Introducing Physical Geography, 6th Edition Test Bank by Ace Test Banks

Introducing Physical Geography, 6th Edition Test Bank By

Strahler

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 01

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) The Sun’s rays strike the surface of the Earth at 90 degrees at the ____________ on December 22. a) Tropic of Cancer b) Equator c) Tropic of Capricorn d) Arctic Circle e) Antarctic Circle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

02) The Earth’s axis is always tilted at an angle of _________ degrees to the plane of the ecliptic. a) 15 b) 23.5 c) 33.3 d) 66.5 e) 90 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

03) In the southern hemisphere, the vernal equinox occurs on or around: a) June 22 b) December 22 c) March 21 d) September 23

e) January 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

04) Latitude: a) describes the east-west locations on the globe b) is a measure of the rotation of the Earth c) lines (parallels )are all the same length d) lines (parallels )include the Equator e) lines (parallels )include the International Date Line Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Geographic Grid Learning Objective 1: 1.3: Describe the features of the geographic grid

05) The meridian at 0 degrees is: a) the prime meridian b) the Equator c) the Arctic Circle d) the Antarctic Circle e) the International Date Line Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Geographic Grid Learning Objective 1: 1.3: Describe the features of the geographic grid

06) When the subsolar point is located at its highest latitude in the northern hemisphere it is: a) the summer solstice b) the winter solstice c) the autumnal equinox d) the vernal equinox e) the spring equinox

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

07) At the vernal equinox in the northern hemisphere: a) more solar radiation reaches the northern hemisphere b) more solar radiation reaches the southern hemisphere c) equal amounts of solar radiation reach both hemispheres d) regions north of the Arctic Circle receive 24 hours of daylight e) regions north of the Arctic Circle receive 24 hours of night Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

08) The point on the Earth’s surface where the Sun is directly overhead is: a) subsolar point b) circle of illumination c) great circle d) small circle e) Arctic Circle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

09) At the moment of the aphelion, the Earth’s position in its orbit is: a) directly between the plane of the ecliptic and the Tropic of Capricorn b) farthest from the Sun c) closest to the Sun d) farther from the Moon than at the perihelion e) closer to the Moon than at the aphelion

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

10) What forces cause the Earth to assume the shape of an oblate ellipsoid? a) Gravitational pull of the Sun b) Outward force of the Earth’s rotation c) Earth’s revolution around the Sun d) Tectonic forces e) Gravitational influence of the Moon Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Shape of the Earth Learning Objective 1: 1.1: Describe the shape of the Earth

11) On which of the following projections does a straight line represent a true and constant compass bearing? a) conic b) cylindrical c) isarithmic d) equal-area e) Mercator Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

12) Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) The Earth rotates counterclockwise on its axis when viewed from the North Pole. b) The circumference of the Earth at the Equator is greater than the circumference of the Earth around the poles. c) The distance traveled during a complete rotation of the Earth by a person standing on one of the poles is approximately the same as someone else standing at the Equator. d) The rotation of the Earth on its axis determines the length of a calendar day.

e) The lines of longitude converge at the poles. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Rotation Learning Objective 1:1.2: Explain Earth’s rotation

13) Which of the following associations in the southern hemisphere is incorrect? a) autumnal equinox – March 21 b) spring equinox – September 23 c) summer solstice – December 22 d) winter solstice – June 22 e) vernal equinox – March 21 Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

14) Passengers traveling by air from Tokyo to San Francisco hear the pilot announce that the plane is about to cross the International Date Line. Their watches at that moment indicate that the correct local time is 2:00 p.m. on Monday. Upon crossing the date line they should _______. a) change their watches to 3:00 p.m. on Monday b) change their watches to 1:00 p.m. on Monday c) change their watches to 2:00 p.m. on Tuesday d) change their watches to 2:00 p.m. on Sunday e) change their watches to 3.00 p.m. on Tuesday Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

15) The boundary between the half of the Earth in sunlight and the half of the Earth in darkness is the __________. a) solar zenith b) International Date Line

c) Arctic Circle d) plane of the ecliptic e) circle of illumination Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

16) At the moment of the perihelion, the Earth’s position in its orbit is________________. a) directly between the plane of the ecliptic and the Tropic of Capricorn b) farthest from the Sun c) closest to the Sun d) farther from the Moon that at the aphelion e) closer to the Moon than at the aphelion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

17) The summer solstice in the northern hemisphere occurs approximately on which of the following dates? a) March 21 b) June 22 c) July 23 d) August 24 e) September 25 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

18) Which of the following statements about meridians is true? a) They originate at the equator at 0 degrees and reach the poles both north and south at 90 degrees

b) They originate at the Equator at 90 degrees and reach the poles both north and south at 0 degrees c) They originate at 0 degrees longitude and reach a location approximately at the International Date Line at 180 degrees longitude d) They originate at 180 degrees longitude and reach a location approximately at the International Date Line at 0 degrees longitude e) Meridians never intersect Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: The Geographic Grid Learning Objective 1: 1.3: Describe the features of the geographic grid

19) How many degrees separate the central meridians that each time zone is based on? a) 1 degree b) 2 degrees c) 5 degrees d) 10 degrees e) 15 degrees Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

20) Which of the following associations in the northern hemisphere is incorrect? a) winter solstice – December 22 b) summer solstice – June 22 c) spring equinox – March 21 d) autumnal equinox – October 23 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

21) When do regions north of the Arctic Circle experience 24 hours of daylight?

a) winter solstice b) summer solstice c) spring equinox d) autumnal equinox Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

22) Which of the following is true about the rotation of the Moon? a) The Moon rotates in the opposite direction of the Earth b) The Moon does not rotate c) The Moon rotates so that one side is always hidden from the Earth d) The Moon rotates faster than the Earth e) The Moon’s rotation determines the phases of the Moon Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

23) What is the declination of the Sun at the equinoxes? a) 90 degrees b) 66.5 degrees c) 45 degrees d) 23.5 degrees e) 0 degrees Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

24) If it is 1 p.m. in Miami, Florida, what time is it in Eugene, Oregon?

a) 4 p.m. b) 12 p.m. c) 11 a.m. d) 10 a.m. e) 9 a.m. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

25) Which of the following best describes the shape of the Earth? a) a geoid b) a sphere c) a beach ball d) a billiard ball e) a rugby ball Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Shape of the Earth Learning Objective 1:1.1: Describe the shape of the Earth

26) One degree of latitude is approximately how many kilometers in distance? a) 100

b) 120 c) 111 d) 122 e) 101 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Geographic Grid Learning Objective 1: 1.3: Describe features of the geographic grid

27) Around which time of the year in the northern hemisphere is the Earth at the perihelion? a) spring equinox b) fall equinox c) summer solstice d) winter solstice e) Groundhog Day Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

28) The time difference between the prime meridian and the International Date Line is: a) 24 hours b) 12 hours c) 8 hours d) 1 hour e) the same time but a different date Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

29) Which of the following is true about Greenland in June?

a) the subsolar point is at 23.5 degrees south b) the subsolar point is at 66.5 degrees north c) Greenland experiences 24 hours of darkness d) Insolation is received even at midnight e) The Earth is at perihelion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

Question Type: True/False

30) If you were to look down on Earth from above the North Pole, the Earth would be seen to rotate in a clockwise direction. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Rotation Learning Objective 1: 1.2: Explain Earth’s rotation

31) The Earth’s equatorial diameter is slightly larger than the polar diameter. Answer: True

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Shape of the Earth Learning Objective 1: 1.1: Describe the shape of the Earth

32) Shearing corrects distortion in map projections. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

33) Shearing occurs when parallels, but not meridians, are curved. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

34) Tides are the result of the Earth’s rotation combined with the Moon’s gravitational pull. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Rotation Learning Objective 1: 1.2: Explain Earth’s rotation

35) In a polar projection, the meridians are shown parallel to each other. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

36) A straight line drawn on a Mercator projection shows the line of compass bearing, although it does not necessarily provide the shortest distance between two points. Answer: True

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

37) A map projection that shows relative areas correctly is an equal-area projection. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

38) The declination of the Sun is the angle of the Sun measured at solar noon. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

39) One hundred eighty degrees of latitude and 360 degrees of longitude geographically cover the entire Earth. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Geographic Grid Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Describe the features of the geographic grid

40) A line of latitude is always a great circle. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Geographic Grid Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Describe the features of the geographic grid

41) Theoretically, the Earth is divided into 24, 15-degree-wide time zones. Answer: True

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

42) During daylight saving time (DST), the Earth’s rotation is slowed by 1 hour to lengthen the day by 1 hour. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

43) The Earth’s rotation is the annual journey around the Sun and gives us the calendar year. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

44) There are three time zones in China.

Answer: False

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

Question Type: Essay

45) Describe and explain the length of daylight at your current location at the solstices and the equinoxes. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

46) Identify the precise latitude and longitude of three local landmarks using a local mapsheet. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

47) For further research, identify the precise latitude and longitude of three famous landmarks. For example, the Empire State Building in New York, the CN Tower in Toronto, Buckingham Palace in London, or the Opera House in Sydney. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

48) Compare and contrast the polar, Mercator, and Winkel Tripel map projections. Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of each projection. Which projection would be most suitable for use as a world climate map or for plotting a course through the Arctic? Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Section Reference 1: Map Projections Learning Objective 1: 1.4: Explain different types of map projections

49) Calculate the current time (or time closest to the nearest hour) at five major cities (for example, London, Paris, New York, Houston, Rio de Janeiro, Calgary). Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

50) Using a well-known example of a highway (for example, Route 66 from Chicago to California, the Pacific Coast Highway from Seattle to Monterey, or Highway 1 across Canada) identify time zone changes and changes in the length of daylight for a specific time of year. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Global Time Learning Objective 1: 1.5: Describe Earth’s time zones

51) Explain the Sun’s subsolar point during the four seasons of the year. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun. 52) Explain the difference between a “high sun angle” season and a “low sun angle” season. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Revolution around the Sun Learning Objective 1: 1.6: Describe Earth’s seasons using its revolution around the Sun.

53) Describe three reasons why the rotation of the Earth is important. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Earth’s Rotation Learning Objective 1: 1.2: Explain Earth’s rotation

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Strahler Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: Chapter 02

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Oxygen accounts for approximately ________ % of the air that surrounds us. a) 3.5 b) 7.0 c) 10.5 d) 21.0 e) 50.0 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

2) The average albedo of the planet Earth is around: a) 20% b) 30% c) 50% d) 70% e) 80% Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

03) Which of the following statements is true regarding latent heat transfer? a) Energy is released to a surface during the process of evaporation b) Energy is released to a surface during the process of condensation c) Energy is absorbed by ice during the process of freezing in the atmosphere d) Humidity is decreased following the release of latent heat e) Humidity is increased following the release of latent heat

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy Transfer Learning Objective 1: 2.4: Compare sensible and latent heat

04) Approximately what proportion of the total solar radiation received by the Earth is eventually lost to space? a) 27% b) 31% c) 49% d) 69% e) 100% Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

05) When water evaporates from a surface: a) energy is liberated and the surface is warmed b) energy is absorbed and the surface is cooled c) there is no change in energy d) the type of surface determines whether heat is lost or gained by the surface e) only latent heat is involved in the process Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy Transfer Learning Objective 1: 2.4: Compare sensible and latent heat

06) Which of the following is the correct order from greatest volume to least volume of gases in the troposphere? a) oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, neon b) nitrogen, argon, oxygen, neon c) nitrogen, oxygen, argon, carbon dioxide

d) oxygen, nitrogen, argon, carbon dioxide e) neon, argon, oxygen, nitrogen Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

07) Which of the following has the longest wavelength? a) ultraviolet (UV) radiation b) visible light c) X rays d) infrared radiation e) gamma radiation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

08) Which of the following has the shortest wavelength? a) ultraviolet (UV) radiation b) visible light c) X rays d) infrared radiation e) gamma radiation Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

09) Insolation is __________. a) incoming solar radiation b) outgoing solar radiation

c) outgoing terrestrial radiation d) the name given to the blanket-like effect the Earth’s atmosphere has on global warming e) the warming effect of clouds Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

10) The amount of radiation left over when all incoming and outgoing flows have been tallied is called __________. a) net radiation b) final insolation c) greenhouse radiation d) total radiation e) counter-radiation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Net Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.6: Explain how net radiation varies with latitude.

11) Which of following constant gases accounts for the largest proportion of the air that surrounds us? a) oxygen b) nitrogen c) carbon dioxide d) argon e) water vapor Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

12) Which of the following surfaces would likely have the highest albedo?

a) an area covered by pine forest b) an asphalt parking lot c) an area covered by snow d) an area covered by wet sand e) an area covered by dry sand Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

13) Which of the following are the most absorptive gases of longwave infrared radiation? a) oxygen and argon b) carbon dioxide and methane c) nitrogen and ozone d) oxygen and nitrogen e) argon and nitrogen Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

14) The emission of longwave radiation by the atmosphere towards the Earth’s surface is termed: a) ground heat flow b) latent heat c) direct radiation d) counterradiation e) net radiation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

15) What is the range of wavelengths of visible light? a) 1.2 to 3.0 micrometers b) 0.7 to 1.2 micrometers c) 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers d) 8 to 12 micrometers e) 3 to 6 micrometers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

16) What is the magnitude of the solar constant? a) 550 watts per square meter b) 745 watts per square meter c) 1035 watts per square meter d) 1225 watts per square meter e) 1371 watts per square meter Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

17) What is the solar constant? a) The amount of solar radiation per unit area received at the Earth’s surface b) The amount of solar radiation per unit area received outside the Earth’s atmosphere c) The amount of solar radiation per unit area received emitted at the Sun’s surface d) The amount of solar radiation per unit area received at the Equator e) The amount of solar radiation per unit area received at the poles Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

18) At what wavelength does the Sun emit most of its energy? a) ultraviolet b) visible c) infrared d) near infrared e) gamma radiation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

19) Which of the following is a consequence of the Sun’s relatively higher temperature compared to that of the Earth? a) The Earth is heated more by solar longwave radiation than by solar shortwave radiation b) The Earth emits shortwave rather than longwave radiation c) The Earth emits longwave rather than shortwave radiation d) The Earth receives more scattered energy than direct radiant energy e) The Earth receives more direct radiant energy than scattered energy Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

20) What is a blackbody? a) An identical model of the way the Sun emits radiant energy b) An identical model of the way that all objects emit radiant energy c) A theoretical model of the emission of radiant energy d) A theoretical model that describes only the Stefan-Boltzmann Law e) A model that describes the development of longwave energy

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

21) Which of the following locations would receive the most incoming solar radiation at noon during the spring equinox? a) The North Pole b) The Tropic of Cancer c) The Equator d) The Tropic of Capricorn e) The South Pole Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

22) The lower solar angles characteristic of high-latitude locations lead to lower levels of insolation because: a) the solar radiation has further to travel and so loses its strength b) the solar radiation is spread over a larger unit area c) the solar radiation is spread over a smaller unit area d) the solar radiation must travel through more volume of atmosphere and so more radiation is reflected back to space e) the high latitude regions receive solar radiation from the cooler part of the Sun Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

23) Imbalances in net radiation between low and high latitudes results in: a) poleward heat transfer

b) latent heat transfer c) sensible heat transfer d) counterradiation e) the greenhouse effect Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Net Radiation, Latitude, and the Energy Balance Learning Objective 1: 2.6: Explain how net radiation varies with latitude

24) The largest hole in the ozone layer is found a) over Europe b) over the Arctic Circle c) in September e) in the troposphere Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

25) Carbon dioxide comprises _____________ % of the Earth’s lower atmosphere. a) 52% b) 0.0385% c) 3% d) 5% e) 10% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

26) The ozone layer absorbs which of the following wavelengths of radiation? a) ultraviolet b) microwave c) infrared

d) near infrared e) gamma radiation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

27) Ozone forms from the free atoms of which gas? a) nitrogen b) argon c) carbon dioxide d) oxygen e) water vapor Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

28) Which of the following statements is not correct? a) Where net radiation is positive, incoming solar radiation is equal to outgoing longwave radiation b) An energy surplus at the Equator leads to energy moving poleward c) Low latitudes (from 0º to 40º) generally have an energy surplus d) High latitudes (from 40º to 90º) generally have an energy deficit e) None of these are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Net Radiation, Latitude, and the Energy Balance Learning Objective 1: 2.6: Explain how net radiation varies with latitude

29) An increase in the frequency of electromagnetic radiation results in a: a) shorter wavelength

b) longer wavelength a) lower energy levels d) time shift with respect to energy levels e) significant increase in absorption levels Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

30) All bodies in space: a) emit light b) orbit the Sun c) emit electromagnetic radiation d) have similar orbits e) attract each other Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation 31) The term “albedo” refers to: a) the amount of radiation absorbed by a body b) the ability to insulate an object c) the varying degree of seasonal changes in electromagnetic radiation d) the ability to add to the greenhouse effect e) the amount of electromagnetic radiation reflected by a body Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

32) Which of the following is a correct statement:

a) Insolation levels are constant on land surfaces b) Insolation levels are constant on water surfaces c) Insolation levels increase with higher Sun angle d) Insolation levels are not related to latitude in any way e) Insolation levels are affected by nighttime low temperatures Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

Question Type: True/False

33) Sensible heat loss results in a temperature increase. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy Transfer Learning Objective 1: 2.4: Compare sensible and latent heat

34) Hot objects radiate less energy than cool objects. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

35) If the Earth was not tilted on its axis there would be no seasons whatsoever. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

36) Latent heat transfer occurs when two objects of unlike temperature come into contact with each other. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy Transfer Learning Objective 1: 2.4: Compare sensible and latent heat

37) Water vapor usually makes up less than 1% of the Earth’s atmosphere. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

38) Radiation can be scattered in multiple directions, which leads to diffuse radiation and diffuse reflection. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Compare sensible and latent heat

39) Surface temperatures are warmer over a surface with a low albedo compared to those above a surface with a high albedo. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

40) The presence of clouds can greatly decrease the amount of incoming solar radiation. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

41) The albedo of water is generally high for nearly vertical rays of sunlight on calm water. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space 42) At night there is no incoming solar radiation to Earth, yet the Earth’s surface continues to emit outgoing radiation. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

43) Water vapor can exceed 4% of the total gases in the Earth’s atmosphere. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

44) An increase in wavelength of electromagnetic radiation results in an increase in frequency. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

45) Ozone in the stratosphere is harmful as it acts as an air pollutant.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

46) If your latitude is between the Tropic of Cancer and The Tropic of Capricorn you will experience the Sun being directly overhead twice a year. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

47) Ozone can be produced by oxygen absorption of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

Question Type: Essay

48) Describe the different forms of radiation from short to long wavelengths. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

49) Describe the nature of the radiation budget for your location for today. How do you envisage it will change over the next month? Answer: Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

50) Describe the radiation budget for your location for the year. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

51) Describe the passage of a unit of energy from the Sun and its balancing return of radiation emitted by the Earth. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1:2.1: Describe the Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation

52) What type of information does NASA’s CERES experiment provide? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Net radiation, latitude, and energy balance Learning Objective 1: 2.6: Explain how net radiation varies with latitude.

53) What would the CERES instruments tell us about insolation at the Equator? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Net radiation, latitude, and energy balance Learning Objective 1: 2.6: Explain how net radiation varies with latitude.

54) Using the analogy of your classroom, how many people would represent the volumes for different gases of the atmosphere. For example, how many people would represent the volume of

oxygen? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

55) It is envisaged that the ozone layer will be restored by the middle of the twenty-first century. How would you describe the ozone crisis to people who will never experience it? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Section Reference 1erence 2: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space. Learning Objective 2: 2.1: Describe Earth’s absorption and emission of electromagnetic radiation.

56) Estimate the albedos for common objects you see outside. For example, the road, the sidewalk, areas of grass, muddy puddles, etc. Give an example of how one of these albedos would change in 6 months. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Energy System Learning Objective 1: 2.5: Describe the flow of energy from the Sun to Earth’s atmosphere and surface and the return flow to space

57) Review how the Earth’s energy budget may be altered by changes in the solar system, atmosphere, or land surface. What do you think would be the effect upon the climate? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Net Radiation, Latitude, and the Energy Balance Learning Objective 1: 2.6: Explain how net radiation varies with latitude

58) Explain how latitude affects the amount of insolation received at a location.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

Question Type: Multiple Choice

59) Which of the numbered sections on this figure corresponds with the visible light portion of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe different types of electromagnetic radiation

60) Which of the numbered sections on this figure corresponds with the ultraviolet portion of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe different types of electromagnetic radiation.

61) Which of the numbered sections on this figure corresponds with the infrared portion of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe different types of electromagnetic radiation

62) Which of the numbered sections on this figure corresponds with the gamma ray portion of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe different types of electromagnetic radiation

63) Which of the numbered sections on this figure corresponds with the X ray portion of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe different types of electromagnetic radiation

64) Which of the numbered sections on this figure corresponds with the microwave portion of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe different types of electromagnetic radiation

65) Which of the numbered sections on this figure corresponds with the radar portion of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Electromagnetic Radiation Learning Objective 1: 2.1: Describe different types of electromagnetic radiation

66) Which of these figures best illustrates the highest Sun angle at the Tropic of Cancer on the June solstice?

a) A b) B c) C Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

67) Which of the daily solar paths shown in this figure illustrates the situation for June solstice, at a latitude of 40º north?

a) A b) B c) C Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

68) Which of the daily solar paths shown in this figure illustrates the situation for December solstice, at a latitude of 40º north?

69) Which of the daily solar paths shown in this figure illustrates the situation for the equinoxes, at a latitude of 40º north?

a) A b) B c) C Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

70) On this figure, the midlatitude zones are labeled:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

71) On this figure, the subtropical zones are labeled:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

72) On this figure, the tropical zones are labeled:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

73) On this figure, the subarctic zones are labeled:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Insolation over the Globe Learning Objective 1: 2.2: Describe the variation of incoming solar radiation by latitude and season over the Earth

74) In the pie chart below, the proportion of nitrogen in the atmosphere is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3

d) 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

75) In the pie chart below, the proportion of argon in the atmosphere is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

76) In the pie chart below, the proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is labeled:

a) 1

b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

77) In the pie chart above, the proportion of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Composition of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 2.3: Describe the composition of the Earth’s atmosphere

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography, 6e Chapter Number: 03

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Which of the following is not one of the major factors influencing surface temperature? a) coastal compared to interior locations b) surface type c) elevation d) insolation e) cloudiness Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

02) In addition to thermometers, what other instruments and equipment are commonly found at a weather station? a) evaporation pan b) anemometer c) rain gauge d) thermometer shelter e) all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

03) Which of the following is the correct formula for converting Fahrenheit to Celsius? a) C = 9/5(F+32) b) C = 5/9(F-32) c) C = 9/5(F-32) d) C = 5/9(F+32) e) C = 9/5+F32

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

04) The louvered box that serves as a thermometer shelter at a weather station is known as which of the following? a) isotherm shelter b) thermoneter c) isometer box d) electrotherm shelter e) Stevenson shelter Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

05) Which of the following is a source of atmospheric carbon dioxide? a) photosynthesis b) chlorofluorocarbons c) rice fields d) burning of fossil fuels e) melting ice Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

06) Which of the following orderings of atmospheric layers is correct as one moves from the Earth’s surface through the atmosphere? a) troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere b) troposphere, thermosphere, stratosphere, mesosphere c) thermosphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, troposphere d) stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere, mesosphere

e) thermosphere. mesosphere, stratosphere, troposphere Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

07) Which of the following is true about the temperature change with increasing elevation above the Earth’s surface? a) Temperature decreases consistently through all atmospheric layers b) Temperature increases through the troposphere and stratosphere, and then decreases c) Temperature decreases in the troposphere and stratosphere, and then increases d) Temperature decreases in the troposphere and increases in the stratosphere e) Temperature increases in the troposphere and decreases in the stratosphere Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

08) Overall, net radiation is greatest at _____________ latitudes and smallest at ______________ latitudes. a) low / middle b) low / high c) middle / low d) high / low e) middle / high Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

09) In which atmospheric layers does temperature increase with altitude? a) troposphere b) tropopause c) stratosphere

d) stratopause e) mesosphere Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

10) The greenhouse effect is the result of the atmosphere’s _______ of _______ radiation emitted by the Earth. a) reflection / infrared b) absorption / longwave c) refraction / counterd) reflection / shortwave e) absorption / shortwave Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

11) During a temperature inversion _______. a) there is no change in air temperature as one ascends through the troposphere b) there is no change in air temperature as one descends through the troposphere c) temperatures increase as one ascends through the lower atmosphere d) temperatures decrease as one ascends through the lower atmosphere e) the stratosphere is the same temperature as the troposphere Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

12) Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) Isotherms connect points of equal temperature b) A gradient exists where temperature changes along one direction c) Isotherms do not cross each other

d) A map of annual air temperature range would show a narrow range near the equator and a wider range near the poles e) A map of annual air temperature range would show a narrow range over continents and a wider range over oceans Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: World Patterns of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.4: Explain air temperature variations around the world

13) Which of the following statements concerning land/water heating differences is correct? a) The annual range of temperatures at a coastal location is larger than the annual temperature range of a continental interior location b) The annual range of temperatures at a coastal location is smaller than the annual temperature range of a continental interior location c) The annual range of temperatures at a coastal location is the same as the annual temperature range of a continental interior location d) The moderating influence of the ocean at a coastal location is known as the continental effect e) The moderating influence of the land surface at a continental interior location is known as the maritime effect Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

14) Which of the following can help create a historical record of temperature? a) history of volcanic eruptions b) rate of coral growth c) tree ring number and width d) data collected from ice cores e) all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Temperature Record and Global Warming Learning Objective 1: 3.5: Describe the consequences of global warming

15) Currently, which of the following gases contributes the most toward the greenhouse effect? a) methane b) CFCs c) tropospheric aerosols d) carbon dioxide e) nitrous oxide Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Temperature Record and Global Warming Learning Objective 1: 3.5: Describe the consequences of global warming

16) What is the homosphere? a) The lower portion of the troposphere only b) The troposphere and the lower portion of the stratosphere c) The troposphere, stratosphere, and the lower portion of the mesosphere d) The troposphere, mesosphere, and the lower portion of the thermosphere e) The troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and the lower portion of the thermosphere Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

17) A parcel of air at the base of a mountain range has a temperature of 30 degrees Celsius. If the parcel of air moved 500 meters up the slope, its temperature would be approximately _______ degrees Celsius. a) 24 b) 27 c) 33 d) 36 e) 40 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere

Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

18) Which of the following statements concerning the urban heat island is correct? a) The urban heat island only develops where cities are mostly located on islands b) The urban heat island only develops in hot, dry climates c) Residential areas are affected more than core urban areas d) Park areas in a city can reduce the effect of the urban heat island e) Highly absorptive surfaces can be used to reduce the impact of the urban heat island Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

19) At what altitude would you normally find the tropopause? a) 2 kilometers b) 14 kilometers c) 20 kilometers d) 30 kilometers e) 40 kilometers Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

20) The transmission of sensible heat through matter by transfer of energy from one atom or molecule in the direction of decreasing temperature is: a) convection b) conduction c) transpiration d) latent heat transfer e) lapse rate Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature

Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

21) Atmospheric aerosols may be derived from which of the following? a) soot from burning of materials b) salt spray from oceans c) particles from forest fires d) volcanic eruptions e) all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

22) The environmental temperature lapse rate is: a) 2.2 degrees Fahrenheit per 100 meters b) 4.4 degrees Fahrenheit per 1000 meters c) 3.2 degrees Fahrenheit per 1000 meters d) 6.4 degrees Fahrenheit per 1000 meters e) 10 degrees Fahrenheit per 1000 meters Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

23) Which of the following may be used to reduce the damage of frosts? a) irrigation b) oil-burning heaters c) dark-colored mulch on the soil surface d) light-colored mulch on the soil surface e) tilling the soil Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

24) Using figure (3.20) which curve demonstrates the most continental and high-latitude climate?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

25) Examine the annual net radiation patterns shown in figure (3.20). The curve for the city of Manaus at 3º S latitude is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

26) Examine the monthly mean air temperature patterns shown in the figure below. The curve for the city of Hamburg at 54º N latitude is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Ref: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

27) On this figure, the troposphere is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

28) On this figure, the mesosphere is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

29) On this figure, the atmospheric layer that contains the ozone layer is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

30) On this figure, the thermosphere is labeled:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

31) Which of the following is not one of the four important thermal differences between land and ocean surfaces? a) Oceans have a higher heat capacity than land

b) Water is slower to heat than land c) Warm water surfaces can mix with cooler water below d) Dry soil has a higher heat capacity than water e) Open water can be easily cooled by open evaporation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

32) Lines connecting locations having the same temperature are referred to as: a) isotherms b) isolines c) isobars d) isohypses e) isohyets Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: World Patterns of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.4: Explain air temperature variations around the world

33) The hottest month for interior locations in the Northern Hemisphere is ______ while the coldest month is __________. a) May / December b) May / November c) June / December d) July / January e) August / February Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

34) Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) Tropospheric aerosols as a result of human activity include sulfate particles, fine soot, and

organic particles b) Land cover alteration such as deforestation induces cooling c) Solar output has decreased slightly, causing cooling d) Volcanic aerosols have at times caused warming and at other times cooling e) The effect of greenhouse gases has outweighed the cooling effects of other factors. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Temperature Record and Global Warming Learning Objective 1: 3.5: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

35) An increase in latitude results in: a) an increase in the daytime high temperature b) an increase in elevation c) a decrease in annual net temperatures d) an increase in annual net temperatures e) a change in time zone Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

36) Surface air temperature is generally measured at 4 ft. above the ground because a) it is easier for short people to read b) inaccurate readings might occur if placed too close to the ground c) because that is the way it has always been done d) to avoid strong wind currents at a lower height e) to avoid strong wind currents at a higher height Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

37) Daytime high temperatures generally occur: a) near high noon

b) just after noon c) about 4:30 p.m. d) about 3:00 p.m. e) just before sunset Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

38) Daytime low temperatures generally occur: a) at sunrise b) about ½ hour after sunrise c) about 1 hour after sunrise d) at midnight e) about 3:00 a.m. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

39) Land/water contrasts keep: a) coastal locations constantly cold b) moisture from reaching interior locations c) coastal locations from too much direct sun d) air temperature at coastal locations more constant than at interior locations e) air temperature at coastal locations at or near freezing Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

Question Type: True/False

40) Locations near oceans experience a wider range of air temperatures than locations in continental interiors.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

41) The temperature of the ground surface and overlying air tends to reach a maximum at the local solar noon, when insolation levels are at their highest. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

42) Surfaces in urban areas generally absorb more insolation than those in rural areas. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

43) The warming effect of vegetation is the result of transpiring leaves and their interception of solar radiation. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

44) The rate of temperature decrease with altitude is around 5 degrees Celsius per 1000 meters. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

45) The altitude of the tropopause varies with season and latitude. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

46) Isotherms make a large north-south shift from January to July over continents in midlatitude and subarctic zones. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: World Patterns of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.4: Explain air temperature variations around the world

47) Large land masses located in the subarctic and arctic zones develop centers of low temperatures related to the high albedos of snow cover. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

48) The annual range of temperature decreases with increasing latitude, especially over northern hemisphere continents. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

49) At a given latitude, temperatures tend to increase with elevation in the troposphere. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

50) If air temperature increases with increasing altitude, an inversion is present. This can develop on cloudy nights when the surface loses longwave radiation to space. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

51) The range between maximum and minimum temperatures increases with elevation. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

52) The greenhouse effect is reduced at high elevation locations. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

53) Urban locations always experience an urban heat island effect. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

54) Forty degrees below zero is the same temperature in both Celsius and Fahrenheit. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

55) Nighttime air temperatures tend to be lower at low elevations because there are fewer air molecules to absorb outgoing longwave radiation. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Ref: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

Question Type: Essay 56) Describe the nature of the five factors influencing air temperature, then describe the characteristics of these factors at your current location

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

57) Describe how the urban heat island effect influences the climate of your location. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

58) Imagine you are ascending through the atmosphere from the ground upward. Describe the changing conditions as you ascend. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

59) Identify three anthropogenic (human-caused) factors that influence global warming. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Temperature Record and Global Warming Learning Objective 1: 3.5: Describe the consequences of global warming

60) Identify whether your location has a continental or maritime climate. Compare and contrast your climate with that of an opposing continental or maritime climate. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Daily and Annual Cycles of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.3: Describe how air temperature varies by time and location

61) Describe the temperature changes of a bare soil surface over the course of a day-night cycle. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

62) It is predicted that global temperatures will increase between 1.0 and 3.5 degrees Celsius by 2100. Describe two possible consequences of this increase. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Temperature Record and Global Warming Learning Objective 1: 3.5: Describe the consequences of global warming

63) Identify and explain the three major factors that control global air temperature patterns. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: World Patterns of Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.4: Explain air temperature variations around the world

64) Describe how the climate would change should you climb or drive up a local region of high elevation.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface and Air Temperature Learning Objective 1: 3.1: Identify the factors that affect air temperature

65) Compare and contrast the characteristics of the troposphere with the stratosphere. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Temperature Structure of the Atmosphere Learning Objective 1: 3.2: Describe how air temperature varies with altitude

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography, 6e Chapter Number: Chapter 04

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Thunderstorms are most associated with which of the following? a) high pressure b) radiation c) conduction d) convection e) equal pressure Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Types of Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.6: Identify different types of precipitation

02) Precipitation totals are normally greatest on the _____________ of mountain ranges. a) northern slopes b) southern slopes c) leeward slopes d) windward slopes e) slopes with gentle gradients Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

03) When uplifted air continues to rise past the lifting condensation level_______. a) it would continue to cool, but at the wet adiabatic lapse rate b) it would continue to cool at the dry adiabatic lapse rate c) it would begin to warm at the dry adiabatic lapse rate d) it would continue to warm, but at the wet adiabatic lapse rate Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

04) Which of the following types of cloud is found at the highest altitudes? a) stratus b) cumulus c) cirrus d) nimbostratus e) altocumulus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

05) The temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated and condensation begins is called the _______. a) point of vaporization b) dew point c) absolute humidity d) latent heat of fusion e) specific humidity Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Humidity Learning Objective 1: 4.2: Compare specific and relative humidity

06) Which of the following orderings of clouds is correct as one increases in altitude? a) cirrus, cumulonimbus, stratocumulus b) stratus, altocumulus, cirrus c) cumulonimbus, cirrocumulus, cumulus d) altocumulus, cumulonimbus, stratus e) cirrus, stratus, altocumulus Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

07) The direct transition from solid ice to gaseous water vapor is known as _______. a) evaporation b) deposition c) sublimation d) condensation e) melting Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Water in the Environment Learning Objective 1: 4.1: Describe the hydrologic cycle

08) During which of the following processes is latent heat released? a) deposition b) sublimation c) melting d) evaporation e) precipitation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Water in the Environment Learning Objective 1: 4.1: Describe the hydrologic cycle

09) Which of the following components of the hydrologic cycle comprises the greatest volume of water on Earth? a) soil water b) steam channels c) freshwater lakes d) saline lakes and inland seas e) groundwater Answer: e

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Water in the Environment Learning Objective 1: 4.1: Describe the hydrologic cycle

10) The largest portion of freshwater today is located in _______. a) clouds b) groundwater resources c) ice sheets and glaciers d) the major rivers and lakes of the world Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Water in the Environment Learning Objective 1:4.1: Describe the hydrologic cycle

11) The dry adiabatic rate is _______. a) 10.0°Celsius/1000 meters b) 0.5°Celsius/ meter c) 5.0°Celsius/1000 meters d) 5.0°Celsius/100 meters Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

12) During adiabatic cooling as air rises, what stage has the parcel of air reached at the lifting condensation level? a) point of vaporization b) dew point c) absolute humidity d) latent heat of fusion e) specific humidity Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

13) Why is the wet adiabatic lapse less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate? a) Water is colder at high altitudes b) Dry air heats more quickly than wet air c) Evaporation as air rises keeps air dry and therefore warmer d) Condensation of water releases heat e) Formation of water droplets absorbs latent heat Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

14) If the sky appears to be completely gray during the day, what types of clouds are present? a) cumulus b) cirrus c) stratus d) cumulonimbus e) altocumulus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

15) Which of the following situations would lead to radiation fog? a) At night the temperature of the air layer at the ground falls below the temperature at which condensation begins b) During the day the temperature of the air layer at the ground increases as a nearby air mass moves in c) Warm marine air moves into a coastal region d) Cold marine air moves into a coastal region e) Warm moist air moves over a cold surface Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

16) Which of the following situations would lead to advection fog? a) At night the temperature of the air layer at the ground falls below the temperature at which condensation begins b) During the day the temperature of the air layer at the ground increases as a nearby air mass moves in c) Warm marine air moves into a coastal region d) Cold marine air moves into a coastal region e) Warm moist air moves over a cold surface Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

17) If ice crystals fall from clouds through an underlying air layer that is below freezing, which of the following forms of precipitation would result? a) rain b) mist c) hail d) snow e) drizzle Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Type of Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.6: Explain how precipitation forms

18) Precipitation formed by the accumulation of ice layers on ice pellets is called _______. a) rain b) mist c) hail d) snow e) drizzle

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Types of Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.6: Identify different types of precipitation

19) Maps to show the distribution of precipitation use lines that connect locations with equal precipitation called _______. a) isobars b) isohyets c) isotach d) isohypse Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

20) Cumulus clouds forming from convection have flat bases that mark the _______. a) top of the troposphere b) mixing layer c) tropopause d) zone of unstable air e) lifting condensation level Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Thunderstorms Learning Objective 1: 4.7: Describe the causes and types of thunderstorms.

21) As a volume of air rises, __________. a) it expands and becomes cooler b) it expands and becomes warmer c) it contracts and becomes cooler d) it contracts and becomes warmer e) it expands but its temperature does not change

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

22) Which of the following conditions would lead to unstable air? a) When air is dry and cool b) When air is dry, cool, and descending c) When the environmental lapse rate exceeds the adiabatic lapse rate d) When the adiabatic lapse rate exceeds the environmental lapse rate e) When the environmental lapse rate equals the adiabatic lapse rate Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

23) The so-called anvil top of a thunder cloud is the result of which of the following phenomena? a) The anvil indicates the position of the tropopause, which acts as a lid b) Fast-moving, high-altitude winds c) Diversion of the cloud top by a nearby front d) Asymmetrical condensation e) High-level clouds take up more space than lower-level clouds Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Thunderstorms Learning Objective 1:4.7: Describe the causes and types of thunderstorms

24) Which of the following statements is correct? a) The wet adiabatic lapse rate is variable b) The wet adiabatic lapse rate is constant c) The dry adiabatic lapse rate is variable d) The altitude of the lifting condensation level is constant e) The relative humidity of air is constant Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

25) Rounded or globular masses of cloud are referred to as __________. a) mackerel sky b) stratiform c) stratus d) cumuliform e) cirrus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

26) Which of the following is not characteristic of a thunderstorm? a) strong updrafts b) strong winds c) rain and snow at intermediate altitudes of the cloud d) small raindrops e) potentially large hailstones Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Thunderstorms Learning Objective 1: 4.7: Describe the causes and types of thunderstorms

27) The sound generated by thunder is the result of which phenomena? a) The impact of lightning hitting the ground b) The rapid expansion of air heated by lightning c) The sound of the electrical current associated with lightning d) The sound of updrafts e) The sound of downdrafts Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Thunderstorms Learning Objective 1: 4.7: Describe the causes and types of thunderstorms

28) Which of the following atmospheric conditions is most likely to lead to the accumulation of smog? a) Prolonged, heavy rain b) High wind speeds c) Temperature inversion d) Interior location e) Mountain location Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Quality Learning Objective 1: 4.9: Identify factors that reduce air quality

29) The rain shadow is located on the __________. a) leeward side of a mountain range b) windward side of a mountain range c) peak of a mountain range d) edge of desert regions e) edge of coastal regions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

30) On average about ________ people die each year from tornadoes, more than from any other natural phenomena except flooding and lightning strikes. a) 25 b) 75 c) 125 d) 150 e) 300 Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tornadoes Learning Objective 1: 4.8: Describe the characteristics and development of tornadoes

31) The reverse of the process of sublimation is called __________. a) composition b) deposition c) evaporation d) perspiration e) condensation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Water in the Environment Learning Objective 1: 4.1: Describe the hydrologic cycle

32) Given that an air mass holds 10 grams of water per kilogram of air with relative humidity of 50% at 75 degrees Fahrenheit. If the air temperature drops to 60 degrees Fahrenheit what will happen to the relative humidity? a) It will increase b) It will decrease c) It will only change if this occurs during daylight hours d) It will only change if this occurs during nighttime hours e) It will remain constant Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Humidity Learning Objective 1: 4.2: Compare specific and relative humidity

33) If a cloud forms close to the ground it is called __________. a) dew b) low-lying stratus clouds c) fog d) ground-induced precipitation e) a cloudbank

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

34) Which cloud type is made up of ice crystals at very high altitudes? a) cirrus clouds b) cumulus clouds c) altocumulus clouds d) altostratus clouds e) cumulonimbus clouds Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

35) What type of precipitation mechanism is in effect when air is forced up and over mountains and precipitation is produced? a) convection b) condensation c) frontal d) orographic e) Santa Ana wind Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

Question Type: True/False

36) It is the covalent bonds that form between liquid water molecules that gives water its properties of surface tension and adhesion. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference 1: Water in the Environment Learning Objective 1: 4.1: Describe the hydrologic cycle

37) The actual quantity of water vapor held by a parcel of air is its relative humidity. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Humidity Learning Objective 1: 4.2: Compare specific and relative humidity

38) Air continues to cool above the lifting condensation level. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates.

39) Unstable air is typical of cool, winter air masses. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

40) As air descends on the lee side of a mountain, it always warms at the dry adiabatic lapse rate. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

41) Warm air is less dense than cooler air. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Precipitation

Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

42) Hailstones are formed by the accumulation of ice layers on ice pellets. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Types of Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

43) Dry air always has a higher dew point temperature than moist air. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Humidity Learning Objective 1: 4.2: Compare specific and relative humidity

44) The altitude at which air is cooled to its dew point temperature and condensation begins is referred to as the lifting condensation level. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates.

45) The environmental temperature lapse rate is caused by adiabatic cooling. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates.

46) Large atmospheric pollution particles are removed by the force of gravity in a process called fallout. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Air Quality Learning Objective 1: 4.9: Identify factors that reduce air quality

47) Warm air can hold more water vapor than cold air. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Humidity Learning Objective 1: 4.2: Compare specific and relative humidity

48) When rain mixes with smog, fallout will occur. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Air Quality Learning Objective 1: 4.9: Identify factors that reduce air quality

49) The dew point is the temperature at which liquid water becomes water vapor. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Humidity Learning Objective 1: 4.2: Compare specific and relative humidity

50) The largest cause of air pollution is transportation. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Air Quality Learning Objective 1: 4.9: Identify factors that reduce air quality

Question Type: Essay

51) Describe the passage of air, including changes in lapse rates, across a mountain to demonstrate the formation of orographic rain. Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Section Reference 2: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates Learning Objective 2: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms.

52) Unsaturated air is required for fog, dew, and cloud formation. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

53) Compare and contrast the principles of dry and wet adiabatic lapse rates. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

54) Describe today’s weather at your location with reference to air stability and humidity. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Humidity Learning Objective 1: 4.2: Compare specific and relative humidity

55) Name and describe specific cloud types at low, medium, and high altitudes. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

56) By drawing an annotated diagram, describe the phenomena associated with a thunder cloud.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Thunderstorms Learning Objective 1: 4.7: Describe the causes and types of thunderstorms

57) Describe the sources of pollution at your location and the prevailing atmospheric phenomena that accentuate local pollution. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Air Quality Learning Objective 1: 4.9: Identify factors that reduce air quality

58) Describe the conditions responsible for different types of precipitation. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Precipitation Section Reference 2: Types of Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms Learning Objective 2: 4.6: Identify different types of precipitation.

59) Compare and contrast the formation and characteristics of different types of fog. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

60) Describe the volumes of each of the reservoirs of the hydrological cycle. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Water in the Environment Learning Objective 1: 4.1: Describe the hydrologic cycle

61) Use adiabatic process and associated lapse rates to describe precipitation patterns associated with orographic precipitation. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Precipitation Learning Objective 1: 4.5: Explain how precipitation forms

62) Describe the changes in the characteristics of water as it is transferred through the cycle linking the three states of water. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Water in the Environment Learning Objective 1: 4.1Describe the hydrologic cycle

Question Type: Multiple Choice

63) Which cloud form in the illustration is a cirrus cloud?

a) A b) H c) F d) B e) E Answer: e

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

64) Which cloud form in the illustration is a stratus cloud?

a) A b) H c) D d) E e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

65) Which cloud type is normally associated with hail, tornadoes, and microbursts? a) cumulonimbus b) cumulus c) stratus d) nimbostratus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Clouds and Fog

Learning Objective 1: 4.4: Describe the forms and behavior of clouds

66) At Point 1 in the above figure, air is ___________________ by the __________________ adiabatic lapse rate.

a) cooling, dry b) warming, dry c) cooling, wet d) warming, wet Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

67) At Point 2 in the above figure, air is ___________________ by the __________________ adiabatic lapse rate.

a) cooling, dry b) warming, dry c) cooling, wet

d) warming, wet Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

68) At Point 4 in the above figure, air is ___________________ by the __________________ adiabatic lapse rate.

a) cooling, dry b) warming, dry c) cooling, wet d) warming, wet Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Adiabatic Processes Learning Objective 1: 4.3: Compare the dry and moist adiabatic rates

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography, 6e Chapter Number: 05

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) How does the magnitude of the Coriolis force vary with latitude? a) Deflection is zero at the Equator and maximum at the poles b) Deflection is zero at the poles and maximum at the Equator c) Deflection is zero at the Equator and poles and maximum at midlatitudes d) Deflection is zero at midlatitudes and maximum at the Equator and poles e) Deflection is constant across the Earth’s surface Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

02) Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) Jet streams exist in both the northern and southern hemispheres b) All jet streams are characterized by westerly wind flows c) In the northern hemisphere, the subtropical jet stream is active throughout the year d) The polar jet is typically found at altitudes of 10 to 12 km (30,000 to 40,000 ft) e) Wind speeds in jet streams are much faster than wind speeds at the ground surface Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

03) The ITCZ is also referred to as the ______________________. a) equatorial high b) equatorial trough c) midlatitude convergence zone d) polar high e) polar low

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

04) The trade winds blow from ______________________. a) the subtropical high to the equatorial low b) the subtropical high to the subpolar low c) the doldrums to the horse latitudes d) the polar high to the subtropical high e) the polar high to the doldrums Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

05) An air mass where air converges at the surface, ascends, and rotates in a clockwise direction is ______________________. a) a low pressure cell in the northern hemisphere b) a low pressure cell in the southern hemisphere c) a high pressure cell in the northern hemisphere d) a high pressure cell in the southern hemisphere e) both a low pressure cell in the southern hemisphere or a high pressure cell in the northern hemisphere Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

06) In high pressure systems ______________________. a) air rises and converges at the surface b) air rises and diverges at the surface c) air subsides and converges at the surface d) air subsides and diverges at the surface e) air subsides but neither converges or diverges

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1:5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

07) Trade winds ______________________. a) are easterlies b) are westerlies c) flow from the ITCZ to the polar front d) flow from the polar front to the subtropical belts e) flow from the ITCZ to the subtropical high Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

08) Which of the following pressure systems has a wind circulation pattern that is clockwise, downward, and outward? a) southern hemisphere low b) southern hemisphere high c) northern hemisphere low d) northern hemisphere high e) southern and northern hemisphere lows Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

09) Wind circulation around a low pressure cell is ______________________. a) clockwise outward in the northern hemisphere b) clockwise inward in the northern hemisphere c) clockwise inward in the southern hemisphere d) clockwise outward in the southern hemisphere e) clockwise inward in both northern and southern hemispheres

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

10) What is the geostrophic wind? a) An upper-air wind that blows perpendicular to the isobars b) A surface wind that is affected by friction and blows at an angle across the isobars c) A surface wind that is not affected by the Coriolis force d) An upper-air wind that blows parallel to the isobars e) A surface wind characterized by constant speed and direction Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

11) Which of the following statements concerning the pressure gradient force is correct? a) In certain cases the force may be directed from lower to higher pressure b) Pressure gradient force acts parallel to isobars c) Pressure gradient force is greatest when isobars are spaced closest together d) The pressure gradient force affects only vertical wind flow e) Pressure gradient force is counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

12) The name given to the apparent deflecting influence of the Earth’s rotation on moving objects such as wind and ocean currents is called _______. a) the aphelion effect b) the ecliptic process c) parallelism d) the Coriolis effect e) the pressure gradient force

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

13) If the geostrophic wind is blowing into your back and an area of low pressure is to your right then ______________________. a) the wind is blowing parallel to the isobars and you are in the northern hemisphere b) the wind is blowing at right angles to the isobars and you are in the northern hemisphere c) the wind is blowing parallel to the isobars and you are in the southern hemisphere d) the wind is blowing at right angles to the isobars and you are in the southern hemisphere e) the wind is blowing from your right to your left and you could be in either hemisphere Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

14) The pressure gradient force _______. a) increases as differences in atmospheric pressure increase per unit of distance b) decreases as differences in atmospheric pressure increase per unit of distance c) is unrelated to differences in atmospheric pressure d) is related to vertical changes in water vapor per unit of atmospheric volume e) cancels out the Coriolis force at high altitudes where wind speeds are greater Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

15) Thermohaline circulation depends mostly on which of the following? a) The Coriolis effect b) The trade winds c) The sinking of cold, salty water d) Tropical gyres e) Subtropical gyres

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ocean Circulation Learning Objective 1: 5.6: Describe the causes and effects of ocean circulation patterns

16) Surface winds converge towards __________________. a) an anticyclone b) a cyclone c) an area of high pressure d) the subtropical high e) the polar high Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

17) The trade winds blow from _____________________. a) southeast to northwest in southern hemisphere and northeast to southwest in the northern hemisphere b) southwest to northeast in southern hemisphere and southeast to northwest in the northern hemisphere. c) east to west in the northern hemisphere and west to east in the southern hemisphere d) west to east in the northern hemisphere and east to west in the southern hemisphere e) southeast to northwest in southern hemisphere and west to east in the northern hemisphere Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

18) Which of the following statements about oceans gyres is incorrect? a) Gyres are ocean currents that form large, continuously moving loops b) Corresponding subtropical gyres on either side of the Equator both circulate in a clockwise direction c) Gyres, such as the tropical gyres, are reinforced by wind belts such as the trade winds

d) Gyres circulate in clockwise and counterclockwise directions e) Gyres tend to form as cells elongated in an east-west direction Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ocean Circulation Learning Objective 1: 5.6: Describe the causes and effects of ocean circulation patterns

19) Upwelling is__________________. a) the rising of cold water from the ocean depths in open water near the center of the Earth’s major oceans b) the rising of warm water from the ocean depths in open water near the center of the Earth’s major oceans c) the rising of cold water from ocean depths near coastlines d) the rising of warm water from ocean depths near coastlines e) the development of eddies from ocean currents Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ocean Circulation Learning Objective 1: 5.6: Describe the causes and effects of ocean circulation patterns

20) In an anticyclone, also called a __________-pressure cell, air __________. a) low / converges toward the center b) low / diverges away from the center c) high / converges toward the center d) high / diverges away from the center e) high / ascends Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

21) A sea breeze flows __________. a) during the day from the body of water towards the adjacent land area b) during the day from the land surface towards the adjacent body of water

c) during the night from the body of water towards the adjacent land area d) during the night from the land surface towards the adjacent body of water e) during the night from mountain regions towards the adjacent body of water Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

22) At the ITCZ __________. a) air descends to the surface, creating a high-pressure belt b) descending air collides with ascending air, creating an unstable air interface c) air ascends from the surface to the tropopause and flows poleward d) air ascends from the upper atmosphere where it meets ionized air, which is descending from the troposphere e) descending air from the upper atmosphere meets ionized air, creating a high-pressure belt Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

23) The polar zones are associated with _________ pressure and ________ winds. a) low / easterly b) low / westerly c) high / westerly d) high / easterly e) high / southerly Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

24) Which of the following factors is responsible for the monsoon? a) The seasonal movement of the ITCZ over Africa and Asia b) Development of high pressure over Asia in July

c) Development of low pressure over Asia in January d) Flow of air from the Indian Ocean over the land surface in January e) All of these Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

25) The mistral wind of the Rhone Valley in southern France is an example of which type of wind? a) sea breeze b) land breeze c) drainage wind d) continental wind e) maritime wind Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

26) Undulations in the westward flow of the upper-air westerlies are referred to as __________. a) Hadley cells b) gyres c) jet streams d) the polar front e) Rossby waves Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

27) Wind speed is measured by a/an _____ whereas wind direction is measured by a/an ______ . a) barometer / barograph b) barograph / barometer

c) anemometer / barometer d) anemometer / vane e) vane / anemometer Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

28) Which of the following is not part of Hadley cell circulation? a) subtropical high pressure belts b) the ITCZ c) the polar high d) high surface pressure e) the Coriolis effect Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

29) The phenomena known as El Nino occurs in which ocean? a) Pacific b) Indian c) North Atlantic d) South Atlantic e) Arctic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ocean Circulation Learning Objective 1: 5.6: Describe the causes and effects of ocean circulation patterns

30) Which of the following statements concerning the temperature structure of the oceans is correct? a) In arctic and antarctic regions, the thermocline is situated deeper than in other regions b) At the thermocline, temperatures increase gradually toward the sea floor

a) Above the thermocline is a layer of cooler water d) Midlatitudes develop a warm surface layer that deepens with wave action e) The cool surface layer persists all year at low latitudes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ocean Circulation Learning Objective 1: 5.6: Describe the causes and effects of ocean circulation patterns

31) As you increase in altitude, barometric pressure _________________. a) holds b) increases c) decreases d) is temperature dependant e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

32) When looking at a weather map of isobars, where would you find the highest wind speed ___________. a) near the Equator b) where the isobars are closer together c) where the isobars are farthest apart d) at the center of high pressure e) along the coast Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

33) Wind can be described as the horizontal movement of air near the surface from ____________ to ____________. a) east, west

b) west, east c) low pressure, high pressure d) north, south e) high pressure, low pressure Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

34) In the southern hemisphere, a counterclockwise rotating and descending air mass would be called ____________. a) a cyclone b) a low pressure cell c) a typhoon d) an anticyclone e) none of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

35) What is formed by lifting air in an equatorial region that separates at great altitude, moves toward the poles, and descends near 30 degrees N or S? a) Hadley cell b) tropical high-pressure belt c) cold, moist air d) doldrums e) equatorial trough Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Global Winds and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns.

Question Type: True/False

36) Symptoms of mountain sickness are likely to develop at altitudes over 3000 feet. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

37) Atmospheric pressure is produced by the weight of a column of air above a unit area of the Earth’s surface. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

38) Pressure gradients occur at right angles to isobars. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

39) Winds are designated according to the compass point from which winds come. For example, a wind from the north is called a north wind. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

40) The apparent deflection of the Coriolis force is to the left in the northern hemisphere and to the right in the southern hemisphere. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones

Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

41) In high pressure centers, air spirals downward from above and inward at the surface. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

42) At the ITCZ, air rises, and the winds are light and variable. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

43) High pressures at the poles create surface winds that are known as polar westerlies. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

44) The greatest wind speeds occur in the center of jet streams, with velocities decreasing away from the center. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

45) Valley breezes occur during the night as cold, dense air flows down mountainsides towards valleys. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

46) The subtropical jet stream is located between 35 and 65 degrees latitude. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

47) One whole feather on a wind arrow indicates 10 knots. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Winds and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

48) Surface winds tend to be quite strong at the ITCZ because of the strong rising air currents. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

49) The thermocline is the zone in which ocean temperatures decline most rapidly. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ocean Circulation Learning Objective 1: 5.6: Describe the causes and effects of ocean circulation patterns

50) A Hadley cell forms when air rises over the equatorial trough and sinks over the subtropical high-pressure belt, which in turn produces trade winds that return to the equatorial trough. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

51) The jet stream takes place at high altitudes and produces very high wind speeds. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

52) The cause of the westerly flow of winds is the Rossby wave. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

53) Land breezes flow from land to water during the night. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

54) The Coriolis effect results from the rotation of the Earth about its axis. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

55) During an El Niño event, upwelling along the Peruvian coast is strengthened. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Atmospheric pressure

Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it 56) Local terrain can be responsible for the influence of “local winds.” Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

Question Type: Essay

57) Describe the factors leading to the Asian monsoon seasons. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns.

58) Using annotated diagrams, explain the passage of a parcel of air in a center of low pressure and a center of high pressure Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns

59) Draw a sample weather map that includes isobars, reasonable pressures in millibars, and wind direction arrows. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1:5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

60) Using the map of ocean currents review the effects of ocean currents on the climate of Great Britain.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ocean Circulation Learning Objective 1: 5.6: Describe the causes and effects of ocean circulation patterns

61) Explain how a mercury barometer works. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

62) Describe the impact of the Coriolis force upon the path of objects or parcels of air in the atmosphere. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

63) Describe and explain the cause of the local winds of your region. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Local Wind Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.2: Discuss local wind patterns

64) Describe the three types of jet streams and compare their characteristics. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

65) Describe the changes in temperature, pressure, and other atmospheric variables as you ascend through the atmosphere. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

66) Using an annotated diagram, describe the bands of pressures and winds on an ideal Earth. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Wind and Pressure Patterns Learning Objective 1: 5.4: Identify major global wind patterns.

Question Type: True/False

66) The direction of geostrophic winds is influenced by pressure gradients, the Coriolis effect,

and friction. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Winds Aloft Learning Objective 1: 5.5: Discuss the movement of air at higher levels of the troposphere

Question Type: Essay

67) Describe the role and development of deep ocean currents. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ocean Circulation Learning Objective 1: 5.6: Describe the causes and effects of ocean circulation patterns

68) Explain the changes in ocean currents associated with an El Niño. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Atmospheric pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it.

Question Type: Multiple Choice

69) The device shown in this figure is called a _____________________.

a) thermometer b) hygrometer c) pyranometer d) barometer e) anamometer Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

70) The device shown in this figure is used to measure ____________.

a) air pressure b) air temperate c) humidity d) solar radiation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Atmospheric Pressure Learning Objective 1: 5.1: Describe air pressure and how we measure it

71) The anticyclonic flow in the northern hemisphere is illustrated in part _____ of this figure.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones 72) Circulation patterns shown in the illustration labeled “4” demonstrate _____________.

a) anticyclonic flow in the northern hemisphere

b) circulation patterns in the northern hemisphere c) circulation patterns in the southern hemisphere d) circluation patterns at the poles e) circulation patterns at the Equator Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

73) The surface wind system known as the doldrums is labeled ____________.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

74) The surface wind system known as the trade winds is labeled ______________.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

75) The surface wind system known as the westerlies is labeled _____________.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

76) The direction of friction on this figure is labeled ____________.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1:5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

77) The direction of the Coriolis effect on this figure is labeled _______________.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3:Compare cyclones and anticyclones

78) The direction of wind motion on this figure is labeled ______.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

79) The direction of the pressure gradient on this figure is labeled _____________.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Cyclones and Anticyclones Learning Objective 1: 5.3: Compare cyclones and anticyclones

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography, 6e Chapter Number: 06

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Which of the following statements concerning tropical depressions is incorrect? a) They are weak, low-pressure troughs b) Their formation is associated with easterly waves or equatorial lows c) In some cases, they may develop into tropical storms d) They have an anticyclonic organization e) Air spirals inward at the ground surface and then rises Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

02) The phenomena which leads to the development of tropical storms is ____________. a) convergent lifting precipitation b) the inter-tropical convergence zone c) a polar outbreak d) a westerly wave e) an easterly wave Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

03) Cold fronts compared to warm fronts are __________________. a) slower moving, with more intense rainfall b) faster moving, with more intense rainfall c) slower moving, with less intense rainfall d) faster moving, with less intense rainfall

e) faster moving, with rainfall of long duration Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1 : Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

04) An arctic air mass differs from a polar air mass in that __________. a) arctic air masses are colder than polar air masses b) arctic air masses contain less moisture than polar air masses c) arctic air masses originate from continental regions, whereas polar air masses originate over oceans d) arctic air masses originate over arctic oceans and nearby land, whereas polar air masses form over a distinct latitude zone from 50 to 60 degrees latitude e) arctic air masses originate over the eastern Arctic, whereas polar air masses form over western arctic oceans Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1 : Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

05) An air mass that forms over warm oceans from an equatorial region would be designated by which of the following symbols? a) cP b) cE c) mE d) mA e) mAA Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

06) An air mass that forms over a mid-latitude ocean would be designated by which of the following symbols?

a) mP b) mA c) cP d) cA e) mE Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

07) Warm fronts compared to cold fronts are __________. a) slower moving, with more intense rainfall b) faster moving, with more intense rainfall c) slower moving, with less intense rainfall d) faster moving, with less intense rainfall e) faster moving, with rainfall of long duration Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

08) Which of the following weather systems are associated with anticyclonic conditions? a) cool, wet weather b) fine rain of lasting duration c) thick cloud and heavy rain d) few clouds with no rain e) high wind speeds with no rain Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

09) Which of the following is not one of the types of traveling cyclones? a) arctic wave cyclone

b) tropical cyclone c) tornado d) midlatitude wave cyclone e) arctic ridge Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

10) A cold front overtakes a warm front during which of the following stages in the development of a midlatitude cyclone? a) early stage b) open stage c) closed stage d) occluded e) dissolving stage Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

11) Warm air is forced off the ground intensifying precipitation during which of the following stages? a) early stage b) open stage c) closed stage d) occluded e) dissolving stage Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

12) What is the approximate size of a midlatitude cyclone?

a) 10 kilometers (about 6 miles) across b) 100 kilometers (about 60 miles) across c) 200 kilometers (about 120 miles) across d) 500 kilometers (about 300 miles) across e) 1000 kilometers (about 600 miles) across Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

13) Which of the following statements describes the global paths of tropical cyclones. a) From east to west in the northern hemisphere and from west to east in the southern hemisphere b) From west to east in the northern hemisphere and from east to west in the southern hemisphere c) From east to west in both the northern and southern hemispheres d) From west to east in both the northern and southern hemispheres e) From east to west in the northern hemisphere and from south to north in the southern hemisphere Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

14) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the development of tornadoes? a) Cool, stable air associated with interior mountain regions b) Warm, stable air associated with continental interiors c) Cold front lifts a warm front, leading to turbulence d) Cold front lifts another cold front, leading to alternating patches of stable and unstable air e) Warm dry front lifts a cool maritime front, leading to turbulence Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

15) In the North Atlantic, the peak of hurricane season occurs during _______. a) late spring to early summer b) midsummer c) late summer to early autumn d) late autumn Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

16) The city of New Orleans was badly damaged in 2005 as a result of hurricane _________. a) Hugo b) Andrew c) Katrina d) Rita Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

17) Which of the following conditions is associated with the eye of a hurricane? a) ascending air cooling adiabatically b) descending air cooling adiabatically c) ascending air warming adiabatically d) descending air warming adiabatically e) ascending air that neither warms or cools Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

18) What are hurricanes known as in the western Pacific region? a) hurricane b) typhoon c) cyclone d) depression e) midlatitude cyclone Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

19) Which of the following features does the Simpson-Safir Scale not describe with regard to hurricanes? a) rainfall amounts b) cyclone intensity c) central pressure d) storm surges e) mean wind speed Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

20) What is the usual season for hurricanes in the North Atlantic? a) May through July b) June through August c) May through August d) June through November e) July through November Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify

their impacts

21) Which of the following is not one of the primary factors that contribute to a storm surge? a) underwater shape of the bay floor b) low atmospheric pressures c) high wind speeds d) high-intensity hurricane e) high pressure Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

22) Which cloud types are most associated with hurricanes? a) Cumulus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm b) Cumulonimbus near the center, with cirrus at the outer edges of the storm c) Stratus near the center, with cirrus at the outer edges of the storm d) Cumulonimbus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm e) Cirrus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impact

23) Uncharacteristic periods of low temperatures occasionally occur in low latitude regions. These are the result of __________. a) easterly wave b) westerly wave c) weak equatorial low d) polar outbreak e) midlatitude wave cyclones Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones.

24) What is the role of the Hadley cell in the transport of heat and moisture toward the poles? a) The Hadley cell pumps heat from the subtropical zone to the poles b) The Hadley cell produces the Rossby wave mechanism that leads to the development of midlatitude cyclones c) Rising air at the ITCZ moves poleward and descends at the subtropical high to move heat and moisture poleward d) Descending air at the ITCZ moves poleward and ascends at the subtropical high to move heat and moisture poleward e) Sensible heat is acquired in tropical and equatorial regions and is moved northward into the North Atlantic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Poleward Transport of Energy and Moisture Learning Objective 1: 6.4: Identify the mechanisms of poleward energy transport

25) As a midlatitude cyclone advances into a region which of the following cloud types would be first observed? a) cumulonimbus b) stratus c) cumulus d) cirrus e) nimbostratus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

26) In equatorial regions, slight convergence and uplift can trigger precipitation because _____. a) the wind speeds in these regions are usually consistent and rapid b) the atmosphere contains large amounts of moisture c) the Coriolis force exerts greater influence on these processes and so enhances convergence and uplift

d) the warmer air temperatures allow clouds to develop more quickly than in cooler regions e) there are normally many centers of low pressure that enhance the development of clouds and precipitation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

27) Which of the following air masses are considered to have the warmest and moistest conditions? a) mE b) mP c) cP d) cE e) cA Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1:Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

28) When cold air invades warm air which type of front will occur? a) warm b) cold c) occluded d) stationary e) high Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

29) In the midlatitudes, the most prominent system to bring precipitation is _________. a) the subtropical high-pressure belt b) the Hadley cell

c) the westerlies d) the traveling midlatitude cyclone e) the continental polar air mass Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

30) A slow-moving trough of low pressure within the belt of tropical easterlies is a _________. a) traveling wave cyclone b) hurricane c) typhoon d) Hadley cell e) easterly wave Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

Question Type: True/False

31) Jet streams contribute to the movement of air masses from one region to another. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

32) A warm front is a front where cold air moves into a region of warm air. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

33) When a cold front has overtaken a warm front in a midlatitude cyclone, it is referred to as occluded. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1:Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

34) Weak low-pressure troughs in equatorial regions lead to the development of easterly waves. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

35) Hurricanes in the Atlantic always move westward pushed by the trade winds and then curve south and southwest. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

36) Descending air at the ITCZ moves poleward and ascends at the subtropical high to move heat and moisture poleward. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3:Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts.

37) A pool of warm, moist air remains aloft after a midlatitude cyclone has dissolved.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones.

38) A midlatitude cyclone may contain warm and cold fronts, but not stationary fronts. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

39) An air mass that forms under warm, moist conditions will contain more moisture than an air mass that forms under cool, moist conditions. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

40) Warm front precipitation is produced from stratiform clouds and is of a more gentle variety than that of cold front precipitation. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1 : Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

Question Type: Multiple Choice

41) Of the following, only ________ is not threatened by tropical cyclones. a) South America b) India c) Florida d) Bangladesh

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

42) The energy that powers a tropical cyclone comes from ____________. a) latent heat released by condensation b) sensible heat from the water surface c) adiabatic warming d) none of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

43) In the eye of a tropical cyclone, conditions are ______________. a) clear and calm b) clear and very windy c) cloudy and calm d) cloudy and windy Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

Question Type: Essay

44) Describe the air masses that impact the weather in your location. Draw a sketch map to show the type and source of each of these air masses. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

45) Describe the anatomy of a hurricane, with particular reference to cloud types, wind speeds, and atmospheric pressure. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

46) Describe the nature of a hurricane from its development, movement, and dissolution. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

47) Describe the factors responsible for the transport of heat and moisture from equatorial to polar regions. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Poleward Transport of Energy and Moisture Learning Objective 1: 6.4: Identify the mechanisms of poleward energy transport

48) Describe the development of midlatitude cyclones. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

49) Describe the potential impact of global warming on cloud cover and precipitation.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

50) Using satellite images from the Internet, describe the changes noticeable in the progression of a hurricane. How do different satellite sensors reveal different aspects of the hurricane? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

51) Using a current weather map (either from a newspaper or the Internet) identify the midlatitude cyclones and their current stage of development. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tropical and Equatorial Weather Systems Learning Objective 1: 6.3: Describe how tropical cyclones develop, where they go, and identify their impacts

52) Compare and contrast the conditions associated with warm and cold fronts. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

53) Using a recent news story (from a newspaper or the Internet) describe the development, movement, and impact of a tornado. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones

Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

54) Explain the difference between mP and mT air masses. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1 : Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

Question Type: Multiple Choice

55) The air mass found in the area labeled 1 would be designated ________.

a) mP b) mA c) cP d) cA Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1 : Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

56) The air mass found in the area labeled 3 would be designated _________.

a) mP b) mT c) cP d) cA Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts.

57) The air mass found in the area labeled 5 would be designated ________.

a) mP b) mT c) cP d) cA Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1 : Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

58) The air mass found in the area labeled 6 would be designated _______.

a) mP b) mA c) cP d) cT Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

59) The air mass found in the area labeled 8 would be designated ________.

a) mP b) mT c) cP d) cA Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1 : Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

60) This figure shows a(n) _________.

a) occluded front b) stationary front c) warm front d) cold front Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1: Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

61) This figure shows a(n):

a) occluded front

b) stationary front c) warm front d) cold front Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Air Masses and Fronts Learning Objective 1: 6.1 :Describe air masses and how they interact to form fronts

62) The figure labeled C shows the _______ of midlatitude cyclone development.

a) initial conditions b) early stage c) occluded stage d) open stage Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

63) The figure labeled D shows the _______ of midlatitude cyclone development.

a) dissolving stage b) early stage c) occluded stage d) open stage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

64) The cold front is labeled ______.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

65) The warm front in this figure is labeled ____________.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

66) This figure shows a cross section of a(n):

a) open stage midlatitude cyclone b) early stage midlatitude cyclone c) occluded stage midlatitude cyclone d) dissolving stage midlatitude cyclone Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones

Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

67) This figure shows a cross section of a(n):

a) midlatitude cyclone b) hurricane c) tropical cyclone d) monsoon Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Anticyclones and Cyclones Learning Objective 1: 6.2: Contrast the characteristics of midlatitude cyclones and anticyclones

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 07

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Which of the following variables are most important in defining the climate of a region? a) wind speeds and temperature b) air pressure and temperature c) rainfall/precipitation and temperature d) air pressure and rainfall/ precipitation e) wind speeds and rainfall/ precipitation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

02) Which of the following pairs of factors are most influential in the annual cycle of air temperatures experienced at a weather station? a) surface type and elevation b) surface type and coastal-continental location c) coastal-continental location and elevation d) latitude and coastal-continental location e) latitude and surface type Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

03) Wet climates associated with equatorial regions are the result of ___________. a) high temperatures b) large areas of oceans c) high wind speeds d) high atmospheric pressures e) low atmospheric pressures

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

04) The arid and semiarid regions located poleward of the Equator on an idealized supercontinent represent the location of which feature? a) The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) b) The subtropical high c) The doldrums d) The trade winds e) The midlatitude westerlies Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Explain how climates are classified

05) The subhumid regions located equatorward of the poles on an idealized supercontinent represent the location of which feature? a) The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) b) The subtropical high c) The doldrums d) The trade winds e) The midlatitude westerlies Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Explain how climates are classified

06) What are the steppes? a) midlatitude semiarid grasslands b) midlatitude west coast woodland c) moist subtropical woodland d) trade wind coastal woodland

e) subarctic grassland Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Explain how climates are classified

07) Which of the following temperature regimes would be likely to have the largest annual temperature range? a) tropical west coast b) midlatitude west coast c) subarctic continental d) equatorial Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

08) Which of the following air masses is associated with tropical deserts? a) mT b) mE c) mP d) cE e) cT Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Explain how climates are classified 09) Which of the following is not one of the five major Köppen classification climate groups? a) microthermal b) mesothermal c) tropical rainy d) semiarid e) polar

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Special Supplement

09) Which of the following is one of the types of tropical rainforest climate? a) steppe b) monsoon c) desert d) mild humid climate with no dry season e) mild humid climate with dry summer Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity.

10) Which of the following precipitation regimes generally has a dry summer? a) moist continental b) marine west coast c) Mediterranean d) Asiatic monsoon e) midlatitude continental Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

11) Which of the following precipitation regimes would experience the lowest annual precipitation total? a) tropical desert b) Mediterranean c) marine west coast d) Asiatic monsoon e) midlatitude continental

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

12) The Mediterranean precipitation regime is characterized by ____________. a) a dry summer b) a dry winter c) dry conditions year-round d) moist conditions year-round Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

13) The marine west coast precipitation regime is characterized by _____________. a) a dry summer b) a dry winter c) dry conditions year-round d) moist conditions year-round Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

14) A cool desert climate would be best described by which of the following Köppen classifications? a) Dfc b) Dwd c) BWk d) Cfb e) Cfw Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity.

15) The wet equatorial climate is represented by which of the following classifications? a) Af b) Am c) Cwa d) BSh e) BWh Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1:

16) The wet-dry tropical climate is represented by which of the following classifications? a) Af b) Am c) Cwa d) BSh e) BWh Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity.

17) What factor differentiates the two climate classifications of BWh and BSh? a) wind patterns b) atmospheric pressure c) temperature d) precipitation e) altitude Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity. 18) What does the “h” stand for in the climate classifications of BWh and BSh? a) humid b) dry-hot c) habitat d) hours of daylight e) highland Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity.

19) Air temperature is related to moisture in that __________. a) warm air can hold more moisture than cold air b) cold air can hold more moisture than warm air c) cold air and warm air can hold the same amount of moisture d) moisture causes air to warm up Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

20) The trade-wind coastal climate type and the monsoon climate type are differentiated by which of the following features? a) Monsoon climates are seasonal whereas trade-wind climates are not b) Trade-wind climates are seasonal where monsoon climates are not c) Monsoon climates exhibit high levels of rainfall whereas trade-wind climates are generally dry d) Monsoon climates are especially well developed on west coasts, whereas trade-wind climates are well developed on east coasts e) Monsoon climates are situated at lower latitudes than trade-wind climates Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

21)The Asiatic monsoon precipitation regime is characterized by _________. a) a dry summer b) a dry winter c) dry conditions year-round e) moist conditions year-round Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates 22) What does the “w” stand for in the climate classifications of Aw and Cwa? a) dry summer season b) dry winter season c) wet summer season d) wet winter season e) wet all year round Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity.

23) The temperature regime that experiences the coldest annual temperature is the _______. a) subarctic continental b) ice sheet c) midlatitude continental d) subarctic marine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

24) Dry tropical climates situated in coastal zones on the western edge of continents differ from interior dry tropical climates by which of the following characteristics? a) They receive less rainfall b) Their temperatures are normally higher year-round c) Their temperatures are normally lower year-round d) Their annual temperature range is greater e) Their annual temperature range is smaller Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified 25) What does the “b” stand for in climate classification types Cfb and Dwb? a) hot as opposed to warm summers b) warm as opposed to hot summers c) cold winters d) warm winters e) dry winters Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity.

26) Which of the following classifications represents the Mediterranean climate type? a) Cfb b) BSk c) BWk d) DWb e) CSa Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity.

27) Which of the following climate types experiences low precipitation all year and is dominated by cT air masses? a) dry subtropical b) moist subtropical c) Mediterranean d) marine west-coast e) dry midlatitude Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

28) Which of the following climate types experiences wet winters and dry summers? a) dry subtropical b) moist subtropical c) Mediterranean d) marine west-coast e) dry midlatitude Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

29) Which of the following climate types experiences low amounts of precipitation with a maximum in the summer? a) dry subtropical b) moist subtropical c) Mediterranean d) marine west-coast e) dry midlatitude Answer: e Difficulty: easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification

Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

30) Which of the following types of vegetation is associated with moist subtropical climates? a) taiga b) chaparral c) short grass prairie d) needleleaf trees e) broadleaf trees Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

31) Which of the following types of vegetation is associated with dry midlatitude climates? a) sclerophylls b) taiga c) short grass prairie d) needleleaf trees e) broadleaf trees Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

32) Which of the following types of vegetation is associated with Mediterranean climates? a) sclerophylls b) taiga c) short grass prairie d) needleleaf trees e) broadleaf trees Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

33) Moist continental climates are identified by which of the following characteristics? a) low precipitation with a winter maximum b) abundant precipitation with a summer maximum c) cool summers and warm winters d) cyclonic precipitation in the summer e) convectional precipitation in the winter Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

34) Boreal forest climates are identified by which of the following characteristics? a) low precipitation with a winter maximum b) long but cool summers c) short but intensely cold winters d) low precipitation with a summer maximum e) high precipitation with a winter maximum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.5: Identify high-latitude climates

35) Vegetation cover over a large area ______. a) is an indication of the climate of the area b) requires good soils c) indicates the levels of solar insolation d) indicates the amount of precipitation e) is predominantly man made Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

36) The equatorial temperature regime is known ______. a) for being equally wet year-round. b) for having high annual variation in solar insolation c) for having no annual variation in solar insolation d) for being uniformly warm year-round e) none of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

37) Which air mass is not part of the low-latitude climates? a) cT b) mE c) cP d) mT e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

38) The tropical deserts are caused by ______. a) a lack of seasonal moisture b) their placement in relationship to the prime meridian c) their distance from the Equator and the Arctic Circle d) stationary subtropical cells of high pressure e) prevailing westerly wind patterns Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

39) The seasonality of precipitation patterns can be covered largely by three types of monthly precipitation patterns. These are uniformly distributed precipitation, a precipitation maximum during the summer, and ______. a) a precipitation maximum during the spring b) a precipitation minimum during the fall c) a precipitation maximum during the winter d) a precipitation minimum during the late summer e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

40) Semiarid climates are noted for ______. a) a complete lack of vegetation b) a surface covered with dry lakes c) steppes with sparse grasslands d) high surface winds e) ice-covered surfaces Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Mid-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

Question Type: True/False

41) Coastal stations show a larger annual variation in temperature, while the variation is smaller for stations in continental interiors. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

42) Colder regions generally have lower precipitation than warmer regions. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

43) The isolines on a map describing average precipitation are referred to as isohyets. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

44) The marine midlatitude west coasts are located between 35 and 60 degrees latitude. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

45) Low-latitude climates are occasionally invaded by air of polar origins. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

45) The smaller area of tropical deserts in the southern hemisphere is due to different wind regimes. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

46) Highland climates at low latitudes are normally cooler and wetter than the surrounding lower-altitude climates. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

47) Steppes are associated with wet-dry tropical climates. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

48) Dry tropical climates are dominated by low pressures associated with the ITCZ. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

49) The Asiatic monsoon climate experiences a dry season when dry air flows southwest in the low-Sun season. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

50) Low-latitude rainforests possess a lower diversity of plants and animals compared to higherlatitude forests. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

51) The climate of the Sahara Desert can be classified as BSh. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Change

52) Midlatitude climates are strongly influenced by the frontal interactions between traveling air masses. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

53) High-latitude climates are strongly influenced by the frontal interactions between traveling air masses. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.5: Identify high-latitude climates

54) With the exception of deserts, dry climate regions generally have enough precipitation to support permanently flowing streams. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

55) The dry subtropical climate differs from the dry tropical climate in that the dry subtropical climate has a smaller annual temperature range. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Section Reference 2: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude Learning Objective 2: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

56) The moist subtropical climate experiences abundant rainfall with a winter maximum. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

57) The Mediterranean climate is characterized by vegetation such as sclerophylls. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climate Learning Objective 2: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

58) A winter precipitation maximum is characteristic of both the Mediterranean climate and the marine west-coast climate. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

59) The dry midlatitude climate experiences a smaller annual temperature range than the marine west-coast climate. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

60) The dry subtropical climate includes BWh, BWk, BSh, and BSk as subtypes.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Section Reference 2: Climate Change Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates Learning Objective 1: 7.6: Explain how global climate is changing in response to human activity.

61) Wheat is the dominant crop of the moist subtropical climate type. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

62) The ice sheet climate type experiences no true summer but a short, mild season with temperatures above freezing. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.5: Explain how climates are classified

63) Boreal forests are characterized by needleleaf trees. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.5: Identify high-latitude climates

64) Permafrost may be found in tundra regions and in a wide bordering area of the boreal forest climate. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.5: Identify high-latitude climates

65) Orographic precipitation occurs on mountainous coasts exposed to moist trade winds or frequent cyclonic storms. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

66) A steppe is a vast expanse of semiarid grassland. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mid-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

Question Type: Essay

67) Describe the spatial and temporal factors involved in the annual climate of your region. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

68) Using an annotated diagram describe the precipitation on an idealized supercontinent. Indicate the probable location of your town or city and an array of well-known cities of your choice. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Keys to Climate Learning Objective 1: 7.1: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

69) List three effects that climate change may have on weather and climates. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Change

70) Draw your best estimate of the climograph for your region. Pay close attention to seasonal variations and the range of temperatures and precipitation amounts. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

71) Explain the Köppen Climate Classification System. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates 72) Using an annotated diagram show how the five major Köppen classification climate groups are associated with bands of pressure or wind. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified 73) Compare and contrast the general characteristics of the five major Köppen classification climate groups. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

74) Identify two examples each of dry and moist climates. Explain the factors responsible for their precipitation regimes.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

75) Identify two examples of low-latitude climates. Explain the factors responsible for their precipitation regimes. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

76) Choose your dream vacation destination. Use the principles of climate classification to describe that location’s climate. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

77) Describe the seasonal changes associated with a monsoon climate. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

78) Identify the major food crops associated with each low-latitude climate. Describe the role of each climate in the production of that crop. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

79) Describe the natural vegetation associated with each low-latitude climate. How do differences in temperature and precipitation create differences in vegetation? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

80) Compare and contrast the seasonal variations evident in monsoon climates and wet-dry tropical climates. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

81) Compare and contrast the nature of arid and semiarid climates. Explain the factors responsible for these differences. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

82) Using two annotated climographs, compare the wet-dry tropical climate type to the dry tropical climate type. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

83) Using an annotated sketch map of an idealized supercontinent, identify the location of each of the low-latitude climate types. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Low-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.3: Identify low-latitude climates

84) Create a table to summarize the different subtypes of tropical and dry climates with reference to temperature, precipitation, altitude, and seasonality. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

85) Describe the climate and vegetation of the Mediterranean climate. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

86) Compare and contrast the forest climates of the midlatitude and high-latitude climates. How does the climate contribute to the different adaptations present? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates, High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude and high-latitude climates

87) Describe the seasonal changes associated with a Mediterranean climate. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

88) Describe the natural vegetation associated with each high-latitude climate. How do differences in temperature and precipitation create differences in vegetation?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.5: Identify high-latitude climates

89) Compare and contrast the seasonal variations evident in dry subtropical climates and moist subtropical climates. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude climates

90) Compare and contrast the nature of boreal and tundra climates. Explain the factors responsible for these differences. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.5: Identify high-latitude climates

91) Using two annotated climographs, compare the Mediterranean climate type to the dry midlatitude climate type. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.5: Identify midlatitude climates

92) Using an annotated sketch map of an idealized supercontinent, identify the location of each of the midlatitude and high-latitude climate types. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates, High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude and high-latitude climates

93) Create a table to summarize the different subtypes of midlatitude and high-latitude climates with reference to temperature, precipitation, altitude, and seasonality. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Midlatitude Climates, High-Latitude Climates Learning Objective 1: 7.4: Identify midlatitude and high-latitude climates

Question Type: Multiple Choice

94) The graph that best depicts the seasonal variability in precipitation found in the Mediterranean precipitation regime is number ____.

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

95) The graph that best depicts the seasonal variability in precipitation found in the Asiatic monsoon precipitation regime is number ____.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

96) The graph that best depicts the seasonal variability in precipitation found in the wet equatorial belt precipitation regime is number ____.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

97) The graph that best depicts the seasonal variability in precipitation found in the tropical desert precipitation regime is number ____.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

98) The graph that best depicts the seasonal variability in precipitation found in the wet-dry tropical precipitation regime is number ____.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

99) The graph that best depicts the seasonal variability in precipitation found in the moist subtropical precipitation regime is number ____.

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

100) The graph that best depicts the seasonal variability in precipitation found in the marine west coast precipitation regime is number ____.

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Identify factors that differentiate the world’s climates

101) The air mass source region labeled 1 on this map would produce _______ air masses.

a) continental arctic b) maritime arctic c) continental polar d) maritime polar Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

102) The air mass source region labeled 2 on this map would produce _______ air masses.

a) continental arctic b) maritime arctic c) continental polar d) maritime polar Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

103) The air mass source region labeled 3 on this map would produce _______ air masses.

a) continental arctic b) maritime arctic c) continental polar d) maritime polar Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

104) The air mass source region labeled 4 on this map would produce _______ air masses.

a) continental tropical b) maritime tropical c) continental equatorial d) maritime equatorial Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

105) The air mass source region labeled 5 on this map would produce _______ air masses.

a) continental tropical b) maritime tropical c) continental equatorial d) maritime equatorial Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

106) The air mass source region labeled 6 on this map would produce _______ air masses.

a) continental tropical b) maritime tropical c) continental equatorial d) maritime equatorial Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate Classification Learning Objective 1: 7.2: Explain how climates are classified

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 08

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Detritus is associated with which of the following processes? a) decay b) respiration c) metabolism d) net photosynthesis e) gross photosynthesis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

02) A deer grazing on grasses and shrubs would be said to occupy which level in a food chain? a) producers b) primary consumers c) secondary consumers d) higher level consumers e) decomposers Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

03) Algae floating at the surface of a freshwater pond would be said to occupy which level in a food chain? a) producers b) primary consumers c) secondary consumers d) higher level consumers e) decomposers

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

04) Generally, how much energy stored in organic matter at one level can be passed up the chain to the next level? a) 1–5% b) 5–10% c) 10–50% d) 70–90% e) 90–100% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

05) Which of the following is a consequence of the loss of energy as it passes up the levels in a food chain? a) increasing gross photosynthesis b) decreasing gross photosynthesis c) decreasing net photosynthesis d) decreasing biomass e) increasing respiration Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

06) The amount of net carbohydrate remaining after respiration has broken down sufficient carbohydrate to power a plant is the ____________. a) primary production b) net primary production c) biomass

d) gross photosynthesis e) net photosynthesis Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

07) The rate at which carbohydrate is accumulated in the tissues of plants within a given ecosystem is the ____________. a) primary production b) net primary production c) biomass d) gross photosynthesis e) net photosynthesis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

08) Which of the following environments would have the highest net primary production on average? a) agricultural land b) tropical rainforest c) midlatitude grasslands d) open ocean e) lakes and streams Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

09) Which of the following environments would have the lowest net primary production on average? a) agricultural land

b) tropical rainforest c) midlatitude grasslands d) open ocean e) lakes and streams Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

10) The dry weight of living organic matter in an ecosystem within a designated surface area is the ____________. a) primary production b) net primary production c) biomass d) gross photosynthesis e) net photosynthesis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

11) Carbon stored in fossil fuels is largely in the form of ____________________. a) carbon dioxide b) carbon monoxide c) hydrocarbons d) calcium carbonates e) carbohydrates Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

12) Carbon stored in organic matter is largely in the form of ______________________. a) carbon dioxide b) carbon monoxide

c) hydrocarbons d) calcium carbonates e) carbohydrates Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

13) What proportion of the Earth’s atmosphere is comprised of nitrogen? a) 24% b) 35% c) 49% d) 78% e) 87% Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

14) The process whereby nitrogen is removed from the atmosphere and incorporated into soils is referred to as ___________. a) denitrification b) nitrogen fixation c) denudation d) outgassing e) combustion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

15) The process whereby nitrogen is removed from the soil and returned to the atmosphere is referred to as _____________. a) denitrification

b) nitrogen fixation c) denudation d) outgassing e) combustion Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

16) Which of the following elements, when found in excessive concentrations in lakes and rivers, causes excessive algal growth? a) oxygen b) calcium c) carbon d) nitrogen e) hydrogen Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

17) A subdivision of the environment according to the needs and preferences of organisms or groups of organisms is referred to as a/an ______. a) sere b) bioclimatic frontier c) habitat d) legume e) disjunction Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

18) The series of communities that follow one another in succession is called a __________.

a) sere b) bioclimatic frontier c) habitat d) niche e) disjunction Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

19) A distribution of species in which closely related species are found in widely separated regions is referred to as a ___________. a) sere b) bioclimatic frontier c) habitat d) niche e) disjunction Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

20) The functional role played by an organism as well as the space it inhabits is referred to as a ________. a) sere b) bioclimatic frontier c) habitat d) niche e) disjunction Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

21) A community whereby certain species are normally found together is referred to as a/an ________. a) old field b) bioclimatic frontier c) association d) pioneer stage e) biogeographic region Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

22) The specific term used to describe plants that can draw water directly from groundwater resources are referred to as ______________. a) schlerophylls b) xerophytes c) succulents d) phreatophytes e) tropophytes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

23) The specific term used to describe plants adapted to alternating wet and dry seasons are referred to as ______________. a) schlerophylls b) xerophytes c) succulents d) phreatophytes e) tropophytes Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

24) Which of the following features characterizes succulent plants? a) buttress roots b) long life span c) thick stems and leaves d) large leaves and long stems e) shallow roots Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

25) Animals that have adapted to extreme shortages of water are referred to as ___________. a) xeron b) xeralfs c) xerolls d) xerophytes e) xeric Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

26) Which of the following behaviors is not exhibited by cold-blooded animals? a) Active only in warmer times of the day or year b) Become dormant in cooler time of the year c) Hibernate in burrows or nests d) Sweat to reduce temperature in hot weather e) Seek shelter in winter to reduce fluctuations of temperature Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

27) Which of the following features does not characterize warm-blooded animals? a) Use panting or sweating to reduce heat b) Circulate blood to outer extremities to enable heat loss c) Birds use feathers to reduce heat loss d) Allow body temperatures to change with changing environmental temperatures Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

28) Which of the following is not one of the factors that acts to keep the spread of a species in check? a) The species’ spread may be limited by continued dispersal of individuals b) The species’ spread may be limited by a variety of climatic variations c) The species’ spread may be limited by parasites d) The species’ spread may be limited by disease e) The limited distribution of another species upon which the initial species is dependent Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

29) The boundary of the potential spread of a species by regional climatic variables is referred to as a _____________. a) sere b) bioclimatic frontier c) habitat d) niche e) disjunction

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

30) Which of the following characterizes conditions on steep slopes? a) rapid runoff b) greater soil water retention c) cooler and wetter if exposed to the Sun d) warmer and drier if shaded from the Sun e) slow, gradual runoff Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

31) Edaphic factors in the development of vegetation refers to which of the following features? a) pests and diseases b) animals c) soil d) water availability e) weather and climate Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

32) The use of chemicals in plants to negatively impact the growth of other plants is known as ______. a) succession b) symbiosis

c) allelopathy d) predation e) herbivory Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

33) The general term that describes the positive interaction between individuals of different species is known as _______________. a) succession b) symbiosis c) allelopathy d) predation e) herbivory Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

34) The grazing of plants by animals and insects is known as ___________. a) commensalism b) symbiosis c) mutualism d) protocooperation e) herbivory Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

35) The positive interaction between individuals of different species whereby one species is

benefited and the other is unaffected is known as ____________. a) commensalism b) symbiosis c) mutualism d) protocooperation e) herbivory Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

36) The positive interaction between individuals of different species whereby both species are benefited although it is not essential to their existence is known as _______________. a) commensalism b) symbiosis c) mutualism d) protocooperation e) herbivory Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

37) The positive interaction between individuals of different species whereby both species are benefited and it is essential to their existence is known as _____________. a) commensalism b) parasitism c) mutualism d) protocooperation e) herbivory Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1:8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

38) Succession that develops an entirely new surface such as a lava flow or deposit of alluvium is referred to as ____________. a) equilibrium succession b) old-field succession c) secondary succession d) primary succession e) autogenic succession Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1:8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

39) A form of self-producing succession resulting from the actions of the plants and animals themselves is referred to as ___________. a) equilibrium succession b) old-field succession c) secondary succession d) primary succession e) autogenic succession Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

40) Succession that develops on disused agricultural land or old-field succession may also be classified as __________________. a) equilibrium succession b) pioneer succession c) secondary succession d) primary succession e) autogenic succession

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

41) A collection of closely related animals or plants that share a similar genetic evolutionary history but cannot necessarily interbreed to produce fertile offspring is referred to as a _____. a) species b) genus c) tetraploid d) polyploid e) diploid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

42) A species of animal or plant that is found in only one region or location and nowhere else in the world is referred to as ______________. a) cosmopolitan b) endemic c) phylum d) epidemic e) diploid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

43) The chance mutations in a population without any particular beneficial effect change the genetic composition of a breeding population until it diverges from other populations is referred to as __________________. a) gene flow b) genetic drift c) allopatric speciation

d) geographic isolation e) disjunction Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

44) Food energy flowing from one organism to another within an ecosystem can be described as _________. a) the hydrologic cycle b) the food web c) the carbon cycle d) photosynthesis e) ecology Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

45) The process in which plants combine water, carbon dioxide, and solar energy to form carbohydrates is called _____________. a) the carbon cycle b) the ecological process c) photosynthesis d) respiration e) the food web Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

46) What are the important climatic factors besides water availability and length of day that control net primary productivity? a) air and soil temperatures

b) photosynthesis c) the carbon cycle d) proximity to the subtropical high-pressure belt e) oceanic currents Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

47) A byproduct of photosynthesis is ______________. a) H2O b) PbS c) CO2 d) O2 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

48) Biogeochemical cycles include ____________________. a) rock cycle and hydrologic cycle b) disaster cycle and solar cycle c) carbon cycle and nitrogen cycle d) all of these Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

49)Trees that shed their leaves seasonally are called _____________. a) epiphytes b) evergreen c) succulents d) deciduous

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

50) For an ecosystem, fire, flood, volcanic eruptions, storm waves, and high winds are examples of _____________. a) geomorphic factors b) biomass c) ecotones d) disturbances Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1:8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

51) The stable community when the vegetation of an area stops changing through time is the ________. a) herbivory b) biomass c) climax community d) ecotone Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

52) When the vegetation of an area is destroyed, the regrowth and development is called ________. a) primary succession b) population equilibrium c) demographic transition d) secondary succession

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

Question Type: True/False

53) Although many different species may occupy the same habitat, only a few of these species will ever share the same ecological niche. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

54) Mammals are well adapted to desert environments, and as a result there a large number of species that inhabit arid regions. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

55) In midlatitude regions, photosynthesis continues in most plants even on overcast days. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

56) In general, succession leads to formation of the simplest community or organisms possible. Answer: False

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

57) The pioneer stage of succession is characterized by shade-tolerant plants that prefer consistent temperature and soil moisture. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

58) Sympatric speciation occurs where populations are geographically isolated and gene flow between the populations does not take place. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: 8.4: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

59) Widely distributed or cosmopolitan species include Homo sapiens, bats, rats, and goats. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

60 The Galápagos Islands’ finches provide an example of the result of the process of sympatric speciation. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

61) Succession on coastal sand dunes can follow a series of stages from dune grass to oak and holly forests.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

62) Duration and intensity of light vary with latitude and season and serve as a cue to initiate the growth stages in many plants. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

63) Nitrogen is gained by the atmosphere by the process of denitrification, which is controlled by an array of soil bacteria. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

64) At present rates, denitrification far exceeds nitrogen fixation, mostly as a result of human activities Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

65) Net photosynthesis is the total amount of carbohydrates produced by photosynthesis before respiration breaks down the carbohydrate to power the plant. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

66) Most green plants only need about 10 to 30 percent of full summer sunlight for maximum net photosynthesis. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

67) Plants and algae use light energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates and are referred to as primary consumers. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

68) Generally, the number of organisms and their total amount of living tissue decreases greatly up the food chain. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

69) The average net primary production for land-based ecosystems is always greater than marine-based ecosystems. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

70) Swamps and estuaries are ecosystems with high rates of net primary production, while grasslands and agricultural lands are lower. Answer: True

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

71) Ecological biogeography examines the distribution patterns of plants and animals from the viewpoint of ecological factors and the interrelationships between species. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

72) The only biogeochemical cycle of any significance is the carbon cycle. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

73) Major water pollution problems can arise when nitrogen stimulate the growth of algae and phytoplankton. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

74) Xerophytes are plants that have a difficult time existing in arid environments. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

Question Type: Essay

75) Compare and contrast net primary production for a selection of environments. Examine the reasons why some environments are more productive than others. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

76) Describe the processes inherent in calculating net photosynthesis. Explain the impact of changes in light intensity. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

77) Describe the causes and effects of energy loss with each successive level of production and consumption in a food chain. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

78) Compare and contrast the impact of burning fossil fuels and burning biomass on the cycles of the biosphere. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

79) Using an annotated diagram, describe the general operation of the carbon cycle. Explain the likely impact of the large-scale and long-term burning of fossil fuels.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

80) Using an annotated diagram, describe the general operation of the nitrogen cycle. Explain the role of nitrogen fixation and denitrification in the cycle. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

81) Describe the water needs of vegetation local to your region. How do humans attempt to alter the local water supply to support agriculture and other forms of human-induced vegetation? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

82) Compare and contrast the characteristics of cold-blooded animals, warm-blooded animals, and xeric animals. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1:8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

83) Describe the edaphic factors that affect vegetation local to your region. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other

species

84) Using examples, either from your local region or a region of your choice, compare or contrast different types of competition between animals. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

85) Compare and contrast the nature of different types of symbiosis, giving examples. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

86) Describe the successional changes that you might observe after an agricultural field is abandoned. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Ecological Succession Learning Objective 1: 8.3: Describe how biotic communities succeed one another

87) Briefly explain the importance of biodiversity to humans. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Biodiversity Learning Objective 1: 8.5: Discuss the future of Earth’s biodiversity

88) Today, plants and animals are becoming extinct at a rapid rate, even before they can be identified by scientists. Outline some of the most important factors responsible for this, and describe the problems you think may result from these extinctions.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

89) Describe the stages that might follow an extensive forest fire. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Ecological Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.2: Explain how organisms interact with their environment and with other species

90) Describe the factors that promote and limit the dispersal of species. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Historical Biogeography Learning Objective 1: 8.4: Explain how biogeographic patterns develop over time

91) Describe ways in which human activity can reduce biodiversity. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Biodiversity Learning Objective 1: 8.5: Discuss the future of Earth’s biodiversity

Question Type: Multiple Choice

92) On the illustration, letter A shows ______________.

a) primary consumers b) primary producers c) secondary consumers d) decomposers Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

93) On the illustration, letter B shows ________________.

a) primary consumers b) primary producers c) secondary consumers d) decomposers Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

94) On the illustration, letter C shows _________.

a) primary consumers b) primary producers c) secondary consumers d) decomposers Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

95) On the illustration, letter D shows _____________.

a) primary consumers b) primary producers c) secondary consumers d) higher level consumers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

96) On the illustration, letter E shows __________________.

a) primary consumers b) primary producers

c) secondary consumers d) higher level consumers Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

97) On the illustration, letter A is ____________.

a) ammonification b) nitrification c) fixation d) denitrification Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

98) On the illustration, letter B is _______________.

a) ammonification b) nitrification c) fixation d) denitrification Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Energy and Matter Flow in Ecosystems Learning Objective 1: 8.1: Describe how energy and matter flow in Earth’s major ecosystems

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 09

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) A plant that lacks a woody stem, is small in size, and is fairly tender would be best described as a __________. a) perennial b) herb c) biennial d) liana e) tree Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Natural Vegetation Learning Objective 1: 9.1: Describe the types of plant cover

02) A plant that climbs other plants such as trees would be best described as a ______________. a) perennial b) herb c) annual d) liana e) lichen Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Natural Vegetation Learning Objective 1: 9.1: Describe the types of plant cover

03) Which of the following regions is often dominated by lichens? a) wet equatorial regions b) dry tropical regions c) steppe and prairie d) desert regions e) alpine and arctic regions

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Natural Vegetation Learning Objective 1: 9.1: Describe the types of plant cover

04) Which of the following characterizes low-latitude rainforest? a) thick, woody lianas b) seasonal shedding of leaves c) needle-shaped leaves d) numerous trees spaced far apart e) sparse clumps of plants Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Natural Vegetation Learning Objective 1: 9.1: Describe the types of plant cover

05) Which of the following characterizes steppe biomes? a) thick, woody lianas b) seasonal shedding of leaves c) needle-shaped leaves d) numerous trees spaced far apart e) sparse clumps of plants Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

06) Which of the following is not one of the five principal biomes? a) forest b) tundra c) savanna d) desert e) monsoon

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

07) Epiphytes are most commonly found in of the following assemblages of vegetation? a) low-latitude rainforest b) boreal forest c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) needleleaf forest e) coastal needleleaf forest Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

08) The laurel forests of the southeastern United States may be classified as which of the following forest types? a) low-latitude rainforest b) subtropical evergreen forest c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) needleleaf forest e) coastal needleleaf forest Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

09) Boreal forests are best classified as which of the following forest types? a) low-latitude rainforest b) subtropical evergreen forest c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) needleleaf forest e) coastal needleleaf forest

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

10) Buttress roots characterize trees in which of the following forest types? a) low-latitude rainforest b) subtropical evergreen forest c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) needleleaf forest e) coastal needleleaf forest Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

11) Chaparral vegetation is found in which of the following forest types? a) low-latitude rainforest b) subtropical needleleaf forest c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) boreal forest e) sclerophyll forest Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

12) Which of the following biomes is characterized by xerophytes? a) forest b) tundra c) savanna d) desert e) monsoon Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Desert and Tundra Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.5: Compare desert and tundra biomes

13) Dwarf shrubs are found in _____________. a) monsoon forest b) needleleaf forest c) chaparral d) tundra e) low-latitude rainforest Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

14) The biome that is the transition between forest and grassland is the _________. a) low-latitude rainforest b) savanna c) tundra d) desert e) subtropical evergreen forest Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

15) Which of the following is an example of a grassland? a) Sclerophyll region of the Mediterranean b) Savanna of Africa c) Pampa region of South America d) Thorntree semidesert of Africa e) Chaparral of the southwestern United States Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

16) Which of the following features does not characterize the plants found in tundra biomes? a) tolerant of water-logged conditions b) drought tolerant c) small in size d) tolerant of long periods of cold temperatures e) scattered shrubs and trees Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Desert and Tundra Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.5: Compare desert and tundra biomes

17) In a transect from the Equator to the Tropic of Cancer, which of the following would be the correct order of vegetation types? a) Tropical desert, subtropical steppe, sclerophyll forest, midlatitude deciduous forest b) Tropical desert, sclerophyll forest, subtropical steppe, midlatitude deciduous forest c) Equatorial rainforest, savanna woodland, savanna grassland, tropical scrub, tropical desert d) Equatorial rainforest, savanna grassland, savanna woodland, tropical scrub, tropical desert e) Equatorial rainforest, savanna woodland, subtropical steppe, sclerophyll forest, tropical desert Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate and Altitude Gradients Learning Objective 1: 9.6: Describe how biomes change with climate and altitude

18) In a transect from the Tropic of Cancer toward the Arctic Circle, which of the following would be the correct order of vegetation types? a) Tropical desert, subtropical steppe, sclerophyll forest, midlatitude deciduous forest b) Tropical desert, sclerophyll forest, subtropical steppe, midlatitude deciduous forest c) Equatorial rainforest, savanna woodland, savanna grassland, tropical scrub, tropical desert d) Equatorial rainforest, savanna grassland, savanna woodland, tropical scrub, tropical desert e) Equatorial rainforest, savanna woodland, subtropical steppe, sclerophyll forest, tropical desert Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate and Altitude Gradients Learning Objective 1: 9.6: Describe how biomes change with climate and altitude

19) Which of the following types of biome is represented in the regions with Mediterranean climates? a) subtropical needleleaf forest b) thorntree-tall grass c) tall grass Prairie d) savanna woodland e) sclerophyll forest Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

20) Which of the following types of biome is represented in the regions with moist continental climates? a) subtropical needleleaf forest b) thorntree-tall grass c) tall-grass prairie d) boreal woodland e) sclerophyll forest Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

21) Which of the following types of biome is represented in the regions with dry tropical climates? a) subtropical needleleaf forest b) thorntree-tall grass c) tall-grass prairie d) boreal woodland e) sclerophyll forest

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

22) Biomes may be broken down into smaller vegetation units referred to as ____________. a) species b) life forms c) formation classes d) habitats e) climax communities Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

23) Plants that attach themselves to the trunks and branches of tropical trees are referred to as ______. a) forbs b) epiphytes c) sclerophylls d) lichens e) emergent crowns Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

24) In which of the following vegetation types would you expect to see few plants at the ground level? a) low-latitude rainforest b) thorntree-tall grass c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) tall-grass prairie

e) steppe Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

25) How do subtropical broadleaf evergreen forests differ from low-latitude rainforests? a) Low-latitude rainforests have more foliage at ground level than subtropical broadleaf evergreen forests b) Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forests normally have lower species diversity than lowlatitude forests c) Low-latitude rainforest trees normally have needle-shaped leaves d) Low-latitude rainforests normally have fewer epiphytes than the subtropical broadleaf evergreen forests e) Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forests do not usually have a well-developed lower layer of vegetation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

26) Organisms that can survive in regions with moderate to severe water shortages are found in which biome type? a) tundra b) desert c) savanna d) forest e) grassland Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

27) Which formation class of a biome is typical in eastern North America? a) monsoon forest

b) desert c) tall-grass prairie d) midlatitude deciduous forest e) sclerophyll forest Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

28) The ________________ is dominated by low trees with thick, leathery leaves that are well adapted to the long drought of the Mediterranean climate. a) desert b) midlatitude deciduous forest c) needleleaf forest d) savanna e) sclerophyll forest Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

29) Lower Sonoran, Upper Sonoran, and Arctic Alpine Zones are all examples of? a) life zones b) transition zones c) climate zones d) biome zones e) soil zones Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Climate and Altitude Gradients Learning Objective 1: 9.6: Describe how biomes change with climate and altitude

30) Caribou, reindeer, lemmings, ptarmigan, and snowshoe hares are likely to feed on _______. a) grass

b) lichen c) permafrost d) insects e) shrubs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Desert and Tundra Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.5: Compare desert and tundra biomes

31) How many principle biomes are listed in your text? a) 12 b) 10 c) 5 d) 6 e) 3 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

32) Savanna woodland is usually bordered by ________. a) low-latitude rainforest b) midlatitude deciduous forest c) tundra d) sclerophyll forest e) boreal forest Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

33)Elephant grass and flat-topped acacia are characteristic of ___________. a) thorntree-tall grass savanna b) tundra c) chaparral

d) desert Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

34) The biomes with which the term rain-green vegetation is associated are __________. a) midlatitude deciduous forest and needleleaf forest b) sclerophyll forest and midlatitude deciduous forest c) tundra and needleleaf forest d) monsoon forest and savanna Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

35) The savanna biome is best associated with _______________. a) central Australia b) eastern China c) Mozambique d) Argentina Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

36) The large grazing animals such as wildebeests and their predators—lions, leopards, cheetahs, hyenas, and jackals—are best associated with ____________. a) savanna b) grassland c) tundra d) desert Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

37) The biome consisting largely or entirely of herbs, which may include grasses, grass-like plants, and forbs, is _____________. a) tundra b) grassland c) monsoon forest d) desert Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

Question Type: True/False

38) Low-latitude rainforest never occurs where there is a dry season. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

39) Midlatitude deciduous forests are associated with moist continental climates. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

40) Subtropical evergreen forests occur in broadleaf and needleleaf forms in the dry subtropical climates. Answer: False

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

41) Monsoon forests are comprised largely of evergreen tree species. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

42) Sclerophyll forest is comprised of trees with leathery leaves and is found in the Mediterranean climate region. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

43) In the savanna biome frequent fires encourage the growth of trees and limit the growth of grasses. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

44) Changes in transects of vegetation are largely gradational rather than abrupt. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Climate and Altitude Gradients Learning Objective 1: 9.6: Describe how biomes change with climate and altitude

45) Semidesert is a transitional formation class found in a wide range of latitudes from the tropical zone to the midlatitudes.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Desert and Tundra Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.5: Compare desert and tundra biomes

46) Needleleaf evergreen forest extends into lower latitudes wherever mountain ranges and high plateaus exist. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

47) Monsoon forest typically has a dense closed canopy with few plants at lower levels. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

48) Ecosystems fall into two major groups, marine and terrestrial. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

49) The subtropical evergreen needleleaf forest only occurs in the southeastern United States. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

50) The Pampa is an example of the tall-grass prairie.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

Question Type: Essay

51) Describe the natural vegetation of your region with reference to the prevailing climate type. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Natural Vegetation Learning Objective 1: 9.1: Describe the types of plant cover

52) Compare and contrast the natural vegetation of your region with the human-influenced vegetation of your region. What historical events were responsible for these changes? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Natural Vegetation Learning Objective 1: 9.1: Describe the types of plant cover

53) Compare and contrast the different types of forest with particular reference to the nature of the canopy and the characteristics of the trees. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

54) Compare and contrast the different types of grassland with particular reference to the density of plants and the characteristics of the plants themselves. Answer: Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

55) Using an annotated diagram, describe a transect of vegetation types from the Equator to the Tropic of Cancer. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate and Altitude Gradients Learning Objective 1: 9.6: Describe how biomes change with climate and altitude

56) Using an annotated diagram, describe a transect of vegetation types from the low to high altitudes. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Climate and Altitude Gradients Learning Objective 1: 9.6: Describe how biomes change with climate and altitude

57) Compare and contrast monsoon forest and midlatitude deciduous forest with reference to prevailing climate and the deciduous trees. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

58) Describe the different leaf shapes inherent in the different forms of vegetation using examples of biomes and climates. Briefly explain the reasons for these different shapes. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

59) Describe the differing degree of plant densities inherent in different vegetation types.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Natural Vegetation Learning Objective 1: 9.1: Describe the types of plant cover

Question Type: True/False

60) Monsoon forests are deciduous. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

61) The subtropical evergreen forest can be both broadleaf and needleleaf. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

62) Laurel forests are a type of midlatitude deciduous forest. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

63) The fox squirrel, woodchuck, and white-tailed deer are best associated with the sclerophyll forest. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

64) Midlatitude deciduous forests are found almost entirely in the northern hemisphere. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

Question Type: Multiple Choice

65) On the illustration, the biome at A is ___________.

a) tundra b) needleleaf forest c) savanna d) desert Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

66) On the illustration, the biome at B is __________.

a) subtropical evergreen forest b) midlatitude deciduous forest c) monsoon forest d) needleleaf forest Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

67) On the illustration, the biome at D is ____________.

a) savanna b) grassland c) tundra d) desert Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

68) On the illustration, the biome at H is _____________.

a) tundra b) grassland c) savanna d) desert Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

69) On the map, the biome at A is ______________.

a) sclerophyll forest b) needleleaf forest c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) tundra Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

70) On the map, the biome at D is ___________.

a) savanna b) grassland c) subtropical evergreen forest d) midlatitude deciduous forest Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

71) On the map, the biome at F is ______________.

A) low-latitude rainforest B) monsoon forest C) savanna D) desert Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

72) On the map, the biome at G is ____________.

a) low-latitude rainforest b) grassland c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) savanna Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

73) On the map, the biome at L is ____________.

a) midlatitude deciduous forest b) needleleaf forest c) grassland d) subtropical evergreen forest Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Terrestrial Ecosystems—Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.2: Identify the principal biomes

74) The biome shown in this picture is _________________

a) midlatitude deciduous forest b) needleleaf forest c) sclerophyll forest d) low-latitude rainforest Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

75) The biome shown in this picture is ______________.

a) needleleaf forest b) subtropical evergreen forest c) sclerophyll forest d) tundra Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

76) The biome shown in this picture is _______________.

a) low-latitude rainforest b) monsoon forest c) midlatitude deciduous forest d) needleleaf forest Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Forest Biome Learning Objective 1: 9.3: Identify the major formations of the forest biome

77) The biome shown in this picture is _______________.

a) sclerophyll forest b) grassland c) savanna d) tundra Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Savanna and Grassland Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.4: Compare savanna and grassland biomes

78) The biome shown in this picture is _____________.

a) tundra b) savanna c) grassland d) desert Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Desert and Tundra Biomes Learning Objective 1: 9.5: Compare desert and tundra biomes

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 10

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) A high humus content makes soil appear _________________. a) red b) black c) yellow d) gray Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

02) The inorganic material base from which soil forms is called ______________. a) horizons b) ultisol c) parent material d) drift Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

03) Soils found in dry climates frequently have a _______________surface layer. a) blue b) black c) gray d) white Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

04) A mixture of particle sizes is called ___________. a) loam b) sand c) clay d) silt Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils 05) Soil texture is important because it influences the soil’s ____________. a) age b) moisture-holding capacity c) colored d) acidity or alkalinity Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

06) Which of the following types of soil particle is the smallest in size? a) sand b) gravel c) colloids d) clays e) silt Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

07) Which of the following types of soil particle is the largest in size? a) sand b) gravel c) colloids d) clays e) silt Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

08) The proportion of sand, silt, and clay in a soil is referred to as the ____________. a) soil profile b) soil configuration c) soil enrichment d) soil structure e) soil texture Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

09) Finely divided, partially decomposed organic matter is referred to as ____________. a) colloids b) humus c) sesquioxides d) regolith e) litter Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

10) A layer of weathered rock upon which a soil may form is referred to as the __________.

a) bedrock b) humus c) colloids d) litter e) regolith Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

11) An acidic soil would have a pH of ____________, an alkaline soil would have a pH of ___________, and a neutral soil would have a pH of ____________. a) 5, 9, 7 b) 6, 8, 9 c) 9, 8, 7 d) 3, 4, 5 e) 1, 2, 3 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil Chemistry Learning Objective 1: 10.2: Identify chemical properties of the soil and the chemical processes that change soils.

12) Which of the following is not an example of a soil secondary mineral? a) mineral oxides b) silicate minerals c) sesquioxides d) clay minerals e) limonite Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.2: Describe the properties used to describe soils

13) A soil may be said to be saturated under which of the following conditions? a) Potential evapotranspiration exceeds soil water recharge b) Potential evapotranspiration exceeds actual evapotranspiration c) Actual evapotranspiration exceeds potential evapotranspiration d) Actual evapotranspiration equals potential evapotranspiration e) Actual evapotranspiration is less than potential evapotranspiration Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil moisture Learning Objective 1: Explain the factors that determine soil moisture

14) Which of the following describes the order of soil horizons from the surface downwards? a) A, E, O, C, B b) A, O, E, B, C c) O, A, E, B, C d) O, E, A, B, C e) O, A, B, E, C Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1: 10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

15) The accumulation of clays in the B horizon is the direct result of which of the following processes? a) illuviation b) eluviation c) salinization d) humification e) transformation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1:10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

16) The development of a light-colored, mineral-rich A horizon is the direct result of which of the following processes? a) illuviation b) eluviation c) salinization d) humification e) transformation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1: 10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

17) Large masses in a soil that are grouped together to form the soil structure are referred to as ______. a) epipedons b) bases c) colloids d) peds e) horizons Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

18) Which of the following rock types as a parent material would be associated with the process of calcification? a) granite b) basalt c) limestone d) sandstone e) conglomerate Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1: 10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

19) A soil that has equal parts of sand and silt with a smaller proportion of clay is referred to as a _________. a) sandy loam b) clay loam c) loam d) silty clay e) silt loam Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

20) In which type of soil would you find laterite? a) Ultisol b) Oxisol c) Aridisol d) Andisol e) Histosol Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

21) Ustolls are a particular type of which of the following soils? a) Mollisol b) Inceptisol c) Aridisol d) Andisol e) Histosol Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

22) Which of the following soils would be best described as “poorly developed”? a) Oxisol b) Alfisol c) Vertisol d) Ultisol e) Entisol Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

21) Which of the following soils is characterized by high acidity? a) Aridisol b) Inceptisol c) Entisol d) Spodosol e) Vertisol Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

22) Which of the following features differentiates the different forms of Alfisols? a) degree of development b) prevailing climate c) degree of use by humans d) fertility e) development of the B horizon Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

23) Which of the following soils is dominated by clays that as they swell and contract mix the soil from within? a) Entisol b) Histosol c) Vertisol d) Ultisol e) Spodosol Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

24) Which of the following soils is most similar to an Oxisol? a) Entisol b) Inceptisol c) Histosol d) Ultisol e) Spodosol Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

25) Which of the following soils lacks distinctive horizons, is found in tropical regions, and has a marked red color? a) Inceptisol b) Vertisol c) Histosol d) Oxisol e) Spodosol Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

26) Which of the following soils would you expect to find in a constantly changing environment such as a floodplain? a) Inceptisol b) Oxisol c) Histosol d) Ultisol e) Spodosol Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

27) Which of the following soils would you find associated with a peat bog? a) Mollisol b) Inceptisol c) Aridisol d) Andisol e) Histosol Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

28) Which of the following soils would you find associated with the extensive grasslands of the prairies? a) Mollisol b) Inceptisol c) Ultisol d) Spodosol e) Entisol Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils

Learning Objective 1:10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

29) Which of the following soils is normally the least fertile? a) Mollisol b) Inceptisol c) Ultisol d) Spodosol e) Entisol Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

30) In which of the following soils is the original parent material comprised largely of volcanic ash? a) Vertisol b) Entisol c) Aridisol d) Andisol e) Histosol Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

31) Which of the following soils has a very high content of organic matter in a thick, dark upper layer? a) Vertisol b) Entisol c) Aridisol d) Andisol e) Histosol Answer: e Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

32) Which of the following soils would be most likely to accumulate calcium and salts? a) Vertisol b) Entisol c) Aridisol d) Andisol e) Histosol Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

33) The term _______________ describes all forms of mineral matter that are suitable for transformation into soil. a) wasted material b) rock and gravel c) parent material d) bedrock e) sill Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

34) Red soils generally are created by the presence of _________. a) silica b) alumina c) magnesium d) iron oxide e) peat Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

35) Colloids are important to soil formation because ____________________. a) they allow for easy transportation of water b) they allow for breaks in the soil so that water and gases can travel through it c) they attract base ions, which act as nutrients for plants d) of their positive charge, which allows them to attract acidic compounds e) they are a key source of moisture Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Soil Chemistry Learning Objective 1: 10.2: Identify chemical properties of the soil and the chemical processes that change soils

36) The display of horizons on a cross section through the soil is termed a _________________. a) soil profile b) soil strata chart c) soil layer d) soil condition e) none of these Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1: 10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

37) ________, soils of the desert climate, are dry for long periods of time. a) Spodosols b) Mollisols c) Vertisols d) Aridisols e) Histosols Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

38) _________________ are quite closely related to the Oxisols in outward appearance and environment of origin, but they are lacking in mineral content and are high in clay content. a) Spodosols b) Ultisols c) Mollisols d) Aridisols e) Andisols Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

39) ______________ typically form under grass and savanna vegetation in subtropical and tropical climates with a pronounced dry season. a) Vertisols b) Spodosols c) Mollisols d) Aridisols e) Ultisols Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

40) _____________ are soils in which more than half of the parent mineral matter is volcanic ash. These soils have a high carbon content, so they appear very dark in color. a) Oxisols b) Andisols c) Alfisols d) Enitsols e) Spodisols Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

Question Type: True/False

41) Colloid surfaces tend to be positively charged and thus attract negatively charged ions. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

42) If clay minerals can hold abundant base ions, the soil is of low base status and is generally less fertile. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

43) Storage withdrawal in a soil water budget is represented by the difference between the wateruse curve and the precipitation curve. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Soil Moisture Learning Objective 1: 10.3: Describe the variation of moisture in the soil

44) Soils that form from parent material that is comprised largely of volcanic ash are referred to as Vertisols. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

45) Entisols and Inceptisols are two examples of soils with well-developed horizons. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

46) Although undeveloped, Entisols and Inceptisols may in some cases be quite fertile. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

47) Vertisols tend to have a neutral pH and are high in base status, with organic matter distributed evenly through the soil. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

48) The higher the temperature the slower the decay process of organic soil components. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

49) Humus is finely divided, partially decomposed organic matter that either rests on the soil surface or is mixed through the soil. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

Question Type: Essay

50) Using an annotated diagram, describe the soils common to your location in their natural state. How has agriculture changed these soils? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

51) Describe the role of colloids and soil pH in the retention of soil nutrients. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

52) Using an annotated graph, describe the general soil water budget of your location. Identify the times of the year when water shortages and water surpluses occur. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil Moisture Learning Objective 1: 10.3: Describe the variation of moisture in the soil.

53) Using an annotated diagram, describe a generalized soil profile and label the horizons. Point out the parts of the profile where various soil processes dominate, such as eluviation, illuviation, and humification. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1: 10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

54) Compare and contrast the different orders of poorly developed soils, and examine the reasons

for their differences. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1: 10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

55) Describe the soils most commonly found in equatorial regions and explain the reasons for their differences. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.5: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

56) Describe the nature of the soil texture and explain its role in a soil water budget. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Soil Moisture Learning Objective 1: 10.3: Describe the variation of moisture in the soil.

57) Using examples, compare and contrast the characteristics and origins of B horizons in a selection of tropical and midlatitude soils. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1: 10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

58) Describe the problems associated with agricultural irrigation of Aridisols. What safeguards are necessary to prevent damage to the soil? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Global Scope of Soils Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe how soil types are distributed around the world

59) Describe the major factors in soil and soil development, and explain their differing roles in a selection of soil orders. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Soil Development Learning Objective 1: 10.4: Explain how soil layers develop distinctive characteristics

Question Type: Multiple Choice

60) On the illustration, the letter that represents sand-sized particles is _____________.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

61) On the illustration, the letter that represents colloid-sized particles is ____________.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

62) On the illustration, the letter that represents the clay-sized particles is ____________.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

63) On the illustration, the letter that represents silt-sized particles is ___________.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Nature of the Soil Learning Objective 1: 10.1: Describe the properties used to describe soils

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 11

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Granite and basalt differ because __________________. a) granite is extrusive and basalt is intrusive b) granite is intrusive and basalt is extrusive c) granite is an igneous rock and basalt is a metamorphic rock d) basalt is an igneous rock and granite is a metamorphic rock e) basalt is an sedimentary rock and granite is a metamorphic rock Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface

02) Which of the following rocks and their metamorphosed forms is correct? a) sandstone and slate b) shale and quartzite c) shale and gneiss d) limestone and gneiss e) granite and gneiss Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface

03) When magma inserts itself as a thin layer between the strata of existing rocks without disturbing these older layers to any great extent, it is termed a _____________. a) dike b) sill c) stock d) pluton e) batholith

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface

04) Rocks which are modified by heat or pressure or both are classified as __________. a) sedimentary rocks b) igneous rocks c) plutonic rocks d) metamorphic rocks e) extrusive igneous rocks Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

05) Two landforms that are classified as extrusive volcanic are ____________. a) a dyke and sill b) an anticline and syncline c) a laccolith and batholith d) a lava flow and cinder cone e) a sill and anticline Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

06) Which of the following is not a type of sedimentary rock? a) pumice b) evaporite c) conglomerate d) sandstone e) batholith

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

07) Which of the following elements is the most abundant in the Earth’s crust? a) silicon b) aluminum c) iron d) oxygen e) calcium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

08) Which of the following is a felsic extrusive rock? a) gabbro b) limestone c) basalt d) andesite e) granite Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

09) Which of the following is a felsic intrusive rock? a) gabbro b) limestone c) basalt d) andesite e) granite Answer: e

Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

10) Which of the following is a mafic extrusive rock? a) gabbro b) limestone c) basalt d) andesite e) granite Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

11) Which of the following is a mafic intrusive rock? a) gabbro b) limestone c) basalt d) andesite e) granite Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

12) Which of the following statements best describes mafic rocks? a) high in calcium and iron b) high in magnesium and iron c) high in magnesium and feldspar d) high in feldspar and calcium e) high in feldspar and silica Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

13) Which of the following statements best describes felsic rocks? a) high in calcium and iron b) high in magnesium and iron c) high in magnesium and feldspar d) high in feldspar and calcium e) high in feldspar and silica Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

14) Which of the following is a type of clastic sedimentary rock? a) limestone b) dolomite c) shale d) pumice e) coal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

15) Which of the following is a type of chemically precipitated rock? a) sandstone b) coal c) mudstone d) limestone e) conglomerate Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

16) Which of the following minerals is most resistant to chemical alteration? a) quartz b) sedimentary c) limestone d) shale Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

17) Sediments accumulate in layers known as _______ separated by surfaces known as ______. a) lava / strata b) strata / bedding planes c) shales /planes d) sills / shales e) sediments / stratifications Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

18) A sedimentary rock that is comprised largely of clays and breaks easily into flakes or plates is a ____________. a) mudstone b) sandstone c) shale d) siltstone e) conglomerate Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change

Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

19) A clastic rock containing pebbles of hard rock is a _______ a) mudstone b) limestone c) shale d) siltstone e) conglomerate Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

20) Which of the following is a type of carbonate rock? a) sandstone b) limestone c) pumice d) rhyolite e) basalt Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

21) Petroleum, coal, and natural gas are referred to as _______________. a) evaporates b) carbonates c) hydrocarbons d) schists e) metamorphic rocks Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change

Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

22) Which of the following rocks results from the metamorphosis of limestone? a) slate b) schist c) quartzite d) gneiss e) marble Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

23) Which of the following rocks results from the metamorphosis of sandstone? a) slate b) schist c) quartzite d) gneiss e) marble Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

24) Which of the following rocks results from the metamorphosis of shale? a) slate b) schist c) quartzite d) gneiss e) marble Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

25) Felsic minerals tend to be __________________________________. a) light-colored and silica-rich b) dark-colored and silica-poor c) light-colored and silica-rich d) dark-colored and silica-poor Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

26) Igneous rocks that cool slowly, and hence solidify below the Earth’s surface, are known as which type? a) clastic b) intrusive c) stratified c) extrusive Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

27) Which of the following is classified as an igneous rock? a) sandstone b) gneiss c) basalt d) shale Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

28) The strongest rocks, in terms of their propensity to wear down, tend to be found in what type

of locations? a) aunder valleys b) blong the ocean c) under ridges, hills, and uplands d) under plains and flat lands Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface. 29) Through the rock cycle, if a metamorphic rock goes through heating and then melts to become magma, it will eventually cool and turn into ____________. a) igneous rock b) sedimentary rock c) another metamorphic rock d) none of these Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

30) What are the two sources of energy that drive the rock cycle? a) solar radiation and the force of gravity b) the carbon cycle and the force of gravity c) the hydrological cycle and the carbon cycle d) solar radiation and radiogenic heat e) the force of gravity and the hydrological cycle Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

31) Two large plates moving away from the Mid-Atlantic ridge are the __________ and the _____________.

a) Australian Plate / Nazca Plate b) Atlantic Plate / Antarctic Plate c) North American Plate / Juan de Fuca Plate d) South American Plate / African Plate E) Cocos Plate / Nazca Plate Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

32) Which of the following features is not associated with diverging crustal plate boundaries? a) island arcs b) midoceanic ridge c) rift valley d) fluid, low-silica lava e) undersea mountain ranges Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

33) How does the age of ocean rock vary with distance from ocean ridges? a) Only young rocks are found near the ridges with progressively older rocks appearing with distance from the ridges. b) The oldest rocks are found adjacent to the ridges, with progressively younger rocks found with distance from the ridges. c) All rocks in oceans basins are the same age. d) The age of rocks varies with distance from subduction zones only. e) The age of rocks within ocean basins varies with depth rather than distance from ocean ridges. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

34) Comparatively inactive regions of very old continental rocks are referred to as ________.

a) continental shields b) suspect terrains c) alpine chains d) midoceanic ridges e) orogenic belts Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Topography Learning Objective 1: 11.4: Describe the features of Earth’s continents and ocean basins

35) The boundary between the crust and the mantle is referred to as the: ____________. a) inner core b) outer core c) liquid zone d) lithosphere e) Moho Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

36) Which layer of the Earth is liquid and comprised largely of iron and nickel? a) inner core b) outer core c) lower mantle d) upper mantle e) asthenosphere Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface. 37) The so-called “Moho” __________.

a) is an abbreviation for the famous "mole hole" bore hole which yielded the deepest crustal core sample ever collected b) is the name given to the contact plane between the crust and mantle c) is the name given to the sharp break in composition between oceanic and continental crust d) refers to a research station on the coast of Yugoslavia where much of the early research on earthquakes was performed e) is the name given to the boundary between the core and the mantle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

38) The rocks of the oceanic crust are largely composed of ________. a) ferrous metals b) felsic minerals c) granite d) mafic minerals e) silica only Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Structure of the Earth Learning Objective 1: 11.2: Describe the Earths’ structure from the surface to the center

39) The rocks of the continental crust are most commonly described as ________. a) ferrous b) carbonate c) granitic d) andesite e) basaltic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

40) The ________ is the soft, hot layer of rock located in the ________.

a) lithosphere / crust b) crust / mantle c) asthenosphere / mantle d) asthenosphere / core e) crust / asthenosphere Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Topography Learning Objective 1: 11.4: Describe the features of Earth’s continents and ocean basins.

41) The process of seafloor spreading involves the creation of new crust and its continuous movement away from its source. Which of the following serve as that source? a) midoceanic ridges b) hotspots on the ocean floor called magma oases c) oceanic trenches, oftentimes several thousand meters below the surface of the seafloor d) the sources are varied, with little seeming logic to their locales Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

42) The Nazca Plate is wedged between the __________. a) South American and Pacific Plates b) Pacific and North American Plates c) Eurasian and African Plates d) South American and African Plates e) South American and Caribbean Plates Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

43) A fold that is arch-like and has completely folded over itself is ___________.

a) a recumbent fold b) a thrust sheet c) an overturned fold d) a divergent fold e) a ridge Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

44) Which of the following features is not associated with converging crustal plate boundaries? a) deep-ocean trench b) subduction c) non-explosive volcanoes d) mountain building e) explosive volcanoes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

45) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the composition of continental crust? a) Continental crust is composed of rocks very similar to basalt b) Continental crust is made up entirely of mafic rocks c) Continental crust is made up entirely of felsic rocks d) Continental crust has a composition identical to oceanic crust e) Continental crust is made up of both mafic and felsic rock Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Structure of the Earth Learning Objective 1: 11.2: Describe the Earths’ structure from the surface to the center

46) The radius of the Earth is approximately __________.

a) 4200 kilometers (2600 miles) b) 6400 kilometers (4000 miles) c) 7200 kilometers (4400 miles) d) 8300 kilometers (5100 miles) e) 9100 kilometers (5600 miles) Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Structure of the Earth Learning Objective 1: 11.2: Describe the Earths’ structure from the surface to the center

47) What is the approximate age of the Earth? a) 1.9 billion years b) 2.8 billion years c) 3.4 billion years d) 4.6 billion years e) 6.5 billion years Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Structure of the Earth Learning Objective 1: 11.2: Describe the Earths’ structure from the surface to the center

48) Which tectonic plate is located between the South American Plate and the Antarctic Plate? a) Philippine Plate b) Bismark Plate c) Caroline Plate d) Scotia Plate e) Cocos Plate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

49) The boundary between the North American Plate and the Eurasian Plate is a ____________. a) converging boundary

b) spreading boundary c) transform boundary d) continental suture e) boundary that is currently not classified Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

50) A fault boundary where there is horizontal motion of two adjacent plates, one sliding past the other, is referred to as a ____________. a) rift fault b) reverse fault c) overthrust fault d) transform fault e) normal fault Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

51) A boundary whereby two plates have become permanently attached and ending tectonic activity is referred to as a _________. a) converging boundary b) spreading boundary c) transform boundary d) continental suture e) boundary that is currently not classified Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

52) Which of the following is associated with a subduction zone?

a) oceanic trench b) midoceanic ridge c) rift valley d) axial rift e) continental shield Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

53) The original supercontinent first envisaged by Wegener is referred to as _________. a) Koppenland b) Wegenerland c) Pangaea d) Laurasia e) Gondwanaland Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

54) Folding accompanied by faulting where slices of rock move over the underlying rock is referred to as ______________. a) rift fault b) reverse fault c) overthrust fault d) transform fault e) normal fault Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

55) What type of boundary is associated with the San Andreas fault?

a) converging boundary b) spreading boundary c) transform boundary d) continental suture e) boundary that is currently not classified Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

56) The boundary marked by the Mid-Atlantic ridge is a __________. a) converging boundary b) spreading boundary c) transform boundary d) continental suture e) boundary that is currently not classified Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

57) A _____________ is a naturally occurring, inorganic substance that usually possesses a definite chemical composition and characteristic atomic structure. a) crystal b) mineral c) rock d) metamorphic rock e) volcano Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

58) Magma that solidifies below the Earth’s surface and remains surrounded by older, preexisting rock is called__________________.

a) extrusive igneous rock b) intrusive igneous rock c) lava d) magmatic rock e) minerals Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

59) Intrusive igneous rocks are noted for ____________. a) their large mineral crystals b) their interesting mineral composition c) their hardness, compared to extrusive igneous rocks d) their darker colors e) proximity to the Earth’s surface Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

60) ____________ is formed from shale that is heated and compressed by extreme heat and pressure. a) Slate b) Quartzite c) Mica d) Marble e) Dolomite Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

61) The formation of mountain ranges such at the Himalayas are due to__________.

a) sea floor spreading b) continent-continent collision c) subduction zone activity d) ocean-island arc collision e) volcanism Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

62) An example of continental rupture is _____________. a) the Mediterranean Sea b) the Andes c) the islands of the South Pacific d) the Red Sea e) the Rocky Mountains Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

Question Type: True/False

63) Granite is a mafic extrusive rock. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

64) Quartz, biotite, and feldspar are all examples of silicate minerals. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

65) Silicon is the most common element in the Earth’s crust. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

66) A pluton is a type of structure associated with the accumulation of hydrocarbons. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

67) The bulk of igneous rocks are made up of silicate minerals. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

68) An example of a fine-grained felsic rock is gabbro. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

69) Carbon dioxide, dissolved in water, creates an acid that effectively alters calcium carbonate minerals. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

70) Sandstone has smaller particles sizes than shale. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

71) The type of rock that most closely resembles the composition of limestone is dolomite. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

72) Rifting is associated with compression associated with folding. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

73) The Earth’s core is a dense mass of liquid iron and nickel. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

74) The continental lithosphere is thicker but lighter than the thin yet dense oceanic crust. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Structure of the Earth

Learning Objective1: 11.2: Describe the Earths’ structure from the surface to the center.

75) The Appalachians are a good example of ancient mountain roots. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Topography Learning Objective 1: 11.4: Describe the features of Earth’s continents and ocean basins

76) At spreading boundaries, new lithosphere is being formed by consumption. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

77) In subduction zones, the oceanic trench receives sediment entirely from the continental landmass. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

78) The lithosphere is the outermost shell including the crust and the outer portion of the mantle. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Topography Learning Objective 1: 11.4: Describe the features of Earth’s continents and ocean basins

79) Most of the ocean floor is abyssal plain covered by fine sediment. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics

Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

80) Continental shields are comprised entirely of metamorphic rocks. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Topography Learning Objective 1: 11.4: Describe the features of Earth’s continents and ocean basins

81) The hot, molten state of rock that is underground is known as lava. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

82) An igneous rock that forms underground is known as extrusive. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

Question Type: Essay

83) Using an annotated diagram of the rock cycle, describe the processes linking the different rock types together and identify five examples of each rock. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

84) Compare and contrast the characteristics and formation of granite and basalt.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

85) Compare and contrast the nature and formation of intrusive and extrusive igneous rocks. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change

86) Describe the nature and formation of hydrocarbon compounds. How are these features used to identify potential reserves? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

87) Compare and contrast the different types of sedimentary rocks. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

88) Describe the ways in which minerals may be altered in the process of weathering. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

89) Using an annotated diagram describe the different types of igneous intrusions.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

90) Describe the composition of the Earth’s crust. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

91) Using examples, compare and contrast felsic and mafic rocks. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

92) Write an account of the processes involved with the passage of a rock through the rock cycle. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

93) Describe the nature and composition of the layers making up the Earth. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change

94) Using an annotated diagram describe the components of the lithosphere. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Topography Learning Objective 1: 11.4: Describe the features of Earth’s continents and ocean basins

95) Using an annotated sketch map of North America, indicate the continental relief features. Describe how the different nature of these relief features contributes to the terrain of the continent. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Topography Learning Objective 1: 11.4: Describe the features of Earth’s continents and ocean basins

96) Using an annotated sketch map of North America, indicate the surrounding tectonic plates and the nature of the boundaries. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

97) Compare and contrast the nature of spreading, converging, and transform boundaries. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

98) How do collisions and ruptures contribute to the termination and initiation of plate boundaries. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

99) Imagine navigating the boundary of the Pacific tectonic plate. Describe how and why the

boundary changes along its circumference. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

100) Summarize the way that landmasses have moved over time from the initial supercontinent, using sketch maps where relevant. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Plate Tectonics Learning Objective 1: 11.5: Describe the types of tectonic processes and their results

101) Using an annotated diagram describe the relief features of the ocean basins. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Topography

102) Describe the geologic timescale with reference to geological and biological changes during Earth’s history. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earth Materials and the Cycle of Rock Change Learning Objective 1: 11.3: Identify types of rocks found on Earth’s surface.

Question Type: Multiple Choice

103) Using the figure below, where would you find the densest material on Earth?

a) within the Earth’s crust b) within the Earth’s mantle. c) within the Earth’s outer core d) within the Earth’s inner core e) within the Earth’s atmosphere Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Structure of the Earth Learning Objective 1: 11.2: Describe the Earths’ structure from the surface to the center

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 12

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) The San Andreas fault can best be classified as a __________ fault. a) rift b) subduction c) transform (strike-flip) d) divergent e) normal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

02) Which of the following statements about a reverse fault is correct? a) A reverse fault is one type of tensional fault b) A normal fault is one type of reverse fault c) The upthrown block in a reverse fault creates an overhanging scarp d) Motion in a reverse fault is transcurrent e) A reverse fault results in the development of a strike-slip fault Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

03) The location inside the Earth where an earthquake originates is termed the ____________. a) focus b) orogeny c) epicenter d) face e) mineralogic substrate

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

04) The correct term for a marine wave caused by volcanic or earthquake activity is a ________. a) hurricane b) storm surge c) pingo d) tsunami e) tombolo Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

05) A major mud flow emanating from the eruption of a composite volcano is termed a(n)_______. a) aa b) lahar c) nuee ardente d) pahoehoe e) caldera Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

06) A horst is a _____________ whereas a graben is a (an) _________________. a) sunken block / raised block b) raised block / sunken block c) sunken block / downthrown block d) raised block / upthrown block e) sunken block / echelon block

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

07) Lava associated with shield volcanoes such as those in Hawaii is ____________. a) thick, gassy, and felsic b) thick, gassy, and mafic c) fluid, gassy, and mafic d) fluid, with little gas, and felsic e) fluid, with little gas, and mafic Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

08) Lava associated with composite volcanoes is ________________. a) thick, gassy, and felsic b) thick, gassy, and mafic c) fluid, gassy, and mafic d) fluid, with little gas, and felsic e) fluid, with little gas, and mafic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

09) Which of the following features may be associated with the eruption of a stratovolcano? a) frothy basalt ejected at high pressure from the vent b) a cinder cone c) a glowing avalanche of hot gases and fine ash d) a low shield-shaped volcano e) fluid flood basalt lava flows that cover large areas Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

10) Another term for stratovolcano is a ______________. a) composite cone b) cinder cone c) caldera d) shield volcano e) hotspot Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

11) Crater Lake in Oregon is an example which type of volcanic feature? a) composite cone b) cinder cone c) caldera d) shield volcano e) hotspot Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

12) Fragments ejected from a volcano ranging in size from boulders to fine dust are collectively referred to as ____________. a) lava b) lahar c) ash d) tephra e) pumice Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

13) Which of the following volcanoes is an example of a stratovolcano? a) The volcanoes of Hawaii b) Heimaey c) Crater Lake d) Mount St. Helens Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

14) Volcanoes associated with midoceanic ridges have lava that is ______________. a) thick, gassy, and felsic b) thick, gassy, and mafic c) fluid, gassy, and mafic d) fluid, with little gas, and felsic e) fluid, with little gas, and mafic Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

15) A jetlike emission of steam and hot water where groundwater is heated by geothermal heat is referred to as a ____________. a) ejecter b) geyser c) plume d) hot spring e) hotspot Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

16) Trough-like downfolds are referred to as _____________. a) synclines b) anticlines c) foreland folds d) fault folds e) normal folds Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

17) Arch-like upfolds are referred to as ________________. a) synclines b) anticlines c) foreland folds d) fault folds e) normal folds Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

18) The surface across which movement takes place in a fault is referred to as the ___________. a) fault scarp b) strike-slip c) fault plane d) transcurrent e) focus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms

Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

19) A fault scarp results from which of the following types of faults? a) reverse b) overthrust c) transcurrent d) strike-slip e) normal Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

20) Which of the following type of fault is most commonly associated with horsts and grabens? a) reverse b) overthrust c) transcurrent d) strike-slip e) normal Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

21) The Richter scale measures what characteristic of earthquakes? a) amount of ground motion b) quantity of energy released c) amount of displacement in the fault d) degree of damage to local buildings e) area over which the earthquake was detected Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earthquakes

Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

22) The most intense earthquake activity is associated with which of the following plate boundaries? a) converging boundary b) spreading boundary c) transform boundary d) continental suture e) boundary that is currently not classified Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics 23) The East African Rift Valley demonstrates the early stage of the ___________. a) formation of a new ocean basin b) formation of a new land mass c) formation of a continental suture d) formation of a transform plate boundary e) formation of a new subduction zone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

24) Which of the following terms is most closely associated with the description of earthquake activity? a) volcanic b) tectonic c) tidal d) rifting e) seismic Answer: e Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

25) Frothy magma ejected under high pressure from a narrow vent is most characteristic of which type of volcano? a) stratovolcano b) cinder cone c) shield volcano d) caldera e) hotspots Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

26) Erosion of volcanic landforms often leaves behind a table-topped plateau called a _______. a) lava mesa b) butte c) monadnock d) cuesta e) dome Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

27) Which of the following most accurately describes a cuesta? a) A broad platform capped by hard rock layers b) A table-topped plateau of comparatively small extent bounded by cliffs and occurring in a region of flat-lying strata c) A prominent, isolated mountain that rises conspicuously above a plain and is composed of relatively more resistant rocks d) A prominent, steep-sided hill often representing the final remnant of a resistant layer in a region of flat-lying strata e) An asymmetrical low ridge with one side a steep slope and the other a gentle slope often associated with a coastal plain

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

28) Which of the following most accurately describes a monadnock? a) A broad platform capped by hard rock layers b) A table-topped plateau of comparatively small extent bounded by cliffs and occurring in a region of flat-lying strata c) Isolated mountains or hills revealed by erosion of weaker surrounding rock d) A prominent, steep-sided hill often representing the final remnant of a resistant layer in a region of flat-lying strata e) An asymmetrical low ridge with one side a steep slope and the other a gentle slope often associated with a coastal plain Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

29) A stream that develops its course by stream erosion along a band or belt of weaker rock is a/an ____________. a) braided stream b) graded stream c) alluvial stream d) consequent stream e) subsequent stream Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

30) A stream that takes its course down the slope of an initial landform such as a newly emerged coastal plain or a volcano is a/an ___________. a) braided stream b) graded stream

c) alluvial stream d) consequent stream e) subsequent stream Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

31) A circular or oval structure in which strata have been forced upward, often associated with igneous intrusions or upthrusting on deep faults, is a/an ___________. a) mesa b) butte c) monadnock d) cuesta e) dome Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

32) Sometimes sedimentary beds are tilted upward. When weaker layers erode, the stronger layers left behind are called _____________. a) synclinal mountains b) fault scarps c) hogback ridges d) cuestas e) domes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

33) When a resistant rock type is exposed at the center of a downturned fold and the rock stands up as a ridge, which of the following features may result?

a) synclinal mountains b) fault scarps c) hogbacks d) cuestas e) anticlinal valley Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

34) Where strata have been tightly folded and altered during continental collisions, a landscape with a series of ridges results. These are known as ____________. a) ridge-and-valley landscape b) fault scarps c) synclinal mounttains d) metamorphic belts e) anticlinal valleys Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

35) The erosion of shield volcano would result in all of the following except ___________. a) a newly formed volcano with a central depression b) deeply eroded valley heads at the early stages of erosion c) a tall volcanic neck, with nothing else remaining once the volcano is extinct d) canyons that eventually develop into steep-sided amphitheaters e) radial consequent streams cutting deep canyons once the volcano is extinct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

36) Repeated faulting and erosion will result in which of the following landforms?

a) fault coast b) fault creep c) fault plane d) fault line scarp e) fault plain Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

37) The erosion of a stratovolcano would result in all of the following except _________. a) a newly formed volcano with lava flows spreading into stream valleys b) lava dams that may allow the creation of a lake c) wall-like dikes, which may be eroded, surrounding the crater d) lakes that remain in the caldera in the advanced stages of erosion e) a radial drainage pattern that has developed around the cone Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

38) ___________ volcanoes are formed by lavas which are highly explosive. a) Cinder cone b) Shield c) Strato d) Lava flow e) None of these Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

39) The chain of Hawaiian volcanoes were created by the motion of the ________ Plate over a __________.

a) Nazca, trench b) Cocos, trench c) Cocos, hotspot d) Pacific, hotspot e) Hawaiian, hotspot Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

40) One form of alternative power, _______________, is conducted to the surface by circulating groundwater. a) steam vents b) fumaroles c) geothermal energy d) ocean waves e) nuclear Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

41) There are basically two different forms of tectonic activity. These are ____________. a) compression and extension b) stressful and decompression c) decompression and extensional d) compressional and stressful e) volcanic and compression Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

42) The East African Rift Valley is formed by _____________.

a) compression b) volcanism c) retraction of the crust d) stress e) extension Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

43) Compression leads to the folding of the crust, which results in the formation of __________. a) anticlines and synclines b) synclines and troughs c) upfolds and troughs d) troughs and anticlines e) none of these Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

44) A ___________ in the brittle rocks of the Earth’s crust occurs when rocks suddenly yield to unequal stresses by fracturing. a) break b) fault c) crack d) scarp e) defect Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

45) A(n) ___________ is a motion of the ground surface, ranging from a faint tremor to a wild motion capable of shaking buildings apart.

a) tsunami b) earthquake c) volcano d) tornado e) none of these Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

46) The Appalachian Mountains are famous for their________________ structure. a) faulted b) volcanic c) ridge and valley d) rift valley e) hillside Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

Question Type: True/False

47) Earthquakes can occur in locations far from plate boundaries. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

48) The San Andreas fault is a major normal fault with the potential for severe earthquakes. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

49) Stratovolcanoes are formed by the emission of gassy mafic lava. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

50) Most active stratovolcanoes are located along the Pacific Ring of Fire. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

51) Transcurrent faults are also known as strike-slip faults. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

52) A steep cliff-like fault scarp is a common result of reverse faults. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

53) Hotspots occurring beneath continental crust can provide vast areas of flood basalts. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms

Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

54) Compression creates anticlines and synclines. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

55) Where more easily eroded strata are exposed, denudation is rapid, making lowlands. Between them rise broad belts of hills called hogbacks. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms

56) A trough-like downbend of strata is an anticline, while an arch-like upbend is a syncline. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

57) Batholiths of basalt composition are a major ingredient in the mosaic of ancient rocks comprising the continental shields. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

58) The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is a radial drainage pattern. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms

Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

59) Stratovolcanoes produce lava flows that initially follow valleys and are highly resistant to erosion. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

60) Where rocks are parched into a dome, erosion produces a circular arrangement of rock layers outward from the center of the dome. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

61) The streams carving up a landmass are controlled to a high degree by the structure of the rock on which they act. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

Question Type: Essay

62) Using annotated diagrams, compare and contrast the different types of volcanoes. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

63) Using an annotated sketch map identify well-known volcanoes. Note the type of volcano and

the way its characteristics are expressed in the behavior of the volcano. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

64) Compare and contrast stratovolcanoes with shield volcanoes. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

65) Using annotated diagrams, compare and contrast the different types of faults. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

66) Using either a recent example from the news or a historic case study, describe the eruption of a volcano. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

67) Using examples from the Internet, show how remote sensing can contribute to our understanding of volcanoes. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms

68) Using either a recent example from the news or a historic case study, describe an earthquake. Pay particular attention to the timing, magnitude, and its impact upon local communities Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

69) Describe the formation and impact of tsunamis. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

70) Describe the faulting associated with the East African Rift Valley. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

71) Using an annotated sketch map of North America, identify areas of regular earthquake activity. Note their relative magnitude and the role of plate boundaries. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Earthquakes Learning Objective 1: 12.2: Explain the relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics

72) Describe the nature and effect of the strike and dip of rocks. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

73) Using an annotated diagram, describe the development of a broad coastal plain. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

74) Using examples from your region or a well-known case study, explain the erosional changes evident in a volcano. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

75) Describe the formation and development of a monadnock. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

76) Compare and contrast the erosion of stratovolcanoes compared to shield volcanoes. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Volcanic Activity and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.3: Describe landforms produced by volcanic activity

77) Identify the defining characteristics of hogbacks and the processes responsible for producing them. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

78) Using an annotated diagram describe the features of a sedimentary dome. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Landform and Rock Structure

Question Type: Multiple Choice

79) The figure below illustrates what type of fault?

a) normal b) reverse c) thrust d) shear e) strike-slip Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

80) What is the down-dropped block between two normal faults?

a) horst b) graben c) fault plane d) tension plane e) none of these Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Tectonic Landforms Learning Objective 1: 12.1: Describe landforms produced by tectonic activity

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 13

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Which of the following is a form of chemical weathering? a) oxidation b) frost cracking c) salt-crystal growth d) biotic wedging e) all of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

02) _______ is the extremely slow downslope granular flow of regolith. a) Solification b) Slump c) Slides d) Creep e) Flow Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

03) The small spaces between mineral grains are called _______. a) pores b) flow c) slump d) regolith e) soil

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

04) Which of the following is most critical to weathering processes? a) salt b) oxygen c) water d) nitrogen e) lava Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

05) Which of the following processes could result in a human-induced earthflow? a) weak local geology b) heavy prolonged rain c) severe earthquake d) piling of waste soil and rock in unstable accumulation e) prolonged periods of dry conditions Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

06) A type of mass wasting that occurs when soils become thoroughly saturated with water and slowly flow downslope by gravity is referred to as _______________. a) slump b) solifluction c) scarification d) creep e) slide

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

07) Which of the following types of weathering affects limestone and occurs predominantly in humid areas? a) frost action b) spheroidal weathering c) acid action d) eluviation e) hydrolysis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

08) The extremely slow downhill movement of soil and regolith is called _______________. a) mass wasting b) soil creep c) solifluction d) scarification e) weathering Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

09) Slumping is an example of a _________________. a) creep movement b) earthflow movement c) slide movement d) fall movement e) solifluction

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

10) Which of the following rocks and minerals would be most resistant to chemical weathering? a) quartz b) dolomite c) limestone d) calcite e) carbonate Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

11) Which of the following indicates oxidation? a) spheroidal weathering b) red coloration of rocks and soil c) joints in rocks being opened up freezing and thawing d) the splitting of rocks by plant roots e) mass wasting Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

12) Which of the following is most significant in the formation of a talus cone in an alpine area? a) biological weathering b) chemical weathering c) carbonation d) oxidation e) frost action Answer: e

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

13) Accumulations of regolith at the foot of a slope are called ____________. a) earthflow b) scarification c) outcrop d) colluvium e) alluvium Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

14) Which of the following types of mass movements is fastest and least dependent upon moist or saturated conditions? a) solifluction b) rockfall c) slide d) slump Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

15) ______________ occurs when the stress created by the freezing of water into ice becomes greater than the cohesive strength of the rock containing it. a) Frost heaving b) Frost creep c) Frost thrusting d) Frost cracking e) Frost action Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

16) Salt crystal growth is best associated with which of the following climates? a) wet tropical climate b) midlatitude climates c) arid desert climates d) west coast humid climates e) cold polar climates Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

17) Unloading is also referred to as ________________. a) exfoliation b) granular disintegration c) hydrolysis d) oxidation e) acid action Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

18) Niche formation is associated with which of the following types of weathering? a) acid action b) oxidation c) frost action d) salt-crystal growth e) granular disintegration Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

19) The general term to describe land disturbances such as excavations and strip mining is ____. a) disintegration b) spoilage c) tailings d) dredging e) scarification Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

20) The rock waste associated with land disturbances such as excavations and strip mining is referred to as _____________. a) tailings b) scree c) talus d) regolith e) alluvium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

21) ____________ is the general term applied to the combined action of all processes that cause rock to disintegrate physically and decompose chemically because of exposure near the Earth’s surface. a) Erosion b) Mass wasting c) Weathering d) Soil creep e) Talus Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

22) __________________ is the source for sediment, which may be transformed into soil. a) Bedrock b) Granite rock c) Alluvium d) Regolith e) Colluvium Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

23) A solution of water and carbon dioxide produces _____________, which can easily dissolve __________________. a) carbonic acid, limestone b) carbonic acid, granite c) fizz water, clastic sedimentary rocks d) hydrogen peroxide, limestone e) greenhouse gases, metal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

24) Human activities can _____________ mass wasting in forms ranging from mudflow and earthflow to landslide. a) change b) predict c) hinder d) induce e) none of these

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

25) Water is a major agent of weathering because of its property that, when it freezes, it decreases in density and _______________. a) evaporates b) turns white c) expands in volume d) stays in liquid form below 0° Celsius e) dissolves salts Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

26) Landslides can be responsible for the formation of ____________. a) lakes b) reverse faults c) hydrolysis d) jointing e) debris floods Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

27) Water penetrating into rock and soil promotes chemical weathering by acting as a weak _______. a) acid b) base c) saline solution d) neutral agent e) none of these

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

28) What is required to induce mass movements along the Palos Verdes Hill of Los Angeles, California, and other similar developments in steep hillside settings? a) strong bedrock b) shallow slopes c) saturated regolith d) high thermal insulation e) expensive housing Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

29) When mudflows pick up rocks and boulders, they are called ___________. a) slides b) debris flows c) creep d) scarification Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

30) The maximum slope angle that allows rock, sand, clay, and debris to stay in place without movement is called _____________. a) angle of incident b) gravity c) downslope erosion d) angle of repose

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Slopes and Slope processes Learning Objective 1: 13.2: Describe slopes and identify the processes that form them

Question Type: True/False

31) Salt crystallization involves the deposition and growth of salt, calcite, or gypsum, which can break rocks apart grain by grain. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

32) Polluted urban air may be more acidic than unpolluted rural air, leading to more rapid chemical weathering. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

33) Igneous and metamorphic rocks are particularly resistant to hydrolysis and oxidation. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

34) Mass wasting in which water-saturated soil and regolith slowly flows downhill is referred to as an earthflow. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting

Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

35) An earthflow results in the slow, gradual bending of layered rock strata such as shales or slates. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

36) Landslides are triggered by heavy rains but not by earthquakes or sudden rock failures. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting 37) The term “slope” designates a strip or patch of the land surface that is inclined from the horizontal. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Slopes and slope processes Learning Objective 1: 13.2: Describe slopes and identify the processes that form them

38) Regolith that is transported by running water is termed colluvium. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

39) Soil creep is the term used to describe the very slow downhill movement of soil and regolith. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

40) The most dangerous and spectacular type of downslope movement is called a landslide. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

Question Type: Essay

41) Describe the different forms of physical weathering. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

42) Compare and contrast the features of weathering associated with moist and arid climates. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

43) Describe the different forms of mass wasting. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

44) Using either a recent example from the news or a historic case study, describe the events that led up to and occur during a landslide.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

45) Use an example from your own region to describe the effects of scarification on the landscape. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

Question Type: Multiple choice

46) In the figure below, what type of weathering is being shown?

a) exfoliation b) carbonation c) root wedging d) frost cracking e) sheet jointing Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

Question Type: True/False

47) The figure below illustrates a good example of a landslide.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Mass Wasting Learning Objective 1: 13.3: Explain how gravitational forces produce mass wasting

48) The large boulders in the figure below are an example of mechanical weathering.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Weathering Learning Objective 1: 13.1: Describe effects of physical and chemical weathering processes

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 14

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) A topographic barrier that separates two drainage basins is referred to as a (an) __________. a) trunk b) brook c) network d) drainage divide e) distributary Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

02) Minerals eroded by acid action in karst regions and then deposited on the walls of caves are known as ____________. a) calcite b) dolomite c) limestone d) travertine e) chert Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

03) Icicle-like features suspended from the ceilings of caves are called _________. a) travertines b) columns c) stalagmites d) stalactites e) uvalas

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

04) The portion of water carried by a stream that is contributed by groundwater is referred to as _______. a) infiltration b) runoff c) overland flow d) discharge e) base flow Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Flooding Learning Objective 1: 14.5: Identify the causes and effects of floods

05) The absorption of water by a soil, delivered by light or moderate rain, is ______________. a) infiltration b) runoff c) overland flow d) discharge e) base flow Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

06) Which of the following phenomena results from water being pumped from a well? a) The surrounding water table is raised in a upward-pointing cone b) The surrounding water table is lowered in a downward-pointing cone c) The surrounding water table is raised in a cone that points upslope d) The surrounding water table is lowered in a cone that points downslope e) The surrounding water table is unaffected

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Groundwater Use and Management Learning Objective 1:14.3: Describe how groundwater is used and identify problems of groundwater management

07) The difference between the cone tip and the original water table after water has been drawn from a well is known as the _________. a) recharge b) runoff c) yield d) drawdown e) withdrawal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Use and Management Learning Objective 1:14.3: Describe how groundwater is used and identify problems of groundwater management

08) Which of the following is the potential result of water table depletion? a) An increase in the base level of surrounding streams b) The water table becomes more shallow c) Volumes of groundwater increase d) A sinking of the land known as subsidence e) A decrease in the risk for groundwater contamination Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Use and Management Learning Objective 1:14.3: Describe how groundwater is used and identify problems of groundwater management

09) Which of the following factors can negatively impact the quality of groundwater? a) high temperature incineration b) sanitary landfill disposal sites

c) saltwater intrusion d) volumes of extraction that is less than recharge e) infiltration Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater use and management Learning Objective 1:14.3: Describe how groundwater is used and identify problems of groundwater management

10) Stream discharge is defined as ___________________________________. a) height of water per unit time passing though a cross section of the stream at that location b) volume of water per unit time passing though a cross section of the stream at that location c) velocity of water passing though a cross section of the stream at that location d) volume of water per unit time passing though a length of the stream e) velocity of water per unit time passing though a length of the stream Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

11) Which of the following features defines the upper surface of groundwater? a) the soil-water belt b) the unsaturated zone c) the saturated zone d) the water table e) the regolith Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

12) Which of the following situations is required for an artesian well? a) an aquifer between two aquicludes b) an aquiclude between two aquifers

c) an aquifer positioned on top of one aquiclude d) an aquiclude positioned on top of one aquifer e) an aquifer positioned below one aquiclude Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

13) Surface depressions that develop in a karst landscape are referred to as __________. a) uvalas b) cones c) swallow holes d) sinkholes e) caves Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

14) An upward-pointing, rod-shaped structure in a limestone cave is referred to as a(n) _____ a) travertine b) column c) stalagmite d) stalactite e) uvala Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

15) Stream discharge at a location on a stream is determined by noting the height or _________. a) stage b) volume c) aspect

d) gauge e) bed Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Flooding Learning Objective 1: 14.5: Identify the causes and effects of floods

16) The relationship between stream discharge and precipitation is best studied using a _______. a) hygrometer b) graphic scale c) flood stage d) hydrograph e) flood current Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Waters and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams.

17) How does urbanization impact streamflow? a) Urbanization increases the amount of permeable surface b) Overland flow across the urban area decreases c) Storm sewers slow the rate at which water is delivered to nearby rivers and streams d) Recharge of groundwater beneath the urban area is reduced e) The frequency and height of flood peaks after heavy storms is reduced Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Flooding Learning Objective 1: 14.5: Identify the causes and effects of floods

18) The height above which inundation of the floodplain occurs is called the _________. a) flood level b) discharge c) flood stage d) flash flood

e) base flow Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Flooding Learning Objective 1: 14.5: Identify the causes and effects of floods

19) Which of the following statements concerning lakes is incorrect? a) In moist climates, the water level of lakes coincides closely with the water table of the surrounding area b) Lakes can disappear due to climate changes c) Lakes receive water from streams, overland flow, and groundwater d) Lakes are generally long-lived phenomena on the geologic time scale e) Lakes are formed from an array of geologic processes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Lakes Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of lakes

20) Lakes in arid regions with no surface outlet often display which of the following characteristics? a) development of bogs b) gradual decline in lake area due to the growth of vegetation c) gradual increase in water levels d) development of salt flats e) accumulation of organic sediments Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Lakes Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of lakes

21) Salinization refers specifically to the buildup of salts in which of the following features? a) vegetation b) streams c) soils

d) rivers d) rocks Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Lakes Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of lakes

22) What are exotic rivers? a) Rivers that contain such a broad array of pollutants that they no longer function in the way they would under natural conditions b) Rivers that cross urbanized areas and so are considerably changed from their natural state c) Rivers that cross a variety of terrains including changes in vegetation and elevation d) Rivers that do not flow all year round and that may remain dry for possibly many years e) Rivers that flow through arid regions although the source of their water derives from regions with a water surplus Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Lakes Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of lakes

23) The accumulation of excess nutrients that stimulate freshwater plant growth may lead to which of the following processes? a) salinization b) acidification c) eutrophication d) subsidence e) sublimation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Freshwater as a Natural Resource Learning Objective 1: Discuss our reliance on water as a natural resource

24) ___________ landscapes are covered with flat-bottomed valleys, sinkholes, and caverns. a) Travertine

b) Karst c) Carbonate d) Dolomite e) Earth’s Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

25) Surface runoff is also known as ____________ . a) flooding b) overland flow c) infiltration d) erosion e) streamflow Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

26) Venice, Italy, provides a dramatic example of __________________ because of heavy groundwater withdrawals. a) water table depletion b) building damage c) ground subsidence d) groundwater contamination e) transportation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Groundwater Use and Management Learning Objective 1:14.3: Describe how groundwater is used and identify problems of groundwater management

27) The ability of sand and sandstone to hold water often make it a good ____________ .

a) recreational site b) construction material c) aquifer d) building location e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

28) Streamflow discharge quantities (Q) are measured in ____________ . a) cps b) cfs c) hours d) days e) annual precipitation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

29) Lakes without outlets, other than evaporation, often show ______________. a) salt buildup b) lesser surface area c) silty bottoms d) reduced volumes e) flooding Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Lakes Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of lakes

30) Changes in a stream’s cross-sectional area and average velocity are related to changes in _____________________.

a) gradient of the stream channel b) the amount of sediment in the stream c) the flow velocity of the stream d) the stream channel difficult to measure e) type of bedrock Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

31) The entire surface area within a drainage basin is known as its ____________ . a) landmass b) flow potential c) collection zone d) watershed e) acreage Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

32) Which of the following conditions would be most consistent with the characteristics of a good aquifer? a) high porosity and high permeability b) high porosity and low permeability c) low porosity and high permeability d) low porosity and low permeability e) not enough information to determine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

33) Subsurface water contained in pore spaces in regolith and bedrock is known as __________. a) water table

b) groundwater c) aquifer d) aquiclude e) transpiration Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

34) Which of the following is true of a karst landscape? a) carbonate bedrock is present b) sinkholes are common c) groundwater travels through cave systems d) none of these e) all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

35) In moist climates, __________ tends to dissolve limestone near the surface, resulting in cave formation. a) hydrochloric acid b) citric acid c) carbonic acid d) phosphoric acid e) none of these Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

36) Water from precipitation sinking into the soil and flowing downward through the soil-water belt under the force of gravity is a process called __________.

a) permeability b) porosity c) recharge d) infiltration e) percolation Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

37) The drainage pattern that has a pattern that looks like a branching tree is called _________. a) dendritic b) trellis c) annular d) radial Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

38) The drainage pattern that you would find along a dome-shape rock would be ___________. a) dendritic b) trellis c) annular d) radial Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

39) The ridge and valley system of Appalachia, which has parallel hills and valleys, would have which type of drainage pattern? a) dendritic b) trellis c) annular

d) radial Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

40) Perfectly symmetrical cone-type volcanoes would have what type of drainage pattern? a) dendritic b) trellis c) annular d) radial Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

Question Type: True/False

41) A bed of clay and shale would be an effective aquifer. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

42) Overland flow occurs when dry soil receives rain or snowmelt. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

43) Drainage basin size is the most important factor in the delay in discharge response to heavy rain.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

44) Pollutants from a landfill disposal site may eventually pollute nearby streams. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Freshwater as a Natural Resource Learning Objective 1: Discuss our reliance on water as a natural resource

45) Most surfaces in urban landscapes are impermeable, and therefore nearby streamflows are impacted. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Flooding Learning Objective 1: 14.5: Identify the causes and effects of floods

46) In moist climates the water level of lakes does not reflect the level of the water table. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

47) The Aral Sea is rapidly shrinking due to the diversion of water from rivers entering the sea to irrigation. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Freshwater and the Hydrologic Cycle Learning Objective 1: Describe the flow of freshwater in the hydrologic cycle

48) The movement of water in all of its physical states in the atmosphere, on land, and in the

oceans is called the hydrologic cycle. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Freshwater and the Hydrologic Cycle Learning Objective 1: Describe the flow of freshwater in the hydrologic cycle

Question Type: Essay

49) Describe the passage of a raindrop from its arrival to the ground surface through its potential pathways to stream, lakes, and groundwater. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Freshwater and the Hydrologic Cycle Learning Objective 1: Describe the flow of freshwater in the hydrologic cycle

50) Describe the processes responsible for the development of karst caves. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

51) Identify local river pollution problems and describe the likely effects on the nature of the river and its ecosystem Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Freshwater as a Natural Resource Learning Objective 1: Discuss our reliance on water as a natural resource

52) Using a recent example of a flood from the news or a historic case study, describe the factors that lead to the flood. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Flooding Learning Objective 1: 14.5: Identify the causes and effects of floods

53) Using a hydrograph of a local river, compare and contrast any evident variations such as seasonality or sudden storms. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Flooding Learning Objective 1: 14.5: Identify the causes and effects of floods

54) Describe the effects of groundwater extraction with particular reference to the problems of overextraction. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

55) Using an annotated diagram, describe the drainage basin of a local or well-known river. Label the diagram using terms associated with drainage systems such as divides or stream basins Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

56) Describe the local effects of urbanization upon rivers in your region. Compare and contrast these impacts between different urban centers or between an urban and a rural area. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Flooding Learning Objective 1: 14.5: Identify the causes and effects of floods

57) Describe the problems apparent in the shrinking of the Aral Sea with particular reference to

the causes. Consider the likely future state of the Aral Sea over the next few decades. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Eye on Global Change—The Aral Sea

58) In the figure below, describe what might happen to the lake level if the water table was drawn down significantly by groundwater pumping in the well.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Groundwater Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of groundwater

Question Type: Multiple Choice

59) The feature pictured below is formed as a result of subsurface dissolution of limestone rock, which can weaken the overlying material and cause it to collapse. These resulting features are called:

a) caves b) sinkholes c) aquifers d) geysers e) artesian wells Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Ground Water Learning Objective 1: 14.2: Describe the movement of ground water.

60) According to the figure below, the Ohio River eventually drains into what body of water?

a) Atlantic Ocean b) Pacific Ocean c) Interior d) Gulf of Mexico e) none of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

61) According to the figure below, which of the following rivers are tributaries to the Mississippi River?

a) Ohio River b) Missouri River c) Columbia River d) all of the above e) A and B only Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Surface Water and Streamflow Learning Objective 1: 14.4: Discuss the movement of surface water and behavior of streams

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 15

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Which of the following is a depositional fluvial landform? a) cuesta b) hogback c) butte d) levee e) water gap Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

02) The stream erosion process in which certain rocks and minerals are dissolved in the water is called _______________. a) abrasion b) corrosion c) saltation d) traction e) suspension Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

03) Which of the following transport processes would likely dominate in a muddy stream? a) solution b) suspension c) saltation d) traction e) abrasion

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

04) ________________ is the bouncing of materials along a stream bed. a) Solution b) Suspension c) Bed load d) Traction e) Abrasion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

05) The rolling or sliding of particles in a stream moves larger debris referred to collectively as the ___________. a) solution load b) stream load c) dissolved load d) bed load e) suspended load Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

06) Which of the following is not a consequence of accelerated erosion as a result of vegetation loss? a) Splash erosion b) Increased herbaceous vegetation cover c) Reduced infiltration d) Reduced ability of soil to absorb water

e) Greater effectiveness of overland flow Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

07) The erosion process associated with overland flow is referred to as ___________. a) sediment yield b) splash erosion c) sheet erosion d) corrosion e) stream erosion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

08) Gullies are the eventual result of which of the following erosion processes? a) sediment yield b) splash erosion c) sheet erosion d) rill erosion e) stream erosion Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

09) The general term to describe any stream-laid deposit is _______________. a) bars b) fans c) alluvium d) discharge e) colluvium

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

10) The erosive force of flowing water is referred to as _____________. a) hydraulic action b) abrasion c) corrosion d) sliding e) turbulence Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

11) The maximum solid load of debris that can be carried by a stream at a given discharge is a measure of the ____________. a) hydraulic action b) bed load c) stream capacity d) sediment yield e) geologic norm Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

12) A stream in an equilibrium condition, whereby it can just carry the average of load of sediment that it receives from slopes and inflowing channels, is referred to as a/an ________. a) gully b) meandering river c) alluvial river d) graded stream

e) rill Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

13) Which of the following statements describing the grading of a river is incorrect? a) In the final stages, lakes and waterfalls are abundant b) Initially there are large fluctuations in slope profile c) At intermediate stages, the stream profile becomes smoothed into a uniform curve d) The angle of the final graded profile is lower than in earlier stages e) At the earliest stage, there are large fluctuations in the slope profile Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

14) Which of the following features develops once a river has reached a graded condition? a) lake b) levee c) terrace d) braided channel e) floodplain Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

15) The process whereby alluvium accumulates and raises the streambed is referred to as _____. a) gradation b) abrasion c) alluviation d) aggradation e) degradation

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

16) Alluvial terraces form due to which of the following factors? a) Alluvium is deposited at different stages during gradation, thus it naturally occurs as terraces b) Resistant rock outcrops protect the deposited alluvium c) Overbank flooding carries debris to the outer edges of the valley, depositing the terraces d) Overbank flooding carries debris and deposits it adjacent to the river channel e) An uplift of the river channel that further entrenches meanders Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

17) The lower limit to how far a stream can erode its bed is called the ____________. a) base level b) peneplain c) flood plain d) graded profile e) stream profile Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

18) Where would you find a swamp located relative to fluvial landforms? a) On higher ground above the alluvial terraces b) On higher ground above the bluffs c) On lower ground between the floodplain and the stream d) On lower ground inside the inner portion of an oxbow lake e) On lower ground between levees and bluffs

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

19) Landforms shaped by ____________ are described as fluvial landforms. a) glacial ice b) wave action c) denudation d) running water e) wind erosion Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

20) Landforms shaped by progressive removal of the bedrock mass are __________________ landforms. a) initial b) erosional c) fluvial d) ablation e) depositional Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

21) ____________ is the term for any material deposited by overland flow. a) Colluvium b) Alluvium c) Fluvium d) Sandstone e) Overburden

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

22) Stream ____________ is the progressive removal of mineral material from the floor and sides of the channel, whether bedrock or regolith. a) erosion b) transportation c) deposition d) load e) capacity Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

23) Clay and silt are carried by a stream _____________________. a) as a component of the dissolved load b) as suspended load c) as ions in the dissolved load d) as bed load e) under certain conditions Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

24) In the early stages of gradation and tributary extension, the capacity of a stream __________ the load supplied to it. a) exceeds b) increases c) erodes d) weathers e) ignores

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

25) The apex of a(n) ______________ lies at the mouth of a canyon or ravine. a) delta b) natural levee c) alluvial fan d) pediment e) ravine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Fluvial Processes in an Arid Climate Learning Objective 1: 15.4: Identify the unique landforms of arid climates

26) Waterfalls and rapids are mostly likely associated with _________ streams. a) infant b) young c) middle-aged d) mature e) old Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

27) A __________ stream has a low gradient, multiple threads, and a variable range of sediment loads. a) straight b) meandering c) braided d) oxbow e) none of these

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

28) A __________ is the flat, low-lying area adjacent to a stream channel that receives overbank flow. a) flood b) floodplain c) oxbow lake d) levee e) zone of aeration Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water 29) Which of the following fluvial processes leads to the formation of potholes? a) aggradation b) silt deposition c) abrasion d) dissolution e) suspension Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

30) When streams are just able to move the amount of sediment that they receive, they are said to be __________. a) incising b) graded c) aggrading d) dry e) mature

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

31) Which of the following sediment loads do streams require the most energy to move? a) suspended load b) virtual load c) dissolved load d) bed load e) clays Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

32) Which of the following stream conditions would be most conducive to the formation of a waterfall? a) meandering stream b) dry stream c) ungraded stream d) graded stream Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

33) A stream is said to be undergoing __________ when the stream channel’s altitude is raised by continued deposition of bed load. a) incisation b) aggradation c) gradation d) degradation

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water.

34) The steepness of a stream channel can also be called the __________. a) discharge b) load c) percolation d) deposition e) gradient Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

Question Type: True/False

35) As water flow increases, a stream flowing in a channel that is cut into thick layers of alluvium will easily deepen its channel. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

36) Splash erosion can cause a soil to be less able to absorb water. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

37) High rates of erosion by overland flow occur occasionally in semiarid or arid regions.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Processes in an Arid Climate Learning Objective 1: 15.4: Identify the unique landforms of arid climates

38) When a stream’s velocity is doubled, its ability to transport bed load is also doubled. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

39) Where stream channels flow on bedrock, material is removed mostly by the process of hydraulic action. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

40) In the early stages of stream gradation, the capacity of the stream exceeds the load supplied to it. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

41) Lakes and waterfalls are geologically long-lived features. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

42) Both the suspended load and bed load of rivers decrease with an increase in velocity.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

43) Fluvial landforms and fluvial processes dominate the continental land surfaces the world over. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

44) Stream transportation consists of movement of the eroded particles dragged over the stream bed, suspended in the body of the stream, or held in solution as ions. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

Question Type: Essay

45) Describe the erosional and depositional processes associated with slope erosion. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Erosion, Transportation, and Deposition Learning Objective 1: 15.1: Discuss the processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition

46) Compare and contrast slope erosion in humid and arid or semiarid regions. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Processes in an Arid Climate

Learning Objective 1: 15.4: Identify the unique landforms of arid climates

47) Identify the three main processes of fluvial erosion and give examples of how they may be represented in the landscape. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

48) Using an annotated diagram, describe the progression of stream gradation. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

49) Using examples from your local region, describe the development of waterfalls or lakes and their role in the landscape and in human activities. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

50) Using examples from the news or a historic case study, describe the progression of events during a flood. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

51) Describe the development of alluvial fans. Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

52) Compare and contrast the landscapes inherent in early, middle, and late stages of stream gradation. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Stream Gradation and Evolution Learning Objective 1: 15.2: Describe stream gradation and how stream valleys evolve

53) Identify the stages in William Morris Davis’ geographic cycle with particular reference to your local landscape. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Streams, Gradation, and Evolution Learning Objective 1:

54) Using an annotated diagram, describe the formation of oxbow lakes. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

Question Type: Multiple Choice

55) In the figure below, the __________stream is common in areas of glaciers.

a) meandering b) braided c) anastomosing d) straight e) oxbow lake Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Fluvial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 15.3: Describe the landforms created by flowing water

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 16

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Which of the following is a depositional coastal landform? a) marine cliff b) sea notch c) tombolo d) wave-cut platform e) sea arch Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

02) A drowned river mouth indicates which of the following types of coastline? a) submergent coast b) emergent coast c) depositional coast d) erosional coast e) barrier Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

03) A ring-like coral reef surrounding an empty lagoon is a (an) _______________. a) atoll b) berm c) tombolo d) spit e) stack

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

04) The vertical difference between high and low tide is referred to as the ____________. a) high-water mark b) tidal range c) tidal rise d) low-water mark e) tidal gauge Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

05) Wave backwash flows _______________________. a) at the same angle that the original wave arrived b) at right angles to the shoreline c) at right angles to the direction of the original wave d) parallel to the sea edge e) parallel to the wind direction Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

06) When a wave approaches a beach at an oblique angle, only part of it is slowed down as it reaches shallow water. The rest of the wave continues to move at a high velocity, bending the wave. This process is called ________________. a) wave broadening b) wave reflection c) wave refraction d) wave drift e) beach drift

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

07) A landform that creates a link between an offshore island and the mainland is a (an) ______________ a) tombolo b) baymouth bar c) stack c) offshore bar e) atoll Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

08) Which of the following describes the order of features observed as a breaking wave approaches a coast and finally breaks? a) Wave falls forward, steepens, and rushes up the beach slope b) Wave widens, falls backward, and rushes up the beach slope c) Wave steepens, falls backward, and rushes up the beach slope d) Wave steepens, falls forward, and rushes up the beach slope e) Wave widens, falls forward, and rushes up the beach slope Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

09) Which of the following features immediately precedes the formation of a sea stack? a) marine cliff b) abrasion platform c) sea arch d) sea notch e) sea cave

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

10) Relatively small, common sand dunes that are crescent-shaped are termed ___________. a) barchans b) star dunes c) transverse dunes d) longitudinal dunes e) seif dunes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

11) Which part of a sand dune typically slopes at the angle of repose of sand? a) the windward side b) the leeward side c) the outer edges d) the inner edges e) the base Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

12) Saltation is ______________________. a) the accumulation of salts in the upper parts of a soil b) the bouncing of grains of material along the surface c) the erosion of material by its rubbing together with material of a similar size d) the mechanism that puts dust and debris into the atmosphere in extremely windy conditions e) where wind has removed loose sand and material to leave a hollow behind

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

13) Which of the following types of surface would not be prone to wind erosion? a) unvegetated arid materials b) loose, dry debris c) moist clay-rich soils d) coastal locations e) all of these are susceptible to wind erosion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1:

14) From which of the following landforms does a marine terrace develop? a) stack b) coastal notch c) estuary d) coral reef e) abrasion platform Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

15) When waves approach a shoreline at an angle to the beach, a current is set up parallel to the shore in a direction away from the wind. This is specifically known as the ___________. a) undercurrent b) littoral drift c) beach drift d) longshore current e) longshore drift

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

16) The shifting of materials up and down the coastline edge with the wash and backwash is specifically known as the _________. a) undercurrent b) littoral drift c) beach drift d) longshore current e) longshore drift Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

17) Backwash, as it flows back down a beach, may also be referred to as a/an ________. a) undercurrent b) littoral drift c) beach drift d) longshore current e) longshore drift Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

18) Groins may be built on a beach to counteract the results of which of the following processes except? a) undercurrent b) littoral drift c) beach drift d) longshore current e) longshore drift

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

19) A deeply embayed coast formed by partial submergence of a landmass previously shaped by fluvial erosion would be classified as a _____________. a) ria coast b) barrier island coast c) fault coast d) fiord coast e) delta coast Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

20) A deeply embayed, rugged coast formed by the partial submergence of glacial troughs would be classified as a ___________. a) ria coast b) barrier island coast c) fault coast d) fiord coast e) delta coast Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

21) A coastline with a broad zone of shallow water offshore, or lagoon, shut off from the ocean by a deposit would be classified as a _______. a) ria coast b) barrier island coast c) fault coast

d) fiord coast e) delta coast Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

22) Which of the following is a characteristic of barrier island coasts? a) estuaries b) tidal inlets c) groins d) delta e) estuaries Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

23) A coral reef that is attached to a shoreline is referred to as a/an _____________. a) atoll b) fringing reef c) barrier reef d) barrier island e) raised shoreline Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

24) A coral reef that lies out from the shoreline is referred to as a/an __________ a) atoll b) fringing reef c) barrier reef d) barrier island

e) raised shoreline Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

25) A shallow depression produced as a result of deflation is referred to as a/an _________. a) sand sea b) barchan c) foredune d) blowout e) desert pavement Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

26) Dunes that form long ridges at right angles to the prevailing wind are referred to as _______. a) barchan dunes b) transverse dunes c) parabolic dunes d) star dunes e) longitudinal dunes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

27) Where a river runs into an ocean bay, the bay is termed a(n) _________________. a) estuary b) shoreline c) coast d) coastline e) recreational area

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

28) The most important agent shaping coastal landforms is ___________ action. a) storm b) stream c) salinization d) wave e) gravity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

29) When a beach is removed from a coastline during a storm __________________. a) it will eventually be restored by weak wave action b) it will be returned by the next storm c) the beach will not reform until new material is broken free from the sea cliff d) the beach will reform within a day or two e) it is lost forever Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

30) Tidal currents are made up of two opposing currents called ________________ currents. a) longshore and littoral b) tide and flood c) longshore and flood d) ebb and littoral e) ebb and flood

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

31) Behind the barrier islands of the Atlantic and Gulf coasts there exist __________, which are broad expanses of shallow water. a) salt marshes b) marine terraces c) lagoons d) tidal inlets e) bays Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

32) The removal of loose particles from the ground by wind is termed ___________. a) abrasion b) ablation c) deflation d) blowout e) inflation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

33) _____________ (is/are) wind-transported silt that form(s) soils that can support the growth of cereal grains. a) Dunes b) Loess c) Silt d) Talc e) Barrier islands

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

34) Sometimes rocks are grooved and polished by wind-driven abrasion. These examples are often referred to as ______________. a) pebbles b) gravels c) desert pavements d) ventifacts e) alluvium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Wind Action Learning Objective 1: 16.3: Describe how wind shapes landforms

35) A ____________ may result from the suspension of fine particles of sediment by wind over significant distances. a) ventifact b) desert pavement c) dust storm d) sand dune e) gravel bar Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Wind Action Learning Objective 1: 16.3: Describe how wind shapes landforms

36) Which one of the following dune shapes is correctly matched with the conditions that led to its formation? a) parabolic – moist wind and vegetation b) transverse – limited supply of sand c) barchan – availability of abundant sand d) star – consistent wind direction

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

37) Crescent-shaped dunes are described as ________. a) barchan dunes b) longitudinal dunes c) star dunes d) transverse dunes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

Question Type: True/False

38) Along stretches of shoreline affected by progradation, the beach may be seriously depleted or may have entirely disappeared. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

39) At a tidal coastline, when the tide begins to rise, an ebb current has set in. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

40) A ria coast is one of the types of coastline that results from the submergence or partial drowning of the coast.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

41) Coral reef coasts occur in water that is warm, near the surface, and free of suspended sediment. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

42) Barchan dunes usually are vegetated and occur singly rather than in groups. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

43) Loess is of major importance in world agricultural resources. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess 44) Transverse dunes form a sand sea of frozen “wave” forms arranged perpendicular to the wind direction. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

45) Deflation occurs when wind deposits mineral particles to create sand dunes and sand seas. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

46) Coastal plains are found along active tectonic plate boundaries. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

Question Type: Essay

47) The potential for future significant sea level rise is a current topic of discussion. Describe the effects of such a sea level rise upon the coastal landforms you have learned about. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

48) Compare and contrast the different types of coral reefs. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

49) Using an annotated diagram, describe the development sea arches, stacks, notches, caves, and abrasion platforms. Answer: Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

50) Using an example of a tide timetable (either obtained locally or from the Internet), explain the sequences of tides and their characteristics. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

51) Using an annotated sketch map, describe either a coastline close to your location or a wellknown coastline. Identify the features that are apparent and explain their formation. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

52) Compare and contrast the different types of coastline that result from submergence. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

53) Using an annotated diagram describe the features in a barchan dune. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

54) Compare and contrast the characteristics and formation of the different types of sand dunes. Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

55) Describe the formation of loess and account for where we find deposits of loess today. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

Question Type: Multiple Choice

56) A __________ dune, as shown in the figure below, forms from shifting wind directions and abundant sand.

a) barchan b) transverse c) longitudinal d) parabolic e) star Answer: e

Section Reference 1: Eolian Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.4: Describe types of sand dunes and loess

57) Which of the following particle sizes composes large dust storms, like the one pictured below, that extend hundreds of meters off the ground?

a) pebbles b) fine dust c) sand d) sand and pebbles e) gravel Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Wind Action Learning Objective 1: 16.3: Describe how wind shapes landforms

58) The process of waves slowing down as they approach headlands and the waves having to wrap around the headland is referred to as ________________

a) longshore current b) breakers c) barrier island d) wave refraction e) tidal ebb Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: The Work of Waves and Tides Learning Objective 1: 16.1: Describe the effects of waves and tides

59) A marine terrace, like those shown below, could be formed from ____________.

a) littoral drift b) deposition c) tectonic uplift d) a tsunami Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Coastal Landforms Learning Objective 1: 16.2: Describe the erosional and depositional landforms of coasts

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Introducing Physical Geography 6e Chapter Number: 17

Question Type: Multiple Choice

01) Which of the following types of moraine marks the farthest advance of a glacier? a) ground b) recessional c) medial d) terminal e) lateral Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

02) The granular compacted old snow that forms glacial ice is properly referred to as _________. a) ice b) firn c) surge d) basal ice e) crevasse Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1: 17.2: Discuss the processes of glacial action

03) When the valley trough of a tributary glacier lies above the main trough, a ________results. a) tarn b) cirque c) truncated spur d) hanging valley e) roche moutonnée

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

04) A narrow, steep-sided, elongated estuary formed from a glacial trough inundated by seawater is referred to as a/an ____________. a) fiord b) esker c) horn d) arête e) tarn Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

05) A (an) __________________plain is formed from water-laid sediment left by streams carrying water away from a glacier. a) pluvial b) ground moraine c) outwash d) lateral moraine d) recessional moraine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Types of Glaciers Learning Objective 1: 17.1: Identify the types of glaciers

06) A steep-sided depression formed in glacial till that is the result of the melting of a buried block of ice is referred to as a/an ___________. a) esker b) kettle c) pluvial lake d) nunatak

e) kame Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

07) A smooth hill, modest in size, elliptical in shape, and which rises from a till plain is called a/an __________. a) esker b) kettle c) drumlin d) kame e) roche moutonnée Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

08) Sharp, often jagged ridges that rise above ice-containing troughs and that separate adjacent glaciers or glacial valleys are called _____________. a) cirques b) kames c) arêtes d) horns e) eratics Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

09) The bowl-shaped depression at the upper end of a valley glacier is referred to as a/an _____. a) arête b) horn c) cirque

d) firn e) col Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Types of Glaciers Learning Objective 1: 17.1: Identify the types of glaciers

10) A peak formed by the intersection of a number of ridges produced by alpine glaciers is referred to as a/an _______________. a) arête b) horn c) cirque d) firn e) col Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Types of Glaciers Learning Objective 1: 17.1: Identify the types of glaciers

11) Pressure and friction at the base of glaciers creates a layer of liquid water that allows the glacier to slide downhill in a motion called __________. a) slow flowage b) ablation c) glacial abrasion d) plucking e) basal sliding Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1: 17.2: Discuss the processes of glacial action

12) Which of the following types of moraine would you expect to find along the sides of a glacier? a) terminal

b) lateral c) medial d) recessional e) knob-and-kettle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

13) What is the name given to lakes that form in hollows left behind by prior alpine glaciers? a) arête b) horn c) cirque d) tarn e) col Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

14) The most recent deglaciation set in around ___________ years ago. a) 200,000 b) 150,000 c) 15,000 d) 1,000 e) 500 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

15) What is the name commonly given to the most recent glaciation in North American? a) Laurentide b) Cenozoic

c) Pliocene d) Wisconsin e) Holocene Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

16) The last glaciation reached its farthest extent over North America around _________ years ago. a) 250,000 b) 180,000 c) 18,000 d) 1,000 e) 500 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

17) Which is the best term to describe all the varieties of rock debris that are deposited by glaciers? a) stratified drift b) glacial drift c) ground moraine d) lodgment till e) ablation till Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1: 17.2: Discuss the processes of glacial action

18) Which of the following types of till is an unstratified mixture of rock fragments ranging in size from clay to boulders?

a) till b) stratified drift c) ground moraine d) lodgment till e) ablation till Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1: 17.2: Discuss the processes of glacial action

19) Which of the following types of till consists of clay-rich debris previously dragged forward beneath the moving ice? a) lateral till b) stratified drift c) ground moraine d) lodgment till e) ablation till Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

20) Which of the following types of till best describes all varieties of rock debris deposited in close association with glaciers? a) lateral till b) glacial drift c) ground moraine d) lodgment till e) ablation till Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

21) A glacial delta composed of well-washed and well-sorted sand and gravel forms which of the

following landforms? a) till plain b) kettle c) drumlin d) kame e) esker Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

22) A long sinuous ridge of sediment deposited in an alpine glacier’s meltwater tunnel is referred to as a/an __________. a) till plain b) kettle c) drumlin d) kame e) esker Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

23) Basin-like hollows interspersed with knobby hills and situated in the terminal moraine are referred to as ___________. a) till plains b) kettles c) drumlins d) kames e) eskers Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

24) The warmer interglacial epoch in which we currently find ourselves is referred to as the ___. a) Laurentide b) Cenozoic c) Pliocene d) Wisconsin e) Holocene Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

25) The term ________ means the loss of snow and ice by evaporation and melting. a) deposition b) ablation c) deflation d) inflation e) stagnation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1: 17.2: Discuss the processes of glacial action

26) Of the following locations, which is not covered with an ice sheet? a) North Pole b) South Pole c) Greenland d) Antarctica e) none of these Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Types of Glaciers Learning Objective 1: 17.1: Identify the types of glaciers

27) A succession of alternating glaciations and interglaciations, spanning a period of 1 to 10 million years or more, constitutes a(n) ____________. a) glacial period b) freezing epoch c) ice age d) interstadial e) geologic epoch Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

28) The term used to describe all rock debris deposited in close association with glaciers is called glacial _______________. a) debris b) outwash c) drift d) till e) deposition Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1: 17.2: Discuss the processes of glacial action

29) Most scientists studying climate change during the Ice Age agree that the primary factor explaining the cycles of the glaciations is ___________________. a) polar outbreaks b) global warming c) carbon dioxide d) cyclic changes in insolation e) polarity changes Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

Question Type: True/False

30) Permafrost presently occurs in regions of Eurasia and North America even where glaciers are not currently found. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Periglacial Processes and Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.4: Describe periglacial processes and their landforms

31) The uppermost layer of a glacier is brittle, but the lower layers of ice behave as a plastic substance. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Types of Glaciers Learning Objective 1: 17.1: Identify the types of glaciers

32) No glaciers are located near the Equator. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Types of Glaciers Learning Objective 1: 17.1: Identify the types of glaciers

33) Most deposition by glaciers occurs near the source of the ice. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1: 17.2: Discuss the processes of glacial action

34) The surface of a glacier is more plastic than ice deeper in the glacier. Answer: False

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1: 17.2: Discuss the processes of glacial action

35) Lobes of ice flowing from the Laurentide ice sheet spread around an area in Wisconsin known as the Driftless Area. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

36) Ice sheets during the last glacial maximum in North America, extended as far south as Florida and Texas. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

37) Stratified drift consists of layers of sorted and stratified clays and angular pebbles and large boulders. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Processes Learning Objective 1:

38) Streams of meltwater from the terminus of a glacier build glacial deltas that eventually become flat-topped landforms known as kames. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

39) The astronomical hypothesis proposed by Milankovitch suggests that cycles in axial rotation and solar revolution have a period of around 20,000 years. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

40) A cirque is a bowl-shaped depression in which snow may accumulate. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

41) When the floor of a trough open to the sea lies below sea level, the seawater enters as the ice front recedes, forming a fiord. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

42) There has been only one significant glacial episode in the last 200,000 years. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

43) Hanging valleys are formed by ice sheets when they erode high mountain peaks. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

Question Type: Essay

44) Using an annotated diagram, describe the general features of a valley glacier. Identify and define the processes that dominate each zone. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Types of Glaciers Learning Objective 1: 17.1: Identify the types of glaciers

45) Compare the rate of movement in a surging glacier with other physical geography processes. Identify some of the possible causes of surging and the impacts of surging upon the environment. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Types of Glaciers Learning Objective 1: 17.1: Identify the types of glaciers

46) Using an annotated diagram, describe the erosional landforms produced by alpine glaciers. Where relevant identify examples of such features in your local region, or provide well-known examples from around the world. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

47) Compare and contrast the different forms of glacial drift, till, and moraines. Draw diagrams to indicate particle size and sorting. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

48) Using an annotated diagram, describe the depositional landforms produced by continental

glaciers. Where relevant identify examples of such features in your local region, or provide wellknown examples from around the world. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

49) Compare and contrast the characteristics and formation of drumlins and kettle. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

50) Compare and contrast the movement and characteristics of alpine glaciers and continental ice sheets. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

51) Describe the formation of a glacial trough and the formation of associated hanging valleys. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

52) Describe the spread of ice sheets across North America during the Wisconsin glaciation. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

53) Describe and explain the possible causes of the Late-Cenozoic Ice Age. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Global Climate and Glaciation Learning Objective 1: 17.5: Describe the causes and environment of an ice age

Question Type: Multiple Choice

54) The landform at A is a(n) ___________

a) arête b) horn c) cirque d) trough Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

55) The landform at C is a(n) _________.

a) horn b) kame c) inselberg d) drumlin Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

56) The landform at G is a(n) ______.

a) lateral moraine b) esker c) medial moraine d) drumlin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

57) On the illustration, the landforms at A are __________.

a) arêtes b) kettles c) horns d) drumlins Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

58) On the illustration, the landforms at B are ___________.

a) arêtes b) eskers c) medial moraine d) drumlins Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

59) On the illustration, the landform at D is a(n) __________.

a) recessional moraine b) interlobate moraine c) terminal moraine d) esker Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms

Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

60) On the illustration, the landform at E is a(n) ___________.

a) arête b) recessional moraine c) terminal moraine d) esker Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

61) On the illustration, the landform at I is a(n) ____________.

a) terminal moraine b) recessional moraine c) ground moraine d) lateral moraine Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

62) On the illustration, the landform at K is a(n) ___________.

a) outwash plain b) till plain c) floodplain d) pediment Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

63) On the illustration, the landform at L is a(n) ___________________.

a) pediment

b) till plain c) outwash plain d) floodplain Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets

64) On the illustration, land that was NOT beneath the ice is found at ____________.

a) A b) L c) K d) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference 1: Glacial Landforms Learning Objective 1: 17.3: Describe the landforms made by alpine glaciers and ice sheets