes is an examination of blood serum to determine the levels of the common electrolytes (sodium, potassium, chloride, and carbon dioxide). d. Incorrect. A urinalysis (UA) is an examination of urine for abnormalities.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.6 - Describe some common tests used to diagnose disease states. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:00 AM 40. After feeling better for a while, a patient with a chronic disorder is experiencing a flare-up of symptoms. This patient is now going through a period of what? a. complication b. exacerbation c. prognosis d. remission ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A complication is the onset of a second disease or disorder in an individual who is already affected by a disease. b. Correct. Exacerbation refers to a time when symptoms flare up or become worse. c. Incorrect. A prognosis is the expected outcome of the disease or condition.

d. Incorrect. Remission refers to a time when symptoms are diminished or temporarily resolved.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:01 AM 41. An individual had a bone graft in preparation for a tooth implant, and the area became infected. This is an example of what? a. complication b. exacerbation c. remission d. mortality Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. A complication is the onset of a second disease or disorder in an individual who is already affected by a disease. b. Incorrect. Exacerbation refers to a time when symptoms flare up or become worse. c. Incorrect. Remission refers to a time when symptoms are diminished or temporarily resolved. d. Incorrect. Mortality is defined as the quality of being mortal, that is, destined to die.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:02 AM 42. Most acute diseases are related to what? a. cancer b. a syndrome c. blood pressure d. the respiratory system ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cancer does not have a sudden onset nor last a short amount of time. b. Incorrect. A syndrome does not have a sudden onset nor last a short amount of time. c. Incorrect. One of the most common chronic diseases is hypertension, or high blood pressure. d. Correct. An acute disease is one that usually has a sudden onset and lasts a short amount of time (days or weeks). Most acute diseases are related to the respiratory system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:02 AM 43. During an examination, when the physician is presses firmly on internal organs or structures, what skill is the physician using? a. auscultation b. exacerbation c. palpation d. percussion ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Auscultation means using a stethoscope to listen to body cavities. b. Incorrect. Exacerbation refers to a time when symptoms of a chronic disease flare up or become worse. c. Correct. Feeling lightly or pressing firmly on internal organs or structures is called palpation. d. Incorrect. Tapping over various body areas to produce a vibrating sound is called percussion.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.6 - Describe some common tests used to diagnose disease states. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:04 AM 44. Which of the following is a sign of a disease? a. nausea b. headache c. stomach pain d. elevated temperature ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Nausea is a symptom, not a sign. b. Incorrect. Headache is a symptom, not a sign. c. Incorrect. Stomach pain is a symptom, not a sign. d. Correct. Signs are what the physician sees or measures. Examples of signs could include vomiting, elevated blood pressure, and elevated temperature.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:05 AM 45. What is the difference between signs and symptoms? a. Signs are observable or measurable, while symptoms are what the patient reports. b. Symptoms are observable or measurable, while signs are what the patient reports. c. Signs are acute, while symptoms are chronic. d. Symptoms are acute, while signs are chronic. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Signs are observable or measurable, while symptoms are what the patient reports. b. Incorrect. Patients report symptoms, and physicians measure signs.

c. Incorrect. The terms acute and chronic are not used to distinguish signs from symptoms. d. Incorrect. The terms acute and chronic are not used to distinguish signs from Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases symptoms.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:10 AM 46. What is a syndrome? a. a derangement or abnormality of function b. a disease that is short term and has a sudden onset c. a disease that lasts for a long time or has a slow healing process d. a group of symptoms which might be caused by a specific or by several interrelated problems ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Disorder is defined as a derangement or abnormality of function. b. Incorrect. An acute disease is a disease that is short term and has a sudden onset. c. Incorrect. A chronic disease is one that lasts for a long time or has a slow healing process. d. Correct. Syndrome refers to a group of symptoms, which might be caused by a specific disease but might also be caused by several interrelated problems.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:11 AM 47. When the cause of a disease is unknown, the cause is classified as what? a. etiologic b. iatrogenic c. idiopathic d. nosocomial ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Etiology is the study of cause. b. Incorrect. Iatrogenic means that the problem arose from a prescribed treatment.

c. Correct. Idiopathic means the cause is unknown. d. Incorrect. Nosocomial implies that the disease was acquired from a hospital environment.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:13 AM 48. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends that you wash your hands after doing which of the following to avoid getting sick and spreading germs? a. using the restroom b. eating food c. preparing food d. touching your face ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The CDC recommends washing your hands after using the restroom. b. Incorrect. The CDC recommends washing your hands before eating food. c. Incorrect. The CDC recommends washing your hands before preparing food. d. Incorrect. The CDC recommends washing your hands before touching your face.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.3 - Describe the standard precaution guidelines for disease prevention. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:14 AM 49. What advice does the CDC give regarding handwashing after touching blood, body fluids, or both? a. Wash your hands with an antimicrobial soap. b. Use hand sanitizer rather than washing your hands. c. Wash your hands with a moisturizing soap. d. Wear gloves to avoid the need to wash your hands. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Wash your hands after touching blood, body fluids, or both, even if gloves are worn; use an antimicrobial soap.

b. Incorrect. Wash your hands with soap, not just hand sanitizer. c. Incorrect. This is not the type of soap recommended by the CDC. d. Incorrect. Wash your hands after touching blood, body fluids, or both, even if gloves are worn.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.3 - Describe the standard precaution guidelines for disease prevention. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:15 AM 50. What is the role of an anatomic pathologist? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases a. to teach b. to do research c. to conduct clinical examinations d. to perform laboratory examinations ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An academic pathologist focuses on teaching. b. Incorrect. An experimental pathologist does research. c. Correct. An anatomic pathologist focuses on clinical examinations. d. Incorrect. A clinical pathologist focuses on laboratory examinations. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:15 AM 51. Which of the following terms refers to a condition that is caused by medical treatment? a. iatrogenic b. idiopathic c. healthcare-associated infection (HAI) d. etiology ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A medical condition or disease caused by medical treatment is classified as iatrogenic. b. Incorrect. Idiopathic refers to a disease of unknown cause.

c. Incorrect. An infection acquired in a medical setting is referred to as an HAI. d. Incorrect. Etiology is a term that means the study of the cause of a disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:16 AM 52. Which of the following is the main purpose of palliative care? a. to cure cancer b. extend life c. lessen pain d. prevent future cancers ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Palliative care is not intended to cure cancer. b. Incorrect. Palliative care is also not intended to extend life. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases c. Correct. Palliative care, sometimes called comfort care, intends to decrease pain and discomfort. d. Incorrect. Palliative care is not preventative.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.3 - Describe the standard precaution guidelines for disease prevention. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:18 AM 53. Which patient’s condition or disease is most likely categorized as acute? a. hypertension b. arthritis c. gastroenteritis d. asthma ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. In nearly all cases, hypertension is a chronic condition. b. Incorrect. Arthritis is not a short-term condition with a sudden onset. c. Correct. Gastroenteritis is a short-term condition with a sudden onset and thus is classified as an acute condition or disease. d. Incorrect. Asthma is usually a chronic condition that flares up periodically.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.4 - Identify the predisposing factors to human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:18 AM 54. How is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) classified? a. iatrogenic b. idiopathic c. healthcare-associated infection (HAI) d. etiology ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Iatrogenic diseases or conditions are caused by medical treatment. b. Correct. SLE, while it may be affected by environmental or hormonal factors, is a disease of unknown, or idiopathic, cause. c. Incorrect. HAIs are infections that occur due to medical treatment or procedures. d. Incorrect. Etiology is simply the study of the cause of a disease.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:20 AM 55. Which diagnostic test is most likely to demonstrate abnormalities with bone marrow or blood cell formation? a. complete blood count b. electrocardiogram c. chest x-ray d. CT scan ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A complete blood count includes the numbers of white blood cells and red blood cells, which would likely be abnormal with bone marrow abnormalities. b. Incorrect. An electrocardiogram records the electrical activity of the heart.

c. Incorrect. A chest X-ray may demonstrate lung infections but does not directly diagnose bone marrow or blood abnormalities. d. Incorrect. A CT scan may be used to check for an enlarged spleen or lymph nodes or other disorders of organs, but it isn’t the best diagnostic test for bone marrow or blood cell formation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.2 - Discuss the pathogenesis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:20 AM 56. Which patient’s condition or disease is most likely categorized as chronic? a. gastroenteritis b. pneumonia c. middle ear infections d. arthritis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Gastroenteritis is an acute disease with a sudden onset. b. Incorrect. Pneumonia is an acute disease with a sudden onset. c. Incorrect. Most middle ear infections are not chronic, but acute. d. Correct. Arthritis is a chronic condition, with a gradual onset. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.4 - Identify the predisposing factors to human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:22 AM 57. Which concept considers and treats the whole person, instead of just the physical being? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases a. nutritional modifications b. holistic c. preventive d. palliative ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Nutritional modification is one treatment modification. b. Correct. Holistic medicine considers the patient’s physical being, as well as spiritual, cognitive, social, and emotional aspects. c. Incorrect. Preventative medicine attempts to prevent disease.

d. Incorrect. Palliative treatment is intended to lessen pain and discomfort. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:23 AM 58. Which of the following terms means the predicted outcome of a disease? a. diagnosis b. pathogenesis c. etiology d. prognosis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diagnosis is the identification of a disease. b. Incorrect. The development of a disease is pathogenesis. c. Incorrect. Etiology is the study of the cause of disease. d. Correct. Prognosis is a term that means the predicted outcome of a disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of human diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:24 AM 59. Which of the following terms refers to using a stethoscope to listen to body cavities? a. percussion b. palpation c. auscultation d. observation ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Percussion involves tapping over the body to produce a vibrating sound. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Human Diseases b. Incorrect. Palpation may be used to press firmly on an abdomen to check for abnormalities. c. Correct. Using a stethoscope to listen to the body cavities is auscultation.

d. Incorrect. Carefully looking at the patient for signs of pain or distress is observation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.3 - Describe the standard precaution guidelines for disease prevention. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:25 AM 60. Which of the following diseases is more likely to affect men than women? a. breast cancer b. gout c. rheumatoid arthritis d. osteoporosis ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Breast cancer is more likely to affect women than men. b. Correct. Compared to women, men are more likely to have gout. c. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis affects women more often than men. d. Incorrect. Osteoporosis affects more women than men. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 1.5 - Explain the difference between the diagnosis and the prognosis of a disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/26/2022 5:26 AM

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease 1. Which of the following statements regarding chromosomal and genetic abnormalities is accurate? a. Chromosomal and genetic abnormalities are not necessarily lethal. b. Chromosomal abnormalities are always incompatible with life, but genetic abnormalities are generally not lethal. c. Chromosomal and genetic abnormalities are always incompatible with life. d. Chromosomal abnormalities are generally not lethal, but genetic abnormalities are always incompatible with life. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Numerous conditions are congenital due to chromosomal and genetic abnormalities, but they are not necessarily lethal. b. Incorrect. Chromosomal abnormalities are not necessarily lethal.

c. Incorrect. Neither chromosomal nor genetic abnormalities are necessarily lethal. d. Incorrect. Genetic abnormalities are not necessarily lethal.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:05 PM 2. Which of the following is accurate regarding the relationship between inflamed and infected tissue? a. Infected tissue is not usually inflamed. b. Inflammation is always a sign of infection. c. Tissue can be inflamed but not infected. d. There is no relationship between the presence of inflammation and infection. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Infected tissue is usually also inflamed. b. Incorrect. A tissue can be inflamed without being infected. c. Correct. A tissue can be inflamed but not infected, but usually, infected tissue will also be inflamed. d. Incorrect. While inflammation does not necessarily indicate infection, infected tissue is usually also inflamed.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:08 PM 3. Obesity leads to cardiovascular diseases because it increases the chance for what? a. hypertrophy b. increased pressure on the skeletal system c. autoimmunity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease d. arteriosclerosis ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Hypertrophy is a type of cell adaptation that leads to an increase in tissue and organ size. b. Incorrect. Obesity affects the individual’s risk for developing bone or joint problems due to the increased pressure on the skeletal system. c. Incorrect. Autoimmunity is an immune response disorder.

d. Correct. Obesity shortens the life span of the individual by increasing the chance for arteriosclerosis, leading to cardiovascular diseases.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.2 - Describe the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:09 PM 4. Individuals who consume large amounts of vitamins for extended periods of time may develop what? a. hypertrophy b. hypervitaminosis c. hyperplasia d. autoimmunity ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the cell, leading to an increase in tissue and organ size. b. Correct. Hypervitaminosis develops in people who consume large amounts of vitamins for extended periods. c. Incorrect. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number that is commonly due to hormonal stimulation. d. Incorrect. Autoimmunity is an immune system disorder in which the immune system attacks itself.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.2 - Describe the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:11 PM 5. Immunodeficiency is the immune response of the body being unable to defend itself due to what? a. a decrease or absence of leukocytes, primarily lymphocytes b. an increase of leukocytes, primarily lymphocytes c. an inability to identify its own self-antigens d. the formation of antibodies by the lymphocytes ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Immunodeficiency is the immune response of the body being unable to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease defend itself due to a decrease or absence of leukocytes, primarily lymphocytes. b. Incorrect. Immunodeficiency is the immune response of the body being unable to defend itself due to a decrease, rather than an increase, of leukocytes. c. Incorrect. In autoimmunity, the body’s lymphocytes cannot identify the body’s own self-antigens, which are harmless. d. Incorrect. In autoimmunity, the lymphocytes form antibodies that then attack the body’s own cells.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5 - Compare the various types of impaired immunity. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:12 PM 6. Which of the following is true regarding the aging process? a. The aging process is neither progressive nor irreversible. b. The aging process is progressive and reversible. c. The aging process is not progressive and is irreversible. d. The aging process is progressive and irreversible. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The aging process is both progressive and irreversible. b. Incorrect. The aging process is not reversible. c. Incorrect. The aging process is both progressive and irreversible. d. Correct. The aging process is not completely understood, but it is progressive and irreversible.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6 - Identify the basic changes in the body occurring in the aging process. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:13 PM 7. What change in the aging process may lead to osteoporosis? a. decreased immunity b. decreased melanin pigment production c. bone loss d. loss of brain and nerve cells ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Decreased immunity may lead to an increase in infections. b. Incorrect. Decreased melanin pigment production may lead to graying of the hair. c. Correct. Bone loss may lead to osteoporosis.

d. Incorrect. A loss of brain and nerve cells may lead to senile dementia. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6 - Identify the basic changes in the body occurring in the aging process. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:15 PM 8. What is true of the relationship between the lethal nature of diseases and aging? a. Diseases that are not lethal during the younger years would also not be lethal for older individuals. b. Diseases that are not lethal during the younger years could be the cause of death in older individuals. c. Diseases that are lethal during the younger years tend to be less likely to be lethal for older individuals. d. Diseases that are not lethal for older individuals tend to be more lethal during the younger years. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Older individuals are more susceptible to death from illness that are not lethal in younger years. b. Correct. Diseases that are not lethal during the younger years could be the cause of death in older individuals. c. Incorrect. Diseases that are lethal in the younger years would most likely also be lethal for older individuals. d. Incorrect. Diseases tend to become more lethal as one ages, rather than less so.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:16 PM 9. At what point is a person considered to be brain dead? a. when both the heart and lungs stop functioning b. when both the brain and heart stop functioning c. when the heart stops functioning d. when the brain stops functioning ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The function of neither the heart nor lungs is a criteria for determining brain death. b. Incorrect. The function of the heart is not a criteria for determining brain death.

c. Incorrect. The function of the heart is not a criteria for determining brain death. d. Correct. When the brain ceases to function, the individual is considered brain dead.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 2:36 AM 11/29/2022 11:17 PM

10. Redness, pain, swelling, and warm to the touch are all symptoms of what? a. inflammation b. infection c. malignancy d. cachexia ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Symptoms of inflammation include redness, pain, swelling, and warm to the touch. b. Incorrect. These symptoms do not necessarily mean that there is an infection.

c. Incorrect. A malignant tumor would not exhibit these symptoms. d. Incorrect. Cachexia describes a person who has in ill, thin, wasted appearance. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:21 PM 11. Hereditary diseases are classified in which of the following ways? a. single gene normality b. abnormality of several genes c. absence of a partial chromosome d. polychromosomal ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Single gene abnormality is a possible classification, rather than single gene normality. b. Correct. Hereditary diseases can be classified under single gene abnormality, abnormality of several genes, or abnormality of a chromosome. c. Incorrect. Abnormality of a chromosome is either the entire absence of a chromosome or the presence of an additional chromosome. d. Incorrect. Hereditary diseases can be classified under single gene abnormality, abnormality of several genes, or abnormality of a chromosome.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:48 AM 12. Congenital means: a. “begins in childhood.” Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease b. “begins at puberty.” c. “born with.” d. “begins in middle age.” ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Congenital does not mean “begins in childhood.” b. Incorrect. Congenital does not mean “begins at puberty.” c. Correct. Congenital means “born with.” d. Incorrect. Congenital does not mean “begins in middle age.”

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:24 PM 13. An example of a single-gene hereditary disease is: a. gout. b. hypertension. c. Down syndrome. d. cystic fibrosis. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Gout is a polygenic hereditary disease. b. Incorrect. Hypertension is a polygenic hereditary disease. c. Incorrect. Down syndrome is a chromosomal hereditary disease. d. Correct. Cystic fibrosis is a single-gene hereditary disease POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:26 PM 14. Classifications of trauma include: a. motor vehicle accidents. b. adenoma. c. polygenic. d. neoplasm/tumor. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Motor vehicle accidents is a classification of trauma. b. Incorrect. Adenoma is an example of a neoplasm/tumor. c. Incorrect. Polygenic is a classification of hereditary disease. d. Incorrect. A neoplasm is a new growth, and the word tumor means “swelling.” Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:27 PM 15. An example of triage, in general, is giving priority care to a patient who: a. has ear pain. b. has a small laceration on the forehead. c. complains of crushing, radiating chest pain. d. has low back pain. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A patient with ear pain needs attention but would not be the priority. b. Incorrect. A patient with a small laceration on the forehead needs attention but would not be the priority.

c. Correct. Crushing, radiating chest pain would be a priority. It may indicate the person is having a heart attack (myocardial infarction) and needs immediate care. d. Incorrect. A patient with low back pain needs attention but would not be the priority.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:28 PM 16. Signs of inflammation include: a. redness b. being cool to the touch c. bruising d. fever ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A sign of inflammation includes redness. b. Incorrect. A sign of inflammation includes being warm to the touch, not cool. c. Incorrect. Inflammation will often involve redness or swelling, but not bruising. d. Correct. Fever is not a sign of inflammation. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:48 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease DATE MODIFIED:

11/29/2022 11:29 PM

17. Nutrition administered through the enteral route includes which of the following methods? a. TPN b. subcutaneous c. gastrostomy d. intravenous ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. TPN is given intravenously. Enteral refers to the small intestine. b. Incorrect. Subcutaneous means “into the fatty tissue.” Enteral refers to the small intestine. c. Correct. The enteral route would include a gastrostomy tube. A gastrostomy tube is passed through an opening through the abdomen into the stomach. d. Incorrect. Intravenous is “into the vein.” Enteral refers to the small intestine.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:31 PM 18. Cachexia describes: a. a well-nourished individual. b. an overweight individual. c. an ill, thin individual. d. an ill, overweight individual. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cachexia does not describe a well-nourished individual. b. Incorrect. Cachexia does not describe an overweight individual. c. Correct. Cachexia is a term used to describe any individual who has an ill, thin, wasted appearance. d. Incorrect. Cachexia does not describe an overweight individual.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:32 PM 19. General guidelines for a healthy lifestyle include which of the following? a. maintaining body weight b. consuming excessive alcohol c. limiting fiber consumption Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease d. skipping breakfast ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Maintaining body weight at a healthy level is one of the guidelines for a healthy lifestyle. b. Incorrect. Consuming excessive alcohol is not a guideline for a healthy lifestyle.

c. Incorrect. Eating adequate amounts of fiber is a guideline for a healthy lifestyle. d. Incorrect. Always eating breakfast is a guideline for a healthy lifestyle. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4 - Describe behaviors important to a healthy lifestyle. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:33 PM 20. The aging process is affected by hereditary factors such as: a. lifestyle. b. ability to resist disease. c. stress. d. dietary choices. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lifestyle affects the aging process, but it is not a hereditary factor. b. Correct. Ability to resist disease is one of the hereditary factors that affects aging. c. Incorrect. Stress affects the aging process, but it is not a hereditary factor.

d. Incorrect. Diet affects the aging process, but it is not a hereditary factor. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6 - Identify the basic changes in the body occurring in the aging process. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:34 PM 21. Criteria to determine brain death include: a. a normal EEG. b. a normal EKG. c. rapid respiration. d. a lack of response to stimuli. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A normal EEG would indicate normal brain activity. b. Incorrect. A normal EKG would not indicate brain death. c. Incorrect. Rapid respiration does not indicate brain death. d. Correct. A lack of response to stimuli is one criterion to determine brain death. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:35 PM 22. Examples of neoplasm include: a. colitis. b. lipoma. c. phenylketonuria. d. goiter. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Colitis is an inflammation of the colon, not a neoplasm. b. Correct. A lipoma is a neoplasm. c. Incorrect. Phenylketonuria is a single-gene hereditary disease, not a neoplasm. d. Incorrect. Goiter is a hyperplasia, not a neoplasm. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:42 PM 23. Which of the following neoplasms is benign? a. lipoma b. sarcoma c. carcinoma d. glioma ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A lipoma is a tumor made of fat (adipose) tissue and is not malignant. b. Incorrect. A sarcoma is malignant. c. Incorrect. A carcinoma is malignant. d. Incorrect. A glioma is malignant. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:43 PM 24. Which of the following is true of obesity? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease a. It leads to cardiovascular diseases. b. It lengthens one’s life span. c. It reduces pressure on the skeletal system. d. It decreases the chance for arteriosclerosis. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Obesity increases the chance for arteriosclerosis, leading to cardiovascular diseases. b. Incorrect. Obesity does not lengthen one’s life.

c. Incorrect. Obesity increases the pressure on the skeletal system. d. Incorrect. Obesity increases the chance for arteriosclerosis, leading to cardiovascular diseases.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4 - Describe behaviors important to a healthy lifestyle. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:44 PM 25. When the immune response is hypersensitive to an environmental substance, the individual has what? a. an allergy b. a vitamin excess c. a mineral deficiency d. autoimmunity ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Sensitive persons may have an intense immune, or allergic, response to an environmental substance. b. Incorrect. Vitamin excesses are not related to environmental substances.

c. Incorrect. Mineral deficiencies are not related to environmental substances. d. Incorrect. In autoimmunity, the immune response attacks itself. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5 - Compare the various types of impaired immunity. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:54 PM 26. What congenital disorder may result from a disease during pregnancy? a. sickle cell anemia b. cerebral palsy c. fetal alcohol syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Sickle cell anemia is a single-gene hereditary disease. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease b. Incorrect. Cerebral palsy is caused by a difficult delivery. c. Correct. Fetal alcohol syndrome is caused during pregnancy. d. Incorrect. Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal hereditary disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:55 PM 27. Oncology is the study of what? a. nutrition b. cancer c. infection d. gastronomy ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The Greek term for swelling is onkos, which does not relate to nutrition. b. Correct. The Greek term for swelling is onkos, which has been used to construct the word oncology, or the study of cancer. c. Incorrect. The Greek term for swelling is onkos, which does not relate to infection. d. Incorrect. The Greek term for swelling is onkos, which does not relate to gastronomy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:56 PM 28. What does malignant mean? a. caused by decreased blood flow b. enclosed in a capsule c. moving from site of origin d. usually deadly ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Ischemic refers to hypoxia caused by decreased blood flow. b. Incorrect. Something that is encapsulated is enclosed in a capsule. c. Incorrect. Metastatic means moving from site of origin. d. Correct. Malignant means deadly or progressing to death. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:57 PM 29. A benign tumor is generally easily removed because it is: a. ischemic. b. metastatic. c. encapsulated. d. malignant. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Ischemic refers to hypoxia caused by decreased blood flow. b. Incorrect. Malignant tumors are usually deadly. c. Correct. A tumor that is encapsulated is enclosed in a capsule, and thus, is easily removed. d. Incorrect. Metastatic means moving from site of origin.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:58 PM 30. What type of cancers spread from a site of origin to a secondary site in the body? a. degenerative b. metastatic c. enteral d. benign ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Degeneration refers to cellular death. b. Correct. Malignant neoplasms metastasize, or spread, from the site of origin to a secondary site in the body. c. Incorrect. Enteral refers to nutrition provided through the small intestine route.

d. Incorrect. Benign cancers have a limited growth and are usually encapsulated. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:59 PM 31. What term is used to describe providing total nutrition needed by giving nutritive liquid through the venous route? a. total parenteral nutrition Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease b. subcutaneous parenteral nutrition c. enteral nutrition d. intramuscular parental nutrition ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Providing the total nutrition needed by giving nutritive liquid through a venous (vein) route is called total parenteral nutrition (TPN). b. Incorrect. Subcutaneous means under the skin, and it is one of the parenteral routes for providing nutrition. c. Incorrect. Enteral refers to nutrition provided through the small intestine route.

d. Incorrect. Intramuscular means within muscle, and it is one of the parenteral routes for providing nutrition.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:00 AM 32. How is enteral nutrition provided? a. through the small intestine b. under the skin c. within the muscles d. through the veins ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Nutrition can be provided through an enteral (small intestine) route. b. Incorrect. Subcutaneous means under the skin and is one of the parenteral routes for providing nutrition. c. Incorrect. Intramuscular means within muscle and is one of the parenteral routes for providing nutrition. d. Incorrect. Intravenous means through the veins and is one of the parenteral routes for providing nutrition.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:00 AM 33. An area of dead cells commonly due to obstruction of arteries is called what? a. ischemia b. a neoplasm c. inflammation d. an infarct ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Ischemia is hypoxia caused by decreased blood flow. b. Incorrect. A neoplasm is a tumor. c. Incorrect. Inflammation is a protective immune response that is triggered by any type of injury or irritant. d. Correct. When necrosis occurs due to ischemia, the area of dead cells (ischemic necrosis) is called an infarct.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:01 AM 34. What is ischemia? a. a loss of all reflexes b. an alteration in necrosis in which saprophytic bacteria become involved c. hypoxia caused by decreased blood flow d. an increase in cell number ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A loss of all reflexes is a criteria for determining brain death. b. Incorrect. A common alteration in necrosis, known as gangrene, occurs when saprophytic bacteria become involved in the necrotic tissue. c. Correct. Ischemia is hypoxia caused by decreased blood flow.

d. Incorrect. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number that is commonly due to hormonal stimulation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:02 AM 35. Diseases related to aging that involve a reduction in functional activity are called what? a. degenerative diseases b. immunodeficient diseases c. autoimmune diseases d. metastatic diseases ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Diseases related to aging are often called degenerative diseases. Tissue degeneration is a change in functional activity to a lower or lesser level. b. Incorrect. Immunodeficiency refers to the immune response being unable to defend the body. c. Incorrect. In autoimmunity, the body’s immune response attacks itself.

d. Incorrect. Metastatic refers to cancers that spread from the site of origin to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease secondary site in the body.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6 - Identify the basic changes in the body occurring in the aging process. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:03 AM 36. Nutrition administered through the parenteral route includes which of the following methods? a. nutritional supplements in a liquid drink b. intramuscular c. nasogastric tube d. gastrostomy ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Parenteral means to administer by injection. A liquid drink is not parenteral. b. Correct. Parenteral means to administer by injection, and it can be subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous. c. Incorrect. Parenteral means to administer by injection. A nasogastric tube is routed through the small intestine. d. Incorrect. Parenteral means to administer by injection. Gastrostomy is the term for longer-term enteral feeding.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:23 AM 37. What type of neoplasm is a malignant tumor of neurologic cells? a. fibroma b. carcinoma c. glioma d. sarcoma ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A fibroma is a benign encapsulated tumor of connective tissue. b. Incorrect. A carcinoma is a malignant tumor of epithelial tissue. c. Correct. A glioma is a malignant tumor of neurologic cells. d. Incorrect. A sarcoma is a malignant tumor arising from connective tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 4:29 AM 11/30/2022 12:24 AM

38. What is an adenoma? a. a usually benign tumor arising from glandular epithelial tissue b. a malignant tumor of epithelial tissue c. a malignant tumor of the skin d. a malignant tumor arising from connective tissue ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. An adenoma is a usually benign tumor arising from glandular epithelial tissue. b. Incorrect. A carcinoma is a malignant tumor of epithelial tissue.

c. Incorrect. A melanoma is a malignant tumor of the skin. d. Incorrect. A sarcoma is a malignant tumor arising from connective tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:24 AM 39. What is an overgrowth in response to some type of stimulus, such as a goiter? a. a sarcoma b. an infection c. a neoplasm d. a hyperplasia ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A sarcoma is a type of neoplasm/tumor. b. Incorrect. Infection refers to the invasion of microorganisms into tissue that causes cell or tissue injury. c. Incorrect. Neoplasms are new growths, rather than the enlargement of something already existing. d. Correct. Hyperplasias are overgrowths in response to some type of stimulus, such as the enlargement of the thyroid gland (goiter) in response to a hormone deficiency.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease b. appendicitis c. gastritis d. encephalitis ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Colitis is inflammation of the colon. b. Incorrect. Appendicitis is inflammation of the appendix. c. Correct. Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach. d. Incorrect. Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:26 AM 41. What disease is inflammation of the brain? a. gastritis b. appendicitis c. colitis d. encephalitis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach. b. Incorrect. Appendicitis is inflammation of the appendix. c. Incorrect. Colitis is inflammation of the colon. d. Correct. Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:27 AM 42. Diseases with tumor involvement usually end with what suffix? a. -oma b. -itis c. -logy d. -plasm ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Diseases with tumor involvement usually end with the suffix -oma. b. Incorrect. Diseases that are related to inflammation are identified with the suffix -itis.

c. Incorrect. The suffix -logy refers to the study of something. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease d. Incorrect. -plasm means growth. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:28 AM 43. The suffix -itis usually identifies diseases related to what? a. tumors b. inflammation c. the stomach d. the colon ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diseases with tumor involvement usually end with the suffix -oma. b. Correct. Diseases that are related to inflammation are identified with the suffix itis. c. Incorrect. Gastritis is one form of stomach disease, but not all stomach ailments end with -itis. d. Incorrect. Colitis is inflammation of the colon, but other diseases not related to the colon also end with -itis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:29 AM 44. Which of the following would be cancer? a. sarcoma b. adenoma c. fibroma d. lipoma ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Cancer is defined as any malignant tumor. A sarcoma is malignant. b. Incorrect. Cancer is defined as any malignant tumor. An adenoma is usually benign. c. Incorrect. Cancer is defined as any malignant tumor. A fibroma is benign.

d. Incorrect. Cancer is defined as any malignant tumor. A lipoma is benign. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 4:39 AM 11/30/2022 12:30 AM

45. What are antibodies? a. organs designed to defend the body against pathogenic attacks b. substances that cause the body some type of harm c. environmental substances that cause a reaction d. proteins that the body produces to react to the antigen and render it harmless ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The immune system of the body is a specialized group of cells, tissues, and organs designed to defend the body against pathogenic attacks. b. Incorrect. Antigens are substances that cause the body some type of harm, setting off an antigen-antibody reaction. c. Incorrect. An allergen is an environmental substance that causes a reaction.

d. Correct. Antibodies, also called immune bodies, are proteins that the body produces to react to the antigen and render it harmless.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:31 AM 46. General guidelines for a healthy lifestyle include a recommendation for at least how many hours of sleep per day? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9 ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The guideline states to get enough rest and sleep, at least 7 or more hours per day. b. Correct. The guideline states to get enough rest and sleep, at least 7 or more hours per day. c. Incorrect. Eight is include in the “or more,” but it is not the minimum amount recommended. d. Incorrect. Nine is include in the “or more,” but it is not the minimum amount recommended.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4 - Describe behaviors important to a healthy lifestyle. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:32 AM 47. Cellular injury and death can be caused by hypoxia, which is what? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease a. viruses b. no oxygen c. bacterial toxins d. not enough oxygen ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Viruses are a different cause of cellular injury or death. b. Incorrect. Anoxia is no oxygen. c. Incorrect. Bacterial toxins are a different cause of cellular injury or death. d. Correct. Hypoxia is not enough oxygen.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:33 AM 48. In what type of cellular adaptation does a cell change to another type of cell? a. hyperplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. hypertrophy ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number that is commonly due to hormonal stimulation. b. Incorrect. Dysplasia is an alteration in size, shape, and organization of cells.

c. Correct. Metaplasia is a cellular adaptation in which the cell changes to another type of cell. d. Incorrect. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the cell leading to an increase in tissue and organ size.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:34 AM 49. What is atrophy? a. a decrease in cell size b. an increase in the size of a cell c. an increase in cell number d. an alteration in size, shape, and organization of cells ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Atrophy is a decrease in cell size, which leads to a decrease in the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease size of the tissue and organ. b. Incorrect. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the cell leading to an increase in tissue and organ size. c. Incorrect. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number that is commonly due to hormonal stimulation. d. Incorrect. Dysplasia is an alteration in size, shape, and organization of cells.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:35 AM 50. What term refers to two or more diseases or conditions that occur at the same time? a. cerebrovascular accident b. morbidity c. comorbidity d. mortality ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Another term for a stroke is cerebrovascular accident. b. Incorrect. Disability is called morbidity (state of being diseased). c. Correct. When two or more conditions occur at the same time, this is called

comorbidity and often complicates the individual’s ability to heal or overcome the first or primary condition. d. Incorrect. Mortality means that one is subject to death, as opposed to being able to live forever.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:36 AM 51. Which condition is most serious and should be triaged first? a. leg wound b. not breathing c. chest pain d. dizzy and disoriented ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A leg wound would not be considered life-threatening and would not need to be triaged first. b. Correct. The patient who is not breathing is the most severe medical emergency and must be triaged first. c. Incorrect. While chest pains can indicate a serious condition, another condition Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease would need to be triaged first. d. Incorrect. A patient who is dizzy and disoriented would not be considered critical and would not need to be triaged first.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1 - Identify important terminology related to the mechanisms of human disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:37 AM 52. Under which category does a BMI of 27 fall? a. underweight b. normal c. overweight d. obese ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An underweight BMI is less than 18.5. b. Incorrect. A range of 18.5–<25 is considered normal. c. Correct. A BMI of 27 falls under the overweight category. d. Incorrect. A BMI of 30–<40 is obese. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4 - Describe behaviors important to a healthy lifestyle. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:37 AM 53. Which of the following conditions occurs when the demand on a muscle is greater than normal? a. hypertrophy b. atrophy c. dysplasia d. hyperplasia ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Hypertrophy occurs when the demand on a muscle is greater than normal. b. Incorrect. Atrophy happens when a muscle is not used.

c. Incorrect. Dysplasia is often seen after hyperplasia. d. Incorrect. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, often due to hormonal stimulation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6 - Identify the basic changes in the body occurring in the aging process. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 4:59 AM 11/30/2022 12:38 AM

54. Which type of gangrene is caused by a decreased blood flow over a long period? a. dry gangrene b. wet gangrene c. gas gangrene d. dry, wet, and gas gangrene ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Dry gangrene is caused by decreased blood flow over a long period, such as with advanced diabetes mellitus. b. Incorrect. Third-degree burns may cause wet gangrene.

c. Incorrect. Gas gangrene is an often-fatal type of gangrene that may be caused by dirty, infected wounds.

d. Incorrect. Only dry gangrene is caused by decreased blood flow over a long period.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3 - Identify disorders in each category of the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:39 AM 55. Which of the following is accurate regarding the relationship between hereditary and congenital diseases? a. All congenital diseases are also hereditary diseases. b. Hereditary disease and congenital disease are both visible at birth. c. Hereditary diseases present at birth are also called congenital. d. There is no connection between hereditary disease and congenital disease. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Congenital diseases may result from disease during pregnancy, not necessarily hereditary. b. Incorrect. Hereditary diseases may not be visible at birth.

c. Correct. Hereditary diseases that are present during birth are also called congenital. d. Incorrect. The connection between hereditary disease and congenital disease is that any hereditary disease that is present at birth is also called a congenital disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5 - Compare the various types of impaired immunity. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:40 AM 56. Which condition can be expected after decreased use of a muscle? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease a. hypertrophy b. atrophy c. dysplasia d. hyperplasia ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Hypertrophy occurs after a muscle works more than normal. b. Correct. Decreased use of a muscle results in atrophy. c. Incorrect. Dysplasia, an alteration in the size or shape of cells, often follows hyperplasia. d. Incorrect. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, often due to hormonal stimulation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:41 AM 57. Which type of cellular adaptation changes columnar epithelial cells into stratified epithelial cells? a. hypertrophy b. dysplasia c. atrophy d. metaplasia ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hypertrophy occurs after a muscle works more than normal. b. Incorrect. Dysplasia, an alteration in the size or shape of cells, often follows hyperplasia. c. Incorrect. Decreased use of a muscle results in atrophy.

d. Correct. Metaplasia is the changing columnar epithelial cells of the respiratory tree into stratified squamous epithelial cells.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7 - Describe the process of cell and tissue injury, adaptation, and death. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:42 AM 58. Which term means inflammation of a tendon? a. appendicitis b. arthritis c. meningitis d. tendonitis ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Appendicitis, an infection occurring in the appendix, may cause a fever, abdominal pain, and/or nausea. b. Incorrect. Arthritis is a degenerative condition, which involves inflammation of a joint. c. Incorrect. Inflammation of the meninges, or coverings of the brain, is called meningitis. d. Correct. Tendonitis means inflammation of a tendon.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.2 - Describe the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:42 AM 59. Which method of medication administration does NOT bypass the digestive system? a. enteral b. intravenous c. subcutaneous d. intramuscular ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The enteral method of administration does not bypass the digestive system. b. Incorrect. Intravenous medication administration uses the veins as its method.

c. Incorrect. Administering medication subcutaneously is a method that uses the subcutaneous tissue. d. Incorrect. Administering medication via the intramuscular route bypasses the digestive system by injecting the medication into the muscle.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.2 - Describe the causes of disease. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:43 AM 60. Which statement is true regarding autoimmune diseases? a. Leukocytes play a vital part in killing foreign invaders. b. Antibodies are produced to react to antigens and render them harmless. c. Lymphocytes form antibodies that are attacking the body’s own cells. d. Immune response is too intense or hypersensitive to an environmental substance. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. In addition to the skin, mucous membranes, and tears, leukocytes

play a vital role in killing foreign invaders, one of the body’s ways of protecting itself. b. Incorrect. Antibodies are produced to react to antigens through a body’s normal immune response.

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Chapter 02 - Mechanisms of Disease c. Correct. In an autoimmune disease, the body’s own cells are attacked. d. Incorrect. Allergies cause an immune response that is too intense or hypersensitive to an environmental substance, such as perfume or pollen.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5 - Compare the various types of impaired immunity. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:44 AM

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms 1. Which of the following is true of the growth rate of cancer cells? a. Cancer cells are all slow growing. b. Cancer cells are fast growing. c. Cancer cell growth rate varies significantly over time. d. Cancer cells can grow slow or quickly, depending on their location. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cancer cells are not slow growing. b. Correct. Cancer (malignant neoplasm) cells are fast growing. c. Incorrect. The growth rate does not vary significantly over time. d. Incorrect. The growth rate does not depend on location. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:46 AM 2. Which of the following best characterizes the spread of a malignant neoplasm? a. A malignant neoplasm is encapsulate, limiting its ability to spread. b. A malignant neoplasm metastasizes only to its immediate surroundings. c. A malignant neoplasm can spread to organs with similar functions. d. A malignant neoplasm metastasizes to distant areas or organs. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The surface area of the malignant neoplasm is not encapsulated. b. Incorrect. A malignant neoplasm (cancer) metastasizes to distant areas. c. Incorrect. A malignant neoplasm (cancer) metastasizes to distant areas or organs. d. Correct. A malignant neoplasm (cancer) metastasizes to distant organs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:47 AM 3. A skin callus on the foot is an example of what? a. cachexia b. hyperplasia c. neoplasm d. osteoma ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cachexia is a condition in which an individual begins to lose weight and appear thin, frail, and weak. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms b. Correct. An example of a hyperplasia caused by tissue irritation is a skin callus on the foot.

c. Incorrect. A neoplasm grows independently, rather than in response to a stimulus. d. Incorrect. An osteoma is a benign neoplasm originating in the bone.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:48 AM 4. Genetic alteration is the basis for the development of what? a. hyperplasia b. malignant neoplasm c. chondroma d. adenoma ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hyperplasia usually occurs in response to a stimulus. b. Correct. Genetic alteration is the basis for the development of malignant neoplasm, or cancer.

c. Incorrect. Chondroma is a benign neoplasm. Genetic alteration is the basis for cancer. d. Incorrect. Adenoma is a benign neoplasm. Genetic alteration is the basis for cancer

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3 - Compare hyperplasias to neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:49 AM 5. Which of the following is accurate regarding the development of malignant neoplasms? a. The body’s immune system is not able to reverse the development of cancer. b. Once cells become abnormal, they will not appear as benign tumors. c. Abnormal cells will revert to normal cells once a carcinogen is removed. d. Continued exposure to a carcinogen may increase or promote the abnormality of a cell. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The body’s immune system might prevent or reverse the development of cancer. b. Incorrect. Abnormal cells might revert to normal cells, appear as benign tumors, or digress to a malignant neoplasm. c. Incorrect. While it is a possibility, removing the carcinogen will not necessarily reverse cancer development. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms d. Correct. Continued exposure to a carcinogen or to several carcinogens may increase or promote the abnormality of a cell.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:50 AM 6. How can cancer be avoided at the in situ stage? a. by surgical removal of the dysplasia b. by treating the dysplasia with radiation c. by treating with chemotherapy d. by a combination of chemotherapy and radiation therapy ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Cancer can be avoided at this stage by surgical removal of the dysplasia, or in situ tumor.

b. Incorrect. The atypical cells can generally be removed at this stage. c. Incorrect. Chemotherapy would not avoid cancer. d. Incorrect. The cancer has not yet invaded surrounding tissue, and it can be removed.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:51 AM 7. What does local tissue invasion signify? a. a change from a hyperplasia to abnormal hyperplasia b. a change from a precancerous neoplasm to a malignant one c. a change from abnormal dysplasia to carcinoma in situ d. a change from abnormal hyperplasia to dysplasia ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. In abnormal hyperplasia, the atypical cells have not yet invaded the surrounding tissue. b. Correct. Local tissue invasion is the step that signifies a change from a precancerous neoplasm to a malignant one. c. Incorrect. In carcinoma in situ, the atypical cells have not yet invaded the surrounding tissue. d. Incorrect. Dysplasia is another name for abnormal hyperplasia.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:52 AM 8. What does absence of lymph node involvement with cancer indicate? a. There is a poor chance of survival. b. The spread is limited, and surgical cure is possible. c. The cancer has metastasized throughout the body. d. The only available course of treatment is palliative radiation. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Usually, the higher the number of lymph nodes involved, the poorer the chance of survival. b. Correct. Absence of lymph node involvement is a favorable sign because it indicates that the tumor has not metastasized to the lymph nodes, which can then carry the illness throughout the body. c. Incorrect. Absence of lymph node involvement indicates that the tumor has not metastasized to the lymph nodes to be carried throughout the body. d. Incorrect. Curative treatment is a viable option at this point.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:53 AM 9. Which of the following is true of bloodstream metastasis? a. When cancer has spread through the bloodstream, often the secondary cancer site is discovered first. b. When cancer has spread through the bloodstream, it rarely attacks other organs. c. When cancer has spread through the bloodstream, the most common site of metastasis is the bones. d. When cancer has spread through the bloodstream, it is considered to have reached the in situ stage. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. When cancer has spread through the bloodstream, often the secondary cancer site is discovered first.

b. Incorrect. Common sites of bloodstream metastasis are the liver, lungs, and brain. c. Incorrect. Common sites of bloodstream metastasis are the liver, lungs, and brain. d. Incorrect. In carcinoma in situ, the atypical cells are “just sitting” in the epithelial layer of the tissue.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:53 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms 10. Determining the degree to which a tumor has spread is known as what? a. grading b. staging c. measuring d. presenting ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Grading determines the degree of abnormality of the neoplasm. b. Correct. Determining the degree of spread is called staging. c. Incorrect. Measuring is not the term used to express the degree to which a tumor has spread. d. Incorrect. Presenting is not the term used to express the degree to which a tumor has spread.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2 - Explain the system used to classify neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:54 AM 11. Determining the degree of abnormality of the neoplasm is known as what? a. grading b. staging c. measuring d. weighing ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Grading determines the degree of abnormality of the neoplasm. b. Incorrect. Determining the degree of spread is called staging. c. Incorrect. Measuring is not the term used to express the degree of abnormality. d. Incorrect. Weighing is not the term used to express the degree of abnormality. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2 - Explain the system used to classify neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:55 AM 12. Which of the following is accurate regarding the relationship between hormones and cancer? a. Hormones interact with cancer in a consistent and understood manner. b. Hormones do not cause cancer but may be used to treat it. c. Hormones may cause cancer and cannot be used to treat it. d. Hormones may cause cancer but may also be used to treat it. ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The action of hormones as related to cancer is not clearly understood.

b. Incorrect. Hormones can increase the incidence of cancer. c. Incorrect. Hormones can be used as a form of cancer treatment. d. Correct. Hormones can increase the incidence of cancer, yet, at times, hormones can be used as a form of cancer treatment.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:56 AM 13. Findings indicate that the most widely used combination pill for birth control might have what impact on the risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer? a. The most widely used combination pill, combining progesterone and progestin, might decrease the risk of these cancers. b. The most widely used combination pill, combining progesterone and progestin, might increase the risk of these cancers. c. The most widely used combination pill, combining estrogen and progestin, might decrease the risk of these cancers. d. The most widely used combination pill, combining estrogen and progestin, might increase the risk of these cancers. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Progestin is a synthetic form of progesterone; the two are not used together in a combination pill. b. Incorrect. Progestin is a synthetic form of progesterone; the two are not used together in a combination pill. c. Correct. The most widely used combination pill, combining estrogen and progestin, a synthetic form of progesterone, might actually decrease the risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer. d. Incorrect. The most widely used combination pill might decrease the risk of these cancers.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:57 AM 14. Ultraviolet light rays of the sun or tanning lights have an increased risk of causing the development of what type of cancer. a. basal or squamous cell cancer b. endometrial cancer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms c. cervical cancer d. cancer of the bladder and pancreas ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Ultraviolet light rays of the sun or tanning lights have an increased risk of causing the development of basal cell cancer. b. Incorrect. Endometrial cancer is not linked to UV rays or tanning lights.

c. Incorrect. Cervical cancer is not linked to UV rays or tanning lights. d. Incorrect. Smoking increases the incidence of cancer of the bladder and pancreas.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.7 - Identify high-risk behaviors for cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:57 AM 15. What group is at the greatest risk of developing skin cancer? a. dark-skinned people b. fair-skinned people c. smokers d. obese people ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. UV-related skin cancer is uncommon among the dark-skinned population. b. Correct. Fair-skinned people are at the greatest risk for skin cancer because they lack the protective effects of melanin. c. Incorrect. Smokers are not at a greater risk for skin cancer.

d. Incorrect. Obese people are not at a greater risk for skin cancer. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.8 - State the frequency of cancer development in the population. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:58 AM 16. What is the relationship between alcohol use and cancer risk? a. Alcohol has been proven to be a carcinogen. b. Alcohol has been proven not to be a carcinogen. c. Studies have shown a higher incidence of breast cancer in women who drink even moderate amounts. d. Studies have shown a higher incidence of testicular cancer in men who drink even moderate amounts. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Alcohol has not been proven to be a carcinogen. b. Incorrect. Alcohol has not been proven to be a carcinogen, per se, but findings Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms link moderate alcohol consumption to some cancers.

c. Correct. Alcohol has not been proved as a carcinogen per se, but recent studies have also shown a higher incidence of breast cancer in women who drink even moderate amounts. d. Incorrect. There have not been any findings linking moderate alcohol consumption to testicular cancer.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.7 - Identify high-risk behaviors for cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:59 AM 17. What four types of cancer are responsible for the majority of cancer deaths? a. lung, skin, breast, and testicular b. skin, mouth, esophagus, and throat c. mouth, esophagus, breast, and colon d. lung, breast, prostate, and colon ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lung, skin, and testicular cancers are not among the four types responsible for the majority of cancer deaths. b. Incorrect. Skin, mouth, esophagus, and throat cancers are not among the four types responsible for the majority of cancer deaths. c. Incorrect. Mouth and esophagus cancers are not among the four types responsible for the majority of cancer deaths. d. Correct. Cancer of the lung, breast, prostate, and colon are responsible for the majority of cancer deaths.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.8 - State the frequency of cancer development in the population. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:00 AM 18. Which of the following is accurate regarding the relationship between smoking and cancer? a. Damage related to smoking and tobacco use is limited to the lungs. b. Smoking damages nearly every organ in the body. c. Smoking is associated with at least six different cancers. d. Smoking accounts for about one-half of all cancer deaths. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Damage related to smoking and tobacco use is not limited to the lungs.

b. Correct. Smoking damages nearly every organ in the body, is associated with at least 15 different cancers, and accounts for about one-third of all cancer deaths. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms c. Incorrect. Smoking is associated with at least 15 different cancers. d. Incorrect. Cancer accounts for about one-third of all cancer deaths. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.7 - Identify high-risk behaviors for cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:01 AM 19. Which of the following is true of basal and squamous cell skin cancer? a. These neoplasms are seldom fatal. b. These neoplasms are not usually visible. c. These neoplasms are fast growing. d. These neoplasms are difficult to excise. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. These neoplasms are seldom fatal because they are very visible, slow growing, and can be completely excised. b. Incorrect. These neoplasms are very visible.

c. Incorrect. These neoplasms are slow growing. d. Incorrect. These can be completely excised. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.8 - State the frequency of cancer development in the population. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:02 AM 20. The prognosis for the individual with a malignant neoplasm is best if: a. the individual has no family history of cancer. b. the individual has already survived a previous diagnosis of cancer. c. the cancer is located after it metastasizes. d. the cancer is located and treated early. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Family history is not a factor. b. Incorrect. Previous cancer diagnosis is not a factor. c. Incorrect. The prognosis is best before the cancer metastasizes. d. Correct. The prognosis for the individual with a malignant neoplasm is best if the cancer is located and treated early.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 6:01 AM 11/30/2022 1:02 AM

21. What type of biopsy is obtained by punching a needle through the tumor and using the tissue caught in the lumen of the needle for examination? a. an aspiration biopsy b. a surgical biopsy c. a needle biopsy d. an endoscopy biopsy ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Aspiration biopsy uses a needle attached to a suction device to remove a small piece of tissue from the tumor. b. Incorrect. A surgical biopsy can be performed with the patient’s consent to excise the tumor if it is found to be cancerous. c. Correct. A needle biopsy is obtained by punching a needle through the tumor and using the tissue caught in the lumen of the needle for examination. d. Incorrect. During endoscopy, the tissue is removed by use of the appropriate scope.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5 - State the signs and symptoms of cancer. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:03 AM 22. What technique enables the pathologies to make a rapid determination of whether a tumor is benign or malignant? a. endoscopy b. aspiration c. frozen section d. needle biopsy ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Endoscopy is a procedure for removing the tissue using the appropriate scope.

b. Incorrect. Aspiration biopsy is a procedure using a needle attached to a suction device to remove a small piece of tissue from the tumor. c. Correct. A technique called a frozen section enables the pathologist to make a rapid determination of the tumor condition: benign or malignant. d. Incorrect. Needle biopsy is a procedure to remove a piece of the tumor for examination.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5 - State the signs and symptoms of cancer. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:04 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms 23. What may be the cause of anemia? a. a tumor hemorrhage b. a decrease in white blood cell production c. ulcerating of the cancerous tissue d. tumor growth inside an organ ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Anemia is very common in individuals with malignant neoplasm and might be the result of tumor hemorrhage or a decrease in red blood cell production. b. Incorrect. Anemia might be the result of tumor hemorrhage or a decrease in red blood cell production. c. Incorrect. Hemorrhage can be caused by the cancerous tissue ulcerating and bleeding. d. Incorrect. Obstruction of a hollow organ can occur from a tumor growing inside the organ.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5 - State the signs and symptoms of cancer. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:05 AM 24. What type of cancer treatment is aimed at the relief of symptoms? a. curative b. preventive c. palliative d. holistic ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Curative treatment is aimed at a cure, rather than relief of symptoms. b. Incorrect. Preventive treatment is aimed at prevention of cancer, rather than relief of symptoms.

c. Correct. Palliative treatment is aimed at relief of symptoms. d. Incorrect. Holistic medicine focuses on the entire person, not just the physical, but is not specifically aimed at the relief of symptoms.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:06 AM 25. When is radiation generally used as a cancer treatment? a. on tumors that are not surgically accessible Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms b. prior to surgery c. on rapidly growing metastatic neoplasms d. when the tumor can be completely removed ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Radiation is generally used in treating a residual neoplasm postoperatively and tumors that are not surgically accessible or operable. b. Incorrect. Radiation is generally used postoperatively and on tumors that are not operable. c. Incorrect. Generally, chemotherapy is effective in treating rapidly growing metastatic neoplasms. d. Incorrect. Curative surgery is aimed at the complete remove of the tumor

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:09 AM 26. A malignant neoplasm is a cell whose growth pattern: a. is purposeful and controlled. b. is purposeful but uncontrolled. c. has no purpose and is uncontrolled. d. has no purpose but is controlled. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The growth pattern of a malignant neoplasm is not purposeful and controlled. b. Incorrect. The growth pattern is not purposeful.

c. Correct. A malignant neoplasm is a cell whose growth pattern has no purpose and is uncontrolled.

d. Incorrect. The growth pattern is not controlled. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2 - Explain the system used to classify neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:09 AM 27. Which of the following is true of leukemias and lymphomas? a. Leukemias and lymphomas can be benign or malignant. b. All leukemias are malignant, but lymphomas can be benign or malignant. c. Leukemias can be benign or malignant, but all lymphomas are malignant. d. All leukemias and lymphomas are malignant. ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Leukemias and lymphomas are never benign. b. Incorrect. All lymphomas are malignant. c. Incorrect. All leukemias are malignant. d. Correct. All leukemias and lymphomas are malignant.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2 - Explain the system used to classify neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:10 AM 28. Genetic mutation or change may be brought about by a biologic agent called a: a. virus. b. chemical. c. radiation. d. carcinogen. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Viruses can cause genetic mutation or change, but that is not the name for a biologic agent.

b. Incorrect. Chemicals can cause genetic mutation or change, but that is not the name for a biologic agent. c. Incorrect. Radiation is the process of using light, short waves, not a biologic agent. d. Correct. Genetic mutation can be brought about by a biologic agent called a carcinogen.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:11 AM 29. Common sites for carcinoma in situ include which of the following? a. liver b. ovary c. cervix d. bone ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cervix is a common site for carcinoma in situ. b. Incorrect. Ovary is not a common site for carcinoma in situ. c. Correct. Common sites for carcinoma in situ are the cervix, larynx, and mouth. d. Incorrect. Bones are not a common site for carcinoma in situ. POINTS:

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:12 AM 30. Common sites of the bloodstream metastasis include which of the following? a. kidneys b. larynx c. cervix d. brain ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Kidneys are not common sites of the bloodstream metastasis. b. Incorrect. Common sites of bloodstream metastasis do not include the larynx. c. Incorrect. Common sites of bloodstream metastasis do not include the cervix. d. Correct. Common sites of bloodstream metastasis include the liver, lungs, and brain.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:13 AM 31. Estrogen is used to treat: a. uterine cancer. b. breast cancer. c. ovarian cancer. d. prostate cancer. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Estrogen is not used to treat uterine cancer. b. Incorrect. Estrogen is not used to treat breast cancer. c. Incorrect. Estrogen is not used to treat ovarian cancer. d. Correct. Cancer of the prostate is stimulated by the male hormone testosterone but slowed or inhibited by estrogen treatment.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms 32. People who have had blistering sunburns at a young age are at the greatest risk of developing: a. sarcoma. b. squamous cell cancer. c. adenocarcinoma. d. melanoma. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Blistering sunburns have not been shown to increase the risk of developing sarcoma.

b. Incorrect. Blistering sunburns have not been shown to increase the risk of developing squamous cell cancer. c. Incorrect. Blistering sunburns have not been shown to increase the risk of developing adenocarcinoma. d. Correct. Basal and squamous cell carcinomas tend to occur from cumulative exposure to the sun; melanoma occurs more frequently due to extreme, blistering burns at a young age.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.7 - Identify high-risk behaviors for cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:15 AM 33. The herpes simplex virus has been closely connected to cancer of the: a. ovary. b. cervix. c. liver. d. lungs. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The link between the herpes simplex virus and ovarian cancer has not been shown.

b. Correct. Individuals with cervical cancer also tend to have the herpes simplex virus. c. Incorrect. The link between the herpes simplex virus and liver cancer has not been shown. d. Incorrect. The link between the herpes simplex virus and lung cancer has not been shown.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.8 - State the frequency of cancer development in the population. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:16 AM 34. What two types of cancer have a higher incidence in some families? a. lung and liver Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms b. colon and brain c. colon and breast d. brain and breast ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. A higher incidence of lung and liver cancers in some families has not been shown to be true. b. Incorrect. A higher incidence of colon and brain cancers in some families has not been shown to be true. c. Correct. It is known that colon and breast cancer have a higher incidence in certain families. A woman whose mother or sisters have or have had breast cancer runs a five times greater chance of developing breast cancer than other women. d. Incorrect. A higher incidence of brain and breast cancers in some families has not been shown to be true.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.8 - State the frequency of cancer development in the population. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:17 AM 35. Women who have been pregnant and gone through childbirth appear to have a protective mechanism from cancer of the: a. ovary. b. brain. c. cervix. d. lung. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Women who have been pregnant and gone through childbirth appear to have a protective mechanism from cancer of the ovary, endometrium, and breast. b. Incorrect. There has been no proven protection from brain cancer in women who have been pregnant and gone through childbirth. c. Incorrect. There has been no proven protection from cancer of the cervix in women who have been pregnant and gone through childbirth. d. Incorrect. There has been no proven protection from lung cancer in women who have been pregnant and gone through childbirth.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.8 - State the frequency of cancer development in the population. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:17 AM 36. What is the most common type of cancer? a. colon cancer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms b. breast cancer c. prostate cancer d. skin cancer ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Colon cancer is a common type of cancer, but not the most common. b. Incorrect. Breast cancer is a common type of cancer, but not the most common.

c. Incorrect. Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer, but not the most common. d. Correct. Colon cancer, breast cancer, and prostate cancer are the most common types of cancer excluding skin cancer.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.8 - State the frequency of cancer development in the population. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:18 AM 37. What is a routine preventive screening measure for colon cancer? a. X-rays b. mammograms c. Pap tests d. occult stool examinations ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. X-rays may reveal a mass, but they are not a routine preventive screening measure. b. Incorrect. Mammograms are a routine preventive screening measure, but not for colon cancer. c. Incorrect. Pap tests are a routine preventive screening measure, but not for colon cancer. d. Correct. Occult stool examinations after age 40 to screen for colon cancer are important.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:19 AM 38. The most definitive test used to diagnose a tumor is a: a. blood test. b. urinalysis. c. biopsy. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms d. Pap test. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. A blood test may be done, but it is not a definitive test. b. Incorrect. Urinalysis may be done, but it is not a definitive test. c. Correct. A biopsy is removing a small piece of tissue for microscopic examination and is used as the definitive test to diagnose a tumor. d. Incorrect. A Pap test may be done to detect abnormal cells, but it is not a definitive test.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5 - State the signs and symptoms of cancer. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:20 AM 39. Which procedure used to perform a biopsy involves using a needle attached to a suction device to remove a small piece of tissue from the tumor? a. aspiration b. endoscopy c. surgery d. needle ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Aspiration biopsy uses a needle attached to a suction device to remove a small piece of tissue from the tumor. b. Incorrect. During endoscopy, the tissue is removed by use of the appropriate scope. c. Incorrect. A surgical biopsy can be performed with the patient’s consent to excise the tumor if it is found to be cancerous. d. Incorrect. Needle biopsy is obtained by punching a needle through the tumor and using the tissue caught in the lumen of the needle for examination.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5 - State the signs and symptoms of cancer. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:21 AM 40. Pathologic fractures occur if the tumor has invaded the: a. brain. b. bladder. c. bone. d. prostate. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pathologic fractures do not occur in the brain. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms b. Incorrect. Pathologic fractures do not occur in the bladder. c. Correct. Pathologic fractures occur if the tumor has invaded the bone and caused weakness at that site. d. Incorrect. Pathologic fractures do not occur in the prostate.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5 - State the signs and symptoms of cancer. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:22 AM 41. What type of cancer treatment seeks to completely remove the tumor? a. curative surgery b. chemotherapy c. preventive surgery d. palliative radiation ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Curative surgery is aimed at the complete removal of the tumor. b. Incorrect. Chemotherapy is aimed at rapidly growing neoplastic cells with the idea that it will kill or inhibit the growth of these cells while having a minimal effect on normal cells. c. Incorrect. Preventive surgery might be performed to prevent the development of cancer. d. Incorrect. Palliative radiation treatments can shrink the tumor and relieve discomfort.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:23 AM 42. Palliative radiation treatment may: a. enlarge the tumor. b. divide the tumor. c. shrink the tumor. d. remove the tumor. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Palliative radiation treatment does not enlarge the tumor. b. Incorrect. Palliative radiation treatment does not divide the tumor. c. Correct. Palliative radiation treatment can shrink the tumor and relieve discomfort. d. Incorrect. Palliative radiation treatment does not remove the tumor. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:25 AM 43. Neoplasm is defined as: a. “new growth.” b. “old growth.” c. “moderate growth.” d. “no growth.” ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Neoplasm is defined as “new growth.” b. Incorrect. Neoplasm is not defined as “old growth.” c. Incorrect. Neoplasm is not defined as “moderate growth.” d. Incorrect. Neoplasm is not defined as “no growth.”

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:26 AM 44. A hematoma is known as a: a. white tumor. b. blue tumor. c. blood tumor. d. new tumor. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. A hematoma is not known as a white tumor. b. Incorrect. A hematoma is not known as a blue tumor. c. Correct. Commonly called a bruise or a contusion, a hematoma is a large tumor or swelling filled with blood. d. Incorrect. A hematoma is not known as a new tumor.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:27 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms 45. Leukemia is a disease of the: a. skin. b. bone marrow. c. bladder. d. brain. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Leukemia is not a disease of the skin. b. Correct. Leukemia is a malignant disease of the bone marrow that causes an increase in white blood cell production. c. Incorrect. Leukemia is not a disease of the bladder.

d. Incorrect. Leukemia is not a disease of the brain. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:27 AM 46. What kind of surgery for cancer is done to alleviate pain and discomfort when a cure is not possible? a. curative b. palliative c. preventive d. prophylactic ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Curative surgery is aimed at complete removal of the tumor. b. Correct. Palliative surgery is usually indicated when cure is not possible, but surgery will alleviate pain and discomfort. c. Incorrect. Preventive surgery may be performed to prevent development of cancer. d. Incorrect. Prophylactic surgery may be done to prevent cancer development.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:28 AM 47. What item, previously used in roofing and insulating materials, has been found to cause lung cancer? a. asbestos b. nickel ore c. arsenic d. naphthylamine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Asbestos, previously used in roofing and insulating materials, has been identified as a carcinogen leading to lung cancer. b. Incorrect. Miners of nickel ore have a high rate of nasal cancer,

c. Incorrect. Farmers using arsenic as an insecticide often suffer from skin and lung cancers. d. Incorrect. Naphthylamine, found in certain types of dye, has been found to cause bladder cancer.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.6 - Identify some common carcinogenic substances. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:29 AM 48. Miners of nickel ore have a high rate of what type of cancer? a. lung b. nasal c. skin d. bladder ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Asbestos, previously used in roofing and insulating materials, has been identified as a carcinogen leading to lung cancer. b. Correct. Miners of nickel ore have a high rate of nasal cancer.

c. Incorrect. Farmers using arsenic as an insecticide often suffer from skin and lung cancers. d. Incorrect. Naphthylamine, found in certain types of dye, has been found to cause bladder cancer.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.6 - Identify some common carcinogenic substances. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:30 AM 49. What insecticide is thought to cause skin and lung cancers in farmers? a. asbestos b. nickel ore c. arsenic d. napthylamine ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Asbestos, previously used in roofing and insulating materials, has been identified as a carcinogen leading to lung cancer.

b. Incorrect. Miners of nickel ore have a high rate of nasal cancer. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms c. Correct. Farmers using arsenic as an insecticide often suffer from skin and lung cancers.

d. Incorrect. Naphthylamine, found in certain types of dye, has been found to cause bladder cancer.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.6 - Identify some common carcinogenic substances. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:31 AM 50. Hepatitis B virus has been closely connected to what type of cancer? a. liver b. lung c. cervical d. bladder ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Hepatitis B virus has been closely connected to liver cancer. b. Incorrect. Hepatitis B has not been associated with lung cancer. c. Incorrect. Cervical cancer tends to occur in people with the herpes simplex virus.

d. Incorrect. Hepatitis B has not been associated with bladder cancer. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.8 - State the frequency of cancer development in the population. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:32 AM 51. Which of the following characteristics is shared by both benign and malignant tumors? a. invasive b. metastatic c. abnormal appearance of tumor d. neoplastic cells different from each other ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Malignant tumors are invasive, but benign tumors are not invasive. b. Incorrect. Malignant tumors are metastatic, while benign tumors only grow in the original area. c. Correct. Both benign and malignant tumors appear abnormal.

d. Incorrect. Benign tumors are made up of cells that are similar to one another, while malignant tumor cells do not look the same.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5 - State the signs and symptoms of cancer. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:33 AM 52. By which body systems can cancers commonly metastasize? a. cardiac and reproductive b. circulatory and reproductive c. lymph and circulatory d. cardiac and lymph ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The cardiac and reproductive systems don’t typically offer an avenue of metastasis. b. Incorrect. While the circulatory system often carries cancer cells to distant parts of the body, the reproductive does not. c. Correct. The lymph and circulatory systems carry cancerous cells to distant locations. d. Incorrect. The cardiac system does not typically assist in metastasis, while the lymph system is an avenue for metastasize.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:34 AM 53. How are cancerous cells different from normal cells? a. Cancerous cells have a decreased need for nutrients. b. Cancerous cells have a decreased need for oxygen. c. Cancerous cells have increased metabolic demands. d. Cancerous cells have decreased metabolic demands. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cancerous cells have an increased need for nutrients due to their metabolic status. b. Incorrect. Cancerous cells have an increased need for oxygen because they’re more metabolically active. c. Correct. Cancerous cells have increased metabolic demands.

d. Incorrect. Cancerous cells have increased metabolic demands, not decreased. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:35 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms 54. Which statement is true about hyperplasia and neoplasm? a. They have increased cell numbers. b. They grow independently and usually unceasingly. c. They stop growing when the stimulation stops. d. Their cells appear different from one another. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Both hyperplasia and neoplasms have increased numbers of cells. b. Incorrect. Neoplasms grow independently and usually unceasingly, while hyperplasia grows more slowly.

c. Incorrect. Hyperplasia stops growing when the stimulation stops. d. Incorrect. Hyperplasia cells appear the same, while neoplasms appear different from each other.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3 - Compare hyperplasias to neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:36 AM 55. Which of the following is accurate regarding adenomas and adenocarcinomas? a. Adenomas are benign, while adenocarcinomas are malignant. b. Adenocarcinomas are benign, while adenomas are malignant. c. Both adenomas and adenocarcinomas are benign. d. Both adenomas and adenocarcinomas are malignant. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Adenomas are benign tumors of glands, while adenocarcinomas are malignant tumors of glands. b. Incorrect. Carcinomas are the largest group of malignant tumors.

c. Incorrect. Adenomas are benign, while adenocarcinomas are malignant. d. Incorrect. Of these two, only adenocarcinomas are malignant. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2 - Explain the system used to classify neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:38 AM 56. Which stage of cancer is the most serious? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Stage I tumors are the least serious. b. Incorrect. Stage II tumors are more serious than Stage I, but not as serious as Stage III or IV. c. Incorrect. Stage III tumors are more serious than Stage I and II, but not as serious as Stage IV. d. Correct. In the staging system, stage IV cancers are the most serious.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4 - Identify the progression of cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:39 AM 57. Which factor may decrease a woman’s risk of cancer? a. obesity b. increased fat consumption c. increased fiber consumption d. excessive exposure to the sun ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Obesity increases the cancer risk for women. b. Incorrect. To lower cancer risk, decreased fat consumption is helpful. c. Correct. Increased fiber consumption may decrease cancer risk. d. Incorrect. Excessive exposure to the sun may increase a woman’s risk of cancer.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.7 - Identify high-risk behaviors for cancer development. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:40 AM 58. Which preventative procedure does the American Cancer Society recommend? a. monthly testicular self-exams b. monthly breast self-exams c. biannual rectal exam d. yearly mammograms, starting at 45 ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The ACS no longer recommends monthly testicular self-exams. b. Incorrect. The ACS no longer recommends monthly breast self-exams as they did not reduce cancer risks. c. Incorrect. Rectal exams should be done periodically, including occult blood stool tests, but not biannually. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms d. Correct. Yearly mammograms are recommended from age 45 to age 54. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.9 - Describe the curative, palliative, and preventive methods used in cancer treatment. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:41 AM 59. Which of the following is correct about the comparison of carcinoma and sarcoma? a. Carcinoma grows more quickly than sarcoma. b. Sarcoma is more common than carcinoma. c. Carcinoma metastasizes primarily through the blood. d. Sarcoma is made up of connective tissue. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Carcinoma grow more slowly than sarcoma. b. Incorrect. Sarcoma is not as common as carcinoma. c. Incorrect. Carcinoma metastasizes primarily through the lymph system. d. Correct. Sarcomas are composed of connective tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1 - Define basic terminology used in the study of neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:42 AM 60. Which of the following is a characteristic of benign tumors? a. asymmetrical b. undifferentiated cells c. slow growth d. irregular surface ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Benign tumors are symmetrical. b. Incorrect. Benign tumors are made up of differentiated cells. c. Correct. A benign tumor’s growth is slow. d. Incorrect. A benign tumor has a smooth surface. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3 - Compare hyperplasias to neoplasms. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:43 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Neoplasms

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection 1. Which of the following is true regarding the cause of inflammation? a. When any tissue undergoes any sort of trauma (injury), inflammation will occur. b. Inflammation occurs only in response to an invasion of microorganisms. c. Inflammation is the body’s response specifically to either freezing or burning. d. Decreased oxygen in cells (ischemia) is the cause of inflammation. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. When any tissue undergoes trauma (injury), regardless of the cause, inflammation will occur. b. Incorrect. Inflammation is not limited to injury caused by an invasion of microorganisms. c. Incorrect. Inflammation is not limited to injury caused by freezing or burning.

d. Incorrect. Inflammation is not limited to injury caused by ischemia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:48 AM 2. What is one limiting factor of inflammation? a. It can only occur in gangrenous tissue. b. It can only occur in tissue with a blood supply. c. It can only occur in dead tissue. d. It can only occur in necrotic tissue. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. In gangrenous tissue, inflammation cannot occur in dead or necrotic areas. b. Correct. Inflammation can occur only in tissue with a blood supply.

c. Incorrect. Inflammation cannot occur in dead tissue. d. Incorrect. Inflammation cannot occur in necrotic tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:49 AM 3. In the United States, what body tracks and identifies infectious diseases? a. the World Health Organization (WHO) b. the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) c. the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) d. the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The WHO is not responsible for tracking and identifying infections in the United States. b. Incorrect. The DHS is not responsible for tracking and identifying infections in the United States. c. Correct. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, based in Atlanta, is responsible for tracking and identifying infections. d. Incorrect. The HHS is not responsible for tracking and identifying infections in the United States.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:50 AM 4. When do primary bacterial infections occur? a. after the onset of another disease process b. in response to the obstruction of a body passageway c. in reaction to another condition in the body d. when one is exposed to a pathogen ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Secondary infection occurs after the onset of another disease process or condition. b. Incorrect. An obstructed passageway is a common cause for secondary bacterial infections. c. Incorrect. Secondary infection occurs after the onset of another disease process or condition. d. Correct. Primary bacterial infections occur when one is exposed to a pathogen.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6 - Describe the process of infection development. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:51 AM 5. When do normal flora bacteria often become pathogenic? a. when they live on the skin b. when they gain access into the body c. when the body’s resistance is overly robust d. when they get entangled in the hair ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Normal flora bacteria live on or in the skin of humans. b. Correct. These bacteria often become pathogenic when they gain access into the body or when the body’s resistance is less robust than normal.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection c. Incorrect. These bacteria often become pathogenic when the body’s resistance is less robust than normal. d. Incorrect. The do not often become pathogenic just because they are in a person’s hair.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:52 AM 6. Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of viral infections? a. Viral infections can be treated easily if they are caught early. b. Antiviral agents effectively kill a virus. c. Viral infections cannot be treated easily. d. Antibiotic therapy can be used to effectively kill a virus. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. It is not true that viral infections can be treated easily. b. Incorrect. Some antiviral agents can be given to individuals with reduced resistance to infections to try to prevent the viral infection. c. Correct. Viral infections cannot be treated easily.

d. Incorrect. Antibiotic therapy does not kill a virus. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6 - Describe the process of infection development. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:53 AM 7. How are antibiotics used in the treatment of a virus? a. Antibiotic therapy always kills a virus. b. Antibiotics can be given to individuals who have reduced resistance to infections to prevent infection. c. Antibiotics are used to treat the symptoms the virus causes. d. Antibiotics can be used to treat a secondary bacterial infection occurring with the virus. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antibiotic therapy does not kill a virus. b. Incorrect. Some antiviral agents can be given to individuals who have reduced resistance to infections to try to prevent such an infection. c. Incorrect. Usually, supportive care is given by treating the symptoms the virus causes, such as fever, sore throat, runny nose, headache, and chest congestion. d. Correct. Antibiotics will help in treating a secondary bacterial infection occurring with the viral infection.

POINTS:

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:54 AM 8. Mycoses are diseases caused by what? a. Fungi b. Viruses c. Bacteria d. rickettsiae ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Fungi are microscopic plantlike organisms that cause diseases referred to as mycoses. b. Incorrect. Viruses do not cause the diseases referred to as mycoses.

c. Incorrect. Bacteria do not cause the diseases referred to as mycoses. d. Incorrect. Rickettsiae do not cause the diseases referred to as mycoses. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:54 AM 9. What type of infections is more commonly known as a yeast infection? a. candidiasis b. coccidioidomycosis c. histoplasmosis d. Protozoa ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Candida, commonly called candidiasis or yeast infection, often occurs in individuals with suppressed immune systems, anyone on long-term antibiotic therapy, and in individuals with diabetes. b. Incorrect. Coccidioidomycosis is a different type of fungal infection.

c. Incorrect. Histoplasmosis is a different type of fungal infection. d. Incorrect. Protozoa are single-celled microscopic members of the animal kingdom.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection 10. Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of fungal infections? a. They are easily treated with antifungal medications. b. They are easily treated with antibiotic medications. c. They can be cured with short-term therapy. d. They often require long-term therapy. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Fungal infections can be treated with antifungal medications but often are difficult to cure. b. Incorrect. Fungal infections can be treated with antibiotic medications but often are difficult to cure. c. Incorrect. Fungal infections are often difficult to cure quickly.

d. Correct. Fungal infections are often difficult to cure and may require long-term therapy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:56 AM 11. How are tapeworms acquired? a. by being bitten by a mosquito b. by ingesting spores c. by eating uncooked or inadequately cooked meat d. by drinking contaminated water ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Malaria is spread by mosquitoes. b. Incorrect. Protozoa infection is caused by ingesting spores. c. Correct. All tapeworms are acquired by eating uncooked or inadequately cooked meat. d. Incorrect. Tapeworms are not acquired by drinking water.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:58 AM 12. What system of the body has the role of protecting the body against foreign invasion? a. digestive system b. immune system c. lymphatic system d. respiratory system Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. The digestive system does not have the job of protecting the body against foreign invasion. b. Correct. The job of the immune system is to protect the body against foreign invasion. c. Incorrect. The lymphatic system does not have the job of protecting the body against foreign invasion. d. Incorrect. The respiratory system does not have the job of protecting the body against foreign invasion.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2 - Describe the basic defense mechanisms in the body. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:59 AM 13. Scab is the common name for what type of exudate? a. Serous b. Purulent c. Fibrinous d. Lesion ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Serous exudate is a clear, serum-like fluid containing small amounts of protein. b. Incorrect. Purulent exudate is commonly called pus.

c. Correct. Fibrinous exudates are commonly called a scab. d. Incorrect. A lesion is any discontinuity of tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:00 AM 14. What is a localized collection of pus called? a. an abscess b. an empyema c. a serous educate d. a lesion ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A localized collection of pus is called an abscess. b. Incorrect. An accumulation of pus in a body cavity is called empyema. c. Incorrect. Serous exudate is a clear, serum-like fluid containing small amounts of protein. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection d. Incorrect. A lesion is any discontinuity of tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:00 AM 15. A bedsore is a type of what? a. Abscess b. Furuncle c. Ulcer d. Fistula ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. A bedsore is a different type of inflammatory lesion, not an abscess. b. Incorrect. A furuncle is a type of abscess. c. Correct. Pressure ulcers, commonly called bedsores or decubitus ulcers, are caused by excessive pressure on tissue. d. Incorrect. A fistula can develop in connection with an abscess.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:01 AM 16. Cellulitis is characterized by what? a. edema and redness b. bruising and swelling c. edema and swelling d. bruising and redness ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Cellulitis is characterized by edema and redness. b. Incorrect. Neither bruising nor swelling are characteristics of cellulitis. c. Incorrect. Swelling is not a characteristic of cellulitis. d. Incorrect. Bruising is not a characteristic of cellulitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:02 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection 17. What is true regarding the treatment of cellulitis? a. It is treated successfully with antifungal medications. b. It is difficult to cure and might require long-term therapy. c. It is treated with a combination of antifungal and antibiotic medications. d. It can usually be treated effectively with antibiotics. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cellulitis is not a fungal infection. b. Incorrect. Fungal infections are difficult to cure and might require long-term therapy. c. Incorrect. Cellulitis is not treated with antifungal medications.

d. Correct. Cellulitis is potentially dangerous but usually can be treated effectively with antibiotics.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:03 AM 18. How many basic methods of tissue repair does the body have? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The body has more than one basic method of tissue repair. b. Correct. The body’s two basic methods of repair involve healing by regeneration or by fibrous connective tissue repair, or scar formation. c. Incorrect. The body has less than three basic methods of tissue repair.

d. Incorrect. The body has less than four basic methods of tissue repair. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:04 AM 19. What phase of tissue repair involves scar formation? a. fibrous connective tissue repair b. regeneration c. primary union d. secondary intention Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. The body’s two basic methods of repair involve healing by regeneration and by fibrous connective tissue repair, or scar formation. b. Incorrect. Regeneration does not involve scar formation.

c. Incorrect. Primary union (first intention) is a category of tissue healing, not tissue repair.

d. Incorrect. Secondary union (second intention) is a category of tissue healing, not tissue repair.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:05 AM 20. What category of tissue healing involves approximating the clean edges of the wound? a. scar formation b. regeneration c. primary union d. secondary union ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Scar formation is a method of tissue repair, not a category of tissue healing. b. Incorrect. Regeneration is a method of tissue repair, not a category of tissue healing. c. Correct. The primary union of tissue healing involves approximating the edges of the wound. d. Incorrect. The secondary union of tissue healing involves wounds with a larger degree of tissue damage and no clean edges.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5 - Identify complications of wound healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:11 AM 21. What category of tissue healing requires the production of large numbers of capillaries, fibroblasts, and collagen? a. scar formation b. regeneration c. primary union d. secondary union ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Scar formation is a method of tissue repair, not a category of tissue healing. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection b. Incorrect. Regeneration is a method of tissue repair, not a category of tissue healing. c. Incorrect. The primary union of tissue healing applies to wounds with minimal tissue damage. d. Correct. The secondary union of tissue healing involves wounds with a larger degree of tissue damage and no clean edges. To fill the wound, large numbers of capillaries, fibroblasts, and collagen must be produced.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5 - Identify complications of wound healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:12 AM 22. What type of raised scar, formed by excessing collagen, occurs more frequently in the Black population? a. Keloid b. Cellulite c. Ulcer d. chemotaxis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Excessive collagen formation often results in a hard, raised scar called a keloid. Keloid scars are often unsightly but harmless and occur more often in Blacks. b. Incorrect. Cellulitis is a diffuse, or widespread, acute inflammatory process.

c. Incorrect. An ulcer is a crater-like lesion in the skin or mucous membrane. d. Incorrect. Chemotaxis is a stage in the inflammatory process. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5 - Identify complications of wound healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:13 AM 23. Fibrous scar tissue that clings to the surface of adjoining organs form bands called what? a. adhesions b. Keloids c. Ulcers d. Abscesses ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. As normal fibrous scar tissue develops in the operative organ, part of this tissue can cling to the surface of the adjoining organs, forming fibrous bands called adhesions. b. Incorrect. Excessive collagen formation often results in a hard, raised scar called a keloid. c. Incorrect. An ulcer is a crater-like lesion in the skin or mucous membrane. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection d. Incorrect. An abscess is a type of inflammatory lesion. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5 - Identify complications of wound healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:14 AM 24. When normal flora become pathogenic and infect the host, they are said to be what? a. Abnormal b. carcinogenic c. Atypical d. opportunistic ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Abnormal is not the word used to describe this occurrence. b. Incorrect. The flora are not carcinogenic. c. Incorrect. Atypical is not the word used to describe this occurrence. d. Correct. When this occurs, the normal flora bacteria become opportunistic because they take the opportunity to cause infection in the host.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6 - Describe the process of infection development. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:15 AM 25. What test uses DNA-typing to test for drug resistant strains of MRSA? a. CA-MRSA b. Etest c. Mantoux test d. Xpert MRSA ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. CA-MRSA is the most dangerous form of MRSA. b. Incorrect. Etest uses an antibiotic-permeated strip to sow the kill zone and indicated the concentration of antibiotic needed to kill the organism. c. Incorrect. Tuberculosis (TB) skin testing (also called the Mantoux test) is one of the most common skin tests. d. Correct. Xpert MRSA is a test that uses DNA-typing technology to test for drugresistant strains.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.8 - Identify the common laboratory test conducted to identify pathogenic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

organisms. 8/8/2022 12:58 AM 11/30/2022 2:19 AM

26. Which of the following factors would lend to a faster healing time? a. Epithelial tissue heals slowly compared to other tissue types. b. Larger wounds heal faster than smaller ones. c. Wound tissue heals more rapidly when it is mobile. d. Younger people heal more rapidly than older people. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The location of the wound affects healing time; epithelial tissue heals rapidly compared to other tissue types. b. Incorrect. Larger wounds heal faster than smaller ones.

c. Incorrect. Wound tissue heals more rapidly if it is kept immobile. d. Correct. Younger people heal more rapidly than older people. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:20 AM 27. What effect do steroids have on the healing process? a. no effect b. inhibits healing c. speeds up healing d. speeds up primary union ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Steroids do have an effect on the healing process. b. Correct. Steroids inhibit healing. Steroid therapy inhibits the inflammatory response, giving the invading offender the upper hand. c. Incorrect. Steroids do not speed up healing.

d. Incorrect. Steroids inhibit healing and thus slow down primary union. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:21 AM 28. Which organ is frequently affected by adhesions? a. Stomach b. liver Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection c. Intestine d. lungs ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. The stomach is not the organ most frequently affected by adhesions. b. Incorrect. The liver is not the organ most frequently affected by adhesions. c. Correct. The intestine is the organ most frequently affected by adhesions. d. Incorrect. The lungs are not the organ most frequently affected by adhesions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5 - Identify complications of wound healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:22 AM 29. The leading cause of death in the world is: a. heart disease. b. accidental death. c. cancer. d. infection. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Heart disease is not the leading cause of death in the world. b. Incorrect. Accidental deaths are not the leading cause of death in the world. c. Incorrect. Cancer is not the leading cause of death in the world. d. Correct. Infections are the leading cause of death in the world. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6 - Describe the process of infection development. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:23 AM 30. The type of infection that accounts for 80 percent of all infections is: a. childhood. b. respiratory. c. viral. d. wound. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Childhood infections are common but do not account for 80 percent of all infections. b. Correct. Respiratory infections, including upper respiratory infections, influenzalike infections, pneumonia, and bronchitis, account for more than 80 percent of all infections. c. Incorrect. Viral infections are common but do not account for 80 percent of all Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection infections. d. Incorrect. Wound infections do not account for 80 percent of all infections.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:24 AM 31. Which of the following is a common infection caused by a fungus? a. shigellosis b. streptococcal infection c. candidiasis d. salmonellosis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Shigellosis is a common infection caused by the bacterium Shigella. b. Incorrect. Streptococcal infection is a common infection caused by the bacterium Streptococcus. c. Correct. Candidiasis is an infection caused by the fungus Candida.

d. Incorrect. Salmonellosis is a common infection caused by the bacterium Salmonella.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:24 AM 32. Which of the following is a common bacterial infection? a. herpes simplex b. mononucleosis c. influenza d. Escherichia coli ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Herpes simplex is a common viral infection. b. Incorrect. Mononucleosis is a common viral infection. c. Incorrect. Influenza is a common viral infection. d. Correct. Escherichia coli is a common viral infection. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/8/2022 1:21 AM 11/30/2022 2:25 AM

33. Which of the following is a type of helminth infection? a. tapeworms b. malaria c. rubella d. giardiasis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A tapeworm is an example of a helminth. b. Incorrect. Malaria is an example of a protozoan. c. Incorrect. Rubella is an example of a virus. d. Incorrect. Giardiasis is an example of a protozoan. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:26 AM 34. Which of the following is an example of an infection caused by a virus? a. mononucleosis b. thrush c. ringworm d. histoplasmosis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Mononucleosis is a viral infection. b. Incorrect. Thrush is a common fungal infection. c. Incorrect. Ringworm is a common fungal infection. d. Incorrect. Histoplasmosis is a common fungal infection. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:30 AM 35. The smallest infectious organism is a: a. fungus. b. virus. c. bacterium. d. helminth. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. A fungus is not the smallest infectious organism. b. Correct. A virus is the smallest infective organism. c. Incorrect. A bacterium is not the smallest infectious organism. d. Incorrect. A helminth is not the smallest infectious organism.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:31 AM 36. What is the body’s first basic line of defense? a. an intact skin b. the inflammatory response c. the immune response d. antibody production ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. An intact skin is the body’s first line of defense. b. Incorrect. The inflammatory response is a basic line of defense, but not the first. c. Incorrect. The immune response is a basic line of defense, but not the first.

d. Incorrect. Antibodies are produced as part of the immune response. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1 - Identify important terminology related to the defense mechanisms. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:32 AM 37. The signs of inflammation include: a. chill b. fever c. loss of color d. swelling ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Heat can be a sign of inflammation. b. Incorrect. Fever is not a sign of inflammation. c. Incorrect. Redness can be a sign of inflammation, not loss of color. d. Correct. The five cardinal signs of inflammation are heat, redness, swelling, pain, and loss of function.

POINTS:

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:33 AM 38. Which of the following is an example of an abscess? a. a crater-like lesion b. a furuncle c. a bedsore d. an ulcer ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An ulcer is a crater-like lesion. b. Correct. A furuncle is an example of an abscess. c. Incorrect. A bedsore is an example of an ulcer. d. Incorrect. An ulcer is a crater-like lesion in the skin or mucous membrane and is not an example of an abscess.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:34 AM 39. Common causes of cellulitis are: a. Proteus and Streptococcus. b. Streptococcus and Salmonella. c. Proteus and Staphylococcus. d. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Proteus is not a common cause of cellulitis. b. Incorrect. Salmonella is not a common cause of cellulitis. c. Incorrect. Proteus is not a common cause of cellulitis. d. Correct. Both Streptococcus and Staphylococcus are common causes of cellulitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:35 AM 40. The central portion of an abscess softens and develops a: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection a. head. b. tail. c. midsection. d. ulcer. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. When the central portion of the abscess softens or develops a head, puncturing the head will cause an outpouring of pus, relief of pain, and onset of healing. b. Incorrect. Tail does not apply to abscess formation.

c. Incorrect. Midsection does not apply to abscess formation. d. Incorrect. Ulcer does not apply to abscess formation. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:36 AM 41. One of the microorganisms that typically causes an abscess is: a. Streptococcus. b. Klebsiella. c. E. coli. d. Proteus. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Streptococcus is a microorganism that typically causes an abscess. b. Incorrect. Klebsiella is not the microorganism that typically causes an abscess. c. Incorrect. E. coli is not the microorganism that typically causes an abscess. d. Incorrect. Proteus is not the microorganism that typically causes an abscess. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:37 AM 42. Which of the following may delay healing? a. keeping the wound tissue immobile b. excess protein and vitamin C c. location in the epithelial tissue d. poor circulation ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Wound tissue heals more rapidly if it is kept immobile. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection b. Incorrect. Protein and vitamin C are essential to healing. c. Incorrect. Epithelial tissue heals rapidly, compared to other tissue types. d. Correct. Tissue with good blood supply heals more rapidly. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:39 AM 43. Which of the following is second only to HIV as a major public health threat? a. hospital-acquired MRSA b. helminths c. community-acquired MRSA d. rickettsiae ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hospital-acquired MRSA, while serious, is not second only to HIV as a major health threat. b. Incorrect. Helminths are any of the round or flatworms; they are common worldwide but not as common in the United States. They are not second only to HIV as a major health threat. c. Correct. Community-acquired MRSA is second only to HIV as a major public health threat. d. Incorrect. Rickettsiae are microscopic organisms that are intermediate between bacteria and virus. They are not second only to HIV as a major health threat.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:40 AM 44. What type of test can be used to quickly diagnosis strep throat? a. antigen-antibody reactive test b. Etest c. serologic testing d. Mantoux test ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A rapid diagnosis of strep throat can be made by testing for the presence of an antigen in a throat specimen. b. Incorrect. Etest uses an antibiotic-permeated strip to sow the kill zone and indicate the concentration of antibiotic needed to kill the organism. c. Incorrect. Bacterial, rickettsial, and some other pathogenic infections can be determined by serologic testing, which uses the individual’s blood serum to test for antibodies against the pathogen. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection d. Incorrect. Tuberculosis (TB) skin testing (also called the Mantoux test) is one of the most common skin tests.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.8 - Identify the common laboratory test conducted to identify pathogenic organisms. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:41 AM 45. What type of test is done to diagnose tuberculosis (TB)? a. culture test b. Etest c. serologic test d. Mantoux test ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A culture is the most definitive test for organisms in a lesion or wound. b. Incorrect. Etest uses an antibiotic-permeated strip to sow the kill zone and indicate the concentration of antibiotic needed to kill the organism. c. Incorrect. Bacterial, rickettsial, and some other pathogenic infections can be determined by serologic testing, which uses the individual’s blood serum to test for antibodies against the pathogen. d. Correct. Tuberculosis (TB) skin testing (also called the Mantoux test) is one of the most common skin tests.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.8 - Identify the common laboratory test conducted to identify pathogenic organisms. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:42 AM 46. As part of the immune response, what do lymphocytes produce? a. antibodies b. antigens c. bacteria d. neutrophils ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Once the antigen is identified, lymphocytes produce antibodies. These antibodies link with the cell antigen, thus killing the cell or disabling it. b. Incorrect. All cells, even human body cells, have protein or saccharide markers called antigens on their surfaces that identify the cell. c. Incorrect. The normal bacterial flora of the skin acts as a placeholder, preventing habitation by other bacteria (microscopic, one-celled organisms). Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection d. Incorrect. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cells. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2 - Describe the basic defense mechanisms in the body. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:43 AM 47. What type of glands that secrete antibacterial acids and enzymes are oil-secreting? a. sebaceous b. odoriferous c. mucous d. vascular ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Sebaceous glands are oil-secreting. b. Incorrect. Odoriferous glands are perspiration secreting. c. Incorrect. Mucous membranes serve to trap invaders. d. Incorrect. Vascular is not a type of gland. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1 - Identify important terminology related to the defense mechanisms. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:44 AM 48. What type of glands that secrete antibacterial acids and enzymes are perspiration-secreting? a. sebaceous b. odoriferous c. mucous d. vascular ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Sebaceous glands are oil-secreting. b. Correct. Odoriferous glands are perspiration secreting. c. Incorrect. Mucous membranes serve to trap invaders. d. Incorrect. Vascular is not a type of gland. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1 - Identify important terminology related to the defense mechanisms. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:46 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection 49. What is the body’s last line of defense against foreign invaders? a. intact skin b. inflammation c. immune response d. physical or surface barriers ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An intact skin is the body’s first line of defense. b. Incorrect. The inflammatory response is a basic line of defense, but it is not last. c. Correct. The immune response is the last line of defense to invasion.

d. Incorrect. Physical or surface barriers make up the body’s first line of defense. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2 - Describe the basic defense mechanisms in the body. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:47 AM 50. What type of immunity is specific, meaning that it identifies the enemy? a. physical barriers b. immune response c. inflammation d. normal flora ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Physical barriers, such as skin, are nonspecific. b. Correct. The immune response is specific. c. Incorrect. Inflammation is nonspecific. d. Incorrect. Normal flora are nonspecific. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2 - Describe the basic defense mechanisms in the body. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:49 AM 51. Which of the following is true about serous exudate? a. It is not easily reabsorbed after healing begins. b. It is made up of serum-like fluid with small amounts of protein. c. It is found after infections such as strep throat. d. It contains dead neutrophils, tissue debris, and pyogenic bacteria. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Serous exudate is easily reabsorbed by the body after healing begins. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection b. Correct. Serous exudate, such as the fluid found in skin blisters, is composed of serum-like fluid with small amounts of protein. c. Incorrect. Fibrinous exudate is found in infections such as strep throat or bacterial pneumonia. d. Incorrect. Purulent exudate is also called pus, and it contains dead neutrophils, tissue debris, and pyogenic bacteria.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1 - Identify important terminology related to the defense mechanisms. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:50 AM 52. Which area of the body is most likely to form a pressure sore (decubitus ulcer) in a patient who is bedridden? a. heel b. knee c. forearm d. lumbar ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Pressure sores are most likely to form over bony areas, such as the heel. b. Incorrect. While supine, knees do not create a point of bony contact with a surface, thus minimizing the risk of pressure sores. c. Incorrect. Although the elbow is a risky area for pressure sore formation, forearms are not likely to develop pressure sores. d. Incorrect. While the sacral area is a very common area to develop a pressure sore, the lumbar spine curve keeps the pressure off the surface.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2 - Describe the basic defense mechanisms in the body. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:51 AM 53. Which factor improves wound healing? a. younger age b. steroid therapy c. decreased circulation d. connective tissue ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A younger person will generally heal more quickly than an older person. b. Incorrect. Steroid therapy hinders the healing process.

c. Incorrect. Impaired circulation delays the healing process because nutrients and blood cells have more difficulty reaching the area of injury. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection d. Incorrect. Epithelial tissue heals more rapidly than connective tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:52 AM 54. Which type of bacteria causes scarlet fever? a. E. coli b. Staphylococcus c. Salmonella d. Streptococcus ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. E. coli lives in the intestinal tract and causes enteritis and travelers’ diarrhea. b. Incorrect. Staphylococcus is normally present on the skin but can invade the body and cause infections. c. Incorrect. Food poisoning is caused by Salmonella.

d. Correct. Streptococcus causes scarlet fever, in addition to other diseases such as strep throat and pneumonia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.7 - Identify the common infectious microorganisms and the resulting diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:52 AM 55. Which infective organism is the smallest? a. bacteria b. virus c. protozoa d. fungi ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Bacteria are larger than viruses. b. Correct. Viruses are the smallest infective organism and must be visualized with an electron microscope. c. Incorrect. One-celled protozoa are larger than viruses.

d. Incorrect. Fungi are larger than viruses and bacteria. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.8 - Identify the common laboratory test conducted to identify pathogenic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

organisms. 8/8/2022 1:52 AM 11/30/2022 3:53 AM

56. In the initial stages of the inflammatory process, what is the result of hyperemia? a. Exudate leaks into surrounding tissue. b. Pressure is exerted on nerve endings, causing pain. c. It brings increased numbers of white blood cells to the injured area. d. It draws neutrophils to highest chemical concentration. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Exudate leaks into surrounding tissues due to vascular permeability. b. Incorrect. As exudate leaks into surrounding tissues, edema results, leading to pressure on nerve endings. c. Correct. Through hyperemia, or increased blood flow, increased numbers of white blood cells arrive to the injured area to begin the healing process. d. Incorrect. Through chemicals that are released by bacteria, injured tissue and plasma proteins, neutrophils are drawn to the area with the highest chemical concentration.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3 - Explain the steps in the inflammatory process. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:54 AM 57. Which of the following characteristics describes keloids? a. develops after colon surgery b. may obstruct the intestines c. separated tissue margins d. excessive collagen formation ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Adhesions may develop after colon surgery. b. Incorrect. Adhesions may obstruct the intestines or other internal organs. c. Incorrect. A healing scar that doesn’t have adequate strength may result with wound dehiscence, or separation of the tissues. d. Correct. Keloids are hard, raised scars from excessive collagen formation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1 - Identify important terminology related to the defense mechanisms. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:55 AM 58. Which of the following cells are released if an infection has not healed within 7 to 10 days? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection a. polymorphonuclear cells b. lymphocytes c. monocytes d. macrophages ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Of all the white blood cells, polymorphonuclear cells move to an infection first. b. Correct. If an infection has not healed within 7 to 10 days, lymphocytes are released to identify the pathogen and then create an antibody. c. Incorrect. Monocytes are released after polymorphonuclear cells, but before lymphocytes. d. Incorrect. Monocytes are also called macrophages, due to their phagocytic actions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6 - Describe the process of infection development. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:56 AM 59. How is regeneration different from fibrous connective tissue repair? a. Regeneration is evident in nerves, brain tissue, and heart muscle. b. Regeneration replaces the original tissue with scar tissue. c. Regeneration does not restore function. d. Regeneration usually leads to restoration of normal function. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Because regeneration involves mitotic cell division, it is not seen in nerve, brain tissue, or heart muscle repair. b. Incorrect. Regeneration replaces the original, injured tissue with the same type of cells. c. Incorrect. Fibrous connective tissue repair does not restore function, but regeneration does restore function. d. Correct. Regeneration is ideal tissue repair because it usually leads to restoration of normal function.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4 - Describe the process of tissue repair and healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:57 AM 60. Which of the following slows down wound healing? a. increased organism virulence b. adequate protein and vitamin C in diet c. small wound Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Inflammation and Infection d. wound immobility ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Wound healing is delayed when the wound has virulent microorganisms present. b. Incorrect. Wounds are healed more quickly with good nutrition, including adequate protein and vitamin C. c. Incorrect. Smaller wounds are quicker to heal than larger wounds.

d. Incorrect. A wound heals more quickly when it is immobilized. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5 - Identify complications of wound healing. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:58 AM

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders 1. In terms of etiology, allergy is an: a. inherited sensitivity. b. inherited hypersensitivity. c. acquired sensitivity. d. acquired hypersensitivity. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Allergies are acquired. b. Incorrect. Allergies are acquired. c. Incorrect. Allergies are hypersensitivities. d. Correct. Allergies are acquired hypersensitivity. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:00 AM 2. Which of the following is true of delayed-response allergies? a. They tend to exhibit a more severe reaction. b. They are fast to react to exposure to allergen. c. They are usually less harmful. d. They are harder to identify and treat. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. They are usually less harmful. b. Incorrect. Delayed-response allergies are slower to react. c. Correct. Delayed-response allergies are slower to react and are usually less harmful. d. Incorrect. They are not more difficult to identify or treat.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:01 AM 3. What disease is defined as a reaction to an allergen in the mucous membranes of the nose and upper respiratory tract? a. hay fever b. rheumatic fever c. urticaria d. contact dermatitis ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Hay fever is a reaction to an allergen in the mucous membranes of the nose and upper respiratory tract. b. Incorrect. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can affect the heart, joints, and skin. c. Incorrect. Urticaria is a vascular reaction of the skin.

d. Incorrect. Contact dermatitis is an acute or chronic allergic reaction affecting the skin.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:02 AM 4. Which of the following is typical of the allergen that causes hay fever? a. It is perennial and transmitted through physical contact. b. It is usually airborne and can be seasonal. c. It is seasonal and transmitted through physical contact. d. It is usually airborne and is nonseasonal. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Physical contact is not necessary for transmission. b. Correct. The allergen that causes hay fever is usually airborne and can be seasonal. c. Incorrect. Physical contact is not necessary for transmission.

d. Incorrect. It can be seasonal. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:03 AM 5. Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of asthma? a. It is curable. b. It cannot be managed effectively. c. It can be controlled by a combination of therapies. d. It can be effectively treated with medication alone. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. There is no cure for asthma. b. Incorrect. Asthma can be controlled. c. Correct. It can be controlled by a combination of therapies, including strict compliance to a medication regimen, relaxation techniques, exercise, and avoidance of allergens. d. Incorrect. Medication is only part of an effective management program. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:04 AM 6. How are food allergies diagnosed? a. by administering skin patch testing b. by doing blood testing along with an electrocardiogram c. by testing the blood for antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor d. by eliminating foods and then adding them back to the diet ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Skin patch testing is used to determine the allergen causing contact dermatitis. b. Incorrect. Blood testing along with an electrocardiogram to determine heart muscle damage are part of the diagnostic workup for rheumatic fever. c. Incorrect. Blood testing for antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor is also suggestive of myasthenia. d. Correct. Gastrointestinal food allergies are often difficult to diagnose. The process involves eliminating certain foods and then adding them back into the diet one at a time.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of an immune system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:07 AM 7. What is the purpose of typing and cross-matching red blood cells (RBCs) prior to a transfusion? a. to identify antigens and prevent rejection b. to identify antibodies and prevent rejection c. to identify allergens and prevent rejection d. to identify lesions and prevent rejection ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. RBCs have to be typed and cross-matched to identify antigens properly and prevent rejection. b. Incorrect. Typing and cross-matching RBCs does not identify antibodies.

c. Incorrect. Typing and cross-matching RBCs does not identify allergens. d. Incorrect. Typing and cross-matching RBCs does not identify lesions. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:08 AM 8. When does Rh factor lead to erythroblastosis fetalis in pregnancy? a. Rh– mothers with Rh-positive babies always have problems with antigens during their first pregnancy. b. Rh– mothers will have problems with antigens during their second or subsequent pregnancy with Rh-positive babies. c. Rh+ mothers with Rh-negative babies always have problems with antigens during their first pregnancy. d. Rh+ mothers will have problems with antigens during their second or subsequent pregnancy with Rh-negative babies. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Rh– mothers pregnant with Rh+ babies usually do not have a problem with the first baby. b. Correct. If the Rh– mother becomes pregnant with another Rh+ baby, antibodies against the Rh factor that she has built up in her blood do cross the placental membranes. c. Incorrect. Rh+ mothers “don’t care” about the factor.

d. Incorrect. Rh+ mothers “don’t care” about the factor. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 7:12 AM 9. Which time period is identified with the beginning of effective treatment for HIV? a. 1980 to 1995 b. 1996 to 1999 c. 2000 to 2003 d. 2012 to the present ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. 1980 to 1995 is the time period before effective HIV treatment became available. b. Correct. 1996 to 1999 is identified as the beginning of effective treatment.

c. Incorrect. 2000 to 2003 is the time frame when contemporary HIV treatment became readily available.

d. Incorrect. 2012 is when the FDA approved an at-home HIV test kit. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 1:03 AM 11/30/2022 4:12 AM

10. What is the estimated median age of death for an individual with AIDS if HIV is diagnosed while the T-cell count is over 400 cells per microliter and antiretroviral treatment is used? a. 39 b. 53 c. 68 d. 77 ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An individual in this situation would have roughly the life expectancy of the general population. b. Incorrect. An individual in this situation would have roughly the life expectancy of the general population. c. Incorrect. An individual in this situation would have roughly the life expectancy of the general population. d. Correct. The life expectancy for this individual would be approximately 77 years of age.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:13 AM 11. Which of the following is one of the ways in which HIV is transmitted? a. by social kissing b. by sharing eating utensils c. by sharing needles d. through blood transfusions ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. HIV cannot be transmitted by social kissing. b. Incorrect. An individual cannot get HIV from sharing eating utensils. c. Correct. One of the ways HIV is primarily transmitted is by sharing needles. d. Incorrect. Transmission of HIV through blood transfusions has been virtually eliminated by effective screening methods.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders 12. Which of the following is indicative of chronic HIV infection? a. Large amounts of the virus are produced in the body, attacking CD4 T cells. b. HIV is active but reproduces at very low levels. c. T-cell count drops below 200. d. Prolonged swelling of the lymph glands in the armpits, groin, or neck. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. This is a symptom in the first stage, acute HIV infection. b. Correct. In the second stage, chronic HIV infection, HIV is active but reproduces at very low levels. c. Incorrect. This is a symptom in the third stage, AIDS.

d. Incorrect. This is a symptom in the third stage, AIDS. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:20 AM 13. Which of the following would be likely to cause trauma to the immune system? a. a broken bone b. a respiratory infection c. antibiotics d. chemotherapy ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Trauma to the immune system is generally limited to treatments or medications that suppress the system.

b. Incorrect. Trauma to the immune system is generally limited to treatments that suppress the system. c. Incorrect. Trauma to the immune system is generally limited to treatments that suppress the system. d. Correct. Trauma to the immune system is generally limited to treatments or medications, such as chemotherapy and radiation treatments, that often lead to immunosuppression.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:21 AM 14. Which organ of the immune system is known to degenerate with age, beginning after puberty? a. lymph nodes b. thymus gland Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders c. spleen d. bone marrow ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. The lymph nodes have not been specifically identified as degenerating with age beginning after puberty. b. Correct. The thymus gland is known to degenerate with age. The thymus reaches its maximum size in early childhood and then slowly decreases in size after puberty. c. Incorrect. The spleen has not been specifically identified as degenerating with age beginning after puberty. d. Incorrect. Bone marrow has not been specifically identified as degenerating with age beginning after puberty.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the immune system and the common disorders of the system associated with aging. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:24 AM 15. Which of the following are active in the inflammatory process? a. polymorphonuclear leukocytes b. monocytes c. macrophages d. lymphocytes ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs), also known as granulocytes, are active in the inflammatory process. b. Incorrect. Monocytes and macrophages become phagocytic in the presence of pathogens and foreign substances. c. Incorrect. Monocytes and macrophages become phagocytic in the presence of pathogens and foreign substances. d. Incorrect. The lymphocytes are the major players in the immune response.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:30 AM 16. What type of leukocytes are responsible for humoral immunity? a. eosinophils b. basophils c. T lymphocytes d. B lymphocytes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Eosinophils are responsible for allergic response. b. Incorrect. Basophils are responsible for histamine release. c. Incorrect. T lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. d. Correct. B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:31 AM 17. What type of leukocytes stimulate B cells to produce antibodies? a. eosinophils b. basophils c. T lymphocytes d. B lymphocytes ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Eosinophils are responsible for allergic response. b. Incorrect. Basophils are responsible for histamine release. c. Correct. T lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Several types of T cells function to stimulate B cells to produce antibodies. d. Incorrect. B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:32 AM 18. The Coombs test can indicate the formation of what? a. white blood cells b. red blood cells c. antibodies on the white blood cells d. antibodies on the red blood cells ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A Coombs test will indicate the formation of antibodies. b. Incorrect. A Coombs test will indicate the formation of antibodies. c. Incorrect. A Coombs test will indicate something about red blood cells. d. Correct. A Coombs test will indicate the formation of antibodies on the red blood cells.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of an immune system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:32 AM 19. A severe asthmatic attack that may last several days is called what? a. status asthmaticus b. bronchial asthma c. anaphylaxis d. hay fever ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Status asthmaticus is a severe asthmatic attack that may last several days. b. Incorrect. Bronchial asthma is another name for asthma.

c. Incorrect. Anaphylaxis is a server allergic reaction to an allergen. d. Incorrect. Hay fever is not a form of asthma. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of an immune system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:33 AM 20. Which of the following is a life-threatening allergic response to an allergen? a. rheumatic fever b. anaphylaxis c. status asthmaticus d. urticaria ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can affect the heart, joints, and skin.

b. Correct. Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic response to an allergen. c. Incorrect. Status asthmaticus is a severe asthmatic attack that may last several days. d. Incorrect. Urticaria is a vascular reaction of the skin.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 1:44 AM 11/30/2022 4:34 AM

21. Rheumatoid arthritis causes chronic inflammation of what type of tissue? a. cardiac b. connective c. muscle d. nerve ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis does not inflame cardiac tissue. b. Correct. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation of connective tissue. c. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis does not inflame muscle tissue.

d. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis does not inflame nerve tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:36 AM 22. Which of the following is a classic sign of rheumatoid arthritis? a. fever b. lesions c. wheals d. ulnar deviation ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Fever is a symptom of rheumatic fever. b. Incorrect. Lesions are not a symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. c. Incorrect. Wheals are elevated areas symptomatic of urticarial. d. Correct. A classic sign of rheumatoid arthritis is ulnar deviation. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:37 AM 23. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by what? a. hyperkinesis b. severe muscle fatigue c. hyperactivity d. ulnar deviation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Hyperkinesis, or hyperactivity, is not a characteristic of myasthenia gravis. b. Correct. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by weakness of the muscles.

c. Incorrect. Hyperkinesis, or hyperactivity, is not a characteristic of myasthenia gravis.

d. Incorrect. Ulnar deviation is a sign of rheumatoid arthritis, not a characteristic of myasthenia gravis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:38 AM 24. What disease affects the transmission of nerve signals at the neuromuscular junction to muscle? a. myasthenia gravis b. diabetes mellitus c. rheumatoid arthritis d. rheumatic fever ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Myasthenia gravis is a disease that affects the transmission of nerve signals at the neuromuscular junction to muscle. b. Incorrect. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is a disease that alters the body’s carbohydrate or sugar metabolism. c. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation of connective tissue. d. Incorrect. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can affect the heart, joints, and skin.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:39 AM 25. What does myasthenia gravis affect initially? a. vision b. eyelids c. facial muscles d. swallowing ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Double vision comes after facial muscles are affected. b. Incorrect. Drooping eyelids come later. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders c. Correct. Initially, myasthenia gravis affects the facial muscles. d. Incorrect. Difficulty swallowing comes later. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:40 AM 26. Seasonal allergens that may cause hay fever include: a. pet dander. b. house dust. c. grasses. d. foods. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pet dander is a nonseasonal allergen. b. Incorrect. House dust is a non-seasonal allergen. c. Correct. Grasses are a seasonal allergen that may cause hay fever. d. Incorrect. Foods are nonseasonal allergens. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:49 AM 27. Nonseasonal allergies may be a result of: a. food allergies. b. grasses. c. tree pollen. d. ragweed pollen. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Food allergies are a nonseasonal allergen. b. Incorrect. Grass pollen is a seasonal allergen. c. Incorrect. Tree pollen is a seasonal allergen. d. Incorrect. Ragweed pollen is a seasonal allergen. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:55 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 4:50 AM

28. What type of leukocyte functions as an allergic response? a. eosinophils b. basophils c. T lymphocytes d. B lymphocytes ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Eosinophils are responsible for allergic response. b. Incorrect. Basophils are responsible for histamine release. c. Incorrect. T lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. d. Incorrect. B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:51 AM 29. What disease, primarily identified with AIDS, is an infection of the lungs with a protozoan? a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia b. Kaposi’s sarcoma c. strep throat d. severe combined immunodeficiency disease ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Pneumocystis carinii is an infection of the lungs with a protozoan. b. Incorrect. Kaposi’s sarcoma, also identified with AIDS, is a blood-vessel cancer. c. Incorrect. Strep throat is not an infection of the lungs with a protozoan identified with AIDS. d. Incorrect. SCID is a group of inherited disorders in which a dysfunction of the immune system occurs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:52 AM 30. Secondary organs of the immune system include: a. the thymus gland. b. bone marrow. c. the lymph nodes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders d. the heart. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. The thymus gland is a primary organ of the immune system. b. Incorrect. Bone marrow is a primary organ of the immune system. c. Correct. The immune system includes primary organs such as the thymus gland and the bone marrow, and secondary organs such as the lymph nodes, spleen, liver, and tonsils. d. Incorrect. The heart is not an organ of the immune system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:53 AM 31. Primary organs of the immune system include the: a. thymus gland. b. spleen. c. liver. d. lymph nodes. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The immune system includes primary organs such as the thymus gland and the bone marrow, and secondary organs such as the lymph nodes, spleen, liver, and tonsils. b. Incorrect. The spleen is a secondary organ of the immune system.

c. Incorrect. The liver is a secondary organ of the immune system. d. Incorrect. The lymph nodes are a secondary organ of the immune system. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:54 AM 32. What type of immunity occurs when a person receives the MMR vaccination? a. active natural immunity b. active artificial immunity c. passive natural immunity d. passive artificial immunity ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An example of active natural immunity is having the disease. b. Correct. An example of active artificial immunity is receiving the vaccination, such as MMR. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. An example of passive natural immunity is the antibodies produced by the body itself or received from maternal-fetus transmission. d. Incorrect. An example of passive artificial immunity is the injection of antibodies.

b. Incorrect. An example of active artificial immunity is receiving the vaccination. c. Incorrect. An example of passive natural immunity is the antibodies received from maternal-fetus transmission. d. Incorrect. An example of passive artificial immunity is the injection of antibodies.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1 - Define the terminology common to the immune system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:05 AM 34. Antibodies received from maternal-fetal transmission are an example of: a. active natural immunity. b. active artificial immunity. c. passive natural immunity. d. passive artificial immunity. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An example of active natural immunity is having the disease. b. Incorrect. An example of active artificial immunity is receiving the vaccination. c. Correct. An example of passive natural immunity is the antibodies produced by the body itself or received from maternal-fetus transmission. d. Incorrect. An example of passive artificial immunity is the injection of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders antibodies.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1 - Define the terminology common to the immune system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:06 AM 35. Examples of tests used to diagnose allergies include: a. subcutaneous injections. b. scratch tests. c. X-rays. d. CBC. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Subcutaneous injections go into the fat layer and are too deep for diagnosing allergies. b. Correct. Scratch tests are used to diagnose allergies.

c. Incorrect. X-rays do not show allergies. d. Incorrect. CBC is complete blood count and does not diagnose allergies. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of an immune system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:08 AM 36. Individuals who are suspected of having rheumatoid arthritis may have which of the following to confirm the diagnosis? a. UA b. CPK c. RF d. ANA ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. UA stands for urinalysis and is not diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis. b. Incorrect. CPK is a blood enzyme, and the CPK test is not diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis. c. Correct. Presence of the antibody called rheumatoid factor (RF) in the affected individual’s blood is indicative of the disease. d. Incorrect. ANA stands for antinuclear antibody, and its presence may indicate an autoimmune problem. But the ANA test is not diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of an immune system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:10 AM 37. Common allergic reactions include: a. AIDS. b. contact dermatitis. c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. d. scleroderma. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. AIDS is not an allergic reaction. AIDS is a fatal disease caused by HIV. b. Correct. Contact dermatitis is an acute or chronic allergic reaction affecting the skin. c. Incorrect. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is an AIDS-related condition.

d. Incorrect. Scleroderma is a chronic autoimmune disorder. It is not a common allergic reaction.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:11 AM 38. Signs and symptoms of allergies include: a. increased WBCs. b. increased RBCs. c. increased eosinophils. d. decreased eosinophils. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A particular type of WBC elevates but not the entire count. b. Incorrect. Increased RBC count is not seen with allergies. c. Correct. Eosinophils are white blood cells and elevate with allergies. d. Incorrect. Eosinophils do not decrease with allergies. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:12 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders 39. Respiratory symptoms of allergic reactions include: a. swelling. b. redness. c. itching. d. wheezing. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Allergies can lead to swelling, but this is not a respiratory symptom. b. Incorrect. Allergies can lead to redness, but this is not a respiratory symptom. c. Incorrect. Allergies can lead to itching, but this is not a respiratory symptom. d. Correct. Sneezing, wheezing, and a runny nose can be respiratory symptoms of allergic reactions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:13 AM 40. Hay fever is a seasonal allergic reaction that may be caused by: a. medications. b. ragweed pollen. c. food. d. laundry detergent. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Medications do not cause seasonal hay fever. b. Correct. Ragweed pollen may cause seasonal allergic reactions called hay fever.

c. Incorrect. In addition to house dust and pet dander, food allergies may cause nonseasonal hay fever. d. Incorrect. Laundry detergent does not cause seasonal hay fever.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:14 AM 41. Treatment of hay fever includes: a. antihistamines. b. antibiotics. c. bronchodilators. d. cough suppressants. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Antihistamines are a possible treatment for hay fever. b. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not effective in treating hay fever. c. Incorrect. Bronchodilators are not used to treat hay fever. d. Incorrect. Cough suppressants are not used to treat hay fever.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:14 AM 42. Asthma is also known as: a. status asthmaticus. b. seasonal asthma. c. bronchial asthma. d. perennial asthma. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Asthma is not known as status asthmaticus. b. Incorrect. Asthma is not known as seasonal asthma. c. Correct. Bronchial asthma is known as asthma. d. Incorrect. Asthma is not known as perennial asthma.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:15 AM 43. Treatment of asthma includes which of the following? a. antifungal creams b. desensitization c. avoidance of causative allergens. d. tracheostomy ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antifungal creams are not a possible treatment for asthma. b. Incorrect. Desensitization is not a treatment for asthma. c. Correct. Avoidance of causative allergens is a possible treatment for asthma. d. Incorrect. Tracheostomy is not indicated as a possible treatment for asthma. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:17 AM 44. Triggers of non-allergic asthma include which of the following? a. pollen b. smoke c. exercise d. dust ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pollen is an allergen that can cause asthma. b. Incorrect. Smoke is an allergen that can cause asthma. c. Correct. Exercise can trigger a non-allergic asthma attack. d. Incorrect. Dust is an allergen that can cause asthma. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:18 AM 45. Hives and nettle rash are both common names for what? a. hay fever b. anaphylaxis c. asthma d. urticaria ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hay fever is not commonly called hives or nettle rash. b. Incorrect. Anaphylaxis is not commonly called hives or nettle rash. c. Incorrect. Hives and nettle rash are not known as asthma. d. Correct. Urticaria is commonly called hives or nettle rash. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:19 AM 46. Urticaria is caused by a. absorption of the antigen into the blood directly or through the mucous membranes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders b. contact with an external irritant. c. an allergen in the environment that enters the respiratory tract. d. an airborne allergen. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Anaphylaxis is caused by absorption of the antigen into the blood directly or through the mucous membranes. b. Correct. This condition is caused by contact with an external irritant such as insect bites, pollen, drugs, food, or plants. c. Incorrect. Asthma can be caused by an allergen in the environment that enters the respiratory tract. d. Incorrect. Hay fever is caused by an airborne allergen.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:20 AM 47. What is the leading cause of anaphylactic reactions outside the hospital? a. antibiotics b. insect stings c. latex d. food allergy ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Medications are a common cause of anaphylactic reactions, but they are not the most common cause outside the hospital.

b. Incorrect. Insect stings are a common cause of anaphylactic reactions, but they are not the most common cause outside the hospital. c. Incorrect. Latex is a common cause of anaphylactic reactions, but it is not the most common cause outside the hospital. d. Correct. Food allergy is believed to be the leading cause of anaphylaxis outside the hospital.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders d. decongestants. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. A tracheostomy may be performed to reestablish an airway that has been swollen shut. b. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not a treatment for life-threatening anaphylactic shock.

c. Incorrect. Antihypertensives are not a treatment for life-threatening anaphylactic shock.

d. Incorrect. Decongestants are not a treatment for life-threatening anaphylactic shock.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:22 AM 49. Symptoms of food allergies may include: a. cramping. b. hair loss. c. constipation. d. elevated temperature. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Cramping may occur as a result of food allergies. b. Incorrect. Hair loss is not a symptom of food allergies. c. Incorrect. Diarrhea, but not constipation is a symptom of food allergies. d. Incorrect. Elevated temperature is not a symptom of food allergies. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of an immune system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:23 AM 50. Which of the following drugs is an antihistamine used to reduce the symptoms from allergies? a. ibuprofen b. hydrocortisone c. fexofenadine d. naproxen ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory and an antipyretic/analgesic drug. b. Incorrect. Hydrocortisone is an anti-inflammatory drug. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders c. Correct. Carbinoxamine or levocabastine (prescription drugs); fexofenadine, cetirizine, or loratadine (over-the-counter drugs) are all antihistamines. d. Incorrect. Naproxen is an antipyretic/analgesic drug.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common immune system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:24 AM 51. Which of the following is true about B lymphocytes? a. They are responsible for the cell-mediated response. b. They destroy microorganisms that invade the body. c. B lymphocytes mature in the thymus. d. They enlarge and divide to become mature plasma cells. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity. b. Incorrect. B cells are responsible for humoral immunity, which is circulating antibodies, instead of T cells, which destroy microorganisms that invade the body. c. Incorrect. B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow.

d. Correct. B cells enlarge and divide to become mature plasma cells. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:25 AM 52. Parker is diagnosed with one of several autoimmune deficiency diseases. Which condition is considered an immune deficiency disease? a. hay fever b. urticaria c. AIDS d. rheumatic fever ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hay fever is a hypersensitivity disorder of the immune system. b. Incorrect. Urticaria is an allergic reaction with wheals and itching. c. Correct. AIDS is an immune deficiency disease, which makes patients very susceptible to developing other infections. d. Incorrect. Rheumatic fever is a hypersensitivity disorder, in which the body attacks itself.

POINTS:

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:26 AM 53. Arlyn has been told she has blood type A. Which antigen and antibody are associated with blood type A? a. A antigen and anti-B antibody b. B antigen and anti-A antibody c. no antigen, anti-A antibody, and anti-B antibody d. A antigen, B antigen, and no antibody ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Blood type A has the A antigen and anti-B antibody. b. Incorrect. Blood type B has the B antigen and anti-A antibody. c. Incorrect. Blood type O has no antigen and the anti-A and anti-B antibodies. d. Incorrect. Blood type AB has the A antigen, the B antigen, and no antibody. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1 - Define the terminology common to the immune system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:27 AM 54. Daphne is pregnant with her first child and is typed as an Rh– blood type. Which isoimmune condition occurs with an Rh– mother and an Rh+ baby? a. myasthenia gravis b. rheumatoid arthritis c. erythroblastosis fetalis d. systemic lupus erythematosus ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Myasthenia gravis is a rare autoimmune disease that causes extreme muscle fatigue. b. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation of connective tissue. c. Correct. Erythroblastosis fetalis is an isoimmune condition, in which an Rh– mother will creates antibodies to the Rh+ fetus, which is often fatal without treatment. d. Incorrect. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder, which can affect multiple organ systems.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common immune Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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system disorders. 8/5/2022 2:55 AM 11/30/2022 5:30 AM

55. Evon knows they are a universal blood type but doesn’t know what that means. Which blood type and Rh factor is the universal donor? a. A+ b. B– c. O– d. AB+ ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A+ blood can be given to A and AB blood type, as well as Rh+. b. Incorrect. Blood types B and AB can receive B– blood, as well as either Rh factor. c. Correct. Anyone with O– blood is considered a universal donor because all blood types (A, B, AB, O) can receive it, as well as either Rh factor. d. Incorrect. Persons with AB+ blood are considered universal recipients because they can receive any blood type and either Rh factor.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1 - Define the terminology common to the immune system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:31 AM 56. Austin is concerned with changes to his immune system as he grows older. What is an age-related change on the immune system? a. The thymus gets larger. b. T cells do not function as well. c. The number of T cells increases. d. An increased tolerance to self-antigens results. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. In adulthood, the thymus gets smaller. b. Correct. As aging occurs, T cells do not function as well, thus weakening the immune system. c. Incorrect. The number of T cells decrease with age.

d. Incorrect. As people age, they are more susceptible to autoimmune diseases because they lose tolerance to self-antigens.

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Chapter 05 - Immune System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 2:57 AM 11/30/2022 5:32 AM

57. Sam exhibits signs of scleroderma. Which of the following characteristics describes scleroderma? a. thick, leathery, taut skin and joint contractures b. red, butterfly-shaped rash on nose and cheeks c. nodules around the fingers, toes, and elbows d. excessive wheals and intense itching ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Scleroderma, an autoimmune disease with no cure, causes thick, leathery, taut skin and joint contractures, among other signs and symptoms. b. Incorrect. Systemic lupus erythematosus, an autoimmune disease, has a trademark sign of a red, butterfly-shaped rash on the nose and cheeks. c. Incorrect. Rheumatoid nodules may be found around fingers, toes, and elbows when rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease, is present. d. Incorrect. Urticaria is a hypersensitivity condition, which results in excessive wheals (elevated areas also known as hives) and intense itching.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of an immune system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:33 AM 58. Tyler was sent to the hospital with systemic anaphylaxis. Why does systemic anaphylaxis often result in a medical emergency? a. excessive mucus production b. massive drop in blood pressure c. bronchospasms d. cough ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Excessive mucus production may occur during an asthma attack. b. Correct. Systemic anaphylaxis causes histamine to be released all throughout the body, resulting in a huge drop in blood pressure, which will likely cause shock and unconsciousness. c. Incorrect. Bronchospasms are more likely to occur in an asthma attack, while edema may occur in the airways in systemic anaphylaxis. d. Incorrect. A dry cough is present with asthma.

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59. Blanca had a tissue graft that her body rejected. Tissue graft rejection is what type of immune condition? a. allergy b. autoimmunity c. isoimmunity d. immune deficiency ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Examples of allergic hypersensitivity conditions include hay fever, urticaria, and contact dermatitis. b. Incorrect. Autoimmune conditions result when the body attacks its own cells.

c. Correct. Isoimmunity occurs with hypersensitivity to another’s antigen, such as with tissue graft rejection.

d. Incorrect. Immune deficiency is when the body does not respond as expected to antigens, such as with AIDS.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5 - Identify disorders of the immune system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:35 AM 60. Lee was told that disease they previously had created an immunity. Which of the following types of immunity occurs after having a disease? a. active natural immunity b. active artificial immunity c. passive natural immunity d. passive artificial immunity ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Active natural immunity to a disease occurs after having the disease. b. Incorrect. Receiving a vaccination is called active artificial immunity. c. Incorrect. Any immunity that results from the maternal-fetal transmission is passive natural immunity. d. Incorrect. Injection of antibodies is passive artificial immunity.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders 1. What provides a cushion to prevent friction between bones? a. joints b. cartilage c. muscle d. connective tissue ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Joints are where two or more bones meet. b. Correct. Cartilage provides protection and a cushion to prevent friction between bones. c. Incorrect. Muscles proved structure and movement and produce heat.

d. Incorrect. Connective tissue holds muscle fibers together. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:05 AM 2. Why are the muscles of the musculoskeletal system called striated? a. They are moved by conscious control. b. They move involuntarily. c. They act like a shock absorber for the bones. d. They look striped or banded under a microscope. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. They are called voluntary muscles because they move by conscious control. b. Incorrect. The move voluntarily, or by conscious control.

c. Incorrect. Cartilage acts like a shock absorber. d. Correct. The muscles of the musculoskeletal system are called striated because they look striped or banded under a microscope.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Many fractures are easy to recognize due to the obvious displacement and related deformity. Nondisplaced (not out of place or position) fractures are not as easy to recognize. b. Incorrect. A common incomplete fracture that occurs in children is called a greenstick fracture because it appears to have broken partially. c. Incorrect. An impacted fracture is one characterized as a bone end forced over the other end. d. Incorrect. Avulsion fracture describes a separation of a small bone fragment from the bone to which a tendon or ligament is attached.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:07 AM 4. Muscle atrophy occurs when? a. when a muscle is overused b. when a muscle is sprained c. when weakness persists for an extended period d. when a fracture is nondisplaced ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Atrophy results from weakness, not over use. b. Incorrect. A sprain will not necessarily lead to atrophy. c. Correct. Muscle tissue will atrophy if weakness persists for an extended time. d. Incorrect. Fractures occur to the bones, not the muscles. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:08 AM 5. Which of the following is often used to diagnose muscle disorders? a. arthroscopy b. electromyogram c. computerized axial tomography (CAT or CT) d. dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan) ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Arthroscopy is a procedure used to evaluate joints. b. Correct. Muscle disorders are often evaluated by electromyography (EMG), Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders accomplished by inserting a small needle into muscle tissue and recording the electrical activity. c. Incorrect. Computerized axial tomography (CAT or CT) is used to diagnose bone and joint disorders. d. Incorrect. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan) is used for bone mass density screening.

c. Incorrect. Bracing is not used to treat osteomyelitis. d. Incorrect. Administration of medications to prevent fractures is a treatment to help slow the progression of osteoporosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:10 AM 7. What is osteomalacia? a. shortening of the bone b. softening of the bones c. inflammation of the bone d. decrease in bone mass ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Shortening of the limb can occur with osteomyelitis. b. Correct. Osteomalacia is the general term for the softening of the bones in adults; in children it is called rickets. c. Incorrect. Osteomyelitis is an inflammation of the bone.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease that involves a decrease in bone mass.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:11 AM 8. What do bones need in order to mineralize? a. calcium, vitamin C, and vitamin D b. potassium, phosphorus, and vitamin D c. calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D d. potassium, phosphorus, vitamin C ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Vitamin C is not required for bones to mineralize. b. Incorrect. Potassium is not required for bones to mineralize. c. Correct. To mineralize, bones need calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D. d. Incorrect. Potassium and vitamin C are not required for bones to mineralize. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:12 AM 9. Which of the following is also called degenerative joint disease? a. osteoarthritis b. rheumatoid arthritis c. gout d. hallux valgus ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Osteoarthritis is also called degenerative joint disease. b. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder. c. Incorrect. Gout is often called gouty arthritis. d. Incorrect. Hallux valgus is commonly called a bunion. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:19 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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10. What is one of the ways in which osteomyelitis can be prevented? a. by reducing alcohol consumption b. by increasing calcium in the diet c. by cleansing wounds d. by exercising regularly ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Reduced alcohol consumption is not linked to the prevention of osteomyelitis. b. Incorrect. Calcium consumption is not linked to the prevention of osteomyelitis.

c. Correct. Cleansing and properly treating wounds, especially deep wounds, aids in the prevention of osteomyelitis.

d. Incorrect. Regular exercise is not linked to the prevention of osteomyelitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:15 AM 11. Approximately 80% of individuals over age 65 are affected by what disease? a. osteoarthritis b. osteoporosis c. scoliosis d. kyphosis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Osteoarthritis can begin as early as age 18 but is more common in the older population, with 80% of individuals older than age 65 affected. b. Incorrect. While osteoporosis does have increased risk from aging, it does not affect 80% of those over 65. c. Incorrect. Scoliosis is usually noticed during the early teen years.

d. Incorrect. Kyphosis, or humpback, is not that prevalent. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the musculoskeletal system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:18 AM 12. Avoiding extreme fatigue and warming up before exercise may help prevent what type of injury? a. sprains Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders b. strains c. dislocations d. subluxations ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Regular exercise, stretching, and strengthening to maintain good physical condition are the best preventions for sprains. b. Correct. Avoiding extreme fatigue and warming up before exercise may help prevent strains. c. Incorrect. Maintaining muscle strength around the joint will help prevent dislocations. d. Incorrect. Maintaining muscle strength around the joint will help prevent subluxations.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:19 AM 13. Developing and maintaining a regular walking and exercise program are the best preventive measures for avoiding what? a. dislocations b. sprains c. subluxations d. low back pain ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Maintaining muscle strength around the joint will help prevent dislocations. b. Incorrect. Regular exercise, stretching, and strengthening to maintain good physical condition are the best preventions for sprains. c. Incorrect. Maintaining muscle strength around the joint will help prevent subluxations. d. Correct. Developing and maintaining a regular walking and exercise program are the best preventive measures for low back pain prevention.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:20 AM 14. Diagnosis of what condition can be confirmed by a myelogram? a. subluxation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders b. tetanus c. ganglion cyst d. herniated nucleus pulposus ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Subluxation is not confirmed by a myelogram. b. Incorrect. Diagnosis of tetanus is confirmed by a spatula test. c. Incorrect. A physical exam is often all that is needed to diagnose a ganglion cyst. d. Correct. Diagnosis of a herniated nucleus pulposus, or herniated disk, involves physical examination, often confirmed by a CT scan, MRI, or myelogram.

c. Correct. Diagnosis of tetanus is confirmed by a spatula test. d. Incorrect. An MRI would not be used to confirm a diagnosis of tetanus. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of a musculoskeletal system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:22 AM 16. What type of common incomplete fracture occurs in children? a. comminuted b. avulsion c. impacted d. greenstick ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. If there are more than two ends or fragments, the break is a comminuted fracture. b. Incorrect. Avulsion fracture describes a separation of a small bone fragment from the bone to which a tendon or ligament is attached. c. Incorrect. An impacted fracture is one characterized as a bone end forced over the other end. d. Correct. A common incomplete fracture that occurs in children is called a greenstick fracture because it appears to have broken partially, like a sap-filled green stick.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:23 AM 17. Where is a subcapital fracture located? a. on the wrist b. inside a joint capsule c. on the femur d. outside a joint capsule ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Subcapital fractures are fractures of the wrist. b. Incorrect. Intracapsular describes fractures inside the joint capsule. c. Correct. Femoral neck and subcapital fractures describe fractures located on the femur. d. Incorrect. Extracapsular describes fractures outside the joint capsule.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:24 AM 18. What kind of fractures form a starlike pattern? a. stellate b. spiral c. oblique d. transverse ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Stellate fractures form a starlike pattern. b. Incorrect. Spiral fractures twist around the bone. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Oblique fractures run in a transverse pattern. d. Incorrect. A transverse fracture runs across or at a 90-degree angle. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:25 AM 19. Which of the following type of fractures is a classification based on bone condition? a. impacted b. open c. spiral d. transverse ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Impacted is a classification based on bone condition. b. Incorrect. Open is a classification based on skin condition. c. Incorrect. Spiral is a classification based on position of fracture line. d. Incorrect. Transverse is a classification based on position of fracture line. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:26 AM 20. Which of the following type of fractures is a classification based on skin condition? a. oblique b. closed c. spiral d. greenstick ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Oblique is a classification based on bone condition. b. Correct. Closed is a classification based on skin condition. c. Incorrect. Spiral is a classification based on position of fracture line. d. Incorrect. Greenstick is a classification based on bone condition. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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disorders of the system. 8/5/2022 5:35 AM 11/30/2022 6:27 AM

21. What treatment involves the application of a device to maintain alignment and apply a pulling force? a. splint b. ORIF c. closed reduction d. traction ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A splint is applied to immobilize a fracture. b. Incorrect. Open reductions commonly require some type of internal fixation or holding device such as pins, plates, screws, or rods in a procedure called an open reduction, internal fixation (ORIF). c. Incorrect. Closed reduction is reduction of a fracture without a surgical incision.

d. Correct. Traction involves the application of a device to maintain alignment and apply a pulling force.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:28 AM 22. A popping sound is commonly heard at the time of what injury? a. torn meniscus b. cruciate ligament tear c. torn rotator cuff d. plantar fasciitis ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A popping sound is not associated with a torn meniscus. b. Correct. With a cruciate ligament tear, a popping sound is commonly heard at the time of injury, followed by pain and swelling of the knee. c. Incorrect. A popping sound is not associated with a torn rotator cuff.

d. Incorrect. Plantar fasciitis is the result of repeated pressure, rather than a single instance of injury.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders 23. Bone-building cells are called: a. osteoblasts. b. osteoclasts. c. osteocytes. d. osteitis. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Osteoblasts are active bone-building cells. b. Incorrect. Osteoclasts are cells that reabsorb bone. c. Incorrect. Osteocytes are mature bone cells. d. Incorrect. Paget’s (pronounced paj-ets) disease, also known as osteitis deformans, is a chronic metabolic bone disease that affects bone formation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:31 AM 24. Cells that reabsorb bone are called: a. osteoblasts. b. osteoclasts. c. osteocytes. d. osteitis. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Osteoblasts are active bone-building cells. b. Correct. Osteoclasts are cells that reabsorb bone. c. Incorrect. Osteocytes are mature bone cells. d. Incorrect. Paget’s (pronounced paj-ets) disease, also known as osteitis deformans, is a chronic metabolic bone disease that affects bone formation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 10:57 PM 25. Mature bone cells are called: a. osteoblasts. b. osteitis. c. osteocytes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders d. osteoclasts. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Osteoblasts are active bone-building cells. b. Incorrect. Paget’s (pronounced paj-ets) disease, also known as osteitis deformans, is a chronic metabolic bone disease that affects bone formation. c. Correct. Osteocytes are mature bone cells.

d. Incorrect. Osteoclasts are cells that reabsorb bone. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:06 PM 26. Different shapes of bones include which of the following? a. irregular, flat, cortical, long, sesamoid b. flat, cortical, cancellous, irregular, short c. flat, long, cancellous, sesamoid, irregular d. irregular, flat, long, short, sesamoid ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cortical refers to bone composition, not shape. b. Incorrect. Cortical and cancellous refer to bone composition, not shape. c. Incorrect. Cancellous refers to bone composition, not shape. d. Correct. Irregular, flat, long, short, and sesamoid are different shapes of bones in the body.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:08 PM 27. An example of a flat bone would be the: a. sternum. b. femur. c. metacarpal bones. d. vertebrae. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The sternum is an example of a flat bone. b. Incorrect. The femur is an example of a long bone. c. Incorrect. The metacarpal bones, or bones in the fingers, are examples of short bones. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. The vertebrae are an example of irregular bones. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:09 PM 28. An example of an irregular bone would be the: a. sternum. b. femur. c. pelvic bones. d. skull. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The sternum is an example of a flat bone. b. Incorrect. The femur is an example of a long bone. c. Correct. The pelvic bones are an example of irregular bones. d. Incorrect. The skull is an example of a flat bone. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:10 PM 29. The skull is an example of what classification of bone? a. flat b. long c. short d. irregular ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The skull is a flat bone. b. Incorrect. The skull is not a long bone. c. Incorrect. The skull is not a short bone. d. Incorrect. The skull is not an irregular bone. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:11 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders 30. A vertebra is an example of what classification of bone? a. flat b. long c. short d. irregular ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A vertebra is not an example of a flat bone. b. Incorrect. A vertebra is not an example of a long bone. c. Incorrect. A vertebra is not an example of a short bone. d. Correct. A vertebra is an example of an irregular bone. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:12 PM 31. Which major joint movement is movement toward the body? a. flexion b. adduction c. rotation d. circumduction ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Flexion is the movement of bending. b. Correct. Adduction is the movement toward the body. c. Incorrect. Rotation is the movement of turning on an axis. d. Incorrect. Circumduction is circular movement. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:13 PM 32. The functions of muscles in the body include which of the following? a. support articulating bone b. provide a cushion c. reduce stress d. produce heat ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cartilage is collagen tissue that supports articulating bones. b. Incorrect. Cartilage is collagen tissue that provides a cushion to prevent friction Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders between bones. c. Incorrect. Cartilage is collagen tissue that reduces stress on the bone surface.

d. Correct. The functions of the muscle in the body include producing heat. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:13 PM 33. Common signs and symptoms of bone and joint disease which of the following? a. increased mobility b. coolness to the touch c. bruising d. swelling ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Decreased, not increased mobility, can indicate bone and joint disease. b. Incorrect. Coolness to the touch is not a symptom indicating bone and joint disease. c. Incorrect. Bruising is not a symptom indicating bone and joint disease.

d. Correct. Swelling can indicate bone and joint disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:14 PM 34. What is the primary tool used in diagnosing bone and joint disorders? a. computerized axial tomography b. magnetic resonance imaging c. X-rays d. bone mass density ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A computerized axial tomography (CAT) is not the primary tool, but it might be needed for more detailed studies. b. Incorrect. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not the primary tool, but it might be needed for more detailed studies. c. Correct. Radiologic examinations (X-rays) are the primary tool in diagnosing bone and joint disorders. d. Incorrect. Bone mass density (BMD) screening is not the primary tool for diagnosing bone and joint disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of a musculoskeletal system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:16 PM 35. Blood tests that may be ordered to diagnose musculoskeletal diseases include tests for: a. iron. b. cholesterol. c. phosphorus. d. hemoglobin. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Testing for iron is not diagnostic of musculoskeletal diseases. b. Incorrect. Testing for cholesterol is not diagnostic of musculoskeletal diseases. c. Correct. Testing for phosphorus may be ordered to assist in the diagnosis of musculoskeletal diseases. d. Incorrect. Testing for hemoglobin is not diagnostic of musculoskeletal diseases.

c. Incorrect. Lordosis is an exaggerated anterior or inward curvature of the lumbar spine and is also called swayback. d. Incorrect. There is no spine disease discussed that involves curvature of the cervical spine.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 6:00 AM 11/30/2022 11:18 PM

37. What is lordosis? a. a humped curvature of the thoracic spine b. an exaggerated anterior or inward curvature of the lumbar spine c. an inward curvature of the cervical spine d. a lateral curvature of the back ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Kyphosis is a humped curvature of the thoracic spine, commonly called humpback or hunchback. b. Correct. Lordosis is an exaggerated anterior or inward curvature of the lumbar spine and is also called swayback. c. Incorrect. Lordosis is not an inward curvature of the cervical spine.

d. Incorrect. Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:19 PM 38. What is scoliosis? a. a humped curvature of the thoracic spine b. an exaggerated anterior or inward curvature of the lumbar spine c. an inward curvature of the cervical spine d. a lateral curvature of the back ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Kyphosis is a humped curvature of the thoracic spine, commonly called humpback or hunchback. b. Incorrect. Lordosis is an exaggerated anterior or inward curve of the lumbar spine, and is also called swayback. c. Incorrect. Scoliosis is not an inward curvature of the cervical spine.

d. Correct. Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:20 PM 39. Which of the treatments for spinal deformities is commonly used for scoliosis? a. eliminating causative factors b. bracing Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders c. performing spinal surgery d. calcium supplements ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Eliminating causative factors is a treatment for spinal deformities, but not the one commonly used for scoliosis. b. Correct. Treatment is aimed at preventing a worsening of the condition and often includes bracing. c. Incorrect. Spinal surgery is a treatment for spinal deformities, but it is not the one commonly used for scoliosis. d. Incorrect. Administering calcium supplements is not one of the treatments for spinal deformities.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:21 PM 40. Which means of confirming a diagnosis of osteoporosis involves measuring bone thickness? a. bone densitometry. b. CT scan. c. X-rays d. clinical examination ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Bone densitometry, measurement of bone thickness, is used to confirm the diagnosis of osteoporosis. b. Incorrect. CT scan is used to confirm the diagnosis of osteoporosis, but not by measuring bone thickness. c. Incorrect. X-ray is used to confirm the diagnosis of osteoporosis, but not by measuring bone thickness. d. Incorrect. Clinical examination is used to confirm the diagnosis of osteoporosis, but not by measuring bone thickness.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders d. exercising 2–3 times a week ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Decreasing alcohol consumption will reduce the risk factors for osteoporosis, but more strategies are listed. b. Correct. Smoking cessation will reduce the risk factors for osteoporosis.

c. Incorrect. Decreasing caffeine consumption will reduce the risk factors for osteoporosis, but more strategies are listed.

d. Incorrect. Daily exercise is suggested to reduce the risk factors for osteoporosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the musculoskeletal system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:24 PM 42. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis? a. male, less than 50 years of age b. vitamin C and D deficiencies c. too much calcium in supplements d. family history of osteoporosis. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Being male under 50 years of age is not considered a risk factor for developing osteoporosis. b. Incorrect. Lack of vitamins C and D are not included as risk factors for developing osteoporosis. c. Incorrect. Lack of calcium in diet or supplements is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis. d. Correct. A family history of osteoporosis is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:25 PM 43. The causative organism of osteomyelitis is: a. Streptococcus. b. Haemophilus influenzae. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. Proteus. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Streptococcus is not a causative organism of osteomyelitis b. Incorrect. Haemophilus influenzae is not a causative organism of osteomyelitis. c. Correct. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis. d. Incorrect. Proteus is not a causative organism of osteomyelitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of a musculoskeletal system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:29 PM 44. Symptoms of osteomyelitis include which of the following? a. leukopenia b. pathologic wrist fractures c. tenderness over the affected bone d. compression fractures of the spine ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Leukocytosis, not leukopenia, is a symptom of osteomyelitis. b. Incorrect. Pathologic wrist fractures are an early sign of osteoporosis, not a symptom of osteomyelitis. c. Correct. Tenderness over the affected bone is a symptom of osteomyelitis.

d. Incorrect. Compression fractures are an early sign of osteoporosis, not a symptom of osteomyelitis.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:31 PM 46. Which of the following is considered a factor that increases the risk of developing osteoarthritis? a. obesity b. being male c. alcohol consumption d. lack of exercise ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Obesity is a factor for an increased risk of developing osteoarthritis. b. Incorrect. Being a female is a factor for an increased risk of developing osteoarthritis. c. Incorrect. Alcohol consumption is a risk factor for osteoporosis, but not for osteoarthritis. d. Incorrect. Lack of exercise is a risk factor for osteoporosis, while too much exercise, leading to excessive wear and tear to joints, is a risk factor of developing osteoarthritis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:32 PM 47. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes: a. running 5 miles a day. b. heat treatment. c. cold. d. taking Tylenol. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes non-weight-bearing exercises like swimming and biking. b. Correct. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes rest, non-weight-bearing exercises like swimming and biking, heat treatment, and use of analgesics and anti-inflammatory medications. c. Incorrect. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes heat treatment, not cold.

d. Incorrect. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes use of analgesics and antiinflammatory medications. Tylenol does not have these actions.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:33 PM 48. The primary joint affected in gout is the: a. interphalangeal. b. metacarpal. c. metatarsophalangeal. d. temporomandibular. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The primary joint affected by gout is not the interphalangeal. b. Incorrect. The primary joint affected by gout is not the metacarpal. c. Correct. The primary joint affected by gout is the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. d. Incorrect. The primary joint affected by gout is not the temporomandibular.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:34 PM 49. Treatment for gout typically includes: a. Zyloprim. b. a high-protein diet. c. a high-calcium diet. d. increased exercise. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Treatment for gout may include dietary adjustments to decrease the amount of protein consumed and antigout medication (probenecid and allopurinol [Zyloprim]). Weight loss in patients who are obese also may be beneficial. b. Incorrect. Treatment for gout may include a decrease, not an increase, in protein consumption. c. Incorrect. A high-calcium diet is not part of the treatment for gout.

d. Incorrect. An increase in exercise is not part of the treatment for gout. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:35 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders 50. Severe headaches and pain in the jaw joint may be indicative of what? a. hallux valgus b. Temporomandibular joint syndrome (TMJ). c. muscular dystrophy (MD) d. ganglion cyst ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hallux valgus (bunion) is a deformity affecting the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. b. Correct. Severe headaches and pain in the jaw joint might be indicative of TMJ.

c. Incorrect. Duchenne’s MD is characterized by a wasting away of shoulder and pelvic girdle muscles. d. Incorrect. Usually painless, a ganglion cyst is a fluid-filled benign tumor that usually develops on a tendon sheath near the wrist area.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type, cause, or both of a musculoskeletal system disorder. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:37 PM 51. Sarah is a 25-year-old female with a family history of osteoporosis. Which of the following should Sarah be advised against to prevent or delay developing osteoporosis herself? a. Eat a balanced diet. b. Get daily exercise. c. Limit caffeine consumption. d. Increase alcohol consumption. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Eating a balanced diet will help maintain bone mass. b. Incorrect. Because bone mass is built before age 30, Sarah should be advised to get daily, regular exercise. c. Incorrect. Caffeine consumption can decrease bone mass, so Sarah should limit caffeine consumption. d. Correct. Increased alcohol consumption can decrease bone mass so Sarah should be advised against increasing alcohol consumption.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:37 PM 52. Gillian has several health issues and has been told that she is at risk of osteoporosis. Which condition(s) may lead to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders osteoporosis? a. postmenopause b. quadriplegia c. estrogen deficiency d. postmenopausal, quadriplegia, and estrogen deficiency ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. While postmenopausal women are at risk for osteoporosis, this answer is incomplete. b. Incorrect. Quadriplegia may result in a 30–40% reduction in bone mass after 6 months of immobility, as well as postmenopausal women and estrogen deficiency. c. Incorrect. Estrogen deficiency also leads to osteoporosis, but this does not include all conditions. d. Correct. Postmenopausal, quadriplegia and estrogen deficiency all reduce bone mass and may lead to osteoporosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.5 - Identify the common disorders of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:46 PM 53. Raquel is an 83-year-old woman who walks every day. Lately, she has been having back pain, and she is measurably shorter than she used to be. What may be happening to Raquel? a. compression fractures of the spine b. osteomyelitis c. osteomalacia d. gout ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Compression fractures of the spine frequently affect women who are Raquel’s age, resulting in back pain and loss of height. b. Incorrect. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, usually resulting from trauma or another infection. c. Incorrect. Osteomalacia is softening of the bones, resulting from a vitamin D deficiency. d. Incorrect. Gout occurs more commonly in men and involves uric acid crystals being deposited in the body’s joints.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders 54. Imani, a 57-year-old female, has been diagnosed with osteomalacia. Which treatment might be planned for her? a. analgesic and anti-inflammatory medications b. 200,000 IU weekly of vitamin D for 4 to 6 weeks c. aggressive intravenous antibiotic therapy d. antigout medication ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Analgesic and anti-inflammatory medications are used to treat osteoarthritis. b. Correct. Osteomalacia results from a vitamin D deficiency and could be treated with an initial megadose of vitamin D. c. Incorrect. Osteomyelitis is treated with aggressive intravenous antibiotic therapy. d. Incorrect. Gout is treated with antigout medications such as probenecid and allopurinol (Zyloprim®).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:47 PM 55. Armand was in a motor vehicle accident and had an open fracture of his femur, which was surgically repaired. A few days after his surgery, he developed a sudden, high fever, leukocytosis, and chills. What is the most important treatment for his condition? a. calcium b. 200,000 IU weekly of vitamin D for 4 to 6 weeks c. aggressive intravenous antibiotic therapy d. analgesic and anti-inflammatory medications ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Armand may need calcium, but it is not the most important treatment. b. Incorrect. Large doses of vitamin D may be used to treat osteomalacia. c. Correct. Osteomyelitis, a serious infection of the bone that sometimes occurs after trauma or surgery, needs aggressive intravenous antibiotic therapy.

d. Incorrect. While analgesic and anti-inflammatory medications may be used to treat the pain of osteomyelitis, they are not the most crucial treatment.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:48 PM 56. Several patients, ranging in age from 5 to 80, are waiting for examination to determine if they have fractured a bone or Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders broken it. Which patient is most likely to suffer a greenstick fracture? a. an 80-year-old woman with osteoporosis b. a 5-year-old child c. a 25-year-old marathon runner d. a 65-year-old male with multiple myeloma ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Eventually, a woman with osteoporosis will be at risk for a pathologic fracture, such as a hip fracture. b. Correct. Young children sometimes have incomplete fractures called greenstick fractures. c. Incorrect. A marathon runner may experience stress fractures.

d. Incorrect. Multiple myeloma may cause pathologic fractures. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1 - Define the terminology common to the musculoskeletal system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:49 PM 57. Tyler visits the doctor to confirm the belief that they have plantar fasciitis. Which symptom is commonly associated with plantar fasciitis? a. heel pain when taking the first few steps out of bed b. acute knee pain when bearing weight c. pain that radiates down the backside of the leg d. numbness and coldness in hands and fingers ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The classic sign of plantar fasciitis is heel pain when taking the first few steps after getting out of bed. b. Incorrect. Acute knee pain when weight-bearing can be seen with osteoporosis, a torn meniscus, or ligament tear. c. Incorrect. A herniated disc in the lumbar spine may put pressure on the sciatic nerve, which then causes pain to radiate down the backside of the leg. d. Incorrect. Carpal tunnel syndrome causes numbness and coldness in hands and fingers.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:51 PM 58. Robert is a farmer who stepped on a rusty nail, which went through his boot and punctured his foot. What prompt treatment should he receive? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders a. alternate heat and ice b. immobilization c. tetanus booster vaccine d. compression and elevation ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Alternating heat and ice are treatments for shin splints. b. Incorrect. Fractures, among other conditions, may need immobilization. c. Correct. Puncture wounds with rusty or dirty instruments should be treated with a tetanus booster vaccine to prevent tetanus. d. Incorrect. Compression and elevation are used to treat sprains.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common musculoskeletal system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:52 PM 59. Sam declined to participate in their work baseball game this week to rest because of a strain. Which statement is true about strains? a. Symptoms of strains are swelling, pain, and possible skin discoloration. b. Strain is a common, overstretching injury of a muscle. c. Strains are more serious than sprains. d. Strains include some degree of ligament tearing. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Symptoms of a strain include soreness, pain, and tenderness. b. Correct. Strain is a common, overstretching injury of a muscle that is not caused by trauma.

c. Incorrect. Strains are less serious than sprains. d. Incorrect. Sprains, not strains, include varying degrees of ligament tearing. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:53 PM 60. Linda has been a secretary for 25 years. She is now experiencing numbness, pain, and coldness in her hands and fingers. Describe the physical examination that can determine her condition. a. Flex the wrist as far as possible and watch for symptoms. b. Rotate the wrist in a circle and listen for snapping sounds. c. Pull the thumb and little finger together while the fingers are pointing upward. d. Push middle finger backward until pain occurs. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Flexing the wrist as far as possible should duplicate her symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome within about 60 seconds. b. Incorrect. Rotating the wrist and listening for snapping sounds is not an indicator of carpal tunnel syndrome. c. Incorrect. If pain runs radiates up and down the forearm when the thumb and little finger are pulled together, de Quervain’s disease is indicated. d. Incorrect. Tennis elbow can be diagnosed by eliciting pain by pushing the middle finger backward.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders 1. Which blood-forming organ is active in intrauterine life? a. bone marrow b. lymph nodes c. spleen d. liver ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Bone marrow is a blood-forming organ but is not active in intrauterine life. b. Incorrect. The lymph nodes are a blood-forming organ but are not active in intrauterine life. c. Incorrect. The spleen is a blood-forming organ but is not active in intrauterine life. d. Correct. The liver functions as a blood-forming organ in intrauterine life and is active the rest of the individual’s life as a producer of prothrombin and fibrinogen for blood clotting.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:33 AM 2. What is the most common problem related to the blood and blood-forming organs? a. polycythemia vera b. secondary polycythemia c. mononucleosis d. anemia ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Polycythemia vera is a condition of too many blood cells, but it is not the most common problem related to the blood and blood-forming organs. b. Incorrect. Secondary polycythemia is a condition of too many red blood cells, but it is not the most common problem related to the blood and blood-forming organs. c. Incorrect. Mononucleosis is a disorder of the white blood cells but it is not the most common problem related to the blood and blood-forming organs. d. Correct. The most common problem related to the blood and blood-forming organs is anemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:39 AM 3. Which of the following is responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders a. leukocytes b. erythrocytes c. the spleen d. the liver ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Leukocytes are concerned with protecting the individual from infection. b. Correct. Erythrocytes transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.

c. Incorrect. The spleen is responsible for breaking down the RBCs and saving the iron component. d. Incorrect. The liver is responsible for breaking down the RBCs and saving the iron component.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:41 AM 4. Which of the following are important in infection prevention? a. red blood cells b. erythrocytes c. the spleen and liver d. leukocytes ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. White, not red, blood cells are concerned with protecting the individual from infection.

b. Incorrect. Erythrocytes transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. c. Incorrect. The spleen and liver are responsible for breaking down the RBCs and saving the iron component. d. Correct. Leukocytes (white blood cells) are concerned with protecting the individual from infection.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:44 AM 5. Which of the following produces the substance used in the clotting process? a. leukocytes b. thrombocytes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders c. the spleen d. erythrocytes ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Leukocytes are concerned with protecting the individual from infection. b. Correct. Platelets, also called thrombocytes, produce the thrombokinase used in the clotting process. c. Incorrect. The spleen is responsible for breaking down the RBCs and saving the iron component. d. Incorrect. Erythrocytes transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:46 AM 6. Which of the following produces prothrombin and fibrinogen for blood clotting? a. erythrocytes b. thrombocytes c. the spleen d. the liver ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Erythrocytes transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. b. Incorrect. Platelets, also called thrombocytes, produce the thrombokinase used in the clotting process. c. Incorrect. The spleen produces lymphocytes, plasma cells, and antibodies and filters microorganisms from the blood. d. Correct. The liver is a producer of prothrombin and fibrinogen for blood clotting.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:48 AM 7. Which of the following reflects the amount of oxygen-carrying potential available in the blood. a. hematocrit b. hemoglobin c. complete blood count d. differential ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Hematocrit (Hct) reflects the amount of red cell mass as a proportion of whole blood. b. Correct. Hemoglobin (Hgb) reflects the amount of hemoglobin or oxygencarrying potential available in the blood. c. Incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) identifies the number of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets per cubic millimeter. d. Incorrect. A differential is a detailed count, identifying the number of each type of leukocyte.

b. Incorrect. Hemoglobin (Hgb) reflects the amount of hemoglobin or oxygencarrying potential available in the blood. c. Incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) identifies the number of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets per cubic millimeter. d. Incorrect. A differential is a detailed count, identifying the number of each type of leukocyte.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders b. Incorrect. Syncope is a symptom of anemia. c. Incorrect. Dyspnea is a symptom of anemia. d. Correct. Anemia is any decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the red blood cells (RBC).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:55 AM 10. Which of the following is a treatment for hemolytic anemia? a. excision of the liver b. prompt exchange transfusion c. injections of vitamin B12 d. therapy with hydroxyurea ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Removal of the spleen, not the liver, may be done. b. Correct. Treatment may include prompt exchange transfusion (removal of the

individual’s blood and replacement by donor’s blood). Steroid medication along with splenectomy may also be of some benefit. c. Incorrect. Injections of vitamin B12 is a treatment for pernicious anemia.

d. Incorrect. Therapy with hydroxyurea is a treatment for sickle cell disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common blood and blood-forming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:58 AM 11. What type of anemia is thought to have developed as a defense mechanism against malaria? a. Pernicious b. sickle cell c. Hemolytic d. iron deficiency ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pernicious anemia usually affects older individuals and is related to an autoimmune disorder. b. Correct. Sickle cell anemia is hereditary and is thought to have developed as a defense mechanism against malaria. c. Incorrect. Hemolytic anemia can be brought on by exposure to chemicals such as benzene; medications, including aspirin and penicillin; and bacterial toxins. d. Incorrect. Iron deficiency anemia arises when there is insufficient iron for the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders body to produce the oxygen-carrying component, hemoglobin, within RBCs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:01 AM 12. Acute loss of large amounts of blood leads to what type of anemia? a. hemolytic b. sickle cell c. aplastic d. hemorrhagic ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hemolytic anemia can be brought on by exposure to chemicals such as benzene; medications, including aspirin and penicillin; and bacterial toxins. b. Incorrect. Sickle cell anemia is hereditary.

c. Incorrect. Aplastic anemia is characterized by failure of the bone marrow to produce blood components.

d. Correct. Acute loss of large amounts of blood leads to hemorrhagic anemia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:03 AM 13. What type of anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce blood components? a. hemolytic b. aplastic c. hemorrhagic d. sickle cell ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hemolytic anemia can be brought on by exposure to chemicals such as benzene; medications, including aspirin and penicillin; and bacterial toxins. b. Correct. Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce blood components. c. Incorrect. Acute loss of large amounts of blood leads to hemorrhagic anemia.

d. Incorrect. The sickle cell has abnormal hemoglobin that causes it to elongate, or sickle, when deoxygenated (as it loses the oxygen load).

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:06 AM 14. A severe decrease or total absence of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes is called what? a. erythrocytosis b. hyperplasia c. polycythemia d. Pancytopenia ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Secondary polycythemia, or erythrocytosis, is a condition in which the red cell numbers are increased. b. Incorrect. Hyperplasia is excessive growth of the cell-forming tissues of the bone marrow. c. Incorrect. Polycythemia is a condition of too many blood cells.

d. Correct. A severe decrease or total absence of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes is called pancytopenia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:23 AM 15. A person who has polycythemia experiences an increase in erythrocytes, which leads to what? a. Anemia b. low blood pressure c. increased load on the liver d. to increased blood volume ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Polycythemia does not lead to anemia. b. Incorrect. This condition raises blood pressure. c. Incorrect. This condition increases the workload on the heart, not the liver. d. Correct. A person who has polycythemia experiences an increase in erythrocytes, which leads to increased blood volume.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:25 AM 16. Which of the following types of anemia is not preventable? a. iron-deficiency Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders b. folate-deficiency c. pernicious d. hemorrhagic ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Iron deficiency anemia can be prevented by eating a healthy diet high in iron. b. Incorrect. Consumption of a diet high in folic acid aids in the prevention of folic acid deficiency. c. Correct. Pernicious anemia is not preventable.

d. Incorrect. Accident prevention and controlling chronic bleeding are helpful in preventing hemorrhagic anemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common blood and blood-forming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:27 AM 17. A splenectomy may be performed as the last treatment of choice for what disorder? a. hemophilia b. thrombocytopenia c. disseminated intravascular coagulation d. multiple myeloma ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Splenectomy is not a recommended treatment for hemophilia. b. Correct. If thrombocytopenia persists, a splenectomy might alleviate symptoms because the spleen is the main site of platelet destruction. Splenectomy is usually the last treatment of choice, but it is very effective. c. Incorrect. Splenectomy is not a recommended treatment for hemophilia disseminated intravascular coagulation. d. Incorrect. Splenectomy is not a recommended treatment for multiple myeloma.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common blood and blood-forming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:32 AM 18. What disorder occurs increasingly with age, peaking in the 70s, and is more common in men? a. non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. Hemophilia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders d. multiple myeloma ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. NHL affects older adults more often than Hodgkin’s lymphoma, with the average age of 50 years. b. Incorrect. Hodgkin’s primarily affects young adults with an average age of 35 years. c. Incorrect. Hemophilia is an inherited genetic disease.

d. Correct. Multiple myeloma occurs increasingly with age, peaking in the 70s, and is more common in men.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the blood and blood-forming organs and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:34 AM 19. Why might older adults be more prone to developing diseases of the hematologic system? a. Total iron serum increases with age. b. The number of lymphocytes decreases with age. c. The functioning of lymphocytes decreases with age. d. Intestinal iron absorption increases with age. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Total serum iron, total iron-binding capacity, and intestinal iron absorption all decrease with age. b. Incorrect. Aging does not change the number of lymphocytes.

c. Correct. Aging does not change the number of lymphocytes, but their functioning decreases to some degree over time. d. Incorrect. Total serum iron, total iron-binding capacity, and intestinal iron absorption all decrease with age.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:37 AM 20. Microthrombi in the fingers and toes, turning these extremities blue to black in color, is a symptom of what disorder? a. thrombocytopenia b. disseminated intravascular coagulation c. hemophilia d. multiple myeloma ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. While thrombocytopenia is also a platelet disorder, one of its symptoms is not microthrombi in the fingers and toes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders b. Correct. The individual with DIC might initially have microthrombi in the fingers and toes, turning these extremities blue to black in color, or larger thrombus formation, often leading to life-threatening pulmonary embolism. c. Incorrect. While hemophilia is also a platelet disorder, one of its symptoms is not microthrombi in the fingers and toes. d. Incorrect. Symptoms of multiple myeloma do not include microthrombi in the fingers and toes.

a. Incorrect. The normal leukocyte count range is larger than 5,000–10,000. b. Incorrect. The normal leukocyte count is higher than 4,000–9,000. c. Incorrect. The normal leukocyte count is lower than 6,000–12,000. d. Correct. The normal leukocyte count is 4,300–11,000.

a. Incorrect. The normal platelet count does not run this high. b. Correct. The normal platelet count is 150,000–350,000. c. Incorrect. The normal platelet count does not run this low. d. Incorrect. The normal platelet count does not run this low.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:42 AM 23. Blood is typed as which of the following? a. A, B, C, O b. A, AB, B, BA c. A, B, O, OA d. A, B, AB, O ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. There are four blood types, but C is not one of them. b. Incorrect. There are four blood types, but BA is not one of them. c. Incorrect. There are four blood types, but OA is not one of them. d. Correct. Types A, B, AB, and O are all different blood types. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:46 AM 24. Which blood-forming organ is found throughout the body? a. lymph nodes b. bone marrow c. spleen d. liver ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The lymph nodes are found throughout the body along the lymphatic vessels. b. Incorrect. Bone marrow is a blood-forming organ, found in the bones, not throughout the body. c. Incorrect. The spleen is a blood-forming organ found in the upper-left quadrant of the abdomen. d. Incorrect. The liver is a blood-forming organ found in the upper quadrant of the abdomen.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

organs. 8/6/2022 1:40 AM 11/30/2022 3:48 AM

25. To what disease or disorder does erythrocytopenia lead? a. hemophilia b. anemia c. myasthenia gravis d. Hodgkin’s disease ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders characterized by abnormally slow clotting and long bleeding times. b. Correct. Erythrocytopenia leads to anemia. Anemia means low or decreased blood volume. c. Incorrect. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue. d. Incorrect. Hodgkin’s disease is the most common lymphoma. It is characterized clinically by the orderly spread of disease from one lymph node group to another.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:50 AM 26. Shortness of breath, headache, and fatigue are all common signs and symptoms of what? a. erythrocytosis b. leukocytosis c. thrombocytopenia d. anemia ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Common signs and symptoms of erythrocytosis include a high RBC count, reddened skin tones, bloodshot eyes, increased blood volume and pressure, and an increase in the workload of the heart. b. Incorrect. The common sign of leukocytosis is an increase in white cell count.

c. Incorrect. Signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia include small hemorrhages of the skin, large areas of bruising, and nosebleeds.

d. Correct. Shortness of breath, headache, and fatigue are all common signs and symptoms of anemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common blood Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

and bloodforming organ disorders. 8/6/2022 1:42 AM 11/30/2022 3:51 AM

27. Symptoms of erythrocytosis include: a. bloodshot eyes. b. fatigue. c. headache. d. shortness of breath. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Bloodshot eyes are symptom of erythrocytosis. b. Incorrect. Fatigue is not a symptom of erythrocytosis. c. Incorrect. Headache is not a symptom of erythrocytosis. d. Incorrect. Shortness of breath is not a symptom of erythrocytosis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:53 AM 28. Leukocytosis is an indication of: a. anemia. b. erythroblastosis fetalis. c. infection. d. epistaxis. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Leukocytosis (increased WBCs) is not an indication of anemia. b. Incorrect. Leukocytosis (increased WBCs) is not an indication of erythroblastosis fetalis. c. Correct. Leukocytosis (increased WBCs) is indicative of an infection.

d. Incorrect. Leukocytosis (increased WBCs) is not an indication of epistaxis (nosebleed).

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders a. 4.2–6.3 million. b. 1.6–5.4 million. c. 4.2–7.5 million. d. 1.6–6.3 million. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. A normal erythrocyte cell count is 4.2–6.3 million. b. Incorrect. A normal erythrocyte cell count runs higher than 1.6–5.4 million. c. Incorrect. A normal erythrocyte cell count runs lower than 7.5 million. d. Incorrect. A normal erythrocyte cell count runs higher than 1.6 million.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:57 AM 30. Erythrocytes are formed in the: a. liver. b. spleen. c. bone marrow. d. lymph nodes. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Erythrocytes are not formed in the liver. b. Incorrect. Erythrocytes are not formed in the spleen. c. Correct. Erythrocytes are formed in the bone marrow. d. Incorrect. Erythrocytes are not formed in the lymph nodes. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:00 AM 31. A normal adult male hemoglobin is: a. 13.5–16 grams. b. 13.0–17 grams. c. 13.5–18 grams. d. 13.5–15 grams. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The normal adult male hemoglobin level runs higher than 16 grams. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders b. Incorrect. The normal adult male hemoglobin level runs higher than 13.0–17 grams. c. Correct. The normal adult male hemoglobin level is 13.5–18 grams.

d. Incorrect. The normal adult male hemoglobin level runs higher than 015 grams. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:02 AM 32. A normal adult female hemoglobin level is: a. 11–13 grams. b. 12–16 grams. c. 12–14 grams. d. 13.5–18 grams. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The normal adult female hemoglobin level runs higher than 11–13 grams. b. Correct. The normal adult female hemoglobin level is 12–16 grams.

c. Incorrect. The normal adult female hemoglobin level runs higher than 14 grams. d. Incorrect. The normal adult female hemoglobin level runs lower than 13.5–18 grams.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:04 AM 33. Symptoms of thrombocytopenia include which of the following? a. large areas of bruising b. increased blood volume c. reddened skin d. fatigue ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Ecchymosis, large areas of bruising, is a symptom of thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in platelets that leads to an inability to normally clot blood. b. Incorrect. Increased blood volume is a symptom of erythrocytosis. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in platelets that leads to an inability to normally clot blood. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders c. Incorrect. Reddened skin is a symptom of erythrocytosis. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in platelets that leads to an inability to normally clot blood. d. Incorrect. Fatigue is a symptom of anemia. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in platelets that leads to an inability to normally clot blood.

b. Incorrect. The white blood cell count and indices assist in the determination of infection. c. Incorrect. The white blood cell count and indices assist in the determination of leukocytosis. d. Correct. The red blood cell count and indices assist in the determination of anemias, polycythemia, and erythrocytosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:12 AM 35. A bleeding time may assist in determining platelet disorders such as: a. hemophilia and disseminated intravascular coagulation. b. anemia and disseminated intravascular coagulation. c. anemia and hemophilia. d. leukocytosis and hemophilia. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A bleeding time may assist in determining platelet disorders such as hemophilia and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). b. Incorrect. A bleeding time does not assist in determining anemia. Anemia is not a platelet disorder. c. Incorrect. A bleeding time does not assist in determining anemia. Anemia is not Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders a platelet disorder. d. Incorrect. A bleeding time does not assist in determining leukocytosis. Leukocytosis is not a platelet disorder.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:17 AM 36. An individual who experiences fast breathing may be exhibiting which symptom of anemia? a. tachypnea b. dyspnea c. tachycardia d. syncope ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Tachypnea is fast breathing. b. Incorrect. Dyspnea is difficult, not fast, breathing. c. Incorrect. Tachycardia is a fast heart. d. Incorrect. Syncope is fainting. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:20 AM 37. Sickle-cell anemia is found in: a. Asians. b. Caucasians. c. Blacks. d. Italians. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Sickle-cell anemia is not found in Asians. b. Incorrect. Sickle-cell anemia is not found in Caucasians. c. Correct. Sickle-cell anemia is a hereditary anemia found in Blacks that causes an abnormal sickle shape of the erythrocyte.

d. Incorrect. Sickle-cell anemia is not found in Italians. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:21 AM 38. Possible causes of iron deficiency anemia include which of the following? a. overcooking vegetables b. alcoholism c. bleeding from the GI tract d. exposure to benzene ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Overcooking vegetables may cause folic acid deficiency anemia, but other causes are listed. b. Incorrect. Alcoholism may cause folic acid deficiency anemia, but other causes are listed. c. Correct. Bleeding from the GI tract may cause iron-deficiency anemia.

d. Incorrect. Exposure to chemicals such as benzene may cause hemolytic anemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:26 AM 39. Deficiency of folic acid may be related to: a. undercooking vegetables. b. a normal diet. c. consequences of alcoholism. d. bone marrow deficiency. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Overcooking, not undercooking, vegetables may cause a deficiency of folic acid.

b. Incorrect. A poor diet, not a normal diet, may result in a deficiency of folic acid. c. Correct. Deficiency of folic acid may be related to poor diet or overcooking vegetables, or consequence of alcoholism. d. Incorrect. Bone marrow deficiency does not cause a deficiency of folic acid.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:29 AM 40. Pernicious anemia can be treated by monthly injections of: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders a. vitamin B12. b. vitamin B6. c. vitamin B1. d. vitamin B2. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Pernicious anemia results in a loss or lack of intrinsic factor. This deficiency prevents adequate vitamin B12 absorption. b. Incorrect. Vitamin B6 is not related to pernicious anemia.

c. Incorrect. Vitamin B1 is not related to pernicious anemia. d. Incorrect. Vitamin B2 is not related to pernicious anemia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common blood and blood-forming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:31 AM 41. Severe cases of hemorrhagic anemia may need to be treated with what? a. injections of vitamin B12 b. stem cell transplant c. blood transfusions d. bone marrow transplant ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Injections of vitamin B12 is a treatment for pernicious anemia. b. Incorrect. Stem cell transplant may be a treatment for aplastic anemia. c. Correct. In severe cases of blood loss, a blood transfusion might be needed. d. Incorrect. Bone marrow transplant may be a treatment for aplastic anemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common blood and blood-forming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:34 AM 42. Causes of aplastic anemia include: a. bacteria. b. protozoa. c. viruses. d. parasites. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Bacteria do not cause aplastic anemia. b. Incorrect. Protozoa do not cause aplastic anemia. c. Correct. Aplastic anemia is due to injury or destruction of the blood-forming area of the bone marrow. Causes include chemotherapy, radiation, viruses, and chemical toxins. d. Incorrect. Parasites do not cause aplastic anemia.

c. Incorrect. Heparin is not a treatment for aplastic anemia. d. Incorrect. Phlebotomy is a treatment for polycythemia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common blood and blood-forming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:39 AM 44. Polycythemia is also known as: a. polycythemia rubra. b. polycythemia azul. c. polycythemia vera. d. polycythemia negra. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Polycythemia rubra is not another name for polycythemia. b. Incorrect. Polycythemia azul is not another name for polycythemia. c. Correct. Polycythemia is also known as primary polycythemia or polycythemia vera. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders d. Incorrect. Polycythemia negra is not another name for polycythemia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:41 AM 45. A person who has primary polycythemia has: a. too few blood cells. b. increased blood pressure. c. pale mucous membranes. d. decreased workload on the heart. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An increase in blood volume, not a decrease, is a symptom of primary polycythemia. b. Correct. A person who has primary polycythemia has an increased blood pressure. c. Incorrect. Pale mucous membranes are not a symptom of primary polycythemia. d. Incorrect. Decreased workload on the heart is not a symptom of primary polycythemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:42 AM 46. Erythrocytosis is a protective mechanism of the body to meet the need for: a. less oxygen. b. fighting infection. c. extra oxygen. d. normal blood clotting. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The body’s need for less oxygen is not met by erythrocytosis. b. Incorrect. The body’s need for fighting infection is not met by erythrocytosis. c. Correct. The body’s need for extra oxygen is met by the condition called erythrocytosis. d. Incorrect. The body’s need for normal blood clotting is not met by erythrocytosis.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:47 AM 47. Which of the following characterizes mononucleosis? a. It is a viral infection. b. It is a bacterial infection. c. It is a disorder of red blood cells. d. It is a condition of too many blood cells. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Mononucleosis is a viral infection. b. Incorrect. Mononucleosis is not a bacterial infection. c. Incorrect. Mononucleosis is a disorder of white blood cells. d. Incorrect. Polycythemias is a condition of too many blood cells. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:49 AM 48. Symptoms of mononucleosis include: a. high blood pressure. b. swollen lymph glands. c. tachycardia. d. syncope. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. High blood pressure is not a symptom of mononucleosis. b. Correct. Fatigue, swollen lymph glands, and sore throat are all symptoms of mononucleosis. c. Incorrect. Tachycardia, or a fast heart, is not a symptom of mononucleosis.

d. Incorrect. Syncope, or fainting, is not a symptom of mononucleosis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:51 AM 49. Chronic leukemia most often affects: a. infants. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders b. young adults. c. older adults. d. school-age children. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Infants are not the population most affected by chronic leukemia. b. Incorrect. Young adults are not the population most affected by chronic leukemia. c. Correct. Older adults are most often affected by chronic leukemia.

d. Incorrect. School-age children are not the population most affected by chronic leukemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the blood and blood-forming organs and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:54 AM 50. Acute leukemia commonly affects: a. children. b. adolescents. c. middle-aged adults. d. older adults. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Leukemia may be classified as acute or chronic. Acute forms commonly affect children, progress rapidly, and may be fatal. b. Incorrect. Adolescents are not the population most commonly affected by acute leukemia. c. Incorrect. Middle-aged adults are not the population most commonly affected by acute leukemia. d. Incorrect. Older adults are not the population most commonly affected by acute leukemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:56 AM 51. Lisette is a 15-year-old female with some weakness and fatigue. Which type of anemia might she have and what is the treatment plan? a. aplastic anemia and a blood transfusion b. hemorrhagic anemia and oxygen administration c. sickle cell anemia and therapy with hydroxyurea Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders d. iron deficiency anemia and a healthy diet high in iron ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Aplastic anemia is a serious medical emergency, often caused by chemotherapy. b. Incorrect. Hemorrhagic anemia, caused by a loss of whole blood, is treated with oxygen, plus intravenous fluids. c. Incorrect. Sickle cell anemia can cause extreme pain, along with fatigue. .

d. Correct. Young females may have iron deficiency anemia due to a combination of a diet low in iron and blood loss due to menstruation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:58 AM 52. Dontrell, a 41-year-old male, has been diagnosed with thrombocytopenia. Why should Dontrell avoid drinking alcohol? a. It increases production of thrombocytes. b. It increases clotting time. c. It slows platelet production. d. It decreases platelet aggregation. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Alcohol does not increase the production of thrombocytes. b. Incorrect. Alcohol decreases clotting time because it slows platelet production. c. Correct. Because alcohol delays clotting time, it should be avoided by patients with thrombocytopenia. d. Incorrect. Medications, such as ibuprofen or aspirin, decrease platelet aggregation, making blood less likely to clot.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the blood and blood-forming organs and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:59 AM 53. Abner was recently diagnosed with primary polycythemia. Based on this diagnosis, what will his CBC show? a. increased erythrocytes, increased leukocytes, increased thrombocytes b. increased erythrocytes, decreased leukocytes, decreased thrombocytes c. decreased erythrocytes, decreased leukocytes, increased thrombocytes d. decreased erythrocytes, increased leukocytes, decreased thrombocytes ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Primary polycythemia has abnormal results on a CBC, including increased numbers of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes. b. Incorrect. Primary polycythemia increases erythrocytes but does not decrease leukocytes or thrombocytes. c. Incorrect. In the presence of primary polycythemia, erythrocytes are increased.

d. Incorrect. Erythrocytes and thrombocytes are both increased when primary polycythemia is present.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:02 AM 54. Halima, a 63-year-old female, has been diagnosed with polycythemia. Which lab test results indicate secondary polycythemia, instead of primary polycythemia? a. increased erythrocytes, increased leukocytes, increased thrombocytes b. increased erythrocytes, normal leukocytes, normal thrombocytes c. normal erythrocytes, increased leukocytes, normal thrombocytes d. normal erythrocytes, normal leukocytes, increased thrombocytes ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Primary polycythemia includes increased numbers of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes, but this is not true of secondary polycythemia. b. Correct. In secondary polycythemia, which is caused by an oxygen deficit, only erythrocytes are increased. c. Incorrect. In secondary polycythemia, which is caused by only erythrocytes are increased. d. Incorrect. Polycythemia, whether primary or secondary, is caused by increased numbers of erythrocytes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the blood and blood-forming organs and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:04 AM 55. Alex has been cautioned that their current health condition may lead to a deficiency in folic acid. Which of the following conditions or treatments may cause a folic acid deficiency? a. polycythemia b. chemotherapy c. alcoholism d. thrombocytopenia ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Polycythemia results in increased numbers of erythrocytes. b. Incorrect. Chemotherapy may cause aplastic anemia, by damaging the bloodforming area of the bone marrow. c. Correct. Alcoholism can cause folic acid deficiency, which can be treated by eating foods high in folate or taking supplements that include folic acid. d. Incorrect. Thrombocytopenia affects blood clotting.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common blood and blood-forming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:08 AM 56. A new clinical study is searching for participants that are or may be diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which patient is more likely to be diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma as compared to Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma? a. a 53-year-old male b. a 35-year-old male c. a 6-year-old female d. a 5-month-old female ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma affects older adults with an average age of 50.

b. Correct. Hodgkin’s lymphoma is seen more often in younger patients, with an average age of 35. c. Incorrect. Very young patients are unlikely to be diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma or Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. d. Incorrect. Rare malignancies affect children under a year.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:18 AM 57. Rasheed received a blood transfusion and is being monitored for any reactions to the transfusion, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation. Why is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) usually life-threatening? a. excessive bleeding and excessive clotting occur simultaneously b. abnormal bleeding occurs in the skin c. blood-forming bone marrow is destroyed d. too much red blood cell mass ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. This disorder is very difficult to manage because excessive bleeding and excessive clotting occur simultaneously. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders b. Incorrect. While abnormal bleeding does occur in DIC, the most urgent difficulty is managing the bleeding and the clotting. c. Incorrect. DIC does not destroy blood-forming bone marrow.

d. Incorrect. DIC depletes clotting factors and platelets, but too much red blood cell mass is not an urgent factor.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:19 AM 58. Henry’s doctors are trying to rule out hemophilia. Which lab test is realistic to rule out or confirm hemophilia? a. blood smear b. vitamin B12 level c. bleeding time d. hematocrit and hemoglobin levels ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A blood smear observes the morphology of each of the cells and platelets, helping in the evaluation of sickle cell anemia. b. Incorrect. Vitamin B12 levels do not confirm the presence of hemophilia.

c. Correct. Bleeding time is used to measure the time it takes the blood to clot and may be used to diagnose hemophilia. d. Incorrect. Hematocrit and hemoglobin are useful to diagnose different types of anemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of blood and bloodforming organ disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:22 AM 59. Rosa has moderate sickle cell anemia. Which statement is true about sickle cell anemia? a. Sickle cell anemia can be cured with hydroxyurea. b. Sickle-shaped cells clump together and lead to ischemia or infarcts. c. Sickle cell anemia is not a painful disease but can be fatal. d. Sickle cells stay the same shape whether oxygenated or deoxygenated. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Sickle cell anemia has no cure but can be treated with hydroxyurea. b. Correct. The shape of sickle cells causes the cells to clump together, sometimes causing infarcts of vital organs and other structures. c. Incorrect. Sickle cell anemia is a very painful disease, especially during a sickle cell crisis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Blood and Blood-Forming Organ Disease and Disorders d. Incorrect. Sickle cells return to a normal shape after reoxygenation. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5 - Identify the common disorders of the blood and blood-forming organs. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:24 AM 60. Zion is a 72-year-old male recently diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which results may have alerted Zion’s physicians that multiple myeloma was likely? a. hypercalcemia b. erythrocytosis c. Reed-Sternberg cell present in lymphatic tissue d. low vitamin B12 levels ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Hypercalcemia, or elevated calcium in the blood, occurs because bone is broken down.

b. Incorrect. Erythrocytosis is a condition seen with polycythemia. c. Incorrect. Presence of the Reed-Sternberg cell indicates Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. d. Incorrect. Low vitamin B12 levels are seen with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders 1. Anaphylactic shock is a result of: a. low blood volume. b. severe allergic reaction. c. malignant hypertension. d. bacteria or microorganisms in the blood. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Low blood volume results in hypovolemic, not anaphylactic, shock. b. Correct. Anaphylactic shock is a result of a severe allergic reaction. c. Incorrect. Malignant hypertension does not result in anaphylactic shock. d. Incorrect. Bacteria or microorganisms in the blood do not result in anaphylactic shock.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:17 AM 2. A hemothorax is: a. blood in the heart. b. blood in the lungs. c. blood in the chest cavity. d. blood in the abdomen. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Thorax means “chest,” not “heart.” b. Incorrect. Thorax means “chest,” not “lungs.” c. Correct. A hemothorax is blood in the chest cavity. d. Incorrect. Thorax means “chest,” not “abdomen.”

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:21 AM 3. Common causes of phlebitis include: a. injury and dehydration. b. prolonged standing and obesity. c. dehydration and prolonged standing. d. obesity and prolonged bed rest. ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Dehydration is not a cause of phlebitis. b. Incorrect. Prolonged standing is not a cause of phlebitis. c. Incorrect. Dehydration and prolonged standing are not causes of phlebitis. d. Correct. Injury, obesity, poor circulation, infection, and prolonged bed rest may all cause phlebitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:23 AM 4. Treatment for carditis includes which of the following? a. antihypertensives b. antiarrhythmics c. bed rest d. warm compresses ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antihypertensives are not used to treat carditis. b. Incorrect. Antiarrhythmics are not used to treat carditis. c. Correct. Carditis is a general term meaning “inflammation of the heart.” Treatment for carditis generally includes bed rest to decrease the workload on the heart. Other treatments depend on the cause of the disease and may include antibiotics, analgesics, and antipyretics. d. Incorrect. Warm compresses are not used to treat carditis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:26 AM 5. Causes of arrhythmias include: a. trauma. b. increased blood flow to the heart. c. medications. d. cardioversion. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Trauma is not a known cause of arrhythmias. b. Incorrect. Increased blood flow to the heart is not a known cause of arrhythmias. c. Correct. Often, the cause of arrhythmias is unknown. Known causes include Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders medications, ischemia of the heart muscle, and a previous myocardial infarction. d. Incorrect. Cardioversion is not a known cause of arrhythmias.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:31 AM 6. The main site for a myocardial infarction is the: a. right ventricle. b. right atrium. c. left atrium. d. left ventricle. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The main site for a myocardial infarction (MI) is not the right ventricle. b. Incorrect. The main site for a myocardial infarction (MI) is not the right atrium. c. Incorrect. The main site for a myocardial infarction (MI) is not the left atrium. d. Correct. The main site involved in a myocardial infarction is the left ventricle. This is the hardest-working area of the heart and has the greatest need for oxygen.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:32 AM 7. Risk factors for a myocardial infarction include: a. prolonged standing. b. cigarette smoking. c. repetitive activity. d. high-protein diet. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Prolonged standing is not a risk factor. b. Correct. Risk factors primarily include hypertension, cigarette smoking, a sedentary lifestyle, obesity, and a high-cholesterol diet. c. Incorrect. Repetitive activity is not a risk factor.

d. Incorrect. A high-cholesterol diet is a risk factor for a myocardial infarction (MI). POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:34 AM 8. Symptoms of a myocardial infarction include which of the following? a. leg pain b. diarrhea c. fever d. left arm, neck, and jaw pain ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Leg pain is not a symptom of myocardial infarction. b. Incorrect. Diarrhea is not a symptom of myocardial infarction. c. Incorrect. Fever is not a symptom of a myocardial infarction. d. Correct. Left arm, neck, and jaw pain are symptoms of myocardial infarction. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:35 AM 9. What vessels are commonly used for bypass surgery? a. carotid b. mammary c. aorta d. coronary ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Carotid vessels are not used for bypass surgery. b. Correct. Mammary vessels and saphenous vessels from the legs are often used for the bypass surgery. c. Incorrect. Aorta vessels are not used for bypass surgery.

d. Incorrect. Coronary vessels are not used for bypass surgery. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:37 AM 10. Which of the following is the average adult blood pressure is? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders a. 120/80 mm Hg b. 140/90 mm Hg c. 130/70 mm Hg d. 150/70 mm Hg ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. 120/80 is considered a normal blood pressure. b. Incorrect. 140/90 is too high. c. Incorrect. 130/70 is too high. d. Incorrect. 150/70 is too high.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:38 AM 11. Which of the following is true regarding congenital aneurysms? a. Congenital aneurysms are not preventable. b. Preventing atherosclerosis will aid in prevention. c. Preventing hypertension will aid in prevention. d. Not smoking will aid in prevention. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Congenital aneurysms are not preventable. b. Incorrect. Preventing atherosclerosis will aid in the prevention of aneurysms, but not congenital aneurysms. c. Incorrect. Preventing hypertension will aid in the prevention of aneurysms, but not congenital aneurysms. d. Incorrect. Not smoking will aid in prevention of aneurysms, but not congenital aneurysms.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:39 AM 12. Which of the following is true regarding cardiomyopathy? a. Cardiomyopathy is curable with medication. b. Cardiomyopathy is congenital. c. In most cases, cardiomyopathy cannot be prevented. d. Cardiomyopathy occurs only in the elderly. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Cardiomyopathy is not curable. b. Incorrect. Cardiomyopathy is not congenital. c. Correct. In most cases, cardiomyopathy cannot be prevented. d. Incorrect. Only cone type, restrictive cardiomyopathy, is usually seen in the elderly.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:41 AM 13. Which of the following is true about carditis? a. Not smoking is a prevention. b. Carditis is caused by a fungal infection. c. Many of the carditis cases are preventable. d. Carditis is seen primarily in newborns. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Carditis is most often associated with an infection, not smoking. b. Incorrect. Bacteria and viruses may be associated with the etiology. c. Correct. Depending on the cause, many of the carditis cases are preventable with accurate diagnosis and treatment for the cause.

d. Incorrect. Carditis is not primarily seen in newborns. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:44 AM 14. The location of the heart is best described by which of the following? a. approximately in the middle of the chest, slightly to the left, behind the clavicle b. approximately in the middle of the chest, slightly to the left, behind the sternum c. approximately in the middle of the chest, slightly to the right, behind the scapula d. approximately in the middle of the chest, slightly to the right, behind the sternum ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The clavicle is the collarbone. The heart is not this high in the chest. b. Correct. Approximately in the middle of the chest, slightly to the left, behind the sternum is the correct location of the heart. c. Incorrect. The scapula is the shoulder blade and the heart is not on the right.

d. Incorrect. The heart is not on the right of the chest. POINTS:

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:46 AM 15. How many layers does the wall of the heart have? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. There are more layers than two layers. b. Correct. The wall of the heart is divided into three layers. The epicardium is the outermost layer, the myocardium is the middle layer, and the endocardium is the innermost layer. c. Incorrect. There are four chambers, but not four layers.

d. Incorrect. There are fewer layers than five layers. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:49 AM 16. Which of the following waves on an electrocardiogram represents the contraction of the ventricles of the heart? a. P b. T c. ST d. QRS ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The P wave represents the electrical stimulation beginning and passing over the atria (depolarization). b. Incorrect. The T wave represents the recovery of the ventricles (repolarization).

c. Incorrect. Contraction of the ventricles of the heart is not an ST wave. d. Correct. The QRS wave is caused by the stimulation passing over the ventricles and represents the contraction of the ventricles of the heart.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 6:51 AM

17. Which of the following tests is done to screen for peripheral arterial disease (PAD)? a. ankle-brachial index (ABI) b. cardiac catheterization c. positron emission tomography (PET) scanning d. CPK and Tnl blood levels ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is done to screen for peripheral arterial disease (PAD). b. Incorrect. Cardiac catheterization is an invasive procedure used to sample the blood in the chambers of the heart to determine the oxygen content and blood pressure in the chambers. c. Incorrect. The images of the body developed by positron emission tomography (PET) scanning may be used to evaluate a variety of diseases. d. Incorrect. The enzyme levels help determine the time and degree of the infarction.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:52 AM 18. Hypertension is best described as: a. high venous blood pressure. b. low venous blood pressure. c. high arterial blood pressure. d. low arterial blood pressure. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. High venous blood pressure is not the correct term to describe hypertension. b. Incorrect. Low venous blood pressure is not the correct term to describe hypertension. c. Correct. Hypertension is best described as high arterial blood pressure.

d. Incorrect. Low arterial blood pressure is called hypotension, not hypertension. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:53 AM 19. Which of the following is the most common form of hypertension? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders a. primary, or cardinal b. secondary, or essential c. essential, or cardinal d. primary, or essential ANSWER: d FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Cardinal is not another name for primary hypertension. b. Incorrect. Only 10 percent of all hypertensive cases are due to secondary problems. c. Incorrect. Cardinal is not another name for essential.

d. Correct. Primary or essential hypertension accounts for approximately 90 percent of all hypertensive cases. This type of hypertension is due to an unknown cause and usually has a gradual onset over a number of years.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:55 AM 20. Which of the following is a controllable factor in preventing atherosclerosis? a. Age b. sex c. heredity d. diet ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Aging is not controllable. Atherosclerosis is considered a degenerative disease because all adults over the age of 30 have some degree of plaque formation. In general, the older the person, the more atherosclerosis is present. b. Incorrect. Gender is not controllable. Men have more atherosclerosis present than women until after female menopause, at which time the incidence becomes more equal. c. Incorrect. A genetic tendency is not controllable. Atherosclerosis appears to run in families. This may be related to common diet, or in some instances, a clear genetic tendency to develop hypercholesterolemia. d. Correct. Diet is controllable. Obese individuals have more atherosclerosis present than individuals in the normal weight range. The higher the diet in carbohydrates and fats, the higher the incidence of atherosclerosis.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders 21. Peripheral vascular disease refers to a disease of the: a. arteries or veins in the heart. b. arteries or veins in the head. c. lymph vessels in the heart or head. d. arteries or veins outside the heart and head. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Peripheral means outside. b. Incorrect. Peripheral means outside. c. Incorrect. It is a disease of the arteries or veins. d. Correct. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) refers to any disease of arteries or veins peripheral or outside the heart and head.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 6:59 AM 22. What part of the body is most affected by peripheral vascular disease (PVD)? a. arms b. the brain c. Legs d. the heart ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Arms are not the most-affected part of the body. b. Incorrect. The brain is not the affected part of the body. c. Correct. Peripheral vascular disease is caused by atherosclerotic plaque, primarily in the arteries supplying blood to the legs. d. Incorrect. The heart is not the affected part of the body.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 7:08 AM 23. Which of the following disease processes is most likely to result in intermittent claudication? a. cerebrovascular accident (CVA) b. peripheral vascular disease (PVD) c. myocardial infarction (MI) d. hypertension ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is also known as a stroke and does Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders not result in intermittent claudication. b. Correct. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) can result in intermittent claudication. This condition of developing muscle cramps, which are relieved with rest and increase with activity, is called intermittent claudication. c. Incorrect. Myocardial infarction (MI) is also known as a heart attack and does not result in intermittent claudication. d. Incorrect. Hypertension is high blood pressure and does not result in intermittent claudication.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 7:11 AM 24. The condition in which the heart fails to pump an adequate amount of blood to meet the body’s needs is known as: a. carditis. b. valvular heart disease. c. arrhythmia. d. congestive heart failure (CHF). ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Carditis is the inflammation of the heart. b. Incorrect. Valvular heart disease is related to malfunction of the heart valves. c. Incorrect. Arrhythmias are abnormalities in heart rhythm due to a disturbance in the conduction system of the heart. d. Correct. Congestive heart failure (CHF) is a condition in which the heart fails to pump an adequate amount of blood to meet the body’s needs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 7:13 AM 25. The normal heart rate for an adult is how many beats per minute? a. 60–100 b. 50–90 c. 50–110 d. 80–100 ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Normal heart rhythm is often called “normal sinus rhythm,” and indicates that the rate is between 60 and 100 beats per minute, is regular, and is originating normally from the SA node. b. Incorrect. 50–90 heart rate runs too low. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. 50–110 is a wider range than the normal. d. Incorrect. 80–100 heart rate starts too high. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 7:14 AM 26. Which of the following tests is used most frequently for diagnosing deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? a. Homan’s test b. Pratt’s sign c. ultrasound d. echocardiogram ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Homan’s test is indicative but not diagnostic. A positive Homan’s test is very commonly performed as an initial indication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Homan’s test is performed by pulling the toes toward the knee; a positive test will bring about pain in the posterior calf. b. Incorrect. Pratt’s sign test is indicative but not diagnostic. If squeezing the posterior calf also elicits pain, this pain is indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is called a Pratt’s sign. c. Correct. Ultrasonography or ultrasound imaging of the veins is the most widely used test to evaluate deep vein thrombosis (DVT). d. Incorrect. An echocardiogram is not used for diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 10:51 PM 27. Which of the following is a pinpoint hemorrhage of low-pressure vessels into the tissue? a. petechiae b. ecchymosis c. squirting of arterial blood d. purpura ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Petechiae is a term used for hemorrhage of a low-pressure vessel. Petechiae are small pinpoint hemorrhages. b. Incorrect. Ecchymosis is a term used for hemorrhage of a low-pressure vessel. Ecchymosis is a larger area of purplish color commonly called a bruise. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Hemorrhage of the high-pressure vessels (the arteries) leads to forceful squirting of bright red (highly oxygenated) blood. The squirting of arterial blood is directly related to the beat of the heart. d. Incorrect. Purpura is a term used for hemorrhage of a low-pressure vessel. Purpura is spontaneous bleeding into the tissues related to a hemorrhagic disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 10:53 PM 28. Which of the following symptoms is most likely associated with shock? a. high blood pressure b. low blood pressure c. increased tissue perfusion d. facial redness ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. High blood pressure is not a characteristic of shock. b. Correct. Shock can be defined in many ways, but basically, it is extremely low blood pressure that leads to decreased tissue perfusion (to pour through or supply with blood). c. Incorrect. Increased tissue perfusion is not characteristic of shock.

d. Incorrect. Facial pallor, not redness, would be a symptom. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 10:54 PM 29. Which kind of shock is the leading cause of death due to shock? a. cardiogenic b. septic c. hypovolemic d. neurogenic ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Cardiogenic shock results from the inability of the heart to pump blood adequately, often due to myocardial infarction and is the leading cause of death due to shock. b. Incorrect. Septic shock is the second most common cause of death due to shock. Septic shock usually results from an overwhelming septicemia (bacteria or microorganisms in the blood). Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Hypovolemic shock is not the leading cause. It results from low fluid volume and may be due to hemorrhage (often called hemorrhagic shock), severe burns leading to loss of blood plasma, severe vomiting, and diarrhea. d. Incorrect. Neurogenic shock is not the leading cause. It results from generalized vasodilation and may be due to highly emotional situations such as fear, surprise, pain, and unpleasant sights. Medications and spinal anesthesia also may lead to neurogenic shock.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 10:56 PM 30. Which of the following is a vasospastic disorder primarily affecting the fingers and toes? a. Buerger’s disease b. polyarteritis nodosa c. cor pulmonale d. Raynaud’s disease ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Buerger’s disease is also known as thromboangiitis obliterans and is an inflammation of the peripheral vessels with clot formation. b. Incorrect. Polyarteritis nodosa is a vasculitis that is characterized by inflammatory, necrotizing lesions in many different vessels. c. Incorrect. Cor pulmonale is right-sided heart failure related to acute or chronic pulmonary disease. d. Correct. Raynaud’s disease is a vasospastic disorder primarily affecting the fingers and toes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 10:57 PM 31. Echocardiography and ultrasound arteriography both: a. use sound waves. b. are invasive. c. produce pictures of the heart. d. produce pictures of the heart arteries. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Echocardiography and ultrasound arteriography both use sound waves and are noninvasive. b. Incorrect. Echocardiography and ultrasound arteriography both are noninvasive. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Echocardiography produces pictures of the heart. Ultrasound arteriography produces pictures of the arteries. d. Incorrect. Echocardiography produces pictures of the heart. Ultrasound arteriography produces pictures of the arteries.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 10:59 PM 32. Hypertension may indicate development of diseases in other systems including: a. cerebrovascular and skeletal. b. renal and reproductive. c. skeletal and reproductive. d. cerebrovascular and renal. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hypertension does not indicate development of skeletal disease. b. Incorrect. Hypertension does not indicate development of reproductive disease. c. Incorrect. Hypertension does not indicate development of skeletal or reproductive disease. d. Correct. Hypertension is not only a disease process but also serves as an indicator of the development of cerebrovascular, cardiovascular and kidney disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:44 AM 33. The leading cause of stroke and heart failure is: a. platelet disorders. b. genetic predisposition. c. hypertension. d. anemia. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Platelet disorders are not the leading cause of stroke and heart failure. b. Incorrect. Genetic predisposition is not the leading cause of stroke and heart failure. c. Correct. Hypertension is a chronic disease affecting almost half of all American adults and is the leading cause of stroke and heart failure. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Anemia is not the leading cause of stroke and heart failure. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:01 PM 34. Risk factors known to cause primary hypertension include: a. age. b. type B personality traits. c. high protein diet. d. low fat intake. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Age is a known risk factor for primary hypertension, as blood pressure tends to rise with age.

b. Incorrect. Type B personality traits are a risk factor for primary hypertension. c. Incorrect. High salt and fat intake are risk factors, not high protein. d. Incorrect. High fat intake is a risk factor. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:02 PM 35. Atherosclerosis is characterized by which of the following? a. widening of the artery b. increased blood flow c. low blood pressure d. narrowing of the vessel lumen ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The common result of arteriosclerosis is the gradual narrowing of the vessel lumen. b. Incorrect. One result of atherosclerosis is a gradual narrowing of the vessel lumen leading to a slowing of blood flow, not an increase in blood flow. c. Incorrect. Hypertension is characteristic of atherosclerosis.

d. Correct. Narrowing of the lumen of the arteries is a characteristic of atherosclerosis.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:03 PM 36. Endarterectomy may be used in treatment of: a. atherosclerosis. b. malignant hypertension. c. tachycardia. d. cor pulmonale. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Treatment for atherosclerosis may include endarterectomy, or opening of the artery to remove plaque. b. Incorrect. Endarterectomy is not a treatment for malignant hypertension.

c. Incorrect. Endarterectomy is not a treatment for tachycardia. d. Incorrect. Endarterectomy is not a treatment for cor pulmonale. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:04 PM 37. Intermittent claudication is characterized by: a. numbness in the hand. b. muscle cramps in the legs. c. blood clots in the pulmonary artery. d. irregular heart rate. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Numbness in the hands is not characteristic of intermittent claudication.

b. Correct. Developing muscle cramps in the legs during activity is characteristic of intermittent claudication. c. Incorrect. Blood clots in the pulmonary artery are not characteristic of intermittent claudication. d. Incorrect. Irregular heart rate is not characteristic of intermittent claudication.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders 38. Infarction is simply defined as: a. death of cells due to lack of oxygen. b. a primary heart disease. c. the most common cause of heart disease. d. a traveling clot. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Infarction is defined as cell or tissue death due to lack of oxygen. b. Incorrect. Infarction is not defined as a primary heart disease. c. Incorrect. Infarction is not defined as the most common cause of heart disease. d. Incorrect. Infarction is not defined as a traveling clot. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.1 - Define the terminology common to the cardiovascular system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:06 PM 39. The most definitive procedure to discover the cause of angina is: a. physical examination. b. cardiac catheterization. c. electrocardiogram. d. triglyceride blood test. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A physical exam assists with diagnosis of angina, but is not the most definitive procedure. b. Correct. A cardiac catheterization is the most definitive procedure to discover the cause of angina. c. Incorrect. Electrocardiogram assists with diagnosis of angina, but is not the most definitive procedure. d. Incorrect. Triglyceride blood tests assist with diagnosis of angina, but is not the most definitive procedure.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:08 PM 40. Symptoms of angina may include pain that radiates into the: a. jaw, middle of the back, and right arm. b. the back of the head and the left arm. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders c. the stomach, knees, and left jaw area. d. left arm, neck, and jaw. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pain in the jaw, middle of the back, and right arm is not indicative of angina. b. Incorrect. Pain in the back of the head and the left arm is not indicative of angina. c. Incorrect. Pain in the stomach, knees, and left jaw area is not indicative of angina. d. Correct. Pain in the left arm, neck and jaw is indicative of angina.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:18 PM 41. Rheumatic heart disease is caused by: a. hypertension. b. streptococcus bacteria. c. smoking. d. atherosclerosis. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hypertension is not the cause of rheumatic heart disease. b. Correct. Rheumatic fever is commonly caused in a select group of individuals by a streptococcal throat infection that build antibodies that attack the streptococcal bacteria and the heart tissue. c. Incorrect. Smoking is not the cause of rheumatic fever.

d. Incorrect. Atherosclerosis is not the cause of rheumatic fever. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:19 PM 42. Symptoms of congestive heart failure include: a. shortness of breath. b. swelling in the arms. c. slower heart rate. d. slower breathing. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A gradual increase in shortness of breath is a symptom of CHF. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. As CHF progresses, fluid builds up in the vascular system, leading to neck vein distention and edema in the ankles and lower legs. c. Incorrect. Tachycardia, a rapid heart, may occur.

d. Incorrect. Rabid breathing may occur. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:24 PM 43. Carditis may be secondary to: a. reproductive and urinary infections. b. respiratory and urinary infections. c. urinary and bone marrow infections. d. reproductive and bone marrow infections. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Carditis is not secondary to reproductive system infections. b. Correct. Carditis is often secondary to a respiratory tract, urinary tract, or skin infection. c. Incorrect. Carditis is not secondary to bone marrow infections.

d. Incorrect. Carditis is not secondary to reproductive system or bone marrow infections.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:26 PM 44. Valvular heart disease may be caused by: a. medications. b. ischemia of the heart muscle. c. poor circulation. d. congenital anomalies. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Medications are a known cause of arrhythmias. b. Incorrect. Ischemia of the heart muscle is a known cause of arrhythmias. c. Incorrect. Poor circulation is a known cause of phlebitis. d. Correct. Common causes of valvular disease can be congenital anomalies or malformations, rheumatic fever, or endocarditis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:27 PM 45. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) primarily occurs in: a. upper arms, lower legs, and feet. b. thighs, lower legs, and feet. c. upper arms, thighs, and pelvis. d. lower legs, thighs, and pelvis. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is not common in the upper arms or feet. b. Incorrect. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is not common in the feet.

c. Incorrect. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is not common in the upper arms. d. Correct. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) primarily occurs in the lower legs, thighs, and pelvis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:28 PM 46. Risk factors of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) include: a. bed rest. b. ambulation. c. over hydration. d. wearing compression stockings. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Prolonged bed rest greatly increases risk. b. Incorrect. Ambulation can help prevent DVTs. c. Incorrect. Dehydration is a risk factor. d. Incorrect. Compression stockings can be worn as a preventive measure. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.5 - Identify the common disorders of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:29 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders 47. From where does blood enter the heart? a. tricuspid valve b. right ventricle c. superior and inferior vena cava d. pulmonary artery ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. After entering the heart, blood passes through the right atrium and the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. b. Incorrect. After entering the heart, blood passes through the right atrium and the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. c. Correct. Blood enters the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava and then passes through the right atrium and the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. d. Incorrect. Blood passes through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery to travel to the lungs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:50 AM 48. What does oxygenated blood travel through to return to the heart? a. the inferior vena cava b. the pulmonary valve c. the pulmonary vein d. the mitral valve ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Blood enters the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava b. Incorrect. Blood passes through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery and travels to the lungs. c. Correct. The oxygenated blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary vein and is pumped into the left atrium through the mitral valve and into the left ventricle. d. Incorrect. After it returns to the heart, the oxygenated blood is pumped into the left atrium through the mitral valve and into the left ventricle

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the cardiovascular system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:37 PM 49. Many older adults can experience a drop in blood pressure when rising that is known as what? a. thromboangiitis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders b. hypertension c. postural hypotension d. vasospasm ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Buerger’s disease is also known as thromboangiitis obliterans and is an inflammation of the peripheral vessels with clot formation. b. Incorrect. Hypertension is high blood pressure.

c. Correct. Postural hypotension is the decrease or drop in blood pressure that occurs when the individual rises to a sitting or standing position from a reclining position. d. Incorrect. During vasospasm, the extremities can turn pale and then cyanotic before returning to normal color.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:39 PM 50. As the individual ages, the heart muscle loses some of its contractility, leading to what? a. increased cardiac output and decreased heart rate b. increased cardiac output and increased heart rate c. decreased cardiac output and increased heart rate d. decreased cardiac output and decreased heart rate ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Loss of contractility would not cause increased cardiac output and decreased heart rate.

b. Incorrect. Loss of contractility would not cause increased heart rate. c. Correct. As the individual ages, the heart muscle loses some of its contractility, causing a decreased cardiac output, an increased heart rate to compensate for the changes, or both. d. Incorrect. Loss of contractility would not cause decreased heart rate.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders c. ABI 1 d. ABI 0.7 ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. An ABI of 1.3 is normal b. Incorrect. A normal ABI is typically between 1 and 1.4. c. Incorrect. An ABI of 1 indicates healthy peripheral arteries. d. Correct. The lower extremities should have the same (or higher) blood pressure as the arms, so an ABI of 0.7 is positive for peripheral artery disease.

b. Incorrect. Statins such as lovastatin or atorvastatin lower cholesterol. c. Incorrect. Clotting is prevented by medications such as aspirin, clopidogrel, or warfarin. d. Incorrect. Antianginal medications include nitroglycerine, atenolol, and verapamil.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:49 PM 53. Amos was recently diagnosed with atherosclerosis. He is a smoker, has a sedentary lifestyle, does not eat a healthy diet, and has hypertension. Which of the following factors, if changed, will make the biggest impact on reducing Amos’s health risks? a. smoking cessation b. increasing activity levels c. changing diet to more plant-based foods d. lowering blood pressure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Smoking cessation is 10 times more effective than a better diet and increased physical activity combined. b. Incorrect. Increasing physical activity is helpful, even though it’s better to stop smoking as well. c. Incorrect. Lowering dietary carbohydrates and fats is good, although smoking cessation is even more effective. d. Incorrect. Hypertension may cause atherosclerosis and vice versa.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.6 - Describe the typical course and management of common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:52 PM 54. Dalton visited the hospital with symptoms of angina and given nitroglycerine to treat it. Why does nitroglycerine improve angina symptoms? a. It lowers blood cholesterol levels. b. It relieves the oxygen deficit through vasodilation. c. It normalizes heart rhythm. d. It prevents blood clot formation. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Nitroglycerine does not affect blood cholesterol levels. b. Correct. Nitroglycerine, a vasodilator, improves oxygen deficits and relieves angina, through increasing blood flow. c. Incorrect. Other medications, not nitroglycerine, are anti-arrhythmics.

d. Incorrect. Nitroglycerine does not prevent blood clot formation. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.1 - Define the terminology common to the cardiovascular system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:54 PM 55. Lee is admitted to the hospital with symptoms resembling myocardial infarction. Which abnormal lab blood tests may indicate that a myocardial infarction has taken place? a. total cholesterol panel b. complete Blood Count (CBC) c. CPK and troponin d. complete metabolic panel (CMP) ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. High cholesterol is a risk factor for heart disease, but it does not Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders indicate that a myocardial infarction has taken place. b. Incorrect. A CBC shows the number of red and white blood cells and will show infection, anemia, or many other conditions. c. Correct. After the death of myocardial cells, CPK and troponin are released into the blood stream. d. Incorrect. A CMP includes liver enzymes, kidney function, and more.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:56 PM 56. Zahra is a 72-year-old female who has just started developing edema in her ankles and shortness of breath. Which condition does she likely have? a. myocardial infarction b. hypertension c. angina d. congestive heart failure ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Zahra likely has congestive heart failure, which is caused by myocardial infarction, but it is not the only cause. b. Incorrect. Hypertension may lead to congestive heart failure, but it is not the only cause. c. Incorrect. Angina refers to chest pain.

d. Correct. Congestive heart failure leads to a fluid overload on the body, which leads to ankle edema and shortness of breath.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:57 PM 57. Judith had a total hip replacement four days ago. She is overweight and has pain that is confining her to her bed most of the time. Which condition is she at risk for developing? a. deep vein thrombosis (DVT) b. cardiomyopathy c. varicose veins d. peripheral arterial disease (PAD) ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. With risk factors such as obesity, recent surgery and immobility, Judith is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Primary cardiomyopathy is idiopathic, while secondary cardiomyopathy is due to other causes. c. Incorrect. Varicose veins are caused by prolonged sitting or standing, as well as obesity or pregnancy. d. Incorrect. Peripheral artery disease is caused by atherosclerotic plaque.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:58 PM 58. Jordan has been diagnosed with phlebitis and has been directed to increase physical activity to help prevent the progression to throm bophlebitis. When does phlebitis progress to thrombophlebitis? a. when clots develop in an inflamed vessel b. when ABI is less than 0.9 c. when the blood vessel is irritated by intravenous medication administration d. when blood pressure increases ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. In thrombophlebitis, clots develop in areas of phlebitis. b. Incorrect. An ABI of less than 0.9 indicates peripheral artery disease. c. Incorrect. Sometimes, phlebitis occurs when a blood vessel is injured. d. Incorrect. Thrombophlebitis occurs when clots form in the presence of phlebitis, but not because blood pressure increases.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:59 PM 59. Hank, a 75-year-old male with hypertension, is generally healthy with no physical complaints. Which of the following conditions might be discovered during a physical exam? a. myocardial infarction b. abdominal aortic aneurysm c. congestive heart failure d. sickle cells stay the same shape whether oxygenated or deoxygenated ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A myocardial infection will likely cause chest pain, diaphoresis, or shortness of breath. b. Correct. An abdominal aortic aneurysm is often asymptomatic and discovered during a physical exam or as an incidental finding on other diagnostic tests. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Congestive heart failure may cause shortness of breath and edema of the lower extremities. d. Incorrect. Peripheral artery disease causes intermittent claudication.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of cardiovascular system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:00 AM 60. Amira is 67-year-old female with a history of smoking. Within the last year, she started having calf pain during her daily walks, which resolves upon rest. What diagnostic test may be performed? a. electrocardiography b. CPK and troponin c. ankle-brachial index (ABI) d. angiocardiography ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Electrocardiography shows the electrical activity of the heart, useful in the presence of cardiac arrhythmias or suspicion of myocardial infarction. b. Incorrect. CPK and troponin levels are tested when ruling out a myocardial infarction. c. Correct. This clinical history indicated peripheral artery disease, so performing an ankle-brachial index is helpful to diagnose any stenosis in the peripheral arteries. d. Incorrect. Angiocardiography visualizes the coronary arteries.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders 1. Which of the following is a large muscle of respiration? a. pleura b. diaphragm c. lung d. thorax ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The pleura is a membrane in the thorax and covering the lung. b. Correct. The diaphragm, a large muscle of respiration, separates the thorax from the abdomen. c. Incorrect. The lungs are organs, not muscles

d. Incorrect. The thorax is the chest. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:55 PM 2. What is the movement of air into and out of the respiratory system called? a. aspiration b. bronchiolation c. respiration d. ventilation ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. This movement of air is not called aspiration. b. Incorrect. This movement of air is not called bronchiolation. c. Incorrect. This movement of air is not called respiration. d. Correct. The mechanism of ventilation is the movement of air into and out of the respiratory system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1 - Define the terminology common to the respiratory system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:57 PM 3. Which of the following is found in the upper respiratory system? a. trachea b. bronchus c. epiglottis d. alveoli ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The trachea is in the lower respiratory system. b. Incorrect. The bronchus is in the lower respiratory system. c. Correct. The epiglottis is in the upper respiratory system. d. Incorrect. The alveoli are in the lower respiratory system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:58 PM 4. Which of the following is found in the lower respiratory system? a. pharynx b. epiglottis c. larynx d. bronchus ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The pharynx is in the upper respiratory system. b. Incorrect. The epiglottis is in the upper respiratory system. c. Incorrect. The larynx is in the upper respiratory system. d. Correct. The bronchus is in the lower respiratory system. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 11:59 PM 5. What type of diagnostic test measures the amounts of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood? a. pulmonary function tests b. arterial blood gases c. bronchoscopy d. alpha-1 antitrypsis level ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure volume and flow of air by using a spirometer. b. Correct. These measurements are done on arterial blood and are called arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Incorrect. Tissue biopsy is obtained during a bronchoscopy.

d. Incorrect. The blood test checking for alpha-1 antitrypsis (AAT) level is a genetic test for risk factors of COPD.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:00 AM 6. What type of diagnostic test measures volume and flow of air? a. arterial blood gases b. bronchoscopy c. chest roentgenogram d. pulmonary function tests ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) measure the amounts of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood. b. Incorrect. Tissue biopsy is obtained during a bronchoscopy.

c. Incorrect. A chest roentgenogram (X-ray) is a major diagnostic tool used to diagnose lung diseases such as tumors, tuberculosis, abscesses, and pneumonia. d. Correct. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure volume and flow of air by using a spirometer.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:02 AM 7. Which of the following tests would be used to determine infectious disease? a. chest roentgenogram b. pulmonary function tests c. sputum culture d. arterial blood gases ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A chest roentgenogram (X-ray) is a major diagnostic tool used to diagnose lung diseases such as tumors, tuberculosis, abscesses, and pneumonia. b. Incorrect. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure volume and flow of air by using a spirometer. c. Correct. Sputum cultures are effective in determination of infectious disease.

d. Incorrect. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) measure the amounts of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:03 AM 8. What category of drugs is most commonly used in the treatment of COPD? a. antibiotics b. anticholergics c. antihistamines d. antivirals ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antibiotics are drugs used to prevent or stop bacterial infections. b. Correct. Anticholergics are drugs that are used to inhibit cholinergic nerve reflexes and are most commonly used in the treatment of COPD. c. Incorrect. Antihistamines are drugs used for treatment or prevention of allergies. d. Incorrect. Antivirals are drugs used to stop the action of a virus.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:04 AM 9. What category of drugs is most commonly used in the treatment of allergies? a. antibiotics b. anticholergics c. antihistamines d. antivirals ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antibiotics are drugs used to prevent or stop bacterial infections. b. Incorrect. Anticholergics are drugs that are used to inhibit cholinergic nerve reflexes and are most commonly used in the treatment of COPD. c. Correct. Antihistamines are drugs used for treatment or prevention of allergies.

d. Incorrect. Antivirals are drugs used to stop the action of a virus. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:05 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders 10. What category of drugs is most commonly used to open or relax airways? a. antineoplastics b. bronchodilators c. expectorants d. mucolytics ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antineoplastics are drugs used to treat cancer. b. Correct. Bronchodilators are drugs used to open or relax airways. c. Incorrect. Expectorants are drugs used to make coughs more productive. d. Incorrect. Mucolytics are drugs used to break down mucus and make it easier to cough up.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:06 AM 11. What category of drugs is most commonly used to make coughs more productive? a. decongestants b. bronchodilators c. expectorants d. mucolytics ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Decongestants are drugs used to relieve nasal congestion. b. Incorrect. Bronchodilators are drugs used to open or relax airways. c. Correct. Expectorants are drugs used to make coughs more productive. d. Incorrect. Mucolytics are drugs used to break down mucus and make it easier to cough up.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:07 AM 12. What is the leading cause of death due to infections in the older population? a. influenza b. pneumonia c. TB d. COPD Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Influenza is a serious disease affecting older adults, but is not the leading cause of death due to infections. b. Correct. Pneumonia is the leading cause of death due to infections in the older population. c. Incorrect. Older people are at increased risk of developing TB, but it is not the leading cause of death due to infections. d. Incorrect. COPD is a chronic disease that may have long-term effects on the aging individual.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the respiratory system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:27 AM 13. Which of the following is true of the respiratory system of older adults? a. It gains elasticity. b. It has more reserve. c. It becomes more efficient. d. It increases capacity. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Over time, the respiratory system loses some of its elasticity. b. Incorrect. Over time, the respiratory system has less reserve. c. Correct. Over time, the respiratory system loses some of its elasticity, becomes less efficient, and has less reserve. d. Incorrect. Over time, the respiratory system does not gain capacity.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the respiratory system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:29 AM 14. What is the major cause of cancer of the lung in older people? a. air pollution b. chronic respiratory infection c. working with fumes d. smoking ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Air pollution is not the major cause of cancer of the lung in older people. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Chronic respiratory infection is not the major cause of cancer of the lung in older people. c. Incorrect. Exposure to mold is not the major cause of cancer of the lung in older people. d. Correct. Smoking is the major cause of the high incidence of cancer of the lung in older people.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the respiratory system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:30 AM 15. Sudden Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) usually begins with what symptom? a. chills b. headache c. rigors d. high fever ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Chills is a symptom of SARS, but not the one with which it usually begins. b. Incorrect. Headache is a symptom of SARS, but not the one with which it usually begins. c. Incorrect. Rigors is a symptom of SARS, but not the one with which it usually begins. d. Correct. SARS usually begins with a high fever.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:30 AM 16. What is the incubation of the Sudden Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) usually virus? a. 3–5 days b. 5–7 days c. 7–10 days d. 9–12 days ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Incubation of the SARS virus appears to be longer than 3–5 days. b. Incorrect. Incubation of the SARS virus appears to be longer than 5–7 days c. Correct. Incubation of the SARS virus appears to be approximately 7–10 days. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Incubation of the SARS virus appears to be shorter than 9–12 days. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:31 AM 17. What is inflammation of the membranes covering the lung and the lining of the chest cavity called? a. pleurisy b. pneumothorax c. pleural effusion d. empyema ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Pleurisy is inflammation of the membranes covering the lung (visceral pleura) and lining the chest cavity (parietal pleura).

b. Incorrect. Pneumothorax is a collection of air in the pleural cavity, often resulting in partial or complete collapse of the lung on the affected side c. Incorrect. Pleural effusion, or hydrothorax, is a collection of fluid in the chest cavity. d. Incorrect. Empyema is the collection of pus in the chest cavity.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.5 - Identify the common disorders of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:32 AM 18. For what disease is thoracentesis used as a diagnostic tool? a. pneumothorax b. pleural effusion c. hydrothorax d. empyema ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Thoracentesis is used for treatment, not diagnosis, of pneumothorax. b. Incorrect. Thoracentesis is used for treatment, not diagnosis, of pneumothorax (hydrothorax). c. Incorrect. Thoracentesis is used for treatment, not diagnosis, of pneumothorax (hydrothorax). d. Correct. Diagnosis of empyema is by X-ray and thoracentesis.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:33 AM 19. How is COVID 19 diagnosed? a. nasal or saliva test b. chest X-rays c. pulmonary function tests d. skin testing ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. COVID 19 is diagnosed by a positive nasal or saliva COVID 19 test. b. Incorrect. Chest X-rays are not used to diagnose COVID 19. c. Incorrect. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are not used to diagnose COVID 19. d. Incorrect. Sin testing is used to diagnose TB, not COVID 19. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:34 AM 20. Which of the following is serious symptom of COVID 19, indicating the need for emergency treatment? a. shortness of breath b. diarrhea c. fever d. dry cough ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Serious symptoms need emergency treatment and include chest pain, difficulty breathing or shortness of breath, and loss of speech or loss of movement. b. Incorrect. Diarrhea is an additional symptom of COVID 19, but not a serious one requiring emergency treatment. c. Incorrect. Fever is a common, not serious, symptom of COVID 19.

d. Incorrect. Dry cough is a common, not serious, symptom of COVID 19. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:35 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders 21. The respiratory system consists of: a. the lungs, chest, and conducting airways. b. the lungs, heart, and conducting airways. c. the lungs, chest, and arteries. d. the lungs, conducting airways, and lymph nodes. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The lungs, chest, and conducting airways are all parts of the respiratory system. b. Incorrect. The heart is part of the cardiovascular system.

c. Incorrect. The arteries are part of the cardiovascular system. d. Incorrect. The lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic system. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1 - Define the terminology common to the respiratory system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:36 AM 22. The right lung has how many lobes? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The right lung has more than one lobe. b. Incorrect. The left lung has two lobes. c. Correct. The lungs are two spongy organs divided into three lobes in the right lung and two lobes in the left lung. d. Incorrect. The right lung has fewer than four lobes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:37 AM 23. The left lung has how many lobes? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The left lung has more than one lobe. b. Correct. The lungs are two spongy organs divided into three lobes in the right lung and two lobes in the left lung. c. Incorrect. The right lung has three lobes.

d. Incorrect. The left lung has fewer than four lobes. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:38 AM 24. The upper respiratory system includes which of the following? a. trachea b. alveoli c. pharynx d. bronchi ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The trachea is part of the lower respiratory system. b. Incorrect. The alveoli are found at the distal end of the terminal bronchioles in the lower respiratory system.

c. Correct. The upper respiratory system includes the nose (nasal cavities), mouth, sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. d. Incorrect. The bronchi are part of the lower respiratory system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:40 AM 25. The lower respiratory system includes which of the following? a. sinuses b. pharynx c. larynx d. bronchioles ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The sinuses are in the upper respiratory system. b. Incorrect. The pharynx is part of the upper respiratory system. c. Incorrect. The larynx is part of the upper respiratory system. d. Correct. The lower respiratory system includes the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles.

POINTS:

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:43 AM 26. The respiratory control center is located in what part of the brain? a. cerebellum b. medulla c. cerebrum d. hypothalamus ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The respiratory control center is not located in the cerebellum. b. Correct. The mechanism of ventilation can be altered by respiratory or neurological disease since the control center is located in the medulla of the brain. c. Incorrect. The respiratory control center is not located in the cerebrum.

d. Incorrect. The respiratory control center is not located in the hypothalamus. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:44 AM 27. Common signs and symptoms of asthma include: a. wheezing and fever. b. fever and dyspnea. c. dyspnea and hemoptysis. d. wheezing and dyspnea. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Fever is not a common sign and symptom of asthma. b. Incorrect. Fever is not a common sign and symptom of asthma. c. Incorrect. Hemoptysis, or coughing up blood, is not a common sign or symptom of asthma. d. Correct. Wheezing and dyspnea are common signs and symptoms of asthma.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders 28. Nasal discharge is frequently seen in: a. infection and asthma. b. inflammation and acute bronchitis. c. asthma and acute bronchitis. d. infection and inflammation. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Nasal discharge is not frequently seen in asthma. b. Incorrect. Nasal discharge is not frequently seen in acute bronchitis. c. Incorrect. Nasal discharge is not frequently seen in asthma or acute bronchitis. d. Correct. Nasal discharge is frequently seen in infection, inflammation, and allergic respiratory reactions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:48 AM 29. Which common diagnostic test used to diagnose respiratory disorders involves obtaining a tissue biopsy? a. a bronchoscopy b. ABGs c. an auscultation d. PFTs ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Tissue biopsy is often obtained during a bronchoscopy. b. Incorrect. ABGs is measure the amounts of carbon dioxide (waste) and oxygen in the blood. c. Incorrect. An auscultation involves listening to the chest with a stethoscope.

d. Incorrect. PFTs measure volume and flow of air by using a spirometer. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:51 AM 30. The most common cause of upper respiratory infections is the: a. rhinovirus. b. herpes virus. c. influenza virus. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders d. parvovirus. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. The most common cause of upper respiratory infections is the rhinovirus. b. Incorrect. Herpes virus is not the most common cause of upper respiratory infections. c. Incorrect. Influenza virus is not the most common cause of upper respiratory infections. d. Incorrect. Parvovirus is not the most common cause of upper respiratory infections.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.5 - Identify the common disorders of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:53 AM 31. General treatment for viral infections includes: a. rest. b. decreased fluids. c. antibiotics. d. bronchodilators. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A general treatment for viral infections includes resting, drinking increased amounts of fluids, and taking antipyretics and analgesics. b. Incorrect. Increasing, not decreasing, fluid intake would be recommended.

c. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, but may be needed for secondary bacterial infection. d. Incorrect. Bronchodilators are not a general treatment for viral infections.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:54 AM 32. Common symptoms of the common cold include: a. itchy eyes. b. body aches. c. rhinorrhea. d. laryngitis. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Watery, not itchy, eyes are a common symptom of the common cold. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Body aches are not a common symptom of the common cold. c. Correct. The symptoms of the common cold are runny nose (rhinorrhea), watery eyes, stuffy head, sore throat, sneezing, and fever. d. Incorrect. Laryngitis is not a common symptom of the common cold.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:55 AM 33. Possible causes of sinusitis include: a. blowing the nose hard. b. getting chilled or wet. c. water pollution. d. improper handwashing. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Blowing the nose too hard may cause sinusitis. b. Incorrect. Getting chilled or wet does not cause sinusitis. c. Incorrect. Air, not water, pollution may cause sinusitis. d. Incorrect. Improper handwashing does not cause sinusitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:56 AM 34. Symptoms of sinusitis include: a. headaches. b. body aches. c. laryngitis. d. watery eyes. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Pain in the area of the affected sinus is common. Headaches upon awakening is most common with sinus involvement. Pain in the forehead area may be related to frontal sinus inflammation. Other symptoms include tiredness, night cough, runny nose, nasal congestion, and sore throat. b. Incorrect. Body aches is not a symptom of sinusitis.

c. Incorrect. Laryngitis is not a symptom of sinusitis. d. Incorrect. Watery eyes is not a symptom of sinusitis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 12:58 AM 35. What treatment is indicated for chronic pharyngitis? a. saltwater gargles b. antihistamines c. surgery d. antibiotics, if bacterial ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Saltwater gargles is a treatment for pharyngitis, but more is indicated if it is chronic. b. Incorrect. Antihistamines are not a treatment for pharyngitis.

c. Correct. Chronic pharyngitis due to tonsillitis and adenoiditis can be treated by surgical removal of the tonsils and adenoids. d. Incorrect. Antibiotics is a treatment for pharyngitis, but more is indicated if it is chronic.

b. Incorrect. Headaches are not a symptom of laryngitis. c. Incorrect. Dyspepsia is not a symptom of laryngitis. d. Incorrect. Dyspnea is not a symptom of laryngitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

respiratory system disorders. 8/5/2022 1:53 AM 12/1/2022 12:59 AM

37. Treatment of laryngitis includes: a. antibiotics. b. throat lozenges. c. decreased fluid intake. d. tonsillectomy. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not used to treat laryngitis. b. Correct. Voice rest, throat lozenges, and increased fluid intake are treatments for laryngitis. c. Incorrect. Increased fluid intake is a treatment for laryngitis.

d. Incorrect. Tonsillectomy is a treatment for chronic pharyngitis, not for laryngitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:00 AM 38. Causes of acute bronchitis include which of the following? a. inhaling fumes or dust b. tooth infections c. Streptococcus d. overuse of the voice ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Inhaling fumes, dust, and other irritants may cause acute bronchitis. b. Incorrect. Tooth infections may cause sinusitis, not acute bronchitis. c. Incorrect. Streptococcus does not cause acute bronchitis. d. Incorrect. Overuse of the voice may cause laryngitis, not acute bronchitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:01 AM 39. Treatment of bronchitis includes: a. throat lozenges. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders b. increased fluid intake. c. resting the voice. d. adenoidectomy. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Throat lozenges are a treatment for laryngitis. b. Correct. Increased fluid intake may be used to treat bronchitis. c. Incorrect. Resting the voice is a treatment for laryngitis. d. Incorrect. Adenoidectomy may be done to treat chronic pharyngitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:04 AM 40. Symptoms of influenza include which of the following? a. back muscle pain b. constipation c. ear aches d. watery eyes ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Back muscle pain is characteristic of influenza. b. Incorrect. Diarrhea, not constipation, is characteristic of influenza. c. Incorrect. Ear aches are not characteristic of influenza. d. Incorrect. Watery eyes are not characteristic of influenza. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:10 AM 41. A common disease in the group of COPD diseases is: a. asthma. b. laryngitis. c. the common cold. d. emphysema. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Asthma is not one of the common diseases in the group of COPD diseases. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Laryngitis is not one of the common diseases in the group of COPD diseases. c. Incorrect. The common cold is not one of the common diseases in the group of COPD diseases. d. Correct. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema are included in COPD.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.5 - Identify the common disorders of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:11 AM 42. Which of the following may be used to help confirm a diagnosis of COPD? a. medical history b. pulmonary function tests c. physical examination d. sputum culture ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. History and physical examination are diagnostic of COPD, rather than used to confirm a diagnosis. b. Correct. Pulmonary function tests may be used to confirm a diagnosis of COPD. c. Incorrect. History and physical examination are diagnostic of COPD, rather than used to confirm a diagnosis. d. Incorrect. Sputum culture is used to diagnose pneumonia, not COPD.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:12 AM 43. Symptomatic treatment of COPD includes: a. oxygen. b. bronchodilators. c. antibiotics. d. antihistamines. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Giving oxygen to individuals suffering from COPD may be fatal because high oxygenation removes the stimulus to breathe. b. Correct. Symptomatic treatment of CPOD includes use of bronchodilator medications, inhalers, mucolytics, and cough medications. c. Incorrect. Antibiotics is not a treatment. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Antihistamines is not a treatment. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:13 AM 44. Chronic bronchitis is characterized by: a. a dry cough. b. a productive cough. c. headaches. d. a sore throat. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A dry cough is not characteristic of chronic bronchitis. b. Correct. A productive cough is characteristic of chronic bronchitis. c. Incorrect. Headaches are not characteristic of chronic bronchitis. d. Incorrect. Sore throat is not characteristic of chronic bronchitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:14 AM 45. Emphysema causes trapping of air in the: a. bronchioles. b. capillaries. c. alveoli. d. trachea. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Bronchioles is not where air is trapped in emphysema. b. Incorrect. Capillaries is not where air is trapped in emphysema. c. Correct. Emphysema causes trapping of air in the alveoli. d. Incorrect. The trachea is not where air is trapped in emphysema. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.5 - Identify the common disorders of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:51 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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12/1/2022 1:15 AM

46. Individuals with emphysema may: a. have pursed lips to help hold open the alveoli while pushing air out. b. have a productive cough. c. lie flat to use accessory muscles more adequately. d. wheeze as air passes through narrow airways. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Having pursed lips to help hold open the alveoli while pushing air out is a characteristic of emphysema. b. Incorrect. Having a productive cough is not a characteristic of emphysema, but another characteristic is listed. c. Incorrect. Leaning over a chair or a table to use accessory muscles more adequately is a characteristic of emphysema. d. Incorrect. Wheezing is not a symptom of emphysema.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:16 AM 47. Which of the following term refers to inflammation of the bronchioles and alveoli without infection, generally caused by hypersensitivity to dusts and chemicals? a. atelectasis b. pneumonia c. pulmonary abscess d. pneumonitis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Atelectasis is the collapse or airless state of part or all of a lung. b. Incorrect. Pneumonia is an inflammation of the bronchioles and alveoli due to infection. c. Incorrect. Pulmonary abscess, also called lung abscess, is a collection of infectious material contained within a capsule. d. Correct. Inflammation without infection is termed pneumonitis and is generally caused by hypersensitivity to dusts and chemicals.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.5 - Identify the common disorders of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:17 AM 48. Factors that may inhibit the normal protective mechanisms of the respiratory tract and lead to pneumonia include Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders which of the following? a. pursed-lip breathing b. poor diet c. environmental pollutants d. general anesthesia ANSWER: d FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Pursed-lip breathing is not a reason pathogens cause pneumonia to reach the lung tissue. b. Incorrect. Poor diet is not a factor that may inhibit the normal protective mechanisms of the respiratory tract leading to pneumonia. c. Incorrect. Environmental pollutants is not a factor.

d. Correct. General anesthesia is a factor that may inhibit the normal protective mechanisms of the respiratory tract leading to pneumonia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.5 - Identify the common disorders of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:18 AM 49. Symptoms of pneumonia include which of the following? a. bloody cough b. foul-smelling sputum c. chest pain d. anxiety ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Coughing of bloody sputum can be indicative of a pulmonary abscess.

b. Incorrect. Foul-smelling sputum can be indicative of a pulmonary abscess. c. Correct. Chest pain is a symptom of pneumonia. d. Incorrect. Anxiety is a common symptom of atelectasis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:19 AM 50. Treatment for viral pneumonia includes which of the following? a. antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and a high calorie diet b. oxygen therapy, increased fluid intake, and a high calorie diet c. antibiotics, analgesics, and increased fluid intake d. antibiotics, analgesics, and a high-calorie diet Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not effective against viral pneumonia. b. Correct. Oxygen therapy increased fluid intake, and a high calorie diet may all be used to treat viral pneumonia. c. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not effective against viral pneumonia.

d. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not effective against viral pneumonia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:20 AM 51. The emergency room is filled with patients suffering with various issues. Which of the following should be treated first in an emergency room setting? a. upper respiratory infection b. acute rhinitis c. pulmonary embolus. d. influenza ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An upper respiratory infection, in most cases, will not even need to be evaluated at the emergency room. b. Incorrect. Acute rhinitis is the common cold.

c. Correct. A pulmonary embolus is an emergency and could be fatal. d. Incorrect. Although influenza can be fatal in the very young and very old, it is generally self-limiting or can be treated with an anti-viral medication through a physician’s office.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1 - Define the terminology common to the respiratory system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:21 AM 52. A doctor suspects a patient has a pulmonary edema and orders test to confirm this suspicion. Which test results indicate pulmonary edema? a. high carbon dioxide on arterial blood gases / opacity on chest x-ray b. skin testing and sputum culture c. collapsed lung on chest x-ray d. mass seen on chest x-ray ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. ABGs would show high carbon dioxide levels and an opacity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders (whiteness) on a chest X-ray. b. Incorrect. Tuberculosis is diagnosed by a positive TB skin test and sputum culture. c. Incorrect. A pneumothorax is demonstrated by a collapsed lung on a chest Xray. d. Incorrect. Lung cancer is visible as a mass on a chest X-ray.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of the respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:22 AM 53. Morgan suffers from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asks about being put on oxygen. What’s dangerous about giving oxygen to patients with COPD? a. Fluid fills the lungs. b. They develop tachypnea. c. Ventricular fibrillation occurs. d. Oxygenation removes the stimulation to breathe. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Fluid fills the lungs with pulmonary edema. b. Incorrect. Patients with COPD will slow down their breathing rates if given oxygen. c. Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation is not correlated with oxygen therapy.

d. Correct. Because patients with COPD get used to high levels of carbon dioxide, they breathe because of low oxygen levels, which can be fatal if oxygen therapy is given.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:23 AM 54. Robert has a barrel-chested appearance, dyspnea, and tachypnea. Which disease does he likely have? a. pulmonary edema b. emphysema c. myocardial infarction d. pneumonia ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Fluid fills the alveoli in pulmonary edema, resulting in opacities on chest X-ray. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders b. Correct. Due to air trapped in the alveoli, emphysema results in a barrelchested appearance and dyspnea and tachypnea. c. Incorrect. Myocardial infarction causes abnormal cardiac enzymes and electrocardiograms. d. Incorrect. Pneumonia may cause fevers and patchy infiltrates on chest X-rays.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1 - Define the terminology common to the respiratory system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:24 AM 55. A doctor orders an arterial blood gasses (ABG) test on patient suffering from issues with breathing to rule out diseases such as COPD and pulmonary edema. Which values are normal ABGs? a. oxygen – 70 mm Hg; carbon dioxide – 40 mm Hg b. oxygen – 80 mm Hg; carbon dioxide – 50 mm Hg c. oxygen – 90 mm Hg; carbon dioxide – 37 mm Hg d. oxygen – 100 mm Hg; carbon dioxide – 30 mm Hg ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Poor pulmonary function is indicated by low oxygen and high carbon dioxide. b. Incorrect. While the oxygen level is normal, the carbon dioxide level is too high.

c. Correct. Normal ABGs are: Oxygen 80–100 mm Hg and carbon dioxide 35–45 mm Hg. d. Incorrect. This range shows an oxygen level that is too high and a carbon dioxide level that is too low.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:25 AM 56. Hans is a 72-year-old male who was recovering well from acute pancreatitis. Then he developed sudden symptoms, including extreme dyspnea, severe hypoxemia, and tachypnea. Which condition is likely? a. acute bronchitis b. pulmonary embolus c. tuberculosis d. adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Acute bronchitis is a short-term disorder commonly following a URI. b. Incorrect. A pulmonary embolus can have sudden onset of symptoms but does not occur after acute pancreatitis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Tuberculosis is a slow onset disease. d. Correct. ARDS occurs around 24–48 hours after injury or illness, such as acute pancreatitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the respiratory system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:26 AM 57. Natalie has been diagnosed with small-cell lung tumors. Why do small-cell lung tumors have a poor prognosis? a. They metastasize before symptoms occur. b. They do not respond well to chemotherapy. c. They do not respond well to radiation. d. They affect patients who smoked and have poor health. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Small-cell lung tumors grow rapidly and metastasize before symptoms occur. b. Incorrect. Small-cell lung tumors do respond well to chemotherapy.

c. Incorrect. Small-cell lung tumors do respond well to radiation. d. Incorrect. Small-cell lung tumors are not as strongly associated with a smoking history.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.5 - Identify the common disorders of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:27 AM 58. Tao is brought to the emergency room via ambulance. His immediate medical need is a gunshot wound to the chest. What condition may be seen on a chest X-ray? a. pneumothorax b. pulmonary edema c. tubercle mass d. patchy infiltrates ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A pneumothorax, or air in the thoracic cavity that collapses the lung, is often seen after trauma to the thorax. b. Incorrect. Fluid inside the lung tissue, called pulmonary edema, is usually caused by cardiovascular disease. c. Incorrect. Tuberculosis is demonstrated by a tubercle mass on chest X-rays.

d. Incorrect. Patchy infiltrates are seen on chest X-rays with pneumonia. POINTS:

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:29 AM 59. A medical team is organizing a collection of articles related to workplace environmental diseases. Which of the following is an example of an environmentally induced disease? a. tuberculosis b. anthracosis c. Legionnaires’ Disease d. cor pulmonale ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. b. Correct. Anthracosis, also called black lung or coal miner’s disease, occurs after years of inhaling coal and carbon. c. Incorrect. The causative bacterium of Legionnaires’ Disease is Legionella pneumophila, a bacterium that lives in water-storage tanks and cooling systems. d. Incorrect. Cor pulmonale is right-sided heart failure caused by chronic or acute pulmonary disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:30 AM 60. Piper believes that the coughing and chest pain on the right side of their body is caused by an empyema. Which of the following can lead to an empyema? a. adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) b. CPK and troponin c. pulmonary abscess d. tuberculosis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. ARDS results after sepsis, or some other traumatic event. b. Incorrect. CPK and troponin levels are tested when ruling out a myocardial infarction. c. Correct. A pulmonary abscess can rupture and lead to empyema, a collection of pus in the thoracic cavity. d. Incorrect. Tuberculosis does not cause acute inflammation.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 09 - Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common respiratory system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:31 AM

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders 1. To some extent, the lymphatic system depends on what other system? a. digestive b. respiratory c. urinary d. vascular ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The digestive system is not the system to which the lymphatic system returns its fluids and other materials. b. Incorrect. The respiratory system is not the system to which the lymphatic system returns its fluids and other materials. c. Incorrect. The urinary system is not the system to which the lymphatic system returns its fluids and other materials. d. Correct. The lymphatic system depends, to some extent, on the vascular system because the lymphatic system returns its fluids and other materials to the vascular system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:38 AM 2. What is the goal of the lymphatic system? a. to reduce inflammation in the nodes b. to prevent waste products from entering the general circulation c. to pump blood and transport it throughout the body d. to provide structure and movement function for the individual ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The activity of the lymphatic system can cause some inflammation of the involved node. b. Correct. The goal of the lymphatic system is to prevent waste products from entering the general circulation. c. Incorrect. The cardiovascular system is responsible for pumping blood and transporting it throughout the body. d. Incorrect. The musculoskeletal system provides the structure and movement function for the individual.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1 - Define the terminology common to the lymphatic system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:39 AM 3. Which vessels of the lymphatic system have valves? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders a. the capillaries b. the lymph vessels c. the veins d. the mitral vessels ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. The capillaries are the smallest vessels and do not have valves. b. Correct. The larger lymph vessels have valves much like the veins in the cardiovascular system. c. Incorrect. The veins have valves, but they are in the cardiovascular system.

d. Incorrect. There are no mitral vessels. The mitral valve is in the heart. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:40 AM 4. How many ducts are there in the lymphatic system? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. There is more than one duct. b. Correct. The two ducts are the right lymphatic duct and the left lymphatic duct, also called the thoracic duct. c. Incorrect. One of the ducts is known by two names, but there are not three ducts. d. Incorrect. One of the ducts is known by two names, but there are not four ducts

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:42 AM 5. Enlargement of the lymph nodes is usually caused by what? a. extra fluid circulating in the lymph system b. bruising as a reaction to trauma c. infection somewhere in the body d. excess heat, which leads to swelling ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Enlargement of lymph nodes is not due to extra fluid circulating in the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders lymph system. b. Incorrect. Enlargement of lymph nodes is not caused by bruising in response to trauma. c. Correct. Enlargement of the lymph glands or nodes is common. it is usually due to infection somewhere in the body. d. Incorrect. Enlargement of lymph nodes is not caused by heat.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:44 AM 6. What type of blood work can be used to diagnose inflammation or infectious diseases of the lymphatic system? a. a hemocrit b. arterial blood gases c. complete blood count with white cell differential d. complete blood count with red cell differential ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hematocrit (Hct) reflects the amount of red cell mass as a proportion of whole blood, but it does not help in determining inflammation or infection. b. Incorrect. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) testing shows the concentration of oxygen in an artery. c. Correct. A complete blood count with white blood cells differential may help determine inflammation or infectious diseases of the lymphatic system. d. Incorrect. Red blood cells are not used to determine inflammation or infectious diseases.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:46 AM 7. When a biopsy is done, a Reed–Sternberg cell can confirm what diagnosis? a. non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Hodgkin’s disease c. mononucleosis d. Kawasaki disease ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The presence of a Reed–Sternberg cell does not confirm a diagnosis of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

b. Correct. A special connective tissue cell called a Reed–Sternberg cell confirms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders a diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease. c. Incorrect. A biopsy is not necessary to diagnose mononucleosis.

d. Incorrect. Presence of a Reed–Sternberg cell does not confirm a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:49 AM 8. Drainage of bacteria or toxic substances can cause what? a. swelling of lymph gland or nodes b. constriction of lymph gland or nodes c. swelling of lymph gland or constriction of the nodes d. constriction of lymph gland or swelling nodes ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Drainage of bacteria or toxic substances can cause the swelling of the lymph gland, nodes, or both. b. Incorrect. Drainage does not cause constriction.

c. Incorrect. Drainage does not cause constriction. d. Incorrect. Drainage does not cause constriction. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:50 AM 9. Lymphangitis is frequently treated with what type of drugs. a. antineoplastics b. analgesics c. antiviral d. antibiotics ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antineoplastics are used to treat cancer. Lymphangitis is a bacterial infection. b. Incorrect. Analgesics are used for pain or fever, but they won’t stop a bacterial infection. c. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is a bacterial infection.

d. Correct. Lymphangitis is frequently treated with antibiotics. POINTS:

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:51 AM 10. What common disease of the lymphatic system is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid usually seen in extremities? a. lymphedema b. lymphangitis c. lymphadenitis d. lymphoma ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Lymphedema is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid usually seen in extremities. b. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is a condition of swelling of the lymph vessel due to inflammation. c. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is characterized by swelling of the lymph gland, nodes, or both. d. Incorrect. Lymphoma refers to several types of neoplasms that affect lymphoid tissue (lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, and lymph fluid).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:53 AM 11. Which of the following is accurate regarding Kawasaki disease? a. It is often fatal in the acute stage. b. It is rarely fatal in the acute stage. c. This disease is chronic, but not fatal. d. If caught early enough, it can be treated before becoming fatal. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. This disease is rarely fatal in the acute stage. b. Correct. This disease is rarely fatal in the acute stage, but children may die quite suddenly some years later due to coronary artery disease. c. Incorrect. Children may die quite suddenly some years later due to coronary artery disease. d. Incorrect. Treatment is supportive because the disease does not respond to antibiotic therapy.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:57 AM 12. What interferes with the ability to ward off disease as an individual ages? a. An increase in the number of antibodies occurs. b. An increase in the immune response occurs. c. A decreased ability to produce antibodies occurs. d. A decreased level of antigens occurs. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. There is decreased ability to produce antibodies. b. Incorrect. Decreases in the normal immune response occur. c. Correct. As individuals age, they have a decreased ability to produce antibodies, leading to decreases in the normal immune response, which interferes with the normal ability to ward off infections. d. Incorrect. Production of antigens is not connected to the immune response.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the lymphatic system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 1:58 AM 13. Why are older adults more susceptible to autoimmune disorders? a. The circulation is impaired. b. The immune response becomes less effective. c. The heart muscle loses some of its contractility. d. The bone density decreases. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An older person may have impaired circulation, but that doesn’t lead to an increased susceptibility to autoimmune disorders.

b. Correct. As the immune response becomes less effective, the individual is more susceptible to autoimmune disorders. c. Incorrect. As the individual ages, the heart muscle loses some of its contractility, but that doesn’t lead to an increased susceptibility to autoimmune disorders. d. Incorrect. Bone density decreases with age, but that doesn’t lead to an increased susceptibility to autoimmune disorders.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 6:26 AM 12/1/2022 1:59 AM

14. What disease of the lymphatic system is a viral infection affects primarily children and young adults? a. lymphadenitis b. lymphedema c. mononucleosis d. Kawasaki disease ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is characterized by swelling of the lymph gland, nodes, or both. b. Incorrect. Lymphedema is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid usually seen in extremities. c. Correct. Mononucleosis is a viral infection that affects primarily children and young adults. d. Incorrect. Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile disease found mostly in children that causes cervical lymphadenopathy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:00 AM 15. Surgery or radiation treatments for cancer, especially breast and testicular surgeries, is a common cause of what disease of the lymphatic system? a. lymphadenitis b. lymphangitis c. lymphedema d. lymphoma ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is usually caused by infection somewhere in the body. b. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is commonly caused by infection with streptococcal bacteria following a trauma. c. Correct. The most common causes of lymphedema include surgery or radiation treatments for cancer, especially breast and testicular surgeries. d. Incorrect. Lymphoma refers to several types of neoplasms that affect lymphoid tissue.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders 16. What are white cells created in the lymphatic system called? a. lymphocytes b. edema c. cellulites d. leukocytes ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Infection stimulates activity of the nodes and glands to produce more lymphocytes (white cells created in the lymphatic system). b. Incorrect. Edema means swelling.

c. Incorrect. Cellulite is cellular or connective tissue d. Incorrect. Leukocytes are cells of the immune system. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:02 AM 17. One symptom of lymphangitis may be inflammation of cellular or connective tissue, which is known as what? a. cellulitis b. leukocytosis c. lymphocytosis d. lymphocytopenia ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Cellulitis is inflammation of cellular or connective tissue. b. Incorrect. Leukocytosis is an increase in the white cell count. c. Incorrect. Lymphocytosis is an abnormal increase in lymphocytes. d. Incorrect. Lymphocytopenia is an abnormal increase in lymphocytes. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:03 AM 18. What condition is an abnormal increase in lymphocytes? a. lymphedema b. lymphangitis c. lymphocytosis d. lymphocytopenia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Lymphedema is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid usually seen in extremities. b. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is a condition of swelling of the lymph vessel due to inflammation. c. Incorrect. Lymphocytosis is an abnormal increase in lymphocytes.

d. Correct. Lymphocytopenia is an abnormal increase in lymphocytes. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1 - Define the terminology common to the lymphatic system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:10 AM 19. What condition is an abnormal decrease in lymphocytes? a. lymphedema b. lymphangitis c. lymphocytosis d. lymphocytopenia ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphedema is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid usually seen in extremities. b. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is a condition of swelling of the lymph vessel due to inflammation. c. Correct. Lymphocytosis is an abnormal increase in lymphocytes.

d. Incorrect. Lymphocytopenia is an abnormal increase in lymphocytes. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1 - Define the terminology common to the lymphatic system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:16 AM 20. What does a lymphangiography consist of? a. injecting a contrast dye and taking X-rays b. taking a biopsy of lymph glands c. taking a biopsy of lymph nodes d. conducting magnetic resonance imaging and computerized tomography ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Lymphangiography consists of injecting a contrast dye and taking Xrays.

b. Incorrect. Lymphangiography does not involve taking a biopsy. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Lymphangiography does not involve taking a biopsy. d. Incorrect. Lymphangiography does not include an MRI or CT. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:17 AM 21. What is the largest lymph vessel in the body? a. right lymphatic duct b. submandibular lymph node c. left subclavian vein d. thoracic duct ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The right lymphatic duct is not the largest lymph vessel in the body. b. Incorrect. The largest lymph vessel in the body is not a node. c. Incorrect. The largest lymph vessel in the body is not a vein. d. Correct. The thoracic duct is the largest lymph vessel in the body. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:18 AM 22. The upper torso drains into what? a. the left lymphatic duct b. the right lymphatic duct c. the thoracic duct d. the venous system ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymph from the upper torso does not drain into the left lymphatic duct. b. Correct. The right lymphatic duct drains the lymph from the right half of the head, upper torso, and right arm. c. Incorrect. Lymph from the upper torso does not drain into the thoracic duct.

d. Incorrect. The upper torso drains into one of the ducts, which then drains into the venous system.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:19 AM 23. What is the fluid in the lymphatic system called? a. plasma b. platelets c. lymph d. marrow ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Plasma is part of the blood. b. Incorrect. Platelets are found in bone marrow. c. Correct. The fluid in the lymphatic system is called lymph, a clear liquid similar to plasma. d. Incorrect. Marrow is found in the bones.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1 - Define the terminology common to the lymphatic system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:20 AM 24. What are the smallest conducting vessels of the lymphatic system? a. valves b. capillaries c. nodes d. ducts ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The larger lymph vessels have valves. b. Correct. The conducting vessels of the lymphatic system include the capillaries, the smallest vessels, and the larger lymph vessels, which have valves much like the veins in the cardiovascular system. c. Incorrect. Nodes are not lymph vessels.

d. Incorrect. Ducts are not lymph vessels. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1 - Define the terminology common to the lymphatic system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:20 AM 25. In the lymph vessels, the flow is in what direction? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders a. upward b. downward c. toward the thoracic cavity d. toward the abdomen ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The flow is toward a specific part of the body. b. Incorrect. The flow is toward a specific part of the body. c. Correct. In the lymph vessels, the direction of flow is toward the thoracic cavity. d. Incorrect. This is not the area of the body to which the flow is directed.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:21 AM 26. What part of the lymphatic system is most important in the filtering process? a. vessels b. glands c. nodes d. ducts ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The lymph vessels transport toxic substances elsewhere for filtration. b. Incorrect. The thymus gland is an organ related to the lymph system. c. Correct. The lymph vessels transport toxic substances to the nodes for filtration.

d. Incorrect. The ducts are not instrumental in filtration. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:22 AM 27. In the digestive process, what part of the lymphatic system is important in the absorption of fats? a. vessels b. glands c. nodes d. ducts ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. In the digestive process, the vessels are important in the absorption of fats. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. The thymus gland is an organ related to the lymph system. c. Incorrect. The lymph vessels transport toxic substances to the nodes for filtration. d. Incorrect. The ducts do not absorb fat.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:23 AM 28. What general term is used to refer to diseases of lymph glands? a. lymphedema b. lymphadenopathy c. lymphangiopathy d. lymphadenitis ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphedema is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid usually seen in extremities. b. Correct. Lymphadenopathy is a general term is used to refer to diseases of lymph glands. c. Incorrect. Lymphangiopathy is a general term is used to refer to diseases of lymph vessels. d. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is characterized by swelling of the lymph gland, nodes, or both.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1 - Define the terminology common to the lymphatic system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:24 AM 29. What general term is used to refer to diseases of lymph vessels? a. lymphedema b. lymphadenopathy c. lymphangiopathy d. lymphadenitis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphedema is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid usually seen in extremities. b. Incorrect. Lymphadenopathy is a general term is used to refer to diseases of lymph glands. c. Correct. Lymphangiopathy is a general term is used to refer to diseases of lymph vessels. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is characterized by swelling of the lymph gland, nodes, or both.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1 - Define the terminology common to the lymphatic system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 2:25 AM 30. Since lymphedema is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid, it might be treated by what type of medication? a. antibiotics b. antineoplastics c. diuretics d. antipyretics ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antibiotics are used to prevent or stop bacterial infections. b. Incorrect. Antineoplastics are used to treat cancer. c. Correct. Diuretics are used to reduce excessive fluid. d. Incorrect. Antipyretics are used for pain or fever. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:26 AM 31. What type of medication might be needed to treat infections that worsen with lymphedema? a. antibiotics b. antineoplastics c. diuretics d. antipyretics ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Antibiotics are used to prevent or stop bacterial infections. b. Incorrect. Antineoplastics are used to treat cancer. c. Incorrect. Diuretics are used to reduce excessive fluid. d. Incorrect. Antipyretics are used for pain or fever. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 7:47 AM 12/1/2022 3:27 AM

32. Swelling can extend to the fingers and toes as a symptom of what? a. lymphoma b. lymphangitis c. lymphedema d. lymphadenitis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Swelling that extends to the fingers and toes is not a symptom of lymphangitis. b. Incorrect. Swelling that extends to the fingers and toes is not a symptom of lymphangitis. c. Correct. Symptoms of lymphedema occur in the arms and legs and include swelling and heaviness. Swelling can also extend into the fingers and toes. d. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is characterized with swelling of the lymph gland, nodes, or both, but not swelling that extends to the fingers and toes.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders 34. How would a blood culture be used in the diagnosis of lymphadenitis? a. It would reveal swollen lymph nodes. b. It would determine spread of infection to the blood stream. c. It would test the tissue to confirm the diagnosis. d. It would determine the type of bacteria causing the infection. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A physical examination revealing swollen lymph nodes is indicative of lymphadenitis. b. Correct. A blood culture can be performed to determine spread of infection to the bloodstream. c. Incorrect. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis.

d. Incorrect. In lymphangitis, a biopsy can determine the type of bacteria causing the infection.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:30 AM 35. The lymphatic system includes which of the following? a. diaphragm b. adrenal gland c. sternocleidomastoid muscle d. internal jugular vein ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The diaphragm is part of the respiratory system. b. Incorrect. The adrenal gland is part of the endocrine system. c. Incorrect. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is part of the respiratory system. d. Correct. The internal jugular vein is part of the lymphatic system. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:31 AM 36. To what system does the lymphatic system return its fluids and other materials? a. vascular b. respiratory c. digestive d. urinary Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. The lymphatic system depends, to some extent, on the vascular system because the lymphatic system returns its fluids and other materials to the vascular system. b. Incorrect. The lymphatic system does not return fluids and other materials to the respiratory system. c. Incorrect. The lymphatic system does not return fluids and other materials to the digestive system. d. Incorrect. The lymphatic system does not return fluids and other materials to the urinary system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:32 AM 37. Organs related to the lymph system include which of the following? a. lungs b. liver c. spleen d. heart ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The lungs are part of the respiratory system. b. Incorrect. The liver has many functions, most of which are related to its chemical actions, but it is not part of the lymphatic system. c. Correct. Organs related to the lymphatic system are the tonsils, thymus gland, and spleen. d. Incorrect. The heart is part of the cardiovascular system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:33 AM 38. Procedures or tests performed to help diagnose diseases of the lymphatic system include which of the following? a. arterial blood gases b. magnetic resonance imaging c. bronchoscopy d. pulmonary function tests ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. ABGs are used to measure the amounts of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders b. Correct. An MRI may be performed to help diagnose diseases of the lymphatic system. c. Incorrect. A lymph node biopsy may be performed to help diagnose diseases of the lymphatic system, not a bronchoscopy. d. Incorrect. PFTs are a group of tests that measure volume and flow of air by using a spirometer.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:35 AM 39. Characteristics of lymphadenitis include: a. swelling of lymph nodes. b. a fever. c. nausea. d. draining lesions. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Lymphadenitis is characterized with swelling of the lymph gland, nodes, or both. b. Incorrect. Fever does not characterize lymphadenitis.

c. Incorrect. Nausea does not characterize lymphadenitis. d. Incorrect. Draining lesions do not characterize lymphadenitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:36 AM 40. Which of the following organisms causes lymphangitis? a. Staphylococcus b. E. coli c. Streptococcus d. ciprofloxacin ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Staphylococcus is not known to cause lymphangitis. b. Incorrect. E. coli is not known to cause lymphangitis. c. Correct. Streptococcus is the organism that commonly causes lymphangitis. d. Incorrect. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic medication used to stop bacterial infections.

POINTS:

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:37 AM 41. Lymphangitis is characterized by a: a. furuncle. b. red streak extending at the site of the bacterial entry that extends to the area lymph nodes. c. vesicular eruption. d. dark blue streak extending at the site of the bacterial entry that extends to the area lymph nodes. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Furuncle is not characteristic of lymphangitis. b. Correct. Lymphangitis is often characterized by a red streak at the site of bacterial entry that extends to the area lymph nodes. Other symptoms include fever, chills, and malaise. c. Incorrect. Vesicular eruption is not characteristic of lymphangitis.

d. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is not characterized by a dark blue streak extending at the site of the bacterial entry that extends to the area lymph nodes.

d. Correct. Lymphangitis is often characterized by a red streak at the site of bacterial entry that extends to the area lymph nodes. Other symptoms include fever, chills, and malaise.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:39 AM 43. Treatment of lymphangitis includes which of the following? a. warm moist packs b. warm dry packs c. analgesics d. diuretics ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Lymphangitis is commonly treated with antibiotics. Warm moist packs and elevation of the affected area are also helpful. b. Incorrect. Warm dry packs are not used to treat lymphangitis.

c. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is commonly treated with antibiotics, not diuretics. d. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is commonly treated with antibiotics, not diuretics. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:42 AM 44. Common causes of lymphedema include which of the following? a. viral infection due to exposure to an infected person b. infection with streptococcal bacteria following a trauma c. drainage of bacteria from an infection somewhere in the body d. surgery on the blood vessels of the arms or legs ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphedema is not a viral infection. b. Incorrect. Infection with streptococcal bacteria following a trauma is the common cause of lymphangitis. c. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is usually caused by infection somewhere in the body.

d. Correct. Surgery on the blood vessels of the arms or legs is one of the most common causes of lymphedema.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:43 AM 45. Lymphoma refers to several types of neoplasms that affect tissue such as the: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders a. tonsils. b. pharynx. c. liver. d. stomach. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Lymphoma refers to several types of neoplasms that affect lymphoid tissue (lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, and lymph fluid). b. Incorrect. The pharynx is not part of the lymphatic system.

c. Incorrect. The liver is not part of the lymphatic system. d. Incorrect. The stomach is not part of the lymphatic system. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:44 AM 46. Which of the following is the most common type of blood cancer in the United States? a. lymphoma b. lymphangitis c. lymphedema d. Kawasaki disease ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Lymphoma is the most common type of blood cancer in the United States. b. Incorrect. Lymphangitis is not a blood cancer; it is a condition of swelling of the lymph vessel due to inflammation. c. Incorrect. Lymphedema is not a blood cancer; it is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid, usually observed in the extremities. d. Incorrect. Kawasaki disease is not a blood cancer; it is an acute febrile disease that is found mostly in children and causes cervical lymphadenopathy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:45 AM 47. Which of the following is true about lymphoma? a. Antibiotics are used to treat this condition. b. Lymphoma leads to an impaired immunity. c. Lymphoma usually resolves without treatment. d. Lymphoma affects normal erythrocyte production. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Lymphoma is not an infectious process requiring antibiotics. b. Correct. There are many types of lymphoma, but all affect normal lymphocyte production and lead to an impaired immunity. c. Incorrect. Treatment is required since lymphoma is a form of cancer.

d. Incorrect. Lymphoma affects normal lymphocyte production, not erythrocytes. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:46 AM 48. Kawasaki disease is characterized by: a. reddened lips, tongue, and mucous membranes. b. pale mucous membranes. c. a pustular rash. d. moist skin. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Kawasaki disease disorder is also called mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome. It is an acute febrile disease found mostly in children and causes cervical lymphadenopathy. The disease resembles scarlet fever because the individual develops a rash and some edema of hands and feet. Other symptoms include lethargy, congestion, irritability, fever, dry skin, and reddened lips, tongue, and mucous membranes. b. Incorrect. Mucous membranes may be reddened, not pale.

c. Incorrect. The skin may develop a rash, but it is not pustular. d. Incorrect. The skin is dry, not moist. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:47 AM 49. Which of the following statements is true about the prevention of lymphadenitis? a. There is no prevention. b. Lymphadenitis is a congenital condition. c. Genetic counseling may be helpful. d. Maintaining good general health is the most helpful. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is usually caused by an infection somewhere in the body, so preventing infections would be a preventive measure. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is not a congenital condition. c. Incorrect. Lymphadenitis is not a genetic condition. d. Correct. Lymphadenitis is usually caused by an infection somewhere in the body. Maintaining good general health is helpful in preventing any infection.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:49 AM 50. Which of the following is a preventive measure for lymphedema? a. Wear tight clothing or wraps to prevent swelling. b. Maintaining good hygiene. c. Elevate the area while at rest. d. Apply hot packs to the extremity. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Not wearing tight clothing is recommended. b. Incorrect. Maintaining good hygiene is always recommended, but it is not a preventive measure specifically for lymphedema. c. Correct. Activities to reduce the risk of lymphedema include protecting the affected extremity (arm or leg), elevating the area while at rest, avoiding heat directly on the area, avoiding tight clothing, and keeping the extremity clean to prevent infection. d. Incorrect. Avoiding heat directly on the affected area is recommended.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:50 AM 51. George had an open fracture of his tibia. Three days later, he developed red streaks on his leg, along with fever, leukocytosis, and malaise. Which of the following conditions is likely? a. lymphedema b. lymphoma c. lymphangitis d. mononucleosis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphedema is an abnormal collection of lymph fluid, usually observed in the extremities after surgery or radiation therapy. b. Incorrect. Lymphoma is the most common type of blood cancer. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders c. Correct. Lymphangitis is inflammation is commonly caused by infection with streptococcal bacteria following a trauma. d. Incorrect. Mononucleosis is a viral disease, primarily affecting younger populations.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:52 AM 52. Alex has recently been diagnosed with cancer and is concerned about developing lymphedema. Which type of cancer is most likely to lead to lymphedema? a. breast b. liver c. lymphoma d. pancreas ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Breast cancer, especially cases that require mastectomy, carries a high chance of developing lymphedema. b. Incorrect. Liver cancer, depending on how liver function is affected, may cause edema of the lower legs. c. Incorrect. Lymphoma is the most common blood cancer in the United States.

d. Incorrect. Pancreatic cancer has few signs until extensive metastasis has occurred.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:53 AM 53. Aidan’s daughter is being treated for Kawasaki disease. Which of the following is a long-term effect of Kawasaki disease? a. development of lymphedema b. mononucleosis c. lymphoma d. sudden death due to coronary artery disease ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lymphedema is seen in about 30% of post-mastectomy patients. b. Incorrect. Mononucleosis is a viral disease that affects younger patients and is not correlated with Kawasaki disease. c. Incorrect. Lymphoma is not correlated with Kawasaki disease. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders d. Correct. While Kawasaki disease is not normally fatal in its acute stages, it may cause sudden death due to coronary artery disease in the long-term.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1 - Define the terminology common to the lymphatic system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:54 AM 54. Roberto has just been diagnosed with lymphoma. Which tissue could be affected by this cancer? a. liver b. tonsils and spleen c. bone marrow d. pancreas ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The liver is not a primary cancer site for lymphoma. b. Correct. In addition to the tonsils and spleen, lymphoma can also be found in lymph nodes and lymph fluid. c. Incorrect. Leukemia affects the bone marrow.

d. Incorrect. The pancreas is the site of pancreatic cancer, which has a very poor prognosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:55 AM 55. A pregnant woman came into the doctor’s office with swelling of her legs and feet. How can a pregnant woman reduce swelling in the lower extremities? a. increase sodium in diet b. taking an antibiotic c. lying on her left side d. increasing albumin consumption ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Decreased sodium in diets can decrease fluid retention. b. Incorrect. Antibiotics treat bacterial infections. c. Correct. A pregnant woman can reduce venous pressure (and lower extremity swelling) by lying on the left side because the inferior vena cava is to the right of midline. d. Incorrect. Liver failure affects albumin levels.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common lymphatic system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:56 AM 56. A doctor orders tests to confirm infection in the body of a patient. Which finding can be expected in conjunction with an infection in the body? a. mononucleosis b. reddened lips, tongue, and mucous membranes c. leukopenia d. enlarged lymph nodes ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Mononucleosis is one type of viral infection found in younger populations. b. Incorrect. Signs of Kawasaki disease are reddened lips, tongue, and mucous membranes. c. Incorrect. Lymphocytosis is usually present because an infection stimulates the lymph nodes to produce more lymphocytes. d. Correct. Because lymph nodes filter lymph for toxic substances, they are often enlarged if an infection is present.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5 - Identify common disorders of the lymphatic system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 3:57 AM 57. Shawn has not been feeling well. Along with other testing, he has also had a lymph node biopsy which showed Reed– Sternberg cells. Which of the following diseases does the presence of this cell confirm? a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. Kawasaki disease d. Mononucleosis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Reed–Sternberg cells detect the presence of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. b. Incorrect. Reed-Sternberg cells eliminate a diagnosis of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. c. Incorrect. Kawasaki disease causes cervical adenopathy, but no Reed– Sternberg cells are present. d. Incorrect. Mononucleosis is a viral infection.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

lymphatic system disorders. 8/8/2022 12:18 AM 12/1/2022 3:58 AM

58. Priscilla is a 72-year-old female who has developed lymphangitis after multiple injuries from a motor vehicle accident. Which test determines whether the bacteria have entered the blood stream? a. blood culture b. complete blood count c. digestive enzymes d. hemoglobin and hematocrit ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A blood culture will show whether bacteria have entered the blood stream. b. Incorrect. A complete blood count will show whether leukocytosis is present.

c. Incorrect. Digestive enzymes are elevated in the presence of pancreatitis. d. Incorrect. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are useful for diagnosing anemia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the lymphatic system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/1/2022 4:00 AM 59. A patient enters the hospital with what might be a disease of the lymphatic system. What is the purpose of the lymphatic system? a. to transport blood to the body b. to prevent toxic waste products from entering the general circulation c. to metabolize alcohol d. to remove nutrients from food ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The circulatory system transports blood to the body. b. Correct. Although some inflammation of the lymph nodes may occur, the purpose of the lymphatic system is to prevent toxic waste products from entering the general circulation. c. Incorrect. The liver is primarily responsible for alcohol metabolism.

d. Incorrect. The digestive system removes nutrients from food through the digestive process.

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Chapter 10 - Lymphatic System Diseases and Disorders 60. Medical records received from a patient who transferred to a new doctor show that the patient was previously diagnosed with lymphadenitis. How is lymphadenitis treated? a. compression sleeves b. diuretics c. antibiotics d. immunotherapy ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Compression sleeves are used to treat lymphedema. b. Incorrect. Diuretics are used for treating excessive fluid retention. c. Correct. Lymphadenitis is commonly treated with antibiotics. d. Incorrect. Immunotherapy is used to treated cases of lymphoma or other cancers.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders 1. What term is often used as a synonym for alimentary canal? a. gastrointestinal tract b. digestive tract c. digestive system d. gastrointestinal channel ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Gastrointestinal (GI) tract is often used as a synonym for alimentary canal. b. Incorrect. Digestive tract is not the term used as a synonym for alimentary canal. c. Incorrect. Digestive system is not the term used as a synonym for alimentary canal. d. Incorrect. Gastrointestinal channel is not the term used as a synonym for alimentary canal.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1 - Define the terminology common to the upper and lower digestive system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:35 PM 2. What do the sphincter muscles control? a. peristaltic contraction b. cardiac and pyloric openings c. absorption of water and electrolytes d. elimination of feces ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Movement of the muscles of the walls of the esophagus is called peristaltic contraction. b. Correct. The sphincter muscles control the cardiac and pyloric openings.

c. Incorrect. One of the functions of the large intestine is the absorption of water and electrolytes. d. Incorrect. One of the functions of the large intestine is the elimination of feces.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:02 AM 3. What is the major function of the small intestine? a. absorption of water and electrolytes b. elimination of feces Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders c. absorption of food and fluids d. elimination of urine ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The most important function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and electrolytes and the elimination of feces. b. Incorrect. The most important function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and electrolytes and the elimination of feces. c. Correct. The major function of the small intestine is digestion and absorption of food and fluids. d. Incorrect. The small intestine does not eliminate urine.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:04 AM 4. The primary concern with diarrhea, especially in young children and older persons, is loss of fluids, which can lead to what? a. dehydration b. cardiac arrest c. dental caries d. Pharyngitis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The primary concern with diarrhea, especially in young children and older persons, is loss of fluids leading to dehydration. b. Incorrect. Loss of fluid does not necessarily lead to cardiac arrest.

c. Incorrect. Dental caries is an infectious disease that damages the teeth. d. Incorrect. Pharyngitis is a sore throat caused by viral or bacterial microorganisms.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Hematuria is blood in the urine. b. Correct. Hematochezia is bright red blood in the feces. c. Incorrect. Melena is dark, tarry stools due to the presence of blood. d. Incorrect. Hematemesis is blood in vomit.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:38 AM 6. Perforation of the stomach allows spillage of its contents into the abdominal cavity, causing what? a. diarrhea b. peritonitis c. melena d. hematemesis ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Causes of diarrhea include a sudden increase in stress or nervous condition, bacterial or viral infection, or food poisoning. b. Correct. Perforation of the stomach allows spillage of its contents into the abdominal cavity, causing peritonitis, an inflammation of the peritoneum. c. Incorrect. Melena is dark, tarry stools due to the presence of blood.

d. Incorrect. Hematemesis is blood in vomit. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:39 AM 7. The occult blood test checks what for blood? a. Feces b. Urine c. Vomit d. Sputum ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The occult blood test checks the feces for blood. b. Incorrect. The occult blood test does not check the urine for blood. c. Incorrect. The occult blood test does not check the vomit for blood. d. Incorrect. The occult blood test does not check the sputum for blood. POINTS:

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:39 AM 8. Treatment for oral cancer generally includes which of the following? a. radiation therapy and chemotherapy b. radiation therapy and surgical excision c. chemotherapy and surgical excision d. surgical excision and bone graft ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Chemotherapy is not a common treatment for oral cancer. b. Correct. Radiation therapy and surgical excision are usually quite effective in treating this cancer. c. Incorrect. Chemotherapy is not a common treatment for oral cancer.

d. Incorrect. Bone graft is not a common treatment for oral cancer. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:40 AM 9. What tool is used to diagnose acute pharyngitis? a. throat culture b. occult blood test c. fecal culture d. barium swallow ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. An acute type of pharyngitis is called strep throat, and diagnosis is made by examination and throat culture.

b. Incorrect. Occult blood tests are used to diagnose colorectal cancer. c. Incorrect. An acute type of pharyngitis is called strep throat; it is not diagnosed by a fecal culture. d. Incorrect. Barium swallow is used to diagnose reflux esophagitis.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 1:40 AM

10. Inflammation in reflux esophagitis is caused by the backflow of stomach acids upward into the esophagus through what? a. the ileocecal valve b. the large intestine c. the small intestine d. the cardiac sphincter ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The ileocecal valve is at the beginning of the large intestine. b. Incorrect. The large intestine is below the stomach. c. Incorrect. The small intestine is below the stomach. d. Correct. This inflammation is caused by a reflux (backflow) of stomach acids through the cardiac sphincter upward into the esophagus.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:42 AM 11. Esophageal varices are most commonly related to what? a. dilated varicose veins b. hiatal hernias c. cirrhosis of the liver d. peptic ulcers ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Extremely dilated varicose veins located in the esophagus is a description of esophageal varices, not what they are related to. b. Incorrect. Hiatal hernias are a sliding of part of the stomach into the chest cavity and are not related to esophageal varices. c. Correct. Any condition that leads to venous congestion in the liver can lead to esophageal varices, but they are most commonly related to cirrhosis of the liver. d. Incorrect. Peptic ulcers are those ulcers found in the stomach and duodenum that are caused, in part, by the action of pepsin, and they are not related to esophageal varices.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders 12. As people age, the number of acid-producing cells decreases, leading to what? a. achlorhydria b. gingivitis c. ileus d. peristalsis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. As people age, the number of acid-producing cells decreases, thus leading to atrophic gastritis, or achlorhydria. b. Incorrect. Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums with painful bleeding.

c. Incorrect. Ileus is an absence of peristalsis. d. Incorrect. Peristalsis of the esophagus moves the food from the pharynx to the stomach.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:44 AM 13. Loss of intrinsic factor leads to what? a. achlorhydria b. pernicious anemia c. peptic ulcer d. ileus ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Achlorhydria leads to loss of intrinsic factor b. Correct. Achlorhydria leads to loss of intrinsic factor (a protein produced by the gastric mucosa), leading to pernicious anemia. c. Incorrect. Peptic ulcers are those ulcers found in the stomach and duodenum that are caused, in part, by the action of pepsin, and they are not related to loss of intrinsic factor. d. Incorrect. Ileus is an absence of peristalsis, the movement of the food from the pharynx to the stomach.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:45 AM 14. Which of the following is hereditary, meaning that it cannot be prevented? a. cancer of the stomach Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders b. malabsorption syndromes c. esophageal varices d. hiatal hernias ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Preventing causative factors might help in prevention. b. Correct. Many of the malabsorption syndromes are hereditary, so there are no preventive solutions. c. Incorrect. Treating or preventing liver disease can prevent this disease.

d. Incorrect. Although it is difficult to prevent hiatal hernias totally, risk can be reduced by maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding heavy lifting, and not smoking.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:46 AM 15. Which of the following is preventable? a. irritable bowel syndrome b. Crohn’s disease c. diverticulosis d. ulcerative colitis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. IBS cannot be prevented, but symptoms can be reduced. b. Incorrect. Because Crohn’s is thought to have some inherited tendency, there are no known preventive measures. c. Correct. A high-fiber diet can aid in prevention of diverticulosis.

d. Incorrect. Since the cause is unknown, prevention of ulcerative colitis is not possible.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:46 AM 16. In the upper digestive system, the most common problem with aging is related to what? a. loss of teeth b. increased circulation c. decreased absorption of nutrients d. decreased motility ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. In the upper digestive system, the most common problem with aging is related to loss of teeth. b. Incorrect. Decreased circulation can cause upper and lower digestive system problems, but it is not the most common problem. c. Incorrect. Decreased absorption of some nutrients is a lower digestive system disorder. d. Incorrect. Decreased motility is a lower digestive system disorder.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:47 AM 17. Which of the following contributes to constipation problems in older adults? a. decreased motility b. decreased circulation to the intestines c. changes in the lining of the stomach d. decreased secretion of hydrochloric acid ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Decreased motility can contribute to constipation problems. b. Incorrect. Decreased circulation to the intestines can cause ischemia and pain in the abdomen. c. Incorrect. Changes in the lining of the stomach increase the likelihood of digestive disorders. d. Incorrect. Decreased secretion of hydrochloric acid increase the likelihood of digestive disorders.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:48 AM 18. Which of the following increases the likelihood of digestive disorders in older adults? a. decreased secretion of hydrochloric acid b. decreased motility c. decreased absorption of nutrients d. decreased circulation to the intestines ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Decreased secretion of hydrochloric acid increase the likelihood of digestive disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Decreased motility can contribute to constipation problems. c. Incorrect. Decreased absorption of some nutrients is a lower digestive system disorder. d. Incorrect. Decreased circulation to the intestines can cause ischemia and pain in the abdomen.

b. Incorrect. A polyp is an inward projection of the mucosal lining of the colon. c. Incorrect. Hiatal hernia is a sliding of part of the stomach into the chest, or thoracic, cavity. d. Incorrect. An inguinal hernia is pouching of the small intestine and the peritoneum (abdominal cavity lining) into the groin area.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:49 AM 20. A bulge in the groin or scrotum and groin pain that increases with bending or lifting and is relieved by lying down are symptoms of what? a. inguinal hernia b. hiatal hernia c. appendicitis d. ulcerative colitis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Symptoms of inguinal hernia include a bulge in the groin or scrotum and groin pain that increases with bending or lifting and is relieved by lying down. b. Incorrect. Many hiatal hernias are asymptomatic, but those that do cause discomfort are usually related to esophageal reflux. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. The pain of appendicitis usually begins with generalized abdominal pain that shifts to the lower right quadrant. Other signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, fever, and leukocytosis. d. Incorrect. With ulcerative colitis, the colon and rectum have multiple ulcerations that lead to lower abdominal pain, blood in the stools, anemia, and diarrhea.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:50 AM 21. The salivary glands secrete about how much saliva per day? a. 1,500 mL b. 2,000 mL c. 500 mL d. 1,000 mL ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The salivary glands, located outside the mouth with ducts leading from the glands to the mouth, secrete about 1,500 mL of saliva per day.

b. Incorrect. It is less than 2,000 mL. c. Incorrect. It is more than 500 mL. d. Incorrect. It is more than 1,000 mL. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:51 AM 22. Peristalsis moves the food from the pharynx to the: a. esophagus. b. liver. c. gallbladder. d. stomach. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Peristalsis occurs in the esophagus. b. Incorrect. Food passes through the alimentary canal, not the liver. c. Incorrect. Food passes through the alimentary canal, not the gallbladder. d. Correct. Peristalsis of the esophagus moves the food from the pharynx to the stomach.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1 - Define the terminology common to the upper and lower digestive system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:52 AM 23. The esophagus connects to the stomach through a thick ring of smooth muscle called the: a. pharyngeal sphincter. b. duodenal sphincter. c. cardiac sphincter. d. rectal sphincter. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. This thick ring of smooth muscle is not called the pharyngeal sphincter. b. Incorrect. This thick ring of smooth muscle is not called the duodenal sphincter.

c. Correct. The esophagus connects to the stomach at the cardiac orifice (opening). A thick ring of smooth muscle called the cardiac or gastroesophageal sphincter surrounds this opening. d. Incorrect. This thick ring of smooth muscle is not called the rectal sphincter.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:53 AM 24. The opening at the point where the stomach attaches to the duodenum is called what orifice? a. cardiac b. pyloric c. esophageal d. pharyngeal ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The esophagus connects to the stomach at the cardiac orifice (opening). b. Correct. The opening of the stomach into the duodenum is called the pyloric orifice, which is surrounded by the pyloric sphincter. c. Incorrect. The opening is not called the esophageal orifice.

d. Incorrect. The opening is not called the pharyngeal orifice. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:54 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders 25. The large intestine is also known as the: a. duodenum. b. appendix. c. jejunum. d. colon. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The duodenum is a part of the small intestine. b. Incorrect. The appendix is attached to the cecum near the ileocecal valve. c. Incorrect. The jejunum is part of the small intestine. d. Correct. The large intestine, also called the colon, is about 5 feet or 1.5 meters in length.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1 - Define the terminology common to the upper and lower digestive system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:54 AM 26. How many parts are there to the small intestine? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. There is more than one part. b. Incorrect. There are more than two parts. c. Correct. The small intestine, consisting of three parts (the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum), secretes enzymes and absorbs nutrients for cellular functions. d. Incorrect. There are fewer than four parts.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:55 AM 27. The small intestine includes: a. the duodenum, jejunum, and colon. b. the jejunum, ileum, and umbilicus. c. the ileum, jejunum, and cecum. d. the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. The colon is another name for the large intestine. b. Incorrect. The colon crosses the abdomen at the umbilicus level. c. Incorrect. The colon begins in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen (cecum). d. Correct. The small intestine, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum, secretes enzymes and absorbs nutrients for cellular functions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:58 AM 28. The large intestine connects to the small intestine at which valve? a. ileocecal b. cardiac c. pyloric d. rectal ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The large intestine connects to the small intestine at the ileocecal valve. b. Incorrect. The cardiac sphincter connects the esophagus and stomach.

c. Incorrect. The pyloric sphincter connects the stomach to the small intestine. d. Incorrect. The large intestine does not connect to the small intestine at rectal valve.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:58 AM 29. Which part of the large intestine crosses the abdomen at the umbilicus level? a. ascending colon. b. transverse colon. c. sigmoid colon. d. descending colon. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The ascending colon rises to the mid-level of the abdomen. b. Correct. The transverse colon crosses the abdomen at the umbilicus level. c. Incorrect. The colon descends into the pelvic cavity, where it is called the sigmoid colon. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. After crossing the abdomen, the descending colon descends on the left side.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:59 AM 30. What is hematemesis? a. blood in the urine b. bright red blood in the feces c. vomiting of pus d. vomiting of blood ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hematuria is blood in the urine. b. Incorrect. Hematochezia is bright red blood in the feces. c. Incorrect. Hematemesis is not vomiting pus. d. Correct. Hematemesis is blood in vomit. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:00 AM 31. Melena is due to the presence of blood in the: a. stool. b. urine. c. throat. d. vomitus. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Melena is dark, tarry stools due to the presence of blood. b. Incorrect. Hematuria is blood in the urine. c. Incorrect. Melena is not blood in the throat. d. Incorrect. Hematemesis is blood in vomit. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/8/2022 4:40 AM 11/30/2022 1:00 AM

32. Diarrhea is a condition characterized by what kind of stools? a. bloody b. hard c. Soft d. watery ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diarrhea is not a condition characterized by bloody stools. b. Incorrect. Constipation is characterized by hard stools. c. Incorrect. Diarrhea is not a condition characterized by soft stools. d. Correct. Diarrhea is a disorder characterized by frequent, watery stools. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:01 AM 33. Constipation is characterized by what kind of stools? a. bloody b. hard c. soft d. watery ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Constipation is not characterized by bloody stools. b. Correct. Constipation is the opposite of diarrhea. The stool in the colon remains for an extended period of time, too much water is reabsorbed, and the stool becomes hard, dry, and difficult to pass. c. Incorrect. Constipation is not characterized by soft stools.

d. Incorrect. Diarrhea is characterized by watery stools. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:02 AM 34. The term defecate means to: a. urinate. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders b. vomit. c. pass stool. d. fall down. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Urinate means “to pass urine.” b. Incorrect. Vomit means “to throw up or eject from the stomach through the mouth.” c. Correct. Defecate means “to pass stool or feces.”

d. Incorrect. Defecate does not mean “to fall down.” POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1 - Define the terminology common to the upper and lower digestive system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:04 AM 35. Which test used to diagnose gastrointestinal disorders allows visualization of the esophagus, stomach, and upper portion of the small intestine? a. X-rays b. an endoscopy c. a barium enema d. a barium swallow ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. X-rays are used as part of this process, but that is not the name of this test. b. Incorrect. Endoscopic examination allows the physician to look directly into the digestive organs through a lighted scope. c. Incorrect. A lower GI series, also called a barium enema, provides visualization of the large intestine. d. Correct. An upper GI series, also called a barium swallow, allows visualization of the esophagus, stomach, and upper portion of the small intestine.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders d. gastroscopy ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. A sigmoidoscopy scopes the sigmoid colon. b. Incorrect. A colonoscopy is scopes the colon. c. Incorrect. A proctoscopy scopes the rectum. d. Correct. A gastroscopy scopes the stomach.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:08 AM 37. Prevention of dental caries includes: a. increased dietary intake of carbohydrates. b. increased tooth brushing and flossing. c. not using fluoride in water. d. not using toothpaste with fluoride. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Increased dietary intake of carbohydrates may increase dental caries. b. Correct. Prevention of dental caries is based on frequently removing dental plaque by brushing and flossing the teeth. A decrease in carbohydrate (sugar) intake is also helpful. The use of fluoride in drinking water and toothpaste also reduces the incidence of caries. c. Incorrect. Not using fluoride in water may increase dental caries.

d. Incorrect. Not using toothpaste with fluoride may increase dental caries. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 4:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:09 AM 38. Periodontal disease affects the: a. tongue. b. gums. c. enamel. d. root. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Periodontal disease affects the supporting structures of the teeth, not the tongue. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders b. Correct. Periodontal disease affects the supporting structures of the teeth such as the gums. c. Incorrect. Periodontal disease affects the supporting structures of the teeth, not the enamel of the tooth. d. Incorrect. Periodontal disease affects the supporting structures of the teeth, not the root of the tooth.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:09 AM 39. Prevention of gingivitis includes: a. frequent brushing and flossing. b. increased exposure to sunlight. c. a high-protein diet. d. frequent handwashing. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Frequent brushing and flossing is a helpful preventive measure for gingivitis, but other methods are listed. b. Incorrect. Exposure to sunlight does not impact gingivitis.

c. Incorrect. An adequate diet is a helpful preventive measure for gingivitis, but not necessarily high-protein. d. Incorrect. Frequent handwashing does not impact gingivitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:10 AM 40. One of the contributors to cancer of the mouth includes: a. heredity. b. poor dental hygiene. c. chewing tobacco. d. using sunscreen. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Heredity is not a contributor to cancer of the mouth. b. Incorrect. Poor dental hygiene is not a contributor to cancer of the mouth. c. Correct. Mouth cancer usually occurs on the lower lip of men and is related to exposure to sunlight, chewing tobacco, and smoking pipes or cigars. d. Incorrect. Using sunscreen is not a contributor; it is a preventive measure. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:11 AM 41. Symptoms of a strep throat infection include: a. cyanosis. b. redness of the skin. c. absence of pain. d. sore throat. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cyanosis is not a symptom of strep throat infection. b. Incorrect. Redness of the area is a symptom of strep throat infection, but redness of the skin is not.

c. Incorrect. Pain, not the absence of pain, is a symptom of strep throat infection. d. Correct. Cyanosis, redness of the skin, and absence of pain are all not symptoms of strep throat infection. The most frequent and earliest symptom of pharyngitis is a sore throat. Visual examination reveals redness in the area. A common type of pharyngitis is an inflammation of the tonsils called tonsillitis. In tonsillitis, the tonsils form crypts of pus, which give the tonsils a whitish appearance.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:11 AM 42. Streptococcus can spread to the bloodstream, causing: a. scarlet fever and reflux esophagitis. b. reflux esophagitis and glomerulonephritis. c. glomerulonephritis and pharyngitis. d. scarlet fever and glomerulonephritis. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Streptococcus does not cause reflux esophagitis b. Incorrect. Streptococcus does not cause reflux esophagitis. c. Incorrect. Streptococcus causes an acute type of pharyngitis in the throat, before it spreads to the bloodstream. d. Correct. Streptococcus can spread to the bloodstream, causing both scarlet fever and glomerulonephritis.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:12 AM 43. Reflux esophagitis is inflammation of: a. tissue at the upper end of the esophagus. b. the throat. c. tissue at the lower end of the esophagus. d. tissue of the stomach. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Reflux esophagitis is not inflammation of tissue at the upper end of the esophagus. b. Incorrect. Inflammation of the throat is pharyngitis.

c. Correct. Reflux esophagitis is inflammation of tissue at the lower end of the esophagus. d. Incorrect. Inflammation of tissue of the stomach is gastritis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:13 AM 44. The most common symptom of reflux esophagitis is: a. hemorrhage. b. a headache. c. a sore throat. d. heartburn. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hemorrhage is not a common symptom of reflux esophagitis. b. Incorrect. A headache is not a common symptom of reflux esophagitis. c. Incorrect. A sore throat is not a common symptom of reflux esophagitis. d. Correct. The most common symptom of reflux esophagitis is heartburn, a burning sensation in the mid-chest or epigastric area. Long-term reflux can lead to bleeding, ulceration, and scarring of the esophagus. This scarring may cause stricture and difficulty in swallowing.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders 45. Treatment for reflux esophagitis includes: a. increased intake of caffeine. b. sleeping with the feet of the bed elevated. c. laxatives. d. antibiotics. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Avoidance of caffeine is a treatment for reflux esophagitis. b. Incorrect. Sleeping with the head of the bed elevated is a treatment for reflux esophagitis. c. Correct. Medications such as stool softeners, laxatives, and antacids might be helpful. d. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not used in the treatment of reflux esophagitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:14 AM 46. Hiatal hernias occur when part of the stomach slides into what cavity? a. abdominal b. cephalic c. thoracic d. pelvic ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hiatal hernia does not involve a part of the stomach sliding into the abdominal cavity. b. Incorrect. Hiatal hernia does not involve a part of the stomach sliding into the cephalic cavity. c. Correct. Hiatal hernia is a sliding of part of the stomach into the chest, or thoracic, cavity. d. Incorrect. Hiatal hernia does not involve a part of the stomach sliding into the pelvic cavity.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:15 AM 47. Poor venous return from the esophagus can occur when there is increased pressure in the veins of the esophagus due to blockage and reduced blood flow into the: a. gallbladder. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders b. esophagus. c. liver. d. appendix. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Reduced blood flow into the gallbladder does not result in increased pressure in the veins of the esophagus. b. Incorrect. Reduced blood flow into the esophagus does not result in increased pressure in the veins of the esophagus. c. Correct. Unusually high pressure in the veins of the esophagus causes them to enlarge and become tortuous, resulting in esophageal varices. This increased venous pressure is due to blockage or reduced flow of blood into the liver, causing poor venous return from the esophagus. d. Incorrect. Reduced blood flow into the appendix does not result in increased pressure in the veins of the esophagus.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:43 AM 48. Treatment for esophageal varices includes: a. a spicy diet. b. taking antacids. c. a soft diet. d. sleeping with the head of the bed elevated. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A spicy diet would be contraindicated with esophageal varices. b. Incorrect. Taking antacids is a treatment for reflux esophagitis. c. Correct. A soft diet is a treatment for esophageal varices. d. Incorrect. Sleeping with the head of the bed elevated is a treatment for reflux esophagitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:16 AM 49. What is the most common symptom of gastritis? a. abdominal pain b. bloody stools c. diarrhea Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders d. nausea ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Abdominal pain is the most common symptom of gastritis. b. Incorrect. Bloody stools is not a symptom of gastritis. c. Incorrect. Diarrhea is not a symptom of gastritis. d. Incorrect. Nausea is a symptom of gastritis, but not the most common.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:17 AM 50. A common cause of gastritis includes taking which of the following medications? a. antacids b. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories c. antibiotics d. laxatives and opioid antagonists ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antacids are not common cause of gastritis. b. Correct. Common causes are use of anti-inflammatory medications or NSAIDs, such as aspirin or ibuprofen, smoking, alcohol consumption, and infection by bacteria such as Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori). c. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not a common cause of gastritis.

d. Incorrect. Laxatives and opioid antagonists are not a common cause of gastritis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:18 AM 51. Jack is a 54-year-old male with alcoholism. Recently, he developed melena and coffee ground emesis. Which of the following conditions has these symptoms? a. gastritis b. stomach cancer c. esophageal varices d. appendicitis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Gastritis causes abdominal pain, along with nausea and vomiting. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Loss of appetite and heartburn are two symptoms of stomach cancer. c. Correct. Cirrhosis of the liver causes esophageal varies, which leads to coffee ground emesis and melena. d. Incorrect. Nausea, vomiting, leukocytosis, and abdominal pain are symptoms of appendicitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:18 AM 52. A patient comes in complaining of abdominal pain, blood in the stool, and lower abdominal pain. The doctor suspects it could be ulcerative colitis. Which diagnostic tests may be used to diagnose ulcerative colitis? a. stool sample and colonoscopy b. skin testing and sputum culture c. collapsed lung on chest X-ray d. mass seen on chest X-ray ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A colonoscopy is the best tool to evaluate the colon’s inner lining for ulcerative colitis. b. Incorrect. Tuberculosis is diagnosed by a positive TB skin test and sputum culture. c. Incorrect. A pneumothorax is demonstrated by a collapsed lung on a chest Xray. d. Incorrect. Lung cancer is visible as a mass on a chest X-ray.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine type and cause of digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:19 AM 53. A seminar is given to the public describing the many benefits on eating a healthy diet to prevent diseases such as hemorroids. Which patient is at risk for developing hemorrhoids? a. male with frequent diarrhea b. male with alcoholism c. woman with colon polyps d. woman who just went through childbirth ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Constipation can lead to the development of hemoorroids but diarrhea would not.

b. Incorrect. Alcoholism may lead to esophageal varices. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Colon polyps may lead to colon cancer. d. Correct. Pregnancy and childbirth are factors that increase the possibility of hemorrhoids.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1 - Define the terminology common to the upper and lower digestive system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:20 AM 54. Which of the following conditions could lead to peritonitis if untreated? a. gastroenteritis b. appendicitis c. splenomegaly d. cirrhosis ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Gastroenteritis may be caused by contaminated food, leading to violent nausea and vomiting. b. Correct. As appendicitis progresses, the appendix may rupture, causing peritonitis. c. Incorrect. Splenomegaly may lead to thrombocytopenia.

d. Incorrect. Cirrhosis causes a host of other issues but does not usually lead to peritonitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:20 AM 55. Nolan has a known inguinal hernia that causes him minor pain, which is relieved by lying down. He then experiences sudden, more intense hernia pain, along with bouts of nausea and vomiting. Why should Nolan be advised to seek immediate medical attention? a. He may have developed gastritis. b. The hernia is getting larger. c. The hernia may have become strangulated d. He may have jaundice. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting may accompany gastritis. b. Incorrect. His symptoms indicate hernia strangulation, which can happen even without a change in hernia size. c. Correct. Sudden, intense pain can indicate a strangulated hernia, which is a medical emergency. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Jaundice is a yellowish cast to the skin, caused by obstruction of the bile ducts.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:21 AM 56. Lochlan has just been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following changes would be helpful? a. taking a daily aspirin b. avoiding smoked or salted foods c. consuming a high-fiber diet d. eliminating or decreasing stress ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Aspirin is a contributing factor for peptic ulcer disease. b. Incorrect. Avoiding smoked or salted foods may help avoid stomach cancer. c. Incorrect. Eating a high-fiber diet is helpful with diverticulosis. d. Correct. Severe stress is a contributing factor to developing peptic ulcers. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5 - Identify the common disorders of the digestive system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:21 AM 57. Why does the incidence of gastritis increase with age? a. the number of acid-producing cells decrease b. the number of acid-producing cells increase c. absorption of vitamin B12 decreases d. absorption of vitamin B12 increases ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. With age, the number of acid-producing cells decreases, leading to atrophic gastritis. b. Incorrect. With increasing age, the number of acid-producing cells decrease, which leads to achlorhydria. c. Incorrect. Absorption of Vitamin B12 absorption decreases with age because intrinsic factor production decreases, but this does not affect gastritis. d. Incorrect. With age, Vitamin B12 absorption decreases, which can lead to pernicious anemia.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:22 AM 58. After months of testing, Lily, a 21-year-old female, has been diagnosed with Celiac disease. Which of the following treatments will be most effective for her? a. elimination of all gluten from her diet b. increasing vitamin B12-rich foods c. eating a high-fiber diet d. avoiding red meat ANSWER: a FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Celiac disease, also known as gluten-induced enteropathy, is treated by removing all gluten from a diet. b. Incorrect. Consuming foods high in vitamin B12 is helpful for vitamin B12 deficiencies. c. Incorrect. Lily is unable to eat gluten, so any fiber with gluten must be avoided.

d. Incorrect. Red meat has no effect on Celiac disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common digestive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:23 AM 59. Henrietta had major surgery with general anesthesia. Now she feels bloated and has not evacuated her bowels. Which type of bowel obstruction is likely? a. paralytic obstruction b. volvulus c. intussusception d. adhesions ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Paralytic obstructions are postoperative complications. b. Incorrect. A volvulus is when the bowel twists on itself. c. Incorrect. Intussusception is when the bowel telescopes in on itself. d. Incorrect. Adhesions can develop that obstruct the bowels, but this takes some time to occur.

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Chapter 11 - Digestive System Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 1:23 AM

60. Pich has been put on a specific diet to treat their malabsorption syndrome. Which of the following is a complication of malabsorption syndrome? a. hemorrhoids b. esophageal varices c. bleeding tendency d. excessive weight gain ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hemorrhoids may be caused by constipation. b. Incorrect. Esophageal varices are caused by portal hypertension. c. Correct. Malabsorption syndrome can result in a bleeding tendency due to the lack of vitamin K absorption. d. Incorrect. Weight loss is usually associated with malabsorption syndrome.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders 1. Bile travels from where to the duodenum via the cystic duct and common bile duct? a. gallbladder b. liver c. kidneys d. pancreas ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Bile travels from the gallbladder to the duodenum via the cystic duct and common bile duct. b. Incorrect. Bile does not travel from the liver to the duodenum.

c. Incorrect. Bile does not travel from the kidneys to the duodenum. d. Incorrect. Bile does not travel from the pancreas to the duodenum. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:55 PM 2. Which organ is both an endocrine and an exocrine gland? a. gallbladder b. liver c. kidneys d. pancreas ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The gallbladder is not an endocrine and an exocrine gland. b. Incorrect. The liver is not an endocrine and an exocrine gland. c. Incorrect. The kidneys are not an endocrine and n exocrine gland. d. Correct. The pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine gland. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/29/2022 11:57 PM 3. Which digestive enzyme secreted by pancreas breaks down fats? a. trypsin b. amylase c. chymotrypsin d. lipase ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Trypsin is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down proteins. b. Incorrect. Amylase is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down starch. c. Incorrect. Chymotrypsin is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down proteins. d. Correct. Lipase is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down fats.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:25 AM 4. What do trypsin and chymotrypsin break down? a. proteins b. fats c. starches d. sugars ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are a digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas to break down proteins.

b. Incorrect. Lipase is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down fats. c. Incorrect. Amylase is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down starch. d. Incorrect. The pancreas does not secrete digestive enzymes to break down sugars.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 5:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:26 AM 5. Jaundice may be a secondary symptom of what disease? a. gallbladder disease b. liver disease c. pancreatitis d. cirrhosis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Jaundice, a yellowish discoloration of the skin, is an obvious symptom Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders of liver disease and can be secondary to gallbladder disease as well. b. Incorrect. Jaundice, a yellowish discoloration of the skin, is an obvious symptom of liver disease. c. Incorrect. Jaundice is not a symptom of pancreatitis.

d. Incorrect. Jaundice, a yellowish discoloration of the skin, is an obvious symptom of liver disease such as cirrhosis.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders normal bile. d. Incorrect. Light-colored stools are related to the inability of the liver to form normal bile.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 6:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:27 AM 8. What is the most prevalent liver disease? a. cirrhosis b. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease c. bacterial hepatitis d. viral hepatitis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cirrhosis is a liver disease, but not the most prevalent. b. Incorrect. NAFLD is a liver disease, but not the most prevalent. c. Incorrect. Hepatitis is viral, not bacterial. d. Correct. Viral hepatitis is the most prevalent liver disease in the world. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 6:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:28 AM 9. Approximately what percent of people with hepatitis C are likely to develop chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis? a. 25% b. 33% c. 50% d. 75% ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The likelihood is greater than 25%. b. Incorrect. The likelihood is greater than 33%. c. Incorrect. The likelihood is greater than 50%. d. Correct. HCV is more likely to become chronic hepatitis than HBV, with approximately 75% of those affected with HCV developing chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 6:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:29 AM 10. What is the most benign form of hepatitis? a. hepatitis A b. hepatitis B c. hepatitis C d. hepatitis D ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Hepatitis A is the most benign or harmless form of hepatitis. Hepatitis A never leads to chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis. b. Incorrect. HBV is a serious form of hepatitis.

c. Incorrect. HCV is a serious form of hepatitis. d. Incorrect. HDV is a serious form of hepatitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 6:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:30 AM 11. Cirrhosis is characterized by the replacement of normal liver cells with nonfunctioning fibrous scar tissue known as what? a. caput medusae b. palmar erythema c. hepatic liver d. hobnail liver ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Varicosities across the front of the abdomen are often quite tortuous and unsightly, a condition called caput medusa (Medusa’s head). b. Incorrect. Palmar erythema is when the palms of the hands become reddened in color. c. Incorrect. Hepatic is the name of the portal system that carries venous blood to the liver. d. Correct. Cirrhosis is characterized by the replacement of normal liver cells with nonfunctioning fibrous scar tissue known as hobnail liver.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders 12. What causes portal hypertension? a. obstruction of the liver, leading to blood backing up in the portal system b. obstruction of the pancreas, leading to blood backing up in the portal system c. obstruction of the gallbladder, leading to blood backing up in the portal system d. obstruction of the kidneys, leading to blood backing up in the portal system ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. If the liver is obstructed for any reason, blood will back up in this portal system. As blood backs up, pressure increases in the portal vein; this is called portal hypertension. b. Incorrect. The obstruction does not occur in the pancreas.

c. Incorrect. The obstruction does not occur in the gallbladder. d. Incorrect. The obstruction does not occur in the kidneys. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 6:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:31 AM 13. What can be done to break up gallstones? a. extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy b. cholecystectomy c. cholecystogram d. decrease fat intake in the diet ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy can be formed to break up the stones so they can be passed.

b. Incorrect. Cholecystectomy is surgical removal of the gallbladder. c. Incorrect. Cholecystogram is a diagnostic test used to confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis. d. Incorrect. Decreasing the fat intake in the diet will not aid in dissolving stones but may be helpful in prevention.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders c. cholecystitis d. hemochromatosis ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. A high blood amylase (pancreatic enzyme) is indicative of pancreatitis. b. Incorrect. Cirrhosis is a liver disease; it would not be indicated by a pancreatic enzyme. c. Incorrect. Cholecystitis is a gallbladder disease; it would not be indicated by a pancreatic enzyme d. Incorrect. Hemochromatosis is a disorder in which the body absorbs and stores excessive amounts of iron.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of liver, gallbladder, or pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 6:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:32 AM 15. Older people can be at an increased risk for developing hepatitis if which of the following factors is present? a. decreased social contacts b. an active immune system c. skipping medications d. multiple blood transfusions ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Risk factors for developing hepatitis among older people include increased contact with a variety of caregiver. b. Incorrect. Risk factors for developing hepatitis among older people include a depressed immune system. c. Incorrect. Risk factors for developing hepatitis among older people include increased intake of medications. d. Correct. Risk factors for developing hepatitis among older people include multiple blood transfusions.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Pancreatic disease is common in the older adult population, so replacement of pancreatic enzymes might be needed if the pancreas is not producing adequate amounts. b. Incorrect. Removal of bile stones would be indicated only if stones are blocking pancreatic ducts. c. Incorrect. Blood transfusions are not indicated as a preventive measure for pancreatic disease. d. Incorrect. There is no procedure to restore pancreatic tissue.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas and the common disorders associated with aging of the organs. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:33 AM 17. What is the definitive test to diagnose pancreatic cancer? a. ultrasound b. biopsy c. computer axial tomography d. magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Ultrasound can be helpful in making a diagnosis, but it is not the definitive test. b. Correct. Ultrasound, CT, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can be helpful in making a diagnosis. A biopsy is the definitive test. c. Incorrect. CT scan can be helpful in making a diagnosis, but it is not the definitive test. d. Incorrect. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can be helpful in making a diagnosis, but it is not the definitive test.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Liver enzyme blood tests can be helpful in making a diagnosis, but it is not the definitive test. b. Correct. Testing may include CT scan, MRI, and liver enzyme blood tests. Liver enzymes will be elevated. Liver biopsy is the definitive test. c. Incorrect. CT scan can be helpful in making a diagnosis, but it is not the definitive test. d. Incorrect. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can be helpful in making a diagnosis, but it is not the definitive test.

b. Correct. Cirrhosis is more common in men than in women. c. Incorrect. Primary biliary cirrhosis is a chronic liver disease that is much more common in middle-aged women than in men. d. Incorrect. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) occurs more frequently in women than in men and is one of the leading causes of cirrhosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:35 AM 20. What diagnostic test on the gallbladder, liver, and pancreas involves using dye injected into a tube injected through the mouth? a. Computer axial tomography b. endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography c. hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid d. cholangiogram, ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Computer axial tomography (CAT or CT) scans can be performed to visualize the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders b. Correct. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a test using dye injected into a tube inserted through the mouth into the stomach and small intestine. c. Incorrect. In this test a radioactive tracer is injected into the individual and a special camera tracks the material as it is taken up by the gallbladder. d. Incorrect. A cholangiogram is an X-ray examination of the vessels of the gallbladder.

d. Incorrect. The gallbladder is not the largest organ in the body. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1 - Define the terminology common to the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas, and the disorders of these organs. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:36 AM 22. The functions of the liver include which of the following? a. storage of cholesterol b. metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and protein c. production of vitamins and other minerals d. storage of bile ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The liver produces, rather than stores, cholesterol. b. Correct. The liver metabolizes carbohydrates, fats, and protein. c. Incorrect. The liver detoxifies drugs and other toxins. d. Incorrect. The liver makes the bile, but the gallbladder stores the bile. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:37 AM 23. The liver receives blood from the portal system via the: a. aortic artery. b. brachial artery. c. hepatic artery. d. pulmonary artery. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Aortic artery is not the correct artery. b. Incorrect. Brachial artery is not the correct artery. c. Correct. The liver receives blood from the portal system via the hepatic artery. d. Incorrect. Pulmonary artery is not the correct artery. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:37 AM 24. Bile is stored in the: a. liver. b. pancreas. c. gallbladder. d. bladder. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. The liver produces bile but does not store bile. b. Incorrect. The pancreas does not store bile. c. Correct. The bile is made in the liver and is stored in the gallbladder. d. Incorrect. The bladder does not store bile.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 1:38 AM

25. The gallbladder lies under the: a. pancreas. b. diaphragm. c. liver. d. lung. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The gallbladder does not lie under the pancreas. b. Incorrect. The gallbladder does not lie under the diaphragm. c. Correct. The gallbladder lies under the liver. d. Incorrect. The gallbladder does not lie under the lung. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:39 AM 26. Which digestive enzyme secreted by pancreas breaks down starch? a. Trypsin b. amylase c. Lipase d. chymotrypsin ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Trypsin is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down proteins. b. Correct. Amylase is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down starch. c. Incorrect. Lipase is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down fats. d. Incorrect. Chymotrypsin is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas to break down proteins.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:40 AM 27. Jaundice is what discoloration of the skin? a. yellow Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders b. red c. gray d. Blue ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Jaundice is a yellowish discoloration color to the skin. b. Incorrect. Jaundice is not red. c. Incorrect. Jaundice is not gray. d. Incorrect. Jaundice is not blue.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Elevated bilirubin indicates impaired liver function. c. Correct. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) may be performed to diagnose liver disease. Liver function tests are blood tests to measure levels of bilirubin, albumin (blood protein), and alkaline phosphatase (enzyme). Impaired liver function will lead to elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and low albumin levels. d. Incorrect. Amylase and lipase are blood tests for pancreatic function.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of liver, gallbladder, or pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:43 AM 30. The test performed to evaluate the liver for size, shape, and position is: a. an MRI. b. a flat plate of the abdomen. c. an ultrasound. d. a UGI. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An MRI test is not used for this purpose. b. Incorrect. A flat plate of the abdomen test is not used for this purpose. c. Correct. Ultrasound is used to evaluate the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas for size, shape, and position. d. Incorrect. A UGI test is not used for this purpose.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of liver, gallbladder, or pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:44 AM 31. Symptoms of hepatitis include: a. excessive gas. b. malaise. c. pain in the upper-right quadrant of the abdomen. d. mental confusion. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Excessive gas is a symptom of gallbladder disease. b. Correct. Jaundice, malaise, myalgia, fever, and anorexia are all symptoms of hepatitis. c. Incorrect. Pain specifically in the upper-right quadrant of the abdomen is a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders symptom of cholecystitis, a gallbladder disorder. d. Incorrect. Mental confusion is a symptom of NAGLD.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. 8/8/2022 7:49 AM 11/30/2022 1:48 AM

34. Symptoms of fulminant hepatitis include: a. low grade fever. b. skin and mucous membrane hemorrhage. c. low blood pressure. d. high blood pressure. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. High fever is a symptom of fulminant hepatitis. b. Correct. High fever, skin and mucous membrane hemorrhage, and confusion are all symptoms of fulminant hepatitis. c. Incorrect. Low blood pressure is not a symptom of fulminant hepatitis.

d. Incorrect. High blood pressure is not a symptom of fulminant hepatitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:49 AM 35. Prevention of hepatitis includes: a. good hygiene. b. a high-protein diet. c. moderate alcohol consumption. d. a low-fat diet. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Prevention of hepatitis includes good hygiene. b. Incorrect. There is no link between diet and the prevention of hepatitis. c. Incorrect. While excessive alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent hepatitis, moderate consumption does not aid in prevention. d. Incorrect. There is no link between diet and the prevention of hepatitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:49 AM 36. Vaccines are available for which forms of hepatitis? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders a. A and B b. A and C c. B and C d. A and D ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Vaccines are available for hepatitis A and B. b. Incorrect. There is no vaccine for hepatitis C. c. Incorrect. There is no vaccine for hepatitis C. d. Incorrect. There is no vaccine for hepatitis D. The best prevention is to vaccinate against HBV.

a. Incorrect. Hepatitis A is not spread by sexual contact. b. Correct. Hepatitis A is spread by the fecal-oral route. c. Incorrect. Hepatitis A is not spread by transfusions. d. Incorrect. Hepatitis A is not spread by contaminated needles.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 7:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:50 AM 38. People at high risk for developing hepatitis B include: a. drug addicts. b. pregnant women. c. children and young adults. d. blood donors. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Those at high risk for HBV are individuals with substance use disorders, gay men and women, blood recipients, and health care Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders professionals. b. Incorrect. Pregnant women are not at high risk for developing hepatitis B.

c. Incorrect. Hepatitis A commonly affects children and young adults. d. Incorrect. Blood recipients, not donors, are at high risk for HBV. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 8:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:51 AM 39. Among adults, how is hepatitis B most commonly spread? a. transplacentally b. sexual contact c. blood transfusions d. contaminated needles ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hepatitis B can be spread transplacentally from mother to unborn infant, but this is not the most common route for spread among adults. b. Correct. Among adults, hepatitis B is most commonly spread through sexual contact. c. Incorrect. Hepatitis B can be spread by blood transfusion, but this is not the most common means. d. Incorrect. Hepatitis B is spread by contaminated needles, but this is not the most common means.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 8:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:52 AM 40. Which of the following is a characteristic of cirrhosis of the liver? a. It is acute. b. It is reversible. c. It is degenerative. d. It is preventable. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A characteristic of cirrhosis of the liver is that it is chronic, rather than acute. b. Incorrect. Cirrhosis of the liver is irreversible.

c. Correct. A characteristic of cirrhosis of the liver is that it is degenerative. d. Incorrect. Not all cases are preventable, but there are preventive measures one can take. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:52 AM 41. Hematemesis, usually the first symptom of severe cirrhosis, is what? a. yellowish skin color b. myalgia c. weight gain d. vomiting blood ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Jaundice is a yellowing of the skin. b. Incorrect. Myalgia is muscle pain. c. Incorrect. Weight loss, not gain, is a symptom of cirrhosis. d. Correct. Hematemesis (hema = blood, emesis = vomiting) is often the first symptom of severe cirrhosis.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 1:53 AM

43. Ascites is an accumulation of fluid in the: a. liver. b. pancreas. c. thoracic cavity. d. abdominal cavity. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Liver is not where ascites is found. b. Incorrect. Pancreas is not where ascites is found. c. Incorrect. Thoracic cavity is not where ascites is found. d. Correct. Ascites is an accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 11:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:54 AM 44. Removal of excessive abdominal fluid is called: a. gynecomastia. b. hematemesis. c. abdominocentesis. d. hepatocentesis. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Gynecomastia is an enlargement of the breasts. b. Incorrect. Hematemesis is vomiting blood. c. Correct. Abdominocentesis is the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity. d. Incorrect. Hepatocentesis would mean removing fluid from the liver, which is not a real procedure.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 11:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:54 AM 45. Edema in patients suffering from cirrhosis is found in the: a. face. b. hands. c. feet. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders d. abdomen. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Face is not the site where edema is primarily seen in cirrhosis. b. Incorrect. Hands are not the site where edema is primarily seen in cirrhosis. c. Correct. Edema often develops in the ankles and feet as a result of low albumin seen with liver failure. d. Incorrect. Abdomen is not the site where edema is primarily seen in cirrhosis. The abdomen may be distended due to ascites, but that is not edema.

d. Incorrect. Palmar erythema, when the palms of the hands become reddened, may develop in the male with cirrhosis.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Alcohol is strictly prohibited, regardless of the cause. b. Correct. Vitamins, minerals, and diet supplements might be needed to prevent malnutrition c. Incorrect. Treatment is directed at the cause in an attempt to prevent further liver damage. d. Incorrect. Adequate rest is necessary; exercise is not specifically recommended.

c. Incorrect. Kidneys are not a usual site. d. Incorrect. Adrenal glands are not a usual site. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:57 AM 49. Cholecystitis is diagnosed by: a. chest X-ray. b. UGI. c. cholecystogram. d. cholecystoscopy. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Chest X-ray is not a diagnostic test for cholecystitis. b. Incorrect. UGI is not a diagnostic test for cholecystitis. c. Correct. Ultrasound and cholecystogram confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis. Cholecystogram involves swallowing a dye that is absorbed by the liver and excreted into the bile. Radiographic pictures are made to confirm the presence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders of stones. d. Incorrect. Cholecystoscopy is not a diagnostic test for cholecystitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of liver, gallbladder, or pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:58 AM 50. The advantage of doing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy over a traditional abdominal incision includes: a. a longer recovery time. b. less discomfort. c. a longer hospital stay. d. more discomfort. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Patients recover more quickly from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. b. Correct. There is less discomfort with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. c. Incorrect. There is a shorter or no hospital stay with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. d. Incorrect. There is less discomfort with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:58 AM 51. Amrit has been suffering from liver failure. What causes edema of the lower extremities in patients with liver failure? a. Portal hypertension b. Ascites c. Decreased production of albumin d. Cor pulmonale ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Portal hypertension can lead to esophageal varices. b. Incorrect. Ascites is excess fluid in the abdominal cavity. c. Correct. Without enough albumin, fluid tends to leak into the tissues and cause edema.

d. Incorrect. Cor pulmonale is right-sided heart failure. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:59 AM 52. Antonia’s doctor orders labs done to confirm a case of pancreatitis. Which lab test result indicates pancreatitis? a. high amylase b. low albumin c. high iron d. high bilirubin ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Elevated amylase levels are seen with pancreatitis. b. Incorrect. Liver failure leads to low albumin. c. Incorrect. High iron levels could result from hemochromatosis, the most commonly inherited disease. d. Incorrect. High bilirubin may be seen in newborns or patients with Gilbert’s syndrome.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of liver, gallbladder, or pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:59 AM 53. Kelly is a 43-year-old female. She has nausea, vomiting, right upper quadrant pain after eating fatty meals and a BMI of 28. Which condition does she likely have? a. liver cancer b. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) c. primary biliary cirrhosis d. cholelithiasis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pancreatic cancer. b. Incorrect. Patients with NAFLD are often asymptomatic. c. Incorrect. Primary biliary cirrhosis causes jaundice, edema, itching and abnormal liver function studies. d. Correct. Overweight females over 40 are more likely to experience cholelithiasis, which has symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and pain after eating fatty meals.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/9/2022 12:09 AM 11/30/2022 2:01 AM

54. Mayibel is in her 40s, overweight, and suffers from cholecystitis, but is resistant to changing her diet. Which of the following is a serious complication of cholecystitis? a. esophageal varices b. rupture of the gallbladder c. hepatic encephalopathy d. ascites ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Esophageal varices are a serious complication of cirrhosis. b. Correct. If the gallbladder ruptures, a serious complication called peritonitis may result. c. Incorrect. Liver failure can cause confusion due to its inability to detoxify the blood of nitrogenous waste products such as ammonia. d. Incorrect. Ascites is associated with cirrhosis or liver failure from other causes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:01 AM 55. A doctor is concerned that Xavier may have a problem with his liver. Which lab tests would a physician order to rule out impaired liver function? a. iron b. digestive enzymes c. bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase and albumin d. hepatitis virus antibodies ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Iron levels are checked to rule out anemia or hemochromatosis. b. Incorrect. Digestive enzymes, such as amylase, are tested when pancreatitis is suspected. c. Correct. Impaired liver function is demonstrated by increased bilirubin, increased alkaline phosphatase and decreased albumin. d. Incorrect. Hepatitis virus antibodies are tested to rule out or confirm hepatitis.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders 56. Roxanne has ascites. Which of the following procedures would be used for a patient with ascites? a. removal of 1–2 units of blood b. liver biopsy c. cholecystectomy d. abdominocentesis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hemochromatosis causes the body to store excess amounts of iron, so blood is removed until iron levels return to normal. b. Incorrect. Liver biopsy is used to diagnose chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and cancer. c. Incorrect. A cholecystectomy is used with cholelithiasis.

d. Correct. Ascites can be treated by draining the fluid from the abdominal cavity in a procedure called abdominocentesis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common liver, gallbladder, and pancreas disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:02 AM 57. Dalton’s is admitted to the emergency room and is diagnosed with pancreatitis. Why is pancreatitis sometimes fatal? a. Enzymes can escape and “digest” the pancreas and surrounding tissues. b. Ascites can occur. c. Esophageal varices can rupture. d. Neurogenic shock is a possibility. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The digestive enzymes can digest the pancreas and blood vessels, causing hemorrhaging. b. Incorrect. Ascites is associated with cirrhosis.

c. Incorrect. Esophageal varices occur because of portal hypertension. d. Incorrect. Neurogenic shock is usually caused by a spinal cord injury. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:03 AM 58. Cirrhosis-induced splenomegaly leads to which conditions? a. anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia b. erythrocytosis c. ascites Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders d. ankle edema ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Because splenomegaly leads to increased blood cell destruction, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia eventually occur. b. Incorrect. Erythrocytosis, an increased number of red blood cells, is not present with splenomegaly. c. Incorrect. Portal hypertension causes increased pressure in portal system, which causes ascites. d. Incorrect. Liver failure may cause ankle edema, due to decreased albumin production.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.5 - Identify common disorders of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:04 AM 59. Bobbi has just been diagnosed with Hepatitis A. Which of the following best describes her prognosis? a. no treatment necessary for recovery b. at high risk for developing chronic hepatitis c. slow progression, eventually leading to liver damage d. increased risk of fulminant hepatitis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Hepatitis A is the most harmless type of hepatitis, and most people recover without treatment. b. Incorrect. Hepatitis B infections often lead to chronic hepatitis.

c. Incorrect. Hepatitis C slowly progresses to liver damage. d. Incorrect. The hepatitis B and D infections can lead to fulminant hepatitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1 - Define the terminology common to the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas, and the disorders of these organs. DATE CREATED: 8/9/2022 12:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:04 AM 60. Tyler is seeking treatment for cholelithiasis. Which of the following treatments can be used for cholelithiasis? a. cholecystectomy b. elimination of gluten from diet c. abdominocentesis d. blood transfusion ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Removal of the gallbladder, or cholecystectomy, may be used in the presence of cholelithiasis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreatic Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Celiac disease is treated by eliminating gluten from the diet. c. Incorrect. Ascites, excessive fluid in the abdominal cavity, can be drained by a procedure called abdominocentesis. d. Incorrect. Blood transfusions may be used when loss of blood volume is present.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders 1. The ureters are tubules that run from where to where? a. from the kidneys to the urethra b. from the kidneys to the bladder c. from the bladder to the external opening d. from the kidneys to the external opening ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The urethra runs from the bladder to the external opening. b. Correct. Ureters are tubules that run from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. c. Incorrect. The urethra runs from the bladder to the external opening. d. Incorrect. The urethra runs to the external opening, but not from the kidneys. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:19 AM 2. What test is performed to check the urine for pH, specific gravity, blood, protein, and sugar? a. urinalysis b. urine culture c. urine sensitivity d. urine clean catch ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A urinalysis is performed to check the urine for pH, specific gravity, blood, protein, and sugar. b. Incorrect. A culture can be done to help determine the type of bacteria present.

c. Incorrect. A sensitivity test will help determine the most effective antibiotic to prescribe for treatment. d. Incorrect. Clean catch is a method for collecting a urine specimen for a culture.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. A BUN test will determine the levels of urea nitrogen or waste product in the blood. b. Incorrect. A creatinine clearance test is a blood test to determine the ability of the renal glomeruli to filter creatinine out of the blood after creatinine is ingested by the subject. c. Correct. A urine culture and sensitivity (C&S) test can be performed in the laboratory if the urinalysis shows an abnormal number of white cells or bacteria in the urine to determine the type of bacteria present and the most effective antibiotic to prescribe. d. Incorrect. An IVP is a radiologic examination of the urinary system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:12 AM 4. Which of the following results of a urine culture would confirm a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection? a. bacteria count less than 50,000 bacteria per milliliter or cubic centimeter of urine b. bacteria count greater than 50,000 bacteria per milliliter or cubic centimeter of urine c. bacteria count less than 100,000 bacteria per milliliter or cubic centimeter of urine d. bacteria count greater than 100,000 bacteria per milliliter or cubic centimeter of urine ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The bacteria count would be much higher than 50,000, not less than. b. Incorrect. The bacteria count would be much higher than 50,000. c. Incorrect. The bacteria count would be higher. d. Correct. If the pure culture bacteria count is greater than 100,000 bacteria per milliliter or cubic centimeter of urine, a diagnosis of urinary tract infection is confirmed.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders uremia, a toxic condition of the blood. b. Incorrect. This condition of high levels of waste products is not a toxic condition of the kidneys. c. Incorrect. This is a condition of high levels of waste products, but not in the urine. d. Incorrect. This condition of high levels of waste products is not a toxic condition of the bladder.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:13 AM 6. When a catheter is placed for a longer period, what is it called? a. in-and-out catheter b. indwelling catheter c. suprapubic catheter d. clean catch catheter ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An in-and-out catheterization is temporary. b. Correct. An indwelling catheterization is performed when a catheter is placed for a longer period. c. Incorrect. If the catheter is inserted surgically through the pelvic wall, as is often done after urinary tract surgeries, it is called a suprapubic catheter. d. Incorrect. Clean catch is a method for obtaining a urine specimen, not a type of catheterization.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:14 AM 7. Urethritis occurs more often in males than in females as a symptom of what? a. chlamydia b. herpes genitalis c. gonorrhea d. cystitis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. In males and females, it can be a symptom of chlamydia, but is not more common with males.

b. Incorrect. In males and females, it can be a symptom of herpes genitalis, but is Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders not more common with males. c. Correct. Urethritis is more common in males than in females as a symptom of gonorrhea. d. Incorrect. It commonly occurs in conjunction with cystitis, but it is not more common in males than in females.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:17 AM 8. After completing treatment for cystitis, what follow-up test is suggested? a. blood urea nitrogen b. creatinine clearance c. urinalysis d. urine culture and sensitivity ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The recommended test is to determine that bacteria is eliminated, not to test levels of urea nitrogen. b. Incorrect. The recommended test is to determine that bacteria is eliminated, not to test the ability to filter creatinine. c. Incorrect. A urinalysis will not ensure complete elimination of bacteria.

d. Correct. After treatment is completed, a follow-up urinalysis and culture are important to ensure complete elimination of all bacteria because recurrent infections are common.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:17 AM 9. Chronic pyelonephritis can eventually lead to what? a. uremia and kidney failure b. uremia and bladder failure c. pyuria and kidney failure d. pyuria and bladder failure ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Chronic pyelonephritis can eventually lead to uremia and kidney failure. b. Incorrect. The effect is on the kidney, not the bladder.

c. Incorrect. It will not lead to pyuria. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. The effect is on the blood and the kidneys. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:18 AM 10. Which of the following is a symptom of chronic glomerulonephritis, but not of acute glomerulonephritis? a. flank pain b. hypertension c. loss of appetite d. fever ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Flank pain is a symptom of acute glomerulonephritis. b. Correct. Symptoms of chronic glomerulonephritis include those mentioned in the acute disease plus hypertension. c. Incorrect. Loss of appetite is a symptom of acute glomerulonephritis.

d. Incorrect. Fever is a symptom of acute glomerulonephritis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:19 AM 11. Which of the following is a type of allergic or immune disease caused by an antigen–antibody reaction? a. hydronephrosis b. renal calculi c. glomerulonephritis d. polycystic kidney disease ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hydronephrosis is a collection of urine in the renal pelvis due to some type of obstruction. b. Incorrect. The cause of renal calculi, or kidney stone, formation is unknown.

c. Correct. Glomerulonephritis is a type of allergic or immune disease caused by an antigen–antibody reaction.

d. Incorrect. Polycystic kidney disease is an inherited disorder. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:20 AM 12. The accumulation of fluid in the renal pelvis causes a condition known as what? a. renal calculi b. glomerulonephritis c. polycystic kidney disease d. hydronephrosis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Renal calculi is kidney stones. b. Incorrect. Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation of the glomerulus, or filtering unit, of the kidney. c. Incorrect. Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) causes massive enlargement of both kidneys due to development of multiple grape-like cysts. d. Correct. The accumulation of fluid in the renal pelvis causes a condition known as hydronephrosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:21 AM 13. When are kidney stone problematic? a. any time they are formed in the kidneys b. when they get caught in the ureters c. when they pass through the urinary tract d. if they form as a result of dehydration ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Stones may be present in the kidney yet cause no problems. b. Correct. Stones may be present in the kidney yet cause no problems. It is only when stones are caught in the ureters or obstruct the urinary tract that problems and symptoms arise. c. Incorrect. They can often pass through the urinary tract unnoticed.

d. Incorrect. The cause of the formation does not indicate if they will be problematic.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:26 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders 14. For which of the following disorders can one take preventive measures? a. adenocarcinoma b. polycystic disease c. urinary tract infections d. chronic glomerulonephritis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Kidney cancer might not be preventable, but controlling risk factors is advisable. b. Incorrect. PKD is an inherited disease and is not preventable.

c. Correct. There are several natural preventive measures against UTIs. d. Incorrect. There is no specific prevention for most cases of chronic glomerulonephritis, but prompt treatment of the acute form might be beneficial.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:27 AM 15. Symptoms of renal failure are significant when approximately how much of kidney function has been destroyed? a. 25% b. 50% c. 67% d. 75% ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The level of kidney function destruction is more than this amount. b. Incorrect. The level of kidney function destruction is more than this amount. c. Incorrect. The level of kidney function destruction is more than this amount. d. Correct. Symptoms of renal failure are not significant until approximately 75% of kidney function has been destroyed.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:37 AM 16. What is the most common problem of the urinary system in older adults? a. urinary incontinence b. pain with urination c. difficulty starting the urine flow d. urinary tract infections Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. The most common problem of the urinary system in the older adult is urinary incontinence. b. Incorrect. In older men, benign prostatic hypertrophy is a common disorder that often causes pain or burning with urination, but this is not the most common problem of the urinary system in older adults. c. Incorrect. In older men, benign prostatic hypertrophy is a common disorder that often causes difficulty starting the urine flow, but this is not the most common problem of the urinary system in older adults. d. Incorrect. UTIs are not the most common problem of the urinary system in older adults.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the urinary system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:38 AM 17. In older men, what disorder often causes urinary frequency, dribbling, pain or burning with urination, and difficulty starting the urine flow? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. benign prostatic hypertrophy c. brain tumors d. severe circulatory impairment ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Alzheimer’s disease is a disorder of the nervous system that might make one unaware of the urge to urinate or unable to communicate the need. b. Correct. In older men, benign prostatic hypertrophy is a common disorder that often causes urinary frequency, dribbling, pain or burning with urination, and difficulty starting the urine flow. c. Incorrect. Brain tumors are a disorder of the nervous system that might make one unaware of the urge to urinate or unable to communicate the need. d. Incorrect. Older individuals with other common system disorders, such as stroke or severe circulatory impairment, might not feel the urge to urinate and, thus, have urinary incontinence.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders a. severe circulatory impairment b. Alzheimer’s disease c. changes in estrogen levels d. stroke ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Older individuals with other common system disorders, such as severe circulatory impairment, might not feel the urge to urinate and, thus, have urinary incontinence. b. Incorrect. Alzheimer’s disease is a disorder of the nervous system that might make one unaware of the urge to urinate or unable to communicate the need c. Correct. In older women, the changes in estrogen levels can cause a decrease in vaginal muscle tone and, along with the changes in structure, cause increased frequency and some urine incontinence. d. Incorrect. Older individuals with other common system disorders, such as stroke, might not feel the urge to urinate and, thus, have urinary incontinence.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the urinary system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:39 AM 19. What autoimmune disorder usually results in renal failure and, ultimately, death? a. interstitial cystitis b. neurogenic bladder c. Goodpasture syndrome d. urinary incontinence ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Interstitial cystitis is thought to be autoimmune in nature, but response to treatment is generally good. b. Incorrect. Neurogenic bladder is dysfunction of the bladder due to some type of injury to the nervous system supplying the urinary tract or bladder. c. Correct. Goodpasture syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhaged. d. Incorrect. Urinary incontinence has a number of causes, but is not an autoimmune disorder.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:40 AM 20. What type of incontinence is caused by the bladder not properly emptying? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders a. stress b. Urge c. behavioral d. Overflow ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Stress incontinence is the inability to hold urine when the bladder is stressed by coughing, sneezing, or laughing. b. Incorrect. Urge incontinence occurs with a sudden uncontrollable urge to empty the bladder. c. Incorrect. Behavioral is not a type of incontinence.

d. Correct. Overflow incontinence is caused by the bladder not properly emptying and leaking when overfilled.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:41 AM 21. The kidney is about the size of a: a. man’s fist. b. woman’s fist. c. teenager’s fist. d. child’s fist. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The size of a kidney is about the size of a man’s fist. b. Incorrect. The size of a kidney is not the size of a woman’s fist. c. Incorrect. The size of a kidney is not the size of a teenager’s fist. d. Incorrect. The size of a kidney is not the size of a child’s fist. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:45 AM 22. What is the functions of the nephrons? a. produce an active form of vitamin D b. transport urine from the renal pelvis c. store urine until emptied d. filter, excrete, or reabsorb what is needed by the body ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. This is a function of the kidneys, but not specifically of the nephrons. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. This is the function of the ureters. c. Incorrect. This is the function of the bladder. d. Correct. The nephrons have the functions of filtering, excreting, and reabsorbing what is needed by the body to maintain homeostasis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:45 AM 23. The bladder usually stores about how much urine? a. 500–750 mL b. 750–1000 mL c. 250–450 mL d. 350–500 mL ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. 500–700 mL is more than the average urine stored in the bladder. b. Incorrect. 750–1000 mL is more than the average urine stored in the bladder. c. Incorrect. 250–450 mL is less than the average urine stored in the bladder. d. Correct. The bladder stores 350–500 mL of urine. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:46 AM 24. Micturition is the process of: a. defecating. b. urinating. c. vomiting. d. passing gas. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Micturition does not refer to the process of defecating. b. Correct. Micturition is the process of urinating, or voiding the bladder. c. Incorrect. Micturition is not related to vomiting. d. Incorrect. Micturition is not related to passing gas.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1 - Define the terminology common to the urinary system and the disorders of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

the system. 8/5/2022 1:54 AM 11/30/2022 3:46 AM

25. The appearance of urine is normally: a. cloudy, coffee colored. b. clear, coffee colored. c. yellow and clear. d. yellow and cloudy. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cloudy, coffee colored is not the appearance of normal urine. b. Incorrect. Clear, coffee colored is not the appearance of normal urine. c. Correct. Urine is normally yellow and clear. d. Incorrect. Yellow and cloudy is not the appearance of normal urine. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:47 AM 26. Normal specific gravity of the urine is: a. 1.000–1.005. b. 1.005–1.030. c. 1.005–1.025. d. 1.010–1.030. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. 1.000–1.005 gravity of urine is too low. b. Correct. Normal specific gravity of urine is 1.005–1.030. c. Incorrect. The range of 1.005–1.025 gravity of urine is too small. d. Incorrect. 1.010–1.030 gravity of urine is too high. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:48 AM 27. Normal urine pH is: a. 5. b. 6. c. 7. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders d. 7.5. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. A Ph of 5 is outside the normal range of urine pH. b. Correct. Normal urine pH is 6. c. Incorrect. A Ph of 7 is outside the normal range of urine pH. d. Incorrect. A Ph of 7.5 is outside the normal range of urine pH.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:48 AM 28. Common signs and symptoms of diseases of the urinary system include hematuria, which is: a. pus in the urine. b. voiding at night. c. blood in the urine. d. decrease in urine output. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Polyuria is pus in the urine. b. Correct. Hematuria is blood in the urine. c. Incorrect. Nocturia is increased voiding at night. d. Incorrect. Oliguria is a decrease in urine output. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:49 AM 29. A urine culture helps determine the type of what is causing the infection? a. bacterium b. virus c. protein d. parasite ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A urine culture is to determine which bacteria are causing an infection. b. Incorrect. A urine culture is not diagnostic of viruses. c. Incorrect. A urine culture is not diagnostic of proteins. d. Incorrect. A urine culture is not diagnostic of parasites. POINTS:

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:50 AM 30. When obtaining a sterile urine specimen, the patient needs to get what type of specimen? a. random b. catheterized c. clean-catch d. midstream ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Random urine will not provide a sterile specimen. b. Correct. Catheterization is the only way to get a sterile urine specimen. c. Incorrect. Clean-catch urine will not provide a sterile specimen. d. Incorrect. Midstream urine will not provide a sterile specimen. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:51 AM 31. Which symptom of diseases of the urinary system is defined as difficulty or pain with urination? a. oliguria b. anuria c. dysuria d. proteinuria ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Oliguria is a decrease in urine output. b. Incorrect. Anuria is no urine output. c. Correct. Dysuria is difficulty or pain with urination. d. Incorrect. Proteinuria is protein in the urine. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:51 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders 32. Which X-rays require the injection of dye into the bloodstream? a. KUB b. cystogram c. chest d. IVP ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. KUB X-ray does not require the injection of dye. A KUB is a common X-ray of structures of the urinary tract to determine abnormalities. b. Incorrect. Cystogram X-ray does not require the injection of dye. A cystogram is an X-ray taken of the bladder after a radiopaque dye is instilled into the bladder using a urinary catheter. c. Incorrect. Chest X-ray does not require the injection of dye.

d. Correct. An IVP is an X-ray taken after injecting dye into the individual’s bloodstream. The dye accumulates in the urinary tract, improving the ability to visualize and identify obstructions, tumors, and deformities.

b. Incorrect. A cystogram helps determine the shape and function of the bladder. c. Incorrect. Doppler ultrasonography can be done to evaluate blood flow problems. d. Incorrect. A creatinine clearance test is a blood test to determine the ability of the renal glomeruli to filter creatinine out of the blood after creatinine is ingested by the subject.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders 34. A urine test determines the presence of tube-shaped particles made up of red cells, white cells, and kidney cells, called what? a. bacteria b. crystals c. urobilinogen d. casts ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A urine test also looks for the presence of bacteria, but that is not what these particles are called. b. Incorrect. These particles are not called crystals.

c. Incorrect. A urine test also looks for the presence of urobilinogen, but that is not what these particles are called.

d. Correct. The urine test also includes a microscopic examination to determine the presence of bacteria, crystals, and casts (tube-shaped particles made up of red cells, white cells, and kidney cells).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:58 AM 35. What is it called when a catheter is placed through an incision into the pelvic wall? a. suprapubic b. indwelling c. residual d. in-and-out ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A suprapubic catheter is placed through an incision into the pelvic wall. b. Incorrect. An indwelling catheter is inserted through the urethra. c. Incorrect. A residual test is diagnostic of urinary retention and is performed via a catheter being inserted through the urethra.

d. Incorrect. An in-and-out catheterization refers to a temporary catheterization that is inserted through the urethra.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders b. a virus c. a fungus d. trauma ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. UTIs can be caused by a virus or fungus, but by far, the most common infection is due to bacteria. b. Incorrect. Virus may cause a urinary tract infection, but that is not the most common cause. c. Incorrect. Fungus may cause a urinary tract infection, but that is not the most common cause. d. Incorrect. Trauma is not a cause of UTIs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:59 AM 37. A neurogenic bladder may be caused by: a. bacteria. b. a virus. c. a fungus. d. a stroke. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Bacteria is not a common trauma that causes neurogenic bladder. b. Incorrect. A virus is not a common trauma that causes neurogenic bladder. c. Incorrect. A fungus is not a common trauma that causes neurogenic bladder. d. Correct. Neurogenic bladder is dysfunction of the bladder due to some type of injury to the nervous system supplying the urinary tract or bladder, such as a stroke.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:59 AM 38. Symptoms of a neurogenic bladder include: a. diarrhea. b. normal voiding pattern. c. no feeling to void. d. constipation. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Diarrhea is not a symptom of neurogenic bladder, but another symptom is also listed. b. Incorrect. Normal voiding pattern would not indicate a problem.

c. Correct. No feeling the urge to void is a symptom of neurogenic bladder. d. Incorrect. Constipation is not a symptom of a neurogenic bladder. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:00 AM 39. The most common bacteria to cause urinary tract infections are: a. E. coli. b. Klebsiella. c. Proteus. d. Staphylococcus. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The most common bacteria to cause urinary tract infections is E. coli. b. Incorrect. Klebsiella is not the most common bacteria to cause urinary tract infections. c. Incorrect. Proteus is not the most common bacteria to cause urinary tract infections. d. Incorrect. Staphylococcus is not the most common bacteria to cause urinary tract infections.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:01 AM 40. Females are more prone to UTIs because: a. their urethra is longer. b. their urethral opening is further from the rectum. c. they may wipe improperly. d. female secretions have an antibacterial effect. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A shorter urethra is a reason why females are more prone to UTIs. b. Incorrect. Their urethral opening is closer to the rectum. c. Correct. Improper wiping is a reason why females are more prone to UTIs. d. Incorrect. Male prostatic secretions have an antibacterial effect, reducing the risk of UTI. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:02 AM 41. Males are less susceptible to UTIs because: a. their urethra is shorter. b. the prostatic secretions have an antibacterial effect. c. their urethral opening is closer to the rectum. d. male hormones relax the organs of the urinary tract. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A longer urethra is a reason why males are less susceptible to UTIs. b. Correct. The prostatic secretions have an antibacterial effect is a reason why males are less susceptible to UTIs, but other reasons are listed.

c. Incorrect. The urethral opening being farther away from the rectum is a reason why males are less susceptible to UTIs. d. Incorrect. Pregnancy hormones tend to relax the organs of the urinary tract, allowing easier entry by bacteria in pregnant females.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:03 AM 42. Signs and symptoms of urethritis may include: a. urethral discharge. b. no feeling of the need to void. c. difficulty emptying the bladder. d. bladder spasms. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Urethral discharge, swelling of the urethra, and dysuria are all signs and symptoms of urethritis. b. Incorrect. No feeling of the need to void is a symptom of neurogenic bladder.

c. Incorrect. Difficulty emptying the bladder is a symptom of neurogenic bladder. d. Incorrect. Bladder spasms are a symptom of neurogenic bladder. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 3:04 AM 11/30/2022 4:03 AM

43. Healthy habits in the prevention of UTIs include which of the following? a. Drink two to three glasses of water per day. b. Wipe from back to front. c. Wear tight-fitting clothes. d. Urinate before and after sexual intercourse. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Drinking six to eight glasses of water per day will help prevent UTIs. b. Incorrect. Wiping from front to back will help prevent UTIs. c. Incorrect. Wearing tight-fitting clothes will contribute to the development of a UTI, not prevent it. d. Correct. Urinating before and after sexual intercourse will help prevent UTIs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:05 AM 44. Obstruction or urine flow blockage in the urinary tract put a person at a greater risk for developing what? a. pyelitis b. tumors c. prostate enlargement d. pyelonephritis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pyelitis is usually the result of an ascending infection from the bladder. b. Incorrect. Tumors are one of the conditions that can cause this blockage.

c. Incorrect. Prostate enlargement is one of the conditions that can cause this blockage. d. Correct. Obstruction or urine flow blockage in the urinary tract caused by pregnancy, prostate enlargement, stones, or tumors increases the risk of pyelonephritis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:10 AM 45. What is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus c. E. coli d. Klebsiella ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Streptococcus is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis. b. Incorrect. Staphylococcus is not the most common cause of glomerulonephritis. c. Incorrect. E. coli is not the most common cause of glomerulonephritis. d. Incorrect. Klebsiella is not the most common cause of glomerulonephritis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:11 AM 46. Signs and symptoms of glomerulonephritis include: a. nocturia. b. increased appetite. c. swollen eyes and ankles. d. polyuria. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Oliguria and hematuria are frequent signs of glomerulonephritis, but not nocturia. b. Incorrect. Loss of appetite is a sign of glomerulonephritis.

c. Correct. Swollen eyes and ankles may be a sign of glomerulonephritis. d. Incorrect. Oliguria and hematuria are frequent signs of glomerulonephritis, but not polyuria.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:11 AM 47. Treatment for glomerulonephritis includes: a. increased salt intake. b. forced fluids. c. diuretics. d. increased protein in the diet. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Increased salt intake is not a treatment for glomerulonephritis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Forced fluids is not a treatment for glomerulonephritis. c. Correct. Diuretics is a treatment for glomerulonephritis. d. Incorrect. Increased protein in the diet is not a treatment for glomerulonephritis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:12 AM 48. Causes of obstructions in hydronephrosis include: a. constipation. b. gallbladder stones. c. an enlarged prostate. d. pregnancy. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Constipation is not the cause of an obstruction in hydronephrosis, but other causes are listed. b. Incorrect. Kidney, not gallbladder, stones can be the cause of an obstruction in hydronephrosis. c. Correct. An enlarged prostate can be the cause of an obstruction in hydronephrosis. d. Incorrect. Pregnancy can cause blockage leading to pyelonephritis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:13 AM 49. Diagnosis of hydronephrosis is confirmed by: a. IVP. b. pyelogram. c. cystogram. d. cystoscopy. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. IVP is not diagnostic of hydronephrosis. b. Correct. A pyelogram is diagnostic of hydronephrosis. c. Incorrect. Cystogram is not diagnostic of hydronephrosis. d. Incorrect. Cystoscopy is not diagnostic of hydronephrosis. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:14 AM 50. Symptoms of kidney stones include: a. spasmodic abdominal pain. b. chest pain. c. left arm pain. d. spasmodic flank pain. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Spasmodic abdominal pain is not a symptom of kidney stones. b. Incorrect. Chest pain is not a symptom of kidney stones. c. Incorrect. Left arm pain is not a symptom of kidney stones. d. Correct. Spasmodic flank pain is a symptom of kidney stones. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:15 AM 51. Hoa is leading a study of patients developing a urinary tract infection (UTI) and finds that the females had a higher rate than the males. Why are females more likely than males to develop a UTI? a. sexually transmitted diseases b. female urethra is longer c. female urethral meatus is close to the rectal opening d. obstruction of the urinary tract ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Sexually transmitted diseases are a cause of UTI in males. b. Incorrect. The female urethra is shorter, which allows bacteria to ascend more easily. c. Correct. In females, the urinary opening is closer to the rectal opening, which increases the chance of bacteria entering the urethra. d. Incorrect. In males, enlarged prostates sometimes obstruct the urinary tract, causing infections.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders 52. Reino is a 52-year-old male with a kidney stone, which has led to hydronephrosis of the right ureter. Why should Frank be advised to treat this hydronephrosis? a. permanent kidney damage b. development of polycystic kidney disease (PKD) c. may lead to carcinoma of the kidney d. incontinence ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. If hydronephrosis is left untreated, permanent kidney damage can occur. b. Incorrect. PKD is an inherited disease.

c. Incorrect. The cause of kidney cancer is usually unknown, but smoking is known to be a contributing factor. d. Incorrect. Incontinence increases with age or after prostate surgery.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.5 - Identify common disorders of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:16 AM 53. Kennedy is a 24-year-old female who has had two recent urinary tract infections (UTI). Which preventative measure can she use to prevent future UTIs? a. decreased water consumption b. preventative antibiotics c. yridium d. urinating before and after sexual intercourse ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Increased water consumption helps prevent UTIs. b. Incorrect. Preventative antibiotics are not usually indicated. c. Incorrect. Pyridium relieves the pain, burning, and increased urge to urinate, but it is not a preventative medication. d. Correct. Urination washes most bacteria out of the urethra.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:17 AM 54. Benjamin had test run to check on the function of his kidneys. Which of the following lab test results indicate poor kidney function? a. elevated amylase b. elevated BUN and elevated creatinine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders c. low albumin d. low hemoglobin and low hematocrit ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pancreatitis causes elevated amylase. b. Correct. High BUN and creatinine indicate that the kidneys are no longer functioning well. c. Incorrect. Liver failure causes a decrease in albumin.

d. Incorrect. Low hemoglobin and low hematocrit are seen in anemia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:18 AM 55. Kyle suffers from multiple health problems, such as high blood pressure and diabetes, along with a family history of kidney problems. Which of the following is most likely to lead to end-stage renal failure? a. acute glomerulonephritis b. hydronephrosis c. chronic glomerulonephritis d. renal calculi ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Acute glomerulonephritis typically affects younger populations after a streptococcus infection, but the prognosis is generally good. b. Incorrect. Untreated hydronephrosis can lead to kidney damage, but when treated, kidney function should return to normal. c. Correct. Chronic glomerulonephritis slowly destroys the glomeruli, the filtrating units of the kidney. d. Incorrect. Generally, renal calculi, although very painful, do not lead to renal failure.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:18 AM 56. Kathryn has a renal calculus, which is causing hydronephrosis. Which treatment can resolve this condition? a. dialysis b. nephrectomy c. antibiotics d. lithotripsy ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Dialysis is used to clean the blood of toxins when the kidneys have failed. b. Incorrect. A nephrectomy might be used in the presence of kidney cancer.

c. Incorrect. Antibiotics are used to treat infections of the urinary system. d. Correct. Lithotripsy is a procedure that uses high energy shock waves to break renal stones into smaller pieces that should remove this obstruction.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:19 AM 57. Which of the following conditions is an indicator that renal failure is present? a. hydronephrosis b. high BUN c. uremia d. leukocytosis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hydronephrosis, if untreated, can lead to kidney damage, but its presence does not indicate renal failure. b. Incorrect. An elevated BUN could indicate that the kidneys are not working well, but renal failure is not certain. c. Correct. When the kidneys are no longer functioning, they can no longer filter urea out of the blood, which leads to uremia. d. Incorrect. Leukocytosis is present in pyelonephritis or other infections.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common urinary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:20 AM 58. Jordon has elected to be an organ donor in honor of a relative who had a kidney transplant. Which of the following may need to be treated with a kidney transplant? a. polycystic kidney disease (PKD) b. hydronephrosis c. kidney cancer d. acute glomerulonephritis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. PKD, an inherited disease that eventually leads to kidney failure, may require a kidney transplant or dialysis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Many time, hydronephrosis can be cured by removing the cause of the ureteral obstruction. c. Incorrect. Because people can survive with one kidney, a unilateral nephrectomy can be used to treat kidney cancer without the need for a kidney transplant. d. Incorrect. The prognosis for acute glomerulonephritis is generally good without a need for a kidney transplant.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the urinary system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:20 AM 59. Randi is a 55-year-old postmenopausal female who went through childbirth five times. She is now experiencing urinary incontinence when she laughs or sneezes. Which of the following treatments might help her? a. performing Kegel exercises b. consuming extra fluids c. drinking most fluids at bedtime d. undergoing cystoscopy ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Kegel exercises can strengthen the pelvis muscles, which can be effective for improving certain types of stress incontinence. b. Incorrect. Fluid limitation is useful for urinary incontinence.

c. Incorrect. By avoiding fluids near bedtime, incontinence may be improved. d. Incorrect. Cystoscopy is a diagnostic tool that shows the presence of tumors, foreign bodies, or cysts.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the urinary system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:21 AM 60. Emad is facing dialysis as he is nearly in end-stage renal disease. He wants to understand the difference between each type of dialysis. Which explanation is most accurate regarding continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)? a. self-dialysis that does not use a machine b. performed several times a week, usually in a medical clinic c. a cycling machine used while the individual sleeps d. blood routed out of an artery and through an artificial kidney machine, mechanically cleaning the blood ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is self-dialysis that does not use a machine, and it’s performed several times a day and once at night.

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Chapter 13 - Urinary System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Intermittent peritoneal dialysis (IPD) is performed several times a week, usually in a medical clinic. c. Correct. CCPD is a type of dialysis that uses a cycling machine while the individual sleeps. d. Incorrect. Hemodialysis, the most common type of dialysis, involves removing the blood from the individual and running it through a machine that removes toxins from the blood.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders 1. What type of tests could be used to check for presence of tumors or alteration in organ size? a. computer tomography (CT) and magnetic resolution (MRI) b. blood glucose and hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) c. sestamibi scans and blood glucose d. magnetic resolution (MRI) and hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Computerized tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), positron emission test (PET), radioactive iodine (RAI), and sestamibi scans can be used to check for presence of tumors or alteration in organ size. b. Incorrect. Blood glucose and hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) are used to diagnose diabetes mellitus and to monitor the progression of the disease. c. Incorrect. Blood glucose is used to diagnose diabetes mellitus and to monitor the progression of the disease. d. Incorrect. Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is used to diagnose diabetes mellitus and to monitor the progression of the disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/7/2022 11:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:25 AM 2. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between gland size and abnormal secretion? a. Abnormally small or hypertrophied glands tend to produce abnormally high hormone levels. b. Abnormally large or hypertrophied glands tend to produce abnormally high hormone levels. c. Abnormally small or atrophied glands tend to produce abnormally high hormone levels. d. Abnormally large or atrophied glands tend to produce abnormally high hormone levels. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Abnormally small glands would be atrophied, not hypertrophied. b. Correct. Abnormally large or hypertrophied glands tend to produce abnormally high hormone levels. c. Incorrect. Abnormally small glands would produce abnormally low levels.

d. Incorrect. Abnormally large glands would be hypertrophied, not atrophied. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/7/2022 11:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:25 AM 3. What condition exists when a pituitary gland is destroyed or nonfunctional? a. polydipsia b. polyuria Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders c. panhypopituitarism d. acromegaly ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Polydipsia is excessive thirst or drinking and is a symptom of diabetes insipidus. b. Incorrect. Polyuria is excessive urination and a symptom of diabetes insipidus.

c. Correct. If the pituitary gland is destroyed or nonfunctional, a condition called panhypopituitarism exists and can result in fatal complications. d. Incorrect. When acromegaly occurs, the long bones are unable to grow in length, but the small bones of the hands, feet, and face enlarge.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/7/2022 11:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:26 AM 4. What causes central diabetes insipidus? a. hyperactivity of the pancreatic islet cells b. a tumor on the pituitary gland c. the inability of the kidney to respond to ADH d. a decrease in the release of vasopressin ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Central DI is not caused by hyperactivity of the pancreatic islet cells. b. Incorrect. A common cause of hypopituitarism is a tumor on the pituitary gland. c. Incorrect. Nephrogenic DI occurs when there is a defect in the kidney tubules, leading to inability of the kidney to respond to ADH. d. Correct. Central DI is caused by a decrease in the release of vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the posterior portion of the pituitary gland.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/7/2022 11:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:27 AM 5. Why do many states mandate a thyroid blood test on newborns? a. to screen for hypothyroidism b. to screen for hyperparathyroidism c. to screen for hypoparathyroidism d. to screen for hyperthyroidism ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The earlier hypothyroidism is diagnosed, the better the prognosis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. The screening is for a disease related to the thyroid, not the parathyroid. c. Incorrect. The screening is for a disease related to the thyroid, not the parathyroid. d. Incorrect. The concern is dwarfism, rather than giantism.

b. Correct. Hypocalcemia (low blood calcium levels) leads to irritability of muscles causing tetany. c. Incorrect. Conn’s syndrome, also called hyperaldosteronism, is due to an overproduction of aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid that plays an important role in maintaining blood volume pressure and electrolyte balance. d. Incorrect. Increased androgen leads to premature sexual development in boys, also called precocious (early development) puberty.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:28 AM 7. What does hypercalcemia lead to? a. hyperactivity of the cardiac muscle b. irritability of muscles causing tetany c. an overproduction of aldosterone d. premature sexual development in boys ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Hypercalcemia leads to hyperactivity of cardiac muscle causing arrhythmias.

b. Incorrect. Hypocalcemia (low blood calcium levels) leads to irritability of muscles causing tetany. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Conn’s syndrome, also called hyperaldosteronism, is due to an overproduction of aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid that plays an important role in maintaining blood volume pressure and electrolyte balance. d. Incorrect. Increased androgen leads to premature sexual development in boys, also called precocious (early development) puberty.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:28 AM 8. What syndrome identified with hyperadrenalism is due to an overproduction of the cortisol glucocorticoid? a. Androgenital syndrome b. Conn’s syndrome c. Cushing’s syndrome d. SIADH ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Androgenital syndrome is due to an overproduction of sex hormones by the adrenal cortex. b. Incorrect. Conn’s syndrome, also called hyperaldosteronism, is due to an overproduction of aldosterone. c. Correct. Cushing’s syndrome is due to an overproduction of the cortisol glucocorticoid. d. Incorrect. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is a disease of the posterior pituitary gland.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:29 AM 9. Symptoms of what syndrome identified with hyperadrenalism include hypokalemia (low potassium levels), alkalosis (increased blood pH), and hypertension? a. Androgenital syndrome b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Hyperadrenalism syndrome d. Conn’s syndrome ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Depending on the excessive hormone, Androgenital syndrome can lead to premature sexual development. b. Incorrect. Classic symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome include a round, moonshaped face and a buffalo hump on the upper back. c. Incorrect. Hyperadrenalism is the over secretion of hormones by the adrenal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders cortex, of which there are several syndromes. d. Correct. Symptoms of Conn’s syndrome include hypokalemia (low potassium levels), alkalosis (increased blood pH), and hypertension.

d. Incorrect. Normal levels can be maintained by less than that amount. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:30 AM 11. What glands are also known as suprarenals? a. pituitary b. adrenal c. thymus d. thyroid ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pituitary glands are located at the base of the brain, not above the kidneys. b. Correct. The adrenal glands are also called the suprarenals because they sit atop the kidneys. c. Incorrect. Thymus glands are located near the heart, not above the kidneys.

d. Incorrect. Thyroid glands are located in the neck on each side of the trachea, not above the kidneys.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1 - Define the terminology common to the endocrine system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:31 AM 12. What glands are located at the base of the brain? a. pituitary b. pineal c. hypothalamus d. thymus ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Pituitary glands are located at the base of the brain. b. Incorrect. Pineal glands are located behind the midbrain. c. Incorrect. Hypothalamus glands are located in the area of the third ventricle of the brain. d. Incorrect. Thymus glands are located near the heart.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:31 AM 13. What does cortisone do? a. It cures inflammatory conditions. b. It relieves inflammation and associated pain. c. It regulates salt balance. d. It increases blood glucose levels. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cortisone does not cure the inflammatory condition. b. Correct. Cortisone does not cure the inflammatory condition; it only relieves the inflammation and the associated pain. c. Incorrect. Aldosterone regulates salt balance.

d. Incorrect. Glucagon increases blood glucose levels. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:32 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders 14. Which of the following hormones, associated with the pineal gland, affects circadian rhythms? a. calcitonin b. oxytocin c. melatonin d. insulin ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Calcitonin is associated with the thyroid and increases calcium deposits into the bones. b. Incorrect. Oxytocin is associated with the posterior pituitary and stimulates uterine contraction and the initiation of breast flow milk in females. c. Correct. Melatonin is associated with the pineal gland, affects circadian rhythms. d. Incorrect. Insulin is associated with pancreas islets and regulates protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:33 AM 15. What is the mechanism that controls the amount of hormones secreted into the bloodstream called? a. secretion control b. feedback loop c. hormone monitor d. negative feedback ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. This mechanism is not called secretion control. b. Incorrect. This mechanism is not called feedback loop. c. Incorrect. This mechanism is not called hormone monitor. d. Correct. The mechanism known as negative feedback controls the amount of hormones secreted into the bloodstream.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1 - Define the terminology common to the endocrine system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:33 AM 16. Which of the following is true regarding the prevention of diabetes? a. Type 1 diabetes is hereditary and cannot be prevented. b. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder and cannot be prevented. c. Type 2 diabetes is hereditary and cannot be prevented. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders d. Type 1 diabetes can be prevented by losing weight and exercising. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Type 1 diabetes has a hereditary etiology and cannot be prevented. b. Incorrect. Type 1 diabetes is not an autoimmune disorder. c. Incorrect. People at risk for type 2 diabetes can prevent or delay developing type 2 diabetes by losing weight and exercising. d. Incorrect. People at risk for type 2 diabetes can prevent or delay developing type 2 diabetes by losing weight and exercising.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:34 AM 17. Because of reduced levels of glucocorticoids and aldosterone, the older adult is at high risk for what? a. hypoglycemic reactions b. digestive problems c. metabolism problems d. changes in secondary sex characteristics ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The older adult is at high risk for hypoglycemic reactions and excessive fluid loss due to reduced levels of glucocorticoids and aldosterone. b. Incorrect. Digestive problems are common due to reduced secretions of pancreatic and thyroid hormones. c. Incorrect. Metabolism problems are common due to reduced secretions of pancreatic and thyroid hormones. d. Incorrect. The secretions from the gonads are reduced, resulting in changes in secondary sex characteristics.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:35 AM 18. Because of reduced secretions of pancreatic and thyroid hormones, the older adult is at high risk for what? a. hypoglycemic reactions b. digestive and metabolism problems c. hypogonadism d. changes in secondary sex characteristics ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The older adult is at high risk for hypoglycemic reactions and excessive fluid loss due to reduced levels of glucocorticoids and aldosterone. b. Correct. Digestive and metabolism problems are common due to reduced secretions of pancreatic and thyroid hormones. c. Incorrect. Hypogonadism is the condition of decreased sex hormone production by the age of normal puberty. d. Incorrect. The secretions from the gonads are reduced, resulting in changes in secondary sex characteristics.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:35 AM 19. Because the secretions from the gonads are reduced, the older adult is at high risk for what? a. hypoglycemic reactions b. digestive problems c. metabolism problems d. changes in secondary sex characteristics ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The older adult is at high risk for hypoglycemic reactions and excessive fluid loss due to reduced levels of glucocorticoids and aldosterone.

b. Incorrect. Digestive problems are common due to reduced secretions of pancreatic and thyroid hormones. c. Incorrect. Metabolism problems are common due to reduced secretions of pancreatic and thyroid hormones. d. Correct. The secretions from the gonads are reduced, resulting in changes in secondary sex characteristics.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:38 AM 20. Which of the following is a symptom of insulin shock, when the affected individual becomes hypoglycemic? a. polyuria b. dehydration c. diaphoresis d. ketoacidosis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Symptoms of diabetic coma are those related to hyperglycemia and Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders include polyuria. b. Incorrect. Symptoms of diabetic coma are those related to hyperglycemia and include dehydration. c. Correct. With insulin shock the affected individual becomes hypoglycemic with symptoms of diaphoresis (sweating), light-headedness, and trembling. d. Incorrect. Symptoms of diabetic coma are those related to hyperglycemia and include ketoacidosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:38 AM 21. The pancreas is what two types of glands? a. exocrine and pituitary b. endocrine and pituitary c. pituitary and thyroid d. exocrine and endocrine ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The pancreas and pituitary gland are different. b. Incorrect. The pancreas and pituitary gland are different. c. Incorrect. The thyroid and pituitary are two different glands. d. Correct. The pancreas is both an exocrine and an endocrine gland. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:39 AM 22. The adrenal glands sit on top of the: a. lungs. b. pancreas. c. kidneys. d. ovaries. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The adrenal glands do not sit on top of the lungs. b. Incorrect. The adrenal glands do not sit on top of the pancreas. c. Correct. The adrenal glands sit on top of the kidneys. d. Incorrect. The adrenal glands do not sit on top of the ovaries. POINTS:

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:41 AM 23. The parathyroid glands are located on the posterior side of the: a. thyroid gland. b. pineal gland. c. thymus gland. d. pituitary gland. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The parathyroid glands are located on the posterior side of the thyroid glands. b. Incorrect. The parathyroid glands are not located on the posterior side of the pineal gland. c. Incorrect. The parathyroid glands are not located on the posterior side of the thymus gland. d. Incorrect. The parathyroid glands are not located on the posterior side of the pituitary gland.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:42 AM 24. The pancreatic islets secrete: a. thyroxine. b. insulin. c. epinephrine. d. parathormone. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The pancreatic islets do not secrete thyroxine. b. Correct. The pancreatic islets secrete insulin and glucagon. c. Incorrect. The pancreatic islets do not secrete epinephrine. d. Incorrect. The pancreatic islets do not secrete parathormone.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders 25. The posterior pituitary gland stores what two hormones that are secreted by the hypothalamus? a. oxytocin and thyroxine b. antidiuretic hormone and epinephrine c. insulin and vasopressin d. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The posterior pituitary gland stores oxytocin, but not thyroxine. b. Incorrect. The posterior pituitary gland stores antidiuretic hormone, but not epinephrine. c. Incorrect. The posterior pituitary gland does not store insulin and vasopressin.

d. Correct. The posterior pituitary gland stores oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:43 AM 26. The beta cells in the pancreas secrete: a. insulin. b. norepinephrine. c. vasopressin. d. prolactin. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The beta cells in the pancreas secrete insulin. b. Incorrect. The adrenal medulla, or middle section, of the adrenal glands secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. Incorrect. Vasopressin is released from the neurohypophysis.

d. Incorrect. The pituitary gland produces prolactin. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:44 AM 27. The ovaries secrete what two hormones? a. progesterone and testosterone b. testosterone and estrogen c. estrogen and prolactin d. progesterone and estrogen ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The ovaries do not secrete testosterone. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. The ovaries do not secrete testosterone. c. Incorrect. The ovaries do not secrete prolactin. d. Correct. The ovaries secrete both progesterone and estrogen. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:44 AM 28. The endocrine glands that can be examined physically are the: a. thyroid and thymus. b. testes and thyroid. c. testes and ovaries. d. thyroid and parathyroid. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The thyroid can be examined physically, but the thymus cannot. b. Correct. The testes and thyroid can be examined physically. c. Incorrect. The testes can be examined physically, but the ovaries cannot. d. Incorrect. The thyroid can be examined physically, but the parathyroid cannot. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:45 AM 29. Giantism is a result of over secretion of: a. prolactin. b. thyroxine. c. somatotropin. d. testosterone. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The over secretion of prolactin does not cause giantism. b. Incorrect. The over secretion of thyroxine does not cause giantism. c. Correct. The over secretion of growth hormone (GH or somatotropin) before puberty results in giantism. d. Incorrect. The over secretion of testosterone does not cause giantism.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:46 AM 30. Complications of acromegaly include: a. congestive heart failure. b. cystitis. c. cirrhosis. d. diabetes. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A complication of acromegaly can be congestive heart failure. b. Incorrect. Cystitis is not a complication of acromegaly. c. Incorrect. Cirrhosis is not a complication of acromegaly. d. Incorrect. Diabetes is not a complication of acromegaly. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:47 AM 31. Dwarfism, sexual underdevelopment, and mental challenges in children may be symptoms of what? a. hypothyroidism b. hyperthyroidism c. hyperpituitarism d. hypopituitarism ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. These symptoms are not related to the production of T4. b. Incorrect. These symptoms are not related to the production of T4. c. Incorrect. Hyperpituitarism would lead to giantism, not dwarfism. d. Correct. Dwarfism, sexual underdevelopment, and possible mental disability are all symptoms of hypopituitarism in children.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders a. 2–15 gallons/24 hours. b. 2–20 gallons/24 hours. c. 5–10 gallons/24 hours. d. 6–8 gallons/24 hours. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. The individual suffering from diabetes insipidus may urinate between 2 and 15 gallons of urine in 24 hours. b. Incorrect. The individual suffering from diabetes insipidus would not urinate as much as 20 gallons in 24 hours. c. Incorrect. The individual suffering from diabetes insipidus may urinate less than 5 or more than 10 gallons in 24 hours. d. Incorrect. The individual suffering from diabetes insipidus may urinate less than 6 or more than 8 gallons in 24 hours.

c. Incorrect. Sweat chloride test is not diagnostic of diabetes insipidus. d. Incorrect. Urine culture test is not diagnostic of diabetes insipidus. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 12:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:49 AM 34. Which hormone of the thyroid gland regulates metabolism? a. triiodothyronine b. calcitonin c. thyroxine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders d. melatonin ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Triiodothyronine stimulates growth and development. b. Incorrect. Calcitonin increases calcium deposits into the bones. c. Correct. Thyroxine is a hormone released by the thyroid gland to regulate metabolism. d. Incorrect. Melatonin is a hormone of the pineal gland.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:49 AM 35. The thyroid gland regulates: a. maturation in females. b. calcium in the blood. c. reproductive system in males. d. metabolism. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Ovaries regulate maturation in females. b. Incorrect. Calcium in the blood is regulated by the parathyroid gland. c. Incorrect. Testes regulate reproductive system in males. d. Correct. Metabolism is regulated by the thyroid gland. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:50 AM 36. Thyroxine cannot be produced without: a. calcium. b. iodine. c. sodium. d. magnesium. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Calcium is not needed to produce thyroxine. b. Correct. To make T4, the thyroid gland requires iodine. c. Incorrect. Sodium is not needed to produce thyroxine. d. Incorrect. Magnesium is not needed to produce thyroxine. POINTS:

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:51 AM 37. Which of the following is a goitrogenic (goiter-producing) food? a. iodized salt b. dairy products c. beef d. peanuts ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Iodine deficiency can cause goiters. b. Incorrect. Dairy products are not goitrogenic. c. Incorrect. Beef is not goitrogenic. d. Correct. Goitrogenic foods include soy, peanuts, peaches, spinach, turnips, cabbage, Brussels sprouts, seaweed, and millet.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:52 AM 38. Symptoms of overproduction of thyroxine include which of the following? a. constipation b. sluggishness c. nervousness d. chills ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Overproduction of thyroxine may lead to diarrhea, not constipation. b. Incorrect. Overproduction of thyroxine may lead to hyperactivity, not sluggishness. c. Correct. Overproduction of thyroxine may produce nervousness.

d. Incorrect. Overproduction of thyroxine causes high heat production, rather than chills.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 4:52 AM

39. Graves’ disease is caused by a(n): a. virus. b. bacterium. c. autoimmune condition. d. parasite. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A virus does not cause Graves’ disease. b. Incorrect. A bacterium does not cause Graves’ disease. c. Correct. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune condition. d. Incorrect. A parasite does not cause Graves’ disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:53 AM 40. A distinguishing characteristic of Graves’ disease is: a. dry eyes. b. red eyes. c. bulging eyes. d. yellow eyes. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Dry eyes are not a distinguishing characteristic of Graves’ disease. b. Incorrect. Red eyes are not a distinguishing characteristic of Graves’ disease. c. Correct. Bulging eyes, called exophthalmos, is a distinguishing characteristic of Graves’ disease. d. Incorrect. Yellow eyes are not a distinguishing characteristic of Graves’ disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:53 AM 41. Which of the following is accurate regarding thyroid storm? a. It is a life-threatening condition. b. It is a chronic condition. c. It affects only men. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders d. It affects only women. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Thyroid storm is a sudden, life-threatening condition. b. Incorrect. Thyroid storm is a sudden, or acute, condition. c. Incorrect. Thyroid storm does not affect only men. d. Incorrect. Thyroid storm does not affect only women.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:54 AM 42. A thyroid storm may include which of these symptoms? a. severe tachycardia b. severe bradycardia c. decrease in body temperature d. sudden weight gain ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Severe tachycardia may be seen with a thyroid storm. b. Incorrect. Severe bradycardia is not seen with a thyroid storm. c. Incorrect. Increase in body temperature is not with a thyroid storm. d. Incorrect. Weight gain is not a symptom of thyroid storm. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:55 AM 43. A simple goiter is: a. a decrease in the size of the thyroid gland. b. an increase in the size of the thyroid gland. c. a decrease in the size of the pituitary gland. d. an increase in the size of the pituitary gland. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A simple goiter is not a decrease in the size of the thyroid. b. Correct. A simple goiter is an increase in the size of the thyroid. c. Incorrect. A simple goiter does not affect the pituitary gland. d. Incorrect. A simple goiter does not affect the pituitary gland. POINTS:

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:55 AM 44. A simple goiter occurs when there is insufficient ingestion of: a. calcium. b. iron. c. iodine. d. sodium. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An insufficient intake of calcium does not produce a simple goiter. b. Incorrect. An insufficient intake of iron does not produce a simple goiter. c. Correct. A simple goiter occurs when there is insufficient ingestion of iodine. d. Incorrect. An insufficient intake of sodium does not produce a simple goiter. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:56 AM 45. Symptoms of hypothyroidism which of the following? a. thickened nails b. hyperactivity c. hair loss d. weight gain ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Thin nails is a symptom of hypothyroidism. b. Incorrect. Becoming sluggish is a symptom of hypothyroidism. c. Incorrect. Brittle hair, not hair loss, is a symptom of hypothyroidism. d. Correct. Weight gain is a symptom of hypothyroidism. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:57 AM 46. Treatment for hypothyroidism includes: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders a. radiation. b. chemotherapy. c. surgery. d. medication. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Radiation is not a treatment for hypothyroidism. b. Incorrect. Chemotherapy is not a treatment for hypothyroidism. c. Incorrect. Surgery is not a treatment for hypothyroidism. d. Correct. This condition responds well to treatment with thyroxine hormone replacement medication.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:00 AM 47. Myxedema commonly occurs in: a. middle-aged men. b. children. c. middle-aged women. d. older women. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Myxedema does not commonly occur in middle-aged men. b. Incorrect. Myxedema does not commonly occur in children. c. Correct. Myxedema is most commonly seen in middle-aged women. d. Incorrect. Myxedema does not commonly occur in older women. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:01 AM 48. Symptoms characteristic of myxedema include: a. weight loss. b. swelling of facial tissue. c. atrophied eyelids. d. a receding tongue. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Weight loss is not a symptom characteristic of myxedema. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders b. Correct. Swelling of facial tissue is a common characteristic of myxedema. c. Incorrect. Atrophied eyelids is not a symptom characteristic of myxedema. d. Incorrect. A receding tongue is not a symptom characteristic of myxedema. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:01 AM 49. Which of the following disorders leads to abnormally low blood calcium levels? a. hypercalcemia b. hypoparathyroidism c. hyperthyroidism d. hypothyroidism ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hypercalcemia is excessive blood calcium levels. b. Correct. Hypoparathyroidism is a decrease in the normal amount of parathormone secreted, which leads to abnormally low blood calcium levels. c. Incorrect. Hyperthyroidism is not related to blood calcium levels.

d. Incorrect. Hypothyroidism is not related to blood calcium levels. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:03 AM 50. Congenital hypothyroidism is also known as: a. cretinism. b. colitis. c. myxedema. d. melanoma. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Congenital hypothyroidism is also known as cretinism. b. Incorrect. Colitis is not another name for congenital hypothyroidism. c. Incorrect. Myxedema is not another name for congenital hypothyroidism. d. Incorrect. Melanoma is not another name for congenital hypothyroidism. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:03 AM 51. Alistair is looking for a doctor who is familiar with hyperpituitarism. How is hyperpituitarism evident in adults? a. several inches growth in height b. mental development delay c. large feet and hands d. sexual development delay ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Significant height changes with hyperpituitarism can only occur in children who have not yet gone through puberty. b. Incorrect. Hyperpituitarism in prepubescent children can cause mental development delays. c. Correct. Hyperpituitarism in adults results in large hands and feet as long bones can no longer grow. d. Incorrect. Sexual development delay occurs in giantism, or hyperpituitarism, in children.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:04 AM 52. Aamadu is a 71-year-old male with diabetes mellitus. He is found to be very lethargic and barely responsive when his wife comes home from work. Which emergency is Aamadu experiencing? a. diabetic coma b. insulin shock c. hypoglycemia d. hypoparathyroidism ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A diabetic coma is a slow onset and is a result of high blood sugar, causing lethargy and eventually a coma. b. Incorrect. Insulin shock occurs suddenly and includes shaking, diaphoresis, and lightheadedness. c. Incorrect. Hypoglycemia’s symptoms include hunger and shaking.

d. Incorrect. Hypoparathyroidism results in low blood calcium levels, which may lead to tetany.

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53. Alejandro is a 37-year-old male who just had a thyroidectomy. In the immediate postoperative period, he experiences tachycardia, tachypnea, and a rapidly rising temperature. Which medical emergency is Alejandro experiencing? a. hyperaldosteronism b. hyperparathyroidism c. hypothyroidism d. thyroid storm ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Symptoms of Conn’s disease, or hyperaldosteronism, include hypokalemia, alkalosis, and hypertension. b. Incorrect. Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia.

c. Incorrect. Hypothyroidism causes a slow metabolism, with fatigue, weight gain and cold intolerance. d. Correct. A thyroid storm is a medical emergency in which the patient has tachycardia, tachypnea, and inability to control body temperature.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:05 AM 54. Pich, a diabetic, has been extremely stressed lately and has not been monitoring what they have been eating. Which of the following lab tests reveal how well managed diabetes mellitus is? a. three-hour glucose tolerance test b. HbA1C c. albumin d. hemoglobin and low hematocrit ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A three-hour glucose tolerance test is best for diagnosing diabetes mellitus. b. Correct. An HbA1C shows how well blood sugars were managed over a 2–3 month period through glycosylated hemoglobin. c. Incorrect. Liver failure causes a decrease in albumin.

d. Incorrect. Low hemoglobin and low hematocrit are seen in anemia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:06 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders 55. Hadiza is a 57-year-old female with diabetes mellitus. She is diaphoretic, shaky, and lightheaded. Why is she experiencing these symptoms? a. consumed excessive amounts of carbohydrates b. drank a fruit smoothie c. excessive exercise d. forgot to take her insulin ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Excessive amounts of carbohydrates will raise blood sugar. b. Incorrect. A fruit smoothie should raise blood sugar. c. Correct. Excessive exercise, in addition to too much insulin or not enough food, can lead to insulin shock. d. Incorrect. Insulin lowers blood sugar, so forgetting to take insulin would result in a higher-than-normal blood sugar.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:06 AM 56. Larissa is pregnant with her first baby. She is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. After childbirth, what is the most likely treatment for gestational diabetes? a. diet and exercise b. oral hypoglycemic medications c. insulin d. Most cases of gestational diabetes disappear after delivery. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diet and exercise may regulate some cases of diabetes mellitus but should not be necessary after a woman with gestational diabetes goes through childbirth. b. Incorrect. Oral hypoglycemic medications are useful for many cases of diabetes mellitus. c. Incorrect. Although patients with gestational diabetes may develop diabetes mellitus later, most cases of gestational diabetes resolve with the delivery of the baby. d. Correct. Fortunately, most cases of gestational diabetes disappear after delivery, so no further treatment is needed.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders 57. Ernest has been sent to a lab to have tests run because the doctor believes he has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following tests can be used to diagnose diabetes insipidus? a. three-hour glucose tolerance test b. HbA1C c. urinalysis and water retention test d. insulin ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A three-hour glucose tolerance test diagnoses diabetes mellitus. b. Incorrect. HbA1C levels reveal how well blood sugars are managed over a 2–3 month period. c. Correct. A urinalysis and water retention test are the diagnostic tests used for diabetes insipidus. d. Incorrect. Diabetes insipidus does not involve insulin issues, although diabetes mellitus does.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of endocrine system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:08 AM 58. Which of the following causes Hashimoto’s disease? a. destruction of the thyroid gland tissue b. defect in the kidney tubules. c. iodine deficiency d. increased secretion of TSH ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Hashimoto’s disease is an autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland tissue is destroyed. b. Incorrect. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by a defect in the kidney tubules. c. Incorrect. Iodine deficiency is rare in the United States, but elsewhere in the world, it may cause goiters. d. Incorrect. Increased secretion of TSH may be seen in hypothyroidism, but it is not the cause of Hashimoto’s disease.

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Chapter 14 - Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders 59. Corey is being treated because his pancreas is not secreting glucagon properly. In which scenario is glucagon normally secreted by the pancreas? a. during intense exercise b. after eating many carbohydrates c. while drinking orange juice d. when glycosuria is present ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. When the blood sugar goes down, such as during intense exercise, glucagon is secreted by the pancreas. b. Incorrect. After eating lots of carbohydrates, any unused sugar will be stored in the liver. c. Incorrect. Orange juice will probably stimulate the secretion of insulin.

d. Incorrect. Glycosuria is the presence of glucose in the urine. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:10 AM 60. Emiliano is conducting a class to inform new patients about Graves’ disease. What causes Graves’ disease? a. overproduction of parathyroid hormone b. over secretion of hormones by the adrenal cortex c. antibodies stimulate the thyroid, leading to glandular hypertrophy d. undersecretion of hormones by the adrenal cortex ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia. b. Incorrect. Hyperadrenalism, or over secretion of hormones by the adrenal cortex, includes several syndromes. c. Correct. Graves’ disease in an autoimmune disease in which antibodies stimulate the thyroid, leading to glandular hypertrophy. d. Incorrect. Undersecretion of hormones by the adrenal cortex is called Addison’s disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.5 - Identify common disorders of the endocrine system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:10 AM

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders 1. What provides protection and support for the central nervous system? a. cranial nerves b. the cerebellum c. the brain stem d. the meninges ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The cranial nerves are in the peripheral nervous system. b. Incorrect. The cerebellum is important in coordination and fine motor movements. c. Incorrect. The brain stem is responsible for transmitting impulses that control respiration, swallowing, wakefulness, and other activities. d. Correct. The function of the meninges is protection and support for the system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:07 AM 2. What system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response? a. the sympathetic system b. the parasympathetic system c. the cranial nerves d. the central nervous system ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. This response is controlled by the other part of the ANS. b. Correct. The sympathetic system is responsible for the “fight or flight” response. c. Incorrect. This response is controlled by part of the ANS. d. Incorrect. This response is controlled by part of the ANS. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:09 AM 3. What diagnostic test determines the presence of bacteria, leukocytes, red blood cells, neoplastic cells, and other microorganisms? a. complete blood count b. urinalysis c. motor testing d. analysis of the cerebrospinal fluid ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. This does not describe a CBC. b. Incorrect. A urinalysis would not provide this information. c. Incorrect. Motor testing includes checking reflexes, gait, and posture. d. Correct. Cerebrospinal fluid is examined under a microscope to determine the presence of bacteria, leukocytes, red blood cells, neoplastic cells, and other microorganisms.

d. Incorrect. Meningitis is inflammation of the meninges, the covering of the brain and spinal cord.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:11 AM 5. A lumbar puncture is a diagnostic test done to diagnose what? a. cerebrovascular accident b. meningitis c. rabies d. shingles ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diagnosis of CVA is made and confirmed by physical examination, EEG, and CT or MRI scan. b. Correct. Diagnosis of meningitis is usually confirmed by finding the causative agent in the spinal fluid obtained by lumbar puncture. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Diagnosis of rabies is based on a history and physical exam, observing for symptoms of muscle spasms, stiffness, and pain. d. Incorrect. Diagnosis of shingles is made on the basis of the appearance of lesions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:12 AM 6. Which of the following best describes poliomyelitis? a. It is a bacterial infection of the nerve tissue. b. It is a viral infection of the nerve tissue. c. It is a bacterial infection affecting the brain and spinal cord. d. It is a viral infection affecting the brain and spinal cord. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. It is not bacterial. b. Incorrect. It is not an infection of the nerve tissue. c. Incorrect. It is viral, not bacterial. d. Correct. Poliomyelitis is a viral infection affecting the brain and spinal cord. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:13 AM 7. What has led to the virtual elimination of polio in the United States? a. better nutrition b. clean water c. aggressive antibiotic treatment d. immunization programs ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Nutrition is not related to the elimination of polio. b. Incorrect. Clean water is not related to the elimination of polio. c. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not related to the elimination of polio. d. Correct. A vaccine was developed in the 1950s. Immunization programs since that time have virtually eliminated the disease in the United States.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:14 AM 8. What is spread by oropharyngeal secretions and infected feces? a. rabies b. poliomyelitis c. encephalitis d. meningitis ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Rabies can be transmitted to humans through a bite by an infected animal. b. Correct. Poliomyelitis is spread by oropharyngeal secretions and infected feces. c. Incorrect. Encephalitis is caused by a variety of microorganisms, including bacteria and viruses, or as a complication of measles, chicken pox, or mumps. d. Incorrect. Meningitis can be caused by anything that causes an inflammatory response, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins such as lead and arsenic.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:15 AM 9. Diagnosis of which of the following can be confirmed by culturing the virus from the feces? a. poliomyelitis b. rabies c. shingles d. meningitis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Diagnosis of poliomyelitis is confirmed by culturing the virus from the throat, feces, and spinal fluid. b. Incorrect. Laboratory tests are not helpful with the diagnosis of rabies.

c. Incorrect. Shingles can be confirmed by a viral culture or blood test. d. Incorrect. Diagnosis of poliomyelitis is confirmed by culturing the virus from the spinal fluid.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 12:16 AM

10. Lockjaw is the first symptom of what? a. rabies b. shingles c. encephalitis d. tetanus ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lockjaw is not a symptom of rabies. b. Incorrect. Lockjaw is not a symptom of shingles. c. Incorrect. Symptoms of encephalitis include a stiff neck and back, but not lockjaw. d. Correct. The first symptom of tetanus is lockjaw.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:17 AM 11. What is the incubation time for rabies? a. one to three days b. two to five days c. two to five weeks d. one to three months ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The incubation time is longer than just days. b. Incorrect. Death usually occurs with two to five days after the onset of symptoms. c. Incorrect. The incubation time is more than one to three weeks.

d. Correct. Incubation time is from one to three months. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 3:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:21 AM 12. What are transient ischemic attacks? a. mini-strokes b. convulsions Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders c. embolisms d. artery ruptures ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are mild mini-strokes. b. Incorrect. TIAs are not convulsions. c. Incorrect. Cerebral embolism can be a cause of stroke, or CVA. d. Incorrect. Cerebral hemorrhage, or rupture of an artery, can be a cause of stroke.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:22 AM 13. What is the best preventive measure for transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)? a. high protein diet b. not smoking c. reduced alcohol consumption d. low-carbohydrate diet ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diet is not linked to prevention of TIAs. b. Correct. The best preventive measure for transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) is not to smoke. c. Incorrect. Alcohol consumption is not linked to prevention of TIAs.

d. Incorrect. Diet is not linked to prevention of TIAs. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:23 AM 14. A visual aura is a symptom of what type of headache? a. tension b. cluster headache c. migraine headache d. post-lumbar puncture ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A visual aura is not a symptom of a tension headache. b. Incorrect. A visual aura is not a symptom of a cluster headache. c. Correct. Individuals affected by migraines can experience a visual aura, a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders sensation that precedes the event, including flashing light, dim vision, or photophobia. d. Incorrect. A visual aura is not a symptom of a post-lumbar puncture headache.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:24 AM 15. What is one of the first changes an aging individual will notice as one of the effects of aging on the nervous system? a. sleep patterns b. touch perception c. vision ability d. taste sensation ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Sleep patterns are usually affected in the aging process, but is not identified as the first change noticed. b. Incorrect. General touch perception is somewhat diminished but is not identified as the first change noticed. c. Correct. Vision ability is one of the first changes the individual often notices.

d. Incorrect. Taste sensation also can diminish over time, but is not identified as the first change noticed.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the nervous system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:25 AM 16. Why might an older individual have difficulty distinguishing temperature changes? a. Touch perception is diminished. b. There is a loss of visual acuity. c. Taste sensation is sharpened. d. Sleep patterns are altered. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. General touch perception is somewhat diminished, too, so the individual might have difficulty distinguishing temperature changes and pain stimuli. b. Incorrect. There is a loss of visual acuity, but this doesn’t lead to difficulty in distinguishing temperature changes c. Incorrect. Taste sensation is diminished, but this doesn’t lead to difficulty in distinguishing temperature changes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Sleep patterns are altered, but this doesn’t lead to difficulty in distinguishing temperature changes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the nervous system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:57 AM 17. With aging, there is a decrease in nervous system activity in the brain and spinal cord due to what? a. shrinkage of the temporal lobe b. expansion of the temporal lobe c. shrinkage of the hypothalamus d. expansion of the hypothalamus ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The decrease in activity is not related to the temporal lobe. b. Incorrect. The decrease in activity is due to a shrinkage, not an expansion. c. Correct. With aging, there is a decrease in nervous system activity in the brain and spinal cord due to a loss of neurons and shrinkage of the hypothalamus. d. Incorrect. The decrease in activity is due to a shrinkage, not an expansion.

d. Incorrect. The abducens nerve is responsible for the movement of the eyeball. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:02 AM 19. Which of the following symptoms would indicate a disturbance in sensory function? a. stiffness in the neck b. prolonged drowsiness c. inability to speak d. extreme forgetfulness ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Stiffness in the neck would indicate a disturbance in motor function. b. Incorrect. Prolonged drowsiness indicates alteration in mental alertness or cognitive function. c. Correct. Inability to speak would indicate a disturbance in sensory function.

d. Incorrect. Extreme forgetfulness indicates alteration in mental alertness or cognitive function.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:03 AM 20. Which of the following are active in controlling the body’s sleep–wake pattern? a. cerebrum and cerebellum b. cerebellum and hypothalamus c. hypothalamus and thalamus d. pons and medulla ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The body’s sleep–wake pattern is controlled by parts of the cerebrum. b. Incorrect. The cerebellum is important in coordination and fine motor movements. c. Correct. The hypothalamus and thalamus are active in controlling the body’s sleep–wake pattern and are involved in the actions of the hypophysis (pituitary) gland. d. Incorrect. Pons and medulla are parts of the brain stem; that is not where this activity takes place.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders 21. The parts of the brainstem include which of the following? a. the cerebrum b. the cerebellum c. the frontal lobe d. the pons ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The cerebrum is part of the brain, but not the brainstem. b. Incorrect. The cerebellum is part of the brain, but not the brainstem. c. Incorrect. The frontal lobe is part of the brain, but not the brainstem. d. Correct. The brainstem is made up of the midbrain, pons, and medulla. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:05 AM 22. Which of the following is the outer layer of the meninges? a. the dura mater b. the arachnoid c. the pia mater d. the medulla ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The dura mater is the outer layer. b. Incorrect. The arachnoid mater is the middle layer. c. Incorrect. The pia mater is the inner layer. d. Incorrect. The medulla is a part of the brainstem. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:07 AM 23. Common signs and symptoms of the nervous system indicating a disturbance in motor function include which of the following? a. the ability to move all body parts b. visual difficulties c. seizures or convulsions d. stupor, unconsciousness, or coma ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The common signs and symptoms of the nervous system indicating a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders disturbance in motor function do not include the ability to move all body parts, as this would be a normal functioning. b. Incorrect. Visual difficulties would indicate a disturbance in sensory function.

c. Correct. Seizures or convulsions would be a sign or symptom indicating a problem with the nervous system related to disturbance in motor function. d. Incorrect. Stupor, unconsciousness, or coma would indicate an alteration in mental alertness or cognitive function.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:07 AM 24. Symptoms of encephalitis include which of the following? a. high blood pressure b. low body temperature c. a stiff neck and back d. increased thirst ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. High blood pressure is not a symptom of encephalitis. b. Incorrect. An elevated temperature is a symptom of encephalitis. c. Correct. A stiff neck and back is a symptom of encephalitis. d. Incorrect. Increased thirst is not a symptom of encephalitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:08 AM 25. Encephalitis may be spread by: a. mosquitoes. b. bees. c. wood ticks. d. houseflies. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Encephalitis is spread by mosquitoes. b. Incorrect. Encephalitis is not spread by bees. c. Incorrect. Encephalitis is not spread by wood ticks. d. Incorrect. Encephalitis is not spread by houseflies. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:09 AM 26. What is the most common cause of meningitis? a. viruses b. fungi c. toxin d. bacteria ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Viruses may cause meningitis, but that is not the most common cause. b. Incorrect. Fungi may cause meningitis, but that is not the most common cause.

c. Incorrect. Toxins may cause meningitis, but that is not the most common cause. d. Correct. The most common cause of meningitis is bacterial invasion by Neisseria meningitides.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:10 AM 27. Symptoms of poliomyelitis include: a. jaw stiffness. b. diarrhea. c. muscle weakness. d. convulsions. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Neck, not jaw, stiffness may be a symptom of poliomyelitis. b. Incorrect. Nausea and vomiting may be a symptom of poliomyelitis, but not diarrhea. c. Correct. Muscle weakness may be a symptom of poliomyelitis.

d. Incorrect. Convulsions are not a symptom of poliomyelitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/6/2022 4:55 AM 11/30/2022 1:11 AM

28. Symptoms of meningitis include: a. low-grade fever. b. nuchal rigidity. c. mental confusion. d. nausea and vomiting. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Sudden onset of high fever is a symptom of meningitis, not low-grade fever. b. Correct. Nuchal rigidity is a symptom of meningitis.

c. Incorrect. Mental confusion is a symptom of encephalitis, not of meningitis. d. Incorrect. Nausea and vomiting are symptoms of poliomyelitis, not of meningitis.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders 30. Symptoms of rabies include: a. lockjaw. b. neck stiffness. c. convulsions. d. nausea and vomiting. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Lockjaw is a symptom of tetanus, not rabies. b. Incorrect. Neck stiffness is a symptom of other nervous system disorders, but not rabies. c. Correct. Convulsions are a symptom of rabies.

d. Incorrect. Nausea and vomiting are symptoms of other nervous system disorders, but not rabies.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 4:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:14 AM 31. Shingles occurs in: a. adults. b. children. c. infants. d. teenagers. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Shingles occurs in adults with limited immunity. b. Incorrect. Shingles does not occur in children. c. Incorrect. Shingles does not occur in infants. d. Incorrect. Shingles does not occur in teenagers.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:15 AM 32. How long might symptoms of shingles last? a. 10 days to several weeks b. 14 to 30 days c. 5 days to 2 weeks d. 7 to 21 days Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Symptoms of shingles may last 10 days to several weeks. b. Incorrect. A span of 14 to 30 days is not the timeframe for the symptoms. c. Incorrect. A span of 5 days to 2 weeks is not the timeframe for the symptoms. d. Incorrect. A span of 7 to 21 days is not the timeframe for the symptoms.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:16 AM 33. Diagnosis of shingles is confirmed by: a. a CAT scan. b. a viral culture. c. a spinal tap. d. an electroencephalogram. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A CAT scan is not done to confirm shingles. b. Correct. A viral culture is done to confirm shingles. c. Incorrect. A spinal tap is not done to confirm shingles. d. Incorrect. An electroencephalogram is not done to confirm shingles. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:17 AM 34. Symptoms of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) include: a. weakness of arm or leg, or both. b. nausea and vomiting. c. neck stiffness. d. sudden onset of high fever. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Weakness of arm or leg, or both, slurred speech, and mild loss of consciousness are all symptoms of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). b. Incorrect. Nausea and vomiting are symptoms of other nervous system disorders, but not TIAs. c. Incorrect. Neck stiffness is a symptom of other nervous system disorders, but not TIAs. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Sudden onset of high fever is a symptom of meningitis, not TIAs. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:18 AM 35. Functional disorders of the nervous system include which of the following? a. meningitis b. cerebrovascular accident c. epilepsy d. shingles ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Meningitis is an infectious disease of the nervous system. b. Incorrect. Cerebrovascular accident is a vascular disorder. c. Correct. Functional disorders of the nervous system include degenerative disk disease, headache, epilepsy, and Bell’s palsy. d. Incorrect. Shingles is an infectious disease of the nervous system.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:19 AM 36. Common symptoms of degenerative disk disease include: a. normal activity. b. radiating pain down one or both legs. c. headache. d. slurred speech. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Normal activity does not indicate degenerative disk disease. b. Correct. Radiating pain down one or both legs is a symptom of degenerative disk disease. c. Incorrect. Headache is not a symptom of degenerative disk disease.

d. Incorrect. Slurred speech is not a symptom of degenerative disk disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/6/2022 5:24 AM 11/30/2022 1:20 AM

37. Diagnosis of degenerative disk disease includes which of the following? a. a myelogram b. a spinal tap c. a CBC d. a neurologic exam ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Diagnosis is made on the basis of clinical history, X-ray, myelography, CT, or MRI. b. Incorrect. A spinal tap is not done to diagnose degenerative disk disease.

c. Incorrect. A CBC test is not done to diagnose degenerative disk disease. d. Incorrect. A neurologic exam is not used to diagnose degenerative disk disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:21 AM 38. What type of surgery is often the treatment of choice for degenerative disk disease? a. surgery to free the nerve root b. surgery to fuse the vertebrae c. joint replacement d. laminectomy ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. In severe cases, surgery to fuse the vertebrae and free the nerve root can be performed. b. Incorrect. In severe cases, surgery to fuse the vertebrae and free the nerve root can be performed. c. Incorrect. Joint replacement surgery is not a treatment for degenerative disk disease. d. Correct. A laminectomy, surgery to remove part of the vertebrae and widen the nerve root opening, can be the treatment of choice.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders 39. Cephalalgia is another name for what disorder? a. anemia b. headaches c. hypertension d. sinusitis ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Anemia may have cephalalgia as a symptom, but other disorders are also listed. b. Correct. Headache, or cephalalgia is one of the most common disorders of humans. c. Incorrect. Hypertension may have cephalalgia as a symptom, but other disorders are also listed. d. Incorrect. Sinusitis may have cephalalgia as a symptom.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.1 - Define the terminology common to the nervous system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:23 AM 40. Pain is typically in the occipital area with what type of headache? a. tension b. constant c. migraine d. cluster ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Pain is typically in the occipital area with a tension headache. b. Incorrect. Constant is a description used for those who suffer from a headache, not a type of headache. c. Incorrect. A migraine is a severe, incapacitating headache commonly accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. d. Incorrect. With a cluster headache, the pain is generally a severe throbbing pain behind the nose and one eye.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:24 AM 41. In what type of headache is the pain generally a severe throbbing pain behind the nose and one eye? a. tension b. cluster Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders c. migraine d. post-lumbar puncture ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Pain is typically in the occipital area with a tension headache. b. Correct. With a cluster headache, the pain is generally a severe throbbing pain behind the nose and one eye. c. Incorrect. A migraine is a severe, incapacitating headache commonly accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. d. Incorrect. This type of pain is not symptomatic of a post-lumbar puncture headache.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:24 AM 42. What type of epileptic seizures consist of a brief change in the level of consciousness without convulsions? a. generalized onset b. grand mal c. focal onset d. status epilepticus ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Generalized onset seizures (formerly grand mal/generalized) are characterized by convulsions, loss of consciousness, urinary and fecal incontinence, and tongue biting. b. Incorrect. Generalized onset seizures (formerly grand mal/generalized) are characterized by convulsions, loss of consciousness, urinary and fecal incontinence, and tongue biting. c. Correct. Focal onset seizures consist of a brief change in the level of consciousness without convulsions. d. Incorrect. Status epilepticus is a life-threatening event, a state of continued convulsive seizure with no recovery of consciousness.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:25 AM 43. Which of the following diagnostic tests for epilepsy can reveal alteration in blood flow? a. EEG b. cerebral angiograms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders c. CT d. blood tests ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. EEG can reveal altered brain activity. b. Correct. Cerebral angiograms can reveal alteration in blood flow. c. Incorrect. CT can indicate alteration in brain structure, including tumors. d. Incorrect. Blood tests can be performed to indicate disorders of hypoglycemia and drug or alcohol toxicity.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:26 AM 44. Causes of epilepsy include: a. animal bite. b. a neurological disease. c. mosquito bite. d. viral infection. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Epilepsy is a chronic disease of the brain; it is not contracted through animal bites.

b. Correct. Brain tumors, neurological disease, and scar tissue in the brain all can be causes of epilepsy. c. Incorrect. Epilepsy is a chronic disease of the brain; it is not contracted through mosquito bites. d. Incorrect. Epilepsy is a chronic disease of the brain, not a viral infection.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 5:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:27 AM 45. Bell’s palsy is unilateral paralysis of the face caused by paralysis of which facial nerve? a. fifth cranial nerve b. sixth cranial nerve c. seventh cranial nerve d. eighth cranial nerve ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The fifth cranial nerve does not cause Bell’s palsy. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. The sixth cranial nerve does not cause Bell’s palsy. c. Correct. The seventh cranial nerve is the facial nerve and causes Bell’s palsy. d. Incorrect. The eighth cranial nerve does not cause Bell’s palsy. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 6:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:28 AM 46. Symptoms of Bell’s palsy include: a. high fever. b. inability to close the affected eye. c. severe headache. d. immobility of the hands. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. High fever is not symptom of Bell’s palsy, but other symptoms are listed. b. Correct. Drooling of saliva, inability to close the affected eye, and drooping weakness of the eyes and mouth are all symptoms of Bell’s palsy. c. Incorrect. Headache is not a symptom of Bell’s palsy.

d. Incorrect. Immobility of the hands is a symptom of Parkinson’s, not of Bell’s palsy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 6:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:29 AM 47. Treatment for Bell’s palsy includes: a. antibiotics. b. analgesics. c. antihypertensives. d. antacids. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antibiotics is not a treatment for Bell’s palsy. b. Correct. Analgesics is a treatment for Bell’s palsy. c. Incorrect. Antihypertensives is not a treatment for Bell’s palsy. d. Incorrect. Antacids is not a treatment for Bell’s palsy. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 6:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:30 AM 48. Changes in memory, personality, and judgment, along with irritability, are all symptoms of what? a. head trauma dementia b. substance-induced dementia c. insomnia d. vascular dementia ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Symptoms of head trauma dementia include a prolonged or permanent decrease in mental intellect, cognitive function, or both. b. Incorrect. Symptoms of substance-induced dementia include mental impairment and decreased cognitive ability. c. Incorrect. The symptom of insomnia is sleeplessness, often leading to fatigue and irritability. d. Correct. Changes in memory, personality, and judgment, along with irritability all may be symptoms of vascular dementia.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 6:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:32 AM 50. What is the diagnostic definition of insomnia? a. difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep b. sleeplessness for at least one week that interferes with one’s regular habits c. more than five periods of breathlessness for every hour of sleep d. sleeplessness for more than one month that interferes with one’s regular habits ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Insomnia is more serious than just difficulty falling or staying asleep. b. Incorrect. The sleeplessness lasts longer than one week. c. Incorrect. This is the definition of sleep apnea, not insomnia. d. Correct. The diagnostic definition of insomnia is sleeplessness for more than one month that is interfering with the individual’s social or work habits.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:34 AM 51. Which of the following procedures is used to diagnose encephalitis? a. electroencephalogram (EEG) b. electromyography c. lumbar puncture d. carotid arteriogram ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An EEG is helpful to diagnose epilepsy by revealing abnormal brain activity.

b. Incorrect. Electromyography, which evaluates muscle weakness, may be used to confirm Bell’s palsy. c. Correct. Cerebrospinal fluid, withdrawn after a lumbar puncture, is tested to confirm encephalitis. d. Incorrect. Carotid arteriograms can evaluate the carotid arteries for plaque or narrowing.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders 52. Which of the following is a medical emergency? a. status epilepticus b. Bell’s palsy c. shingles d. insomnia ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Status epilepticus is a state of continual seizures, leading to cerebral anoxia and maybe even death. b. Incorrect. Bell’s palsy causes unilateral paralysis of the face, and it has a good prognosis. c. Incorrect. Shingles is an acute viral disease, characterized by an itchy, painful rash. d. Incorrect. Insomnia is the feeling or reality of not enough sleep.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:36 AM 53. Which statement is true regarding brain contusions? a. A contusion is less serious than a concussion. b. A contusion should be treated with sedatives. c. A contusion is often seen with skull fractures. d. A patient with a contusion should be observed at home and kept in a quiet place. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A concussion is less serious than a contusion. b. Incorrect. Because sedatives can mask worsening symptoms, they should be avoided in patients with contusions. c. Correct. Skull fractures are often present in brain contusions.

d. Incorrect. A patient with a contusion should be kept in a hospital for continuous monitoring.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.1 - Define the terminology common to the nervous system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:36 AM 54. Bertha is an 87-year-old female who is found by her son, crumpled at the bottom of the basement steps. She is eventually diagnosed with a subdural hematoma. How might this be treated? a. radiation therapy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders b. craniotomy c. continuous positive airway pressure d. carotid endarterectomy ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Primary or secondary malignant brain tumors may be treated with radiation therapy. b. Correct. Drilling holes into the skull to drain blood (a craniotomy) may be used to treat a subdural hematoma. c. Incorrect. CPAP devices are used to treat sleep apnea.

d. Incorrect. Plaque buildup in the carotid arteries can be removed through carotid endarterectomy to improve blood flow to the brain.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:37 AM 55. In which disease is the feeling of lower extremity sensory neurons maintained? a. quadriplegia b. paraplegia c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) d. Guillain–Barré syndrome ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Quadriplegia results in the loss of feeling in all four extremities. b. Incorrect. Paraplegia affects the feeling of the lower extremities. c. Correct. ALS is unique because, while muscle movement is impaired, the feeling of sensory nerves is preserved.

d. Incorrect. Guillain–Barré syndrome is possibly an autoimmune disease affecting the spinal nerves which causes paresthesia and paralysis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:38 AM 56. Which symptoms are caused by demyelinating lesions? a. loss of memory, chorea, and moody behavior b. impaired muscle movement and unaffected mental function c. complete loss of bowel, bladder, and sexual function d. muscle weakness, diplopia, and paresthesia ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Huntington’s disease is a progressive degeneration of the brain, which includes symptoms such as loss of memory, chorea, and moody behavior. b. Incorrect. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) impairs muscle movement but does not affect mental function. c. Incorrect. Quadriplegia, which can result from injury to the cervical spine, results in a complete loss of bowel, bladder, and sexual function. d. Correct. Muscle weakness, diplopia and paresthesia are symptoms associated with demyelinated diseases such as multiple sclerosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:39 AM 57. Which of the following symptoms are associated with increased intracranial pressure? a. paralysis of the lower extremities b. slow speech, expressionless facial appearance, and fine tremor in hands c. nausea, vomiting, and loss of consciousness d. drooling, unblinking eye, and facial drooping ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Paralysis of the lower extremities can occur after an injury to the spinal cord.

b. Incorrect. Parkinson’s disease results in slow speech, a “frozen” facial appearance, and a fine tremor in the hands. c. Correct. Head injuries can affect intracranial pressure quickly, with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. d. Incorrect. Bell’s palsy causes unilateral paralysis of the face, which causes drooling, inability to close the eye on the affected side, and facial drooping.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common nervous system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:39 AM 58. Which of the following is the most common cause of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? a. blood pressure of 140/90 b. cerebral embolus c. aneurysm in the brain d. cerebral thrombus ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Very high blood pressure can cause a cerebral hemorrhage, which leads to a CVA. b. Incorrect. A cerebral embolus is a blood clot that travels to the brain from a different location. c. Incorrect. An aneurysm in the brain can rupture suddenly and lead to a CVA.

d. Correct. Cerebral thrombus is the most common cause of CVAs, usually due to clot formation in an area of arteriosclerosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:40 AM 59. Which statement is true about shingles and/or chicken pox? a. Chicken pox flares up during periods of stress. b. Shingles appears in young patients with little or no immunity to the herpes zoster virus. c. Shingles can be treated by antiviral medications. d. Vaccines to prevent chicken pox are available for adults 50 and older. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Shingles flares up during periods of stress, or with age, or immunosuppression. b. Incorrect. Shingles appears in older patients who have limited immunity to the herpes zoster virus. c. Correct. Shingles can be treated by antiviral medications, as well as antibiotics and antipruritics. d. Incorrect. Vaccines to prevent shingles are available for adults 50 and older.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.5 - Identify common disorders of the nervous system. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 7:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:41 AM 60. Kyle is a 5-year-old male who has a high fever, severe headache, and a stiff neck. What could have caused his symptoms? a. shingles b. cerebrovascular accident c. meningitis d. rabies ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Shingles appears in adults with limited immunity to the herpes zoster virus.

b. Incorrect. A cerebrovascular accident causes unilateral weakness, slurred speech or vision, and dysphasia. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Nervous System Diseases and Disorders c. Correct. Meningitis, a serious inflammation of the coverings of the brain, can cause high fevers, severe headaches, and stiff neck. d. Incorrect. Rabies is caused by the bite of an infected animal, with muscle spasms, stiffness, and pain.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders 1. What is the function of conjunctivae? a. protect the eye from foreign objects b. clean the eye c. moisten the eye d. regulate light entering the eye ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Conjunctivae are clear transparent membranes that protect the eye from foreign objects. b. Incorrect. Lacrimal glands clean and moisten the eye.

c. Incorrect. Lacrimal glands clean and moisten the eye. d. Incorrect. Eyelids regulate light entering the eye. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:52 AM 2. What do lacrimal glands do? a. protect the eye from foreign objects b. clean and moisten the eye c. regulate light entering the eye d. hold the eyeball in place ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Conjunctivae protect the eye from foreign objects b. Correct. Lacrimal glands clean and moisten the eye. c. Incorrect. Eyelids regulate light entering the eye. d. Incorrect. Muscles hold the eyeball in place. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:53 AM 3. What part of the eye do impulses travel from, through the optic nerves to the brain, to cause the mechanism of vision to occur? a. lens b. iris c. pupil d. retina ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The mechanism of vision does not occur after impulses leave the lens. b. Incorrect. The mechanism of vision does not occur after impulses leave the iris.

c. Incorrect. The mechanism of vision does not occur after impulses leave the pupil. d. Correct. The mechanism of vision occurs after impulses leave the retina and travel through the optic nerves to the brain.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:54 AM 4. What part of the ear is made mostly of cartilaginous tissue? a. the pinna b. the vestibule c. the malleus d. the cochlea ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The pinna is made mostly of cartilaginous tissue. b. Incorrect. The vestibule is part of the inner ear. c. Incorrect. The malleus is a bone in the middle ear. d. Incorrect. The cochlea is the organ of hearing in the inner ear. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:55 AM 5. What is the organ of hearing? a. the cochlea b. the pinna c. the ear d. the vestibule ANSWER: a FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. The cochlea is the organ of hearing in the inner ear. b. Incorrect. The pinna is in the external ear and is made mostly of cartilaginous tissue.

c. Incorrect. The ear has many parts, only one of which is the organ of hearing. d. Incorrect. The vestibule is part of the inner ear responsible for equilibrium. POINTS:

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1 - Define the terminology common to the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:55 AM 6. About how long is the external auditory canal? a. 2 inches b. 1 inch c. 1/2 inch d. 1/4 inch ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The canal is shorter than 2 inches. b. Correct. The external auditory canal is about 1 inch in length and contains glands that produce hair and wax (cerumen). c. Incorrect. It is longer than 1/2 inch.

d. Incorrect. It is longer than 1/4 inch. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:56 AM 7. What is the most common problem of the eyes? a. decreased visual acuity b. clouding of the lens c. increased eye pressure d. altered eye movement ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The most common problem of the eyes is decreased visual acuity, the ability to see clearly. b. Incorrect. Clouding of the lens, or cataract, is not the most common eye problem. c. Incorrect. Increased eye pressure, or glaucoma, is not the most common eye problem. d. Incorrect. Altered eye movement is not the most common problem of the eyes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:57 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders 8. Which of the following disorders of the eye is hereditary? a. color blindness b. diabetic retinopathy c. glaucoma d. macular degeneration ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Color blindness is a hereditary disorder of the eyes. b. Incorrect. Diabetic retinopathy is a secondary disease and is not hereditary. c. Incorrect. Glaucoma is not hereditary. d. Incorrect. Macular degeneration is a degenerative disorder and is not hereditary.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:58 AM 9. Approximately what fraction of the population is affected by refractive disorders? a. one-fourth b. one-third c. one-half d. two-thirds ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The fraction is larger than one-fourth. b. Correct. Approximately one-third of the population is affected by refractive errors. c. Incorrect. The fraction is smaller than one-half.

d. Incorrect. The fraction is smaller than two-thirds. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:59 AM 10. The herpes simplex virus secondary to an upper respiratory infection is a common cause of what eye disorder? a. keratitis b. blepharitis c. conjunctivitis d. hordeolum ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The herpes simplex virus secondary to an upper respiratory infection is Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders a common cause of keratitis. b. Incorrect. The herpes simplex virus is not a cause of blepharitis.

c. Incorrect. The herpes simplex virus is not a cause of conjunctivitis. d. Incorrect. The herpes simplex virus is not a cause of hordeolum. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:00 AM 11. A stye is an inflammatory infection of what? a. a sebaceous gland of the eyelid b. the cornea c. the conjunctiva d. middle ear ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A stye is an inflammatory infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid. b. Incorrect. Keratitis is inflammation of the cornea. c. Incorrect. Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the pink membrane lining the inner eyelids. d. Incorrect. A stye is an inflammation of part of the eye, not the ear.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:01 AM 12. Which of the following is accurate regarding the prevention of mastoiditis? a. Reducing the amount of noise is beneficial. b. Drops of mineral oil in the ear can be used as a preventive measure. c. Mastoiditis is a hereditary condition and not preventable. d. Proper treatment of ear infections is a preventive measure. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Noise reduction and ear protection are beneficial in preventing sensorineural deafness. b. Incorrect. Drops of mineral oil are a preventive measure for impacted cerumen.

c. Incorrect. Mastoiditis is not hereditary. d. Correct. Prompt and thorough treatment of ear infections reduces the risk of developing mastoiditis.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:02 AM 13. What is presbycusis? a. inflammation in the middle ear b. an inflammation of the external ear canal c. deafness due to damage to the cochlea or the auditory nerve d. progressive sensory hearing loss related to aging ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Otitis media is inflammation in the middle ear. b. Incorrect. Otitis externa, also called swimmer’s ear or external otitis, is an inflammation of the external ear canal. c. Incorrect. Sensorineural deafness is a type of sensory deafness due to damage to the cochlea or the auditory nerve. d. Correct. Presbycusis is progressive sensory hearing loss related to aging.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the eye and ear and the common disorders associated with aging of these organs. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:03 AM 14. What procedure is the surgical removal of fluid from the middle ear? a. mastoidectomy b. tympanoplasty c. tympanostomy d. myringotomy ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Mastoidectomy is a surgical procedure to treat sever or chronic mastoiditis. b. Incorrect. Tympanoplasty is the procedure of placing ear tubes.

c. Incorrect. Tympanostomy tubes can be inserted to relieve pressure. d. Correct. Chronic otitis media, both forms, might need surgical removal of fluid by myringotomy.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 2:04 AM

15. How is impacted cerumen diagnosed? a. dilated eye exam b. Ishihara color plate c. bacterial cultures d. ontological examination ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Impacted cerumen is a disorder of the ears, not the eyes. b. Incorrect. Ishihara color plate is used to diagnose color blindness. c. Incorrect. Bacterial cultures are not required to diagnose impacted cerumen. d. Correct. An otologic examination will confirm the diagnosis of impacted cerumen.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:05 AM 16. Prevention of what disorder is directed toward controlling blood sugar levels? a. macular degeneration b. glaucoma c. cataract d. diabetic retinopathy ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Macular degeneration is a degenerative disease unrelated to blood sugar. b. Incorrect. Glaucoma is unrelated to blood sugar.

c. Incorrect. Cataracts are unrelated to blood sugar. d. Correct. Prevention is directed toward controlling blood sugar levels to reduce the retinopathy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:06 AM 17. What procedure is used to discover vessel disease and problems with blood flow to the eye? a. tonometry b. audiometry Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders c. radial keratotomy d. angiography ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Tonometry measures the pressure inside the eye. b. Incorrect. Audiometry is the basic test for hearing. c. Incorrect. Radial keratotomy is a treatment for myopia. d. Correct. Angiography is used to discover vessel disease and problems with blood flow to the eye.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:06 AM 18. What is the space between the iris and lens that is filled with aqueous humor? a. choroid layer b. posterior cavity c. anterior chamber d. posterior chamber ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The choroid layer is the layer containing blood vessels between the sclera and retina.

b. Incorrect. The posterior cavity is the space in the posterior two-thirds of the eyeball filled with a thick, gelatinous material called vitreous humor. c. Incorrect. The anterior chamber is space between the cornea and iris/pupil that is filled with clear fluid called aqueous humor. d. Correct. The posterior chamber is the space between the iris and lens that is filled with aqueous humor.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:35 AM 19. What is the area containing blood vessels between the sclera and retina? a. choroid layer b. posterior cavity c. anterior chamber d. posterior chamber ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The choroid layer is the layer containing blood vessels between the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders sclera and retina. b. Incorrect. The posterior cavity is the space in the posterior two-thirds of the eyeball filled with a thick, gelatinous material called vitreous humor. c. Incorrect. The anterior chamber is space between the cornea and iris/pupil that is filled with clear fluid called aqueous humor. d. Incorrect. The posterior chamber is the space between the iris and lens that is filled with aqueous humor.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:10 AM 20. What is the inner layer of the posterior part of the eye that receives the light rays? a. choroid layer b. posterior sclera c. anterior chamber d. retina ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The choroid layer is the layer containing blood vessels between the sclera and retina.

b. Incorrect. The posterior sclera is the white opaque layer covering the posterior part of the eyeball. c. Incorrect. The anterior chamber is space between the cornea and iris/pupil that is filled with clear fluid called aqueous humor. d. Correct. The retina is the inner layer of the posterior part of the eye that receives the light rays.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:11 AM 21. Which of the following is one of the functions of the eyelids? a. regulate light entering the eye b. clean the eye c. move the eye up and down d. hold the eyeball in place ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Regulating light entering the eye, protecting the eye, and lubricating the eye are all functions of the eyelids. b. Incorrect. Lacrimal glands clean the eye.

c. Incorrect. Superior and inferior rectus muscles move the eye up and down. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Muscles are responsible for holding the eyeball in place. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:12 AM 22. The intraocular structures of the eye include which of the following? a. conjunctivae b. eyelid c. iris d. inferior oblique ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The conjunctivae are an extraocular structure of the eye. b. Incorrect. The eyelid is an extraocular structure of the eye. c. Correct. The iris is an intraocular structure of the eye. d. Incorrect. The inferior oblique is an extraocular structure of the eye. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:13 AM 23. Which of the following is in the external ear? a. malleus b. stirrup c. stapes d. pinna ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The malleus is in the middle ear. b. Incorrect. The stirrup, or stapes, is in the middle ear. c. Incorrect. The stirrup, or stapes, is in the middle ear. d. Correct. The external ear includes the pinna (auricle) and the external auditory canal.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:14 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders 24. What are the three bones of the middle ear? a. pinna, stapes, anvil b. stapes, incus, malleus c. pinna, incus, anvil d. incus, stapes, stirrup ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The pinna is mostly cartilaginous tissue with a small amount of adipose tissue in the earlobe. b. Correct. The middle ear, also called the tympanic cavity, is a small space containing three bones: the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup). c. Incorrect. The pinna is mostly cartilaginous tissue with a small amount of adipose tissue in the earlobe. d. Incorrect. Stapes and stirrup are two words for the same bone.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1 - Define the terminology common to the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:15 AM 25. One of the structures of the inner ear is: a. pinna. b. anvil. c. semicircular canals. d. tympanic membrane. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The pinna is not part of the inner ear. It is part of the external ear. b. Incorrect. The anvil is not part of the inner ear. It is part of the middle ear. c. Correct. The semicircular canals are part of the inner ear. d. Incorrect. The tympanic membrane is part of the middle ear. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:16 AM 26. The inner ear contains which of the following? a. cerumen b. the round window c. tympanic cavity d. the eardrum Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Cerumen is wax, which is produced in the inner ear. b. Correct. The round window is part of the inner ear. c. Incorrect. Tympanic cavity is another name for the middle ear. d. Incorrect. The external ear and middle ear are separated by the tympanic membrane (eardrum).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:17 AM 27. Common signs and symptoms of eye disease include which of the following? a. vertigo b. tinnitus c. seeing flashes of light d. increased visual acuity ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Vertigo may be a sign or symptom of ear disease. b. Incorrect. Tinnitus may be a sign or symptom of ear disease. c. Correct. Seeing flashes of light may be a sign or symptom of eye disease. d. Incorrect. Decreased, not increased, visual acuity is a sign or symptom of eye disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:18 AM 28. Which common sign of ear disease is commonly known as dizziness? a. otalgia b. deafness c. tinnitus d. vertigo ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Otalgia is ear pain. b. Incorrect. Deafness is a sign or symptom of ear disease, but it is not the same as dizziness. c. Incorrect. Tinnitus is ringing in the ears.

d. Correct. Vertigo is dizziness. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:18 AM 29. An ophthalmoscope is used to visualize the: a. throat. b. ear. c. eye. d. teeth. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An ophthalmoscope is not used to visualize the throat. b. Incorrect. An ophthalmoscope is not used to visualize the ear. c. Correct. An ophthalmoscope is used to visualize the eye. d. Incorrect. An ophthalmoscope is not used to visualize the teeth. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:19 AM 30. During ophthalmoscopy, which of the following are visualized? a. retina, vessels, and malleus b. retina, vessels, and optic disk c. optic disk, retina, and vestibule d. vessels, oval window, and incus ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The malleus is part of the ear and is not visualized during ophthalmoscopy. b. Correct. The retina, vessels, and optic disk of the eye can be visualized easily during ophthalmoscopy. c. Incorrect. The vestibule is part of the ear and is not visualized during ophthalmoscopy. d. Incorrect. The oval window and incus are part of the ear and are not ophthalmoscopy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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eye and ear disorders. 8/5/2022 1:36 AM 11/30/2022 2:20 AM

31. The Snellen chart is used to measure: a. visual acuity. b. hearing. c. eye pressure. d. tinnitus. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The Snellen chart is used to measure visual acuity. b. Incorrect. The Snellen chart is not used to measure hearing. c. Incorrect. The Snellen chart is not used to measure eye pressure. d. Incorrect. The Snellen chart is not used to measure tinnitus. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:21 AM 32. Normal vision is expressed as: a. 20/10. b. 20/20. c. 20/50. d. 20/70. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. 20/10 is not normal vision. This is better than normal vision. b. Correct. Normal vision is 20/20. c. Incorrect. 20/50 is not normal vision. This is poorer vision than is considered normal. d. Incorrect. 20/70 is not normal vision. This is poorer vision than is considered normal.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:09 AM 33. Tonometry is useful in determining the presence of: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders a. glaucoma. b. retinopathy. c. keratitis. d. macular degeneration. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Tonometry is useful in determining the presence of glaucoma as it measures intraocular pressure. b. Incorrect. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure and is not useful in determining retinopathy. c. Incorrect. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure and is not useful in determining keratitis. d. Incorrect. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure and is not useful in determining macular degeneration.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:10 AM 34. Which of the following can be visualized during an otoscopic examination? a. pinna b. cochlea c. tympanic membrane d. stapes ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The pinna can be visualized without the aid of an otoscope. b. Incorrect. The cochlea cannot be visualized with an otoscope. c. Correct. During an otoscopic examination, the tympanic membrane can be visualized. d. Incorrect. The stapes cannot be visualized with the otoscope.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:11 AM 35. A test to measure hearing is: a. the Snellen chart. b. an audiometry. c. an angiography. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders d. an otoscopy. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. The Snellen chart measures visual acuity, not hearing. b. Correct. The audiometry is a test to measure hearing. c. Incorrect. An angiography does not measure hearing. d. Incorrect. An otoscopy is used to examine the ear but it does not measure hearing.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:12 AM 36. Which common disorder of the eye involves altered eye movement? a. cataracts b. glaucoma c. strabismus d. diabetic retinopathy ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cataracts are a clouding of the lens. b. Incorrect. Glaucoma is increased inner eye pressure. c. Correct. Strabismus and nystagmus are altered eye movement. d. Incorrect. Diabetic retinopathy is a secondary disease of the eye, but does not involve altered eye movement.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:13 AM 37. Nearsightedness is called: a. myopia. b. hyperopia. c. presbyopia. d. astigmatism. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Another name for nearsightedness is myopia. b. Incorrect. Hyperopia is commonly called farsightedness. c. Incorrect. Presbyopia is not nearsightedness. It is related to the inability of the aging lens to properly focus light rays.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Astigmatism is not nearsightedness. It is an irregularity in the surface of the cornea.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:14 AM 38. Farsightedness is called: a. myopia. b. hyperopia. c. presbyopia. d. astigmatism. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Another name for nearsightedness is myopia. b. Correct. Hyperopia is commonly called farsightedness. c. Incorrect. Presbyopia is not farsightedness. It is related to the inability of the aging lens to properly focus light rays. d. Incorrect. Astigmatism is not farsightedness. It is an irregularity in the surface of the cornea.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:14 AM 39. The inability of the aging lens to properly focus light rays is known as: a. myopia. b. hyperopia. c. presbyopia. d. astigmatism. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Another name for nearsightedness is myopia. b. Incorrect. Hyperopia is commonly called farsightedness. c. Correct. Presbyopia is related to the inability of the aging lens to properly focus light rays. d. Incorrect. Astigmatism is an irregularity in the surface of the cornea.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the eye and ear and the common disorders Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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associated with aging of these organs. 8/5/2022 1:48 AM 11/30/2022 3:15 AM

40. Symptoms of pinkeye include which of the following? a. itching and burning and a feeling of something in the eye b. itching, burning, and excessive tearing c. red, swollen, and crusted eyelids d. painful red bump inside the eyelid ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Itching and burning and a feeling of something in the eye are symptoms of blepharitis. b. Correct. Burning, itching, and excessive tearing are symptoms of conjunctivitis, or pinkeye. c. Incorrect. Red, swollen, and crusted eyelids are symptoms of blepharitis.

d. Incorrect. A tender, painful, red bump inside the eyelid is a symptom of a stye. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:16 AM 41. A possible cause of blepharitis includes which of the following? a. excessive exposure to wind b. a viral infection c. contact lenses d. an allergic reaction ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Conjunctivitis can be caused by excessive exposure to wind. b. Incorrect. Blepharitis may be caused by bacterial, not viral, infection. c. Incorrect. Contact lenses can lead to keratitis. d. Correct. An allergic reaction is a cause of blepharitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:17 AM 42. Keratitis is an inflammation of the: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders a. eyelid. b. conjunctiva. c. cornea. d. iris. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Keratitis is not an inflammation of the eyelid. b. Incorrect. Keratitis is not an inflammation of the conjunctiva. c. Correct. Keratitis is an inflammation of the cornea. d. Incorrect. Keratitis is not an inflammation of the iris.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:17 AM 43. Treatment for keratitis includes: a. an antibiotic ointment. b. a steroid ointment. c. cold packs. d. hot packs. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Treatment for keratitis includes an antibiotic ointment. b. Incorrect. A steroid ointment is not a treatment for keratitis. c. Incorrect. Cold packs are not a treatment for keratitis. d. Incorrect. Hot packs are not a treatment for keratitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:18 AM 44. A cataract is a clouding of what part of the eye? a. cornea b. iris c. lens d. conjunctiva ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cornea is not where a cataract forms. b. Incorrect. Iris is not where a cataract forms. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders c. Correct. A cataract is a clouding of the lens of the eye. d. Incorrect. Conjunctiva is not where a cataract forms. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:19 AM 45. What is the most common cause of cataracts? a. diabetes b. birth defects c. trauma d. aging ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diabetes can cause cataracts to form, but it is not the most common cause. b. Incorrect. Cataracts can be a birth defect, but it is not the most common cause.

c. Incorrect. Trauma can result in cataracts forming, but it is not the most common cause. d. Correct. Cataracts develop from a change in metabolism and nutrition within the lens, most commonly from aging.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the eye and ear and the common disorders associated with aging of these organs. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:20 AM 46. Strabismus occurs most commonly in: a. children. b. adolescents. c. middle-aged people. d. the elderly. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Strabismus occurs most commonly in children. b. Incorrect. Adolescents are not the population with the most common occurrence for strabismus. c. Incorrect. Middle-aged people are not the population with the most common occurrence for strabismus. d. Incorrect. The elderly are not the population with the most common occurrence for strabismus.

POINTS:

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:22 AM 47. Diplopia is: a. single vision. b. double vision. c. triple vision. d. normal vision. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Single vision is not the definition of diplopia. b. Correct. Diplopia is double vision. c. Incorrect. Triple vision is not the definition of diplopia. d. Incorrect. Normal vision is not the definition of diplopia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:23 AM 48. Macular degeneration is a degeneration of the macular area of the: a. cornea. b. iris. c. retina. d. anterior chamber. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cornea is not the area of degeneration in macular degeneration. b. Incorrect. Iris is not the area of degeneration in macular degeneration. c. Correct. Macular degeneration is the degeneration of the macular area of the retina. d. Incorrect. Anterior chamber is not the area of degeneration in macular degeneration.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:24 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders 49. Risk factors for developing macular degeneration include which of the following? a. fish consumption b. nearsightedness c. dark eye color d. cigarette smoking ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Eating fish regularly can aid prevention of macular degeneration. b. Incorrect. Nearsightedness is not a risk factor for macular degeneration. c. Incorrect. Dark eye color is not a risk factor for macular degeneration. d. Correct. Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for macular degeneration. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:25 AM 50. Laser photocoagulation is effective in the treatment for: a. cataracts. b. glaucoma. c. diabetic retinopathy. d. nystagmus. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cataracts are commonly treated with surgery. b. Incorrect. Depending on the form of glaucoma, treatment can include use of eye drops or surgery. c. Correct. Laser photocoagulation is used in the treatment for diabetic retinopathy. d. Incorrect. Congenital nystagmus is often untreatable and permanent.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:26 AM 51. Which of the following is a change that happens with increasing age? a. myopia b. hyperopia c. presbyopia d. astigmatism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Myopia, also known as nearsightedness, occurs because the eyeball is longer from front to back. b. Incorrect. In hyperopia, the eyeball is shorter from front to back, which causes difficulty seeing objects that are up close. c. Correct. Presbyopia, an age-related change, occurs when the lens is no longer able to refract light rays correctly. d. Incorrect. Astigmatism is an irregularity on the surface of the cornea, which causes blurred vision.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the eye and ear and the common disorders associated with aging of these organs. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:26 AM 52. How does diabetes mellitus affect the eyes? a. decreased visual acuity b. loss of central vision c. clouding of the lens d. inflammation of the cornea ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Diabetes mellitus causes vascular changes in the retina that lead to a decrease in visual acuity.

b. Incorrect. With macular degeneration, peripheral vision is maintained but central vision is lost. c. Incorrect. Cataracts, commonly caused by the aging process, results in clouding of the lens. d. Incorrect. Keratitis, inflammation of the cornea, can be caused by an upper respiratory infection, allergies or contact lenses.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:27 AM 53. Which of the following is present in glaucoma? a. cloudy lens b. inflammation of the cornea c. increased intraocular pressure d. constant, involuntary movement of the eye ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Clouding of the lens occurs with cataracts, a common development due to the aging process. b. Incorrect. Inflammation of the cornea, also known as keratitis, can be caused by allergies, contact lenses, or an upper respiratory infection. c. Correct. Glaucoma causes increased intraocular pressure.

d. Incorrect. Many conditions can cause nystagmus, which is constant, involuntary movement of the eye.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.5 - Identify common disorders of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:28 AM 54. Wren is a 3-year-old female, recently diagnosed with strabismus. How can this condition be treated? a. cataract extraction and intraocular lens placement b. corrective lenses and eye exercises c. antibiotic ointment d. warm compresses and anti-inflammatory medications ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cataracts occur in older patients and are surgically corrected by cataract extraction and placing an intraocular lens. b. Correct. Every effort should be made to correct strabismus with corrective lenses and eye exercises before the age of 7, when the visual impairment may be permanent. c. Incorrect. Keratitis, an inflammation of the cornea, can be treated with antibiotic ointment. d. Incorrect. Warm compresses and anti-inflammatory medications may be used to treat conjunctivitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:29 AM 55. Why is otitis media more prevalent in younger children, usually decreasing with age? a. Young children swim more often in contaminated water. b. They blow their nose more forcefully, driving bacteria into middle ear. c. Eustachian tubes are narrower and more horizontal in younger children. d. They have an increased risk of otosclerosis. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Swimming in contaminated water could cause suppurative middle ear infections but is not necessarily age-related. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Forcefully blowing one’s nose with a respiratory infection can drive bacteria into the middle ear, but this can happen at any age. c. Correct. As children grow, their Eustachian tubs become more vertically directed and larger, which decreases development of otitis media. d. Incorrect. Otosclerosis, caused by the bony fixation of the small bones of the ear, can be aggravated by pregnancy and occurs more commonly in women.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:30 AM 56. Elliot is a 68-year-old male who is struggling with increasing hearing loss. He can hear tones in the lower register best, but struggles to hear anything in a crowd or with lots of background noise. Which type of hearing loss is most likely for Elliot? a. otosclerosis b. sensorineural deafness c. impacted cerumen d. presbycusis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Otosclerosis is hearing loss that more commonly affects women under the age of 35. b. Incorrect. Sensorineural deafness can be congenital, inherited, or acquired, and it is caused by damage or trauma to the cochlea or auditory nerve. c. Incorrect. Impacted cerumen can occur at any age and causes hearing loss, which is usually resolved when the excessive ear wax is removed. d. Correct. Presbycusis is a hearing loss that is age-related, due to degenerative changes within the organs of hearing.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the eye and ear and the common disorders associated with aging of these organs. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:31 AM 57. Which of the following is a medical emergency? a. otosclerosis b. Ménière’s disease c. retinal detachment d. macular degeneration ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Otosclerosis is a type of hearing loss that slowly worsens. b. Incorrect. Ménière’s disease is a chronic condition of the inner ear, leading to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders progressive hearing loss and vertigo. c. Correct. Retinal detachment is a medical emergency due to its ability to cause blindness. d. Incorrect. Macular degeneration causes a gradual and painless loss of the central vision.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1 - Define the terminology common to the eye and ear. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:31 AM 58. Jennifer is a 28-year-old female who is on a vacation to the beach. On her second day, she starts experiencing pain in her left eye, along with extreme sensitivity to light. What could be causing her symptoms? a. stye b. presbyopia c. glaucoma d. corneal abrasion ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A stye is a painful red bump inside the eyelid, caused by Staphylococcus bacteria. b. Incorrect. Presbyopia is an age-related change that makes it difficult to see things close up. c. Incorrect. Glaucoma is caused by increased pressure inside the eye.

d. Correct. A corneal abrasion can be caused by sand scratching the surface of the cornea, leading to pain, tearing, and photophobia about 12–18 hours after the trauma occurred.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:32 AM 59. Tristan is a 2-year-old male who has had multiple bouts with otitis media. Which of the following procedures may be necessary to help Tristan? a. stapedectomy b. cochlear implant c. tympanostomy tubes d. vaccines to prevent chicken pox, available for adults 50 and older ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A stapedectomy, removal of the stapes, is used to treat otosclerosis. b. Incorrect. A cochlear implant is used to improve hearing in patients with sensorineural deafness. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders c. Correct. Multiple occurrences of otitis media can be treated with tympanostomy tubes. d. Incorrect. Vaccines to prevent shingles are available for adults 50 and older.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common eye and ear disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:33 AM 60. Shayna is a 3-year-old female who wakes up one morning, complaining itchiness and pain in her eyes. Her eyes appear red and watery. Which of the following conditions is likely? a. blepharitis b. conjunctivitis c. keratitis d. corneal abrasion ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelid edge, causes red, swollen and crusted eyelids. b. Correct. Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the pink membrane lining the inner eyelids and causes itching, burning, and redness. c. Incorrect. Keratitis, an inflammation of the cornea, causes pain, photophobia, and excessive tearing. d. Incorrect. Corneal abrasions include severe pain and photophobia.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders 1. The bimanual rectal examination allows palpation of the rectum and the posterior aspect of the: a. cervix b. uterus c. prostate d. vestibule ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The cervix can be visually examined through a speculum. b. Correct. The bimanual rectal examination allows palpation of the posterior aspect of the uterus and the rectum. c. Incorrect. The bimanual rectal examination is done on females, not males.

d. Incorrect. The vestibule is an external structure; the bimanual rectal examination allows palpation of female internal organs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:39 AM 2. How is placenta previa diagnosed? a. on the basis of symptoms b. pelvic examination c. pelvic ultrasound d. endometrial biopsy ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Placenta previa cannot be diagnosed basis on symptoms. b. Incorrect. A pelvic examination would not reveal placenta previa. c. Correct. Diagnosis of placenta previa is done by pelvic ultrasound. d. Incorrect. Biopsy is not required to diagnose placenta previa. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:43 AM 3. The foreskin is also known as what? a. testes b. prepuce c. scrotum d. urethra Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. The scrotum is a sac that hangs below the penis and holds the testes. b. Correct. At the tip of the penis is the prepuce (foreskin).

c. Incorrect. The scrotum is a sac that hangs below the penis and holds the testes.

d. Incorrect. The urethra is a tube that carries urine from the bladder and semen from the ejaculatory duct.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1 - Define the terminology common to the reproductive system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:43 AM 4. Digital rectal examinations allow the physician to feel what? a. the scrotum b. the testes c. the prostate d. the uterus ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The scrotum is an external organ. b. Incorrect. The testes are palpated to determine the presence of tumors. c. Correct. A digital rectal examination allows the physician to feel the prostate for abnormal enlargement (hypertrophy or hyperplasia) and tumors. d. Incorrect. Digital rectal examinations are done on males, not females.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders keeping the penis clean. c. Incorrect. Reducing salt intake is not one of the preventive measures for prostatitis. d. Incorrect. Limiting alcohol intake is not one of the preventive measures for prostatitis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:45 AM 6. What is advised regarding the prevention of prostatic carcinoma? a. Preventive measures include practicing good hygiene by keeping the penis clean. b. It is not preventable, but an annual prostate examination can lead to early detection. c. Preventive measures include drinking plenty of fluids. d. It is not preventable, but an annual urinalysis can lead to early detection. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Preventive measures for prostatitis include practicing good hygiene by keeping the penis clean. b. Correct. There are no preventive measures, although getting an annual prostate examination is recommended for early detection. c. Incorrect. Preventive measures for prostatitis include drinking plenty of fluids.

d. Incorrect. A urinalysis will not lead to early detection of prostatic carcinoma. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:46 AM 7. What is the most common prostate problem in men over 50? a. prostatitis b. prostatic carcinoma c. benign prostatic hyperplasia d. testicular tumors ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Prostatitis is more common in men over 50 years of age, but it is not the most common prostate problem. b. Incorrect. Prostatic carcinoma is a neoplasm of the prostate gland that commonly affects men after age 50, but it is not the most common prostate problem. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders c. Correct. BPH is the most common prostate problem in men over 50. d. Incorrect. Testicular tumors commonly affect young males aged 20 to 35. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:47 AM 8. Which of the following rarely occurs in males over age 40? a. prostatitis b. testicular tumors c. prostatic carcinoma d. benign prostatic hyperplasia ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Prostatitis is more common in men over 50 years of age. b. Correct. Testicular tumors commonly affect young males aged 20 to 35. c. Incorrect. Prostatic carcinoma is a neoplasm of the prostate gland that commonly affects men after age 50. d. Incorrect. BPH is the most common prostate problem in men over 50.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:47 AM 9. Cryptorchidism is a predisposing factor for what? a. prostatitis b. testicular tumors c. prostatic carcinoma d. benign prostatic hyperplasia ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cryptorchidism is a predisposing factor for cancer. b. Correct. Cryptorchidism is considered the main risk factor in developing testicular tumors.

c. Incorrect. Cryptorchidism is a predisposing factor for a different type of cancer. d. Incorrect. Cryptorchidism is a predisposing factor for cancer. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common reproductive system disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 3:07 AM 11/30/2022 3:48 AM

10. What is inflammation of one or both testes, usually due to bacterial or viral infection or trauma? a. epididymitis b. Orchitis c. Prostatitis d. Mastitis ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis. b. Correct. Orchitis is inflammation of one or both testes, usually due to bacterial or viral infection or trauma. c. Incorrect. Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland.

d. Incorrect. Mastitis is inflammation of the breast tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:49 AM 11. Which of the following is a primary symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia? a. Dysuria b. Nocturia c. Pyuria d. abnormal penile drainage ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Dysuria is a symptom of prostatitis. b. Correct. Nocturia, frequently getting up at night to void, is a primary symptom of BPH. c. Incorrect. Pyuria is a symptom of prostatitis.

d. Incorrect. Abnormal penile drainage is not a symptom of BPH. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:50 AM 12. One of the symptoms of prostatitis is dysuria, or: a. pus in the urine b. low back pain c. painful urine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders d. fever ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Pus in the urine is a symptom of prostatitis, but it is not dysuria. b. Incorrect. low back pain is a symptom of prostatitis, but it is not dysuria. c. Correct. Symptoms include dysuria (dys = painful, uria = urine), pyuria (py = pus, uria = urine), fever, and low back pain. d. Incorrect. Fever is a symptom of prostatitis, but it is not dysuria.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:51 AM 13. Surgical orchiectomy, removal of the testicles, may be recommended to treat what? a. Epididymitis b. prostatic carcinoma c. Orchitis d. Cryptorchidism ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Epididymitis is treated with antibiotics. b. Correct. Hormone therapy might include surgical orchiectomy to halt testosterone production.

c. Incorrect. Treatment of orchitis depends on the cause, but it does not include orchiectomy. d. Incorrect. Cryptorchidism may require orchiopexy, not orchiectomy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:51 AM 14. What sexually transmitted disease is marked by the appearance of a chancre? a. herpes b. gonorrhea c. primary syphilis d. tertiary syphilis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Herpes is a viral infection characterized by multiple, blister-like lesions, not chancres. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Chancres are not a symptom of gonorrhea. c. Correct. The primary stage of syphilis is marked by the appearance of a painless, highly contagious lesion called a chancre. d. Incorrect. A gumma is characteristic of tertiary syphilis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:52 AM 15. Because they are at an increased risk for breast cancer, women over what age should have yearly clinical exams and a mammogram? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The increased risk begins at a later age. b. Incorrect. The increased risk begins at a later age. c. Correct. Because they are at an increased risk for breast cancer, women over 50 should have yearly clinical exams and a mammogram. d. Incorrect. The increased risk begins at an earlier age.

d. Incorrect. Vaginal hormone cream can reduce dryness, but will not increase secretions. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the reproductive system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:57 AM 17. Which of the following is accurate regarding the effects of aging on the male reproductive system? a. The size of the testes can diminish. b. Production of testosterone increases. c. The functional ability for reproduction ends. d. The formation of sperm increases. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The size of the testes also can diminish, but the functional ability of the male for sexual intercourse and reproduction continues. b. Incorrect. As the male ages, production of testosterone and the formation of sperm decrease. c. Incorrect. The size of the testes also can diminish, but the functional ability of the male for sexual intercourse and reproduction continues. d. Incorrect. As the male ages, production of testosterone and the formation of sperm decrease.

c. Incorrect. The percentage is lower than 33. d. Incorrect. The percentage is lower than 50. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:59 AM 19. What disorder has a cause that is usually psychological, rather than physical? a. premature ejaculation b. impotence c. erectile dysfunction d. dyspareunia ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The cause of premature ejaculation is usually psychological rather than physical in nature. b. Incorrect. Impotence, more recently called ED, is primarily caused by vascular insufficiency in the penis. c. Incorrect. ED is primarily caused by vascular insufficiency in the penis.

d. Incorrect. Dyspareunia for both sexes can be related to physical or psychological conditions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:13 AM 20. The external structures of the female reproductive system includes which of the following? a. the labia majora b. the cervix c. the uterus d. the ovaries ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The labia majora is an external structure of the female reproductive system.

b. Incorrect. The cervix is an internal structure of the female reproductive system. c. Incorrect. The uterus is an internal structure of the female reproductive system. d. Incorrect. Internal structures include the ovaries. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:14 AM 21. The neck of the uterus is called the: a. cervix. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders b. fundus. c. endometrium. d. body. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. The lower part of the uterus is called the cervix (neck). b. Incorrect. The fundus is not called the neck of the uterus. c. Incorrect. The endometrium is not called the neck of the uterus. d. Incorrect. The body is not called the neck of the uterus.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:15 AM 22. What does progesterone affect? a. changes in the endometrium b. growth of the uterus c. enlargement of the breasts during pregnancy d. development of secondary sex characteristics ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Progesterone affects the development of the endometrium, but estrogen affects changes in the endometrium. b. Incorrect. Estrogen affects growth of the uterus.

c. Correct. Progesterone affects the development of the endometrium, assists the development of the placenta, causes enlargement of the breasts during pregnancy, prevents ova from being produced during pregnancy, and assists in the development of cells in the mammary glands. d. Incorrect. Estrogen affects the development of secondary sex characteristics.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:15 AM 23. The natural halting of menstruation is called what? a. menorrhagia b. metrorrhagia c. amenorrhea d. menopause ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Menorrhagia excessive or prolonged menstrual flow. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Metrorrhagia is abnormal bleeding between menstrual periods. c. Incorrect. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods, not their natural cessation. d. Correct. Menopause is not a disease—it is a normal physical change related to aging—but many women consider menopause a disorder because they commonly have physical and psychological symptoms.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:17 AM 25. The structure of the breasts includes lobules lined with milk-producing glands called what? a. nipple b. areola c. lactiferous ducts d. acini ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The nipple is part of the structure of the breast, but it does not include milk-producing glands. b. Incorrect. The areola is part of the structure of the breast but does not contain milk-producing glands. c. Incorrect. The lactiferous gland is part of the structure of the breast, but it is not a milk-producing gland. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders d. Correct. The structure of the breasts includes lobules lined with milk-producing glands called acini.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:18 AM 26. The external organs of the male reproductive system include the: a. scrotum and penis. b. penis and prostate. c. scrotum and epididymis. d. urethra and vas deferens. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The male reproductive system includes the external organs: the scrotum and penis. The internal organs are the testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, seminal vesicles, bulbourethral glands, and the prostate. b. Incorrect. The penis is an external organ, but the prostate is an internal organ.

c. Incorrect. The scrotum is an external organ, but the epididymis is an internal organ. d. Incorrect. The urethra and vas deferens both are internal organs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:19 AM 27. The internal organs of the male reproductive tract include the: a. scrotum and penis. b. penis and testes. c. scrotum and epididymis. d. urethra and vas deferens. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The scrotum and penis are external organs. b. Incorrect. The testes is an internal organ, but the penis is an external organ. c. Incorrect. The scrotum is an external organ, whereas the epididymis is an internal organ. d. Correct. The male reproductive system includes the external organs: the scrotum and penis. The internal organs are the testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, seminal vesicles, bulbourethral glands, and the prostate.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:20 AM 28. The male urethra carries the: a. semen and feces. b. urine and feces. c. urine and semen. d. semen and lymph fluid. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The urethra carries semen, but not feces. b. Incorrect. The urethra carries urine, but not feces. c. Correct. The urethra carries both urine and semen. d. Incorrect. The urethra carries semen, but not lymph fluid.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:20 AM 29. The scrotum houses the: a. prostate. b. testes. c. epididymis. d. seminal vesicles. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. The prostate is not in the scrotum. b. Correct. The scrotum is a sac that hangs below the penis and holds the testes. c. Incorrect. The epididymis is not in the scrotum. d. Incorrect. The seminal vesicles are not in the scrotum.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:21 AM 30. What do the testes do? a. secrete testosterone and produce ova b. produce sperm and ova Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders c. produce sperm and secrete urine d. secrete testosterone and produce sperm ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The female produces ova, not the male. b. Incorrect. The female produces ova, not the male. c. Incorrect. The testes do not secrete urine. d. Correct. The testes secrete testosterone (the male sex hormone) and produce sperm (the reproductive cells).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:23 AM 31. The seminal vesicles secrete fluid called: a. sputum. b. discharge. c. semen. d. urine. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The seminal vesicles do not secrete sputum. b. Incorrect. The seminal vesicles do not secrete discharge. c. Correct. The seminal vesicles sit behind the bladder near the neck. They secrete fluid that is part of the thick, white secretion called semen. d. Incorrect. The seminal vesicles do not secrete urine.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:24 AM 32. Common signs and symptoms of the male reproductive tract disorders include which of the following? a. lesions on the external genitalia b. any change in breast tissue c. abnormal discharge from the nipple d. fever and malaise ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Common signs and symptoms of the male reproductive tract include lesions on the external genitalia. b. Incorrect. Any change in breast tissue is a common sign and symptom of disorders of the female reproductive tract. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Abnormal discharge from the nipple is a common sign and symptom of disorders of the female reproductive tract. d. Incorrect. Fever and malaise are common signs and symptoms of disorders of the female reproductive tract.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:25 AM 33. Common signs and symptoms of the female reproductive tract include: a. lesions on the external genitalia. b. dysuria. c. swelling or abnormal enlargement of the reproductive organs. d. pain during sexual intercourse. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Common signs and symptoms of disorders of the male reproductive tract include lesions on the external genitalia.

b. Incorrect. Common signs and symptoms of disorders of the male reproductive tract include dysuria. c. Incorrect. Common signs and symptoms of disorders of the male reproductive tract include swelling or abnormal enlargement of the reproductive organs, but other signs and symptoms are listed. d. Correct. Common signs and symptoms of disorders of the female reproductive tract pain during sexual intercourse.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:25 AM 34. The most commonly performed test of the female reproductive system is the: a. pap smear. b. cystoscopy. c. bimanual examination. d. cone biopsy. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The most common test of the female reproductive system is the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) of the cervix. b. Incorrect. Cystoscopy is a test performed on the male reproductive system.

c. Incorrect. Bimanual examination is not the most commonly performed test. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Cone biopsy is not the most commonly performed test. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:26 AM 35. A laparoscopy is commonly used to: a. obtain tissue for biopsy. b. diagnose endometriosis. c. determine position of the uterus. d. show patency of fallopian tubes. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The diagnosis of endometrial cancer is best discovered by obtaining tissue for biopsy during a dilatation and curettage.

b. Correct. A laparoscopy is commonly used to view the female organs for abnormalities, to diagnose endometriosis, and perform a tubal ligation. c. Incorrect. To determine the size, position, and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes, a hysterosalpingogram can be obtained. d. Incorrect. To determine the size, position, and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes, a hysterosalpingogram can be obtained.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:27 AM 36. The diagnostic test performed to determine the size, position, and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes is: a. dilation and curettage. b. a Pap smear. c. a hysterosalpingogram. d. a cone biopsy. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The dilation and curettage procedure involves a light surgical sedative, dilation of the cervix (dilatation) and scraping (curettage) of the uterine endometrial tissue. b. Incorrect. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) of the cervix are cytologic examinations to discover cervical cancer. c. Correct. To determine the size, position, and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes, a hysterosalpingogram or X-ray of these organs may be obtained. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. A special type of biopsy, called a cone biopsy, refers to taking a cone-shaped piece of cervical tissue including the cervical and endocervical lining.

c. Incorrect. Blood tests to measure hormone levels are not used to diagnose an ovarian cyst. d. Correct. Diagnosis is made on the basis of history, pelvic examination, and ultrasound.

c. Incorrect. A cystoscopy is performed to view the urethra and bladder to evaluate the size of the prostate and the degree of obstruction the gland is placing on the urethra. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders d. Correct. Ultrasounds are performed on the pelvis to determine the presence of tumors, pregnancy, and the size and position of organs.

c. Incorrect. The urethra is not commonly biopsied. d. Incorrect. The vas deferens is not commonly biopsied. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:30 AM 40. What laboratory test is helpful in the detection of prostate cancer? a. prostate-specific antigen (PSA) b. a Pap smear c. a sperm count d. testosterone levels ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A blood test called a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is helpful in the detection of prostate cancer. b. Incorrect. A Pap smear is a laboratory test for the female, not the male reproductive system. c. Incorrect. A sperm count is a laboratory test for infertility testing.

d. Incorrect. The testosterone level is a laboratory test for infertility testing. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:30 AM 41. Symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) include which of the following? a. excessive menstrual flow b. back and joint pain c. decreased water retention d. bleeding between menstrual periods ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Menorrhagia is excessive menstrual flow. b. Correct. PMS symptoms can affect virtually every system of the body and include headache, nausea, and back and joint pain. c. Incorrect. Increased, not decreased, water retention may be a symptom of PMS. d. Incorrect. Metrorrhagia is bleeding between menstrual periods.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:31 AM 42. Treatment for premenstrual syndrome (PMS) includes which of the following? a. increase intake of caffeine b. have an alcoholic beverage daily c. limit physical activity d. avoid salt ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Treatment for PMS may include avoidance of caffeine and chocolate. b. Incorrect. Treatment for PMS may include avoidance of alcohol. c. Incorrect. Treatment for PMS may include developing a regular exercise program. d. Correct. Dietary changes might be helpful and include avoidance of salt.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders 43. Primary amenorrhea occurs if menses have not occurred by age: a. 12. b. 15. c. 18. d. 21. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The age of 12 years is too young for the diagnosis of primary amenorrhea. b. Incorrect. The age of 15 years is too young for the diagnosis of primary amenorrhea. c. Correct. Primary amenorrhea is defined as not having menses by age 18.

d. Incorrect. The age of 21 years is past the defined age for the diagnosis of primary amenorrhea.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:32 AM 44. Hormone imbalance, excessive fitness training, and malnutrition can all be causes of what? a. menorrhagia b. dysmenorrhea c. metrorrhagia d. amenorrhea ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Menorrhagia may be caused by uterine tumors, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and hormone imbalances.

b. Incorrect. Causes of dysmenorrhea include pelvic infections, cervical stenosis, endometriosis, and unknown causes. c. Incorrect. Metrorrhagia is commonly caused by hormonal imbalance, but not the other causes listed. d. Correct. Hormone imbalance, excessive fitness training, and malnutrition may cause primary amenorrhea.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:33 AM 45. Symptoms of dysmenorrhea include which of the following? a. excessive menstrual flow b. prolonged menstrual flow Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders c. pain radiating to the upper back d. edema and bloating ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Menorrhagia is excessive or prolonged menstrual flow. b. Incorrect. Menorrhagia is excessive or prolonged menstrual flow. c. Correct. Pain radiating to the upper back may be a symptom of dysmenorrhea. d. Incorrect. An increase in water retention can cause edema and bloating. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:34 AM 46. Treatment for dysmenorrhea may include using what to regulate menstrual flow? a. oral contraceptives b. NSAIDs c. heating pad d. antibiotics ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Oral contraceptives can be effective in reducing dysmenorrhea because they regulate and decrease menstrual flow. b. Incorrect. NSAIDs may be a treatment for dysmenorrhea to reduce inflammation and pain. c. Incorrect. A heating pad may be a treatment for dysmenorrhea, but it does not regulate the menstrual flow. d. Incorrect. Antibiotics are not indicated as a treatment for dysmenorrhea.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:35 AM 47. Causes of menorrhagia include which of the following? a. pelvic infections b. endometriosis c. cervical stenosis d. hormone imbalance ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), not pelvic infections, may cause Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders menorrhagia. b. Incorrect. Endometriosis may cause dysmenorrhea, but not menorrhagia.

c. Incorrect. Cervical stenosis may cause dysmenorrhea, but not menorrhagia. d. Correct. Hormone imbalance may cause menorrhagia. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:35 AM 48. Treatment for metrorrhagia includes a: a. D&C. b. Pap smear. c. hysterosalpingogram. d. cone biopsy. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Metrorrhagia is abnormal bleeding between menstrual periods. The treatment may be a D&C, returning the endometrium to normal and stopping the metrorrhagia. b. Incorrect. Pap smear is a diagnostic test, not a treatment for metrorrhagia.

c. Incorrect. Hysterosalpingogram is a diagnostic test, not a treatment for metrorrhagia. d. Incorrect. Cone biopsy is a diagnostic test not a treatment for metrorrhagia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:36 AM 49. Common sites of endometrial implantation in a female diagnosed with endometriosis may include the: a. urinary bladder. b. fallopian tubes. c. diaphragm. d. ligaments of the back. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The urinary bladder is a site of endometrial implantation, but not among the common ones. b. Correct. The ovaries, fallopian tubes, abdominal wall, and intestine are common sites of endometrial implantation. c. Incorrect. The diaphragm is a site of endometrial implantation, but it is not among the common ones. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. The ligaments of the back is a site of endometrial implantation, but it is not among the common ones.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:37 AM 50. Ectopic pregnancy is a complication of what disorder? a. atrophic vaginitis b. menorrhagia c. candida vaginitis d. endometriosis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Atrophic vaginitis commonly occurs after menopause and is caused by a decrease in secretion of estrogen. b. Incorrect. Menorrhagia is excessive or prolonged menstrual flow.

c. Incorrect. Candida vaginitis is a type of fungus or yeast vaginitis that normally cohabits with Lactobacillus bacteria in the vagina. d. Correct. Infertility, an ectopic pregnancy, and a spontaneous abortion may be complications of endometriosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:37 AM 51. Lyndsey is a 23-year-old female with vaginal burning, discharge and white, cottage cheese-like discharge. Which of the following tests may be used to confirm the diagnosis? a. laparoscopy b. hysterosalpingogram c. vaginal fluid pH and microscopic examination d. Pap smear ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Laparoscopy uses a lighted scope to look inside the abdominal cavity for abnormalities with the female organs, diagnose endometriosis, and perform a tubal ligation. b. Incorrect. If infertility is experienced, a hysterosalpingogram may be used to confirm patency of the fallopian tubes. c. Correct. These symptoms point to vaginitis, which is diagnosed by vaginal fluid pH level and microscopic (wet prep) examination. d. Incorrect. A Pap smear detects the presence of abnormal cervical cells, including cervical cancer. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:38 AM 52. Dorota is a 75-year-old postmenopausal female. She recently started bleeding vaginally. Which of the following conditions should be ruled out first? a. uterine cancer b. vaginitis c. endometriosis d. ovarian cyst ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Vaginal bleeding in postmenopausal women is one symptom of uterine cancer, which should be ruled out first. b. Incorrect. Atrophic vaginitis occurs after menopause because of decreased estrogen secretion, which is needed to maintain the vaginal lining. c. Incorrect. Endometriosis usually affects women of child-bearing age and causes dysmenorrhea. d. Incorrect. low back pain and pelvic pain are symptoms of ovarian cysts.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:39 AM 53. Which of the following is a major cause of cervical cancer? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. nullipara c. infertility d. human papilloma virus (HPV) ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Staphylococcus aureus is thought to produce an increased amount of toxin when in it comes in contact with the synthetic fibers found in tampons, causing Toxic Shock Syndrome. b. Incorrect. Having no children is one risk factor for breast cancer.

c. Incorrect. Infertility is a risk factor for developing uterine cancer. d. Correct. Infection with HPV is the major cause of cervical cancer. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:40 AM 54. Which of the following treatments may be used for a uterine prolapse? a. posterior colpoplasty b. hysterectomy c. high-intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU) d. estrogen therapy ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A posterior colpoplasty is used to a rectocele. b. Correct. If a woman no longer desires to bear children, a hysterectomy is the surgical treatment of choice. c. Incorrect. Fibroid tumors in the uterus can be destroyed by high-intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU). d. Incorrect. Estrogen therapy may be used in atrophic vaginitis, or for some other postmenopausal conditions.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common reproductive system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:40 AM 55. Carmen is in the third trimester of her fourth pregnancy. She has proteinuria, hypertension and she’s gained some weight since her last appointment. Which of the following conditions should be ruled out? a. placenta previa b. abruptio placentae c. preeclampsia d. hyperemesis gravidarum ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta completely or partially covers the cervical opening. b. Incorrect. Abruptio placentae, a medical emergency, occurs when the placenta separates partially or completely from the uterus. c. Correct. Proteinuria, hypertension, weight gain and edema in the face and hands are signs of preeclampsia, which must be treated carefully. d. Incorrect. Hyperemesis gravidarum has an unknown cause, but it leads to excessive vomiting during pregnancy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

reproductive system disorders. 8/5/2022 7:59 AM 11/30/2022 4:41 AM

56. Gilbert is a 72-year-old male with a fever and swelling and pain in his left testicle. Which of the following conditions is likely? a. prostatitis b. benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) c. testicular cancer d. orchitis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Symptoms of prostatitis are pyuria, dysuria, and low back pain. b. Incorrect. BPH is an enlargement of the prostate gland, which causes nocturia, inability to start urination or the inability to fully empty the bladder. c. Incorrect. Testicular cancer commonly affects males between the ages of 20– 35, the primary sign being a painless lump in one of the testicles. d. Correct. Orchitis is an inflammation of the testes, due to infection or trauma.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the reproductive system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:42 AM 57. Reino and Sasha have been trying to get pregnant for one year. Diagnosed with infertility, they are just beginning to undergo testing. What lifestyle factor changes can they make to improve their chances of conception? a. increase intensity of their exercise b. drink at least one alcoholic beverage daily c. stop smoking d. decrease folic intake ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Exercise that is too intense or excessive can cause menstrual disorders in females and low sperm counts in men. b. Incorrect. Alcohol can be toxic to sperm, cause hormonal disturbances, and increase risk of miscarriage. c. Correct. Because smoking decreases sperm count and increases the risk of miscarriage, smoking cessation may help with conception. d. Incorrect. Eating a healthy diet, including adequate folic acid, may be helpful for infertility.

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Chapter 17 - Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 8:02 AM 11/30/2022 4:43 AM

58. Leah is a 28-year-old female with elevated human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) levels. At the end of her first trimester, she experiences bright red bleeding, nausea, and vomiting, with no fetal heart tones detected. Which of the following conditions is most likely? a. placenta previa b. ectopic pregnancy c. abruptio placentae d. hydatidiform mole ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Placenta previa is a medical emergency that causes bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. b. Incorrect. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized ovum attaches somewhere other than the uterus and causes acute pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding. c. Incorrect. Before or during labor, abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta pulls away from the uterine wall, causing severe abdominal pain and hemorrhaging. d. Correct. Hydatidiform mole is a cluster of grape-like cysts that gives an indication of pregnancy with high HCG levels, but no fetus is present.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:43 AM 59. Which of the following statements is true about cryptorchidism? a. Cryptorchidism is a risk factor for developing testicular cancer. b. Cryptorchidism on one side leads to infertility. c. Cryptorchidism is caused by a sexually transmitted disease (STD). d. Cryptorchidism causes pain and swelling. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Cryptorchidism is the main risk factor for later developing testicular tumors. b. Incorrect. Males are still fertile with one testicle.

c. Incorrect. Cryptorchidism may be caused by premature birth. d. Incorrect. Cryptorchidism is not painful. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1 - Define the terminology common to the reproductive system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:05 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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11/30/2022 4:44 AM

60. Which condition or disease has similar symptoms to benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)? a. prostatitis b. orchitis c. prostatic carcinoma d. testicular cancer ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Prostatitis, an infection of the prostate gland, causes dysuria, low back pain and fever. b. Incorrect. An inflammation of the testicle, orchitis leads to testicular pain and swelling. c. Correct. Because the urethra is obstructed in both prostatic carcinoma and BPH, the symptoms are similar for both. d. Incorrect. Testicular cancer is discovered by a painless lump or mass in the testicle.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.5 - Identify common disorders of the reproductive system. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:45 AM

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders 1. What chronic skin condition characterized by inflammation and redness of the forehead, nose, cheeks, and chin? a. contact dermatitis b. urticaria c. rosacea d. eczema ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Contact dermatitis is characterized by allergic lesions. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Urticaria is characterized by slightly elevated lesions that are redder or paler than the surrounding skin. c. Correct. Rosacea is a chronic skin condition characterized by inflammation and redness of the forehead, nose, cheeks, and chin, but it is not dangerous or life-threatening. d. Incorrect. Eczema often produces dry, leathery skin lesions characterized by itching, redness, vesicles, pustules, scales, and crust, appearing alone or in combination. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:33 AM 2. What disorder often produces dry, leathery skin lesions? a. urticaria b. contact dermatitis c. Eczema d. Rosacea ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Urticaria is characterized by slightly elevated lesions that are redder or paler RATIONALE: than the surrounding skin. b. Incorrect. Contact dermatitis is characterized by allergic lesions. c. Correct. Eczema often produces dry, leathery skin lesions characterized by itching, redness, vesicles, pustules, scales, and crust, appearing alone or in combination. d. Incorrect. Rosacea is a chronic skin condition characterized by inflammation and redness of the forehead, nose, cheeks, and chin. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:34 AM 3. When do apocrine glands become active? a. in the third trimester of fetal development b. at birth c. at puberty d. sometime after age 45–50 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: RATIONALE:

c a. Incorrect. These glands do not become active during fetal development. b. Incorrect. These glands are not active at birth. c. Correct. These glands are inactive until puberty and initiate their function with hormonal changes at that time. d. Incorrect. These glands become active with hormonal changes at a younger age. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the integumentary system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:36 AM 4. Which layer of the skin protects the body from cold? a. Epidermis b. dermis c. subcutaneous d. stratum spinosum ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. The epidermis does not contain the fat cells that can protect the body from RATIONALE: cold. b. Incorrect. The dermis does not contain the fat cells that can protect the body from cold. c. Correct. The subcutaneous layer is composed of connective tissue containing fat cells and blood vessels and protects the body against cold. d. Incorrect. The stratum spinosum is a layer of the epidermis and does not contain the fat cells that can protect the body from cold. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the integumentary system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:37 AM 5. Which disorder of the integumentary system is usually found in warm, moist areas of the body? a. pediculosis b. sebaceous cyst c. rosacea d. tinea infections ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Pediculosis is an infestation of lice, and occurs on the head, the body or in the RATIONALE: genital area. b. Incorrect. A sebaceous cyst is a closed sac of oily, cheese-like material located under the skin. This cyst can form anywhere on the body except in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. c. Incorrect. Rosacea is characterized by inflammation and redness of the forehead, nose, Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders cheeks, and chin. d. Correct. Tinea infections are typically found in warm, moist areas of the body. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:38 AM 6. Which of the following can spread disease and were responsible for the spread of typhus during war times? a. ticks b. head lice c. body lice d. mosquitoes ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Lyme disease is a tick-borne disease. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Head lice is commonly spread among school children and is not associated with the spread of typhus. c. Correct. Body lice were responsible for the spread of typhus during war times. d. Incorrect. Mosquitoes do not spread typhus, but elephantiasis, a rare disease seen in tropical areas. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:40 AM 7. How are scabies transmitted? a. from animals b. by shaking hands c. by hugging d. through the oral–fecal route ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Mites cannot be picked up from animals. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. It is almost impossible to catch scabies by just touching or shaking hands with an infected individual. c. Correct. Scabies is often transmitted throughout an entire household by skin-to-skin contact with an infected parent or child by hugging, holding, and sharing beds. d. Incorrect. Scabies is transmitted by skin-to-skin contact. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/8/2022 1:40 AM 8/8/2022 1:41 AM

8. Dandruff is the common name for what disorder when it affects the head or scalp? a. tinea capitis b. folliculitis c. pediculosis d. seborrheic dermatitis ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that affects the scalp, causing areas of hair RATIONALE: loss. b. Incorrect. Folliculitis is inflammation and infection of the hair follicle. c. Incorrect. Pediculosis is an infestation of lice. d. Correct. Seborrheic dermatitis affecting the scalp of adults is called dandruff. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:43 AM 9. On which parts of the body do sebaceous cysts NOT form? a. knees and elbows b. scalp and neck c. palms of hands and soles of feet d. scalp and groin area ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. This cyst can develop almost anywhere on the body, including knees and RATIONALE: elbows. b. Incorrect. This cyst commonly develops in the scalp, neck, and groin area. c. Correct. Sebaceous cysts can form anywhere on the body except in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. d. Incorrect. This cyst commonly develops in the scalp, neck, and groin area. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:44 AM 10. What disorder is commonly called hives or nettle rash? a. ephelis b. lentigo c. seborrheic dermatitis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders d. Urticaria ANSWER: RATIONALE:

d a. Incorrect. Ephelis is commonly called a freckle. b. Incorrect. Lentigo is commonly called liver spots. c. Incorrect. Seborrheic dermatitis is commonly called cradle cap in infants and dandruff in adults. d. Correct. Commonly called hives or nettle rash, urticaria is a vascular reaction of the skin. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:47 AM 11. What disease is characterized by red, raised lesions with distinct borders and silvery scales? a. keloid b. scleroderma c. psoriasis d. hemangioma ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. A keloid is a raised, firm, irregularly shaped mass of scar tissue. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Scleroderma is characterized by hardening, thickening, and shrinking of connective tissues of the body, including the skin. c. Correct. Psoriasis is characterized by red, raised lesions with distinct borders and silvery scales. These lesions generally occur on the elbows, knees, and scalp. d. Incorrect. Hemangiomas are made up of small blood vessels forming a reddish or purplish birthmark. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:50 AM 12. What is the most common type of skin cancer? a. squamous cell carcinoma b. actinic keratosis c. malignant melanoma d. basal cell carcinoma ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Squamous cell carcinoma is less common than the most common type, but it RATIONALE: grows more rapidly. b. Incorrect. Actinic keratosis is a premalignant skin condition. c. Incorrect. Malignant melanoma is not the most common, but it is the most deadly. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders d. Correct. The most common skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:52 AM 13. What is the most common type of skin cancer? a. squamous cell carcinoma b. actinic keratosis c. malignant melanoma d. basal cell carcinoma ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Squamous cell carcinoma grows more rapidly than basal cell carcinoma and RATIONALE: becomes metastatic, but it is not the most deadly. b. Incorrect. Actinic keratosis is a premalignant skin condition. c. Correct. Malignant melanoma is not the most common, but it is the most deadly. d. Incorrect. The most common skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma, but it is not the most deadly. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:54 AM 14. Approximately what percent of those diagnosed with malignant melanoma die from effects of metastasis? a. 10% b. 20% c. 33% d. 50% ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. A larger percent than this die from effects of metastasis. RATIONALE: b. Correct. The prognosis depends on the degree of spread when discovered, but approximately 20% of those diagnosed with this tumor die from the effects of metastasis. c. Incorrect. A smaller percent than this die from effects of metastasis. d. Incorrect. A smaller percent than this die from effects of metastasis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:54 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

8/8/2022 1:56 AM

15. Which of the following is a major problem in older adults, who might have flaky, scaly skin and pruritus? a. elephantiasis b. decubitus ulcer c. avulsion d. xerosis ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Elephantiasis is a rare disease seen in tropical areas RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. A decubitus ulcer is a pressure injury commonly called a bedsore or pressure sore. c. Incorrect. Avulsion occurs when a portion of skin or appendage is pulled or torn away. d. Correct. Xerosis, or dry skin, is a major problem in older adults, who might have flaky, scaly skin and pruritus. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:57 AM 16. What causes wrinkles in older adults? a. dry skin b. rosacea c. psoriasis d. loss of elasticity of the skin ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Dry skin can cause other problems, but not wrinkles. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Rosacea is not related to wrinkles in older adults. c. Incorrect. Psoriasis is not related to wrinkles in older adults. d. Correct. The youthful elasticity of the skin is lost, causing wrinkles and an aged appearance. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 1:59 AM 17. Because they have decreased touch sensation, older adults are more likely to experience what? a. pressure injuries b. keratosis and skin cancers c. thick nails and brittle hair Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders d. burn or touch injuries ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Thicker nails and brittle hair are common in older adults, but not because of RATIONALE: decreased touch sensation. b. Incorrect. Keratoses and skin cancers are the most common problems, especially in individuals who have been exposed to sunlight for many years without using protection. c. Incorrect. Older adults with chronic disorders, such as diabetes or peripheral vascular diseases, are particularly prone to developing skin problems, especially pressure injuries. d. Correct. Older adults are more likely to experience burn or cold injuries because they have decreased touch sensation. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 1:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:00 AM 18. What is the first symptom of a black widow spider bite? a. severe itching b. fever and nausea c. muscle cramps and pain d. acute pain at the site ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Severe itching is a symptom of a brown recluse spider bite. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Fever is not a symptom, but nausea is another symptom that can occur. c. Incorrect. Muscle cramps are not the first symptom to appear. d. Correct. The first symptom is acute pain at the site. Other, more severe, symptoms include abdominal pain that mimics appendicitis, muscle cramps, nausea, fainting, dizziness, and chest pain. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 3:16 AM 19. What is the main difference between corns and calluses? a. Corns are viral and calluses are bacterial. b. Corns are not painful and calluses are painful. c. Corns are contagious and calluses are not. d. Corns are found on the feet and calluses are on the hands. ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Both corns and calluses are protective hyperplasias of tissue as a result of RATIONALE: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders pressure. b. Incorrect. Corns are usually painful, and calluses usually are not. c. Incorrect. Neither corns nor callouses are contagious. d. Correct. The main difference between a corn and a callus is the location. Corns are found on the feet and calluses are on the palms of hands. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:03 AM 20. Friction burns or rug burns are examples of what? a. abrasions b. contusions c. incisions d. lacerations ANSWER: a a. Correct. A common mechanical trauma is caused by scraping away the skin surface. RATIONALE: Abrasions are also called friction burns or rug burns. b. Incorrect. Blunt trauma often causes a large bruise called a contusion. c. Incorrect. A laceration with smooth, even edges is commonly called an incision. d. Incorrect. A laceration is a cut in the skin caused by a sharp object such as a knife, razor, glass, or metal. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:09 AM 21. The largest organ of the body is the: a. skin. b. heart. c. liver. d. stomach. ANSWER: a a. Correct. The skin is the largest organ of the body. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. The heart is not the largest organ of the body. c. Incorrect. The liver is not the largest organ of the body. d. Incorrect. The stomach is not the largest organ of the body. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the integumentary system. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/8/2022 2:09 AM 8/8/2022 2:10 AM

22. The stratum corneum is a layer of which layer of the skin? a. epidermis b. dermis c. subcutaneous d. hypodermis ANSWER: a a. Correct. The epidermis, or outer layer, is composed of five layers: the stratum corneum, RATIONALE: stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale. b. Incorrect. The dermis is the middle layer of the skin; the stratum corneum is in the outer layer. c. Incorrect. The subcutaneous, or hypodermis, layer is composed of connective tissue containing fat cells. d. Incorrect. The subcutaneous, or hypodermis, layer is composed of connective tissue containing fat cells. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the integumentary system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:12 AM 23. Secretions from the apocrine glands are odorless until what accumulates in the area and causes body odor? a. bacteria b. viruses c. parasites d. blood ANSWER: a a. Correct. When bacteria accumulate in the secretions of the apocrine glands, they cause RATIONALE: body odor. b. Incorrect. When viruses accumulate in the secretions of the apocrine glands, they do not cause body odor. c. Incorrect. When parasites accumulate in the secretions of the apocrine glands, they do not cause body odor. d. Incorrect. When blood accumulates in the secretions of the apocrine glands, they do not cause body odor. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the integumentary system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:13 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders 24. Which of the following is composed of keratin? a. hair b. nails c. fat d. eyelashes ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. Hair is not composed of keratin. RATIONALE: b. Correct. The nails are composed of keratin (epidermal cells in a tight web). c. Incorrect. Fat is not composed of keratin. d. Incorrect. Eyelashes, a type of hair, are not composed of keratin. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the integumentary system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:15 AM 25. Which common signs and symptoms of diseases of the integumentary is any discontinuity or abnormality of tissue? a. edema b. pruritus c. lesions d. erythema ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Edema means swelling. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Pruritus is itching. c. Correct. A lesion is a very broad term meaning any discontinuity or abnormality of tissue. d. Incorrect. Erythema is skin redness. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:16 AM 26. An elevation of skin containing fluid is a: a. vesicle. b. wheal. c. cyst. d. pustule. ANSWER: a a. Correct. A vesicle is a circumscribed elevation of skin containing fluid. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. A wheal is a slightly elevated lesion that is redder or paler than the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders surrounding skin and is usually accompanied by itching. c. Incorrect. A cyst is a closed sac or pouch containing fluid or semisolid material. d. Incorrect. A pustule is a small circumscribed elevation of the skin containing pus. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1 - Define the terminology common to the integumentary system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:17 AM 27. What type of test would be used to identify fungal and parasitic infections? a. biopsy b. dermascopy c. microscopic smear d. patch test ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. A biopsy might be used in diagnosing nodules and chronic lesions. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Dermascopy is used to better visualize lesions. c. Correct. Diagnosis and identification of fungal and parasitic infections can be determined by using cultures and microscopic smear examinations. d. Incorrect. Patch tests are often done to diagnose allergies by applying allergens to the skin and observing for reactions. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:19 AM 28. A small circumscribed elevation of the skin containing pus is a: a. pustule. b. vesicle. c. papule. d. macule. ANSWER: a a. Correct. A pustule is a small circumscribed elevation of the skin containing pus. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. A vesicle is a circumscribed elevation of the skin containing fluid. c. Incorrect. A papule is a small solid raised lesion. d. Incorrect. A macule is a flat, discolored lesion. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1 - Define the terminology common to the integumentary system and the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

disorders of the system. 8/8/2022 2:19 AM 8/8/2022 2:20 AM

29. A smooth, slightly elevated swollen area that is redder or paler than the surrounding skin is a: a. bulla. b. pustule. c. macule. d. wheal. ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. A bulla is a large vesicle that is more than 0.5 cm in diameter. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. A pustule is a small circumscribed elevation of the skin containing pus. c. Incorrect. A macule is a flat, discolored lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. d. Correct. A wheal is a smooth, slightly elevated swollen area that is redder or paler than the surrounding skin. It is usually accompanied by itching. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1 - Define the terminology common to the integumentary system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:21 AM 30. What type of test would be used to diagnose nodules and chronic lesions? a. culture and sensitivity b. biopsy c. blood tests d. patch test ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. Culture and sensitivity tests are effective in determining the presence of RATIONALE: bacterial infections. b. Correct. A biopsy might be used in diagnosing nodules and chronic lesions. c. Incorrect. Blood tests are helpful, especially if there is concern about a systemic infection or metabolic disorder. d. Incorrect. Patch tests are often done to diagnose allergies by applying allergens to the skin and observing for reactions. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.4 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:23 AM 31. Herpes simplex type 1 is also known as what? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders a. chicken pox b. cold sores c. shingles d. herpes genitalis ANSWER: RATIONALE:

b a. Incorrect. Chicken pox is herpes varicella. b. Correct. Both fever blisters and cold sores are known as herpes simplex type 1. c. Incorrect. Shingles is herpes zoster. d. Incorrect. Genital herpes, or herpes genitalis, is herpes simplex 2. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:24 AM 32. Herpes varicella is also known as: a. chicken pox. b. shingles. c. cold sores. d. fever blisters. ANSWER: a a. Correct. Herpes varicella is also known as chicken pox. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Shingles is herpes zoster, not herpes varicella. c. Incorrect. Cold sores are herpes simplex 1. d. Incorrect. Fever blisters are herpes simplex 1. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:25 AM 33. Plantar warts appear on the: a. palm of the hand. b. soles of the foot. c. elbows. d. knees. ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. Plantar warts do not appear on the palm of the hand. RATIONALE: b. Correct. Plantar warts appear on the soles of the foot. c. Incorrect. Plantar warts do not appear on the elbows. d. Incorrect. Plantar warts do not appear on the knees. POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:27 AM 34. A highly contagious skin disease caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus bacteria is: a. folliculitis. b. impetigo. c. erysipelas. d. cellulitis. ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. Folliculitis is inflammation and infection of the hair follicle. RATIONALE: b. Correct. A highly contagious skin disease caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus bacteria is impetigo. c. Incorrect. Erysipelas is an acute infection of the dermis that extends into underlying fat tissue. d. Incorrect. Cellulitis is a diffuse or spreading inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 7:34 AM 35. Treatment for impetigo includes: a. application of antibiotic ointment. b. surgical excision. c. incision and drainage. d. ablation. ANSWER: a a. Correct. The application of antibiotic ointment is a treatment for impetigo. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Surgical excision is not a treatment for impetigo. c. Incorrect. Incision and drainage is not a treatment for impetigo. d. Incorrect. Ablation is not a treatment for impetigo. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:29 AM 36. The development of small pustules surrounding the hair is known as: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders a. impetigo. b. cellulitis. c. folliculitis. d. erysipelas. ANSWER: RATIONALE:

c a. Incorrect. Impetigo is a highly contagious skin disease caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus bacteria. b. Incorrect. Cellulitis is a diffuse or spreading inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue. c. Correct. Folliculitis is inflammation and infection of the hair follicle. d. Incorrect. Erysipelas is an acute infection of the dermis that extends into underlying fat tissue. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 7:34 AM 37. The formation of a capsule to wall off and prevent the spread of a staphylococcal infection is an example of : a. a papule. b. an abscess. c. a vesicle. d. a cyst. ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. A papule is a small solid raised lesion; it is not formed to prevent the spread of RATIONALE: infection. b. Correct. An abscess is a localized collection of pus occurring in any tissue of the body including the skin. It can form a capsule to wall off and prevent the spread of a staphylococcal infection. c. Incorrect. A vesicle is a circumscribed elevation of skin containing fluid; it is not formed to prevent the spread of infection. d. Incorrect. A cyst is a closed sack or pouch containing fluid or semisolid material; it is not formed to prevent the spread of infection. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:32 AM 38. Symptoms of erysipelas include: a. small pustules surrounding the hair. b. fever, chills, headache, and vomiting. c. vesicles and pustules that rupture. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders d. red streaks that travel from the infected area. ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. Erysipelas is an acute infection of the dermis that extends into underlying fat RATIONALE: tissue. Small pustules surrounding the hair are symptomatic of folliculitis. b. Correct. Symptoms include fatigue, chills, fever, headaches, and vomiting. The infected skin develops a red, warm, hard and painful rash showing a consistency similar to an orange peel. Swelling develops rapidly and exhibits sharply demarcated raised edges. c. Incorrect. Vesicles and pustules that rupture are symptomatic of impetigo. d. Incorrect. The infected skin develops a red, warm, hard, and painful rash showing a consistency similar to an orange peel. Red streaks that travel from the infected area are symptomatic of advancing cases of cellulitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:33 AM 39. Symptoms of Lyme disease include: a. orange-peel-like rash. b. red streaks that travel from the infected area. c. a bulls-eye rash. d. vesicles and pustules that rupture. ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. A red, warm, hard, and painful rash showing a consistency similar to an RATIONALE: orange peel is symptomatic of erysipelas. b. Incorrect. Red streaks that travel from the infected area are symptomatic of advancing cases of cellulitis. c. Correct. A characteristic bulls-eye skin rash is a common sign of Lyme disease. d. Incorrect. Vesicles and pustules that rupture are symptomatic of impetigo. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:35 AM 40. Symptoms of tinea include: a. itchy skin with blisters and pustules. b. white infection on the inner cheeks. c. a bulls-eye rash. d. itching, cracking, and weeping of the skin. ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders RATIONALE:

a. Incorrect. Itchy skin with blisters and pustules is symptomatic of candidiasis between the fingers and toes. b. Incorrect. White infection on the inner cheeks is symptomatic of candidiasis in the mouth, or thrush. c. Incorrect. A characteristic bulls-eye skin rash is a common sign of Lyme disease. d. Correct. Symptoms include itching, cracking, and weeping of the skin. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:36 AM 41. The most common form of tinea infections is: a. tinea cruris. b. tinea pedis. c. tinea corporis. d. tinea capitis. ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. Tinea cruris is not the most common form of tinea infections. RATIONALE: b. Correct. Tinea pedis is the most common and is also known as athlete’s foot. c. Incorrect. Tinea corporis is not the most common form of tinea infections. d. Incorrect. Tinea capitis is not the most common form of tinea infections. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:37 AM 42. A fungal infection affecting the nails is called: a. tinea pedis. b. tinea barbae. c. tinea unguium. d. tinea cruris. ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Tinea pedis is athlete’s foot and does not affect the nails. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Tinea barbae affects bearded areas of the neck and face, and thus, is commonly called barber’s itch. c. Correct. Tinea unguium is a fungal infection affecting the nails. d. Incorrect. Tinea cruris is jock itch and does not affect the nails. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:38 AM 43. Candidiasis of the mouth is called: a. thrush. b. tetany. c. trench mouth. d. tinea. ANSWER: a a. Correct. Candidiasis of the mouth is called thrush. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Candidiasis of the mouth is not called tetany. c. Incorrect. Candidiasis of the mouth is not called trench mouth. d. Incorrect. Tinea is a term used to identify any of a number of highly contagious fungal infections of the skin. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:39 AM 44. What type of lice often occur in individuals with poor hygiene practices? a. head lice b. body lice c. pubic lice d. eyelash lice ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. Head lice are commonly spread among school-aged children and their RATIONALE: families. b. Correct. Body lice often occur in individuals with poor hygiene practices, such as transients and the homeless. c. Incorrect. Pubic lice are spread by sexual contact with an affected individual. d. Incorrect. The different types of lice include head, body, and pubic. Pubic lice can also spread to the eyelashes and eyebrows. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:41 AM 45. An inflammation of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin is: a. seborrheic dermatitis. b. folliculitis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders c. acne vulgaris. d. psoriasis. ANSWER: RATIONALE:

c a. Incorrect. Seborrheic dermatitis is a common type of dermatitis affecting the sebaceous or oil-secreting glands of the skin. b. Incorrect. Folliculitis is inflammation and infection of the hair follicle. c. Correct. Acne is an inflammation of the sebaceous (oil secreting) glands and hair follicles of the skin, characterized by the formation of comedones; a plugged skin pore (the open form is a blackhead; the closed form is a whitehead). Acne vulgaris is the most common form of acne. d. Incorrect. Psoriasis is a very common, chronic skin disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:55 AM 46. Factors contributing to the development of acne vulgaris include: a. endocrine disorders. b. lack of cleanliness. c. lack of sleep. d. consumption of chocolate. ANSWER: a a. Correct. Endocrine disorders, heredity, and food allergies are contributing factors to the RATIONALE: development of acne vulgaris. b. Incorrect. It is not contagious nor due to lack of cleanliness. c. Incorrect. It is not contagious nor due to lack of sleep. d. Incorrect. Acne vulgaris is not caused by consumption of chocolate, colas, or fried foods. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:42 AM 47. Management of acne includes which of the following? a. clean with antibacterial soap b. use heavy makeup c. squeeze the comedones d. avoid fried foods ANSWER: a a. Correct. Cleansing with antibacterial soap is helpful in the management of acne. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Avoiding the use of heavy makeup is helpful in the management of acne. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Squeezing the comedones should not be done. d. Incorrect. Acne vulgaris is not caused by consumption of chocolate, colas, or fried foods, and it is not managed by their avoidance. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:43 AM 48. The treatment for severe acne includes: a. showering often with antibacterial soap. b. squeezing/draining the comedones. c. retinoic acid preparations. d. oral antiviral therapy. ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Showering often and cleansing with antibacterial soap are helpful in the RATIONALE: management of acne, but not as a possible treatment for severe acne. b. Incorrect. Squeezing the comedones should not be done because it can cause further inflammation and infection. c. Correct. Retinoic acid preparations are a possible treatment for severe acne, but other treatments are listed. d. Incorrect. Oral antibiotics, not antivirals, may be used in the treatment of severe acne. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:45 AM 49. An increase in the production of sebum causing inflammation in areas of the skin with the greatest number of glands is called: a. acne vulgaris. b. seborrheic dermatitis. c. scabies. d. psoriasis. ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. Acne is an inflammation of the sebaceous (oil secreting) glands and hair RATIONALE: follicles of the skin. b. Correct. Seborrheic dermatitis is an increase in the production of sebum causing inflammation in areas of the skin with the greatest number of glands. c. Incorrect. Scabies is an infestation by the “itch” mite. d. Incorrect. Psoriasis is a very common, chronic skin disease. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:46 AM 50. Cradle cap is a form of: a. seborrheic dermatitis. b. scabies. c. acne vulgaris. d. psoriasis. ANSWER: a a. Correct. A form of seborrheic dermatitis affecting the scalp of infants is commonly RATIONALE: called cradle cap. b. Incorrect. Cradle cap is not a form of scabies. c. Incorrect. Cradle cap is not a form of acne vulgaris. d. Incorrect. Cradle cap is not a form of psoriasis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:48 AM 51. Olivia is a 3-year-old female who has vesicles and pustules on her hands. Which of the following treatments will be most effective? a. oral antibiotics b. antifungals c. washing and drying the affected areas, plus antibiotic ointment d. bathing with medicated shampoo ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Oral antibiotics are used to treat conditions such as erysipelas, but they are not RATIONALE: commonly used to treat impetigo, which is described here. b. Incorrect. Antifungals are used to treat cases of fungal infections, such as tinea pedis, tinea corporis and more. c. Correct. Impetigo, a highly contagious skin disease common in children, is treated by washing and drying the affected areas, as well as by applying antibiotic ointment. d. Incorrect. Pediculosis (or having head lice) is treated by medicated shampoo. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:48 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

8/8/2022 2:49 AM

52. How is an infestation of itch mites treated? a. application of lindane cream over the entire body b. topical application of cortisone cream c. curettage d. antihistamine ANSWER: a a. Correct. Scabies, an infestation of the itch mite, is treated by applying lindane cream RATIONALE: over the entire body and leaving it on for 8–14 hours. b. Incorrect. Eczema is treated with topical cortisone cream. c. Incorrect. Seborrheic keratosis is often scraped off by curettage. d. Incorrect. Contact dermatitis may be treated with antihistamines. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 2:58 AM 53. Which condition is described by this set of signs and symptoms: hot and red skin, body core temperature 105 degrees or higher, and dry skin? a. hemangiomas b. rosacea c. heatstroke d. heat exhaustion ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Hemangiomas are the most common childhood tumor, demonstrated by red or RATIONALE: purplish birthmarks. b. Incorrect. Rosecea is not life-threatening at all; it causes redness and inflammation of the skin on the face. c. Correct. A heatstroke is a dangerous condition in which the body is no longer able to regulate itself, with symptoms such as dry, red, hot skin and body temperature of 105 degrees or higher. d. Incorrect. Heat exhaustion occurs after exercising or working in excessive heat, but it is not as serious as heatstroke. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 3:00 AM 54. Willa is an 86-year-old female who is bedbound. Why is imperative to change her position in bed frequently? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders a. Her muscles may stiffen. b. She may develop a decubitus ulcer. c. She is more likely to show signs of tinea corporis. d. Her face may show impetigo. ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. While Willa’s muscles may stiffen from disuse, this is not the most important RATIONALE: reason to move her frequently. b. Correct. Decubitus ulcers develop because pressure that results from being in bed can slow down blood flow. c. Incorrect. Tinea corporis, or ringworm, is often seen in young children as reddened rings with a pale center. d. Incorrect. Impetigo is a common, contagious skin disease in children, demonstrated by vesicles and pustules. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.7 - Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system and the common disorders associated with aging of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 3:04 AM 55. Which of the following is true about corns? a. They are not painful. b. They develop on the hands of those working with hand tools. c. They develop due to ill-fitting shoes. d. They are tissue hypoplasia. ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Corns are quite painful. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Calluses form on the hands of those working with hand tools. c. Correct. Corns are painful and develop due to ill-fitting shoes. d. Incorrect. Corns are protective hyperplasias of tissues. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 3:05 AM 56. Which type of fungal infection is characterized by red, ring-shaped patches with pale centers? a. tinea cruris b. tinea unguium c. tinea pedis d. tinea corporis ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders RATIONALE:

a. Incorrect. This fungal infection is found in the scrotal and groin area of adult men. b. Incorrect. Tinea unguium affects fingernails or toenails and can lead to a thickened, white, and brittle nail. c. Incorrect. Tinea pedis, or athlete’s foot, causes burning, itching, and cracking on the feet. d. Correct. Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm, is seen often in young children as red, ring-shaped patches with pale centers POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1 - Define the terminology common to the integumentary system and the disorders of the system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 3:07 AM 57. Aiden is an avid hiker who just started having malaise, a fever, and a reddened, circular rash with a lighter center. Which of the following conditions is possible? a. MRSA b. tinea corporis c. Lyme disease d. erysipelas ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. MRSA often starts with small red bumps that may become abscesses. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm, shows up as a reddened ring with a pale center, but no malaise or fever is present. c. Correct. Lyme disease, caused by infected ticks, which are prevalent in wooded areas, leads to malaise, a fever as a characteristic “bulls-eye” rash. d. Incorrect. Erysipelas causes malaise, fever, and red skin that resembles an orange peel. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.3 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 3:08 AM 58. Which patient is most at risk for developing cellulitis? a. 5-year-old male with pediculosis b. 17-year-old male with scabies c. 27-year-old female with Lyme disease d. 53-year-old male with an infected insect bite ANSWER: d a. Incorrect. Pediculosis, or lice, cause itching and are difficult to get rid of, but they do not RATIONALE: cause cellulitis. b. Incorrect. Scabies cause intense itching. c. Incorrect. Lyme disease is caused by the bite of an infected tick, which can lead to arthritis and other neurological or cardiovascular complications. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders d. Correct. Cellulitis, a diffuse inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue, may be caused by insect bites, wounds, ulcers, or other causes. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.2 - Discuss the basic anatomy and physiology of the integumentary system. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 3:10 AM 59. Trenton is a 15-year-old male who has just been diagnosed with eczema. Which of the following may be used to treat his condition? a. antihistamines b. surgical removal c. topical cortisone creams d. antifungal medication ANSWER: c a. Incorrect. Antihistamines may be used to treat conditions of allergies, such as urticaria. RATIONALE: b. Incorrect. Skin cancers are treated with surgical removal. c. Correct. Topical cortisone creams are commonly used to treat eczema. d. Incorrect. Antifungal medications are used to treat fungal infections, such as tinea unguium. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.6 - Describe the typical course and management of the common integumentary system disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/8/2022 3:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 8/8/2022 3:12 AM 60. Which of the following conditions should be protected from sun exposure? a. lentigo b. albinism c. melasma d. vitiligo ANSWER: b a. Incorrect. A small brown spot appearing on the hands of older adults is called lentigo. RATIONALE: b. Correct. Individuals with albinism do not have pigment in their eyes, skin, or hair and should be protected from the sun to prevent sunburn. c. Incorrect. Melasma, dark patches on the face, is common in pregnant females. d. Incorrect. Vitiligo is characterized by the destruction of melanocytes in small or large patches. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.5 - Identify common disorders of the integumentary. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - Integumentary System Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/8/2022 3:12 AM 8/8/2022 3:13 AM

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders 1. During what process do the 46 chromosomes duplicate and divide into two identical daughter cells, each containing 46 chromosomes? a. meiosis b. mitosis c. karyotyping d. phenotyping ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Germ cells become haploid cells through a process called meiosis that results in each cell carrying only half the number of chromosomes: 23 chromosomes. b. Correct. Most somatic (body) cells can reproduce in a process called mitosis, during which the 46 chromosomes duplicate and divide into two identical daughter cells, each containing 46 chromosomes. c. Incorrect. Karyotyping is a process of visualizing chromosomes.

d. Incorrect. Expression of a trait such as brown hair or blue eyes is called phenotype.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:03 AM 2. What process results in each cell carrying only half the number of chromosomes? a. karyotyping b. mitosis c. meiosis d. phenotype ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Karyotyping is a process of visualizing chromosomes b. Incorrect. Most somatic (body) cells can reproduce in a process called mitosis, during which the 46 chromosomes duplicate and divide into two identical daughter cells, each containing 46 chromosomes. c. Correct. Germ cells become haploid cells through a process called meiosis that results in each cell carrying only half the number of chromosomes: 23 chromosomes. d. Incorrect. Expression of a trait such as brown hair or blue eyes is called phenotype.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders 3. If the alleles, or genes in a pair, match, they are said to be what? a. dominant b. homozygous c. heterozygous d. recessive ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Each gene in an allele or matched pair of genes can be dominant (in control) or recessive (lacking control). b. Correct. If the alleles, or genes in a pair, match, such as BB or bb, they are said to be homozygous. c. Incorrect. If the alleles do not match, such as Bb, they are heterozygous.

d. Incorrect. Each gene in an allele or matched pair of genes can be dominant (in control) or recessive (lacking control).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:09 AM 4. Expression of a trait, such as hair or eye color, is called what? a. dominant b. homozygous c. heterozygous d. phenotype ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Each gene in an allele or matched pair of genes can be dominant (in control) or recessive (lacking control).

b. Incorrect. If the alleles, or genes in a pair, match, such as BB or bb, they are said to be homozygous. c. Incorrect. If the alleles do not match, such as Bb, they are heterozygous.

d. Correct. Expression of a trait such as brown hair or blue eyes is called phenotype.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:11 AM 5. The 22 pairs of chromosomes that determine body function and are called what? a. phenotypes b. homozygous c. heterozygous Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders d. autosomes ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Expression of a trait such as brown hair or blue eyes is called phenotype. b. Incorrect. If the alleles, or genes in a pair, match, such as BB or bb, they are said to be homozygous. c. Incorrect. If the alleles do not match, such as Bb, they are heterozygous.

d. Correct. Of the 46 chromosomes each individual cell possesses, 44 chromosomes, or 22 pairs, determine somatic or body function and are called autosomes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:13 AM 6. What type of genetic disorders are typically carried by females and passed to males? a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. sex-linked recessive d. sex-linked dominant ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. This is typical of a sex-linked, not autosomal, passage. b. Incorrect. This is typical of a sex-linked, not autosomal, passage. c. Correct. Sex-linked recessive disorders are typically carried by females and passed to males. d. Incorrect. This is typical with recessive, not dominant, genes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:15 AM 7. Approximately what% of all newborns have significant congenital defects? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Approximately 2% of all newborns have a significant birth defect or congenital anomaly. b. Incorrect. The percentage is lower than 5%. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Approximately 10% of causes are chromosomal, but 10% of all

newborns don’t have a birth defect. d. Incorrect. Approximately 20% of causes are genetic, but 20% of all newborns don’t have a birth defect.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:24 AM 8. What test to diagnose prenatal disorders is used to observe for abnormal fetal substances? a. ultrasonography b. amniotic fluid analysis c. maternal blood analysis d. genetic testing ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Ultrasonography is used to detect malformations of the head, internal organs, and extremities. b. Incorrect. Amniotic fluid analysis is a test that may be used to determine genetic and chromosomal disorders. c. Correct. Maternal blood analysis is a test that may be used to observe for abnormal fetal substances. d. Incorrect. Advanced genetic testing is becoming more common, but is not used to detect fetal malformations.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of genetic or developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:25 AM 9. Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of microcephaly? a. angiography b. X-ray c. high-resolution ultrasound d. electromyography ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Angiography is used in the diagnosis of hydrocephalus. b. Incorrect. An X-ray is not helpful in diagnosing muscular dystrophy. It is used to diagnose conditions such as clubfoot and osteogenesis imperfecta. c. Correct. Diagnosis of microcephaly is confirmed with high-resolution ultrasound. d. Incorrect. Diagnosis of muscular dystrophy is made on the basis of physical Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders examination, muscle biopsy, and electromyography.

c. Correct. Behavioral changes are the most common symptoms. The person displays irritability, moodiness, restlessness, abnormal movements, unsteady gait, and an increasing dementia. d. Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome is not associated with behavioral changes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of genetic or developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:56 AM 11. What is the most common type of heart defect? a. atrial septal defects b. ventricular septal defects c. tetralogy of Fallot d. coarctation of the aorta ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Atrial septal defect is an opening between the right and left atria, and it is not the most common type of defect. b. Correct. Ventricular septal defects are the most common heart defects, accounting for approximately 25% of all heart defects. c. Incorrect. Tetralogy of Fallot is one of the most serious congenital heart defects, but not the most common. d. Incorrect. This narrowing of the descending or thoracic aorta is not the most common type of defect. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:58 AM 12. What type of heart defect is a narrowing of the descending or thoracic aorta? a. atrial septal defects b. ventricular septal defects c. tetralogy of Fallot d. coarctation of the aorta ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Atrial septal defect is an opening between the right and left atria. b. Incorrect. A ventral septal defect is a hole between the right and left ventricles. c. Incorrect. Tetralogy of Fallot is a combination of four (tetra) defects. d. Correct. Coarctation is a narrowing of the descending or thoracic aorta. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 12:59 AM 13. With what condition does oxygenated blood shunt abnormally from the higher-pressured aorta back to the pulmonary artery? a. atrial septal defect b. patent ductus arteriosus c. ventricular septal defect d. coarctation of the aorta ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Atrial septal defects cause a re-pumping of blood, making an increased workload on the right side of the heart. b. Correct. The ductus arteriosus normally closes off shortly after birth. If the structure does not close, or remains patent, the condition is called patent ductus arteriosus. Oxygenated blood shunts abnormally from the higherpressured aorta back to the pulmonary artery. c. Incorrect. With a ventricular septal defect, oxygenated blood has to be repumped, causing an increased workload on the right side of the heart. d. Incorrect. Coarctation is a narrowing of the descending or thoracic aorta.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 12:51 AM 11/30/2022 1:00 AM

14. Which of the following occurs more frequently in boys than in girls? a. congenital hip dislocation b. cleft lip c. cleft palate d. atrial septal defect ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. CHD is more common in girls and is usually obvious during the first few months of life. b. Correct. Cleft lip occurs more frequently in boys and can vary from slight to severe. c. Incorrect. Cleft palate is more common in girls.

d. Incorrect. Atrial septal defect occurs more commonly in girls than in boys. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:02 AM 15. Which of the following occurs more frequently in girls than in boys? a. pyloric stenosis b. cleft lip c. Hirschsprung’s disease d. congenital hip dislocation ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pyloric stenosis occurs almost exclusively in boys. b. Incorrect. Cleft lip occurs more frequently in boys and can vary from slight to severe. c. Incorrect. Hirschsprung’s disease is seen more often in boys.

d. Correct. CHD is more common in girls and is usually obvious during the first few months of life.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders c. pyloric stenosis d. phenylketonuria ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Hirschsprung’s disease is due to an absence of certain nerve cells (called parasympathetic ganglion cells) in a segment of the colon, usually the sigmoid colon. b. Incorrect. Hypospadias is an abnormal congenital opening of the male urinary meatus on the undersurface of the penis c. Correct. Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing (stenosis) of the outlet of the lower end of the stomach, the pylorus. d. Incorrect. PKU is an abnormal or faulty metabolism of the phenylalanine protein.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:04 AM 17. Which of the following is treated by placing infants on a protein-restrictive diet? a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. pyloric stenosis c. imperforate anus d. phenylketonuria ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hirschsprung’s disease is due to an absence of certain nerve cells (called parasympathetic ganglion cells) in a segment of the colon, usually the sigmoid colon, and the treatment is surgical removal of the affected segment. b. Incorrect. Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing (stenosis) of the outlet of the lower end of the stomach, the pylorus, and the treatment is surgical. c. Incorrect. The treatment for imperforate anus is surgical.

d. Correct. PKU is an abnormal or faulty metabolism of the phenylalanine protein. Affected infants are placed on a protein-restrictive diet.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 12:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:06 AM 18. Which of the following is a symptom of autism usually apparent in infancy? a. excessive crying b. hyperactivity c. blank facial expression Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders d. a need to be held ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Excessive crying is not a symptom of autism. b. Incorrect. Hyperactivity is not a symptom of autism. c. Correct. Symptoms of autism are usually apparent in infancy when the infant exhibits an eye-to-eye gaze and blank facial expression. d. Incorrect. Affected children often become inaccessible to others and would not exhibit a need to be held.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:07 AM 19. Amniocentesis is an effective tool for discovery of what? a. fetal alcohol syndrome b. cystic fibrosis c. Down syndrome d. autism ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Amniocentesis is not used to discover fetal alcohol syndrome. b. Incorrect. Amniocentesis is not used to discover fetal alcohol syndrome. c. Correct. Amniocentesis is an effective tool for discovery of cystic fibrosis. d. Incorrect. Amniocentesis is not used to discover autism. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of genetic or developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:08 AM 20. What is epicanthus, a sign of Down syndrome? a. a flat nasal bridge b. slanted eyes c. a thick, protruding tongue d. a vertical fold of skin across the eyes ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A flat nasal bridge is a sign of Down syndrome, but it is not epicanthus. b. Incorrect. Slanted eyes are a sign of Down syndrome, but it is not epicanthus. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. A thick, protruding tongue is a sign of Down syndrome, but it is not epicanthus. d. Correct. Facial features indicating Down syndrome include a flat nasal bridge, low-set ears, slanted eyes with epicanthus (a vertical fold of skin across the medial canthus of the eyes), and a thick, protruding tongue.

b. Correct. Teratogens are commonly thought of as environmental causes and include maternal radiation, infection, metabolic disorders, smoking, alcohol, drugs, and medications. c. Incorrect. An abnormal gene can be acquired by mutation of the gene during meiosis. d. Incorrect. Autosomal recessive is one of the ways in which genetic disorders are passed to offspring.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:11 AM 22. What test to diagnose prenatal disorders is used to detect malformations of the head, internal organs, and extremities? a. ultrasonography b. amniotic fluid analysis c. maternal blood analysis d. genetic testing ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Ultrasonography is used to detect malformations of the head, internal organs, and extremities.

b. Incorrect. Amniotic fluid analysis is a test that may be used to determine genetic and chromosomal disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders c. Incorrect. Maternal blood analysis is a test that may be used to observe for abnormal fetal substances. d. Incorrect. Advanced genetic testing is becoming more common, but it is not used to detect fetal malformations.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of genetic or developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:12 AM 23. Muscular dystrophy is characterized by: a. the femoral head slipping out of position. b. muscle fibers that die and are replaced with fat and connective tissue. c. brittle bones and frequent fractures. d. accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Congenital hip dislocation (CHD) is an abnormality of the hip joint, or acetabulum, resulting in the femoral head, or ball, slipping out of the normal position. b. Correct. Muscles that are unable to store protein, muscle fibers that die and are replaced with fat and connective tissue, and muscles that digress from weak to useless are all characteristics of muscular dystrophy. c. Incorrect. Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by abnormally brittle bones, often leading to frequent fractures. d. Incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:13 AM 24. Symptoms of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy include: a. a waddling gait. b. a staggering gait. c. asymmetrical folds of the thigh. d. an abnormal strength of the pelvic muscles. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A waddling gait is a symptom of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. b. Incorrect. A staggering gait is not a symptom of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. c. Incorrect. Asymmetrical folds of the thigh is a symptom of CHD. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Weakness, not an abnormal strength, of the pelvic muscles is a symptom of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:14 AM 25. Which of the following is used in the diagnosis of muscular dystrophy? a. angiography b. X-ray c. high-resolution ultrasound d. electromyography ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Angiography is used in the diagnosis of hydrocephalus. b. Incorrect. An X-ray is not helpful in diagnosing muscular dystrophy. It is used to diagnose conditions such as clubfoot and osteogenesis imperfecta. c. Incorrect. Diagnosis of microcephaly is confirmed with high-resolution ultrasound. d. Correct. Diagnosis is made on the basis of physical examination, muscle biopsy, and electromyography.

c. Correct. Although there is no cure for muscular dystrophy (MD), orthopedic appliances such as leg braces are quite effective in maintaining mobility and quality of life. d. Incorrect. Casting may be used as a treatment for conditions such as CHD and Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders clubfoot, but not for MD.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:17 AM 27. Congenital hip dislocation may occur as a result of: a. a gene mutation. b. maternal hormones that relax the joint ligaments of the infant. c. obstruction of the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. d. prolonged labor. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. CHD is not a result of gene mutation. b. Correct. Maternal hormones that relax the joint ligaments of the infant may contribute to congenital hip dislocation, but other possibilities are listed. c. Incorrect. Hydrocephalus is generally caused by obstruction of the flow of cerebrospinal fluid out of the brain. d. Incorrect. Causes of CP include prolonged labor.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:18 AM 28. Congenital hip dislocation is obvious in the first month of life because the infant will have: a. asymmetrical folds of the affected thigh. b. legs that are of the same length. c. increased abduction. d. bulking of muscle in the calf. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Asymmetrical folds of the affected thigh are indicative of congenital hip dislocation. b. Incorrect. Legs that are unequal, not equal in length, would indicate congenital hip dislocation. c. Incorrect. Limited, not increased, abduction is indicative of congenital hip dislocation. d. Incorrect. Bulking of muscle mass, especially noticeable in the calf, is a symptom of MD.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:19 AM 29. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a disorder characterized by: a. brittle bones. b. soft bones. c. mineralized bones. d. porous bones. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a disorder characterized by brittle bones. b. Incorrect. Soft bones are not characteristic of osteogenesis imperfecta. c. Incorrect. Mineralized bones are not characteristic of osteogenesis imperfecta. d. Incorrect. Porous bones are not characteristic of osteogenesis imperfecta. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:20 AM 30. Signs of osteogenesis imperfecta include: a. frequent ligament tears. b. brown coloration of the sclera of the eyes. c. otosclerotic deafness. d. yellow dental enamel. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Frequent fractures, not ligament tears, are a sign of osteogenesis imperfecta. b. Incorrect. Blue coloration of the sclera of the eyes is a sign of osteogenesis imperfecta. c. Correct. Otosclerotic deafness is a sign of osteogenesis imperfecta.

d. Incorrect. Thin, not yellow, dental enamel of the teeth is a sign of osteogenesis imperfecta.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders 31. The obstruction causing hydrocephalus may be caused by which of the following? a. a tumor b. improper position of the fetus in the uterus c. maternal hormones d. maternal rubella ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A tumor, a congenital defect, and an infection all may be the cause of an obstruction causing hydrocephalus. b. Incorrect. Improper position of the fetus in the uterus may cause CHD.

c. Incorrect. Maternal hormones may cause CHD. d. Incorrect. Maternal rubella may cause conditions such as microcephaly or CP. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:22 AM 32. Signs of hydrocephalus may include which of the following? a. smaller-than-normal head b. hyperactivity c. a weak cry d. prominent head veins ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A smaller-than-normal head may be a sign of microcephaly. b. Incorrect. Hyperactivity can be a symptom of microcephaly. c. Incorrect. Signs include a shrill, high-pitched cry (not a weak cry). d. Correct. Signs include bulging eyes, a tight scalp, prominent head veins, and a shrill, high-pitched cry.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:23 AM 33. Inadequate blood or oxygen supply to the brain during fetal development, the birthing process, or in infancy results in what? a. hydrocephalus b. microcephaly c. osteogenesis imperfecta d. cerebral palsy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Hydrocephalus is generally caused by obstruction of the flow of cerebrospinal fluid out of the brain. b. Incorrect. Microcephaly may be caused by genetic abnormalities or by maternal factors. c. Incorrect. Osteogenesis imperfecta is an inherited condition caused by gene mutation. d. Correct. Cerebral palsy is a congenital bilateral paralysis that results from inadequate blood or oxygen supply to the brain during fetal development, the birthing process, or in infancy.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:24 AM 34. Which of the following may be caused by head trauma? a. hydrocephalus b. microcephaly c. cerebral palsy d. spina bifida ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hydrocephalus can result from a congenital defect, and infection, or a tumor. b. Incorrect. Microcephaly may be caused by genetic abnormalities or by maternal factors. c. Correct. Causes of cerebral palsy include maternal rubella, toxemia, birthing difficulties such as prolonged labor, anoxia, hypoxemia, and asphyxia from the umbilical cord being wrapped around the infant’s neck, head trauma, and meningitis. Often, the cause of cerebral palsy is unknown. d. Incorrect. Development of the spinal cord and column occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy; spina bifida is not caused by head trauma.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:25 AM 35. Complications of cerebral palsy include which of the following? a. visual and hearing deficits b. short stature c. walking on heels d. shrill, high-pitched cry Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Visual and hearing deficits is a possible complication of cerebral palsy. b. Incorrect. Dwarfism or short stature may be a symptom of microcephaly. c. Incorrect. The affected child commonly has a “scissors gait” exhibited by toe walking and crossing one foot over the other with each step. d. Incorrect. A shrill, high-pitched cry is a symptom of hydrocephalus.

d. Correct. There is no cure for cerebral palsy. Treatment involves physical therapy, speech therapy, orthopedic cast, braces, and often surgery to help the child reach full potential. Anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant medications also may be of some benefit.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:27 AM 37. Risk factors for developing spina bifida include: a. maternal radiation. b. maternal hormones. c. improper positioning of the fetus. d. prolonged labor. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Risk factors include maternal radiation, virus, and genetic factors since Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders children born with spina bifida are more often born to mothers who have other children with this defect. b. Incorrect. Maternal hormones, which may relax joint ligaments in the infant, may cause CHD. c. Incorrect. Improper position of the fetus in the uterus prior to or during birth may cause CHD. d. Incorrect. Birthing difficulties such as prolonged labor may cause CP.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:28 AM 38. What is the most common form of spina bifida? a. spina bifida occulta b. meningocele c. myelomeningocele d. talipes equinovarus ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Spina bifida occulta is a form of spina bifida, but other forms are listed. b. Incorrect. Meningocele is a form of spina bifida, but it is not the most common. c. Incorrect. Myelomeningocele is a form of spina bifida, but it is not the most common. d. Incorrect. Talipes equinovarus is clubfoot, not a form of spina bifida.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:29 AM 39. Symptoms of spina bifida include: a. a tight scalp. b. enlarged head. c. skeletal malformation. d. paralysis of the arms. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A tight scalp is a symptom of hydrocephalus. b. Incorrect. An enlarged head is not a symptom of spina bifida. c. Correct. Depending on the type and cause, common symptoms include skeletal malformation, deformed joints, paralysis of the legs, and bowel and bladder incontinence. d. Incorrect. Common symptoms include paralysis of the legs, not the arms. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:31 AM 40. Which form of spina bifida includes neurologic symptoms? a. hydrocephalus b. myelomeningocele c. spina bifida occulta d. Meningocele ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hydrocephalus is not a form of spina bifida. b. Correct. Myelomeningocele is the most serious form of spina bifida because the meninges and a portion of the spinal cord protrude through the opening in the vertebral column, causing neurologic symptoms. c. Incorrect. Spina bifida occulta is asymptomatic.

d. Incorrect. Because nerve tissue is not involved, the infant usually does not have neurologic problems.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:31 AM 41. Risk factors for developing congenital heart defects include which of the following? a. mothers over age 35 b. maternal radiation c. maternal rubella d. maternal obesity ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Recent research indicates that hypospadias risk factors include an increase in risk in baby boys born to mothers who were age 35 or older and were considered obese during pregnancy. b. Incorrect. Maternal radiation is a risk factor for spina bifida.

c. Incorrect. Maternal rubella is a risk factor for developing congenital heart defects. d. Incorrect. Recent research indicates that hypospadias risk factors include an increase in risk in baby boys born to mothers who were age 35 or older and were considered obese during pregnancy.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:33 AM 42. With which defect involved in tetralogy of Fallot is the amount of blood flow to the lungs restricted? a. pulmonary valve stenosis b. right ventricular hypertrophy c. ventricular septal defect d. abnormal placement of the aorta ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Pulmonary valve stenosis is a defect involved with tetralogy of Fallot, in which the opening into the pulmonary artery is too small, restricting the amount of blood flow to the lungs. b. Incorrect. Right ventricular hypertrophy is due to the increased workload on the right ventricle as it attempts to pump blood through the stenotic valve. c. Incorrect. Ventricular septal defect allows oxygenated blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right. d. Incorrect. With abnormal placement of the aorta, the aorta opens over the ventricle septal defect, allowing blood from both ventricles to be pumped into the aorta. The unoxygenated blood from the right ventricle enters the general circulation without passing through the lungs to become oxygenated.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:33 AM 43. Symptoms of tetralogy of Fallot include: a. clubbing of the fingers and toes. b. decreased cyanosis as the child ages. c. resting in a sitting position to breathe easier. d. frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs). ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Infants and children with tetralogy of Fallot are truly “blue babies.” Cyanosis increases with age, and clubbing of fingers and toes becomes evident. Older children will rest in a squatting position to breathe easier. This position also increases venous return. Other symptoms are growth retardation, severe dyspnea with exercise, and frequent respiratory infections. b. Incorrect. Cyanosis increases, not decreases, with age.

c. Incorrect. Resting in a squatting position, not a sitting position, makes breathing easier. d. Incorrect. Frequent respiratory infections, not urinary tract infections (UTIs), are a symptom.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:34 AM 44. Symptoms of pyloric stenosis include: a. excessive diarrhea. b. projectile vomiting. c. excessive weight gain. d. occasional spitting up with burps. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diarrhea is not a symptom of pyloric stenosis. b. Correct. The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile or forceful vomiting. Symptoms of pyloric stenosis usually begin at 2 to 4 weeks of age. This condition occurs almost exclusively in boys. c. Incorrect. Excessive weight gain is not a symptom of pyloric stenosis.

d. Incorrect. Occasional spitting up with burps is not a symptom of pyloric stenosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:35 AM 45. Common symptoms of Hirschsprung’s disease include: a. chronic constipation. b. diarrhea. c. projectile vomiting. d. soft, shrunken abdomen. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Common symptoms include chronic constipation and abdominal distention. b. Incorrect. Diarrhea is not a symptom of Hirschsprung’s disease.

c. Incorrect. Projectile vomiting is a symptom of pyloric stenosis. d. Incorrect. Abdominal distention, not a soft, shrunken abdomen, is a symptom of Hirschsprung’s disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

developmental disorders. 8/5/2022 2:29 AM 11/30/2022 1:36 AM

46. Current treatment for Wilms’ tumor includes: a. surgery only. b. surgery and radiation. c. radiation and chemotherapy. d. surgery and chemotherapy. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Surgery alone is not the current treatment for Wilms’ tumor. b. Incorrect. Radiation is not part of the current treatment for Wilms’ tumor. c. Incorrect. Radiation is not part of the current treatment for Wilms’ tumor. d. Correct. Surgery and chemotherapy are the current treatment for Wilms’ tumor. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:37 AM 47. General characteristics of Turner’s syndrome include: a. increased fertility. b. a long, slender neck. c. amenorrhea. d. gigantism. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Sterility, not fertility, is a characteristic of Turner’s syndrome. b. Incorrect. A broad neck, not a long slender neck, is a characteristic of Turner’s syndrome. c. Correct. This individual fails to develop normal female secondary sex characteristics at puberty. General physical features of affected females include a short stature, broad neck, wide chest, amenorrhea, and sterility. d. Incorrect. A short stature, not gigantism, is a characteristic of Turner’s syndrome.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders 48. General physical features of Klinefelter’s syndrome include which of the following? a. a small penis and testicles b. a broad neck c. excessive body hair d. short stature ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. An abnormally small penis and testes is a general physical feature of

Klinefelter’s syndrome. b. Incorrect. A broad neck is a physical feature associated with Turner’s syndrome. c. Incorrect. Absent or scant body hair is a general physical feature of Klinefelter’s syndrome. d. Incorrect. The affected individual has a general appearance of a eunuch with a tall, slender body and long legs.

d. Incorrect. The sweat glands are affected, but this is not the most serious complication.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. fetal alcohol syndrome d. cystic fibrosis ANSWER: d FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Abnormal excretion of salt is not a symptom of cerebral palsy. b. Incorrect. Abnormal excretion of salt is not a symptom of Klinefelter’s syndrome. c. Incorrect. Abnormal excretion of salt is not a symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome. d. Correct. In cystic fibrosis, the abnormal excretion of salt is usually the first sign that parents recognize as abnormal.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:41 AM 51. Liliana is a 3-year-old female who is experiencing frequent fractures with normal play. The sclera of her eyes has a blue cast. Which of the following conditions is possible? a. talipes equinovarus b. hydrocephalus c. osteogenesis imperfecta d. spina bifida ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Talipes varus, also known as congenital clubfoot, causes the toes to point down while the foot turns inward. b. Incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain and can occur because of obstruction or as a congenital abnormality. c. Correct. Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by frequent fractures.

d. Incorrect. The result of the vertebral column failing to close over the spinal cord is spina bifida.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:42 AM 52. Michael is a 4-year-old boy with coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following is associated with coarctation of the aorta? a. higher blood pressure proximal to the stricture, lower blood pressure distal to the stricture b. elevated blood sugar Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders c. right ventricular hypertrophy d. anemia ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Coarctation, or narrowing of the aorta, causes blood pressure to be high proximal to the narrowing, but to be lower distal to the narrowing. b. Incorrect. Other conditions cause elevated blood sugar.

c. Incorrect. Right ventricular hypertrophy is present when the right side of the heart has an increased workload. d. Incorrect. Anemia is present with sickle cell anemia.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:43 AM 53. Asbin is a 3-week-old male who projectile vomits after eating. Which procedure may be helpful to diagnose the cause? a. PKU testing b. electrocardiogram c. electromyography d. upper GI ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. PKU testing is used to diagnose phenylketonuria. b. Incorrect. An electrocardiogram is used to diagnose cardiac abnormalities. c. Incorrect. Electromyography may be used to diagnosed muscular dystrophy or other musculoskeletal disorders. d. Correct. Pyloric stenosis, which causes projectile vomiting in 2- to 4-week-old infants, can be diagnosed by upper GI test.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Autosomal dominant disorders are obvious in the individual who carries the gene. b. Correct. Autosomal recessive disorders are not evident unless two recessive genes are paired. c. Incorrect. Sex-linked recessive disorders are typically carried by females and passed on to their male offspring. d. Incorrect. In sex-linked recessive disorders, the affected male can pass this disorder on to female offspring, who will be carriers, even though they will likely not have evidence of the disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:45 AM 55. Ryker is a one-day-old male who was born with a congenital anomaly. What is the most likely cause of congenital anomalies? a. genetic b. chromosomal c. unknown d. teratogens ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Around 20% of congenital anomalies are caused by genetic reasons. b. Incorrect. Chromosomal abnormalities cause about 10% of congenital anomalies.

c. Correct. About 60% of congenital anomalies have an unknown cause. d. Incorrect. Teratogens cause about 10% of congenital anomalies. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of genetic or developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:46 AM 56. Jazmyne is a 2-month-old female who is developing bulging eyes, tight scalp, prominent head veins and a shrill cry. Which treatment is used to treat her disorder? a. pyloromyotomy b. chemotherapy c. estrogen therapy d. placement of a shunt from the brain to the peritoneal cavity ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. A pyloromyotomy is a surgical procedure that corrects pyloric stenosis. b. Incorrect. Chemotherapy is used to treat Wilms’ tumor and other childhood malignancies. c. Incorrect. Estrogen therapy may be used for individuals with Turner’s syndrome. d. Correct. All the symptoms point to hydrocephalus, an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, which is treated by placing a shunt to drain the extra fluid out of the brain.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:47 AM 57. Kofi and Iyana have been told that their unborn child has a condition that will not allow the child to survive. Which type of condition is not compatible with life? a. Down syndrome b. fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) c. anencephaly d. cystic fibrosis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. With improved surgical techniques, the life expectancy for an individual with Down syndrome is about 55 years old. b. Incorrect. Babies with FAS may have mental challenges, delayed physical development, and an increased occurrence of ventricular septal defects. c. Correct. A baby born with anencephaly, an absence of the brain or cranial vault, cannot sustain life without artificial means. d. Incorrect. Although cystic fibrosis is still considered a fatal disease, many individuals are surviving into their late 20s and 30s.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1 - Define the terminology common to genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:48 AM 58. Cory is a 12-year-old male with cystic fibrosis. Why is he on a high-calorie, high-sodium diet? a. He loses large amounts of salt through excessive perspiration. b. His risk of pneumonia is increased. c. Cystic fibrosis causes hypertension. d. Cystic fibrosis is seen in conjunction with congenital heart defects. ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Cystic fibrosis affects the sweat glands, causing large amounts of salt loss; consuming a high-sodium diet helps. b. Incorrect. Individuals with cystic fibrosis are at an increased risk of pneumonia, which is helped by aggressive respiratory treatments. c. Incorrect. Individuals with cystic fibrosis usually have hypotension.

d. Incorrect. Congenital heart defects are not seen in conjunction with cystic fibrosis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:49 AM 59. Omar is researching various conditions that occur at the chromosomal level. Which condition causes affected individuals to have only one X chromosome? a. Turner’s syndrome b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. cryptorchidism d. hypospadias ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Females who are affected by Turner’s syndrome have only one X chromosome instead of two. b. Incorrect. Klinefelter’s syndrome results in males having an extra X chromosome. c. Incorrect. Cryptorchidism is a condition of having an undescended testicle but does not change normal chromosomes. d. Incorrect. In hypospadias, the urinary meatus is on the underside of the penis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4 - Identify the common genetic and developmental disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 2:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:50 AM 60. Tara is born with Tetralogy of Fallot. Which aspect of this condition leads to cyanosis? a. overproduction of parathyroid hormone b. presence of right ventricular hypertrophy c. blood from the right ventricle entering the general circulation d. coarctation of the aorta ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia but is not seen with this congenital heart defect. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Genetic and Developmental Diseases and Disorders b. Incorrect. Right ventricular hypertrophy occurs because the right ventricle must work harder to pump blood through the pulmonary valve. c. Correct. Blood from the right ventricle is deoxygenated, so it enters the general circulation, and it is unable to oxygenate the tissues, leading to cyanosis. d. Incorrect. Coarctation is a stricture of the aorta, which is not typically seen with Tetralogy of Fallot.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders 1. Which of the following has been completely eradicated through immunization? a. polio b. smallpox c. chicken pox d. tetanus ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Since 1988, the World Health Organization (WHO) has led a global effort to eradicate polio, but it has not yet been completely eradicated. b. Correct. Since 1988, the World Health Organization (WHO) has led a global effort to eradicate polio. If worldwide eradication of polio is accomplished, it will represent only the second time in history that humanity was able to completely eliminate a disease. The first was smallpox in 1979. c. Incorrect. Chicken pox is a common childhood infectious disease that has not been eradicated. d. Incorrect. Tetanus has not been eradicated, but immunization with the DTP vaccine prevents it.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6 - List the immunizations available to prevent childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:55 AM 2. The first dose of what immunization is given at birth? a. hepatitis B b. diphtheria c. tetanus d. inactivated poliovirus ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The first of three doses for Hepatitis B is given at birth. b. Incorrect. The first DTaP dose is given at 2 months. c. Incorrect. The first DTaP does is given at two months. d. Incorrect. The first IPV dose is given at 2 months. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6 - List the immunizations available to prevent childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:58 AM 3. When is the first dose of the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine given? a. at birth b. 4 to 6 months c. 12 to 15 months Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders d. 4 to 6 years ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. The only immunization given at birth is dose 1 of 3 for Hepatitis B. b. Incorrect. The first dose of MMR is given later than 6 months. c. Correct. The first dose of MMR is given at 12 to 15 months. d. Incorrect. Dose 2 of MMR is given at 4 to 6 years.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6 - List the immunizations available to prevent childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 1:59 AM 4. How often is it recommended that one have a tetanus-diphtheria (Td) booster? a. annually b. every 2 years c. every 5 years d. every 10 years ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. It is recommended to have the influenza vaccine annually. b. Incorrect. It is not recommended to have the Td booster this frequently. c. Incorrect. It is not recommended to have the Td booster this frequently. d. Correct. It is recommended to have a tetanus-diphtheria (Td) booster every 10 years.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6 - List the immunizations available to prevent childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:00 AM 5. Which of the following vaccines is first given at age 11? a. meningococcal b. influenza c. hepatitis A d. MMR ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Meningococcal dose 1 of 2 is given at 11 years. b. Incorrect. Influenza is given annually, but the initial dose can be given as early as 6 months. c. Incorrect. Hepatitis A is given at 18 months.

d. Incorrect. MMR is given at 12 months and again at 4 to 6 years. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6 - List the immunizations available to prevent childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:01 AM 6. The human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is a series of how many injections? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. It is more than two injections. b. Correct. It is a series of three injections; the second one is given one to two months after the first, and the third one is given six months after the first one.

c. Incorrect. It is fewer than four injections. d. Incorrect. It is fewer than six injections. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6 - List the immunizations available to prevent childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:02 AM 7. Approximately what percent of all poisonings occur in children under 6 years of age? a. 25% b. 33% c. 50% d. 75% ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The rate is higher than 25%. b. Incorrect. The rate is higher than 33%. c. Incorrect. The rate is higher than 50%. d. Correct. Accidental poisoning is among the top five causes of death in children under 10 years of age. About 75% of all poisonings occur in children under 6 years of age.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders 8. Which of the following is true regarding the differences between males and females in relation to suicide? a. Females have a higher rate of suicide ideation than males, but a much lower rate of attempts and incidence of death. b. Females have a lower rate of suicide ideation and attempts than males, but a much higher incidence of death. c. Females have a higher rate of suicide ideation and attempts than males, but a much lower incidence of death. d. Females have a lower rate of suicide ideation and attempts than males, and a much lower incidence of death. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Females have a higher rate of attempts than males. b. Incorrect. Males have a higher incidence of death. c. Correct. Females have a higher rate of suicide ideation and attempts than males, but a much lower incidence of death. d. Incorrect. Females have a higher rate of ideation and attempts than males.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5 - State the common drugs abused by children, the effects of the drugs, and the potential health hazards of drug use. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:04 AM 9. To avoid exposure to lead, it is recommended not to use baby furniture or painted toys made before what year? a. 1957 b. 1978 c. 1982 d. 2001 ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. 1957 is well before the cut-off year. b. Correct. Do not use cribs, bassinets, high chairs, painted toys, or toy chests made before 1978. These can have a finish that contains dangerously high levels of lead. c. Incorrect. The cut-off year is earlier than 1982.

d. Incorrect. The cut-off year is much earlier than 1982. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.7 - Identify the safety precautions for preventing poisonings in children. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:05 AM 10. If you live in an older home, you should have the paint tested for what toxic substance? a. alkaline b. bleach c. lead Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders d. alcohol ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Alkaline is an issue with button-cell batteries. b. Incorrect. Bleach is a cleaning product, not found in paint. c. Correct. If you have an older home, have the paint tested for lead. d. Incorrect. Alcohol is not found in paint.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.7 - Identify the safety precautions for preventing poisonings in children. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:05 AM 11. What toxin makes button batteries dangerous if swallowed? a. alkaline b. bleach c. lead d. oil ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Discard used button-cell batteries safely and store any unused ones far from children’s reach. (Alkaline substances are poisonous.) b. Incorrect. Bleach is a cleaning product not found in batteries.

c. Incorrect. Lead is a toxin found in lead-based paints. d. Incorrect. Oil is not found in batteries. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.7 - Identify the safety precautions for preventing poisonings in children. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:06 AM 12. Which of the following is a good tip for medication safety in preventing poisonings in children? a. Tell children that medicine is candy to encourage them to take their medication. b. Keep medications in a purse or back pack. c. Child-resistant packaging can be relied upon to keep children from opening the medication. d. Always reattach the safety cap on medicine bottles and store them out of children’s reach. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Do not ever tell a child that medicine is candy. b. Incorrect. Do not keep aspirin or other medicines in a purse; children can find them when searching for gum or a toy. c. Incorrect. Child-resistant packaging does not mean childproof packaging. Do not rely on packaging to protect your children. d. Correct. After taking or administering medication, be sure to reattach the safety Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders cap and store the medication away safely.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.7 - Identify the safety precautions for preventing poisonings in children. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 4:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:07 AM 13. Which of the following is a neurologic disease? a. Reye’s syndrome b. strabismus c. leukemia d. Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Reye’s syndrome is an acute encephalopathy, a neurologic disease. b. Incorrect. Strabismus is a disease of the eyes. c. Incorrect. Leukemia is a blood disease. d. Incorrect. Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease is a musculoskeletal disease. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1 - Define the terminology common to childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:08 AM 14. Paroxysms of gastrointestinal pain with crying and irritability are symptoms of what digestive disease that is common in young infants? a. asthma b. colic c. pneumonia d. croup ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Asthma is a serious, chronic respiratory system disease. b. Correct. Colic is particularly common in young infants. Symptoms of colic include paroxysms of gastrointestinal pain with crying and irritability. c. Incorrect. The symptoms of pneumonia include cough, fever, wheezing, and malaise. d. Incorrect. Croup is characterized by a harsh barking cough.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/5/2022 5:03 AM 11/30/2022 2:09 AM

15. A harsh barking cough and increased difficulty in breathing at night are symptoms of what? a. asthma b. colic c. croup d. adenoid hyperplasia ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Asthma is a serious, chronic respiratory system disease, but it is not associated with a harsh barking cough. b. Incorrect. Symptoms of colic include paroxysms of gastrointestinal pain with crying and irritability. c. Correct. It is characterized by a harsh barking cough, fever, inspiratory stridor, laryngeal spasms, and increased difficulty in breathing at night. d. Incorrect. Adenoid hyperplasia is the enlargement of the pharyngeal tonsils, which can cause ear problems.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:10 AM 16. In adenoid hyperplasia, the enlarged adenoids may block what? a. the Eustachian tubes b. the nasal passages c. the esophagus d. the thyroid glands ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. The enlarged adenoids can block the Eustachian tubes, causing ear problems such as otitis media. b. Incorrect. There may also be some obstruction of the airway, but not specifically the nasal passages. c. Incorrect. Enlarged adenoids do not block the esophagus.

d. Incorrect. Enlarged adenoids do not affect the thyroid glands. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:11 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders 17. Drinking only clean water is a guideline for the prevention of what? a. pediculosis b. pinworms c. giardiasis d. roundworms ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pediculosis is infestation with lice, and it is not linked to parasites in drinking water. b. Incorrect. Good handwashing and toileting habits are preventive measures for pinworms. c. Correct. Giardiasis is infection with a parasite. Guidelines for prevention include drinking only clean water approved by health authorities. d. Incorrect. Good handwashing and keeping the fingers away from the mouth are preventive measures for roundworms.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:12 AM 18. Pertussis is also known as what? a. whooping cough b. German measles c. yeast infection d. croup ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Pertussis is also known as whooping cough because the second stage includes violent whooping coughing. b. Incorrect. Rubella is also known as German measles.

c. Incorrect. Candidiasis is also known as yeast infection. d. Incorrect. Croup is also known as laryngotracheobronchitis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:14 AM 19. One preventive measure for croup is keeping immunizations current, especially which one? a. MMR b. IPV Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders c. Hib d. DTaP ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) immunization is not specifically suggested as a preventive measure for croup. b. Incorrect. IPV is specifically for polio.

c. Correct. Preventive measures for croup include keeping immunizations current, especially Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib). d. Incorrect. DTaP is for diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.7 - Identify the safety precautions for preventing poisonings in children. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:15 AM 20. What is the most difficult form of child abuse to recognize? a. physical abuse b. emotional abuse c. neglect d. sexual abuse ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Physical child abuse, and sometimes neglect, is usually diagnosed by physical examination, review of verbal explanations from the child and parents, and investigation by authorities. b. Correct. Emotional abuse is the most difficult form of child abuse to recognize and diagnose. Constant stigmatizing, berating, or ignoring a child is considered emotional abuse. c. Incorrect. Physical child abuse, and sometimes neglect, is usually diagnosed by physical examination, review of verbal explanations from the child and parents, and investigation by authorities. d. Incorrect. The easiest way to identify sexual abuse is to listen to the child, ask open-ended questions, and report suspected abuse to appropriate persons.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:16 AM 21. What are the four categories of infectious diseases of childhood? a. viral, bacterial, fungal, and cardiac b. bacterial, cardiac, fungal, and parasitic c. fungal, parasitic, urinary, and cardiac Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders d. viral, bacterial, fungal, and parasitic ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Cardiac is not one of the four categories of infectious diseases in childhood. b. Incorrect. Cardiac is not one of the four categories of infectious diseases in childhood. c. Incorrect. Cardiac and urinary are not among the four categories of infectious diseases in childhood. d. Correct. The four categories include viral, bacterial, fungal, and parasitic.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1 - Define the terminology common to childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:17 AM 22. Treatment for infectious diseases consists of which of the following? a. good nutrition and rest b. rest and aspirin c. aspirin and good handwashing techniques d. good handwashing techniques and exercise ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Good nutrition supports the body in recovering from infectious diseases. Rest supports the body to recover from infectious diseases. b. Incorrect. Rest supports the body to recover from infectious diseases. Nonaspirin antipyretics are given to children with fever since aspirin has been linked with Reye’s syndrome. Good handwashing techniques are an effective treatment to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. c. Incorrect. Non-aspirin antipyretics are given to children with fever since aspirin has been linked with Reye’s syndrome. d. Incorrect. Good handwashing techniques are an effective treatment to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Rest, not exercise, supports the body to recover.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1 - Define the terminology common to childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:18 AM 23. Symptoms of measles include: a. Koplik’s spots. b. a pink, raised, lacy rash. c. no fever. d. a dry cough. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Unique spots called Koplik’s spots can be seen in the mouth early in the disease. b. Incorrect. A generalized, dusky red, maculopapular rash over the body trunk and extremities is seen in measles. c. Incorrect. Fever is a symptom.

d. Incorrect. Inflammation of the respiratory mucous membranes and runny nose may cause a productive cough.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:19 AM 24. The incubation period for measles is: a. 7 to 10 days. b. 7 to 14 days. c. 7 to 21 days. d. 7 to 28 days. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The incubation period for measles is longer than 7 to 10 days. b. Correct. The incubation period for measles is highly contagious with an incubation period of 7 to 14 days. c. Incorrect. The incubation period for measles is less than 21 days.

d. Incorrect. The incubation period for measles is less than 28 days. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:20 AM 25. Rubella is also known as: a. mumps. b. varicella. c. German measles. d. chicken pox. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Mumps is a contagious viral infection different from rubella. b. Incorrect. Varicella is more commonly known as chicken pox.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders c. Correct. Rubella is a type of measles also known as German measles or 3-day measles. d. Incorrect. Chicken pox is the result of an infection with the herpes varicellazoster virus.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:21 AM 26. The incubation period for rubella is: a. 7 to 10 days. b. 7 to 14 days. c. 14 to 21 days. d. 14 to 28 days. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The incubation period for measles is 7 to 10 days. b. Incorrect. The incubation period for rubella is longer than 7 to 14 days. c. Correct. Rubella has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days. d. Incorrect. The incubation period for rubella is less than 28 days long. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 2:22 AM 27. Symptoms of rubella include: a. swollen parotid glands. b. sudden high fever. c. ear pain. d. joint pain. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Swollen parotid glands is a symptom of mumps. b. Incorrect. Sudden high fever is commonly the first symptom of influenza. c. Incorrect. Ear pain is a symptom of mumps. d. Correct. Symptoms of rubella include a classic rash similar to measles but lighter in color, lymph node enlargement, nasal discharge, joint pain, chills, and fever.

POINTS:

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:24 AM 28. Mumps is an infection of the: a. salivary glands. b. thymus gland. c. parotid glands. d. thyroid gland. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Salivary glands are not the site of mumps. b. Incorrect. Thymus gland is not the site of mumps. c. Correct. Mumps is an infection of the parotid glands. d. Incorrect. Thyroid gland is not the site of mumps. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:25 AM 29. Complications of mumps include: a. prostatitis. b. orchitis. c. epididymitis. d. blindness. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Prostatitis is not a complication of mumps. b. Correct. Orchitis is a complication of mumps. c. Incorrect. Epididymitis is not a complication of mumps. d. Incorrect. Blindness is not a complication of mumps. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:25 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders 30. Symptoms of varicella include: a. a macular rash. b. high fever. c. joint pain. d. ear pain. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. A macular rash, vesicles, and intense itching are all symptoms of varicella. b. Incorrect. High fever is not associated with varicella.

c. Incorrect. Joint pain is a symptom of rubella, not varicella, but other symptoms are listed. d. Incorrect. Ear pain is a symptom of mumps, not varicella.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:26 AM 31. Polio is spread by: a. airborne particles. b. the oral route. c. indirect contact. d. contaminated blood. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Polio is not spread by airborne particles. b. Correct. Polio is caused by the poliovirus (PV) and is spread through an oral route or fecal-oral route from an infected individual. c. Incorrect. Polio is not spread with indirect contact.

d. Incorrect. Polio is not spread through contaminated blood. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:27 AM 32. Early symptoms of polio include which of the following? a. a sore throat and abdominal pain b. neck, trunk, and extremity stiffness c. a productive cough d. paralysis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. In the more severe form of polio, early symptoms include fever, headache, sore throat, and abdominal pain. b. Incorrect. Polio can progress to neck, trunk, and extremity stiffness, but this stiffness is not and early symptom of polio. c. Incorrect. A cough is not a symptom of polio. Symptoms include fever, headache, sore throat, and abdominal pain. d. Incorrect. Polio may progress to paralysis, but this paralysis is not and early symptom of polio.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:28 AM 33. Which of the following is commonly the first symptom of influenza? a. fever and chills b. joint and muscle aches c. a runny nose and dry cough d. a sudden high fever ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Fever and chills are characteristic of influenza, but they are not the first symptoms.

b. Incorrect. Joint and muscle aches are characteristic of influenza, but they are not the first symptoms. c. Incorrect. A runny nose and dry cough are characteristic of influenza, but these are not the first symptoms. d. Correct. The first symptom is commonly a sudden high fever of 100°–104°F and a dry, hacking cough.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:29 AM 34. Symptoms of the common cold include which of the following? a. joint pain b. headache c. earache d. watery eyes ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Joint pain is not a symptom of the common cold. b. Incorrect. A headache is not a symptom of the common cold. c. Incorrect. An earache is not a symptom of the common cold. d. Correct. Symptoms of the common cold include rhinitis (inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane), runny nose, coughing, sneezing, fever, and watery eyes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:30 AM 35. Symptoms of mononucleosis include: a. swollen joints. b. orchitis. c. enlarged lymph nodes. d. “slapped cheek rash.” ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Swollen joints are a symptom of fifth disease. b. Incorrect. Orchitis is a complication of mumps. c. Correct. Enlarged lymph nodes are a symptom of mononucleosis. d. Incorrect. A red rash called “slapped cheek rash” is the most recognized feature of fifth disease.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:31 AM 36. Infectious mononucleosis is also known as: a. the kissing disease. b. rubella. c. rubeola. d. mumps. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Infectious mononucleosis, commonly called “kissing disease,” is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. b. Incorrect. Rubella is not another name for mononucleosis.

c. Incorrect. Rubeola is not another name for mononucleosis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders d. Incorrect. Mumps is not another name for mononucleosis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1 - Define the terminology common to childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:31 AM 37. Diagnosis of which of the following can be confirmed only by autopsy? a. poliomyelitis b. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome c. fifth disease d. sudden infant death syndrome ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Poliomyelitis can be diagnosed by a stool sample or throat swab showing poliovirus. b. Incorrect. When T-cell count drops below 200 cells per microliter, the child has met the criteria set by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for a diagnosis of AIDS. c. Incorrect. Diagnosis of fifth disease is based on signs and symptoms.

d. Correct. Diagnosis might be suspected when the child is taken to the emergency department, but SIDS can be confirmed only by autopsy and investigation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:32 AM 38. What is the incubation period for diphtheria? a. 1 to 7 days b. 2 to 7 days c. 1 to 5 days d. 2 to 5 days ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The incubation period is more than one day. b. Incorrect. The incubation period is less than 7 days. c. Incorrect. The incubation period is more than one day. d. Correct. The incubation period for diphtheria is 2 to 5 days. POINTS: QUESTION TYPE:

1 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:33 AM 39. Which of the following would be used to diagnose of tuberculosis? a. nasopharyngeal culture b. white blood count c. a skin test d. rapid assay blood testing ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A nasopharyngeal culture is used to diagnose pertussis. b. Incorrect. A WBC would be used to diagnose mononucleosis. c. Correct. A positive skin test could indicate tuberculosis. d. Incorrect. Rapid assay blood testing can confirm a diagnosis of the flu. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:34 AM 40. Signs and symptoms of tuberculosis include: a. a persistent cough and diarrhea. b. bloody sputum and vomiting. c. vomiting and diarrhea. d. fever and malaise. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A persistent cough is a symptom of tuberculosis, but diarrhea is not. b. Incorrect. Bloody sputum is a symptom of tuberculosis, but vomiting is not. c. Incorrect. Vomiting and diarrhea are not symptoms of tuberculosis. d. Correct. Persistent cough, bloody sputum, fever, and malaise are all common signs and symptoms of tuberculosis.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders 41. Tularemia is diagnosed by which of the following? a. sputum test b. blood test to identify antibodies c. MRI d. urine testing ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Tularemia is not diagnosed by a sputum test. b. Correct. Diagnosis is made by blood testing to identify antibodies to the bacteria. A chest X-ray may also be completed to rule out pneumonia. c. Incorrect. Tularemia is not diagnosed using an MRI.

d. Incorrect. Tularemia is not diagnosed by urine testing. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 5:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:36 AM 42. Symptoms of tularemia include: a. diarrhea and vomiting. b. bloody sputum. c. swelling of parotid glands. d. generalized or localized pain. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Vomiting is a symptom of tularemia, but diarrhea is not. b. Incorrect. Bloody sputum is not a symptom of tularemia. c. Incorrect. Swelling of parotic glands is a symptom of mumps. Swelling of lymph nodes is a symptom of tularemia. d. Correct. Symptoms include headache, fever, generalized or localized pain, swelling of lymph nodes, chills, and vomiting.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:37 AM 43. Impetigo is caused by: a. Staphylococcus aureus. b. Francisella tularensis. c. Clostridium. d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Impetigo is caused by Staphylococcus aureus or group A streptococci. b. Incorrect. Francisella tularensis causes tularemia. c. Incorrect. Clostridium does not cause impetigo. d. Incorrect. Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:38 AM 44. Which of the following is the best preventive measure for impetigo? a. isolation b. good handwashing technique c. daily exposure to sunlight d. daily washing of linens ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Isolation is not the best preventive strategy. b. Correct. Good handwashing technique is the best preventive strategy. c. Incorrect. Daily exposure to sunlight is not the best preventive strategy. d. Incorrect. Daily washing of linens is not the best preventive strategy. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:39 AM 45. Symptoms of tonsillitis include which of the following? a. a runny nose b. a headache c. a sore throat d. an earache ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A runny nose is not a symptom of tonsillitis. b. Incorrect. A headache is not a symptom of tonsillitis. c. Correct. Symptoms include a sore throat, enlarged tonsils, cough, fever, and pain with swallowing. d. Incorrect. An earache is not a symptom of tonsillitis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:39 AM 46. Symptoms of otitis media include which of the following? a. productive cough b. drainage from the ear c. a rash d. sore throat ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. A productive cough is not a symptom of otitis media. b. Correct. Symptoms include pain (in the infant, this symptom may be indicated by the child pulling on the ear), fever, drainage, and upon otoscopic examination, a bulging reddish tympanic membrane. c. Incorrect. A rash is not a symptom of otitis media.

d. Incorrect. A sore throat is not a symptom of otitis media. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:40 AM 47. An example of an oral fungal disease is: a. histoplasmosis. b. thrush. c. ringworm. d. tinea. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Histoplasmosis is not an oral fungal disease. b. Correct. Candidiasis, or thrush, is an oral fungal infection common in infants. c. Incorrect. Ringworm usually affects the scalp, between the toes, or the groin area. d. Incorrect. Tinea usually affects the scalp, between the toes, or the groin area.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

diseases. 8/5/2022 6:14 AM 11/30/2022 3:41 AM

48. Diagnosis of candidiasis is made by visualizing white plaques on the: a. tongue. b. lips. c. nipples. d. hands. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Diagnosis is made by visual examination of the mouth along with microscopic examination of white patch scraping or a culture of the same. b. Incorrect. Lips are not where the white plaques are seen for diagnosis.

c. Incorrect. Nipples are not where the white plaques are seen for diagnosis. d. Incorrect. Hands are not where the white plaques are seen for diagnosis. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:42 AM 49. Symptoms of giardiasis include: a. constipation. b. flatulence. c. itch. d. excessive appetite. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diarrhea, not constipation, is a symptom of giardiasis, but other symptoms are listed.

b. Correct. Symptoms of giardiasis include watery diarrhea, nausea, cramping, flatulence (excessive gas), fever, and anorexia (loss of appetite). c. Incorrect. Itch is not associated with giardiasis.

d. Incorrect. Anorexia (loss of appetite), not excessive appetite, is a symptom of giardiasis.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders 50. Symptoms of roundworm infestation include: a. anal itching. b. increased appetite. c. weight gain. d. excessive gas. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Anal itching is a symptom of pinworms, not of roundworm infestation, but other symptoms are listed. b. Incorrect. loss of appetite, not increased appetite, is a symptom of roundworm infestation. c. Incorrect. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a symptom of roundworm infestation.

d. Correct. Symptoms include abdominal pain, excessive gas, loss of appetite, or weight loss. Vomiting also may occur. If the helminths are inhaled, symptoms of pneumonia may be present.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 6:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:43 AM 51. Mabel is a 16-year-old female who is experiencing a fever, fatigue, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. A complete blood count (CBC) also shows elevated lymphocytes. Which of the following conditions is likely? a. pertussis b. tonsillitis c. mononucleosis d. otitis media ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Pertussis has a characteristic “whooping” cough that usually needs no other diagnostic tool. b. Incorrect. Tonsillitis, an infection of the tonsils, causes pain with swallowing, a sore throat, and a fever. c. Correct. Mononucleosis has signs and symptoms, such as a fever, fatigue, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and lymphocytosis. d. Incorrect. Otitis media, or an infection of the middle ear, causes ear pain, fever, and possibly drainage from the ear.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders 52. Willow and Milo, 4-year-old twins, complain to their mother about their “butts itching.” For which parasite should they be checked? a. pinworms b. roundworms c. giardia d. tinea pedis ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Usually, the only symptom of pinworms is anal itching. b. Incorrect. Roundworms, commonly found in the soil, can cause more severe symptoms than pinworms. c. Incorrect. Giardia causes giardiasis, which leads to weight loss, poor nutrition, flatulence, and more. d. Incorrect. Tinea pedia, also known as athlete’s foot, causes cracking and itching on the feet.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:45 AM 53. Charlis has been warned that their child’s daycare has had an outbreak of croup. Which signs and symptoms are associated with croup? a. cough, fever, and shortness of breath b. weight loss, abdominal pain, and excessive gas c. sore throat and pain with swallowing d. barking cough, fever, and inspiratory stridor ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Symptoms of pneumonia are cough, fever, and shortness of breath. b. Incorrect. Weight loss, abdominal pain and excessive gas are signs of roundworms. c. Incorrect. Individuals with tonsillitis experience sore throats, pain with swallowing, and fevers. d. Correct. Croup, an upper respiratory infection, is demonstrated by barking cough, fever, and inspiratory stridor.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:46 AM 54. Arturo has been advised that his son has enlarged palatine tonsils. If enlargement of the palatine tonsils cannot be Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders corrected, which treatment may be used? a. high humidity and racemic epinephrine b. adenoidectomy c. bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory agents d. antibiotics ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. High humidity, racemic epinephrine, fluids, and rest are used to treat croup, an upper respiratory infection. b. Correct. If enlargement of the palatine tonsils (also known as adenoids) cannot be corrected, an adenoidectomy is performed. c. Incorrect. Asthma is treated with bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory agents, along with avoiding the asthma triggers. d. Incorrect. Bacterial pneumonia can be treated with antibiotics.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4 - Describe the typical course and management of the common childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:48 AM 55. Ryan’s pediatric office provides new parents a pamphlet to describe various conditions that could be dangerous to children. Why is nausea and vomiting so dangerous in very young children? a. Reye’s syndrome can occur. b. They can experience weight loss. c. They can become dehydrated more quickly and develop severe electrolyte imbalances. d. Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease may develop. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Reye’s syndrome is a serious encephalopathy that can results in children under 15 who have had a recent viral infection. b. Incorrect. Children can experience weight loss with nausea and vomiting, but it is not a significant emergency. c. Correct. Because children have a higher metabolism and higher exchange of fluids, they can easily become dehydrated and experience severe electrolyte imbalances. d. Incorrect. Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease is avascular necrosis of the proximal femur, due to unknown causes.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1 - Define the terminology common to childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:48 AM 56. Aimie is a 13-year-old female who recently started bruising more easily and complaining of joint pain. Her parents Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders notice that she is more pale and tired than normal. Which of the following conditions is possible? a. Ewing’s sarcoma b. Reye’s syndrome c. Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease d. leukemia ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant cancer that causes pain and swelling in the affected bones. b. Incorrect. Reye’s syndrome is an acute encephalopathy seen in children who have had a recent viral infection. c. Incorrect. LCP disease causes avascular necrosis of the proximal end of the femur. d. Correct. Leukemia is the most common form of childhood cancer with symptoms such as bruising easily, joint pain, pallor, and fatigue.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:49 AM 57. A pharmacist must understand what medications are safe and for whom. Which medication should not be given to children? a. acetaminophen b. bronchodilators c. aspirin d. antibiotics ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Acetaminophen is an acceptable medication to give to children when necessary.

b. Incorrect. A bronchodilator is a medication given to children who are experiencing an asthma attack. c. Correct. There is a correlation between the use of aspirin for febrile illnesses in children and Reye’s syndrome, so aspirin should not be used in children. d. Incorrect. Antibiotics may be given to children in the presence of some bacterial infections.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders 58. Ashley is concerned about her daughter’s exposure to disease and viruses that spread throughout the daycare center. Which disease or condition can be very severe for young children? a. influenza b. fifth disease c. rhinitis d. varicella ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Influenza can be very severe in very young children, or children with debilitating diseases. b. Incorrect. Individuals with fifth disease usually need no medication to recover.

c. Incorrect. Rhinitis is an inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane and a symptom of the common cold.

d. Incorrect. Varicella, also known as chicken pox, usually needs no treatment. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1 - Define the terminology common to childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:51 AM 59. Blake is a 15-year-old male with pain and swelling in his femur. An X-ray of his femur showed a mass. Which of the following conditions should be ruled out? a. Ewing’s sarcoma b. Leukemia c. Reye’s syndrome d. Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant growth, often on a long bone such as a femur, which most often affects males under the age of lo. b. Incorrect. Leukemia is the most common form of childhood cancer, which is detected by a bone marrow biopsy and CBC. c. Incorrect. Reye’s syndrome is a type of encephalopathy seen in children under 15 who have had a viral infection, and it may be diagnosed by patient history and symptoms. d. Incorrect. Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) disease is avascular necrosis of the proximal femur.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3 - Describe the common diagnostics used to determine the type and cause of childhood diseases. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 7:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:52 AM 60. Lukas is a 7-year-old male who has a fever, a rash on his cheeks that looks as though he has been slapped and a runny Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Childhood Diseases and Disorders nose. Which of the following conditions is likely? a. mononucleosis b. respiratory syncytial virus c. fifth disease d. rhinitis ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Symptoms of mononucleosis include fever, swollen lymph nodes and fatigue. b. Incorrect. RSV is the most common cause of hospitalization in infants; its symptoms include difficulty breathing, coughing, sneezing, and more. c. Correct. Fifth disease is a contagious viral disease that has a “slapped-cheek” rash that is very characteristic of the disease. d. Incorrect. Rhinitis is an inflammation of the nasal mucous membranes, usually seen with the common cold.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders 1. What term commonly used in substance-related mental disorders refers to a physical and or psychological dependence on a substance? a. addiction b. withdrawal c. dependency d. tolerance ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Addictive means a physical and or psychological dependence on a substance. b. Incorrect. Withdrawal is the unpleasant physical and psychological effects that result from stopping the use of the substance after an individual is addicted. c. Incorrect. Dependency is a psychological craving for a substance that might or might not be accompanied by a physical need. d. Incorrect. Tolerance is the ability to endure a larger amount of a substance without an adverse effect or the need for a larger amount or dose of the drug to attain the same effect.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:57 AM 2. What common cause of intellectual disability can be prevented? a. Down syndrome b. fetal alcohol syndrome c. cretinism d. phenylketonuria ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Down syndrome is genetic and cannot be prevented. b. Correct. Many cases are not preventable, but one common cause that can be prevented is fetal alcohol syndrome. c. Incorrect. Cretinism is genetic and cannot be prevented.

d. Incorrect. Phenylketonuria is genetic and cannot be prevented. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:58 AM 3. What type of test might be used to determine a diagnosis of a mental health disorder? a. brain scan Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders b. electroencephalogram c. laboratory test d. personality test ANSWER: d FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. The physician orders physiologic assessments such as brain scans to help determine whether the cause is an organic problem. b. Incorrect. The physician orders physiologic assessments such as electroencephalograms (EEGs) to help determine whether the cause is an organic problem. c. Incorrect. The physician orders physiologic assessments such as laboratory tests to help determine whether the cause is an organic problem. d. Correct. Psychological tests, such as a personality test, may be used to determine a diagnosis of a mental health disorder.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3 - Describe the common diagnostic tests used to determine the type and/or cause of mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 3:59 AM 4. The diagnosis of what condition is confirmed on the basis of observation and IQ testing? a. intellectual disability b. ADHD c. anorexia d. dementia ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Diagnosis of intellectual disability is confirmed on the basis of observation and IQ testing. b. Incorrect. Diagnosis of ADHD is made on the basis of observation of the ageinappropriate behavior. c. Incorrect. Eating disorders are diagnosed by physical examination, diet history, and reports from the affected individual, family, and close friends. d. Incorrect. The diagnosis of dementia requires a thorough medical, physical, and neurologic examination.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders b. dementia c. schizophrenia d. enuresis ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

b a. Incorrect. Delirium is a clinical syndrome, or set of symptoms, that might result from a disease. b. Correct. Dementia is common in the elderly. It is a progressive deterioration of mental abilities due to physical changes in the brain. c. Incorrect. Schizophrenia is a type of psychosis.

d. Incorrect. Enuresis is a condition of urinary incontinence after the age of bladder training.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.6 - State the mental health disorders found in the older population and the effects of these disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:15 AM 6. Maternal emotional stress during pregnancy might play a part in the development of what? a. ADHD b. intellectual disability c. eating disorders d. tic disorders ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Prenatal maternal stress is not linked to ADHD. b. Incorrect. Prenatal maternal stress is not one of the causes of intellectual disability.

c. Incorrect. Prenatal maternal stress is not linked to eating disorders. d. Correct. The cause of tics is unknown, but there is some evidence that maternal emotional stress during pregnancy might play a part in development.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:16 AM 7. What symptom of withdrawal is a false sensation of sign, touch, sound, or feel? a. hallucinations b. tremors c. seizures d. delirium tremens ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Symptoms of withdrawal include hallucinations (a false sensation of sight, touch, sound, or feel), tremors of the hands, mild seizures, and delirium tremens (DTs). b. Incorrect. This describes a different symptom of withdrawal.

c. Incorrect. This describes a different symptom of withdrawal. d. Incorrect. This describes a different symptom of withdrawal, which may occur as part of DTs.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:17 AM 8. AUD, formerly referred to as alcoholism, causes approximately how many deaths per year? a. 55,000 b. 155,000 c. 195,000 d. 95,000 ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. AUD causes more than 55,000 deaths per year. b. Incorrect. AUD causes less than 155,000 deaths per year. c. Incorrect. AUD causes less than 195,000 deaths per year. d. Correct. AUD is a major drug problem that causes approximately 95,000 deaths per year (CDC, 2021).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:18 AM 9. How many drinks per week is defined as problem drinking? a. more than 7 for men or women b. more than 14 for men or women c. more than 7 for men and more than 14 for women d. more than 14 for men and more than 7 for women ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The number of drinks is higher than this for men. b. Incorrect. The number of drinks is less than this for women. c. Incorrect. The number is higher for men than for women. d. Correct. American Addiction Centers (AAC) defines problem drinking as more than seven drinks per week for women and more than 14 drinks per week for men. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:19 AM 10. A person is considered intoxicated when the blood alcohol level reaches what? a. 0.01% b. 0.10% c. 0.05% d. 0.50% ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The level is higher than 0.01%. b. Correct. An individual is intoxicated when the blood alcohol level reaches 0.10% or more.

c. Incorrect. The level is higher than 0.05%. d. Incorrect. The level is lower than 0.50%. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:20 AM 11. Which of the following is an acquired cause of intellectual disability? a. hypothyroidism b. phenylketonuria c. anoxia d. hypothyroidism ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Genetic causes include hypothyroidism. b. Incorrect. Genetic causes include phenylketonuria (PKU). c. Correct. Anoxia is an acquired cause of intellectual disability. d. Incorrect. Genetic causes include hypothyroidism (cretinism). POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:21 AM 12. What disorder is characterized by binge eating followed by purging? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders a. bulimia b. anorexia nervosa c. schizophrenia d. enuresis ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Bulimia is a disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating (an intake of approximately 5,000 calories in 1 to 2 hours) followed by activities to negate the calorie intake by purging. b. Incorrect. Anorexia nervosa is a disorder of self-imposed starvation.

c. Incorrect. Schizophrenia is a type of psychosis. d. Incorrect. Enuresis is a condition of urinary incontinence after the age of bladder training.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:22 AM 13. What term describes conditions characterized by a disintegration of one’s personality and a loss of contact with reality? a. delirium b. psychosis c. depression d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Delirium is a clinical syndrome, or set of symptoms, that might result from a disease. b. Correct. Psychosis is a term describing conditions characterized by a disintegration of one’s personality and a loss of contact with reality. c. Incorrect. Depression is a mood or affective disorder.

d. Incorrect. Bipolar disorder is a type of depression in which extreme depression and mania occur.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/5/2022 8:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:23 AM 14. Which of the following is characterized by a sudden loss of memory that is more than simple forgetfulness? a. psychogenic fugue b. generalized anxiety disorder c. psychogenic amnesia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders d. Depersonalization disorder ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Psychogenic fugue is characterized by suddenly leaving home,

traveling some distance, forgetting one’s identity and past, and often changing one’s name. b. Incorrect. Generalized anxiety disorder, also called excessive worry, is a continuous state of mild to intense anxiety. c. Correct. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by a sudden loss of memory that is more than simple forgetfulness. d. Incorrect. With depersonalization disorders, the affected individuals feel disconnected from mind and body and can feel like they are viewing life from a distance.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:24 AM 15. With what type of dissociative disorder do the affected individuals feel disconnected from mind and body? a. psychogenic fugue b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. psychogenic amnesia d. depersonalization disorder ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Psychogenic fugue is characterized by suddenly leaving home,

traveling some distance, forgetting one’s identity and past, and often changing one’s name. b. Incorrect. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is and anxiety disorder, not a dissociative disorder. c. Incorrect. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by a sudden loss of memory that is more than simple forgetfulness. d. Correct. With depersonalization disorders, the affected individuals feel disconnected from mind and body and can feel like they are viewing life from a distance.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:24 AM 16. What is the most common anxiety disorder? a. phobia disorder b. panic disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Phobia disorder is the most common anxiety disorder. b. Incorrect. Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder, but it is not the most common type. c. Incorrect. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is an anxiety disorder, but it is not the most common type. d. Incorrect. Generalized anxiety disorder is an anxiety disorder, but it is not the most common type.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:25 AM 17. Monophobia is the fear of what? a. men b. being alone c. crowds d. food ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Androphobia is the fear of men. b. Correct. Monophobia is the fear of being alone. c. Incorrect. Ochlophobia is the fear of crowds. d. Incorrect. Sitophobia is the fear of food. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:26 AM 18. What type of disorders have physical symptoms but not organic or physiologic cause? a. personality b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. somatoform d. somnipathy ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Individuals with personality disorders have traits or factors that make them feel and behave in unacceptable or unsocial ways.

b. Incorrect. Post-traumatic stress disorder is an anxiety disorder. c. Correct. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders lead one to believe in a physical disease, but no organic or physiologic cause can be found. d. Incorrect. Somnipathy is the term for sleep disorders.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:27 AM 19. A person who becomes religious or good as part of the grieving or dying process is exhibiting behavior consistent with which stage of grief/death and dying? a. denial b. anger c. acceptance d. bargaining ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Refusal to believe is a behavior consistent with denial. b. Incorrect. Envy of those not dying or grieving is behavior consistent with anger. c. Incorrect. Expecting death or completing unfinished business is behavior consistent with acceptance. d. Correct. In bargaining one may become religious and good in an effort to bargain for time.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:28 AM 20. Individuals with what sleep disorder may fall asleep any time they are sedentary? a. narcolepsy b. sleep apnea c. nightmare disorder d. insomnia ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Narcolepsy is a daily uncontrollable attack of sleep. Affected individuals might fall asleep any time they are sedentary, such as when driving, studying, reading, or eating. b. Incorrect. Sleep apnea is a dyssomnia characterized by short periods of breathlessness during sleep. c. Incorrect. Nightmare disorder is a condition in which the involved individual is awakened by anxiety-provoking dreams. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders d. Incorrect. Insomnia is the inability to fall or stay asleep. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:28 AM 21. What type of personality disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance? a. paranoid b. narcissistic c. histrionic d. schizoid ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Paranoid personalities are characterized by traits of jealousy, suspicion, envy, and hypersensitivity. b. Correct. Narcissistic personalities have an exaggerated sense of selfimportance and self-love. c. Incorrect. Histrionic personalities are overly dramatic with expressions of emotion. d. Incorrect. Schizoid personalities are loners.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:29 AM 22. Diagnostic tests commonly used to determine whether a mental problem is an organic problem include which of the following? a. drug testing b. aptitude tests c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. personality tests ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Drug testing may be done, but not to help determine whether the cause is an organic problem. b. Incorrect. Aptitude tests are psychological, not physiologic, testing to determine a diagnosis. c. Correct. The physician orders physiologic assessments such as laboratory tests, brain scans, electroencephalograms (EEGs), and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans to help determine whether the cause is an organic problem. d. Incorrect. Personality tests are psychological, not physiologic, testing to determine a diagnosis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3 - Describe the common diagnostic tests used to determine the type and/or cause of mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:30 AM 23. Which of the following is a genetic cause of intellectual disability? a. hypothyroidism b. prematurity c. anoxia d. prenatal maternal rubella ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Genetic causes include Down syndrome, phenylketonuria (PKU), and hypothyroidism. b. Incorrect. Prematurity is an acquired cause of intellectual disability.

c. Incorrect. Anoxia is an acquired cause of intellectual disability. d. Incorrect. Prenatal maternal rubella is an acquired cause of intellectual disability.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:31 AM 24. The symptoms of ADHD include: a. attention to detail. b. extreme focus or concentration. c. uncontrollable fear. d. difficulty waiting one’s turn. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Inability to complete detailed work is a symptom of ADHD, but other symptoms are listed. b. Incorrect. An inability to concentrate is a symptom of ADHD.

c. Incorrect. Extreme, uncontrollable fear is characteristic of panic disorder. d. Correct. Difficulty in remaining seated or waiting one’s turn are symptoms of ADHD.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with mental health disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

8/6/2022 12:28 AM 11/30/2022 4:32 AM

25. Treatment of ADHD is with: a. antihistamines. b. amphetamines. c. antibiotics. d. antipsychotics. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK:

a. Incorrect. Antihistamine is not a treatment for ADHD. b. Correct. Treatment for ADHD with amphetamines has shown varying degrees of effectiveness. Behavior modification by rewarding appropriate behavior also has been successful. c. Incorrect. Antibiotic is not a treatment for ADHD.

d. Incorrect. Antipsychotic is not a treatment for ADHD. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:32 AM 26. Typical characteristics of an individual with anorexia nervosa include which of the following? a. adolescent male b. under achiever c. an intense fear of becoming fat d. excessive sleep ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. An adolescent female is a typical characteristic for anorexia nervosa. b. Incorrect. Meticulous, high achiever is a typical characteristic for anorexia nervosa. c. Correct. An intense fear of becoming fat is a typical characteristic for anorexia nervosa. d. Incorrect. Excessive exercise, not sleep, is a typical characteristic for anorexia nervosa.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders 27. Purging behaviors include: a. induced vomiting. b. excessive exercise. c. diuretics. d. fasting. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK:

a. Correct. Induced vomiting and excessive use of laxatives are examples of a purging behavior, but another behavior is listed. b. Incorrect. Excessive exercise is not a purging behavior.

c. Incorrect. Diuretics is not an example of a purging behavior. d. Incorrect. Fasting is not a purging behavior. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:34 AM 28. Treatment for bulimia and anorexia nervosa includes: a. the use of amphetamines. b. strict diets. c. restoring normal nutrition. d. daily exercise. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Antidepressants may be used in the treatment of eating disorders, not amphetamines.

b. Incorrect. Putting the patient on a strict diet is not a treatment for eating disorders. c. Correct. Restoring normal nutrition may be used in the treatment of eating disorders. d. Incorrect. Daily exercise is not a treatment for eating disorders.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 12:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:35 AM 29. Examples of tics include: a. eye blinking. b. bed wetting. c. purging. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders d. hiccupping. ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

a a. Correct. Examples of tics include eye blinking, facial grimacing, neck or shoulder jerking, throat clearing, snorting, and grunting to name a few. b. Incorrect. Bed wetting is not a tic.

c. Incorrect. Purging is not a tic. d. Incorrect. Hiccupping is not a tic. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:36 AM 30. Treatment for enuresis includes which of the following? a. reprimanding the child b. teaching the child to change the bedding c. bladder training to enlarge bladder capacity d. drinking before bedtime ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Reprimanding is not an appropriate or effective treatment for enuresis.

b. Incorrect. Teaching the child to change the bedding is not a treatment for enuresis. c. Correct. Bladder training to enlarge bladder capacity is a treatment for enuresis. d. Incorrect. Restricting fluids in the evening and urinating, not drinking, before bedtime are treatments for enuresis.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:36 AM 31. What term commonly used in substance-related mental disorders refers to the ability to endure a larger amount of the substance without an adverse effect? a. addiction b. withdrawal c. dependency d. tolerance ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Addiction means a physical and or psychological dependence on a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders substance. b. Incorrect. Withdrawal is the unpleasant physical and psychological effects that result from stopping the use of the substance after an individual is addicted. c. Incorrect. Dependency is a psychological craving for a substance that might or might not be accompanied by a physical need. d. Correct. Tolerance is the ability to endure a larger amount of a substance without an adverse effect or the need for a larger amount or dose of the drug to attain the same effect.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:37 AM 32. Symptoms of delirium tremens include which of the following? a. diarrhea and anorexia b. agitation and increased appetite c. seizures and hallucinations d. sleepiness and memory loss ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Diarrhea is not a symptom of delirium tremens. b. Incorrect. A decreased, not an increased, appetite would be a symptom of delirium tremens. c. Correct. Seizures and hallucinations are symptoms of delirium tremens.

d. Incorrect. Sleepiness is not a symptom of delirium tremens. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:38 AM 33. Infants born to crack-using mothers exhibit which of the following symptoms? a. tremors. b. high birth weight. c. lethargy. d. extreme calm. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Tremors is a symptom that is seen in infants born to crack-using mothers. b. Incorrect. low birth weight is a symptom that is seen in infants born to crackusing mothers. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders c. Incorrect. Infants born to cocaine-using mothers are often addicted and exhibit hyperactivity (not lethargy). d. Incorrect. Hyperactivity, not extreme calm, is a symptom that is seen in infants born to crack-using mothers.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:39 AM 34. Caffeine is a stimulant found in which of the following substances? a. lemon-lime soda and cola drinks b. coffee and chocolate c. chocolate and jelly beans d. tea and jelly beans ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Lemon-lime soda does not have caffeine. b. Correct. Coffee and chocolate both have caffeine. c. Incorrect. Chocolate has caffeine, but jelly beans do not. d. Incorrect. Tea has caffeine, but jelly beans do not. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:40 AM 35. Headaches, drowsiness, and anxiety are symptoms of withdrawal from: a. cocaine. b. nicotine. c. caffeine. d. alcohol. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Headaches, drowsiness, and anxiety are not symptoms of cocaine withdrawal.

b. Incorrect. Headaches, drowsiness, and anxiety are not symptoms of nicotine withdrawal. c. Correct. Individuals addicted to caffeine often experience severe withdrawal headaches, anxiety, drowsiness, fatigue, and nausea. d. Incorrect. Headaches, drowsiness, and anxiety are not symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:40 AM 36. A stimulant that causes narrowing of blood vessels and hypertension is: a. alcohol. b. nicotine. c. narcotics. d. barbiturates. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Alcohol is not a stimulant. b. Correct. Nicotine is a stimulant that narrows blood vessels and raises heart rate and blood pressure. c. Incorrect. Narcotics are not a stimulant.

d. Incorrect. Barbiturates are not a stimulant. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:41 AM 37. Symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include: a. weight loss. b. irritability. c. fatigue. d. severe headache. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Weight gain is a symptom of nicotine withdrawal. b. Correct. Symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include depression, irritability, anger, anxiety, an increase in appetite, and weight gain. c. Incorrect. Fatigue is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal.

d. Incorrect. Severe headache is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:11 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders DATE MODIFIED:

11/30/2022 4:43 AM

38. Examples of antianxiety drugs include: a. Valium. b. Placidyl. c. Dalmane. d. Seconal. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Valium is an antianxiety drug. b. Incorrect. Placidyl is a hypnotic. c. Incorrect. Dalmane is a hypnotic. d. Incorrect. Seconal is a barbiturate. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:44 AM 39. Downers, yellow jackets, and rainbows are all street names for what group of sedatives? a. hypnotics b. hallucinogens c. amphetamines d. barbiturates ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Hypnotics are group of sedatives, but these are not street names for narcotics. b. Incorrect. Hallucinogens are not a group of sedatives.

c. Incorrect. Amphetamines are not a group of sedatives. d. Correct. The most severely abused group of sedatives or depressants is the barbiturates. Street names for these drugs include downers or barbs, or they might be known by the color of the capsules.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:46 AM 40. Which of the following is one of the most abused drugs today because it is cheap to purchase and easily produced? a. Nembutal b. Placidyl Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders c. methamphetamine d. Seconal ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

c a. Incorrect. Nembutal is a prescription medication, not easily produced. b. Incorrect. Placidyl is a prescription medication, not easily produced. c. Correct. Methamphetamine is popular among the young because it is relatively cheap to purchase and is easily produced in home laboratories. d. Incorrect. Seconal is a prescription medication, not easily produced.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:47 AM 41. Drugs used to lose weight or stay awake are classified as: a. sedatives. b. hallucinogens. c. Quaalude. d. amphetamines. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Sedatives are not the classification for drugs that are used to lose weight or stay awake. b. Incorrect. Hallucinogens are not the classification for drugs that are used to lose weight or stay awake. c. Incorrect. Quaalude is not the classification for drugs that are used to lose weight or stay awake. d. Correct. Drugs used to lose weight or stay away are classified as amphetamines.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:48 AM 42. Drugs that cause a distorted response to visual, auditory, and tactile stimuli are: a. amphetamines. b. barbiturates. c. hallucinogens. d. stimulants. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Amphetamine drug does not cause distorted response to visual, auditory, and tactile stimulation. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders b. Incorrect. Barbiturate drug does not cause distorted response to visual, auditory, and tactile stimulation. c. Correct. Drugs that cause a distorted response to visual, auditory, and tactile stimulation are hallucinogens. d. Incorrect. Stimulant drug does not cause distorted response to visual, auditory, and tactile stimulation.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:48 AM 43. Examples of hallucinogens include: a. Nembutal. b. mescaline. c. heroin. d. methadone. ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Nembutal is a barbiturate. b. Correct. LSD, mescaline, and PCP are all hallucinogens. c. Incorrect. Heroin is a narcotic. d. Incorrect. Methadone is a narcotic. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:49 AM 44. Angel dust, peace pill, and peace weed are street names for: a. PCP. b. LSD. c. mescaline. d. crack. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. PCP is known by street names; such as angel dust, peace pill, and peace weed. b. Incorrect. LSD is not known by street names; such as angel dust, peace pill, and peace weed. c. Incorrect. Mescaline is not known by street names; such as angel dust, peace pill, and peace weed. d. Incorrect. Crack is not known by street names; such as angel dust, peace pill, and peace weed. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:50 AM 45. Sweating, shaking, diarrhea, and cramps in the stomach and legs are symptoms of withdrawal from: a. caffeine. b. nicotine. c. heroin. d. barbiturates. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Individuals addicted to caffeine often experience severe withdrawal headaches, anxiety, drowsiness, fatigue, and nausea. b. Incorrect. Symptoms of withdrawal from nicotine include depression, irritability, anger, anxiety, and an increase in appetite and weight gain. c. Correct. Withdrawal from heroin is often uncomfortable but usually not life threatening. Symptoms of withdrawal from heroin include sweating, shaking, diarrhea, vomiting, and sharp pain and cramps in the stomach and legs. d. Incorrect. Withdrawal symptoms from barbiturates and can include insomnia, anxiety, nausea, hallucinations, and nightmares.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:51 AM 46. Glue, spray paint, and lighter fluid are examples of: a. narcotics. b. stimulants. c. intoxicants. d. inhalants. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Glue, spray paint, and lighter fluid are not examples of narcotics. b. Incorrect. Glue, spray paint, and lighter fluid are not examples of stimulants. c. Incorrect. Glue, spray paint, and lighter fluid are not examples of intoxicants. d. Correct. Inhalants include over 1,000 legal substances including glue, spray paint, hair spray, nail polish, lighter fluid, and gasoline.

POINTS: QUESTION TYPE: HAS VARIABLES:

1 Multiple Choice False

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 1:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:51 AM 47. The most dangerous method of intentionally breathing inhalants is: a. huffing. b. snorting. c. snuffing. d. bagging. ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Huffing is a method of intentionally breathing inhalants, but not the most dangerous. b. Incorrect. Snorting is not a method of intentionally breathing inhalants.

c. Incorrect. Snuffing is a method of intentionally breathing inhalants, but not the most dangerous. d. Correct. Bagging is the most dangerous as it entails placing a plastic bag over the head to get a longer effect.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:52 AM 48. The use of inhalants over a long period may cause permanent damage to: a. the brain. b. the lungs. c. the bladder. d. the skin. ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Using inhalants over a period of time may result in permanent brain, heart, kidney, and liver damage.

b. Incorrect. Use of inhalants over a long period may cause permanent damage to other organs, but not specifically the lungs. c. Incorrect. Use of inhalants over a long period may cause permanent damage to other organs, but not specifically the bladder. d. Incorrect. Use of inhalants over a long period may cause permanent damage to other organs, but not specifically the skin.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:53 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders 49. Which of the following represents the largest mental health disorder in the United States? a. alcoholism b. anxiety disorders c. eating disorders d. intellectual disability ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Alcoholism is not the largest mental health disorder. b. Correct. Anxiety disorders, previously known as neuroses, represent the largest mental health disorder in the United States. c. Incorrect. Eating disorders is not the largest mental health disorder.

d. Incorrect. Intellectual disability is not the largest mental health disorder. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:54 AM 50. What is the annual cost of substance abuse in the United States? a. $50 billion b. $110 billion c. $600 billion d. $3 trillion ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. The annual cost of substance abuse in the United States is higher than $50 billion. b. Incorrect. The annual cost of substance abuse in the United States is higher than $110 billion. c. Correct. The annual cost of substance abuse in the United States has been estimated at more than $600 billion a year (National Institute of Drug Abuse, 2018). d. Incorrect. The annual cost of substance abuse in the United States is lower than $3 trillion.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:55 AM 51. Diego is a 21-year-male. His parents are very concerned about his use of alcohol, but he insists that it’s not an issue. Which of the following indicates that he could be dependent on alcohol? a. He occasionally gets intoxicated. b. His liver enzymes are normal. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders c. He has between 15 and 20 alcoholic drinks per week. d. He has had depressive episodes. ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Intoxication occurs when the blood alcohol level is higher than 0.1% but does not necessarily indicate that the individual is relying on alcohol. b. Incorrect. Because the liver breaks down alcohol, with enough alcohol consumption, liver enzymes can be elevated. c. Correct. Problem drinking is defined by more than 14 drinks per week.

d. Incorrect. Depression is a contributing factor toward problem alcohol use. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3 - Describe the common diagnostic tests used to determine the type and/or cause of mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:55 AM 52. Josiah is a 19-year-old male who has increasing muscle mass, increasing irritability, and even some aggressiveness. Which of the following substances might he be using? a. steroids b. cocaine c. nicotine d. methamphetamine ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Steroids increase muscle mass but also lead to irritability and aggressiveness. b. Incorrect. Roundworms, commonly found in the soil, can cause more severe symptoms than pinworms. c. Incorrect. Nicotine increases heart rate and blood pressure.

d. Incorrect. Methamphetamine lowers appetite and fatigue levels, while long-term use leads to dental problems, weight loss, confusion, and more.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2 - Identify the important signs and symptoms associated with mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:56 AM 53. Evan is admitted to the hospital after overdosing on a hallucinogen. Which of the following is a hallucinogen? a. speed or uppers b. antianxiety medications c. analgesics d. LSD Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders ANSWER: FEEDBACK:

d a. Incorrect. Amphetamines are called speed or uppers and cause an increase in heart rate, respiration, and digestion. b. Incorrect. Antianxiety medications are sedatives.

c. Incorrect. Analgesics are painkillers, such as heroin or methadone. d. Correct. LSD is the most abused hallucinogen. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1 - Define the terminology common to mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:57 AM 54. Piper has been diagnosed with narcolepsy. Which of the following correctly describes narcolepsy? a. the ability to fall asleep or stay asleep b. a daily uncontrollable attack of sleep c. short periods of breathlessness during sleep d. getting up at night and walking without waking ANSWER: b FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Insomnia is a condition that affects the ability to fall asleep or stay asleep.

b. Correct. Individuals with narcolepsy may fall asleep whenever they are sedentary. c. Incorrect. Sleep apnea causes short periods of breathlessness during sleep.

d. Incorrect. Getting up at night and walking without waking describes sleepwalking.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:58 AM 55. Morgan is exhausted and seeking help with their inability to sleep. Which of the following is an activity to prevent sleep disorders? a. have a relaxing glass of wine before bed b. consume caffeine in the evenings c. get regular exercise d. eat a large meal late in the evening ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. To prevent sleep issues, alcohol later in the day should be avoided. b. Incorrect. Caffeine should be avoided late in the day to minimize sleep issues. c. Correct. Regular exercise is helpful to prevent or minimize sleep disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders d. Incorrect. To avoid sleep issues, large meals late in the day should be avoided. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:58 AM 56. Gillian is concerned with her brother’s withdrawn behavior and fears he has a personality disorder. Which personality disorder is described by lack of warm or tender feelings for others, few friends, and difficulty expressing anger? a. narcissistic b. antisocial c. paranoid d. schizoid ANSWER: d FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Narcissistic personalities need constant attention and admiration and lack the ability to express empathy. b. Incorrect. Those with antisocial personalities exhibit behavior such as stealing running away and violence. c. Incorrect. Paranoid personalities are cold, unemotional, and mistrust others.

d. Correct. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder are loners who have a lack of tender feelings for others, few friends, and a hard time expressing anger.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 4:59 AM 57. Lavonne is a 69-year-old female who has been prescribed lithium. Which condition is often treated with lithium? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. alcohol use disorder c. bipolar disorder d. delusional disorder ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Obsessive-compulsive disorder may be treated with cognitive behavior therapy. b. Incorrect. Alcohol use disorder is treated with a rehabilitation program and abstaining from alcohol. c. Correct. Bipolar disorder includes states of extreme depression or extreme elation and is often treated with lithium. d. Incorrect. Antipsychotics are used to treat delusional disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.6 - State the mental health disorders found in the older population and the effects of these disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:00 AM 58. Ali suffers from bouts of depression. Which of the following lifestyle changes can reduce depressive episodes? a. exercise for 150 minutes per week b. getting less sleep c. using alcohol to unwind d. adopting a more sedentary lifestyle ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Studies have shown that exercising for 150 minutes a week can reduce anxiety and depression. b. Incorrect. Getting enough sleep helps improve depression.

c. Incorrect. Alcohol should be avoided in individuals with depression. d. Incorrect. Exercise has been shown to be extremely helpful with improving depression.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.5 - Describe the typical course and management of the common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:00 AM 59. Hunter is exhibiting a sudden loss of memory after an accident that nearly killed him. Which of the following dissociative disorders does this symptom describe? a. psychogenic amnesia b. psychogenic fugue c. depersonalization d. multiple personality ANSWER: a FEEDBACK: a. Correct. Psychogenic amnesia is a sudden loss of memory after a major stress event, considered to be a way of escape. b. Incorrect. Suddenly leaving home, changing one’s name, and traveling far away can be signs of psychogenic fugue, which occurs after a major natural disaster. c. Incorrect. After severe depression, stress or fatigue, an individual may feel disconnected from mind and body, as if they are viewing life from a distance. d. Incorrect. Multiple personality disorder is when an individual exhibits two or more distinct personalities.

POINTS:

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Chapter 21 - Mental Health Disease and Disorders QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:01 AM 60. Erin is a 35-year-old female who doesn’t sleep well, always feels tired, cries more easily than she used to and has less pleasure in events that she used to enjoy. Which of the following conditions may be affecting Erin? a. panic disorder b. post-traumatic stress c. depression d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: c FEEDBACK: a. Incorrect. Panic disorder, also known as a panic attack, can cause chest pain, tachycardia, and diaphoresis. b. Incorrect. PTSD can occur in individuals who have survived a distressing event, such as war, child incest, natural disasters, or other acts of violence. c. Correct. Depression, a prolonged feeling of extreme sadness or despair, has many causes and symptoms that include fatigue, sleep issues, crying more often and loss of pleasure. d. Incorrect. Bipolar disorder has times of depression and times of euphoria with increased energy and activity.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4 - Identify common mental health disorders. DATE CREATED: 8/6/2022 2:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 11/30/2022 5:03 AM

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